HISTOLOGY

2018
 Histology 1st intermediate

1. Primary cilia:
a. Contain dynein
b. Are present on most mammalian cells
c. Are motile
d. Are specialized in propelling mucus in respiratory tract
e. Move the fertilized ovum toward the uterus

2. In prometaphase of mitosis:
a. Sisters chromatids pull apart
b. The phosphorylation of nuclear lamins occurs
c. Chromosomes become maxillary condensed
d. Each set of chromosomes has reached its respective pole
e. A cleavage furrow begins to form

3. As a result of meiosis 1 and 2 are formed

a. Four haploid genetically identical cells
b. Four haploid, genetically distinct cells
c. Four diploid genetically identical cells
d. Two haploid genetically distinct cells
e. Two haploid genetically identical cells

4. The ability of the microscopic lens to show that two distinct objects are separated by a
distance is called:
a. Refraction index
b. Clearing
c. Metachromasia
d. Total magnification
e. Resolution

5. Discontinuous endothelial cells and basal lamina and many large fenestrae without
diaphragms are characteristics for
a. Visceral capillaries
b. Continuous capillaries
c. Fenestrated capillaries
d. Sinusoidal capillaries
e. Renal glomerulus
6. Outer nuclear membrane
a. Is surrounded by vimentin filaments
b. Is in close contact with lamins
c. Does not contain ribosomes
d. Contain emerin
e. Contains the contact sites for nuclear RNPs and chromosomes

7. Integrins, dystroglycans and laminins are present in:

a. Lamina densa
b. Lamina lucida
c. Lamina reticularis
d. Nuclear lamina
e. Microfibrils

8. Pericytes
a. Are modified fibroblasts
b. Possess actin, myosin and tropomyosin
c. Produce all extracellular matrix of connective tissue proper
d. Belong to transient cells of connective tissue
e. Are terminally differentiated not dividing cells

9. The nuclear pore complex contain

a. Importins
b. Karyopherins
c. Lumina spoke ring
d. Exportins
e. NLS

10. Epineurium:
a. Is a outermost layer of the tissue investment covering nerves
b. Is thinner than perineurium
c. Contains epithelial cells connect by zonulae occludentes
d. Is composed of the loose connective tissue
e. Does not contain elastic fibers

11. The action potential

a. Can occur only in nervous cells
b. Arises as a result of action of potassium ion leak channels
c. Is formed as a result of opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
d. Is a result of action of sodium-potassium pumps
e. In vivo is usually conducted in both directions
12. Ryanodine receptors:
a. Are voltage-gated calcium channels
b. Are located in membrane of T tubules
c. Pump the calcium ions into cisternae of SER after signal transmission
d. Bind neurotransmitters
e. Contain calponin

13. To the most common fixatives belong

a. Toluidine blue
b. Xylene
c. Paraffin
d. Hematoxylin
e. Formalin

14. Band 3 protein:

a. Is responsible for the chloride shift in erythrocytes
b. Participates in formation of reactive oxygen species in neutrophils
c. Is engaged in the phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes by eosinophil
d. Is the binding site for IgE in membrane of basophils
e. Promotes the aggregation of platelets

15. Hydrogen ions in subosteoclastic compartment are responsible for

a. Buffering hydrochloric acid
b. Dissolving inorganic component of the bone matrix
c. Formation of sealing zone
d. Formation of actin ring
e. Production of bicarbonate ions

16. Phospholamban after phosphorylation:

a. Is located mainly in membranes of T tubules
b. Is the component of costamere in cardiac muscle cells
c. Is the component of sarcomere
d. Is responsible for relaxation of cardiac muscle cells
e. Forms phosphagen energy system

17. Sensory ganglia:

a. Contain microglial cells
b. Are located in CNS
c. House mostly pseudounipolar neuron cell bodies
d. Do not contain glial cells at all
e. Are called ventral root ganglia
18. The Schwann cells:
a. Are covered by basal lamina
b. Are located in CNS
c. Are members of the mononuclear phagocyte system
d. Form vascular feet
e. Maintain blood-brain barrier

19. The enzyme required for Krebs cycle are located:

a. In inner mitochondrial membrane
b. In intramembranous space of mitochondrion
c. In outer mitochondrial membrane
d. In matrix of mitochondrion
e. In cristae

20. Claudins are components of:

a. Hemidesmosomes
b. Zonulae adherents
c. Desmosomes
d. Tight junctions
e. Gap junctions

21. To the ground substance belong

a. Elastic fibers
b. Collagen fibers
c. Glycosaminoglycans
d. Reticular fibers
e. Tropocollagen

22. The atrioventricular node

a. Is composed of modified cardiac muscle cells
b. Is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium
c. Is called pacemaker
d. Is regulated by the impulses arriving from bundle if His
e. Contain cells that can spontaneously depolarize 70-80 times per minutes

23. In smooth muscle cells alpha-actinin is located

a. Only in sarcolemma
b. Only in band M
c. In band H
d. In dense bodies
e. In transverse portion of intercalated disks
24. The structural organization of myosin filaments in skeletal muscle is maintained by:
a. Tropomodulin
b. Nebulin
c. Caldesmon
d. Tropomyosin
e. Titin

25. The percentage of monocytes in peripheral blood leukocytes is:

a. 50-70%
b. 2-4%
c. 0-1%
d. 20-25%
e. 3-8%

26. Potassium leak channels belong to:

a. Ungated channels
b. Ligand-gated channels
c. Voltage-gated channels
d. Mechanically gated channels
e. G-protein-gated ion channels

27. Vesicles that arise from endosomes to be returned to the trans Golgi network are
coated by
a. Coatomer 1
b. Cop
c. Retromer
d. Coatomer 2
e. Caveolin

28. Chondrocytes
a. Form synostosis
b. Are the main cells of tendons
c. Are located in lacunae surrounded by network of capillary blood vessels
d. Produce calcitonin
e. Produce collagen type 1 in annulus fibrosus

29. Cells responsible for inactivation of the inflammatory response and defense against
parasite are named
a. Megakaryocytes
b. Basophils
c. Neutrophils
d. Monocytes
 e. Eosinophils

30. Osteocytes
a. Resorb bone matrix
b. Have been implication in mechanotransduction
c. Are usually located at the surface of bone trabeculae
d. Originate from granulocyte-macrophage progenitors
e. Are responsible for sealing zone formation

31. Elastic cartilage:

a. is the most abundant cartilage in the body
b. contains mainly collagen type 1 fibers
c. is richly vascularized
d. does not possess perichondrium
e. forms epiglottis

32. Acid hydrolases are enzymes characteristics for

a. Golgi apparatus
b. Lipid rafts
c. Lysosomes
d. Mitochondria
e. RER
33. Proliferation of chondrocytes is not stimulated by:
a. IGF1
b. Growth hormone
c. Testosterone
d. Somatotropin
e. Estradiol

34. To the primary mediators of the mast cells belongs:

a. Eosinophil chemotactic factor
b. Leukotriene C4
c. Prostaglandin D2
d. Thromboxane A2
e. Arachidonic acid

35. Ribosomes contain RNA and therefore they are:

a. Stained with hematoxylin
b. Acidophilic
c. Basic
d. Stained with acid dyes
e. Stained pink
36. Large subunit of ribosome contains:
a. Site for binding peptidyl tRNA
b. Site for binding mRNA
c. Ribozyme
d. Site for binding aminoacyl tRNA
e. Site E

37. High-endothelial venules:

a. Belong to small lymphatic vessels
b. Are blood vessels in lymphatic organs
c. Are called lacteal vessels
d. End blindly
e. Are present in arteriovenous shunt

38. Thin filaments associated with tropomyosin and caldesmon are characteristics for
a. Nuclear bag fibers
b. Skeletal muscle fibers
c. Cardiac muscle cells
d. Striated muscle cells
e. Smooth muscle cells

39. The peripheral blood cells, which are similar to mast cells are termed:
a. Eosinophils
b. Basophils
c. Neutrophils
d. Monocytes
e. Thrombocytes

40. The polar heads of phospholipids:

a. Contains acid tails
b. Are composed of cholesterol
c. Are hydrophobic
d. Contain glycerol
e. Are located in the center of lipid bilayer

41. Weibel-Palade bodies:

a. Are activated by vasopressin
b. Are characteristic for smooth muscle cells
c. Are present only in postcapillary venules
d. Contain procoagulation factors
e. Release their content during diastole
42. Euchromatin:
a. Is condensed form of chromatin
b. Is localized mostly at the periphery of the nucleus
c. Is composed of 30nm thick tread-like material
d. Is inactive form of chromatin
e. Is not transcribed

43. The blood vessels which display undulating inner surface because of presence of
prominent internal elastic lamina are classifies as:
a. Conducting arteries
b. Elastic arteries
c. Muscular arteries
d. Small arterioles
e. Large veins

44. Reticular fibers

a. Are composed of collagen type 1
b. Form structural framework of the spleen
c. Contain fibrillin-1
d. Form anchoring fibers
e. Form a meshwork in lamina densa

45. The perikaryon is stained with basic dyes because contains

a. Hypolemmal cisternae
b. Numerous lysosomes
c. Axon hillock
d. Abundant RER
e. Prominent Golgi complex

46. The last nucleated cell in erythropoiesis is:

a. Basophilic erythroblast
b. Polychromatophlic erythroblast
c. Proerythroblast
d. Reticulocyte

47. Production of autoantibodies against desmosomal proteins results in:

a. Ciliopathy
b. Kartagener syndrome
c. Cardiac arrhythmias
d. Pemphigus vulgaris
e. Deafness
48. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
a. Constitutes the epidermis of the skin
b. Contains nucleated surface cells
c. Contains only cells which are in contact with basal lamina
d. Is ciliated exhibits a striated border

49. Aponeuroses are composed of:

a. Loose connective tissue
b. Dense regular elastic connective tissue
c. Dense irregular connective tissue
d. Reticular tissue
e. Dense regular collagenous connective tissue

50. The lateral portion of intercalated disks contain mainly:

a. Alpha actinin
b. Tight junctions
c. Fasciae adherents
d. Gap junctions
e. Myosin
 ANSWER

1B 18A 35A
2B 19D 36A
3B 20D 37B
4E 21C 38E
5D 22A 39B
6A 23D 40A
7B 24E 41D
8B 25E 42C
9C 26A 43C
10A 27C 44B
11C 28C 45D
12C 29E 46C
13E 30B 47D
14A 31E 48A
15B 32C 49E
16D 33E 50E
17C 34A
 Histology 1st intermediate Retake

1. Lamina reticularis of basement membrane contains:

a. Collagen type X
b. Collagen type IV
c. Integrins
d. Dystroglycans
e. Collagen type VII

2. Organelle that function in the catabolism of long-chained fatty acids (beta oxidation) is
called:
a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Proteasome
d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. Perioxisome

3. In mitochondrion, protein complexes of respiratory chain are located in:

a. Inner mitochondrial membrane
b. Outer mitochondrial membrane
c. Matrix
d. Intermembrane space
e. None of the above answer is correct

4. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium:

a. Does not contain a lot of goblet cells
b. Is characteristic for urinary bladder
c. Is capable of stretching and changing shape
d. Is a simple epithelium
e. Forms endothelial lining the blood vessels

5. Somatic capillaries
a. Have fenestrae in their walls
b. Are present in muscle tissue
c. Are characteristics for renal glomerulus
d. Are also known as visceral capillaries
e. Have discontinuous basal lamina
6. The GTP-binding protein involved in the nucleocytoplasmic transport is called:
a. Exportin
b. Importin
c. Ran
d. Nucleoporin
e. Basket protein

7. Opening of which channels cause depolarization of neuron cell membrane

a. Na+/K+ pump
b. Voltage-gated Na+ pump
c. K+ leak channel
d. Voltage-gated K+ channel
e. Voltage-gated Ca+ channel

8. Which of the mediators produced by the mast cells are an arachidonic acid?
a. Neutrophil chemotactic factor (NCF)
b. Heparin
c. Histamine
d. Prostaoglandins
e. Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF)

9. For the remodeling of extracellular matrix of connective tissue are responsible

a. Pericytes
b. Adipose cells
c. Mast cells
d. Fibroblast
e. Plasma cells

10. Which neuroglial cells are present in peripheral nervous system?

a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Astrocytes
d. Schwann cells
e. Microglial cells

11. The protein responsible for the binding actin filaments in the Z-lines is called
a. Mymesin
b. Titin
c. Alpha-actinin
d. Tropomyosin
e. Tropomodulin
12. Organelle responsible for the degradiation of proteins after their polyubiqitination is
called
a. Perioxisome
b. Proteasome
c. Early endosome
d. Golgi apparatus
e. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

13. Cells of blood responsible for the elimination of bacteria by the production of reactive
oxygen compounds are
a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophils
c. Basophils
d. Lymphocytes T
e. Lymphocytes B

14. The greatest resolution and magnification can be obtained in:

a. Light compound microscope
b. scanning electrone microscope
c. confocal microscope
d. light microscope
e. transmission electron microscope (TEM)

15. Chiasmata (crossing over sites) are formed in:

a. Zygotene of prophase 1
b. Diplotene of prophase 1
c. Metaphase 1
d. Leptotene of prophase 2
e. Pachytene of prophase 2

16. Epimysium
a. Is present around individual muscle cells
b. Surrounds a single bundle of skeletal muscle fibers
c. Is composed of dense collagenous connective tissue
d. Is bound to myofilaments
e. Contains thick bundles of elastic fibers
17. The intercellular junction responsible for the transport of ions and small molecules is
called
a. Tight junctions
b. Zonula occludens
c. Gap junction
d. Zonula adherens
e. Desmosome

18. rRNA
a. is also called siRNA (silencing RNA)
b. Is a kind of regulatory RNA
c. Transfers amino acids to the ribosome/mRNA complex
d. Is synthesixed in the fibrilar region (pars fibrosa) of the nucleolus
e. Carries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm

19. The syndrome in which individual possesses three sex chromosome (XXY) is called
a. Down syndrome
b. Klinefelter syndrome
c. Turner syndrome
d. Fragile X syndrome
e. Marfan syndrome

20. Nissl bodies

a. are groups of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. are absent in axon hillock
c. are present in terminal parts of axons
d. contain microtubules associated with MAP2-protein
e. are present in collateral axons

21. a large amound of connective tissue is characteristics for

a. tunica adcentitia of blood vessels
b. capsule of spleen and lymph node
c. aponeuroses
d. tendons and ligaments
e. ligament flaca in vertebral column

22. neutrophils constitute

a. 1-5% of white blood cels
b. 0-1% of white blood cells
c. 60-70% of white blood cells
d. 3-8% of white blood cells
e. 20-45% of white blood cells
23. The presence of goblet cells is characteristic for
a. simple cuboidal epithelium
b. simple squamous epithelium
c. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
d. transitional epithelium
e. simple columnar epithelium

24. cells of the blood responsible for the humoral response are called
a. lymphocytes B
b. lymphocytes T
c. Null cells
d. NK cells
e. T cytotoxic cells

25. Osteoprotegerin (OPG)

a. inhibits osteoclast formation
b. is produced by macrophages
c. binds RANK protein
d. is activated by M-CSF (macrophage colony-stimulating factor)
e. causes differentiation of osteoclasts precursors into the multinucleated
osteoclasts

26. microvilli
a. contain axoneme
b. are motile structure
c. form brush border in small intestine
d. are characteristics for the respiratory tract
e. in the oviduct are responsible for the transport of ovum

27. contraction of smooth muscle cells

a. does not depend on the autonomic nervous system
b. depends on activation of receptors of T tubule
c. is associated with binding of calcium ions with troponin C
d. Is a voluntary contraction
e. Requires binding of calcium ions with calmodulin
28. One microliter (ul.mm3) of blood contain
a. 150.000-450.000 of red blood cells
b. 4.5-5.0 million of platelets
c. 10.000-30.000 of white blood cells
d. 4000-11.000 of white blood cells
e. 4.000-11.000 if red blood cells

29. sinoatrial node of the heart

a. is responsible for the slowing of the impulses
b. spontaneously depolarize 20-30 times per minute
c. is located in subendocardial connective tissue of left ventricle
d. is formed in the wall of the left atrium
e. is composed of specialized cardiac muscle cells

30. perichondrium
a. is absent in most hyaline and elastic cartilage
b. is present around the fibrocartilage
c. contains blood vessels that supply nutrients to chondrocytes
d. in inner cellular layer contains mainly adipose cells
e. in outer fibrous layer contains mainly type IV collage

31. in endochondral bone formation

a. primary bone is not replaced by secondary (lamellar) bone
b. mesenchymal cells differentiate directly into osteocytes
c. all skull flat bones are formed
d. primary ossification center is formed in clusters of mesenchymal cells
e. bone collar is formed by intramembranous bone formation.

32. Synovial fluid

a. Contains hyaluronic acid and lubricin
b. Is produced by Type A cells of synovial membrane
c. Is present between bones in synostosis
d. Occurs between skull bones in adults
e. Is characteristics for the synchondrosis

33. A meshwork of type IV collagen fibers is present in:

a. Lamina propria
b. Lamina lucida
c. Lamina rara
d. Lamina reticularis
e. Lamina densa
34. Enzyme that converts prothrombin (a plasma protein) into thrombin is called
a. Prostacyclin
b. Thromboplastin
c. NO
d. Endothelin
e. Von Willebrandt factor

35. Foreign- body giant cells are formed by the fusion of

a. Tissue neutrophils
b. Plasma cells
c. Macrophages
d. Mast cells
e. Pericyte

36. Tunica adventitia of elastic (conducting) artery

a. Does not contain lymphatic vessels and nerve fibers
b. Contains vasa vasorum
c. Is thicker than tunica media
d. It is very thin and sometimes absent
e. Is composed of dense collagenous connective tissue

37. Eosin
a. Dyes basic components of the cell
b. Is a base
c. Colors the acidic components of the cell
d. Dyes well components dark blue color
e. Is a metachromatic dye

38. Ground substance of connective tissue proper does not contain

a. Hyaluronic acid
b. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
c. Proteoglycans
d. Glycoproteins
e. Elastic fibers

39. Elastic cartilage

a. contains collagen type 2 fibers
b. is not surrounded by perichondrium
c. forms cartilage templates (models) of many bones during embryonic
development
d. possesses bundles of type 1 collages fibers
e. is similar to the dense regular connective tissue
40. Motor protein associated with microtubule is
a. MAP3
b. Tau
c. Map2
d. Kinesin
e. Lis 1

41. Osteoclast
a. Have the activity of carbonic anhydrase
b. Are present in the periosteum and endosteum
c. Are inhibited by parathyroid hormone and stimulated by calcitonin
d. Have long processes located in canaliculi
e. Are trapped in bone matrix

42. Autoimmune disease that causes demyelination of axons in the central nervous system
is called
a. Parkinson disease
b. Gullain-barre syndrome
c. Huntington chorea
d. Multiple schlerosis
e. Alzheimers disease

43. In sarcomere both thin and thick myofilaments are present in:
a. H band
b. I band
c. A band
d. M band
e. Z line

44. Cholesterol molecules

a. Are located mainly in inner leaflet of the cell membrane
b. Are not amphipathic
c. Are absent in lipids rafts
d. Reduce the fluidity of the cell membrane
e. Increases the transport across the cell membrane
45. In chromosome sister chromatids are joined together at
a. Centromere
b. Centrosome
c. Centriole
d. Telomere
e. Barr body

46. Reticular fibers

a. Can stretch up to 3 times their length
b. Are the most numerous in ligaments
c. Are formed by collagen type 3 fibers
d. Contain tropoelastin molecules
e. Form concentric sheets in the walls of larger blood vessels

47. The protein responsible for the ciliary beating is called

a. Calmodulin
b. Actin
c. Villin
d. Myosin
e. Dynein

48. Red muscle fibers

a. generate ATP mainly by anaerobic processes
b. are responsible for the long-duration, low intensity movement
c. are fast but soon fatique
d. have high concentration of hemoglobin
e. have lower number of mitochondria than white muscle fibers

49. the chemical reagent used for the dehydration of tissue during preparation of
histological slides is:
a. paraffin
b. formalin
c. bouin fluid
d. alchohol
e. toluidine blue

50. intermediate filaments located in the nucleus are called

a. keratins
b. lamins
c. desmin
d. vimentins
e. neurofilmanets
 ANSWER

1E 18D 35C
2E 19B 36B
3A 20B 37A
4D 21A 38E
5B 22C 39A
6C 23E 40D
7B 24A 41A
8D 25A 42D
9D 26C 43C
10D 27E 44D
11C 28D 45A
12B 29E 46C
13B 30C 47E
14E 31E 48B
15B 32A 49D
16C 33E 50B
17C 34B
 Histology 1st intermediate, 2nd retake

1. Blood serum does not contain

a. Albumin
b. Globulins
c. Fibronogen
d. Glucose
e. Electrolytes

2. Inner nuclear membrane

a. Is surrounded by meshwork of vimentin
b. Is continuous with rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Contains ribosomes
d. Is in close contact with nuclear lamina
e. Is continuous with Golgi apparatus

3. High endothelial venules

a. Are present in lymphoid organs
b. Have stratified columnar endothelium
c. Are located primarily in central nervous systems
d. Belong to the lymphatic vessels
e. Prevent the migration of lymphocytes

4. Which neuroglial cells are located in peripheral nerve system?

a. Ependymal cells
b. Astrocytes
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Microglial cells
e. Schwann cells

5. Three-dimensional structure of the cell surface can be observed in

a. Transmission electron microscope
b. Scanning electron microscope
c. Light compound microscope
d. Florscent microscope
e. None of the above answers are correct
6. Lamina
a. Are intermediate filaments located in the cytoplasm of the cell
b. Are involved in organization of chromatin
c. Are located between inner and outer nuclear membrane
d. Are in close contact with the outer nuclear membrane
e. Are continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum

7. Which cell is responsible for the production of large amount of GAGs in connective
tissue?
a. Adipose cell
b. Mast cell
c. Fibroblast
d. Pericyte
e. Plasma cell

8. myosin in central nervous system is produced by

a. schwann cells
b. oligodendrocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. fibrous astrocytes
e. satellite cells

9. lamina retiuclaris of the basement membrane

a. is composed of lamina lucida and lamina densa
b. contains a meshwork of type 2 collagen
c. is present only in basement membrane of simple epithelium
d. is a part of basal lamina
e. is manufactured by fibroblast

10. in elastic conducting arteries

a. tunica adventitia is much thicker than tunica media
b. tunica adventitia contains vasa vasorum
c. tunica media contains mainly smooth muscle cells
d. tunica intima does not contain internal elastic lamina
e. tunica media does not contain external elastic lamina

11. only glial cells which originate from mesoderm are called
a. microglial cells
b. protoplasmic astrocytes
c. fibrous astrocytes
d. ependymocytes
e. oligodendrocytes
12. sinoatrial node (pacemaker) of the heart)
a. is located in the wall of the left atrium
b. spontaneously depolarize 40-60 times per minute
c. slows down impulses transmitted from atrioventricular node
d. is a part of bundle of His
e. is composed of specialized cardiac muscle cells

13. Weibel-Palade bodies contain

a. Von Willebrand factor
b. Fibrinogen
c. Renin
d. Prostacyclin
e. Thrombin

14. the protein that blocks the active sites of F-actin in smooth muscle cells is named
a. vimentin
b. desmin
c. calmodulin
d. caldesmon
e. protein C

15. the goal of meiosis is to produce

a. four daughter cells, identical with parent cell
b. four haploid cells with identical genetic information
c. four haploid cells with different genetic information
d. two diploid cells with identical genetic information
e. four diploid cells with different genetic information

16. which amino acids are characteristics for collagen type 1 fibers?
a. Valine and hydroxyproline
b. Hydroxylysine and aspartic acod
c. Phenylalanine and hydroxlysine
d. Hydroxprolline and cysteine
e. Hydroxproline and hydroxlysine

17. Primary bone

a. Has irregular bundles of collagen fibers
b. Is composed of parallel bony lamellae
c. Is more calcified than secondary bone
d. Is not present in sutures of the calvaria
e. Forms the diaphysis of long bone in adults
18. During contraction of sarcomere occurs
a. Shortening of A bands
b. Shortening of I bands
c. Shortening of thin filaments
d. Shortening of thick filaments
e. Shortening of all bands of sarcomere

19. Pseudostratified epithelium

a. Is present in the renal calyces
b. Is a kind of stratified epithelium
c. Is a special type of epithelium which has an ability to stretch
d. Is composed of a single layers of cells
e. Is found in gastrointestinal tract

20. Eosinophils
a. Constitute 0-1% of the total white blood cells
b. Have receptors for IgA immunoglobulins
c. Are involved in immune receptors
d. Release histamine and heparin after stimulation
e. Have S-shaped nuclei

21. Which protein is not involved in transport of neurotransmitters in chemical synapses?

a. Synatotagmin
b. Synapsin-1
c. Synatonermal complex protein
d. Synapsin-2
e. Synatophysin

22. The term “hermatocrit” is defined as

a. The volume of blood plasma (in milliliters)
b. The relative volume of buffy coat to the total volume of blood (%)
c. The relative volume of red blood cells to the total volume of blood (%)
d. The volume of red blood cells (in milliliters)
e. The total volume of red blood cells within all formed elements (%)

23. Dense regular elastic connective tissue is present in

a. Sheaths of nerves
b. Capsule of kidneys
c. Walls of large blood vessels
d. Tendons
e. Aponeuroses
24. Collagen type 3 is the main component of
a. Elastic fibers
b. Lamina densa of the basal lamina
c. Fibers responsible for attachment of lamina densa to lamina reticularis
d. Reticular fibers
e. Hyaline and elastic cartilage

25. Resting potential is generated, among others, by:

a. Action of voltage-gated potassium channels
b. Action of voltage-gated sodium channels
c. Action of voltage-gated calcium channels
d. Action of potassium leak channels
e. All answers are correct

26. Unipolar (pseudounipolar) nerve cells

a. Are the most common neurons
b. Have one axon and multiple dendrites
c. Have single axon and single dendrite
d. Are present in the olfactory epithelium of nasal cavity
e. Have only one process which branches into central and peripheral branch

27. To the mononuclear phagocyte system belon

a. Kupffer cells
b. Dust cells
c. Langerhans cells
d. Microglial cells
e. All answers are correct

28. Nuclear pore complex does not contain

a. Cytoplasmic ring
b. Spoke-like proteins
c. Nuclear ring
d. Nuclear basket
e. Karyopherins

29. During intramembranous bone formation

a. The primary ossification center is formed in hyaline cartilage model
b. Bone collar is formed within the cartilage model
c. Mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblast
d. Osteoclast produce the bone matrix on the surface of the calcified cartilage model
e. Long bones are formed
30. Which factor is a secondary mediator of mast cells?
a. Heparin
b. Prostaglandin
c. Neutrophil chemotactic factor (NCF)
d. Histamine
e. Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF)

31. During contraction of smooth muscle cells calcium ions are bound by
a. Tropomyosin
b. Troponin C
c. Myosin light chain kinase
d. Calmodulin
e. Caldesmon

32. Peroxisomes
a. Are self-replacing organelles
b. Are composed of multisubunit protein complexes
c. Are present in nucleus and in cytoplasm
d. Possess cardiolipin in their outer membrane
e. House the enzymes responsible for ubiquitnation of proteins

33. Nucleosome
a. Is the main element of 11nm thread of chromatin (beads on string)
b. Is responsible for packaging DNA into 300mm chromatin fibers
c. Is composed of a tetramer of histones H1, H2, H3, H4
d. Is composed of an octamer of histones H1, H2, H3, H4
e. Is wrapped with 4 complete turns of the DNA molecule

34. Osteoprotegin (OPG)

a. Binds with RANK on the surface of osteoclasts
b. Inhibits osteoclasts formation
c. Binds with RANK on the surface of osteoclast precursor
d. Inhibits osteoblast activation
e. Stimulates osteoclast formation

35. Elastic protein which anchors the thick filaments into Z disk is called
a. Nebulin
b. Tropomodulin
c. Alpha-actinin
d. Titin
e. Vimentin
36. One microliter (yl) of blood contain
a. 150 000 - 400 000 of white blood cells (WBCs)
b. 4 000 - 11 000 of red blood cells (RBCs)
c. 4 - 6 million of platelets
d. 4 000 - 11 000 of white blood cells (WBCs)
e. 150 000 - 400 000 of red blood cells (RBCs)

37. “clock face” nucleus is characteristics for

a. adipose cells
b. fibroblast
c. macrophage
d. plasma cells
e. mast cells

38. which intermediate filaments are characteristics for epithelial cells

a. lamins
b. vimentin
c. neurofilaments
d. cytokeratins
e. desmin

39. transitional epithelium

a. contains goblet cells
b. forms endothelial lining of blood vessels
c. is composed of a single layer of cells
d. contains cells, which possess cilia on the apical surface
e. lines the urinary tract

40. endomysium
a. surrounds the entire muscle
b. surrounds individual muscle cells
c. surrounds bundles of skeletal muscle fibers
d. is composed of dense connective tissue
e. is composed of dense and loose connective tissue

41. which gland is holocrine?

a. Sebaceous gland
b. Sweat gland
c. Lactating mammary gland
d. Islets of Langerhans
e. Salivary gland
42. Collagen type IV is present in
a. Cartilage of epiphyseal plate
b. Primary bone
c. Basal lamina of epithelium
d. Desmosomes
e. Hemidesmosomes

43. Fibrocartilage
a. Is surrounded by perichondrium
b. Forms the cartilage templates of long bones during embryonic development
c. Has matrix that contains mainly collagen type II fibers
d. Possesses fine to coarse branching fibers that are responsible for its flexibility
e. Possesses chondrocyte aligned in parallel rows

44. Lipid rafts contain

a. Caveolins
b. Small amount of cholesterol
c. Small amount of sphingolipids
d. Small amount of receptor proteins
e. All answers are correct

45. Sinusoidal capillaries are present in

a. Bone marrow
b. Pancreas
c. Muscle tissue
d. Intestine
e. Brain

46. Aggrecan
a. Is a small, nonaggregating proteoglycan
b. Is responsible for hydration of hyaline cartilage
c. Does not occur in tracheal rings
d. Does not contain chrondroitin sulfate
e. Is present only in territorial matrix of the hyaline cartilage

47. Sharpey’s fibers

a. Anchor the periosteum to the bone
b. Are present around the Haversian canal
c. Establish connections of the Haversian canals with the inner and outer surface of
the bone
d. Are cytoplasmic processes of osteoblast
e. Connect lamellae of Haversian systems
48. reticulocytes
a. still have nuclei
b. are present only in the bone marrow
c. constitute about 1-2% of red blood cells
d. do not possess rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. are present in the bloodstream only after bleeding

49. osteoprogenitor cells of the bone are present

a. only in primary bone
b. mainly in Howship’s lacunae
c. only in lacunae of the bone
d. in canaliculi
e. in endosteum

50. in the sarcomere, protein responsible for masking the active sites of the actin filament is
called
a. tropomodulin
b. tropomyosin
c. cap Z
d. alpha-actinin
e. all answers are correct
 ANSWERS

1C 18B 35D
2D 19D 36D
3A 20C 37D
4E 21C 38D
5B 22E 39E
6C 23C 40B
7C 24D 41A
8B 25D 42C
9E 26E 43E
10B 27A 44E
11A 28E 45A
12E 29C 46B
13A 30B 47A
14C 31E 48C
15C 32A 49E
16E 33D 50B
17C 34D
 Embryo 2nd intermediate

1. The oocyte finishes its second meiotic division

a. After Graafian follicle reaches maturity
b. Just before Graafian follicle reaches maturity
c. After the entry of spermatozoon
d. Immediately after ovulation
e. Just before ovulation

2. Methylation of cytosine bases in the promoter regions of the genes

a. Represses transcription
b. Initiates transcription
c. Enhances gene expression
d. Induces replication
e. Represses replication

3. The fetal surface of the placenta

a. Is composed of the decidual septa
b. Is covered entirely by the chorionic plate
c. Is covered by the decidua capsularis
d. Is covered by the thin layer if the deciuda basalis
e. Does not contain the blood vessels

4. Cretinism characterized by failure of growth and mental retardation may be caused by

a. Inhibition of the chief cells in parathyroid glands
b. Over-expression of calcitonin
c. Congenitally missing thyroid gland
d. Lack of zona glomerulosa in adrenal glands
e. Over-expression of catecholamines

5. Group of anomalies occurring together and having a specific, common cause is known as
a. Malformation
b. Disruption
c. Deformation
d. Syndrome
e. Association
6. Cranial-to-caudal pattering if the derivatives of all three germ layers depends primarily on
the expression of
a. Homeobox genes
b. Genes coding morphogens
c. Insulin-growth factor gene
d. Follistatin gene
e. Chordin gene

7. Which substance is not produced by Sertoli cells

a. Inhibin
b. Androgen-binding protein
c. Antimullerian hormone
d. Testicular transferrin
e. Dihydrostestosterone

8. Which gland or its component houses postganglionic sympathetic cells that lack dendrites
and axons
a. Suprarenal medulla
b. Suprarenal cortex
c. Ovary medulla
d. Pineal gland
e. Parathyroid

9. Functional layer of endometrium is vascularized by

a. Arcuate arteries
b. Straight arteries
c. Helical arteries
d. Portal arteries
e. Cortical arteries

10. Indicate the maternal serum screening test during pregnancy

a. Chorionic villus sampling
b. Measurement of alfa-fetoprotein concentration
c. Amniocentesis
d. Ultrasonography
e. Both answers A and B are correct
11. The inferior parathyroid glands develop
a. In the third pharyngeal pouches
b. In the fourth pharyngeal pouches
c. From the maxillary prominence
d. From the mandibular prominence
e. In the fourth pharyngeal arch

12. The theca interna cells produce

a. Androstenedione
b. LH
c. FSH
d. Activin
e. Estrogen

13. Germinal epithelium of testis

a. Is composed of Sertoli cells and spermatogenic cells
b. Is composed of only diploid cells
c. Is composed of only haploid cells
d. Only answer A and B are correct
e. Only answer A and C are correct

14. At the eight day of development trophoblast differentiate into cytotrophoblast and:
a. Amnioblast
b. Hypoblast
c. Syncytiotrophoblast
d. Epiblast
e. Primitive yolk sac

15. Relaxation of smooth muscles of the branches of the deep and dorsal arteries of the penis
depends on the local release of
a. Nitric oxide
b. Calcium ions
c. Dihydrotestosterone
d. Oxytocin
e. Sodium ions

16. Insufficient amount of amniotic fluid known as oligohydramnios is usually related to

a. Renal agenesis
b. Anencephaly
c. Pituitary agenesis
d. Suprarenal atresia
e. Lack of angiogenesis
17. Which cells/structures do not exist in adenohypophysis?
a. Fenestrated capillaries
b. Mammotrophs
c. chromophobes
d. Pituicytes
e. Gonadothrops

18. Primordial germ cells (PGCs) are formed in the epiblast during the
a. Second week
b. Fifth week
c. Tenth week
d. Fifth month
e. After the birth

19. An excessive amound of amniotic fouid known as hydroamnios is usually associated with
a. Esophageal atresia
b. Renal agenesis
c. Gemolytic disease
d. Yolk sac atresia
e. Amniotic bands

20. Aldosterone is synthesize and released by

a. Spongiocytes
b. Parenchymal cells of the largest layer of the suprarenal cortex
c. Cells arranged in radial columns
d. Cells arranged in chords and clusters
e. Suprarenal medulla

21. Indicate the intratesticular genital duct

a. Ductus deferens
b. Tubuli recti
c. Ductus epididymis
d. Ejaculatory duct
e. None from above

22. Which elements are located in endocrine glands

a. Parenchymal cells
b. Blood vessels
c. Lymphatic vessels
d. Nerves
e. All above answers are correct
23. Mark FALSE statement describing gastrulation
a. Gastrulation occurs during fifth week of development
b. Process establishes all three germ layers
c. Gastrulation begins with the formation of primitive streak
d. During gastrulation endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm is formed
e. Cell specification during gastrulation is controlleg by FGF8

24. In primordial follicle the flattened follicular cells surround the

a. Oogonium
b. Primary oocyte arrested in the prophase stage of meiosis 1
c. Primary oocyte in the metaphase stage of meiosis 2
d. Secondary oocyte arrested in the prophage stage of meiosis 1
e. Secondary oocyte arrested in the metaphase stage of meiosis 1

25. Term spermiogenesis describes

a. Releasing spermatogonia into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule
b. Differentiation of spermatoginia into primary spermatocytes
c. Transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa
d. Differentiation of primary spermatocytes into secondary spermatocytes
e. Phase in which spermatozoa become capacitated

26. Which structure does not pass thorugh the primitive umbilical ring at the fifth week of
development
a. Connecting stalk
b. Yolk stalk
c. Vitelline vessels
d. Tertiary villi
e. Umbilical vessel

27. Activity of which cells lowers calcium concentration in body fluids

a. Cells of zona fasciulata
b. Cells of zona reticularis
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Chromaffin cells
e. Chief cells
28. Mark FALSE statement describing acrosome reaction
a. Acrosome reaction occurs after sperm binding to zona pellucida
b. Acrosome reaction is induced by zona pellucida proteins
c. This reaction culminates in release of enzymes needed to penetrate zona
pellucida
d. Acrosome reaction occurs immediately after sperm enters female genital tract
e. Only capacitated sperm can undergo acrosome reaction

29. The parenchymal cells of the pineal gland are known as

a. Interstitial cells
b. Pituicytes
c. Pinealocytes
d. Spongiocytes
e. Astrocytes

30. The surface of the tertiary vili is formed by

a. Amnioblast
b. extraembryonic mesoderm
c. Cytotrophoblast
d. Syncytitrophoblast
e. Deciudal cells

31. Second meiotic division forms haploid cells known as

a. Spermatogonia A
b. Primary spermatocytes
c. Secondary spermatocytes
d. Spermatids
e. Spermatogonia B

32. Which protein are present in the primitive node

a. Noggin
b. Chordin
c. Follistatin
d. Only answers A and B are correct
e. Answers A, B, and C are correct

33. Follicular cells surrounding the primary oocyte are separated from the connective tissue
stroma by
a. Granulosa cells
b. Myocytes
c. Basal lamina
d. Cumulus oophorus
 e. Zona pellucida

34. Leydig cells

a. Contain crystalloids of Charcot-Bottcher
b. Possess receptors for FSH
c. Form occluding junctions
d. Produce luteinizing hormone
e. Are endocrine cells

35. Vagina is lined with

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Pseudostratified epithelium
e. Stratified squamous epithelium

36. Change of endometrial cells resulting in polyhedral shape and glycogen accumulation is
called
a. Acrosomal reaction
b. Gastrulation
c. Decidua reactions
d. Compaction
e. Cavitation

37. Sclerotomes give rise to

a. Subcutaneous tissue
b. Skin
c. Sweat glands
d. Cartilage and bone
e. Muscle tissue

38. Ultrasound as a valuable tool to estimate the age of the fetus can provide an accurate
measurement of CRL (crown-rump length) during
a. 7th-14th weeks of pregnancy
b. 3rd-7th week of pregnancy
c. 14th-17th week of pregnancy
d. 17th-20th week of pregnancy
e. 20th-25th week of pregnancy

39. ACTH
a. Is released by acidophils in adenohypophysis
b. Acts in the receptors in the adrenal gland medulla
 c. Induces the release of glucocorticoids by cells of zona fasciculate
d. Acts on melanocytes of the skin to produce melanin
e. All of the above are correct

40. Which hormone is not produced by the syncytiotrophoblast?

a. Progesterone
b. Estriol
c. Somatomammotropin
d. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
e. Human chorionic gonadotropin

41. The endodermal germ layer initially forms the

a. Peripheral nervous system
b. Supporting tissues if the body
c. Spleen
d. Vascular system
e. Epithelial lining of the primitive gut

42. Which cells are not neural crest derivatives

a. Odontoblast
b. Glial cells
c. Adipocytes
d. Melanocytes
e. Schwann cells

43. Ovulation is caused by a mid-cycle surge of

a. LH
b. FSH
c. Estrogens
d. Androgens
e. None of the above

44. Seminal vesicles

a. Are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Are tubuloalveolar glands
c. Are covered by the tunica albuginea
d. Produce fructose-rich seminal fluid
e. House corpora amylacea

45. Sonic hedgehog (SHH) is involved in:

a. Development of vasculature
b. Left-right axis formation
 c. Neural patterning
d. Smooth muscle patterning
e. All of the above are correct

46. The majority of gross structural birth defects are induced

a. Immediately after implantation
b. Between fertilization and implantation
c. During the period known as organogenesis
d. During sixth month of development
e. Just before delivery

47. Indicate the stage of follicle development in which the first time theca interna is visible
a. Primordial follicle
b. Unilaminar primary follicle
c. Multilaminar primary follicle
d. Secondary follicle
e. Graafian follicle

48. Preeclampsia is characterized by

a. Extensive syncytial knots formation
b. Decidua capsularis atresia
c. Chorion laeve atresia
d. Incomplete differentiation of cytotrophoblast cells
e. Lack if free villi

49. Definitive Hemopoietic stem cells arise from mesoderm of:

a. Aorta gonad-mesonephros
b. Liver
c. Yolk sac
d. Bone marrow
e. Heart

50. Process when glycoprotein coat and seminal plasma proteins are spermatozoa is called
a. compaction
b. capacitation
c. ovulation
d. gastrulation
e. fertilization
 ANSWER

1C 18A 35E
2A 19A 36C
3B 20D 37D
4C 21B 38A
5D 22E 39C
6A 23A 40D
7E 24B 41C
8A 25C 42C
9C 26D 43A
10B 27C 44D
11A 28D 45E
12A 29C 46C
13A 30D 47C
14C 31D 48D
15A 32E 49A
16A 33C 50B
17D 34E
 Embryo 2nd intermediate, retake

1. The definitive yolk sac lies in the

a. Intraembryonic cavity
b. Chorionic cavity
c. Amnion
d. Allantois
e. Exocelomic cavity

2. Crystals of Reinke can be found in the

a. C cells
b. Theca lutein cells
c. Oxyphil cells
d. Leydig cells
e. Granulosa cells

3. Which hormone is not synthesized from cholesterol?

a. Clucocorticouds
b. Mineralocorticoids
c. Estrogens
d. Progesterone
e. Parathyroid hormone

4. Which hormone may restore normal blood pressure after severe hemorrhage?
a. Vasopressin
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. Thyrotropin
e. Parathyroid hormone

5. Which maternal immunoglobulin begins to be transported from mother to fetus at

approximately 14 weeks?
a. Immunoglobulin A
b. Immunoglobulin M
c. Immunoglobulin G
d. Immunoglobulin D
e. Immunoglobulin E
6. At the beginning of each ovarian cycle primary follicles and granulosa cells maturation is
directly and mostly stimulated by
a. FSH
b. LH
c. GnRH
d. Estradiol
e. Androgens

7. Spherical vesicular elements increasing in number during the dark period of the diurnal
cycle is characteristic for:
a. Chromaffin cells
b. Microglia
c. Interstitial cells
d. Pituicytes
e. Pinealocytes

8. Mark FALSE statement describing pineal gland

a. Pinealocytes cinstitute main population of the pineal gland
b. Synaptic ribbons can be observed in pinealocytes
c. Interstitial cells of pineal gland release melatonin
d. Pineal gland is covered with pia matter
e. Pineal gland is thought to influence gonadal activity

9. Fetus papyraceus is characterized by

a. Hydramnios
b. Compression and mummification
c. Misexpression if Goosecoid gene
d. Lack of the placenta
e. Pygopagus

10. Secondary villi LACK

a. Mesoderm core
b. Cytotrophoblast
c. Villous capillaries
d. Syncytiotrophoblast
e. Syncytial layer
11. Oogenesis begins
a. Before birth
b. 1 month after birth
c. 1 year after birth
d. 5 years after the birth
e. at puberty

12. somitomeres
a. consist of ectodermal cells
b. appear in the cephalic region of the embryo
c. consist of endodermal cells
d. form neuromeres
e. develop from intermediate mesoderm
13. the human placenta is of the
a. hemochorial type
b. hemoamnional type
c. hydroamniosal type
d. oligohydramniosal type
e. other answer is correct

14. first blood cells arise in:

a. blood island in the yolk sac
b. mesoderm surrounding the aorta
c. liver
d. spleen
e. bone marrow

15. ovaries are covered with

a. germinal epithelium
b. loose connective tissue
c. dense connective tissue
d. yellow adipose tissue
e. reticular tissue

16. laron dwarfism

a. is connected with high intrauterine growth restriction
b. depends on inhibition IGF-1 production during fetal life
c. results from mutations in the GHR
d. results from mutation in the IGFR
e. is characterized by mid-facial hyperplasia
17. somatostatin is produced by
a. beta-cells
b. alpha-cells
c. delta-cells (D cells)
d. G cells
e. PP cells

18. Morphogene is a
a. Secreted molecule that establishes concentration gradients and instructs cells
how to become different tissues
b. Membrane bound molecule that prevents cell differentiation
c. Membrane bound molecule that induces apoptosis
d. Gene that is expressed only in stem cells
e. None of the above is correct

19. Parenchyma of the thyroid is derivative of

a. Ectoderm
b. Intraembryonic mesoderm
c. Extraembryonic mesoderm
d. Endoderm
e. Neuroectoderm

20. Zona reaction

a. Prevents polyspermy
b. Allows release of second polar body
c. Allows penetration of zona pellucida by sperm
d. Involves release of enzymes such as acrosin and trypsin-like
e. Results in activiation of oocyte

21. Neural crest cells form

a. Melanocytes
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Schwann cells
d. Odontoblast
e. All of the above

22. Ejaculatory duct

a. Opens in the prostatic urethra
b. Possesses a thick muscular layer
c. Is lined by a pseudostratified epithelium
d. Convey spermatozoa from rete testis to epididymis
e. Its adventitia is highly vascularized
23. Physiological umbilical hernia
a. Is formed by extruding intestinal loops
b. Is formed by amniotic bands
c. Exists in 3-week embryo
d. disappears directly before delivery
e. Is connected with lack of blood vessels

24. Oviduct is lined with

a. simple squamous epithelium
b. simple cuboidal epithelium
c. simple columnar epithelium
d. pseudostratified epithelium
e. stratified squamous epithelium

25. inner cell mass of the blastocyst gives rise to

a. placenta only
b. embryo proper only
c. placenta and embryo porper
d. trophoblast
e. none of the above is correct

26. the cells of the zona glomerulosa synthesize deoxycorticosterone when stimulated by
a. epinephrine
b. interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)
c. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
d. somatotropin
e. lutenizing hormone (LH)

27. erythrocyte mosaicism which occurs in dizygotic twins indicates that during pregnany
a. Fusion of their placentas was so intimate that red cells were exchanged
b. Hematopoiesis occurs incorrectly
c. Both twins possessed only one placenta
d. Mothers blood was completely mixed with the blood of the twins
e. Secondary villi do not exist

28. an excessive amount of amniotic fluid known as hydramnios is usually associated with
a. renal agenesis
b. anencephaly
c. cardiac agenesis
d. yolk sac atresia
e. lack of vasculogenesis
29. during spermatocytogenesis
a. spermatids transform into sperm
b. primary speramtocytes reduce their chromosome complement
c. secondary spermatocytes divide to become spermatids
d. spermatogonia differentiate into primary spermatocytes
e. all of the above are part of spermatocytogenesis

30. peg cells

a. use their cilia to facilitate the movement of oocyte from ovary into uterus
b. their product facilitate sperm capacitation
c. can be found in the vagina
d. release progesterone
e. release androgens

31. the intervillious spaces of the placenta are lined by

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
c. amnioblast
d. extraembryonic mesoderm
e. intraembryonic mesoderm

32. mark FALSE statement about parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland
a. parafollicular cells release parathormone
b. parafollicular cells are also named C cells
c. parafollicular cells do not contact the colloid
d. parafollicular cells are derived from neural crest cells
e. parafollicular cells are considered to be members of DNES cells

33. implantation occurs at the

a. pronuclear stage
b. two cell stage
c. four cell stage
d. morula stage
e. blastocyst stage

34. the vitelline duct

a. communicates midgut with the yolk sac
b. joints yolk sac with amnion
c. communicates chorion with amnion
d. joints primary yolk sac with secondary yolk sac
e. obliberates during third week of development
35. Oropharyngeal membrane ruptures around
a. 2nd week of development
b. 3rd week of development
c. 4th week of development
d. 5th week of development
e. 2nd month of development

36. hilar cells of the ovary secrete

a. progesterone
b. estrogens
c. LH
d. FSH
e. Androgens

37. capsule of the prostate is composed of

a. loose connective tissue
b. dense regular connective tissue
c. dense irregular connective tissue
d. reticular tissue
e. germinal epithelium

38. the superior parathyroid glands develop

a. in the sixth pharyngeal arch
b. in the third pharyngeal pouches
c. in the fourth pharyngeal pouches
d. from the buccopharyngeal membrane
e. from the mandibular prominence

39. umbilical cord at fifth month contains

a. two arteries and two veins
b. two arteries and one vein
c. three arteries
d. one artery and one vein
e. one artery and two veins

40. mark TRUE statement about endocrine glands

a. endocrine glands are ductless
b. secretory product of endocrine glands is released into striated ducts
c. endocrine glands produce ONLY water soluble hormones
d. endocrine glands are avascular
e. endocrine glands produce ONLY lipid soluble hormones
41. synthesis and release of the prostatic secretion are directly regulated by
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Activing
d. Estradiol
e. Dihydrotestosterone

42. Androgen-binding protein

a. Is synthesized by Leydig cells
b. Prevents testosterone from leaving the seminiferous tubule
c. Is synthesized by Sertoly cells
d. Only answer A and B are correct
e. Only answers B and C are correct

43. Mark FALSE statement about erectile tissue

a. Erectile tissue is enclosed by tunica albuginea
b. Erectile tissue receives blood from the deep and dorsal arteries of the penis
c. Erectile tissue contains numerous endothelially lined spaces
d. Shift of blood flow into erectile tissues is controlled by the sympathetic nervous
system
e. Penis contains three columns of erectile tissue

44. Zona pellucida are secreted by

a. Oocyte only
b. Granulosa cells only
c. Theca interna cells only
d. Granulosa cells and theca internal cells
e. Granulosa cells and oocyte

45. Antihypertensive agents which were taken by mother during 8 first weeks of pregnancy
may have influence on offspring and lead to
a. Growth retardation
b. Renal dysfunction
c. Fetal death
d. Oligohydramnios
e. All above answer are correct

46. Primordial follicle contains

a. Primary oocyte surrounded by single layer of cuboidal cells
b. Primary oocyte surrounded by single layer of flattened cells
c. Secondary oocyte surrounded by single layer of cuboidal cells
 d. Secondary oocyte surrounded by single layer of flattened cells
e. Primary oocyte surrounded by two layers of cuboidal cells

47. Movements of the fetus can be felt by the mother

a. From the fifth week of pregnancy
b. From the sixth week of pregnancy
c. From the seventh week of pregnancy
d. From the third month of pregnancy
e. From the fifth month of pregnancy

48. Fertilization occurs in the

a. Ampullary region of the uterine tube
b. Vagina
c. Uterus
d. Ovary
e. Cervix

49. Notch pathway is involved in

a. Angiogenesis
b. Neuronal differentiation
c. Somite segmentation
d. Development of inner ear hair cells
e. All of the above

50. Oral ectoderm (Rathke pouch) evagination develops into

a. Adenohypophysis
b. Neurohypophysis
c. Hypothalamus
d. Pineal gland
e. Thyroid gland
 ANSWERS

1E 18A 35C
2D 19D 36E
3E 20A 37C
4A 21E 38C
5C 22A 39B
6A 23A 40A
7E 24C 41E
8C 25B 42E
9B 26C 43D
10C 27A 44A
11A 28B 45E
12D 29D 46B
13A 30B 47E
14A 31B 48A
15A 32A 49E
16C 33E 50A
17C 34A
 Histology 3rd intermediate
This test is not of the best quality, and is written off blurry photos and memorization.

1. Which statement concerning the principal fiber bundles of the periodontal ligament
(PDL) is true
a. they are composed of elastin
b. they extend from the cementum to the enamel
c. they extend from the dentin to the cementum
d. they are composed of collagen
e. they extend from one tooth to the next

2. which sentence is false

a. end-feet of astrocyte surrounding capillaries of the CNS are collectively called the
pericascular glia limtars.
b. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meniges
c. Choroid plexus is composed of folds of arachnoid
d. Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide can easily penetrate the blood-brain barrier
mostly due to the presence of aquaporins
e. Arachnoid trabecular cells are modified fibroblast

3. Striated duct of the duct portion of major salivary gland join with each other and form
a. Intercalated ducts
b. Interlobular ducts
c. Intralobular ducts
d. Interlobar duct
e. Terminal principal duct

4. The parenchyme of the palatine tonsil is composed of

a. lymphatic nodules
b. peyers patches
c. red pulp
d. medullary cords
e. white pulp

5. In the center of portal lobule is

a. portal triad
b. collecting vein
c. central vein
d. central artery
e. hepatic sinusoid
6. Which sentence concerning cortical collecting tubule CCT is false
a. CCT are located in the medullary rays
b. CCT are composed of a single cuboidal epithelium
c. They convey and modify the ultrafiltrate from the neprhone is the minor calyces of
the kidney
d. Principal cells of CCT are very sensitive to aldosteronex
e. There are at least 2 types of intercalated cells in the CCT

7. red pulp of the spleen contains

a. PALS
b. Lymphoid nodules
c. Splenic cords (of Bilroth)
d. Mostly T lymphocyte
e. Mainly abundant B cell

8. the adaptive immune system depends on

a. lymphocytes T
b. NK cells
c. Anti…. Peptides
d. Complement proteins
e. Macrophages

9. Perioidal stellate cells are present in the

a. Cortex of the lymph node
b. White pulp of the spleen
c. Medulla of the kidney
d. Retina
e. liver

10. The reduced elasticity of the lung tissue due to the destruction of elastic fibers by
elastase synthesized dust cell is a main feature of the
a. Glucoma
b. DiGeorge syndrome
c. Presbyopia
d. Emphesyma
e. Asthma

11. Albianism is the absence of melanin production resulting from a genetic defect in _____
synthesis
a. Carbonic anhydrase
b. Tyrosinase
 c. Elastase
d. Collagenase
e. Na+/H+ ATP-ase

12. Glands of Moll in the eyelid are modified

a. eccrine sweat glands
b. Apocrine sweat glands
c. Sebaceous glands
d. Mucous glands
e. Endocrine glands

13. the primary bile is manufactured by

a. hepatocyte
b. cholaglocytes
c. ito cells
d. Endothelial cells of sinusoids
e. Epithelial cells of the gall bladder

14. the organ of Corti is firmly attached to the

a. Reissner’s membrane
b. Tectorial membrane
c. Bruch membrane
d. Bowman’s membrane
e. Basilar membrane

15. The Hertwig epithelial root sheat (HERS) is formed by

a. Tooth pulp
b. Outer and inner enamel epithelium
c. Dental sac
d. A and B is correct
e. A, B and C is correct

16. Pepsinogen is produced by

a. mucous neck cells
b. DNES cells
c. Regenerative cells
d. Parietal cells
e. Chief cells

17. Lacteal is a blindly ending lymphatic channel situated in the

a. Core of intestinal villus
b. Lamina propria of small intestine
 c. Submucosa of appendix
d. Mucous of rectum
e. Adventitia of small intestine

18. In normal conditions 100% glucose and amino acids are resorbed in the uriniferous
tubule is
a. Renal corpuscle
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Ascending limb of Henle loop
d. Distal convoluted tubule
e. Collecting tubule.

19. MeduLin II
a. a vasoconstrictor
b. is manufactured by the hepatocytes
c. lowers blood pressure
d. A and B is correct
e. B and C correct

20. The only cell of cerebellar cortex that sends information to … is the
a. Purkinje cells
b. basket cell
c. small granular cell
d. stellate cell
e. Martionotti cell

21. Brunner gland

a. produce a mucous, bicarbonate-rich fluid
b. release urogastone (hEFG)
c. are located in the jejunum
d. A and B are correct
e. A, B and C are correct

22. cells in retina which acts as interneurons controlling whether visual information should
be transmitted to the brain are known as
a. Ganglion cells
b. bipolar neurons
c. amacrine cellls
d. horizontal cells
e. Muller cells
23. Bowmans glands are characteristic for
a. Urethra
b. Cortex of kidney
c. Eyelids
d. Nasal cavity
e. Duodenum

24. Inner ear high levels of calmodulin and nitric oxide synthase are characteristic
a. Inner and outer pilar cells
b. Cells of Hansen
c. Boarder cell
d. Cells of Claudius
e. Cells of Botcher

25. B cell become immunocompetent in the

a. Spleen
b. Cortex of lymph node
c. Medulla of lymph node
d. Cortex of thymus
e. Bone marrow

26. reticular layer of the dermis contains mostly collagen

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

27. Junctional epithelium that attaches gingiva to the enamel surface

a. simple squamous
b. Orthokeratinized stratified squamous
c. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous
d. Parakeratinized stratified squamous
e. transitional epithelium

28. Serous, bicarbonate rich alkialine fluid is produced in the pancreas by

a. Acinar cells
b. Centroacinar cells
c. Interacalated duct cell
d. A and C
e. B and C
29. Gastric pits have
a. Simple cuboidal
b. Simple squamous
c. Simple columnar
d. Transitional epithelium
e. Pseudostratified epithelium

30. Pleura is composed of

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
e. pseudostratified

31. Hassal corpuscle

a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. V
e. VI

32. The failure of drainage of the aqueous humor from the anterior chamber of the eye is
the cause of the
a. Eye floaters (vitreous opacities)
b. Presbyopia
c. Cataract
d. Glaucoma
e. Conjunctivitis

33. Elastic cartilage is found in

a. Larynx
b. Trachea
c. Nasal cavity
d. Primary bronchi
e. All have elastic cartilage
34. Between the pigmented layer and choroid is the
a. Brochs membrane
b. Tectorial membrane
c. Brunners membrane

35. Birbeck granules are characteristic for

a. Langerhans

36. Blood pressure clinical kidney related

a. Aldosterone
b. Renin
c. Angiotensin 1
d. Angtiotensin 2
e. ADH

37. Gastric intrinstic factor is produced by

a. Paneth cell
b. Chief cell
c. Parietal cell

38. Dark cell, clear cell, intermediate cell and basal cells are found in
a. Taste bud

39. Dark, light and myoepithelial cells are found in

a. Eccrine
b. Apocrine
c. Sebacous
d. Mucous

40. Vitamin D convert….

a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Kidney

41. Chloride shift

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Bicarbonate
d. Calcium
42. Rasckow plexux
a. Trachea
b. Pulp
c. Dentin

43. What synthesizes the pectorial membrane

a. Inner hair cell
b. Outer hair cell
c. Inter dental cell

44. Histamine
a. Inhibit HCL
b. Produced by ECL
c. Increases HCL
d. A and b
e. B and C

45. Space between a plate of hepatocyte and sinusoidal lining in the lkiver is called
a. Sinusoid
b. Space of disse
c. Bile canaliculus
d. Space of moll
e. Canals of Hering

46. Blood gas barrier is composed of

a. Surfactant
b. Alveolar cell
c. Type I pneumocyte and endothelium
d. Type I pneumocyte
e. All of the above

47. Paneth cell

a. produce defensing, lysozyme, TNF-A
b. opening of crypts
c. A and B

48. Podocytes
a. Long processes
 ANSWERS

1D 18B 35A
2C 19E 36B
3C 20A 37C
4A 21D 38A
5A 22C 39A
6D 23D 40C
7C 24E 41C
8A 25E 42B
9E 26A 43C
10D 27C 44E
11B 28E 45B
12B 29C 46E
13A 30A 47C
14E 31E 48A
15B 32D
16E 33A
17A 34A
 Histology 3rd intermediate, retake

1. Merkel cells are present in

a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum lucidum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum spinosum

2. Which statement about type I pneumocytes is not true

a. Have highly attenuated cytoplasm
b. Form valves closing (or opening) the alveolar pores
c. Form occluding junctions with neighbors
d. Contain well developed basal lamina
e. Are lined by surfactant

3. Sebaceous glands
a. Secrete sweat
b. Secrete melanin
c. Open onto the skin surface
d. Are most abundant on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
e. Open into the hair follicle

4. Loading epitopes on MHC I molecules requires participation of

a. Antigen presenting cells
b. Early endosomes
c. Late endosomes
d. Proteasomes
e. Lysosomes

5. Urogastrone
a. Is manufactured by Brunner’s glands
b. Inhibits production of HCI
c. Amplifies the rate of mitotic activity in epithelial cells
d. Is released into the duodenal lumen
e. All above answers are correct

6. Which sentence about the ceruminous (wax) glands is true

a. They are modified eccrine sweat glands
b. They are modified apocrine sweat glands
c. They are present in the vagina
 d. They are present in the axilla (arm pit)
e. They are modified sebaceous glands

7. Crystallins are
a. Ciliary body proteins
b. Iris proteins
c. Limbus proteins
d. Sclera proteins
e. Lens proteins

8. Kupffer cells are present in

a. Stomach
b. duodenum
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
e. Lungs

9. The lacrimal gland is of

a. Simple acinar type
b. Compound tubuloalveolar (tubuloacinar) type
c. Simple branched acinar type
d. Compound tubular type
e. Simple coiled tubular type

10. Which cells together with naked sensory nerve endings form pulmonary neuroepithelial
bodies
a. Brush cells
b. Clara cells
c. Dust cells
d. Septal cells
e. Kulchitsky cells

11. The term dust cells is used for

a. Type I pneumocytes
b. Type II pneumocytes
c. Alveolar macrophages
d. Interalveolar septal mast cells
e. Clara cells

12. Which sentence concerning the tooth development is false

a. At the cap stage the enamel organ is composed of three layers
 b. At the bell stage the enamel organ is composed of four layers
c. Root formation begins before the completion of the crown
d. Root formation begins after the completion of the crown
e. Hertwig epithelial root sheat (HERS) is composed of the elongated outer and inner
enamel epithelial of the cervical loop

13. DiGeorge’s syndrome includes a congenital lack of the thymus and the
a. Hypophysis
b. Corpus pineale
c. Thyroid gland
d. Parathyroid gland
e. None of above

14. D cells of the islet of Langerhans produces

a. Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Somatostatin
d. VIP
e. Gastrin

15. Serum and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) contain similar amount of

a. Protein
b. Na+
c. K+
d. Ca2+
e. Glucose

16. High-endothelial venules

a. Appear in the brain cortex
b. Produce erythropoietin
c. Appear in certain lymphoid organs
d. Are components of arteriovenous anastomosis (AVA)
e. Appear among Purkinje’s cells of the cerebellum

17. Cementum covers the

a. Dentin of the tooth crown
b. Dentin of the tooth root
c. Root canal
d. Pulp chamber
e. Alveolus
18. Auerbach’s myenteric plexus is situated in
a. Mucosa
b. Muscularis mucosa
c. Submucosa
d. Muscularis
e. Adventitia

19. The lumen of the gallbladder is lined by

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
c. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
d. Simple cuboidal epithelium
e. Simple columnar epithelium

20. Which disease is characterized by patchy lesions, greater keratinocyte proliferation,

accelerated cell cycle, accomidation of keratinocytes and the stratum corneum
a. Freckles
b. Psoriasis
c. Warts
d. Acne
e. Malignant melanoma

21. Glands of Littre are located in

a. Male urethra and female urethra
b. Male urethra, only
c. Female urethra, only
d. Muscularis of urinary bladder
e. Muscularis of ureter

22. Saccule and utricle are located in the

a. Coclea
b. Semicircular canals
c. Vestibule
d. Kidney
e. Eye ball

23. Which elements do not belong to the innate immune system

a. Macrophages
b. Complement
c. Toll-like receptors
d. NK cells
e. Antibodies
24. Centroacinar cells are present in
a. Parotid gland
b. Sublingual gland
c. Submandibular gland
d. Pancreas
e. Brunner’s glands

25. Respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn can be caused by malfunction of

a. Histiocytes
b. Clara cells
c. Dust cells
d. Pneumocytes type II
e. Natural killer cells

26. Parietal (oxyntic) cells of the glands of stomach fundus

a. Produce HCI and intrinsic factor
b. Are regenerative (stem) cells
c. Produce gastrin and histamine
d. Belong to DNES (APUD or endocrine) cells
e. Produce pepsinogen

27. Marginal zone separates the

a. White pulp from the red pulp of the spleen
b. Splenic sinuses and splenic cords
c. Cortex and paracortex in the lymph node
d. Paracortex and medulla in the lymph node
e. Cortex and medulla in the thymus

28. Intercalated cells (dark cells) are present in the

a. Proximal convoluted tubules
b. Distal convoluted tubules
c. Henle’s loop (ascending arm)
d. Cortical collecting tubules
e. Papillary collecting tubules

29. Henle’s layer is the component of the

a. Cortex of the hair shaft
b. Medulla of the hair shaft
c. Cuticle of the hair
d. External root sheath of the hair
 e. Internal root sheath of the hair

30. Kiesselbach’s area is the

a. Superior region of the nasal septum
b. Anteroinferior region of the nasal septum
c. Posterior region of the nasal septum
d. Anteroinferior region of the larynx
e. Posterior region of the pharynx

31. The tree cardinal signs of polydipsia (constant thirst), polyphagia (undiminished hunger)
and polyuria (excessive urination) are characteristic for
a. Insulin-dependent diabetes
b. Verner-Morris syndrome (pancreatic cholera)
c. Wilson’s disease
d. Cirrhosis
e. Gallstones (cholelithiasis)

32. Gray matter consists of

a. Myelinated nerve fibers, unmyelinated fibers and neuroglial cells
b. Myelinated nerve fibers, neural cell bodies and dendrites
c. Neuroglial cells, unmyelinated fibers, dendrites and neural cell bodies
d. Neuroglial cells and neural cell bodies
e. Neural cell bodies only

33. The countercurrent multiplier system operates at

a. Collecting tubules
b. Proximal convoluted tubules
c. Henle’s loop
d. Distal convoluted tubules
e. Ducts of Bellini

34. Which antigen is characteristic for cytotoxic T lymphocytes

a. CD16
b. CD4
c. CD8
d. CD335
e. CD28

35. Plaques and interplaque regions are characteristic for

a. Dome-shaped cells of the transitional epithelium
b. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
c. Intraglomerular mesangial cells
 d. Juxtaglomerular cells
e. Podocytes

36. Parietal layer of Bowman’s capsule is composed of

a. Podocytes
b. Mesangial cells
c. Juxtaglomerular cells
d. Endothelial cells
e. None of above answers is correct

37. Tectorial membrane is secreted by

a. Interdental cells
b. Odontoblast
c. Cones
d. Rodes
e. Merkel’s cells

38. Melanosome contain

a. Tyrosinase
b. Renin
c. Carbonic anhydrase
d. Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)
e. Collagenase

39. Papillomaviruses can cause

a. Freckles
b. Psoriasis
c. Warts
d. Basal cell carcinoma
e. Malignant melanoma

40. Area cribrosa is a part of the

a. Kidney
b. Lymph node
c. Tooth
d. Eye ball
e. Urinary bladder

41. Slit diaphragm extends between

a. Pedicles of podocytes
b. Cell bodies of podocytes
c. Intraglomerular mesangial cells
 d. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
e. Juxtaglomerular cells

42. The deepest layer of the cerebral cortex is

a. Internal pyramidal layer
b. Internal granular layer
c. Molecular layer
d. Multiform layer
e. External pyramidal layer

43. Pigment epithelium of the retina is directly attached to the

a. Bipolar cells of the retina
b. Bruch’s membrane
c. Ganglion cells of the retina
d. Sclera
e. Horizontal cells

44. Superior surface of the epiglottis and vocal folds is covered by the
a. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
b. Simple squamous epithelium
c. Simple cuboidal epithelium
d. Stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
e. Stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

45. What precedes cap stage in tooth formation

a. Apposition growth stage
b. Bud stage
c. Bell stage
d. Germ stage
e. Crypt stage

46. In the striated duct of a salivary gland the saliva becomes

a. Poor in bicarbonate
b. Hypertonic
c. Hypotonic
d. Isotonic
e. Unchanged

47. Muller cells are present in

a. Uterus
b. Ovary
c. Oviduct
 d. Retina
e. Cerebellum

48. Which cells send inhibitory output from the cerebellum

a. Basket cells
b. Purkinje cells
c. Martinotti cells
d. Granule cells
e. Pyramidal cells

49. Enamel does not contain

a. Tuftlein
b. Rods
c. Prisms
d. Hydroxyapatite
e. Lines of Owen

50. Glomeruli (cerebellar islands) are located in

a. Granular layer of the cerebellar cortex
b. Molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex
c. Molecular layer of the cerebral cortex
d. Molecular layer of the cerebral cortex
e. Purkinje cell layer of the cerebellar cortex
 ANSWERS

1E 18D 35A
2B 19E 36E
3E 20B 37A
4D 21A 38A
5E 22C 39C
6B 23E 40A
7E 24D 41A
8D 25D 42D
9B 26A 43B
10E 27A 44D
11C 28B 45B
12C 29E 46C
13D 30B 47D
14C 31A 48B
15B 32C 49E
16C 33C 50A
17B 34C
 Histology 3rd intermediate, 2nd retake
1. Purkinje cell layer can be found in the
a. Cerebral cortex
b. White matter of spinal cord
c. Cerebellar cortex
d. Horns of spinal cord
e. Grey matter of spinal cord

2. Dark cell of the eccrine gland produce

a. Defensins
b. IgA
c. Glycogen
d. Mucus
e. Lysozyme

3. A severe lack of vitamin A causes

a. Glaucoma
b. Night blindness
c. Cataract
d. Presbyopia
e. Eye floaters

4. The largest number of goblet cells occurs in

a. Oesophagus
b. Stomach
c. Duodenum
d. Jejunum
e. Colon

5. Main trigger for pruriceptors is

a. Pain
b. Touch
c. Stretch
d. Itch
e. Vibration

6. Cells that extend between the vitreous body and the inner segments of rods and cons
a. Ganglion cells
b. Bipolar neurons
 c. Horizontal cells
d. Amacrine cells
e. Muller cells

7. Which part of uriniferous tubule is COMPLETELY impermeable to water

a. Renal corpuscle
b. Proximal tubule
c. Ascending thick limb of Henle loop
d. Distal convoluted tubule
e. Collecting tubule

8. Gray matter consists of

a. Myelinated nerve fibers, neuroglial cells and satellite cells
b. Bodies of neurons and Schwann cells
c. Bodies of neurons, unmyelinated nerve fibers and neuroglial cells
d. Myelinated nerve fibers and Schwann cells
e. Bodies of neurons, myelinated nerve fibers and satellite cells

9. Sharpey’s fibers anchor

a. Tooth to the socket
b. Dentin to the enamel
c. Cementum to the enamel
d. Dentin to the pulp
e. Enamel to the pulp

10. Which ions are not eliminated by the liver by transferring their into the bile in Wilson’s
disease
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Copper
d. Potassium
e. Magnesium

11. Horizontal and globose basal cells are present in the

a. Retina
b. Organ of corti
c. Crypts of lieberkuhn
d. Tooth pulp
e. Olfactory epithelium
12. Glands of Ebner can be found in the
a. Tongue
b. Lip
c. Uvula
d. Cheeks
e. Hard palate

13. Foramen cecum is present in the

a. Kidney
b. Tongue
c. Appendix
d. Cerebellum
e. Thymus

14. Nasolacrimal duct is lined with

a. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Two layered cuboidal epithelium
c. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
d. Pseudostratified nonciliated epithelium
e. Simple columnar epithelium

15. Insulin release is induced by

a. Cortisol and growth hormone
b. Obesity
c. Fasting
d. Elevated levels of free fatty acids in the blood
e. All the above are correct

16. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is a ___________ channel.

a. Sodium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Calcium
e. Water

17. Lacteals are present in the

a. Ear
b. Eye ball
c. Lung
d. Kidney
e. Small intestine
18. Pepsinogen is secreted by
a. Parietal cells
b. Chief cells
c. Mucus neck cell

19. the vestibular folds

a. are immovable
b. are called vocal folds
c. are covered by nonkreatinized stratified squamous epithelium
d. form the space called
e. contains vocal ligament

20. Absence of _____________ results in deficiency of Vitamin B12 with the consequent
development of ….
a. Cholecystokinin (CCK)
b. Gastric intrinsic factor (GIF)
c. Glucose transporter protein-4 (GLUT-4)
d. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
e. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

21. Dental sac (dental follicle) gives rise to the

a. Cementum
b. PDL
c. Alveolus
d. A and B are correct
e. A, B and C are correct

22. Bile canaliculi are formed by

a. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Simple squamous epithelium
c. Lateral domains of hepatocytes
d. Ito cells
e. Kupffer cells

23. The toxic degradation product of hemoglobin is known as

a. Melanin
b. Bilirubin
c. Iodopsin
d. Rhodopsin
e. Scotopsin
24. Mark true sentence describing the pancreas
a. Centroacinar cells produce trypsinogen
b. Acinar cells are packed with zymogen granules
c. Main pancreatic duct opens into the stomach
d. Release of pancreatic enzymes is effected by VIP
e. Pancreas does not contain connective tissue capsule

25. The gallbladder is lined with

a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
e. Pseudostratified epithelium

26. Clara cells

a. Protect bronchiolar epithelium
b. Produce surfactant-like material
c. Divide to regenerate bronchiolar epithelium
d. Degrade toxins
e. All of the above are correct

27. Glassy membrane separates

a. Alveoli in lungs
b. The cortex from the paracortex of lymph node
c. The stroma from the outer epithelium of the cornea
d. The dermis from the epidermis of the hair follicle
e. The white from the red pulp of the spleen

28. Mumps
a. May result in sterility
b. Is genetic disorder
c. Refers to minor salivary glands
d. is the acinic cell carcinoma
e. Is caused by excess of CCK

29. Pseudomembranous colitis

a. Is an inflammatory disease of the bowel due to an overgrowth of Clostridium
difficile bacteria
b. Is associated with malabsorption
c. Is the result of vitamin B12 deficiency
d. Is caused by gastroesophageal reflux
e. Is an autoimmune disease
30. Cornified cell envelope
a. Is formed by involucrin, loricrin and small proline-rich protein
b. Surrounds the stratum granulosum cells
c. Is present in malphigian layer
d. Binds tonofilaments
e. Is absent in thin skin

31. Which mechanoreceptor is nonencapsulated

a. Meissner corpuscles
b. Merkel disks
c. Pacinian corpuscules
d. Ruffini endings
e. Krause end bulbs

32. Which sentence concerning cells and hormones of the islets of Langerhans is false
a. Alpha cells are located in the islet periphery
b. D1 cells produce vasoactive intestine peptide (VIP)
c. Glucagon increases blood glucose level
d. Ghrelin is secreted by G cells
e. Somatostatin has both paracrine and endocrine effects

33. Renin is manufactured by

a. Extraglomerular mesangial cells
b. Podocytes
c. Macula densa cells
d. JG cells in afferent arteriole
e. Principal (light) cells

34. Melanocytes in the hair follicle are predominantly found in the

a. Dermal papilla
b. Internal root sheat
c. Matrix of hair follicle

35. Kidneys produce

a. Renin
b. Erythropoietin
c. Prostaglandins
d. A and B are correct
e. A, B, and C are correct
36. Birbeck granules can be found in the
a. Keratinocytes
b. Melanocytes
c. Fibroblast
d. Langerhans cells
e. T lymphocytes

37. Which sentence is false

a. End-feet of astrocytes surrounding capillaries of the CNS are collectively called the
perivascular glia limtans
b. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges
c. Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide can easily penetrate the blood-brain barrier
mostly due to the presence of aquaporins
d. Choroid plexus is composed of folds of arachnoid
e. Arachnoid trabecular cells are modified fibroblast

38. Capillaries in the renal glomerulus are

a. Continuous
b. Fenestrated
c. Sinusoidal
d. High endothelial
e. None of the above is correct

39. Alveolar macrophages are also known as

a. Kupffer cells
b. Lung failure cells
c. Hensen’s cells
d. Dust cells
e. Dieter cells

40. Dura matter is composed of

a. Dense collagenous connective tissue
b. Loose connective tissue
c. Reticular epithelial cells
d. Glial cells
e. Ependymocytes
41. Antibodies secreted into tears, saliva and onto mucosal surfaces are type
a. A
b. B
c. G
d. E
e. M

42. Sclerocorneal junction is known as

a. Ora serrata
b. Limbus
c. Blind spot
d. Yellow spot (macula lutea)
e. Scala media

43. Odontoblast
a. Possess processes located in dentinal tubules
b. Are responsible for the formation of striae of Retzius
c. Produce ameloblastin
d. Die before the tooth erupts into oral cavity
e. Originate from dental sac

44. Neuroepithelial cells, specialized to sense position of the head and linear movement are
present in
a. Saccule
b. Utricle
c. Semicircular ducts
d. Cochlear duct
e. A and B are correct

45. Sublingual salivary gland

a. Is the largest salivary gland
b. Produces a purely serous secretion
c. Contains serous demilunes
d. Produces about 60% of the total salivary output
e. Is surrounded by very thick connective tissue capsule
46. Postcapillary venules (HEVs) are characteristic for the
a. Retina
b. Paracortex of the lymph node
c. Renal corpuscle
d. Medulla of the thymus
e. Gastric mucosa

47. Bening pleomorphic adenoma is a noncancerous tumor which affects

a. Stomach
b. Liver
c. Bowmans glands
d. Salivary glands
e. Tooth germs

48. Which sentence concerning lymphoid tissue is false

a. There are 6 types of epithelial reticular cells in the thymus
b. Lymph nodes are divided into 3 regions: cortex, paracortex and medulla
c. Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS) contains mostly B cells
d. Red pulp of the spleen is composed of a network of sinusoids supported by a
reticular tissue
e. Palatine tonsils are separated from subjacent structures by a connective tissue
capsule

49. Which sentence about the cupula is false

a. It is composed of gelatinous glycoprotein mass
b. It overlies the crista ampularis
c. It is cone shaped
d. It contains otoliths
e. It is present in the semicircular canals

50. Missing
 ANSWERS

1C 18B 35E
2D 19A 36D
3B 20B 37D
4e 21E 38B
5D 22C 39D
6E 23B 40A
7D 24B 41A
8C 25C 42B
9A 26E 43A
10A 27D 44E
11E 28A 45C
12A 29A 46B
13B 30A 47D
14C 31B 48C
15E 32D 49D
16B 33D
17E 34C
 Histology Final

1. The meshwork of type IV collagen is characteristic for

a. Lamina reticularis
b. Lamina lucida
c. Lamina densa
d. Hemdesmosome
e. Desomoses

2. Hyalocytes are present in

a. Lens
b. Retina
c. Iris
d. Choroid
e. Viterous body

3. Which sentence is true

a. Desicual septa do not reach the chorionic plate
b. From fetal side, the colyedons are covered by the decidua basalis
c. Materanal surface of the placenta is covered by the chorionic plate
d. Junctional zona is poor in amorphous extracellular material
e. All of them

4. Purkinje cells
a. Are present only in cerebellum
b. Are the sammelst neurons of the cerebellum
c. Are also called basket cells
d. Are bipolar neurons
e. Stimulate other neurons using excitatory neurotransmitter GABA

5. The connevtive tissue cells which belong to the mononuclear phagocytic system are
termed
a. Myofibroblast
b. Mast cells
c. Pericytes
d. Macrophages
e. Fibrocytes
6. The cytoplasm of the neuron cell bodies is basophilic because contains
a. Axon hillock
b. Nissl bodies
c. Melanin granules
d. Hypolemmal cisternae
e. Spike trigger zone

7. The acidophils belong

a. Corticotrophs
b. Thyrotrophs
c. Gonadotrophs
d. Lactotrophs
e. Melanotrophs

8. Lateral portions of intercalated disks of cardiac muscle cells

a. Are rich in fasciae adherents and desmosomes
b. Are rich in gap junctions
c. Bind thin filaments
d. Are analogous of Z disks
e. Contain alpha-actin

9. The vestibular folds

a. Are immovable
b. Are reinforced by vocal ligament
c. Form the space called rima glottidis
d. Are covered by stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
e. Contain dense regular elastic connective tissue

10. Auerbach myenteric plexus

a. Controls primarily mucosal movements
b. Regulates mainly the secretory function of mucosa
c. Is located the external muscle coat
d. Is located in submucosa
e. Is composed of interstitial cells of Cajal

11. The parasympathetic nervous system

a. Decreases heart rate
b. Increases respiration
c. Increases blood pressure
d. Dilates pupils of the eye
e. Shows down visceral function
12. Prostacyclin
a. Is potent vasodilator
b. Facilitates platelet aggregation
c. Binds P-selectin
d. Is powerful vasoconstrictor
e. Increases blood pressure

13. The sclerotome arises from cells that were located in the
a. Notochord
b. Paraxial mesoderm
c. Intermediate mesoderm
d. Lateral plate mesoderm
e. None of the above

14. During contraction of striated muscle fiber

a. The I band becomes longer
b. The width of A band remains unaltered
c. The width of H band is unchanged
d. Thin filaments become longer
e. Thick filaments become shorter

15. Dentin
a. Is produced by ameloblast
b. Is composed of 50% calcium hydroxyapatite
c. Is the second hardest tissue in the body
d. Contains the stria of Retzius
e. Contains Tomes processes

16. Henle layer in the hair follicle

a. Is the part of internal root sheath
b. Belongs to eponychuim
c. Contains stem cells
d. Is attached to glassy membrane
e. Forms matrix of hair root

17. Dense regular elastic connective tissue

a. Is composed mostly of reticular fibers
b. Is the main tissue of tendons
c. Forms the sheaths of nerves
d. Is present in the wall of large blood vessels
e. Forms the framework of lymphoid organs
18. Interstitial cells (of Leydig)
a. have receptors for lutenizing hormone (LH)
b. produce androgen-binding protein
c. during embryogenesis synthesize antimüllerian hormone
d. form a blood-testis barrier
e. are responsible for production of fructose-rich fluid

19. the dominant ovarian follicle (right before ovulation) does not contain
a. first polar body
b. cumulus oophorus
c. corona radiate
d. primary oocyte
e. granulosa cells

20. joint-uniting tissue is bone in

a. synchondrosis
b. synostosis
c. syndesmosis
d. diarthrosis
e. synovial joints

21. which cells are absent in organ of Corti

a. cells of Claudius
b. cells of Hensen
c. outer hair cells
d. inner hair cells
e. outer pillar cells

22. Glial cells which belong to the mononuclear phagocyte system are called
a. Tanycytes
b. Fibrous astrocytes
c. Protoplasmic astrocytes
d. Satellite oligodendrocytes
e. Microglial cells

23. Epithelial reticular cells (thymic epithelial cells)

a. Are called tangible body macrophages
b. Are present only in thymic medulla
c. Are derived from ectoderm
d. Do not express MCH II
e. Completely isolate the thymic cortex from contact with the blood
24. Kupffer cells of the liver
a. Are modified hepatocytes
b. Are present in space of Disse
c. Store vitamin A
d. Are able to phagocytosis
e. Produce the bile

25. Which hormone regulates the concentration of urine in collecting tubules

a. FSH
b. Oxytocin
c. Prolactin
d. ADH
e. LH

26. CFU-GEMM, BFU-E, CFU-E are formed during

a. granulopoiesis
b. erythropoiesis
c. platelet formation
d. lymphopoiesis
e. monopoiesis

27. to the acidophilic strucutres belong

a. nuclei
b. ribosomes
c. collagen fibers
d. nucleoli
e. rough endoplasmic reticulum

28. adiponectin
a. is the primary cause of insulin restistance
b. is produced mainly by mast cells
c. increases appetite
d. increases the insulin sensitivity of skeletal muscle cells
e. is called RBP4

29. Transverse tubule contains

a. Troponin c
b. Ryanodine receptors
c. Corbular sarcoplasmic granules
d. Phospholamban
e. Voltage-senstitive dihydropyridine receptors
30. Formation of which follicle is regulated by FSH
a. the formation of all follicles is regulated by FSH
b. primordial follicle
c. unilaminar primary follicle
d. multilaminar primary follicle
e. secondary follicle

31. in juxtaglomerular apparatus

a. renin is produced by JG cells
b. cells of macula densa convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
c. extraglomerular mesangial cells produce angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE)
d. cells of macula densa are modified smooth muscle cells
e. cells of macula densa are located in the wall of afferent arterioles

32. the adaptive immune system

a. depends on T and B lymphocytes
b. responds rapidly
c. has no immunologocial memory
d. depends mostly in Toll-like receptors
e. is called natural immune system

33. the structure of wall of thoracic duct is similar to

a. large veins
b. medium veins
c. muscular arteries
d. postcapillary venules
e. conducting arteries

34. nephron does not contain

a. distal tubule
b. bowman capsule
c. proximal tubule
d. collecting tubule
e. loop of Henle

35. exocoelomic cysts are often found in

a. fetal part of the placenta
b. umbilical cord
c. definitive yolk sac
36. Podocytes
a. produce renin
b. are cells of parietal layer of bowman capsule
c. belong to mesangial cells
d. are responsible for the formation of filtration slits
e. are located in the wall of afferent arteriole

37. the midgut communicates with the yolk sac by the

a. allantoenteric diverticulum
b. neurenteric canal
c. vitelline duct
d. oropharyngeal membrane
e. cloacal membrane

38. fibulin-5, fibrillin-1 and desmosine cross-links are associated with structures of
a. anchoring fibrils (type VII collagen)
b. collagen fibers
c. elastic fibers
d. reticular fibers
e. integrins

39. to the blood-gas barrier belong

a. myofibroblast
b. alveolar macrophages
c. endothelial cells of continuous capillary
d. reticular fibers
e. elastic fibers

40. respiratory epithelium contains

a. type II pneumocytes
b. clara cells
c. type I pneumocytes
d. brush cells
e. dust cells

41. centroacinar and intercalated duct cells

a. are regulated by acetylcholine
b. have numerous receptors for the hormone CCK
c. are regulated by preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
d. manufacture a mucous acidic fluid
e. produce serous enzyme rich fluid
42. belt-like junctions that assist adjoining cells to adhere to one another are called
a. gap junctions
b. zonulae occludentes
c. zonulae adherents
d. hemidesmosomes
e. hemichannels

43. the process of compaction occurs approximately

a. one day after fertilization
b. five days after fertilization
c. three days after fertilization
d. at morula stage
e. none of them

44. Heuser’s membrane originates from the

a. Epiblast
b. Hypoblast
c. Cytotrophoblast
d. Syncytiotrophoblast
e. Trophoblast

45. Melted paraffin is miscible with

a. Xylene
b. Water
c. Formalin
d. Bouin fluid
e. Aqueous dye solution

46. Osteoporosis
a. Is caused by osteoclast without ruffled border
b. Is caused by reduced osteoclast activity
c. Is regulated to decreasing bone mass
d. Is caused by mutation of gene that codes for IL-6
e. Is associated with decreased bone marrow space

47. Skeletal muscle fibers

a. Have centrally placed nuclei
b. Possess inherent rhythmicity
c. Contract spontaneously
d. Are cylindrical mononuclear cells
e. Are surrounded by external lamina
48. The first blood island appear in
a. Mesoderm surrounding the wall of the yolk sac
b. Teritary villus
c. Lateral plate mesoderm
d. Intermediate mesoderm
e. Secondary villus

49. Nucleolus
a. Is the center of ribosomal protein production
b. Is the main center of heterochromatin
c. Is surrounded by plasma membrane
d. Is in close contact with vimentin filaments
e. Contains pars granulosa

50. Olfactory cells

a. Are multipolar neurons
b. Possess nonmotile cilia
c. Are called sustentacular cells
d. Are glial cells
e. Are rich in Birbeck granueles

51. To the factors which inhibit osteoclast formation belongs

a. IL-6
b. RANKL
c. M-CSF
d. Osteoprotegerin
e. IL-1

52. Subscapular, cortical and medullary sinuses are characteristic for

a. Peyer’s patch
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Palatine tonsil
e. Lymph node

53. Discontinuous endothelial cells and discontinuous basal lamina and many large
fenestrae without diaphragms are characteristic for
a. Visceral capillaries
b. Somatic capillaries
c. Sinusoidal capillaries
d. Fenestrated capillaries
e. Glomera
54. The intermediate mesoderm is the precursor of the
a. Urogenital structures
b. Heart
c. Somites
d. Body wall
e. Vertebral bodies

55. The protein of blood plasma responsible for the colloid osmotic pressure is formed
a. Albumin
b. Gamma-globulin
c. Fibrinogen
d. Prothrombis
e. Complement

56. Ameloblasts
a. Possess processes located in dentinal tubules
b. Form the outermost zone of the pulp
c. Originate from inner enamel epithelium
d. Are active troughout life
e. Produce acellular cementum

57. Eosinophils
a. Are the most numerous granulocytes of blood
b. Are similar to mast cells
c. Are the largest of the circulating blood cells
d. Are main cells of humoral immune response
e. Phagocytose antigen-antibody complexes

58. Intracellular canaliculi, tubolovesicular system and high content of H+/K+ ATPase are
characteristic for
a. Parietal cells
b. Chief cells
c. Mucous neck cels
d. Regenerative cells
e. Surface-lining cells

59. Dense bodies of smooth muscle cells

a. Composed of calponin
b. Are analogous to troponin C of striated muscle cells
c. contain caldesmon
d. may be located in the cytoplasm
e. forms thick filaments
60. the lateral domains of hepatocytes form
a. space of Disse
b. bile canaliculi
c. space of Moll
d. limiting plate
e. portal area

61. Ehlers-Danton syndrome

a. Is caused by deficiendy of vitamin C
b. Is caused by deficiency of the enzyme-lysol/hydroxoylase?
c. Causes abdormal cross-linking of elasic fibers
d. Is caused by defect in the gene that codes for fibrilin
e. Is autosomal recessive disorder leukocyte adhesion deficiency?

62. The fungiform papillae

a. Are located in the v-shape arrangement anterior to the sulcus terminalis
b. Are associated with glands of Ebner
c. Are covered by stratified squamous keratinized epihtleium
d. Have the taste buds in the dorsal aspect of their cap
e. Are responsible for velvety appearance of the dorsal surface of the tongue

63. Secondary spermatocytes

a. Differentiate to form spermatogonia
b. Enter the second meiotic division
c. Are form directly after first mitotic division of spermatogonium B
d. Are diploid (2n, 2c DNA)
e. Have acrosomal caps

64. simple epithelium with patches of nonciliated cuboidal cells alternating with regions of
ciliated columnar cells is characteristic for
a. ductuli efferentes
b. ductus deferens
c. vas deferens
d. tubuli recti
e. rete testis

65. anchoring fibrils, reticular fibrers, elastic fibers and dermal ridges are characteristic for
a. stratum basale
b. reticular layer of the dermis
c. papillary layer of the dermis
d. stratum spinosum
e. hypodermis
66. secretory antibodies, present in tears, saliva and in the lumen of the gut belong to
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgD
e. IgA

67. Breakdown of the nucleus envelope occurs in

a. Prometaphase
b. Late anaphase
c. Metaphase
d. Early anaphase
e. Telophase

68. During refractory period

a. The action potential arises
b. Voltage-gated potassium ions close
c. Voltage-gated sodium channels are inactive
d. Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels occurs
e. The depolarization wave returns to the cell body

69. proliferative phase of menstrual cycle

a. is characteristic by the presence of highly convoluted glands
b. begins after ovulation
c. is regulated by progesterone
d. is characterized by the reepithelization of the lining of the endometrium
e. is characterized by thickening of the endometrium as a result of edema and
accumulated glycogen

70. Podocytes
a. produce renin
b. are cells of parietal layer of bowman capsule
c. belong to mesangial cells
d. are responsible for the formation of filtration slits
e. are located in the wall of afferent arteriole

71. Respiratory epithelium contains

a. Type II penumocytes
b. Clara cells
c. Type I pneumocytes
d. Brush cells
e. Durst cells
72. anticodon
a. is syntheisized by RNA polymerase II
b. is the element of mRNA
c. Is necessary for the transcription of DNA to mRNA
d. Is present only in pre-mRNA
e. Is complementary to the codon of mRNA

73. secondary chorionic villus contains

a. numerous cytotrophoblastic cells and a thin layer of syncytiotrophoblast
b. a core of mesoderm, a single layer of cytotrophoblastic cells, and a syncytium
c. a core of mesoderm with capillaries and venules
d. syncytium and cytotrophoblastic core with capillaries and venules
e. a single layer of cytotrophoblastic cells, and syncytiotrophoblastic core

74. cushing disease

a. is most often caused by autoimmune processes
b. is characterized by destruction of suprarenal cortex
c. is associated with the increase in the output of ACTH
d. results in decrease of cortisol production
e. causes rapid weight loss

75. insulin release is inhibited by

a. secretin
b. elevated levels of free fatty acids in the blood
c. growth hormone
d. gastrin
e. somatostatin

76. cells of crypts of Lieberkühn, which produce lysosomem defensing and TNF are called
a. M cells
b. Brunner cells
c. Goblet cells
d. Intermediate cells
e. Paneth cells

77. Ameloblasts
a. Possess processes located in dentinal tubules
b. Form the outermost zone of the pulp
c. Originate from inner enamel epithelium
d. Are active troughout life
e. Produce acellular cementum
78. Brunner glands
a. Produce serous acidic fluid
b. Produce epidermal growth factor
c. Are characteristic for ileum
d. Are located in mucosa of duodenum
e. Release factor which promotes production of HCl

79. Folic acid deficiency is not believed to be a major cause of what class of malformation
a. trisomies
b. neural tube defects
c. ambiguous genitalia
d. polyploidy
e. none of them

80. Tay-Sachs disease

a. Is associated with mutated form of CFTR
b. Belongs to lysosomal storage disorders
c. Is caused by mutated form of peptidyltransferase
d. Is connected with impaired mitochondrial transport
e. Is associated with abnormal actin polymerization

81. External elastic lamina is absent in the wall of

a. Conducting arteries
b. Muscular arteries
c. Elastic arteries
d. Distributing arteries
e. Arterioles

82. Seminal vesicles

a. Contain mucosal and submucosal glands
b. Are the largest accessory glands
c. Secrete fluid with sialic acid for the lubrication of the urethra
d. Are compound tubuloacinar glands
e. Produce fructose-rich fluid

83. ATP-synthase
a. Is called thermogenin
b. Is located I outer mitochondrial membrane
c. Is located in mitochondrial matrix
d. Is located I inner mitochondrial membrane
e. Is responsible for the passage of electrons along the electron transport chain
84. Choroid plexus
a. Is a part of dura mater
b. Is composed of folds od arachnoid
c. Produces the fluid that fills the central canal of the spinal cord
d. Is located between dura mater and arachnoid
e. Forms the blood-brain barrier

85. Which part of nephron forms the countercurrent multiplier system

a. Distal tubule
b. Proximal tubule
c. Henle loop
d. Collecting tubule
e. Vasa recta

86. Primary role in cranial-to-caudal patterning of the derivatives of all three germ layers
a. WNT proteins
b. Retinoid acid and FGF8
c. Cyclic genes
d. Homeobox genes
e. Cordin and noggin

87. Eccrine sweat glands

a. Released sweat via the merocrine method of secretion
b. Represent vestigial scent glands
c. Open into canals of the hair follicle
d. Start to produce secretion after puberty
e. Are found only in special areas e.g. on the axilla

88. Parafollicular cells of thyroid gland

a. produce hormones stored in colloid
b. produce parathormone
c. produce hormone, which lowers plasma calcium ions concentration
d. are smaller than follicular cells
e. are located in the lumen of the follicles

89. Ptyalin
a. is responsible for the digestion of most of proteins in food
b. is the salivary amylase
c. is activated by acidic chime
d. is not produced by parotid glands
e. is responsible for chylomicron digestion
90. in corpus luteum
a. estrogen are not produced
b. theca-lutein cells derive from granulosa cells of Graafan follicle
c. granulosa-lutein cells consititute about 20% of the cells of corpus luteum
d. granulosa-lutein cells produce follicle-stimulating hormone
e. granulosa-lutein cells produce progesterone

91. the source of human choronic gonadotropin (hCG) is

a. decidus basalis
b. syncytiotrophoblast
c. cytotrophoblast
d. decidus parietalis
e. none of them

92. the epithelium in which all of the cells are in contact with the basal lamina, but only
some cells reach the surface of epithelium is called
a. stratified squamous parakeratnizied epithelium
b. transitional epithelium
c. stratified columnar epithelium
d. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
e. pseudostratified columnar epithelium

93. Langerhans cells

a. Produce IgA antibodies
b. Are located mainly among the keratinocytes of stratum basale
c. Originate from neural crest cells
d. Are present only in epidermis
e. Are antigen-presenting cells

94. Cells, which spontaneously depolarize 70-80 times/min and form pacemaker of heart
are present in
a. Purkinje fiber
b. Atrioventricular node
c. Aortic body
d. Bundle of HIS
e. Sinoatrial node
 95. Electrical synapses
a. Possess neurotransmitter receptors
b. Contain synaptic vesicles
c. Contain gap junctions
d. Are the most common mode of communication between nerve cells in mammals
e. Are absent in cerebral cortex

96. Rod cells

a. Are sensitive to color
b. Are activated in dim light
c. Provide the highest visual acuity
d. Contain photopsin
e. Have disks attached to the plasma membrane

97. Proenzyme pepsinogen

a. Is activated in the lumen of duodenum
b. Is activated by HCl in the lumen of stomach
c. Is activated by trypsin digestion
d. Is activated by serous bicarbonate-rich fluid
e. Breaks down starches

98. Aldosterone
a. Suppresses the immune response
b. Promotes the uptake of fatty acids and carbohydrates for glucose synthesis
c. Belongs to weak androgens
d. Is produced by zona glomerulosa cells
e. Stimulates proteolysis in muscle

99. Platelets contain

a. Hemoglobin
b. Antibodies
c. Heparin
d. Nucleus
e. Thrombospondin

100. In carbaminohemoglobin
a. Carbon dioxide is bound to the heme group
b. Carbon dioxide is bound to the globin moiety
c. Iron if heme binds oxygen
d. Oxygen is bound to the globin moiety
e. Carbon monoxide binds to globin moiety
 ANSWERS

1C 35D 69D
2E 36D 70D
3A 37C 71D
4A 38C 72E
5D 39C 73?
6B 40D 74C
7D 41A 75E
8B 42C 76E
9D 43D 77C
10C 44B 78B
11A 45A 79B
12A 46C 80B
13B 47E 81E
14B 48A 82E
15C 49E 83D
16A 50B 84C
17D 51D 85C
18A 52E 86D
19D 53C 87A
20B 54A 88C
21C 55A 89B
22E 56C 90E
23E 57E 91B
24D 58A 92E
25D 59D 93E
26B 60B 94E
27C 61D 95C
28D 62D 96B
29E 63B 97B
30E 64A 98D
31A 65C 99E
32A 66E 100A
33B 67A
34D 68A