Amici Review Center Page 1

DIAGNOSTICS EXAMINATION
December 2021 CLE
PART I – CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE PROCEDURE AND EVIDENCE
1. Which of the following is true about doubts in criminal cases?
A. all doubts should be removed because conviction must be beyond shadow of a doubt
B. all doubts should be resolved in favor of the state
C. all doubts should be resolved in favor of the accused
D. all doubts should be resolved in favor of the prosecution
2. In Factum Probans:
A. it is offered as such for the consideration of the tribunal;
B. it is conceived of for practical purposes as existent;
C. A only
D. A and B
3. A woman was charged with the murder of a seven years old girl near village Nala. Here no one has
seen her killed the girl but the following facts came out after taking evidence such as; 1. That about an
hour before the sunset the accused was seen going with the deceased in the direction of the scene of
occurrence; 2. She returned home alone; and 3. That the cloth she was wearing was found to be
stained with human blood. These facts best illustrate_______.
A. Competent Evidence
B. Direct evidence
C. Circumstantial evidence
D. Prima Facie Evidence
4. What do you call that procedure where hearings of testimonies are dispensed with instead only
affidavits or counter affidavits of the parties and their witnesses are made in lieu of the former, subject
however to cross examination.
A. special procedure
B. summary procedure
C. trial
D. regular procedure
5. Macoy stabbed Vincent. Luckily, Vincent was able to identify his assailant. Upon being rushed to the
hospital, SPO4 Lorenzo
got the statement of Vincent, Vincent believing at that time that he was at the point of death, confided
to SPO4 Lorenzo that Macoy was his assailant. Vincent died a few after hours thereafter. What would be
your basis to establish the identity of the assailant and bring him to justice?
A. Res gestae
B. Dying declaration of Vincent
C. Direct testimony of Vincent
D. Dying declaration of Macoy
6. Assume that when Macoy stabbed Vincent, the latter was in a no way to identify Macoy as his
assailant. But Vincent nevertheless in his dying state had a strong hunch that it was Macoy alone could
have possibly done the stabbing, hence in his declaration to SPO4 Lorenzo, he pointed to Macoy as his
aggressor. Vincent died. What will happen to his declaration to SPO4 Lorenzo?
A. It will not be admitted as dying declaration
B. It will not be admitted as dying declaration but will be admitted as part of res gestae
C. Vincent will be subjected to rigid examination by the defense counsel
D. It will be considered as declaration against pedigree or common reputation
7. Which of the following distinguishes a motion to quash from a demurrer to evidence?
A. The grounds for a motion to quash are also grounds for a demurrer to evidence
B. A motion to quash may be fi led with or without leave of court, at the discretion of the accused
C. A motion to quash a complaint or information is fi led before the prosecution rests its case
D. The above choices are all wrong
Correct answer
D. The above choices are all wrong Amici Review Center Page 2
8. The Parol Evidence Rule applies to:
A. judgment on a compromise agreement
B. will and testaments
C. written agreements or contractual documents
D. subsequent agreements placed on issue
9. Z as husband, dies before he could institute the criminal action for adultery against his wife and the
paramour. The case may:
A. Be prosecuted by the State
B. Still be prosecuted
C. No longer be prosecuted
D. Be prosecuted by the husband’s parents
10. It is the loss by the state of the right to prosecute and punish or the termination of the power to
prosecute or punish the offender after the lapse of certain definite period from the commission of the
offense.
A. prescription of penalty
B. acquisitive
C. extinctive
D. Prescription of crime
11. What Crime can be charged against the guard who connives with the prisoner?
A. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
B. Delivering prisoner from jail
C. Conniving with or consenting to evasion
D. A and C
12. W was arrested in the act of committing a crime on October 1, 2011. After an inquest hearing, an
information was filed against W and his lawyer learned of the same on October 5, 2011. W wants to file
a motion for preliminary investigation and therefore he has only up to _____ to file the same.
A. November 15, 2011
B. October 20, 2011
C. October 10, 2011
D. October 16, 2011
13. A and B had a quarrel. A boxed B. A told B, “I will kill you this week”. A bought a firearm. On Friday,
he waited for B and shot him but killed C instead. In so far as B is concerned, the crime committed by A
is:
A. illegal discharge of firearm
B. Attempted murder
C. frustrated murder
D. All of these
14. What is the proper charge against public officers or employees who, being in conspiracy with the
rebels, failed to resist a rebellion by all means in their power, or shall continue to discharge the duties of
their offices under the control of the rebels, or shall accept appointment to office under them?
a. disloyalty of public officers or employees
b. rebellion
c. conspiracy to commit rebellion
d. dereliction of duty
15. What is the proper charge against a lawyer who reveals the secrets of his client learned by him in
his professional capacity?
A. The lawyer should be charged with betrayal of trust
B. The lawyer should be charged with unauthorized revelation of classified materials
C. The proper charge against the lawyer should be revealing secrets with abuse of office
D. The lawyer should be charged with revelation of secrets of private individual
16. Proposal to commit felony is punishable only in cases in which the law specifically provides a penalty
therefor. Under which of the following instances. are proponents NOT liable?
A. Proposal to commit treason
B. Proposal to commit coup d'etat
C. Proposal to commit sedition
D. Proposal to commit rebellion
17. What crime is committed when a person assumes the performance of duties and powers of a public
office or employment without first being sworn in?
A. prohibited transaction
B. anticipation of duties of a public office
C. unlawful appointment
D. usurpation of authority
18. Husband punched and kicked his pregnant wife causing the death of their unborn child is guilty of:
a. parricide
b. abortion
c. intentional abortion
d. unintentional abortion
19. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as an individual or as a member of some court
or government corporation, board or commission, shall be deemed ____?
A. Judicial authority
B. person in authority
C. Agent of a person in authority
D. Public employee Amici Review Center Page 3
20. Piracy as defined under Article 122 of the Revised Penal Code can be committed only _______.
A. In the high seas
B. Both in internal lands and waters
C. Within the Philippine waters
D. Anywhere in the Philippines
21. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months they live together with the children of Lea
from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of Lea. Jane
loves Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by Charlie?
A. Qualified Seduction
B. Consented Abduction
C. Rape
D. Simple Seduction
22. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to
arrest him,Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What
was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Corruption of Public Officials
B. Direct Bribery
C. Qualified Bribery
D. Indirect Bribery
23. The killing of one victim and the wounding of another arising from the accused’s single act of
hacking the first victim is an example of:
A. delito complejo
B. delito compuesto
C. continuous crime
D. transitory crime
24. What crime is committed by a public officer who, before the acceptance of his resignation, shall
abandon his office to the detriment of the public service in order to evade the discharge of the duties of
preventing, prosecuting or punishing the crime of treason?
A. negligence in the prosecution of offense
B. qualified abandonment of office
C. misprision of treason
D. abandonment of office or position
25. What is the criminal liability, if any, of a physician who issues a false medical certificate in
connection with the practice of his profession?
A. The physician is criminally liable if the false medical certificate is used in court
B. The physician is criminally liable for falsification of medical certificate
C. The physician incurs no criminal liability if the false medical certificate does not cause prejudice or
damage
D. The physician incurs no criminal liability if the false medical certificate is not submitted to the court
26. Using his charms because of his movie star looks, Phil, in a movie date with Lyn, a 19-year old
colegiala, kissed her on the cheek and stroked her pubic hair. Lyn shouted for help and Phil was
arrested. Phil is liable for __________.
A. violation of the Anti-Child Abuse Law for lascivious conduct
B. unjust vexation
C. rape by sexual assault for using his fingers
D. acts of lasciviousness
27. A, in a public place, fired his gun at B with the intention of killing B, but the gun did not fire because
the bullet is a dud. The crime is:
A. grave threat
B. Attempted homicide
C. impossible crime
D. alarm and scandal
28. The Revised Rules on Evidence took effect on ______.
A. March 1, 2019
B. March 1, 2020
C. May 1, 2020
D. May 1, 2019
29. The following circumstances are always mitigated in terms of alternative circumstances, except:
A. Relationship in crimes against persons
B. Relationship in crimes against property
C. Intoxication wherein the drunk person has not intended it or not a habitual drunkard.
D. Low degree education
30. It is the quality by which an act may be ascribed to a person as its author or owner. It implies that
the act committed has been freely and consciously done and may therefore be put down to the doer as
his very own.
A. Responsibility
B. Imputability
C. Guilt Amici Review Center Page 4
D. Liability
31. A person lends Juan the bolo which was used in the murder of another person is liable as:
A. accessory
B. principal
C. conspirator
D. accomplice
32. The moving power which impels one to action for a definite result.
A. deceit
B. Motive
C. Fault
D. Intent
33. That cause, which, in the natural and continuous sequence, unbroken by any efficient intervening
cause, produces the injury without which the result would not have occurred.
A. Probable cause
B. Immediate cause
C. Intervening cause
D. Proximate cause
34. When a motion to quash is denied, the defense should_____.
A. proceed with the trial
B. file a petition for certiorari
C. file an appeal
D. avail any of the above
35. Alexander Gesmundo is the ______ Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
A. 26th
B. 25th
C. 28th
D. 27th
36. In illegal detention, the accused voluntarily release the victim within 3 days without attaining
purpose, this best illustrates:
A. alternative circumstance
B. privileged mitigating circumstance
C. specific mitigating circumstance
D. ordinary mitigating circumstance
37. As a general rule, there is no civil liability when the act or omission is considered justified. It is an
affirmative defense, hence the burden of proof is on the accused who must prove it by:
A. proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. preponderance of evidence
C. substantive evidence
D. clear and convincing evidence
38. A intended to kill B. One night, A shouted at the person whom he thought to be B. An altercation
ensued. In the process, A fired his gun at the person who died as a consequence. It turned out that the
person whom he shot and killed was not B but his own father, C. This best illustrates:
A. impossible crime
B. prater intentionem
C. error in personae
D. aberratio ictus
39. As a general rule, lack of sufficient education is mitigating. Which of the following is not considered
an exception to this rule?
A. crimes against property
B. murder
C. Treason
D. None of the above
40. Which among the following is not mitigating?
A. mistaken belief that killing witches was for public good
B. illness of nerves
C. kleptopmania
D. all are mitigating
41. Simple slander prescribes in _____.
A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 30 days
42. What is the crime committed by a public officer who discloses to the representative of a foreign
nation the contents of the articles, data or information of a confidential nature relative to the defense of
the Philippine archipelago which he has in his possession by reason of the public office he holds?
A. Espionage
B. disloyalty
C. Treason
D. violation of neutrality
43. When a party or counsel willfully or deliberately commits forum shopping, the initiatory pleading
may:
A. be summarily dismissed with prejudice as it may constitute direct contempt
B. be stricken from the record
C. upon motion, be dismissed with prejudice
D. be cured by amendment of the complaint Amici Review Center Page 5
44. A criminal case should be instituted and tried in the place where the offense or any of the essential
elements took place, except in:
A. Court martial cases
B. Estafa cases
C. Cases cognizable by the Sandiganbayan
D. Complex crimes
45. X was charged for murder and was issued a warrant of arrest. X remains at large but wants to post
bail. X's option is to:
A. file a petition for review with the DOJ
B. file a motion for reinvestigation
C. surrender and file a bail petition
D. file a motion to recall warrant of arrest
46. From an extension line, Ricardo overheard a telephone conversation between Julito and Atty.
Hipolito. The latter (Atty. Hipolito) was asking money from Julito in exchange for dropping the extortion
charge filed against Julito. Ricardo was charged of violating the Anti-Wire Tapping Act or R.A.
4200.Under these facts, was there a violation as charged?
A. Yes, because the conversation was overheard without the consent of the parties, Julito and Atty.
Hipolito
B. No, because what is punishable is intentional listening to a conversation through a wire
C. No, because a telephone extension line is not the device or arrangement contemplated by the law
and the use of an extension line cannot be considered as wire tapping
D. Yes, because the conversation was private in nature
47. The importance of proof:
A. Proof is the result or effect of evidence;
B. Proof is not the same as evidence;
C. A Only
D. A and B
48. An evidence which has been illegally obtained is admissible in evidence.
A. Silver Platter Rule
B. Equipoise Rule
C. Pro Reo Doctrine
D. Doctrine of the Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
49. Object evidence is also known as:
A. Competent evidence;
B. Real evidence
C. Relevant evidence;
D. None of the above.
50. Judicial Notice of a fact may be taken:
A. Appeal;
B. After trial but before judgment;
C. During trial;
D. All of the above.
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
1. If the offense is punishable for a period of not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 days, the
citizen’s complaint against erring PNP member shall be filed at the
A. PLEB
B. Mayor’s Office
C. Office of the chief of police
D. any of them
2. It is a law amending the provisions of RA 6975 and RA 8551 on the minimum educational qualification
for appointment to the PNP?
A. RA 9780
B. RA 9807
C. RA 9708
D. RA 9078
3. The following has a term of office of 4 years EXCEPT?
A. Director of Staff Services
B. Regional Director
C. Deputy Chief
D. Chief
4. The oldest police department in the US?
A. Boston Police Department
B. Philadelphia Police Department
C. Los Angeles Police Department
D. New York Police Department
5. It is done with employees about to abscond the company in order to help identify problems
contributing to employee turnover.
A. Farewell interview
B. Exit interview
C. Interview
D. None of the above
6. Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall be appealed to the__________:
A. National Appellate Board
B. People’s Law Enforcement Board
C. Regional Appellate Board
D. National Police Commission
7. Refers to the grant of access to classified matter only to properly cleared persons when such
classified information is required in the performance of their official duties.
A. Access
B. Compartmentation Amici Review Center Page 6
C. Security Clearance
D. Document Security
8. A communication that which occur within the framework of the informal organization.
A. Informal
B. Formal
C. Verbal
D. Non-verbal
9. This is considered as a powerful tool of mass communication and cornerstone for civilization.
A. Written language
B. Spoken language
C. Sign Language
D. Speech
10. The actions of the patrol officers killing the person that run amok were in accordance to principles
of:
A. discretion
B. maintaining peace and order
C. self defense
D. self-preservation
11. The beneficial aspect of this approach includes a greater sensitivity to the unintended and negative
side effects of the plan. Which is referred to this statement?
A. transactive planning
B. advocacy planning
C. radical planning
D. incremental planning
12. A doctrine that provides guidance for specialized activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest
such as personnel, intelligence operation, logistics, planning etc.
A. Fundamental
B. Functional
C. Operational
D. Ethical
13. As a member of an organization, you are strictly observing a protocol. What is referred to this?
A. delegation of authority
B. chain of command
C. unity of command
D. span of control
14. What is the approach appropriate for police agencies as it is based on a problem-oriented approach
to planning?
A. transactive planning
B. radical planning
C. synoptic planning
D. incremental planning
15. Monthly retirement pay in the PNP shall be how many percent of the base pay?
A. 10
B. 50
C. 60
D. 80
16. This represents the formal relationship among supervisors and subordinates in any given
organization. This can be visualized as a ladder, with each rank representing a higher or lower level of
authority, and is depicted in a pyramidal structure.
A. Hierarchy of authority
B. Scalar principle
C. Authority level principle
D. Ranking
17. The PNP performance evaluation result from January to June shall be submitted on the first week of
July, then the PNP performance evaluation result from July to December shall be submitted on:
A. Third week of December of the same year
B. Same schedule as the first evaluation
C. Last week of December of the same year
D. First week of January of the succeeding year
18. Early police force that utilized dogs as protectors or guards?
A. Medjays
B. Prefects
C. Praetorian Guards
D. Vigilles of Rome
19. The following are the element of Planning, Except?
A. Implementing Group
B. Objectives
C. Course of Action
D. A goal
20. What is needed to accomplish, refers to what?
A. Implementing group
B. goal
C. Resources needed
D. Course of action
21. What is the rank of Police Staff Sergeant in the Military?
A. Sergeant
B. Corporal
C. Technical Sergeant
D. Private
22. A state or quality of being secure, freedom from fear or danger, assurance, certainty. Amici
Review Center Page 7
a. Hazard
b. Security Management
c. Security
d. Physical Security
23. Where can you appeal the decisions of Chief PNP wherein the penalty imposed is dismissal or
demotion?
A. RAB
B. PLEB
C. NAB
D. DILG
24. Is a visual or audible signaling device, which initiates conditions of associated circuits.
a. Alarm
b. Barrier
c. Protective Alarm
d. Annunciator
25. A written order issued by a superior officer assigning the performance of private security/detective
services duties.
a. Mission Order
b. Duty Detailed Mission
c. Duty Detail Order
d. All of the above
26. These are wide beam units, used to extend the illumination in long, horizontal strips to protect the
approaches to the perimeter barrier; it projected a narrow 180 degree horizontal and from 15 to 30
degrees in the vertical plane
a. Fresnel Lights
b. Street Lights
c. Floodlights
d. Search lights
27. An act or condition, which results in a situation conducive to a breach of the protection system, or
that, could result to loss.
A. Natural Hazards
B. Security Hazards
C. Human Hazards
D. Hazards
28. What unit of PNP handles the processing and issuances of license for private security personnel?
A. PNP SOSIA
B. PNP FED
C. PNP SAGSD
d. PADPAO
29. They are considered as the first to utilize dogs for patrolling:
A. Chinese
B. Egyptians
C. American
D. English
30. A careful inspection of place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose?
A. Shadowing
B. Casing
C. Stake out
D. Tailing
31. The feeling of a would-be criminals that policemen are everywhere is known
as___________________.
A. Psychology of omnipresence
B. Police omnipotent
C. Police visibility
D. Police presence
32. The PNP shall enforce the law, prevent and control crimes, maintain peace and order, and ensure
public safety and internal security with the active support of the community. This is the PNP:
A. Vision
B. Mission
C. Goal
D. Objective
33. The decision of dismissal by the PLEB is final and executory but subject to appeal to the RAB. The
period of appeal upon receipt of decision by the respondent is _____.
A. Ten
B. Twenty
C. Thirty
D. Sixty
34. Waiver of the age requirement may be granted provided that the applicant shall not be;
A. More than 20 nor over 35
B. More than 21 nor over 35
C. Less than 21 nor below 35
D. Less than 20 nor over 35
35. A principle of efficient management wherein the objective is to pursue the optimum utilization of the
capabilities of personnel.
A. Stability of personnel tenure
B. Centralization
C. Stability
D. Scalar Chain
36. Essential in administering personnel matters and designed to aid in assignment, promotion, and
disciplinary action of personnel.
A. Miscellaneous Records
B. Identification Records Amici Review Center Page 8
C. Arrest and Booking Records
D. Administrative Records
37. The process of making police officers to adjust and be knowledgeable in a new job and/or working
environment.
A. Police Screening
B. Police Placement
C. Police Compensation
D. Police Appraisal
38. It is a general statement of intention and typically with a time horizon of a year or more. What is
referred to this statement?
A. objective
B. vision
C. goal
D. mission
39. It is the vintage type of patrol but still plays an important role in the development of officers today.
What is referred to this?
A. motorcycle patrol
B. automobile patrol
C. foot patrol
D. bicycle patrol
40. What is the new concept, police strategy which integrates the police and the community interests
into a working relationship so as to produce the desired organizational objectives of peacemaking?
A. Preventive Patrol
B. Community Relation
C. Team Policing
D. Directed Patrol
41. An organization is more effective if it enables the individual to contribute to the organizations
objectives. What is referred to this?
A. principle of balance
B. principle of organizational efficiency
C. principle of absoluteness of responsibility
D. principle of unity of objective
42. Which is not part of the group?
A. education for police officers
B. procurement of modern police equipment
C. police professionalization
D. specialized trainings for special units
43. The first step a dispatcher must take when a felony-in-progress call has been received through
telephone or by direct alarm signal is to?
A. assign an investigator to investigate the witness
B. clear the air for emergency broadcast
C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
D. send augmentation force
44. Theories X and Y were introduced by:
A. Frederick Taylor
B. Henry Fayol
C. Douglas McGregor
D. Max Weber
45. The task of providing competent men to do the job and choosing the right men for the right job. It
involves good selection and processing of reliable and well-trained personnel.
A. Directing
B. Staffing
C. Planning
D. Directing
46. This is otherwise known as traditional or classical system of management which entails control by
superior and obedience by subordinates:
A. Scientific management
B. Bureaucratic model
C. Administrative principle
D. Behavioral theory
47. The PNP performance evaluation is conducted:
A. Once a year
B. Twice a year
C. Quarterly
D. Every 2 years
48. The color of folder of PNP Personnel File (PPF) for Non-Commissioned Officers
A. Violet
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
49. A special force of guards used by Roman Emperors as the Emperors personal guards.
A. Praetorian Guards
B. Vigilles of Rome
C. Hermandades
D. Medjays
50. The INTERPOL is focused in investigating what classification of crime?
A. Cross-border crime
B. Private crime
C. Public crime
D. Sensational crime Amici Review Center Page 9
CRIMINALISTICS
1. It is a ruled plastic or glass plates used in examination of handwriting slant.
A. Typewriting Measuring Test Plates
B. Handwriting Slope Measuring Test Plates
C. Protractor
D. Compass
2. One of the most expensive tools used in document examination which is capable of showing three
dimensional enlargement of the specimen under examination.
A. Measuring Test Plates
B. Ultra-Violet Light Gadget
C. Magnifying Lens
D. Stereoscopic Microscope
3. The person who devised his own polygraph machine with the addition of muscular resistance which
are detected with the aid of portable chair. HE also devised the guilt complex and silent answer test.
A. John A. Larson
B. Richard O. Arthur
C. John E. Reid
D. Leonarde Keeler
4. A person who suggest using the pulse rate detection.
A. Angelo Mosso
B. Cesare Lombroso
C. Daniel Defoe
D. Sticker
5. It is the distance from which the firearm was discharged and the presence of the gaping hole,
smudging, tattooing, singeing and burning of the skin.
a. 0 to 2 inches
b. 2 inches to 36 inches
c. Beyond 36 inches
d. long range
6. The offspring of the prostitute is known as?
a. Sacrilegious
b. Legitimate
c. Manceres
d. Legitimated
7. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer in using a flash unit?
a. neutral density
b. prospective
c. synchronization
d. parallax
8. Police Lieutenant Barrats, a member of the SOCO team, his team leader instructed P/Lt. Barrats to
take the façade of the crime scene. What type of lens or view should be used?
a. Wide Angle
b. Telephoto
c. Zoom lens
d. Normal view
9. A system which is responsible for conserving energy and making sure necessary bodily functions.
A. Parasympathetic Nervous System
B. Sympathetic Nervous System
C. Somatic Nervous System
D. Autonomic Nervous System
10. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to go beyond a person's
defensive power.
A. stimuli
B. response
C. fear
D. stimuli
11. The word bullet was derived from the French word, "Boulette" which means ___________.
A. a metal
B. a small ball
C. stone
D. none of these
12. Under the new law on firearms the following shall be considered firearm, Except
A. magazine
B. receiver
C. barrel
D. frame
13. In the Major Division, what table should be used for the right thumb when the left thumb reaches
17 or more?
A. Table No. 1
B. Table No. 2
C. Table No. 3
D. Table No. 4
14. A delta may be any of the following, EXCEPT
A. dot or fragment as thick as the other ridges
B. a point on the first recurving ridge located nearest to the center and in front of the divergence of the
type lines
C. bifurcation opening towards the delta
D. a meeting of two ridges
15. The outermost layer of the epidermis
A. Stratum mucosum Amici Review Center Page 10
B. Stratum Corneum
C. Epidermis
D. Dermis
16. It is a type of conventional typewriter in which the characters is 12 inch horizontal.
A. Elite
B. Betamax
C. Typewriter
D. Pica
17. What is that indelible ink whose marking substance is composed of mixture of aniline ink and
graphite?
A. nut gail ink
B. copy pencil
C. printers ink
D. stencil
18. Are meant to those grace lines, superfluous stroke and are useful only for ornamentation and are
not essential to the legibility of the signatures and usually occurs among writers who attempts to
express some phase of their personalities.
A. flourishing stroke
B. embellishment
C. idiosyncrasies
D. diacritical marks
19. A mental disease in which an individual loses his ability to write although he could still grasp the
writing instrument.
A. Ambidextrous
B. Agraphia
C. Graphometry
D. Majuscule
20. The normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a normal built person.
A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
B. 3.5 to 5.5 cc
C. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
21. As regards to the depth of the wound, when the wound involves only the layers of the skin.
a. Superficial
b. Penetrating
c. Deep
d. Perforating
22. The center core of a strand of the hair, which form the bulk of the fiber.
A. Cuticle
B. Medulla
C. Cortex
D. Anagen
23. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the dependent portion
of the body.
A. Rigor mortis
B. Algor mortis
C. Livor mortis
D. None of the above
24. Tenten and Pempem are husband and wife, Tenten has a mistress, Miss Patty Kim, to whom he has
a son Kanor, a three days old infant. What kind of death is involved if Tenten killed his illegitimate child?
A. Homicidal death
B. Parricidal death
C. Murder
D. Infanticidal death
25. How many minutes is necessary when persistent cessation in respiration, circulation and brain
function sufficient to declare a person clinically dead.
A. 5 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 20 minutes
26. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index finger should?
A. Touch the outside of the trigger guard
B. Grasp the stock
C. Be straighten along the barrel
D. Be inside the trigger guard
27. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right is fired from the barrel of a firearm with
identical class characteristics as that of:
A. Browning
B. Smith and Wesson
C. Colt
D. Steyer
28. A shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are made by dropping with the exception of
the very largest sizes which are made by molding are known as:
A. Soft shots
B. Drop shots
C. Buck shots
D. Chilled shots
29. A roman war machine designed to throw an object at a distance:
A. Ballistics
B. Catapult
C. Ballein or ballo
D. Ballista Amici Review Center Page 11
30. He introduced the first Police Laboratory.
A. Dr. Hans Gross
B. Carl Landsteiner
C. Dr. Edmond Locard
D. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
31. The stage in the developing process where the image is formed?
A. Development or developer
B. Fixation or Acid fixer
C. Stop bath
D. Running water
32. Digital images are composed of millions of tiny dots are known as?
A. LED
B. Photoflood lamp
C. Picture Element
D. Tiny dots image
33. A portion of the sensitized material designed to absorbs excess light, thus preventing further reflexes
and blurredness of image.
A. Emulsion
B. Anti-halation
C. Base
D. Halation
34. The abbreviation of “LASER” means?
A. Light Amplify by Stimulation Emission of Radiation
B. Light Amplification by Stimulation Emitted of Radiation
C. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
D. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Ray
35. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength?
A. Infrared photographic rays
B. Ultraviolet photographic rays
C. Red
D. Violet
36. It is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge curves inward?
A. Sufficient recurve ridge
B. Obstruction Ridge
C. Appendage ridge
D. Shoulder of loop
37. A piece of plane glass or metal where the fingerprint ink is distributed for fingerprinting.
A. Card holder
B. Fingerprint transfer card
C. Fingerprint roller
D. Ink slab
38. In taking prints of the subject the technician always instructs the subject to:
A. Stand straight
B. Relax
C. Cooperate
D. Help the technician rolling
39. An instrument used to hold or secure fingerprint cards in taking fingerprint of a dead person
A. Card holder
B. Strip holder
C. Pair of scissor
D. Forceps
40. A system of classification used in the Philippines:
A. Galton System
B. Henry System
C. Nolie Ingcad-Chapopoy System
D. Galton-Henry System with FBI Modification and Extension
41. The action of light when passing a transparent object.
A. Absorbed light
B. Transmitted light
C. Reflected light
D. Refracted light
42. Image are formed with light action in three ways, except?
A. Pin hole method
B. Shadow method
C. Lens method
D. Shadowing method
43. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator for light transmitting capability
of the lens. Which of the following lens opening will admit more light to pass through its medium?
A. F-4 lens opening
B. F-8 lens opening
C. F 5.6 lens opening
D. F-11 lens opening
44. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to the farthest object that is sharp when the
lens is set or focused at a particular distance?
A. Focal length
B. Hyper focal Distance
C. Depth of field
D. Focal Distance
45. A convex lens is capable of?
A. Reducing the object
B. Making the object appear hairy
C. Enlarging the object Amici Review Center Page 12
D. Reducing the size of the picture
46. Emulsion speed of film can be expressed in either logarithmic or arithmetic. Which of the following
DIN rating will give the finest of grains?
A. Din 21
B. Din 27
C. Din 24
D. Din 30
47. It is means of ignition of a propellant charge by the mechanical blow against the primer or
percussion cup.
A. Recoil of the gun
B. Percussion action
C. Priming mixture
D. Flint lock ignition system
48. A weapon designed to fire pellets through a compressed air?
A. Air rifle
B. Pellet gun
C. Shotgun
D. Zip gun
49. The rear end of the barrel:
A. Muzzle
B. Breech End
C. Bore
D. Tip
50. A type of ammunition which does not have bullet used in film-making:
A. Dummy ammunition
B. Blank ammunition
C. Drill ammunition
D. Live ammunitionSub
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
1. This usually indicates the type of burning materials.
A. Color of Flame
B. Size of Blame
C. Color of Smoke
D. Size of Fire
2. William already placed gasoline-soaked rags beside the wall of Happy Ending Spa but was caught by
Kurt before he could strike the match to burn the building. William committed arson at what stage?
A. Frustrated
B. Attempted
C. Belated
D. Consumated
3. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle Area”?
A. Mindoro- Palawan- Masbate
B. Benguet- Kalinga Apayao- Mt Province
C. Ilocos Sur- Benguet- Mt Province
D. Zamboanga- Cotabato- Davao
4. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness
B. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
C. False perceptions of objects and experiences
D. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color
5. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehended offender within 24 hours if the person
arrested has:
A. Physical sign of drug abuse
B. Symptoms of Drug abuse
C. Visible manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
D. All of the above
6. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes
difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is sellable in the market
B. It is easy to smoke it secretly
C. It is in demand
D. It is easy to cultivate
7. Which of the following may not be a target for terrorist attack?
A. Structures which are vulnerable for destruction and persons of importance to the enemy
B. Places where weapons, transportation needs, and support network are available
C. Places where the terrorists have an easy access to the target area and security
D. Structures which have a symbolic or practical significance and propaganda value
8. Where does the concept of organized crime emerged?
A. In Sicily Italy, when the Mafia was first to emerged
B. In Japan, when Yakuza was founded
C. In the US, when Al Capone ran Chicago with blood and guns
D. In China, when the Triad was established
9. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in between means all EXCEPT
A. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
B. absolutely no overtaking Amici Review Center Page 13
C. stay in your lane until you pass the end of the solid lines
D. overtaking is extremely dangerous
10. Refers to any accident occurring on a traffic way involving persons using the traffic way or travel or
transportation, but not involving a motor vehicle in motion.
A. Non-motor vehicle traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. Motor vehicle traffic accident
D. Non- motor vehicle Non-traffic accident
11. An investigator tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene
situation which should be analyzed? - 1. Suspect arrival at the scene 2. place of entry 3. movement of
suspect from the point of entry and his contact with the victim 4. place of exit.
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide investigation is:
A. Process of determining when the victim was killed
B. Process of determining who is responsible for the death
C. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
D. Process of determining how the victim was killed
13. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence
the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived?
A. During the announcement that he is under arrest
B. At the moment that he is invited for questioning
C. At the time of custodial investigation
D. During the actual questioning
14. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
A. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
B. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
C. Verification of death
D. All of the above
15. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
A. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
B. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for future violation
C. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
D. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
16. The following are principles of rules of right of way, EXCEPT the driver of the vehicle
A. in an express way shall not yield the right of way to the police or fire department vehicles and
ambulances
B. entering a highway from a private road or drive shall yield the right of way to all vehicles
approaching on such highway
C. upon a highway within a business or residential area shall yield the right of way to a pedestrian
crossing such highway within crosswalk
D. upon a highway shall bring to a full stop before traversing any "through highway" or railroad
crossing
17. It is the same level of underboss or the one who considered as council or adviser.
A. Capo de tuti capi
B. Consigliere
C. Caporogime
D. Boss
18. Core elements of trafficking, except-
A. Exploitation
B. Threat of or the use of force, deception, coercion, abuse of power or position of vulnerability
C. Entry of the victims to the country of destination
D. Recruitment, transportation, transfer, harboring or receipt of trafficked person
19. It is a program which pretends to do one thing while actually doing something completely different:
A. Worm
B. Trojan horse
C. Either of the above
D. Neither of the above
20. Which of the following does not carry a capital punishment?
A. possession of 60 grams of shabu
B. possession of 15 grams of MDMA
C. possession of 100 grams of marijuana
D. possession of 20 grams morphine
21. Pedro cannot function without drugs in his system and if he does not take drugs, he Amici Review
Center Page 14
develops withdrawal signs such as restlessness, pain, or convulsions. Pedro is
A. mentally dependent on drugs
B. psychologically dependent on drugs
C. socially dependent on drugs
D. physically dependent on drugs
22. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted for the possession of dangerous
drugs?
A. Turn-over to DSWD
B. Sentence will be suspended
C. Judgment will be suspended
D. None of the above
23. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred.
A. Collapse
B. Alligatoring
C. Discoloration
D. Charring
24. The first to be observed in ascertaining the cause of fire.
A. The color of smoke and flame
B. The room of origin
C. The burnt pattern of ceiling
D. The point of origin
25. Most arson cases are proved by__________________ evidence rather than that direct evidence.
A. Testimonial
B. Physical
C. Circumstantial
D. Documentary
26. A man who suddenly casts sand upon the eyes of the victim and then stabs him to death is liable for
what offense?
A. Parricide
B. Homicide
C. Physical Injuries
D. Murder
27. He who kills an illegitimate grandfather or an illegitimate grandson is not guilty of parricide, but of
homicide or murder.
A. The above statement is inadmissible
B. The above statement is partly correct
C. The above statement is true
D. The above statement is erroneous
28. Physical evidence which may identify the criminal by means of clues or personal properties is known
as:
A. Real evidence
B. Associative Evidence
C. Tracing Evidence
D. Circumstantial Evidence
29. Means sanctioned by the rules, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter
of fact.
A. Evidence
B. Corpus Delicti
C. Document
D. Testimony
30. The crime of Parricide shall have the penalty of Reclusion Perpetua to Death.
A. True
B. False
C. No
D. Yes
31. The transient loss of consciousness with temporary cessation of the vital functions of the body is
known as?
A. coma
B. death
C. state of suspended animation
D. rigor mortis
32. Dark blue discoloration where blood has drained to the lowest level.
A. Pre mortem lividity
B. Pallor mortis
C. Lavor Mortis
D. None of the foregoing
33. Which of the following does NOT belong to a traffic unit.
A. Vehicles
B. Persons and animals
C. Goods
D. None of these
34. The science of measuring traffic and travel. Involves planning, recommending, constructing,
maintaining and enactment of traffic systems to achieve safe and efficient movement of persons and
goods
A. Education
B. Environment
C. Engineering
D. Enforcement
35. Used when a traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but preoccupied at the moment.
A. visual warning
B. written warning
C. verbal warning
D. oral warning
36. Primary responsible for setting the policies concerning traffic in Metropolitan Manila.
A. DOCT
B. MMDA Amici Review Center Page 15
C. LTO
D. DPWH
37. Mr./Ms. Future Police Officer, as a general rule, can you arrest a person without a warrant?
A. Yes, if the person arrested has escaped from prison
B. Yes, by means of in flagrante delicto/caught in the act
C. Both A & B
D. No
38. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because they:
A. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.
B. Ruin their life/health
C. Flagrantly immoral
D. Are violently insane
39. Terrorist group led by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose aim is to establish an Islamic state in the
world.
A. Abu Sayyaf
B. ISIS
C. Jemaah Islamiyah
D. Al Qaeda
40. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means of dangerous drugs to the body by one person to
another is __________.
A. Administer
B. Drug use
C. Taking
D. Addict
41. Any person who pays for, raises or supplies money or underwrites any of the illegal activities
prescribed under R.A. 9165.
A. Financier
B. Protector
C. Cashier
D. Coddler
42. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually lean forward on the hose. What is
the most likely reason for taking this position?
A. The surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable
B. A backward force is developed which must be counteracted
C. The firemen can see better where the stream strikes
D. The stream is projected farther
43. A fourth component to the fire triangle is needed for the fire to sustain itself and continue and is
graphically represented as a:
A. Tetrahedron of fire
B. Pentagon of fire
C. Quadrangle of fire
D. Triangle of fire
44. Summary of the habits, peculiarities of behavior characterizing the operational procedure employed
by certain criminals.
A. Planning
B. Criminal Procedure
C. Modus Operandi
D. All of these
45. The person who provides the investigation with confidential information concerning a past crime or
a projected/planned crime and does not wish to be known.
A. Surveillant
B. Confidential
C. Informer
D. Confederates
46. What aggravating circumstance is present when the offended party was not given the opportunity
to make a defense?
A. Taking advantage of superior strength
B. Treachery
C. Employing means to weaken the defense
D. Means to afford impunity
47. Which of the following statements can be an exception in the basic right of a person to life.
A. Mr. Khamat T. Ayan escaped from New Bilibid Prison
B. Ms. Pining Garcia was caught robbing a drunken man.
C. Ms. Malou Wang defended herself from an attempted rape by stabbing the suspect to death.
D. Mr. Joselito B. Ulbulin is terminally ill and has a very contagious disease.
48. The following will prove that the gunshot wound is suicidal, EXCEPT.
A. Presence of suicide note
B. The fire is usually contact, as shown by the presence of burning, tattooing of area around the
gunshot wound
C. The presence of multiple gunshot wounds
D. Wounding weapon held tightly on the palm of the hand of the victim
49. Traffic lights are useful means of regulating traffic. It is chronologically arranged from top to
bottom as red, yellow and green. When approaching an intersection where the flashing yellow is on,
the motorist should _____. Amici Review Center Page 16
A. Stop and proceed with caution
B. Slow down and proceed with caution
C. Go faster so that you will not beaten by the red light
D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction
50. When an accused directly acknowledges his guilt before a court of law, it is referred to as?
A. Extrajudicial Confession
B. Judicial Confession
C. Admission
D. Confession
SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS
1. These are crimes that manifest evidence of prejudice based on race, religion, sexual orientation or
ethnicity:
a. bigotry
b. bias crimes
c. white-collar crimes
d. blue-collar crimes
2. The mass of precepts which determines and regulates those relations of assistance, authority and
obedience existing among members of a family as well as among members of society for the protection
of private interests.
a. Criminal Law
b Common Law
c. Civil Law
d. Substantive Law
3. It is the criminal justice model which looks at individual person as naturally good and assumes that
every person is presumed innocent until proven guilty. In this model, the purpose of penalty is for
reformation and rehabilitation and it is geared towards letting some guilty person escape imprisonment
than to convict an innocent person.
a. Crime control model
b. Adversarial
c. due process model
d. inquisitorial
4. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional institution which primarily in charge of those
detention prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and serving short sentences and under the
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology. While it is true that even the Provincials Jails like the City and
Municipal Jails are under the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the __________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Provincial Government
d. Bureau of Correction
5. It refers to the geographical division or territorial limit where the power of the court is exercised and
which is jurisdictional in criminal case.
a. Venue
b. Jurisprudence
c. jurisdiction
d. court
6. It regulates those actions that involve the rights that exist between individuals and it is also
concerned with the fair allocation of resources among diverse members of a community:
a. Fairness
b. Regulatory justice
c. Distributive justice
d. Vindictive justice
7. It is a program designed to maintain and encourage community development.
a. Socio-cultural Program
b. Civic Action Program
c. Socio-Civic Program
d. Civic-Cultural Program
8. Mia Khalifa, a 15 years old girl was arrested for stealing money at 8/12 Convenient store. Later the
police found out that she acted with discernment. Mia Khalifa will undergo what program__________.
A. Diversion
B. Intervention
C. Exempted from Criminal Liability
D. None of these
9. Prosecution is under what branch of the government?
A. Executive
B. Legislative
C. Judiciary
D. None of these
10. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.
a. Criminology
b. Criminal Etiology
c. Victimology
d. Criminal Sociology
11. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger people experience
over their inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory
b. psychological theories Amici Review Center Page 17
c. differential association theory
d. labeling theory
12. According to Lombroso, these are physical characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the
general population and are throwbacks to animals or primitive people.
a. physical deviations
b. distinguishable traits
c. atavistic stigmata
d. ape-like appearance
13. In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed as manifestations of basically evil human nature
reflecting either with the prince of darkness or an expression of divine wrath.
a. Classical theory
b. positivist theory
c. Demonological theory
d. neo-classical theory
14. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing
the personality that is characterized by an inability to learn from experience, lack of warmth, and no
sense of guilt better known as:
a. psychotic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox
15. This theory reflects the way people react to a given situation based on the social influences they
acquired from other people that practically determine their behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the
learning process of delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most important theory in crime
causation
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory
16. Ace a 3 year old boy punched her sister Camille. Both of them cried and their father Abon gives
them chocolates. This best describes ______.
a. Neutralization Theory
b. Differential Reinforcement Theory
c. Social Learning Theory
d. Differential Association Theory
17. What is the speculation explains that both conforming behavior and deviant behavior have two
reinforcing elements, the internal control system and the external control system?
a. Containment Theory
b. Conflict Theory
c. Strain Theory
d. Social Disorganization Theory
18. According to him, people with criminal behavior, should be prohibited from having children.
a. Robert Dugdale
b. Henry Goddard
c. Charles Goring
d. George Wilker
19. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto on January 12, 2009. June 12, 2009, a
city ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for
his act of loitering?
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. Yes under the principle of retroactive effect of criminal law
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the law.
d. No, for A did not loiter again.
20. His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited
and related to deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to use the term “moron”.
a. Robert Dugdale
b. Henry Goddard
c. Earnest Hooton
d. Charles Goring
21. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as the legal guardian of the child even though the
parents of the child are still alive when the best interest of the said child so require.
a. adopter
b. loco parentis
c. guardian ad litem
d. temporary guardian
22. A child born inside a marriage where either party is suffering from any legal impediments.
a. illegitimate child
b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child
d. adopted child
23. Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the adopter and the adoptee must first undergo
a supervised trial custody for a period of:
a) at least six months
b) not more than six months Amici Review Center Page 18
c) at least one year
d) not less than one year
24. Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes exhibited by people because of their inherited
capabilities or the process of natural selection.
a. Inherited Behavior
b. Inborn Behavior
c. Learned Behavior
d. both a and
25. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what particular defense mechanism?
a. repression
b. sublimation
c. displacement
d. projection
26. This type of conflict occurs when there is an attraction to an object or state of affairs at the same
time repulsion towards something associated with it
a. avoidance-avoidance
c. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance
d. multiple
27. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given stimulus which largely helps to determine the actual
behavioral response in a given situation.
a. Perception
b. awareness
c. Sensation
d. Learning
28. A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating manifests what particular classification of
human behavior?
a. Habitual
b. complex
c. Instinctive
d. Symbolic
29. Mathematical ability and English communication skills are examples of what type of human
behavior?
a. Learned
b. inborn
c. Operant
d. both a and c
30. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication which indicates openness and willingness to listen
can be shown by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are willing to negotiate
31. This refers to the inability to maintain achieve an erection
a. frigidity
b. prostitution
c. exhibitionism
d. impotence
32. A personality disorder characterized by an inability to form social relationships and can be classified
as “loners”.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Schizoid Personality
C. Dependent Personality
D. Borderline Personality
33. Some criminology theorists have linked physical characteristics with personality. Among these
theories is William Sheldon’s Somatotyping theory. He classified body physique into three categories as
the endomorphic, the mesomorphic and the ectomorphic body. Of the following statements, which
appropriately describes the mesomorphic?
A. the twin and fragile with withdrawn behaviour
B. the muscular and hard physique
C. the attractive and beautifully shaped
D. the fat and soft body type
34. Which of the following best explain due process of law?
A. Inflicts Punishment without Judicial trial
B. Retribution ( eye for eye )
C. The law maybe harsh but it is the Law
D. It Hears before it condemns
35. Children who are vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because of personal,
family and social circumstances are considered-
A. Vulnerable Child
B. Abandoned
C. Child-In-Conflict with The Law
D. Child-at-Risk
36. PNP Chief Kakarot did not make his promise to prevent crimes within 6 months. *
A. Humility
B. Word of Honor
C. Humble
D. Boastful
37. The usual greeting rendered by uniform service upon meeting and recognizing person Amici Review
Center Page 19
entitled to do it. The most common form of courtesy in the PNP and Military?
A. Bow
B. Shake-hands
C. Salute
D. Greetings
38. It means a child Incapable of committing an offense or crime_____.
A. Doli Incapox
B. Doli Incopax
C. Doli Incapax
D. Doli Inca Pas
39. What institution is being termed as the “cradle of human personality”?
A. House
B. Community
C. Home
D. Church
40. It refers to unnecessary and unreasonable use of force in effecting arrest or abuse in the manner of
conducting search and seizure.
A. Brutality
B. Negligence
C. Imprudence
D. Omission
41. Marie submits herself to humiliation, beatings, and other forms of physical abuse, for sexual
excitement. What type of paraphilia does she possess?
A. Masochism
B. Martyr
C. Sadism
D. None of these
42. The people seeks pleasure and avoids pain is refers to?
A. Classical Theory
B. Hedonism
C. Utilitarianism
D. None of these
43. Andrew, was a second year high school, is afraid of being enclosed in a small space, room or closed
places. This phobia is refers to____________.
A. Claustrophobia
B. Hematophobia
C. Agoraphobia
D. Acrophobia
44. Who is a person who kills three or more persons in three or more separate events?
A. Spree killer
B. Serial killer
C. Mass killer
D. Homicidal
45. A statue enacted by Congress, penal in character, which is not amendment to the Revised Penal
Code such as Republic Acts, Presidential Decrees and Memorandum Circulars.
A. Common Law
B. Special Penal Law
C. Revised Penal code
D. Constitution
46. It is a gift of God that should be respected at all times by everybody including the government.
A. Privilege
B. Incentive
C. Benefit
D. Right
47. Brief summary of a research article, thesis or any in depth analysis of a particular subject and it is
often used to help the reader quickly ascertain the paper’s purpose?
A. Dedication
B. Introduction
C. Abstract
D. Acknowledgement
48. The program that the child in conflict with the law is required to undergo after he/she is found
responsible for an offense without resorting to formal court proceedings
A. Diversion Program
B. Intervention Program
C. Juvenile Justice
D. None of these
49. A place of residence whose primary function is to give shelter and care to pregnant women and their
infants
A. Maternity home
B. Hospital
C. Rehabilitation center
D. Foster homes
50. Johnny Sins is taking criminology course in Sutherland University. His teacher always called him an
idiot because he is very slow during class discussion, the former decided to stop studying because he
believe that he has no potential and maybe his teacher is right. This situation best describe the theory
of?
A. Differential Association Theory
B. Social Reaction Theory
C. Imitation suggestion theory
D. None of these Amici Review Center Page 20
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
1. What code introduced the concept of Restitution, but punishment was meted according to social
class of the offenders.
A. Omerta
B. Code of Silence
C. Burgundian code
D. Code of Hammurabi
2. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as correctional treatment for major offenders also
responsible for the abolition of death penalty and torture as a form of punishment.
A. John Howard
B. William Penn
C. Charles Montesquieu
D. Jeremy Bentham
3. It is known as the “Age of Reason or Age of Enlightenment”
A. 1870 – 1880
B. 18th Century
C. 19th Century
D. 21st Century
4. The public will be protected if the offender has been held in conditions where he cannot harm others
especially the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders in prison so that society will be
ensured from further criminal depredations of criminals.
A. Deterrence
B. Retribution
C. Incapacitation & Protection
D. Atonement
5. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “Probare” which means ___, and has the historical
roots in the practice of judicial reprieve.
A. To make back = Reprieve
B. Parole D’ Honneur
C. Testing period
D. To test or to prove
6. What case challenged the constitutionality of the first probation law of the country?
A. People vs. Arroyo
B. Cristobal vs. Labrador
C. People vs. Medina
D. People vs. Vera
7. Which among the following states enacted a real probation law in 1898?
A. Massachusetts
B. Rhode Island
C. Vermont
D. Washington D.C.
8. As one of the conditions of Probation, how many times in a month shall the probationer report to the
probation officer?
A. Once
B. At least twice
C. More than twice
D. Four times
9. Which Court began to grant reprieve to prisoners under sentence of death on condition that they
accept deportation?
A. England
B. Europe
C. America
D. Philippine
10. Below are forms of Executive Clemency. except
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation of sentence
C. Pardon
D. Probation
11. How many years is the maximum period of probation if the offender was sentenced to an
indeterminate penalty of prison correctional in its minimum period as its minimum to prison correctional
in its maximum period as its maximum?
A. Two years
B. Four years
C. Six Years
D. Eight years
12. What portion of the sentence of a petitioner must have been served to be eligible for the grant of
commutation of sentence in case of definite sentence?
A. At least one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence
B. At least one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
C. At least one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
D. At least Twenty years
13. The Probationer and his Probation program is under the control of –
A. Probation officer
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. Parole and Probation Administration
D. Trial Court
14. The Spaniards built a prison for Political Prisoners and/or Muslim rebels in ____1869.
A. Muntinlupa
B. Puerto Pricesa City, Palawan
C. Zamboanga City
D. Panabo, Davao Del Norte Amici Review Center Page 21
15. All District Jail has covers all imprisonment with the duration of ____ based on the BJMP
Operational Manual of 2015.
A. One day to Three years
B. One day to Three years and above
C. Six months and One day to Three years
D. More than three years
16. A Minimum and Maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to as:
A. Determinate Sentence
B. Corporal Sentence
C. Indeterminate
D. Capital Punishment
17. It is the law which classifies prisoners:
A. BP 85
B. PD 29, Series 1972
C. BP 76
D. RA10592
18. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment
equivalent to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with?
A. Batas Pambansa 85
B. Batas Pambansa 22
C. Presidential Decree 968
D. House Bill 393
19. After conviction and sentence the convicted is qualified for probation he will become under the
custody and control by the PPA as?
A. Petitioner
B. Probationer
C. Parolee
D. Pardonee
20. The new law which places under the custody of the prominent persons in the community for those
who cannot post bail.
A. Bail
B. Republic Act 6036
C. Republic Act 10389
D. Article 3, Section 13
21. When the application for Probation shall be filed?
A. Within Fifteen Days
B. Within Sixty Days
C. Within Forty-five Days
D. Within Ten days
22. In the exercise of amnesty by the Chief Executive, before its implementation, it needs the
concurrence of whom?
A. Senate of the Republic of the Philippines
B. House of the Representatives
C. Board of Pardons and Parole
D. Congress of the Philippines
23. The first probation law was passed in the year 1878, in:
A. England -originate
B. Massachusetts
C. Vermont
D. Rhode Island
24. An order of the proper court allowing the temporary release of an accused to his own recognizance
or to a custodian subject to certain conditions
A. Order of Recognizance
B. Release on Recognizance
C. Order of Arrest and Recommitment
D. Bail
25. Which of the following should be a Probationer not to be done?
A. Make periodic report
B. Go and play in the gambling den
C. Work regularly to support family
D. Stay away from bad associate
26. The three controversial personality escapees of Alcatraz Federal Penitentiary and also made on the
Cinematography entitled “Escape from Alcatraz” but the investigation shows that there is no conclusive
evidence or tracing evidence the whereabouts of the escapees, and the conclusion made that the
escapees was drowned because the when the jail breaks happen there was a strong current of waters
and impossible to survive. The following are the alleged recorded escapees or missing. Except
A. Frank Lee Morris
B. John Anglin
C. Clarence Anglin
D. Allen West
27. Another form of torture similar to stocks which is v-shaped yolk worn around the neck and where
the outstretched arms of the convict were tied.
A. Stocks
B. Furca
C. Guillotine
D. Quartering
28. Who among the following stated that “the person subject to punishment should emerge a better
man, or failing that, less of wretch”?
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. Plato
C. Aristotle
D. Cesare Lombroso Amici Review Center Page 22
29. This institution was located in Rome and designated for incorrigible youth under 20 years of age
and on top of their doors an instruction was written which reads, “it is insufficient to retain the wicked
by punishment unless you render them virtuously by corrective discipline”. At night they pray and sleep
on separate cells for repentance but at day time work in a large central hall isolation solitary work in the
cells:
A. Bridewell Institution
B. Hospital of Saint Michael
C. Hospicio de San Jose
D. Hospice De San Michelle
30. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English philosopher Jeremy Bentham in
1785. The concept of the design was derived from the word meaning of “Pan” and “Opticon”. “Opticon’
means:
A. To allow an observer to observe
B. Without the prisoner
C. Avoids watching
D. To walk in military manner
31. The first juvenile court was established in 1899 was found in?
A. Illinois Chicago
B. Massachusetts
C. England
D. Philippines
32. In the 13th Century, a criminal could avoid punishment by claiming refugee in a church for a period
of ___ at the end of which time he has compelled to leave the realm by a road or path assigned to him.
A. 30 Days
B. 50 Days
C. 40 Days
D. 60 Days
33. This was chiefly a way of ridding the country of criminals, which later developed as a plan for
supplying new colonies with cheap labor. It was also an attempt to substitute for brutal punishment at
home and an opportunity for rehabilitation in a new country.
A. Benefit of Clergy
B. Judicial Reprieve
C. Recognizance
D. Transportation
34. Who was Ancient Sumerian King who issued the law that favored the imposition of justice instead of
naked vengeance?
A. Datu Kalantiao
B. Datu Sumakwel
C. King Ur-Nammu
D. King Hammurabi
35. Who was the person in England who insisted on the compromise known as the “Benefit of the
Clergy”?
A. King Henry II
B. Queen Elizabeth II
C. John Augustus
D. St. Benedict
36. He was one of the first theorists to believe that crime was something learned by normal people as
they adapted to other people and the conditions of their environment. Writing in Penal Philosophy in
1890, he viewed all social phenomena as the product of imitation or modeling.
A. Robert Merton
B. Gabriel Tarde
C. Sigmund Freud
D. Seymour Halleck
37. He was the Director of the Prisons of Valencia, Spain who divided prisoners into companies and
appointed prisoners a petty officer in charge.
A. Frédéric-Auguste Demetz
B. Manuel Montesinos
C. Zebulon Brockway
D. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
38. He opened Borstal Institution near Rochester, Kent England in 1902, which was considered as the
best reform institutions for young offenders:
A. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
B. Queen Elizabeth
C. Sir Thomas Fowell Burton
D. Sir James Mckintosh
39. Who were the British prison administrator and reformer, and founder of the Borstal system?
A. Zebulon Brockway
B. Alexander Maconochie
C. Sir Evelyn Ruggles Brise
D. James Cook
40. It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves where they were attached to workbenches and
forced to do hard labor in the period of their imprisonment.
A. Underground Cistern
B. Sing – Sing Prison
C. Ergastulum
D. Alcatraz Prison
41. When shall probation order take effect?
A. Three days after issuance
B. Three days prior to issuance
C. Upon its issuance Amici Review Center Page 23
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer
42. Close confinement (segregation cell) in a cell in BJMP shall be between ________ in any
calendar month provided that this punishment shall be imposed only in the case of an
incorrigible prisoner, when other disciplinary measured had been proven ineffective.
A. 1 day
B. 1-7 days
C. 30-60 days
D. 9 months
43. It was a first case of Pardon that restores all the rights?
A. People v. Vera
B. People v. Genosa
C. People v. Labrador
D. People v. Estrada
44. Amnesty is an act of sovereign power granting oblivion for past offense. What is the
meaning of the word “oblivion”?
A. To forgive
B. To set aside
C. To abolish
D. To forget
45. Mr. Sherwin Dela Cruz was convicted for the crime of Estafa with a penalty of 8 years of
imprisonment and he decided to appeal his case to the Court of Appeals, the Court of Appeals
gave the same judgment but his sentenced was reduced to 6 years of imprisonment and
afterwards he decided to apply for probation, is he qualified to apply for probation?
A. No, because he already chosen to appeal
B. Yes, because his sentence is a light felony
C. Yes, because the appellate court gave him a probationable judgment
D. No, because he is convicted of more than 6 years of imprisonment
46. Minimum number of times in counting the inmates on a daily basis.
A. At least two
B. At least three
C. At least four
D. At least five
47. Who has the power to grant/deny the application for parole?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. Chief Executive
C. Parole and Probation Administration
D. Court
48. Which of these laws authorizes the release of a detainee who had undergone preventive
imprisonment equivalent to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he was charged?
A. P.D. 29
B. P.D. 968
C. B.P. 85
D. Act 4103
49. Ace is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for
probation under P.D. 968?
A. No, because his crime is theft
B. No, because he is entitled for parole
C. No, because he is convicted of a crime
D. No, because he is only 17 years old
50. What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison?
A. Doing assigned prison assignment
B. Reporting illegal activities
C. Selling illegal commodities
D. Befriending a prison guard