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Fundamentals Of Nursing ( FON 2 )

Unit # 01 ( Nursing Process )

Q.1 : The nurse in charge identifies a patient's responses to actual or potential


health problems during which step of the nursing process?

A. Assessing
B. Diagnosing
C. Planning
D. Evaluating

Q.2 : A nurse is revising a client's care plan. During which step of the
nursing process does such a revision take place?

A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

Q.3 Using Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a nurse assigns the highest


priority to which client need?

A. Elimination
B. Security
C. Safety
D. Belonging

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Q.4 : The most important nursing intervention to correct skin dryness is:

A. avoid bathing until the condition is remedied and notify physician


B. ask physician to refer the patient to a dermatologist
C. Consult the dietitian about increasing fat intake, and take necessary
measures to prevent infection
D. encourage the patient to increase fluid intake, use nonirritating soap,
and apply lotion to involved areas.

Q.5 In emergency Situation, Nurse should go first for the assisment of*

A. Bone fracture

B. Circulation

C. Airway

D. Pulse

Q.6 : The nurse repositions a client who has difficulty breathing. Which nursing
action, when performed following the intervention, demonstrates evaluation?

A. Instructing the client the importance of mobility

B. Arranging the pillows behind the client's back

C. Checking the client's respiratory status

D. Changing the rate of flow for the oxygen delivery system

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Q.7: The nurse is caring for a one day postoperative client with a new
colostomy. What nursing diagnosis would be the primary concern for the nurse?

A. Activity intolerance
B. Ineffective Health Maintenance
C. Impaired bowel elimination
D. Ineffective coping

Q. 8: _______ assessments can be done with an initial assessment. They identify


new or overlooked problems. They are important because they can "flag"
existing problems.

A. Initial
B. Focused
C. On-going
D. Emergency

Q. 9: Time lapsed assessments compare current status to the ______data

A. Subjective
B. Projected
C. Objective
D. Baseline

Q.10: _____ is the conscious and deliberate use of the five senses to gather data

A. Assessment
B. Interview
C. Observation

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Q. 11: The _____ step of the nursing process interprets and analyzes data
gathered

A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Implementation
D. Evaluation

Q. 12: A permanent, confidential, legal collection of medical information that


includes assessments, implementations, evaluations, management plans, and
progress notes.

A. Care Tracker
B. Resident Care plan
C. Resident Medical Record
D. ADLs

Q. 13: Which is not included in care plans?

A. level of independence in ADLs


B. treatments
C. statement of issues
D. none of the above

Q. 14: What is the purpose of the nursing process?

A. Assist family members to make healthcare decisions.


B. Provide nurses with a framework to deliver comprehensive care.
C. Help other healthcare professionals know what is going on with the client.
D. Organize information so the nurse knows what is wrong with the client.

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Q. 15: Assessment includes:

A. Subjective findings
B. Physical findings
C. Social information
D. All of the above

Q. 16: Which of the following is objective data?

A. Pain 5/10
B. Temp 100.3
C. Complaints of fatigue
D. Client states "I am sleepy."

Q.17: Which of the following are subjective?

A. WBC 8,000
B. X ray results
C. Complains of hunger
D. Report from surgeon

Q. 18: Analysis of subjective and objective data leads to which outcome?

A. The cause of the surgeon's behavior.


B. Information for the family.
C. Conclusions about skills of nurse.
D. Accurate nursing diagnosis.

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Q. 19: What is the North American Nursing Diagnosis Association (NANDA)
responsible for?

A. Determine independent nursing diagnosis and action.


B. Support NLN in making new diagnosis.
C. Establishing and determining new diagnosis for allied health.
D. Developing criteria for collaborative practice between nursing and MD.

Q. 20: The planning stage of the nursing process involves:

A. Outcomes and goals


B. Goals, outcomes, and interventions
C. Interventions based on medical diagnosis.
D. Goals based on medical diagnosis.

Q. 21: Client outcomes include which of the following?

A. Actions of the client to accomplish goals.


B. Cues clustered to enhance diagnostic goals.
C. List of unit policies and procedures.
D. Staff credentials and goals for renewal.

Q. 22: Which of the following is true about interventions?

A. They assist with data collection.


B. Connect patient goals and outcomes.
C. They are broadly applied to all patients.
D. Improve relationship between nursing staff and allied health.

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Q. 23: During the evaluation stage,

A. Determine progress toward goals completion.


B. Assess outcomes for completion.
C. Edit nursing care plan.
D. All of the above

Q. 24: If the client has not completed the plan, but the goal is still relevant

A. Create a new plan.


B. Initiate new interventions.
C. Reassess in 24 hours.
D. Adjust diagnosis to suit outcome.

Q. 25: The stem part of the nursing diagnosis statement guides the nurse in
developing which other part of the nursing care plan?

A. goal/outcome
B. intervention
C. evaluation
D. etiology

Q. 26: What are two types of nursing diagnosis?

A. direct and indirect


B. independent and collaborative
C. actual and potential
D. independent and dependent

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Q. 27: Which of the following are valid sources for patient assessment data?

A. patient's family
B. medical record/chart
C. healthcare team
D. All of the above

Q. 28: The medical diagnosis is never included as a part of the nursing diagnosis.

A. True
B. False

Q. 29: The implementation phase of the nursing care plan should include:

A. evaluation of the nursing care plan


B. patient teaching
C. identifying a nursing diagnosis
D. selection of the nursing diagnosis

Q. 30: Goals and outcomes should be:

A. written after determining patient interventions


B. written before developing a nursing diagnosis
C. evaluated based on doctor's orders
D. evaluated and labeled as met, unmet, partially met

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Q. 31: Which of the following will help the nurse prioritize needs?

A. identifying a problem, cause of the problem, and defining characteristics


B. ensuring assessment data is thorough and complete
C. utilization of Maslow's Hierarchy
D. assessment, teaching, and evaluation

Q. 32: The nurse understands the following statement " The patient will reduce
his risk of falls by correct use of his walker each time him ambulates" is an
example of...

A. nursing diagnosis
B. outcome
C. goal
D. intervention

Q. 33: It is important to document: (select all that apply)

A. only what the patient tells you


B. what you as the nurse observe
C. what you as the nurse interpret or infer from the data collected
D. nursing history and physical assessment

Q. 34: What is the first and most critical step in the nursing process, and
accuracy of the data collected affects all other phases of the nursing process

A. Planning
B. Assessment
C. Diagnosis
D. Evaluating

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Q. 35: The nurse knows which intervention is a dependent intervention?

A. Obtaining a client's BP
B. Massaging a client's back
C. Administering medications to a client
D. Assessing a client's lung sounds

Q. 36: A ________ is performed to identify a life-threatening problem (choking,


stab wound, heart attack).

A. Initial assessment
B. Focus assessment
C. Emergency assessment
D. Critical assessment

Q. 37: Nursing Process is accepted for clinical practice established by the ___?

A. NANDA
B. WHO
C. ANA
D. None of the above

Q. 38: A nurse is performing an initial assessment for a client. Which of the


following would be considered subjective information received during the
assessment?

A. The client has a pinpoint rash on the face and trunk


B. The client's blood pressure increases when the provider enters the
room
C. The client rates pain at a level of 6 on the numeric rating scale
D. The client weighs 186 pounds

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Q. 39: A nurse is assessing a client who is being admitted to the hospital from
home for knee surgery. Which part of the assessment would be included with
an admission assessment but not with a routine focused assessment?

A. Assessment of the client's vital signs


B. Assessment of the client's pain
C. Assessment of knee range of motion
D. Assessment of the cause of the client's knee injury

Q. 40: The nurse is planning care for a client and prioritizes health promotion
and accident prevention. Which of the following age groups does this
client most likely fall into, with accidents and injuries from recreational
activities as the main health concern?

A. Middle adulthood
B. Adolescence
C. Early adulthood
D. School age

Q. 41: A nurse is caring for a client who has been sexually abused. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse implement to establish rapport and to
demonstrate safety?

A. Let the client spend time alone in a quiet area


B. Delay treatment until the client can talk about the situation
C. Assess the client's stress level before performing procedures
D. Respond to shocking information by ignoring or disregarding the
account

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Q. 42: Evaluation are further in which two forms are considered?

A. Formative
B. Summative
C. Outcomes
D. Both a and b

Q. 43: Which phase of nursing process is based on critical thinking?

A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Diagnosis
D. Interventions

Q. 44: The signature of nurse on documentation represent which role of nurse ?

A. Care giver
B. Accountable
C. Reflective
D. Commitment

Q. 45: Nursing process developed on based of which theory and by whom ?

A. Nursing theory, Ida jean Orlando


B. Environmental theory, Florence nightingale
C. need based theory, Maslow
D. Skills based ,verginia

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Q. 46: How many format in which weh formulate our diagnosis?

A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One

Q. 47: Checking of vital signs comes in which types of nursing interventions?

A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Collaborative
D. Non of them

Q. 48: When the sign are abesnt but their chance that they have suffer from it
it's comes in which status of nursing diagnosis?

A. ACTUAL
B. RISK
C. POSSIBLE
D. SYNDROME

Q. 49: When nurse documents in nursing diagnosis that clients have disturb
body image so in medical diagnosis which term written by physician?

A. CvA
B. Amputation
C. Post tractoetomy
D. Non of them

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Q. 50: The ongoing phase of nursing process are

A. Assessment
B. Planning
C. Evaluation
D. Daignose

The End!
Answer keys are uploaded to our Youtube channel,
Also discussed with Full Rationals!
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mcqs. You can get all chapter wise Mcqs by joining us.

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Q.01 : A state of mind which regards a thing to be true is called..

A. Value
B. Religion
C. Bilief
D. Attitude

Q. 02 : Values can be divided into ____ levels of expressions.

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Q.03 : Beliefs that are regarded as so valuable and obviously correct are called..

A. Values
B. Attitudes
C. Assumptions
D. Ethics

Q.04 : Beliefs can be influenced by which of the following factors:

A. Religion
B. Experience
C. Knowledge
D. All of the above

Q.05 : Code is any system of principles , rules or regulations relating to ___ subject.

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

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Q.06 : I get really upset when i hear about cruelty to children and animals. The sentence resembles.

A. Value
B. Belief
C. Honesty
D. Attitude

Q.07 : The set of principles in the form of religion, political affiliation and spirituality that helps us to
interpret our everyday reality.

A. Health Care System


B. Welfare System
C. Belief System
D. Humanity

Q.08 : "I believe I am a good nurse" What type of belief this sentence resembles.

A. Existentialism
B. Commendatory
C. Self Belief
D. All of the Above

Q.09 : "Should you choose a dangerous proffession" The sentence shows which value Conflict?

A. Loyalty - Honesty
B. Tradition - Novelty
C. Security - Excitement
D. None of the Above

Q.10 : Which type of belief do Muslims keep?

A. Monotheism
B. Polytheism
C. Existentialism
D. Both A & C

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Q.11 : "Beliefs about what is desirable or good and what is bad"

A. Religious Belief
B. Honesty
C. Humanity
D. None of the Above

Q.12 : Values are basically beliefs which helps you:

A. To behave good
B. To distinguish between good and bad
C. To give justice to everyone
D. All of the above

Q.13 : How many types of values are there?

A. Four
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven

Q.14 : Religious values are based on ..

A. Family's Belief
B. Religious Norms
C. Scriptures
D. Both B & C

Q.15 : Which of the following values are personal values?

A. Wisdom, athenticity, trustworthy


B. Honesty, reliability, trust
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above

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Q.16 : Which of the following value helps you connected to a larger community of people?

A. Humanistic Value
B. Religious Value
C. Cultural Value
D. Social Value

Q.17 : Which of the following Value proclaims the importance of individual?

A. Personal Value
B. Democratic Value
C. Humanistic Value
D. Cultural Value

Q.18 : People having which of the following value posts that humans are basically Good?

A. Personal Value
B. Cultural Value
C. Religious Value
D. Optimistic Value

Q.19 : Which of the following value demonstrates the right of individual people?

A. Personal Value
B. Humanistic Value
C. Democratic Value
D. Cultural Value

Q.20 : Recitation Is the example of which type of value?

A. Rituals
B. Religious values
C. Personal Values
D. Both A & B

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Q.21 : Values are learned through the following except.

A. Observation and experience


B. Teachers
C. Family
D. Children

Q.22 : Values are highly influenced by:

A. Teachers
B. Parents
C. Scholars
D. Friends

Q.23 : Through which of the following we can close the gab between a person's values and behavior?

A. Health System
B. Reward System
C. Belief System
D. Justice

Q.24 : Who identified five values essential for professional nurse?

A. ANA
B. PNC
C. WHO
D. AACN

Q.25 : "Should you tell your parents about sister's drug habit" The Sentence shows which Value
Conflict?

A. Tradition- Novelty
B. Security - Safety
C. Loyalty - Honesty
D. Equality - Individualism

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Q.26 : To behave in accordance with society is called

A. Value
B. Belief
C. Norms
D. Culture

Q.27 : Values are not

A. Static
B. Stable
C. Constant
D. Variable

Q.28 : Which one of these ways do we NOT use our values for?

A. Making decisions
B. Setting your alarm
C. Choosing a career that you will enjoy
D. Evaluating the people and things in your life

Q.29 : Which one is NOT an example of an intrinsic value?

A. Happiness
B. Education
C. Love
D. Respect

Q.30 : Can values change?

A. Yes
B. No

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BsN 2nd Semester

Fundamentals Of Nursing ||

Unit # 03 Self Concept \ Self Perception

Q.01 : Self Concept is an individual conceptualization about how he thinks about _____.

A. Others
B. Himself
C. Community
D. People

Q.02 : Self Concept is a subjective sense of _____ thoughts , attitude and perceptions.

A. Conscious
B. Unconscious
C. Personal
D. Both A & B

Q.03 : How many dimensions of self Concept are?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Q.04 : ______ is how a person perceived by others and society.

A. Self Concept
B. Self Esteem
C. Self Belief
D. Social Self

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Q.05 : Self Concept is defined as :

A. One's thoughts about others


B. One's thoughts about one's self
C. One's mental image of one's self
D. Both B & C

Q.06 : "Self Concept is an individual conceptualization about how he thinks about himself" (_______)?

A. Dougles "1966"
B. Erikson "1977"
C. Darl Bem "1988"
D. Brown "1998"

Q.07: Self perceptions leads to :

A. Self Concept
B. Self Schema
C. Perception
D. None of the above

Q.08: _______ is the ability to see,hear or become aware of something through the sences.

A. Perception
B. Self perception
C. Self Concept
D. Self Schema

Q.09: Self Esteem comes through:

A. Cognitive Aspects
B. Behavioral Aspects
C. Affective Aspects
D. None of the above

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Q.10: William James expressed the relationship like :

A. Self Concept = pretension / success


B. Self Esteem = pretension/ success
C. Self Concept= success/ pretension
D. Self Esteem= success/ pretension

Q.11: ______ reflects the achieving difference between an individual's actual self Concept and ideal
self image.

A. Self Concept
B. Self Schema
C. Self Esteem
D. Self perception

Q.12: Influential Self Perception Theory was given by :

A. Dougles "1966"
B. Erikson "1977"
C. Darl Bem "1972"
D. Brown "1998"

Q.13: There are ____mechanisms of self Concept.

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Q.14: The judgement of personal performance compared with self ideal is called :

A. Self Concept
B. Self Shcema
C. Self Esteem
D. Self Perception

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Q.15: A person develops high self Esteem when he or she receives _______ feedback.

A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Collaborative
D. All of the above

Q.16: Self expectations develop unconsciously in :

A. Adulthood
B. Childhood
C. Old Age
D. None of the above

Q.17: How mamy developmental stages do Erikson theory have?

A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Eight

Q.18: The developmental task "loyalty & friendship" develops in which age?

A. Childhood
B. School age
C. Old age
D. Adolescence

Q.19: In Infancy which stage of development develops?

A. Intimacy vs isolation
B. Initiative vs guilt
C. Trust vs Mistrust
D. Integrity vs Despair

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Q.20: Erikson's Theory was related to :

A. Physiological development
B. Psychological development
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

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Multiple choice
­questions: ANSWERS
Chapter 1. The biopsychosocial model of chronic pain
1. Approximately how many US adults have a chronic pain ­condition?
d. 100 million
2. Who proposed the gate-control theory of pain?
c. Melzack
3. The stimulation of nerves that convey information to the brain
about possible tissue damage refers to what?
a. Nociception
4. The major consequence of homeostatic imbalance is:
d. Stress
5. The biopsychosocial model of pain is viewed as:
b. The most heuristic approach
Chapter 2. Assessment of chronic pain
1. Of those listed, which type(s) of psychological symptoms are the
most prevalent in the chronic pain patients?
e. b and c
2. Which of the following statements is not supported by content
from this chapter?
d. There are psychological assessments of chronic pain that
can definitively identify whether a patient is ‘faking’ their
pain symptoms.
3. As discussed in the chapter, what is one of the primary factors that
contributed to the establishment of the ‘biopsychosocial model?’
c. The recognition by clinicians that there was often no ob-
servable correlation between the extent of tissue damage
and the severity of pain and dysfunction
For reprint orders, please contact: reprints@futuremedicine.com
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4. Which of the following formal measures are often used with the
assessment of chronic pain patients?
e. All of the above
5. Which of the following formal measures is not used for the assess-
ment of opioid misuse risk with chronic pain patients?
d. Screen for Opioid Dependence and Abuse (SODA)
6. An Interdisciplinary Evaluation with chronic pain patients involves
what type(s) of treatment provider(s)?
e. All of the above
Chapter 3. Interdisciplinary treatment of chronic pain
1. Chronic pain conditions:
d. All of the above
2. What is the range for prevalence of chronic pain?
b. 2–40%
3. In what way do interdisciplinary and multidisciplinary programs
differ?
b. The way in which disciplines communicate and work
­together
4. Interdisciplinary treatment programs can do which of the
­following?
c. a&b
5. Interdisciplinary chronic pain management teams do not typically
include which of the following?
d. Nutritionist
6. Which medications should be used cautiously in treating temporo-
mandibular disorders (TMDs)?
d. All of the above
7. What is the greatest advantage to including cognitive behavioral
therapy (CBT) in the treatment of TMDs?
c. Improvements in TMD symptoms are more likely to be main-
tained over the long term in patients receiving CBT; patients
not receiving CBT are more likely to relapse

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8. How much improvement in fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) symptoms
can be expected with medications alone?
b. 30% reduction in symptoms for 50% of patients
9. Which of the following interventions is most effective in reducing
pain intensity in FMS patients?
a. CBT
10. In what areas has functional restoration been found to be an
­effective approach in treating chronic musculoskeletal pain?
d. All of the above
Chapter 4. Chronic pain in a specific population: low back
1. Which of the following have been associated with the development
of chronic low back pain disorders?
d. All of the above
2. Which type of approach is commonly used to assess and treat
patients with chronic low back pain?
b. Biopsychosocial approach
3. Which of the following is not a key predictor of the development
of chronic back pain (based on the study by Gatchel et al. 2008)?
b. Male gender
4. The most successful workplace interventions aimed at preventing
low back injuries are:
d. Developed for specific occupations
5. The three types of treatment for patients with musculoskeletal
pain are:
c. Primary, secondary and tertiary
Chapter 5. Chronic pain in a specific population: temporoman-
dibular joint and muscle disorders
1. Temporomandibular joint and muscle disorders (TMJD) are
­common among:
c. Middle-aged females
2. The most common TMJD diagnosis is:
b. Myofascial pain

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3. Recommendations are that TMJD patients be treated first with:
a. Conservative reversible therapies
4. TMJD involve both physical and psychosocial symptoms.
a. True
5. What can be used to treat TMJD?
d. All of the above
6. Which assessment is used to systematically diagnose TMJD?
b. Research Diagnostic Criteria
7. What are/is considered a risk factor for developing TMJD?
d. Joint laxity
Chapter 6. Chronic pain in a specific population: fibromyalgia
syndrome
1. Pathophysiology of fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) is likely to involve:
c. Dysregulation of central pain modulation
2. Diagnostic criteria for classifying FMS include (check all that apply):
a. Presence and extent of widespread pain
d. Symptom severity
3. Evidence suggests the best choice of pharmacotherapy for FMS to
be (check all that apply):
b. Antiepleptic
c. Tricyclics
d. Serotonin–norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
4. The use of hypnotics is strongly recommended
c. No
5. When the patient experiences severe aggravation of pain follow-
ing ­exercise
b. Lower the intensity/duration but maintain the frequency
Chapter 8. Measurement of outcomes & minimal clinically impor-
tant difference
1. What is the correct term to describe an ability of an instrument to
detect clinically meaningful change over time?
b. Responsiveness

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2. Choose the sentence that best describes a minimal clinically
­important difference (MCID):
a. The smallest change or difference in outcome measure
that is perceived as beneficial
3. Choose the MCID calculation method that is not related to
distribution-based approach?
­

c. Sensitivity and specificity


4. What is not a limitation of the anchor-based MCID calculation?
c. Provides possible MCID scores on self-report question-
naires for making the distinction between functionally
improved and nonimproved patients
5. What is a limitation of the distribution-based MCID calculation?
d. Where a person falls on a scale alters the degree to which
a change in score can be interpreted as meaningful

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MCQS OF FON.
CONCEPT OF SLEEP.

1. — is a basic human need.


• Walk
• Food
• Sleep✓
2. — Enhance day time functioning, and it’s vital for cognitive,
physiological and psychosocial function.
• Sleeping✓
• Walking
• Running
3. Sleep is a state of — condition.
• Consciousness
• Unconsciousness✓
• None of these
4. When we sleep our — activity.
• Chemical
• Physical✓
• Psychological
5. — is a condition in which the body is in a decreased state of
activity without with out physical emotional stress and freedom
from anxiety.
• Walk
• Rest ✓
• Sleep
6. Rest refer to the state of — both physical and mental .
• Relaxation
• Calmness
• Both a & b✓
7. The two types of sleep are .
• NREM
• REM
• Both a & b✓
8. EEG pattern , eye movement and muscle activity are used to
identify the — .
• Sleep stage✓
• Walking stage
• Weeping stage
9. The sleep cycle are complete — in min .
• 140 – 120
• 90 – 120 ✓
• 120 – 140
10. About 75% - 80% Of sleep during night is — sleep.
• NREM✓
• REM
• None of these
11. NREM sleep previously divided in to — stages .
• 4✓
• 2
• 3

2
12. When the person is relax and drowsy , eye roll side to side and
heart rate drop slightly this stage are called.
• NREM STAGE 2
• NREM STAGE 3
• NREM STAGE 1 ✓
13. Stage 1 sleep is very light sleep and only a few — .
• Minutes✓
• Hours
• Seconds
14. Light sleep during which body process continue to slow down
and body temp falls.
• Stage 1
• Stage 2 ✓
• None of these
15. When a person is in stage 2 to awaken him such as .
• Touching
• Shaking
• Both of them✓
16. The stage 3 of sleep is are —.
• Deepest stage✓
• Light stage
• Normal stage
17. During deep sleep or delta sleep, the sleeper’s heart and
respiratory rate drop .
• 20% to 30%✓
• 40% to 60%
• 10% to 20%
18. During deep sleep — is most likely to occur .
• Snoring✓
• Talking
• Walking
19. — stage is essential for restoring energy and releasing important
growth hormone.
• Stage 2
• Stage 3✓
• Stage 1

3
20. Physiological changes during NREM sleep occur .
• Cardiac out put decrease
• Skeletal muscles relaxed
• Both a & b✓
21. During — sleep brain is highly active.
• NREM
• REM✓
• Both a & b
22. In REM sleep the brain metabolism increased as much as.
• 40%
• 30%
• 20%✓
23. Most dream take place in .
• REM✓
• NREM
• None of these
24. During sleep when BMR increase, lower jaw relaxed and muscle
tone is depressed are called what type of sleep stage.
• NREM
• REM✓
• Both a & b
25. The average amount of sleep needed for new born .
• 15 – 16 hour
• 14 – 18 hour✓
• 20 – 21 hour
26. Sleeping range for 13 to 21 year .
• 8 – 9 hour✓
• 10 – 12 hour
• 14 – 15 hour
27. Age , environment , fatigue and psychological stress are factor —
sleep.
• Affecting✓
• Effecting
• None of these
28. The major function of sleep is to .
• Waste our energy

4
• Balance digestion
• Conserve energy✓
29. The absence of sleep are called.
• Insomnia✓
• Dyspnea
• Apnea
30. It’s a condition where the affected individual obtains sufficient
sleep at night but still can not awake during the day this
condition are known as .
• Parasomnia
• Hypersomnia✓
• None of these
31. Narcolepsy is a disorder of excessive day time sleepiness caused
by lack of the chemical — called.
• Thyroxin
• GH
• Hypocretin✓
32. Parasomnia is a disorder of sleep that may — even occur during
sleep.
• Interfere with sleep✓
• No interfere with sleep
• None of these
33. Enuresis is — usually occur when arrouse from NREM 3 & 4.
• Bed wetting✓
• Sleep walking
• None of these
34. Clenching of teeth, usually occur during stage 2 .
• Sleep apnea
• Bruxism✓
• Sleep deprivation
35. Intermittent stopping of breathing during sleep due to
obstruction of the airway or nervous system called.
• Bruxism
• Sleep apnea ✓
• None of them

5
36. Apnea during sleep, more than 5 time apneic episode or 5
breathing pauses longer than 10 seconds pet hour is considered
abnormal sleep.
• Sleep apnea✓
• Sleep deprivation
• Somnambulism
37. There are — common type of sleep apnea.
• 3✓
• 4
• 5
38. — occur when the structure of the pharynx or oral cavity block
the flow of air .
• Obstructive apnea ✓
• Central apnea
• None of these
39. — involved a defect in the respiratory center of the brain .
• Central apnea✓
• Mixed apnea
• None of these
40. The use of a nasal continuous positive airway pressure — device
at night is effective in maintaining an open air way .
• BIPAP
• CPAP✓
• Both a & b
41. Sleep is measured objectively in a sleep disorder by laboratory
test are called.
• ECG
• EEG
• Polysomnography✓
42. Administer analgesic take — min before sleep.
• 40 min
• 30 min ✓
• 60 min
43. — 2 to 3 hours before bed time .
• Use heavy meal
• Avoid heavy meal✓

6
• None of them

7
Mcqs of fON
Topic : concept of stress.

1. — is a condition in which an individual


experiences change in the normal balance
state.
• Stress✓
• Pain
• Sleep
2. A — is any event or stimulus that cause an
individual to experience stress.
• Response
• Stressor ✓
• Coping
3. Nurses can use these models to assist client in
—.
• Strengthening healthy coping✓
• Strengthening un healthy coping
• None of these
4. These are — main models of stress .
• 3✓
• 2
• 4
5. A stress is defined as a stimulus, a life event or
set of circumstances that arouses
physiological or psychological reactions.
• Stimulus – based models✓
• Response – based
• None of these
6. The nonspecific response of the body to any
kind of demand upon it .
• Stimulus – based models
• GAS

2
• Response – based models✓
7. Selyes stress response is characterized by a
chain or pattern of physiological events called
the .
• GAS ✓
• Transaction – based models
• None of these
8. Han selye — founder of stress theory.
• 1907 – 1982✓
• 1908 – 1985
• 1883 – 1992
9. Selyes 1976 proposed that both the GAS have
the — stages .
• 4
• 3✓
• 2
10. The initial reaction of the body is the —
which alert the body defense.
• Alarm reaction✓
• Resistance
• Exhaustion
11. In this stage the body attempts to cope with
the stressor .
• Resistance✓

3
• Alarm reaction
• None of these
12. When the body has used up it’s adaptive
energy and can no longer cope with stressor.
• Exhaustion✓
• Resistance
• None of these
13. Although Lazarus (2006) recognizes that
certain environment demand and pressure
produced stress in — substantial number of
people.
• Alarm reaction
• Transaction model✓
• None of these
14. Sweating, heart rate increase , headache
are — .
• Physiologic✓
• Psychological
• Both a & b
15. Anxiety, fear and anger are — .
• Physiologic
• Psychological✓
• None of these
16. A common reaction to stress is —.

4
• Fear
• Anxiety ✓
• Anger
17. — is an emotion or feelings of
apprehension arrouse by impending or
seeming danger , pain or another perceive
threat.
• Fear ✓
• Depression
• Both a & b
18. — is an emotional state consisting of a
subjective feeling of animosity or strong
displeasure.
• Anger✓
• Anxiety
• Fear
19. — an extreme feeding of sadness, despair,
dejection, lack of worth ,or emptiness.
• Depression✓
• Fear
• Anger
20. — may be described as dealing with
change successfully or unsuccessfully.
• Coping✓

5
• Fear
• Anxiety
21. Refer to efforts that improve situation by
making changes or taking some change .
• Problem – focused coping✓
• Emotions – focused coping
• None of these
22. It includes thought and action that relieve
emotional distress.
• Emotions – focused coping✓
• Problem focused coping
• None of these
23. Destructive or damaging for person.
• Short term coping✓
• Long term coping
• None of these
24. Constructive and realistic are — .
• Long term coping✓
• Short term coping
• None of these
25. Help person to deal effectively with
stressful events .
• Adaptive coping✓
• Maladaptive coping

6
• None of these
26. These strategies can cause un necessary
distress for person.
• Maladaptive copin✓
• Adaptive coping
• None of these
27. The way to cope anxiety and stress are .
• Exercise
• Massage
• Both a & b ✓
28. Nursing history stressor , manifestation of
stress , past and present coping.
• Assessment✓
• Diagnosis
• Both a & b
29. Encouraging health promotion and
mediating anger are.
• Diagnosis
• Implementation✓
• Assessment

7
MCQS OF FON
Topic : concept of stress and
coping.

1. — is a condition in which
person experience changes normal
balance state.
• Stress✓
• Pain
• Illness
2. A — is any situation, event ,
stimulus, or agent that cause an
individual to experience stress.
• Stress
• Stressor✓
• None of these
3. There are — sources of stress.
• 5
• 4✓
• 3
4. — originate with in a
individual .
• Internal stressor ✓
• External stressor
• Stressor
5. — originate outside the
individual.
• Internal stressor
• External stressor✓
• None of these

2
6. Development stressor occur at
— throughout an individual life.
• Unpredictable
• Predictable✓
• None of these
7. — are unpredictable and may
occur at any time during life.
• Development stressor
• Situational stressor✓
• None of these
8. There are — effects of stress
the whole person.
• 5✓
• 4
• 3
9. Physically stress can threaten a
person’s — homeostasis.
• Physiological✓
• Psychological
• None of these
10. Emotionally stress can
produce— feeling about the self .

3
• Positive
• Negative✓
• Neutral
11. — , stress can influence
persons perceptual and problem
solving abilities.
• Socially
• Spiritually
• Intellectually ✓
12. — stress can alter a person
relationship with other.
• Socially✓
• Physically
• None of these
13. — may be described as dealing
with change successfully or
unsuccessfully .
• Coping✓
• Stressful
• None of these
14. There are — approaches to
coping with stress are .

4
• 3✓
• 4
• 5
15. — of stress are thinking
response that includes problem
solving , structuring , self control.
• Cognitive indicator✓
• Coping
• None of these
16. — is the arrangements or
manipulation of a situation so
threatening event do not occur.
• Self – control
• Structuring✓
• Suppression
17. — is assuming manner and
facial expressions that convey a
sense of being in control or in
change.
• Suppression
• Self control✓
• Structuring

5
18. Unfilled wishes and desire are
imagine as fulfilled , or a
threatening experience is
reworked or replayed so it ends
differently from reality.
• Fantasy✓
• Suppression
• Self control
19. — are the unconscious mind
working to protect the person from
anxiety .
• Defense mechanism✓
• Denial
• None of these
20. Blocking out painful or anxiety
inducing event or feelings.
• Defense mechanism
• Denial✓
• None of these
21. Discharging pent up feeling on
people loss dangerous than those
who initially aroused thd emotion.

6
• Introjection
• Displacement✓
• Denial
22. — unconscious assumption of
similarity between one self and
another .
• Identification✓
• Introjection
• Denial
23. Acceptance of another values
and opinions as one’s own .
• Introjection✓
• Reaction formulation
• None of these
24. Classification of experience
through the construction of logical
or social approved explanation of
behavior.
• Reaction formulation
• Rationalization✓
• None of these

7
8

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