Histology questions !

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First intermediate
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1 intercalated discs
A. Contain gap junctions
B. Could ne found in nervous tissue
C. Are also called T tubules
D. Is the storage site for calcium ions
E. None of the above answers is correct
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2 unilocular fat cells
A. Store the fat in several small droplets
B. Contain thermogenin located in mitochondria
C. Form brown adipose tissue
D. Are responsible for the production of leptin
E. In newborn are located mostly in the neck region
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3 the inherited disorder that results in impaired adhesion of platelets, prolonged coagulation time
and excessive bleeding at injury site is called
A. Ehler-Danlos syndrome
B. Aneurysm
C. Athrosclerosis
D. Marfan syndrome
E. von Willebrand disease
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4 during translation
A. mRNA molecules bind to the large ribosomal subunit
B. The process is terminated by codon AUG
C. rRNA molecules forms covalent bonds with amino acid forming aminoacyle tRNA
D. The process begins when E site of the small ribosomal subunit is occupied by an initiator
tRNA
E. Large ribosomal subunit has an activity of peptidyltransferase
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5 Lamina Lucida
A. Is the part of lamina reticularis
B. Is synthesized by fibroblasts
C. Contains laminin
D. Is composed of lamin A, B and C
E. Comprises a meshwork of type IV collagen
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6 simple cuboidal epithelium can be found in
A. Urinary bladder
B. Intestine
C. Trachea
D. Cornea
E. Glands
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7 the protein responsible for the exchange of bicarbonate ions and chloride ions (chloride shift) in
erythrocytes is
A. Glycophorin A
B. Band 4, 1 protein
C. Spectrin
D. Adducing
E. Band 3 protein
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8 which component is not involved in the transport of cargo between organelles (in cargo-bearing
vesicles)?
A. Coatomer I
B. Clathrin
C. Coatomer II
D. Retromer
E. Cardiolipin
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9 Antiparasitic immunity is mainly mediated by
A. Basophils
B. Mast cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Eosinophils
E. B-cells
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10 Nucleoplasmic transport
A. Does not require energy from GTP hydrolysis
B. Occurs only in one direction – from the nucleus to cytoplasm
C. Occurs only in one direction – from the cytoplasm to the nucleus
D. Is regulated by Ran proteins
E. Requires mannos-6-phosphate receptors
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11 T tubules
A. Are present in all kinds of muscle cells
B. Are unbranched invaginations of sarcolemma
C. Lie specifically at the junction of the Z and I bands in skeletal muscle cell
D. Possess ryanodine receptors
E. Possess voltage-sensitive dihydropyridine receptors
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12 Dystrophin
A. Belongs to sarcoglycan complex
B. Binds to plectin
C. Protects sarcolemma from injury during muscle contraction
D. Is present only in smooth muscle cells
E. Protects minus ends of actin filaments
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13 to the elastic arteries belongs:
A. Brachial artery
B. Ulnar artery
C. Renal artery
D. Subclavian artery
E. All of the above answers are correct
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14 the interterritorial matrix of hyaline cartilage does not contain
A. Collagen type II
B. Collagen type IV
C. Collagen type IX
D. Collagen type X
E. Collagen type XI

15 the ability of the lens to show that two distinct objects are separated by a distance is named as
A. Magnification
B. Condenser
C. Resolution
D. Aperture
E. Wavelength
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16 the treatment of the tissue with chemical agents that retard its alteration oof the tissue
subsequent to death and maintain its normal architecture is called
A. Fixation
B. Dehydration
C. Clearing
D. Embedding
E. Mounting
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17 Nissl bodies are
A. Mitochondria
B. Clumps of ribosomes
C. Golgi complexes
D. Melanin granules
E. Lipofuscin
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18 Histamine
A. Is referred to as a secondary mediator
B. Increase vascular permeability
C. Is anticoagulant
D. Attracts lymphocyte to the site of inflammation
E. Inhibit mucus production
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19 synovial fluid contains a high concentration of
A. Hyaluronic acid
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Chloracetic acid
E. Glyceric acid
20 pericytes are
A. Pericapillary cells
B. Peritoneal cells
C. Perinuclear cells
D. Myoepithelial cells
E. Mature lymphocytes
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21 the skull bones in adults are joined by
A. Syndesmosis
B. Synchondrosis
C. Synostosis
D. Diarthrosis
E. Joint capsules
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22 oligodendrocytes
A. Assist in maintaining blood-brain barrier
B. Form cellular scar tissue after nerve injury
C. Produce myelin in CNS
D. Form myelin sheath in PNS
E. Are members of mononuclear phagocyte system
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23 proliferation of chondrocytes of epiphyseal plate is controlled by
A. Indian hedgehog
B. Interleukin 1
C. Interleukin 6
D. Macrophage-colony stimulating factor
E. Osteoprotegerin
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24 to the basophilic structures of cells or extracellular matrix belong
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosomes
C. Collagen fibers
D. Basic regions of cytoplasm
E. Answers A and B are correct
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25 muscular arteries are characterized by
A. Presence of stratified squamous epithelium
B. Presence of multinuclear muscle cells
C. Lack of internal elastic lamina
D. Thick tunica media
E. Thick tunica intima
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26 Lamins
A. Are intermediate filaments located in the cytoplasm of the cell
B. Are involved in organization of chromatin
C. Are located between inner and outer nuclear membranes
D. Are in close contact with the outer nuclear membrane
E. Are continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum
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27 ground substance is composed of
A. Collagen fibers
B. Elastic fibers
C. Reticular fibers
D. Proteoglycans
E. All of the above answers are correct
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28 Purkinje fibers of the heart are
A. Neurons
B. Modified cardiac muscle cells
C. Myofibroblasts
D. Smooth muscle cells
E. None of the above answers is correct
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29 peroxisomes
A. Contain different types if acid hydrolases
B. For the optimal function require an acid environment
C. Are not surrounded by the plasma membrane
D. Are responsible for the proteolysis of ubiquitin-tagged proteins
E. Function in catabolism of long chained fatty acids (beta oxidation)
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30 choose non membrane-bound organelle
A. Proteasome
B. Peroxisome
C. Lysosome
D. Mitochondria
E. All organelles are membrane-bound
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31 Stereocilia
A. Are present on most mammalian cells
B. Possess axoneme without central singlets and dynein arms
C. Are non motile structures
D. Are attached to the basal bodies
E. Contain striated rootlet
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32 the clefts of Schmidt-Lanterman
A. Are present in myelinated fibers of central nervous system
B. Contain the cytoplasm of glial cells
C. Are formed by processes of oligodendrocytes
D. Are present in nodes of Ranvier
E. Are characteristic for unmyelinated fibers of peripheral nervous system
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33 mark the true statement about smooth muscle
A. Smooth muscle cells are multinucleated
B. Mitosis can occur in the smooth muscle cells
C. Smooth muscle cell contains T-tubules
D. Smooth muscle is innervated by somatic motor neurons
E. Smooth muscle cell contains sarcomeres
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34 fixed cell of connective tissue are
A. Plasma cells
B. Lymphocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. Macrophages
E. Adipocytes

35 occluding junctions
A. Prevent material from taking intercellular route in passing across epithelial sheath
B. Maintain cell-to-cell adherence
C. Maintain cell-to-basal lamina adherence
D. Permit passage of ions from cell to cell
E. All of the above answers are correct
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36 small, round, dense, eccentric nucleus is characteristic for
A. Reticulocyte
B. Polychromatophilic erythroblast
C. Proerythroblast
D. Basophilic erythroblast
E. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast
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37 nucleolar rRNA is synthesized by
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. Polymerase DNA
C. Polymerase RNA II
D. Polymerase RNA I
E. Polymerase RNA II and III
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38 the absence of the Auerbach plexus in the wall of the gut is characteristic for
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Guillain-Barre syndrome
D. Multiple sclerosis
E. Hirschsprung disease
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39 the most acidic components of the cells are
A. Early endosomes
B. Late endosomes
C. Lysosomes
D. Proteasomes
E. Peroxisomes
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40 Meyloid phase of hemopoiesis
A. Occurs in yolk sac
B. Begins by the end of second trimester of pregnancy
C. Starts from the formation of blood islands
D. Occurs in the liver
E. Begins 2 weeks after conception
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41 lymphatic vessels are present throughout the body except
A. Heart
B. CNS
C. Connective tissue proper
D. Intestines
E. Are present in all above mentioned tissues and organs
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42 the symptoms characteristic for Marfan syndrome is
A. Defect in the formation of long bone
B. Abnormal cross-link of tropocollagen molecules
C. Incorrect development of elastic fibers
D. Formation of keloid
E. Blistering of the skin
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43 the H-zone of a sarcomere contains
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. Troponin and Tropomyosin
D. Actin and troponin
E. Tropomyosin
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44 Phospholamban
A. Is structural protein of sarcomere
B. Controls the relaxation of cardiac muscle cells
C. Is responsible for the opening of fast sodium channels in skeletal muscle cells
D. Is transmembrane protein in the inner mitochondrial membrane
E. Regulates the contraction of smooth muscle cells
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45 stratified squamous parakeratenized epithelium is lining
a. Gingiva
b. Epidermis
c. Esophagus
d. True vocal folds
e. Vagina
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46 Meiosis I (reductional division)
A. Occurs without DNA synthesis
B. Separates sister chromatids, which migrate to opposite poles of the cell
C. Allows for the recombination process
D. Results in the formation of 4 haploid cells and haploid DNA content (1n, 1c)
E. Results in the formation of 2 haploid cells and haploid DNA content (1n, 1c)
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47 formation of the action potential is caused by
A. Activation of potassium leak channels
B. Activation of sodium leak channels
C. Influx of sodium ions into the cell
D. Action of Na/K pumps
E. Influx of calcium ions into the cell
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 48 heterochromatin
A. Is active form of the DNA
B. Contains the currently transcribed genes
C. Is uncondensed form of chromatin
D. Is located mostly at the periphery of the nucleus
E. Is especially abundant in nuclei of motor neurons
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49 which of the following cells are functionally related to mast cells in that they release histamine
and ….. substances
A. Basophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Erythrocytes
D. Monocytes
E. Neutrophils
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50 Canaliculi of bone house
A. Blood vessels
B. Lymphatic vessels
C. Osteocytes
D. Osteocytic processes
E. Osteoclasts

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ANSWERS
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1- E ! ! ! ! ! ! 2-D ! ! ! ! ! 3-E!
4- E ! ! ! ! ! ! 5- C! ! ! ! ! 6- E !
7-E! ! ! ! ! ! 8- D ! ! ! ! ! 9-D !
10-D ! ! ! ! ! ! 11- D! ! ! ! ! 12-A !
13-D ! ! ! ! ! ! 14- B !! ! ! ! 15-C !
16- A ! ! ! ! ! ! 17-C ! ! ! ! ! 18- B !
19- A ! ! ! ! ! ! 20-A! ! ! ! ! 21-C !
22-C ! ! ! ! ! ! 23- A! ! ! ! ! 24-E!
25- D! ! ! ! ! ! 26- C !! ! ! 27-D !
28- B !! ! ! ! ! 29- E !! ! ! ! 30-A !
31- C !! ! ! ! ! 32- B !! ! ! 33- B !
34- E !! ! ! ! ! 35.A ! ! ! ! ! 36- E !
37-D ! ! ! ! ! ! 38-E ! ! ! ! ! 39- C !
40- B !! ! ! ! ! 41- B !! ! ! ! 42- A !
43- E! ! ! ! ! ! 44- A ! ! ! ! ! 45- A!
46- E !! ! ! ! 47-C ! ! ! ! ! 48- D !! ! !
49- A! ! ! ! ! 50- D!
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First retake
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9 Azurophilic granules of leukocytes
A. Are lysosomes
B. Are present only in granulocytes
C. Are present only in agranulocytes
D. Are absent in lymphocytes
E. Are specific granules
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10 ACE
A. Is located in sarcolemma of smooth muscle cells
B. Cleaves angiotensinogen
C. Is knows as vasopressin
D. Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II
E. Decreases blood pressure
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11 the hormone, which is produces by hepatocytes of the liver in response to growth
A. Calcitonin
B. Insulin-like growth factor 1
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. Tumor necrosis factor
E. Interleukin 1
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12 the parasympathetic nervous system
A. Causes the increase of blood pressure
B. Increase the heart rate
C. Increases the blood flow to skeletal muscles
D. Constrict the pupil
E. Slows down visceral function
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13 which substance responsible for electrolyte balance, is released by specialized cardiac muscle
cells
A. Nitric oxide
B. Atrial natriuretic polypeptide
C. Aldosterone
D. Anti-diuretic hormone
E. Angiotensin II
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14 to dehydration of tissue during preparation for light microscopy is used
A. Formalin
B. Bouin’s fluid
C. Xylene
D. Alcohol
E. Paraffin
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 15 astral rays of the mitotic spindle
A. Bind to kinetochore
B. Direct chromosomes to the poles of the cell
C. Orient the MTOC at the pole of the cell
D. Are present only in cancer cells
E. Take part in the cytokinesis
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16 the laser beam for the light source is used in
A. Scanning electron microscope
B. Transmission electron microscope
C. Scanning and transmission electron microscope
D. Light compound microscope
E. Confocal microscope
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17 the motor protein responsible for the transport of organelles from minus to plus end of
microtubule is
A. Kinesin
B. Dynein
C. Fimbrin
D. Profiling
E. Gelsolin
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27 collagen type II fibers are present in
A. Hyaline cartilage
B. Elastic cartilage
C. Fibrocartilage
D. Answers A and B
E. Answers A, B and C
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28 Howship’s lacunae are sites where
A. Bone resorption occurs
B. Intestinal stem cells reside
C. Chondrocytes are located
D. Progenitors of blood cells reside
E. Osteocytes reside
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29 the function of glycocalyx is
A. Protection of the cell from interaction with inappropriate proteins
B. Protection from chemical injury
C. Protection from physical injury
D. Cell-cell recognition
E. All of the above answers are correct
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30 protein responsible for the inhibition of myosin heads ATP-ase activity is termed
A. Myosin light chain kinases
B. Calponin
C. Phospholamban
D. Alpha-actinin
E. Vimentin
31 the fixed cell of connective tissue is
A. Pericyte
B. Leukocyte
C. Monocyte
D. Plasma cell
E. Basophil
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32 fibrilin is found in
A. Collagen fibers
B. Reticular fibers
C. Elastic fibers
D. Anchoring fibers
E. Sharpey’s fibers
33 the analogs of Z disks in cardiac muscle cells are
A. Dense bodies
B. Calmodulin-calcium complexes
C. Transverse portions of intercalated disks
D. Lateral portions of intercalated disks
E. Dyads
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34 H-band of sarcomere contains
A. Only thin filaments
B. Only thick filaments
C. Both thin and thick filament
D. Alpha-actinin
E. Lateral connections between thin filaments
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35 maturing ribosomal subunits are assembled in
A. Pale-staining fibrillary center
B. Par fibrosa
C. Pars granulosa
D. Nucleolar matrix
E. Perichromatin granules
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36 the enzyme that converts the fibrinogen to fibrin is called
A. Endothelin
B. Thromboplastin
C. von Willebrand factor
D. Glycoprotein 1b
E. Thrombin
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37 which type of cartilage is found in the trachea and nose
A. Elastic cartilage
B. Fibrocartilage
C. Hyaline cartilage
D. Osteocartilage
E. Pericartilage
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38 acetylcholine receptors are blocked by autoantibodies in autoimmune disease called
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Camurati-Engelmann disease
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Multiple sclerosis
E. Guillain-Barre syndrome
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39 the refractory period
A. Can occur only in spike trigger zone
B. Allows returning of depolarization wave
C. Is caused by the action of potassium leak channels
D. Arises because of action of voltage-gated potassium channels
E. Is due to the inactivation of voltage-gated sodium channels
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40 electrical synapses
A. Transmit signal slower than chemical synapses
B. Is the most common mode of communication between nervous cells
C. Are present in neuromuscular junctions
D. Are associated with the production and secretion of acetylecholine
E. Are present in the brain stem, retina and cerebral cortex
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41 Golgi apparatus is responsible for
A. Sorting of proteins
B. Proteolysis of malformed proteins
C. Endocytosis
D. Synthesis of ribosomes
E. Production of ATP
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42 Lamina densa
A. Is composed of type III collagen
B. Contains integrins and dystroglycans
C. Contains type IV collagen
D. Is produced by fibroblasts
E. Is composed of collagen type I fibers
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43 Dense irregular connective tissue is present in
A. Aponeurosis
B. Capsule of the spleen
C. Tendon
D. Ligament
E. Ligamenta flava of the vertebral column
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44 outer nuclear membrane is surrounded by
A. Lamins
B. Laminins
C. Vimentin
D. Nucleoporin
E. Importins
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ANSWERS
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9- A 10- D 11- B
12- E 13- B 14- C
15- C 16- E 17- B
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27- A D 28- A 29- E
30- B 31- A 32- C
33- C 34- B 35- C
36- E 37- C 38- A
39- E 40- E 41- A
42- C 43- B 44- C
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Last retake
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1 sarcoglycan complex
A. Is component of sarcomeres
B. Is responsible for the formations of lateral linkages among adjacent Z disc
C. Is present mainly in sarcosomes
D. Belongs to dystrophin-associates glycoprotein complex
E. Contains dystrophin
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2 which cell does not belong to leukocytes?
A. Monocyte
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Basophils
E. Pericyte
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3 the process of endomitosis is characteristic for
A. Platelets formation
B. Granulocytopoesis
C. Erythropoiesis
D. Monopoeisis
E. Lymphopoeisis
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4 cells of white (unilocular) adipose tissue
A. Do not contain insulin receptors
B. Are associated with production of body heat
C. Are particularly numerous in cachexia
D. Produce a lot of extracellular matrix
E. Are present in the subcutaneous layer throughout the body
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5 the nucleolus
A. Is surrounded by plasma membrane
B. Is responsible for alternative splicing
C. Is observed only during interphase
D. Is responsible for the production of RNA necessary for assembling …(mitochondrial
something)
E. Contain interchromatin granules
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6 chemical agent used for clearing during preparation of tissue for light microscope
A. Boiun’s fluid
B. Formalin
C. Paraffin
D. Canada balsam
E. Xylene
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 7 which complex allows the cell to leave G2 phase and enter M phase?
A. Cyclin B and CDK1
B. Cyclin D and CDK4
C. Cyclin D and CDK6
D. Cyclin A and CDK2
E. Cyclin A and CDK1
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8 Troponin C (TnC) functions in
A. Calcium ions binding
B. Sodium ions binding
C. Tropomyosin binding
D. Actin binding
E. Myosin binding
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9 core of stereocilium is composed of
A. Lamin
B. Actin
C. Tubulin
D. Tau protein
E. Intermediate filaments
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10 which substance is not involved in transport of cargo between organelles (in cargo-bearing
vesicle)
A. Coatomer I
B. Clathrin
C. Coatomer II
D. Retromer
E. Cardiolipin
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11 the treatment of the tissue with chemical agent that prevent the alteration of the tissue and
maintain its normal architecture is called
A. Fixation
B. Dehydration
C. Clearing
D. Embedding
E. Mounting
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12 Most of the ling bones develop on the template formed by
A. Skeletal muscle tissue
B. Smooth muscle tissue
C. Elastic cartilage
D. Hyaline cartilage
E. Fibrocartilage
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 13 Stereocilia
A. Are present on most mammalian cells
B. Are nonmotile structures
C. Possess axoneme without central singlets and dynein arms
D. Are attached to basal bodies
E. Contain striated rootlets
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14 Meyloid phase of hemopoiesis
A. Occurs in yolk sac
B. Begins by the end of second trimester of pregnancy
C. Starts from the formation of blood islands
D. Occurs in the liver
E. Begins 2 weeks after conception
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15 desmosomes are composed of
A. Desmoplakins, vinculin and cadherins
B. Pakoglobins, desmoglein and actin filaments
C. Desmoglein, vinculin and intermediate filaments
D. Desmoplakins, desmoglein and intermediate filaments
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16 which protein is not connected with vesicle formation
A. Clathrin
B. Kinesin
C. Cotamer I
D. Cotamer II
E. Caveolin
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17 Fenestrated membranes are characteristic for
A. Muscular arteries
B. Capillaries
C. Vasa vanorum
D. Elastic arteries
E. Large veins
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18 Epineurium
A. Is composed of dense connective tissue
B. Contains epitheloid cells surrounded by a basal lamina
C. Is in contact with basal lamina of Schwann cells
D. Contains thick elastic fibers
E. Covers each bundle of nerve fibers
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19 Eosinophils
A. Constitute 0-1% of the total WBCs
B. Have receptors for IgA immunoglobulin
C. Are involved in immune reactions
D. Release histamine and heparin after stimulation
E. Have S-shaped nuclei
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20 the Barr body is
A. The inactive X chromosome
B. The chromosome Y
C. Non-snRNP splicing factor
D. Pre-RNA
E. One of the exportins
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21 collagen type II occurs mainly in
A. Connective tissue proper
B. Hyaline and elastic cartilage
C. Reticular fibers
D. Lamina densa
E. Placenta
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22 T tubules
A. Are present in all kinds of muscle cells
B. Are unbranched invaginations of sarcolemma
C. Lie specifically at the junction of the Z and I bands in skeletal muscle cell
D. Possess ryanodine receptors
E. Possess voltage-sensitive dihydropyridine receptors
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23 cells which lost their capability to division among erythrocytes?
A. Progenitor cells
B. Proerythroblasts
C. Basophilic erythroblasts
D. Polychromatophilic erythroblasts
E. Orthochromatophilic erythroblasts
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24 what is correct about the cell nucleus?
A. Chromosomes undergo condensation in interphase
B. Contain sex chromatin in males
C. Contains histones
D. Contains nucleolus surrounded by unit membrane
E. Contains polyribosomes
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25 microglial cells
A. Is monocyte phagocytosis
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26 cytoplasm of neurons cell body is strongly basophilic because it contains
A. Nissl bodies
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27 docking of synaptic vesicle to presynaptic membrane is under control of
A. Synaptophysin
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 28 stratified squamous parakeratenized epithelium is lining
A. Gingiva
B. Dermis
C. Esophagus
D. True vocal folds
E. Vagina
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29 immobile cilia are defective in Kartagener syndrome
A.
B.
C. Dynein
D.
E.
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30 ground substance of extracellular matrix contains
A. Glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins
B. Glycosaminoglycans, collagen fibers and adhesive glycoproteins
C. Elastic fibers, proteoglycans and adhesive glycoproteins
D. Glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans and intermediate filaments
E. Proteoglycans and reticular fibers
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32 which feature is common for all three types of muscle cells
A. Calmodulin as calcium binding protein required for muscle contraction
B. The presence of intercalated discs
C. Actin and myosin form thick and thin filaments
D. The presence of Tropomyosin and troponins
E. One single nucleus in a given cell
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33 Lamina Lucida
Answers are missing
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34 “ missing “
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35 the blind-ended thin-walled lacteal vessels
A. Are composed of attenuated endothelial cells and incomplete basal lamina
B. Are named postcapillary venules
C. !
D. Belong to the systemic circuit of the body
E. Belong to the cardiovascular system
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36 aggregation of cell bodies of pseudounipolar neurons located outside of CNS are called
A. Peripheral nerves
B. Dorsal root ganglia
C. Bundles of nervous fibers
D. Nuclei
E. Nissl bodies
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37 in nuclear pore complex Ran-binding proteins are connected with
A. Cytoplasmic ring
B. Luminal spoke ring
C. Nucleoplasmic ring
D. Nuclear basket
E. Distal ring
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38 unilocular fat cells
A. Save the fat in several small droplets
B. Contain thermogenin located in mitochondria
C. Form brown adipose tissue
D. Are responsible for the production of leptin
E. In newborn are located mostly in the neck region
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39 thick filaments are anchored to Z disks of each sarcomere by
A. Nebulin
B. Alpha-actinin
C. Tropomoulin
D. Cap Z
E. Titin
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40 which dye is metachromatic
A. Orecin
B. Hematoxilin
C. Eosin
D. Toluidine blue
E. Fuschin
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41 ruffled borders are present on
A. Osteocytes
B. Osteoblasts
C. Osteoclasts
D. Mast cells
E. Neutrophils
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42 reticular tissue forms the architectural framework of
A. Elastic cartilage
B. Brain
C. Adipose tissue
D. Hyaline cartilage
E. Bone
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43 atrial natriuretic peptide is produced by
A. Purkinje cells
B. Muscle cells of the atria
C. Muscle cells of the ventricles
D. Endocardium
E. Pericardium
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44 the interterritorial matrix of hyaline cartilage does not contain
F. Collagen type II
G. Collagen type IV
H. Collagen type IX
I. Collagen type X
J. Collagen type XI
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45 nucleoplasmic transport
A. Requires energy from ATP hydrolysis
B. Is regulated by Ran proteins
C. Occurs only in one direction – from cytoplasm to nucleus
D. Occurs only in one direction – from nucleus to cytoplasm
E. Requires mannose-6-phosphate receptors
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46 how long is an average life span f human erythrocytes?
A. 50 days
B. Two weeks
C. Two months
D. 120 days
E. 150 days
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47 ground substance is composed of
A. Collagen fibers
B. Elastic fibers
C. Reticular fibers
D. Proteoglycans
E. All of the above answers are correct
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48 which factor is not involved in bone formation process?
A. TGFb
B. OPG
C. BMP-6
D. Osteonectin
E. Opsonin
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49 formation of the action potential is caused by
A. Activation of potassium leak channels
B. Activation of sodium leak channels
C. Influx of calcium ions into the cell
D. Action of Na/K pumps
E. Influx of sodium ions into the cell
!
50 proteasomes
A. Are protein complexes with peptidylsynthase activity?
B. Are surrounded by cell membrane
C. Are proteases complexes
D. Have motor activities
E. Need clathrin for proper function
Answers
!
1. D 48. E
2. E 49. E
3. A 50. C
4. E
5. C
6. E
7. A
8. A
9. B
10. E
11. A
12. D
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. C
20. A
21. B
22. E
23. E
24. C
25.!
26. A
27.!
28. A
29. C
30. A
31. D
32. C
33.!
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. D
39. E
40. D
41. C
42. C
43. B
44. B
45. B
46. D
47. D
 Embryology
!
1. Oropharyngeal membrane
A. Separates the stomodeum from the pharynx
B. Is composed of tightly adherent ectoderm and endoderm
C. Is composed of ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm
D. Only answers A and B are correct
E. Only answers B and C are correct

2. Indicate drug/drugs with teratogenic potential

A. Isotretinoin (Accutane)
B. Thalidomide
C. Valproic acid
D. Only answers A and B are true
E. Answers A, B and C are correct
!
3. Enlargement of the suprarenal glands and hypertrophy of the suprarenal cortex occur in
A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing’s disease
C. Graves’ disease
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Hypoparathyroidism

4. Meiosis-preventing substance is produced in ovary by

A. Follicular cells
B. Oocytes
C. Interstitial cells
D. Oogonia
E. Answers A and B are true

5. Which of the following statements is correct about the zona pellucida?

A. Surrounds the oocyte in the ovary
B. Protects oocyte in the uterine tube
C. Is specialized extracellular matrix
D. Is important for fertilization
E. All of the above answers are correct
!
6. Oxytocin is produced by
A. Pituicytes
B. Basophilic cells of pars distalis
C. Pars intermedia cells
D. Pars tuberalis cells
E. Neurons of hypothalamus
!
7. Allantoenteric diverticulum
A. Appears around the 16 day of development
B. Develops from the yolk sac
 C. May be involved in abnormalities of bladder development
D. Only answers A and B are true
E. Answers A, B and C are correct

!
!
!
!
8. During the development of the placenta
A. Cytotrophoblast cells divide and their progeny fuse to form syncytiotrophoblast cells
B. Chorionic plate cells invade the uterine wall
C. Fetal blood vessels attach directly to maternal vessels such that there is mixing of fetal and
maternal blood
D. The placenta partially develops from the epiblast
E. Most of the placenta is derived from embryonic intermediate mesoderm
!
9. Graves’ disease is characterized by
A. Hyperplasia of the follicular cells
B. Increase in the output of ACTH
C. Tumors of the acidophils of the adenohypophysis
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Answers A and C are correct

10. Zona reaction results directly from

A. Release of enzymes from cortical granules
B. Release of enzymes from acrosome
C. Release of the second polar body
D. Release of male pronucleus
E. None of them
!
11. Spermiogenesis is a process in which occurs
A. Differentiation of spermatogonia into primary spermatocytes
B. Formation of haploid spermatids
C. Formation of flagella and associated skeletal apparatus
D. Answers A and B are correct
E. Answers B and C are correct
!
12. The length of pregnancy is considered to be
A. 42 weeks after the onset of last normal menstrual period
B. 40 weeks after the onset of last normal menstrual period
C. 38 weeks after the onset of last normal menstrual period
D. 36 weeks after the onset of last normal menstrual period
E. 34 weeks after the onset of last normal menstrual period

13. Oocyte surrounded by granulosa cells are found in the

A. Corpus albicans
B. Corpus luteum
C. Cumulus oophorus
D. Tunica albuginea
 E. Zona pellucida
!
14. The outermost layer of the oviduct is
A. Adventitia with reticular fibers
B. Serosa lined by simple squamous epithelium
C. Serosa lined by simple columnar epithelium
D. Muscularis with many blood vessels
E. Richly vascularized connective tissue

15. Pregnancy test generally are based upon the detection in maternal urine of
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Somatommamotropin
D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
E. Human Chorionic Corticotropin
!
16. Which of the following is not true in regard to Sertoli cells?
A. Their function is regulated by FSH
B. They are found in testicular interstitial tissue
C. They prevent cytotoxic agents from moving to the seminiferous tubules from the blood
forming tight junctions with the adjacent Sertoli cells
D. They form mechanical support for spermatogenic cells
E. They provide nutrition for spermatogenic cells
!
17. Degeneration of the corpus luteum of pregnancy is prevented by
A. Progesterone
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. Inhibin
E. FSH
!
18. Condition known as hydatidiform mole is characterized by
A. Well-developed trophoblast derivatives
B. Lack of the trophoblast tissue
C. Secretion of high levels of HCG
D. Only answers A and C are correct
E. Only answers B and C are correct

19. Which one is not present in 12-day old embryo?

A. Epiblast
B. Hypoblast
C. Amnion
D. Sclerotome
E. Primitive yolk sac
!
20. The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces
A. Aldosterone
B. Epinephrine
C. Androgens
 D. Calcitonin
E. Catecholamines
!
21. Which one is a component of the uterus?
A. Compact layer
B. Reticular layer
C. Papillary layer
D. Granular layer
E. Plexiform layer
!
22. The umbilical cord is surrounded by
A. Primary yolk sac
B. Secondary yolk sac
C. Amnion
D. Chorionic plate
E. Chorion
!
!
!
!
!
!
23. Implantation of the human embryos typically occurs
A. About 1 day after fertilization
B. About one week after fertilization
C. About two weeks after fertilization
D. After gastrulation
E. At the same time as neural tube closure
!
24. Low levels of iodide in diet may result in
A. Osteoporosis
B. Rickets
C. Lowered production of glucocorticoids
D. Insufficient levels of thyroid hormones
E. Parathyroid gland inflammation
!
25. The fetal period occurs from
A. The first to the second week of development
B. The first to the third week of development
C. The third to the fifth week of development
D. The third to the eighth week of development
E. The ninth week to birth

26. Parathyroid hormone

A. Decreases calcium levels in the blood
B. Increases calcium excretion in the kidneys
C. Inhibits osteoclasts activity
D. Is released by the thyroid gland
E. Stimulates (indirectly) osteoclasts activity
 27. The most likely cause for sacrococcygeal teratomes is
A. Abnormal migration and proliferation of lumbosacral neural crest cells
B. Abnormal persistence of the primitive streak tissue after completion of gastrulation
C. Premature regression of the primitive streak during gastrulation
D. Abnormal closure of the posterior (caudal) neuropore
E. Abnormal left-right patterning due to ciliary dysfunction
!
28. Parafollicular cells (C cells)
A. Are found in the parathyroid glands
B. Are found in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland
C. Constitute the pars tuberalis
D. Secret a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels
E. Secrete hormones responsible for establishing the basal metabolic rate
!
29. The source of energy for spermatozoa is
A. Glucose in prostate gland’s secretion
B. ATP released by columnar epithelium of oviduct
C. Fructose in seminal vesicle’s secretion
D. Galactose in bulbourethral gland’s secretion
E. None of the above

30. Typical morphological features of Leydig cells are

A. Numerous lipid droplets
B. Abundant smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C. Mitochondria with tubular cristae
D. All of them
E. None of them
!
31. What structure contributes a lubricating mucus substance to semen?
A. Bulbourethral glands
B. Epididymis
C. Prostate
D. Seminal vesicles
E. Testis
!
32. Specification the craniocaudal axis mainly depends on activity of
A. PAX proteins
B. VEGF
C. Nodal protein
D. Homeotic clusters
E. Estrogens

33. The proper order of cells in spermatogenesis is

A. Spermatogonia, primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes, spermatids
B. Primary spermatocytes, spermatogonia, secondary spermatocytes, spermatids
C. Primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes, spermatogonia, spermatids
D. Spermatogonia, spermatids, primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes
E. Primary spermatocytes, secondary spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatogonia
!
34. Acrosome is fully formed during
A. Cap phase
B. Golgi phase
C. Acrosomal phase
D. Maturation phase
E. Capacitation
!
35. Insufficient amount of amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios) may result from
A. Anencephaly
B. Renal agenesis
C. Esophageal atresia
D. Neurological symptoms
E. Microcephaly
!
36. A secondary oocyte is developing normally at which of the following times/sites does the second
maturation division of meiosis become completed?
A. In the ovarian cortex
B. During ovulation
C. At fertilization
D. In the blastocyst
E. Upon implantation
!
37. In corpus luteum
A. Granulosa-lutein cells produce progesterone and convert androgens into estrogens
B. Theca-lutein cells produce progesterone but do not produce androgens
C. Hilar cells are the main source of estrogens
D. Interstitial cells take a part in progesterone production
E. Aromatase is present mainly in thecal cells

38. Herring bodies

A. Are degenerated nursing cells in the medulla of the thymus
B. Represent accumulations of neurosecretory granules in pars nervosa of hypophysis
C. Are abundant in the anterior chamber of the eye
D. Occur in the lumen of prostatic follicle and increase in size throughout life
E. None of the above
!
39. Which of the following is derived from endoderm?
A. Schwann cells of peripheral nerves
B. Endothelial lining of blood vessels
C. Epithelial lining of the respiratory tract
D. Cells lining the amniotic membrane
E. Cytotrophoblast cells
!
40. Which of the following will develop into the placenta?
A. Epiblast
B. Neural plate
C. Sclerotome
D. Trophoblast
 E. Yolk sac
!
41. Which substance lowers the incidence of neural tube defect?
A. Retinoids
B. Alcohol
C. Folic acid
D. Vitamin D
E. Organic mercury
!
42. Proliferation of the granulosa cells of the secondary follicle depends mainly on
A. Estradiol
B. Androstenedione
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
D. Follicle-stimulating hormone
E. Folliculostatin
!
43. Between the inner surface of the cytotrophoblast and the outer surface of the wall of exocelomic
cavity is located
A. Exrtaembryonic mesoderm
B. Allantois
C. Primitive yolk sac
D. Embryonic mesoderm
E. Secondary yolk sac

44. The hormone that stimulates insulin-like growth factor-1 production in the hepatocyte is secreted by
A. Acidophils
B. Basophils
C. Chromophobe cells
D. Herring bodies
E. Pituicytes
!
45. Prostate
A. Discharge their secretion into the urethra
B. Is under control of dihydrotestosterone
C. Discharge their secretion into the ampulla of vas deferens
D. Answers A and B are correct
E. Answers B and C are correct
!
!
!
!
!
46. Androgen secretion in testis is stimulated mainly by
A. LH
B. HCG
C. Estriol
D. FSH
E. None of them
!
 47. Which structure is richly vascularized?
A. Membrane granulosa
B. Theca externa
C. Theca interna
D. Cumulus oophorus
E. Corona radiata
!
48. Primordial germ cells (PGCs)
A. Are formed in the epiblast
B. Are formed during the second week of development
C. Enter meiosis after puberty
D. Only answers A and B are correct
E. Only answers A and C are correct
!
49. Indicate the sentence, which correctly describes the disease
A. Lack of yolk sac blood vessels is known as capillary hemangioma
B. Insufficient mesoderm formation leads to caudal dysgenesis
C. Situs inversus refers to the normal positioning of the internal organs
D. Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by deletion of chromosome 15
E. In Turner syndrome almost all cells nuclei possess sex chromatin bodies
!
50. The inner cell mass
A.Develops after the second division of the zygote
B.Gives rise to the epiblast and hypoblast
C.Is directly surrounded by the zona pellucida
D.Answers A and B are correct
E.Answers A, B and C are correct
!
Answers
!
1. D 18. E 35. B
2. E 19. D 36. C
3. B 20. C 37. A
4. A 21. A 38. B
5. E 22. C 39. C
6. A 23. B 40. D
7. E 24. D 41. C
8. B 25. E 42. D
9. A 26. E 43. A
10. A 27. B 44. A
11. E 28. D 45. D
12. B 29. C 46. A
13. C 30. D 47. C
14. B 31. A 48. D
15. D 32. D 49. B
16. B 33. A 50. B
17. B 34. A !
!
!
 !
!
FIRST RETAKE
!
1. Amnioblasts originate from the:
A. Epiblast
B. Hypoblast
C. Epiblast and hypoblast
D. Cytotrophoblast
E. None of them
!
2. Which one is a component of the Graafian follicle?
A. Primordial germ cell
B. Luteal cells
C. Cumulus oophorus
D. Oogonium
E. None of them
!
3. Cri-du-chat syndrome is caused by partial deletion of the short arm of
A. Chromosome 5
B. Chromosome 13
C. Chromosome 15
D. Chromosome 21
E. Chromosome Y
!
4. At full term, a diameter of the normal placenta is approximately
A. 1-2 cm
B. 5-10 cm
C. 15-25 cm
D. 50-60 cm
E. 80-90 cm
!
5. Prader-Willi syndrome results from a microdeletion on the
A. Maternal chromosome 13
B. Paternal chromosome 13
C. Maternal chromosome 15
D. Paternal chromosome 15
E. Maternal chromosome 18
!
6. In the blastocyst, the cells that develop into the embryo proper are the
A. Cytotrophoblast cells
B. Inner cells mass
C. Syncytiotrophoblast
D. All of them
E. None of them

!
!
 7. Physiological umbilical hernia is formed by extruding to the umbilical cord
A. Yolk sac
B. Yolk stalk
C. Vitelline duct
D. Intestinal loops
E. Allantois
!
8. Which one is not a component of the normal human blastocyst at 6th day of development, during early
phase of implantation?
A. Blastocele
B. Embryoblast
C. Trophoblast
D. Zona pellucida
E. Blastomeres
!
9. The third pair of somites appears in the human embryo at approximately
A. 16th day of development
B. 20th day of development
C. 23rd day of development
D. 26th day of development
E. 29th day of development
!
10. A phenomenon occurring during the third week of the development is
A. Formation of the bilaminar germ disc
B. Cortical reaction
C. Exocelomic cavity formation
D. All of them
E. None of them
!
11. Sclerotome
A. Is a collection of cells from the medial and ventral walls of the somite
B. Is part of the myotome
C. Forms the notochord
D. Forms the neural tube
E. Originates from the neural tube
!
12. Neural crest derivatives include structures/cells except
A. Bones if the face
B. Adrenal medulla
C. Odontoblasts
D. Glial cells
E. Thyroid gland follicles
!
13. During capacitation
A. Egg is fertilized by a sperm
B. Glycoprotein coat of sperm plasma membrane is removed
C. Egg is prepared for fertilization
D. Sperm penetrates the zona pellucida
E. Plasma membrane of the sperm disappears
!
14. From the second trimester of pregnancy placenta is involved mainly in production of
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Renin
C. Progesterone
D. Somatostatin
E. Follicle-stimulating hormone
!
15. The cells from the embryo that invade the endometrium of the uterus and form lacunae are called
A. Blastocele cells
B. Epiblast
C. Cytotrophoblast cells
D. Syncytiotrophoblast
E. Inner cells mass
!
16. Hydramnios refers to
A. An excess amniotic fluid (500-1000 mL)
B. An excess amniotic fluid (1,500-2000 mL)
C. A decreased amount of amniotic fluid (less than 1,500 mL)
D. A decreased amount of amniotic fluid (less than 1,000 mL)
E. A decreased amount of amniotic fluid (less than 400 mL)
!
17. The definitive notochord is formed at approximately
A. 7th day of the development
B. 10th day of the development
C. 14th day of the development
D. 19th day of the development
E. 27th day of the development
!
18. Which one is not a member of TGFbeta superfamily?
A. Fibroblast growth factor
B. Activin
C. Transforming growth factor beta
D. Mullerian inhibiting factor
E. Bone morphogenetic protein
!
19. The placenta is expelled from the uterine cavity as the afterbirth approximately
A. 3 minutes after birth of the child
B. 30 minutes after birth of the child
C. 4 hours after birth of the child
D. 12 hours after birth of the child
E. None of the above mentioned possibilities is true
!
20. Primitive yolk sac is also named
A. Exrtaembryonic cavity
B. Exocelomic cavity
C. Secondary yolk sac
D. Amniotic cavity
E. Allantois
 21. The Oropharyngeal membrane is
A. Composed of ectoderm and endoderm
B. Composed of ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm
C. Future opening of the oral cavity
D. Only B and C are true
E. Only A and C are true
!
22. By the 2nd week embryo implanted in the endometrium has an inner embryoblast and an outer
trophoblast, which of the following is the next step in forming a 3-layered embryonic disk?
A. Decidualization
B. Gastrulation
C. Lateralization
D. Neurulation
E. Placentation
!
23. The labor stage known as effacement ends when
A. Uterine contractions finish
B. The cervix is fully dilated
C. Intra-abdominal pressure increases
D. Intra-abdominal pressure decreases
E. Placental passes through cervix
!
24. In placenta in the second half of pregnancy
A. Secondary villi starts to develop
B. Intervillous spaces are lined by the cytotrophoblast
C. Cotyledons are partially separated by the decidual septa
D. Chorionic plate undergoes atresia
E. Placental barrier is not fully developed
!
25. Sacrococcygeal teratomas contain tissues derived from
A. Sclerotomes
B. Neuroepithelial cells
C. Undifferentiated somites
D. Neural crest cells
E. All three germ layer
!
27. Prolactin is a hormone secreted by
A. Posterior part of pituitary gland
B. Acidophils of the anterior part of pituitary gland
C. Neutrophils of the anterior part of pituitary gland
D. Basophils of the anterior part of pituitary gland
E. Hypothalamus
!
28. Parathyroid hormone
A. Decreased blood calcium levels
B. Inhibits calcium resorption in the uriniferous tubules
C. Is released by Parafollicular cells
D. Is secreted and synthesized by chief cells
E. Release is stimulated by an increase in serum calcium levels
!
29. Sodium and water retention in the kidney is stimulated by a hormone secreted by
A. Chromaffin cells
B. Islets of Langerhans
C. Zona fasciculata
D. Zona glomerulosa
E. Zona reticularis
!
30. Which endocrine structure secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine?
A. Adenohypophysis
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Neurohypophysis
E. Thyroid gland
31. Corpora arenacea (“brain sand”) are characteristic for the
A. Pituitary gland
B. Pineal gland
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Hypothalamus
E. None of them
!
32. The right sequence of adrenal cortex is
A. Zona pectinata, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis
B. Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis
C. Zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis
D. Zona fasciculata, zona reticularis, zona glomerulosa
E. Zona glomerulosa, zona pectinata, zona fasciculata
!
33. Somatotropin stimulates
A. Synthesis of cortisol
B. Formation of corpus luteum
C. Smooth muscle contraction
D. Resorption of water by kidneys
E. Proliferation of cartilage
!
34. Parathyroid glands develop from
A. Evagination of the oral ectoderm
B. Third pharyngeal pouches
C. Fourth pharyngeal pouches
D. Rathke’s pouch
E. Answers B and C are correct
!
35. Addison’s disease leads to
A. Decreased secretion of adrenocortical hormones
B. Increased secretion of the adrenocortical hormones
C. Death if steroid treatment is not provided
D. Answers A and C are correct
E. Answers B and C are correct
!
 36. Seminal vesicle produces
A. Fructose-rich fluid
B. Mucus
C. Serous fluid rich in lipids and proteolytic enzymes
D. Fluid containing sialic acid
E. None of the above answers is correct
!
37. Sertoli cells function do not include
A. Support of developing germ cells
B. Blood-testis barrier formation
C. Androgen synthesis
D. Androgen-binding protein synthesis
E. Inhibin synthesis
!
38. Diploid spermatogenic cells in direct contact with the basal lamina are
A. Sertoli cells
B. Spermatocytes
C. Leydig cells
D. Spermatogonia
E. Spermatozoa
!
39. Spermatozoa move from the tubuli recti directly into the
A. Ductuli efferents
B. Epididymis
C. Rete testis
D. Seminiferous tubules
E. Vas deferens
!
40. Which part of the spermatozoa contains digestive enzymes that aid in fertilization?
A. Acrosome
B. Basal plate
C. End piece
D. Neck
E. Tail
!
41. The prostatic secretion contains
A. Lipids
B. Proteolytic enzymes
C. Fibrinolysin
D. Citric acid
E. All of above
!
42. Reserve cells for spermatogenic cells
A. Are dark type A spermatogonia
B. Have nuclei with abundant euchromatin
C. Occupy basal compartment of the seminiferous tubule
D. Answers A and C are correct
E. Answers B and C are correct
!
 43. The epithelial lining with the patches of nonciliated cuboidal cells altering with ciliated columnar cells
occurs in
A. Ductuli interposed between the rete testis and the epididymis
B. Ejaculatory duct
C. Tubuli interposed between the seminiferous tubules and the rete testis
D. Ductus interposed between the epididymis and the ejaculatory duct
E. Prostatic gland
!
44. The layer of glycoproteins between the oocyte and granulosa cells is called the
A. Corona radiata
B. Cumulus oophorus
C. Macula pellucida
D. Theca folliculi
E. Zona pellucida
!
45. Primary oocyte is arrested in
A. Meiosis II prophase
B. Meiosis I metaphase
C. Meiosis I prophase
D. Meiosis II metaphase
E. Meiosis I anaphase
!
46. Completion of the first meiotic division
A. Occurs in Graafian follicle
B. Occur just before ovulation
C. Leads to secondary oocyte and the first polar body formation
D. Is initiated by meiosis-inducing substance
E. All answers are true
47. Theca interna cells
A. Produce Androstenedione
B. Possess LH receptors on their plasmalemma
C. Possess features of steroid-producing cells
D. Can be modified into theca-lutein cells
E. All answers are true
!
48. Which statement is untrue?
A. Simple columnar epithelium lines the lumen of the oviduct
B. Simple squamous epithelium provides the serosal covering of the oviduct
C. The glands of the endometrium are composed of simple columnar epithelium
D. Mucus-secreting simple columnar epithelium lines the cervix lumen
E. Simple squamous epithelium lines the lumen of the vagina
!
49. The basalis of the endometrium
A. Possess the straight arteries
B. Is sloughed at menstruation
C. Is devoid of glands
D. Possesses thick muscular layers
E. Answers A and C are true
!
 50. The parenchymal cells of the zona glomerulosa of the suprarenal gland
A. Synthesize aldosterone
B. Secrete deoxycorticosterone
C. Are located just beneath the suprarenal capsule
D. Only answers A and C are correct
E. Answers A, B and C are correct
!
Answers
!
1. A 28. D !
2. C 29. C !
3. A 30. C !
4. C 31. B !
5. D 32. B !
6. B 33. E !
7. D 34. E !
8. D 35. D !
9. B 36. A !
10. E 37. C !
11. A 38. D !
12. E 39. C !
13. B 40. A !
14. C 41. E !
15. D 42. D !
16. B 43. A !
17. D 44. E !
18. A 45. A !
19. B 46. E !
20. B 47. E !
21. E 48. E !
22. B 49. A !
23. B 50. E !
24. C ! !
25. E ! !
26. missing ! !
27. B ! !
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
LAST RETAKE
!
1. Spermatogenesis is a process resulting in transformation of
A. Primary spermatocytes into spermatozoa
B. Secondary spermatocytes into spermatozoa
C. Primary spermatocytes into spermatozoa
D. Spermatids into spermatozoa
E. Spermatogonia into spermatozoa
!
2. Oocyte maturation inhibitor (OMI) acts on
A. Oogonia
B. Primordial germ cells
C. Secondary oocytes
D. Primary oocytes
E. None of them
!
3. At full term, the normal placental weighs about
A. 50-100 g
B. 200-300 g
C. 500-600 g
D. 800-900 g
E. 1200-1300 g
!
4. 47 chromosomes are present in cells of patients with syndrome of
A. Prader-Willi
B. Fragile X
C. Klinefelter
D. Turner
E. Angelman
!
5. The uteroplacental circulation begins by the end of the
A. First week of development
B. Second week of development
C. Third week of development
D. Fourth week of development
E. Fifth week of development
!
6. The hormone that controls the release of T4 (thyroxine) and T3 (triiodothyronine) is secreted by
A. Acidophilic cells
B. Basophilic cells
C. Chromaffin cells
D. Chromophobic cells
E. Follicular cells
!
!
!
7. Maintaining of structure and function of corpus luteum during the first trimester of pregnancy depends
mainly on
 A. Human chorionic gonadotropin production
B. Somatommamotropin production
C. Progesterone production
D. Growth hormone production
E. Estriol production
!
!
8. In corpus luteum
A. Granulosa-lutein cells produces progesterone and convert androgens into estrogens
B. Theca-lutein cells produce progesterone but do not produce androgens
C. Hilar cells are main source of estrogens
D. Interstitial cells take a part in progesterone production
E. Aromatase is present mainly in thecal cells
!
!
9. To the family of growth and differentiation factors (GDFs) belongs
A. Hedgehog protein
B. WNT protein
C. Transforming growth factor beta
D. All of them
E. None of them
!
10. Which duct has a characteristic wavy lumen as a result of different epithelial cells
A. Ductuli efferents
B. Ductus epididymis
C. Rete testis
D. Seminiferous
E. Tubuli recti
!
11. Characteristic feature for the preeclampsia is
A. Maternal hypertension
B. Maternal proteinuria
C. Maternal edema
D. Placental mosaicism
E. All of them
!
12. The secondary yolk sac is seen already in an embryo ate age of
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 13 days
D. 21 days
E. 27 days
!
13. The lens placode is a derivative of
A. Endodermal germ layer
B. Mesodermal germ layer
C. Mesenchyme
D. A and B answers
E. None of them
!
14. Testosterone is produced by
A. Sertoli cells
B. Kupffer cells
C. Spermatozoa
D. All of them
E. None of them
!
15. The length of normal pregnancy is considered to be
A. 42 Weeks after the onset of the last normal menstrual period
B. 40 Weeks after the onset of the last normal menstrual period
C. 38 Weeks after the onset of the last normal menstrual period
D. 36 Weeks after the onset of the last normal menstrual period
E. 34 Weeks after the onset of the last normal menstrual period
!
16. Intermediate mesoderm gives rise to
A. Sclerotome
B. Serous membranes lining the peritoneal, pleural and pericardial cavities
C. Parenchyma of the liver
D. Lens placode
E. Nephrotomes
!
17. What blood vessel is commonly used for transfusion for the fetus?
A. Umbilical cord artery
B. Jugular vein
C. Femoral artery
D. Umbilical cord vein
E. None of the above
!
18. Which of the following structures secrets the largest component of seminal fluid?
A. Bulbourethral gland
B. Ductus deferens
C. Ductus epididymis
D. Prostate glans
E. Seminal gland
!
19. Adenohypophysis develops from
A. Neural ectoderm
B. Diencephalon
C. Superior cervical ganglion
D. Oral ectoderm
E. Lateral mesoderm

20. Enlargement of the suprarenal glands and hypertrophy of the suprarenal cortex occur in
A. Addison’s disease
B. Cushing’s disease
C. Graves’ disease
D. Hypothyroidism
E. Hypoparathyroidism
!
21. Sertoli cells functions do not include
A. Support of developing germ cells
B. Blood-testis barrier formation
C. Androgen synthesis
D. Androgen-binding factor synthesis
E. Inhibin synthesis
!
22. Meiosis I occurs in the
A. Primary spermatocyte
B. Secondary spermatocyte
C. Spermatid
D. Spermatogonia
E. Spermatozoa

23. The process of formation of new blood vessels from blood islands is named
A. Arteriogenesis
B. Vasculogenesis
C. Angiogenesis
D. Erythrogenesis
E. Carediogenesis
!
24. Oxytocin is produced in
A. Pars nervosa of pituitary gland
B. Pars distalis of pituitary gland
C. Pars intermedia of pituitary gland
D. Pars tuberalis of pituitary gland
E. Hypothalamus
!
25. Which one is a component of the endometrium?
A. Granular layer
B. Reticular layer
C. Papillary layer
D. Basal layer
E. Plexiform layer
!
26. Meromelia or Amelia is a most characteristic defect caused by
A. Rubella virus
B. Herpes virus
C. Thalidomide
D. Retinoids
E. Diabetes
!
27. Chorionic cavity is another name for
A. Extraembryonic cavity
B. Exocelomic cavity
C. Secondary yolk sac
D. Amniotic cavity
E. None of them
 28. Hypoblast and epiblast layers derive from
A. Syncytiotrophoblast
B. Cytotrophoblast
C. Trophoblast
D. Inner cell mass
E. Outer cell mass
!
29. The parenchyma of the thyroid gland develops from the
A. Mesoderm
B. Mesenchyme
C. Endoderm
D. Ectoderm
E. A and D are correct
!
30. The rupture of ovarian follicle and ovulation is caused by surge of
A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. TSH
D. FSH
E. LH
!
31. Cortical granules are located in
A. Granulosa cells
B. Corpus luteum cells
C. Type B spermatogonia
D. Oocytes
E. Decidual cells
!
32. Neural crest cells are derivatives of the
A. Mesodermal germ layer
B. Ectodermal germ layer
C. Endodermal germ layer
D. A and C
E. None of them
!
33. Parathyroid hormone
A. Decreases blood calcium levels
B. Inhibits calcium resorption in the uriniferous tubules
C. Is released by Parafollicular cells
D. Is secreted and synthesized by chief cells
E. Release is stimulated by an increase in serum calcium levels

34. After rupture of the Oropharyngeal membrane the foregut opening connects directly with
A. Chorionic cavity
B. Allantois cavity
C. Amniotic cavity
D. Exocelomic cavity
E. None of them
!
35. Chorion frondosum is
A. Smooth villusless plate of mesoderm
B. Smooth villusless plate of endoderm
C. Covered with many villi
D. Inner layer of decidual plate
E. Inner layer of decidual capsularis
!
36. Formation if syncytium of the spermatogenic cells begins after division of
A. Spermatid
B. Secondary spermatocyte
C. Primary spermatocyte
D. Spermatogonium A
E. Spermatogonium B
!
37. Chromaffin cells are present in the
A. Suprarenal cortex
B. Suprarenal medulla
C. Pineal glans
D. Thyroid gland
E. Parathyroid gland

38. The fetus gains passive immunity against various infectious disease at approximately
A. 4 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 14 weeks
D. 20 weeks
E. 35 weeks
!
39. Primordial follicle consists of
A. Primary oocyte and single layers of flat cells
B. Primary oocyte and single layer of cuboidal cells
C. Primary oocyte and several layers of cuboidal cells
D. Secondary oocyte and several layers of flat cells
E. Secondary oocyte and single layer of cuboidal cells
!
40. The component of the mature (Graafian) follicle is
A. Primordial germ cells
B. Oocyte in second meiotic division
C. Luteal cell
D. Oogonium
E. None of them
!
41. Prostate
A. Discharge their secretion into the urethra
B. Is under control of dihydrotestosterone
C. Discharge their secretion into the ampulla of vas deferens
D. A and B are correct
E. B and C are correct
!
42. Erythroblastosis fetalis may occur in cases where
A. The fetus is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative
B. The fetus is Rh negative and the mother is Rh positive
C. The fetus is Rh negative and the mother is Rh negative
D. The fetus is Rh positive and the mother is Rh positive
E. Fetal red blood cells are not able to contact the maternal blood
!
43. Situs inversus is a condition occurring in approximately 20% of patients with
A. Down syndrome
B. Kartagener syndrome
C. Klinefelter syndrome
D. Turner syndrome
E. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
!
44. The characteristic feature of a hydatidiform mole is
A. Secretion of HCG
B. Secretion of estrogen
C. Paternal origin
D. Maternal origin
E. A and C are true
!
45. Bone morphogenic proteins (BMPs) are involved mainly in
A. Ventralization of the mesoderm
B. Formation of the adrenal gland parenchyma
C. Transformation of secondary villus to tertiary villus
D. Formation of the anterior visceral endoderm
E. Establishing of the uteroplacental circulation
!
46. Term “decidual transformation” means morphological and functional changes of
A. Mucosa of vagina
B. Mucosa of uterus
C. Mucosa of oviduct
D. All of them
E. None of them
!
47. Mineralocorticoid hormones control
A. Fat metabolism
B. Carbohydrate metabolism
C. Heart rate
D. Fluid and electrolyte balance
E. Protein metabolism
!
48. C cells are present in
A. Hypophysis
B. Thyroid gland
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Pineal gland
E. Suprarenal gland
!
49. Spina bifida results from the defect of
A. Connecting stalk
B. Neural tube
C. Vitelline duct
D. Heuser’s membrane
E. None of them
!
50. The epithelium of uterus is composed of
A. Nonciliated secretory columnar and ciliated columnar cells
B. Cuboidal ciliated epithelium and goblet cells
C. Basal squamous secretory cells and apical ciliated nonsecretory cells
D. Simple squamous cells and cuboidal cells
E. None of the above
!
!
!
Answers
!
1. E 18. E 35. C
2. D 19. B 36. B
3. C 20. B 37. B
4. C 21. C 38. C
5. B 22. A 39. A
6. E 23. B 40. B
7. A 24. E 41. D
8. A 25. D 42. A
9. D 26. C 43. B
10. A 27. A 44. E
11. A 28. D 45. A
12. C 29. C 46. B
13. E 30. E 47. D
14. E 31. D 48. B
15. B 32. B 49. B
16. E 33. C 50. A
17. D 34. E
!
!
!
!
Third intermediate
!
1 Choroid plexus
A. Is formed by folds of pia mater
B. Produces CSF fluid
C. Can be found in the third, fourth and lateral ventricle of the brain
D. Is covered with simple cuboidal epithelium
E. All of the above is correct
!
2 Muscularis externa of intestine contains certains cells being pacemakers, named as:
A. Auerbach’s cells
B. Langerhans cells
C. Meissner’s cells
D. Cajal cells
E. Basal cells
!
3 Sharpey fibers attach:
A. Periodontal ligament to the cementum.
B. Cementum to dentin
C. Dentin to enamel
D. Cementum to pulp
E. Periodontal ligament to the pulp
!
4 Ducts of eccrine sweat glands are lined with the:
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Two layered cuboidal epithelium
E. Pseudostratified epithelium
!
5 which part of gastrointestinal tract has discontinuous external muscular layer?
A. Ileum
B. Duodenum
C. Colon
D. jejunum
E. Esophagus
!
!
!
!
!
6 Type IV epithelium reticular cells of the thymus:
A. Separate cortex from the capsule
B. Isolate cortex from the medulla
C. Form Hassall corpuscles
D. Release thymic stromal lymphopoietin
E. Test the developing T cells for self-recognition
!
7 Macula lutea (yellow spot) is characteristic for the:
A. Lens
B. Female urethra
C. Nephron
D. Retina
E. Male urethra
!
8 The taste bud is composed of:
A. Dark cells
B. Light cells
C. Intermediate cells
D. Basal cells
E. All of the above are components of taste bud
!
9 The vestibular apparatus comprises:
A. The auricle, the external auditory meatus, and the tympanic membrane
B. The malleus, the incus, and the stapes
C. The utricle, the saccule, and the semicircular ducts
D. The cortex, the paracortex, and the medulla
E. 15 to 20 lobes of compound tubuloalveolar glands
!
10 Purkinje cell layer can be found in the:
A. Cerebral cortex
B. Cerebellar cortex
C. Gray matter of the spinal cord
D. White matter of the brain
E. White matter of cerebellum
!
11 Gray matter
A. Contains mainly myelinated nerve fibers
B. Does not contain nervous cell bodies
C. Forms the cortex of cerebrum
D. Is located at the periphery of the spinal cord
E. Does not occur in the brainstem
!
!
12 Arachnoid trabecular cells are:
A. Modified Fibroblasts
B. Modified smooth muscle cells
C. Glial cells
D. Modified neurons
E. Osteoprogenitor cells
!
13 Dentin:
A. Is the hardest substance in the human body
B. Is produced by ameloblasts
C. Contains about 96% of hydroxyapatite
D. Contains amelogenins
E. Is produced by odontoblasts
!
14 Meissner’s plexus can be found in the:
A. Mucosa
B. Submucosa
C. Muscularis externa
D. Serosa
E. Adventitia
!
15 Which of the following types of the immunoglobulins is the most responsible for promoting
allergic reaction?
A. igA
B. igM
C. igD
D. igE
E. igG
!
16 Horizontal cells of the retina:
A. Absorb the light
B. Are photosensitive
C. Transmit information from rods and cones to the bipolar cells
D. Insulate various cellular components of the retina
E. Separate various wavelengths of light
!
17 Within the cytosol of the erythrocyte most of the CO2 combines with water to form carbonic
acid, The reaction is:
A. Adenylate cyclase
B. alkaline phosphate
C. Carbonic phosphate
D. Phosphodiesterase
E. Carbonic anhydrase
18 Langerhans cells
A. Produce keratohyalin
B. Are antigen presenting cells
C. Are mechanoreceptors
D. Produce antibodies
E. Produce pigment of the skin
!
19 In the resting mammary gland alveoli are:
A. Lined with simple cuboidal epithelium
B. Lined with simple squamous epithelium
C. Lined with simple cylindrical epithelium without cilia
D. Lined with simple ciliated cylindrical epithelium
E. Not developed
!
20 Intracellular canaliculi occur in:
A. Paneth cells
B. Chief cells
C. Parietal cells
D. Gastrin secreting G cells
E. Superficial gastric epithalium
!
21 Bowman’s glands are localized in:
A. Submucosa of the duodenum
B. Olfactory mucosa
C. Kidney glomeruli
D. Liver portal lobuli
E. Papilla vallata of the tongue
!
22 Humans have:
A. 20 deciduous and 32 permanent teeth
B. 22 deciduous and 22 permanent teeth
C. 28 deciduous and 32 permanent teeth
D. 20 deciduous and 28 permanent teeth
E. 22 deciduous and 32 permanent teeth
!
23 Portal triad house
A. Hepatic artery branch, portal vein limb and bile dust
B. Hepatic artery branch and bile duct
C. Bile duct
D. Bile duct, portal vein limb and penicillar artery
E. Portal vein limb, hepatic artery branch and central vein
!
!
24 Glands in the submucosa can be observed in the:
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Ileum
E. Colon
!
25 Pruriceptors respond to:
A. Touch
B. Cold
C. Itch
D. Pain
E. Warmth
!
26 The hepatocytes originate from:
A. Connective tissue
B. Mesoderm
C. Endodermal epithelium
D. Neural crest
E. Bone marrow
!
27 Space between a plate of hepatocytes and sinusoidal lining in the liver is called:
A. Sinusoid
B. Space of Disse
C. Bile canaliculus
D. Space pf Moll
E. Canals of Hering
!
28 HCL secretion is stimulated by:
A. Gastrin
B. Somatostatin
C. Glucagon
D. Motillin
E. Secretin
!
29 Which sentence about olfactory cells is True?
A. Olfactory cells are modified epithelium cells
B. Olfactory cells are bipolar neurons
C. Olfactory cells are bipolar fibroblasts
D. Olfactory cells are localized within nasal vestibule
E. Answers A and D are correct
!
!
30 Reticular layer of the dermis is composed of:
A. Loose connective tissue proper
B. Dense irregular collagenous connective tissue proper
C. Dense regular collagenous connective tissue proper
D. Mesenchymal connective tissue
E. Dense regular elastic connective tissue
!
31 The last part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system is called:
A. Tertiary bronchi
B. Bronchioles
C. Terminal bronchioles
D. Alveolar sacs
E. Respiratory bronchioles
!
32 Serous, bicarbonate-rich alkaline fluid is produced in the pancreas by:
A. Centroacinar cells
B. Acinar cells
C. Intercalated duct cell
D. Interlobular duct cells
E. Intralobular duct cells
!
33 The layer present only in the thick skin (e.g. sole of the feet) is called:
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum lucidum
E. Stratum corneum
!
34 Lunula
A. Is part of liver lobule
B. Is localized within the kidney
C. Is a part of a nail
D. Is found in mixed salivary glands
E. Contains Paneth’s cells in crypts of Lieberkühn
!
35 What type of blood vessels is typical for paracortex of lymph node?
A. High endothelial venules
B. High endothelial arterioles
C. Continuous capillaries
D. Fenestrated capillaries
E. None of the above
!
!
36 The gallbladder is lined with:
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium
E. Pseudostratified epithelium
!
37 Which cells of the pancreas secrete somatostatin?
A. Centroacinar cells
B. Alpha cells
C. Beta cells
D. Delta cells
E. Gamma cells
!
38 Which substance about the kidney’s structure is false:
A. The thick ascending limb is not permeable to water or urea
B. The pars recta of the proximal tubule continues as the thin limb of Henle’s loop
C. The Bowman space drains into the proximal tubule at the urinary pole
D. The parietal layer of Bowman capsule is composed of podocytes
E. The glomerulus is formed as several tufts of anastomosing capillaries
!
39 Surfactant:
A. Is produced by pneumocytes type I
B. Reduces surface tension
C. Covers mostly trachea and bronchi lumen
D. Is composed mostly of carbohydrates
E. None of the above is correct
!
40 Papillary collecting tubules (ducts of Bellini) are each formed by the confluence of several:
A. Distal convoluted tubules
B. Cortical collecting tubules
C. Connecting tubules
D. Medullary collecting tubules
E. Proximal convoluted tubules
!
41 The humoral immune response is carried out by:
A. Plasma cells
B. Erythrocytes
C. Eosinophils
D. T lymphosytes
E. Thrombocytes
!
!
42 Modified sweat glands which opening into the eyelash follicles are known as:
A. Glands of Moll
B. Meibomian glands
C. Glands of zeus
D. Glands of Littre
E. Glands of von Ebner
!
43 The conversion of a less active form of D3(25-OH-vitamin D3) to calcitriol(1,25-[OH]2!
vitamin D3 ) takes place in the:
A. Spleen
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Kidney
E. Lung
!
44 Innate immne system is composed of:
A. Complement proteins
B. Toll-like receptors
C. Macrophages
D. NK cells
E. All of the above are the elements of innate immune system
!
45 A layer of the cerebral cortex which has the lowest cell density is the:
A. Molecular layer
B. External granular layer
C. External pyramidal layer
D. Internal granular layer
E. Internal pyramidal layer
!
46 The largest number of the goblet cells occurs in:
A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Jejunum
E. Colon
!
47 Central artery of the spleen divides directly into:
A. Penicillar arteries
B. Penicillar veins
C. Splenic sinuses
D. Marginal sinuses
E. Venous sinuses
!
48 The tympanic cavity is lined by:
A. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
B. Simple columnar epithelium
C. Stratified squamous epithelium
D. Simple squamous epithelium
E. Transitional epithelium
!
49 White pulp of the spleen contains:
A. Splenic cords
B. Splenic sinusoids
C. Sheathed arterioles
D. Smooth muscle cells
E. Periarterial lymphoid sheaths
!
50 Lacteals are present in the:
A. Ear
B. Eye ball
C. Lung
D. Kidney
E. Small intestine
!
!
Third intermediate ANSWERS !
1. E 2. D 3. A
4. D 5. C 6. B
7. D 8. E 9. C
10. B 11. C 12. A
13. E 14. B 15. D
16. C 17. E 18. B
19. E 20. C 21. B
22. A 23. A 24. B
25. C 26. C 27. B
28. A 29. B 30. B
31. C 32. A&C BOTH WERE CORRECT
33. D 34. C 35. A
36. C 37. D 38. D
39. B 40. D 41. A
42. A 43. D 44. E
45. E 46. E 47. A
48. A 49. E 50. E
!
Third intermediate 1st Retake
!
17 The predominant type of collagen in dentin is:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type V
E. Type VII
!
18 Cerebellar cortex is responsible for following activities expect of:
A. Balance
B. Muscle contraction
C. Muscle tune
D. Equilibrium
E. Memory
!
19 The glassy membrane separates the:
A. Choroid from pigment cells
B. Dermis from the epithelium of the hair follicle
C. Corneal stroma from the corneal epithelium
D. Lamina propria from the submucosa in the small intestine
E. White mater from the gray mater in the cerebellum
!
20 Cells of juxtaglomerular apparatus are modified:
A. Macrophages
B. Endothelial cells
C. Muscle cells
D. Podocytes
E. Fibroblasts
!
21 Dimeric form of immunoglobulins is characteristic for:
A. igM
B. igG
C. igD
D. igE
E. igA
!
!
!
!
!
22 Central arteries can be find in the:
A. Kidneys
B. Eye
C. Spleen
D. Spinal cord
E. Teeth
!
23 Chyme is formed in the:
A. Oral cavity
B. Esophagus
C. Stomach
D. Small intestine
E. Large intestine
!
24 Area cribrosa is part of the:
A. Kidneys
B. Lymph node
C. Teeth
D. Eye ball
E. Urinary bladder
!
25 Which sentence about type II pneumocytes is false:
A. They are more numerous than type I pneumocytes
B. They occupy only about 5% of the alveolar surface
C. They contain lamellar bodies
D. They produce surfactants
E. They are the part of the blood gas barrier
!
26 High endothelial venules (HEVs) are located in:
A. Cortex of the suprarenal gland
B. Grey matter of the brain
C. Paracortex of the lymph node
D. Adenohypophysis
E. Loose connective tissue
!
27 Hepatocytes do not synthesize:
A. Albumins
B. Fibrinogen
C. Prothrombin
D. Angiotensinogen
E. Gamma globulins
!
!
28 Which sentence about the ceruminous (wax) gland is true:
A. They are modified eccrine sweat glands
B. They are modified apocrine sweat glands
C. They are present in the vagina
D. They are present in the axilla (arm pit)
E. They are modified sebaceous glands
!
29 Melanosomes contain:
A. Renin
B. Tyrosinase
C. Carbonic anhydrase
D. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
E. collagenase
!
30 Emphysema is caused by the:
A. Inhabitation of the protein alfa1-antitrypsin
B. Inhabitation of the surfactant secretion
C. Inhabitation of the carbonic anhydrase
D. Allergens
E. Carbon monoxide (CO)
!
31 Subcapsular sinuses are characteristic for:
A. Bone marrow
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Lymph node
E. Palatine tonsils
!
32 The conversion of a less active form of D3(25-OH-vitamin D3) to calcitriol(1,25-[OH]2
vitamin D3 ) takes place in the:
A. Spleen
B. Stomach
C. Pancreas
D. Lung
E. Kidney
!
33 Paneth cells release:
A. Urogastrone
B. Lysozyme
C. VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)
D. Pepsinogen
E. Gastric intrinsic factor
!
34 Serum and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) contain similar amount of:
A. Protein
B. Na+
C. K+
D. Ca2+
E. Glucose
!
35 In the kidney aldosterone acts primarily on:
A. Renal corpuscles
B. Proximal tubules
C. Distal tubules
D. Collecting tubules
E. Renal interstitium
!
36 Enamel does not contain:
A. Tuftlein
B. Rods
C. Prisms
D. Hydroxyapatite
E. Lines of Owen
!
37 Bruch’s membrane is located between the:
A. Stroma and the corneal epithelium
B. Stroma and the corneal endothelium
C. Choroid and the pigment cells
D. Epidermis and the dermis
E. Scala media and the scala vestibuli
!
38 Lacteals are present in the:
A. Cores of villi
B. Crypts of Lieberkühn
C. Peyer’s patches
D. Mammary glands
E. Fundic glands
!
39 Which sentence concerning the tooth development is false:
A. At the cap stage the enamel organ is composed of three layers
B. At the bell stage the enamel organ is composed of four layers
C. Root formation begins before the completion the crown
D. Root formation begins after the completion the crown
E. Answers A, B and D is correct
!
!
40 Auerbach’s plexus is localized in:
A. Mucosa
B. Muscularis mucosae
C. Submucosa
D. Muscularis externa
E. Adventitia
!
41 The ureter is lined with:
A. Transitional epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Pseudostratified epithelium
D. Simple columnar epithelium
E. Stratified squamous epithelium
!
42 Marginal zone separates the:
A. White pulp from the red pulp of the spleen
B. Splenic sinuses and splenic cords
C. Cortex and paracortex in the lymph node
D. Paracortex and medulla in the lymph node
E. Cortex and medulla in the thymus
!
43 Langerhans cells:
A. Are located in the stratum basal of the epidermis
B. Are mechanoreceptor cells
C. Can be found within a cornfield cell envelope
D. Have zymogene-containing granules in their cytoplasm
E. Present antigens to T cells as part of the immune response
!
44 The muscle responsible for accommodation is found in the:
A. Cornea
B. Ciliary body
C. Retina
D. Sclera
E. Corpus vitreum
!
45 Which of the following sensory receptors is activated by painful stimuli:
A. Mechanoreceptors
B. Meissner corpuscles
C. Merkel disks
D. Nociceptors
E. Pacinian corpuscles
!
!
46 Alveolar macrophages are known as:
A. Dust cells
B. Heart failure cells
C. Kupfer cells
D. Answer A and B is correct
E. Answer A, B and C is correct
!
47 Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) is present in the:
A. Bud stage
B. Cap stage
C. Bell stage
D. Apposition stage
E. Root formation stage
!
48 Choose an example of apocrine gland:
A. Lacrimal gland
B. Meibomian gland
C. Gland of zeis
D. Sebaceous gland
E. Gland of Moll
!
49 Plaques and inter plaque regions are characteristic for:
A. Dome-shaped cells of the traditional epithelium
B. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
C. Intraglomerular mesangial cells
D. Juxtaglomerular cells
E. Podocytes
!
50 Urogastrone is produced by:
A. Glands of von Ebner and stimulates saliva production
B. Glands of von Ebner and inhibits saliva production
C. Brunner’s glands and stimulates HCL production
D. Brunner’s glands and inhibits HCL production
E. Paneth cells and is antibacterial agent
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
Third intermediate 1ST Retake ANSWERS
!
17. A
18. E
19. B
20. C
21. E
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. E
26. C
27. E
28. B
29. B
30. A
31. D
32. E
33. B
34. B
35. C
36. E
37. C
38. A
39. C
40. D
41. A
42. A
43. E
44. B
45. D
46. A
47. D
48. E
49. A
50. D
!
!
Third intermediate 2nd Retake
!
10 Which sentence about the ceruminous (wax) glands is true:
A. They are modified eccrine sweat glands
B. They are modified apocrine sweat glands
C. They are present in the vagina
D. They are present in the axilla (arm pit)
E. They are modified sebaceous glands
!11 Central arteries can be find in the:
A. Kidneys
B. Eye
C. Spleen
D. Spinal cord
E. Teeth
!
12 Glands are present is the lamina propria of the:
A. Secondary (intrapulmonary) bronchi
B. Primary bronchioles
C. Terminal bronchioles
D. Respiratory bronchioles
E. None answer is correct
!
13 Salivary amylase is responsible for digestion of:
A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Starch
D. Answer A, B and C is correct
E. Answer A and B is correct
!
14 The main role of N cells (microfold cells) is:
A. Antigen processing
B. Antigen presentation
C. Antigen transport
D. Answer A, B and C is correct
E. Answer A and B is correct
!
!
!
!
!
!
!
15 Which sentence about the choroid plexus is false:
A. It is composed of folds of pia matter
B. It is located in the ventricles of the brain
C. It is the only source of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
D. It contains fenestrated capillaries
E. It is invested by the simple cuboidal (ependymal) lining
!
16 Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts mainly on the
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal convoluted tubule
C. Descending limb of Henle’s loop
D. Collecting tubule
E. Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
!
17 The respiratory epithelium is a
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
E. Stratified cuboidal epithelium
!
18 The period of the hair growth is called the:
A. Anagen phase
B. Catagen phase
C. Telogen phase
D. Secretory phase
E. Proliferative phase
!
19 Kupffer cells are characteristic for the
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Dermis
E. Epidermis
!
20 Bowman’s glands are located in the lamina propria of the:
A. Tongue mucosa
B. Olfactory mucosa
C. Esophageal mucosa
D. Duodenal mucosa
E. Tracheal mucosa
!
!
21 The glassy membrane Separates the:
A. Choroid from pigment cells
B. Dermis from the epithelium of the hair follicle
C. Corneal stroma from the corneal epithelium
D. Lamina propria from the submucosa in the small intestine
E. White mater from the gray mater in the cerebellum
!
22 Conversion of the blood-borne ammonia into urea takes place in the:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Spleen
E. Colon
!
23 Subcapsular sinuses are characteristic for:
A. Bone marrow
B. Thymus
C. Spleen
D. Lymph nodes
E. Palatine tonsils
!
24 Peyer’s Patches are present in the:
A. Esophagus
B. Stomach
C. Duodenum
D. Jejunum
E. Ileum
!
25 Vermilion zone is the part of the:
A. Lips
B. Tooth
C. Tongue
D. Sublingual salivary gland
E. Pancreas
!
26 Ruffini corpuscles are located in the:
A. Epidermis
B. Papillary layer of the dermis
C. Reticular layer of the dermis
D. Inner ear
E. Tunica fibrosa of the orb
!
!
27 Vemer-Morrsion syndrome (pancreatic cholera) is caused by:
A. Excessive production of vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
B. Lack of gastrin
C. Clostridium difficile infection
D. Copper accumulation
E. Absence of bile salts
!
28 Involucrin is expresed in the cells of:
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Retina
D. Jejunum
E. Appendix
!
29 The visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule is composed of:
A. Intraglomerular mesangial cells
B. Podocytes
C. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
D. pigment cells
E. Juxtaglomerular cells
!
30 The muscular fiber orientation in the lower one third of the ureter is:
A. Innermost circular, middle longitudinal, outer circular
B. Innermost longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal
C. innermost circular, middle longitudinal
D. innermost longitudinal, middle circular
E. Innermost oblique, middle circular, outer longitudinal
!
31 Gingiva are covered by the:
A. Orthokeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
B. Parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
C. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
D. Answer A and B in correct
E. None answer is correct
!
32 What sentence about the exocrine pancreas (EP) is false:
A. EP is a compound tubuloacinar gland
B. EP produces a HCL-rich fluid
C. The lumen of acinus is occupied by centroacinar cells
D. Release of the pancreatic enzymes is affected by the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK)
E. Release of the serous fluid is affected by the hormone secretin
!
!
33 Dimeric form of immunoglobulins is characteristic for:
A. igM
B. igG
C. igD
D. igE
E. igA
!
34 Gastric intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
!
35 Taste hairs are characterized by:
A. Microvilli present on the dark.light and intermediate cells
B. Microvilli present on the basal cells
C. Microvilli present on the basal, dark, light and intermediate cells
D. Cilia present on the dark, light and intermediate cells
E. Cilia present on the basal cells
!
36 Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) is present in the:
A. Bud stage
B. Cap stage
C. Bell stage
D. Apposition stage
E. Root formation stage
!
37 Paneth cell release:
A. Urogastrone
B. Lysozyme
C. VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)
D. Pepsinogen
E. Gastric intrinsic factor
!
38 Bile release is triggered mainly by:
A. cholecystokinin
B. Gastrin
C. Pancreatic polypeptide
D. Urogastrone
E. Insulin
!
!
39 Stages of tooth development are all of the listed below except:
A. Bell
B. Cup
C. Bud
D. Dental lamina
E. Goblet
!
40 In the mature tooth there are no:
A. Odontoblasts
B. Dental tubules
C. Ameloblasts
D. Hydroxyapatite
E. Tomes fibers
!
41 The major organic component of dentin is:
A. Collagen
B. Hydroxyapatite
C. Enamelin
D. Phosphorin
E. Actin
!
42 The surface of tooth socket in the alveolar bone is:
A. Cancellous bone
B. Spongy bone
C. Haversian bone
D. Hyaline cartilage
E. Fibrocartilage
!
43 What are the precursors of cementoblasts?
A. Dental papilla cells
B. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath cells
C. Tooth root odontoblasts
D. Dental follicle cells
E. Osteoblasts of alveolar process
!
44 Bones of the face develop in the process of:
A. Endochondrial osteogenesis
B. Intramembranous osteogenesis
C. Endodermal osteogenesis
D. Mesodermal osteogenesis
E. Ectodermal osteogenesis
!
!
45 Which of the structures is derived from ectomesenchyme of the neural crest:
A. Masticatory mucosa of the gum
B. Inner epithelium of hertwig’s sheath
C. Ameloblasts of the enamel organ
D. Pulp (stellate reticulum) of the enamel organ
E. Dental follicle
!
46 Cracks in the surface of enamel that are visible to the naked eye are:
A. Lines of Retizus
B. Perikyrnate
C. Enamel lamellae
D. Enamel tufts
E. Enamel spindles
!
47 In the tooth neck region primary cementum and enamel come into contact in the following:
A. Enamel and cementum are adjacent, but do not overlap
B. Cementum overlaps enamel
C. Cementum and enamel do not contact at all
D. Only answers A and B are correct
E. Answers A, B and C are correct
!
48 Ameloblasts in the secretory phase:
A. Develop long thin processes on their basal surfaces
B. Produce and release amelogenin
C. Produce and secrete collagen type I
D. Develop Tomes fibers
!
49 Root sheath:
A. Is formed by two epithelial layers of the enamel organ
B. Disintegrates after tooth is fully erupted
C. Its remnants are found in the dental pulp
D. Actively pumps calcium ions into the root dentin
E. Lays down the mantle dentin of the root
!
50 During bell stage of tooth development the enamel organ does not composed of:
A. Outer enamel epithelium
B. Inner enamel epithelium
C. Junctional epithelium
D. Stratum intermedium
E. Stellate reticulum
!
!
!
Third intermediate 2nd Retake ANSWERS
10. B
11. B
12. E
13. C
14. E
15. C
16. D
17. D
18. A
19. B
20. B
21. B
22. A?
23. D
24. E
25. A
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. B
31. B
32. ?
33. E
34. B
35. C
36. D
37. B
38. A
39. E?
40. ?
41. B?
42. ?
43. D
44. B
45. ?
46. ?
47. ?
48. ?
49. A
50. C
Final
1. Reticular fibers
A. Forms a framework of lymph nodes and spleen
B. Contains mainly elastic fibers that forms a mesh-like networks
C. Constitute the dermis of the skin
D. Is a main component of ligamenta flava of the vertebral column
E. Is present in the adventitia of the wall of blood vessels

2. High endothelia cells (HEVs)

A. Are lined by simple squamous epithelium
B. Are present in the brain
C. Do not allow the passage of cells
D. Are lined by stratified epithelium
E. Are present in lymph organs

3. The blood-gas barrier does not contain

A. Endothelial cells of the capillaries
B. Basal lamina of endothelial cells
C. Thin layer of reticular cells
D. Basal lamina of type I pneumocytes
E. Layer of surfactant covering type I pneumocytes

4. The Auerbach plexus

A. Is located in the submucosa
B. Controls mainly secretory function
C. Is attentive primarily to local conditions
D. Has numerous interconnections with the Meissner’s plexus
E. Is sensory component of enteric nervous system

5. The fixative agent used in light microscopy is

A. Xylene
B. Paraffin
C. Toluidine blue
D. Bouin’s fluid
E. Orcein

6. Prostate gland
A. Is paired gland located at the root of the penis
B. Is simple tubuloacinar gland
C. Produce a viscous fluid that constitutes about 70% of the ejaculate
D. Produce fructose-rich seminal fluid
E. Is stimulated by dihydrotestosterone

7. Which channels are responsible for the membrane depolarization of nerve cell?
A. K+ leak channels
B. Na+/K+ pimps
C. Voltage-gated Na+ channels
D. Ligand-gated K+ channels
E. Ungated Ca2+ channels
8. Discontinuous (sinusoidal) capillaries
A. Are absent in the spleen
B. Are characteristic for the muscle
C. Prevent passage of large molecules
D. Have discontinuous basal lamina
E. Are covered by diaphragm

9. Sclerostin
A. Is paracrine hormone that inhibits bone formation
B. Is produced by osteoclasts
C. Binds to RANKL
D. Serves as a decoy for RANK
E. Is responsible for mineralization of the bone

10. Olfactory cells

A. Are multipolar neurons
B. Possess nonmotile cilia
C. Are called sustentacular cells
D. Possess myelinated axons
E. Live more than 1 year

11. Triads of striated muscle

A. Possess ryanodine receptors in T tubules
B. Are located in the vicinity of Z line
C. Are deep invaginations of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Possess dihydropyridine receptors found in the transverse tubules
E. Occur in skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle

12. Paraxial mesoderm originates from cells migrating

A. At the lateral edge of the primitive node
B. Through the midstreak region
C. From the more caudal part of the streak
D. From the hypoblast
E. Through the caudal most part of the streak

13. Secondary yolk sac

A. Is called chorionic cavity
B. Is formed at the eighth day of development
C. Is lined by hypoblast cells
D. First is formed as amniotic cavity
E. Is formed by epiblast cells within amniotic cavity

14. Tympani cavity

A. Belongs to external ear
B. Is clear fluid-filled space
C. Communicates with the pharynx via the auditory tube
D. Contains perilymph
E. Houses otoliths

15. Cells present only in cerebellar cortex are named

A. Stellate nervous cells
B. Purkinje fibers
C. Purkinje cells
D. Martinotti cells
E. Cerebellar islands
16. Leptin
A. Is produced only by cells of brown adipose tissue
B. Reduces appetite by binding to neuropeptide Y
C. Increases the insulin sensitivity of skeletal muscle cells
D. Is responsible for the insulin resistance in obese individuals
E. Is responsible for the heat production

17. Glands of von Ebner are associated with

A. Hard palate
B. Gingiva
C. Dermal papillae
D. Filiform papillae
E. Circumvallate papillae

18. Merkel cells

A. Are scattered among cells of stratum spinosum of epidermis
B. Derived from neural crest
C. Are thermoreceptors
D. Are located in papillary layer of the dermis
E. Contain melanosomes

19. The part of the nucleolus responsible for the assembling of small and large ribosomal subunits is
called
A. A pale-staining fibrillary center
B. Pars fibrosa
C. Pars granulosa
D. Nucleolar matrix
E. Nucleolar-organizing region

20. To the placental barrier does not belong

A. The endothelial lining of maternal blood vessels
B. The endothelial lining of fetal blood vessels
C. The connective in the villus core
D. The cytotrophoblastic layer
E. The syncytium

21. Glomerulus
A. Contains macula densa
B. Is drained by the postcapillary venule
C. Is composed of tuft continuous capillaries
D. Participates in gas exchange
E. Is supplied by the afferent arteriole

22. The hormone which regulates chondrocyte proliferation, produced by hepatocytes in response to
the growth hormone is called
A. Indian hedgehog
B. Osteoprotegerin
C. Insulin-like growth factor 1
D. RANK
E. M-CSF
23. Parotid glands
A. Produce secretion rich in ptyalin
B. Contain serous demilunes
C. Do not contain a terminal duct
D. Produce mostly mucus saliva
E. Produce approximately 90% of the total salivary output

24. Granulosa-lutein cells

A. Possess the aromatase activity
B. Originate from the cells of theca interna
C. Constitute about 20% of the luteal cell population
D. Produce LH
E. Are ovulated along with the oocyte

25. Space of Disse

A. Transports the oxygen-rich blood from the hepatic artery
B. Contains Ito cells
C. Transports the bile from the bile canaliculi
D. Contains Kupffer cells
E. Is a kind of blood vessels with fenestrated, discontinuation endothelium

26. Spermiogenesis
A. Is also called spermatogenesis
B. Is the process of transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa
C. Is the process of differentiation of spermatogonia into primary spermatocyte
D. Comprises only the mitotic divisions of spermatogonia
E. Comprises the meiosis

27. The gland which contains chief and oxyphil cells is called
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thyroid gland
C. Pineal gland
D. Pituitary gland
E. Parathyroid gland

28. IgG antibodies

A. Usually form dimers
B. Are responsible for the allergic reaction
C. Are present in plasma membrane of naïve B lymphocytes
D. Can cross the placental barrier
E. As secretory antibodies form pentameric forms

29. Vitreous body

A. Contains crystallins
B. May contain eye floater
C. Is surrounded by subcapsular epithelium
D. Is composed of highly differentiated hexagonal cells
E. Is reinforced by suspensory ligament

30. Protein band 3 in erythrocytes

A. Is bound to hemoglobin
B. Is responsible for the transport of oxygen
C. Is distributed in cell cytoplasm
D. Is present in cell nucleus
E. Is responsible for transport of bicarbonate and chloride ions
31. Plasma cells
A. Have clock face or spoke wheel appearance of the nucleus
B. Are similar to mast cells
C. Are responsible for the phagocytosis of bacteria
D. Are natural killer cells
E. Combat parasite by releasing cytotoxins

32. The ureter

A. Is lined by pseudostratified epithelium
B. Does not contain connective tissue covering
C. Does not contain lamina propria
D. Accepts urine directly from the ducts of Bellini
E. Pierces the base of urinary bladder

33. Which structure does not develop from ectoderm?

A. Hair
B. Enamel of the teeth
C. Nail
D. Neurohypophysis
E. Gastrointestinal tract epithelium

34. Acinar cells of exocrine pancreas

A. Possess receptors for secretin
B. Produce serous, bicarbonate-rich fluid
C. Possess receptors for CCK on their apical membranes
D. Have receptors for acetylcholine on their basal membranes
E. Synthesize pepsinogen

35. Masticatory mucosa

A. Is covered by stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
B. Is specialized to perceive taste
C. Covers the hard palate
D. Possesses numerous taste buds
E. Is present in vermilion zone

36. Thin filaments

A. Are 10 nm thick
B. Are responsible for intercellular and cellular movement
C. Are composed of alpha and beta and tubulins
D. Cooperate with motor proteins – kinesin and dynein
E. Form nuclear lamins

37. Phospholipid molecule contains

A. Nonpolar head
B. Polar fatty acyl tails
C. Hydrophilic head
D. Amphipathic tail
E. Nonpolar fatty acyl tails which form covalent bonds with each other

38. Which substance can’t pass the placental barrier?

A. Cocaine
B. Heroin
C. IgM
D. Alcohol
E. IgG
39. Epithelial reticular cells form the stroma of
A. Spleen
B. Lymph node
C. Bone marrow
D. Tonsil
E. Thymus

40. Eccrine sweat glands

A. Are found only in the axilla and anal region
B. Are vestigial scent glands
C. Are simple coiled tubular glands
D. Produce the secretion only under the influence of sex hormones
E. Do not contain myoepthelial cells

41. Melatonin
A. Is produced by pituicytes
B. Induced the sleepiness
C. Is housed in corpora amylacea
D. Is synthesized from arginine
E. Regulates the synthesis of melanin

42. The monosomy if the sex chromosomes (X0) is characteristic for

A. Down syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
E. Barr syndrome

43. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A. Is composed of a single layer of cells
B. Is called transitional epithelium
C. Lines the uterus
D. Lines the loop of Henle
E. Forms the mesothelium

44. Oligodendrocytes
A. Are responsible for the production of cerebrospinal fluid
B. Produce the myelin in PNS
C. Are present in the lumen of ventricles of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord
D. Are located in white and gray matter of CNS
E. Belong to mononuclear phagocyte system

45. Motor proteins responsible for the anterograde and retrograde transport along the axon are called
A. Actin and myosin
B. Kinesin and dynein
C. MAP-2 and MAP-3
D. Lipofuscin and melanin
E. Desmin and Vimentin

46. The effect of thalidomide is

A. Amelia and meromelia
B. Intellectual disability
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Microcephaly
E. Macrocephaly
47. The cytotrophoblast
A. Is composed of cells, which do not divide
B. Is formed as a result of endomitosis
C. Contains lacunae in lacunar stage
D. Is present in primary villi
E. Forms Heuser’s membrane

48. The proliferative phase

A. Is called secretory phase
B. Is characterized by the presence of highly convoluted and branched endometrial glands
C. Commences after ovulation
D. Is driven by progesterone
E. Is characterized by a reepithelialization of the endometrium

49. Neurulation
A. Begins in the second week of development
B. Is the process of neural plate formation
C. Leads to the formation of neuroectoderm
D. Is the process whereby the neural plate forms the neural tube
E. Is characteristic for third month of gestation

50. Interstitial cells of Leydig

A. Have receptors for LH
B. Produce androgen-binding protein (ABP)
C. Form blood-testis barrier
D. Contain crystalloids of Charcot-Böttcher
E. Produce fructose-rich medium

51. Follicular cells of thyroid gland

A. Form clusters
B. Produce calcitonin
C. Produce PTH
D. Store colloid
E. Express the ion transporter - pendrin

52. The hyalomere contains

A. Lysosomes
B. Alpha-granules
C. Delta-granules
D. Lambda-granules
E. Surface opening tubules

53. As a result of cortical and zona reactions

A. Acrosin is released from cortical oocyte granules
B. The oocyte membrane becomes penetrable for spermatozoa
C. The zona pellucida alters its structure to prevent sperm penetration
D. The capacitation occur
E. Only one spermatozoon reaches the site of fertilization

54. Proteins that regulate the length of actin filaments in sarcomere of skeletal muscle are called
A. Nebulin and alpha-actinin
B. Tropomodulin and Nebulin
C. Cap Z and tropomodulin
D. Titin and alpha-actinin
E. Nebulin and Cap Z
55. Beta cells of islet of Langerhans
A. Produce Somatostatin
B. Are responsible for the production of glucagon
C. Release the hormone in response to low blood glucose level
D. Release the hormone that activates gluconeogenesis in hepatocytes
E. Constitute about 70% of total islet cells

56. Type II pneumocytes

A. Have highly attenuated cytoplasm
B. Occupy about 95% of alveolar bodies
C. Contain lamellar bodies
D. Are components of blood-gas barrier
E. Phagocytose dust particles and bacteria

57. Mesothelial membranes or serous membranes of peritoneal, pleura and pericardial cavities and
secrete serous fluid
A. Paraxial mesoderm
B. Intermediate mesoderm
C. Parietal layer of lateral plate mesoderm
D. Extraembryonic mesoderm
E. Somitomeres

58. The prominent and occasionally bifid internal elastic lamina is characteristic for
A. Elastic arteries
B. Muscular arteries
C. Arterioles
D. Medium veins
E. Large veins

59. Primary villi

A. Are composed only from syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast
B. Contain small blood vessels
C. Contain only syncytiotrophoblast
D. Are formed by the beginning of the second week
E. ….. Extraembryonic mesodermal cells

60. Lysosomes
A. Have pH 7.0 in their lumen
B. Are called microbodies
C. May contain residual bodies (not completely digested lipids)
D. Contain catalase and urate oxidase
E. Function in catabolism of long-chained fatty acids (beta-oxidation) forming CoA

61. Which ions are not eliminated by the liver (by transferring their into the bile) in Wilson’s disease?
A. Sodium
B. Calcium
C. Copper
D. Potassium
E. Magnesium

62. Microvilli
A. Form brush border of the proximal tubule of kidney
B. Are composed of uniformly organized microtubules
C. Function in propelling mucus toward the oropharynx
D. Contain nexin
E. Are attached to basal bodies
63. In juxtaglomerular apparatus
A. Cells of macula densa produce renin
B. Juxtaglomerular cells produce an enzyme that convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
C. Macula densa cells are modified smooth muscle cells
D. Extraglomerular mesangial cells monitor the sodium concentration in filtrate
E. Macula densa cells are located in the tunica media of afferent arteriole

64. Which proteins are associated with nuclear envelope?

A. Actin and myosin
B. Laminin and villin
C. Fimbrin and actin
D. Lamin and Vimentin
E. Integrin and fibronectin

65. Papanicolaou (Pap smear) technique is used for detecting?

A. Ovarian carcinoma
B. Dysplasia of the ovary
C. Anaplasia of the oviduct
D. Dysplasia of cervix
E. Cancer of oviduct

66. Glycoprotein that inhibit spermatozoon capacitation are produced by

A. Cells of ductus deferens
B. Ciliated columnar cells of Ductuli efferents
C. Cells of labyrinthine spaces of rete testis
D. Principal cells of ductus epididymis
E. Cuboidal cells of tubuli recti

67. Birbeck granules (vermiform granules are characteristic for

A. Keratinocytes of stratum basale
B. Langerhans cells
C. Keratinocytes of stratum granulosum
D. Melanocytes
E. Merkel cells

68. The cis-face of Golgi apparatus

A. Is closest to the cell membrane
B. Is concave in shape
C. Contains cisternae which are the sites of mannose phosphorylation
D. Is the exit face
E. Is separated from cell membrane by TGN

69. Elastic cartilage is present in

A. Epiglottis
B. Articular ends of long bones
C. Trachea
D. Pubic symphysis
E. Articular disks

70. Neurophysin I and II

A. Bind ADH and oxytocin
B. Are produced by pituicytes
C. Are synthesized in pineal gland
D. Are receptors for melatonin
E. Are inhibitory hormones
71. Eosin
A. Is a base
B. Stains acidic components of the cell
C. Colors the nucleus of the cell dark blue
D. Exhibit metachromasia
E. Stains acidophilic elements of the cell

72. Three-dimentional image of the specimen can be observed using

A. Freeze-fracture technique
B. Scanning electron microscopy
C. Transmission electron microscopy
D. Autoradiography
E. Light microscopy

73. Dura mater covering the brain

A. Contains villi
B. Forms subarachnoidal space
C. Contains trabecular cells
D. Is composed of 2 layers
E. Is avascular

74. Neurenteric canal

A. Is the opening in the cloacal membrane
B. Is located in the connecting stalk
C. Is called Allantoenteric diverticulum
D. Temporarily connects the amniotic and yolk sac cavities
E. Is converted into cloaca

75. Odontoblasts
A. Die before the tooth erupts into oral cavity
B. Are responsible for the formation of striae of Retzius
C. Produce ameloblastin
D. Possess processes located in dentinal tubules
E. Originate from the dental sac

76. The stem cells

A. Are unipotential
B. Are capable of self-renewal
C. Are present only in the bone marrow
D. Are precursor cells
E. Do not proliferate

77. Papillary layer of the dermis

A. Is composed of dense, irregular connective tissue
B. Contains Meissner corpuscles
C. Derives from ectoderm
D. Is connected to hypodermis
E. Contains abundant sweat and sebaceous glands

78. Countercurrent multiplier system

A. Is responsible for establishment of osmolarity gradient
B. Is composed of loops of Henle of cortical nephrons
C. Is composed of vasa recta
D. Contains descending limb of Henle loop completely impermeable to water
E. Depends on ADH
79. Gastric hydrochloric acid production is inhibited by
A. Acetylecholine
B. Urogastrone
C. Histamine
D. Gastrin
E. Ghrelin

80. The adrenal gland hormones which suppress the immune response
A. Are produced in zona glomerulosa
B. Belong to glucocorticoids
C. Are present in Chromaffin cells
D. Are responsible for the regulation of water balance by absorption of ions
E. Are called catecholamines

81. Classical liver lobule

A. Is called hepatic acinus
B. Has the portal area in its center
C. Is ovoid to diamond-shaped
D. Has central vein in its center
E. Is triangular

82. Exocelomic cavity

A. Is called primitive yolk sac
B. Is formed from large cavities developed in extraembryonic mesoderm
C. During further development is converted into chorionic cavity
D. Contains connecting stalk
E. Is converted into the amniotic cavity

83. Ribozymes
A. Are composed mostly of tRNA
B. Are present in small subunit of ribosome
C. Contain miRNA
D. Are enzymes which contain RNA in their active site
E. Are special type of mRNA

84. The autoimmune disease in which autoantibodies attach to acetylecholine receptors blocking their
availability to acetylecholine is called
A. Diabetes mellitus type 1
B. Psoriasis
C. Graves’ disease
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Multiple sclerosis

85. Chiasmata
A. Are formed in prophase II
B. Occur within the kinetochore
C. Are visible during equatorial division (meiosis II)
D. Are characteristic for apoptosis
E. Are crossing over sites

86. Cells of sinoatrial node (pacemaker) of the heart

A. Are elements of cardiac skeleton
B. Produce an atriopeptin
C. Are locates in the wall of the heart just above the tricuspid valve
D. Transmit signals to the myocardium of the atria via the atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)
E. Can spontaneously depolarize 70 times per minute
87. White blood cells responsible for elimination of antibody-antigen complexes and parasite are named
A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. NK cells
E. Neutrophils

88. Haversian canal systems are characteristic for

A. Primary bone
B. Spongy bone
C. Dipolë
D. Compact bone
E. Fibrocartilage

89. Acquired immune response

A. Depends on the activity of complement proteins
B. Is nonspecific
C. Depends on T and B lymphocytes
D. Has no immunological memory
E. Depends on defensing concentration

90. Penicillar arterioles are characteristic for

A. Lingual tonsil
B. Lymph node
C. Palatine tonsil
D. Thymus
E. Spleen

91. Colostrum
A. Is rich in vitamin A
B. Is usually produced by the week after parturition
C. Does not contain IgA
D. Is produced mainly be areolar glands of Montgomery
E. Is stored in cytoplasm of sebaceous gland cells

92. Loose connective tissue

A. Forms capsules of organs (spleen, kidney)
B. Forms ligaments
C. In large blood vessels forms thick medial membranes
D. Is composed mainly of type II collagen fibers
E. In the alimentary canal forms the stroma of the lamina propria

93. Luteinizing hormone (LH)

A. Is produced by hypothalamus
B. Is produced by acidophilic cells of adenohypophysis
C. Initiates the formation of primary follicle
D. Is released by granulosa-lutein cells
E. In high concentration triggers ovulation

94. Nissl bodies

A. Are aggregates of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Are absent at the axon hillock
C. Are responsible for the detoxification of the nerve cell
D. Contain dark brown to black melanin granules
E. Are present in axon terminals
 95. In pemphigus vulgaris
A. The autoantibodies against desmosomal proteins are produced
B. Dynein is not produced
C. Interciliary retrograde transport is disrupted
D. Mutant form of meckelin is produced
E. The connexons are destroyed by antibodies

96. To mucoperiosteum-lined spaces belong

A. Nasopharynx
B. Laryngopharynx
C. Oral pharynx
D. Paranasal sinuses
E. Lumen of trachea

97. Absorption of vitamin B12 occurs in

A. Ileum
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Cecum
E. Colon

98. Paneth cells

A. Are present in crypts of Liberkühn of large intestine
B. Produce defensins
C. Belong to DNES cells
D. Are similar to M cells (microfold cells)
E. Are stem cells

99. In smooth muscle, calcium ions are bound by

A. Troponin C
B. Calmodulin
C. Myosin light chain kinase
D. Tropomyosin
E. Troponin I

ANSWERS:
1. A 21. E 41. B 61. C 81. D
2. E 22. C 42. C 62. A 82. A
3. C 23. A 43. A 63. B 83. D
4. D 24. A 44. D 64. D 84. D
5. D 25. B 45. B 65. D 85. E
6. E 26. B 46. A 66. D 86. E
7. C 27. E 47. D 67. B 87. A
8. D 28. D 48. E 68. C 88. D
9. A 29. B 49. D 69. A 89. C
10. C 30. E 50. A 70. A 90. E
11. D 31. A 51. D 71. E 91. A
12. A 32. E 52. E 72. B 92. E
13. C 33. E 53. C 73. D 93. E
14. C 34. D 54. D 74. D 94. B
15. C 35. C 55. E 75. D 95. A
16. B 36. B 56. C 76. B 96. D
17. E 37. C 57. C 77. B 97. B
18. B 38. C 58. B 78. A 98. B
19. C 39. E 59. A 79. B 99. B
20. A 40. C 60. C 80. B