1. 23.

How would you distinguish pseudomonas

species from E-cloi?
a. Gram staining
b. Morphology
c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration
d. All of the above

2. 27. The anthrax disease is most frequently

infected from
a. Cattle b. Sheeps
c. Rats d. Both a and b

3. 25. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively

used in production of
a. Avirulent phases
b. Single cell proteins
c. Transgenic plants
d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria

4. 26. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria

are
a. Fungi b. Commensels
c. Bacteriophages d. None of these

5. 30. The pigment present in red algae is

a. Rhodochrome
b. Fucoxanthin
c. Chlorophyll only
d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin

6. 51. Cows can digest straw because they contain

a. Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms
b. Protein hydrolyzing bacteria
c. Lipid hydrolyzing microorganisms
d. Amino acid degrading bacteria

7. 155. Shape of bacteriophage is

a. Brick shape b. Bullet shape
c. Helical shape d. Tadpole shape

8. 31. Lyophilization means

a. Sterilization
b. Freeze-drying
c. Burning to ashes
 d. Exposure to formation

9. 33. Phenol co-efficient indicates

a. Efficiency of a disinfectant
b. Dilution of a disinfectant
c. Purity of a disinfectant
d. Quantity of a disinfectant

10. 37. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is

known as
a. Pathogenicity b. Attenuation
c. Exaltation d. Toxigenicity

11. 70. Non-lactose fermenting colonies seen on

Mac Conkey’s medium are
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Escherichia coli
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Shigella shigae

12. 92. Match the following tests with their

respective applications A to E:
1. Schick test A. Tuberculosis
2. Mantoux test B. Detection of extraneous
microorganisms
3. Sterility test C. Diphtheria toxin
4. Potency test D. Detection of infection caused
by Rickettsia prowazeki
E. Usefulness of immunological
Products

13. 89. For sterilization of fermentation

equipment the method followed is
a. Radiation b. Chemicals
c. Heating d. All of these

14. 37. The following are used for the

preservation of virus, except
a. Freezing (–20°C–70°C)
b. Lyophilization
c. Ether
d. Formaldehyde

15. 38. Antibody formation depends on

a. Age of the person
b. Amount of antigen
 c. Well being of the person
d. All of the above

16. 61. Antigen-antibody reactions are

a. Reversible b. Irreversible
c. Specific d. Both a and b

17. 62. Serological reactions are useful for

a. Detection of antigens
b. Detection of antibodies
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

18. 29. Septicaemia is

a. Bacteria in blood
b. Toxin in blood
c. Pus in blood
d. Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood

19. 30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to

a. Interleukin – 2 infusion
b. Azathioprine
c. Alpha interferon
d. None of these

20. 72. Drugs used against tuberculosis (TB) are

a. Refampicin, Isoniazid
b. Pyrazinamide, Streptomycin
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

21. 17. Capacitation occurs in

a) Uterus
b) Seminal vesicle
c) Epididymis
d) Vas deferens

22. 18. The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is
a) Raised blood pressure
b) Vasodilatation due to local metabolites
c) Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels
d) Increased heart rate

23. 19. Intrinsic factor of Castle is secreted by

a) Chief cells
 b) Parietal cells
c) Mucus cells
d) B cells

24. 20. Somatomedin mediates

a) Deposition of chondroitin sulphate
b) Lipolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Decreased rate of glucose uptake by cells

25. 21. Hyperaldosteronism associated with all except

a) Hypernatremia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypertension
d) Metabolic acidosis

26. 22. Spinocerebellar tract – Function is

a) Equilibrium
b) Vision
c) Initiation & planning of movements
d) Smoothens & co-ordinates mvt

27. 23. Chemotaxis – Main feature is

a) Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils
b) Increase in phagocytosis
c) Increased random motion of neutrophils
d) Increased adhesiveness to intima

28. 16. Appetite is stimulated by A/E

a) Agouti related peptide
b) Melanocyte concentrating hormone
c) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
d) Neuropeptide Y

29. 8. What is the name of the lobe of the brain that is immediately superior to the
cerebellum?
A. dorsal
B. occipital
C. posterior
D. parietal

30. 7. In which of the following places would you NOT fi nd cerebrospinal fl

uid?
A. the sub-arachnoid space
B. the third ventricle of the brain
C. the epidural space
 D. the central canal of the spinal cord

31. 6. Which statement about efferent impulses in the spinal cord is correct?
A. They travel along the spino-thalamic and spino-cerebellar tracts.
B. They pass along tracts that are located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C. The nerve cells that they travel through have their cell bodies located in the
dorsal root ganglia.
D. The axons carrying these impulses pass through the ventral root of the
spinal
nerves.

32. 5. Which one of the following parts of the nervous system carries impulses
towards the brain?
A. peripheral nervous system
B. somatic nervous system
C. autonomic nervous system
D. parasympathetic division

33. 5. What does it mean when the concentration of dissolved oxygen in blood is
100
mmHg?
A. the oxygen dissolved in blood exerts a pressure of 100 mmHg over and
above the blood pressure generated by the heart.
B. 100 mmHg of the blood pressure, is due to the dissolved oxygen within it.
C. the blood had been exposed to air in the lungs that contained oxygen at a
partial pressure of 100 mmHg.
D. the dissolved oxygen exerts an osmotic pressure of 100 mmHg.

34. 4. When the diaphragm contracts which of the following will happen in the
lungs?
A. air pressure will increase, volume will decrease and exhalation will occur.
B. air pressure will decrease, volume will increase and exhalation will occur.
C. air pressure will decrease, volume will increase and inhalation will occur.
D. air pressure will increase, volume will increase and inhalation will occur.

35. 10. Boyle’s law may be stated: Provided that the temperature does not
change, the
volume of a fi xed amount of gas decreases as its pressure increases (and vice
versa). Which statement concerning the pressure of the air in the lungs is
consistent
with Boyle’s law?
A. It will decrease as the chest expands.
B. It decreases as we breathe out.
C. It increases when we contract our diaphragm.
 D. It decreases as our intercostal muscles relax.

36. 3. What is the function of the cilia on the cells that line the bronchial tree?
A. They help mix the inhaled fresh air with the residual air contained in the
bronchial tree.
B. They slow the movement of air to allow for effi cient exchange of gases.
C. They move the mucus on the cell surface up out of the bronchial tree.
D. They fi lter particles from inhaled air.

37. 2. Which anatomical structures does the “conducting zone” of the lower
respiratory
tract contain?
A. Eustachian tube, larynx and trachea.
B. Primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and bronchioles.
C. Nares, conchae, olfactory mucosa and sinuses.
D. Nasopharynx and larynx.

38. 5. What is a “trochanter”?

A. part of a femur
B. a feature of the pelvis
C. a projection that forms part of an articulation
D. a groove in which lies a tendon

39. 4. Which bone is most superior?

A. manubrium
B. occipital bone
C. cervical vertebra #3
D. patella

40. 8. Which of the following describes the movements known as pronation and
supination?
A. The fl exing of the arm with respect to the forearm around the elbow.
B. The swivelling of the foot to the medial and lateral directions.
C. The twisting of the wrist while the elbow is held motionless.
D. The rotation at the shoulder that causes the arm to describe a cone shape.

41. 7. Where do osteocytes reside?

A. In lamellae
B. In endosteum
C. In trabeculae
D. In lacunae

42. 11. Which of the events below is the FIRST to occur prior to a muscle cell
contracting?
A. ATP binds to myosin.
B. ADP detaches from myosin.
 C. the active site on actin is exposed.
D. Ca ++ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

43. 19. Which protein(s) are found in thin myofi laments?

A. actin
B. actin and tropomyosin
C. actin, tropomyosin, and troponin
D. actin, myosin, tropomyosin and troponin

44. 18. By what name is something that attaches a bone to another bone known?
A. aponeurosis
B. sarcomere
C. ligament
D. tendon

45. 9. Which cell organelles contain an acidic environment capable of digesting a

wide variety of molecules?
A. Lysosomes
B. Ribosomes
C. Centrosomes
D. Golgi complex

46. 12. One of the following is NOT a serous membrane. Which one?
A. pleura
B. peritoneum
C. mucosa
D. pericardium

47. 18. Which of the following is NOT a cell found in connective tissue?
A. adipocytes
B. chondroblasts
C. keratinocytes
D. osteoblasts

48. 17. The dorsal body cavity contains which of the following organs?
A. The brain.
B. The brain and spinal cord.
c. The brain, spinal cord and heart.
D. The brain, spinal cord, heart and kidneys.

49. 16. Complete the sentence correctly: “Cervical vertebrae are……

A. superior to the rib cage.
B. inferior to the thoracic vertebrae.
C. located between the thoracic and sacral vertebrae.
D. fused into a single bone called the sacrum.
50. 23. Which of the following terms is NOT used to identify a region of the
abdomen?
A. left hypochondriac
B. hypogastric
C. epigastric
D. right sacral

51.

52.

53.

54.

55.
56.

57.

58.

59.

60. 130 - which bone tumor occurs in the epiphysis ?

a- osteoclastoma
b- ewing's sarcoma
c- chondromyxoid fibroma
d- osteosarcoma

61. 131 - Paget's disease of bone

(a) May present with neurological complications or a pathological

fracture
(b) Causes an increase in both serum calcium and phosphate
(c) Causes an increase in serum alkaline phosphatase
(d) Malignant change occurs in 1% of patients
(e) The commonest malignant tumour in patients with Paget's disease is a
chondrosarcoma

-----------------------------------
62. 133. Perthe's disease

(a) Usually presents before 10 years of age

(b) Is due to avascular necrosis of the distal femoral epiphysis
(c) Is more common in girls
(d) Plain x-ray may show the capital femoral epiphysis to be smaller,
denser and flatter
(e) May require surgical containment with a subtrochanteric osteotomy

63. 135. Regarding osteomyelitis

(a) Is most commonly due to a staphylococcus aureus infection

(b) Can be due to salmonella infection in patients with sickle cell anaemia
(c) Infection usually involves the metaphysis of long bones
(d) Dead bone within the medullary canal is known as the involucrum
(e) New bone forming beneath the periosteum is known a the sequestrum

64. 31 - housemaids knee is inflammation of which bursa?

a- subpatellar
b- suprapatellar
c- infrapatellar
d- pre patellar

65. 32 - bone growth is influenced maximally by ?

a- estrogen
b- thyroxine
c- growth hormone
d- testesterone

66. 33 - albert schonberg disease is also called as ?

a - osteoporosis
b- osteodystrophy
c- osteopetrosis
d- osteitis punctata

67. 34 - trident hand is seen in

a- achondroplasia
b- scurvy
c- mucopolysaccaridosis
d- none
 ----------------------------------------------------------

68. 36 - ganglion is most commonly seen over ?

a- dorsal aspect of wrist

b- volar aspect of wrist
c- over forehead
d- dorsum of the tongue

69. 35 - rocker bottom foot is seen in?

a- congenital vertical talus

b- CTEV over correction
c- grice procedure

---------------------------------------------------------------------------

70.
74 - turn - o - plasty is used in the treatment of which of the following
tumors ?

a- osteosarcoma
b- osteoclastoma
c- osteochondroma
d- osteoblastoma
e- chondrosarcoma

71. 73 - which of the following is not the cause of osteoporosis ?

a- corticosteroids
b- alcohol
c- heparin
d- oestrogen therapy

72. 75 - positivity of rheumatoid factor in patients with rheumatoid arthritis

?

a- 70 %
b- 80 %
c- 90 %
 d- 100 %

73.
A clinical study is performed with subjects who have been diagnosed
with a primary bone lesion. The demographic data for these subjects is
analyzed. Which of the following bone diseases is most likely to be found
to have a female predominance?

A Aneurysmal bone cyst

B Osteosarcoma

C Chondrosarcoma

D Ewing sarcoma

E Osteochondroma

74. Question 163

Over the past 4 days, an 18-year-old man has developed marked pain
and swelling in his right hip that makes movement difficult. He has no
history of major medical problems. On physical examination there is
pain on movement with diminished range of motion of the hip. A joint
aspirate from the hip reveals cloudy fluid that on microscopic
examination shows numerous neutrophils but no crystals. Which of the
following conditions is most likely to have preceded development of his
hip problem?

A Gonococcal urethritis

B Sickle cell anemia

C Rheumatoid arthritis

D Systemic lupus erythematosus

E Erythema chronicum migrans

75. 81) Disc Prolapse is Common in

a. L4, L5,
 b. L5, S1

c. T12, L1

d. S1, S2

76. 82) Most common complication of Extra Capsular Fracture in a

female patient aged 30 years is

a. Malunion

b. Non Union

c. Fracture of Radius

d. None of the above

77. 86) Common Complication of Septic Arthritis of Hip is

a. Hypermobile Joint

b. Bony Ankylosis

c. Both

d. None

78. 87) Treatment for Congenital Dislocation of Hip in a 3-6 Month child

a. Von Rosen’s Splint

b. Surgical Reduction

c. Pavlik harness

d. None of the above

79. 88) Posterior Dislocation Of HIP-

a. Adduction,
 b. Flexion,

c. Internal Roatation,

d. All of the above

80.

81. 10. The ischiorectal fossa is bounded directly by:

A The rectum and ischium
B Obturator internus fascia and rectum
C Levator ani and obturator internus fascia
D Ischium and sacrum
E None of the above

82. 11. Location of sphincter urethrae:

A Superficial perineal pouch
B Deep perineal pouch
C Ischiorectal fossa
D Above the prostate gland

83. 12. The internal iliac lymph nodes receive lymph from:
A Body of uterus
B Cervix of uterus
C Prostate
D Rectum
E All of the above

84. 14. Nodes receiving lymph from the testis:

A External iliac
B Internal iliac
C Superficial inguinal
D Presacral
E Para-aortic

85. 13. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes receive lymph from:
A Anal canal
B Vagina
C Lower abdominal wall
D Rectum
E All of the above
86. In the postnatal period the greatest growth in the grey matter
of the CNS is of:
A Nerve cell numbers
B Length of axonal processes
C Dendritic trees
D Size of perikarya
E None of the above

87. 10. The subarachnoid space reaches to vertebral level:

A T12orL1
B L1 or L2
C L4orL5
D S2
E Tip of coccyx

88. 11. A disc prolapse at L5 level, in the usual position of extrusion,

may compress:
A L3,4 and 5 nerve roots
B L4 roots
C L5 roots
D S1 roots
E All the above

89. 17. Axons from the nucleus ambiguus innervate muscles of the:
A Eye
B Tongue
C Larynx
D Ear
E Jaws

90. 18. A classical sign of cerebellar disease:

A Rigidity
B Short, shuffling gait
C Loss of 'joint sense'
D Spasticity
E Intention tremor

91. 9. The azygos vein:

A Carries blood from the oesophagus
B Arches directly over the inferior lobe bronchus
C Passes between the vagus and the trachea
D Joins the superior vena cava behind the first costal
cartilage
E None of the above

92. 12. The number of pulmonary veins entering the left atrium is
 normally:
A One
B Two
C Four
D Six
E Eight

93. The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of

numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word or phrase
select the correct answer under:
A If the item is associated with A only
B If the item is associated with B only
C If the item is associated with both A and B
D If the item is associated with neither A nor B
A Right lung
B Left lung
C Both
D Neither
17. Attached by ligaments to chest wall
18. An oblique fissure is present
19. Impressed by azygos vein
20. Four broncho-pulmonary segments present in the upper
lobe
21. Related to lower thoracic oesophagus

94. A Sinuatrial node

B Atrioventricular node
C Both
D Neither

26. Composed of muscle fibres

27. Close to superior vena caval opening into right atrium
28. Initiates the heart beat
29. Receive(s) postganglionic fibres from the vagus
30. Give(s) rise to Purkinje fibres

95. Directions: In the following series of questions, one or more of

the four items is/are correct.
Answer A if 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B if 1 and 3 are correct
C if 2 and 4 are correct
D if only 4 is correct
and E if all four are correct
36. The mammary gland receives arterial supply from the:
1. Circumflex humeral
 2. Intercostal
3. Subclavian
4. Internal thoracic

96. 37. The lower aperture of the thorax is formed by the:

1. Lower costal cartilages
2. Twelfth rib
3. Xyphoid process
4. Body of twelfth thoracic vertebra

97. In reply to the following questions indicate whether you think

each statement is True or False:
At the lung root:
46. The left bronchus enters the lung before dividing
47. The hilar (bronchopulmonary) lymph nodes drain the
entire lung
48. The bronchial arteries end in this region
49. One pulmonary vein emerges from each lung
50. The phrenic nerves descend posteriorly

98. The breast:

51. Is connected to skin and deep fascia by fibrous bands
52. Lymphatics drain entirely into the axilla
53. Frequently extends a 'tail' into the axilla
54. Left nipple is usually a little lower than right nipple
55. Accessory nipples may appear on the abdominal skin

99. 6. The thyroid gland is enveloped in:

A Investing fascia of the neck
B Prevertebral fascia
C Pretracheal fascia
D Superficial fascia
E None of the above

100. 7. The cricoid cartilage is at the vertebral level of:

A C2
B C4
C C6
D T1
E T3

101. 8. Anterior relation(s) of scalenus anterior:

A Subclavian vein
B Phrenic nerve
C Brachial plexus
D Subclavian artery
 E Two of the above

102. 20. A muscle which elevates and retracts the mandible:

A Masseter
B Temporalis
C Medial pterygoid
D Lateral pterygoid
E Digastric

103. 24. The following muscle assists the tongue in keeping food
between the upper and lower molar teeth during
mastication:
A Masseter
B Temporalis
C Orbicularis oris
D Buccinator
E Risorius

104. 25. A structure passing deep to the hyoglossus muscle:

A Hypoglossal nerve
B Mylohyloid nerve
C Submandibular duct
D Lingual nerve
E None of the above

105. 33. The bony part of the nasal septum contains:

A Perpendicular plate of ethmoid and vomer
B Perpendicular plate of palatine and vomer
C Perpendicular plate of palatine, vomer, and
perpendicular plate of ethmoid
D Perpendicular plate of palatine, vomer, palatine
crest of maxilla
E Perpendicular plate of vomer, palatine, rostrum of
Sphenoid

106. 11. The anterior limit of the normal spleen is represented by the:
A Posterior axillary line
B Midaxillary line
C Anterior axillary line
D Mid-clavicular line
E Linea semilunaris

107. 14. A branch of the hepatic artery:

A Cystic
B Left gastric
C Splenic
 D Gastrohepatic
E Oesophageal

108. 21. The normal number of segments in the kidney is:

A Three
B Five
C Seven
D Ten
E Twenty

109. 22. Behind the kidney:

A Quadratus lumborum
B Twelfth rib
C Subcostal nerve
D Diaphragm
E All of the above

110. The set of lettered headings below is followed by a list of

numbered words or phrases. For each numbered word or phrase
select the correct answer under:
A If the item is associated with A only
B If the item is associated with B only
C If the item is associated with both A and B
D If the item is associated with neither A nor B
A Liver
B Spleen
C Both
D Neither
36. Attached to the diaphragm by peritoneal reflections
37. Venous drainage to inferior vena cava
38. Part of stomach bed
39. Arterial supply via coeliac artery
40. Invested by peritoneum of greater sac

111. 5. Which of the following is not a function of educational psychology?

(a) To discover techniques by means of which educational goals can be

attained effectively

(b) To define the goals for which education is to strive

(c) To promote a greater understanding of the learning process

 (d) To promote a greater understanding of the learner.

112. 8. Logos means knowledge and Psyche means

(a) Soul.

(b) Mind,

(c) Consciousness,

(d) Behaviour.

113. 10. The function and structure of nervous system includes

(a) A.N.S. only.

(b) P.N.S. &A.N.S.

(c) C.N.S.&P.N.

(d) Only P.N.S.

114. 17. Experience has shown that the most feasible plan for utilizing
occupational orientation programme broadcast by radio is

(a) The recording of the programme for inter-communication playback.

(b) The direct hook-up of the programme with all class-room radios.

(c) The assignment of pupils to listen to and report on the programme.

(d) The bringing of pupils to listen to a direct hook-up in assembly.

.
115. 18. In making occupational field-trips, the pupils should

(a) Be accompanied by the teacher at all times.

(b) Be prepared to ask questions from their guide.

(c) Discuss their visits upon returning to school.

(d) All of these

116. 44. The socialization of an individual also depends on the manner in
which he perceives

(a) Objective qualities.

(b) Situation.

(c) Attitude.

(d) Variables.

117.

118.

119.

120. 2. Piaget’s stage for infancy is:

a. Concrete operations b. Formal operation c. Preoperational thought d.
Sensory motor thoughts

121. 5. An affective disorder in which a person swings from one mood extreme to
 another is classified as:
a. Manic b. Depressive c. Unipolar d. Bipolar

122. The ability to learn by observing a model or receiving instructions, without

reinforcement, is called_____
a. Cognitive learning b. Contingency c. Social learning d. Instrumental
learning

123. According to Piaget the process of building mental representation of the

world through direct interaction with it is:
a. Adaptation b. Egocentrism c. Metacognition d. Conservation

124.

125.

126.

127.
128.

129.

130.

131. 11. Which ONE of the following is not an acceptable characteristic of a

granuloma.
A. Composed of altered macrophages.
B. Composed of fused macrophages (giant cells).
C. Composed of epithelioid cells.
D. Composed of a mixture of chronic inflammatory cells.
E. Composed of polymorphonuclear leucocytes, cellular debris and fibrin.

132. 28. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of interferons?

A. Imparts resistance to virus infection.
B. Inhibits virtually all viruses.
C. Released from cells in response to virus infection.
D. Species specific cellular protein.
E. Virus specific antiviral effect.

133. 31. The pathogenicity of the tubercle bacillus is due to which ONE of the
following?
A. Ability to multiply within macrophages.
B. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction against the bacteria.
C. Direct toxic effect on host cells.
D. Effective antibody response.
E. Necrosis caused by expanding granulomas.

134. 37. If the following events were placed in chronological order which would
come
 fourth?
A. Cholecystectomy.
B. Deep venous thrombosis.
C. Embolization.
D. Pulmonary infarction.
E. Stasis in calf veins.

135. 42. Which ONE of the following is not a feature of amyloid?

A. Extracellular fibrillar material.
B. Filaments of 75 nm diameter.
C. Intracellular protein.
D. Present initially in the wall of small blood vessels.
E. Shows red-green birefringence when stained with Congo Red.

136. 45. Which ONE of the following does not predispose to dystrophic
calcification?
A. Active phagocytosis of debris.
B. Fat necrosis.
C. Hyaline change in fibrous tissue.
D. Inspissated material in salivary ducts.
E. Venous thrombosis.

137. 48. In which ONE of the following animal species does an experimental
model for
bladder carcinogenesis by 2-naphthylamine exist?
A. Cat.
B. Dog.
C. Mouse.
D. Rat.
E. Syrian Golden Hamster.

138. 51. Which ONE of the following is not associated with EB virus infection?
A. Burkitt's lymphoma.
B. Carcinoma of the cervix uteri.
C. Infectious mononucleosis.
D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
E. No clinical symptoms.

139. 62. If the following events were placed in chronological order which would
come
fourth?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B. Occlusion of right coronary artery.
C. Pyelonephritis.
D. Rupture of left ventricle.
E. Systemic hypertension.
140. 66. Which ONE of the following is an example of acyanotic congenital heart
disease?
A. Anomalous venous drainage.
B. Coarctation of the aorta.
C. Fallot's tetralogy.
D. Tricuspid atresia.
E. Truncus arteriosus.

141. 5. When the offsprings inherit the father’s name, the family is called-

(a) patronymic

(b) patrilineal

(c) patriarchal

(d) conjugal

142. 31. ___________ means giving up self-interest or hostility for the sake of
mutual benefit.

(a) Negative reciprocity

(b) Balanced reciprocity

(c) Generalized reciprocity

(d) Exchange of gifts

143. 34. The impact of urbanization during medieval period worked through:

(a) Artisans in the towns

(b) Army on move

(c) Nobles, chiefs and Jagirdars

 (d) Petty government officials

144. 39. The change from the occupational role to the retirement role is an
example of situation involving a degree of

(a) role -detachment

(b) role discontinuity

(c) preferential role

(d) primary role

145. 48. Rural and urban centres have co-existed in India, except for a brief
interlude during the

(a) Indus valley

(b) Medieval period

(c) Rig-vedic period

(d) Gupta period

146. 55. Which of the following statements are false?

1. Caste activities have greatly decreased in all villages since development

planning has been undertaken.

2. Industrialisation and expansion of development administration has

stimulated the growth of the middle class

3. With development planning India has been able to solve its basic problems
of unemployment, population growth and poverty

4. India’s development planning has given special focus to integrate women

 into the development process.

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4

147. 57. Which among the following tribal group is supposed to be the most
primitive on Indian mainland?

(a) Khasi

(b) Jorwas

(c) Kadar

(d) Mundas

148. 68. The distribution of data is symmetrical when:

(A) Mean value is equal to that of mode.

(B) Mean value is equal to that of median.

(C) Median value is equal to that of mode.

(D) Mean, median and mode values are equal.

149. 10. Material culture is always the product of

A. ideas B. knowledge

C. skill of mankind D. non-material culture

 E. all of these
Answer & Explanation

Answer
150. 13. Comet introduced

A. Dynamical sociology B. Static sociology

C. Physics D. None of these

Answer & Explanation

151. 2. "Enduring" means

social institutions exist over complex collection of

A. B.
a considerable time. values.

social institutions have a

C.
function.
152. 9. "Family started with patriarch" belongs to the theory of

A. matriarchal B. patriarchal

C. polygamy

153.
12. Which of the following theory believed that origin of family is based on
the philosophy of possession of women by men?

A. Multi-factor theory B. Polygamy theory

C. Theory of sex communism

154. 13. The system under which marriage between blood relations was not
forbidden is known as
 A. syndas B. consanguine

C. matrilocal

155. 19. Type of the family in which mother is the basis of all authority is known
as

A. matrilocal B. matrilineal

C. procreation

156. 20. The family in which father is the source of authority is known as

A. patrilineal B. procreation

C. patronymic

157. 6. The pattern of pressure which a society exerts to maintain order and
establish rules is known as its system of

A. social approval B. group

C. public opinion D. social control

158. 7. When one part of the culture develops more rapidly than other parts, the
following description is made

A. accommodation B. cultural lag

C. cultural accumulation D. revolution

159. 9. Criminal behaviour is learnt primarily

 by same process as non-
A. in large groups. B.
criminal behaviour.

by a definite criminal
C. D. none of above.
process.

160. 12. Anomie is

A. a type of deliquency B. a serious offence

C. a value clash behaviour D. a self-indulgence

161. 14. Paleocerebellum chiefly concerned with

a. Information from stretch receptors.
b. Voluntary function
c. Involuntary function
d. Posture

162. 19. Motor planning and timing is by which lobe of cerebellum

a. Anterior lobe
b. Floculonodular
c. Posterior
d. All of the above

163. 29. Parietal lobe lesion exhibit

a. Lack of sensory motor integration
b. Inability to interpret meaningful sensory information
c. Both a & b.
d. None

164. 37. In two point discrimination the distance between two points in palm is
a. 5 – 6 mm
b. 7 – 10 mm
c. 10- 15 mm
d. None

165. 52. Apraxia is a result of lesion in

a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Internal capsule
166. 62. Horner’s syndrome is associated with
a. Myositis
b. Anhydrosis
c. All of them
d. None of them

167. 68. Worm like involuntary movement is

a. Chorea
b. Dystonia
c. Athetosis
d. Hemiballismus

168. 74. Crocodile tear is feature of------------------ cranial nerve palsy.

a. 2nd
b. 3rd
c. 6th
d. 7th

169. 80. Removal of somato sensory (SII) will cause--------------.

a. Impairment of postural sense
b. impairment of perception of shape of object.
c. Impairment of perception of both shape and texture of object
d. Impairment of perception of texture

170. 81. Which is not feature of cerebellar dysfunction?

a. Bradykinesia
b. Dysmetria
c. Asthenia
d. Hypotonia

171. 44. In naturopathy, to get well from the acute diseases the patient should be
kept on___.
a. same diet as before b. only on veg. diet c. fasting on water or natural fluid
d. non of the above

172. 45. In naturopathy Enema is applied to cleanse the___.

a. respiratory tract b. large colon c. stomach d. nose

173. 8. Ardha Matsyendrasana (Half-twist posture) is useful for stretching

______muscle.
a. Hamstrings b. Rectus Femoris c. Piriformis d. Gastro-soleus

174. 9. Which Asana flexes the whole body?

a. Pawan Muktasana b. Bhujangasana c. Dhanurasana d. Matsyasana

175. 10. In close standing, interlace the fingers and stretch them up over head to
 stand on the toes is known as -------asana.
a. Pascimatanasana b. Ardha Cakrasana c. Tadasana d. Salabhasana

176. 11. Suryanamaskar has got -------steps.

a. 6 b. 10 c. 12 d. 18

177. 12. Dhanurasana can be used to stretch the ----.

a. Back extensors b. Abdominals c. Back extensors & hip extensors d.
Abdominals & hip flexors

178. 6. What are the resistances of the dry and wet skin?
a. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 5,000 ohm respectively
b. 100,000 – 600,000 ohm and 1,000 ohm respectively
c. 10,000 – 60,000 ohm and 10,000 ohm respectively
d. 10, 00,000 – 60, 00,000 ohm and 10,000 ohms respectively

179. 102. For Calcific deposit , the ion selected is

a. Copper 500 – 600 C
b. Acetate
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

180. 103. While treating hyperhydrosis in adults initially the dosage should be
a. >100 mA min
b. <100 mA min
c. 200 mA min
d. 300 mA min

181. 121. There is a circadian variation of body temperature of about

a. 1 degree C
b. 2 degree C
c. 1 degree F
d. degree F

182. 130. The beneficial effects of PSWD is in accordance with

a. Vant Hoffs rule
b. Joules law
c. Arndt – Schultz law
d. None of the above

183. 142. For tennis elbow the laser dose is

a. 1.5 J/cm2
b. 5 J/cm2
c. 16-24 J/cm2
d. 8-12 J/cm2
184. 149. The therapeutic range of Ultra-Sound is
a. 1-5 Hz
b. 5-10 Hz
c. 0..5-5 MHz
d. 0.5-100MHz

185. 155. In therapeutic ultrasound the energy travels

a. More in periphery of beam
b. More in centre of the beam
c. Uniform around the beam
d. There is changing over from periphery to centre of beam.

186. 160. For pulsed ultrasound application if the pulse length is 2ms and the
interval is
8ms. What is the duty cycle.
a. 25%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. None of the above

187. 165. For stress fracture, therapeutic U.S is

a. Therapeutic
b. Diagnostic
c. Diagnostic & therapeutic
d. Preventive

188. 170. The approximate average half value depth of ultrasound of 1 M Hz

frequency
is
a. 100 mm
b. 65 mm
c. 35 mm
d. 25

189. 175. To have effect on intracellular calcium system the ultrasound duty cycle
should be
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40% mm

190. 185. The local errythema after infrared radiation may lasts up to
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 1 hour
191. 1. A physical therapist is working in an outpatient orthopedic clinic.
During the patient's history the patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4
Rotator cuff muscles in the past." Which of the following muscles
cannot be considered as possibly being torn?

A. Teres minor
B. Teres major
C. Supraspinatus
D. Infraspinatus

192. 2.
2. A physical therapist working on an ICU unit, notices a patient is
experiencing SOB, calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf. All
of these may indicate which of the following medical conditions?

A. Patient may have a DVT.

B. Patient may be exhibiting signs of dermatitis.
C. Patient may be in the late phases of CHF.
D. Patient may be experiencing anxiety after surgery.

193. 3. A physical therapist is caring for a patient who has recently been
diagnosed with fibromyalgia and COPD. Which of the following tasks
should the physical therapist delegate to an aide?
a. Transferring the patient during the third visit.
B. Ambulating the patient for the first time.
C. Taking the patient's vital sign while setting up an exercise
program.
D. Educating the patient on monitoring fatigue.

194. 5. A physical therapist is returning phone calls in a pediatric clinic. Which of

the following reports most requires the physical therapist's immediate
attention and phone call?

A. A 8 year-old boy has been vomiting and appears to have slower

movements and has a history of an atrio-ventricular shunt placement.
B. A 10 year-old girl feels a dull pain in her abdomen after doing sit-ups in
gym class.
C. A 7 year-old boy has been having a low fever and headache for the past 3
days that has history of an anterior knee wound.
D. A 7 year-old girl that had a cast on her right ankle is complaining of
itching.

195. 4. A physical therapist is instructing a person who had a left CVA and
 right lower extremity hemiparesis to use a quad cane. Which of the
following is the most appropriate gait sequence?

A. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane,
then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait sequence.
B. Place the cane in the patient's left upper extremity, encourage cane,
then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait sequence.
C. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage
cane, then right lower extremity, then left upper extremity gait
sequence.
D. Place the cane in the patient's right upper extremity, encourage
cane, then left lower extremity, then right upper extremity gait
sequence.

196.
6. A physical therapist is caring for a patient in the step down unit. The
patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is
not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

A. Bradycardia
B. Increased pupil size bilaterally
C. Change in LOC

D. Vomiting

197. 7. The charge nurse on a cardiac unit tells you a patient is exhibiting signs of
right-sided heart failure. Which of the following would not indicate right-
sided heart failure?

A. Nausea
B. Anorexia
C. Rapid weight gain
D. SOB (shortness of breath)

198. 8. A patient has recently been diagnosed with symptomatic bradycardia.

Which of the following medications is the most recognized for treatment of
symptomatic bradycardia?

A. Questran
B. Digitalis
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Atropine

199. 10. A patient has suffered a left CVA and has developed severe hemiparesis
resulting in a loss of mobility. The physical therapist notices on assessment
 that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema
and the skin is intact. The physical therapist should score the patient as having
which of the following?

A. Stage I pressure ulcer

B. Stage II pressure ulcer
C. Stage III pressure ulcer
D. Stage IV pressure ulcer

200. 9. Which of the following arterial blood gas values indicates a patient may be
experiencing a condition of metabolic acidosis?

A. PaO2 (91%)
B. Bicarbonate 159
C. CO(2) 48 mm Hg
D. pH 7.33

201. Answer Key

1. B
2. A
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. B
10. A
202.
203.
204.
205.
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.

Micro-20

Physiology-30

Ortho-30
ANA-30

Psych=20

General=30

Path=10

Eletro=10

Sociology=20