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HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK TEST EXAMINATION - 2024

TEST –V
Total Questions: 125
Maximum Marks: 125
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 18/02/2024

1. Under Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, Which of the
following authority has the power to transfer any pending proceeding from one
Appellate authority to another Appellate authority?
(a) District Court
(b) High Court
(c) Controller
(d) Both a and b
2. Every order made under Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act,
1973 shall be executed by:-
(a) Civil court
(b) District court
(c) controller
(d) None of the above
3. No court shall take cognizance of the offence under Haryana Urban (Control
of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, except:-
(a) A complaint made in writing or oral to the controller
(b) A complaint in writing made to the controller
(c) A complaint in writing filed with the sanction of the controller
(d) None of the above
4. Who has the power to make rules to carry out all or any of the purpose of
Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973
(a) High Court
(b) State Government
(c) Central Government
(d) Both a and b
5. Under Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, a tenant may
be evicted from the premises if the tenant has ceased to occupy the building
for a continuous period of:-
(a) Three months

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 (b) Four months
(c) Six months
(d) 12 months
6. Which of the following provision of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918 provides that
the appeal from the order of Civil Judge Senior division shall lie to the District
Judge?
(a) Section 37
(b) Section 38
(c) Section 39
(d) Section 40
7. Under the provision of Punjab Courts Act, 1918, if the ex-parte decree is
passed by the appellate court, such decree
(a) May be challenged in second appeal
(b) Cannot be challenged in second appeal
(c) Is final and binding and cannot be challenged
(d) Both b and c
8. As per the provision of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918,the limitation period for
second appeal is:-
(a) Thirty days from the date of decree passed by first appellate court
(b) Sixty days from the date of decree passed by first appellate court
(c) ninety days from the date of decree passed by first appellate court
(d) none of the above
9. Which of the following section of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918 provides
‘classes of court’?
(a) Section 18
(b) Section 19
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 21
10. The deputy speaker of the lok sabha is elected by the:-
(a) Members of lok sabha
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Citizens of India
11. President is the member of which of the following houses
(a) Lok sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha

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 (c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
12. Who administer oath to the Judges of the High Court
(a) President
(b) Governor of the State
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) None of the above
13. Who was the first women chief minister of any state in India?
(a) Nandini Satpathy
(b) Sucheta Kriplani
(c) Shashikala Kakodkar
(d) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
14. Who was the first Indian to become the President of International Court of
justice?
(a) Lord S.P Sinha
(b) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(c) Dalveer Bhandari
(d) None of the above
15. Which of the following planet is the brightest planet?
(a) mars
(b) venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Mercury
16. The boundary line between India and China is known as:-
(a) Durand line
(b) Macmohan line
(c) Redcliff line
(d) Hidenburg line
17. Dachigam National Park is located in:-
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Uttrakhand
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
18. In which city did PM Modi inaugurate the world's largest meditation center?
(a) Patna
(b) Varanasi

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 (c) Lucknow
(d) Ahemdabad
19. Who has been chosen as ‘CEO of the year’ by time magazine?
(a) Sundar Pichai
(b) Tim cook
(c) Sam Altman
(d) Satya Nadela
20. India’s first Himalayan Air Safari was recently launched from which Indian
state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Uttrakhand
(c) Ladhakh
(d) Haryana
21. How many administrative divisions are there in Haryana
(a) Five
(b) six
(c) seven
(d) Four
22. Which of the following is the State animal of Haryana
(a) Black Francolin
(b) Black buck
(c) Tiger
(d) Lion
23. Third battle of Panipat took place between
(a) Babur and Ibrahin Lodhi
(b) Akbar and Hem Chandra Vikramaditya
(c) Ahmad Shah Abdali and Marathas
(d) None of the above
24. Which is the largest district of Haryana?
(a) Sirsa
(b) Bhiwani
(c) Ambala
(d) Hisar
25. Where does Surajkund lake is situated?
(a) Faridabad
(b) Hisar

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 (c) Panchkula
(d) Bhiwani
26. Under the Indian Partnership act, 1932, ‘act of firm’ means:
(a) Act of all the partners
(b) Omission of all the Partners
(c) Act or omission by all the partners
(d) Act or omission of any active partner
27. Under which of the following situation the Partnership is at will
I. Where no provision is made by contract between the partners for the
duration of their partnership
II. Where no provision is made by contract between the partners for the
determination of their partnership
III. Where no provision is made by contract between the partners for the
ratio of profit and loss
Choose the correct option
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i,ii and iii
(d) i and ii
28. Which of the following section f the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides that
every partner has a right to take part in the conduct of the business?
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 12
(c) Section 13
(d) Section 14
29. Where a partner is entitled to interest on the capital subscribed by him such
interest shall be payable:-
(a) Only out of profits
(b) At the rate of six percent
(c) Out of capital gains
(d) Only out of profit but shall not exceed six percent
30. Which of the following section of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 provides
that an admission or representation made by a partner concerning the affairs
of the firm is evidence against the firm?
(a) Section 21
(b) Section 22
(c) Section 23

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 (d) Section 24
31. Where there is an agreement to sell specific goods, and subsequently the
goods without any fault on the part of the seller or buyer perish or become so
damaged as no longer to answer to their description in the agreement before
the risk passes to the buyer,
(a) The agreement becomes void
(b) The agreement becomes voidable
(c) The agreement is still binding and enforceable
(d) None of the above
32. In a contract of sale, there is:
(a) an implied warranty on the part of the seller that, in the case of a sale,
he has a right to sell
(b) an implied condition that the buyer shall have and enjoy quiet
possession of the goods
(c) an implied warranty that the goods shall be free from any charge or
encumbrance in favour of any third party not declared or known to the
buyer before or at the time when the contract is made
(d) all of the above
33. Which of the following chapter of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides for the
‘Effects of the Contract’
(a) Chapter II
(b) Chapter III
(c) Chapter IV
(d) None of the above
34. When the seller of the goods has obtained possession of the goods under a
voidable contract, but the contract has not been rescinded, the buyer acquires
a
(a) Defective title
(b) Good title
(c) Good title only if he buys in good faith and without knowledge of
defective title
(d) Defective title even if he buys in good faith and without knowledge of
defective title
35. Which of the following section of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides the
effect of sub-sale by buyer
(a) Section 52
(b) Section 53

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 (c) Section 54
(d) None of the above
36. Where a Contract falls under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963:-
(a) The Court still has the discretion to grant specific performance.
(b) The Court shall grant specific performance.
(c) The Court has no discretion to grant specific performance.
(d) None of the above
37. Mark the correct statement
(a) It is not mandatory for a court to grant specific performance of a
contract including those relating to performance of an action agreed to
be done in performance of a trust
(b) It is mandatory for a Court to grant specific performance of a contract
including those relating to performance of an action agreed to be done
in performance of a trust
(c) It is mandatory for a court to grant specific performance of a contract
including those relating to performance of an action agreed to be done
in performance of a trust unless a contract was made by a trustee in
excess his power in breach of trust.
(d) It is not mandatory for a court to grant specific performance of a
contract including those relating to performance of an action agreed to
be done in performance of a trust unless a contract was made by a
trustee in excess his power in breach of trust.
38. Suit under Section 6 of specific Relief Act, 1963 may be filed.
(a) Within 6 months starting from the date when the possession of the
defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff
(b) Within 6 months starting from the date when the lawful tenancy is
determined & tenant continues the possession
(c) Within 6 months starting from the date of dispossession
(d) Both (a) & (b)
39. Which of the following is not true with respect to the grant of interim
mandatory injunction :
(a) Interim mandatory injunction can be granted in appropriate cases and
there is no universal prohibition to this.
(b) Plaintiff should show case a very strong prima facie case-higher
standard then just prima facie case
(c) There is no express provision in Specific Relief Act with respect to
interim mandatory injunction.
(d) None of the above

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40. If a contract comprises an agreement to do an act and also not to do certain
acts:
(a) No injunction can be granted to prevent performance of the negative
agreement
(b) Injunction can be granted to prevent performance of negative
agreement only if affirmative agreement is enforceable
(c) Injunction can be granted to compel performance of both or any of
them
(d) Injunction can be granted to compel performance of either of them only
41. Which of the following is not an instance of dispossession ‘in due course of
law’?
(a) Dispossession by an order under section 145 of Cr.P.C
(b) A tenant was disposed in execution of a decree
(c) A tenant holding on to property after expiry of his tenancy was
forcefully dispossessed
(d) All of the above
42. As per section 3 of the limitation Act, every suit instituted, appeal preferred,
and application made after the prescribed period shall be
(a) Barred
(b) Dismissed
(c) Disposed of
(d) Not be maintainable
43. Mark the correct statement:-
(a) Section 16 of the Limitation Act may applies to suits for the possession
of immovable property
(b) Section 16 of the Limitation Act shall applies to suits for the possession
of immovable property
(c) Section 16 of the Limitation Act does not applies to suits for the
possession of immovable property
(d) Both a and b
44. Period of Limitation to repudiate a transfer made by guardian of a ward, when
a ward dies as a minor, is :
(a) 3 years from the date of transfer
(b) 3 years from the date of his death
(c) 12 years from the date of his death
(d) 12 years from the date of transfer
45. Mark the correct statement :

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 (a) It is in the competence of the Court to wave or by pass the effect of
statute of limitation
(b) It is in the competence of the parties to wave or by pass the effect of
statute of limitation
(c) If the counsel of a party waves the objection with regard to limitation,
the party is not estopped from raising the objection, as there is no
estoppel and the counsel’s admission on a point of law is not binding
on a party.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
46. under section 6 to the limitation act Where the disability continues up to the
death of the person entitled to institute suit:-
(a) the period of limitation will not be excluded for his representatives
(b) his cause of action dies
(c) Benefit of section 6 available to his representatives as well.
(d) Both a and b
47. Law of contract is source of transactions made by :
(i) Government
(ii) Corporations
(iii) Businessmen
(iv) Individuals
Choose the correct option :
(a) (iv) only
(b) (iii) & (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), & (iv)
48. Mark the incorrect statement :
(a) The function of the contract is a constructive one i.e. to facilitate
forward planning of the transactions and to make provisions for the
future contingencies.
(b) The contract establishes what are the respective responsibilities of the
parties and the standard of performance to be expected from them.
(c) The contract may provide for what is to happen if the things go wrong.
(d) None of the above
49. Which of the following cases is/are related to Doctrine of Restitution?
(a) Leslie V. sheill
(b) Stocks V. Wilson
(c) Khan Gul V. Lakha Singh

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 (d) All of the above
50. 'A' & 'B' contract that 'A' shall deliver goods to 'B' to be paid for by 'B' on
delivery. Then:-
(a) 'A' need not to deliver the goods, unless 'B' is ready & willing to pay for
the goods on delivery
(b) 'B' need not to pay for the goods, unless 'A' is ready & willing to deliver
them on payment
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
51. A, B & C as sureties for 'D' enter into three several bonds each in a different
penalty namely 'A' in the penalty of Rs. 10000, 'B' in that of Rs. 20000, C in
that of Rs. 40000, conditioned for D's duly accounting to E. 'D' makes default
of Rs. 40000 what is the liability of A, B & C?
(a) C is liable to pay the whole of the defaulted amount Rs. 40000
(b) A, B & C are liable to pay equally
(c) A is liable to pay Rs. 10000 & 'B' is liable to pay Rs. 20000 & 'C' is
liable to pay Rs. 10000
(d) 'A' is liable to pay Rs 10000 & 'B' & 'C' Rs. 15000 each
52. For the purpose of Section 42, a person may be arrested on his refusal to give
name and residence. Such refusal is subsequent to the commission of:
(a) Cognizable offence
(b) Non-cognizable offence
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) An offence under Section 410, IPC
53. The objects specified under Section 292 (1) of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
may be searched at the place where it is kept or deposited. Such search shall
be in accordance to the provisions laid down in–
(a) Section 93 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 94 of Cr.P.C.
(c) Section 95 of Cr.P.C.
(d) Section 96 of Cr.P.C.
54. For the purpose of Section 160, who is not required to attend before the police
officer (making investigation)?
(i) A male person under the age of fifteen years or above the age of sixty-
five years
(ii) A woman of any age

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 (iii) A male person under the age of sixteen years or above the age of
sixty-five years
(iv) A mentally or physically disabled person
(a) (i),(ii),(iv) are correct
(b) (ii),(iii),(iv) are correct
(c) (i),(ii) are correct
(d) (ii),(iii) are correct
55. Withdrawal from prosecution amounts to:
(a) Discharge of accused
(b) Acquittal of accused
(c) Either discharge or acquittal of accused, depending upon as to when
withdrawal was made
(d) None of the above
56. According to Section 416, if the woman sentenced to death is found to be
pregnant, what recourse shall be adopted by the Court?
(a) The Sessions Court shall commute the sentence to imprisonment for
life
(b) The High Court shall order the execution of the sentence to be
postponed and may, if it thinks fit, commute the sentence to
imprisonment for life
(c) The High Court shall commute the sentence to imprisonment for life
(d) The High Court may order the execution of the sentence to be
postponed.
57. A confession recorded by the Magistrate under Chapter XII of the Code or
under any other law for the time being in force, shall be presumed to be
genuine under
(a) Section 281 of Cr.P.C.
(b) Section 80 of Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 164 of Cr.P.C.
(d) All of the above
58. No Court shall take cognizance of an offence after the expiry of period of
limitation which is:
(a) Six Months if offence is punishable with fine only
(b) One year, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not
exceeding three years
(c) Two years, if the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term
exceeding six months but not exceeding two years

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 (d) All of the above are correct
59. Which one of the following offences is not triable summarily under the Code?
(a) Offences not punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(b) Offences under section 456 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) Receiving or retaining stolen property, where the value of the property
stolen exceeds two thousand rupees
(d) An offence in respect of which a complaint may be made under Section
20 of Cattle Trespass Act, 1871
60. Mark the correct statement with respect to the provision laid down under
Section 438 of the Code:
(a) Section 438 comes into play when a person has reason to believe that
he may be arrested on accusation of having committed a non-bailable
offence
(b) Filing of a FIR is a pre-condition to invoke the provisions of Section 438
(c) Under exceptional circumstances, the provisions of Section 438 can be
invoked even if the person has reason to believe that he may be
arrested on accusation of having committed a bailable offence
(d) All of the above are correct
61. A case involving both cognizable and non-cognizable offences is a:
(a) Cognizable case and thus investigation of such a case does not require
the sanction of the Magistrate
(b) Non-cognizable case and hence its investigation require the sanction of
the Magistrate
(c) Non-cognizable case but does not require the sanction of the
Magistrate
(d) Cognizable case but as an exception, requires the sanction of the
Magistrate for investigation in the non-cognizable part
62. If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the warrant
cases, the Magistrate may discharge the accused if:
(a) The proceedings have been issued on complaint
(b) The offence is compoundable
(c) The charge has not been framed
(d) All of the above are correct
63. When a Court desires that a summons issued by it shall be served at any
place outside its local jurisdiction, it shall ordinarily send such summons in
duplicate to:

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 (a) High Court
(b) Magistrate of competent jurisdiction
(c) District Judge
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)
64. For the purpose of Section 313 of the Code,
(a) No oath shall be administered to the accused when he is examined
(b) The answers given by the accused cannot be taken into consideration
and put in evidence for or against him in any other inquiry or trial for
any other offence
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
65. The Control room at the districts, under the provisions of Section 41C, shall
be established by the:
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) High Court
(d) All of the above are empowered to establish such control room
66. The proceedings under Section 125 shall be recorded in the manner
prescribed for:
(a) Summons-cases
(b) Warrant-cases
(c) Summary-cases
(d) Either (a) or (b) or (c) depending upon the gravity of accusations
levelled against the party
67. A police officer arrested a person without warrant as the person was drunk
and creating disturbance in public streets. The action of the police:
(a) May Amounts to an offence as defined under Section 330 of the Code
(b) May Amounts to an offence as defined under Section 340 of the Code
(c) May Amounts to an offence as defined under Section 510 of the Code
(d) Does not amount to any offence as the police officer was acting in the
discharge of his official duties
68. Choose the most appropriate response form among the following as to which
are the ingredients which are sine qua non for the offence as mentioned
under Section 413 of the Code:
(i) The property is question as under Section 413 should have been
obtained by means of cheating

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 (ii) The possession of the property in question should have been obtained
by extortion or criminal breach of trust
(iii) The accused received such property or dealt with it
(iv) The accused did so habitually
(v) The accused did so knowingly or having reason to believe that the
property was such as has been discussed under Section 410 of the
Code
The responses are:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are correct
(c) (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are correct
69. Choose the correct response with reference to the offences of Kidnapping and
Abduction:
(i) Kidnapping is the removal of a person from lawful guardianship
whereas abduction has reference only to the person abducted
(ii) Consent of the person kidnapped is immaterial whereas free and
voluntary consent of the person abducted condones abduction
(iii) Kidnapping is a not a substantive offence whereas abduction, from its
inception, is a substantive offence
(iv) In kidnapping, the question of taking or enticing does not arise whereas
the pre-requisite element for abduction is enticement
The responses are:
(a) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) Only (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
70. Section 121 covers, under its ambit, which of the following offences? Choose
the most appropriate response:
(i) Waging war against the Government of India
(ii) Attempt to wage war against the Government of India
(iii) Preparation to wage war against the Government of India
(iv) Abetment of waging of war against the Government of India The
responses are:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), and (ii) are correct

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 (d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
71. State, from among the following, as to in which offence(s), mens rea is not an
essential element:
(i) Waging war or attempting to wage war or abetting waging of war
against the Government of India
(ii) kidnapping
(iii) Murder
(iv) Abduction
(v) Counterfeiting Indian coin The codes are:
(a) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(b) Only (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) are correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are correct
(d) Only (iii) only is correct
72. Chapter IV of the Code deals with the general exceptions to criminal liability.
There are various kinds of acts (exceptions) done under the circumstances as
mentioned under the said chapter which will not amount to an offence. In this
context, mark the most appropriate response with respect to general
exceptions:
(i) The onus of proving exceptions lies on the prosecution, who has to
prove the circumstances bringing the case of the accused within any of
the general exceptions
(ii) The court shall presume the absence of such circumstances
(iii) The prosecution has to prove the guilt of the accused beyond
reasonable doubts
(iv) The accused has to show that the preponderance of probabilities is in
favour of his plea
(v) Once the exceptions are proved, the accused will be discharged and
not acquitted of the offences
The codes are:
(a) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) Only (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are correct
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) are correct
73. Match the following:
A. Furiosi nulla voluntas est (i) Section 85
B. Qui pecat ebrius luat sobrius (ii) Section 84
C. De minimus non curat lex (iii) Section 94

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 D. Actus ne invito factus est nisi actus (iv) Section 92
(v) Section 95
(a) A - (i) B - (ii) C - (iii) D - (v)
(b) A - (ii) B - (i) C - (v) D - (iii)
(c) A - (ii) B - (i) C - (iv)D - (iii)
(d) A - (ii) B - (i) C - (v) D - (iv)
74. Section 76 of the Code enunciates that nothing is an offence which is done by
a person who is, or who by reason of a:
(a) Mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith
believes himself to be, justified by law to do it
(b) Mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law believes himself
to be, justified by law to do it
(c) Mistake of fact or law, in good faith, believes himself to be bound by
law to do it
(d) Mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith
believes himself to be, bound by law to do it
75. Match the following:
(a) Assault or use of criminal force to woman with intent to disrobe
(b) Voyeurism
(c) Sexual harassment and punishment for sexual harassment
(d) Stalking
(i) Section 354
(ii) Section 354-A
(iii) Section 354-B
(iv) Section 354-C
(v) Section 354-D
Choose the correct option:
A B C D
(a) (i) (iv) (ii) (v)
(b) (i) (v) (ii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iv) (i) (v)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (v)
76. Section 363-A deals with the offence of kidnapping or maiming a minor for
purposes of begging In case of a male for the purpose of the aforesaid
provision, what shall be his age so as to be considered as a minor?
(a) A person under twelve years of age
(b) A person under sixteen years of age

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 (c) A person under eighteen years of age
(d) A person under twenty-one years of age
77. Read these two statements and choose the most appropriate option:
Statement I: An offence is committed when an act which is forbidden by law,
is done voluntarily
Statement II: Ordinarily, an offence is not committed if the mind of the person
committing the act is innocent
(a) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(b) Statement II is correct and Statement I is incorrect
(c) Both Statements I and II are correct
(d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct
78. A, a witness, falsely deposes on oath in another’s name in a Court of Law. A
is thus guilty of an offence under which Section?
(a) Section 205
(b) Section 208
(c) Section 212
(d) Section 214
79. Section 82 of the Code enunciates:
(a) Rebuttable presumption of law
(b) Presumption of fact
(c) Irrebuttable presumption of law
(d) None of the above
80. To constitute an offence under which of the following provision(s), the demand
of dowry by the accused is necessary?
(i) Section 304 A
(ii) Section 498 A
(iii) Section 304 B
Choose the most appropriate response:
(a) Only (iii) is correct
(b) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) All (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
81. During a scuffle between two persons A and B, A gave a blow on the face of
B and consequently B lost his two teeth and he started bleeding. Due to
profuse bleeding, B was not able to follow his normal pursuits for a week.
What offence has a committed by A?
(i) Simple hurt

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 (ii) Grievous hurt
(iii) Criminal force
(iv) Rash and negligent act
The options are
(a) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Only (ii) is correct
(d) Only (ii) and (iv) are correct
82. Which of the following statement is true
(a) The power under section 24 of the CPC can be exercised by the High
Court even for inter-State transfer of a suit, appeal or other proceeding,
if it is the common High Court for two states
(b) Section 25 applies to inter-State transfer of a suit, appeal or other
proceeding where both States have a High Court in terms of Article 214
of the Constitution
(c) The power under section 24 of the CPC can be exercised by the High
Court for inter-State transfer of a suit, appeal or other proceeding, if
both states have a separate High Court
(d) Both a and b
83. Mark the correct statement
(a) Short of sufficient funds can be reasonable ground to file appeal after
stipulated time
(b) Short of sufficient funds can be reasonable ground to condone the
delay in filling appeal
(c) short of sufficient funds to pay court fee is not a reason to condone
delay in filing appeal. Such an appeal can be filed in terms of Section
149 CPC and thereafter the defects can be removed by paying deficit
court fees
(d) both a and b
84. Where the numerous person having the same interest in one suit; then :
(a) Representative suit can be filed as a matter of right
(b) Representative suit cannot be filed as a matter of right
(c) Representative suit can be filed only with the permission of the Court
(d) Both (b) and (c)
85. Every endeavour shall be made to ensure that the decree is drawn up :
(a) Within 15 days from date of pronouncement of Judgment
(b) Within in 30 days from the date pronouncement of Judgment

18
 (c) Within 15 days from the date on which the parties has applied for the
decree
(d) Within in 30 days from the date on which the parties has applied for the
decree
86. Mesne profit of property means those profits which the person in wrongful
possession of such property actually received and :
(a) It does not includes interest on such profitsbut includes profit due to
improvements made by the person in such possession.
(b) It includes interest on such profits and also includes profit due to
improvements made by the person in such possession.
(c) It includes interest on such profit but it does not include profits due to
improvements made by the person in such possession.
(d) Neither it includes interest an such profit nor does it include profit due
to improvements made by the person in such possession.
87. Where any party to the suit dies during the trial and no legal representative
have been substituted with in Limitation period the suit shall stand
abated,provided
(a) The Court shall pass a formal order in that regard
(b) The Court shall pass a speaking order in that regard
(c) It is not mandatory for the Court to pass any formal order as suit
automatically abates.
(d) Both (a) & (b)
88. Which of the following is/are the general principles relating to Jurisdiction of a
Civil Court :
(i) Consent can confer as well as take away the Jurisdiction of a Court
(ii) There shall be no presumption in the favour of jurisdiction of a Civil
Court
(iii) A statute ousting jurisdiction of a court must be strictly construed.
(iv) Every Court has judicial power to decide its own Jurisdiction.
Choose the correct option
(a) (i) & (iii)
(b) (i), & (ii)
(c) (i), (ii),(iii) & (iv)
(d) (iii) & (iv)
89. In an execution proceeding, when it is required that the court shall issue the
notice to the person against whom the execution is applied for?

19
 (i) Where an application for execution is made within 2 years of the date
of decree
(ii) Where an application for execution is made more than 2 years after the
date of decree
(iii) Where an application for execution is made against the legal
representatives
(iv) Where an application for execution is made against assignee or
receiver in insolvency, where the party to the decree has been
adjudged to be an insolvent
Choose the correct option
(a) (i) & (iii)
(b) (i), & (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
90. An appellate court’s jurisdiction under section 96 of the Civil Procedure Code,
1908 involves a
(a) rehearing of appeal on question of law
(b) rehearing of appeal on question of fact
(c) rehearing of appeal on question of law and fact
(d) none of the above
91. Under Order VIII Rule 1 CPC - Period For Filing Of Written Statement Is:-
(a) Directory In Civil Suits; But Mandatory In Commercial Suits
(b) Directory In Commercial Suits; But Mandatory In Civil Suits
(c) Directory in both civil and commercial suits
(d) Mandatory in both civil and commercial
92. Mesne profits are the profit received by a person in:
(a) Illegal possession of property
(b) Wrongful possession property
(c) Either illegal or wrongful possession of property
(d) Both wrongful and illegal possession of property
93. Section 61 empowers the State Government to exempt from attachment or
sale:
(a) Any property
(b) Political pensions
(c) Agricultural produce
(d) Spec successions

20
94. If the provision of section 15 has been violated & the suit has been filed in
higher grade court. The decree passed by that Court :
(a) Is a nullity
(b) Is not nullity
(c) Can be challenged in collateral proceeding
(d) Both (a) and (c)
95. What do you understand by “irregular” Decree?
(a) Decree passed without territorial Jurisdiction
(b) Decree passed without Pecuniary Jurisdiction
(c) Decree passed without Territorial, Pecuniary or subject matter
(d) Both (a) & (b)
96. The definition of the terms ‘Evidence’ Under Section 3 of the Evidence Act,
1872 does not includes:-
(i) Material things, other than documents eg. Weapons, articles of stolen
property
(ii) Document including electronic records produced for inspection
(iii) The result of local inquiry or inspection
(iv) Statement made out of the Court or before the Court by the parties
(a) (i), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iv)
97. Mark the correct statement
(a) Evidence and testimony may be used Interchangeable
(b) Evidence is narrow than testimony
(c) Evidence is wide than testimony and its includes oral and documentary
evidence
(d) Both (a) and (c)
98. Mark the incorrect statement
(i) Proof is the result or effect of evidence is affirmation of an alleged fact
(ii) Proof is the result or effect of evidence is negation of an alleged fact
(iii) ‘Evidence’ means the fact which proves a fact and proof is the effect of
evidence.
(iv) Testimony is also an evidence
(a) (ii) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

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 (c) (i), (ii),(iii) and (iv)
(d) None of the above
99. Considering the object and importance of law of evidence make the correct
statement:-
(i) The law of evidence restricts the parties to those facts which can be
brought before the Court in support of the disputed facts
(ii) The object of the law of Evidence is to restrict the investigation made
by the Court within the limits of general convenience.
(iii) The law of evidence is for a judicial behaviours like the reasoning for
logic
(iv) There is no restriction on the parties to give evidence, the parties may
indefinitely go on bringing the facts in the support.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
100. Mark the incorrect statement
(a) Rules of Evidence does not applies to departmental inquiry
(b) Rules of Evidence does not applies to disciplinary proceedings
(c) Rules of Evidence applies disciplinary proceeding in an inquiry to which
Article 311 of the Constitution applies
(d) None of the above
101. The definition of ‘evidence’ given in the Indian Evidence act excludes:-
(i) Admission of the parties
(ii) Demeanour of a witness
(iii) Facts of which the Court can take Judicial notice of
(iv) Fact which the Court must presume
Code:
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
102. In order to examine the admissibility of the tape recorded statement, which of
the following conditions is/are required to be fulfilled:-
(a) The accuracy of the tape-recorded statement must be proved by the
maker of the record, by satisfactory evidence direct or circumstantial.

22
 (b) The voice of the particular speaker must be clearly audiabl and msut
not be lost or distorted by other sound or disturbances.
(c) The tape recorded must be relevant
(d) All of the above
103. Mark the incorrect statement
(a) The testimony of stamped witness cannot be rejected only because
they were partisan witness
(b) The evidence of stamped witness does not lends more credence
because normally he would try to falsely implicate a person
(c) Evidence of stamped witness cannot be labelled as of interested
witness.
(d) Statement of injured witness should be examined with the close
scrutiny
104. A fact is said to be disproved when:
(a) The court believes that the fact in question does not exist.
(b) The court believes the non-existence of that fact from the standard of
man or ordinary prudence
(c) Both (a) and (c)
(d) None of the above
105. Mark the incorrect statement
(a) The fact which are relevant are not necessarily admissible but the fact
which are admissible are necessarily relevant
(b) An erroneous omission to object to the relevancy of evidence before
the trial court makes the evidence relevant
(c) Relevancy is based on logic and probability and admissibility is not
based on logic but on strict rules of law.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
106. When a party calls for a document which he has given the other party notice
to produce, and such document is produced and impacted by the party calling
for its productions:-
(a) He is bound to give it as evidence it the party producing it requires him
to do so.
(b) He is not bound to give it as evidence even if the even if the He is
bound to give it as evidence it the party producing it requires him to do
so.
(c) He is not bound to give it as evidence even if the even if the He is
bound to give it as evidence it the party producing it requires him to do
so. But court may bind him to produce.

23
 (d) He is not bound to give it as evidence even if the even if the He is
bound to give it as evidence it the party producing it requires him to do
so.
107. Whenever a witness may refresh his memory by reference to any document:-
(a) He may refer to a copy of such document
(b) He cannot refer to a copy of such document
(c) He may refer to a copy of such document only if court permits.
(d) None of the above
108. A’ accomplice, gives an account of a robbery in which he took part, he
describe various incidents unconnected with the robbery which occurred on
his way to and from the place where it was committed:
(a) Independent evidence of these facts may be given in order to
corroborate his evidence as to the robbery itself
(b) Independent evidence of these facts cannot be given in order to
corroborate his evidence as to the robbery itself
(c) Evidence or accomplices not acceptable
(d) None of the above
109. Section 105 of Indian Evidence Act
(a) Applicable upon civil cases
(b) Applicable upon criminal cases only
(c) Applicable upon civil and criminal cases
(d) Applicable upon IPC only
110. List of facts of which court must take judicial notice given under Section 57 of
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is :-
(a) Illustrative in nature
(b) Illustrative in nature and not exhaustive
(c) Exhaustive in nature
(d) Both (a) and (c)
111. Which of the following are two mains schools of Hindu Law?
(a) Mitakshara and Dayabhaga
(b) Dayabhag and Mithila
(c) Mitakshara and Mithila
(d) Dayabhaga and Dravida
112. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is not applicable on:
(a) Scheduled Caste
(b) Scheduled Tribe (who are Hindus)
(c) Both (a) and (b)

24
 (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
113. If, after the birth of the child, one or both the parents have renounced Hindu
religion and have converted to some other religion, then:
(a) The child will cease to be a Hindu if both the parents have converted to
some other religion.
(b) If one of the parents has converted to some other religion, then it will
be the choice of the child to choose from the two religions as to which
he/she wants to follow.
(c) The child will automatically be deemed to be converted to the religion
of the parents.
(d) The child will continue to be a Hindu.
114. Performance of certain shastric ceremonies is still necessary for a valid Hindu
marriage. which of the following are specifically recognized by the Hindu
Marriage Act?
(a) Saptapadi
(b) Kanyadan
(c) Vivah-homam
(d) Panigrahan
115. If a marriage is performed without the performance of valid ceremonies under
section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, the children born out of such a
marriage will be deemed to be:
(a) Illegitimate
(b) Legitimate
(c) Either(a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
116. Under the modern Hindu law, who is under an obligation to maintain the
illegitimate children?
(a) Mother
(b) Father
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
117. A marries B and the marriage was duly consummated. Later, due to an
accident, A becomes impotent. B filed a petition for dissolution of marriage on
the ground of impotency. Decide.
(a) B will succeed
(b) B will not succeed
(c) B will succeed since the marriage becomes void.

25
 (d) B will succeed since the marriage becomes voidable
118. Which section of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act,1956 provides that a
minor shall be incompetent to act as a guardian of the property of any minor?
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 9
(d) Section 10
119. The Father’s right of natural guardianship is subordinate to the welfare of the
minor”: This has a legal basis under :
(a) Section 6 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act,1956
(b) Section 9 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act,1956
(c) Section 12 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act,1956
(d) Section 13 of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act,1956
120. Can a married person be given in adoption?
(a) No
(b) Yes, with the consent of such married person
(c) Yes, with the prior permission of wife of such married person
(d) Yes, if the custom or usage applicable to the parties permits for such
an adoption.
121. A women married under Muslim law shall be entitled to obtain a decree for
dissolution of marriage if the husband is sentenced to imprisonment for a
period of
(a) Five years
(b) Seven years
(c) Three years
(d) Ten years
122. The renunciation of Islam by a married Muslim woman or her conversion to a
faith other than Islam
(a) Shall by itself operate to dissolve the marriage
(b) Shall not by itself operate to dissolve her marriage
(c) Shall render the marriage as void ab initio
(d) Both a and b
123. If a women dissolves her marriage under the provision of Dissolution of
Muslim Marriage Act, 1939,
(a) She will lose her right to dower
(b) Her right to dower will be at discretion of the husband
(c) It will not affect her right to dower

26
 (d) None of the above
124. For the purpose of Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,
1986, the term ‘Magistrate’ means:-
(a) Magistrate first class exercising jurisdiction in Cr.P.C in the area where
marriage was solemnized
(b) Magistrate first class or Metropolitan Magistrate exercising jurisdiction
in Cr.P.C in the area where marriage was solemnized
(c) Magistrate first class exercising jurisdiction in Cr.P.C in the area where
divorced women resides
(d) Magistrate first class or metropolitan magistrate exercising jurisdiction
in Cr.P.C in the area where divorced women resides
125. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 provides law for
the maintenance of wife for the nourishment of children till the age of:-
(a) One year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) Eighteen years

27
 HARYANA JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK TEST EXAMINATION – 2024
TEST – V
Date: 18/02/2024
S.No. Ans. Explanations
1. B Refer section 20 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act,
1973
2. A Refer section 18 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act,
1973
3. C Refer section 22 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act,
1973
4. B Refer section 23 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act,
1973
5. B Refer section 13 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act,
1973
6. C Refer Section 39 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918
7. A Refer Section 41 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918
8. C Refer Section 44-A of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918
9. A Refer Section 18 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. B
14. B
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. B
19. C
20. B
21. B
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. A
26. C Refer Section 2 (a) of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932

28
27. D Refer Section 7 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
28. B Refer Section 12 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
29. A Refer Section 12 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
30. C Refer Section 23 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932
31. A Refer Section 8 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
32. C Refer Section 14 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
33. B Refer Chapter III of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930
34. C
35. B
36. C A contract falls under Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 cannot be
specifically enforced. Thus the Court has no discretion to grant specific
performance
37. C Refer Section 11 of Specific Relief Act, 1963
38. C Refer Section 6 of the Specific relief Act,1963
39. D
40. C If a contract comprises an agreement to do an act and also not to do certain
acts. Generally, Injunction can be granted to compel performance of both or
any of them. However, under section 42 where a contract comprises an
affirmative agreement to do a certain act, coupled with a negative
agreement, express or implied, not to do a certain act, the circumstances
that the Court is unable to compel specific performance of the affirmative
agreement shall not preclude it from granting an injunction to perform the
negative agreement
41. C A tenant under the possession of the property after expiry of his tenancy is
considered to be judicial possession. If he is forcefully dispossessed, it will
amount to dispossession otherwise than in due course of law.
42. B every suit instituted, appeal preferred, and application made after the
prescribed period shall be dismissed
43. C Refer Section 16 of the Limitation act
44. B Refer Article 60 of the Limitation Act
45. C It is not in competence of the Court nor in competence of the parties to wave
or by pass the effect of statute of limitation .If the counsel of a party
waves the objection with regard to limitation, the party is not estopped
from raising the objection, as there is no estoppel and the counsel’s
admission on a point of law is not binding on a party
46. C Refer Section 6 of the Limitation Act
47. D

29
48. D
49. D All the above mentioned cases are related to the doctrine of Restitution
50. C Refer Section 51 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
51. D Refer Section 147 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
52. B Refer section 42 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
53. B Refer Section 94 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
54. A Refer section 160 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
55. C Refer section 321 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
56. C Refer Section 416 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
57. B Refer section 80 of the Indian Evidence Act
58. A
59. C Refer section 260 of the Criminal Procedure Code
60. A Refer Section 438 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
61. A Refer Section 155 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
62. D Refer section 249 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
63. B
64. A
65. A Refer Section 41C of the Criminal Procedure Code
66. A
67. B The person who consumes liquor and causes disturbance in public street,
though commits an offence as defined under Section 510 of the Code but
since the offence is non-cognizable, thus the police officer, if arrests the
person for aforesaid offence without warrant, then such police officer
commits the offence of wrongful confinement
68. D Section 413 deals with the offence of habitually dealing in stolen property by
a person and the term ‘stolen property’ as per Section 410 does not include
such properties which have been obtained by way of cheating.
69. C
70. B
71. B Among the following as afore-mentioned, mens rea is essential only for the
offence of murder
72. A The onus of proving exceptions lies on the accused, who has to prove the
circumstances bringing the case within any of the general exceptions.
 If the exceptions are proved, then the accused will be acquitted
73. D Furiosi nulla voluntas est – No culpability can be fastened upon insane
person as they have no free will

30
  Qui pecat ebrius sobrius – Let him who sins when drunk be punished
when sober
 De minimus non curat lex – Law takes no account of trifles
 Actus ne invito factus non est nisi actus – An act which is done by me
against my will, is not my act and hence I am not responsible for it
74. D Refer Section 76 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860
75. D Refer Section 354 to 354 D of the Indian Penal Code, 1860\
76. B In Section 363-A, minor means, in the case of a male, a person under
sixteen years of age.
77. C
78. A Has committed the offence of false personation in relation to a suit or
criminal prosecution and did the act in an assumed character.
79. C Section 82 deals with the situation of doli incapax. According to this
provision, nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years
of age and it is an irrebuttable presumption of law
80. A
81. C
82. D Refer Newaz Khan vs State of Nagaland, 2023 SC
83. C Refer Ajay dabra vs Pyare Ram, 2023 SC
84. D Refer order 1 rule 8 of the CPC
85. A Refer Order XX rule 6A of the CPC
86. C Refer Section 2 of the CPC
87. C It is not mandatory for the Court to pass any formal order as suit
automatically abates, though the court usually records the abetment of suit.
88. D Consent can not confer or take away the jurisdiction of a civil court. The
court always presumes that it has the jurisdiction to try the suit.
89. D Refer order XXI rule 22
90. C Refer Manjula vs. Shyamsunder, 2021 SC
91. A Refer Shoraj Singh vs Charan Singh, 2021 ScThe Supreme Court observed
that the period of 90 days for filing of written statement under Order VIII Rule
1 of Code of Civil Procedure in civil suits is directory. The bench of Justices
Hemant Gupta and V. Ramasubramanian held the provisions of Order VIII
Rule 1 CPC are mandatory in the Commercial Courts under the Commercial
Courts Act, 2015
92. B Refer Section 2(12) of the CPC
93. C Refer Section 61 of the CPC

31
94. B Refer Section 99 of the CPC
95. D Decree passed without pecuniary of territorial jurisdiction is known as
irregular decree
96. A The definition of ‘Evidence’ Under Section is not exhaustive. It is to narrow
that it does not include statement (i), (iii) and (iv).
97. C In ordinary parlance, the evidence and testimony are used interchangeably
but that is not correct. Evidence is wider than testimony
98. D Testimony means statement of witness. Thus, testimony is also evidence.
‘Proof’ is the results or effect of evidence either in affirmation or in negative
of an alleged fact. Thus all the statement are correct
99. C Rules of evidence not only put the restrictions on the parties to the case in
giving the evidence but they are also guiding factor for the courts in taking
evidence. If such restrictions are not put, no suit can be decided even if its
trial takes place for a long time
100. C It was held in State of Haryana vsRatan Singh, 1977 that rules of Evidence
Act could not be property applied to the departmental inquiry or disciplinary
proceedings. Moreover rules of evidence do not applies to the disciplinary
proceedings in an inquiry to which Article 311 of the Constitution applies.
101. D Definition of ‘evidence’ given in Indian Evidence Act is incomplete and
defective. It excludes the statement and admission of the parties, their
conduct and demeanour before the court, fact of which, the Court can take
judicial notice of and the fact which the court must or may presume.
102. D Ram Singh Vs. Ram Singh (Col.) 1986 the Hon’ble Supreme Court laid
down the tests regarding the admissibility of tape recorded version.
103. B The evidence of injured person or stamped witness lends more credence
because normally he would not falsely implicate a person thereby protecting
the actual assistant. Refer- Vijay SankarSinde Maharashtra 2008 SC
104. C Refer definition of ‘disproved’ under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act
105. B An erroneous omission to object to the relevancy of evidence before the trial
Court does not make the evidence relevant, if the evidence is irrelevant and
it has been admitted by the trial Court, an objection can taken at any stage
even in highest appellate Court.
106. A Refer Section 163 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
107. C Refer Section 159 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
108. A Refer Section 156 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Independent evidence of
these facts may be given in order to corroborate his evidence as to the
robbery itself.

32
109. B Refer Section 105 of Evidence Act. When a person is accused of any
offence, the burden of proving the existence of circumstances brining the
case within any of the General Exception in the IPC or within any special
exception in any law defining the offence is upon him the Court shall
presume. The absence of such circumstances
110. B Refer section 57 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872list of fact of which court must
take judicial notice is illustrative in nature and not exhaustive
111. A Mitakshara and Dhayabhaga are the two main schools of Hindu Law.
112. B The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 does not apply to Scheduled Tribe (even if
Hindus) unless the Central Government, by notification in the official gazette,
directs so. Most of the Scheduled Tribes are governed by customs.
113. D The child will continue to be a Hindu unless, in the exercise of parental right,
the child is also converted into religion in which the parent or parents have
converted
114. A Saptapadi before the sacred fire has been recognized by the Hindu Marriage
Act.
115. A if the marriage is void or voidable under any provisions of the law except
sections 11 and 12, the children will be illegitimate
116. C
117. B In this case, subsequent impotency will not amount to decree of nullity.
118. D Section 10 provides that a minor shall be incompetent to act as a guardian of
the property of any minor
119. D
120. D A married person may be given in adoption if the custom or usage applicable
to the parties permits for such an adoption
121. B Refer Section 2 of the Dissolution of muslim Marriage Act, 1939
122. B Refer Section 4 of the Dissolution of muslim Marriage Act, 1939
123. C Refer Section 5 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939
124. C Refer Section 2 of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,
1986
125. B Refer section 3 of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act,
1986

33