IBPS PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper (5th Nov Shift 1)

IBPS PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper (5th Nov Shift 1)
Direction:
Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are born in four different years viz., 1964, 1977, 1982 and 1991 and also in two
different months viz., June and July but not necessary in the same order. All they are wearing eight different
watches namely Noise, Omega, Citizen, Casio, Tissot, Timex, Titan and Amazfit. No two persons born in same month
of a year. Age of the persons is calculated as on December 2020.Each year two persons were born in two different
months. Months are not considered for age calculation. The person who wears Noise born immediately before F. F
was born in the month which has 30 days. The sum of the ages of B and the one who wears Omega is equal to
perfect square of a number. There are only three persons born between E and the one who wears Casio. D was not
born in odd numbered year. More than two persons born between H and one who wears Tissot. As many persons
born between A and the one who wears Timex is same as the persons born after the one who wears Citizen. There
are two persons born between D and the one who wears Titan. Age of the one who wears Casio is not a prime
number but born in one of the months before the one who wears Citizen. There are only two persons born
between the one who wears Casio and the one wears Omega. Only one person born between B and the one who
wears Titan, who was not born in the year 1964. C and the one who wears Tissot are born in different month. A was
born immediately after the F. H does not like Timex. F was not born immediately before or after the one who wear
Citizen.
Question No. 1
Who among the following is the Youngest?
Options :
1. The one who wears Amazfit
2. C
3. The one who born immediately after F
4. A
5. Both (a) and (b)
Answer : Both (a) and (b)
Direction:
Citizen.
Question No. 2
The one who wears Noise born in which month and year?
Options :
1. June, 1977
2. July, 1982
3. June, 1982
4. July, 1964
5. None of these
Answer : July, 1964
Direction:
Citizen.
Question No. 3
Four of the following alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the following one that does not belong
to the group?
Options :
1. D
2. F
3. H
4. C
5. G
Answer : C
Direction:
Citizen.
Question No. 4
If ‘H’ is born between ‘B’ and ‘C’, then what can be the age of ‘H’?
Options :
1. 33 years
2. 56 years
3. 29 years
4. 38 years
5. None of these
Answer : 29 years
Direction:
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Certain number of persons are standing in a row facing north. Each person has a carton which are kept above one
another. Each carton is of different colour i.e. Maroon, Indigo, Crimson, Violet, Orange, Black, Blue and Yellow but
not necessarily in the same order. Only three people sit between P and Q. W has carton of Blue colour and is kept at
the bottom of the stack. Only four people sit between Q and R. S sits third to the right of T. Only six people sit
between Q and U. Not more than three people sit between R and U. More than four people are between S and U. V
sits third to the right of U. Only three cartons are kept between carton of S and carton of V. Carton of V is placed
above carton of S. None of them sits between V and T. W sits eight to the left of R. The carton of Yellow colour is
kept immediately above carton of V. Not more than three persons sit between P and W. Only three cartons are kept
between the carton of Violet colour and the carton of Maroon colour. The Indigo carton is immediately above the
Black carton. Only one carton is kept between the carton of Yellow colour and carton of P. Carton of T is of Yellow
colour. Only one carton is kept between carton of Q and the carton of Orange colour. Carton of V is not of Indigo
colour. Carton of U is kept immediately below the carton of Orange colour. The carton of Violet colour is kept
immediately above carton of T.
Question No. 5
How many persons sit in the row?
Options :
1. Sixteen
2. Seventeen
3. Eighteen
4. Nineteen
5. Twenty
Answer : Nineteen
Direction:

Question No. 6
Carton of R is of which colour?
Options :
1. Crimson
2. Maroon
3. Violet
4. Black
5. Blue
Answer : Violet
Direction:
Question No. 7
How many persons sit between R and S?
Options :
1. Six
2. Seven
3. Eight
4. Nine
5. Ten
Answer : Eight
Direction:
Question No. 8
How many cartons are there between carton of Crimson colour and carton of S?
Options :
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Five
Answer : Three
Direction:
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the question
and all three statements and give answer accordingly.
Question No. 9
Six employees E, F, G, H, I, J attend office on six different days starting from Monday to Saturday and each of
them have their office on different floors viz. 1st, 4th, 5th, 6th, 8th, 9th. The one who has office on 1st floor attend
office on which of the following day?
I. Only two persons attend office in between G and H. The one who attend office on Wednesday has office on 8th
floor. F has office on an even numbered floor. E attends the office immediately before I. G attends office before H
and has office on an odd numbered floor.
II. No one attend office after J. Only three persons attend office in between the one who has office on 1st floor and
the one who has office on 5th floor. The one who attend office immediately before I has office 1st floor.
III. G has office neither on 1st nor on 5th floor. F attends office immediately after H. The one who attend office on
Thursday does not has office on 4th floor.
Options :
1. If the data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
III are not required to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement I and III together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II are not required to answer the question.
3. If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I are
not required to answer the question.
4. If the data in all three statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
5. If the data in all the statements, I, II and III even together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer : If the data in statement I and II together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement
III are not required to answer the question.
Direction:
The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions. Read all the statements and give answer.
Question No. 10
Certain number of people are sitting in a row facing north. T sits fourth from the left end. Only one person sits
between F and T. How many persons sit in the row?
I: S sits fourth to the right of P. Less than three persons sit to the right of S. At least five persons sit between P and
the person sitting at the extreme right end. Three persons sit between F and P. At least two persons sit between P
and T.
II: S is the neighbour of G. There are at least 13 persons in the row. P sits fourth to the right of F. Only two persons sit
to the right of S. Only two persons sit between P and G, who is not the neighbour of F. Either one or five persons
are there to the left of F.
Options :
1. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
2. Only Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
3. Both Statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.
4. Only Statement I is sufficient to answer the question.
5. Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
Answer : Only Statement I is sufficient to answer the question.
Direction:
Answer the questions based on the information given below.
Nine persons A, B, C, D, T, U, V, W and X sit around a circular table such that only five of them face outside while
others face towards the centre. T sits 2nd to the left of U. D and U face towards the centre. One person sits
between T and B. A sits 4th to the right of B. W sits 2nd to the left of D. V sits 2nd to the left of C, who doesn’t face
same direction as B. X doesn’t sit adjacent to W. Immediate neighbors of V face opposite direction to V. W doesn’t
sit with U.
Question No. 11
Who sits 3rd to the right of T?

Options :
1. C
2. A
3. V
4. X
5. None of the above
Answer : C
Direction:
Study the following information and answer the questions given below-
Question No. 12
Which of the following trains arrived just after E?
Options :
1. F
2. A
3. D
4. S
5. None of these
Answer : A
Direction:
Question No. 13
Which one of the following statement is TRUE based on the given information?
Options :
1. A arrived just before H at platform no. 1.

3. A arrived just after H at platform no. 4.
5. None of these
Answer : A arrived just before H at platform no. 4.
Direction:
Question No. 14
Which of the following trains arrived at Platform number 6 ?
Options :
1. F
2. B
3. G
4. Cannot be determined
5. None of these
Answer : G
Direction:
Question No. 15
How many trains arrived before train A?
Options :
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
5. None of these
Answer : 6
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Eight persons- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting on the square-shaped table facing. Four of them sit at the corner
of the table and four of them sit in the middle of the side of the table. They live in different cities- Delhi, Kolkata,
Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Lucknow, Jaipur, and Hyderabad but not necessarily in the same order. The consecutive
alphabetical name of the persons are not sitting adjacent to each other. F sits second to the right of the one who
sits opposite to the one who lives in Lucknow. F does not sit at the corner of the table. G sits third to the left of the
one who lives in Mumbai city. The one who lives in Jaipur city sits second to the left of G. G does not lives in
Lucknow city. The one who lives in Delhi city sits opposite to the one who sits immediate right of H. H lives in
Mumbai. The one who lives in Pune sits immediate right of the one who live in Bengaluru. F neither live in Mumbai
nor in Pune. The one who live in Hyderabad sits immediate left of A. The one who live in Kolkata sits opposite to the
one who sits immediate right of D. C neither live in Pune nor Kolkata .
Question No. 16
Who among the following person lives in Bengaluru city?
Options :
1. The one who sits opposite to H
2. The one who sits second to the left of G
3. The one who sits immediate left of F
4. The one who sits second to the left of E
5. The one who sits opposite to F
Answer : The one who sits opposite to F
Direction:
Question No. 17
Which of the following city does C live?
Options :
1. Bengaluru
2. Jaipur
3. Hyderabad
4. Delhi
5. Mumbai
Answer : Bengaluru
Direction:
Question No. 18
Who among the following person sits third to the left of the one who lives in Lucknow?
Options :
1. E
2. C
3. The one who sits immediate left of H
4. The one who lives in Hyderabad
5. The one who lives Kolkata
Answer : The one who lives Kolkata
Direction:
Question No. 19
If D is related to Mumbai and C is related to Hyderabad in a certain way. Then who among the following is related
to Jaipur?
Options :
1. The one who lives in Pune
2. The one who sits opposite to F
3. The one who sits immediate left of B

4. The one who lives in Delhi
Answer : The one who lives in Pune
Direction:
A letters/letter combination arrangement machine when given an input of letters/letter combinations rearranges
them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of the input and the steps of
rearrangement.
Input: Guitar 51 Current 20 Table 36 28 Four
Step I: 51 Guitar Current 20 Table 36 28 Four
Step II: 51 36 Guitar Current 20 Table 28 Four
Step III: 51 36 28 Guitar Current 20 Table Four
Step IV: 51 36 28 20 Guitar Current Table Four
Step V: 51 36 28 20 Four Guitar Current Table
Step VI: 51 36 28 20 Four Table Guitar Current
Step VII: 51 36 28 20 16 25 36 49
Step VIII: 8 6 12 4 10 6 6 10
And Step VIII is the last step of the rearrangement. Follow the same steps to sole the input.
INPUT: Silent Approve 56 34 tired 9 portable 27
Question No. 20
How many steps are required to complete the following input fully arranged?
Options :
1. Five
2. Three
3. Six
4. Seven
5. Eight
Answer : Seven
Direction:
rearrangement.
Step VII: 51 36 28 20 16 25 36 49
Step VIII: 8 6 12 4 10 6 6 10
Question No. 21
If step II of an input is: “52 45 Fuzzy Salient Transaction 23 Snail 17”, how many more steps will be required to get
the output?
Options :
1. Five
2. Six
3. Seven
5. Eight
Answer : Seven
Direction:
rearrangement.
Step VII: 51 36 28 20 16 25 36 49
Step VIII: 8 6 12 4 10 6 6 10
Question No. 22
Which number is in exact middle of the number which is third from left and which is fourth from right in step VI?
Options :
1. 09
2. 25
3. 27
4. 36
5. None
Answer : 09
Direction:
rearrangement.
Step VII: 51 36 28 20 16 25 36 49
Step VIII: 8 6 12 4 10 6 6 10
Question No. 23
What is the sum of all the numbers obtained in the last step?
Options :
1. 48
2. 60
3. 58
4. 74
5. 40
Answer : 58
Direction:
There are some stacks, which contain different number of boxes placed one above the other in a stack, kept from
west to east. The height of each of the boxes is same. There are at most four stacks.
There are four boxes between box B and the box which is in west of box M.
There are three boxes between box F and box H.
Box F which is at the topmost position, is in east of box B such that no box lies between their boxes horizontally.
There are at most two boxes below box Y.
Box M is in west of box Y, which his at the topmost position of the stack which has no stack towards its east.
Number of boxes in the stack in which box Y is placed is equal to the number of boxes placed above box B.
Box N is kept at the bottommost position and in the stack which is at the extreme west.
There are only two boxes between box M and box D, which is second from the top.
There are four boxes between box U, which is at the topmost position and box W, which is not in east of box N.
Box G, which is not placed above box H, is in east of box W, and there is one box between box G and W
horizontally.
Both adjacent stacks of the stack in which box M is placed are taller than the stack of box M.
Question No. 24
How many boxes are there in stack in which box B is placed?
Options :
1. 10
2. 11
3. 14
4. 12
5. Can’t be determined
Answer : 11
Direction:
There are some stacks, which contain different number of boxes placed one above the other in a stack, kept from
west to east. The height of each of the boxes is same. There are at most four stacks.
There are four boxes between box B and the box which is in west of box M.
There are three boxes between box F and box H.
Box F which is at the topmost position, is in east of box B such that no box lies between their boxes horizontally.
There are at most two boxes below box Y.
Box M is in west of box Y, which his at the topmost position of the stack which has no stack towards its east.
Number of boxes in the stack in which box Y is placed is equal to the number of boxes placed above box B.
Box N is kept at the bottommost position and in the stack which is at the extreme west.
There are only two boxes between box M and box D, which is second from the top.
There are four boxes between box U, which is at the topmost position and box W, which is not in east of box N.
Box G, which is not placed above box H, is in east of box W, and there is one box between box G and W
horizontally.
Both adjacent stacks of the stack in which box M is placed are taller than the stack of box M.
Question No. 25
How many boxes are placed in east of box N?
Options :
1. Four
2. Two
3. One
4. Three
5. None of these
Answer : Three
Direction:
In each question given below a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered, I, II and III. A course of
action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the
problem, police etc. on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the three given/suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing
and then decide the answer.
Question No. 26
Statement: Residents from Model Colony coming under North Ward of City have complained to the Ward Officer
that for last three days the tap water in the ward is contaminated no action is being initiated by municipal staff.
Course of action:
I. The Ward officer should ask his junior officer to visit Model Colony to assess the actual condition of water with
his staff and to get samples of water tested from laboratories.
II. The Ward officer should ask Ward Engineer to check water installations and pipelines in the Model Colony area.
III. The Ward Officer of North Ward should initiate action against residents who have lodged complaints against
municipal staff.
Options :
1. Either I or III and II follow
2. I and III follow
3. I and II follow
4. II and III follow
5. None of these
Answer : I and II follow

Question No. 27
Statement: With the record output, sugar prices have dropped from an average of Rs 37 a kg in the previous season
to Rs 26 in the current season which results in the sugar mills’ dues to farmers stands at Rs 22,000 crore.
Which of the following is an immediate course of action for the given statement?
I. The cabinet committee should allocate Rs 7000 crore package to sugar sector with a special Cess under GST to
alleviate distress among sugarcane farmers.
II. The government should procure sugar from mills at a xed minimum price to help them clear dues to farmers.
III. The government should levy minimum prices and oer special incentives to increase the production of molasses
and ethanol.
Options :
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. All of the above
4. Only I and III
5. None of these
Answer : Only I and II
Direction:
In the question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II, and III. A course of
action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the
problem, policy etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow (s) for pursuing.
Question No. 28
Statement: Many school buses have fitted CNG Kit without obeying the safety guidelines properly. This results into
some instances of these buses catching re due to short circuit and endangering the lives of the school children.
Courses of action: I. The regional transport authority should immediately carry out checks of all the school buses
fitted with CNG Kit.

II. The management of all the schools should stop hiring buses fitted with CNG Kit.
III. The Government should issue a notification banning school buses for use of CNG Kit.
Options :
1. Only II follows
2. Only III follows
3. Only I and III follow
4. Only I follows
5. None of these
Answer : Only I follows
Question No. 29
The argument about whether demonetisation was good or bad for the economy refuses to die down even a year
after the event. While one can endlessly debate, with very little data, on whether the ban on high-value currency
notes dealt a body blow to terrorism, corruption and counterfeiting, one area in which its impact can be quantified
with data is tax compliance. In FY18, net collections increased by 17.1%.
Which of the following can be postulated from the given statement?
I. Counterfeiting of notes was one of the major concern for Government of India.
II. Many economists has termed it wrong as it has impact badly on the weaker section of the society.
III. There has been revamp in the percentage increase of direct tax with respect to indirect tax.
Options :
1. Both II and III
2. Only III
3. Only II
4. Both I and III
5. None of these
Answer : None of these

Direction:
In each question given below a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. A course of
action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the
problem, policy etc on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the three given/suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing
and decide the answer.
Question No. 30
Statement: Discount offers provided by organised retail chains are increasingly eating into the small retailers' pie,
thus creating a problem for manufacturers in spite of the hype around the retail boom.
Courses of action: I. An effort should be made to dissuade customers from purchasing the products on discounts.
II. All such manufacturers should stop supplying products to organised retail chain.
III. Efforts should be made by the manufacturers for commercial dialogues with the retail chain.
Options :
1. All I, II and III
2. Only III
3. Only II and III
4. Only I and III
5. None of these
Answer : Only II and III
Direction:
Study the information given below and answer the given questions.
16 boxes are placed in a 4*4 matrix formation. All of them are placed from bottom to top. Each box contains
different colours of caps. Box which contains Magenta caps is placed exactly between box which contains Yellow
caps and box which contains Violet caps in a column. Box which contains Blue caps is not placed below the box
which contains Red caps in a column. Box which contains Yellow caps is placed above box which contains Violet
caps. Box which contains Cyan caps is placed at the bottom. Box which contains Pink caps is placed immediately
above the box which contains Silver caps in a column. Box which contains Purple caps is to the immediate west of
the box which contains Red caps. Box which contains Violet caps is not placed at the bottom. Box which contains
Black caps is to the west of the box which contains Violet caps but box which contains Black caps is to the east of
box which contains Orange caps. Box which contains White caps is placed above box which contains Grey caps in a
column. Box which contains Orange caps is placed below the box which contains Purple caps in a column. Box
which contains Gold caps is placed at the top and immediate east of box which contains Green caps. Box which
contains Pink caps is to the east of the box which contains Purple caps. Less than three boxes are there to the west
of the box which contains Magenta caps. Box which contains Blue caps is not in the west of the box which contains
Cyan caps. Box which contains Purple caps is not in the same row as the box which contains Yellow caps. Box which
contains Brown caps is not placed in the same column as the box which contains Green caps.
Question No. 31
Which of the following box is placed below the box which contains Yellow caps in a column?
Options :
1. Box which contains Silver caps
2. Box which contains Brown and Green caps
3. Box which contains Orange caps
4. Box which contains Violet and Blue caps
5. Box which contains Purple caps
Answer : Box which contains Violet and Blue caps
Direction:
Question No. 32
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way so form a group, which of the following does not belong to that
group?
Options :
1. Box which contains Purple caps and the box which is immediate below the box which contains White caps
2. Box which contains Red caps and Purple caps
3. Box which contains Red caps and the box which is immediate above the box which contains Blue caps
4. Box which is immediate above the box which contains Orange caps and the box which contains Pink caps
5. Box which contains Magenta caps and Pink caps
Answer : Box which contains Red caps and the box which is immediate above the box which contains Blue caps
Direction:
Question No. 33
Which of the following box is placed immediately above the box which contains Grey caps?
Options :
1. Box which contains White caps
2. Box which contains Silver caps
3. Box which contains Green caps
4. Box which contains Violet caps
5. None of these
Answer : Box which contains Silver caps
Direction:
Question No. 34
Which of the following box is placed immediately west of box which contains Pink caps?
Options :
1. Box which contains Magenta caps
2. Box which contains Purple caps
3. Box which contains Cyan caps
4. Box which contains Red caps
5. None of these
Answer : Box which contains Magenta caps
Direction:
Question No. 35
What is the position of box which contains Blue caps with respect to the box which contains Magenta caps?
Options :
1. Immediate above
2. Two places below
3. Three places above
4. Immediate below
5. Three places below
Answer : Two places below
Direction:
Read the questions on the basis of the information given below.
There are twelve person – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z and M who live in a building with 5 floors (Numbered 1 to 5).
There are 3 flats on each floor from left to right Numbered 1 to 3. Immediate right of flat 2 means flat 3. Flat above
flat means same flat number of above floors. There are 3 flats empty in this building. There can be only 1 flat empty
on any floor. Also same flat number cannot be empty on any of the floors i.e. if Flat number 1 is empty on floor
number 1, than flat 1 of any other floor cannot be empty. They all have different weights. They all earn different
amounts – Rs. 10,000, Rs. 20,000, Rs. 30,000, Rs. 40,000, Rs. 50,000, Rs. 60,000, Rs. 70,000, Rs. 80,000, Rs. 85,000, Rs.
90,000, Rs. 95,000, Rs. 1,00,000.
(i)Z lives on flat number 1 of floor number 3. One who earns Rs. 30,000 lives somewhere in the flat which is above
Z’s flat. One person lives between the one who earns Rs. 30,000 and V whose weight is 96 kg.
(ii) P earns Rs. 40,000 who lives just below V’s flat. One of the flats on which P lives is empty but that is not
immediate left of P’s flat. The one whose weight is 76 kg earns Rs. 90,000 lives on the flat second to right of Z.
(iii) There are two floors between W whose weight is 72 kg and the one whose weight is 85 kg. W lives above the
one whose weight is 85 kg. W does not earn Rs. 30,000. Y earns Rs. 95,000 and lives immediate right of the one
whose weight is 85 kg. M and Y live on same floor. M earns Rs. 20,000 and his weight is 9 kg more than U.
(iv) There are two flats between M and an empty flat. U and the one who earns Rs. 50,000 lives on the same floor
which is either floor number 1 or 2. One flat is empty on that floor. There is one empty flat between the one whose
weight is 61 kg and the one who earns Rs. 10,000.

(v) The one whose weight is 61 kg is above the one who earns Rs. 10,000. The one whose weight is 55 kg lives on
floor number 1. U has got 25 kg less than S who does not live on top floor. R and empty flat are on same floor.
(vi) X lives on one of the flats on the floor on which V lives. The one who earns Rs. 1,00,000 lives immediate right of
X. The one who earns Rs. 80,000 lives just above the one who earns Rs. 85,000. The one who earns Rs. 70,000 lives
below the one who earns Rs. 85,000 such that no one lives between them. T and U lives on same floor. Z’s weight is
15 kg more than P.
(vii) R lives on a floor on which one flat is empty. Weight of one of the person on same floor who is earning Rs.
85,000 is 50% of V. The one whose weight is 82 kg lives on one of the floors above the floor of one whose weight is
90 kg.
Question No. 36
What is the total weight of V and the one who earns Rs. 10,000?
Options :
1. 264 kg
2. 126 kg
3. 159 kg
4. 118 kg
5. None of these
Answer : 159 kg
Direction:
90,000, Rs. 95,000, Rs. 1,00,000.

15 kg more than P.
90 kg.
Question No. 37
Who lives on flat number 2 of floor number 2?
Options :
1. S
2. The one who earns Rs. 60,000
3. The one whose weight is 90 kg

Answer : The one who earns Rs. 70,000
Direction:
90,000, Rs. 95,000, Rs. 1,00,000.
15 kg more than P.
90 kg.
Question No. 38
R lives on
Options :
1. Flat number 2 of floor number 2
5. None of these
Answer : Flat number 3 of floor number 3
Direction:
90,000, Rs. 95,000, Rs. 1,00,000.
15 kg more than P.
90 kg.
Question No. 39
How many floors are there between the floors of X and T?
Options :
1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. None
Answer : Two
Direction:
90,000, Rs. 95,000, Rs. 1,00,000.
15 kg more than P.
90 kg.
Question No. 40
Whose weight is 69 kg?
Options :
1. S
4. Y
5. The one who lives in flat number 3 on floor number 2
Answer : The one who earns Rs. 20,000
Direction:
Seven friends namely Pushkal, Qarin, Rameel, Srishty, Tarun, Udaya and Vishal like seven different movies namely
The Avengers, Titanic, The Dark Knight, Jurassic Park, Avatar, Iron Man 2 and Batman Begins but not necessarily in
the same order. Each people also work in different departments of the same office on the basis of experience. The
departments are- Administration, Marketing & sales, Accounts, Production, Quality Management, Human Resources
and Public relations.
Condition: Each person has been allocated the department as per increasing order of their experience. The one in
Administration department being the least experienced while the one in Public Relations department being the
most experienced person respectively from the given statement.
Only one person has less experience than Udaya. The one has less experience than Udaya likes Jurassic Park. Only
one person has more experience than Pushkal. The one in Human Resources department likes Avatar. Only two
people have more experience than the one who likes The Avengers. Vishal likes Batman Begins and has more
experience than the one who likes The Avengers. Srishty has less experience than the one in Production
department, but has more experience than the one who likes The Dark knight. Tarun neither has the least
experience nor does he work in Quality management department. Qarin does not work in Quality management
department. The one who like Titanic does not work in Production department.
Question No. 41
Qarin works in which department?
Options :
1. Accounts
2. Marketing & sales

3. Quality Management
4. Administration
5. Can't be determined
Answer : Administration
Direction:
Question No. 42
Tarun works in which department?
Options :
1. Accounts
2. Production
3. Quality Management
4. Administration
5. Cant be determined
Answer : Production
Direction:
Question No. 43
Who likes Avatar?
Options :
1. Vishal
2. Tarun
3. Pushkal
4. Srishty
Answer : Pushkal
Direction:
Question No. 44
Who works in Public Relations department?
Options :
1. Vishal
2. Tarun
3. Pushkal
4. Srishty
Answer : Vishal
Question No. 45
“Dowry” which is illegal in India but it is entertained very pleasantly by the family members and grooms itself. They
take it as their birth right. There is a mindset in society that women have to take care of kitchen, babies and home
and men have to see their office only. But the bitter truth is that a woman gives many sacrifice in comparison to
men in persuasion of society.
Which of the following is not in line according to above statement?
I. There should be awareness program about dowry which should be regulated in the society on timely basis.
II. There should be law of death penalty for rape cases which is a must do step in India.
III. It is also believed that women should follow the customs that are made by the society for better civilization.
Options :
1. Both II and III
2. Only III
3. Only II
4. Both I and III
5. None of these
Answer : Only II
Question No. 46
Directions: Two sentences are given in the question below. Three words are emboldened in each of the sentences.
Interchange the words to make meaningful sentences.
I. The government's avenues (A) infrastructure development plan aims to revolutionized (B) the nation's
transportation system for improved connectivity and economic growth (C).
II. Our understanding (P) of the universe has been transform (Q) by the scientific research team's groundbreaking
discoveries that have opened new ambitious (R) for exploration.
Options :
1. only C-Q
2. both A-R and B-Q

3. Only A-R
4. only A-P
5. both A-Q and C-R
Answer : both A-R and B-Q
Question No. 47
I. Global cooperation for a sustainable (A) future was brought (B) through the international pressing (C) on climate
change
II. That fostered (P) together scientists, policymakers, and activists to address (Q) conference (R) environmental
challenges.
Options :
1. Both A-P and C-R
2. only C-R
3. only B-Q
4. both B-P and C-R
5. Both A-R and C-Q
Answer : both B-P and C-R
Question No. 48
I. The educational reform (A) initiative aims to enhance effects (B) to quality education for marginalized
communities and promote inclusive (C) learning environments across the country.
II. The urgent need for conservation (P) efforts and sustainable practices was emphasized (Q) by the research study
through an in-depth analysis of the access (R) of climate change on biodiversity.

Options :
1. only B-R
2. both A-P and B-R
3. only C-R
4. only B-Q
5. Only B-R and C-P
Answer : only B-R
Question No. 49
I. The global partnership for extensive (A) development seeks to address poverty, inequality, and environmental
degradation (B) through unravel (C) action and shared responsibility among nations.
II. Insights into cognitive (P) processes that drive human behavior were gained through the sustainable (Q) research
conducted by the scientific study to collaborative (R) the mysteries of the human brain.
Options :
1. only A-Q
2. both A-Q and C-R
3. only B-Q
4. only C-Q
5. Both B-Q and C-R
Answer : both A-Q and C-R
Question No. 50

I. The government implemented environment (A) policies to address the issue of climate change, including
promoting (B) renewable energy and implementing strict emission (C) regulations.
II. Due to this, Greenhouse gas emissions have significantly (P) decreased, leading to a positive (Q) impact on the
comprehensive. (R)
Options :
1. only A-R
2. both A-R and B-P
3. only C-Q
4. only A-R
5. both A-Q and C-R
Answer : only A-R
Question No. 51
Directions: In each of the questions, a sentence has been divided into four parts, one of which may contain an
error. Identify that fragment and mark it as your answer. Mark (E) if the sentence contains no error.
As dish after dish arrived, I tried to (A)/ convince myself that the fried tripe slices (B)/ could been mushrooms, but
the boiled calf's head encased (C)/ in grey gelatine didn't resemble anything I’d eaten before (D)/ No error (E)
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Answer : B
Question No. 52
These factors collectively contribute to an overall increase to food insecurity, malnutrition, (A)/ and the rise of diet-
related non-communicable diseases, she said, (B)/ emphasising the importance of stable food production, shorter
and simplified food supply chains, (C)/ and distribution tools that can adapt to changing circumstances. (D)/ No
error (E)
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Answer : A
Question No. 53
The report also brought to light that a significant 24 percent of cases displayed (A)/ substantial indications of
influence peddling and corruption within the legal process, (B)/ encompassing issue such as non-arrests of
suspects, undisclosed cases, (C)/ unnecessary delays, deliberate missteps, and lenient court penalties. (D)/ No error
(E)
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Answer : C
Question No. 54
While several measures have been taken over the years to clean up (A)/ fuels and technology across transport and
industry sectors, (B)/ and control dust sources, more action are needed at a scale (C)/ and speed to address the
remaining policy gaps for meeting the clean air targets. (D)/ No error (E)
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Answer : C
Question No. 55
The study provides indigenous evidence to (A)/ prioritise control strategies for reducing exposure (B)/ to more
toxic components, in order to achieve greater (C)/ child health benefits in India, according to the authors. (D)/ No
error (E)
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. E
Answer : E
Direction:
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the following questions accordingly.
Meta on Monday was fined a record 1.2 billion euros ($1.3 billion) and ordered to stop transferring data collected
from Facebook users in Europe to the United States, in a major ruling against the social media company for
violating European Union data protection rules.
The penalty, announced by Ireland’s Data Protection Commission, is potentially one of the most consequential in
the five years since the European Union enacted the landmark data privacy law known as the General Data
Protection Regulation. Regulators said the company failed to comply with a 2020 decision by the European Union’s
highest court that Facebook data shipped across the Atlantic was not sufficiently protected from American spy
agencies. But it remains unclear if or when Meta will ever need to cordon off the data of Facebook users in Europe.
Meta said it would appeal the decision, setting up a potentially lengthy legal process. At the same time, European
Union and American officials are negotiating a new data-sharing pact that would provide legal protections for Meta
and scores of other companies to continue moving information between the United States and Europe — a pact
that could nullify much of the European Union’s ruling on Monday. A preliminary deal was announced last year. The
ruling, which comes with a grace period of at least five months before Meta needs to comply, applies only to
Facebook and not to Instagram and WhatsApp, which Meta also owns. The company said there would be no
immediate disruption to Facebook’s service in the European Union. Still, the E.U. decision shows how government
policies are upending the borderless way that data has traditionally moved. As a result of data-protection rules,
national security laws, and other regulations, companies are increasingly being pushed to store data within the
country where it is collected, rather than allowing it to move freely to data centers around the world.
The case against Meta stems from U.S. policies that give intelligence agencies the ability to intercept
communications from abroad, including digital correspondence. In 2020, an Austrian privacy activist, Max Schrems,
won a lawsuit to invalidate a U.S.-EU. pact, known as Privacy Shield, that had allowed Facebook and other
companies to move data between the two regions. The European Court of Justice said the risk of U.S. snooping
violated the fundamental rights of European users.
Question No. 56
How does the ruling impact the data privacy and storage practices of tech companies operating within the
European Union?
Options :
1. It encourages unbridled data movement across continents
2. It underscores the requirement for centralized data storage in the United States
3. It implies data storage should be confined to the country of origin
4. It challenges the conventional borderless data flow due to data protection regulations
5. It imposes stricter data security measures within the European Union
Answer : It challenges the conventional borderless data flow due to data protection regulations
Direction:
Question No. 57
Choose the sentence/s that is/are true regarding Ireland’s Data Protection Commission.
I. The penalty announced by it is the most significant in the past five years.
II. The penalty announced was one of the most significant since the implementation of the groundbreaking data
privacy legislation by the European Union.
III. The penalty of $1.2 billion was issued to Meta
Options :
1. Only II
2. only I and II
3. only III
4. only II and III
5. none is true
Answer : Only II
Direction:
Question No. 58
Choose the sentence/s that is/are true regarding META.
I. The Meta case originates from U.S. policies that grant intelligence agencies the capability to intercept foreign
communications.
II. On Sunday, Meta received a historic fine of 1.2 billion euros (equivalent to $1.3 billion) and was instructed to cease
the transfer of data gathered from Facebook users.
III. Meta owns only Facebook and WhatsApp and not Instagram.
Options :
1. only III
2. only II and III
3. only I
4. only II
5. only I and III
Answer : only I
Direction:
Question No. 59
Choose the sentence/s that is/are true as per the passage.

I. Due to data protection regulations, national security legislation, and various other rules, companies are facing
growing pressure to store data within their respective countries.
II. The European Court of Justice declared that the potential for U.S. surveillance infringed upon the fundamental
rights of European users.
III. The European Union's ruling demonstrates how government policies are not disrupting the traditional borderless
flow of data.
Options :
1. only I
2. only I and II
3. only III
4. only II
5. all are correct
Answer : only I and II
Direction:
Question No. 60
Choose the option that is similar in meaning to SHIPPED.
Options :
1. Transferred
2. Communicated
3. Teleported
4. Diffused
5. Replicated
Answer : Transferred
Direction:
Question No. 61
Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to COMPLY.
Options :
1. Conform
2. Obey
3. Defy
4. Adhere
5. Abide
Answer : Defy
Direction:
Question No. 62
Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to INVALIDATE.
Options :
1. Confirm
2. Nullify
3. Abhor
4. Vilified
5. Void
Answer : Confirm
Direction:
Ambient computing using voice and other conversational interfaces is an exciting area, and several startups are
getting into the field.
However, the progress towards more intelligent uses of voice recognition for clinical decision support has been
slow. As mentioned earlier, separating the clinical terminology from other aspects of the conversation is a non-
trivial challenge, implying that voice-recognition technology fits in well with some specialties but not others.
Regardless of the pace of adoption, most providers see a reduction in clinician burnout for those using it. Speech
recognition software can transcribe encounters three times faster than a human typing into a clinical system,
potentially freeing up a couple of hours a day for a typical caregiver who sees twenty to thirty patients a day. We
can only hope that we will see higher adoption rates as the technology gets better and needs less and less human
involvement in reviewing the note. The entry of big tech into the voice space will hopefully result in significant new
investments that will advance AI tools and intelligent automation of aspects such as coding and quality abstraction
from encounter notes. Today, a vital consideration for automation with voice-enablement and similar technologies
is that it can help providers get through the high demand and low staffing levels across the board in healthcare –
compounded by the "Great Resignation". Allowing clinicians to perform the most demanding in-person work with
the highest and most complex patients also means using technology to assist those patients who don't have high
acuity needs – something we have seen work very effectively with telehealth and virtual consults in primary care
and specialties such as behavioral health. As ambient technologies improve, additional use cases to leverage voice
will emerge.
That leaves us with the question of how patients are responding to voice-enabled tools in ______ (21) healthcare
encounters. Early indications are that most patients accept ambient technologies because they provide an
opportunity to regain the intimacy of their relationship with their provider, which was lost to the burdensome
requirements of documentation in the EHR. However, questions around data privacy and patient education about
ambient technologies suggest that voice-enabled applications will need to tread carefully. At a broad level, voice-
recognition technology's true potential lies in going beyond documentation and becoming an intelligent decision
support tool through effective listening for clinical indicators and proactively supporting clinical decisions. The level
of integration between emerging technology tools and core clinical platforms such as EHR is a significant factor in
increasing adoption rates. Today's fundamental challenge for voice recognition in ambient computing is the same
for AI applications in general in the healthcare context.
As with all new technologies, voice-enabled solutions will stand a better chance of broad adoption by addressing
important and urgent problems in care delivery, which builds support from clinician owners and champions inside
the organization.
Question No. 63
How does speech recognition software affect clinical documentation, as discussed in the passage?
Options :
1. It contributes to clinician burnout
2. It hampers the documentation process
3. It transcribes encounters at a human-like typing speed
4. It shortens the time clinicians dedicate to patients
5. It primarily benefits primary care over other specialties
Answer : It transcribes encounters at a human-like typing speed
Direction:
will emerge.
the organization.
Question No. 64
What is the early response of patients to voice-enabled tools in healthcare encounters, as suggested in the
passage?
Options :
1. Patients resist adopting ambient technologies
2. Most patients embrace ambient technologies to enhance their rapport with healthcare providers
3. Patients express concerns about data privacy when using voice-enabled applications
4. Patients show no apprehension regarding the demanding EHR documentation requirements
5. Patients exhibit reluctance to engage with technology in clinical settings

Answer : Most patients embrace ambient technologies to enhance their rapport with healthcare providers
Direction:
will emerge.
the organization.
Question No. 65
Choose the sentence/s that is/are false as per the passage.
I. Clinical encounters can be transcribed by speech recognition software at a pace three times faster than manual
typing into a clinical system.
II. The extent of integration between emerging technological tools and core clinical platforms like EHR plays a vital
role in boosting adoption rates.
III. The involvement of big tech companies in the voice technology sector might not necessarily have any impact on
the advancement of AI tools and the automation of coding and related tasks.
Options :
1. only II
2. only I and III
3. only I
4. only III
5. all are true
Answer : only III
Direction:
will emerge.
the organization.
Question No. 66
Fill in the blank 21 provided in the passage.
Options :
1. its
2. it’s
3. their
4. them
5. there
Answer : their
Direction:
will emerge.
the organization.
Question No. 67
Choose the option that is similar in meaning to BURNOUT.
Options :
1. Exhaustion
2. Inspiration
3. Revival
4. Motivation
5. Vigor
Answer : Exhaustion
Direction:
will emerge.
the organization.
Question No. 68
Choose the option that is opposite in meaning to AMBIENT.
Options :
1. subtle
2. subdued
3. converging
4. overt
5. futile
Answer : overt
Direction:
will emerge.
the organization.
Question No. 69
What is the tone of the passage?
Options :
1. Critical and pessimistic
2. Informative and optimistic
3. Cautious and speculative
4. Anecdotal and subjective
5. Factual and indifferent
Answer : Informative and optimistic
Direction:
Directions: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These members are
printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
Find out the appropriate words.
As the world grapples with the _____ 70 of climate change, many individuals and organizations are turning to
carbon offset programs as a way to mitigate their carbon emissions. These programs offer a variety of options for
_____ 71 carbon emissions, ranging from tree-planting initiatives to investments in renewable energy projects. By
participating in carbon offset programs, individuals and businesses can take ______ 72 for their carbon footprint
and contribute to global efforts to combat climate change.
One popular method of carbon offset is investing in ______ 73 projects that capture or reduce greenhouse gas
emissions. These projects can include wind farms, solar energy installations, and methane capture from landfills. By
supporting such initiatives, carbon offset participants are effective _______74 in the release of greenhouse gases
into the atmosphere. Another approach to carbon offset is reforestation and afforestation efforts, which involve
planting trees and restoring forests. Trees act as natural carbon sinks, absorbing carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere and ______ 75 it as biomass. This helps reduce the overall carbon concentration in the atmosphere and
can lead to a more sustainable and climate-friendly future.
Question No. 70
Fill in the blank 70
Options :
1. magnitude
2. complexity
3. urgency
4. solution
5. beauty
Answer : urgency
Direction:

Question No. 71
Options :
1. reducing
2. addressing
3. increasing
4. mitigating
5. monitoring
Answer : reducing
Direction:
Question No. 72

Options :
1. refuge
2. action
3. reward
4. blame
5. ignorance
Answer : action
Direction:
Question No. 73
Options :
1. industrial
2. conservation
3. emission
4. remediation
5. wildlife
Answer : emission
Direction:
Question No. 74
Options :
1. enhancing
2. exacerbating
3. attenuating
4. minimizing
5. inflating
Answer : minimizing
Direction:
Question No. 75
Options :
1. storing
2. emitting
3. evaporating
4. burying
5. destroying
Answer : storing
Question No. 76
Directions: In the following question, a part of the sentence is bold. Below the sentence alternatives to the bold
part are given at (A), (B), (C), and (D) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case the
given sentence is correct, your answer is (E)
Moore’s Law has held for well onto half a century now, though chip designers keep thinking they may be running
up against molecular limits.
Options :
1. off well to
2. for well over
3. of well over
4. to well through
5. No replacement required
Answer : for well over
Question No. 77
A new study reveals that the apps we ready download on our phones are voracious consumers of our personal data.
Options :
1. us readily download
2. we readily download
3. us ready to download
4. we readily downloads
Answer : we readily download
Question No. 78
The proposed merger of Air India and Vistara remains on course, with the Competition Commission of India
approving the transaction in September 2023.
Options :
1. remain through coarse
2. remains by course
3. remains on coarse
4. remain to course
Answer : No replacement required
Question No. 79
Byproducts of emissions from factories, vehicular pollution, construction activities and road dust, such particles are
not dispersed and stays suspend in the air that we breathe.
Options :
1. stays suspension
2. stayed suspend
3. stay suspended
4. stay suspend
Answer : stay suspended

Question No. 80
A long wait is said to be coming to an end as the National Security Council Secretariat (NSCS) sets about drafting
India’s first written National Security Strategy.
Options :
1. set around drafting
2. sets on draft
3. sets through draft
4. set about drafting
Answer : No replacement required
Direction:
Answer the questions based on the information given below. The given line graph shows the revenue generated
from Debit Card transactions and Cash transactions for five different stores.
Note:
a) If the total revenue generated worldwide (from Debit Card + Cash transactions) is less than 400 million, then the
store is given a '3' rating.
b) If the total revenue generated worldwide (from Debit Card + Cash transactions) is between 400 million and 500
million, then the store is given a '2' rating.
c) If the total revenue generated worldwide (from Debit Card + Cash transactions) is more than 500 million, then
the store is given an '1' rating.
d) The sum of revenue from Debit Card transactions for stores 'A' and 'E' is 420 million, and the difference between
the revenue from Cash transactions for stores 'C' and 'D' is 48 million.
Question No. 81
Find the ratio of the total revenue generated from Store 'A' and 'B' together from Debit card to the total revenue
generated from Store 'B' worldwide.
Options :
1. 2:1
2. 1:2
3. 1:1
4. 2:2
5. none of these
Answer : 1:1
Direction:
Note:
Question No. 82
For the store that received a '3' rating, out of the total revenue generated from Debit card, 60% was paid by males,
and the rest was paid by females. Meanwhile, out of the total revenue generated from Cash Transactions, 25% was
paid by males, and the rest was paid by females. Find the number (in millions) of revenue generated worldwide
from females for the store that received a '3' rating.
Options :
1. 304 million
2. 104 million
3. 200 million
4. 204 million
5. none of these
Answer : 204 million
Direction:
Note:
Question No. 83
Which of the given Store are not given the Rating ‘2’?
Options :
1. Store A
2. Store B
3. Store C
4. Store D
5. Store A and B
Answer : Store A and B
Direction:
Note:

Question No. 84
How much percent more is the total revenue generated worldwide for the store that received a '1' rating compared
to the revenue generated from Cash Transactions for
Options :
1. 266%
2. 166%
3. 366%
4. 100%
5. none of these
Answer : 266%
Direction:
Note:
Question No. 85
Determine the difference (in millions) between the average revenue generated from Cash Transactions for the store
that received a '2' rating and the average revenue generated from Debit card for the store that received a '1' rating.
Options :
1. 42 millions
2. 50 millions
3. 45 millions
4. 35 millions
5. 25 millions
Answer : 45 millions
Direction:
The given table shows data regarding the total number of vehicles in five different cities. It also displays the
percentage/number of cars and the percentage of motorcycles in each city relative to the total number of vehicles in
that city. Some of the data is missing from the table. You need to calculate the missing data and answer the
questions based on it.
Question No. 86
Let 'a' represent the difference between the number of cars and motorcycles in the city of 'Jaipur,' and 'b' represent
the total number of vehicles in the city of 'Jaipur.' Which of the following options accurately expresses the
relationship between 'a' and 'b'?
Options :
1. 5a
2. 5(a/b)
3. 5ab = 0
4. 5a + 2b = 0
5. 5a = 2b
Answer : 5a = 2b
Direction:
Question No. 87
Suppose the number of vehicles in the city of 'Punjab' is 25% less than the number in the city of 'Pune', what is the
percentage of motorcycles among the total number of vehicles in Pune?
Options :
1. 45%
2. 55%
3. 60%
4. 65%
5. none of these
Answer : 60%
Direction:
Question No. 88
Suppose the ratio of the number of cars in cities 'Jaipur' and 'Punjab' is 5:9, and the difference between the number
of motorcycles in city 'Jaipur' and 'Punjab' is 340, what is the total number of vehicles in city 'Jaipur'?
Options :
1. 1200
2. 1525
3. 1500
4. 1000
5. none of these
Answer : 1000
Direction:
Question No. 89
Suppose the total number of cars in the city of 'Pune' and 'Haryana' together is 780, what is the total number of
vehicles in the cities of 'Delhi' and 'Haryana' together?
Options :
1. 1600
2. 1250
3. 1550
4. 1440
5. none of these
Answer : 1550
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
The following pie chart shows the distribution of the number of laptops sold by five stores.
Conditions :: (1) The total number of laptops sold by all the five stores (A, B, C, D and E) taken together is 7200.
(2) (19z-4y) = 42
2
(3) z + 2z - 224 = 0
Note :: (i) The values given in the above given pie chart in the form of degree form cannot be negative.
Question No. 90
If 38% of the number of laptops sold by store E are gaming laptops and remaining are non gaming laptops, then
find out the number of non gaming laptops sold by store E.
Options :
1. 1288
2. 1372
3. 1450
4. 1544
Answer : None of the above

Direction:
(2) (19z-4y) = 42
2
(3) z + 2z - 224 = 0
Question No. 91
The average of the number of laptops sold by store A, C, E and B together is how much more than the average of
the number of laptops sold by store B and D together?
Options :
1. 446
2. 560
3. 518
4. 482
Answer : 482
Direction:
(2) (19z-4y) = 42
2
(3) z + 2z - 224 = 0
Question No. 92
If the difference between the number of laptops sold by store D and E is 75% less than the number of laptops sold
by store F and the ratio between the number of laptops sold by store F and the number of laptops unsold by the
same store is 62 : 75, then find out the number of laptops unsold by store F.
Options :
1. 3200
2. 3600
3. 4000
4. 4400
5. 3500
Answer : 3600
Direction:
(2) (19z-4y) = 42
2
(3) z + 2z - 224 = 0
Question No. 93
If the MRP of each laptop of store A is Rs.68000 and (5/6) of the number of laptops sold by store A were sold on
MRP and remaining were sold at ‘a’% discount, then find out the value of ‘a’. It is assumed that the total amount
collected by store A by selling the laptops is Rs.122204160.
Options :
1. 28
2. 40
3. 36
4. 30
5. 24
Answer : 24
Direction:
Suppose five friends Ritu, Mohani, Aman, Sam and Kiran are appoints to complete a certain piece of work. Ram
and Mohani together can complete a work in 24 days. Mohani and Aman together can complete 50% of the work in
15 days. Aman and Sam together can complete the work in 24 days. Ritu and Kiran together can complete 16.66%
of the work in 6 days. Sam and Kiran together can complete the work in 20 days.
Question No. 94
Suppose Bittu is 50% more efficient than Aman then, what will be the time taken by Bittu alone to complete 40%
of the work.
Options :
1. 45 days
2. 48 days
3. 28 days
4. 15 days
5. none of these
Answer : 48 days
Direction:
Question No. 95
Aman is how much % (less/more) efficient than Kiran?
Options :
1. 40% more
2. 40% Less
3. 60% more
4. 60% Less
5. none of these
Answer : 60% Less
Direction:
Question No. 96
Aman, Sam and Kiran started working together but after 8 days Kiran left the job and 5 days before the completion
of the work Sam also left then, In how many days the whole work gets completed?
Options :
1. 77/3 days
2. 47/3 days
3. 73/3 days
4. 37/3 days
5. none of these
Answer : 77/3 days

Direction:
There are five cities given below in which some data of 2, 3 and 4 wheeler sold is given. Some of the values are
missing which can be calculated on the basis of the information given in the question.
Note :: (i) Total number of vehicles sold in a particular city = number of 2 wheeler sold in that particular city +
number of 3 wheeler sold in that particular city + number of 4 wheeler sold in that particular city
(ii) Except for city T, in each city the number of 3 wheeler sold is more than the number of 4 wheeler sold.
Question No. 97
Find out the sum of the number of 3 wheeler sold in City S, T, U, V and W together.
Options :
1. 69400
2. 65300
3. 62100
4. 64800
Answer : None of the above
Direction:
Question No. 98
What is the relation between the values of ‘a’ and ‘b’?
Options :
1. (a^2)-16bx100 = 223000
2. (a/5)-(b/8) = 400
3. 1.3a+200 = b
4. a+0.6b = 9800
Answer : 1.3a+200 = b
Direction:
Question No. 99
In how many cities the number of 4 wheeler sold is the multiple of 9?
Options :
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
Answer : Two
Direction:
Question No. 100
If the number of vehicles sold (2 wheeler + 3 wheeler + 4 wheeler) in city W is 6000 less than the number of
vehicles sold (2 wheeler + 3 wheeler + 4 wheeler) in city P and ‘y’% of the number of vehicles sold (2 wheeler + 3
wheeler + 4 wheeler) in city P is equal to the number of 3 wheeler sold in city P, then find out the value of ‘y’. It is
assumed that the number of 2 and 4 wheeler sold in city P is 31000.
Options :
1. 32
2. 24
3. 26
4. 38
Answer : 38
Question No. 101
'S' undertook an investment endeavor by allocating a capital denoted as 'a + 1000' into a scheme yielding a
straightforward interest rate of 20% per annum for a duration of three years. Simultaneously, 'A' ventured into a
financial enterprise involving an amount 'a - 4000' invested in a compound interest scheme at a 20% annual rate for
a three-year period.If the difference between interest earned from both investments is Rs. 1,080, Determine then
which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
I. The variable 'a' can take multiple values.
II. The minimal admissible value for 'a' proves to be less than the grand threshold of 10,000.
III. 'a' is compelled to be an integer of even number."
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only I and II
3. Only II and III
4. Only I and III
5. None of these
Answer : Only I
Direction:
Three friends, 'X', 'Y', and 'Z', decided to start a business together. They made investments of Rs. 6,000, Rs. 8,000,
and Rs. 5,000, respectively. The time for which 'X', 'Y', and 'Z' kept their money invested is 't' months, (t - 3) months,
and (t + 3) months, respectively. During the period for which 'X' had his investment, he also worked as a manager
for which he receive a monthly salary of Rs. 3,000 from the gross profit until the time he made the investment. At
the end of the business venture, the amount received by 'X' was Rs. 25,000 more than that received by 'Z'. The
company earned a gross profit of Rs. 81,000.
Question No. 102
Find the profit share of Y.
Options :
1. Rs. 10,000
2. Rs. 19,000
3. Rs. 20,000
4. Rs. 25,000
5. Rs. 16,000
Answer : Rs. 16,000
Direction:
Three friends, 'X', 'Y', and 'Z', decided to start a business together. They made investments of Rs. 6,000, Rs. 8,000,
and Rs. 5,000, respectively. The time for which 'X', 'Y', and 'Z' kept their money invested is 't' months, (t - 3) months,
and (t + 3) months, respectively. During the period for which 'X' had his investment, he also worked as a manager
for which he receive a monthly salary of Rs. 3,000 from the gross profit until the time he made the investment. At
the end of the business venture, the amount received by 'X' was Rs. 25,000 more than that received by 'Z'. The
company earned a gross profit of Rs. 81,000.
Question No. 103
2
Find the value of 2t + 3t + 30.
Options :
1. 200
2. 209
3. 319
4. 119
5. 219
Answer : 219
Question No. 104
The speed of a car is 60% more than the speed of a bus. The train can cover (d-250) km distance in (t-3.5) hours. The
car covers (d+140) km distance in (t-2) hours. The speed of train is 2.4 times the difference between the speed of
bus and car. The distance travelled by bus is 1500 km in which it will take (t+4) hours, then which of the following
statements is/are true?

(i) The value of ‘t’ is an odd number.
(ii) The value of ‘d’ is a three digit number.
(iii) The ratio between the distance travelled by bus and train is (6t+2) : (3t+3) respectively.
Options :
1. Only (ii)
2. Only (iii)
3. Only (i) and (ii)
4. All (i), (ii) and (iii)
5. Only (ii)
Answer : Only (iii)
Question No. 105
In a Plastic bag, there are (a + 5) red rubberbands, (2b – 5) blue rubberbands, and (2.5a – 5) black rubberbands. The
number of red rubberbands is 40% less than the number of blue rubberbands, which is 25% more than the number
of black rubberbands, In a separate box, there are (a + b) white rubberbands, (3b – a) orange rubberbands, and (b –
a) yellow rubberbands, Calculate the probability of randomly selecting 2 white rubberbands, from the Plastic bag,
given that the selection is done without replacement.
Options :
1. 15/104
2. 25/104
3. 35/104
4. 5/104
5. none of these
Answer : 15/104
Direction:
"You are presented with two quantities, labeled as Quantity I and Quantity II. Your task is to solve both quantities
and determine the correct relationship between Quantity I and Quantity II. After solving, choose the appropriate
option that describes the relationship correctly."
1. Quantity-I > Quantity-II

2. Quantity-I
3. Quantity-I ? Quantity-II
4. Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
Question No. 106
"Quantity-I: The time required for tap 'P' to fill a water tank is 4 hours longer than the combined time it takes for
tap 'P' and tap 'Q' to complete the same task. If tap 'P' takes 'p' hours to fill the tank independently, deduce the
value of '25p,' given that tap 'Q' can independently fill the tank in 15 hours.
Quantity-II: Determine the number of distinct ways to partition a group of 7 individuals into three subgroups. One
of these subgroups must consist of 3 members, while the remaining subgroups should each have 2 members."
Your task is to establish the relationship between Quantity I and Quantity II.
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Answer : 1
Direction:
"You are presented with two quantities, labeled as Quantity I and Quantity II. Your task is to solve both quantities
and determine the correct relationship between Quantity I and Quantity II. After solving, choose the appropriate
option that describes the relationship correctly."
1. Quantity-I > Quantity-II
2. Quantity-I
4. Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
Question No. 107

Suppose 'x' and 'y' are integers such that;
3 x y 4 5 y x
(√3) × 72 × 2 × 3 × 2 = (√12) × 2 × 3 × 18
Quantity-I: Determine the value of 'x.'
Quantity-II: Calculate the value of 'y.'
You need to compare and establish the relationship between Quantity I and Quantity II.
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Answer : 1
Direction:
In each of the following questions two quantities (Quantity I and Quantity II) are given. Solve each of the quantities
and give answers according to the options.
Question No. 108
Quantity I :: The monthly income of Tarun is Rs. (z+3300). He spent ‘y’% on education and (1/3) of the remaining
was spent on house rent. After that Rs. 652 was spent on travelling and (y+14)% of the remaining was saved in bank
2
and remaining was saved in the post office. If the amount spent on house rent by him is Rs. 12826 and (7 y - 476y +
8092 = 0), then find out the 2.5% of ‘z’.
2
Quantity II :: If 1.2P = 2268750, then find out the value of ‘P’.
Options :
1. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established
2. Quantity I > Quantity II
3. Quantity I < Quantity II
4. Quantity II ≥ Quantity I
5. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Answer : Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
Direction:
Observe the Series I carefully to identify the logic and obtain the value of ‘P’. In both of the series, the same logic is
applied.
Series I : 60, 68, 14, (P), -294, 786, -1272
Series II : (P-12), Q, R, S, T, U, W
Question No. 109
What is the value of ‘R’?
Options :
1. 138
2. 128
3. 148
4. 168
5. 155
Answer : 148
Direction:
applied.
Series I : 60, 68, 14, (P), -294, 786, -1272
Series II : (P-12), Q, R, S, T, U, W
Question No. 110

If the average of the values of ‘S’ and ‘U’ will be equal to the first term of a newly formed third series, then which of
the following statements is/are true? It is assumed that each of the series is following the same logic in this
question.
(i) The sum of the values of ‘T’ and ‘W’ is the multiple of 9.
(ii) The fourth term of the third series is an odd number.
(iii) The difference between the value of ‘Q’ and the second term of the third series is 426.
Options :
1. Only (i) and (iii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. Only (iii)
5. None is true
Answer : None is true
Direction:
Observe the following series carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Series I : 4550, (Y), 2275, 4565, 18245, 145975, 2335585
Series II : 391986, 29106, 69426, 64386, 65106, (Z), 65010, 65004
Question No. 111
Which of the following relation between ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ is true?
Options :
1. (Z/5) = (6Y-783)
2. (Z/6) = (5Y-619)
3. (Z/7) = (6Y-218)
4. (Z/8) = (7Y-143)

Answer : (Z/6) = (5Y-619)
Direction:
applied.
Series I : 62, 70, 16, (P), -292, 788, -1270
Series II : (P+12), Q, R, S, T, U, W
Question No. 112
If the average of the values of ‘S’ and ‘U’ will be equal to the first term of a newly formed third series, then which of
the following statements is/are true? It is assumed that each of the series is following the same logic in this
question.
(i) The sum of the values of ‘T’ and ‘W’ is the multiple of 9.
(ii) The fourth term of the third series is an odd number.
(iii) The difference between the value of ‘Q’ and the second term of the third series is 436.
Options :
2. Only (i) and (iii)
3. Only (ii) and (iii)
4. Only (iii)
5. Only (ii)
Answer : Only (iii)
Question No. 113
Which of the following statements is correct?
I. If x = 12, y = –2 and z = –10, then x³ + y³

+ z³ = 720
II. If x + y = 48 and 4xy = 124, then 4x² +4y² = 9368
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Neither I nor II
4. Both I and II
5. none of these
Answer : Both I and II
Question No. 114
5 4 3 2
If x = 11, then the value of x - 12x + 12x - 12x + 12x - 1 is
Options :
1. 10
2. 9
3. 11
4. 13
5. none of these
Answer : 10
Direction:
Solve the given two equations and answer the two questions that follow as per the instructions given below.
-2 -1
I. (1/2) + 14x = 5.75x
2
II. 0.125y - 0.4375y = 1.875
Question No. 115

If the smaller root of equation 'II' and larger root of equation 'I' are used to form another equation 'C' in the form of
variable 'k', then then which of the represents the equation 'W'?
Options :
1. 2k² – 11k = 40
2. 2k² – 10k = 40
3. 2k² – 11k = 30
4. k² – 11k = 40
5. None of these
Answer : 2k² – 11k = 40
Question No. 116
In which country is the Nobel Peace Prize awarded?
Options :
1. Sweden
2. Norway
3. Switzerland
4. Denmark
5. Finland
Answer : Norway
Question No. 117
Which bank partnered with Fibe (formerly known as EarlySalary) to launch India's first-ever numberless credit card?
Options :
1. HDFC Bank
2. ICICI Bank
3. State Bank of India
4. Axis Bank
5. Kotak Mahindra Bank
Answer : Axis Bank
Question No. 118
What is the total fertilizer subsidy allocated by the government for the 2023-24 including urea and DAP subsidies?
Options :
1. ₹1.08 lakh crore
2. ₹70,000 crore
3. ₹38,000 crore
4. ₹1.46 lakh crore
5. ₹50,000 crore
Answer : ₹1.08 lakh crore
Question No. 119
In which month were the highest GST collections ever recorded in India for 2023?
Options :
1. October
2. April
3. July
4. June
5. September
Answer : April
Question No. 120
What are the percentages in which RBI released the Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio (I-CRR) as per the schedule?
Options :
1. 25%, 25%, 50%
2. 50%, 25%, 25%
3. 25%, 50%, 25%
4. 50%, 50%, 50%
5. 25%, 25%, 25%
Answer : 25%, 25%, 50%
Question No. 121
Which fintech giant launched the consumer-facing application Pincode integrated into India's Open Network for
Digital Commerce (ONDC) framework?
Options :
1. Paytm
2. Google Pay
3. PhonePe
4. Amazon Pay
5. MobiKwik
Answer : PhonePe
Question No. 122
SBI has introduced Aadhaar-based enrolment for social security schemes, making it easier and more convenient for
customers. The customers visiting Customer Service Points (CSPs) will need only their Aadhaar to enroll in which
pivotal social security schemes?
Options :
1. Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
2. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
3. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
4. A & B
5. All of the above

Answer : All of the above
Question No. 123
During the construction of the 3D post office building in Bangalore, which institution or organization provided
technical guidance to Larsen & Toubro?
Options :
1. Reliance Infrastructure Limited
2. Gammon India Limited
3. Indian Institute of Technology Delhi
4. Indian Institute of Technology Madras
5. The Ministry of Urban Development and Housing
Answer : Indian Institute of Technology Madras
Question No. 124
How many alphanumeric characters are there in the HUID (Hallmark Unique Identification) code for hallmarked gold
jewelry?
Options :
1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6
5. 7
Answer : 6
Question No. 125
Corporate social responsibility (CSR) is a self-regulating business model that helps a company be socially
accountable, which of the following is not included in CSR?

Options :
1. Environmental
2. Ethical
3. Philanthropic
4. Financial
5. Legal
Answer : Legal
Question No. 126
Where was the Iron Dome initially deployed and declared operational on March 27, 2011?
Options :
1. Tel Aviv
2. Jerusalem
3. Beersheba
4. Haifa
5. Ashdod
Answer : Beersheba
Question No. 127
Which of the following is the 42nd UNESCO World Heritage Site in India?
Options :
1. Hill Forts of Rajasthan
2. Historic City of Ahmedabad
3. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
4. The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysala
5. Jaipur City, Rajasthan
Answer : The Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysala

Question No. 128
Which of the following banks is the TV broadcast sponsor for Indian Team In Asian Games?
Options :
1. State Bank of India
2. ICICI Bank
3. HDFC Bank
4. Axis Bank
5. Kotak Mahindra Bank
Answer : State Bank of India
Question No. 129
Who is the head of the committee constituted by the government to explore the possibility of 'One Nation, One
Election'?
Options :
1. Narendra Modi
2. Amit Shah
3. Ashwani Vaishnaw
4. Ram Nath Kovind
5. Rajnath Singh
Answer : Ram Nath Kovind
Question No. 130
IMF's World Economic Outlook GDP growth forecasts for India in 2023-24 and 2024-25 is:
Options :
1. 6.3% for 2023-24 and 6.3% for 2024-25
2. 6.4% for 2023-24 and 6.3% for 2024-25

3. 6.2% for 2023-24 and 6.4% for 2024-25
4. 6.3% for 2023-24 and 6.5% for 2024-25
5. 6.0% for 2023-24 and 6.3% for 2024-25
Answer : 6.3% for 2023-24 and 6.3% for 2024-25
Question No. 131
Psyche is a NASA mission to study a metal-rich asteroid, it was launched from which Space Centre?
Options :
1. Lyndon B. Johnson Space Center, Houston
2. Kennedy Space Center, Florida
3. Goddard Space Flight Center, Maryland
4. Marshall Space Flight Center, Huntsville
5. John C. Stennis Space Center, Mississippi
Answer : Kennedy Space Center, Florida
Question No. 132
Which Indian state is renowned for the distinctive Longpi (Nungbi) Pottery, known for being crafted without a
potter's wheel?
Options :
1. Nagaland
2. Mizoram
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Meghalaya
5. Manipur
Answer : Manipur
Question No. 133

Among the following options, which three stockbroking firms are considered among the top in India?
Options :
1. Zerodha, Groww & Angel One
2. Groww, ICICIdirect & Upstox
3. Angel One, Motilal Oswal & Upstox
4. ICICIdirect, Sharekhan & Motilal Oswal
5. Upstox, Groww & Angel One
Answer : Zerodha, Groww & Angel One
Question No. 134
What is India's global rank as a crude oil refiner?
Options :
1. 1st
2. 2nd
3. 3rd
4. 4th
5. 5th
Answer : 4th
Question No. 135
In which year is the development of 4,000 MWh of VGF-BESS projects, with financial support of up to 40% of the
capital cost as Viability Gap Funding (VGF), projected to be completed?
Options :
1. 2025-26
2. 2027-28
3. 2030-31
4. 2035-36
5. 2046-47
Answer : 2030-31
Question No. 136
In DBT, benefits or subsidies are directly transferred to the citizens, Direct Benefit Transfer facility is given in which
of the following schemes?
1. Krishi Unnati Yojana (KUY)-MOVCDNER
2. Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna
3. Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture
4. National Food Security Mission - NFSM
5. Per Drop More Crop
Options :
1. 1, 2 & 3
2. 2, 3 & 4
3. 1, 2, 3 & 4
4. 1, 2 & 4
5. All the above
Answer : All the above
Question No. 137
Which sports have been provisionally removed from the program of 28 "core" Olympic events by the IOC for the LA
2028 olympics?
Options :
1. Boxing, modern pentathlon, and weightlifting
2. Swimming, modern pentathlon, and weightlifting
3. Soccer, weightlifting, and Boxing
4. Archery, modern pentathlon, and Boxing

5. Table tennis, badminton, and Boxing
Answer : Boxing, modern pentathlon, and weightlifting
Question No. 138
Who is the owner of General Insurance Corporation of India Limited (GIC Re)?
Options :
1. Sequoia Capital India
2. Radhakishan Damani
3. Premji And Associates
4. Tata Group
5. Government of India
Answer : Government of India
Question No. 139
The MoU signed between IPPB (India Post Payments Bank) on October 11, 2023, is for the development and
financing of informal micro enterprises in rural and remote areas of India. Who is the other party that signed this
MoU with IPPB?
Options :
1. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
2. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
3. State Bank of India (SBI)
4. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
5. Ministry of Finance, Government of India
Answer : Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
Question No. 140

"One District One Product" (ODOP) is an initiative aimed at promoting domestic production of handicrafts,
readymade clothes, leather products, and more. Which Indian state government has introduced this initiative?
Options :
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Bihar
3. Rajasthan
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Karnataka
Answer : Uttar Pradesh
Question No. 141
In which year was TRIFED (Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India) formed with the main
objective of institutionalizing the trade of Minor Forest Products (MFP) and providing fair prices to India's tribal
communities for their surplus agricultural products?
Options :
1. 1985
2. 1986
3. 1987
4. 1988
5. 1991
Answer : 1987
Question No. 142
Who can make recommendations regarding the division of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the
states?
Options :
1. Finance Commission
2. Department of Finance
3. Finance Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
5. Prime Minister
Answer : Finance Commission
Question No. 143
To open an NPS (National Pension System) account in India, what is the age range that an individual must fall within
as of the date of submission of the application?
Options :
1. 18 to 60 years
2. 18 to 65 years
3. 18 to 70 years
4. 20 to 60 years
5. 21 to 70 years
Answer : 18 to 70 years
Question No. 144
A Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF) occurred in Sikkim, leading to the breach of a glacial lake. What is the name of
the glacial lake that caused this disaster?
Options :
1. Khecheopalri Lake
2. Gurudongmar Lake
3. Menmecho Lake
4. Lhonak Lake
5. Samiti Lake
Answer : Lhonak Lake

Question No. 145
Enhanced Access & Service Excellence (EASE) was launched in January 2018 and the GoI has launched the 5th
version of EASE i.e. EASE 5.0, which is not a theme of EASE 5.0?
Options :
1. Digitally - enabled customer offerings
2. Big data and analytics
3. Modern Technology Capabilities
4. Employee development and Governance
5. Strategic 5-year Roadmap
Answer : Strategic 5-year Roadmap
Question No. 146
Which international research institute, headquartered in Hyderabad and focusing on tropical dryland agrifood
system innovation, has joined the One CGIAR integrated partnership?
Options :
1. ICRISAT (International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics)
2. CIMMYT (International Maize and Wheat Improvement Center)
3. CIP (International Potato Center)
4. IRRI (International Rice Research Institute)
5. CIFOR (Center for International Forestry Research)
Answer : ICRISAT (International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics)
Question No. 147
Dr. Joyeeta Gupta, an Indian-origin professor, received a prestigious award for her work in the field of climate
change. What is the name of the award she was honored with?
Options :
1. Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement
2. Dutch Spinoza Prize
3. Champion of Earth Award
4. Environmental Excellence Medal
5. Sultan Qaboos Prize for Environmental Preservation
Answer : Dutch Spinoza Prize
Question No. 148
Which Russian Cosmonaut holds the record for the longest spaceflight overall?
Options :
1. Yuri Artyukhin
2. Anna Kikina
3. Valeri Polyakov
4. Valery Ryumin
5. Valery Bykovsky
Answer : Valeri Polyakov
Question No. 149
Which of the following given below are included in the Digital Payment Index parameters?
1. Payment enablers
2. Payment infrastructure
3. Payment performance
4. Consumer centricity
Options :
1. 1, 2 & 3
2. 2, 3 & 4
3. 1, & 2
4. 1, 2 & 4
5. All the above
Question No. 150
SBI Mutual Fund disclosed its intention to acquire a specific share percentage in IndusInd Bank, along with an
equivalent percentage of voting rights. What is the share percentage that SBI MF is aiming to acquire?
Options :
1. 5%
2. 7%
3. 10%
4. 11%
5. 15%
Answer : 10%
Question No. 151
Which market is where new securities, including stocks and bonds, are issued and sold for the first time, often
involving activities like Initial Public Offerings (IPOs)?
Options :
1. Money market
2. Derivatives market
3. Foreign exchange market
4. Primary market
5. OTC market
Answer : Primary market
Question No. 152

After the issuance of securities, investors can purchase such securities in various ways. Which is not a primary
market issues?
Options :
1. Qualified Institutional Placement
2. Private placement
3. Right & Bonus market
4. Preferential Issue
5. Over the Counter issue
Answer : Over the Counter issue
Question No. 153
Where will the first IIT campus outside India be established to expand the reach of the Indian Institutes of
Technology (IITs)?
Options :
1. Nairobi, Kenya
2. Cape Town, South Africa
3. Zanzibar, Tanzania
4. Accra, Ghana
5. Addis Ababa, Ethiopia
Answer : Zanzibar, Tanzania
Question No. 154
Which country holds the position of India's largest trading partner in the ASEAN region, with a trade value of USD
38 billion recorded in the previous year?
Options :
1. Thailand
2. Malaysia
3. Singapore
4. Indonesia
5. Philippines
Answer : Indonesia
Question No. 155
In a tokenization transaction, which parties or stakeholders are typically involved? 1. Merchant & Customer 2.
Acquirer & Issuer 3. Token service provider & Requestor
Options :
1. 1 & 3
2. 2 & 3
3. 1 & 3
4. 3 only
5. All the above
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IBPS PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper (5th Nov Shift 1)

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IBPS PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper (5th Nov Shift 1)

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IBPS PO 2023 Mains Previous Year Paper (5th Nov Shift 1)

Who among the following is the Youngest?

1. The one who wears Amazfit

3. The one who born immediately after F

5. Both (a) and (b)

Answer : Both (a) and (b)

Answer : July, 1964

immediately above carton of T.

How many persons sit in the row?

immediately above carton of T.

Carton of R is of which colour?

immediately above carton of T.

How many persons sit between R and S?

immediately above carton of T.

and has office on an odd numbered floor.

Thursday does not has office on 4th floor.

III are not required to answer the question.

statement II are not required to answer the question.

not required to answer the question.

III are not required to answer the question.

between F and T. How many persons sit in the row?

are there to the left of F.

1. Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

2. Only Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

3. Both Statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

4. Only Statement I is sufficient to answer the question.

5. Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.

Answer : Only Statement I is sufficient to answer the question.

Who sits 3rd to the right of T?

5. None of the above

Which of the following trains arrived just after E?

1. A arrived just before H at platform no. 1.

2. A arrived just before H at platform no. 2.

3. A arrived just after H at platform no. 4.

4. A arrived just before H at platform no. 4.

Answer : A arrived just before H at platform no. 4.

Which of the following trains arrived at Platform number 6 ?

How many trains arrived before train A?

Who among the following person lives in Bengaluru city?

1. The one who sits opposite to H

2. The one who sits second to the left of G

3. The one who sits immediate left of F

4. The one who sits second to the left of E

5. The one who sits opposite to F

Answer : The one who sits opposite to F

Which of the following city does C live?

3. The one who sits immediate left of H

4. The one who lives in Hyderabad

5. The one who lives Kolkata

Answer : The one who lives Kolkata

1. The one who lives in Pune

2. The one who sits opposite to F

3. The one who sits immediate left of B

4. The one who lives in Delhi

5. None of the above

Answer : The one who lives in Pune

Input: Guitar 51 Current 20 Table 36 28 Four

Step I: 51 Guitar Current 20 Table 36 28 Four

Step II: 51 36 Guitar Current 20 Table 28 Four

Step III: 51 36 28 Guitar Current 20 Table Four

Step IV: 51 36 28 20 Guitar Current Table Four

Step V: 51 36 28 20 Four Guitar Current Table

Step VI: 51 36 28 20 Four Table Guitar Current