Lis 3000 MCQ

UGC NET Library Science Unitwise MCQ
UGC NET
Library and Information Science
Code -59
Unit Wise Questions Answer 3000 + [MCQ]
 Thoroughly Revised and Updated

 Detailed Analysis of all MCQ
 As Per Current Exam Pattern
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Unit -1 MCQs 3. 1 is true and 2 is False

4. 2 is True and 1 is False
1. Which organization identified following
Answer: A is true and B is False
factor of Digital Divide ?
4. Statement 1. A community of practice is
1. Economic resources
an informal group of people in an
2. Geography organization with a common professional
3. Age interest.
4. Gender Statement 2. Information systems can also
5. Language provide knowledge networks for linking
people so that tacit knowledge can be
6. Education
shared.
7. Employment
1. Both 1 and 2 is True
1. IFLA
2. Bother 1 and 2 is False
2. UNESCO
3. 1 is true and 2 is False
3. ALA
4. 2 is True and 1 is False
4. ACRL
Answer: 1
Answer: UNESCO
5. Statement 1. Knowledge assets are as
2. Who lists four basic epistemological important as physical and financial assets
Propositions that serves as a framework of for competitive advantage and survival.
knowledge in LIS
Statement 2. One of the primary
1. Empiricism advantages of expert systems is their
2. Rationalism: ability to perform a variety of tasks.
3. Historicism 1. Both 1 and 2 is True
4. Pragmatism 2. Bother 1 and 2 is False
1. Ranganathan 3. 1 is true and 2 is False
2. Ackoff 4. 2 is True and 1 is False
3. Hjorland Answer: 3
4. Dewey 6. Under RTI Act 2005, the information is
Answer: Hjorland provided to the applicant free of cost?
3. Statement 1. Expert system benefits i. If the applicant is a BPL person
include reduced errors, reduced cost, ii. Where a public authority fails to provide
reduced training time, improved decisions, information within 30 days of receipt of
and improved quality and service. application
Statement 2. Knowledge workers are iii. Where a public authority fails to
skilled at avoiding information overload. provide information within 45 days of
1. Both 1 and 2 is True receipt of application
2. Bother 1 and 2 is False a) (i) only
b) (ii) only d) The Chief information Commissioner

c) (iii) only and such number of Central Information
Commissioners not exceeding three as may
d) Both (i) and (ii)
be deemed necessary.
Answer: d
Answer: a
7. Under RTI Act 2005 which of the
9. Who can place an Information
following statements is correct?
Commissioner under suspension?
i. lnformation, the disclosure of which
i. The President of India
would cause a breach of privilege of
Parliament can be denied ii. The Prime Minister of India
ii. lnformation, the disclosure of which iii. The Chief Justice of India
would cause a breach of privilege of State a) (i) only
Legislature can be denied b) (i) and (ii) only
iii. lnformation, the disclosure of which c) (i) and (iii) only
would cause a breach of privilege of
d) All the above
Parliament cannot be denied
Answer: a
iv. lnformation, the disclosure of which
would cause a breach of privilege of State 10. Choose the correct option as per
Legislature cannot be denied section 13 (5) of RTI Act 2005?
a) (i) and (ii) only a) The salaries and allowances payable to
and other terms and conditions of service
b) (ii) and (iii) only
of Chief Information Commissioner is the
c) (iii) and (iv) only same as that of the Chief Election
d) (iv) and (i) only Commissioner.
Answer: a b) The salaries and allowances payable to
8. As per section 12 (2) of RTI Act 2005, the and other terms and conditions of service
Central Information Commission shall of Chief Information Commissioner is the
consist of: same as that of the Chief Justice of High
Court.
a) The Chief information Commissioner
and such number of Central Information c) The salaries and allowances payable to
Commissioners not exceeding ten as may and other terms and conditions of service
be deemed necessary. of Chief Information Commissioner is the
same as that of the Justice of High Court.
b) The Chief information Commissioner
and such number of Central Information d) The salaries and allowances payable to
Commissioners not exceeding five as may and other terms and conditions of service
be deemed necessary. of Chief Information Commissioner is the
same as that of the Justice of Supreme
c) The Chief information Commissioner and
Court
such number of Central Information
Commissioners not exceeding two as may Answer: a
be deemed necessary.
11. It shall be of the duty of the Central ii. Can requisition any public record or
Information Commission to receive and copies thereof from any court or office,
enquire into a complaint from any person iii. Cannot receive evidence on affidavit
i. Who has not been given a response to a like a Civil Court does.
request for information or access to a) (i) only
information within the time limit specified
b) (iii) only
under RTI Act 2005.
c) (ii) only
ii. Who has been required to pay an
amount of fee which he or she consider d) (i) and (iii) only
unreasonable; Answer: c
iii. Issuing summons for examination of 14. Who can file an appeal against the
witnesses or documents. decision of the CPIO under RTI Act?
a) (i) only i. The information seeker
b) (ii) only ii. The Third party aggrieved by the order
c) (iii) only of the CPIO
d) All of above iii. Any citizen
Answer: d Options:
12. The Central Information Commission a) (i) only
while inquiring into any matter under b) (i) and (ii) only
section 18 of RTI Act; c) (iii) only
i. Cannot compel a person to give written d) (ii) and (iii) only
evidence on oath like a Civil Court does. Answer: b
ii. Can compel a person to give written
15. Which one of the following statements
evidence on oath like a Civil Court does. is true?
iii. Can enforce that attendance of a person
i. In any appellate proceedings the onus
like a Civil Court does
lies on CPIO to prove that he acted
Options : diligently
a) (ii) and (iii) only ii. ln any appellate proceedings the onus
b) (iii) and (i) only lies on information seeker to prove that
c) (i) and (ii) only the CPIO did not act diligently.
d) (i) only iii. The Information Commission does not
have powers to recommend disciplinary
Answer: a
action against CPIO.
13. The Central Information Commission
Options :
while inquiring into any matter under
section 18 of RTI Act; a) (i) only
i. Cannot requisition any public record or b) (ii) only
copies thereof from any court or office, c) (ii) and (iii) only

d) (i) and (ii) only 2. facts acquired through education

Answer: a 3. information acquired through
16. Which of the following statements is experience
true? 4. information acquired through education
i. Which information sought for is in a. 1 &2
respect of allegations of violation of b. 1&3
human rights by security agencies, it shall
c. 2&4
only be provided after the approval of
Central Government. d. 1,2,3&4
ii. Information is respect of allegations of Answer: d
violation of human rights by security 19. Plagiarism means
agencies is fully exempt from disclosure 1) Verbatim lifting of passages without
under RTI Act. crediting the source
iii. When information sought for is in 2) To steal or theft of other's work and
respect of allegations of violation of claim it as own
human rights by security agencies, it shall 3) Paraphrasing the original work without
only be provided after the approval of any attribution
Central Information Commission.
4) All the above
Options:
1. 1
a) (i) only
2. 3
b) (ii) only
3. 4
c) (iii) only
4. 2
d) (i) and (iii) only
Answer: 4
Answer: c
20. Content Management System possess
17. Data is
the following characteristics
1. Facts
(A) It is a static system
2. Figures
(B) Provides an interface for content
3. Statistics providers to add their content
4. anecdote (C) Knowledge of HTML is not mandatory
a. 1&2 (D) It holds only unstructured data
b. 1,2&3 Choose the correct answer from the
c. 2&3 options given below:
d. 1,2,3&4 1. (A) and (B) only
Answer: d 2. (B) and (C) only
18. Knowledge is 3. (C) and (D) only
1. facts acquired through experience 4. (A) and (D) only

Answer: 2 (i) SYNTagmatic Organisation

21. Match the following: (w) Vannevar Bush
Language (SYNTOL)
List I List II
(ii) As We May Think (x) E.
(i) Term List (w)
Sverconius
Ontologies
(iii) How to Do Research (y) J. C.
(ii) Categories (x)
Gardin
System software
(iv) The Intellectual Foundation
(iii) Relationship List (y)
(z) Nick Moore of
Taxonomy
Information Organisation
(iv) Emulators (z)
Codes:
Glossaries
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Codes:
(A) (w) (x) (y) (z)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (x) (w) (z) (y)
(A) (x) (y) (z) (w)
(C) (y) (w) (z) (x)
(B) (x) (z) (y) (w)
(D) (z) (y) (w) (x)
(C) (y) (w) (z) (x)
Answer: (C)
(D) (z) (y) (w) (x)
24. Match the following:
Answer: (D)
List I List II
22. Arrange the following categories of
controlled vocabularies in increasing order (i) Sense-Making Approach (w) B.
of flexibility for postcoordination Dervin
(i) classification schemes (ii) Anomalous State of (x) S. R.
Ranganathan Knowledge
(ii) ontologies
(iii) Spiral of Scientific Method (y) Michael
(iii) subject heading lists
Casey
(iv) thesauri
(iv) Library 2.0 (z) N. J. Belkin
Codes:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(A) (w) (z) (x) (y)
(C) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
(B) (x) (w) (z) (y)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(C) (y) (w) (x) (z)
Answer: (D)
(D) (z) (y) (w) (x)
Answer: (A)
List I
25. Assertion (A): The copyright laws
prevent unauthorised reproduction of any
List II
literary, musical, artistic work.

Reason (R): The copyright is not infringed Codes:

by making or supplying a copy of a part of (A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
a work, if the copy is made or supplied by
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
or on behalf of a librarian.
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Codes:
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(A) A is true, but R is false
Answer: (B)
(B) A is true, but R is partially true
28. Which of the following are library
(C) Both A and R are true
networks?
(D) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
(i) ERNET
correct explanation of A
(ii) INFLIBNET
Answer: (D)
(iii) NICNET
(iv) OCLC
List I List II
Codes:
(i) Daniel J. Boorstin (w)
National Library, India (A) (ii) and (i)
(ii) Joseph Van Praet (x) British (B) (ii) and (iii)
Library (C) (ii) and (iv)
(iii) Y. M. Mulay (y) Library (D) All of the above
of Congress Answer: (C)
(iv) Antonio Panizzi 29. Match the following:
(z) List I List II
Bibliotheque Nationale
(i) La Gazette (w) World’s
Codes:
oldest still published newspaper
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (ii) Hicky’s Bengal (x) World’s first
(A) (w) (y) (x) (z) Sunday Gazette newspaper
(B) (y) (z) (w) (x) (iii) The observer (y) First
(C) (x) (z) (w) (y) newspaper in Asia
(D) (w) (x) (y) (z) (iv) Ordinari Post (z) World’s first
Answer: (B) French Tijdender language newspaper
27. Arrange the following steps of research Codes:
according to the sequence of their (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
occurrence (A) (w) (y) (x) (z)
(i) formulation of hypothesis of research (B) (y) (z) (w) (x)
(ii) designing of data and analysis plan (C) (y) (w) (z) (x)
(iii) selection of data gathering method (D) (z) (y) (x) (w)
(iv) report writing Answer: (D)

30. Assertion (A): Formulation of (A) (i) and (ii) are correct
hypotheses is based on assumptions. (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Reason (R): Hypotheses cannot be tested (C) (iii) is correct
based on objectives of the study.
(D) (iv) is correct
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
Answer: (C)
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
34. ‘Hypothesis’ is a
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false
(i) Solution of the problems
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true
(ii) Statements of the assumptions
Answer: (A)
(iii) Statements to be tested
31. Assertion (A): Delphi Method of
(iv) Fact
research draws opinion from the panel of
experts in a research area. Codes:
Reason (R): Opinions expressed by the (A) (i) and (ii) are correct
panel of experts is valuable in formulating (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
inference. (C) (i) and (iii) are correct
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (i) and (iv) are correct
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true Answer: (B)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true 35. Following are the works of Paul Otlet
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false (i) UDC
Answer: (C) (ii) Traile de Documentation
32. Assertion (A): Provision of services (iii) Something about bibliography
inside the library helps in reaching out to (iv) Something about documentation
the large number of users
Codes:
Reason (R): library extension services do
not cover the internal users of a library. (A) (i) and (iv) are correct
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false (B) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true (C) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false Answer: (D)
Answer: (D) 36. First Library Science School in the world
was started
33. ADONIS is a
(i) By Melvil Dewey
(i) Bibliographic database only
(ii) At Colombia University, NY
(ii) Numerical database only
(iii) By WC B Sayers
(iii) Full text database only
(iv) At London University, London
(iv) Abstracting database
Codes:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (iv) Publication of DDC

(B) (i) and (iv) are correct Codes:
(C) (iii) and (ii) are correct (A) (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) (iii) and (iv) are correct (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer: (A) (C) (i), (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct
37. Raja Rammohan Roy Library (D) Only (i) is correct
Foundation Answer: (B)
(i) Promotes Public Libraries 40. Arrange the following technologies
(ii) Located at Mumbai according to the year of their inventions in
(iii) Promotes school libraries descending order:
(iv) Located at Kolkata (i) Internet
Codes: (ii) Satellite Communication
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (iii) Telephone
(B) (i) and (iv) are correct (iv) Television
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct Codes:
(D) (iii) and (iv) are correct (A) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
Answer: (B) (B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
38. The first All- India conference of (C) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
Libraries was held (D) none of the above
(i) At Lahore Answer: (A)
(ii) In 1918 31. Information is
(iii) At Calcutta a. unprocessed data
(iv) In 1919 b. processed data
Codes: c. Facts
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct d. None of the above
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct Answer: b
(C) (i) and (iv) are correct 32. Wisdom is
(D) (iii) and (iv) are correct a. Quality of having experience
Answer: (A) b. Quality of good judgement
39. The achievement of US in 1876 was c. Quality of being wise
(i) Enunciation of DDC scheme d. All the above
(ii) Formation of American Library Answer: d
Association 33. What is raw data
(iii) Publication of first journal of a. Unanalysed data
librarianship
b. Unprocessed data b. Wisdom->Information->Knowledge-

c. Primary data > Data
d. All the above c. Data-> Information-> Knowledge->
Wisdom
Answer: d
d. Data-> Information-> Wisdom->
34. The word data word derived from -------
Knowledge
-Language
Answer: c
a. Greek
39. RTI Act 2005 came into force on
b. French
(a) 12 October 2005
c. Latin
(b) 15 August 2005
d. German
(c) 15 June 2005
Answer: c
(d) 1 November 2005
35. The word Information derived from
_________Language Answer - (a)
a. Latin 40. Which of the following is not come
under the definition of 'information' under
b. Greek
RTI Act 2005?
c. Korean
(a) Log books
d. Spanish
(b) File notings
Answer: a
(c) Data material held in any electronic
36. The word Communication derived form
from________Languae
(d) Circulars
a. Greek
Answer - (b)
b. Latin
41. The officer designated by the public
c. French authorities in all administrative units or
d. Spanish offices under it to provide information to
Answer: b the citizens requesting for information
37. Information is reduction of under the Act is known as
uncertainity. This theory developed by (a) Appellate Authority
a. Webster (b) Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
b. Charles Berger (c) Public Information Officer (PIO)
c. Melvil Dewey (d) Assistant Public Information Officer
d. Shanon Answer - (c)
Answer: b 42.What is the time limit to get the
38. Which is correct sequence? information under RTI Act 2005?
(a) 15 days
a. Wisdom->Knowledge->Information-
> Data (b) 45 days

(c) 60 days offices under it to provide information to

(d) 30 days the citizens requesting for information
under the Act is know as
Answer - (d)
(a) Appellate Authority
43.What is the time limit to get the
(b) Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)
information concerning the life and liberty
(c) Public Information Officer (PIO)
of a person?
(d) Assistant Public Information Officer
(a) 48 hours
Answer: c
(b) 24 hours
48.What is the time limit to get the
(c) 5 days information under RTI Act 2005?
(d) 10 days (a) 15 days
Answer - (a) (b) 45 days
44. If the interests of a third party are (c) 60 days
involved in information sought for, the (d) 30 days
maximum time limit to get the information Answer: d
will be 49.What is the time limit to get the
(a) 30 days information concerning the life and liberty
(b) 40 days of a person?
(c) 45 days (a) 48 hours
(d) 60 days (b) 24 hours
(c) 5 days
Answer - (b) (d) 10 days
45. RTI Act 2005 came into force on Answer: a
(a) 12 October 2005 50.If the interests of a third party are
(b) 15 August 2005 involved in information sought for, the
(c) 15 June 2005 maximum time limit to get the information
(d) 1 November 2005 will be
Answer: a (a) 30 days
46. Which of the following is not come (b) 40 days
under the definition of ‘information’ under (c) 45 days
RTI Act 2005? (d) 60 days
(a) Log books Answer: b
(b) File notings 51.If information sought has been supplied
(c) Data material held in any electronic by third party or is treated as confidential
form by that third party, the third party must be
(d) Circulars given a representation before the PIO in
Answer: b reply to the notice issued to him within —
47. The officer designated by the public — days from the date of receipt of such
authorities in all administrative units or notice.

(a) 5 days 3. Section 6

(b) 15 days 4. Section 4
(c) 10 days
Answer: 4
(d) 7 days
57. What is/are component of IT Act 2000
Answer: c
?
52.What is the fee for getting information
1. Legal Recognition to Digital
under RTI Act
Signatures
(a) Rs.20/-
2. Regulation of Certification
(b) Rs.50/-
Authorities.
(c) Rs.100/-
(d) Rs.10/- 3. Digital Certificates
Answer: d 4. All the above
53. When IT Act 2000 came into effect? Answer: 4
1. October 17, 2000 58. The section deals with legal recognition
of digital signature
2. October 17, 2001
1. Section 3
3. November 11, 2000
2. Section 5
4. November 11, 2001
3. Section 6
Answer: 1
4. Section 4
54. How many schedules are there in IT Act
2000? Answer: 2
1. 3 59. The section deals with the use of
electronic records and digital signature in
2. 4
Government and its agencies
3. 6
1. Section 3
4. 2
2. Section 5
Answer: 2
3. Section 6
55. Which is the Act which provides legal
4. Section 7
framework for e-Governance in India
Answer: 3
1. IT (amendment) Act 2008
60. Major amendments to IT Act 2000 was
2. Indian Penal Code
introduced in the form of IT (amendment)
3. IT Act 2000 Act 2008, which came into effect on
4. None of the above 1. 01 June 2008
Answer: 3 2. 27 October 2009
56. Which section of IT Act deals with the 3. 27 October 2008
legal recognition of electronic records?
4. 03 July 2009
1. Section 2
Answer: 2
2. Section 5

61. IT Act 2000 amended various sections 3. Section 10

of which of the following Acts? 4. Section 5
1. Indian Penal Code 1860 Answer: 1
2. Reserve Bank of India Act 1934 66. Which section of IT Act 2000 deals with
3. Indian Evidence Act 1872 & Bankers the punishment for cheating by
Book Evidence Act 1891 impersonation by using computer
4. All of the above resources?
Answer: 4 1. Section 66D
62. Which among following Act is not 2. Section 66C
ammended in Information Technology Act 3. Section 66B
2000? 4. Section 66F
1. The Bankers Books Evidence Act, Answer: 1
1891
67. The following punishment is
2. BSNL IT Policy mentioned in which section of IT Act 2000
3. RBI Act 1934. '3 years of imprisonment and/or 5 lakh
4. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 repees penalty for first conviction & 5
years of imprisonment and/or 10 lakh
Answer: 2
rupees penalty
63. Controller of Certifying Authorities
1. Section 67
(CCA) work under ?
2. Section 66
1. Prime Minister office
3. Section 65
2. Reserve Bank of India
4. Section 64
3. Ministry of Communication & IT
Answer: 1
4. autonomous body
68. Which section of IT Act deals with
Answer: 3
Hacking of computer systems and its
64. Which Act in India focuses on data penalties?
privacy and information technology?
1. Section 65
1. Banking Regulation Act 1949
2. Section 66
2. IT Act 2000
3. Section 62
3. Indian Penal Code
4. Section 67
4. IT (amendment) Act 2008
Answer: 2
Answer: 4
69. What is the punishment for hacking of
65. Which section of IT Act deals with the computers?
appointment of Controller of certifying
1. Three year imprisonment or 10 lakh
authorities
rupees penalty or both
1. Section 17
2. Life Imprisonment
2. Section 15
3. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh Answer: 3

rupees penalty or both 74. What is the punishment for identity
4. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh theft in IT Act?
rupees penalty or both 1. Two year imprisonment or 1 lakh
Answer: 3 rupees penalty or both
70. Which section of IT Act deals with 2. Three year imprisonment or 1 lakh
Cyber terrorism? rupees penalty or both
1. Section 66C 3. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh
2. Section 66B rupees penalty or both
3. Section 66F 4. None of the above
4. Section 66A Answer: 2
Answer: 3 75. What is the penalty for destroying
computer source code?
71. Which section of IT Act was invalidated
by Supreme Court of India 1. Three year imprisonment or 3 lakh
1. Section 66F
2. Two year imprisonment or 2 lakh
2. Section 66B
3. Section 66D
3. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh
4. Section 66A rupees penalty or both
Answer: 4 4. Three year imprisonment or 2 lakh
72. The date on which Supreme Court of rupees penalty or both
India invalidated Section 66A of IT Act Answer: 4
2000:
76. Which are the sections of IT Act
1. 24.03.2015 applicable for Cyber pornography?
2. 31.03.2015 1. 66, 66A, 66B
3. 01.01.2015 2. 67, 67A, 67B
4. 01.06.2015 3. 67, 67C, 67D
Answer: 1 4. None of the above
73. What is the penalty for publishing Answer: 2
images of a person's private parts without
77. Which section of IT Act deals with Child
consent, as per IT Act 2000?
pornography?
1. 5 years imprisonment or 5 lakh
1. Section 67F
2. Section 67D
2. Life imprisonment
3. Section 67C
3. 3 years imprisonment or 2 lakh
rupees penalty or both 4. Section 67B
4. None of the above Answer: 4

78. What is the maximum penalty for 3. 60 days

damage to Computer, Computer systems, 4. 45 days
unauthorized access, download of data,
Answer: 3
infecting with virus, denial of access etc as
per Section 43 83. Which is the appeal court on the orders
issued by Cyber appellate tribunal?
1. Rs. 50 lakh
1. Munsiff Court
2. Rs.1 crore
2. District Court
3. Rs. 5 crore
3. High Court
4. Rs.75 lakh
4. Supreme Court
Answer: 2
Answer: 3
79. Which section of IT Act 2000 propose a
punishment of life imprisonment? 84. What is the term of the office of the
presiding officer of Cyber appellate
1. Section 66F
tribunal?
2. Section 66C
1. 3 years
3. Section 66B
2. 4 years
4. Section 66A
3. 6 years
Answer: 1
4. 5 years
80. Which are the section of the IT Act
Answer: 4
deals with Credit card fraud?
85. What is the proposed punishment for
1. 42, 67, 67A, 67B
Cyber Terrorism in IT Act?
2. 66, 66C, 66D
1. 1 Crore rupees penalty
3. 43, 66, 66C, 66D
2. Life Imprisonment
4. None of the above
3. 10 year imprisonment
Answer: 3
4. 6 year imprisonment
81. Which of the following is an example of
Answer: 2
Intellectual property ?
86. Information Technology Act, 2000 is
1. Patent
ACT NO. __ OF 2000?
2. Trade Marks
(A)35
3. Copyright
(B)21
4. All of above
(C)13
Answer: 4
(D)1
82. What is the time limit for filing appeal
Answer: (B)21
against the order of Cyber appellate
tribunal? 87. Which among the following with regard
to Information Technology Act, 2000 is
1. 30 days
NOT correct?
2. 90 days
(A) It shall extend to the whole of India (A)Data license

(B) it does not apply to any offence or (B)IP address in India
contravention thereunder committed (C)digital signatures
outside India by any person
(D)internet service provider license
(C) it is an act to provide legal recognition
Answer: (C)digital signatures
for transactions carried out by means of
electronic data 92. Information Technology Act, 2000
amended which among the following to
(D) It is the primary law in India dealing
make them compliant with new
with cybercrime and electronic commerce
technologies?
Answer: (B)
i. Indian Penal Code, 1860
88. Information Technology Act, 2000
ii. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
came into force on?
iii. Banker’s Book Evidence Act, 1891
(A) 1 January 2001
iv. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
(B) 11 June 2000
(A) i only
(C) 17 October 2000
(B) i and iii only
(D) 24 December 2002
(C) ii, iii and iv only
Answer: (C)
(D) All the above
89. Who was the President of India who
signed the Information Technology Act, Answer: (D) All the above
2000? 93. A major amendment to Information
(A) A P J Abdul Kalam Technology Act, 2000 was made in the
year?
(B) K R Narayanan
(A)2001
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B)2016
(D) Pratibha Patil
(C)2012
Answer: (B) K R Narayanan
(D)2008
90. “Digital signature” is defined under
which section of IT Act,2000? Answer: (D)2008
(A)Section 1 94. Which among the following was
established under IT Act, 2000 to resolve
(B)Section 2
disputes arising from the law?
(C)Section 8
(A)Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(D)Section 6
(B)Technology Disputes Bureau
Answer: (B)Section 2
(C)Cyber Administrative Tribunal
91. Information Technology Act, 2000
(D)IT Disputes Tribunal
directed the formation of a Controller of
Certifying Authorities to regulate the Answer: (A)Cyber Appellate Tribunal
issuance of?

95. Section 66A which penalized sending 98. Section 66A of IT Act,2000 has been
“offensive messages” was introduced in IT struck down by Supreme Court’s Order
Act, 2000 through? dated 24th March, 2015 in which case?
(A) Information Technology (Amendment) (A)Shreya Singhal vs. Union of India
Act, 2008 (B)Puttuswamy v. Union of India
(B) Information Technology (Amendment) (C)Shayara Bano vs Union Of India
Act, 2003
(D)Indra Sawhney and Union of India
(C) Information Technology (Amendment)
Answer: (A)Shreya Singhal vs. Union of
Act, 2015
India
(D) Information Technology (Amendment)
99. In the year 2020, Indian Government
Act, 2005
banned 59 Chinese mobile apps, including
Answer: (A) Information Technology TikTok invoking which Section of IT Act,
(Amendment) Act, 2008 2000?
96. Which among the following is/are the (A)Section 66A
major insertions in IT Act,2000 through
(B)Section 66F
Information Technology (Amendment) Act,
2008? (C)Section 72A
(A) Section 66A which penalized sending (D)Section 69A
“offensive messages” Answer: (D) Section 69A
(B) Section 69, which gave authorities the 100. The data privacy rules was introduced
power of “interception or monitoring or in IT Act, 2000 in the year?
decryption of any information through any (A)2008
computer resource
(B)2011
(C) it introduced provisions addressing –
(C)2015
pornography, child porn, cyber terrorism
and voyeurism (D)2020
(D) All the above Answer: (B) 2011
Answer: (D) All the above 101. The act of presenting someone else’s
work or idea as own is considered as
97. Which among the following offence
under IT Act, 2000 has the maximum 1. Plagiarism
penalty of imprisonment up to life? 2. Academic dishonesty
(A)Using password of another person 3. Wrongful appropriation
(B)Securing access or attempting to secure 4. All of these
access to a protected system Answer: 4
(C)Publication for fraudulent purpose 102. Do you think anti Plagiarism detection
(D)Acts of cyberterrorism software is useable for
Answer: (D)Acts of cyberterrorism 1. Avoiding plagiarism

2. Getting a comparison or similarity Answer: 1

index to check the originality of the 107. What meaning of Plagiarius was
assignment quoted by Martial, a Roman poet, for using
3. Added Features like instant feedback the term plagiarius by other users without
to help improve writing quoting his name?
4. Do not find useful for any of these 1. Literary kidnappers
Answer: 2 2. Literary thieves
103. Which of the following plagiarism 3. Literary copiers
software is available under open access? 4. Literary stealers
1. Turnitin Answer: 1
2. Urkund 108. Referred documents must be cited as
3. Viper 1. Endnote
4. All of these invalid 2. Footnote
Answer: 3 3. Bibliographies
104. Which of the following software is a 4. All of these
paid software for checking the similarity
Answer: 1
index in a research paper?
109. Can multiple submissions of work be
1. Viper
treated as plagiarism?
2. PlagTrack
1. Yes
3. Urkund
2. No
4. Copyleaks
3. Maybe
Answer: 3
4. Can’t Say
105. Plagiarism where the writer changes a
Answer: 1
few words in the original text of another is
known as 110. There has been a steep rise in
plagiarism due to
1. Direct copying
1. Increase in publication growth
2. Word switch
2. Increase in enrollment for research
3. Paraphrasing
work
4. None of these
3. Availability of digital documents
Answer: 2
4. Use of computers in research
106. The Latin word which is understood as
Answer: 3
the origin of the word ‘plagiarism’ is
111. Which plagiarism software among the
1. Plagiarius
following is a commercial software
2. Plagiurius
1. Viper
3. Plugiarius
2. PlagTrack
4. Plagiarize
3. Turnitin 3. Ignorance about citation form and

4. Copyleaks style
Answer: 3 4. All of these
112. Which of the following acts constitute Answer: 4
plagiarism? 116. What is the important point to be
1. Presenting other’s work as own considered while paraphrasing?
2. Paraphrasing without citation 1. Citation
3. Quoting other’s work without 2. Writing in own words
quotation marks 3. Using quotes
4. All of these 4. All of these
Answer: 4 Answer: 4
113. A ____________ is placed within the 117. What are the different ways to avoid
text and includes the authors’ last names plagiarism in academic writing?
and the publication year. A ___________ is 1. Providing references
placed at the end of a paper and includes
2. Citing the original author
information on the authors, year, the title
of the source, and publication data to 3. Quoting the exact phrase
prevent plagiarism and give proper citation 4. All of these
to work referred. Answer: 4
1. quotation; citation 118. What should be the appropriate
2. reference list; quotation penalty if a student is found guilty of
3. Citation; reference list plagiarism?
4. reference list; citation 1. Warning of deduction in marks
Answer: 3 2. Permanent or time-bound
rustication
114. What are the common forms of
plagiarism? 3. Failure to Withdrawal from Degree
1. Direct copying 4. None of these
2. Word switch Answer: 1
3. Self-plagiarism 119. What should be the appropriate
penalty if an academic professional is
4. All of these
found guilty of plagiarism?
Answer: 4
1. Verbal or written warning
115. What are the common reasons for
2. Disqualified to receive any kind of
plagiarism in student assignments?
grant
1. Academic Pressure
3. Suspension or expulsion from service
2. Poor Writing Skills
4. None of these
Answer: 3
120. Plagiarism detection software checks 1. When you refer to some previously
plagiarism by providing published studies
1. Similarity index 2. When you refer to your own papers
2. Citation index that you have previously written.
3. Content index 3. 1 & 2 both
4. None of these 4. When you write your own ideas.
Answer: 1 Answer: 3
121. Plagiarism can lead to 126. It is NOT a tool for paraphrasing
1. Retraction of your published paper 1. Modify the order & structure of
sentences
2. Suspension/termination from a job
2. Direct quotation
3. Rejection of thesis
3. Use synonyms & different forms of
4. All of the above
words
Answer: 4
4. Change the voice or perspective
122. You can use direct quotes
Answer: 2
1. Up to one page
127. Using different forms of words
2. Up to one para (adjective to noun or noun to verb) is one
3. Up to three lines of the tools of
4. Up to one line 1. Paraphrasing
Answer: 3 2. Summarizing
123. Plagiarism can NOT be detected by 3. Referencing
1. Scopus 4. All of the above
2. Turnitin Answer: 1
3. Ithenticate 128. Plagiarism can be avoided by the use
4. b & c both of
Answer: 1 1. Direct Quotation
124. Plagiarism is 2. Paraphrasing
1. Submitting some other’s work as of 3. Summarizing
your own 4. All of the above
2. Submitting your own previously Answer: 4
published work again 129. Plagiarism is
3. a & b both 1. OK sometimes
4. quoting with citation 2. Always wrong because it is theft and
Answer: 3 fraud
125. Which of the following requires 3. Not at all wrong
proper citation?
4. 1 & 3 both 134. Which of the following is not the

Answer: 2 infringement of copyright?
130. Summarizing is (a) Copy the software to another computer
by educational institution
1. Presenting in your own words
(b) Copy the software to another computer
2. Reducing the source text to its main
by company
points
(c) Copy the software to another computer
3. 1 & 2 both
(d) To make backup copies
Answer: 3
Answer: (d)
131. Intellectual Property rights are an
important aspect in international trade. 135. Patent can be granted for ………?
Which of the following is covered under (a) process
IPR? (b) ideas
(a) Patents (c) both product and process
(b) Copyrights (d) product
(c) All of these Answer: (c)
(d) Trademarks 136. Government may order the non-
Answer: (c) advertisement of any patent application in
132. On a school computer, Jamie learned the case of invention related to __
how to copy programs. A classmate asked (a) Information technology
her to copy a program for his home use. (b) Food
Her most ethical response would be which
(c) Drug
of the following?
(d) Defense technology
(a) I’ll copy it, but you have to promise not
to tell anyone. Answer: (d)
(b) I don’t know how to copy disks. 137. If owner of copyright work ……….. the
copyright board will grant compulsory
(c) I can’t copy it because it will break
licence.
copyright laws.
(a) Refused to assign copyright to other
(d) I’ll copy it for you, but you can’t copy it
person
for anyone else.
(b) Refused to republish
Answer: (c)
(c) Refused to pay tax to the government
133. Can a lecture delivered by
academician be reported in a newspaper? Answer: (b)
(a) Yes 138. Assignment can be made even in
respect of work which …
(b) No
(a) Prepared but not published
(c) Yes with permission
(b) Has not yet came into existence
Answer: (c)
(c) Is published
Answer: (b) (b) Principal place of business

139. Appeal from the order of registrar of (c) As per the registrar will
the copyright lies before … (d) As per applicants will
(a) High Court Answer: (b)
(b) Central Govt 145. A design can be also registered under
(c) Copyright Board __
(d) Supreme Court (a) Trademark Act
Answer: (c) (b) Patent Act
140. Patent Act is passed by … (c) Geographical Indication Act
(a) State Government (d) Copyright Act
(b) Central / Federal Government Answer: (d)
Answer: (b) 146. IPR Complete specification gives __
141. International copyright is governed by (a) Full description of claim only
the __ (b) Full description of royalty
(a) Paris Convention (c) Full description of invention
(b) TRIPS (d) Full description of application
(c) Berne Convention Answer: (c)
(d) WTO 147. Use of patented invention by a person
Answer: (c) other than a patentee constitutes __
142. Can lecture delivered in the classroom (a) Infringement of patent rights of
be copyrighted ? patentee
(a) Yes (b) Anticipation
(b) Occasionally with conditions (c) Advertisement of patent
(c) No (d) Co-Operation to patentee
Answer: (a) Answer: (a)
143. Patent for the __ is prohibited. 148. Copyright is granted for ………
(a) Traditional knowledge (a) Original trademark
(b) Arms (b) Original research product
(c) Atomic energy (c) Original musical work
(d) Junk food (d) Original ideas
Answer: (c) Answer: (c)
144. The jurisdiction of registrar of 149. Which of the following is the right
trademark for the purpose of application conferred to the patentee ?
of trademark be decided on __ (a) Right to exploit patent
(a) Place of residence (b) Right to expand patent
(c) Right not to work out patent (a) Infringement in some cases
(d) Right to oppose compulsory licence (b) Not infringement of copyright
Answer: (a) (c) Infringement of copyright
150. Adaptation in relation to an artistic (d) None of these
work means … Answer: (b)
(a) Conversion of the work into a patent 155. A provisional specification is filed to
(b) Conversion of the work into a fix the __
trademark (a) Expiry date of patent
(c) Conversion of the work into a design (b) Assignment of patent
(d) Conversion of the work into a dramatic (c) Term of the patent
work by way of performance in public or
(d) Priority date of patent
otherwise
Answer: (d)
Answer: (d)
156. The …………….. is granted in the case of
151. Registration of the trademark is a
substances which are not food items or
…………evidence of the validity of the
drugs as such, but are capable of being
trademark in all legal proceedings.
used as food and drugs.
(a) No
(a) Conditional license
(b) Secondary
(b) Licenses of marketing
(c) Conclusive
(c) Licenses of rights
(d) Prima facie
(d) Compulsory license
Answer: (d)
Answer: (c)
152. What can be copyrighted in law
157. __ is the first owner of a Book’s
reports for judgements and orders of the
copyright.
court?
(a) Author
(a) Head notes
(b) Publisher
(b) What reports as a whole
(c) Translator
Answer: (a)
(d) Printing press owner
153. In the case of infringement of patent
the court may award ………. Answer: (a)
(a) Damages or account of profits 158. A mark which is devoid of distinctness
are ……
(b) Account of profits with mental agony
(a) Not register-able
(c) Damages and account of profits
(b) Register-able under patent act
(d) Damages with mental agony
(c) Register-able under copyright act
Answer: (c)
(d) Register-able
154. Remix of old songs with different
music composition (remix) is … Answer: (a)

159. The first obligation of the patent (d) creation by the mental status of a
holder is he __ person
(a) Can deal with patent as per his will Answer: (a)
(b) Can use the patent 165. Who has to apply before registrar to
(c) Has to advertise the patent in daily be a registered user of trademark ?
news paper (a) Those who are the proprietor of
(d) Must work out the patent trademark
Answer: (d) (b) Proprietor of trademark and the other
person who want to be a registered user
160. Can an assignee sue an assignor for
hast to jointly apply.
infringement of copyright?
(c) Those who want to be a registered user
(a) No
Answer: (b)
(b) Yes
166. Which of the following can be
Answer: (b)
exercised by the government in the case of
161. Can judgement or order of court be the non working of the panted?
copyrighted ?
(a) Surrender compulsory
(a) Yes
(b) Assignment
(b) No
(c) Govt. file a suit
(c) Occasionally
(d) Compulsory licence
Answer: (a)
Answer: (d)
162. The assignment and licenses for the
167. Which of the following is not patent-
copyright can be registered with __
able?
(a) Registrar of Copyright
(a) which involves inventive steps
(b) Controller of Copyright
(b) Product which is used for medical
Answer: (a) treatment of human beings & animals
163. Which of the following cannot be (c) Process of medical treatment of human
pleaded in infringement of trademark? beings & animals
(a) Intentional infringement (d) None of these
(b) Innocent infringement Answer: (c)
Answer: (b) 168. Can genuine abridgment of a literary
164. Copyright is a __ work subject of copyright ?
(a) creation by person of efforts, (a) No
intellectual and capital (b) Yes
(b) creation by person of the efforts only (c) Occasionally
(c) creation by negligence of a person Answer: (b)

169. In the case of copyright the 3. Bradford Principle

compulsory licence will be granted by __ 4. Lasswell Model
(a) Court Answer: Lasswell Model
(b) State Government 175. How many major categories of
(c) Copyright Board communication models are there?
Answer: (c) 1. 2
170. Whose grant require before altering 2. 3
anything in the original from of a book ? 3. 4
(a) Writer 4. 6
(b) Owner Answer: 3
Answer: (a) 176. Critical Theory was first defined by
171. In the case of infringement of patent Max Horkheimer in the year
rights patentee can institute ……………. in 1. 1927
competent court.
2. 1937
(a) Criminal complaint
3. 1947
(b) both civil suit and criminal complain
4. 1957
(c) Civil suit
Answer: 1937
Answer: (c)
177. The word Semiotics was introduced
172. The word mittere refers to in the English language as a synonym for
1. Sender 1. doctrine of signs
2. Receiver 2. doctrine of syllables
3. Message 3. doctrine of syntax
4. Feedback 4. doctrine of spelling
Answer: Message Answer: doctrine of signs
173. Cybernetics was pioneered by 178. A Mathematical Theory of
1. Ludvig Von Bertalanffy Communication was published in the year
2. Norbert Wiener 1. 1928-29
3. J C R Licklider 2. 1938-39
4. John von Neumann 3. 1948 -49
Answer: Norbert Wiener 4. 1958-59
174. The Early work on modeling of Answer: 1948 -49
Information communication was based 179. Noise refers to
on?
1. Promotion
1. Goode and Hatt model
2. Execution
2. Shannon and Weaver Model
3. Distortion
4. Evaluation 4. None of the above

Answer: Distortion Answer: Interpersonal Communication
180. Who had proposed 7 traditional 185. Which one of the following is NOT a
Communication Theories? barrier to communication?
1. Rober T Craig 1. Language
2. Aristotle 2. Distance
3. Socrates 3. Time
4. Shanon& Weaver 4. Information
Answer: Rober T Craig Answer: Information
181. Redundancy refers to 186. Entropy is a measure of the
1. Execution 1. amount of uncertainty associated in
2. Evaluation the message/content
3. Expansion 2. amount of certainty associated in
the message/content
4. Repetitiveness
3. amount of distortion associated in
Answer: Repetitiveness
the message/content
182. The General System Theory was put
4. amount of repetitiveness associated
forth by
in the message/content
1. Kenneth Boulding
Answer: amount of uncertainty associated
2. John von Neumann in the message/content
3. W R Ashby 187. Which of the following is not a
4. Ludwig von Bertalanffy component of Schramm's simplified
Answer: Ludwig von Bertalanffy communication model?
183. George Gerbner General Model was 1. Source
introduced in the year 2. Message
1. 1946 3. Signal
2. 1956 4. Destination
3. 1966 Answer: Source
4. 1976 188. Identify the component that
Answer: 2 transmits the signal from the Sender to the
184. Interaction between a few people to Receiver
share information or to maintain a 1. Channel
relationship is known as 2. Source
1. Mass communication 3. Model
2. Private Communication 4. Noise
3. Interpersonal Communication Answer: Channel

189. Mass communication traditionally 1. external noise

tends to be 2. Physical noise
1. One-way 3. Physiological noise
2. Communication from one (or a few) 4. Semantic noise
to many
Answer: Semantic noise
3. Communication to an audience that
194. Who Define in Theory as “a set of
is largely a passive recipient of
interrelated propositions that suggest why
messages with little or no
events occur in the manner that they do”?
opportunity for immediate feedback
1. Foss and Griffin 1999
4. All of the above
2. Hoover 1984
Answer: All of the above
3. Littlejohn, 2002
190. Critical Theory was first defined by
Max Horkheimer in the year 4. Shannon and Weaver 1948
1. 1927 Answer: Hoover 1984
2. 1937 195. The invention of Telephone in 1875
by…….
3. 1947
1. Samuel F.B. Morse
4. 1957
2. Harry Nyquist
Answer: 1937
3. Alexander Graham Bell
191. The Helical Model of communication
is 4. R.V.L. Hartley
1. Non-linear model Answer: Alexander Graham Bell
2. Liner Model 196. The origin of the word ‘Model’ could
be traced back to the French word…….
3. Formal
1. Modèle
4. Informal
2. Modello
Answer: Liner Model
3. Modus
192. Who Ask “Communication is the
process by which people interactively 4. Nothing Else
create, sustain and manage meaning” Answer: Modèle
1. Conrad & Poole 197. Who established the first
2. Pranav Mistry mathematical foundations for information
theory in 1928 in her paper “Transmission
3. William Rice-Johnson
of Information “?
4. US ARMY
1. Samuel F.B. Morse
Answer: Conrad & Poole
2. Oliver Heaviside
193. …………………..is word choices that are
3. Harry Nyquist
confusing and distracting such as using the
word tri-syllabic instead of three syllables. 4. R.V.L. Hartley

Answer: R.V.L. Hartley 3. Bruce Westley and Malcolm S

198. Craig identifies seven different MacLean’s
traditions of Communication Theory and 4. Elihu Katz and Peter Lazarsfeld’s
outlines how each one of them would Answer: Elihu Katz and Peter Lazarsfeld’s
engage the others in dialogue: In following
202. Who Created SMCR Model
Three are right Please Choose wrong one?
(Sender/SourceMessage-Channel-Receiver
1. Rhetorical Model of communication)?
2. Semiotic 1. Wilbur Lang Schramm
3. Complexity 2. David Kenneth Berlo
4. Cybernetic 3. Elihu Katz and Peter Lazarsfeld’s
Answer: Complexity 4. Paul Watzlawick,
199. The Newcomb’s model of Answer: David Kenneth Berlo
communication was introduced by
203. Who proposed a transactional model
Theodore M Newcomb of the University of
of communication?
Michigan in……
1. Dean C Barnlund
1. 1948
2. Elihu Katz and Peter Lazarsfeld’s
2. 300 BC
3. Wilbur Lang Schramm
3. 1955
4. Paul Watzlawick
4. 1953
Answer: Dean C Barnlund
Answer: 1953
204. In 1967 a …………. model advanced by
200. Which model of communication is
Paul Watzlawick, Janet Beavin, and
Called as an “ABX” ?
DonJackson?
1. The Newcomb’s model of
1. “helical-spiral”
communication (1953)
2. “circular model”
2. Harold Dwight Lasswell (1948)
3. “sawtooth"
3. Aristotle Model of Communication
(300 BC) 4. “SMCR Model”
4. Elihu Katz and Peter Lazarsfeld’s Answer: “sawtooth"
model (1955) 205. Who Introduced “Ecological Model of
Answer: The Newcomb’s model of the Communication Process”?
communication (1953) 1. Davis Foulgerr
201. Who inserted ‘mass media’ in scheme 2. DeVito
of Communication model Theory? 3. Dean C Barnlund
1. Wilbur Lang Schramm 4. Paul Watzlawick
2. David Kenneth Berlo Answer: Davis Foulgerr

206. Which of the following is not part of 1. A knowledge audit should always be
the knowledge management framework? completed before an information
1. Share knowledge audit
2. Develop knowledge 2. Information and knowledge audits
are unrelated
3. Create knowledge
3. Information and knowledge audits
4. Capture knowledge
are complementary processes
Answer: Develop knowledge
4. Information and knowledge audits
207. A collection of internal and external are the same
knowledge resources in a single location
5. An information audit should always
for effective utilization by the organization
be completed before a knowledge
could be best described as:
audit
1. Digital Archives
Answer: Information and knowledge audits
2. Data Warehouse are complementary processes
3. Organizational memory 211. Hansen et al. suggest the % mix for
4. Knowledge Repository codification/personalization strategy
Answer: Knowledge Repository should be:
208. Which of the following is not one of 1. 50-0
Zak's types of knowledge? 2. 40-60
1. Tacit 3. 30-70
2. Causal 4. 80-20
3. Conditional Answer: 80-20
4. Relational 212. Knowledge management:
5. Declarative 1. Is synonymous with information
Answer: Tacit management
209. Nonaka introduced which of the 2. Refers to a particular application of
following knowledge concepts? information technology
1. Tacit and cultured 3. Is predominantly an organizational
2. Explicit and revealed activity
3. Tacit and explicit 4. Is mostly dependent on valid and
reliable data processing
4. Declarative and Procedural
Answer: Is predominantly an
5. Causal and Relational organizational activity
Answer: Tacit and explicit 213. The successful problem-solving
210. Which of the following statements do methods developed by an organization are
you agree with relating to knowledge generally referred to as:
audits? 1. Best Practices

2. Standard Operational Procedures Answer: Expert System

3. Decision-support system 218. The expertise and knowledge of staff
4. Organizational perspective of an organization that has not been
formally documented is known as:
Answer: Best Practices
1. Knowledge sharing
214. Which of the following comes under
Knowledge Management perspectives? 2. Tacit knowledge
1. Technology-centric perspective 3. Best practices
2. Organizational perspective 4. Organizational memory
3. Ecological perspective Answer: Tacit knowledge
4. Only 1 and 2 219. …………was probably the first one to
categorize knowledge in this manner
5. All of the Above
which was subsequently emphasized by
Answer: 5 Nonaka?
215. An organization's knowledge base 1. Michael Faraday
may include
2. Michael Sela
1. Structured internal knowledge
3. Michael Bevin
2. Informal internal knowledge
4. Michael Polanyi
3. Both A and B
Answer: Michael Polanyi
4. None of The Above
220. Providing quick and easy access to
Answer: Both A and B external databases is a requirement of a
216. Knowledge workers need knowledge work system.
1. quick and easy access to external 1. True
databases 2. False
2. a user-friendly interface 3. Noting Else
3. communications and document Answer: True
management tools
221. One of the primary advantages of
4. all the above expert systems is their ability to perform a
5. Only 2 and 3 variety of tasks.
Answer: all the above 1. True
217. A knowledge-intensive computer 2. False
program that captures the expertise of a 3. Noting Else
human in a domain is known as:
Answer: False
1. Expert System
222. National Informatics Centre (NIC) was
2. Decision-Support System established in…..?
3. Neural Network 1. 1976
4. Fuzzy Logic 2. 1977

3. 1970 3. 2002
4. 1979 4. 1990
Answer: 1976 Answer: 1990
223. National Mission for Manuscripts was 228. Full form of KBI
established in………? 1. Knowledge-Based Economy
1. February 2002 2. Knowledge-Biased Economics
2. February 2004 3. Knowledge-Base Ecosystem
3. February 2005 4. Knowledge-Basic Economist
4. February 2003 Answer: Knowledge-Based Economy
Correct Info: 229. ITES stands for
224. Full form of NII? 1. Information Technology Enabled
1. National Infrastructure of India Services
2. National Information Infrastructure 2. Infrastructure Technology Enabled
3. National Industrial Infrastructure Services
4. National Information Institutions 3. Information Technology Embedded
Services
Answer: National Information
Infrastructure 4. None
225. India’s National Policy on Information Answer: Information Technology Enabled
Technology was approved by the union Services
cabinet in the year 230. INSDOC was merged with NISCOM to
1. 2007 create
2. 2010 1. DELNET
3. 2012 2. NISCAIR
4. 2011 3. DESIDOC
Answer: 2012 4. NASSDOC
226. Full Form of EDI Answer: NISCAIR
1. electronic digit interchange 231. The National Mission on Manuscripts
is a programme of the
2. electronic data interchange
1. National Library of India
3. electronic dousers intelligence
2. National Archives of India
4. electronic democratic incharge
3. Ministry of Human Resources
Answer: electronic data interchange
Development, Government of India
227. The concept of information
4. Ministry of Culture, Government of
infrastructure was introduced in the year
India
1. 1993
Answer: Ministry of Culture, Government
2. 1994 of India
232. Which of the following is not the 2. Government to Citizen (G2C)

connected with INFLIBNET? 3. Government to Business (G2B)
1. N-LIST 4. All of these
2. e-PG Pathshala 5. No Idea
3. NACLIN Answer: All of these
4. Shodhganga 237. The portal that provides access to all
Answer: NACLIN datasets published by the Government of
233. NII contributes to national economic India is:
and technological competitiveness to 1. Indiastat.com
improve 2. mhrd.gov.in/statist
1. Healthcare 3. data.gov.in
2. Education 4. nic.in
3. Training Answer: data.gov.in r
4. All the Above 238. What is the name of Software which
5. None of Above is system for traffic monitoring and
Answer: All the Above bandwidth management of the Internet
access link has been developed by India ?
234. The Traditional Knowledge Digital
Library (TKDL) is an Indian digital 1. Webmaster
knowledge repository set up by 2. Netmaster
1. CSIR 3. Traimaster
2. NISCAIR 4. Roadmaster
3. Indian Institute of Science, Answer: Netmaster
Bangalore 239. What is the name of machine Which
4. DRTC, Bangalore is develop by India for translating
Answer: CSIR documents from English to Hindi?
235. Which of the following comes under 1. DocBharti
Central government initiatives as mission 2. Hindubharti
mode projects (MMP)? 3. Vidyabharti
1. e-office 4. Anglabharti
2. e-Governance in Municipalities Answer: Anglabharti
3. e-Education 240. What is the name of System Which is
4. e-Health develop by India for a versatile online
Answer: e-Governance in Municipalities information system to address the needs
of citizens, civic administration and
236. Which are the facets related to E-
Municipal Corporation has been
governance
successfully implemented.
1. Government to Government (G2G)
1. VOICE 1. National Data Sharing and

2. INVOICE Accessibility Policy
3. INDOVOICE 2. National District Sharing and
Accessibility Policy
4. MUNVOICE
3. National Data Sharing and
Answer: VOICE
Accessibility Project
241. ………….. India has been developed to
4. National Data Service and
help people in an organization to have
access to context specific information to
help them in the decision making process? Answer: National Data Sharing and
1. MMAP
245. The ………………….is involving sharing
2. CMAP
of journals, books and research papers
3. LMAP across different institutions, is a natural
4. KMAP application for NKN.
Answer: KMAP 1. Digital Library
242. ……………..software of India 2. Hybrid Library
developed by NCST was used for 3. Web Library
transliterating documents in large numbers
4. Virtual Library
from English to Hindi and have been used
by many organizations like universities for Answer: Virtual Library
translating names from English to Hindi. 246. NKN acts as a ……………….for
1. Hindlanter integrating e-Governance infrastructure
such as government data centres and
2. Translanter
networks. NKN provides bulk for e-
3. Rupanthar Governance applications
4. Subranthar 1. electronic switches
Answer: Rupanthar 2. super highway
243. What is the name of app develop by 3. super servers
India which is used a multilingual internet
4. super computers
relay chat application, e-mail in regional
languages with cross translation Answer: super highway
possibilities etc. 247. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
1. Milap launched data analytics driven
…………Version 3.0?
2. Varthalap
1. MCA21
3. Chatnow
2. MCA11
4. Whatsapp
3. MCA13
Answer: Varthalap
4. MCA22
244. NDSAP Stands for

Answer: MCA21 3. 1838

248. RSBY Stands for 4. 1839
1. Rajya Swasthya Bima Yojana Answer: 1836
2. Rashtriya Swayam Bima Yojana 253. ational Social Science Documentation
3. Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana Centre (NASSDOC), was established in ….
4. Rashtriya Sarkari Bima Yojana 1. 1975
Answer: Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana 2. 1969
249. IVFRT Stands for 3. 1970
1. Immigration, Visa, Foreigner’s 4. 1971
Registration and Technology Answer: 1969
2. Indian, Visa, Foreigner’s Registration 254. NASSDOC was established as a
and Tracking Division of the ……………..with the objective
3. Immigration, Visitor, Foreigner’s to provide library and information support
Registration and Tracking services to researchers in social sciences.
4. Immigration, Visa, Foreigner’s 1. RRRLF
Registration and Tracking 2. DRDO
Answer: Immigration, Visa, Foreigner’s 3. NISSAT
Registration and Tracking 4. ICSSR
250. IVFRT Working under which Answer: ICSSR
organisation of India?
255. INSPEL Stands for
1. NIC
1. International Science Service
2. NASSDOC Periodical Literature
3. DRDO 2. Indian Social Science Periodical
4. NISSAT Literature
Answer: NIC 3. Indian Social Science Periodical List
251. NeSD Stands for 4. Indian Social Service Periodical
1. New e-Services Dashboard Literature
2. National e-Services Demands Answer: Indian Social Science Periodical
Literature
3. National e-Services Dashboard
256. Which of the following Program is not
4. National e-Services Disseminates
supported by NASSDOC?
Answer: National e-Services Dashboard
1. Study Grant Scheme
252. Calcutta Public Library was
2. Grants-in-Aid to Bibliographical and
established in……..?
Documentation Projects
1. 1836
3. Continuing Education Programme
2. 1837
4. Apprenticeship and Internship

5. All Above Supported 260. NASSCOM stands for

6. Nothing Else 1. National Association of Software and
Answer: All Above Supported Service Companies
257. NISCAIR Stands for 2. National Association of Software and
Service Computers
1. National Institute of Science
Communicate and Information 3. National Association of Software and
Resources Service Contents
2. National Institution of Science 4. National Association of Software and
Communication and Information Service Corporate
Resources Answer: National Association of Software
3. National Institute of Science and Service Companies
Communication and Information 261. NISG Stands for
Resources 1. National Infrastructure of Smart
4. National Institute of Service Government
Communication and Information 2. National Institute of Smart
Resources Government
Answer: National Institute of Science 3. National Institute of Service
Communication and Information Government
Resources
4. National Institute of Social
258. NISCOM and INSDOC When Merged Governing
and NISCAIR came into existence?
Answer: National Institute of Smart
1. 30 September 2003 Government
2. 30 September 2004 262. In which year NISG establish
3. 30 September 2005 1. 2002
4. 30 September 2002 2. 2004
Answer: 30 September 2002 3. 2006
259. N-LIST Stands for 4. 2008
1. National Library and Institution Answer: 2002
Infrastructure for Scholarly Content
263. Developing Library Network was set
2. National Library and Information up as a society in…….?
1. 1991
3. National Library and Information
2. 1992
3. 1993
4. National Library and Information
Infrastructure for Scholarly Context 4. 1994
Answer: National Library and Information Answer: 1992

264. Which Software resident all DELNET 5. UNITED NATIONS GROUP ON THE
Database? INFORMATION SERVICE
1. KOHA 6. UNITED NATIONS GROUP ON THE
2. LIBSIS INFORMATION SOURCE
3. DELSIS 7. UNITED NATIONS GROUP ON THE
INFORMATION SCIENCE
4. DSPACE
8. UNITED NATIONS GROUP ON THE
Answer: DELSIS
INFORMATION SOCIETY
265. NML Model Libraries would develop
Answer: UNITED NATIONS GROUP ON THE
Which Department of India?
INFORMATION SOCIETY
1. Ministry of Culture
270. WHEN UNGIS WAS ENDORSED?
2. Ministry of Electronic
1. APRIL 2004
3. Ministry of Law and Justice
2. APRIL 2007
4. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
3. APRIL 2006
Answer: Ministry of Culture
4. APRIL 2009
266. National Mission for Manuscripts was
Answer: April 2006
established in………?
271. WHAT IS FULL FORM OF WSIS?
1. February 2005
1. World Summits on Information
2. February 2004
Society
3. February 2002
2. World Summits on Inter Change
4. February 2003 Social life and Technique
Answer: February 2003 3. World Summits on Intellectual
267. National Informatics Centre (NIC) was Society and Patents
established in…..? 4. World Summits on Information
1. 1976 Science and Technology
2. 1975 Answer: World Summits on Information
3. 1977 Society
4. 1970 272. The Word Data is plural form of
Answer: 1976 which word?
1. Datin
268. Full form of WTO
8. World Television Organization 2. Datum
3. Daton
9. World Treaty Organization
10.World Trade Organization 4. Datrun
11.World Technical Organization Answer: Datum

273. The most widely used formats for
Answer: World Trade Organization
presenting data are:
269. What is UNGIS?
1. Mix aspect of communication. Pragmatics is

2. INLINE concerned with the purpose of
communication. Semantics is concerned
3. SHEET
with the content and meaning of the
4. Tabular message that is communicated. Syntax is
Answer: Tabular concerned with rules of the language –
274. Who ask “information is essentially logic, grammar and other formalisms – for
found "in answers to questions that begin representing the message
with such words as who, what, where, 277. Epistemology is the branch of
when, and how many" …………..that has as its focus the study of
1. Ranganathan knowledge; it investigates the nature and
2. Melvil Dewey origin of knowledge
1. Sociology
3. W.C Sayers
4. Ackoff 2. Zoology
Answer: Ackoff 3. Biology
275. Shannon and Weaver’s Theory of 4. Philosophy

Information,Shannon was working for Answer: Philosophy
………and his primary objective was to 278. …………… It is highly organized,
optimize transmission of telephone / “chunked'' knowledge that resides mainly
telegraph messages without distortion. in long-term memory. …………… can include
1. Cath Labs major concepts, vocabulary, facts, and
2. Science Labs relationships;
1. Semantic knowledge
3. Bell Labs
2. Declarative knowledge
4. X Ray Labs
Answer: Bell Labs 3. Procedural knowledge
276. The science of signs and sign systems 4. Episodic Knowledge

is known as Answer: Semantic knowledge
1. Systematic Explanation: Knowledge is classified on the
basis of whether it is procedural,
2. Sign Science
declarative, semantic, or episodic. •
3. Semiotics Procedural knowledge represents the
4. Semi communication understanding of how to carry out a
Answer: Semiotics specific process; • Declarative knowledge:
Explanation: The science of signs and sign It is routine knowledge about which the
systems is known as Semiotics and its expert is conscious. It is shallow
branches are Pragmatics, Semantics, knowledge that can be readily recalled
Syntax, and Empirics. Each one of these since it consists of simple and
branches is concerned with a specific uncomplicated information. This type of
knowledge often resides in short-term
memory; • Semantic knowledge: It is 282. “Information society is the building

highly organized, “chunked'' knowledge block for knowledge societies” Who Says?
that resides mainly in long-term memory. 1. Abdul Waheed Khan
Semantic knowledge can include major
2. Koïchiro Matsuura
concepts, vocabulary, facts, and
relationships; • Episodic Knowledge: It 3. Dr. Tawfik Jelassi
represents the knowledge based on 4. Irina Bokova
episodes (experimental information). Each Answer: Abdul Waheed Khan
episode is usually ``chunked'' in long-term 283. who revived its usage in his well
memory
known book, The Coming of Post-Industrial
279. Which Knowledge is used to codified Society?
and digitized in documents, books, reports, 1. Bell Labs
spreadsheets, memos, etc.
2. POPSI
1. Libre knowledge
3. Ackoff
2. Tacit knowledge
4. Daniel Bell
3. Meta knowledge
Answer: Daniel Bell
4. Explicit knowledge
284. Who is the writer of the Book “ Third
Answer: Explicit knowledge Wave”?
280. Choose the right Hierarchy of
1. Victor Hugo
knowledge Model?
2. Alvin Toffler
1. information- data -knowledge-
wisdom 3. Nelson Mandela
2. wisdom- data-information- 4. Kishwar Naheed
knowledge Answer: Alvin Toffler
3. data-information-knowledge- 285. If information sought has been
wisdom supplied by third party or is treated as
4. knowledge-wisdom-information- confidential by that third party, the third
data party must be given a representation
before the PIO in reply to the notice issued
Answer: data-information-knowledge- to him within ------ days from the date of
wisdom
receipt of such notice.
281. The term knowledge society was (a) 5 days
probably first used by…............ in 1969
(b) 15 days
1. H.P Luhn
(c) 10 days
2. Peter Drucker
(d) 7 days
3. S.R. Ranganathan
Answer - (c)
4. Melvil Dewey
286. What is the fee for getting
Answer: Peter Drucker information under RTI Act

(a) Rs.20/- Answer: d

(b) Rs.50/- 291. The First Appellate Authority under
(c) Rs.100/- RTI Act should decide on first appeals
(d) Rs.10/- a) Within 30 days from the receipt of the
first appeals.
Answer - (d)
b) In less number of days than the PIO
287. First appeal to the first appellate
concerned took to take a decision on the
authority can be preferred by the applicant
application
within -------- days from the expiry of the
prescribed time limit or from the receipt of c) In exceptional cases within 45 days from
the decision from the PIO the date of receipt of the appeal, if the
reasons are recorded.
(a) 30 days
d) (a)and (c) above
(b) 45 dyas
Answer: d
(c) 60 days
292. Central of State Public Information
(d) 90 days
Officer may allow access to information
Answer - (a) exempted under Section 8 (1) of the RTI
288. First Appeal shall be disposed of by Act 2005 if public interest in disclosure
the first appellate authority within ------ outweighs the harm to the protected
days from the date of its receipt. interests.
(a) 40 days a) The statement is correct.
(b) 30 days b) The statement is correct but it can be
(c) 60 days done only after approval of Appellate
(d) 50 days Authority.
Answer - (b) c) The statement is correct but it can be
done only after the approval of CIC
289. The first State to introduce the a law
on Right to information was d) None of these
a) Tamil Nadu Answer: a

b) UP 293. What does Right to Information
c) Maharashtra mean?
d) Gujarat a) Inspect works, documents, records.
Answer: a b) Take notes , extract or certified copies of
290. The time limit specified in the RTI Act, documents or records.
2005 for the Central / State Information c) Take certified samples of material.
Commissions to decide on complaints is d) All the above
a) 15 days Answer: d
b) One month
c) Two months
d) No such time limit has been specifie
294. What is the maximum amount if diploma programme in Library science /

penalty under RTI Act 2005 that can be Librarianship
imposed on CPIO? 1. University of Delhi
a) Rs. 300/- 2. University of Madras
b) Rs. 25,000/- 3. Andhra University
c) Rs. 75,000/- 4. Maharaja Sayaji Rao Gaekwad
d) Rs. 1,00,000/ University, Baroda
Answer: b Answer: University of Madras
295. Who among the following had 299. The first library school was
visualized something similar to the present established by Melville Dewey in?
day World Wide Web? 1. 1987
1. Claude Shannon 2. 1985
2. Ludwig Von Bertalanffy 3. 1988
3. Vanneaver Bush 4. 1986
4. Paul Otlet Answer: 1987
Answer: Vanneaver Bush 300. The National Commission on Libraries
296. Which of the following universities in and Information Science (NCLIS) was an
India first introduced Masterâ€™s degree agency in the United States government
programme in Library between 1970 and 2008. The activities of
Science/Librarianship the Commission were consolidated into
1. University of Delhi the…………?
2. University of Madras 1. American Librarian Association (ALA)
3. Karnataka University, Dharwad 2. Joint National Committee for
Languages (JNCL)
4. Banaras Hindu University
3. National Aeronautics and Space
Answer: University of Delhi
Administration (NASA)
297. Which of the following Universities
4. Institute of Museum and Library
set up the World's first university library
Services (IMLS
school
Answer: Institute of Museum and Library
1. Syracuse University
Services (IMLS
2. Rutgers University
301. Word processing, desktop publishing,
3. Columbia University and electronic calendars are examples of:
4. University of Chicago 1. Knowledge work systems
Answer: Columbia University 2. Artificial intelligence systems
298. Which of the following universities of 3. Decision support systems
India introduced the first post-graduate
4. Document imaging systems

5. Office systems 2. The purposes of Metadata are

Answer: Office systems (i) Unique identification
302. he stored learning from an (ii) Authentication of records
organization’s history that can be used for (iii) Shelf arrangement
decision-making and other purposes best
(iv) Shows the collection of a library
describes:
Codes:
1. Organizational learning
(A) (i), (ii) are correct
2. Tacit knowledge
(B) (ii), (iii) are correct
3. Knowledge warehouse
(C) (iii), (iv) are correct
4. Best practices
(D) (iv), (i) are correct
5. Organizational memory
Answer: (A)
Answer: Organizational memory
3. The primary difference between
knowledge classification and library
classification are
(i) Knowledge classification arranges
UNIT -2 MCQ knowledge itself.
1. One of the authorized users makes bulk (ii) Library classification arranges the
downloading of a Journal using robots and expression of knowledge in the form of
consequently licensor blocks access of the documents.
journal. What may be the most (iii) Knowledge classification is the basis of
appropriate action(s) that librarian should Library Classification.
initiate?
(iv) Knowledge classification follows
A) Cancelation of authentication of the system of numbers, called notation.
said user.
Codes :
B) Asking the licensor for blocking up the
access without prior information. (A) (i) and (ii) are correct
C) Investigate and take corrective (B) (i) and (iii) are correct
measures. (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
D) Notify user community of user (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
restrictions. Answer: (D)
Codes: 4. Which of the following activities are
(A) (ii), (iv) are correct supported by UGC?
(B) (ii), (iii) are correct (i) Facilitating increased access to
(C) (i), (iii) are correct information.
(D) (i), (ii), are correct (ii) Monitoring the implementation of
revised curriculum.
Answer: (D)

(iii) Making policies for human resource 7. The alternatives and modifications of H-
development Index are
(iv) Funding all academic libraries. (i) I-index
Codes: (ii) Pure-h Index
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (iii) Scimgo Journal Rank
(B) (i) and (iii) are correct (iv) European Impact Factor
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct Codes:
(D) (i) and (iv) are correct (A) (i) & (iii) are correct
Answer: (B) (B) (i) & (ii) are correct
5. Which of the following methods are (C) (i) & (iv) are correct
suitable to achieve quality of teaching,
(D) (ii) & (iii) are correct
learning in LIS?
Answer: (B)
(i) Research-led teaching
8. Digitization of various cultural resources
(ii) State of the art computer lab
is possible through
(iii) Problem-based learning
(i) Scanners
(iv) Introducing the course at degree level
(ii) Digital cameras
Codes:
(iii) Video cameras
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(iv) Smart & Mobile phones
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Codes:
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (iv), (iii) are correct
Answer: (C)
(C) (iii), (iv) are correct
6. Poor ‘Accessibility’ and less
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are correct
‘affordability’ of journal subscription in
print era led to Answer: (D)
(i) High allocation of funds for serials 9. What is/are common feature/s between
RFID & Barcode Technology?
(ii) Open access movement
(i) Read more than one item at a time
(iii) Decrease in subscription of journals
(ii) Able to locate specific items on shelves
(iv) E-journal consortia subscription
(iii) Programmable
Codes:
(iv) Read while item is moving
(A) (i) & (ii) are correct
Codes:
(B) (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
(C) (ii), (iv) are correct
(B) (iii), (iv) are correct
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) are correct
(C) (ii), (iv) are correct
Answer: (C)

(D) All the above are correct a b c d

Answer: (D) (A) i ii iii iv
10. When a librarian has to show the (B) iv iii ii i
rationale for the purchase of more e- (C) iii ii I iv
resources, which of the following’s will
(D) ii iii iv i
help to support his/her stand?
Answer: (B)
(i) Collection development policy
13. Match the following :
(ii) Indent from users
List – I List – II
(iii) Book selection tools
a. Amenable to further algebraic
(iv) All the above
treatment i. Mean deviation
Codes:
b. Estimated without knowing values of
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct extreme items ii. Medium
(B) (i) and (iii) are correct c. Mathematieally and logically
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct incorrect iii. Inter-quartile
(D) (iv) is correct deviation
Answer: (A) d. The dispersion does not cover all items
of a series iv. Arithmetic means
11. Assertion (A): Machine translation is
not a fully dependable service. Codes :
Reason (R) : The semantics of languages a b c d
are not fully encoded in algorithms. (A) iv ii I iii
Codes: (B) iii ii I iv
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false (C) ii iv iii i
(B) Both (A) & (R) are true (D) i iii iv ii
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true Answer: (A)
(D) Both (A) & (R) false. 14. Match the following :
Answer: (B) List – I List
12. Match the following: – II
List-I List-II a. Trade publisher i. UNESCO
a. INFLIBNET i) Digital Library b. Subject book publisher ii. American
b. INDEST-AICTE ii) Resource Psychological Society
aggregator c. Government Press iii. Harper
c. DELNET iii) E-consortia Collins
d. e-Gyankosh iv) d. Scholarly Publisher iv. W.B.
Organisation Saunders
Codes: Codes :
a b c d
(A) ii iv iii i d. Dr. J. Bhore

(B) iv iii i ii Committee. iv.
National Agricultural System of Agriculture
(C) i iv iii ii
Libraries
(D) iii iv i ii
Codes :
Answer: (D)
a b c d
(A) iii i ii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
a. Statistical Quality/Process Control
(C) iii i iv ii
(SQC/SPC) i. Identify the intensity of
each problem in (D) i iii ii iv
the production process Answer: (C)
b. Check Shets ii. Selected 17. Match the following :
variables checked List – I List – II
c. Pareto Chart iii. Identify a. Finding solution to the problem i.
the relationship between problems and Historical Research
causes of pilferage in libraries
d. Fish Bone Diagram iv. Record b. Implementation of could computing
variables in the production process ii. Action research
Codes : a b c d services in special libraries
(A) ii iv i iii c. A study of mathematician turned
librarian iii. Experimental
(B) iv ii iii i
Research
(C) iii iv i ii
d. Use of web resources in Central
(D) i ii iv iii Universities of India iv.
Answer: (A) Survey Research
16. Match the following : Codes : a b c d
List – I List – II (A) ii iii i iv
a. Sinha Committee i. Library staff (B) iii ii iv i
strength (C) iv i ii iii
b. Dr. S.R. Ranganathan (D) i iv iii ii
Committee ii. Central
Answer: (A)
Medical Library
c. Report of Dr. Shaw and Dr. D. B. Krishna
Rao iii. Libraries at Panchayat, Block, List – I List – II
District and State a. Internal Files i.
level WPD

b. Universal File Format ii. (A) iv ii i iii

OeB (B) iii ii iv i
c. Corel’s Word Perfect iii. (C) ii iv i iii
HTML
(D) i iii ii iv
d. Microsoft Reader iv.
Answer: (A)
RTF
Codes : a b c d
(A) i iii ii iv
a. PDFA i. High Colour
(B) ii iv iii i
depth images
(C) iv ii i iii
b. HTML ii. Rules for
(D) iii iv i ii encoding documents electronically
Answer: (D) c. TIFF iii. File format
19. Match the following : for long term archiving
List – I List – II d. XML iv. Language
a. Classical Models i. Ruesch for web pages
and Bateson’s Functional Model Codes : a b c d
b. Linear Model ii. Aristotle (A) ii iii i iv
c. Non-linear Model iii. Lasswell (B) iii iv i ii
d. Multi dimensional iv. Westley (C) i iii ii iv
and Mackan’s Conceptual Model (D) iv ii iii i
Codes : a b c d Answer: (B)
(A) ii iii iv i 22. Match the following :
(B) ii iv i iii List – I List – II
(C) i ii iii iv a. Introduction to Modern information
(D) iii ii iv i Retrieval i. H. Borko & C. Bernier
Answer: (A) (McGraw Hill)
20. Match the following : b. Indexing Concepts and Methods
(Academic Press) ii. G. Salton & M.J.
McGill
a. Henri La Fontaine i. Expansive
c. Thesaurus Construction: A Practical
Classification
Manual (Aslib) iii. J.E. Rowley & R. Hartley
b. H.E. Bliss ii.
d. Organizing Knowledge; An
Bibliographic Classification
introduction to iv. J. Aitchison & A.
c. C.A. Cutter iii. LC Gilchrist
d. J.C.M Hansar iv. UDC Managing Acess to Information (Ashgate)
Codes : a b c d Codes : a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv 25. Match the following :

(B) ii i iv iii List – I List – II
(C) iv i ii iii a. Resource Description i.
(D) iii i iv ii MARC
Answer: (D) b. Resource Discovery ii. ISO
10160/10161
c. Resource Exchange iii. Dublin
Care
a. Papyrus i. Assyria &
d. Interlibrary Loan iv. Z 39.50
Babylonia
Codes : a b c d
b. Handmade paper ii. Egypt
(A) ii i iv iii
c. Clay tablets iii. Medieval
Europe (B) iv ii i iii
d. Vellum/Parchment iv. China (C) iii iv ii i
Codes : a b c d (D) iii iv i ii
(A) ii iv i iii Answer: (D)
(B) iv ii iii i 26. Match the following :
(C) iii iv i ii List – I List – II
(D) iii ii iv i a. Public Library Extension i. KD
Metcalf
Answer: (A)
b. Academic Library Management ii. M A
Gelfand
c. University Libraries for Developing
a. Icon i. Character Countries iii. L R McColvin
strings
d. Planning Academic and Research
b. Menus ii. Select objects on Library Buildings iv. M B Line
the screen
Codes : a b c d
c. Dialogue Bou iii. Bit mapped
(A) iii iv ii i
region
(B) iv ii i iii
d. Pointing devices iv. Obtain
information from the end users (C) iii i iv ii
Codes : a b c d (D) ii iii i iv
(A) i ii iii iv Answer: (A)
(B) iii iv ii i 27. Match the following :
(C) ii iii iv i List – I List – II
(D) iii i iv ii a. Indian Cultural Heritage i.
TKDL
Answer: (D)

b. Race & Brittle ii. IGNCA (D) Both (A) & (R) are true.
c. Traditional Knowledge iii. C-DAC Answer: (C)
d. Mobile Digital Library iv. 30. Assertion (A) : Technical writing
National Library standards, style manulas and citation
Codes : a b c d standards are very essential in structuring
the research report.
(A) i iv iii ii
Reason (R) : Value will get enhanced by
(B) iv iii ii i
standardizing the structure of research
(C) ii iv i iii report.
(D) iii ii iv i Codes:
Answer: (C) (A) (A) is true and (R) is partially true.
28. Match the following : (B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
List – I List – II (C) Both (A) and (R) are flase.
a. Carol Kuhlthau i. 8 (D) (A) is true and (R) is flase.
stages
Answer: (A)
b. David Ellis ii. ISB is a 6
31. Which of the following research
stage process
method is useful in a study of scattering of
c. M.J. Belkin iii. ISB is of 8 periodicals.
key activities
(i) Citation analysis study
d. Marchionnini iv. ISB is 4
(ii) Webometric study
dimension characteristic
(iii) Bibliometrics study
Codes : a b c d
(iv) Scientrometic study
(A) ii iii iv i
Codes:
(B) ii iii i iv
(A) (i) and (iii) are correct
(C) iii i iv ii
(B) (iv), (iii) and (i) are correct
(D) iv ii i iii
(C) (i) is correct
Answer: (A)
(D) (i) and (ii) are correct
29. Assertion (A) : Colon classification is
popular in online catalogues. Answer: (B)
Reason (R) : Traditional classification 32. Which of the following were produces
systems are used in online searching by Institute of Scientific Information (ISI)
advantageously. (i) Science Citation Index
Codes : (ii) Current Contents
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (iii) Social Science Citation Index
(B) Both (A) & (R) true, but (R) is not the (iv) Atom Index
correct explanation of (A). Codes:
(C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (iv) Library of Congress Classification
(B) (i) and (iv) are correct Codes:
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(D) (i) and (ii) and (iii) are correct (A) i, iv, ii, iii
Answer: (D) (B) i, iv, iii, ii
33. Principles of Facet sequence includes (C) iii, iv, i, ii
(i) Whole –organ principle (D) ii, iii, i, iv
(ii) Principle of osmosis Answer: (A)
(iii) Cow-Calf principle 36. The Provision relating to ‘suo motu’
(iv) Principle of Parsimony disclosure is contained in
Codes: a) Section 4 of RTI Act
(A) (i) and (iv) are correct b) Section 11 of RTI Act
(B) (i) and (iii) are correct c) Section 22 of RTI Act
(C) (ii) and (iv) are correct d) Section 24 of RTI Act
(D) (i) and (ii) and (iii) are correct Answer: a
Answer: (B) 37. Indian Library Science Abstracts is
published by ______.
34. Arrange the following networks
chronologically according to their year of 1. IATLIS
establishment 2. SIS
(i) INFLIBNET 3. IFLA
(ii) DELNET 4. IASLIC
(iii) BLAISE Answer: 4
(iv) JANET 38. Who developed "Seven Faces of
Codes: Information Literacy"?
(A) ii, iv, iii, i 1. David Loerfscher
(B) iii, iv, ii, i 2. Christine Susan Bruce
(C) I, iii, iv, i 3. Robert E. Berkowitz
(D) iii, iv, i, ii 4. Jamie Mc Kenzic
Answer: (B) Answer: 2
35. Arrange the following schemes of 39. Part 3 of Colon Classification (6th ed.)
classification according to the year of their deals with:
publication. 1. Schedules of classics and sacred
(i) Expansive classification books with special names
(ii) Subject classification 2. Rules
(iii) Bibliograhic classification 3. Schedules of Classification

4. Relative Index Answer: 1

Answer: 1 45. For achievement in cataloguing and
40. S.R. Ranganathan used the ______ classification ALA has instituted an award
term for Mobile Library. in honour of ________.
1. Moving Library 1. John Daniel
2. Library on wheels 2. Margaret Mann
3. Library on Mobile 3. J. H. Shera
4. Library Machine 4. J. S. Mills
Answer: 2 Answer: 2
41. Dublin Core Metadata consists of: 46. 'Journal of Librarianship' was first
published by the _________ in 1969.
1. 12 Elements
1. The Library Association (UK)
2. 13 Elements
2. Australian Library Association
3. 14 Elements
3. American Library Association
4. 15 Elements
4. Canada Library association.
Answer: 4
Answer: 3
42. The data base Indian Patents is
published by: 47. The headquarter of the Society for
Information Science (SIS) is located at:
1. NISCAIR
1. National Physical Laboratory (CSIR),
2. NASSDOC
New Delhi
3. NISTADS
2. IIT, New Delhi
4. DESIDOC
3. NISCAIR, New Delhi
Answer: 1
4. AIIMS, New Delhi
43. 'Berne Convention' (1886) is concerned
Answer: 1
with:
48. The centre which is not a Sectoral
1. Copyright
Information Centre of NISSAT is
2. Standards
1. Central Food Technological Research
3. Trade Institute (Mysore)
4. Patents 2. Central Drug Research Institute
Answer: 1 (Lucknow)
44. DARE, which is a UNESCO database, 3. Central Manufacturing Technology
provides information for: Institute (Bangalore)
1. Social Sciences 4. Central Road Research Institute
2. Applied Sciences (New Delhi)
3. Law Answer: 4
4. Pure Sciences
49. Indian Library Science Abstracts is 3. T. Wilson and D. Allen

published by ______. 4. I. S. Simpson
1. IATLIS Answer: 1
2. SIS 54. 'National Medical Library' is located at:
3. IFLA 1. Chennai
4. IASLIC 2. Kolkata
Answer: 4 3. Delhi
50. The data base Indian Patents is 4. Mumbai
published by:
Answer: 3
1. NISCAIR
55. Library Association (U.K.) is now the
2. NASSDOC component of:
3. NISTADS 1. IFLA
4. DESIDOC 2. CILIP
Answer: 1 3. ALA
51. FRBR stands for: 4. ASLIB
1. Fundamental Requirements for Answer: 2
Biblio graphic records
56. 'Library Technology Reports' (2017) is a
2. Functional Region for Bibliographic publication of ______.
Records
1. ALA
3. Functional Requirements for
2. ILA
Bibliographic Records
3. IFLA
4. Functional Requirements for
Bibliographic Remarks 4. UNESCO
Answer: 3 Answer: 2
52. What is the frequency of LISA (Print 57. Library Information Science Technology
Version)? Abstracts (LISTA) is available through:
1. Monthly 1. Elsevier
2. Weekly 2. Ebsco Host
3. Half Yearly 3. Proquest
4. Annual 4. Science Direct
Answer: 1 Answer: 2
53. The book "The Measurement and 58. Who publishes Annals of Library
Evaluation of Library Services" is written Science and documentation?
by: 1. ILA
1. S. L. Baker and F. W. Lancaster 2. INSDOC
2. C. H. Busha and S. P. Harter 3. DRTC
4. IASLIC 1. Chattopadhyay Committee

Answer: 2 2. Sinha Committee
59. In which year the WIPO Copyright 3. Ranganathan Committee
Treaty was adopted? 4. NAPLIS
1. 1995 Answer: 2
2. 1996 64. 'Berne Convention' (1886) is concerned
3. 1997 with:
4. 1998 1. Copyright
Answer: 2 2. Standards
60. When an author has not registered his 3. Trade
/ her work under copyright but legally 4. Patents
proceeded over dispute of ownership.
Answer: 1
What is the validity of ownership?
65. "The Nehru Memorial Museum and
1. No ownership without Registration
Library" is an autonomous institution
2. It may not be legally tenable functioning under the:
3. Ownership is automatic 1. Ministry of Human of Human
4. Both (A) and (B) are correct Resource Development
Answer: 3 2. Ministry of Sports
61. what is the standard size of Accession 3. Ministry of Culture
register? 4. Ministry of Information and
1. 16" × 13" Broadcasting
2. 18" × 14" Answer: 3
3. 14" × 12" 66. In which Indian state, there is no
4. 16" × 16" provision of library cess in its Public Library
Act?
Answer: 1
1. Maharashtra
62. Which of the following first enacted
Public Libraries Act before independence 2. Kerala
in 1945? 3. Haryana
1. Kolhapur Public Libraries Act 4. Karnatka
2. Tamil Nadu Public Libraries Act Answer; 1
3. Andhra Pradesh Public Libraries Act 67. Arrange the following State Public Acts
4. ILA Public Libraries Act in chronological order :
Answer: 1 (a) Gujarat Public Library Act
63. The Advisory Committee for libraries (b) Bihar Public Library Act
appointed by the Government of India is (c) Goa Public Library Act
also known as:
(d) Arunachal Pradesh Public Library Act 72. Which Law of Library Science is related
1. (a), (c), (b), (d) with the obligation of state, library
authority and reader?
2. (c), (a), (b), (d)
1. First Law
3. (b), (a), (c), (d)
2. Fifth Law
4. (d), (a), (c), (b)
3. Second law
Answer: 2
4. Third Law
68. Which law of 'Library Science'
advocates the weeding of unused material Answer; 3
from the library? 73. At which conference the first model
1. First Law public library act was presented by Dr.
Rangnathan in Banaras?
2. Fifth Law
1. All India Education Confrence,
3. Third Law
Banaras
4. Fourth Law
2. All India Library Confrence, Banaras
Answer: 2
3. All India Sciecne Confrence, Banaras
69. The 'Delivery of Books Act' was
4. All Asia Education Confrence,
enacted in the year:
Banaras
1. 1951
Answer: 4
2. 1954
74. The word the library is made of the
3. 1964 word
4. 1867 a. Latin Word ' Liber
Answer: 2 b. Latin Word ' Liberay
70. 'Rajasthan Public Library Act' was c. Greek Word ' Liber
enacted in ______.
d. Latin Word Lib
1. 2002
Ans- a
2. 2009
75. The library for the people, of the
3. 2003 people and by the people is called
4. 2006 1. Public Library
Answer: 4 2. Institution Library
71. Model Library Bill helps in 3. National Library
1. knowing public libraries better 4. None of These
2. modifying existing Library Acts Ans- a
3. drafting Library Acts 76. What are the first law of library
4. None of these science?
Answer: 3 a. The library is a growing organism
b. Books are for use
c. Every reader his/ her book 81. Where is the National Library of India
d. Save the time of the reader situated?
Ans- b a. Delhi
77. In which law of library science, the b. Kolkata
concept of child and adult growth has been c. Mumbai
discussed? d. Goa
a. 2th Law of Library Science Ans- b
b. 3th Law of Library Science 82. What are the main sources of income
c. 4th Law of Library Science for public libraries?
d. 5th Law of Library Science - "The library a. Donation
is a growing organism" b. Earn from Book Sell
Ans- d c. Library Cess
78. In which year the Delivery of Book Act d. None of Above
was passed in India?
Ans- c
a. 1955
83. What is the meaning of Resource
b. 1954 sharing?
c. 1956 a. Sharing of books
d. 1957 b. Sharing of materials
Ans- b c. Sharing of all sources
79. Who was brought by Sayaji Gaikwad ii d. Sharing of all sources, services, and
for the improvement of the library services staffs
in Baroda state?
Ans- d
a. W. Borden
84. Physical condition of the books should
b. W. Waden be property maintained. This is known as
c. Dr. Ranganathan (A) Collation.
d. Dr. Devey (B) Conservation
Ans- a (C) Shelf-arrangement
80. Library cess in one of the sources of (D) Organization
finance for which type of libraries?
Answer: (B)
a. Public Library
85. ________ is an important record of
b. National Library books, which shows the position of any
c. College Library book on the shelves.
d. Special Library (A) Bay Guide
Ans- a (B) Authority File
(C) Accession List.

(D) Shelf. .List (A) DESIDOC

Answer: (D) (B) INSDOC
86. Three great achievements in U.S.A. (C) DRTC
were noticed i.e. enunciation of DDC (D) UGC.
classification scheme, formation of
Answer: (B)
American Library Association and the
publication of 1st Journal of the 91. User education may be provided in
librarianship in the year four interrelated areas which are
(A) 1857 (A) User's awareness, user studies, library
orientation, bibliographic instruction
(B) 1859
(B) User's awareness, library orientation,
(C) 1876
inter-profiling, bibliographic instruction
(D) 1901.
(C) Aptitude test of the users, use of
Answer: (C) cataloguing, inter-profiling, user's
87. Books lost from the library are known awareness
through ________ (D) Bibliographic instruction, library
(A) Stock verification orientation, computer literacy, user's
(B) Charging and discharging awareness.
(C) Shelf list Answer: (A)
(D) Accession Register 92. 'Fair use' is the norm for determining
the legality of
Answer: (A)
(A) Producing the second edition of a book
88. LA is the Library Association of
(B) Photocopying an entire book
(A) Manipur
(C) Making available a book to another
(B) Andhra Pradesh
library on inter-library loan
(C) Great Britain
(D) Prescribing a book as a text book.
(D) Canada.
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
93. Generally a reference service of a
89. Of the following libraries in India, library in the conventional form is
which one is the oldest library? processed through the stages which are
(A) Asiatic Society Library, Bombay (A) Preparation, service, assimilation
(B) Connemara Public Library, Madras (B) Indexing, orientation, delivery of the
(C) Delhi Public Library, Delhi query's reply
(D) National Library of India, Calcutta. (C) Orientation, user's study, photocopy
Answer: (D) supplied
90. The first centre to use computer in the (D) Preparation, orientation, delivery of
library and information activities in India is the query's reply.

Answer: (A) (D) All of the above

94. ________ is a process of helping Answer: (D)
employees in an organization to acquire 99. What are three types of basic
new skills and competence on a continuing languages used in computer programming?
basis
(A) Zero, low and high levels
(A) Total Quality Management
(B) COBOL, BASIC and PROLOG
(B) Management Information System
(C) FOTRAN, PL/I and SNOWBOL
(C) Financial Resources Development
(D) Machine, Assembly and high level
(D) Human Resources Development. lannguages
Answer: (A) Answer: (D)
95. PR stands for 100. When CD-ROM was prepared and
(A) Indian Press Registration made?
(B) Intellectual Property Right (A) 1985
(C) International Property Right (B) 1982
(D) Indian Property Regulations. (C) 1980
Answer: (B) (D) 1977
96. On which of the following technologies Answer: (A)
semantic web is not based? 101. In how many ways switching system
(A) RDF can be established?
(B) Ontologies (A) Two
(C) Cloud seeding (B) Three
(D) URI (C) Five
Answer: (C) (D) Seven
97. The concept of Artificial Intelligence Answer: (B)
(AI) belongs to ____________________ 102. Which type of switching system is
(A) Second Generation Computers telephone network?
(B) Third Generation Computers (A) Circuit switching
(C) Fourth Generation Computers (B) Packet switching
(D) Fifth Generation Computers (C) Message switching
Answer: (D) (D) None of the above
98. Computer memory is measured in Answer: (A)
____________________ 103. Which of the following software is
(A) Bytes useful for word processing?
(B) Kilobytes (A) DBASE
(C) Megabytes (B) LIBSYS

(C) WordStar Answer: (A)

(D) CDS/ISIS 109. Raw, unevaluated, unprocessed and
Answer: (C) unorganized facts is known as:
104. NICNET and INDONET are the (A) Data
networks of which category? (B) Information
(A) LAN (C) Knowledge
(B) MAN (D) Wisdom
(C) WAN Answer: (A)
(D) IN 110. Information retrieval is fastest from
Answer: (C) (A) Floppy Disk
105. What is a bug? (B) Magnetic Tape
(A) Computer Virus (C) Hard Disk
(B) Error in Computer Configuration (D) None of the above
(C) Error in a Programme Answer: (C)
(D) None of these 111. An University providing Open Access
Answer: (C) to Sanskrit dissertations through Internet
106. Which is not a programming (A) Jawaharlal Nehru University
language? (B) Delhi University
(A) FORTRAN (C) Mahatma Gandhi University
(B) BASIC (D) University of Madras
(C) COBOL Answer: (B)
(D) ASCII 112. In which of the following the term
Answer: (D) “Truncation” is used
107. ISO-9960 is related with? (A) Budgeting
(A) Standard for encoding data on CD-ROM (B) Search Formulation
(B) Standard for Computer Hardware (C) Coordination
(C) Standard for Information Processing (D) Classified bibliography
(D) Standard for Networking Answer: (B)
Answer: (A) 113. The CD alphabets in CDS/ISIS stands
for
108. ASCII has how many codes?
(A) Computerized Documentation
(A) 256
(B) Condensed Disk
(B) 526
(C) Confirmed Disc
(C) 265
(D) Compact Disc
(D) 254
Answer: (A)
114. Electronic telecommunications system (A) Blog

joining millions of computers together. (B) Facebook
(A) E-mail (C) UGC-INFONET 2.0
(B) Internet (D) RSS feeds
(C) US Mail Answer: (C)
(D) UPS 120. Following is an example of
Answer: (B) microblogging:
115. Following is not a social bookmarking (A) Wordpress
site: (B) Blogspot
(A) Digg (C) Livejournal
(B) Delicious (D) Twitter
(C) Sqidoo Answer: (D)
(D) Facebook 121. Now-a-days how many types of
Answer: (C) Protocol are used ?
116. Following is not a network protocol: (A) 5
(A) HTTP (B) 4
(B) SMTP (C) 3
(C) TCP/IP (D) 2
(D) Z39.50 Answer: (D)
Answer: (D) 122. Which type of protocol is used by
117. LOCKOSS (Software) is an interface for public data network (PDN)?
international community initiative by: (A) X.25
(A) MIT Libraries (B) X.12
(B) Stanford University (C) X.13
(C) University of Waikato (D) X.20
(D) University of Southampton Answer: (A)
Answer: (B) 123. In Which five year plan the INFLIBNET
118. Identify the odd one from the was established
following: (A) Fourth five year plan
(A) Koha (B) Fifth five year plan
(B) VTLS (C) Sixth five year plan
(C) SLIM++ (D) Seventh five year plan
(D) SOUL Answer: (D)
Answer: (A) 124. Resource sharing is a part of …
119. Following is not a Web 2.0 tool: (A) Library cooperation
(B) Library administration (C) A LIbrary

(C) Library management (D) An Encyclopeadia
(D) Library cataloguing Answer: (B)
Answer: (A) 130. Which two is a Library Management
125. Which one is a full text e-Resource? Software for small libraries?
(A) JCCC (A) Library Solution and Follet
(B) ISID (B) Follet and MSN
(C) Science finder scholar (C) MSN and Tar
(D) ACS (D) LYCOS and Live Search
Answer: (D) Answer: (A)
126. Which one is E-Bibliographic 131. What is APS?
database? (A) A Search Engine?
(A) Nature (B) A Full-text e-resource
(B) Blackwell (C) Bibliographic database
(C) ISID (D) Library Management Software
(D) Springer Answer: (B)
Answer: (C) 132. Which one is Library and Information
127. Virtua accommodates Different Science Journal name?
version of the MARC Standard? (A) Reference Reviews incorporating ASLIB
(A) USMARC Book Guide
(B) UKMARC (B) Reference Reviews incorporating ASLIB
Book journals
(C) CANMARC
(C) Reference Reviews incorporating ASLIB
(D) SWEMARC/All of above
Book Review
Answer: (D)
(D) Reference Reviews incorporating ASLIB
128. Which is the journal of Library and E-Book
Information Science?
Answer: (A)
(A) Abacus
133. Questionnaire is a :
(B) Acta numerica
(A) Research method
(C) Interlending and Document supply
(B) Measurement Technique
(D) All of above
(C) Tool for data collection
Answer: (C)
(D) All the above
129. The Electronic Library is......................
Answer: (C)
(A) A Magazine
134. This library promotes research in
(B) A Journal Name universities.

a) Public Library c) Public Library

b) School Library d) Academic Library
c) Virtual Library Answer: a
d) Academic Library
140. This library is used by students in high
Answer: d school.
135. Which library is used by employees of a) Academic Library
an organization? b) National Library
a) Virtual Library c) School Library
b) Special Library d) Virtual Library
c) National Library Answer: c
d) Public Library
141. Which library is located in every
Answer: b university or college?
136. Serves populations such as the blind a) National Library
and physically challenged. b) Public Library
a) Special Library c) School Library
b) National Library d) Academic Library
c) Academic Library Answer: d
d) Public Library
142. This library serves communities of all
Answer: a sizes and types.
137. You can use this library to get a) School Library
resources over the internet. b) National Library
a) Academic Library c) Public Library
b) National Library d) Virtual Library
c) Special Library Answer: c
d) Virtual Library
143. This type of library is located in EACH
Answer: d parish capital.
138. Which one BEST tells who are the a) Academic Library
users of the national library? b) National Library
a) Members of Staff c) Virtual Library
b) Lecturers d) Public Library
c) Students Answer: d
d) The General Public
144. Special libraries are in all the
Answer: d following EXCEPT:
139. A tourist wants to know more about a a) Hospitals
country. Which library should the person b) Military
visit? c) Schools
a) National Library d) Government
b) Special Library Answer: c

145. This library has the responsibility for (B) Brussels, Belgium
preserving the nation's documented (C) Paris, France
heritage.
(D) Geneva, Switzerland
a) Virtual Library
Answer: (A)
b) Public Library
c) Academic Library 150. What is the full form of LED in Colon
d) National Library Classification?
Answer: d (A) Latest Effective Decade
146. Which of the following Universities (B) Latest Energy Division
was the pioneer to appoint a Reference (C) Light Emitting Diode
Librarian for the first time in India? (D) Latest Effective Division
(A) Banaras Hindu University Answer: (A)
(B) Delhi University 151. Ranganathan’s modified rules of chain
(C) Madras University procedure for deriving subject headings of
(D) Aligarh Muslim University specific subject entry was modified by M
M Job, who suggested to include
Answer: (C)
(A) Space isolate as a sought link term
147. Which of the following organisations
in India is responsible for assigning the (B) Time isolate as a sought link term
thirteen digit International Standard Book (C) ACI as a sought link term
Number? (D) None of the above
(A) NISCAIR Answer: (B)
(B) Raja Ram Mohun Roy National Agency 152. “Report on the Testing and Analysis of
for ISBN an Investigation into the Comparative
(C) Raja Rammohun Roy Library Efficiency of Indexing Systems” contains
Foundation the findings of the project entitled
(D) The National Library, Kolkata (A) MEDLARS
Answer: (B) (B) Cranfield I
148. The word ‘hyper’ in hypertext means (C) ISILT
(A) extension into broader dimensions (D) STAIRS
(B) extension into similar dimensions Answer: (B)
(C) extension into other dimensions 153. BABYLON is a computer software for
(D) extension into narrower dimensions (A) digital library
Answer: (C) (B) library management system
149. European Translation Centre is (C) translation
located at (D) statistical calculation
(A) Delft, Netherlands Answer: (C)

154. ‘User education’ and ‘Information Answer: (A)

literacy’ are semantically related as 159. Which of the following is the
(A) BT-NT publisher of Dewey Decimal Classification
(B) NT-BT 23rd edition
(C) RT-RT (A) Library of Congress
(D) Use-UF (B) Forest Press
Answer: (B) (C) OCLC
155. The retrieval technique designed to (D) British Standards Institute
find terms that are spelled incorrectly at Answer: (C)
data entry or query input is known as 160. INFOTERRA is a global environmental
(A) term masking information network of
(B) case sensitive searching (A) UNDP
(C) fuzzy searching (B) UNISIST
(D) proximity searching (C) UNEP
Answer: (C) (D) OECD
156. The Principle of Later-in-Time is one Answer: (C)
of the principles of 161. From which edition the concept of
(A) Fundamental Categories Phoenix schedule was introduced in DDC?
(B) Helpful Sequence (A) DDC 8th ed.
(C) Facet Sequence (B) DDC 13th ed.
(D) None of the above (C) DDC 16th ed.
Answer: (B) (D) DDC 19th ed.
157. Who had referred to notation as a Answer: (C)
shorthand sign? 162. ‘A digit with ordinal value but without
(A) P. N. Kaula semantic value’ is known as
(B) H.E. Bliss (A) an empty digit
(C) E. C. Richardson (B) an emptying digit
(D) E. W. Hulme (C) an empty-emptying digit
Answer: (C) (D) none of the above
158. Who has written the book “Grammar Answer: (A)
of Classification”? 163. According to IFLA’s FRBR, the
(A) W. C. B. Sayers objectives of an information system can be
(B) J. D. Brown expressed by the following tasks:
(C) Palmer and Wells (A) locate, select, obtain and collocate
(D) S. R. Ranganathan (B) find, select, obtain and navigate

(C) identify, find, obtain and collocate (B) Classification

(D) find, identify, select and obtain (C) Reclassification
Answer: (D) (D) Preservation
164. For which of the following subjects Answer: (C)
FORSA consortium is dedicated? 168. The term ‘Librametry’ was first used
(A) Medical Sciences by
(B) Forestry (A) S. R. Ranganathan
(C) Physics (B) Alan Pritchard
(D) Astronomy and Astrophysics (C) Allen Kent
Answer: (D) (D) A. C. Foskett
165. In Colon Classification 6th edition, Answer: (B)
which of the following symbols is used to 169. Raja Rammohun Roy Library
represent phase relation? Foundation is basically responsible for
(A) λ development of
(B) & (A) Academic library
(C) 0 (B) National library
(D) Δ (C) Special library
Answer: (C) (D) Public library
166. The U.S. National Science Foundation Answer: (D)
has been funding a digital library 170. An invisible college is a typical
programme called the NSDL. The name is a example of
recursive acronym: NSDL is the National
(A) informal channel of communication
SMETE Digital Library, where SMETE stands
for (B) formal channels of communication
(A) Science, Medicine, Engineering, (C) both (A) and (B)
Technology and Education (D) none of the above
(B) Science, Management, Engineering and Answer: (A)
Technology Education 171. ‘Universal Bibliographical Control’ is a
(C) Science, Medicine, Engineering and programme of
Technology Education (A) FID
(D) Science, Mathematics, Engineering and (B) IFLA
Technology Education
(C) UNISIST
Answer: (D)
(D) ALA
167. Principles of Osmosis is concerned Answer: (B)
with
(A) Stock taking

172. The Cow-Calf Principle as enunciated Journal of the American Society for
by Dr. S. R. Ranganathan is useful to Information Science =?
determine (A) Bulletin of the American Society for
(A) the sequence of isolates in an array Information Science and Technology
(B) the sequence of isolates in a chain (B) American Documentation
(C) the facet sequence (C) Annual Review of Information Science
(D) none of the above and Technology
Answer: (C) (D) American Libraries
173. When did Shannon and Weaver put Answer: (B)
forth the mathematical model of 177. The term ‘hypertext’ was coined by
communication? (A) Ted Nelson
(A) 1938 (B) Charles Babbage
(B) 1942 (C) Tim Berners-Lee
(C) 1945 (D) Tay Vaughan
(D) 1949 Answer: (A)
Answer: (D) 178. Library legislation generally ensures
174. Who has coined the term ‘blog’? smooth management of
(A) John Berger (A) Academic libraries
(B) Peter Merholz (B) Documentation centres
(C) Micheal Zeinne (C) Public libraries
(D) David Weiner (D) Special libraries
Answer: (B) Answer: (C)
175. h-index is an index that attempts to 179. Which digital library software was
measure the productivity and impact of developed at Cornell University?
the published work of (A) FEDORA
(A) An Institution (B) EPrints
(B) A Scientist (C) GSDL
(C) A Journal (D) DSpace
(D) An Article Answer: (A)
Answer: (B) 180. Which of the following is not a salient
176. If SRELS Journal of Information feature of Bibliographical Database
Management = Library Science with a Slant Management System?
to Documentation = Library Science, then (A) Variable Field
Journal of the American Society for
(B) Fixed Field
Information Science and Technology =
(C) Repeatable Field

(D) None of the above (B) David Rosenthal

Answer: (B) (C) David Bainbridge
181. The latest revised ANSI/NISO (D) David Hawking
standard forming the basis of MARC 21 is Answer: (C)
(A) Z 39.2—1994 (R 2009) 186. Which one of the following is not a
(B) Z 39.19—2005 (R 2010) part of MARC record structure?
(C) Z 39.84—2005 (R 2010) (A) Leader
(D) Z 39.50—2003 (R 2009) (B) Directory
Answer: (A) (C) Record terminator
182. Formal courses in Librarianship was (D) Check digit
started in Answer: (D)
(A) University of Calcutta 187. The book entitled ‘Five laws of Library
(B) University of Dhaka Science’ was first published in
(C) Columbia University (A) 1925
(D) University of London (B) 1930
Answer: (C) (C) 1931
183. When DSpace was first released under (D) 1933
the terms of the BSD open source license? Answer: (A)
(A) 2000 188. The arrangement of the ‘text’ part of
(B) 2002 the Roget’s Thesaurus is akin to that of
(C) 2004 (A) a classification system
(D) 1998 (B) an ontology
Answer: (B) (C) a dictionary
184. The first 3 digits of an International (D) an index
Standard Book Number (ISBN-978 Answer: (A)
8124706978) is representing EAN which
189. Which one of the following is the
refers to
formula for calculating recall ratio?
(A) European Author Number
(A) (Retrieved relevant documents ÷ Total
(B) European Accession Number relevant documents) × 100
(C) International Abbreviation Number (B) (Total retrieved documents ÷ Retrieved
(D) International Article Number relevant documents) × 100
Answer: (D) (C) (Total retrieved documents ÷ Retrieved
185. The title How to Build a Digital Library irrelevant documents) × 100
is jointly authored by Ian Witten and (D) None of the above
(A) David Worthington Answer: (A)

190. Index Medicus is brought out as Answer: (B)

printed publication 195. The indexing techniques (0-3) as used
(A) Quarterly in WINISIS will produce
(B) Monthly (A) post coordinate index
(C) Weekly (B) pre coordinate index
(D) Has ceased publication (C) both (A) and (B)
Answer: (B) (D) none of the above
191. Which of the following organisations Answer: (B)
is not established under the aegis of the 196. INSDOC has been merged with
Ministry of Culture? NISCOM and is now known as
(A) National Mission of Manuscripts (A) DELNET
(B) National Library of India (B) NISCAIR
(C) India Office Library (C) DESIDOC
(D) Raja Rammohun Roy Library (D) NASSDOC
Foundation
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
197. Identify the correct order of the
192. The RFID technology is used in the evolution of the following storage devices
library to perform in descending order:
(A) Information retrieval (A) DVD, Magnetic tape, Floppy, CD
(B) Serial management (B) Magnetic tape, DVD, CD, Floppy
(C) Circulation operations (C) DVD, CD, Floppy, Magnetic tape
(D) SDI service (D) DVD, Floppy, Magnetic tape, CD
Answer: (C) Answer: (C)
193. A dictionary is a ________ source of 198. What is the new name of ISBD (S)?
information.
(A) ISBD (JR)
(A) primary
(B) ISBD (CR)
(B) tertiary
(C) ISBD (ER)
(C) secondary
(D) None of the above
(D) none of the above
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
199. The correct order of steps involved in
194. ‘Dware-Dware Gyan Sampada’ is a digital conversion of print materials is
(A) Public Library Initiative (A) encoding, scanning, searching, display
(B) Digital Library Initiative (B) scanning, encoding, searching, display
(C) Virtual Library Initiative (C) scanning, encoding, display, searching
(D) UNESCO Initiative (D) encoding, scanning, display, searching

Answer: (B) 204. In Dublin Core Metadata Schema,

200. ‘Melvil Dewey Medal’ is an annual which of the following elements does not
award given by have any qualifier?
(A) IFLA Award Committee (A) Title
(B) ALA Award Committee (B) Creator
(C) ILA Award Committee (C) Subject
(D) ASLIB Award Committee (D) Descriptors
Answer: (B) Answer: (B)
201. What is the meaning of ‘Translation 205. Which of the following cannot be
Pools’? measured using an ordinal scale ?
(A) Details about the names of translation (A) Age
experts (B) Annual income
(B) Details about the addresses of the (C) Grade point average
translators (D) Religion
(C) Agency of the names of translation Answer: (D)
experts
206. Database management system that
(D) None of the above provides more flexible, albeit, more
Answer: (C) complex, logical data models is :
202. ‘Million Book Project’ was initiated by (A) Hierarchical Database Management
(A) Pittsburg University System
(B) MIT, USA (B) Network Database Management
System
(C) Michigan University
(C) Relational Database Management
(D) Carnegie Mellon University
System
Answer: (D)
(D) Subject Oriented Database
203. A category-based systematic scheme Management System
of hierarchical classification incorporating
Answer: (B)
hierarchical relationships among the
terms, control of synonyms, quasi- 207. In Binary Number System digit 4 is
synonyms and antonyms in extended represented by :
sense is known as (A) 10
(A) Thesaurus (B) 11
(B) Thesaurofacet (C) 100
(C) Classaurus (D) 101
(D) None of the above Answer: (C)
Answer: (C) 208. Open System Interconnection was an
effort to:

(A) Standardise networking (A) Experimental group

(B) Provide Internet Connectivity (B) Informal group
(C) Provide e-mails (C) Multiple group
(D) Standardise bibliographic description (D) Controlled group
Answer: (A) Answer: (A)
209. What is not true about spamming ? 214. People who are available, volunteer
(A) It is the abuse of electronic messaging or can be easily recruited are used in the
system sampling method called :
(B) The most widely recognized form of (A) Simple random sampling
spam is e-mail spam (B) Convenience sampling
(C) Spamming is expensive to advertise (C) Cluster sampling
(D) Spamming costs huge in terms of loss (D) Systematic sampling
of productivity Answer: (B)
Answer: (C) 215. A question that directs participants to
210. CPM is an effective : different follow-up questions depending
(A) Method of Knowledge Organization on their response is called :
(B) Project Management Technique (A) Response set
(C) Budgeting Technique (B) Probe
(D) Data Collection Technique (C) Semantic differential
Answer: (B) (D) Contingency question
211. Herzberg’s “two factor theory” deals Answer: (D)
with : 216. As per rules laid down in AACR-II, the
(A) Staff recruitment entry element “Ministry of Finance,
Government of India” will be rendered as :
(B) Leadership
(A) India. Ministry of Finance
(C) Decision Making
(B) Finance, India, Ministry of .......
(D) Motivation
(C) Ministry of Finance, India
Answer: (D)
(D) India, Ministry of Finance
212. ‘Cranfield Studies’ are an example of :
Answer: (A)
(A) Survey research
217. “Annual Review of Information
(B) Experimental research
Science and Technology” was first
(C) Historical research published in 1966 by :
(D) Case study (A) Institute for Scientific Information
Answer: (B) (B) American Society of Information
213. The group which is manipulated by an Science (ASIS)
independent variable is known as : (C) IFLA
(D) Canadian Association of Information (B) Biosis

Science (C) INSPEC
Answer: (B) (D) World Patent Index
218. Hypertext uses .......................... to Answer: (A)
present text and static graphics.
223. Which of the following key
(A) Hyperline combinations when pressed, restarts the
(B) Infoline computer ?
(C) Hyperlinks (A) Ctrl+Alt+V
(D) Dataline (B) Ctrl+Alt+Z
Answer: (C) (C) Ctrl+Alt+Del
219. A router : (D) Ctrl+Alt+C
(A) Receives a signal and retransmit it at a Answer: (C)
higher level 224. WIPO is located at
(B) Helps to interface with another (A) New York
network
(B) London
(C) Essentially translates protocols
(C) Geneva
(D) Forwards data packets between
(D) Paris
telecommunication networks
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
225. The National Mission on Libraries,
220. ............................. is not an open
India was established in which year ?
source library software.
(A) 2009
(A) Greenstone
(B) 2010
(B) NewGenLib
(C) 2011
(C) Drupal
(D) 2012
(D) Libsuit
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
226. The production of mental reflection
221. POP stands for :
and imagination is known as
(A) Print Office Protocol
(A) Information
(B) Post Offer Protocol
(B) Idea
(C) Pre Office Protocol
(C) Data
(D) Post Office Protocol
(D) Knowledge
Answer: (D)
Answer: (B)
222. An open access source for research
227. Who is the propounder of the term
reports on life sciences is :
‘Information Transfer’ ?
(A) PubMed
(A) Ranganathan

(B) J. Martin 232. The online version of ‘McGraw Hill

(C) Calvin Moores Encyclopaedia of Science and Technology’
is
(D) Beesman
(A) Access Science
Answer: (D)
(B) McGraw Hill Online
228. Which organisation was joined with
‘Library Association’ to form CILIP in 2007 ? (C) Online Encyclopaedia of Science and
Technology
(A) Institute of Bibliography
(D) Science online
(B) Institute of Information Scientists
Answer: (A)
(C) Institute of Documentation
233. ‘Indian National Bibliography’ is
(D) Institute of Librarianship
arranged under two parts, General
Answer: (B) Publication and _____ Publications.
229. Dictionary of National Biography (A) Private
(DNB) contains biography of prominent
(B) Electronic
people of
(C) Governmental
(A) All nations
(D) Non-book
(B) Europeans
Answer: (C)
(C) Americans
234. The concept of ‘Reference Service’ is
(D) Britishers
given by
Answer: (D)
(A) J.H. Shera
230. The “citation indexes” are now
(B) A. Strauss
available online as
(C) S.R. Ranganathan
(A) Web of Science
(D) Samuel Green
(B) JCCC
Answer: (D)
(C) Scopus
235. Which of the following is not an
(D) EBSCO
alerting service ?
Answer: (A)
(A) CAS
231. Which among the following is free
(B) SDI
Audio book site?
(C) Document Delivery Service
(A) Ebrary
(D) Electronic Clipping Service
(B) Virtua
Answer: (C)
(C) Librivox
236. The concept of ‘Ask Library Anything’
(D) Google Books
was originally initiated by
Answer: (C)
(A) Indian Library Association
(B) ASLIB

(C) Special Library Association (B) RELUR

(D) American Library Association (C) URI
Answer: (D) (D) URL
237. In C.C. the title ‘Medical Answer: (D)
Jurisprudence’ can be classified and 242. TKDL is developed and managed by
sharpened with the help of
(A) National Library and RRRLF
(A) Subject Device
(B) CSIR and RRRLF
(B) Alphabetical Device
(C) CSIR and AYUSH
(C) Classic Device
(D) AYUSH and National Library
(D) Enumerative Device
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
243. Web impact factor is developed by
238. Template is a
(A) P. Ingwersen
(A) Structured specification
(B) L. Bornebora
(B) Recursive routine
(C) M. Thelwall
(C) Assembler program
(D) R. Rousseau
(D) I/O measure
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
244. One step that is not included in
239. ‘Research-in-progress’ database in planning a research study is :
India is________.
(A) Identifying a researchable problem
(A) Vidyanidhi
(B) Statement of the research problem
(B) Shodhganga
(C) Developing a research plan
(C) Shodhgangotri
(D) Conducting a meta analysis
(D) Indian National Depository Library
Answer: (D)
Answer: (C)
245. Delphi technique is associated with :
240. ‘Open Journal Access System’ in India
(A) Statistics
is mainly managed by
(B) Budgeting
(A) NIC
(C) Forecasting
(B) CSIR
(D) Quality control technique
(C) ICSSR
Answer: (C)
(D) INFLIBNET
246. The early work on modeling of
Answer: (D)
information communication was based on
241. In the world wide web, name the :
acronym that describes the internet
(A) Lasswell model
address of a file
(B) Shannon and Weaver model
(A) ULA

(C) Bradford and Prince model (C) Library Association Publishing, London
(D) Goode and Hatt model (D) Learned Information Ltd., New Jersey
Answer: (C)
Answer: (A)
252. Starting, Chaining, Browsing,
247. The process of flow of Information
Differentiating, Monitoring, Extracting,
from the generator to the user is :
Verification and Ending are important
(A) Information search stages of which information seeking
(B) Information transfer behavior model?
(C) Information need (A) Dervin’s Model
(D) Information system (B) Ellis Model
(C) Marchionnini Model
Answer: (B) (D) Kuhlthan Model
248. “Information is piecemeal, Answer: (B)
fragmented and particular.” Who said ? 253. What kind of arrangement is followed
(A) Daniel Bell in LISA?
(B) Fritz Machlup (A) Alphabetical
(C) Brookers (B) Chronological
(C) Classified
(D) Belkin
(D) Geographical
249. The function of shelf list becomes very 254. Webform is used in
fuzzy when : (A) Synchronous Virtual Reference Service
(A) The library also has an author (B) Asynchronous Virtual Reference Service
catalogue (C) Both (A) & (B)
(B) The library also has a title catalogue (D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
(C) e-books are added to a catalogue
255. An online search in which all aspects
(D) Library also acquires print serials
of the records in natural language may be
Answer: (C) used as sought terms is
250. “Poole’s Index to Periodical (A) Alphabetical collateral search
Literature” was brought out by (B) Multi aspect search
(A) William Frederick (C) Free text searching
(B) F.W. Lancaster (D) Streaming search
(C) Van Rijsbergen Answer: (C)
(D) H.P. Luhn 256. Science Abstracts published by
Answer: (A) (A) INSPEC (Institute of Electrical
251. Walford’s Gurde to Reference Engineering)
Material is published by (B) Institute of Physics, London
(A) American Library Association, Chicago (C) American Institute of Physics
(B) R.R. Bowker, London

(D) PSOJ (Physical Society of Japan) 262. Information about Government of

Answer: (A) India’s stand on ‘FDI’ can be found in
257. Work study, standardized tools, (A) Gazetteer of India
selecting and training of workers are the (B) Britanniea Book of the Year
contributions of (C) Statesman’s Yearbook
(A) Louis Brndeis (D) Asian Recorder
(B) F.W. Taylor Answer: (D)
(C) Henry Fayol 263. “Anomalous State of Knowledge (ASK)
(D) Lyndall Urwick Model”, one of the user centered model’s
Answer: (B) of information retrieval was proposed by
258. When the population is (A) P. Ingwersen
heterogenous, which of the following (B) T. Saracevic
methods give better results? (C) J.N. Belkin
(A) Purposive Sampling (D) D. Ellis
(B) Quota Sampling Answer: (C)
(C) Random Sampling 264. The ‘Cranefield Test’, associated with
(D) Stratified Random Sampling evaluation of information retrieval system
Answer: (D) was carried under the direction of
259. Which of the following is/are not (A) C.W. Cleverdon
database object(s)? (B) G. Salton
(A) Tables (C) D.C. Blair & M.E. Maron
(B) Queries (D) E. Voorhees
(C) Relationships Answer: (A)
(D) Reports 265. LAMP stands for
Answer: (C) (A) Library Archives Management
260. What is the process of transferring Programme
software programme from secondary (B) Laser Analysis and Multimedia
storage media to the hard disc called? Performance
(A) Download (C) Linux Apache. MySQL Perl
(B) Upload (D) Library Automation Management
(C) Installation protocol
(D) Storage Answer: (C)
Answer: (C) 266. “Information Literacy Competency
261. Name a technique used for searching Standards for Higher Education” is
stored data in a database prepared by
(A) Boolean operator (A) AASL
(B) Inverting file (B) IFLA
(C) Indexing (C) SCONUL
(D) Binary (D) ACRL
Answer: (D) Answer: (D)

267. Name the storage medium 272. Which reference tool defines
(compatible with speed of CPU) for storing Reference service as “….that phase of work
instructions or data temporarily during which is directly concerned with assistance
processing to readers in securing information and in
(A) RAM using the resources of the library in study
(B) ROM and research”?
(C) Cache (A) Encyclopedia of Librarianship
(D) EPROM (B) Encyclopedia of Library and
Answer: (C) Information Science
268. “Scitation” is the online host service (C) ALA Glossary of Library Terms
of (D) ALA World Encyclopedia of Library &
(A) American Institute of Physics Information Services
(B) University of Maryland Answer: (C)
(C) Society for Industrial Research 273. Indian National Advisory Board for
(D) Oxford University Libraries was setup in 1966 by
Answer: (A) (A) Association of Indian Universities
269. The process of surrogating, (B) Ministry of Education
repackaging and compaction of the (C) Planning Commission
primary literature that results in creation (D) University Grants Commision
of secondary journals, is Answer: (B)
(A) Newsletter 274. The process of establishing headings
(B) Abstracting and Indexing Periodical and providing ‘Cross references’ is called
(C) House Journals (A) Access points
(D) Electronic Journal (B) Headings
Answer: (B) (C) Authority control
270. Which of the following is not a (D) Bibliographic Records
language of DBMS? Answer: (C)
(A) DDL 275. Which set of rules is applicable for
(B) DML exchange of files over Internet?
(C) PASCAL (A) FTP/IP
(D) PLI (B) HTTP
Answer: (C) and (D) Both. (C) HTML
271. How do we render the name (D) HYPERLINK
‘Bernardo Augustine De Voto’? Answer: (B)
(A) Voto, Bernardo, Augustine De 276. The first printed works are called
(B) De Voto, Augustine, Bernardo (A) Impensis
(C) Bernardo Augustine, De Voto (B) Incunabula
(D) De Voto, Bernardo Augustine (C) Impression
Answer: (D) (D) Imprimatur
Answer: (B)

277. Which Law of Library Science, 282. Who said that information is both a
restated with emphasis on information as product and process?
a dynamic, continuum and never ending (A) S.R. Ranganathan
phenomenon? (B) J. Martin
(A) Fifth Law (C) D.J. Foskett
(B) Fourth Law (D) S.C. Bradford
(C) Third Law Answer: (B)
(D) Second Law 283. The process of planning, allocating,
Answer: (A) organizing and evaluation library tasks and
278. Andrew Carnegie donated two million activities within the framework of major
pounds for development of objectives, mission and policy refers to
(A) Library Collection (A) Functional control
(B) Library Building (B) Functional Classification
(C) Library Furniture (C) Functional Approach
(D) Library Staff (D) Functional Authority
279. Whose model of communication of 284. Identify the MARC tag that is used for
knowledge suggests that communication variable fields containing data related to
as an open system may be regarded as subject access to the document :
subjective, selective, variable and yet (A) 7XX
unpredictable?
(B) 6XX
(A) G. Gerbner
(B) Juger Hebermans (C) 5XX
(C) E Shanon & Weaver (D) 2XX
(D) M. Foucault Answer: (B)
Answer: (A) 285. The generic tasks for which users use
280. Which Committee/Commission a database described in the FRBR model
recommended that Imperial Library be are :
designated as Copyright Library?
(A) ‘to find’, ‘to identify’, ‘to select’ and ‘to
(A) Fayzee Commission, 1939
acquire or obtain’
(B) Riche Committee, 1926
(C) Statham Committee, 1932 (B) ‘to browse’, ‘to identify’, ‘to select’ and
(D) Sadler Committee, 1916 ‘to acquire or obtain’
Answer: (A) or (B). (Not sure) (C) ‘to find’, ‘to select’, ‘to acquire’ and ‘to
281. What are the four entities of FRBR read’
model? (D) ‘to discover’, ‘to categorize’, ‘to select’
(A) Personality, Matter, Energy, Space and ‘to acquire’
(B) Books, Form, Availability, Type Answer: (A)
(C) Work, Expression, Manifestation, Item 286. In the context of the structure, the
(D) Discipline, Entity, Action, Personality second component of the MARC record is :
Answer: (C)
(A) Variable fields Answer: (B)

(B) Fixed fields 291. Hierarchical relation in a Thesaurus is
(C) Directory a relation between :
(D) Leader (A) BT and RT
Answer: (C) (B) RT and UF
287. The three core processes i.e. opening, (C) NT and RT
orientation and consolidation have been (D) BT and NT
explained in which information seeking Answer: (D)
behavior model ?
292. Which Information Retrieval Model
(A) Kuhlthou’s Model studies the properties of the languages as
(B) Wilson’s Model well as artificial language ?
(C) Foster’s Non-linear Model (A) Mathematical Model
(D) Krikela’s Model (B) Economic Model
Answer: (C) (C) Psychological Model
288. String of which indexing system has (D) Linguistics Model
fixed citation order of discipline, entity, Answer: (D)
parts, properties and processes ?
293. The ‘Web of Knowledge’ is the service
(A) PRECIS offered by :
(B) POPSI (A) BIOSIS
(C) SLIC (B) Pergamon
(D) NEPHIS (C) Elsevier
Answer: (B) (D) Thomson, I.S.I.
289. The search strategy that takes you Answer: (D)
from high precision to high recall is :
294. Which of the following is not a
(A) Building Block bibliographic network ?
(B) Citation Pearl Growing (A) OCLC
(C) Successive Fractions (B) ISO
(D) Boolean Search (C) CAS
Answer: (B) (D) A-G Canada
290. Who is the author of ‘Systematic Answer: (B)
Indexing’ ?
295. The edition statement is given in
(A) E.J. Coates parenthesis immediately after the title of
(B) J. Kaiser the documents in :
(C) C.A. Cutter (A) Chicago Manual of Style
(D) J.W. Metcalf (B) Modern Language Associate

(C) American Psychological Association (A) Compilation of dictionaries

(D) Scientific Style and Format (B) Compilation of directory
Answer: (C) (C) Compilation of encyclopedia
296. Telescoping of arrays satisfies : (D) Compilation of yearbook
(A) Law of Symmetry Answer: (A)
(B) Law of Osmosis 301. …………is a collection of historical
(C) Law of Parsimony documents and records about a place,
organization, etc?
(D) Law of Impartiality
1. Museums
Answer: (C)
2. Racks
297. A regression curve is :
3. Storage Libraries
(A) A model of a mathematical relationship
between two variables 4. Archives
(B) A model of a direct relationship Answer: Archives
between two variables 302. Where is National Archives of India?
(C) A model of an inverse relationship 1. Kolkata
between two variables 2. New Delhi
(D) A model to depict central tendency 3. Lukhnow
Answer: (A) 4. Banglore
298. Which of the following is not the use Answer: New Delhi
of devices in classification schemes ?
303. EAD Stands for
(A) To avoid enumeration
1. Encryption Archival Description
(B) To provide autonomy to a classifier
2. Engaged Archival Description
(C) To satisfy the library users
3. Encoded Archival Description
(D) To satisfy the canon of helpful
4. Enforced Archival Description
sequence
Answer: Encoded Archival Description
Answer: (C)
304. The origins of the discipline of
299. Which of the following is a primary
Information Studies could be traced to the
document?
founding of the International Institute of
(A) Nature bibliography by…………..
(B) Current contents 1. Paul Otlet and Henri Lafontaine
(C) Science citation index 2. Shannon & Weaver
(D) Chemical abstracts 3. Meghnad Saha and Shanti Swarup
Answer: (A) 4. Vanneaver Bush & Ludwig Von
300. The term ‘Lexicography’ is associated Bertalanffy
with : Answer: Paul Otlet and Henri Lafontaine

305. Which of the following organizations 3. Arrange in sequence the following E-

is included in Schedule Two of the RTI Act? Journal Consortia in India according to
a) Border Security Force their year of establishment :
b) “Central Reserve Police Force. (a) National Knowledge Resource
c) National Security Guards. Consortium
d) All the three above. (b) IIM Library Consortium
Answer: d (c) Consortium for e-Resources in
Agriculture
(d) INDEST-AICTE Consortium
Unit -3 MCQs
Codes :
1. Arrange the following according to the 1 (c), (b), (d), (a)
year of publication: 2 (b), (c), (a), (d)
(a) McGraw-Hill Encyclopedia of Science & 3 (c), (b), (a), (d)
Technology,
4 (b), (d), (c), (a)
(b) Encyclopedia Americana,
Answer: (b), (d), (c), (a)
(c) Encyclopaedia Britannica,
4. One of the largest and most
(d) Encyclopedia of Library & Information geographically distributed collaborative
Science virtual reference services in the world is
1. (a), (b), (d), (c) I. QuestionPoint service
2. (a), (c), (b), (d) II. Collaborative Digital Reference Service
3. (c), (b), (a), (d) III. RUSA of American Library Association
4. (d), (b), (a), (c) 1. Only I
Answer: 3 2. II and III
2. Arrange in sequence the steps involved 3. I and II
in Browne Charging Procedure :
4. Only III
(a) Stamping the date slip
Answer: 3
(b) Identification of borrower
(c) Slipping the book card in reader’s ticket
List I List II
(d) Arrange cards in juxta position
Codes : Bibliographic
I User orientation A
1. (a), (d), (b), (c) service
2. (b), (c), (a), (d) Information
3. (d), (b), (c), (a) II B Reference service
repackaging
4. (d), (c), (a), (b)
Answer: (b), (c), (a), (d) III Translation C Digest service

List I List II Reason (R) : Any academician in LIS holding

a Ph.D degree is entitled to supervise
IV Indexing D Support service research programme.
1. I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B Codes:
2. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-D (A) (A) is true and (R) is partially true.
3. I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C (B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
4. I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A (C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: 4 (D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
6. An "Invisible college" is a typical Answer: (A)
example of: 9. Assertion (A) : The information seeking
I. Informal channels of communication behavior research at the current times is
on the social and cultural context of
II. Formal channels of communication
human interaction with information.
1. Only I
Reason (R) : Attempt is being made to
2. Only II interpret social and cultural experiences of
3. I and II individuals with respect to their
4. None of the above information seeking and searching
experiences.
Answer; 1
Codes :
7. Assertion (A): the encouraging
environment of all time, full reading halls (A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
with the students in the libraries is (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
diminishing day by day. (C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Reason (R) : All the reading material is (D) Both (A) and (R) are true.
easily available and accessible on Internet
Answer: (D)
to all the students.
10. Assertion (A) : with the emergence of
Codes:
Internet, there is no need for reference
(A) Both (A) and (R) true. service in this technology-based era.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false. Reason (R) : Internet has allowed access to
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. every one to seek his/her information
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. from anywhere, any time.
Answer: (C) Codes:
8. Assertion (A) : There is a tremendous (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
increase in number of doctoral degrees (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
being awarded in library and information (C) (A) is false but (R) is partially true.
science.
(D) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (C)

11. Assertion (A) : Micrographic services 14. Assertion (A) : The effective
have lost acceptance for preservation and reprographic service in libraries indirectly
dissemination of archival material. demotivates the user for tearing/theft of
Reason (R): ICT has brought in cost reading material.
effective alternatives and replaced Reason (R) : the user gets the photocopy of
micrographic services. reading materials free of cost.
Codes : Codes :
(A) (A) is true and (R) is partially true. (A) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(B) Both (A) & (R) are false. (B) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(C) (A) is true, (R) is false. (C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, (R) is true. (D) Both (A) and (R) are flase.
Answer: (A) Answer: (C)
12. Assertion (A) : Institutions generate 15. Assertion (A) : RFID technology is still
information through research and not widely installed in Indian Library
development activities. Environment.
Reason (R) : All such generated Reason (R) : the standardization,
information forms the grey literature. application and innovation are constantly
Codes : changing.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true. Codes:
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false. (A) Both (A) & (R) true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, (R) is partially true.
(B) Both (A) & (R) are true, but (R) is not
(D) (A) is false, (R) is true.
the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (C)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
13. Assertion (A) : Maximizing the access to
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
information in higher education is the
motto of UGC-INFONET project. Answer: (B)
Reason (R) : the financial grants of UGC- 16. Assertion (A) : Gap device is a
INFONET are not being fully utilized by all nonscientific solution to the problem of
University Libraries for the assigned growing universe.
purpose. Reason (R) : A classificationist cannot
Codes : forcast the areas/subjects wherein some
new ones may emerge.
(A) Both (A) and (R) false.
Codes:
(B) (A) is true and (R) is partially true.
(A) (A) and (R) is false.
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true.
Answer: (B)

(D) (A) and (R) are false. Answer: (D)

Answer: (A) 20. Arrange the following according to
17. Assertion (A) : All the states in India their year of origin :
have enacted library legislation. (i) Rules for Dictionary Catalogue
Reason (R) : NKC recommends for the (ii) ALA Code
enactment of library legislation in all the (iii) FRBR
states.
(iv) AACR-I
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(C) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (i), (iv), (ii), (iii)
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
18. Assertion (A): Historical research has
List I List II
been regarded to be truly scientific by a
member of experts. (i) Chain Indexing (a) Bhattacharya
Reason (R): Historical evidences can be (ii) PRECIS (b) Taube
replicated. (iii) POPSI (c) Ranganathan
Codes: (iv) Uniterm Indexing (d) Austin
(A) Both A and R are true (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) A is false, but R is true (A) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(C) Both A and R are false (B) (a) (c) (b) (d)
(D) A is partially true, but R is true (C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
Answer: (D) (D) (d) (c) (b) (a)
19. Match the following : Answer: (C)
List I List II 22. Match the following :
(i) Fusion (a) Metaphysics List I List II
(ii) Fission (b) Astrophysics (i) Introduction to Reference Work (a)
(iii) Cluster (c) Humanities B. Guha
(iv) Agglomeration (d) Indology (ii) Documentationand Information (b)
W.A. Katz
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(iii) University Libraries for Developing
(A) (b) (c) (d) (a)
Countries (c) S.R. Ranganathan
(B) (c) (d) (b) (a)
(iv) Documentation and its facets (d)
(C) (d) (a) (b) (c) M.A. Gelfand
(D) (b) (a) (d) (c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (b) (a) (d) (c) (iii) DESIDOC (c)

(B) (c) (b) (a) (d) Information today and tomorrow
(C) (a) (c) (b) (d) (iv) Information Consolidation (d) DJLIT
(D) (b) (d) (c) (a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (A) (A) (c) (a) (d) (b)
23. Match the following : (B) (a) (d) (c) (b)
List I List II (C) (d) (a) (c) (b)
(i) INDEST (a) Engineering Sciences (D) (b) (c) (d) (a)
(ii) FORSA (b) Nuclear Physics Answer: (A)
(iii) INIS (c) Education 26. Assertion (A): Web-OPAC is a
computerized library catalogue available
(iv) ERIC (d) Astrophysics
to the patrons on-line
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Reason (R): It can be search by the users
(A) (a) (c) (d) (b) with in the four walls of the library only
(B) (c) (a) (b) (d) (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(C) (a) (d) (b) (c) (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(D) (d) (a) (c) (b) (C) Both (A) and (R) are true
Answer: (C) (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
24. Assertion (A) : Primary sources provide Answer: (A)
most authentic information.
27. Assertion (A): ISBDs were derived by
Reason (R) : Primary sources are highly UNESCO
unorganised as far as access is concerned.
Reason (R): They are the standards for all
Codes : types of bibliographic activities
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (A) (A) is false, but (R) is true
correct explanation of (A).
(B) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true
the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
28. Assertion (A): Libraries are changing in
Answer: (B)
the wake of emerging ICT environment.
Reason (R): Libraries are adopting new
List I List II competencies to operate services in the
(i) NISSAT (a) Indian environment of the information super
Science Abstracts highway
(ii) NISCAIR (b) State- (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false
of-the-Art Reports (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(C) Both (A) and (R) are false (C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true (D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: (D) Answer: (C)
29. Assertion (A): Loose Assemblage is the 32. Which of the following are library
process of linking together the different networks?
classes 1. INTERNET
Reason (R): This mode was formerly known 2. DELNET
as subject bundle
3. NICNET
4. OCLC
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 2 and 4 are correct
(C) 1 and 3 are correct
Answer: (C)
(D) 1 and 4 are correct
30. Assertion (A): DDC is an enumerative
Answer: (B)
classification scheme.
33. The national level associations for
Reason (R): DDC has adapted analytic-
special libraries are:
synthetic approach for the enumeration of
classes. 1. Association for Information
Management (ASLIB)
2. Society for Information Science (SIS)
3. Charatered Institute of Library and
Information Professionals (CILIP)
4. Indian Association of Special Libraries
Answer: (A) and Information Centers (IASLIC)
31. Match the following: (A) 1 and 3 are correct
List-I List-II (B) 2 and 3 are correct
(a) BLAISE project (i) Library (C) 1 and 4 are correct
of congress
(D) 3 and 4 are correct
(b) MARC project (ii) Intel
Answer: (D)
(c) Union Catalogue project (iii) Insdoc
34. Arrange the following according to the
(d) Microchip (iv) British year of publication:
Library
A) Encyclopaedia Britannica,
Codes : Encyclopaedia Americana, Encyclopaedia
(a) (b) (c) (d) of Library & Information Science, McGraw-
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Hill Encyclopaedia of Science & technology.
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) B) Encyclopaedia Britannica,
Encyclopaedia of Library & Information

Science, McGraw-Hill Encyclopaedia of c) Library can be useful to the society iii)

Science & technology, Encyclopaedia Ranganathan
Americana. d) Library is the heart of the University iv)
C) Encyclopaedia Britannica, Sayajirao Gayakwar
Encyclopaedia Americana, McGraw-Hill Codes:
Encyclopaedia of Science & technology,
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Encyclopaedia of Library & Information
Science. (A) iv iii ii i
D) Encyclopaedia Britannica, McGraw-Hill (B) iv I iii ii
Encyclopaedia of Science & technology, (C) ii iv iii i
Encyclopaedia Americana, (D) iv ii I iii
Encyclopaedia of Library & Information Answer: (A)
Science.
Answer: (A)
List-I List-II
a) P. Wassermann i) Line of
List-I List-II thinking
a) Conventional i) Patents
b) P. Atherton librarianship ii) Foundation
b) Neo-conventional ii) of Education for
Printed books
c) J. H Shera iii) New
c) Non-conventional iii) Librarianship
Satellite imageries d) Maurice B. Line iv) Putting
d) Mata documents iv) Audio- Knowledge to work
visual material Codes:
Codes (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) i ii iii iv
(A) I ii iii iv
(B) ii I iii iv
(B) ii I iv iii (C) iv iii I ii
(C) iv I iii ii
(D) iii iv ii i
(D) iii ii I iv Answer: (D)
Answer: (B) 38. Match the following:
36. Match the following: List-I List-II
List-I List-II
a) Theory of X & Y i) Frederic
a) Library is people’s university i) Taylor
Kothari b) Scientific Management ii) Ouchi
b) Library is a growing organisation ii)
c) Need Hierarchy iii) A.
Urquart Maslow

d) Theory Z iv) D. Mc (A) (z) (x) (y) (w)

Grager (B) (y) (w) (z) (x)
Codes: (C) (x) (y) (w) (z)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (D) (w) (z) (y) (x)
(A) iii I ii iv Answer: (B)
(B) iii iv ii i 41. Arrange the following library
(C) iii ii iv i management software according to their
(D) iv i iii ii year of origin:
Answer: (D) (i) Koha
39. Match the following: (ii) NewGenLib
List-I List-II (iii) SOUL
a) UDC i) H. E. Bliss (iv) CDS/ISIS
b) DDC ii) C. A. Codes:
Cutter (A) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
c) Expensive Classification iii) Otlat & (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
La Fontane (C) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
d) Bibliographic classification iv) M (D) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
Dewey
Answer: (D)
Codes:
42. Bibliography of Interlingual Scientific
(a) (b) (c) (d) and Technical Dictionaries was published
(A) iii I ii iv by ____________ .
(B) iii iv ii i 1. UNISIST
(C) iii ii iv i 2. UNESCO
(D) i ii iii iv 3. IFLA
Answer: (B) 4. FID
40. Match the President of IFLA with Answer: 2
his/her tenure: 43. UNESCO defined a book as a bound
List I List II non-periodical publication having______?
(i) Ingrid Parent (w) 2007- 1. 49 or more pages
2009 2. 25 or more pages
(ii) Claudia Lux (x) 2009-2011 3. 100 or maore pages
(iii) Sinikka Sipila (y) 2011-2013 4. 150 or more pages
(iv) Ellen Tise (z) 2013-2015 Answer: 1
Codes: 44. Information may be categorized into
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) the following three parts :

1. Analytical, Stastistical, and 1. Library Software

Systematic 2. A Consortium
2. Statistical, Analytical and Descriptive 3. National Scheme
3. Logical, Analytical and Stastistical 4. Sindhu River
4. Systematic, Analytical and Answer: 2
Descriptive
50. In which year Classification Research
Answer: 2 Group (CRG) was founded in England?
45. 'African Recorder' is which type of 1. 1950
Publication?
2. 1952
1. Directory
3. 1955
2. Bibliography
4. 1958
3. News Digest
Answer: 2
4. Biography
51. Which one of the following is regarded
Answer; 3 as supplement to all types of reference
46. Encyclopaedia Britannica' ceased its sources?
print publication in the year ______. 1. Biography
1. 2012 2. Directory
2. 2018 3. Encyclopaedia
3. 2010 4. Gazetteers
4. 2009 Answer; 3
Answer: 1 52. Which of the following is a publication
47. Research-in-Progress Bulletin is an of 'Central Reference Library', Kolkata?
example of: 1. Index - India
1. SDI 2. Library Herald
2. CAS 3. Index-Indiana
3. Document Delivery System 4. Library Today
4. Translation Answer: 3
Answer: 2 53. What is called ready reference source
48. 'Facts on File' is published by: which can be referred for guidance in any
1. H. W. Wilson occupation, art or study?
2. R. R. Bowker 1. Hand book
3. Oxford University Press 2. Manual
4. Facts on File News Service 3. Year book
Answer: 4 4. Treatise
49. 'e-Shodh Sindhu' is a : Answer: 2

54. The patents are regarded as ______ Answer: 8th September

1. Primary sources 59. SCONUL stands for :
2. Tertiary sources 1. The Council of National and
3. Secondary sources University Libraries
2. Scientific National University
4. None of these
Libraries
Answer; 1 3. The Scientific Conference on
55. "If you want to be a reference librarian, National and University Libraries
you must learn to overcome not only your 4. The Standing Conference on
shyness but also the shyness of others" is National and University Libraries
the statement of whom? Answer: The Standing Conference on
1. P.N. Kaula National and University Libraries
2. Chilakamarti Laxmi Narsimham 60. The key factor that enforces uniformity
3. S.R, Ranganathan throughout retrieval system is :
4. McColvin 1. Controlled vocabulary
Answer; 3 2. Search strategy
3. User profile
56. Digital collection developed for 4. Database
capturing the intellectual output of a single
or multi institution is called as : Answer: Controlled vocabulary
1. Digital Library 61. Which of the following is not an
example of non-random sampling ?
2. Digital archive
3. Digital repository 1. Snowball Sampling
4. Digital publishing 2. Convenience Sampling
Answer: Digital repository 3. Quota and Purposive Sampling
4. Census
57. INFLIBNET initiative for ‘Integrated e-
Answer: Census
content ports : Gateway to All Learners’ is
named as : 62. According to S.R. Ranganathan, the
reference service aimed at freshman is
1. e-PG Pathshala
called :
2. IR@ INFLIBNET
3. INFOPORT 1. General Help to General Reader
4. e-Acharya 2. Short Range Reference Service
3. Long Range Reference Service
Answer: e-Acharya
4. Initiation
58. International Literacy Day is celebrated
Answer: Initiation
on :
1. 8th July
2. 9th August implementing agency for ‘capacity
building’ activity of National Mission on
3. 8th September
Libraries ?
4. 18th September

1. Delhi Public Library 3. System in which users do not apply

2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy Library public tag to online items.
Foundation 4. System in which users apply public
3. National Library of India tag to only print items
4. Documentation, Research and Answer: System in which users apply
Training Centre public tag to online items.
Answer: Raja Ram Mohan Roy Library 68. In 1883, the first full-time reference
Foundation position was established at ____________.
64. When an author has not registered 1. Boston Public Library
his/her work under copyright but legally
2. Madras University Library
proceeded over dispute of ownership.
What is the validity of ownership ? 3. Imperial Library
1. No ownership without Registration 4. Library of Congress
2. It may not be legally tenable Answer; 1
3. Ownership is automatic 69. Which one of the following is not
4. Both (1) and (2) are correct Image format?
Answer: Ownership is automatic 1. TIFF
65. “Guide for the Preparation and 2. MPEG
Publication of Abstracts” was published by 3. JPEG
:
4. GIF
1. IFLA
2. FID Answer; 2
3. OCLC 70. Which of the following is a
4. UNESCO collaborative network of Reference
Answer: UNESCO Librarians?
66. What type of directory is the “Times of 1. World Cat
India Directory and Yearbook including 2. eSS
Who’s Who” ? 3. Question Point
1. General 4. Google Scholar
2. Special Answer: 3
3. Professional
71. According to S. R. Ranganathan, the
4. Trade
reference service aimed at freshman is
Answer: General called:
67. Folksonomy is a : 1. General Help to General Reader
1. System in which users apply public 2. Short Range Reference Service
tag to microdocuments only.
3. Long Range Reference Service
2. System in which users apply public
tag to online items. 4. Initiation
Answer: 4

72. According to S.R. Ranganathan, the 3. John MacFarlane

reference service that deals with residual 4. Wilson
principles and generalities, not readily
Answer: 2
falling within specific pans, is called as:
77. The concept of Selective Dissemination
1. Initiation of freshman
of Information (SDI) was enunciated by
2. Ready reference service
1. Derek Austin
3. General help to general reader
2. A.C. Foskett
4. Long range reference service
3. H.P. Luhn
Answer: 3
4. B.C. Vickery
73. 'Conservative, moderate, and liberal
Answer: 3
theories of reference service are given
by_______. 78. The 'Right to Information Bill' was
enacted by the parliament of India on
1. S.R.Ranganathan
1. 5th May 2005
2. James I Wyer
2. 15th June 2005
3. Krishan Kumar
3. 12th October 2005
4. Samuel Rothstein
4. 22nd June 2005
Answer: 2
Answer: 2
74. For referring to an earlier but not an
immediately preceding reference, which 79. 'Bibliographic Coupling’, was first
one is used ________. advocated by
1. loc.cit 1. B.K. Sen
2. op.cit 2. S.R. Ranganathan
3. ibid 3. M.M. Kessler
4. Referred to above 4. S.C. Bradford
Answer: 2 Answer: 3
75. The term ‛Reference Interview’ was 80. LOCKOSS (software), an international
first used by ___________. community initiative by
1. Samuel Swett Green 1. MIT Library
2. W. A. Katz 2. Stanford University
3. Samuel Rothstein 3. University of Waikato
4. Margaret Hutchins 4. University of Southampton
Answer: 4 Answer: 2
76. Who used the word Information 81. Keesing's Record of world Events is:
Literacy in 1974? 1. Directory
1. James Herring 2. Biography
2. Zurkowski 3. News Digest
4. Bibliography Answer: 4
Answer: 3 87. Who has developed the 'Guidelines on
82. Now 'DELNET' stands for: information literacy for lifelong learning?
1. Delhi Library Network 1. RUSA
2. Developing Library Network 2. ACRL
3. Distance Library Network 3. SCONUL
4. Digital Libraries Network 4. IFLA
Answer: 2 Answer: 4
83. 'National Register of Translators' is 88. 'Bibliographic Coupling’, was first
maintained by: advocated by
1. NISCAIR 1. B.K. Sen
2. IASLIC 2. S.R. Ranganathan
3. Central Translation Bureau 3. M.M. Kessler
4. National Translation Mission 4. S.C. Bradford
Answer; 4 Answer; 3
84. 'Contents by Journal' is an example of: 89. When the user requires almost all
relevant literature on a subject such
1. CAS
approach is called as :
2. SDI
1. Catching up approach
3. DDS
2. Exhaustive approach
4. Translation
3. Everyday approach
Answer: 1
4. Current approach
85. UNISIST is
Answer: 2
1. International system for the
90. Who was the first to give the concept
transfer of information
of Selective Dissemination of Information
2. Documentation centre in India as we understand it today?
3. Type of special information 1. Melvil J. Voigt
service in humanities
2. H. Peter Luhn
4. Directory
3. L.J.S. Strauss
Answer: 1
4. E M Hanson
86. ‘‘World Index of Scientific
Answer: 2
Translations’’ is published by
91. The Big6 Model and approach was
1. National Translations Center of UK
developed by ________.
2. Library of Congress
1. S. Serap Kurbanoglu
3. American Library Association
2. W. Edwards Deming
4. European Translation Center
3. D. Torrington and L. Hall 4. ICSSR

4. Mike Eisenberg and Bob Berkowitz Answer: 2
Answer: 4 97. WordNet is :
92. Upto end of which year 10 digit ISBN (A) A Thesaurus
numbers were allotted ? (B) A Classification Scheme
1. 2006 (C) A Library Network
2. 2007 (D) An Ontology
3. 2008 Answer: (D)
4. 2009 98. We cannot use the characteristics ‘date
Answer: 1 of first publication’ and ‘the date of first
93. N-LIST has been developed to benefit edition’ one after the other to decide a
_______ in India. universe of books.
1. schools Identify the canon that directs us to this
guideline :
2. colleges
(A) Canon of Differentiation
3. universities
(B) Canon of Concomitance
4. industries
(C) Canon of Ascertainability
Answer; 2
(D) Canon of Permanence
94. Nalanda Database of Indian Libraries
was created by Answer: (B)
1. NISCAIR 99. Second group of entities in FRBR
consist of :
2. DRTC
(A) Author and Conference proceedings
3. ILA
(B) Person and Corporate body
4. National Library, Kolkata
(C) Publisher and Corporate body
Answer: 3
(D) Author and Publisher
95. AGRINDEX is the publication of
Answer: (B)
1. UNO
100. According to AACR-II, the statement
2. ILO
of responsibility in case of sound
3. ICAR recordings “Texas country by Willie Nelson
4. FAO and others” will be rendered as :
Answer: 4 (A) Texas Country/Willie Nelson and others
96. Open journal access system in India is (B) Texas Country/Willie Nelson ........ [et
mainly managed by al.]
1. NIC (C) Texas Country/Willie Nelson (et al.)
2. INFIBNET (D) Texas Country/Willie Nelson ........ (et
3. CSIR al.)

Answer: (B) (D) ANSI

101. When each member of a population Answer: (A)
has an equal chance of being selected, the 106. Which of the following principles of
sampling is called: management corroborates the statement,
(A) Probability sampling “Library administration should create
(B) Quota sampling environment which leads to harmony and
unity” ?
(C) Snowball sampling
(A) Initiative
(D) Purposive sampling
(B) Equity
Answer: (A)
(C) Espirit de Corps
102. ‘Universities Handbook : India’ is
published by: (D) Order
(A) UGC Answer: (C)
(B) NBT 107. Biotechnology is an example of :
(C) AIU (A) Fission
(D) ILA (B) Fusion
Answer: (C) (C) Cluster
103. Division into two is called : (D) Lamination
(A) Dichotomy Answer: (B)
(B) Decachotomy 108. Who looks after DDC ?
(C) Polychotomy (A) UNESCO
(D) Monochotomy (B) IFLA
Answer: (A) (C) OCLC
104. NISCAIR was formed by the (D) CILIP
amalgamation of : Answer: (C)
(A) NISCOM and INSDOC 109. Identify the right sequence :
(B) INSDOC and NISTADS (A) Theory, Law, Hypothesis, Axiom
(C) NISCOM and NISTADS (B) Axiom, Hypothesis, Law, Theory
(D) INSDOC and NISSAT (C) Hypothesis, Axiom, Law, Theory
Answer: (A) (D) Law, Hypothesis, Theory, Axiom
105. Which organisation is working on Answer: (C)
intellectual property rights at international 110. ‘Annals of Library and Information
level ? Studies’ journal is published by :
(A) WIPO (A) ILA
(B) UNESCO (B) DRTC
(C) IFLA (C) NISCAIR

(D) IASLIC (C) P.N. Kaula

Answer: (C) (D) S.R. Ranganathan
111. The concept of ‘invisible college’ was Answer: (B)
first used by : 116. Which service consists of feedback
(A) Derek Desola Price mechanism?
(B) F.W. Lancaster (A) Translation service
(C) Eugene Garfield (B) CAS
(D) S.R. Ranganathan (C) SDI
Answer: (A) (D) Reprography
112. In web 2.0 tagging is called : Answer: (C)
(A) Economy 117. A glossary consists of :
(B) Taxonomy (A) List of common words in specific
(C) Synonymy language
(D) Folksonomy (B) List of thematically arranged words
Answer: (D) (C) List of words arranged in alphabetical
order
113. According to the Maharashtra
Universities Act, 1994 ......................... is (D) List of technical words with definitions
the Member Secretary of University Library Answer: (D)
Committee. 118. Who proposed the ‘Demand Theory’
(A) BCUD Director of book selection ?
(B) Librarian (A) Lionel McColvin
(C) Dy. Librarian (B) Melvil Dewey
(D) Registrar (C) S.R. Ranganathan
Answer: (B) (D) F.K.W. Drury
114. ............................. is not an indexing Answer: (A)
tool ? 119. Which of the following is the correct
(A) MESH evolutionary sequence of classification
(B) Roget’s Thesaurus schemes ?
(C) Macrothesaurus (A) UDC, BC, EC, DDC, CC
(D) TEST (B) DDC, EC, UDC, CC, BC
Answer: (B) (C) DDC, UDC, EC, BC, CC
115. The first Ph.D. in India in Library (D) UDC, EC, DDC, CC, BC
Science was awarded to : Answer: (B)
(A) B.S. Keshvan 118. Which of the following is not covered
(B) D.B. Krishna Rao in Intellectual Property Rights

(A) Copy Right (B) New York

(B) Patents (C) France
(C) Trademark (D) The Hague
(D) Thesaurus Answer: (D)
Answer: (D) 124. Library Orientation is a type of
119. Chairman of National Knowledge (A) Extension Service
Commission was (B) Reference Service
(A) Kapil Sibal (C) CAS
(B) P. Chidambaram (D) SDI Service
(C) Sam Pitroda Answer: (A)
(D) Raghuram Rajan 125. When was the American Library
Answer: (C) Association (ALA) established
120. Information is categorized into (A) 1872
(A) Statistical, Descriptive and Analytical (B) 1876
(B) Systematic, Analytical and logical (C) 1877
(C) Analytical, Statistical and Logical (D) 1875
(D) Logical, Analytical and Statistical Answer: (B)
Answer: (A) 126. Articles published in research journals
121. Who coined the name “Information are
Society?” (A) Reference Sources
(A) Derek Austin (B) Secondary Sources
(B) Daniel Bell (C) Primary Source
(C) Allen Kent (D) Tertiary Sources
(D) E. J. Coates Answer: (C)
Answer: (B) 127. Trade Bibliography is
122. IATLIS is connected with (A) Books compiled by authors
(A) Academic Librarians (B) Books compiled by book sellers
(B) Public Libraries (C) Books complied by National library
(C) Teachers in Library Science (D) Books complied by publisher
(D) Teachers in Library and Information Answer: (D)
Science 128. ‘Bibliography of Bibliographies’ is a
Answer: (D) (A) Primary Source
123. The Head quarters of IFLA is at (B) Secondary Sources
(A) London (C) Tertiary Sources

(D) Non documentary Source 134. Who propagated the demand and
Answer: (C) supply theory of book
129. ‘Re P.Ec’ is a database of (A) SR Ranganathan
(A) Geography (B) Melvil Dewey
(B) Political Science (C) Adamsmith
(C) Petroleum (D) Mc Colvin
(D) Economics Answer: (D)
Answer: (D) 135. In the acronym ‘POSDCORB’, ‘CO’
stands for
130. Which of the following is an isolate
(A) Co-ordination
(A) Botany
(B) Co-operation
(B) Medicine
(C) Co-relation
(C) Geography
(D) Co-existence
(D) France
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
136. What leads to job description
131. Who initiated shared cataloguing
(A) Job satisfaction
(A) Library of Congress
(B) Job analysis
(B) Imperial Library
(C) Work Description
(C) British Museum
(D) Job evaluation
(D) National Library of Australia
Answer: (B)
Answer: (A)
137. Financial estimation is made on the
132. ‘Charles Ammi Cutter’ is well known
basis of
for
(A) Ledger Method
(A) Classified Catalogue
(B) Marginal Cost Method
(B) Alphabetico- classified catalogue
(C) Per-Capita Method
(C) Mixed catalogue
(D) Cost-based Method
(D) Dictionary catalogue
Answer: (C)
Answer: (D)
138. CDS/ISIS was introduced first by
133. ‘Accession Number’ means
(A) DRTC
(A) Call Number of a book
(B) IBM
(B) Unique Number given to a book by a
library (C) CSIR
(C) Book Number (D) UNESCO
(D) Class Number Answer: (D)
Answer: (B) 139. ‘Google earth’ is

(A) Web Image (C) ERNET

(B) Search Engine (D) NISSAT
(C) Virtual Globe Answer: (D)
(D) Webmap Search 145. NICNET and INDONET are the
Answer: (C) networks of which category
140. In computer terminology, the term (A) LAN
‘bug’ stands for (B) MAN
(A) Error in Programming (C) WAN
(B) Computer Virus (D) NIC
(C) Error in Humanware Selection Answer: (C)
(D) Error in Software Selection 146. Which one of the variable are not to
Answer: (A) be expressed quantitative terms
141. Following one is not a web 2.0 Tool (A) Martial status
(A) Blog (B) Experience
(B) Facebook (C) Income
(C) UGC-Infonet (D) Age
(D) RSS-feeds Answer: (A)
Answer: (C) 147. Literature Review means
142. ‘BIOSIS Previews’ is published by (A) Future Status Research
(A) Thomson Reuters Web of Knowledge (B) Background study
(B) Informatics India (C) Objectives of Research
(C) Thomson ISI (D) Scope if the study
(D) Elsevier Answer: (B)
Answer: (A) 148. ‘Mode’ is the value of the variable
having maximum
143. Which one of the following is a Meta
Search Engine (A) Appearance
(A) Vivismo (B) Frequency
(B) Google (C) Occurrence
(C) Yahoo (D) Repetition
(D) Bing Answer: (B)
Answer: (A) 149. In ‘graph’, the horizontal axis is called
144. ‘Peter Lazer’ is associated with (A) W-axis
(A) OCLC (B) Y-axis
(B) DELNET (C) X- axis

(D) Z-axis 154. The book entitled ‘Documentation

Answer: (C) and its Facets’ is edited by
150. Bar charts, Pie Charts and Histograms (A) Amitabha Chatterjee
are the examples of (B) Arunkanti Dasgupta
(A) Graphic Representation (C) Bimalendu Guha
(B) Line Representation (D) S. R. Ranganathan
(C) Table Representation Answer: (D)
(D) Statistical Representation 155. In which of the following network
Answer: (A) topologies, all the computers are directly
connected to a Central Computer?
151. The American Society for Information
Science and Technology is now known as (A) Ring topology
the (B) Bus topology
(A) Library and Information Technology (C) Peer to Peer topology
Association (D) Star topology
(B) Association for Information Technology Answer: (D)
Professionals
156. The number of methods of “Analysis”
(C) Information Science and Technology proposed in AACR2R (1988) is
Association
(A) three
(D) Association for Information Science
(B) four
and Technology
(C) five
Answer: (D)
(D) six
152. The empirical rule that describes the
frequency of words in a piece of text is Answer: (C)
known as the 157. One of the following is a non-
(A) Heaps’ Law probability sampling method. Which is the
one?
(B) Bradford’s Law
(A) Purposive sampling
(C) Mooers’ Law
(B) Convenience sampling
(D) Zipf’s Law
(C) Cluster sampling
Answer: (D)
(D) Snowball sampling
153. Who is the author of ‘Traite de
Documentation’? Answer: (C)
(A) S. C. Bradford 158. Who among the following was
associated as the pioneer in LIS education
(B) B. C. Vickery
in India?
(C) Paul Otlet
(A) S. R. Ranganathan
(D) S. R. Ranganathan
(B) W. A. Borden
Answer: (C)

(C) J. S. Morgan (A) advices to run libraries

(D) Melvil Dewey (B) instructions to library workers
Answer: (B) (C) guidelines to manage different types of
159. The paper entitled “The crisis in libraries
Cataloging” published in Library Quarterly (D) some philosophical foundations for
(Vol. 11, Oct. 1941) was authored by Library Management and Administration
(A) Seymour Lubetzky Answer: (D)
(B) Michael Gorman 164. Which of the following database
(C) Andrew Osborn programs is used in DSpace?
(D) David J. Haykin (A) PostgreSQL
Answer: (C) (B) MSSQL
160. The term ‘Information Product’ was (C) MySQL
coined by (D) None of the above
(A) Paul Zurkowski Answer: (A)
(B) Fritz Machlup 165. Which one of the following is not a
(C) William Martin Web 2.0 enable product?
(D) George J. Stigler (A) Wiki
Answer: (A) (B) Blog
161. Information, as a commodity, is used (C) Facebook
for (D) None of the above
(A) National integration Answer: (D)
(B) Treatment of diseases 166. LYCOS is a ________.
(C) Flood problem (A) Database
(D) Decesion making process (B) Browser
Answer: (D) (C) Web Portal
162. Which of the following organisations (D) e-Book
is holding seminars and conferences in Answer: (C)
alternate years?
167. Which one of the following is called a
(A) ILA volatile memory?
(B) IATLIS (A) Random Access Memory (RAM)
(C) ALA (B) Read Only Memory (ROM)
(D) IASLIC (C) Erasable Programable ROM (EPROM)
Answer: (D) (D) None of the above
163. Laws of Library Science are nothing Answer: (A)
but

168. Which one of the following is not a 173. Classical school of management
metadata schema? thought was introduced by
(A) DCMS (A) A. Maslow
(B) ONIX (B) F. W. Taylor
(C) GILS (C) H. Fayol
(D) LUCENE (D) W. Frederick
Answer: (D) Answer: (C)
169. MeSH is the name of 174. Who should undertake system
(A) a Bulletin in Medical Sciences analysis study in a university library?
(B) an International Medical Library (A) The Chief Librarian
(C) a Controlled Vocabulary Device in (B) The Systems Analyst
Medical Sciences (C) The Librarian & the System Analyst
(D) none of the above (D) The data entry operator
Answer: (C) Answer: (C)
170. Research Scholars generally prefer 175. The ISSN for Indian Journals is alloted
(A) Primary sources of information by
(B) Tertiary sources of information (A) ICSSR
(C) Secondary sources of information (B) RRRLF
(D) Primary & Secondary sources of (C) ISRO
information (D) NISCAIR
171. Trend report gives the _____ picture 176. 2011 is the centenary year of
of a subject. publication of
(A) comprehensive (A) Sears list of Subject Headings
(B) executive (B) Expansive Classification
(C) latest (C) Systematic indexing
(D) recent (D) Grammar of Classification
172. Pre-cordinate indexing was 177. Which association’s tagline is
propounded by “connecting people and information”?
(A) Melvil Dewey (A) SLA
(B) S. R. Ranganathan (B) IFLA
(C) Derek Austin (C) IASLIC
(D) M. B. Line (D) ILA
Answer: (B) Answer: (A)

178. Which of the following organisations (D) American Library Association

was joined with Library Association to Answer: (B)
form CILIP in 2002?
183. Sector Device is an extension of
(A) Institute of Bibliography
(A) Gap Device
(B) Institute of Information Scientists
(B) Empty Device
(C) Institute of Documentation
(C) Octave Device
(D) Institute of Librarianship
(D) Group Notation Device
Answer: (B)
Answer: (C)
179. In which of the following years
184. In which year the ISBN allocation
International Institute of Documentation
office in India was shifted from Kolkata to
was changed to International Federation of
New Delhi?
Documentation?
(A) 2009
(A) 1931
(B) 2010
(B) 1937
(C) 2011
(C) 1945
(D) 2012
(D) 1948
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
185. Which one of the sampling methods
180. Canon of Characteristics is a part of
will give better results if the size of the
(A) Verbal plane study population is very small?
(B) Notational plane (A) Purposive
(C) Idea plane (B) Stratified Random
(D) Structural plane (C) Simple Random
Answer: (C) (D) Census
181. BERNE CONVENTION (1886) is Answer: (A)
concerned with
186. Which of the pair of organisations do
(A) Translations jointly publish survey on digitisation and
(B) Copyright preservation?
(C) Patent (A) IFLA & UNESCO
(D) Standards (B) ALA & LC
Answer: (B) (C) SLA & ALA
182. Who did publish the journal entitled (D) IASLIC & ILA
“International Classification”? Answer: (A)
(A) University of Texas 187. Which one of the following search
(B) ISKO devices will lead to an increase in the
(C) FID Recall output?

(A) Boolean ‘AND’ (D) IGNOU

(B) Boolean ‘NOT’ Answer: (A)
(C) Proximity operators 192. Who among the following persons is
(D) Truncation considered as father of modern
management ?
Answer: (D)
(A) Henry Fayol
188. In which year Aslib was acquired by
MCB group, the holding company for (B) Henry L. Gantt
Emerald group publishing? (C) F.W. Taylor
(A) 2003 (D) Frederick Herzberg
(B) 2005 Answer: (A)
(C) 2009 193. Literature not available through a
(D) 2010 regular book trade channel
is........................... .
Answer: (D)
(A) Gray Literature
189. Which of the following organisations
has introduced the concept of “Sister (B) Text Book
Libraries” for children’s and young adults (C) Journals
reading? (D) Non-book Material
(A) UNESCO Answer: (A)
(B) IFLA 194. Which of the following is not an
(C) Library of Congress indexing service ?
(D) Library Association (A) Index India
Answer: (B) (B) RGPL
190. Who had founded Documentation Inc. (C) CBI
to explore new methods of information (D) GIPL
indexing and retrieval?
Answer: (C)
(A) S. C. Bradford
195. The Headquarter of International
(B) Jennifer Rowley Translation Center is situated
(C) Mortimer Taube at.......................... .
(D) S. R. Ranganathan (A) London
Answer: (D) (B) Paris
191. Shodhaganga project is implemented (C) New York
by......................... . (D) Delft
(A) INFLIBNET Answer: (D)
(B) DELNET 196. Facsimile transmission is.................. .
(C) YCMOU (A) Transmission of microforms

(B) Transmission of magnetic tapes 201. National Library of USA is known

(C) Exact transmission of the original as.........................
decuments (A) National Library of America
(D) Transmission of telegraphic code (B) The Congress Library
Answer: (C) (C) White House Library
197. With which agency did UNESCO (D) Library of Congress
collaborate to establish UNISIST ? Answer: (D)
(A) ICSU 202. The latest edition of DDC is............... .
(B) FID (A) 23
(C) IFLA (B) 22
(D) ILA (C) 24
Answer: (A) (D) 20
198. Theory X and theory Y is developed Answer: (A)
by........................ .
203. Basic research is not concerned
(A) Peter Drucker with.......................
(B) Douglas McGregor (A) Establishing cause-effect relations
(C) Abraham Maslow (B) Finding direct solutions to practical
(D) Luther Gullick problems
Answer: (B) (C) Formulating theories
199. Which of the following is not a (D) Refuting established theories
Thesaurus ? Answer: (B)
(A) 15th Edition of Sears List of Subject 204. Hypothesis is..................... .
Headings
(A) Final solution of a problem
(B) MEDLINE
(B) Tentative solution of a problem
(C) TEST
(C) Blueprint of research problem
(D) SHE
(D) Tool of data collection
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
200. Analytical entries are prepared
205. Mark the ‘odd one out’ :
to........................... .
(A) INIS
(A) Analyse the subject content of a book
(B) AGRIS
(B) Include subject analysis in descriptive
catalogue (C) DEVSIS
(C) Provide access for part of an item (D) CAS
(D) Provide access to index Answer: (D)
Answer: (C) 206. Which one of the following is not an
aggregator ?
(A) EBSCO (A) Oxford English Dictionary on Historical

(B) Springer Verlag Principles
(C) Elsevier (B) Websters International Dictionary
(D) Tata McGrahill (C) Chambers Dictionary
Answer: (D) (D) Roget’s Thesaurus
207. The term “Information Retrieval” was Answer: (D)
coined by....................... . 212. The acronym for Association for
(A) H. P. Luhn Library and Information Management
is....................... .
(B) Calvin Mooers
(A) IASLIC
(C) Mortimer Taube
(B) ASLIB
(D) Derek Austin
(C) IIM
Answer: (B)
(D) AIM
208. Inductive logic proceeds
from..................... . Answer: (B)
(A) Particular to general 213. The correct sequence of information
flow is...................... .
(B) General to particular
(A) Message → Source → Channel →
(C) General to general
Receiver
(D) Particular to particular
(B) Source → Message → Channel →
Answer: (A) Receiver
209. System analysis involves................. . (C) Message → Channel → Source →
(A) Analysis and design Receiver
(B) Analysis (D) Message → Channel → Receiver →
(C) Analysis, evaluation and decision Source
(D) Design Answer: (B)
Answer: (C) 214. “Law of single variable” is an essential
component of .................................. .
210. Indira Gandhi National Center for Arts
is located at...................... . (A) Experimental Research
(A) Amethi (B) Historical Research
(B) Raibareli (C) Case Study
(C) New Delhi (D) Survey Research
(D) Sri Perambedur (TN) Answer: (A)
Answer: (C) 215. Postulational approach to library
classification is proposed
211. Amongst the following, which one is
by.................................... .
arranged in a classified order ?
(A) S. R. Ranganathan

(B) D. J. Foskett 220. E-Learning is mainly concerned

(C) Melvil Dewey with.........................
(D) J. Mills (A) Learning in electronic environment
Answer: (A) (B) Internet based learning
216. University Grants Commission (UGC) (C) Learning through e-books
was founded in the year............................. (D) Learning through e-journals
. Answer: (A)
(A) 1954 221. Journal “Library Literature” is
(B) 1953 published by........................ .
(C) 1958 (A) H. W. Wilson
(D) 1960 (B) The Library Association
Answer: (B) (C) Bowker Sour
217. INDEST Consortia is primarily (D) Marcel Deker
developed for...................... . Answer: (A)
(A) Public Libraries 222. Mortimer Taube is associated
(B) Social Science Libraries with...................... .
(C) Engineering and Technological Libraries (A) PERT/CPM
(D) Medical Libraries (B) Cataloguing
Answer: (C) (C) Classification
218. Identify the correct sequence of the (D) Indexing
classification schemes according to their Answer: (D)
origin.
223. “Gap Device” helps in making a
(A) UDC, Expansive Classification, DDC, CC classification scheme more................ .
(B) Expansive Classification, UDC, CC, DDC (A) Faceted
(C) DDC, CC, Expansive Classification, UDC (B) Hierarchical
(D) DDC, Expansive Classification, UDC, CC (C) Hospitable
Answer: (D) (D) Ennumerative
219. Which of the following is not a Library Answer: (C)
Extension Activity ?
224. INSPEC—A bibliographic database
(A) Exhibition deals with................... .
(B) Film Show (A) Psychology and Ethics
(C) Inter-library Lending (B) Physics and Electronics
(D) Lectures (C) Philosophy and Ethics
Answer: (C) (D) Economics and Commerce
Answer: (B)

225. The book entitled “Powershift” is 230. The complete catalogue record of a
authored by............................. . document is known as.................... .
(A) J.D. Bernal (A) Title Entry
(B) D. Solla Price (B) Added Entry
(C) Alvin Toffler (C) Analytical Entry
(D) H.E. Bliss (D) Main Entry
Answer: (C) Answer: (D)
226. Mark the “odd one out” : 231. The Berne convention is concerned
(A) Kaiser with.......................... .
(B) Line (A) Translation
(C) Farradane (B) Patents
(D) Coates (C) Copyright
Answer: (B) (D) Standards
227. “Broad system of ordering” Answer: (C)
is.............................. . 232. Routing of periodicals is considered
(A) Modified classificatory system as............................ .
(B) Method of acquisition (A) Current Awareness Service
(C) An information system (B) Selective Dissemination of Information
(D) Cataloguing principle (C) Translation Service
Answer: (A) (D) Indexing Service
228. Mark the “odd one out” : Answer: (A)
(A) Sought Link 233. Which of the following organization
was responsible for the development of
(B) Unsought Link
UDC ?
(C) Key Link
(A) Library of Congress
(D) False Link
(B) The British Library
Answer: (C)
(C) UNESCO
229. In DDC, phoenix schedules represent
(D) FID
classes which are.......................................
. Answer: (D)
(A) Slightly modified 234. The National Library of India receives
books for deposit under........................... .
(B) Completely modified
(A) Right to Information Act
(C) Yet to be modified
(B) Registration of Books Act
(D) Discontinued
(C) Copyright Act
Answer: (B)
(D) Delivery of Books and Newspapers Act

Answer: (D) (C) 1650 AD

235. ISI has been renamed (D) 1660 AD
as................................. . Answer: (A)
(A) NBT 240. The Intellectual Property Right is
(B) BIS related to
(C) ILA (A) IT Act of 2000
(D) ISO (B) Censorship
Answer: (B) (C) Right to Information Act
236. Earliest writing material “papyrus” (D) Copy Right Act
was first used by........................... . Answer: (D)
(A) Greeks 241. The Public Library Manifesto was
(B) Egyptians issued by
(C) Sumerians (A) IFLA
(D) Babylonians (B) UNESCO
Answer: (B) (C) ILA
237. Ranganathan’s “Five Laws of Library (D) RRRLF
Science” were first published in the Answer: (B)
year.................... .
242. The Books and Newspaper Delivery
(A) 1929 Act in India was enacted in the year
(B) 1930 (A) 1879
(C) 1931 (B) 1867
(D) 1932 (C) 1905
Answer: (C) (D) 1854
238. Research done to find the solution for Answer: (D)
an immediate problem is known
243. ‘Word of Learning” is
as............................ .
(A) Directory
(A) Conceptual Research
(B) A Hand Book
(B) Pure Research
(C) An Encyclopedia
(C) Applied Research
(D) A Tourist Guide
(D) Qualitative Research
Answer: (A)
Answer: (C)
244. ‘Biological Abstract’ is an example for
239. ‘Incunabula’ are the books printed
before (A) Slanted Abstract
(A) 1500 AD (B) Statistical Abstract
(B) 1550 AD (C) Auto Abstract

(D) Graphic Abstract Answer: (D)

Answer: (A) 250. A total number of digits in the latest
245. Patents are classified under ISBN are
(A) Primary source (A) 10
(B) Secondary source (B) 15
(C) Tertiary source (C) 13
(D) None of the above (D) 9
246. Directing the users to other libraries 251. The main component of Third
for getting the required document or Generation Computer is
information is known as (A) Transistor
(A) Indexing service (B) Vacuum Tube
(B) On-line service (C) Microchip
(C) Reference service (D) Integrated circuits
(D) Referral service Answer: (D)
Answer: (D) 252. A protocol that manages data transfer
247. An ‘Aray’ is a set of on the internet is
(A) Coordinate classes (A) HTTP
(B) Subordinate classes (B) FTP/OP
(C) Main classes (C) FTP/IP
(D) Basic classes (D) TCP/IP
248. In pre coordinate indexing the 253. The acronym ‘DOI’ stands for
coordination of concepts taken place at (A) Digital Object Items
the time of (B) Digital Object Identifier
(A) Indexing (C) Digital Object Isolates
(B) Searching and Retrieval (D) Digital Object Information
(C) Storage Answer: (B)
(D) Document delivery 254. The symbol (=) equals within
Answer: (A) parenthesis in UDC is used for
249. The central concept of TQM is (A) Language Common Isolate
(A) SWAT analysis (B) Racial and Ethnic Groups
(B)Johare’s window (C) Common Auxiliaries of Form
(C) ISO-9002 (D) Common Auxiliaries of Time
(D) Quality circles Answer: (B)
255. Lotka’s law relates to 260. The ‘Rules of Dictionary Catalogue’

(A) Scattering of periodicals were developed by
(B) Obsolescence of literature (A) C. A. Cutter
(C) Scientific productivity (B) C. A. Babbage
(D) Seepage of information (C) J. D. Brown
Answer: (C) (D) Anthony Panizzi
256. The convention of INFLIBNET Answer: (A)
organized to discuss the progress of library 261. HTML is related to
automation and library service is known as (A) HTTP
(A) DELNET (B) TCP/IP
(B) NACLIN (C) SGML
(C) UGC-INFONET (D) XML
(D) CALIBER Answer: (D)
Answer: (D) 262. The logical operators AND, OR and
257. The main objective of Raja Ram NOT are devised by
Mohan Roy Library Foundation is to (A) F. W. Laucaster
promote
(B) David Boole
(A) School Libraries
(C) Charles Babbage
(B) College Libraries
(D) George Boole
(C) Public Libraries
Answer: (D)
(D) Prison Libraries
263. URL stands for
Answer: (C)
(A) Universal Research Locator
258. One Gigabyte is equal to
(B) Universal Resource Locator
(A) 2000 MB
(C) Uniform Resource Locator
(B) 1024 MB
(D) Uniform Resource Log.in
(C) 1080 MB
Answer: (C)
(D) 1006 MB
264. The three display components of
Answer: (B) PRECIS are
259. The output of INIS is (A) RIN, SIN and Role Operators
(A) INIS-Atom Index (B) Lead, Qualifier and Display
(B) INIS-Bibliography (C) Lead, Qualifier and RIN
(C) INIS-Vienna (D) Lead, Display and Call Number
(D) INIS-Abstract Answer: (B)
Answer: (A) 265. Multiplexer is a data communication

(A) Software (B) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

(B) Equipment (C) Dr. Bhalchandra Mungekar
(C) Process (D) Sam Pitroda
(D) Network Answer: (D)
Answer: (B) 271. Who has not changed its name?
266. Emerald is a database of (A) Library Association, U.K
(A) Engineering Literature (B) ALA
(B) Medical Literature (C) ASLIB
(C) Management Literature (D) IFLA
(D) Agriculture Literature Answer: (B)
Answer: (C) 272. Which of the following is not correct?
267. An entry that directs the reader from (A) Maslow’s need analysis is useful for
one heading to another is called understanding motivation of employees.
(A) Added Entry (B) Theory Z is the contribution of
(B) Main Entry Japanese style of Management.
(C) Analytical Entry (C) Money is the most powerful motivating
agent.
(D) Reference Entry
(D) Mission of an organisation is essentially
Answer: (D)
abstract.
268. Who are the publishers of
Answer: (B)
Encyclopaedia of Library and Information
Science? 273. NISCAIRE is a Part of:
(A) American Library Association (A) DST
(B) H. W. Wilson (B) ISRO
(C) Marcel Dekker (C) DSIR
(D) R. R. Bowker (D) CSIR
269. DRTC is located at — 274. Use of Microfilming is considerably
reduced due to:
(A) New Delhi
(A) Problems of Preservation of microfilms.
(B) Kolkata
(B) Need for use microfilm reader.
(C) Bangalore
(C) Availability of better Technology in the
(D) Chennai
form of digitization.
Answer: (C)
(D) High cost involved in it.
270. Who is the chairman of National
Answer: (C)
Knowledge Commission?
275. Opaque paper is a:
(A) Dr. Sukhadeo Thorat
(A) Ultra-white paper (A) Chain indexing

(B) Ultra-white thin paper (B) Uniform indexing
(C) Transparent paper (C) LCSH
(D) Non-Transparent paper (D) Sear’s List of Subject Headings
276. Which of the following is a public 281. Dublin core is:
domain database? (A) A set of core activities of a National
(A) INIS library
(B) AGRIS (B) Collection of metadata elements
(C) Chemical Abstracts (C) Network for the city of Dublin
(D) MEDLINE (D) Revised version of MARC
Answer: (B) Answer: (B)
277. In which Library Service barcode 282. ‘Best is the enemy of the Good’ is said
technology is used: by:
(A) Stock verification (A) Drury
(B) Library Security (B) Urquart
(C) Circulation (C) Foskett
(D) Reference Service (D) Shera
Answer: (C) Answer: (B)
278. One of the following journals is 283. Which of the following is not
published in U.K: associated with communication system?
(A) Library Quarterly (A) Receiver
(B) Program (B) Sender
(C) Libri (C) Channel
(D) Herald of Library Science (D) Entropy
Answer: (B) Answer: (D)
279. ‘Fair use’ is a term most relevant to: 284. One of the following is not open
(A) Intellectual Property Rights source software:
(B) Books borrowed for home reading (A) DSpace
(C) Copy right (B) Windows
(D) Use of reference books (C) Green-stone
Answer: (D) (D) Linux
280. Which of the following does not fall Answer: (B)
into the category of pre-coordinate 285. DESIDOC is documentation centre for:
indexing? (A) Indigeneous Knowledge
(B) Defence Science (C) Four

(C) Rural Development (D) Five
(D) Khadi & Village Industries Answer: (C) Four
Answer: (B) Notes: Conventional, Neo-Conventional,
286. ‘Cranfield Studies’ are an example of: Non-Conventional and Meta Documents.
(A) Survey Research 291. C. W. Hanson has categorized
documentary sources of information into
(B) Experimental Research
__.
(C) Historical Research
(A) Two
(D) Case Study
(B) Three
Answer: (B)
(C) Four
287. An entry that directs the reader from
(D) Five
one heading to another is called
Answer: (A) Two
(A) Added Entry
Notes: C. W. Hanson (1971) in the article
(B) Main Entry
'Introduction to science Information work'
(C) Analytical Entry published in ASLIB proceedings, divides
(D) Reference Entry documentary sources of information into
Answer: (D) two categories i.e. Primary and Secondary.
288. Who are the publishers of 292. Who classified documentary sources
Encyclopaedia of Library and Information of information into three broad
Science? categories?
(A) American Library Association (A) C. W. Hanson
(B) H. W. Wilson (B) Denis Grogan
(C) Marcel Dekker (C) S. R. Ranganathan
(D) R. R. Bowker (D) C. A. Cutter
Answer: (D) Answer: (B) Denis Grogan
289. DRTC is located at — Notes: Denis Grogan has classified the
documents into three categories, namely:
(A) New Delhi
primary, secondary and tertiary. Notes:
(B) Kolkata Master Moti Lal Sanghi was famous for
(C) Bangalore providing door to door free book service
(D) Chennai called as Dasti Pustak Sewa and for which
Answer: (C) the book were acquired from his personal
resources.
290. Ranganathan has categorized sources
of information into __. 293. According to Ranganathan, 'audio-
visual materials, micro-prints and
(A) Two
microfilms come under __.
(B) Three
(A) Conventional 298. According to Ranganathan,

(B) Neo-conventional 'Documents produced by direct recording
of social or natural phenomena using some
(C) Non-conventional
instruments' is called:
(D) Meta-documents
(A) Conventional
Answer: (C) Non-conventional
(B) Neo-Conventional
294. According to Ranganathan, 'Patents,
(C) Non-Conventional
Standards, and Specifications', come under
__. (D) Meta-Documents
(A) Conventional Answer: (D) Meta-Documents
(B) Neo-Conventional 299. 'Bibliography of Bibliographies' is a __
source of Information.
(C) Non-Conventional
(A) Primary
(D) Meta-Documents
(B) Secondary
Answer: (B) Neo-Conventional
(C) Tertiary
295. According to Ranganathan,
'Photographs' comes under __. (D) None of the above
(A) Conventional Answer: (C) Tertiary
(B) Neo-Conventional 300. Fodor's Essential India is
(C) Non-Conventional a) Yearbook
(D) Meta-Documents b) Travel Guide
Answer: (D) Meta-Documents c) Directory
296. According to Ranganathan, 'Books, d) Handbook
Periodical Publicaitons, Maps, Atlas, etc.' Answer: 2
comes under __.
(A) Conventional
(B) Neo-Conventional
(C) Non-Conventional Unit -4 MCQ
(D) Meta-Documents
1. What are the major driving forces
Answer: (A) Conventional
behind an ‘Information society’?
297. 'IndCat' is an example of __.
(i) RTI
(A) Primary sources
(ii) ICT
(B) Secondary sources
(iii) Internet
(C) Tertiary sources
(iv) I.T. Act
(D) Directory
1. (ii) & (i) are correct
Answer: (C) Tertiary sources
2. (ii) & (iv) are correct

3. (i) & (iv) are correct 4. a, and c are correct

4. (ii) & (iii) are correct Answer: c, and d are correct
Answer: 4 5. Select the tertiary sources of
2. Arrange the following according to their information from among the following:
year of emergence: a) Union Catalogues
a) ERNET b) Guide to the literature
b) NICNET c) Directories
c) C-DOT d) Manuals
d) C-DAC 1. a and b are correct
1. (c), (d), (b) and (a) 2. c, and d are correct
2. (c), (a), (b), and (d) 3. a, b, c and d are correct
3. (b), (c), (a) and (d) 4. a and d are correct
4. (d), (a), (b) and (c) Answer: a, b, c and d are correct
Answer: (b), (c), (a) and (d) 6. Which among the following are Social
3. Which of the following is/are the major Science Information Gateways?
activities/ services of a library and a) RUDI
networks in India? b) SocioSite
a) Consortium purchase c) SOSIG
b) Indexing of Internet resources d) SSRN
c) Document delivery 1. a, b, and c are correct
d) Staff training 2. a and d are correct
1. b and d are correct 3. b, c, and d are correct
2. a, c, d are correct 4. a and b are correct
3. b, c, d are correct Answer: b, c, and d are correct
4. a, and c are correct 7. Wersig and Neveling gave which of the
Answer: a, c, d are correct following approaches for defining
4. Who among the following are NOT information?
partners of National Programme on (a) The Action Approach
Technology Enhanced Learning (NPTEL)? (b) The Message Approach
a) IIT Madras (c) The Process Approach
b) IIT Delhi (d) The Structural Approach
c) IIT Bangalore Code:
d) NIT Rourkela (1) (a), (b), (c) are correct.
1. a, and d are correct (2) (b), (c), (d) are correct.
2. b and d are correct
(3) (a), (c), (d) are correct.
3. c, and d are correct
(4) (a), (b), (d) are correct.

Answer: (2) (a) P.B. Mangla

8. Why a Library Association should have a (b) C.R. Karisiddappa
code of “professional conduct”? (c) Kalpana Das Gupta
(a) Prescribes standards of behavior (d) A.R.D. Prasad
expected for the member
Code:
(b) Sets out standards and duties which a
(1) (a), (b), (c) are correct.
professional is expected to observe
(2) (a), (b), (d) are correct.
(c) Standards can be used as a point of
reference while dealing with disciplined (3) (a), (c), (d) are correct.
procedures against members (4) (b), (c), (d) are correct.
(d) Standards help to demean the image of Answer: (3)
the Association and de-ameliorate 11. Which of the following are the features
funding and ensure better functioning of of Classic IR Model?
libraries.
(a) documents are represented by index
Code: terms
(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct. (b) all terms are equally useful
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct. (c) index term cannot be weighted
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (d) there is an assumption that terms are
(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct. mutually independent
Answer: (3) Code:
9. Which of the following states do not (1) (a) and (b) are correct.
have provision of library cess in their (2) (c) and (d) are correct.
respective Public Library Acts? (3) (a) and (c) are correct.
(a) West Bengal (4) (a) and (d) are correct.
(b) Tamil Nadu Answer: (4)
(c) Kerala
12. Vocabulary in a data base is controlled
(d) Manipur by:
Code: (a) Thesaurus Files
(1) (a) and (d) are correct. (b) Import Files
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (c) Standard Files
(3) (b) and (c) are correct. (d) Authority Files
(4) (b) and (d) are correct. Code:
Answer: (1) (1) (a) and (b) are correct.
10. National Knowledge Commission (2) (c) and (d) are correct.
(2005) had the following members from
(3) (a) and (d) are correct.
the library and Information profession:
(4) (b) and (c) are correct.
Answer: (3) (b) 23; 43: 51.44 Classification of books in

13. Pre-coordinate indexing systems academic libraries in India
comprise: (c) 23: 62 Lending services in academic
(a) NEPHIS libraries
(b) SLIC (d) 23n4451, N82 Journal of Academic
Libraries (published from New Delhi since
(c) Peek-a-boo
1982)
(d) Edge – Notched card
Code:
Code:
(1) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(1) (a) and (b) are correct.
(2) (d), (b), (c), (a)
(3) (b), (c), (d), (a)
(4) (d), (a), (c), (b)
(4) (c) and (d) are correct.
Answer: (4)
Answer: (1)
16. According to Ranganathan’s classified
14. Identify the correct statement from the catalogue code (5th edition), in which
following: among the following cases the initial
(a) In uniterm indexing system, terms are article is to be omitted?
recorded in numerical file according to the (a) In rendering the name of a conference
system known as terminal digit posting.
(b) In rendering the name of a government
(b) Main activities of TREC are devided into
(c) In rendering the name of a series
Routing and Tracks
(d) In rendering the name of an institution
(c) Recall and precision tend to vary in
searching Code:
(d) False drops in post coordinate indexing (1) (a) and (b) are correct.
system cannot be eliminated (2) (b) and (d) are correct.(3)
Code: (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
(1) (a) and (b) are correct. (4) (b), (c) and (d) are correct.
(2) (c) and (d) are correct. Answer: (3)
(3) (a) and (c) are correct. 17. Which of the following theories are
(4) (b) and (d) are correct. related to motivation of employees:
Answer: (3) (a) Theory ‘Z’ of the Japanese style of
Management propounded by William
15. What will be the correct filing order of
Ouchi
the following documents classified
according to Colon classification, (6th (b) Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’ of Douglas
reprint edition)? McGregar
(a) 23.44 Academic library system in India (c) Max Weber’s Theory of Bureaucratic
Management

(d) Maslow’s hierarchy of Needs Theory (4) (b) and (c) are correct.
Code: Answer: (3)
(1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct. 20. Identify the key salient traits of Soft
(2) (b), (c), (d) are correct. data:
(3) (a), (b), (c) are correct. (a) human intelligence
(4) (a), (c), (d) are correct. (b) certain and definite
Answer: (1) (c) opinions and contradictions
18. Identify the ways in which the library (d) no scope for constructive criticisms
can benefit from the TQM as stated by Code:
Jurow and Barnard: (1) (a) and (b) are correct.
(a) Breaking down interdepartmental (2) (c) and (d) are correct.
barriers.
(3) (a) and (c) are correct.
(b) Redefining the beneficiaries of library
(4) (b) and (d) are correct.
services as internal customers (staff) and
external customers (patrons). Answer: (3)
(c) More inclined to short-term goals and 21. Identify the components of ‘LAMP’
defiant to changes to suit users needs. given below:
(d) Reaching a state of continuous (a) Linux
improvement. (b) Acrobat
Code: (c) MYSQL
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (d) Pearl
(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct. Code:
(3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct. (1) (b) and (c) are correct.
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct. (2) (a) and (c) are correct.
Answer: (4) (3) (a) and (d) are correct.
19. Identify the cases that require an (4) (b) and (d) are correct.
application for a new ISSN number: Answer: (2)
(a) Change in the publication’s medium 22. Identify the features of proprietary
(b) Change in publisher software:
(c) Change in the frequency of publication (a) Continuity and Development
(d) Change in publication title (b) Ease of use
Code: (c) Transparency
(1) (a) and (b) are correct. (d) Documentation and Support
(2) (c) and (d) are correct. Code:
(3) (a) and (d) are correct. (1) (a), (b) and (d) are correct.

(2) (b), (c) and (d) are correct. 25. A virtual library:
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. (a) Presupposes a physical existence.
(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct. (b) Collection of resources available on one
Answer: (1) or more computer systems with a single
interface or entry point to the collection.
23. Which of the following research
methods are used in a study of scattering (c) Does not provide access to entire
of periodicals? content of a (digital) library via internet.
(a) Biobibliometric study (d) Provides user assistance services such
as reference, inter library loan, etc.
(b) Bibliometric study
Code:
(c) Citation analysis study
(1) (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) Altmetric study
Code:
Answer: (3)
26. Which of the following are review type
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
services?
Answer: (2)
(a) Current Awareness List
24. Information seeking behavior (ISB)
(b) Trend Reports
essentially refers to and concerned with:
(c) News clippings
(a) De-recognition of some needs
perceived by the user. (d) State of the Art Report
(b) The strategies and actions undertaken Code:
to locate discrete knowledge elements. (1) (a) and (b) are correct.
(c) The experiment conducted on (2) (a) and (d) are correct.
usefulness of library collection with (3) (b) and (d) are correct.
reference to a nonpurposive and conscious
need of a particular piece of information.
Answer: (3)
(d) Interactive utilization of three basic
resources such as people, information and 27. Match the following:
system. List-I List-
Code: II
(1) (a) and (b) are correct. (a) Anthony Penezzi (i) C.C.C.
(2) (c) and (d) are correct. (b) C. A. Cutter (ii) ALA
code
(c) S. R. Ranganathan (iii)
British Museum
Answer: (4)

(d) Seymour Lubetzky (iv) Rules (d) Dissertation Abstract

for Dictionary Catalogue (iv) Marcel Dekkar
Codes: Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) Answer: (C)
Answer: (B) 30. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(a) Mnemonics (i) Measures
List-I List-II of central tendency
(a) Pen Drive (i) Browser (b) Initiation to freshmen (ii) Economy
(b) Soul (ii) Search Engine in cataloguing
(c) Net Scope (iii) Output device (c) Mean, Median and Mode (iii) Aid to
(d) Google (iv) Library memory
Software (d) Law of Parcimony (iv) User
Codes: education
(a) (b) (c) (d) Codes:
(A) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Answer: (A) (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer: (B)
29. Match the following: 31. Assertion (A): As the level of recall
List-I List-II increases, precision tends to decrease.
(a) Annals of Lib. And Inf. Science Reason (R): Recall and precision tend to
(i) ISI vary inversely.
(b) Science Citation index Codes:
(ii) University
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
Microfilm International (UMI)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Encyclopedia of Library and Information
Science (iii) NISCAIR (C) Both are partially true
(INSDOC) (D) (R) is true but (A) is false
Answer: (A)

32. A service which directs a user to an 2. Quarterly

appropriate source of information or data 3. Monthly
required, is known as __. 4. Yearly
1. Reference Answer: Quarterly
2. Referral 37. The UGC-CARE List of Journals is
3. SDI classified using __.
4. Anticipating
1. An indigenous scheme developed by
Answer: Referral INFLIBNET Centre
33. Excluding overall category, NIRF 2. Colon Classification
Rankings will now be given in how many 3. All Science Journal Classification
categories? 4. Bibliographic Classification
1. 8 Answer: All Science Journal Classification
2. 9 38. Which of the following new category is
3. 10 added for 2021 NIRF Ranking?
4. 11
1. Humanities
Answer: 10 2. Research institutions
34. Which new category was added in 3. Libraries & Information Centres
Indian Ranking 2020? 4. Museum & Archives
1. Research Institutions Answer: Research institutions
2. Dental 39. SPACENET is a communication
3. Law network of __.
4. Management
1. CSIR
Answer: Dental 2. MHRD
35. Which among the following 3. RGUHS
institutions is responsible for preparing 4. ISRO
and maintaining 'UGC-CARE List of Quality Answer: ISRO
Journals'?
40. Indian Library Science Abstract (ILSA) is
1. Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), published as ___.
New Delhi
1. Monthly
2. Savitribai Phule Pune University
2. Quarterly
(SPPU), Pune
3. Fortnightly
3. Banaras Hindu University (BHU),
4. Annual
Varanasi
4. INFLIBNET Centre, Gandhinagar Answer: Annual
Answer: Savitribai Phule Pune University 41. CAPS (Contents Abstract and
(SPPU), Pune Photocopy Service) is a service of __.
36. How frequently UGC-CARE List is 1. DRTC
updated? 2. NISCAIR
3. NASSDOC
1. Half Yearly
4. RRRLF Answer: National Library of India

Answer: NISCAIR 47. Coursera- an online learning platform
42. Nakshe Portal – the web application for providing Massive Open Online Courses
which provides public download of was launched in ___.
topographic maps is developed by ___. 1. January 2012
1. IIT, Delhi 2. February 2012
2. Geographical Survey of India 3. March 2012
3. Survey of India 4. April 2012
4. Archeological Survey of India Answer: April 2012
Answer: Survey of India 48. Statesman’s Yearbook is published
43. ‘Study in India’ Program was launched annually since ___.
by MHRD in __. 1. 1860
1. April 2017 2. 1862
2. April 2018 3. 1864
3. April 2019 4. 1868
4. May 2019 Answer: 1864
Answer: April 2018 49. The database EDOC deals with:
44. Which of the following cases require 1. Standards and Specifications
the application of a new ISSN? 2. Theses and Dissertations
1. Change in Publisher 3. Conference Proceedings
2. Change in publication medium and 4. Patents
title Answer: Patents
3. Change in location of publication 50. ‘Subject Catalogue – Heading and
4. Change in editorial policy Structure’ – is written by __.
Answer: Change in publication medium 1. E. J. Coates
and title 2. J. Kaiser
45. SciFinder was first launched in __. 3. J.E.L. Farradane
1. 1992 4. T. C. Craven
2. 1994 Answer: E. J. Coates
3. 1995 51. 'Jotspot' is now owned by __.
4. 1998
1. Yahoo
Answer: 1995 2. Google
46. ‘Abhilekh Patal’ portal is an initiative 3. Alta-Vista
of __. 4. OCLC
1. National Library of India Answer: Google
2. RRRLF 52. IMPRESS Scheme is aimed at __.
3. NISCAIR
1. Social Science Research
4. National Archive of India
2. Scientific Research
3. Computer Science Research Answer: A

4. Library Science Research 58. Knowledge Lens — the monthly series
Answer: Social Science Research on scientific and scholarly research is
53. Number of devices that are related to brought out by ___.
recall and precision has been studied by 1. Clarivate Analytics
(A) Gilchrist 2. Taylor and Francis
3. Emerald Publishing
(B) Vickery
4. Springer
(C) Lancaster
Answer: Clarivate Analytics
(D) Ranganathan
59. The concept of UBC was introduced by
Answer: C
(A) UNESCO
54. User studies in Social Sciences was
(B) LC
carried out by
(C) FID
(A) Kuhn
(D) IFLA
(B) Brittain
Answer: A
(C) Line
60. SSRN Subject gateway presently
(D) Allen
belongs to:
Answer: A
1. Springer
55. ‘NextSpace’ is the newsletter of ___. 2. ProQuest
1. UNICEF 3. Web of Science
2. IFLA 4. Elsevier
3. OCLC Answer: Elsevier
4. UNISIST
61. Which of the following journal is now
Answer: OCLC been made available as open access
56. National Information Centre for Textile journal?
and Allied Subjects (NICTAS) is located at: 1. Journal of Documentation
1. Ahmedabad 2. College and Research Libraries
2. Allahabad 3. Aslib Proceedings
3. Madras 4. Journal of Academic Librarianship
4. Mysore Answer: College and Research Libraries
Answer: Ahmedabad 62. ‘Humbul Humanities Hub’- an online
57. An entry that is made for the subject of subject gateway on humanities based at
a chapter in a book is referred to as __.
(A) Cross Reference Entry 1. Cambridge university
(B) Cross Reference Index Entry 2. University of Southampton
(C) Class Index Entry 3. Stanford University
4. Oxford University
(D) Book Index Entry

Answer: Oxford University 1. ABC Publishing House

63. Consortium for Academic and 2. INFA Publications
Research Ethics (CARE) is established by 3. Asia Publishing House
__. 4. Publications Division
1. NAAC Answer: INFA Publications
2. INFLIBNET 69. The print version of ‘Who’s who in
3. UGC India’ is published by __.
4. ICMR 1. Sterling Publication, New Delhi
Answer: UGC 2. Tradesman and Men Asia, Delhi
64. ‘Instagram’ is acquired by __. 3. Business Press, Mumbai
4. Asia Publishing House
1. Whatsapp
2. Yahoo Answer: Business Press, Mumbai
3. Facebook 70. In Sears, List of Subject Headings
4. Google preferred headings are indicated by
Answer: Facebook (A) Marking them as preferred headings
65. UGC-INFONET Consortium is related (B) Printing them in bold type
with __. (C) Underlining them
1. Management (D) Italicising them
2. Education & Academics
Answer: B
3. Science & Technology
4. Medical sciences 71. Humanities Index is published by ___.
Answer: Education & Academics 1. Elsevier
2. ProQuest
66. 'Guiding users in the use of
3. IEEE
information' is called__.
4. Web of Science
1. Referral Service
Answer: ProQuest
2. Current Awareness Service
3. User orientation 72. ‘RePEc’ is a database of economics
4. Digest Service started since __.
Answer: User orientation 1. 1995
2. 1996
67. ‘ROMARIN’ is a database for searching
3. 1997
of __.
4. 1999
1. International standards
Answer: 1997
2. International patents
3. International trademarks 73. Which of the following are news
4. International trend reports summaries?
Answer: International trademarks a) Data India
68. ‘India Who’s Who’ is the publication of b) Times of India Index
___. c) New York Times Index

d) Asian Recorder 79. Which among the following are the

1. a and b are correct Cooperative Cataloguing Programs under
2. c, and d are correct Library of Congress?
3. b, c and d are correct 1. Monographic Bibliographic Record
4. a and d are correct Cooperative Program (BIBCO)
Answer: a and d are correct 2. Name Authority Cooperative
Program (NACO)
74. SERLINE (SERials onLINE) database is
3. Subject Authority Cooperative
produced by:
Program (SACO)
1. OCLC 4. All the above
2. National Library of Medicine, USA
Answer: All the above
3. British Library
4. IFLA 80. The Indian Patent Advanced Search
System (InPASS) was introduced in __.
Answer: National Library of Medicine, USA
1. 2011
75. 'CODEN' is assigned by __.
2. 2015
1. CAS 3. 2013
2. OCLC 4. 2012
3. LC
Answer: 2015
4. ASTM
81. E-Yantra Project is based at __.
Answer: CAS
1. IIT Kharagpur
76. Which character in CODEN helps to
2. IIT Kanpur
identify the typographical mistakes in it?
3. IIT Delhi
1. 3rd 4. IIT Bombay
2. 4th
Answer: IIT Bombay
3. 5th
4. 6th 82. Virtual Labs project is coordinated by
__.
Answer: 6th
1. IIT Bombay
77. The characters in CODEN are __.
2. IIT Delhi
1. Numeric only 3. IIT Kanpur
2. Alphabets only 4. IIT Madras
3. Alpha-numeric
Answer: IIT Delhi
83. INFLIBNET provides IRINS service in
Answer: Alpha-numeric
collaboration with __.
78. ‘CODEN’ is connected with ___.
1. Delhi University, Delhi
1. Books 2. Central University of Punjab,
2. Serials Bathinda
3. Reports 3. Central University of Rajasthan,
4. Grey Literature Ajmer
Answer: Serials
4. Central University of Gujarat, 88. Which institution topped the NIRF

Gandhinagar Ranking 2019 under overall category?
Answer: 2 1. IIT Kanpur
84. Indian Research Information Network 2. IIT Madras
System of INFLIBNET is __. 3. IIT Bangalore
4. IIT Bombay
1. PaaS
2. SaaS Answer: IIT Madras
3. IaaS 89. Select the implementing agency for
4. NaaS ‘Study in India’ program from among the
Answer: SaaS following:
85. FOSSEE Project aims at __ 1. INFLIBNET
2. JNU, DELHI
1. Promoting the use of Free/Libre and
3. C-DAC, NOIDA
open source software in education
4. EdCIL, Noida
and research
2. Promoting the use of proprietary Answer: 4
software in education and research 90. Which plagiarism detection software is
3. Promoting software development promoted by INFLIBNET under Shodh
skills of school students Suddhi program?
4. None of the above 1. URKUND
Answer: Promoting the use of Free/Libre 2. Turnitin
and open source software in education and 3. Quetex
research 4. Copyleaks
86. Which among the following is NOT the Answer: URKUND
Regional Centre of INFLIBNET? 91. Indian Science Abstracts is published
1. Jawaharlal Nehru University, New as __.
Delhi 1. Monthly
2. Indian Institute of Science, 2. Quarterly
Bangalore 3. Fortnightly
3. Jadavpur University, Kolkata 4. Half-yearly
4. Central University of Punjab
Answer: Fortnightly
Answer: Central University of Punjab
92. 'IASLIC Bulletin' is published as __.
87. Which Learning Management System
1. Monthly
(LMS) is used for E-PG Pathshala Project?
2. Quarterly
1. Chamilo 3. Fortnightly
2. Moodle 4. Annual
3. ATutor
Answer: Quarterly
4. Open edX
Answer: ATutor

93. DESIDOC Journal of Library & 3. Monthly

Information Technology (DJLIT) is 4. Bi-monthly
published as__. Answer: Monthly
1. Monthly 99. The Journal 'Knowledge Organization'
2. Fortnightly is published as__.
3. Quarterly
1. Bi-Monthly
4. Bi-monthly
2. Monthly
Answer: Bi-monthly 3. Fortnightly
94. SRELS Journal of Information 4. Quarterly
Management is published as __. Answer: Bi-Monthly
1. Monthly 100. The Journal 'Knowledge Organization'
2. Bi-monthly is started publishing since __.
3. Fortnightly
1. 1970
4. Quarterly
2. 1971
Answer: Bi-monthly 3. 1974
95. 'Library Herald' is published as __. 4. 1978
1. Fortnightly Answer: 1974
2. Monthly 101. The restated fifth law of Library
3. Bi-monthly Science in the changing world is ________
4. Quarterly a growing organism.
Answer: Quarterly A. Information System
96. 'Herald of Library Science' is published B. Public Library
as __.
C. Learning System
1. Monthly
D. College Library
2. Quarterly
3. Half-Yearly Answer: A
4. Annually 102. Location of library building is an
Answer: Quarterly implication of which Law of Library
Science?
97. Annals of Library and Information
Studies (ALIS) is published as __. A. Fourth
1. Fortnightly B. First
2. Monthly C. Third
3. Bi-monthly D. Fifth
4. Quarterly Answer: B
Answer: Quarterly
103. A variant to the second Law of Library
98. 'Yojana' journal is published as __. Science is —
1. Weekly A. Closed access
2. Fortnightly

B. Open access C. 1993

C. Books for all D. 1973
D. Books for limited user՚s Answer: D
Answer: C 109. Public Library Development in India as
104. Who proposed the “Five Laws of a movement was initially started from —
Library Science” ? A. Baroda
A. Thomas Bray B. Pune
B. Paul Otlet C. Kolkata
C. Grogan D. Ahmedabad
D. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan Answer: A
Answer: D 110. In which year, the -first general library
105. Author՚s right to claim ownership of a law was enacted in U. S. A. at national
created work is — level?
A. Intellectual Property right A. 1946
B. Delivery of Books Act B. 1956
C. Censorship C. 1966
D. Press Act D. 1976
Answer: A Answer: B
106. I. B. M. is — 111. Fourth Law of Library Science has
A. International Bibliographic Method direct implication on —
B. International Business Machines A. Library building
C. International Book Market B. Library staff
D. Indian Business Machines C. Classification & cataloguing
Answer: B D. Library building
107. Information infrastructure is also Answer: C
called as — 112. The National Union Catalogue of
A. Information product scientific serials is compiled and
maintained by —
B. Information provider
A. INALIS
C. Information industry
B. library of Congress
D. Information superhighway
C. National Library Kolkata
Answer: C
D. INSDOC
108. The British Library Act came into
operation in — Answer: D
A. 1953 113. Karnataka Public Library Act was
enacted in the year —
B. 1983
A. 1965 A. Library Association

B. 1975 B. Inter-Library Loan
C. 1969 C. Library Conference
D. 1970 D. Purchase of Computer
Answer: A Answer: B
114. Which Public Library Act provides an 119. Which association prepared a
independent Ministry for library services? feasibility report for CALIBNET?
A. Kerala A. NISCAIR
B. West Bengal B. NASSDOC
C. Mizoram C. NISSAT
D. Manipur D. NIC
Answer: B Answer: C
115. Indian Science Abstracts is published 120. The process of supplying the relevant
by- documents on a specific topic to the user is
A. DRTG —
B. ISIC A. Indexing Service
C. NISCAIR B. Literature Supply
D. NBT C. Abstracting Services
Answer: C D. Document Delivery Service
116. UNESCO attempted to make user Answer: D
education programme through — 121. Which is considered as the image,
A. NISSAT status culture or practice of an occupation?
B. PRECIS A. Professional ethics
C. AGRIS B. library staff
D. UNISIST C. Library standards
Answer: D D. Library motivation
117. Resources sharing eliminated Answer: A
duplication of money, manpower and — 122. Which one was founded in 1933?
A. material A. Information Service Society
B. language B. Indian Library Association
C. time C. Association for Government Libraries
D. religion D. Union Public Services Commission
Answer: A Answer: B
118. Which is one of the traditional ways 123. P. V. Verghese Prize is awarded by
of sharing resources among libraries? Indian Library Association for —

A. Best Library A. California

B. Best Service B. Sydney
C. Best Article C. Paris
D. Best Book D. The Hague
Answer: C Answer: D
124. Directory of Special & Research 129. Which association sponsored AGRIS?
Libraries in India was brought in 1985 by — A. FAO
A. INSP B. UNO
B. NASSDOC C. ICAR
C. FID D. NASSDOC
D. IASLIC Answer: A
Answer: D 130. Which institution is a spectral centre
125. The headquarters of American Library of NISSAT in marine science?
Association is at — A. Central Maritime Institute
A. Chicago B. National Maritime Institute, New Delhi
B. Hague C. Nation Institute of Archaeology &
C. New York Museology, N. Delhi
D. California D. National Institute of Oceanography,
Answer: A Goa.
126. Journal of Librarianship is published Answer: D
by- 131. Ranganathan՚s five Laws of Library
A. ASIS Science are a set of norms for good —
B. The Library Association A. Librarianship
C. ILA B. Documentation
D. ALA C. Information System
Answer: B D. Information Service
127. “Federation of International Answer: A
Documentation” was founded by — 132. The second law of Library Science
A. Paul Otlet emphasises on -
B. Henri La Fontaine A. Currency of library service
C. Both of these B. Democratization of library service
D. S. Maitrayee C. Dissemination of library service
Answer: D D. Aristocracy of library service
128. The headquarter of IFLA is located at Answer: B
—

133. According to which Law of Library Answer: C

Science “Library grows & grows endlessly” 138. The Library Association is involved in
? promoting library interests in —
A. First A. Canada
B. Second B. Australia
C. Fifth C. India
D. Third D. Great Britain
Answer: C Answer: D
134. The acronym for Association for 139. Indian Library Association has created
Information Management is — a database of libraries is —
A. IAMA A. NALANDA
B. AFIM B. SOUL
C. AIM C. OASIS
D. ASXIB D. ISIS
Answer: D Answer: A
135. NAPLIS was prepared by — 140. American Library Association has
A. Department of Information Technology started an award for creative professional
B. Department of Education achievement, which is —
C. Department of Culture A. Grogan Award
D. None of the above B. Melvil Dewey Award
Answer: A C. E. P. Dutton Award
136. Librarian of Library of Congress is D. Melvil Calvin Award
appointed by — Answer: B
A. President of L. C. 141. ASLIB՚s Headquarters is located at —
B. President of USA A. Rome
C. Chairmain, Parliamentary Council B. Paris
D. Any of the above. C. London
Answer: B D. Washington
137. Building a good image of the library & Answer: C
information profession in society 142. Food and Agriculture Organisation
contributes to professional ethics in — sponsored the —
A. Public Library staff A. UNO
B. library service B. NISSAT
C. Librarianship C. RRRLF
D. Library management D. AGEIS

Answer: D C. production of union catalogue with

143. It consists of print and non-print uniformity and standardization of
materials as well as human resources that bibliographic control
are eligible to be shared in ways that D. All of the above
enhance the quality of service — Answer: D
A. Library Resources 147. What is the philosophy behind the
B. Library Staff concept of resource sharing in libraries? i
C. Library Management A. “Access” to information resources
D. Networking available in the libraries,
Answer: A B. “Equivalence” which means libraries
should not only receive but should also
144. The main objective/s of resource
give
sharing in libraries is/are —
C. Both of the above
A. reduction in all round cost
D. None of the above
B. avoidance of unnecessary duplication of
information resources & their processing Answer: C
and maintenance costs. 148. A library activity which lends on loan
C. development of specialised areas of documents required by another library
collection building, each library users is —
concentrating on areas of its own concern. A. Inter-Library Loan (ILL)
D. All of the above B. Document Delivery Service (DDS)
Answer: D C. Management Information Service (MS)
145. Which is/are important in Resource D. OPAC
sharing system? Answer: A
A. Record keeping 149. It is an automated catalogue system
B. Acquisitions policy stored in machine readable form &
C. Loan transaction accessed on-line by the library clientele-
via-a V. D. U. employing a user-friendly
D. All of the above
software is —
Answer: D
A. On-line Public Access Catalogue (OPAC)
146. Resource sharing requires on reach an
B. Inter Library Loan (ILL)
agreement on -
C. Resource sharing
A. type of material to share & acquisition
policy D. Library Union Catalogue (LUC)
B. circulation policy and co-operative Answer: A
cataloguing & their maintenance. 150. Who was the head of Working Group
of Planning Commission on Libraries &
Informatics for the modernization of

library services and inter-linking of library B. Prof. B. N. Shina

systems (1985 - 1990) ? C. Prof. S. R. Ranganathan
A. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan D. Dr. R. R. Shaw
B. Dr. N. Seshagiri Answer: A
C. Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam 155. The service/s that are rendered by
D. Dr. S. Ramachandran INFLIBNET is/are —
Answer: B A. Catalogue based services
151. Which was originally started as a B. Database services & Communication
project of India International Centre (IXC) , based services
New Delhi with the financial support from C. Document supply services
NISSAT?
D. All of the above
A. DELNET
Answer: D
B. NASSDOC
156. Which is not an objective of
C. UGC INFLIBNET?
D. CALIBNET A. to establish gateways for on-line
Answer: A accessing of information
152. DELNET became a registered society B. to Optimise information resource
in the year — utilisation through resource sharing
A. September, 1973 C. to evolve national network of libraries.
B. March, 1992 D. reference, legal and maintenance
C. April, 2000 services
D. October, 1995 Answer: D
Answer: B 157. The communication-based service/s
of INFLIBNET is/are —
153. Which is the networking software
based on BASIS plus which can A. Referral services & e-mail services
accommodate and retrieve millions of B. Academic Communication
bibliographic & full text records was C. Bulletin board
developed by DELHET itself?
D. All of the above
A. DBLSIS
Answer: D
B. HYPERIS
158. The main important achievement/s of
C. AGRIS INFLIBNET from 1988 to 2003 is/are —
D. IIC A. Compilation of Union Catalogue
Answer: A (machine-readable) with 7500 records
154. INFLIBNET programme was the B. Database of these and dissertation with
concept of — 1 lakh records
A. Prof. Yash Pal

C. Serial database which contains about Answer: D

550,000 records 163. A Public Library is the —
D. All of the above A. “People՚s University”
Answer: D B. Institution of Nation
159. Who was the chairman of INFLIBNET C. “Adhoc University”
Review Committee?
D. All of the above
A. Dr. S. Venkateswaran
Answer: A
B. Dr. S. K. Ranganathan
164. According to the Library Legislation of
C. Prof. S. S. Sinha India, who is the Director of Public
D. Dr. S. Seshwari Libraries?
Answer: A A. President of India
160. Calcutta Library Network (CALIBNET) B. Chief Executive at State Level.
was sponsored by — C. Chief Minister
A. CMC Ltd. D. Governor of state
B. NISSAT Answer: B
C. MAITRAYEE 165. The salient features of Model Union
D. None of the above Libraries Act is/are —
Answer: B A. Constitution of a National Library
161. The process of supplying the relevant Authority
documents on a specific topic to the user B. National Copyright Library
— C. Constitution of a National Library Fund
A. Electronic mail D. All of the above
B. Document Delivery Service Answer: D
C. OPAC 166. Who initiated the Model Library Act
D. Resource sharing during All Asia Educational Conference
Answer: C held at Varanasi in 1930?
162. The reason/s for library legislation A. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan
is/are - B. Sir Morris
A. it will maintain standards in library C. Lord Curzon
service D. Dr. S. Sheshgiri
B. it will provide a steady & permanent Answer: A
source of finance
167. National seminar on Library
C. it will constitute a proper administrative Legislation held in 1990 at —
and supervisory body with executive
A. New Delhi
powers
B. Kolkata
D. All of the above

C. Chennai D. All of above

D. Mumbai Answer: D
Answer: A 172. The Madras Public Libraries Act was
168. Model Library & Information Services enacted in the year —
Act was drafted by — A. 1948
A. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan B. 1960
B. Dr. S. Sheshgiri C. 1965
C. Dr. Venkatapaiah D. 1933
D. Prof. Yashpal Answer: A
Answer: C 173. The first amendment of Andhra
169. A document prepared for the Pradesh Public Libraries Act, 1960 was
guidance to prepare a Bill for placing done in —
before the Assembly is — A. 1964
A. Act B. 1969
B. Patent C. 1987
C. Nodes D. 1989
D. Model Bills Answer: A
Answer: D 174. The important feature/s of Karnataka
170. How many states presently in India Public Libraries Act, 1965 is/are —
have library legislation? A. Constitution of Local Library Authorities
A. 11 for the cities & districts
B. 12 B. Provision for creating an independent
Department of Public Libraries, with a
C. 13
professional as its head
D. 27
C. Provision for Copyright Collection of
Answer: A state
171. The Library Legislation should take D. All of the above
care of the following point/s —
Answer: D
A. Accessibility of information to all
175. Library Legislation was firstly enacted
sections of the people and provision of
in the state —
finances and the modus operandi for
expenditure. A. Delhi
B. Arrangement of a reporting system of B. Goa
the activities of various public libraries. C. Kolkata
C. An establishment of institutional D. Chennai
network to provide care & preserver Answer: D
documents.

176. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan completed his Answer: B

librarianship studies at — 181. NALANDA is a database of libraries,
A. University of London in 1924 containing —
B. University of Annamalai in 1924 A. Academic Libraries
C. University of Madras in 1933 B. Public Libraries
D. University of London in 1933 C. Special Libraries
Answer: A D. All of the above
177. Which is not an implication of fourth Answer: D
law of library science? 182. ASLIB is —
A. Location of library A. Association for special Libraries &
B. Staff of Library Information Bureau
C. Cataloguing B. Association for School Libraries
D. A & B only Information Bureau.
Answer: D C. Academic & Special libraries Information
Branch
178. Which is an implication of Vth law of
library science? D. Academic & School Libraries &
Information Branch
A. Book Stock
Answer: A
B. Readers
183. Which international association
C. Modernization
promote international contact among
D. All of these library associations & librarians?
Answer: D A. International Federation of Library
179. The criteria fulfilled by a librarian to Association & Institution
deem librarianship as profession is — B. International Federation of
A. service orientation Documentation
B. Expertise in tools & technique C. UNESCO (NISCAIR)
C. Altruistic motivation & self-motivation D. RRRLF
D. All of the above Answer: A
Answer: D 184. Which was founded by International
180. Indian Association of Special Libraries Institute of Bibliography in 1895?
& Information Centre (IASLIC) was founded A. IFLA
in 1955. Its headquarters is located at — B. FID
A. Delhi C. UNESCO
B. Kolkata D. UGC
C. Chennai Answer: A
D. Mumbai

185. Which association was founded by A. Sir Morris Gayer

Department of Culture, Govt. of India in B. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
May 1972?
C. Abul Kalam Azad
A. University Grants Commission
D. Dr. Zakir Hussain
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy Library
Answer: A
Foundation
190. “Book Week” in India celebrated
C. INSDOC (NISCAIR)
every year in the month of —
D. DRDO
A. November
Answer: B
B. December
186. International Nuclear Information
C. June
System (INIS) founded in 1970. Its
headquarters is at — D. September
A. Mysore Answer: A
B. Chicago 191. Commonwealth Library Association՚s
headquarters is located at —
C. Vienna
A. Nigeria
D. Hague
B. New Delhi
Answer: C
C. Hauge
187. National Information System for
Science & Technology (NISSAT) works for D. Chennai
— Answer: A
A. the development of National 192. Who opened the first “School of
Information System Library Economy”
B. the Education & Training A. S. R. Ranganathan
C. sponsoring DELNET, MYLIBNET B. Melvil Dewey
D. All of the above C. D. N. Marshal
Answer: D D. A. S. Dickenson
188. Bibliography on India in 2000 A. D. is a Answer: B
publication of — 193. “School of Librarianship” is situated at
A. NASSDOC —
B. INSDOC (NISCAIR) A. New Delhi
C. DESIDOC B. London
D. RRRLF C. New York
Answer: A D. Los Angeles
189. Who designated Dr. S. R. Answer: B
Ranganathan as the “Father of Library 194. The Library Science education in India
Science” of India? is started in —

A. Baroda, (1911) information

B. New Delhi, (1924)
C. Madras (1924) 2. Author՚s right to b.
D. None of the above claim ownership of a Documentation
created work
Answer: A
195. In which year, the University of Delhi
3. Information stored c. Databate
started the course of library science?
on computer files, &
A. 1944 accessible via a
B. 1945 remote terminal &
C. 1946 telecommunication
link.
D. 1947
Answer: D A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
196. Who got the first Doctor of B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
Philosophy (Ph. D.) degree from University C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
of Delhi?
D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
A. D. B. Krishna Rao (1957)
Answer: B
B. S. K. Venkataraman (1947)
C. William Bordon (1907)
D. D. N. Marshal (1946) Match the Following
Answer: A
Column A Column B
197. Who was the president of “Library
Development Committee” , Mumbai?
1. A packaged carrier of a. Book
A. A. A. A. Fauji
information & knowledge
B. D. N. Marshal
C. S. R. Ranganathan 2. A recorded message, b.
D. Sir Morris Gayer irrespective of physical Information
Answer: A form or content
3. Organised information c.
Match the Following irrespective of physical Knowledge
form
Column A Column B
d. User
1. Study of acquisition, a. Intellectual A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
handling & property
communication of B. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a

C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d Answer: (2)

D. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a 204. “To make at least one in every
Answer: A household e-literate” is thrust area of
policy (# 7) included in:
200. What is the meaning of the term
“Information Iceberg”? (1) National Knowledge Commission, 2005
(1) 1/3 Non-Visible and 2/3 Visible (2) National Policy on Information
Technology, 2012
(2) 1/3 Visible and 2/3 Non-Visible
(3) National Education Policy, 1992
(3) 1/4 Non-Visible and 3/4 Visible
(4) National Policy on Library and
(4) 1/4 Visible and 3/4 Non-Visible
Information Systems, 1986
Answer: (All)
Answer: (2)
201. What is the name of the initiative
205. Identify which one of the Five Laws of
taken by the UGC to provide a 24×7 online
Library Science that Ranganathan
store house of all academic awards issued
remarked as ‘trivial truism’ in his writing
by different academic institutions all over
“Library Science and Scientific Method”.
the country?
(1) First Law
(1) National Mission on Education Through
Information and Communication (2) Second Law
Technology (NMEICT) (3) Third Law
(2) National Academic Depository (NAD) (4) Fifth Law
(3) HEI Online Registration Portal Answer: (1)
(4) Swayam Prabha 206. ‘Wikipedia’ owned by the non-profit
Answer: (2) “Wikipedia Foundation” was launched on
January 15, 2001 by:
202. What is the name of the committee
responsible for Indian standards related to (1) Jimmy Wells and Larry Sanger
libraries? (2) Jimmy Wells and Vincent J. Aceto
(1) TC 46 (3) Larry Sanger and W. Kathy
(2) MSD 5 (4) William A. Ford and W. Kathy
(3) BIS – LIB Answer: (1)
(4) Z 39 207. ‘Anukriti’ is a:
Answer: (2) (1) Bibliographic India Website
203. ‘World Book and Copyright Day’ is (2) Indexing India Website
celebrated on: (3) Translating India Website
(1) 22nd August (4) Abstracting India Website
(2) 23rd April Answer: (3)
(3) 23rd March 208. Ezproxy is a product of:
(4) 20th March (1) UTLAS
(2) OCLC (2) DOAJ

(3) RLIN (3) PLOS
(4) Library of Congress (4) WDL
Answer: (2) Answer: (3)
209. Which of the following is not a 214. The term ‘Weblog’ was coined by:
classical model of information retrieval? (1) E. Williams
(1) Boolean (2) Jack Dorsey
(2) Cluster (3) Jorn Barger
(3) Probabilistic (4) Peter Merholz
(4) Vector-space Answer: (3)
Answer: (2) 215. Which of the following is not file
210. Who criticized the concept of main hosting service?
entry as ‘a relic of outdated technology’? (1) One Drive
(1) Michael Gorman (2) Google Drive
(2) Robert L. Maxwell (3) Live Drive
(3) Pat Oddy (4) Xbox Live
(4) Tom Delsey Answer: (4)
Answer: (1) 216. VuFind is the tool used for:
211. Identify the odd one out: (1) Library Automation
(1) Reference entry (2) Digital Library System
(2) Centred entry (3) Library Resource Discovery System
(3) Analytical entry (4) Institutional Repository
(4) Added entry Answer: (3)
Answer: (2) 217. Which one is the correct ‘Binary
212. ‘Path-Goal Theory of Leader number’ for Decimal ‘115’?
Effectiveness’ is developed by: (1) 1100011
(1) Douglas McGregor (2) 1010111
(2) William Ouchi (3) 1111111
(3) Robert House (4) 1110011
(4) Abraham Maslow Answer: (4)
Answer: (3) 218. Research method based on the
213. ‘Ambra’ an innovative open source consensus opinions of panel of experts and
plateform (for publishing open access judgements is known as:
resource articles) is developed by: (1) Historical method
(1) OCLC (2) Case study method
(3) Delphi method 3. Dr. P.B. Goswami

(4) Interview method 4. Dr. A.P. Patel
Answer: (3) Answer: 1
219. A probability which is not associated 224. 'Indian Library Review' is a blog of:
with the occurrence of an event is 1. Delhi Public Library
expressed as a number between:
2. RRRLF
(1) +1 and −1
3. Indian Library Association (ILA)
(2) 1 and < 1
4. National Library of India, Kolkata
(3) −1 and 0
Answer: 4
(4) 0 and 1
225. Xerographic process is categorised
Answer: (4) under
220. Which of the following is not a Web 1. Photographic process
2.0 tool? 2. Reflex method
1. Blog 3. Silver halide process
2. Facebook 4. Electrostatic process
3. UGC-INFONET 2.0 Answer: b
4. RSS feeds 226. The ‘Study abroad’ is a/an
Answer: 3 1. Encyclopedia
2. Year book
221. The term ‘open source was coined by
3. Directory
1. Tim Berners Lee 4. Handbook
2. Christine Peterson Answer: d
3. Peter Merholz 227. The ‘User Profile’ is a
4. Michael Casey 1. List of descriptors
Answer: 2 2. List of useful citations
222. Which of the following is NOT an 3. List of users
output device? 4. Statement of user information
1. Monitor Answer: d
2. Touchscreen 228. Phoenix schedules are part of
3. Printer 1. DDC
4. Plotter 2. BC
3. UDC
Answer: 2 4. LCC
223. Who is known as father of Indian Answer: a
Library System?
229. ‘Universal Bibliographical Control’ is a
1. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan programme of:
2. Dr. T.R. Maiyereshwaran

1. FID Answer: 1956

2. IFLA 235. DESIDOC Journal of Library &
3. UNISIST Information Technology (DJLIT) is
4. ALA published since __.
Answer: b 1. 1981
230. The standard size of a catalogue card 2. 1983
is 3. 1985
1. 12.5 cm X 7.5 cm 4. 1988
2. 12 cm X 7 cm Answer: 1981
3. 11 cm X 5 cm 236. SRELS Journal of Information
4. 10 cm X 4 cm Management was founded in the year __.
Answer: a 1. 1960
231. The standard size of a catalogue card 2. 1962
is 3. 1964
1. 5 inch X 3 inch 4. 1968
2. 4 inch X 3 inch Answer: 1964
3. 4 inch X 4 inch 237. The journal 'Library Herald' was
4. 3 inch X 3 inch founded in the year __.
Answer: a 1. 1955
232. RDA related to 2. 1956
1. Classification 3. 1958
2. Cataloguing 4. 1959
3. Searching Answer: 1958
4. Browsing 238. Who Social networks are organized
Answer: b primarily __________.
233. Library and Information Science a.brands
Abstracts (LISA) started publishing since b.people
__. c.discussions
d.interests
1. 1959
2. 1969 Answer: b
3. 1964 239. Social networks have an information-
4. 1961 sharing capacity. As such, a great
Answer: 1969 distribution channel for?
a.customer feedback
234. 'IASLIC Bulletin' is published since __.
b.viral content
1. 1951 c.exclusive coupons
2. 1953 d.marketing messages
3. 1954
Answer: d
4. 1956

240.___________ social network is 245. Facebook Places is targeted to large

considered the most popular for business brands.
to business marketing? a.True
a.Facebook b.False
b.Orkut c.maybe
c.Ryze d.Maybe not
d.LinkedIn
Answer: b
Answer: d
246. best practice to interact under a
241. Advantage a non–profit has when personal account on LinkedIn.
opening a private social network….. a.True
a.the start-up cost of a private social b.False
network c.maybe
b.spend more time using social networks. d.Maybe not
c.it has an immediate user base of people
Answer: a
interested in the cause.
d.supporters have a higher tolerance for 247. white label social network’s primary
messages. difference is that it is privately run by a
nonprofit organization.
Answer: c
a.True
242. Larger social networking sites b.False
a.will force niche social networks. c.maybe
b.social media trends. d.Maybe not
c.to see declining growth rates.
Answer: a
d.better fit for nonprofit organizations.
248. ___________methods of social
Answer: b
network marketing should a company
243. Facebook and Linked are popular always use.
social networks globally. a. Blogging the only
a.True b. Twitter, Blogs, Facebook
b.False c. YouTube
c.maybe d. Depends on the company and its
d.Maybe not product
Answer: b Answer: b, d
244. when marketing with social networks 249. ___________is the term updates by
is to identify the goals. Twitter users.
a.True a. Tweets
b.False b. Tweats
c.maybe c. Twinks
d.Maybe not d. Posts
Answer: a Answer: a

250. What is meant by “guerilla d. both companies originated and posting

marketing”? to other groups
a. Using resources such as time Answer: d
b. Using advertising spots
256. How can a company ensure that the
c. Having a large scale marketing
proper audience finds their YouTube
d. Using television ads
videos?
Answer: a, b, c a. Post links on the company blog
251. What is meant by Brand b. no method to effectively direct people
Management? to company videos
a. Managing the marketing staff c. Use of keywords
b. Management of the marketing budget d. Sending out mail advertisements
c. The company executive management Answer: a, c
d. Creating a consistent image for the
257. In a company that should own the
company
social marketing plan?
Answer: c, d a. Head of Marketing
252. Why is it important to post to a blog? b. CFO
a. It reduces the cost per blog post c. President
b. Keep readers engaged d. Operational staff
c. the social media marketing specialist Answer: a, b
d. It allows more chances
258. What is meant by “micro-blogging”?
Answer: b a. Blogging daily
253. ___________is an important aspect of b. Blogs that are posted by companies
creating blogs and posting content? c. Blogs with limited individual posts
a. Using a witty user name d. Blogging from mobile devices
b. Posting at least once a month Answer: a, c
c. Social Media Optimization
259. What is meant by A/B testing in
d. Using humor
marketing?
Answer: a, b, c a. Testing of 2 different products
254. What is a “vlog”? b. Testing 2 versions of an advertisement
a. Video Log to best response
b. Video blog c. testing of medical products before
c. Log of blog activity legally allowing
d. New technology to aid in blogging d. Testing via 2 mediums,t.v, radio
Answer: b, d Answer: b
255. ___________ a company do on 260. What is “social media optimization”?
Facebook apart from their page? a. easily creates publicity via social
a. Post more updates networks
b. Post controversial b. Writing clear content
c. Use several pictures c. Creating short content which is easily

indexed 265._________ would be leveraging both

d. create content for social networks hiring social network and traditional marketing?
people a. print advertisements with a coupon for a
Answer: a store
b. drives people to a website where there
261. What place does Pricing have in
is a free trial offer
marketing?
c. Posting an advertisement on a message
a. Higher prices guarantee higher revenue
board
stream
d. Hosting a video ad on YouTube
b. The company should actively market
c. tested to see what elicits the best Answer: b
consumer response 266. social network marketing plan differ
d. Marketing based on the pricing level from a traditional marketing plan
Answer: c a. The brand image completely different
for social marketing
262. What would the marketing budget
b. social marketing is different for The staff
section of a marketing plan detail?
requirements and skillsets.
a. The cost to write the plan
c. the social marketing plan is required for
b. The expected costs for each ad
traditional marketing
campaign
d. method of delivery, a marketing plan,
c. The overall marketing budget for a year
either way, will be similar
d. The marketing personnel job
descriptions Answer: b, c
Answer: b, c 267. ___________ is valuable in increasing
a page rank?
263. How the company uses the same
a. Paying for placement
material for both traditional and social
b. Static content
network marketing?
c. highly ranked pages
a. Posting a luring comment on Twitter
d. No contact information
b. Selling ad space on the company
website Answer: c
c. Utilizing a television ad campaign online 268. On which social network should you
d. Creating a magazine print ad share content most frequently?
Answer: c, d (A). Facebook
264. How often should a marketing plan be (B). Pinterest
revisited? (C). Twitter
a. Never, once written it is complete
(D). LinkedIn
b. order to revisit the plan of action
c. At company board meetings Answer: c
d. financial review of the company each 269. Which is not social media network?
month (A). Facebook
Answer: b (B). Wikipedia

(C). Twitter 3. I-c, II-d, III-b, IV-a

(D). LinkedIn 4. I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
Answer: B Answer: 3
270. Which is the largest social media 274. Which library management software
network in the world? has been developed by INFLIBNET (UGC)?
(A). Twitter
1. SOUL
(B). Wikipedia
(C). Facebook 2. Sanjay
(D). LinkedIn 3. Koha
Answer: C 4. E-Granthalaya
171. SOUL is developed and maintained Answer: 1
by....? 275. Which of the following organizations
1. INFLIBNET have introduced “Dig by” – a new mobile
2. NISCAIR application available as a part of
“Worldshare Management Service”?
3. UGC
1. Library of Congress
4. RRRLF
2. NISCAIR
Answer: 1
3. OCLC
272. CDS/ISIS is a product/service
of_____? 4. UTLAS
1. IFLA Answer: 3
2. UNESCO 276. Which of the following is a Library
Management Software?
3. ALA
1. LibSys 7
4. LA (UK)
2. EPrints
Answer: 2
3. Joomla
273. Match the column PART-I with PART-
II: 4. Drupal
Answer: 1
PART- PART-
277. 'TIFF' file format is first created by
I: Software II: Origin/Development
_______.
I. SOUL a) 2002 1. Aldus Corporation
II. CDS/ISIS b) 1995 2. Microsoft
3. C-Cube Microsystems
III. WIN/ISIS c) 2000
4. Sun Microsystems
IV. Dspace d) 1985 Answer: 1
1. I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b 278. 'Shodhganga' is a repository of:
2. I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d 1. e-synopsis

2. e-thesis Answer: 2
3. e-books 284. 'Mendeley' is developed by -
4. e-journals 1. ProQuest
Answer: 2 2. Sonny Software
279. Which of the following is a feature of 3. Labtiva
Web OPAC? 4. Elsevier
1. It is command-language-based Answer: 4
2. It is navigation-based 285. What is the purpose of WSDL in a web
3. It is pre-coordinated service?
4. It is phrase-indexed A - A web services takes the help of WSDL
Answer: 2 to tag the data, format the data.
280. Koha software was created by B - A web service takes the help of WSDL
to transfer a message.
1. Environ Software Private Limited
C - A web service takes the help of WSDL to
2. Autolib Software
describe the availability of service.
3. Katipo Communications
D - None of the above.
4. Algorithms Pvt. Ltd.
Answer: C
Answer: 3
286. Which of the following role of web
281. Sanjay software developed by service architecture implements the
1. INFLIBNET service and makes it available on the
2. DESIDOC Internet?
3. TATA Unisys A - Service Provider
4. NISSAT B - Service Requestor
Answer: 2 C - Service Registry
282. 'URKUND' offers D - None of the above.
1. Library statistical analysis Answer: A
2. Detect and prevent plagiarism 287. Which of the following layer in Web
Service Protocol Stack is responsible for
3. Helps in online Cataloguing
centralizing services into a common
4. Support in Library automation registry and providing easy publish/find
Answer: 2 functionality?
283. POP stands for _______? A - Service Transport
1. Print Office Protocol B - XML Messaging
2. Post Office Protocol C - Service Description
3. Pre Office Protocol D - Service Discovery
4. Post Object Protocol Answer: D

288. Which of the following is correct of

about XML RPC? subject, known as
A - XML-RPC is a simple protocol that uses (A) Loose Assemblage
XML messages to perform RPCs. (B) Fission
B - XML-RPC is platform-independent. (C) Distillation
C - XML-RPC allows diverse applications to (D) Cluster
communicate.
Answer: (C)
D - All of the above.
293. IIA founded in U.S.A. in 1968 stands
Answer: D for
289. Which of the following is correct (A) Integrated Industry Association
about SOAP?
(B) Information Industry Association
A - SOAP is language independent.
(C) Integrated Illiteracy eradication
B - SOAP is simple and extensible. Association
C - Both of the above. (D) Institute of Information Association.
D - None of the above. Answer: (D)
Answer: C 294. BSO in classification stands for
290. Which of the following is correct (A) Basic Subject of Organisation
about UDDI?
(B) Broad Subject Ordering
A - UDDI is an XML-based standard for
(C) Bibliography of Subject Ordering
describing, publishing, and finding web
services. (D) Bibliographic Subject Organisation
B - UDDI is a specification for a distributed Answer: (B)
registry of web services. 295. The concept of Selective
C - UDDI is platform independent, open Dissemination of Information ( SDI ) was
framework. introduced by
D - All of the above. (A) Kaiser
Answer: D (B) Luhn of IBM
291. ASK (Approach, Skill, Knowledge ) (C) S. R. Ranganathan
principle is related to (D) Derek Austin.
(A) Classification Answer: (B)
(B) Management 296. The book ‘Library Administration’ was
(C) ICT brought out by Ranganathan in
(D) Standards (A) 1925
Answer: (B) (B) 1933
292. The subject of Research Methodology (C) 1931
is the outcome of the mode of formation (D) 1935

Answer: (D) Reason (R) : No research is complete

297. Among the following which has not without testing of hypotheses.
been considered as a library of national Codes :
importance (A) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(A) Saraswati Mahal Library (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Delhi Public Library (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(C) Kudha Baksh Oriental Library (D) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(D) The Rampur Raza Library Answer: (B)
Answer: (D) 2. Assertion (A) : There is a dismal scene
298. The term Lexicography is associated relating to the development of public
with: libraries especially rural libraries in India.
(A) Compilation of Encyclopedia Reason (R) : Majority of the states do not
(B) Compilation of Hand books have library legislation.
(C) Compilation of Dictionaries Codes :
(D) None of the above (A) Both (A) and (R) are true.
Answer: (C) (B) Both (A) and (R) are false.
299. A Pre-print is a/an (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(C) Article to be presented in a conference (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Conference paper to be included in the Answer: (C)
proceedings 3. Assertion (A) : It would be logical to
(C) Neither (a) nor (b) replace catalogue with metadata.
(C) Both (a) and (b) Reason (R) : Metadata is useful for
organising and managing information
Answer: (D)
resources.
300. Binary system of numbers uses only
Codes :
(A) Two digits
(A) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(B) Four digits
(B) (A) and (R) are true.
(C) Eight digits
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) Six digits
(D) (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
4. Assertion (A) : The use of the symbol
Unit -5 MCQ ‘double colon’ (: :) in UDC allows fixed
order of component numbers in a
1. Assertion (A) : All research require compound subject.
hypotheses to be proposed and tested.

Reason (R) : The fixed order facilitates easy 7. Choose the correct one:
access in computer based information Assertion (A): As the level of Recall
retrieval. decreases, the precision increases.
Codes : Reason (R): Recall and Precision are not
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false. always inversely correlated.
(B) (A) is false and (R) is true. 1. (A) is false, but (R) is true
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true. 2. (A) is true, but (R) is false
3. Both (A) and (R) are true
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A) is true, but (R) is false
5. Assertion (A) : There is criticism by
8. Which among the followings are almost
academicians and scientists on the use of
enumerative classification schemes?
impact factor as a measure of importance.
a) Expansive Classification
Reason (R) : Impact factor is a journal
metrics and can not be used to assess b) Dewey Decimal Classification
quality of individual research. c) Library of Congress Classification
Codes : d) Subject Classification
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true. 1. a, b, and d are correct
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true. 2. a, c and d are correct
3. a and d are correct
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false.
4. b and d are correct
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Answer: b and d are correct
Answer: (B)
9. Arrange the cataloging codes according
6. Match the following : to the year of publication
List I List II i) AAC
(i) Aslib Proceedings (a) Science ii) CCC
Direct
iii) AACR II
(ii) DOAJ (b) Web of
iv) British museum Code
Science
1. i,ii,iii,iv
(iii) Thomson Reuters (c) Open Access
2. i,ii,iv,iii
Journals
3. iv,i,ii,iii
(iv) Elsevier (d) Emerald 4. iv,ii,iv,ii
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Answer:C
(A) (d) (c) (b) (a) 10. Arrange the following facets in
(B) (c) (d) (b) (a) building book numbers according to facet
(C) (a) (c) (d) (b) formula as prescribed in colon
classification:
(D) (c) (a) (b) (d)
Answer: (A) a) Serial number

b) Year of publication c) Note section

c) Language number d) Accession number
d) Form of exposition 1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) 2. (b), (a), (c), and (d)
2. (c), (a), (d), and (b) 3. (c), (d), (b) and (a)
3. (c), (d), (b) and (a) 4. (d), (a), (b) and (c)
4. (d), (a), (b) and (c) Answer: (b), (a), (c), and (d)
Answer: (c), (d), (b) and (a) 14. Resource Description Framework (RDF)
11. Which of the following are called ‘Path consists which of the following?
finders’ to the literature? a) Subject
a) Bibliography b) Thread
b) Catalogue c) Predicate
c) Shelf List d) Object
d) Indices and Abstracts 1. a, b, and c are correct
1. a, b, and c are correct 2. c, b and d are correct
2. c, a and b are correct 3. a, c, and d are correct
3. b, c, and d are correct 4. c, a and b are correct
4. a and d are correct Answer: a, c, and d are correct
Answer: a and d are correct 15. Match the following intellectual
12. Arrange the following according to property rights concepts with their
their year of foundation: relevant features:
a) China Academic Library and Information List — I List — II
System (CALIS)
b) Australian Academic & Research Library (a) (i) Commercial source
Network (AARLN) Copyright indicators and
c) Research Libraries Group (RLG) (b) Patents distinctive signs
d) Online Computer Library Centre (OCLC) (c) Trade (ii) A treaty between
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) Secrets Government and
2. (b), (a), (c), and (d) inventor
(d)
3. (c), (b), (a) and (d) Trademarks (iii) Economic rights
4. (d), (c), (a) and (b) (iv) Information used in
Answer: (d), (c), (a) and (b) operation of a business
13. Arrange the correct sequence of the invaluable to afford the
sections of main entry in CCC (Ed.5): potential economic
a) Title section utility
b) Leading section Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d) Code:

(1) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (2) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
16. Match the President of IFLA with Answer: (3)
his/her tenure: 18. Match the following queries with their
appropriate category of reference sources:
List — I List — II
List - I List — II
(a) Sinikka Sipila (i) 2015 - 2017
(b) Ellen Tise (ii) 2017 - 2019 (a) Enrolment of (i) Year Book
(c) Donna Scheeder (iii) 2011 - 2013 students in a (ii) Statistical
(d) Gloria Perez (iv) 2013 - 2015 university sources
Salmeron (b) Weather of (iii) Directory
Denmark
(iv)
Code: (c) Number of Geographical
(a) (b) (c) (d) foreigners visited sources
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) World Book Fair in
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 2016
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (ii) (d) Number of

Hospitals in
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Singapore
Answer: (All)
17. Match the following: Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
List - I List - II
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (ii) (iv)
(a) Library (i) Reed Business
Journal Information (3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) Library (ii) Emerald Group (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Quarterly Publishing Ltd Answer: (4)
(c) Library (iii) John Hopkins 19. Match the following titles with their
Review University Press class numbers according to CC 6th edition:
(d) Library (iv) University of List - I List — II
Trends Chicago Press

before space facet) of colon classification

(a) Small pox (i) L293: 46
(6th reprint edition) with their correct
(b) Fever (ii) L: 414 terms:
(c) Diabetics (iii) L35: 4261
List - I List - II
(d) Malaria (iv) L: 4231
(Number) (Term)
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Y1 (i) Synopsis
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (b) Y3 (ii) Case study
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (c) Y7 (iii) Digest
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (d) Y8 (iv) Program of
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) instruction
Answer: (2)
Code:
20. Match the following Search Engines
with their corresponding subjects/or (a) (b) (c) (d)
scientific research discovery information (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
they offer: (2) (iv) (i) (ill) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) Vadlo (i) Web resources Answer: (1)
(b) Mamma including Twitter and Job 22. Match the following MARC fields with
Posting their corresponding descriptions:
(c) Athenus
(ii) Life Science Literature
(d) List - I List - II
Ethnologue (iii) World's Known Living
Languages
(a) 020 (i) Electronic Location and
(iv) Science and Access
(b) 250
Engineering
(c) 440 (ii) Edition Statement
Code: (d) 856 (iii) Series
(a) (b) (c) (d) (iv) ISBN
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Code:
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(1) (i) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (1) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (i)
Answer: (4)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
21. Match the following number of
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Anteriorising common isolates (Applicable


23. Match the following popular social 25. Match the following domains of
networking sites with their corresponding application with their corresponding
founders: metadata schemes:
List - I List - II List — I List — II
(a) Blog (i) Tim Vanderhook and (a) ETD domain (i) METS
(b) Wikis Justin Timberlake (b) Inage domain (ii) CCO
(c) (ii) Google (c) Cultural objects (iii) ConCore
Linkedin (iii) Word Cunningham (d) Learning (iv) VRA-Core
(d) (iv) Reid Hoffman and his objects
Myspace friends
Code:
Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii (i) (4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Answer: (4)
Answer: (1) 26. Match the following:
list - I List - II
List - I List - II
(a) Infomix (i) Image software
(a) Chester Carton (i) e-Book (b) Omni (ii) Remote login
(b) Brewstu Kable (ii) Xerox Copier page software
(c) Michael S. Hart (iii) NDLTD (c) Tiff (iii DBMS software
(d) Edward Fox (iv) Internet viewer (iv) OCR software
Archive (d) Team
viewer
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d) Code:
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Answer: (2) (b) Categories (ii) System

27. Match the following: (c) Relationship software
List – I List — II List (iii) Taxonomy

(d) Emulators (iv) Glossaries
(Term) (Explanation)
Code:
(a) Data (i) Specific analytic
(a) (b) (c) (d)
mart technique that examining
large pre-existing (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) Data
silo databases in order to (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
generate new information. (3) (iv) (i (ii) (iii)
(c) Data
warehouse (ii) Systems that integrate (4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
data from databases
(d) Data Answer: (4)
across an entire
mining 29. Match the following:
enterprise, used to guide
decisions.
(iii) Is a lower-cost, scaled-
down version of a data (i) Research Gate
(a)
warehouse that can be Muktabodha
implemented in a much (ii) Online citation and
shorter time. (b) net First reference management
(c) Zotero tool
(iv) Stand alone data
stores available for a (d) R.G. (iii) Abstracting and
specific function. Score indexing database of
OCLC
Code: (iv) Digital Library of
(a) (b) (c) (d) Indology
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Code:
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (ii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer: (4) (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
28. Match the following terms with their (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
corresponding descriptors:
Answer: (1)
List — I List — II 30. Match the following communication
concepts with corresponding explanations:
(a) Term List (i) Ontologies
List – I List — II

Answer: 1
(a) Kinesics (i) Use of touch to
communication communication 34. Which fixes the place of a subject
relative to other subjects in a scheme of
(b) Hap tics (ii) Use of
classification?
communication Interpersonal space
1. Class Number
(c) Proxemics (iii) Facial Expression,
2. Call Number
communication gestures, eye
3. Book Number
(d) Iconics movement
4. Accession Number
communication (iv) Interpretation of
Answer: 1
symbolism
35. A person who designs a scheme of
Code: library classification is called
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1. Classification
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 2. Classifier
3. Librarian
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 4. Information officer
(3) (ii) (ii) (i) (iv) Answer: 1
(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 36. Which fixes the place of a subject
Answer: (4) relative to other subjects in a scheme of
31. Anesthesiology is obtained by which classification?
mode of formation of subjects? 1. Class Number
1. Loose Assemblage 2. Call Number
2. Fission 3. Book Number
3. Fusion 4. Accession Number
4. Distillation Answer: 1
Answer: D 37. The first textbook on classification
32. “Statistics for librarians” is obtained by “Classification, theoretical’ and Practical”
which mode of formation of subjects? is written by
1. Clusters 1. WCB Sayers
2. Fusion 2. E C Richardson
3. Loose Assemblage 3. E W Hume
4. Distillation 4. JD Brown
Answer: 3 Answer: 1
33. A person who designs a scheme of 38. Who is referred to as the first
library classification is called grammarian of library classification
1. Classifications 1. E C Richardson
2. Classifier 2. WCB Sayers
3. Librarian 3. Melville Dewey
4. Information officer 4. SR Ranganathan

Answer: 2 44. The first three editions (Le, of 1931

39. The first edition of Prolegomena to 1939, and 1950 respectively) of the Colon
Library Classification published in? Classification (C) are considered as
1. 1933 1. Freely Faceted Classification
2. 1934 2. Rigidly-Faceted Classification
3. 1936 3. Almost-Faceted Classification
4. 1937 4. Almost-Enumerative Classification
Answer: D.1937 Answer: B
40. The Classification Research Group 45. Which classification scheme is
(CRG) London was established in designed to sever as a switching language?
1. 1950 1. subject Classification (SC)
2. 1951 2. Universal Decimal Classification
3. 1952 (UDC)
4. 1953 3. Bibliographic Classification (BC)
4. Broad System of Ordering (BSO)
Answer: c
Answer: D
41. The dynamic theory of library
classification, developed by_______ 46. The first edition of DDC published in
1876 consisted of____
1. W C B Sayers
2. Hume 1. 22 pages
3. S R Ranganathan 2. 32 pages
4. CA Cutter 3. 42 pages
4. 52 pages
Answer: S R Ranganathan
Answer:C
42. Which is not one of a principle of Facet
Sequence? 47. In which edition of DDC, the first time
its title page appeared as “Dewey Decimal
1. Wall-Picture Principle
Classification” and “Relative Index”?
2. Whole-Organ Principle
3. Cow-Calf Principle 1. 12th edition
4. Later-in-Time Principle 2. 13th edition
3. 14th edition
Answer: D
4. 15th edition
43. Who contributed to this principle?
Answer: D
“The amount of literature published or
likely to be published on a subject is called 48. Web Dewey 2.0 is an online version of
Literary Warrant the____
1. E W Hulme 1. Concise Dewey Decimal
2. S R Ranganathan Classification system
3. Richardson 2. Complete Dewey Decimal
4. Sayers Classification system
3. Complete Universal Decimal
Answer: A
Classification system
4. All the above 54. In which sequence, the entries are

Answer: B arranged in Classified Catalogue?
49. Presently who owns the copyright of 1. By specific subject
UDC? 2. By class number
3. By accession number
1. Paul Otlet
4. By author-name
2. Henri La Fontaine
3. UDC Consortium Answer: B
4. Both A & B 55. Cataloguing in publication
Answer: C programmed was introduced by?
50. Who wrote the book Rules for a 1. British Library
Dictionary Catalogue and it was published 2. Library of Congress
in? 3. National. Library of Pakistan
4. Agha Khan University
1. Melvil Dewey, 1876
2. Ami Cutter, 1876 Answer: B
3. Ranganathan, 1933 56. How many levels of description AACR2
4. Richardson, 1906 specifies
Answer: B 1. 2
51. AACR2 and its allied products are 2. 3
published jointly by ALA, CILIP_____? 3. 4
4. 5
1. International Library Association
2. Canadian Library Association Answer: B
3. ASLIB 57. Worldcat is maintained by
4. IFLA 1. Lake Placid Club
Answer: B 2. Library of Congress
52. hoenix schedules are used in which 3. CRG
classification 4. OCLC
1. CC Answer: D
2. UDC 58. 260 tag in MARC format marks
3. DDC 1. The publication information
4. LCC 2. The edition
Answer: C 3. The physical description
53. The International Conference on 4. A topical subject heading
Cataloguing Principles held in? Answer: A
1. Copenhagen in, 1969 59. When was the first edition of ISBD
2. Geneva in 1989 published?
3. Paris in 1961 1. 1972
4. Chicago in 1901 2. 1973
Answer: C 3. 1974

4. 1975 3. Preceding Entry

Answer: 3 4. Succeeding Entry
60. Which is not a pre-coordinated Answer: Preceding Entry
indexing system? 66. Select from the following editor of
1. PRECIS AACR-2?
2. POPSI 1. Michael Gorman
3. CHAIN PROCEDURE 2. Paul W. Winkler
4. UNITERM 3. W. H. Borden
Answer: 4 4. Both A & B
61. The full form of the KWIC indexing Answer: Both A & B
system is 67. AACR-II is replaced by __.
1. Keyword Indexing Catalogue 1. BIBFRAME
2. Keyword in Context 2. AACR-III
3. Keyword in Comparison 3. Resource Description and Access
4. None of the above 4. FRBR
Answer: 2 Answer: Resource Description and Access
62. Appendix B of RDA deals with __. 68. How many times AACR-2 revised?
1. Glossary 1. One
2. Capitalization 2. Two
3. Numerals 3. Three
4. Abbreviation 4. Five
Answer: Abbreviation Answer: Three
63. Appendix A of AACR-2 deals with __. 69. Chapter 13 of AACR-2(R) deals with
1. Abbreviation ___.
2. Capitalization 1. General Rules for Description
3. Numerals 2. Sound Recordings
4. Glossary 3. Three-Dimensional Artefacts and
Answer: Capitalization Realia
4. Rules for Analytical Entries
64. Part ‘J’ of CCC (Ed. 5) deals with __.
Answer: Rules for Analytical Entries
1. Conflict of Authorship
2. Name of Person 70. Which among the following is the
3. Rendering of names record of circulation section?
4. Class Index Entry 1. Catalogue Card
Answer: Rendering of names 2. Day Book
3. Accession Register
65. 780 tag in MARC-21 is used for __.
4. AACR-2(R)
1. Added entry - Uncontrolled Related
Answer: Day Book
2. Added entry - Analytical Title

71. Number of levels of description in Answer: Canons of exclusiveness

AACR 2R (2002) is __. 76. In which edition of DDC, Table 1
1. 2 Standard Subdivisions are introduced?
2. 3 1. 1st Edition
3. 4 2. 2nd Edition
4. 8 3. 3rd Edition
Answer: 3 4. 5th Edition
72. Which indicator digit is used for Space Answer: 2nd Edition
in DDC? 77. The 23rd edition of DDC contains how
1. 099 many tables?
2. 09 1. 5
3. 900 2. 6
4. 909 3. 7
Answer: 09 4. 8
73. In which edition of DDC, Table 5 Answer: 6
(Racial, Ethnic, National Groups) was 78. In PRECIS, interposed operators are
introduced? represented by __.
1. 16th Edition 1. Roman Smalls
2. 17th Edition 2. Roman caps
3. 18th Edition 3. Greek symbols
4. 19th Edition 4. Indo-Arabic numerals
Answer: 18th Edition Answer: Roman Smalls
74. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan undertook a 79. Identify the correct sequence of user
comparative study of five cataloguing tasks that are supported by the structure
codes in the works of __. of FRBR:
1. Definition of Cataloguing 1. Find, Identify, Select, Obtain
2. Principles of Cataloguing 2. Select, Identify, Find, Obtain
3. Headings and Canons 3. Find, select, Identify, Obtain
4. Objectives of Cataloguing 4. Identify, Select, Obtain, Find
Answer: Headings and Canons Answer: Find, Identify, Select, Obtain
75. Which of the following canons of array 80. Dewey Decimal Classication Scheme
would ensure that no two classes of the frequently denotes a division or section as
array overlap and there are no cross 'others' to divide a set of coordinate
classification? classes. Identify the Canon that such a
1. Canons of exhaustiveness division attempts to satisfy:
2. Canons of exclusiveness 1. Canon of Exclusiveness
3. Canon of helpful sequence 2. Canon of Exhaustiveness
4. Canons of consistence sequence 3. Canon of Helpful Sequence

4. Canon of Relevant Sequence 2. Canon of Relevance

Answer: Canon of Exhaustiveness 3. Canon of Sought Heading
4. Canon of Context
81. Gap device helps in __.
Answer: Canon of Relevance
1. Only Extrapolation in Array and
Interpolation in Array 86. Which among the following is Almost
2. Only Extrapolation in Array Faceted Scheme of Classification?
3. Extrapolation in Array and 1. DDC
Interpolation in Array and 2. Rider’s International Classification
Extrapolation in Chain 3. LC
4. Extrapolation in Array and 4. UDC
Interpolation in Array and Answer: UDC
Interpolation in Chain
87. According to S. R. Ranganathan,
Answer: Extrapolation in Array and ‘Whenever telescoping of array is done,
Interpolation in Array and Extrapolation in the Canon of Hierarchy is violated. The
Chain violation is deliberately done to satisfy __.
82. The problem of Homonyms can be 1. Law of Parsimony
solved by __. 2. Law of Local Variation
1. Canon of Individualization 3. Law of Symmetry
2. Canon of Prepotence 4. Law of Interpretation
3. Canon of Permanence Answer: Law of Parsimony
4. Canon of Context
88. Which of the following is NOT the
Answer: Canon of Individualization elementary categories in POPSI?
83. The third step in POPSI is known as __. 1. Discipline
1. Display of Subject Index Term 2. Entity
2. Selection of Approach Term 3. Relation
3. Display of Component Term 4. Property
4. A Short Display Answer: Relation
Answer: A Short Display 89. Name the publisher of the ''Theory of
84. In a catalogue card, the second vertical Library Catalogue' published in 1938?
line lays ___ spaces from the left margin. 1. SRELS
1. 12 2. ABC Publications
2. 13 3. Asia Publishing House
3. 14 4. Madras Library Association
4. 15 Answer: Madras Library Association
Answer: 13 90. The book 'Canons of Classification' was
85. Which among the following is not the written by __.
canon of cataloguing? 1. C. A. Cutter
1. Canon of Individualization 2. S. R. Ranganathan

3. E. C. Richardson 96. The book ‘Prolegomena to Library

4. W. C. B. Sayers Classification’ was first published in __.
Answer: W. C. B. Sayers 1. 1935
91. Which among the following is NOT a 2. 1937
principle of facet sequence? 3. 1941
4. 1943
1. Whole-organ principle
2. Later-in-Time principle Answer: 1937
3. Wall-picture principle 97. The symbol (;) in PMEST is a
4. Cow-calf principle connecting symbol for __.
Answer: Later-in-Time principle 1. Personality
92. The technique of periodically 2. Energy
evaluating the job of the employees is __. 3. Time
4. Matter
1. Job analysis
2. Performance appraisal Answer: Matter
3. Job description 98. The part 1 in AACR-2R published in
4. Performance indicator 2002 contains how many chapters?
Answer: Performance appraisal 1. 10
93. Universal Decimal Classification (UDC) 2. 13
scheme is an example of __. 3. 12
4. 14
1. Enumerative Classification
2. Rigidly Faceted Classification Answer: 13
3. Almost Enumerative Classification 99. 'A Manual of Classification for
4. Almost Faceted Classification Librarians and Bibliographers' is written by
Answer: Almost Faceted Classification __.
94. Which one from the following schemes 1. W. C. B. Sayers
of classification is fully enumerative? 2. S. R. Ranganathan
3. E. C. Richardson
1. Expansive Classification
4. C. A. Cutter
2. Dewey Decimal Classification
3. Library of Congress Classification Answer: W. C. B. Sayers
4. Subject Classification 100. Which of the following canons of
Answer: Library of Congress Classification array would ensure that no two classes of
the array overlap and there are no cross
95. In Dewey Decimal Classification (19th
classification?
ed), the main class ‘570’ denotes:
1. Canon of exhaustiveness
1. Botanical Sciences
2. Canon of exclusiveness
2. Physics
3. Canon of helpful sequence
3. Chemistry
4. Canon of consistence sequence
4. Life Sciences
Answer: Canon of exclusiveness
Answer: Life Sciences

101. ‘Cutter’s Author Table’ for Book 106. An increase in the level of ‘specificity’
Number was devised in __. of indexing languages results in increased
1. 1879 in __.
2. 1902 1. Recall
3. 1895 2. Precision
4. 1880 3. Noise
Answer: 1880 4. Both Recall and Precision
102. Ranganathan’s book number formula Answer: Precision
is based on _____. 107. Roget’s International Thesaurus is
1. Cutter-Sanborn Three Figure Author a__.
Table 1. List of scientific terms
2. Biscoe Time Numbers 2. Book of technical terms
3. Rider’s Two Symbol Book Number 3. Book of synonyms
4. Merrill Book Numbers 4. Classified list of terms
Answer: Biscoe Time Numbers Answer: Classified list of terms
103. 'Biscoe Time Numbers' - a 108. In Sear’s List of Subject Headings,
chronological scheme for book number preferred headings are indicated by __.
was first published in __. 1. Making them as preferred headings
1. 1880 2. Printing them in bold type
2. 1882 3. Italicizing them
3. 1885 4. Underlining them
4. 1890 Answer: Printing them in bold type
Answer: 1885 109. “An information retrieval system will
104. Method of Residue is used to find out tend not to be used whenever it is more
__. painful and troublesome for a customer to
1. Personality Facet have information than for him not to have
2. Matter Facet it”. The statement is known as the __.
3. Energy Facet 1. Amadahl’s Law
4. Time Facet 2. Mooer’s Law
Answer: Personality Facet 3. Heap’s Law
4. Zipf’s Law
105. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan undertool a
comparative study of five cataloguing Answer: Mooer’s Law
codes in the works of __. 110. CONSER is ___.
1. Definition of Cataloguing 1. A cooperative online serials
2. Principles of Cataloguing cataloguing program
3. Headings and Canons 2. A source of high quality bibliographic
4. Objectives of Cataloguing records for serials
Answer: Headings and Canons 3. A source of high quality
documentation and training
materials for the cataloguing of 4. None of the above

serials and the input of serials Answer: Pre-coordinate subject indexing
records
116. Space between first indention and
4. All the above
Second indention in a catalogue card is __..
Answer: All the above
1. 3 letters space
111. In colon classification which indicator 2. 4 letters space
has been used for indicating interpolation? 3. 5 letters space
1. Comma 4. 6 letters space
2. Hyphen Answer: 4 letters space
3. Ampersand
117. The International Standard
4. Astericks
Bibliographic Description (ISBD) was
Answer: Astericks developed by __.
112. In Colon Classification (CC), double 1. IFLA
inverted comma indicates __. 2. UNESCO
1. Phase relation 3. Library of Congress
2. Common isolates 4. OCLC
3. Agglomeration & Interpolation Answer: IFLA
4. Time facet
118. Who gave the principles for mapping
Answer: Common isolates the universe of knowledge?
113. Faceted Application of Subject 1. E. J. Coats
Terminology (FAST) is developed by: 2. J. Kaiser
1. British Library 3. D. W. Langridge
2. IFLA 4. C. A. Cutter
3. OCLC Answer: D. W. Langridge
4. UNESCO
119. Which of the following is an example
Answer: OCLC of Canon for Terminology as depicted in
114. Faceted Application of Subject Colon Classification?
Terminology (FAST) is a __. 1. Canon of Modulation
1. Post-coordinate indexing system 2. Canon of Coordinate Classes
2. Pre-coordinate indexing system 3. Canon of Currency
3. Both 4. Canon of Consistency
4. None of the above Answer: Canon of Currency
Answer: Post-coordinate indexing system 120. ‘Canons of Cataloguing’ was first
115. Library of Congress Subject Heading introduced by __.
(LCSH) is a __. 1. S. R. Ranganathan
1. Post-coordinate subject indexing 2. W.C.B. Sayers
2. Pre-coordinate subject indexing 3. E. C. Richardson
3. Both 4. H. E. Bliss

Answer: S. R. Ranganathan Answer: B

121. According to the needs of a 126. The Library of Congress Classification
document and needs of a particular library, is a purely —
AACR-2 provides __. A. enumerative classification
1. One level of description B. almost-enumerative classification
2. Two levels of description
C. faceted classification
3. Three levels of description
4. Four levels of description D. fully faceted classification
Answer: Three levels of description Answer: B
122. The Cow-Calf Principle as enunciated 127. The Broad System of Ordering (BSO)
by Dr. S. R. Ranganathan is useful to was designed in 1977 as —
determine: A. a switching language
1. The facet sequence B. an enumerative language
2. The sequence of isolates in a chain C. a dot language
3. The sequence of isolates in an array D. none of these
Answer: B
Answer: The facet sequence
128. Only two punctuation marks used in
123. Which among the following is the
—
principles of helpful sequence?
A. B. S. O.
1. Which among the following is the
principles of helpful sequence? B. C. C.
2. Principle of Canonical sequence C. L. C.
3. Principle of Quantitative Measure D. All of the above
4. All the above Answer: A
Answer: All the above 129. The process of division or splitting or
124. Canon of Context belongs to ___. breaking up into parts is —
1. Canons of Characteristics A. lamination
2. Canons of Array B. fission
3. Canons of Chain
C. fusion
4. Canons of Verbal Plane
D. distillation
Answer: Canons of Verbal Plane
Answer: B
125. Which edition of Colon Classification
is an example of fully freely faceted 130. Astrophysics, Bio-physics are the
scheme of classification? examples of —
A. 7th A. fusion
B. 6th B. fission
C. 5th C. agglomeration
D. 4th D. loose assemblage

Answer: C 135. In the title “Works of Shakespeare” ,

131. Which form of representation is the the basic subject is —
principal basis on which information A. English
systems retrieve information? B. Drama
A. Books C. America
B. Subject D. Literature
C. Collection Answer: D
D. Periodicals 136. Which postulates state that any of the
Answer: B fundamental categories Personality &
132. Which title is resulted from the Matter may manifest more than once in
analysed title by rearranging the kernel one and the same round within a subject &
terms on the basis of the postulates & similarity with Space & Time in the last
principles governing their sequence? round.
A. Analysed A. Level postulates
B. Expressive B. Level-cluster postulates
C. Raw C. Concreteness postulates
D. Transformed D. First facet postulates
Answer: C Answer: D
133. A logical arrangement of subjects, 137. Which isolates represent any kind of
their facets and isolates which help the action, mental or physical and activities of
arrangement & display of documents on all other entities?
shelves in libraries is known as — A. Personality
A. Logical order B. Energy
B. Helpful order C. Matter
C. Classified order D. Space
D. Alphabetical order Answer: A
Answer: C 138. A phase relation is the assembling
134. Dr. Ranganathan suggested the together of two or more of subject & —
Method of Residues for identification of A. books
________ isolates in the facet analysis of a B. periodicals
compound subject.
C. isolate ideas
A. Personality
D. collections
B. Matter
Answer: C
C. Energy
139. The digits a, b, c, e and g in C. C.
D. Time & space represent —
Answer: D A. intra-array phase relation

B. intra-facet phase relation subdivisions into another ten sub-

C. intra-isolates phase relation divisions?
D. inter-subject phase relation A. Decimal
Answer: B B. Mixed
140. Mathematics for Engineers are the C. Pure
examples of which phase relation? D. Apha-numeric
A. General Answer: A
B. Bias 145. Which edition of DDC appeared in two
C. Influence formats i.e.. ; in Print & Dewey for
Windows (CD versions) ?
D. Comparison
A. 17th
Answer: B
B. 19th
141. In D. D. C. , the common isolates are
called — C. 20th
A. Special sub-divisions D. 21th
B. Auxiliary sub-divisions Answer: D
C. Common sub-divisions 146. CC versions 2 has been described a/an
—
D. Standard sub-divisions
A. faceted scheme
Answer: B
B. almost freely faceted scheme
142. The connecting symbol for the time
element in U. D. C. is — C. rigidly faceted scheme
A. dot (.) D. fully freely faceted scheme
B. semi colon (;) Answer: D
C. plus (+) 147. The A. C. I. “K” -cyclopaedia & “m” -
periodical are applicable before —
D. double inverted comma (″″)
A. Personality
Answer: B
B. Energy
143. A digit with an ordinal value but
without a semantic value is called — C. Time
A. special digit D. Space
B. empty digit Answer: A
C. emptying digit 148. In UDC scheme the digit 4 (linguistics)
has been frozen and shifted to class —
D. empty-emptying digit
A. 5
Answer: A
B. 6
144. Which notation is used in DDC refers
to the principal of dividing each class into C. 7
ten sub-divisions & each of these D. 8

Answer: A B. Shelf register

149. The basis of the outline of main C. Accession register
classes of ________ is said to be Bacon՚s D. Publisher catalogue
chart of Learning.
Answer: A
A. Colon Classification
154. If a catalogue represents the
B. Library of Congress collection of two or more libraries, it is
C. Universal Decimal Classification called as —
D. Dewey Decimal Classification A. Union Catalogue
Answer: B B. Library catalogue
150. DRTC was established in Bengaluru in C. Bibliographies
1962 by — D. Publisher՚s catalogue
A. G. Bhattacharya Answer: A
B. A. Neelameghan 155. The arrangement of cataloguing
C. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan entries in a logical & systematic order to
D. MA. Gopinath fall into
Answer: C a helpful sequence for storage & retrieval
is called as —
151. The device/s in U. D. C. is/are —
A. Card form
A. Geographical devices
B. Alphabetical form
B. Alphabetical devices
C. Classified form
C. Both of above
D. Inner form
D. None of above
Answer: A
Answer: C
156. Classified catalogue consists of —
152. From the archaeological finds of the
Assyro-Babylonian clay tablets the A. the classified part
antiquity of the library catalogue can be B. the alphabetical part
easily placed around — C. both of above
A. 200 B. C. D. all of the above
B. 2000 B. C. Answer: C
C. 1000 B. C. 157. Panizzi՚s Rules of cataloguing is also
D. 400 B. C. known as —
Answer: D A. British Museum Cataloguing Rules
153. A list of documents reflecting exactly B. Jewett՚s Rules
the way the documents are arranged on C. Cutter Rules
the shelves are called as —
D. AA Rules
A. Library catalogue
Answer: A

158. Entries that go into a catalogue for Answer: A

parts & chapters of a book is — 163. The equipments such as Chaindex and
A. main entries Stripdex are associated with —
B. analytical entries A. Machine readable catalogue
C. chapter entries B. Microform catalogue
D. reference entries C. Visible Index form of catalogue
Answer: C D. Conventional catalogue
159. Cutter՚s rules for Dictionary catalogue Answer: C
was first published in — 164. The complete catalogue record of an
A. 1876 item, presented in the form by which the
B. 1889 entry is to be uniformly identified & is —
C. 1904 A. Main Entry
D. 1908 B. Added Entry
Answer: D C. Uniform Entry
160. The Classified Catalogue has two D. Additional Entry
parts, the classified part and — Answer: C
A. dictionary part 165. In CCC, the Editor of Series entry is
B. alphabetical part called as —
C. name part A. Cross reference entry
D. author part B. Cross reference Index entry
Answer: B C. Book Index entry
161. A record of all additional entries is D. Class Index entry
known as — Answer: A
A. Unit Card 166. The cabinet for placing catalogue
B. Book Index Entry cards is known as —
C. Tracing A. Kardex
D. Added Entry B. Chaindex
Answer: A C. Stripdex
162. Which section in the C. C. C. is that D. All of the above
section which records authorship or its Answer: D
substitute element? 167. In AACR-2 R under “choice of Name”
A. Heading there are —
B. Leading A. 15 rules
C. Title B. 17 rules
D. Author C. 19 rules

D. 20 rules D. None of the above

Answer: C Answer: A
168. The system in which the main entry 173. Dewey Decimal Classification given by
and added entries carry the same Melvil Dewey and first published in —
information about the document is — A. 1876
A. MARC card system B. 1976
B. Unit Card system C. 1934
C. Additional Card system D. 1928
D. Combined Card system Answer: A
Answer: B 174. Vatican Rules of Cataloguing
169. In CCC, the Editor of Series entry is published in —
called — A. 1908
A. Cross reference entry B. 1852
B. Book Index entry C. 1757
C. Class Index entry D. 1927
D. Cross reference index entry Answer: D
Answer: A 175. Sheaf form of library catalogue is also
170. In CCC, Conferences & congress are known as —
entered under the — A. Card form
A. name of sponsor B. Ledger form
B. name of the place C. Printed form
C. name by which they are known D. Loose-leaf form
D. under the country name. Answer: C
Answer: A 176. How many types of entries are in
171. Cutter Mark is used for — CCC?
A. Collection A. 3
B. Book B. 4
C. Call C. 5
D. Class D. 6
Answer: A Answer: A
172. AA Code of 1908 of Cataloguing was 177. A link in pseudo chain made of a digit
compiled by — group forming part of a book number is —
A. ALA A. Sought link
B. LC B. Pseudo link
C. ILA C. Pseudo chain

D. Tracing Answer: C
Answer: A 183. The Machine-Readable Cataloguing
178. The AACR-2 was edited by — was firstly started by —
A. Gorman & Winkler A. British Library
B. Whittaker & Bliss B. Library of Congress
C. Andrew Brown C. NISCAIR
D. None of the above D. National Library
Answer: A Answer: C
179. IInd part of AACR-2 has — 184. The two prominent inner forms of
catalogue are —
A. 13 chapters
A. Classified & Alphabetical
B. 6 chapters
B. Classified & Dictionary
C. 4 appendix
C. Name & Classified
D. All of the above
D. Alphabetical &Alphetico-based
Answer: B
Answer: C
180. Which filing rules had their origins in
the report of a Working Party on computer 185. In Ranganathan՚s classified catalogue,
filing set up by the Library Association there are five types of entries: Main entry,
Cataloguing and Indexing Group? Cross Reference Entry, Class Index Entry,
Book Index Entry and other is —
A. LC
A. Name Index
B. ALA
B. Title Index
C. BLAISE
C. Subject Index
D. Berghoeffer
D. Cross Reference Index
Answer: C
Answer: D
181. The internationally agreed upon
number given to a book is called — 186. The 2nd edition of Cataloguing Practice
published in —
A. ISBN
A. 1945
B. ISDN
B. 1955
C. ISSN
C. 1975
D. ISMN
D. 1951
Answer: A
Answer: D
182. C. C. F. stands for —
187. Computer Aided Subject System
A. Current Classification Format
(COMPASS) was introduced for —
B. Current Communication Format
A. BNB
C. Common Communication Format
B. C. l. P.
D. Common Classification Format
C. ABPR resource and a search mechanism for

D. INB internet resources
Answer: C A. Prompt Cat
188. The first edition of CCF was first B. First search
published in — C. ROADS
A. 1962 D. World Cat
B. 1984 Answer: A
C. 1974 193. The concept of Thesauro-Facet has
D. 1976 been developed by —
Answer: D A. Derek Austin
189. A device for searching through a B. Dr. Ranganathan
fragment of the search term so that it can C. Jean Alikison
match related terms starting with the D. G. Bhattacharya
same terms is called as —
Answer: C
A. Boolean Search
194. The universal adopted size for a
B. Truncation Catalogue is —
C. Thesaurus A. 12.5 cm 7.6 cm
D. Indexing language B. 12.5 cm 20 cm
Answer: A C. Both of above
190. Post-Coordinate Indexing System are D. None of the above
also known as —
Answer: C
A. POPSI
195. I part of AACR-2 has —
B. KWIC
A. 6 chapters
C. Chain Indexing
B. 13 chapters
D. Coordinate Indexing System
C. 6 appendix
Answer: A
D. All of the above
191. The synonymous relationship
Answer: B
between the terms is known as —
196. Broad System of Ordering (B. S. O)
A. Hierarchial relationship
was drafted by —
B. Genus-Species relationship
A. Coates& Lloyd
C. Associate relationship
B. Whittaker & Whittal
D. Equivalence relationship
C. Bliss
Answer: B
D. All of the above
192. ________ contain tools which till
Answer: A
automatically create classified listing of the
197. B. S. O was drafted in the year —
A. 1970 202. Third International Study Conference

B. 1971 on Cataloguing Research held at Mumbai
in —
C. 1980
A. 1975
D. 1981
B. 1985
Answer: B
C. 1995
198. Which is the bulkiest of all
Classification System? D. None of these
A. Library of Congress Classification Answer: A
B. Colon Classification 203. The Indian Standards Institution, now
known as ________ took up the
C. Universal Decimal Classification
preparation of a glossary of terms of
D. None of the above classification.
Answer: A A. Bureau of Indian Standard
199. Which is a book classification as well B. Indian Standards Bureau
as Broad Classification?
C. Indian Institute of Standards
A. Dewey Decimal Classification
D. Federation of Indian Standards
B. Universal Decimal Classification
Answer: A
C. Colon Classification
204. Words that are also known as
D. Library of Congress Classification technical terminology —
Answer: A A. Pre-defined
200. A. A. code of 1908 of cataloguing was B. Systematic
compiled by —
C. Ordinary
A. A. L. A.
D. Synonyms
B. L. C.
Answer: A
C. I. L. A.
205. There are in all 514 technical terms
D. None of the above. used in the three editions of —
Answer: A A. Prolegomena
201. Which terms are operative in nature B. Colon Classification
& prescribe the procedure & help identify
C. Classified Catalogue Code
the expected quality of the operations that
would result from such prescriptions? D. Five laws of Library Science
A. Normative Answer: D
B. Fundamental 206. Classification in Sense one is —
C. Associative A. Entity
D. Assumed B. Division
Answer: A C. Universe

D. Assortment 211. A traditional subdivision of an old

Answer: A main class is —
207. It is a ranked group and ranking in A. canonical class
arranging in a definite sequence the groups B. special main class
formed by the division of the entities of a C. systems main class
universe, so as to arrive at an assortment
D. environmental main class
of them is —
Answer: A
A. Group
212. “Fungus disease of wheat plants” is an
B. Class
example of —
C. Entity
A. simple subject
D. Phyla
B. basic subject
Answer: A
C. compound subject
208. It is any property or quantitative
D. complex subject
measure or quality possessed by a or
inherent in any entity is — Answer: C
A. Attribute 213. A systematic or utilitarian
arrangement of members of an array is —
B. Characteristic
A. filiatory sequence
C. Universe
B. helpful sequence
D. Entity
C. parallel sequence
Answer: D
D. evolutionary sequence
209. A subject is always in the context of a
document, whose scope & depth are equal Answer: B
to the thought content of the document. 214. A person who operates classification
A. main system is —
B. broad A. user
C. complex B. expert
D. specific C. classifier
Answer: D D. classifications
210. Detailed Classification required for Answer: C
macro documents is known as — 215. Which number denotes that the
A. library classification number is used for fixing the position of an
entity in a sequence?
B. depth classification
A. Ordinal number
C. broad classification
B. Cardinal number
D. bibliographic classification
C. Substance number
Answer: D
D. Ordinal number

Answer: A A. Title
216. In Colon Classification, 7th edition, the B. Author
only Greek letter used is — C. Subject
A. etah D. Publisher
B. gamma Answer: C
C. beta 221. Which sequence of subjects facilitates
D. delta readers not only in getting documents but
Answer: A also helps them know the strength &
weakness of the collection?
217. According to Dr. S. R. Ranganathan,
the terms hospitality in array & hospitality A. Filiatory
in chain represent the capacity of — B. Helpful
A. idea system C. Parallel
B. practical system D. Evolutionary
C. national system Answer: C
D. verbal system 222. It is the ordinal number which fixes
Answer: C the place of a document in a library
relative to other documents having the
218. Colon Classification was a rigidly
same class number —
faceted scheme before —
A. Accession number
A. 4th edition
B. Year Number
B. 5th edition
C. Book Number
C. 6th edition
D. Call Number
D. 7th edition
Answer: D
Answer: D
223. The amount of literature published or
219. The four canons of which plane deal
likely to be published on a subject is —
with the language & terminology aspects
in a A. literary warrant
scheme of classification? B. users warrant
A. Idea C. collocation
B. Verbal D. dilatory sequence
C. Practical Answer: A
D. Notational 224. The total number of indicator digits
used in the notational system of the
Answer: D
7th edition of Colon Classification is —
220. This arrangement helps bring together
A. six (6)
on the shelves documents on one & the
same subject followed by those of related B. fourteen (14)
subjects is — C. sixty (60)
D. seventy-four (74) A. General

Answer: B B. Special
225. Who is referred to as the first C. Broad
“grammarion of library classification” ? D. Unique
A. W. C. B. Sayers Answer: D
B. E. W. Hulme 230. Who developed U. D. C. in 1895 taking
C. S. R. Ranganathan D. D. C as its base?
D. E. C. Richardson A. Paul Otlet & Henri Fontaine
Answer: A B. Dewey & Sayers
226. Which theory is a theory of library C. Richardson & Hulme
classification capable of carving out a D. None of the above
methodology for the design of a scheme
Answer: A
for library classification?
231. Library of Congress Classification is
A. Dynamic
based upon —
B. Descriptive
A. collocation
C. General
B. APUPA pattern
D. Special
C. users warrant
Answer: A
D. literary warrant
227. Subject Classification by J. D. Brown is
Answer: D
an example of —
232. In the Broad System of Ordering (BSO)
A. faceted classification
only the punctuation marks hypen (-) &
B. freely-faceted classification ________ are used.
C. fully-faceted classification A. comma (,)
D. freely faceted analytico-synthetic B. semi colon (;)
Answer: B C. colon (:)
228. Colon Classification is an excellent D. dot (.)
example of —
Answer: A
A. fully faceted classification
233. The Broad System of Ordering was
B. enumerative designed as a switching language in the
C. rigidly faceted year —
D. freely faceted analytico-synthetic A. 1876
Answer: D B. 1933
229. Which Classification system is a very C. 1950
detailed, minutely divided classification, D. 1977
developed for a smaller area of
Answer: D
knowledge?
234. The process of division or splitting or C. systems

breaking up into parts is — D. subject
A. fission Answer: A
B. fusion 239. Isolates such as density, quality,
C. distillation intensity are regarded as manifestations of
D. clustering —
Answer: A A. matter fundamental category
235. Astrophysics, Astrochemistry, B. energy fundamental category
Biophysics etc. are some examples of C. property fundamental category
________ mode of formation of subjects. D. personality fundamental category
A. fusion Answer: C
B. fission 240. Isolates such as winter, night, contury,
C. clustering millennia etc. are the manifestations of —
D. distillation A. personality fundamental category
Answer: A B. matter fundamental category
236. These are certain assumptions which C. space fundamental category
are helpful in carrying out the process of D. time fundamental category
classification —
Answer: D
A. Mnemonics
241. In which scheme of classification the
B. Postulates facet, relation sign double colon (::) is used
C. Facets when a reversal of two facets is not
D. Isolates required?
Answer: A A. C. C
237. The title that results from the B. D. D. C.
analysed title by re-arrangement the C. U. D. C
Kernel terms on the basis of the postulates D. L. C.
& principles governing the sequence —
Answer: A
A. Raw title
242. “Chemistry for Biologists” is an
B. Kernal title example of —
C. Expressive title A. intra subject phase relation
D. Transformed title B. intra facet phase relation
Answer: B C. intra array phase relation
238. The approach is a method of subject D. inter subject phase relation
structuring.
Answer: B
A. title
B. author
243. The phase is also referred to as C. 7

“Exposition phase” — D. 8
A. Tool Answer: B
B. Comparison 248. The U. D. C. is a —
C. Biased A. faceted classification
D. Influence B. rigidly faceted classification
Answer: C C. enumerative classification
244. Which notation of Bibliographic D. fully faceted classification
Classification of Mills is now generally used
Answer: A
as a phase link?
249. DDC-21 on CD-ROM is________ based
A. Comma
LAN Compatible Microsoft System.
B. Colon
A. UNIX
C. Hyphen
B. DOS
D. Dot
C. LINUX
Answer: C
D. Windows
245. It is a digit with an ordinal value but
Answer: B
without a semantic value —
250. The electronic version of DDC-
A. Indicator digit
20th edition was issued in 1993 on CD-ROM
B. Empty digit titled —
C. Emptying digit A. Dewey online
D. Empty-emptying B. Electronic Dewey
Answer: A C. Dewey for windows
th
246. In the 7 edition of Colon D. D. C.
Classification, for phase relation the
Answer: C
indicator digit is —
251. The word “Catalogue” has been
A. dot
derived from the Greek expression —
B. colon
A. cata logus
C. hyphen
B. kata logos
D. ampersand
C. keta logus
Answer: B
D. cata logos
247. In U. D. C. scheme, the digit 4 used for
Answer: B
linguistics has been frozen & linguistics
have been shifted to class — 252. It is a date-wise record of a library of
reading and reference materials acquired
A. 5
by a library either by purchase, exchange
B. 6 or through gift —

A. self-list D. 14
B. accession register Answer: A
C. catalogue 257. Loose leaf form of library catalogue is
D. bibliography known as —
Answer: B A. sheaf form
253. It is an inventory record of a library B. card form
which records bibliographical data of items C. visible form
arranged exactly the way the items are D. cyclostyled form
arranged on the shelves of a library in
Answer: C
various rooms, halls or floors —
258. In the 19th century the most common
A. Book list
physical form of library catalogue was the
B. Accession list —
C. Catalogue A. sheaf form
D. Self-list B. found register form
Answer: D C. printed book form
254. The first edition of Ranganathan՚s D. cyclostyled form
Classified Catalogue Code appeared in —
Answer: A
A. 1930
259. The microform catalogues are being
B. 1934 used extensively since
C. 1964 A. 1960՚s
D. 1945 B. 1970՚s
Answer: B C. 1980s
255. British Museum Cataloguing Rules is D. 1990՚s
also known as —
Answer: B
A. Panizzi 91 Rules
260. Which form of library catalogue refers
B. Jewett՚s Rules to the arrangement of catalogue entries in
C. Cutter՚s Rules a logical and systematic order to fall into a
D. A. A. Rules helpful sequence for storage & retrieval?
Answer: A A. Outer
256. The first part of AACR II R is denoted B. Inner
into how many chapters containing C. Alphabetical
descriptive rules — D. Classified
A. 10 Answer: B
B. 12 261. Name catalogue is almost used in —
C. 13 A. U. S. A.

B. Russia B. analytical entry

C. Germany C. see reference entry
D. Great Britain D. see also reference
Answer: D Answer: B
262. The verbal equivalents provided for 266. Which section in the C. C. C. records
class numbers in a classified catalogue are authorship or its substitute element?
known as — A. Heading
A. feature headings B. Leading
B. synonyms C. Title
C. subject headings D. Author
D. key items Answer: A
Answer: A 267. AACR 2 was published in —
263. The entry that enters a document A. 1967
under one or other of the classes other
B. 1974
than the dominant focus or class________
C. 1978
A. Added
D. 1988
B. Subject
Answer: C
C. Classified
268. The equipment such as Chaindex &
D. Cross reference
Stripdex are associated with —
Answer: D
A. machine readable catalogue
264. The function of a________reference is
B. microform catalogue
to direct the user of a catalogue from a
form of the name of a person or a C: visible index form of catalogue
corporate body or the title of a work might D. conventional catalogue
reasonably be sought to the form that has Answer: C
been chosen as a name heading or a
269. Cataloguing-in-publication has been
uniform title. called a prenatal cataloguing by —
A. see
A. Pannizzi
B. see also B. Ranganathan
C. cross C. Cutter
D. direct D. Bliss
Answer: A
Answer: B
265. An entry for a part of an item for 270. The International standard
which a comprehensive entry has been Bibliographic Description (ISBD) was first
made is known as —
published in —
A. cross reference entry A. 1969

B. 1971 B. 1956
C. 1973 C. 1961
D. 1975 D. 1968
Answer: B Answer: A
271. The Machine-Readable Cataloguing 276. In Bibliographic data formats, codes
Project was first launched by the — used to identify different data elements in
A. British Library the record is known as —
B. Library of Congress A. Record label
C. National Library B. Directory
D. NISCAIR C. Data fields
Answer: B D. Content designer
272. The classified Catalogue consists of — Answer: D
A. two parts 277. The system in which the main entry
and added entry carry the same
B. three parts
information about the document is —
C. four parts
A. Unit Card system
D. five parts
B. Additional Card system
Answer: A
C. Combined Card system
273. Which catalogue is a variation &
D. MARC Card system
extension of an author catalogue?
Answer: A
A. Subject
278. The first edition of CCF was published
B. Classified
in the year —
C. Name
A. 1962
D. Alphabetico-classes
B. 1974
Answer: C
C. 1984
274. The catalogue where all the entries
D. 1976
are arranged in a single alphabetical order
is — Answer: C
A. author catalogue 279. In AACR-2R, the courts are entered
under their —
B. dictionary catalogue
A. name directly
C. subject catalogue
B. name of chief of Justice
D. title catalogue
C. name of Govt.
Answer: B
D. jurisdiction
275. ALA Filling Rules was first published in
the year — Answer: C
A. 1942

280. In CCC, the Editor of series Entry is C. 3

called — D. 4
A. cross reference entry Answer: C
B. cross reference index entry 285. The list which is within its frame all
C. book index entry bibliographic elements, which are required
D. class index entry to describe & identify all types of
materials, which are likely to appear in
Answer: B
library collection is —
281. The types of analytical entries in CCC
A. MARC
is/are —
B. CCF
A. author analytical
C. UNIMARC
B. title analytical
D. ISBD (G) .
C. subject analytical
Answer: B
D. all of the above
286. Which is a chief source of information
Answer: C
for microforms in AACR-2R?
282. In AACR-2R, the anonymous works of
A. Title page
personal authors are to be entered under
— B. Container fax
A. title C. Title frame
B. editor D. Container & label
C. subject Answer: A
D. collaborator 287. G. M. D. is AACR-2R stands for —
Answer: A A. General Material Description
283. According to AACR 2R, collections of B. General Material Designation
treaties between two parties are to be C. Geographical Material Description
entered under — D. General Monographic Designation
A. title entry Answer: B
B. uniform entry 288. Cutter Number or Cutter Mark is used
C. country name for —
D. signing parties A. Call Number
Answer: B B. Book Number
284. According to the needs of a document C. Class Number
& needs of a particular library, how many D. Collection Number
levels description prescribes in AACR?
Answer: B
A. 1
289. How many components are there in
B. 2 the structure of U. S. MARC format?

A. 2 Answer: A
B. 3 294. Post-Coordinate Indexing Systems are
C. 4 also called as —
D. 8 A. POPSI
Answer: B B. KWIC
290. Which contain more than one unit C. Coordinate Indexing System
concept in them & a number of terms may D. Chain Indexing
be used to fully describe these concepts? Answer: C
A. Multi-work concept 295. A device for searching through a
B. Complex subject fragment of the search term so that it can
C. Compound subject match related terms starting with the
same terms is called as —
D. Meta subject
A. Boolean search
Answer: B
B. Truncation
291. Subject heading lists & thesauri are
two types of ________ indexing language. C. Thesaurus
A. natural D. Indexing language
B. free. Answer: A
C. controlled 296. Concept of Theasuro-Facet has been
developed by —
D. uncontrolled
A. Ranganathan
Answer: C
B. Jean Aitkinson
292. The indexing system in which
coordination of terms in the index C. Derek Austin
descriptions are decided before any D. Ganesh Bhattacharya
particular request is made, is known as — Answer: B
A. coordinate indexing system 297. K. W. A. C. stands for —
B. post-coordinate indexing system A. Keyboard Associate Context
C. descriptive indexing system B. Keyword & Context
D. pre-coordinate indexing system C. Keyboard Abbreviated Context
Answer: D D. Keyword Added Context
293. Which type of indexing model PRECIS Answer: B
& POPSI are?
298. Computer Added Subject System
A. Post-Coordinate (COMPASS) was introduced for BNB in the
B. Pre-Coordinate year —
C. Natural A. 1981
D. Free B. 1991

C. 1994 B. Entity
D. 1997 C. Division
Answer: B D. Assortment
299. Which is the world՚s largest & most Answer: D
comprehensive bibliographic database? 304. Any sub-aggregate of the entities
A. First search formed by the division of the entities of a
B. World cat universe is called as —
C. Prompt cat A. Group
D. O. C. L. C. Access Services B. Class
Answer: D C. Universe
300. The World Cat Service is provided by D. Entity
— Answer: A
A. R. L. I. N.
B. L. C.
C. W. L. N.
D. O. C. L. C Unit -6 MCQs
Answer: D
1. How to handle grievances?
301. It is a system of terms used to denote
a. Grievance in writing / taking to
the classes or ranked isolates in a scheme
employee directly for speaking truth /
for classification —
ensure confidentiality and handle the case
A. Terminology within tie frame
B. Classification b. Treat each case as important, and obtain
C. Taxonomy grievances in writing / examine company’s
D. Notion position / identify violations / do not hold
Answer: C back the remedy, if the company’s wrong +
(a) above
302. The terms that define the basic
c. Get all the facts (relevant) about the
concepts which are germane to the very
grievance / examine the personnel record
nature of classification process are —
of the aggrieved worker / gather
A. Assumed information from the union representative
B. Fundamental properly + (b) above
C. Normative d. Identify grievance / previous record of
D. Associative the worker / companies’ rules and prompt
Answer: C redressal of grievances, if genuine.
303. Classification in Sense 2 is — Answer: (c)
A. Universe 2. The core elements of HRM are –

(i) People (d) only ii

(ii) Management Answer: (c)
(iii) Behavioural Dynamics 5. What are the advantages of Incentive
(iv) Uniformity of application Based Compensations?
(a) i, ii, iii (i) Incentives are important for
inducements and motivation of workers
(b) ii, iii, iv
for higher efficiency & greater output
(c) i, ii, iv
(ii) Increase in employee earnings, results
Answer: (d) in enhanced standard of living of
3. What are the key HRM practices in employees
Indian Organizations? (iii) Productivity increases & production
(i) Job Description capacity too, with reduced supervision
(ii) Recruitment (iv) Companies can reduce the burden of
(iii) Compensation fixed costs by keeping a portion of the
(iv) Training & Development remuneration as variable
(v) Performance Appraisal (v) Tendency to bypass quality in pursuit of

increased output for higher incentives
(vi) Promotion & reward
(vi) Sometimes employees may disregard
(vii) Career Planning security regulations due to payment by
(viii) Gender equity results approach adopted for higher
(a) i, ii, iii, v, vi incentive figure
(b) iv, vii, viii (vii) Overworking may affect employee
(c) only vi health
(d) Both (a) and (b) (viii) Can demotivate employees not in a
position to earn higher incentive due to
Answer: (d)
sectional differences
4. What are the different processes of
(a) i, ii, iii, iv
Discipline Management?
(b) iii, iv, v, vi
(i) Counselling
(c) v, vi, vii, viii
(ii) Reformative Theory
(d) All of the above
(iii) Disciplinary Process
Answer: (a)
(iv) Disciplinary Procedure & Principles of
Natural Justice 6. What are the roles of HRD professional?
(v) Principles of Natural Justice (i) Planning – includes projections &
planning for the skilled matrix of
(a) i, ii, iii
manpower required for the future
(b) ii, iii, iv organisation
(c) i, ii, iii, iv, v

(ii) Staffing – providing the competency (i) Keep ahead in the talent war
matrix required to face future challenges (ii) Attract & induce the right kind of
(iii) Employee Development – identify cost people she is looking for
effective & modem methods of training for (iii) Enhance her ability to get quality
skill & competency development resumes to choose from
(iv) Performance Management – (iv) Retain her existing employee pool
Developing an entire gamut of per-
(v) Subsequently see a dip in employee
formance linked measures to align
turnover
individual performance to the overall
corporate performance (a) i, ii, iii, iv
(v) Employee Rewards – with emphasis on (b) i, ii, iii, iv, v
pay for performance & developing an (c) i, ii, iv, v
incentive scheme that would reduce fixed (d) None of the above
costs at the same time being motivating Answer: (b)
(vi) Maintaining quality of Work Life & 9. How an Individual Training needs are
Discipline – with the impact of global identified?
workforce it is necessary to develop a
linked work-life discipline for all (i) Performance Appraisals
employees in the organisation (ii) Interviews
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (iii) Questionnaires
(b) ii, iii, iv, v (iv) Employee Engagement surveys
(c) iii, iv, v, vi (v) Training Feedback
(d) All of the above (a) i, ii, iii, iv
Answer: (d) (b) only iii
7. What are the objectives of HRM? (c) i, ii, iv, v
(i) Societal Objectives (d) Both (b) and (c)
(ii) Organisational Objectives Answer: (d)
(iii) Functional Objectives 10. Training & Development together helps
(iv) Personal Objectives. in –
(v) Statistical Objectives. (i) Removing performance deficiencies
(a) i, ii, iii, iv (ii) Offer Greater stability
(b) ii, iii, iv, v (iii) Flexibility & capacity for growth
(c) i, ii, iv, v (iv) Reduces accidents, wastages &
damages to machinery
(v) Reduces dissatisfaction, absenteeism &
Answer: (a)
complaints
8. How can a good employment brand help
(a) i, ii, iii
HR?
(b) ii, iii, iv (iii) ALA

(c) i, ii, iii, iv, v (iv) SLA (USA)
(d) None of the above Codes:
Answer: (c) (A)(i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
11. Talent Management consist of – (B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(i) Performance Evaluations to identify (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
potentials (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(ii) Psychological testing and assessment to Answer: (D)
determine capability gaps
14. Arrange the following abstracting
(iii) Training & development programmes periodicals in order of year of their print
(iv) Project work & job experience to publication.
accelerate development (i) Chemical Abstracts
(a) i, ii, iii (ii) Sociological Abstracts
(b) ii, iii, iv (iii) Physics Abstracts
(c) i, ii, iii, iv (iv) Biological Abstracts
(d) only i Codes:
Answer: (c) (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
12. Arrange the following work (B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
components of WINISIS according to the
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
order of sequence of operation.
(D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(i) FST
Answer: (A)
(ii) FDT
15. Arrange the following physical forms of
(iii) Print format
catalogues in order of development.
(iv) Workshet
(i) Sheaf
Codes:
(ii) Register
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(iii) OPAC
(B) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(iv) Card
(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Codes:
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (C)
(B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
13. Arrange the following professional
(C) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
associations according to the year of
establishment. (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(i) IFLA Answer: (B)
(ii) ASLIB

16. Arrange the following components of (b) National Index of Translation (ii) ISI
communication in correct sequence of Philadelphia
information flow. (c) Current Contents (iii)
(i) Message Bowker-Sour, UK
(ii) Source (d) LISA (iv)
National Library Kolkata
(iii) Medium
Codes:
(iv) Receiver
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Codes:
(A) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(A) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (C)
(D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: (C) 19. Match the following
17. Match the following List-I List-
List-I List- II
II (a) POSDCORB (i) Mc
(a) Librametry (i) Greger
Dubrov and Karenhas (b) Prenatal Cataloguing (ii)
(b) Bibliometrics (ii) Abraham Maslow
Pritchard (c) X and Y theory (iii)
(c) Scientometrics (iii) S. R. Luther Gullick
Ranganathan (d) Theory of Motivation (iv) S. R.
(d) Informetrics (iv) Otto Ranganathan
Nache Codes:
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) Answer: (C)
Answer: (C) 20. Assertion (A): Operators using ‘AND’,
‘OR’ and ‘NOT’ are mostly used in online
18. Match the following: IR.
List-I List- Reason (R): User interfaces cannot
II transform the natural language input into
(a) INB (i) Boolean search Query
INSDOC, New Delhi
Codes: (D) Both (A) and (R) are false

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true Answer: (B)
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false 24. Assertion (A): Document transfer and
(C) (R) is true but (A) is false information transfer are not the same.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false Reason (R): Assimilation of the content of
the document by the user constitutes
Answer: (B)
information transfer.
21. Assertion (A): Maximization of the use
Codes:
of documents is the motto of the library.
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false
Reason (R): Maximization of the use of
documents in the library satisfies the Fifth (B) (R) is true but (A) is false
Law of library Science. (C) Both (A) and (R) are true
Codes: (D) Both (A) and (R) are false
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true Answer: (B)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false 25. Assertion (A): Consortia cannot provide
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false an effective strategy to increase the buying
power of individual libraries.
(D) (R) is true but (A) is false
Reason (R): Consortia arrangement saves
Answer: (C)
the funds of the libraries in developing
22. Assertion (A): User profile is an their information sources.
essential component of SDI service.
Codes:
Reason (R): SDI is a personalized current
(A) (A) is false but (R) is true
awareness service.
(B) (A) is true but (R) is false
Codes:
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false
Answer: (C)
(C) Both are partially true
26. Arrange the following in the order of
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false
computer generations:
Answer: (A)
(i) Integrated circuit
23. Assertion (A): AACR 2 like CCC can
(ii) Transistor
satisfy all approaches of the users.
(iii) Vacuum Tube
Reason (R): Both AACR 2 and CCC are
comprehensive cataloguing codes. (iv) Chip
Codes: Codes:
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false (A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (R) is true but (A) is false (B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true (C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 30. Arrange the following catalogue codes
Answer: (B) in chorological order of its development.
27. Arrange the following Act according to (i) AACR-I
the year of enactment (ii) Rules for Dictionary Catalogue
(A) Copyright Act, The patent Act, (iii) CCC
information Tech. Act, IPR Act (iv) ALA Code
(B) The patent Act, C, information Tech. Codes:
Act, IPR Act
(A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(C) Copyright Act, IPR Act, The patent Act,
(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
information Tech. Act
(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D) Copyright Act, The patent Act, IPR Act,
information Tech. Act (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: (C) Answer: (A)
28. Assertion (A): ISO 9000 is a quality 31. The book “functions of Executive” was
framework which calls for documentation written by……………….
to adopt TQM in a Library. A. henry fayol
Reason (R): ISO 9000 is a valuable B. f.w. taylor
component of TQM C. maryparker follet
Codes: D. chester i barnard
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false Answer: D. chester i barnard
(B) (R) is true but (A) is false 32. …………….is the character of
(C) Both (A) and (R) are false communication, in a formal organization
by virtue of which it is accepted by a
member of the organization as governing
Answer: (D) the action he contributes
29. Assertion (A): Cost and price are one A. responsibility
and the same. B. authority
Reason (R): Cost is what it costs to do C. accountability
something, whereas price is a matter of
D. power
strategic decision.
Answer: B. authority
Codes:
33. …………..developed the “Need Hierarchy
(A)(A) is false, (R) is true
Theory” to explain human behaviour
(B) (A) is true, (R) is false within an organization.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true A. a.h.maslow
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false B. douglas mc. gregor
Answer: (A) C. herzberg
D. rensis likert

Answer: A. a.h.maslow 38. According to ………………..Core

34. …..has given the concept of competency must be the central subject of
administrative man as the model for Corporate strategy
decision making A. henry fayol
A. a.h.maslow B. f.w.taylor
B. douglas mc. gregor C. c.k. prahlad
C. herzberg D. peter f. drucker
D. herbert simon Answer: C. c.k. prahlad
Answer: C. herzberg 39. The book “Practice of Management
35. …….developed the concept of was written by …………
Management byObjectives A. henry fayol
A. a.h.maslow B. f.w.taylor
B. herbert simon C. c.k. prahlad
C. herzberg D. peter f. drucker
D. peter f. drucker Answer: D. peter f. drucker
Answer: B. herbert simon 40. ……….believed that leaders are not
36. Management according born but also developed through proper
to………….Approach is the study of practical training in human behavior.
experience of Managers and hence such a A. mary parker follet
study would provide a better B. f.w.taylor
understanding to the effective way of C. c.k. prahlad
Managing an enterprise
D. peter f. drucker
A. empirical
Answer: A. mary parker follet
B. management science
41. The concept of Job enrichment is a
C. contingency
contribution by……..
D. operational A. frederick herzberg
Answer: D. operational B. f.w.taylor
37. …….school of thought has developed C. c.k. prahlad
on the idea that there is no single best
D. peter f. drucker
method to find solutions to managerial
problems Answer: A. frederick herzberg
A. empirical 42. …..is considered as the primary
B. management science function ofmanagement?
A. organizing
C. contingency
B. planning
D. operational
C. staffing
Answer: C. contingency
D. controlling

Answer: A. organizing Answer: B. programme

43. MBO stands for? 48. is an organizational structure which
A. management of business objectives clearly defines duties, responsibilities, and
B. management by objectives authority.
A. formal
C. managing business operations
B. informal
D. none of these
C. natural
Answer: B. management by objectives
D. none of these
44. is the process of selecting one best
alternatives from different alternatives. Answer: A. formal
A. planning 49. organisation arises voluntarily or due
B. organizing to social interaction of people
A. formal
C. decision making
B. informal
D. forecasting
C. line organization
Answer: C. decision making
D. all of these
45. …..is the process of identifying and
grouping of work to beperformed Answer: B. informal
A. organizing 50. Authority is the right to give——– and
B. staffing the power to exact obedience
A. information
C. divisionof labour
B. orders
D. planning
C. money
Answer: A. organizing
D. none of these
46. Operational guides to action is
knownas Answer: B. orders
A. policies 51. A superior cannot delegate
B. `procedures A. authority
C. plan B. responsibility
D. none of these C. duty
Answer: B. `procedures D. none of these
47. is a sequence of activities to be Answer: B. responsibility
undertaken for implementing the policies 52. If the orders, instructions or directions
and achieving the objectives of an are delegated to a particular person, then
enterprise. it is known as
A. procedures A. general delegation
B. programme B. specific delegation
C. rule C. written delegation
D. plans D. informal delegation

Answer: B. specific delegation D. functional

53. ……….are certain assumptions about Answer: B. line organization
the future on the basis of which the plan 58. Concentration of authority of decision
will be formulated making at top levels of management is
A. programmes known as
B. planning premises A. concentration
C. planning issues B. decentralization
D. procudures C. centralization
Answer: B. planning premises D. none of these
54. Authority flowsfrom Answer: C. centralization
A. top to bottom 59. …….is a detailed and systematic study
B. bottom to top of jobs to know the nature and
C. horizontally characteristics.
A. man power planning
D. all of these
B. job analysis
Answer: A. top to bottom
C. staffing
55. ………..refers to the maximum number
of subordinates a superior can effectively D. all of these
manage? Answer: B. job analysis
A. scalar chain 60. ……………is a statement showing the
B. unity of direction minimum acceptable qualities ofthe
C. accountability persons to be placed on a Job.
A. job analysis
D. span of control
B. job description
Answer: D. span of control
C. job specifications
56. ……….isthe obligation of a subordinate
to perform the duty assigned by his D. staffing
superior Answer: C. job specifications
A. authority 61. The result of job analysis written in a
B. responsibility statement is known as
C. divisionof labour A. job description
D. accountability B. job specifications
Answer: B. responsibility C. man power planning
57. Military type of organization is D. none ofthese
alsocalled Answer: A. job description
A. informal organization 62. …….is the process of searching for
B. line organization prospective employees and stimulating
C. line & staff them to apply for the Job.

A. selection Answer: D. none

B. training 67. ———— aims at visualizing and
C. recruitment identifying deviation before they actually
occur.
D. induction
A. predictive control
Answer: C. recruitment
B. concurrent control
63. …………is considered as a negative
C. operational control
function ofmanagement.
A. selection D. all of these
B. recruitment Answer: B. concurrent control
C. training 68. In ———type of organization, workers
receive instructions from various
D. placement
specialists.
Answer: A. selection
A. line
64. is the process of comparing actual
B. functional
performance with the standard and taking
corrective Action. C. informal
A. controlling D. none
B. management Answer: A. line
C. planning 69. If duties and authority are shown in the
D. co-ordination organizational structure of the enterprise,
then it is called
Answer: A. controlling
A. informal delegation
65. ——— a process of integrating the
B. formal delegation
interdepartmental activities as unified
action towardsthe Achievement of the C. written delegation
common goal of the organization. D. none of these
A. controlling Answer: A. informal delegation
B. directing 70. ……….is an example of internal source
C. co-ordination ofrecruitment
D. all of these A. advertisement
Answer: B. directing B. trade unions
66. ……..refers to co-ordination between C. employment exchange
activities of a manager andhis D. promotion
subordinates. Answer: B. trade unions
A. vertical co-ordination
71. …..is the process of inducting an
B. horizontal co-ordinaiton employee into the social set up of work.
C. diagonal co-ordination A. placement
D. none B. induction

C. absorption 76. is the activity of influencing people to

D. none of these strive willingly for group of objectives.
A. motivation
Answer: A. placement
B. leadership
72. ——– is the act of increasing the
knowledge and skills of an employee for C. communication
doing a job. D. none of these
A. training Answer: B. leadership
B. induction 77. A leader should have…………..
C. placement A. technical knowledge
D. orientation B. empathy
Answer: B. induction C. initiative
73. …………means issuing orders, D. all of these
instructions and commands. Answer: D. all of these
A. directing
78. Autocratic style of leadership is also
B. unity of command known as ………….
C. authority A. authoritarian
D. all of these B. participative
Answer: D. all of these C. free rein
74. is a statement of expected results D. none of these
expressed in quantitative terms for a Answer: A. authoritarian
period
79. ……..is the act of recreating a core
A. plan
business process with the goal of
B. budget improving product output, quality, or
C. schedule reducing costs.
D. none of these A. planning
Answer: A. plan B. csr
75. ———— means an individual should C. business process reengineering
receive orders and instructions from only D. none of these
one superior Answer: C. business process reengineering
A. unity of command
80. The term “Open-Book Management”
B. span of control (OBM) was coined by ………..
C. scalar chain A. henry fayol
D. none of these B. michael hammer
Answer: A. unity of command C. jack stack
D. none of these
Answer: C. jack stack

81. Which are the factors influencing D. paternalistic

business ethics Answer: D. paternalistic
A. personal code of ethics
86. ……….Means a process of stimulating
B. legislation people to action to accomplish desired
C. government rules goals
D. all of these A. motivation
Answer: D. all of these B. leadership
82. ……is a situation where a moral conflict C. communication
arises. D. none of these
A. ethical issues Answer: A. motivation
B. conflicts 87. ……Communication is also known as
C. demotivation Grapewine
D. none of these A. formal
Answer: A. ethical issues B. informal
83. …..is a problem in the decision making C. lateral
process between two possible options, D. none of these
neither of which is absolutely acceptable Answer: B. informal
from an ethical perspective.
88. The word MBO stands for……………..
A. negative motivation
A. management by organisation
B. ethical dilemma
B. management by operation
C. decentralization of authority
C. management by objectives
D. one way communication
D. none of these
Answer: B. ethical dilemma
Answer: C. management by objectives
84. …..is how companies manage their
89. developed MBO
business processes to produce an overall
A. henry fayol
positive impact on society.
A. management B. rensis likert
B. bpr C. michael porter
C. mbo D. peter f drucker
D. csr Answer: D. peter f drucker
Answer: D. csr 90. MBO gives emphasis on…………….
A. top management
85. Leadership is also referred as
fatherlyleadership B. . middlemanagement
A. autocratic C. objectives
B. participative D. lower management
C. free rein Answer: C. objectives

91. MBO establishes a ………………… 96. ………deals with the right actions of
A. community of interest individuals
B. centralized organization A. sincerity
C. rigid organisation structure B. rules
D. all of these formatted: font: times new C. ethics
roman, 12 pt, not bold, font color: auto D. all of these
formatted: font: times new roman, 12 pt, Answer: C. ethics
not bold, font color: auto
97. Ethics is a ……..
Answer: A. community of interest A. social science
92. KRA in MBO stands for……………. B. science of conduct
A. kerala rural academy
C. normative science
B. key result areas
D. all of these
C. key resources availability
Answer: D. all of these
D. none of these
98. The word ‘moral’ is derived from the
Answer: B. key result areas Latin word ……….
93. The word ‘Ethics’ is derived from Greek A. moralis
word ………. B. morilitic
A. ethios
C. monatic
B. ethikos
D. none of these
C. ethoes
Answer: A. moralis
D. none of these
99. Human nature is………….
Answer: B. ethikos A. learned
94. Ethics is a ….…. B. programmed
A. pure science
C. inherited
B. normative science
D. all of these.
C. inexact science
Answer: C. inherited
D. none of these
100. ….. is a process designed to focus on
Answer: B. normative science customer expectations, preventing
95. Ethics means ………. problems, building commitment to quality
A. character amongst all managers and staffs, and
B. manner promoting open and transparent decision
making.
C. custom
A. planning
D. all of these
B. tqm
C. marketing
D. none of the above

Answer: B. tqm B. bpr

101. The word “quality” suggests ……in C. kaizen
every aspect of the organization D. lean management
A. goodness
Answer: D. lean management
B. plan
106. The term ‘value’ is derived from the
C. excellence French word ……………
D. none of this A. valoir
Answer: C. excellence B. valas
102. Which is not a pillar of TQM C. velois
A. product D. none of these
B. process Answer: A. valoir
C. system 107. ……represent an individual’s highest
D. action priorities and deeply held driving forces.
Answer: D. action A. values
103. Which is/are the benefits of TQM B. principles
A. improvement in product design C. culture
B. reduction in operating costs D. ethics
C. reduction in field service costs Answer: A. values
D. all the above 108. A set of charecteristics that sets one
Answer: D. all the above group of people apart from another is
called as …………
104. ….is an approach to creating
A. culture
continuous improvement based on the
idea that small, ongoing positive changes B. values
A. tqm C. ethics
B. bpr D. none of these
C. kaizen Answer: A. culture
D. lean management 109. ….. Lean management focuses on
Answer: C. kaizen A. defining value from the standpoint of
the end customer
105. ..…….is an approach to managing an
organization that supports the concept of B. eliminating all waste in the business
continuous improvement, a long-term processes
approach to work that systematically seeks C. continuously improving all work
to achieve small, incremental changes in processes, purposes and people
processes in order to improve efficiency D. all of the above
and quality.
Answer: D. all of the above
A. tqm

110. IEM stands for …………… 115. …..seeks to determine normsand

A. indian economic management values
B. institute for education in management A. culture
C. indian ethos in management B. normative science
D. international environmental C. value
management D. none of these.
Answer: C. indian ethos in management Answer: B. normative science
111. Holism means …………. 116. ……is primarily concerned with the
A. oneness relationship of businessgoals and
B. divinity techniques to specifically human ends
A. business ethics
C. materiality
B. code of conduct
D. all of these
C. allof these
Answer: A. oneness
D. none
112. Indian model of management
is………….. Answer: A. business ethics
A. value driven holistioc 117. ……are the principles, which govern
B. ratopnal holistic and guide business peopleto perform
business functions
C. hybrid
A. business ethics
D. noneof these
B. code of conduct
Answer: A. value driven holistioc
C. all of these
113. Fundamental theories of Indian
D. none
Model include…………….
A. purushartha theory Answer: A. business ethics
B. panchakosas theory 118. ….is the guiding principle for decision
making in an economics based view of
C. theory of gunas
management
D. all of these A. profit maximization
Answer: D. all of these B. wealth maximisation
114. ……refers to certain norms governing C. value maximization
the conduct ofworkers involved in a work
D. none
situation
A. team work Answer: A. profit maximization
B. work ethos 119. …………….is a process that allows
people to make decisions based on their
C. work group
deeper values which will be economically,
D. work management socially and environmentally sound.
Answer: B. work ethos A. holistic approach
B. ethics management
C. codeof conduct (d) all of these

D. none of these Answer: (a)
Answer: A. holistic approach 124. What are the factors responsible
120. A ……………..is a written document, for the growth of HRM?
inspirational in contents and specify clearly (a) Development of scientific management
what is acceptable or unacceptable and awakened sense of social
behavior at workplace and beyond, when responsibility.
the employees represent their (b) The problem of how the available
organizations outside. human resource could effectively minimise
A. code of conduct the cost and maximise the production.
B. business ethics (c) Technical factors, awakening amongst
C. allof these workers, attitude of the government,
D. none of these cultural and social system.
Answer: A. code of conduct (d) All the above.
121. Human Resource departments Answer: (c)
are______________ 125. Which among the followings describe
(a) line departments the skills that are available within the
company?
(b) authority department
(a) Human Resource inventory
(c) service department
(b) HRIS
(d) functional department
(c) Skills inventory
Answer: (c)
(d) Management inventories
122. What is human factor?
Answer: (a)
(a) Micro and macro issues of socio-
economic factor. 126. Who has defined personnel
management as a field of management
(b) Interrelated Physiological,
which has to do with planning and
Psychological and Socio-ethical aspects of
controlling various operative functions of
human being.
procuring, developing, maintaining and
(c) The entire concept of human behaviour utilising labour force?
(d) None of the above. (a) Harold Koontz
Answer: (b) (b) Glueck
123. Job Analysis is a systematic procedure (c) Michael Jucius
for securing and reporting information
(d) Flippo
defining a ______________.
Answer: (c)
(a) specific job
127. Resources and capabilities that serve
(b) specific product
as a source of competitive advantage for a
(c) specific service

firm over its rivals are called (a) Worker, who should be given humanly
_______________. treatment at work.
(a) core competency (b) Mutual cooperation between employer
(b) core competence and employee in solving the common
problems.
(c) competitive advantage
(c) Integration of people into a work
(d) competency
situation that motivates them to work
Answer: (a) together to achieve productivity and also
128. Human Resource planning is economic, psychological and social
compulsory for ______________. satisfaction.
(a) effective employee development (d) None of the above.
programme Answer: (c)
(b) base for recruitment 132. Which of the following is a method of
(c) base for selection policy collection of information for job analysis?
(d) all of these (a) Questionnaire method
Answer: (d) (b) Ratio analysis
129. Job analysis, HR planning, (c) Optimisation models
recruitment, selection, placement, (d) Trend analysis
inductions and internal mobility are few
Answer: (a)
important functions which come under the
heading of______________ of HRM. 133. ___________ provides information on
the human attributes in terms of
(a) integration function
education, skills, aptitudes, and experience
(b) development necessary to perform a job effectively.
(c) maintenance (a) job description
(d) procurement function (b) job specification
Answer: (d) (c) job analysis
130. Directing is one of the important (d) job evaluation
functions of HRM which comes
Answer: (b)
under___________.
134. Who laid the foundation of HRM
(a) managerial function
practice?
(b) operative function
(a) Elton Mayo
(c) technical function
(b) Roethlisberger and Dickinson
(d) behavioral function
(c) Peter Drucker and Douglas McGregor
Answer: (a)
(d) David C. McClelland.
131. Whom does Human relation approach
Answer: (c)
refer to?

135. How HRM has become a highly (a) Training and development of
specialised job? employees for their growth.
(a) It is concerned with obtaining and (b) Maintenance of good industrial
maintaining a satisfied work force. relations and workers’ high morale for
(b) It maximises the output and higher productivity
satisfaction of the employees. (c) Further researches in behavioural
(c) Promote group satisfaction and science, new ideas in man, management
individual development. and advances in the field of training and
development.
(d) Optimum utilisation of man-power by
motivation and improving the efficiency. (d) None of the above.
Ans.(b) Answer: (c)
136. Job specification includes 140. What is the importance of
_____________. controlling?
(a) Physical characteristics (a) Ensure that activities are in accordance
with the terms of the plan.
(b) Psychological characteristics
(b) An important mental process on the
(c) Personal characteristics
part of a manager
(d) all of these
(c) Power to influence people’s behaviour
Answer: (d)
(d) Process of regulating the activities.
137. TQM’s major emphasis is
Answer: (a)
on___________ .
141. What is a decision in management?
(a) Product quality
(a) Reaching at a proper conclusion after
(b) Company profitability
consideration.
(c) Customer delight
(b) A decision involves choosing of
(d) Employee training alternatives.
Answer: (a) (c) A decision is the outcome of a group of
138. Ability to perform exceptionally well people or an individual.
and increase the stock of targeted (d) None of the above.
resources within the firm is called
Answer: (a)
___________.
142. An employee-working in a unit or
(a) productivity
plant who is a citizen of the country in
(b) efficient which the unit or plant is located but
(c) effective where the unit or plant is operated by an
(d) competency organisation headquartered in another
country _____________.
Answer: (d)
(a) Home Country National
139. What is the scope of HRM?
(b) Host Country National

(c) Third Country National (d) Modern Positions Developed

(d) Host Country Qualitatively
Answer: (b) Answer: (a)
143. Quantitative Technique refers to- 147. What should be the strategy of HRM?
(a) Models, simulation, resource allocation (a) Making the long-term and short-term
technique. planning.
(b) Waiting line problems and the queuing (b) Planning the optimum level of man-
theory power.
(c) Gaming and Game theory and (c) Introducing training programmes to
Probability theory personnel.
(d) All the above. (d) All the above.
Answer: (d) Answer: (d)
144. Staffing includes _______. 148. The process of helping unwanted
present employees find new jobs with
(a) workload estimation
other firms called ______________.
(b) termination
(a) Outplacement
(c) appointments of personnel, placement
(b) Replacement
(d) all of these
(c) Placement
Answer: (d)
(d) Employment
145 .To calculate the need for manpower
Answer: (a)
on the basis of the average loss of
manpower due to leave, retirement, 149. What is the ‘Laissez fair’ view point?
death, transfer, discharge, etc. is known (a) A view popularised by Ronssean,
as____________. Bentham and Hobbes.
(a) work load analysis (b) A minimum of public intervention in
(b) workforce analysis economic activities.
(c) job analysis (c) Business enterprise must get
opportunity to earn more profits.
(d) forecasting
(d) The change in the concept of labour
Answer: (b)
from commodity approach to human
146. MPDQ stands for_____________. concept.
(a) Management Position Description Answer: (b)
Questionnaire
150. How can we understand the nature of
(b) Management Process Descriptive human factor?
Questions
(a) Through determinants of human
(c) Methods for Personality Development behaviour
Questions

(b) According to the behaviour of people at Answer: (c)

work 154. Who has said that HRM is not a one
(c) The way the management influences an shot deal?
individual and a group. (a) Fayol
(d) Through the study of human behaviour (b) Taylor
in organisation.
(c) Terry
Answer: (b)
(d) McFarland
151. Trend analysis is a ______________
Answer: (c)
(a) Forecasting technique
155. Skills inventory, replacement charts,
(b) Skills inventory Markov analysis, regression analysis all are
(c) Job analysis technique types of ____________.
(d) Markov analysis (a) redundancy plan
Answer: (a) (b) training plan
152. The factual statement of the duties (c) retention plan
and responsibilities of a specific job is (d) forecasting methods
known as _____________.
Answer: (d)
(a) job description
156. Trade unions and employee
(b) job specification association, Industrial relation, employee
(c) job analysis participation and empowerment are
(d) job evaluation procurement functions of a manager which
comes under________.
Answer: (a)
(a) integration function
153. In Japanese management, employees’
career path is non-specialised. Why? (b) procurement function
(a) In Japanese industries job rotation is (c) development function
carried out for employees to have different (d) behavioural function
skills and also for interdepartmental Answer: (a)
cooperation.
157. Quality improvement
(b) In an organisation from the time of is_____________.
induction, employees are exposed to
(a) a team effort
various types of jobs and training to enable
them to have adaptability to any job. (b) achieved by quality inspector
(c) Japanese management system prefers (c) zero things gone wrong
to create capable workers to adapt (d) tough job, and not possible
organisational changes, as and when Answer: (b)
required.
158. An employee working in a unit or
(d) Rotation of job provides benefit of skills plant who is not a citizen of the country in
required for top quality executives. which the unit or plant is located but is a

citizen of the country in which the 162. Career development involves

organisation is headquartered is called (a) conscious determination of career
__________. aspirations and potentialities of employees
(a) Home Country National and matching them with the organisation’s
(b) Host Country National needs
(c) Third Country National (b) providing counselling to students to
choose their careers
(d) Host Country
(c) providing information to students
Answer: (a)
about opportunities of employment
159.“Human resource management”
(d) determining the potentialities of
involves the elements of
students for a suitable career
(a) planning, organising, and controlling
Answer: (a)
(b) planning, organising and coordinating
163. When an employee expresses
(c) leading, directing and coordinating organisationally desired emotions during
(d) all of the above interpersonal transactions, then it is
Answer: (d) known as_______________ .
160. The procedure in which relevant (a) emotional labour
information relating to a job and its (b) displayed emotions
requirements is systematically discovered (c) felt emotions
and noted is
(d) moods
(a) job analysis
Answer: (a)
(b) job specification
164. Job evaluation essentially seeks to
(c) job classification
(a) determine the relative worth of various
(d) job evaluation jobs in an organisation in monetary terms
Answer: (a) (b) evaluate the performance of
161. Which pair in order of sequences employees on their respective jobs
represents the first and last steps in a T&D (c) evaluate the importance of various jobs
programme? in the organisation
(a) determination of T&D needs, and (d) establish the hierarchy of various jobs
evaluation of T&D programme in the organisation
(b) determination of T&D needs, and Answer: (a)
designing the T&D programme
165. Grievance redressal, discipline,
(c) designing T&D programme, and collective bargaining are_______________
implementing it of HRM.
(d) evaluating of T&D programme, and (a) integration function
implementing it
(b) procurement function
Answer: (a)
(c) development function
(d) behavioural function 171. What are the major hurdles that
Answer: (a) require immediate action by HRM for the
progress of Indian economy?
167. The content of job description
involves_______________. (a) Dishonesty and corruption
(a) job title, condition of work (b) Lack of interest in work and production
loss,
(b) educational qualification, skills
(c) Unemployment and poverty
(c) both a and b
(d) Combating inflation and holding the
(d) none of the above
price-line of essential commodities.
Answer: (a)
Answer: (c)
168. How can one distinguish between the
172. Who is generally known as “the father
Japanese management system and other
of modern management theory”?
management systems?
(a) Henry Fayol
(a) It encourages to perform constantly
and consistently. (b) Frederick W. Taylor
(b) Primarily concerned with high (c) Frank Gilbreth
performance and quality standards. (d) Chester Bernard
(c) It is a system in contrast to American Answer: (a)
management system. 173. Which of the following is considered
(d) None of the above. the first wage incentive plan in modern
Answer: (c) industrial era?
169. In-basket training is involved in (a) Halsey plan
(a) vestibule training (b) Taylor’s differential piece-rate plan
(b) on-the job training (c) Barth plan
(c) simulation (d) Gantt Task plan
(d) coaching Answer: (b)
Answer: (c) 174. Concept of MBO was first developed
by
170. To calculate the number of persons
required for various jobs with reference to (a) Peter Drucker
a planned output is called (b) Douglas McGregor
________________. (c) Henry Fayol
(a) work load analysis (d) Clayton P. Alderfer
(b) workforce analysis Answer: (a)
(c) job analysis 175. Industrial discipline ordinarily does
(d) forecasting not imply
Answer: (a) (a) observance of company’s rules and
regulations

(b) cooperating with management and co- (d) all of the above
workers Answer: (d)
(c) active participation in union activities 180. International staffing does not give
(d) smooth discharge of duties and much emphasis on the consideration of
responsibilities (a) cultural adaptability
Answer: (c) (b) global experience
176. A strike called by a section of (c) family flexibility
workers/union members without
(d) political consciousness
authorisation from proper authority of the
union is called Answer: (d)
(a) sectional strike 181. The objectives of workers’
participation in management do not
(b) jurisdictional strike
ordinarily include
(c) wild cat strike
(a) promotion of collective bargaining
(d) sympathetic strike
(b) promotion of industrial harmony
Answer: (c)
(c) promotion of industrial democracy
177. Which is a form of participative
(d) promotion of productivity
management?
Answer: (a)
(a) information-sharing
182. The advantages of staffing from
(b) associative participation
amongst the host country nationals
(c) consultative participation generally do not include
(d) all of the above (a) reduction of language barriers
Answer: (d) (b) reduction of living cost
178. Social factor having a potent bearing (c) greater control over the activities of the
on HRM practices in India includes organisation
(a) caste system (d) better understanding of host country’s
(b) doctrine of karma laws and regulations
(c) c8ustoms and traditions Answer: (c)
(d) all of the above 183. Which form of participative
Answer: (a) management promotes “semi-autonomous
work-groups”?
179. T&D programme in international HRM
should give due attention to (a) quality of work life
(a) promotion of efficiency of personnel in (b) quality circle
the host country (c) TQM
(b) understanding of the cultural (d) quality group
environment of the host country Answer: (c)
(c) improvement of technical expertise

184. Industrial action generally does not a. Co-operation / confrontation avoiding /

include common objectives
(a) strike b. Openness of view and unwritten
(b) lock-out procedure systems
(c) demonstration c. Regular review / appropriate leadership
(d) Bandh d. All above
Answer: d e. Both (b) + (c)
185. The role of HRD personnel is to – Answer: (d)
a. description of entire process / analytical 189. For Total Quality Management (TQM)
decomposition the required qualities are:
b. identification of HRD elements and a. Understand customer’s current and
resources future needs / leaders establish unity of
purpose / involvement of people for
c. Both (a) + (b)
organisation’s benefit
d. Analytical decomposition only
b. achievement of desired results when
Answer: (c) resources and activities are managed as a
186. The primary goal of HRD is – process and (a) above
a. To increase productivity of workers / c. Mutually beneficial suppliers
and organisational profitability relationships enhances the ability to create
b. Improve workers’ skill and enhance value and (b) also
motivation, to prevent obsolesces at all d. Should have a temporary objective of
levels the organisation
c. prevent obsolescence and increase Answer: (c)
organisational profitability only 190. Human due diligence means
d. Both (a) + (b) investigation of –
Answer: (d) a. Management team / staff
187. Leadership is the – b. Structure / issues / managerial capacity
a. ability to influence other people of a potential partner
b. ability to create within people an urge c. Both (a) + (b)
to do d. Financial due diligence
c. ability to obtain willing co-operation of Answer: (c)
the followers 191. Knowledge management refers for
d. All above critical issues of
e. Only (a) + (b) a. Organisational adaptation
Answer: (d) b. Survival and competence against
188. A team is evaluated on features like – discontinuous environmental change

c. Synergistic combination of data and b. HR Training

information processing capacity c. Succession Planning
d. All above d. HR functions
e. Only (a) + (c) Answer: (a)
Answer: (d) 196. The main barriers of communications
192. What influences the bank employees’ are –
attitude on work culture? a. Organisational + Semantic
a. Educational qualification b. Personal + psychological + resistance to
b. Ownership of bank new ideas
c. Location of the branch c. Both (a) + (b)
d. All above d. Organisational / psychological
e. Only (a) + (c) Answer: (c)
Answer: (d) Q75. Manpower planning consists of –
193. Discuss the roles of the HR Manager a. determining the jobs to be done /
a. Administrator / evaluator / career identifying the skills / estimating the exists
development advisor / instructor or likely / filling up the requirements
facilitator b. identifying the skills / filling up the
b. marketing programmes and services / requirements
instructor material producer c. Estimating the turnover likely to happen
c. Needs analyst /organisational changer / in near future
researcher + (a) above d. determining the jobs to be done
d. Both (b) + (c) Answer: (a)
Answer: (d) 197. Promotion is basically a reward for –
194. The objectives of HR audit are – a. Efficiency
a. to determine the effectiveness of b. Seniority
management programmes c. Physical fitness
b. analyse the factors and recommend for d. Retention
correcting deviations + (a)
Answer: (a)
c. extent to which line managers have
198. What is 360° appraisal?
complied with HRD polices + (b)
a. a process that provides an employee
d. to study future manpower inventory
opportunity in decision making
and identify shortfalls
b. a process that provides an officer
Answer: (c)
opportunity of feedback about own
195. Employee accountability is performance
strengthens in
a. HR Audit

c. a process that provides an employee c. Areas for strengthening of skills and

with feedback about his / her workplace attitudes
performance d. All above
d. Both (a) + (b) Answer: (a)
Answer: (c) 203. Career path planning is affected by –
199. Role of performance management is a. Employee preference
to accomplish –
b. Employee requirements
a. Performance needs of the organisation
c. Employee preference/employees
b. Guide the development of individuals requirement and structure of the
for skill and knowledge organisation
c. Motivate individuals / provide data d. Both (a) + (b)
adopt condition of human capital + (b)
Answer: (c)
d. All above
204. Phases of performance counselling
Answer: (d) are –
200. Competency Mapping is possible a. Rapport building / employee should
through approaches like – discover own SWOT / action plans, through
a. Job analysis / workforce skills analysis / brainstorming sessions
supply and demand analysis b. Two way communication / employee be
b. Job analysis / Gap analysis / solution encouraged for their own performance
analysis appraisal
c. Gap analysis / solution analysis + (a) c. Organisational objectives are integrated
d. Both (a) + (b) d. All above
Answer: (c) Answer: (a)
201. Human needs have been divided into 205. Training method commonly used, for
five categorises under need hierarchy employee in banks is –
theory. Who invented this theory? a. On the job training
a. McClelland b. Classroom Training
b. John Atkinson c. Off the job training
c. Maslow d. Vestibule Training
d. Herzberg Answer: (b)
Answer: (c) 206. Training evaluation is measured by –
202. Key Performance Areas means – a. Goal based / Goal free / Responsive
a. Areas which are within the responsibility b. Systems / professional review / quasi-
of the role legal
b. Areas which the management has c. Goal based / systems / responsive
demarcated to be performed by employee
d. Both (a) + (b)

Answer: (d) a. Longer time spending in action

207. The process of perception is b. Discipline is handled impersonally
influenced by factors like – c. Aware of rules and performance criteria
a. Our needs and wants d. Only (a) and (b)
b. Sensory inability Answer: (d)
c. Our stimuli 212. Functions of the personnel
d. All above management can be described as –
Answer: (d) a. Managerial
208. The term industrial relations means – b. Operative
a. Relationship between Management and c. Developmental
Labour d. Both (a) + (b)
b. Relationship between organisation and e. All above
employees
Answer: (d)
c. Relationship that grows out of
213. Lockout is a weapon available to –
employment
a. Employees
d. All above
b. Trade Unions
Answer: (d)
c. Employers
209. Collective bargaining is a procedure
regulated by agreements between their – d. Government
a. Bargaining agents and employers Answer: (c)
b. Employees and employees 214. How the conflicts within employers
and employees can be settled or
c. Employers and employers
prevented?
d. Labour officer and Trade unions
a. Voluntary method
Answer: (a)
b. Government Machinery
210. Advantages of grievances handling
c. Statutory Measures
procedure –
d. All above
a. Management can know employees
feelings Answer: (d)
b. Employee gets grievances ventilated 215. The word workers participation in
management means –
c. Keeps a check on supervisor’s attitude
a. Sharing the decision making powers
d. Both (b) + (c)
b. Sharing the decision making with lower
e. All above
results of the employees
Answer: (e)
c. Sharing the day to day working with
211. When any discipline becomes higher ranks of persons
ineffective or less-effective?

d. Sharing the financial decision making settle / respect rights and responsibilities
powers with representative of workers of other party, is covered under –
Answer: (b) a. Effective bargaining method
216. What is the role of the trade-union in b. Essentials for effective bargaining
collective bargaining? c. Types of bargaining
a. To protect jobs and real earnings d. Areas of bargaining
b. Better conditions of work life for Answer: (b)
workers
221. Managerial functions, in personnel
c. Fighting against any possible, management can be –
exploitations
a. Planning / Organising / directing and
d. All above controlling
Answer: (d) b. Recruitment / placement / employment
217. Which kind of workers participation / Development and motivation
makes the workers as shareholders of the c. Compensation / maintenance of health /
company? employers’ welfare
a. Participation at Board Level d. Both (a) + (b) only
b. Participation through ownership Answer: (d)
c. Participation through complete control 222. Discuss unfair management practices
d. Participation through work councils –
Answer: (b) a. Noncompliance with promotional and
218. Special allowances are not payable for transfer policies
– b. Smooth handling of grievances
a. Photostat copier Operators c. Timely payment of wages / salaries
b. Adding machine Operators d. Both (b) + (c)
c. Addressographs Answer: (a)
d. All above 223. In a ____________, teams are formed
Answer: (d) and team members report to two’ or more
managers.
219. Why grievances should be redressed?
(a) Formal Organization
a. Affects the individual
(b) Informal Organization
b. Affects the management
(c) Matrix Organisation
c. Collective disputes conversion
(d) Divisional Organization
d. All above
Answer: (c)
Answer: (d)
224.________ refers to the attitudinal and
220. The employer-employees should have
behavioural characteristics of a group and
mutual trust / confidence / willingness to
is concerned with how groups form, their

structure and process, and how they (d) None of the above
function, Answer: (c)
(a) Group dynamics 228. _________ involves all the
(b) Organic structure performance monitoring, measurement,
(c) Functional Structure management being outsourced from a
third party or an external organisation.
(d) Matrix organization
(a) Human Resource Outsourcing
Answer: (a)
(b) Human Resource Management
225. Benchmarking is
(c) Human Resource Business Process
(a) T the process of comparing the business
Outsourcing
processes & performance metrics including
cost, cycle time, productivity to another (d) Performance Management Outsourcing
that is widely considered to be an industry Answer: (d)
leader 229. Performance Management System is
(b) A process in which the organisations –
evaluate various aspects of their processes (a) A formal, structured system of
in relation to the best practice companies’ measuring, evaluating job related
processes usually within the peer group behaviours & outcomes to discover
defined for the purposes of comparison reasons of performance & how to perform
(c) Both (a) and (b) effectively in future so that the employee,
(d) None of the above organisation & society all benefit
Answer: (c) (b) A process of looking both to the future
& to the past, in the context of the
226. Reengineering starts with a —
collective performance of all the
(a) High-level assessment of the employees in an organisation
organisation’s mission
(c) The process of establishing goals,
(b) Strategic goals assessing employees & implement the
(c) Customer demands annual performance appraisal process
(d) All of the above (d) All of the above
Answer: (d) Answer: (d)
227. Change Management is – 230. Key Performance Indicators (KPI)
(a) It is a systematic approach in dealing is/are –
with change from the individual & (a) A specific, agreed measure of
organisational level achievement within a KRA, which go on to
(b) A gradual process of approach in the make up the goals and objectives
workplace due to new policies, technology, measured under the performance
or even a new boss appraisal process.
(c) Both (a) and (b)

(b) objective, independent and (b) A set of programs, functions & activities
standardized measures of performance not designed & carried out for maximum
ratings or judgments of performance efficiency
(c) specific, measurable, attainable, (c) Both (a) and (b)
realistic & time bound which help to (d) None of the above
determine how much the KRA’s are met
Answer: (c)
234. Job Rotation can be defined as –
Answer: (d)
(a) Lateral transfer of employees among a
231. Human Resource Planning (HRP) number of different positions and tasks
process is – within jobs which requires different skills
(a) A process, by which an organisation and responsibilities
ensures that it has the right number & kind (b) It helps to understand the different
of people at the right place, at the right steps into creating a product or delivery
time, capable of effectively & efficiently
(c) It permits individuals to gain experience
completing those tasks that will help the
in various phases of the business
organisation achieve its overall objectives
(b) A process of forecasting an
organisation’s future demand for & supply Answer: (d)
of the right type of people in the right 235. Personnel Management is-
numbers (a) A managerial function of planning,
(c) A sub-system in the total organisational organising, directing, controlling, and
planning & facilitates the realisation of the coordinating the operative functions so
company’s objectives by providing the that their individual objectives and
right type & right number of personnel organisational goals are achieved
(d) All of the above (b) A function which deals in recruitment,
Answer: (d) development, compensation, integration,
utilisation & maintenance of people
232. Who is responsible to manage
change? (c) An aspect of relationship between and
among the people and is concerned about
(a) Employees
their well-beings as individuals and as
(b) Management group
(c) Executives (d) All of the above
(d) (b) & (c) Answer: (d)
Answer: (d) 236. When does the bargaining process
233. HRM refers to – begins?
(a) A management function that helps (a) The charter of demands of the workers
managers to attract, set expectations & are not fulfilled
develop members for an organization.

(b) Discontinuation of services & concerted 239. __________ consists of the learning
actions by the workers which results in low opportunities designed to help employees
output and monetary loss to grow.
(c) The employer cannot afford to neglect (a) Training
these actions which results in monetary (b) Development
loss
(c) Banking operations
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d)
Answer: (b)
237. Cause of Genuine Grievance can be –
240. Joint Management Councils are
(a) Discrimination, lost opportunity, established in an organisation which
Injustice etc. done to the employee employs –
(b) Harmony, Mutual trust & (a) 100 employees
understanding
(b) 300 employees
(c) Reasonable Charter of demands
(c) 400 employees
(d) 500 employees or more
Answer: (a)
Answer: (d)
238. Define the subject matter of Training
241. ROI Stands for —
(a) Organisations need staff at all levels to
(a) Return on Insurance
be self-sufficient, resourceful, creative &
autonomous, but they face the challenge (b) Return on Investment
in instilling confidence, initiative & (c) Rate on Insurance
problem solving capabilities (d) Risk on Insurance
(b) Performance & capability are Answer: (b)
ultimately dependent on people’s attitude
242. The term “Learning Organisation”
and emotional maturity. Helping them to
means –
achieve on a personal level provides a
platform for trust and emotional con- (a) People of all Levels, individually or
tracting with the organisation collectively are continually increasing their
capacity to produce results, they care
(c) When people develop confidence,
about
integrity & more knowledge, they
automatically become proactive, solution- (b) A collective ideal, a vision
focused, responsive which has implications (c) It promotes culture of Learning, a
across a whole team with multiplying community of learners, and it ensures that
effect individual learning enriches & enhances
(d) All of the above the organisation as a whole
Answer: (d) (d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
243. Line Management is –

(a) Hierarchical chain of command from 247. Interviews can be —

executive to front-line level in which top (a) One-to-one
management has direct authority
(b) Panel interview
(b) Organised along cross-functional lines,
(c) Sequential Interview
such as employee development or
strategic direction (d) All of the above
(c) Both of (a) and (b) Answer: (d)
(d) None of the above 248. What is PERT analysis based on?
Answer: (c) A. Optimistic time
244. _____ is a process of transmission of B. Pessimistic time
massage and understanding of information C. Most likely time
between two or more people, it involves at D. All of the above
least two parties – a sender and a receiver. Answer: D
(a) Body language 249. Which of the options is not a notable
(b) Communication challenge while scheduling a project?
(c) System A. Deadlines exist
(d) None of the above B. Independent activities
Answer: (b) C. Too many workers may be required
245. _________ methods are generally D. Costly delay
applied on the workplace while employees
Answer: B
are actually working.
250. What is the particular task
(a) On the Job training
performance in CPM known as?
(b) Off the job training
A. Dummy
(c) Both (a) & (b) B. Event
(d) None of the above.
C. Activity
Answer: (a)
D. Contract
246. Selection is-
Answer: C
(a) A process of picking up individuals with 251. What is the earliest start time rule?
requisite qualifications & competence to
fill jobs in the organisation A. It compares the activity’s starting time
for an activity successor.
(b) A process of differentiating between
applicants in order to identify & hire those B. It compares the activity’s end time for
with a greater likelihood of success in a job an activity predecessor.
(c) Both (a) and (b) C. It directs when a project can start.
(d) None of the above D. It regulates when a project must begin.
Answer: (c) Answer: B
252. What is a critical path?
A. It is a path that operates from the c) Project controlling

starting node to the end node. d) Project being
B. It is a mixture of all the paths Answer: d
C. It is the longest path Explanation: There are three phases of
project management. These are project
D. It is the shortest path
planning, project scheduling and project
Answer: C controlling. Project management refers to
253. What is the completion of a CPM a highly specialised job to achieve the
network diagram activity commonly objectives of a project.
known as? 257. Who introduced the bar charts?
A. Connector a) Williams henry
B. Event b) Henry Gantt
c) Jane Gantt
C. Node
d) Joseph henry
D. All of the above
Answer: b
Answer: D Explanation: Henry Gantt introduced the
254. Activity in a network diagram is bar charts around 1900 A.D. They give
represented by? pictorial representation in two dimensions
A. Rectangles of a project by breaking it down into
B. Arrows numerous manageable units.
C. Squares 258. The full form of PERT is ___________
a) Program Evaluation and Rate
D. Circles
Technology
Answer: B b) Program Evaluation and Robot
255. What happens when a project is Technique
scheduled by CPM? c) Program Evaluation and Robot
A. A project is divided into various Technology
activities d) Program Evaluation and Review
Technique
B. Required time for each activity is
established Answer: d
Explanation: There are various network
C. A sequence of various activities is made
techniques that are called by various
according to their importance
names like PERT, CPM, TOPS and LESS.
D. All of the above Network technique is one of the major
Answer: D advancements in management science.
256. Which of the following is not a phase The full form of PERT is Program
of project management? Evaluation and Review Technique.
a) Project planning 259. The full form of CPM is ___________
b) Project scheduling a) Critical Path Method
b) Control Path Method

c) Critical Plan Management c) Expected time estimate

d) Control Path Management d) The most likely time estimate
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: The full form of CPM is the Explanation: There are three kinds of time
Critical Path Method. CPM networks are estimates made by PERT planners. These
mainly used for those projects for which a are the optimistic time estimate, the
fairly accurate estimate of time of pessimistic time estimate and the most
completion can be made for each activity. likely time estimate. The shortest possible
260. In bar charts, which colour is used to time in which an activity can be achieved
show the actual progress? under ideal circumstances is known as the
a) Red optimistic time estimate.
b) Black 263. According to the time estimates made
c) Blue by the PERT planners, the maximum time
d) Green that would be needed to complete an
Answer: d activity is called as __________
Explanation: In bar charts, different a) The most likely time estimate
colours are sometimes filled in the bars for b) Optimistic time estimate
showing various control information. For c) Pessimistic time estimate
actual progress, green colour is used. For d) Expected time estimate
anticipated progress, black colour is used Answer: c
and for progress behind schedule, red Explanation: According to the time
colour is used. estimates made by the PERT planners, the
261. _________ are used to represent maximum time that would be needed to
activity in a network diagram. complete an activity is called the
a) Circles pessimistic time estimate. This estimate
b) Squares does not include possible effects of floods,
c) Rectangles earthquakes, etc.
d) Arrows 264. The difference between the maximum
Answer: d time available and the actual time needed
Explanation: A network is a flow diagram to perform an activity is known as
that consists of events and activities which _________
are connected sequentially and logically. a) Free float
Arrows are used to represent activity in a b) Independent float
network diagram. Events are generally c) Total float
represented by circles. d) Half float
262. The shortest possible time in which an Answer: c
activity can be achieved under ideal Explanation: The difference between the
circumstances is known as ________ maximum time available and the actual
a) Pessimistic time estimate time needed to perform an activity is
b) Optimistic time estimate known as the total float. Hence, the total

float is the excess of the maximum A. Evaluation and Review

available time throughout the time of the Techniques for Programs
activity. B. Evaluation of Programs and
265. Which of the following options does Robotic Techniques
not pose a significant difficulty when it C. Assessment of Programs and
comes to project scheduling? Robotics
A. There are deadlines. D. Technology for Program
B. Self-directed activities Evaluation and Rating
C. An excessive number of staff may be Ans-A
necessary. 270. The maximum time that would be
D. Expensive postponement required to accomplish an activity,
Ans- B according to the time estimates generated
by PERT planners, is referred to as
266. What is the definition of a critical
_________
path?
A. The time estimate that is most
A. It’s a path that connects the starting
likely
and ending nodes.
B. Time estimate that is
B. It combines all of the paths.
optimistic
C. It is the shortest route.
C. The time estimate that is
D. It is the most direct route. pessimistic
Ans- C D. The time estimate that is
267. The execution of a CPM network expected
diagram activity is typically referred to as Ans- C
what?
271. Which colour is used to illustrate
A. Connector actual progress in bar charts?
B. Occasion Node A. Red
C. All of the preceding B. Black
Ans- C C. Blue
268. What is the symbol for activity in a D. Green
network diagram?
Ans- D
A. Rectangles Arrows
272. Who was the first to use bar charts?
B. Squares
A. Henry Williams
C. Circles
B. Henry Gantt
Ans- B is the correct answer. It is a square
C. Jane Gantt
symbol.
D. Henry Joseph
269. A PERT chart’s full name is________.
Ans- B

273. CPM stands for 277. _____________ is a type of activity

A. Critical Path Method that does not require any resources or
time.
B. Control Path Method
A. there is no activity
C. Critical Plan Management
B. a dummy action
D. Control Path Management
C. the preceding activity
Ans- A
D. unique action
274. The quickest time in which a task may
be completed under perfect conditions is Ans- B
referred to as 278. The acronym SWOT stands for
A. The most pessimistic time A. Special Weapons for Operations
estimate Timeliness
B. The most optimistic time B. Services, Worldwide Optimization and
estimate Transport
C. The expected time estimate C. Strengths, Weakness, Opportunities and
D. The most likely time estimate Threats
Ans- B D. None of the above
275. The ________ is the difference Answer: Option C
between both the allotted time and the Solution: The acronym SWOT stands for
actual time needed to execute a task. Strengths, Weakness, Opportunities and
A. Free float Threats. It is a way of summarizing the
current state of a company and helping to
B. Independent float
devise a plan for the future, one that
C. Total float employs the existing strengths, redresses
D. Half float existing weaknesses, exploits
Ans- C opportunities and defends against threats.
276. The goal of network analysis is to 279. Which of the following statements
A. reduce the overall project best describes strategic management?
duration A. A process consisting of determining
B. reduce the entire project cost objectives and strategic actions to achieve
those objectives
C. keep production delays,
B. A process consisting of determining
interruptions, and conflicts to
objectives, strategic actions to achieve
a minimum
those objectives, the implementation of
D. extend the project’s entire desired strategy, and the monitoring of
time that strategy
Ans- A C. A process consisting of the
determination of direction, strategic
actions to achieve objectives, the

implementation of desired strategy, and C. Product-market

monitoring of that strategy D. Operations
D. A process for determining direction, Answer: Option C
strategic actions to achieve objectives, and
Solution: Product-market is one of the
the implementation of desired strategy
following would not be considered a
Answer: Option C functional strategy. A product market
Solution: A process consisting of the refers to a place where goods and services
determination of direction, strategic are bought and sold.
actions to achieve objectives, the 282. The two internal elements of SWOT
implementation of desired strategy, and analysis are
monitoring of that strategy statements
A. weaknesses and threats
best describes strategic management.
Strategic management is the ongoing B. opportunities and threats
planning, monitoring, analysis and C. strength and weaknesses
assessment of all that is necessary for an D. strengths and threats
organization to meet its goals and
Answer: Option C
objectives. Changes in the business
environment require organizations to Solution: The two internal elements of
constantly assess their strategies for SWOT analysis are strength and
success. weaknesses.
280. Which of the following is a key 283. ………specifies methods for reporting
external factors that should be taken into violations, disciplinary action for violations
account by a corporate strategy? and the structure of the due process to be
followed
A. economic conditions A. business ethics
B. political conditions B. code of ethics
C. legal environments
C. allof these
D. competition
D. none
Answer: Option D Answer: B. code of ethics
Solution: Competition is a key external
284. ……is a set of values, beliefs, goals,
factors that should be taken into account norms and ways of solving problems by the
by a corporate strategy. Strategic members of the organization.
competition is a commitment within an
A. corporate culture
organization to make a very large change
in competitive relationships. B. organizational culture
281. Which one of the following would not C. both of these
be considered a functional strategy? D. none of these
A. Financial Answer: A. corporate culture
B. Marketing 285. Which among the following are
advantages of managing business ethics in
the workplace? C. codeof conduct

A. cultivate strong team work and D. none of these
productivity
Answer: A. holistic management
B. avoid criminal acts
290. ……….term includes employees,
C. lower fines customers, suppliers and the wider
D. all of these community
Answer: D. all of these A. stock holder
286. A ……………..is a buzz word to B. stake holder
employees to observe ethical norms and C. both of these
forms the basis for rules of conduct.
D. none of these
A. code of ethics
Answer: B. stake holder
B. business ethics
291. Scientific Management were more
C. allof these concerned with the problems at the
D. none ……………………………….. levels
Answer: A. code of ethics A. higher levels
287. ……….would be charged with B. middle
implementing and administering an ethical C. operating
management programme.
D. none
A. top management
Answer: C. operating
B. ethics management committee
292. Father of Modern Management
C. middle management theory is………………
D. none of these A. henry fayol
Answer: B. ethics management committee B. f.w.taylor
288. When new employees are to be C. henry gantt
recruited, ………….training should be
D. none
arranged for them.
Answer: A. henry fayol
A. apprenticeship
293. ………….suggests that each
B. induction
communication going up or coming down
C. vestibule must flow through each position in the line
D. none of these of authority
Answer: B. induction A. communication pattern
289. ……………….is a new framework for B. horizontal communications
decisions making on all levels that is based C. scalar chain
on resource management of the whole
D. none of these
A. holistic management
Answer: C. scalar chain
B. ethics management

294. Management can be considered 298. …..is undertaken to find out the one
as……………….. best way of doing the thing
A. exact science A. job analysis
B. inexact science B. merit rating
C. psuedo science C. job enrichment
D. b or c D. none
Answer: D. b or c Answer: A. job analysis
295. …………………..is that phase of business 299. The principle of Unity of command is
enterprise that concerns itself with the contrary to Taylors……………………..
overall determination of institutional A. rule of thumb
objectives and the policies necessary to be
B. unity of direction
followed in achieving those objectives.
C. functional foremanship
A. management
D. none of these
B. administration
Answer: C. functional foremanship
C. both of these
300. According to …………..principle, each
D. none
group of activities with the same objective
Answer: B. administration must have one head and one plan
296. ……..has defined the basic problem of A. unity of direction
managing as the art of “knowing exactly B. unity of command
what you want men to do and then see
C. eitherof these
that they do it in the best and cheapest
way” D. none
A. henry fayol Answer: A. unity of direction
B. f.w. taylor 301. Everything which goes to increase the
importance of subordinates role
C. mary parker follet
is……………….
D. none of these
A. decentralization
Answer: B. f.w. taylor
B. centralization
297. According to functional foreman ship,
C. either a or b
the speed boss, Inspector, foreman and
gang boss are entrusted with D. none
the……………………… aspect of work. Answer: A. decentralization
A. planning 302. The Book “ Functions of Executive”
B. organizing was written by …………………..
C. doing A. p.f. drucker
D. none of these B. chester barnard
Answer: C. doing C. herbert simon

D. none 307. ……………….approach of management

Answer: B. chester barnard heavily concentrates on ‘People’ aspect of
management.
303. school of Management recognizes the
existence of a centralized body of A. human relations
knowledge for the Management. B. system
A. system approach C. empirical
B. empirical D. management science
C. contingency Answer: A. human relations
D. operational 308. ……………is the art of knowing exactly
Answer: D. operational what you want men to do and then seeing
that how they do it in the best and
304. …………..school of thought has
cheapest way.
developed on the idea that there is no
single best method to find solutions to A. general management
Managerial problems B. scientific management
A. system approach C. administration
B. empirical D. none
C. contingency Answer: B. scientific management
D. operational 309. …………..is introduced to secure the
Answer: C. contingency benefits of division of labour or
specialization at the supervising level
305. Koontz and O’Donnel are the
under scientific management
advocates of ……………….approach to
management A. operating management
A. system approach B. functional fore manship
B. empirical C. either a or b
C. contingency D. none
D. operational Answer: B. functional fore manship
Answer: D. operational 310. ………………….helps to determine a fair
306. According to………………..approach, days work and rest period to complete it
management is a logical process and it can A. work study
be expressed in terms of mathematical B. timestudy
symbols and relationships.
C. motion study
A. empirical
D. all ofthese
B. management science
Answer: A. work study
C. contingency
311. The main objective of ……………..study
D. operational is to determine and eliminate unnecessary
Answer: B. management science and wasteful movements

A. work study 316. ………….principle states that an

B. timestudy employee should receive orders form one
superior only
C. motion study
A. unity of direction
D. all ofthese
B. unity of command
Answer: C. motion study
C. esprit de corps
312. The author of the famous book
“General and Industrial Management” D. none
is…………………… Answer: B. unity of command
A. henry fayol 317. According to……………. principle, there
B. f.w. taylor should always exist one head and one plan
for a group of activities having the same
C. henry gantt
objective
D. none
A. unity of direction
Answer: A. henry fayol
B. unity of command
313. According to Fayol , the principles of
C. esprit de corps
Management are……………….
A. rigid D. none
B. flexible Answer: A. unity of direction
C. aor b 318. …………..is highly suitable for large
organizations having large number of
D. none
managerial personnel at different levels.
Answer: B. flexible
A. centralization
314. ……………..is the right of a superior to
B. decentralization
give orders to subordinates, take decisions
etc. C. departmentalization
A. authority D. all of these
B. responsibility Answer: B. decentralization
C. accountability 319. is defined as a chain of superiors
ranging from the ultimate authority to the
D. none
lowest ranks
Answer: A. authority
A. structure
315. Authority and responsibility
B. scalar chain
are………………..to each other
C. both of these
A. supplementary
D. none of these
B. complementary
Answer: B. scalar chain
C. contradictory
320. The book “Creative Experience” was
D. none
written by ………………..
Answer: B. complementary
A. henry fayol

B. f.w. taylor B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
C. mary parker follet not the correct explanation of (A).
D. none ofthese C) (A) is True but (R) is False.
Answer: C. mary parker follet D) (A) is False but (R) is True.
Answer: A
3. Direction: In the questions given below,
there are two statements marked as
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the
Unit -7 MCQs correct option out of the choices given
below in each question
there are two statements marked as Assertion (A): Recycle Bin is a reserved
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the space where files and folders you no
correct option out of the choices given longer want can be disposed off.
below in each question Reason (R): When you move a file to the
Assertion (A): Operating system is a Recycle Bin, it will be immediately deleted
software program that enables the from your computer.
computer hardware to communicate and A) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
operate with the computer software. explanation of (A).
Reason (R): Windows is an open source B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
operating system not the correct explanation of (A).
A) Both A and R are correct and R is correct C) (A) is True but (R) is False.
explanation of (A). D) (A) is False but (R) is True.
B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is Answer: A
not the correct explanation of (A).
C) (A) is True but (R) is False. there are two statements marked as
D) (A) is False but (R) is True. Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the
Answer: B correct option out of the choices given
below in each question
there are two statements marked as Assertion (A): In Windows you can create
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the user accounts.
correct option out of the choices given Reason (R): You can only have one user
below in each question account on a Windows computer.
Assertion (A): Directory is a container that A) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
is used to contain folders and file. explanation of (A).
Reason (R): File system provides a way of B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
organising a drive. not the correct explanation of (A).
A) Both A and R are correct and R is correct C) (A) is True but (R) is False.
explanation of (A).
D) (A) is False but (R) is True. 7. Given below are two statements. one
Answer: C labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R):
there are two statements marked as Assertion (A): An Intranet is a private
Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the network for sharing computing resources
correct option out of the choices given and information within an organization
below in each question Reason (R): Intranet is a private version of
Assertion (A): Windows is application the Internet
software. In light of the above two statements.
choose the correct answer from the
Reason (R): Microsoft edge is used for
options given below
searching the computer.
1. Both A) and R) are true and R) is the
A) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
correct explanation of A)
explanation of (A).
2. Both A) and R) are true but R) is not the
B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
correct explanation of A)
not the correct explanation of (A).
3. A) is true but R) is false
C) (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. A) is false but R) is true
D) (A) is False but (R) is True.
Answer: 2
Answer: D
8. Given below are two statements. one
6. Given below are two statements – One
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is
Reason (R):
labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion: A keyboard is used to type data
Assertion (A) : The internet is a collection
or instructions and for some other
of interconnected computer networks,
functions.
linked by transmission medium such as
copper wires, fiber-optic cables, wireless Reason: Keyboard is a popular input
connections etc. device.
Reason (R) : World Wide Web is a (A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
collection of interconnected documents. true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
In the right of the above two statement,
choose the correct answer: (B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are
true but reason (R) is not the correct
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
explanation of assertion (A).
the correct explanation of (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is
false.
not the correct explanation of (A)
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is
3. Both (A) is true. But (R) is false.
true.
4. Both (A) is false. But (R) is true.
Answer: A
Answer: 2

9. Given below are two statements. one Reason: Your operating system firstly
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as saves any windows settings that you
Reason (R): changed and writes information that is
Assertion: You can use the taskbar and currently stored in memory to your hard
Smart button to easily navigate through disk.
Windows 7. (A) Both assertion and reason are true and
Reason: Both features are always available reason is the correct explanation of
on your desktop. assertion .
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and (B) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is the correct explanation of reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. assertion.
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but (C) assertion is true but reason is false
reason is not the correct explanation of (D) assertion is false but reason is true
assertion . Answer: A
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false. 12. Given below are two statements. one
(D) Assertion is false but reason is true. labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
Answer: A Reason (R):
10. Given below are two statements. one Assertion: Versatility is a feature where
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as computer can perform variety of function
Reason (R): with precise accuracy.
Assertion: While specifying the file names Reason: Computers can work in different
in search box, Wild Cards can be used. areas, do different jobs and can process
different type of data
Reason: The '*' is a Wild Card Character.
A. Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of
reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
assertion .
C. Assertion is true and Reason is wrong.
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
(D) Assertion is false but reason is true.
Answer: A
Answer: B
13. Arrange the following writing materials
11. Given below are two statements. one
in the order of their evolution
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as
Reason (R): (i) Iron
Assertion: When you are finished working (ii) Stone
in Windows 7, you properly shut down (iii) Papyrus
your computer.
(iv) Paper 16. Arrange the names of the persons in

Codes: the order of their contribution to
cataloguing in ascending order.
(A) ii, iii, i, iv
(i) Anthony Panizzi
(B) iv, ii, i, iii
(ii) Symurs Lubetzky
(C) iii, i, iv, ii
(iii) Charles Ammi Cutter
(D) ii, i, iii, iv
(iv) S.R. Ranganathan
Answer: (D)
Codes:
14. Arrange the following ancient libraries
in order of their origin (A) i, iii, ii, iv
(i) Alexandria library (B) ii, iii, iv, i
(ii) Nalanda library (C) iii, iv, i, ii
(iii) Ashurbanipal library (D) iv, i, ii, iii
(iv) Takshila library Answer: (A)
Codes: 17. Arrange the stock maintenance work in
a library in proper order
(A) i, iv, iii, ii
(i) Stock verification
(B) ii, i, iv, iii
(ii) Stock shelving
(C) iv, i, iii, ii
(iii) Stock Rectification
(D) iv, ii, iii, i
(iv) Reshelving
Answer: (C)
Codes:
15. Arrange the following library science
journals in the order of their first (A) iv, iii, i, ii
publication (B) ii, iv, i, iii
(i) IASLIC Bulletin (C) ii, iv, iii, i
(ii) Annals of the library and information (D) iv, ii, i, iii
studies Answer: (C)
(iii) SRELS journal of library management 18. Arrange the following according to the
(iv) ILA Bulletin year of their development
Codes: (i) Java 1.0
(A) iii, ii, iv, i (ii) COBOL
(B) iv, i, iii, ii (iii) Visual Basic
(C) ii, iii, iv, i (iv) C++
(D) iii, ii, i, iv Codes:
Answer: (B) (A) iv, iii, i, ii
(B) ii, iii, iv, i
(C) i, ii, iv, iii
(D) ii, iv, iii, i b) Thesauro-facet ii) C. A. Cutter

Answer: (D)
c) Classified Catalogue iii) J. D. Brown
19. Arrange the stages in the ‘Technology Code
transfer model’ in a proper order
d) Rules of Dictionary iv) S. R.
(i) Awareness
Catalogue Ranganathan
(ii) Adoption
Codes:
(iii) Trail
(iv) Introduction a b c d
Codes: (A) iii i iv ii
(A) iv, i, iii, ii (B) ii iii i iv
(B) iii, iv, i, ii (C) iv ii iii i
(C) iv, ii, iii, i
(D) i iii ii iv
(D) iii, i, ii, iv
Answer: (A)
Answer: (A)
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
a) Scopus i) Access to You-
a) NICTAS i) Chennai
Tube
b) NICDAP ii) Mysore
b) Web of Science ii) Internet browser
c) NICLAI iii) Lucknow
c) Google Account iii) Thomson ISI
d) NICFOS iv)
Ahmedanbad d) Google Chrome iv) Elsevier
Codes: Codes:
a b c d a b c d
(A) iii ii i iv (A) iii ii i iv
(B) iv iii ii i (B) ii iv i iii
(C) i iv iii ii (C) i iii ii iv
(D) iv iii i ii (D) iv iii i ii
21. Match the following: 23. Match the following:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
a) Subject Classification i) J. Atchinson a) C. A. Cutter i) Indexing

b) Berwick Sayers ii) Cataloguing

c) Derek Austin iii) Computers Management Principles

d) Charles Babbage iv) Classification d) Abraham iv) Scientific
Maslow Management
Codes:
Codes:
a b c d
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) ii iv i iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii ii i iv
(C) i ii iv iii
(D) iv ii iii i
(D) ii iv iii i
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
a) Georef i) Informatics (India)
a) Science Since i) S. C. Bradford
b) AGRICOLA ii) American Babylon
Geosciences Institute
b) Prolegomena to ii) Derek J. de
c) Open J-Gate iii) Thomson Reuters
library classification Solla Price
web of knowledge
c) Documentation iii) E. J. Coates
d) BIOSIS iv) US Dept of
Previews Agriculture (NAL-USA) d) Subject Catagories iv) S. R.
Headings and Structure Ranganathan
Codes:
a b c d Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(A) iii iv ii i
(B) iii i iv ii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) ii iv i iii
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) iii iv ii i
(D) iv i ii iii
Answer: (C)
Answer: (B)
List-I List-II
List-I List-II
a) Henry Fayol i) POSDCORB
a) Calvin Mooers i) Relational
b) F. W. Taylor ii) Theory of Motivation Indexing
c) Luther Gullick iii) Administrative b) T. C. Craven ii) Unterm Indexing

c) JEL Farradane iii) Zator System d) Style Manual iv) Technical

Section
d) Martimer iv) NEPHIS
Tabue Codes:
Codes: a b c d
a b c d (A) iii ii i iv
(A) ii iii i iv (B) iv iii ii i
(B) iv ii iii i (C) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv i ii (D) iv iii ii i
(d) i ii iv iii Answer: (C)
Answer: (C) 30. Match the following:
28. Match the following: List-I List-II
List-I List-II a) Books in print i) CSIR
a) Actand i) Weaver b) Indian science ii) R. R. Bowkel
Abstracts
b) Action ii) Cotton
c) Universities iii) NISCAIR
c) Actor iii) Machine
handbook
d) Tool iv) Spinning
d) Wealth of iv) Association of
Codes: Nation Indian Universities
a b c d Codes:
(A) i iii iv ii a B c d
(B) iii iv ii i (A) ii iii iv i
(C) ii iv i iii
(B) iii iv ii i
(D) iv iii i iv
(C) i ii iv iii
Answer: (C)
29. Match the following: (D) ii iv iii i
List-I List-II Answer: (A)

a) Shelf List i) Bibliographic 31. Match the following:
references List I List II
b) Display rack ii) Stock (i) atlas (w) homonym
verification (ii) pitch (x) acronym
c) New arrivals list iii) Promote use of (iii) bibliophily (y) eponym
Books (iv) laser (z) synonym

Codes: (B) (z) (y) (x) (w)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (C) (w) (y) (z) (x)
(A) (w) (x) (y) (z) (D) (y) (x) (w) (z)
(B) (z) (y) (x) (w) Answer: (B)
(C) (y) (w) (z) (x) 34. Arrange the following stages in
(D) (z) (x) (y) (w) research according to the sequence of their
occurrence:
Answer: (C)
(i) Theory
(ii) Axiom
List I List
II (iii) Law
(i) Chester Carlton (iv) Hypothesis
(w) e-Book Codes:
(ii) Brewstu Kahle (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(x) Xerox copier (B) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(iii) Michael S. Hart (C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(y) NDLTD
(D) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(iv) Edward Fox (z)
Answer: (C)
Internet Archive
35. Arrange the following according to the
Codes: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
year of their publication
(A) (x) (z) (w) (y)
(i) Colon Classification
(B) (z) (y) (x) (w)
(ii) Prolegomena to Library Classification
(C) (y) (w) (z) (x)
(iii) Five Laws of Library Science
(D) (w) (x) (y) (z)
(iv) Classified Catalogue Code
Answer: (A)
Codes:
(A) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
List I List II
(B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(i) Egypt (w) Library of
(C) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
Ashurbanipal
(D) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(ii) Turkey (x) Villa of Papyri
Answer: (C)
(iii) Italy (y) Library of
Pergamum 36. Match the following :
(iv) Iraq (z) Royal Library of A B
Alexandria (1) Protocol (a) Jawa
Codes: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) Language (b) Internet Explorer
(A) (z) (x) (y) (w) (3) Browser (c) Alta Vista

(4) Search Engine (d) HTTP Answer: (B)

Codes : 39. Assertion (A): Abstract is a concise
1234 representation of the content of the
document similar to that of original.
(A) (a) (c) (b) (d)
Reason (R): Abstract is a time saving
(B) (d) (a) (b) (c)
device.
(C) (c) (a) (d) (b)
Codes:
(D) (b) (a) (d) (c)
(A) (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer: (B)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false
(C) (R) is true but (R) is false
A B
(1) S.R. Ranganathan (a) Zero Based
Answer: (D)
Budgeting
40. Assertion (A): Cataloguing in
(2) L.R. McColvin (b) Critical Path
Publication Program (CIP) is initiated by
Method
Library of Congress.
(3) Peter Phyor (c) Three Card
Reason (R): It helps individual libraries in
System
copying down the data.
(4) Du Pont (d) Demand
Codes:
Theory
(A) (A) is false and (R) is true
Codes :
(B) (A) is true and (R) is false
1234
(A) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(B) (c) (d) (a) (b)
Answer: (C)
(C) (a) (b) (c) (d)
41. Assertion (A): Web has become a hub
(D) (b) (c) (d) (a)
for all activities of library users.
Answer: (B)
Reason (R): Web is being used as popular
38. Assertion (A): Information can be publishing media.
obtained from several sources other than
Codes:
libraries.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (A) is not
Reason (R): The scope of library science is
correct explanation.
narrower than information science.
(B)(A) is true and (R) is false
Codes:
(C) (A) is false and (R) is true
(A) (A) is false and (R) is true
(B) (A) is true and (R) is false
Answer: (A)
42. _________________ defines the
assigned ordering among the characters

used by the computer. Answer: c

a) Unicode Explanation: The packed numbers can be
b) Collating Sequence used for arithmetic operations. The packed
c) Accumulation numbers also require the lesser number of
d) Sorting bytes as compared to zoned numbers.
Answer: b 46. Which unit is responsible for
Explanation: Collating sequence is the term converting the data received from the user
used for ordering among characters. It may into a computer understandable format?
vary depending upon the type of code a) Memory Unit
used by a computer. b) Arithmetic & Logic Unit
43. The sorting sequence of the strings c) Input Unit
A1,23,1A will be ______________ d) Output Unit
a) 23 > A1 > 1A Answer: c
b) 23 < 1A > A1 Explanation: The Input Unit converts the
c) A1 > 1A > 23 data, which the user enters into a language
d) A1 < 1A < 23 which the computer understands, i.e. it
Answer: d converts the data into binary format. The
Explanation: The sorting order is A1, 1A, Output Unit is responsible for giving the
23. Numeric characters are given a greater results in user-understandable format. The
preference in EBCDIC as compared to the Storage Unit is responsible for storing the
alphabets. data after immediate results of processing
whereas; the ALU is responsible for various
44. The default character coding in HTML-5
arithmetic and bitwise operations.
is _____________
a) UTF-8 47. The only language which the computer
b) UTF-16 understands is ______________
c) UTF-4 a) Assembly Language
d) UTF-32 b) Binary Language
c) BASIC
Answer: a
d) C Language
Explanation: HTML5 which is the hypertext
markup language generally uses the UTF-8 Answer: b
format as its default encoding. Unicode Explanation: The Computer understands
covers all the characters and symbols in all only binary language which is written in
the different languages. the form of 0s & 1s. A computer can
understand assembly language but an
45. Numbers used in packed decimal
assembler is required which converts the
format can be used for _____________
assembly language to binary language.
operations.
Similarly, for understanding high level
a) logical
languages, compilers/interpreters are
b) relational
required.
c) arithmetic
d) bitwise

48. The smallest unit of data in computer is is the designated port address. All the
________________ other options are invalid.
a) Byte 51. The input machine which originated in
b) Nibble the United States around 1880s is a
c) Bit ___________
d) KB a) Mouse
Answer: c b) Joystick
Explanation: A bit is defined as the c) Keyboard
smallest unit of data in a computer system. d) Bar Code Reader
It is used as a short form of Binary Digit. A Answer: c
bit can have only two values 0 or 1. A Explanation: A keyboard is an input device
nibble comprises of 4 bits, a byte is a which originated in the 1880s and is used
collection of 8 bits whereas KB (Kilobyte) is to give instructions to the computer in the
equal to 1024 bytes. form of letters and numbers. Mouse is
49. One nibble is equivalent to how many used for the selection of various objects on
bits? the screen, joystick is mainly used for
a) 2 gaming purpose and bar code readers are
b) 4 used for reading the bar-codes.
c) 8 52. What does the COMPUTER stand for?
d) 1 a) Commonly Operated Machines Used in
Answer: b Technical and Educational Research
Explanation: A nibble is defined as a unit of b) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in
data which comprises of 4 binary digits or Technical and Educational Research
half of 8-bit byte. Therefore, 1 nibble = 4 c) Commonly Operated Machines Used in
bits. A bit is the smallest unit of data in a Technical and Environmental Research
computer system. A byte = 8 bits, d) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in
therefore, half of a byte=4 bits=a nibble. Technical and Educational Research
50. Which of the following describes the Answer: a
correct format of an input instruction? Explanation: The word COMPUTER is an
a) IN 82 abbreviation for the terms “Commonly
b) INPUT 82 Operated Machines Used in Technical and
c) INP 82 Educational Research”. The word
d) 82 INP COMPUTER also relates to the word
Answer: a COMPUTE which means to calculate. So,
Explanation: The input/output instructions initially it was thought that a computer is a
are used to transfer information between device which is used to perform
external peripherals and the CPU. The calculations.
correct format of an input instruction is: IN 53. 1 yottabyte = ______________
8-bit port address. a) 1024 TB
Here, IN 82 is the correct option, where 82 b) 1024 EB

c) 1024 ZB processed, and then how the result is

d) 1024 PB obtained.
Answer: c So here, the input unit is used to give
Explanation: 1 yottabyte is equal to 1024 instructions to the central processing unit
ZB, which stands for zettabyte. Further, 1 and the output unit is responsible for
ZB=1024 EB (exabyte) and and 1 giving the result to the user.
EB=1024PB (petabyte). 56. The process of producing useful
54. Which of the following is not a function information for the user is called
of the Input Unit? ___________
a) It reads instructions and data from the a) Controlling
outside world b) Outputting
b) It converts the data into computer c) Inputting
acceptable format d) Processing
c) It makes the data into user Answer: b
understandable format Explanation: The Output Unit is
d) It supplies the data and instructions to responsible for giving the results to the
the computer for further processing user in the form of a printed report or
Answer: c visual display. The process is referred to as
Explanation: The input unit converts the outputting. Controlling is nothing but the
data into computer understandable format manner and sequence in which the
i.e. binary format and not the user instructions are being operated. Inputting
understandable format. It is the duty of means giving instructions to the system
the output unit to make the data into user whereas, processing means performing
understandable format. certain operations and calculations.
55. Label the parts 1 and 2: 57. VDU stands for __________
a) Virtual Display Unit
b) Visual Display Unit
c) Virtual Detection Unit
d) Visual Detection Unit
Answer: b
Explanation: A Visual Display unit is also
referred to as the monitor who basically is
a) 1.ALU 2. MU used to give the results or outputs to the
b) 1.Output unit 2.Input Unit user. It comprises of a cathode ray tube
c) 1.MU 2. ALU internally.
d) 1.Input Unit 2.Output Unit 58. What does SVGA stand for?
Answer: d a) Standard Visual Graphics Array
Explanation: The above diagram is a simple b) Super Visual Graphics Array
explanation which describes how the c) Standard Video Graphics Array
instruction is given to the CPU, how it is d) Super Video Graphics Array

Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: Super Video Graphics Array is Explanation: The drum printers have a
a type of Visual Display Unit.It supports solid cylindrical drum with characters
1024 by 768 pixels with 16 million different embossed on its surface in the form of
operations. circular bands. It can only print a
59. The devices that used to give single or predefined set of characters.
multiple colored images and drawings are 62. A ___________________ monitor looks
____________ like a television and are normally used
a) Monitors with non-portable computer systems.
b) Printers a) CRT
c) Plotters b) LCD
d) VDUs c) LED
Answer: c d) Flat Panel Monitors
Explanation: Plotters are the devices which Answer: a
are used to give colored images. They use Explanation: A CRT (or the Cathode Ray
ink pens or ink jets for drawing. Pens of Tube) Monitor looks like a television
different colors and shades are used for ideally. The flat panel monitors are thinner
shading and styling. and lighter in comparison.
60. A special request originated from some 63. Which of the following is not a function
device to the CPU to acquire some of its of the Output Unit?
time is called ___________ a) It produces results that can be easily
a) Disturbance understood by the user
b) Attenuation b) It accepts the results produced by the
c) Interrupt computer
d) Noise c) It supplies the data and instructions to
Answer: c the outside world
Explanation: An interrupt is a kind of d) It supplies the data and instructions to
request which takes control of the system the computer for further processing
bus for some time, then performs all the Answer: d
operations and gives back control to the Explanation: The output unit is responsible
CPU. It is usually identified by some for giving the results to the user in the
number and is handled by the interrupt form of a printed report or visual display. It
controller. is not responsible for giving the
61. Line Printers that print one line at a instructions back to the CPU for
time are _________ processing.
a) Laser Printers 64. PCI stands for _________
b) Inkjet Printers a) Peripheral Component Interconnect
c) Drum Printers b) Partial Component Interconnect
d) Chain Printers c) Peripheral Component Interaction
d) Partial Component Interaction

Answer: a
Explanation: PCI is a high-bandwidth bus
that can function as a peripheral bus.
Compared with others, it delivers better
system performance.
65. Components that provide internal
storage to the CPU are ______
a) Registers
b) Program Counters
c) Controllers
d) Internal chips a) Primary and major
b) Primary and Secondary
Answer: a c) Minor and Major
Explanation: The Registers are the fast d) Main and virtual
storage units. They are responsible for
Answer: b
storing intermediate computational results
in the CPU. The registers can be user Explanation: There are two types of
memories in a computer system: The
accessible or inaccessible.
Primary Memory and the Secondary
66. Saving data and instructions to make Memory.
them readily available is the job of The primary memory can be directly
__________ accessed by the CPU whereas the
a) Storage Unit secondary memory cannot be directly
b) Cache Unit accessed.
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit 68. Which of the following is used to hold
running program instructions?
Answer: a a) Primary Storage
Explanation: The storage unit is b) Virtual Storage
responsible for storing the data. It makes c) Internal Storage
the instructions readily available for d) Minor Devices
additional or initial processing whenever
required. The cache is a software Answer: a
Explanation: The primary storage is
component that stores data to serve the
responsible for holding the data,
data requests in future. It can contain the
result of some earlier computations. intermediate results and the results of
ongoing processes or jobs. Virtual storage
67. The two basic types of memory in a is the main memory storage required for
computer are ________ saving a large amount of data for future
reference. The other options are invalid.
69. Which of the following is non-volatile
storage?
a) Backup
b) Secondary

c) Primary When only a small number of ROMs with a

d) Cache particular memory content is needed,
Answer: b PROM is used and in case of EPROM, all
Explanation: The secondary storage is the the contents of the storage cells must be
non-volatile storage unit because the data erased before the write operation.
is not lost when the power supply is 72. RAID stands for __________
dissipated. Primary memory is the volatile a) Redundant array of independent disks
memory. b) Redundant array of individual disks
70. Which of the following is used in main c) Reusable Array of independent disks
memory? d) Reusable array of individual disks
a) SRAM Answer: a
b) DRAM Explanation: RAID is a multiple-disk
c) PRAM database design which is viewed as a
d) DDR single logical disk by the operating system.
Answer: b Data are distributed across the physical
Explanation: DRAM stands for dynamic drives of the array. It guarantees the
random access memory. It is denser than recovery of data in case of data failure.
SDRAM (Static) and therefore it is used in 73. A non-erasable disk that stores
the main memory. They are in the form of digitized audio information is _____
semiconductor RAMs. a) CD
71. Which of the following are types of b) CD-ROM
ROMs? c) DVD-R
a) SROM & DROM d) DVD-RW
b) PROM & EPROM Answer: a
c) Only one type there is no further Explanation: A compact disk stores
classification digitized audio information. The standard
d) PROM & EROM system uses 12 cm disks and can record
Answer: b more than 60 minutes of uninterrupted
Explanation: There are four types of Read playing game.
Only Memories: MROM, PROM, EPROM, 74. The first practical form of Random
and EEPROM. Access Memory was the __________
 MROM stands for Mask ROM a) SSEM
b) Cathode Ray Tube
 PROM stands for Programmable
c) William’s Tube
ROM
d) Thomas’s Tube
 EPROM stands for Erasable
Answer: c
Programmable ROM
Explanation: The first practical form of
 EEPROM stands for Electrically RAM was William’s Tube made in 1947. It
Erasable Programmable ROM stored data as electrically charged spots on
the face of a Cathode Ray Tube.

75. Which of the following describes an (b) Semantic errors

excess of power that could result in a (c) Syntax errors
voltage surge?
(a) Anomaly
(e) None of the above
(b) Shock
Answer: (c)
(c) Spike
Explanation: Syntax errors are the kind of
(d) Virus errors that the compiler can flag.
(e) Splash A syntax error in computer science refers
Answer: (c) to a mistake in the order of characters or
tokens that are meant to be written in a
Explanation: Lightning, static electricity,
specific programming language.
magnetic forces, and internal variations in
voltage consumption can all result in 78. What kind of thing is a daisy wheel?
voltage spikes and surges. The use of a (a) Printer
surge protector is the greatest technique (b) Storage device
to safeguard your electronic devices.
(c) Pointing device
76. The magnetic strip is found at which
location?
(e) None of the above
(a) Speakers
Answer: Option (e)
(b) Credit card
Explanation: At Diablo Data Systems,
(c) Smart card
Andrew Gabor created the impact printing
(d) All of the above process known as daisy wheel printing in
(e) None of the above 1970. It produces high-quality output
Answer: (b) equivalent to luxury typewriters like the
IBM Selectric but two to three times faster
Explanation: Currently used magnetic
using replaceable pre-formed type
stripe card types include identification
components, each with generally 96
cards for employees, credit cards, hotel
glyphs.
rooms, gift cards, and public
transportation. 79. A tool for altering the configuration of
A magnetic strip on which data may be a connector’s connection is:
encoded or decoded using an (a) a converter
electromagnetic method for automatic (b) a component
reading, decoding, or recognition by a
(c) an attachment
machine that recognizes magnetic
fluctuations on the strip. (d) an adapter
77. The compiler can identify the following (e) Voltmeter
mistakes: Answer: Option (d)
(a) Logical errors

Explanation: An adapter is a tool used to Answer: Option (b)

switch the configuration of a connector’s Explanation: The fundamental language of
connection. computers is machine code, which is also
80. Which one of the following qualifies as referred to as machine language. It is made
secondary memory? of digital binary integers, is read by the
(a) Disk central processing unit (CPU) of the
computer, and appears to be a very long
(b) Keyboard
string of zeros and ones.
(c) ALU
83. Which of the following storage units is
(d) All of the above highest in capacity?
(e) None of the above (a) KB
Answer: (a) (b) GB
Explanation: In secondary memory, data (c) MB
and programs are permanently preserved.
(d) TB
The two most typical types of secondary
storage media are hard discs and floppy (e) None of these
discs. The hard drive’s storage capacity is Answer: Option (d)
enormous when compared to the system’s Explanation: Gigabytes are smaller than
main memory. terabytes. A megabyte is comparable to
81. Travel agents use the following 1,024 kilobytes, while a terabyte is 1,024
computer system while booking flights? gigabytes (GB).
(a) Supercomputer 84. Registers that are used to hold
(b) Mainframe computer conditional and are only partially visible to
users are known as:
(c) Personal computer
(a) PC
(b) General purpose register
(e) None of these
(c) Memory address registers
Answer: Option (c)
(d) Flags
Explanation: Travel agents use personal
computers since they understand machine (e) None of these
languages. Answer: Option (b)
82. The name of the language that a Explanation: General purpose registers are
computer can comprehend and use is: extra registers that are present in the CPU
(a) Application software and are utilized as needed for data or
memory addresses. For instance, if there is
(b) Machine language
a break, storing the content of the current
(c) System program register.
(d) All of the above 85. Magnetic tapes are suitable for use as a
(e) None of the above storage material for?

(a) backup and low volume data (d) battery strip

(b) storing original but low-volume data (e) None of the above
(c) storing original but high-volume data Answer: (c)
(d) backup and high-volume data Explanation: When incoming power is
(e) None of the above interrupted, a computer can continue to
function for at least a short while thanks to
Answer: Option d
an uninterruptible power supply (UPS).
Explanation: One of the first methods for
88. The phrase “hard copy” refers to…?
storing electronic data is magnetic tape.
Although tape has mostly been replaced by (a) Printed output
other storage methods as a primary and (b) Writing on a hard board
backup storage option, due to its great (c) Storing information on the hard disk
capacity, low cost, and extended
durability, the tape is still a good choice for
archiving. (e) None of these
86. A plastic card with inbuilt memory and Answer: (a)
a microprocessor that resembles a credit Explanation: Teleprinter pages,
card is: continuously printed cassettes, computer
(a) Chip card printouts, and radio photo prints are a few
examples of hard copies. On the other
(b) Card punch
hand, according to 1037C, tangible items
(c) Magnetic tape like magnetic tapes, floppy discs, or
(d) Punched paper tape punched paper tapes without printed
(e) None of these images are not considered hard copies.
Answer: Option (d) 89. What function does booting perform
when the computer is switched on:
Explanation: A long strip of paper with
holes punched through it is what makes up (a) Integrity Test
punched tape, also known as perforated (b) Power-On-Self-Test
paper tape, which is a type of data storage. (c) Correct Functioning Test
It evolved from punched cards and later
(d) Reliability Test
coexisted with them, but differs in that the
tape is continuous. (e) Shut-down
87. In the event of a power outage, a Answer: (b)
_________ gives your computer battery Explanation: The fundamental
backup power in addition to surge input/output system (or “starting
protection. software”) of a computer executes a
(a) surge strip diagnostic testing procedure known as
POST (Power-On Self-Test) when the
(b) USB
power is turned on to check the
(c) UPS functionality of the computer’s keyboard,

random access memory, disc drives, and (e) None of the above
other hardware. Answer: Option (b)
90. What type of storage can’t be deleted? Explanation: Memory is a temporary
(a) A CD-ROM storage device and storage is a permanent
(b) Magnetic tape storage storage device.
(c) A floppy disk 93. A USB communication device is
referred to as a _________ if it offers data
encryption for a safe wireless connection
(e) None of the above for laptop users.
Answer: (a) (a) USB wireless network adapter
Explanation: A pre-pressed optical (b) wireless switch
compact disc that contains data is known
(c) wireless hub
as a CD-ROM. The term is an acronym for
Compact Disc Read-Only Memory, a kind (d) router
of flash memory. Data stored in CD-ROMs (e) None of these
can be read by computers, but cannot be Answer: Option (a)
deleted.
Explanation: Even if your device lacks a
91. Word 2007 files have the file extension wireless network card, you can still
: connect wirelessly to networks via a USB
(a) .gif adapter. Once you’ve bought a USB
(b) .txt adapter, you’ll need to check to see if it
instantly connects to a wireless network.
(c) .docx
The user guide contains information about
(d) .exe this.
(e) None of these 94. What is seek time?
Answer: (c) (a) time to position the head over the
Explanation: A .docx file is a text document proper cylinder
created in Microsoft Word. The format (b) time to position the head over the
evolved into a new standard for text proper sector
documents with the introduction of Word
(c) time to position the head over the
version 2007.
proper track
92. Memory and storage are different in
(d) Disk drive to locate information on disk
that memory is _______ and storage is
______ . (e) None of the above
(a) Slow, fast Answer: (d)
(b) Temporary, Permanent Explanation: The amount of time needed
for a hard disc controller to find a
(c) Permanent, Temporary
particular piece of stored data is known as
(d) All of the above the seek time. Other delays include

rotational delay and transfer time (data d. Abstraction

rate) (latency). The read/write head of the Answer: c. Exception
disc must be in the proper position before
98. Which feature of OOPS described the
anything can be read from or written to it
reusability of code?
in a disc drive.
a. Abstraction
95. Which of the following language was
developed as the first purely object b. Encapsulation
programming language? c. Polymorphism
a. SmallTalk d. Inheritance
b. C++ Answer: d. Inheritance
c. Kotlin Explanation: Inheritance is the feature of
d. Java OOPS, which allows the users of OOPS to
reuse the code which is already written.
Answer: a. SmallTalk
This OOPS feature inherits the features of
Explanation: This programming language another class in the programs. This
was invented as the first pure OOPS mechanism actually inherits the fields and
(object-oriented) language. This language methods of the superclass.
was designed by Alan Kay in the early
99. Which of the following language
1970s.
supports polymorphism but not the
96. Who developed object-oriented classes?
programming?
a. C++ programming language
a. Adele Goldberg
b. Java programming language
b. Dennis Ritchie
c. Ada programming language
c. Alan Kay
d. C# programming language
d. Andrea Ferro
Answer: c. Ada programming language
Answer: c. Alan Kay
Explanation: It is a programming language
Explanation: In the year 1970, Alan Kay that disapproves of the concept of
gave Object-Oriented programming. He polymorphism but supports the concept of
coined the concept of OOPS at a grad classes. It is an object-based language. So,
school in the year 1966 or 1967. Alan kay, it does not follow the Object-oriented
Adele Goldberg, Dan Ingalls and others programming concepts.
developed the first Smalltalk programming
100. Which among the following feature is
language, which follows the OOPS concept.
not in the general definition of OOPS?
97. Which of the following is not an OOPS
a. Modularity
concept?
b. Efficient Code
a. Encapsulation
c. Code reusability
b. Polymorphism
d. Duplicate or Redundant Data
c. Exception
Answer: d. Duplicate or Redundant Data
Explanation: Duplicacy or Redundancy of d. Any number

data is a feature which totally dependent Answer: d
on the programmers. So, it cannot be
Explanation: We can define any number of
created by the OOPS.
classes with different names in a single
101. Which feature of OOPS derives the program of OOPS.
class from another class?
104. Which operator from the following
a. Inheritance can be used to illustrate the feature of
b. Data hiding polymorphism?
c. Encapsulation a. Overloading <<
d. Polymorphism b. Overloading &&
Answer: a. Inheritance c. Overloading | |
Explanation: Inheritance is an important d. Overloading +=
OOPS feature which derives the class from Answer: a. Overloading <<
the base class or superclass. This OOPS
Explanation: << is an insertion operator
feature inherits the features of another
which is used for overloading
class in the programs. This mechanism
(polymorphism).
actually inherits the fields and methods of
the superclass. 105. Which two features of object-oriented
programming are the same?
102. Define the programming language,
which does not support all four types of a. Abstraction and Polymorphism
inheritance? features are the same
a. Smalltalk b. Inheritance and Encapsulation
features are the same
b. Kotlin
c. Encapsulation and Polymorphism
c. Java
features are the same
d. C++
d. Encapsulation and Abstraction
Answer: c. Java
Answer: d. Encapsulation and Abstraction
Explanation: Java is a programming
Explanation: Encapsulation and
language that disapproves of the concept
Abstraction are the same OOPS concepts.
of 'multiple inheritance'. So, it does not
Encapsulation hides the features of the
agree with all types of inheritance. But, we
object and binds all the properties inside a
can implement 'multiple inheritance' in
single class. And abstraction is a feature
Java language using the interface concept.
that shows the required data to the user.
103. A single program of OOPS contains
106. Which header file is required by the
_______ classes?
C++ programming language to use the
a. Only 1 OOPS concept?
b. Only 999 a. stdio.h
c. Only 100 b. iostream.h

c. stdlib.h 110. Which software is used to manage

d. We can easily use the OOPS and control the hardware components and
concepts in c++ programs without using allows interaction between the hardware
any header file. and the other different types of software?
Answer: d (a) Application software
Explanation: There is no need to use any (b) System software
particular header file for using the OOPS (c) Utility software
concept in the C++ programs. The C++ (d) Operating system
functions and variables have their
Answer: (b)
respective header files, which should be
defined in the program. 111. Which of the following is the part of
system software?
107. Which of the following instructs the
computer hardware, what to do and how (a) Operating system
to do it? (b) Utility software
(a) Hardware (c) Browser software
(b) Operating system (d) both a and b
(c) Software Answer: (d)
(d) Device driver 112. The main function of computer
Answer: (c) software is to turn data into
108. A set of computer programs used on a (a) information
computer to perform different tasks is (b) program
called (c) object
(a) computer instructions (d) both a and c
(b) processor Answer: (a)
(c) software 113. A computer program that functions as
(d) hardware an intermediary between a computer user
Answer: (c), Software helps to transform and the computer hardware is called
one interface into another interface. (a) software
109. Which of the following is not a type of (b) hardware
software? (c) operating system.
(a) System software (d) driver
(b) Application software Answer: (c), An operating system is a
(c) Utility software primary component of the system
(d) Driver software software in a computer device. Application
programs usually require an operating
Answer: (d), Software is generally
system to perform tasks.
classified into System software,
Application software, and Utility software.
114. One or more defects occurring in the (c) Application software

computer software that prevents the (d) Helper software
software from working is called
Answer: (c), Application software provides
(a) bot the environment to enable users to
(b) system error accomplish specific or general tasks. Each
(c) bug computer can have more than one
application software.
(d) slug
119. Which of the following is not a kind of
Answer: (c)
system software?
115. Bug means
(a) BIOS software
(a) logical errors in the program
(b) Unix, Linux
(b) syntax error in the program
(c) Microsoft Windows, and Mac OS
(c) runtime error
(d) Microsoft Word
Answer: (d)
Answer: (a)
120. Which of the following is not
116. A mistake in an algorithm that application software?
generates incorrect results or output is
(a) MS-Word
called
(b) Google Docs
(a) logical error
(c) Adobe Acrobat
(b) syntax error
(d) Turbo C compiler
(c) compile-time error
Answer: (d)
(d) procedural error
121. Choose the odd one out.
Answer: (a)
(a) Interpreter
117. The process of finding
errors/defects/bugs in the software (b) Compiler
program is called (c) Interpreter
(a) Debugging (d) Operating system
(b) Interpreting (e) Programmer
(c) Compiling Answer: (e)
(d) Testing 122. Application software is developed to
Answer: (d) accomplish
118. Software programs developed for (a) real-world tasks
performing particular tasks related to (b) operating system tasks
managing computer resources is called (c) computer-centric tasks
(a) System software (d) All of the above
(b) Utility software Answer: (a)

123. Which of the following are known as Answer: (d)

office-oriented application software? 128. Which application software is used to
(a) Interpreters, Compilers, editors perform calculations on rows and columns
(b) Network software, backup system of data?
(c) Word processors, spreadsheets, (a) Word processing
database (b) Presentation graphics
(d) Both a and c (c) Database
Answer: (c) (d) Spreadsheet
124. What is the full form of GUI? Answer: (d)
(a) Graphical Universal Interface 129. Which of the following is also known
(b) Graphical User Interface as presentation software that is used to
give presentation of information and
(c) General Utility Interface
pictures through slideshows?
(d) General Universal Interface
(a) Multimedia authoring
Answer: (b)
(b) Desktop publishing
125. Which among the following
(c) Presentation graphics
application software can be used to create,
edit, and print documents? (d) Both b and c
(a) Spreadsheet Answer: (c)
(b) Word processing 130. Which of the following are examples
of presentation graphics software?
(c) Database software
(a) Microsoft PowerPoint
(d) Desktop publishing (DTP)
(b) Apple Keynote
Answer: (b)
(c) Corel Presentations and Adobe
126. Which of the following is not a kind of
Persuasion
application software?
(d) All of these
(a) Word processor
Answer: (d)
(b) Database
131. Which among the following is
(c) Browser
database software that allows us to create
(d) Device driver and manage a database?
Answer: (d) (a) Microsoft Access
127. Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel, and (b) Corel Paradox
Google Docs are the examples of
(c) Lotus Approach
(a) an operating software
(d) All of these
(b) system software
Answer: (d)
(c) utility software
132. Which utility software helps to
(d) application software protect the computer system from viruses

and prevent the computer system files (d) Vital Information Resources Under
from being corrupt? Search
(a) Disk cleanup Answer: (c)
(b) Disk defragmenter 137. A computer virus that attacks an
(c) Antivirus antivirus program to prevent detection of
the virus in the computer system is
(d) All
(a) Worm
Answer: (c)
(b) Retrovirus
133. Which among the following is not a
type of utility system software? (c) Trojan
(a) Antivirus (d) Ghost virus
(b) Firewalls Answer: (b)
(c) Disk defragmenter 138. Which utility software or program is
used to reduce the size of files to increase
(d) MS-DOS
the amount of disk space in the computer
Answer: (d) system?
134. Which utility software is used to (a) Disk cleanup
protect the computer system from
(b) File compression
hackers?
(c) Disk fragmentation
(a) Antivirus
(d) Troubleshooting program
(b) Firewall
Answer: (b)
(c) AUP
139. Which of the following Windows
(d) Backup wizard
utilities scans the entire hard drive and
Answer: (b) erase (or delete) any unnecessary files
135. What are the main functions of such as temporary files from the Internet,
system utility? and cookies downloaded while visiting
(a) Disk cleanup webpages?
(b) Disk defragmentation (a) Disk defragmenter
(c) System Restore and Disk compression (b) Disk cleanup
(d) Antivirus (Virus protection) (c) Backup and Restore wizard
(e) All of the above (d) All of the above
Answer: (e) Answer: (b)
136. What is the full form of a Virus? 140. In which of the following, a person is
constantly followed/chased by another
(a) Very Information Record User Search
person or group of several peoples?
(b) Very Interchanged Result Until Source
a. Phishing
(c) Vital Information Resources Under
b. Bulling
Siege

c. Stalking d. All of the above

d. Identity theft Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: It is a type of unsolicited
Explanation: In general, Stalking refers to email which is generally sent in bulk to an
continuous surveillance on the target (or indiscriminate recipient list for commercial
person) done by a group of people or by purpose. Generally, these types of mail are
the individual person. considered unwanted because most users
don't want these emails at all.
Cyber Stalking is a type of cybercrime in
which a person (or victim) is being 143. Which of the following usually
followed continuously by another person observe each activity on the internet of the
or group of several people through victim, gather all information in the
electronic means to harass the victim. We background, and send it to someone else?
can also say that the primary goal a. Malware
of Stalking is to observe or monitor each b. Spyware
victim's actions to get the essential
c. Adware
information that can be further used for
threatening, harassing, etc. d. All of the above
141. Which one of the following can be Answer: b
considered as the class of computer Explanation: It is generally defined as the
threats? software designed to enter the target's
a. Dos Attack device or computer system, gather all
information, observe all user activities, and
b. Phishing
send this information to a third party.
c. Soliciting Another important thing about the
d. Both A and C spyware is that it works in the background
Answer: a sends all information without your
permission.
Explanation: A dos attack refers to the
denial of service attack. It is a kind of cyber 144. _______ is a type of software
attack in which one tries to make a designed to help the user's computer
machine (or targeted application, website detect viruses and avoid them.
etc.) unavailable for its intended users. It is a. Malware
usually accomplished by disturbing the b. Adware
service temporarily or indefinitely of the
c. Antivirus
target connected to the internet.
d. Both B and C
142. Which of the following is considered
as the unsolicited commercial email? Answer: c
a. Virus Explanation: An antivirus is a kind of
software that is specially designed to help
b. Malware
the user's computer to detect the virus as
c. Spam well as to avoid the harmful effect of

them. In some cases where the virus packet, it immediately burns or terminates
already resides in the user's computer, it that data packet. In short, we can also say
can be easily removed by scanning the that it is the first line of defense of the
entire system with antivirus help. system to avoid several kinds of viruses.
145. Which one of the following is a type 147. Which of the following refers to
of antivirus program? stealing one's idea or invention of others
a. Quick heal and use it for their own benefits?
b. Mcafee a. Piracy
c. Kaspersky b. Plagiarism
d. All of the above c. Intellectual property rights
Answer: d d. All of the above
Explanation: Antivirus is a kind of software Answer: d
program that helps to detect and remove Explanation: The stealing ideas or the
viruses form the user's computer and invention of others and using them for
provides a safe environment for users to their own profits can also be defined in
work on. There are several kinds of several different ways, such as piracy,
antivirus software are available in the intellectual property rights, and plagiarism.
market, such as Kaspersky, Mcafee, Quick 148. In ethical hacking and cyber security,
Heal, Norton etc., so the correct answer is there are _______ types of scanning:
D.
a. 1
146. It can be a software program or a
b. 2
hardware device that filters all data
packets coming through the internet, a c. 3
network, etc. it is known as the_______: d. 4
a. Antivirus Answer: c
b. Firewall Explanation: There are usually three types
c. Cookies of scanning in ethical hacking and cyber
security. Therefore the correct answer is C.
d. Malware
149. In system hacking, which of the
Answer: b
following is the most crucial activity?
Explanation: There are two types of
a. Information gathering
firewalls - software programs and
hardware-based firewalls. These types of b. Covering tracks
firewalls filter each and every data packet c. Cracking passwords
coming from the outside environment such d. None of the above
as network; internet so that any kind of
Answer: c
virus would not be able to enter in the
user's system. In some cases where the Explanation: While trying to hack a system,
firewall detects any suspicious data the most important thing is cracking the
passwords.
150. Which of the following are the types form unknown sources. We can also
of scanning? consider it the first line of defense of the
a. Network, vulnerability, and port computer system.
scanning 153. Code Red is a type of ________
b. Port, network, and services a. An Antivirus Program
c. Client, Server, and network b. A photo editing software
d. None of the above c. A computer virus
Answer: a d. A video editing software
Explanation: The vulnerability, port, and Answer: c
network scanning are three types of Explanation: Cod Red is a type of Computer
scanning. virus that was first discovered on 15 July in
151. Which one of the following is actually 2001 as it attacks the servers of Microsoft.
considered as the first computer virus? In a couple of next days, it infects almost
a. Sasser 300,000 servers.
b. Blaster 154. Which of the following can be
considered as the elements of cyber
c. Creeper
security?
d. Both A and C
a. Application Security
Answer: c
b. Operational Security
Explanation: The Creeper is called the first
c. Network Security
computer virus as it replicates itself (or
clones itself) and spread from one system d. All of the above
to another. It is created by Bob Thomas at Answer: d
BBN in early 1971 as an experimental Explanation: Application security,
computer program. operational security, network security all
152. To protect the computer system are the main and unforgettable elements
against the hacker and different kind of of Cyber Security. Therefore the correct
viruses, one must always keep _________ answer is D.
on in the computer system. 155. Which of the following are famous
a. Antivirus and common cyber-attacks used by
b. Firewall hackers to infiltrate the user's system?
c. Vlc player a. DDos and Derive-by Downloads
d. Script b. Malware & Malvertising
Answer: b c. Phishing and Password attacks
Explanation: It is essential to always keep d. All of the above
the firewall on in our computer system. It Answer: d
saves the computer system against Explanation: DDoS (or denial of service),
hackers, viruses, and installing software malware, drive-by downloads, phishing
and password attacks are all some c. WPS

common and famous types of cyber- d. Both A and C
attacks used by hackers.
Answer: b
156. Which one of the following is also
Explanation: Nowadays, in Wi-Fi Security,
referred to as malicious software?
the WPA2 is one of the most widely used
a. Maliciousware protocols because it offers a more secure
b. Badware connection rather than the WPA. It is also
c. Ilegalware known as the upgraded version of the
WPA protocol.
d. Malware
159. The term "TCP/IP" stands for_____
Answer: d
a. Transmission Contribution protocol/
Explanation: Malware is a kind of short
internet protocol
program used by the hacker to gain access
to sensitive data/ information. It is used to b. Transmission Control Protocol/
denote many kinds of viruses, worms, internet protocol
Trojans, and several other harmful c. Transaction Control protocol/
programs. Sometimes malware is also internet protocol
known as malicious software. d. Transmission Control Protocol/
157. Hackers usually used the computer internet protocol
virus for ______ purpose. Answer: b
a. To log, monitor each and every Explanation: The term "TCP/IP" stood for
user's stroke Transmission Control Protocol/ internet
b. To gain access the sensitive protocol and was developed by the US
information like user's Id and Passwords government in the early days of the
c. To corrupt the user's data stored in internet.
the computer system 160. The response time and transit time is
d. All of the above used to measure the ____________ of a
network.
Answer: d
a. Security
Explanation: In general, hackers use
computer viruses to perform several b. Longevity
different tasks such as to corrupt the user's c. Reliability
data stored in his system, to gain access d. Performance
the important information, to monitor or
Answer: d
log each user's strokes. Therefore the
correct answer is D. Explanation: On the basis of response time
and transit time, the performance of a
158. In Wi-Fi Security, which of the
network is measured.
following protocol is more used?
161. Which of the following factor of the
a. WPA
network gets hugely impacted when the
b. WPA2
number of users exceeds the network's that filters each and every data packet
limit? coming from the network, internet. It can
a. Reliability also be considered as a device installed at
the boundary of an incorporate to protect
b. Performance
form unauthorized access. Sometimes
c. Security firewall also refers to the first line of
d. Longevity defense against viruses, unauthorized
Answer: d access, malicious software etc.
Explanation: When the numbers of users 164. When was the first computer virus
on a network get increased and exceed the created?
network's limit, therefore the performance a. 1970
is one of the factors of the network that is b. 1971
hugely impacted by it.
c. 1972
162. In the computer networks, the
d. 1969
encryption techniques are primarily used
for improving the ________ Answer: b
a. Security Explanation: In 1970, the world's first
computer virus was created by Robert
b. Performance
(Bob) Thomas. This virus was designed as it
c. Reliability creates copies of itself or clones itself and
d. Longevity spreads one computer to another. So the
Answer: a correct answer will be 1970.
Explanation: Encryption techniques are 165. Which of the following is considered
usually used to improve the security of the as the world's first antivirus program?
network. So the correct answer will be A. a. Creeper
163. Which of the following statements is b. Reaper
correct about the firewall? c. Tinkered
a. It is a device installed at the d. Ray Tomlinson
boundary of a company to prevent
Answer: b
unauthorized physical access.
Explanation: Reaper is considered as the
b. It is a device installed at the
world's first antivirus program or software
boundary of an incorporate to protect it
as it can detect the copies of a Creeper (the
against the unauthorized access.
world's first man-made computer virus)
c. It is a kind of wall built to prevent and could delete it as well.
files form damaging the corporate.
166. Which one of the following principles
d. None of the above. of cyber security refers that the security
Answer: b mechanism must be as small and simple as
Explanation: A firewall can be the type of possible?
either a software or the hardware device a. Open-Design

b. Economy of the Mechanism Explanation: The example given in the

c. Least privilege above question refers to the least
privileges principle of cyber security. The
d. Fail-safe Defaults
least privileges principle of cyber security
Answer: b states that no rights, access to the system
Explanation: Economy of the mechanism should be given to any of the employees of
states that the security mechanism must the organization unless he/she needs
need to be simple and small as possible. those particular rights, access in order to
167. Which of the following principle of complete the given task. In short, we can
cyber security restricts how privileges are say that its primary work is to restrict or
initiated whenever any object or subject is control the assignment of rights to the
created? employees.
a. Least privilege 169. Which of the following can also
b. Open-Design consider as the instances of Open Design?
c. Fail-safe Defaults a. CSS

b. DVD Player
d. None of the above
Answer: c c. Only A
d. Both A and B
Explanation: The fail-safe Defaults
principle of cyber security restricts how Answer: d
privileges are initiated whenever a subject Explanation: The Open Design is a kind of
or object is created. In cases where the open design artifact whose documentation
privileges, rights, access or some other is publically available, which means
security-related attribute is not granted anyone can use it, study, modify,
explicitly, it should also not granted access distribute, and make the prototypes.
to the object. However, the CSS (or Content Scrambling
168. Suppose an employee demands the System) and DVD Player are both examples
root access to a UNIX system, where you of open design.
are the administrator; that right or access 170. Which one of the following principles
should not be given to the employee states that sometimes it is become more
unless that employee has work that desirable to rescored the details of
requires certain rights, privileges. It can be intrusion that to adopt more efficient
considered as a perfect example of which measure to avoid it?
principle of cyber security? a. Least common mechanism
a. Least privileges b. Compromise recording
b. Open Design c. Psychological acceptability
c. Separation of Privileges d. Work factor
d. Both A & C Answer: b
Answer: a

Explanation: The principle called Explanation: In terms of Email Security,

compromise factor states that in some phishing is one of the standard methods
cases, it is more beneficial to records or that are used by Hackers to gain access to
document the details of the intrusion that a network. The Email Security Tools can
to adopt more efficient measures to avoid handle several types of attacks, such as the
it. incoming attacks, and protect the
171. The web application like banking outbound messages containing sensitive
websites should ask its users to log-in data/information as well.
again after some specific period of time, 173. Which of the following statements is
let say 30 min. It can be considered as an true about the VPN in Network security?
example of which cybersecurity principle? a. It is a type of device that helps to
a. Compromise recording ensure that communication between a
b. Psychological acceptability device and a network is secure.
c. Complete mediation b. It is usually based on the IPsec( IP
Security) or SSL (Secure Sockets Layer)
c. It typically creates a secure,
Answer: c
encrypted virtual "tunnel" over the open
Explanation: The complete mediation internet
principle of cybersecurity requires that all
d. All of the above
the access must be checked to ensure that
they are genuinely allowed. However, the Answer: d
example given in the above question can Explanation: The term VPN stands for
be considered as an example of Complete Virtual Private Network. It is a type of
Mediation. network security-enhancing tool that can
172. Which one of the following be either a software program or a
statements is correct about Email security hardware device. It usually authenticates
in the network security methods? the communication between a device and
a network by creating a secure encrypted
a. One has to deploy hardware,
virtual "tunnel". In general, the software
software, and security procedures to lock
VPNs are considered as the most cost-
those apps down.
effective, user friendly over the hardware
b. One should know about what the VPNs.
normal behavior of a network look likes so
174. Which of the following type of text is
that he/she can spot any changes,
transformed with the help of a cipher
breaches in the behavior of the network.
algorithm?
c. Phishing is one of the most
a. Transformed text
commonly used methods that are used by
hackers to gain access to the network b. Complex text
d. All of the above c. Scalar text
Answer: c d. Plain text
Answer: d
Explanation: The cipher algorithm is used 177. Which of the following isn’t a type of
to create an encrypted message by taking transmission mode?
the input as understandable text or "plain a) physical
text" and obtains unreadable or "cipher b) simplex
text" as output. It is usually used to protect c) full duplex
the information while transferring one d) half duplex
place to another place. Answer: a
175. The term "CHAP" stands for Explanation: There are three modes of
__________ transmission: simplex, half duplex and full
a. Circuit Hardware Authentication duplex. Transmission modes tell the
Protocols direction of signal flow between two
devices.
b. Challenge Hardware Authentication
Protocols 178. A transmission that generally involves
dedicated circuits.
c. Challenge Handshake Authentication
a) simplex
Protocols
b) half duplex
d. Circuit Handshake Authentication c) full duplex
Protocols d) semi-duplex
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: The term "CHAP" stands for Explanation: The answer is simplex.
the Challenge Handshake Authentication Simplex generally involves dedicated
Protocols. In computer networks, it can be circuits. TV broadcasting is an example.
defined as an authentication scheme that 179. A transmission mode that can
avoids the transfer of unencrypted transmit data in both the directions but
passwords over the network. The "CHAP" transmits in only one direction at a time.
is one of the many authentication schemes a) simplex
used by the Point To Point Protocol (PPP), b) half duplex
which is a serial transmission protocol for c) full duplex
wide networks Connections (WAN). d) semi-duplex
176. A term that defines the direction of Answer: b
flow of information between devices. Explanation: The half duplex mode
a) interconnectivity supports two way traffic but only in one
b) intra connectivity direction at a time. The interactive
c) transmission mode transmission of data within a time sharing
d) transmission system may be best suited to half-duplex
Answer: c lines.
Explanation: The term transmission mode 180. A communication between a
defines the direction of flow of computer and a keyboard involves
information between two communication ____________ duplex transmission.
devices. It tells the direction of signal flow. a) simplex

b) half duplex which varies in amplitude, phase or some

c) full duplex other property.
d) semi-duplex 184. A walkie-talkie operates in
Answer: a ____________
Explanation: It involves simplex duplex a) simplex
transmission. Another example of a b) half duplex
simplex duplex transmission is c) full duplex
loudspeaker system. d) semi-duplex
181. Telephone networks operate in this Answer: b
mode. Explanation: A walkie-talkie operates in
a) simplex half duplex mode. It can only send or
b) half duplex receive a transmission at any given time.
c) full duplex 185. A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of
d) semi-duplex _________ of megahertz.
Answer: c a) 100
Explanation: Telephone networks operate b) 150
in full duplex mode. It can transmit data in c) 1000
both the directions. d) 10000
182. Fire alarms are based on this type of Answer: a
transmission: Explanation: A coaxial cable has a
a) direct bandwidth of 100’s of Mhz. Baseband
b) network speed is in a few KHz. Multiplexing
c) analog improves channel bandwidth utilization.
d) multiple 186. The carrier wave is a _________
Answer: c a) tan wave
Explanation: Analog transmission is a b) cosec wave
technique of transmitting voice, data, c) sine wave
image, signal or video information. Fire d) cot wave
alarm systems work in the same way. Answer: c
183. A technique of transmitting data or Explanation: The carrier wave is generally a
images or videos (information) using a sine wave. Carrier wave is used to transfer
continuous signal. the signal from source to destination.
a) direct 187. Controlling the phase is referred as
b) network __________
c) analog a) modulation
d) multiple b) half modulation
Answer: c c) amplitude modulation
Explanation: Analog is a technique of d) phase modulation
transmitting data or images or videos Answer: d
(information) using a continuous signal, Explanation: It is referred to as phase

modulation. When there is a change in Division Multiplexing. This allows several

amplitude, it is referred to as amplitude messages to be translated from baseband,
modulation. where they are all in the same frequency.
188. A transmission mode that can 192. A modulation technique that
transmit data in both the directions but improves channel bandwidth utilization.
transmits in only one direction at a time. a) direct
a) simplex b) modulation
b) half duplex c) demodulation
c) full duplex d) multiplexing
d) semi-duplex Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: Multiplexing is a modulation
Explanation: The half duplex mode technique that improves channel
supports two way traffic but only in one bandwidth utilization.
direction at a time. 193. The purpose of communication
189. A multiplexing technique based on system is to transfer information from
sampling. _______ to the destination.
a) FDM a) user
b) TDM b) source
c) SDM c) system
d) FM d) station
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: TDM which stands for Time Explanation: The answer is source. A
division multiplexing is based on sampling communication system transfers
which is a modulation technique. information from source to the
190. An example of FDM: destination.
a) broadcast radio 194. WDM stands for?
b) telephone a) Wave division multiplexing
c) machines b) Wavelength division multiplexing
d) semi-duplex c) Wavelength dependent multiplexing
Answer: a d) Wave dependent multiplexing
Explanation: Broadcast radio is an example Answer: b
of FDM. This allows several messages to be Explanation: It stands for Wavelength
translated from baseband. division multiplexing. It has same general
191. FDM stands for? architecture as FDM. FDM is frequency
a) Frequency Division Multiplexing division multiplexing.
b) Frequency Dependent Multiplexing 195. In this type of multiplexing time slots
c) Frequency Diverged Multiplexing are preassigned to sources and fixed.
d) Frequency Derived Multiplexing a) TDM
Answer: a b) Synchronous TDM
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency

c) Asynchronous TDM Five out of six frames have 8 bit PCM

d) FDM samples.
Answer: b 199. Many time slots are wasted in
Explanation: TDM is time division __________
multiplexing. Data rate of medium exceeds a) TDM
data rate of digital signal to be b) Synchronous TDM
transmitted. c) Asynchronous TDM
196. Controlling the frequency is referred d) FDM
as _________ Answer: b
a) frequency modulation Explanation: In Synchronous TDM, many
b) hertz modulation time slots are wasted. Other techniques
c) amplitude modulation can help overcome this problem.
d) phase modulation 200. A technique that allocates time slots
Answer: a dynamically.
Explanation: It is referred to as frequency a) TDM
modulation. When there is a change in b) WDM
frequency, it is referred to as frequency c) Dynamic TDM
modulation. d) Statistical TDM
197. A technique that can be a solution to Answer: d
the problem of synchronizing data sources. Explanation: Statistical TDM assigns time
a) framing slots dynamically. They are allocated based
b) data link control on demand. Multiplexer scans input lines
c) full link control and collects data until the frame is full.
d) pulse stuffing 201. A system in which two channels are
Answer: d dedicated to transfer data.
Explanation: Pulse stuffing is a technique a) TV
that can be a solution to the problem of b) Cable
synchronizing data sources. In pulse c) Modem
stuffing, the outgoing data rate is higher d) Cable modem
than sum of incoming rates. Answer: d
198. For voice, each channel contains a ___ Explanation: A cable modem has two
word of digitized data. dedicated channels from cable TV provider
a) 2 dedicated to data transfer. One in each
b) 1 direction.
c) 0 202. In this technique, there is a link
d) 4 between subscriber and network and a
Answer: b local loop.
Explanation: In digital carrier systems, for a) SSDL
voice each channel contains one word of b) DSDL
digitized data. The data rate is 1.544 Mbps.

c) ASDL connected. There are 4 major topology

d) TSDL networks.
Answer: c 206. A network comprising o multiple
Explanation: In ASDL, there is a link topologies.
between the subscriber and the network. a) Complex
It uses currently installed twisted pair b) Hybrid
cable. c) Bus
203. A topology that is responsible for d) Star
describing the geometric arrangement of Answer: b
components that make up the LAN. Explanation: A hybrid network consists of
a) Complex multiple topologies. It can comprise a ring,
b) Physical a star and other topologies. We call this
c) Logical arrangement as a hybrid network.
d) Incremental 207. The participating computers in a
Answer: b network are referred to as:
Explanation: It is referred to as a physical a) Clients
LAN topology. LAN stands for Local Area b) Servers
Network. c) Nodes
204. _____ LAN topology describes the d) CPUs
possible connections between pairs of Answer: c
networked end-points that can Explanation: They are referred to as the
communicate. nodes. There are several topologies
a) Complex designed for arrangements of these nodes
b) Physical like bus, star, etc.
c) Logical 208. A topology that involves Tokens.
d) Incremental a) Star
Answer: c b) Ring
Explanation: A logical LAN topology c) Bus
describes the possible connections. LAN d) Daisy Chaining
stands for Local Area Network. Answer: b
205. A term that refers to the way in which Explanation: Ring topology involves
the nodes of a network are linked sending and receiving of data with the help
together. of tokens. Ring started out as a simple
a) network peer-to-peer LAN topology.
b) topology 209. A ____________WAN can be
c) connection developed using leased private lines or any
d) interconnectivity other transmission facility
Answer: b a) Hybrids
Explanation: Topology is a term that refers b) peer-to-peer
to the way in which the nodes are

c) Two-tiered programming. Prolog is a type of logic

d) Three-tiered programming.
Answer: b 213. Java is procedural programming.
Explanation: A peer-to-peer WAN topology a) True
is a relatively simple way of b) False
interconnecting a small number of sites. It Answer: b
has the least-cost solution for WANs that Explanation: The statement is false. Java is
contain a small number of internetworked a type of object oriented programming
locations. language. It involves solving real-life
210. A serially connected system of all the problems as well.
hubs of networks. 214. A program that can execute high-level
a) Bus language programs.
b) Ring a) Compiler
c) Daisy chains b) Interpreter
d) Star c) Sensor
Answer: c d) Circuitry
Explanation: The correct option is Daisy Answer: b
chain. This simple approach uses ports on Explanation: Interpreter is a program that
existing hubs for interconnecting the hubs. can execute high-level language programs
211. A piece of information which is sent “directly,” without first being translated
along with the data to the source into machine language.
computer. 215. Executables might be called ________
a) data a) native code
b) module b) executable code
c) token c) complex code
d) element d) machine code
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Token is the information that Explanation: The executables are
is sent to the source computer along with sometimes called native code. HLL are
the data. This token is then passed to the translated to Machine language called the
next node. native code.
212. Prolog comes under ___________ 216. Source program is compiled to an
a) Logic Programming intermediate form called ___________
b) Procedural Programming a) Byte Code
c) OOP b) Smart code
d) Functional c) Executable code
Answer: a d) Machine code
Explanation: Prolog stands for Answer: a
Programming in Logic. The options Explanation: The Source program is
mentioned are the four categories of compiled to an intermediate form called

byte code. For each supported platform, c) java

write a “virtual machine” emulator that d) C#
reads byte code and emulates its Answer: d
execution. Explanation: C# is supported by MS. Net
217. _______________ is the assembly platform. JAVA was originally designed for
language for an imaginary architecture. web purposes.
a) Byte code 221. Which of the following isn’t a
b) Machine code characteristic of High level languages?
c) Native code a) machine code
d) Executable code b) platform independent
Answer: a c) interactive execution
Explanation: Source program is compiled d) user-friendly
to an intermediate form – byte code. Byte Answer: a
code is the assembly language for an Explanation: HLL isn’t in machine language.
imaginary architecture. It is converted to machine language for
218. JIT stands for? further processing.
a) Just in time 222. A program that can retrieve files from
b) Jump in time the world wide web and render text,
c) Jump in text images or sounds encoded in the files.
d) Jump in terms a) Browser
Answer: a b) Internet
Explanation: JIT stands for Just in time. c) Server
JVMs actually compile each bytecode d) Web Server
instruction to native code the first time it is Answer: a
used. Explanation: A browser or a web browser
219. JVM stands for? is a program that can retrieve files from
a) Java virtual machine the world wide web. Certain examples are
b) Java visual machine IE, Mozilla, etc.
c) JRE virtual machine 223. An HTML file is a text file containing
d) JRE visual machine small markup tags.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: JVM stands for Java Virtual b) False
Machine. Other related terms are JRE Answer: a
which is java runtime environment and Explanation: The statement is true. HTML
JDK which is java development kit. stands for Hyper Text Markup Language. It
220. A language supported by MS. Net is a text file containing small markup tags.
platform. 224. Which of the following is not a type of
a) C browser?
b) C++ a) Netscape
b) Web

c) IE b) title
d) Mozilla c) head
Answer: b d) style
Explanation: Others except web are web Answer: c
browsers. Web is a type of server. Explanation: The head segment contains a
Application that works on client requests. generic info about the document. The head
225. Both client and server release section must come before the body section
_________ connection after a page has in an HTML document.
been transferred. 229. A tag similar to that of the italic tag.
a) IP a) <strong>
b) TCP b) <cite>
c) Hyperlink c) <code>
d) Network d) <i>
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands Explanation: <cite> is a container tag in
for Transmission Control Protocol. Servers html that is citation generally in italics.
receive requests from clients. Other tags like <em>or emphasize is also
226. In HTML, the tags that tell the used for this purpose.
browser how to display the page. 230. A _________ partitions a web browser
a) markup window so that multiple web documents
b) style can be displayed simultaneously.
c) body a) Frame
d) head b) set
Answer: a c) Frameset
Explanation: Markup is a general term d) div
used to refer the types of tags in HTML. Answer: c
The markup tags tell the browser how to Explanation: A frameset partitions a web
display the page. browser window so that multiple web
227. FTP stands for? documents can be displayed
a) File Text Protocol simultaneously. Frameset can have
b) File Transfer Protocol attributes like cols.
c) Firm Transfer Protocol 231. The _________ attribute specifies the
d) File Transplant Protocol web page to be placed in the frame
Answer: b initially.
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer a) name
Protocol. It is a type of internet service use b) src
for the transmission of files. c) cols
d) rows
228. A section in HTML that contains
generic information about the document. Answer: b
a) body Explanation: The src attribute or the

source specifies the web page to be placed However, they also warn of the dangers of
in the frame initially. It may be making assumptions about the validity of
subsequently overwritten. any one analytic method.
232. ______________the ability to access, 235. A type of analysis that attends to the
analyzes, evaluate and produce media. repetition and frequency of features, their
a) Literacy proportions within the text, and
b) Internet consequent assumptions about
c) Media significance.
d) Media Literacy a) Media
Answer: d b) Content
Explanation: It is media literacy. It is the c) Linguistic
ability to access, analyze, evaluate and d) Network
produce media. It is the process of Answer: b
becoming active, rather than passive, Explanation: The answer is Content.
consumers of media. Linguistic analysis might concentrate on
233. Media literacy can help youth and the potential effects of style of address.
adults understand how media shapes our Content analysis attends to the repetition
culture. and frequency of features, their
a) True proportions within the text, and
b) False consequent assumptions about
significance.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Media 236. __________ analysis regards texts as
literacy also develops our critical thinking. collections of signs or paradigms and
It also helps in the better understanding of possible meanings, operating within the
how media shapes our culture. bounds of various codes.
a) Semiotic
234. The analysis of _________ is a process
b) Style
of deconstruction that investigates the
c) Linguistic
operations of texts, their constructions,
d) Text
the ways they produce meanings, what
those meanings may be. Answer: a
a) Media Explanation: Semiotic analysis regards
b) Web texts as collections of signs or paradigms
c) IE and possible meanings, operating within
d) Text the bounds of various codes.
Answer: d 237. This part of image analysis refers to
Explanation: The analysis of texts is a those primary signs, often part of the
process of deconstruction that investigates technique of photography, which are
the operations of texts, their about how the image is made.
constructions, the ways they produce a) Treatment
meanings, what those meanings may be. b) Position

c) Content c) Plot
d) Media d) Characters
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Treatment in image analysis Explanation: Identification describes the
refers to those primary signs, often part of effect of involving the reader with the
the technique of photography, which is story, of constructing it as truth. It
about how the image is made. produces a meaning of truth, a belief in the
238. In image analysis, this part refers to validity of the text and of all the other
objects represented within the image, meanings that we make from it.
which may signify to us because of, for 241. The notion of norms also links to the
example, their symbolic power or because idea that representations are given force
of their composition in relation to each through a process of:
other. a) naturalization
a) Treatment b) identification
b) Position c) media
c) Content d) casting
d) Media Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The notion of norms also links
Explanation: Content refers to objects to the idea that representations are given
represented within the image. Treatment force through a process of naturalization.
in image analysis refers to those primary 242. The media texts may throw up
signs, often part of the technique of discourses and are called ____________
photography, which are about how the a) Binary oppositions
image is made. b) Violations
239. _________ are about storytelling and c) Oppositions
story meaning. d) Media Illiteracy
a) narratives Answer: a
b) plot Explanation: Some texts may also throw up
c) content discourses and their meanings if you
d) storyline attend to what are called binary
Answer: a oppositions. The discourse is also marked
Explanation: Narratives are about by what it is not, by what it is opposed to.
storytelling and story meaning. Media 243. In terms of image analysis, it is
texts tell stories; they have a narrative. important to attend to primary level signs
240. __________ describes the effect of in visual codes, most obviously for
involving the reader with the story, of examples of still photography.
constructing it as truth. a) True
a) Narration b) False
b) Identification Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. This

approach categorizes the image analysis responsible for providing access to

into three: position, treatment and information.
content. 247. A system of interlinked documents,
244. The notion of __________ is one websites, portals etc. accessed through the
which is especially associated with Internet.
semiotics and with genres. a) WWW
a) Media b) Internet
b) Web c) Web
c) codes d) Media
d) Text Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: World Wide Web a system of
Explanation: The notion of codes is one interlinked documents, websites, portals
which is especially associated with etc. accessed through the Internet. Since
semiotics and with genres. The textual these links are not physical or mechanical,
codes may be summarized into: written, they are called `virtual’ links or
spoken, non-verbal and visual. `hyperlinks’.
245. The idea of _________is central to 248. In image analysis, this part refers to
understanding the production of meaning objects represented within the image,
through texts. which may signify to us because of, for
a) Identity example, their symbolic power or because
b) Content of their composition in relation to each
c) Represntation other.
d) Network a) Treatment
Answer: c b) Position
Explanation: The idea of representation is c) Content
central to understanding the production of d) Media
meaning through texts. Texts are nothing Answer: c
but representations in both a material and Explanation: Content refers to objects
an ideological sense. represented within the image. Treatment
246. ICT stands for? in image analysis refers to those primary
a) Interaction, Communication and signs, often part of the technique of
Technology photography, which are about how the
b) Information, Communication and image is made.
Technology 249. A dedicated website for providing
c) Interaction, Communication and Text specialized information in a particular
d) Information, Communication and Text field.
Answer: b a) Website
Explanation: ICT stands for Information, b) Blog
Communication and Technology. ICT is c) Web directories
d) Corporate Websites

Answer: c Display. A kind of stereo display with two

Explanation: Web directory is a dedicated miniature screens and depth perception.
website for providing specialized 253. In terms of image analysis, it is
information in a particular field. Such important to attend to primary level signs
directories are useful for educational in visual codes, most obviously for
purpose. examples of still photography.
250. _________ are the web-based a) True
interactive applications to express and b) False
share your ideas and thoughts with Answer: a
interested people. Explanation: The statement is true. This
a) Website approach categorizes the image analysis
b) Blog into three: position, treatment and
c) Web directories content.
d) Corporate Websites
254. ______________ keep track of
Answer: b position.
Explanation: Blogs are the web-based a) Motion analyzers
interactive applications to express and b) Motion Trackers
share your ideas and thoughts with c) HMD
interested people. It is an open platform d) SMD
that can be used as on-line diaries, a
Answer: b
journal, or editorial.
Explanation: Motion trackers keep track of
251. A term used in the context of web position. Other devices are like head
design to suggest the path that user takes trackers and body trackers.
while browsing a website.
255. BOOM stands for?
a) navigation
a) Binocular Omni-Orientation Manager
b) identification
b) Binary Omni-Orientation Manager
c) graphics media
c) Binocular Omni-Orientation Monitor
d) casting
d) Binary Omni-Orientation Monitor
Answer: a
Answer: c
Explanation: Navigation is a term used in
Explanation: BOOM stands for Binocular
the context of web design to suggest the
Omni-Orientation Monitor. It is a type of
path that user takes while browsing a
Stereoscopic display. Guidance of the box
website.
by the users.
252. HMD stands for?
256. A term for Illusion of immersion by
a) Head Mounted Display
projecting stereo images on the walls and
b) Head Masked Display
floor of a room.
c) Head Made Display
a) CAVE
d) Head Mounted Detection
b) BOOM
Answer: a c) GUI
Explanation: It stands for Head Mounted d) HMD

Answer: a 260. In this type of VR environment, the

Explanation: CAVE is the term. CAVE three-dimensional scene is considered as a
stands for Cave Automatic Virtual part of the physical environment.
Environment. a) Immersive
257. It is a mediated environment which b) Semi immersive
creates the sensation in a user of being c) Non immersive
present in a (physical) surrounding. d) Augmented
a) WWW Answer: c
b) VR Explanation: This happens in non-
c) HMD immersive Virtual environment. Also, the
d) GUI subjects do fully respond in the real
Answer: b environment.
Explanation: VR or virtual reality is a 261. In this type of VR environment, the
mediated environment which creates the subjects can perform both in the real and
sensation in a user of being present in a virtual environment.
(physical) surrounding. a) Immersive
258. A term to describe the extent to b) Semi immersive
which a user can modify form and content c) Non immersive
of a mediated environment. d) Augmented
a) Vividness Answer: b
b) Richness Explanation: The Semi-Immersive Virtual
c) Interactivity Reality provides an experience partially
d) Mapping based in a virtual environment.
Answer: c 262. The field that covers a variety of
Explanation: Interactivity is the extent to computer networks, both public and
which a user can modify form and content private, that are used in everyday jobs.
of a mediated environment. It comprises a) Artificial Intelligence
speed and mapping. b) ML
259. A type of VR environment in which c) Network Security
subjects are visually isolated from the real d) IT
environment. Answer: c
a) Immersive Explanation: Network security covers a
b) Semi immersive variety of computer networks, both private
c) Non immersive and public. Everyday jobs like conducting
d) Augmented transactions and communications among
Answer: a business and government agencies etc.
Explanation: In immersive VR, subjects are 263. Network Security provides
visually isolated from the real authentication and access control for
environment. A virtual scene is responding resources.
to the subjects actions.

a) True a) General access

b) False b) Functional authentication
Answer: a c) Functional authorization
Explanation: The statement is true. AFS is d) Auto verification
an example. It helps us protect vital Answer: c
information. Explanation: Functional authorization is
264. Which is not an objective of network concerned with individual user rights.
security? Authorization is the function of specifying
a) Identification access rights to resources related to
b) Authentication information security.
c) Access control 268. CHAP stands for?
d) Lock a) Challenge Handshake authentication
Answer: d protocol
Explanation: The Identification, b) Challenge Hardware authentication
Authentication and Access control are the protocol
objectives of network security. There is no c) Circuit Hardware authentication
such thing called lock. protocol
d) Circuit Handshake authentication
265. Which of these is a part of network
protocol
identification?
a) UserID Answer: a
b) Password Explanation: CHAP stands for Challenge
c) OTP Handshake authentication protocol.
d) fingerprint Features of CHAP: plaintext, memorized
token. Protocol uses Telnet, HTTP.
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is UserID. UserID 269. Security features that control that can
is a part of identification. UserID can be a access resources in the OS.
combination of username, user student a) Authentication
number etc. b) Identification
c) Validation
266. The process of verifying the identity
d) Access control
of a user.
a) Authentication Answer: d
b) Identification Explanation: Access control refers to the
c) Validation security features. Applications call access
d) Verification control to provide resources.
Answer: a 270. An algorithm in encryption is called
Explanation: It is called an authentication. _____________
It is typically based on passwords, smart a) Algorithm
card, fingerprint, etc. b) Procedure
c) Cipher
267. A concern of authentication that deals
d) Module
with user rights.

Answer: c their capabilities.

Explanation: An algorithm used in a) Cracker
encryption is referred to as a cipher. cipher b) Hacker
is an algorithm for performing encryption c) App controller
or decryption d) Site controller
271. The information that gets Answer: b
transformed in encryption is ____________ Explanation: The person is called hacker. A
a) Plain text person who enjoys learning the details of
b) Parallel text computer systems and how to stretch their
c) Encrypted text capabilities is called hacker.
d) Decrypted text 275. A program created by Farmer and
Answer: a Venema for auditing capability.
Explanation: The text that gets a) SAAS
transformed is called plain text. The b) SATAN
algorithm used is called cipher. c) SAN
272. WTLS stands for? d) SAT
a) Wireless Transport Security Layer Answer: b
b) Wireless Transfer System Layer Explanation: SATAN is the Security analysis
c) Wireless Transfer Security Layer tool for auditing networks. It is created by
d) Wireless Transport System Layer farmer and venema.
Answer: a 276. A small program that changes the way
Explanation: WTLS is Wireless Transport a computer operates.
Security Layer. It provides security a) Worm
between the mobile device and the WAP b) Trojan
gateway to internet. c) Bomb
273. The protocol designed to make the d) Virus
security of wireless LAN as good as that of Answer: d
wired LAN. Explanation: The program is called virus. It
a) WTLS alters the way that the computer operates.
b) WEP It often does damages like deleting and
c) RSN corrupting files and data.
d) WP 277. A program that copies itself.
Answer: b a) Worm
Explanation: WEP stands for Wired b) Virus
Equivalent Privacy. WEP has been broken c) Trojan
already in 2001. WEP protocol designed to d) Bomb
make the security of wireless LAN as good Answer: a
as that of wired LAN. Explanation: A worm copies itself from one
274. A person who enjoys learning details system to another over a network without
about computers and how to enhance the assistance of human.

278. An attack in which the site is not 282. Attack in which a user creates a
capable of answering valid request. packet that appears to be something else.
a) Smurfing a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm d) Spoofing
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is Denial of Explanation: The attack is a spoofing
service. In case of denial of service attacks, attack. It is when a user creates a packet
a computer site is bombarded with a lot of that appears to be something else or from
messages. someone else.
279. Creating a computer or paper audit 283. A technique in which a program
that can help detect wrong doings. attacks a network by exploiting IP
a) Auditing broadcast addressing operations.
b) Validation a) Smurfing
c) RSN b) Denial of service
d) Verification c) E-mail bombing
Answer: a d) Ping storm
Explanation: The answer is auditing. It is Answer: a
done to keep an eye on wrong doings. Explanation: Smurfing is a technique in
Auditing can be used as a deterrent. which a program attacks a network by
280. An indirect form of surveillance. exploiting IP broadcast addressing
a) Honey pot operations.
b) Logical 284. An attack in which the user receives
c) Security unwanted amount of e-mails.
d) Intrusion a) Smurfing
Answer: a b) Denial of service
Explanation: Honey pot is an indirect form c) E-mail bombing
of surveillance. Network personnel create d) Ping storm
a trap, watching for unscrupulous acts. Answer: c
281. A malicious code hidden inside a Explanation: In the case of denial of e-mail
seemingly harmless piece of code. bombing, a user sends an excessive
a) Worm amount of unwanted e-mail to someone.
b) Bomb 285. These ciphers replace a character or
c) Trojan Horse characters with a different character or
d) Virus characters, based on some key.
Answer: c a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
Explanation: The answer is Trojan horse. b) Transposition-based
Trojan horse is a code that is present in a c) Substitution based
program that appears harmless. d) Mono alphabetic substitution based

Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: In mono alphabetic Explanation: Public key cryptography has 2
substitution-based cipher, a character is keys. They are private key and a public
replaced with some other character or key. The public key encrypts the message.
multiple characters, based on some key. The private key decrypts the message.
286. Encryption is the study of creating and 290. DES stands for?
using decryption techniques. a) Data Encryption Standard
a) True b) Data Encryption Statistics
b) False c) Data Encryption System
Answer: b d) Data Encryption Sequence
Explanation: The statement is false. Answer: a
Cryptography is the study of creating and Explanation: DES stands for Data
using encryption and decryption Encryption Standard. It was created in
techniques. 1977 and went into operation from 1990s.
287. A type of cipher that uses multiple 291. Under DES, the data encryption
alphabetic strings. standard took a 64-bit block of data and
a) Substitution based subjected it to ______ levels of encryption.
b) Transposition-based a) 64
c) Polyalphabetic substitution based b) 8
d) Mono alphabetic substitution based c) 16
Answer: c d) 4
Explanation: These ciphers are similar to Answer: c
that of mono alphabetic ciphers. Multiple Explanation: The answer is 16. It was
strings are used to encode the plain text. subjected to 16 levels of encryption. DES is
288. An encryption technique with 2 keys the data encryption standard.
is ______________ 292. Triple-DES has ______ keys.
a) Monoalphabetic Cipher a) 1
b) Cryptography b) 2
c) Private key cryptography c) 5
d) Public key cryptography d) 4
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: It is called as public key Explanation: There are 2 keys in triple DES
cryptography. It has 2 keys: a private key as well. The private and the public key. It
and a public key. can also have 3 unique keys.
289. In public key cryptography, a key that 293. Encryption standard that is selected
decrypts the message. by the US government to replace DES.
a) public key a) AES
b) unique key b) BES
c) private key c) CES
d) security key d) DES

Answer: a there is no direct interaction between

Explanation: AES is Advanced Encryption users and their programs during execution.
Standard. It was selected by the US 297. A technique that marked the
government. It is used to replace DES. beginning of computer communications.
294. An electronic document that a) Batch Environment
establishes your credentials when you are b) Message passing
performing transactions. c) User Environment
a) Digital code d) Time Sharing
b) OTP Answer: d
c) E-mail Explanation: The answer is time sharing. In
d) Digital certificate time sharing, Users were able to interact
Answer: d with the computer and could share its
Explanation: Digital certificate is an information processing resources.
electronic document that is responsible for 298. A type of technique in which dumb
secure internet transactions. terminals are connected to a central
295. ARPANET stands for? computer system.
a) Advanced Research Project Agency a) Time Sharing
Network b) Message passing
b) Advanced Research Programmed Auto c) Batch environment
Network d) User environment
c) Advanced Research Project Automatic Answer: a
Network Explanation: This happens in time sharing.
d) Advanced Research Project Authorized In this, users were able to interact with the
Network computer and could share its information
Answer: a processing resources.
Explanation: ARPANET stands for 299. TCP stands for?
Advanced Research Project Agency a) Transmission control program
Network. It was developed in late 1960s b) Transmission control protocol
under ARPA (Advanced Research Projects c) Transfer control program
Agency). d) Transfer control protocol
296. In this technique, there is no direct Answer: b
contact between users and their programs Explanation: TCP stands for transmission
during execution. control protocol. It basically allows
a) Time Sharing different networks to interconnect.
b) Batch Processing
300. The “Victorian internet” is actually?
c) System Processing
a) Telegraph
d) Message Passing
b) Batch Environment
Answer: b c) Unit Environment
Explanation: In the Batch Environment, d) System Environment

Answer: a the representation of numbers and ASCII-8

Explanation: It was a telegraph. Invented uses 8-bits.
in the 1840s. Used extensively by the U.S. 304. Any set of digits or alphabets are
Government. generally referred as ______________
301. What does ASCII stand for? a) Characters
a) American Standard Code for Information b) Symbols
Interchange c) Bits
b) American Scientific Code for d) Bytes
Information Interchange Answer: a
c) American Scientific Code for Explanation: We refer to the digits and
Interchanging Information alphabets generally as characters. A
d) American Standard Code for character is generally a unit of information
Interchanging Information in computers.
Answer: a 305. The number of characters that can be
Explanation: The ASCII codes are used to represented in ASCII-8 are
represent the bits into symbols and vice ______________
versa. ASCII is the American Standard Code a) 128
which is used to exchange information. b) 256
302. The decimal representation for the c) 32
character ‘!’ in ASCII is ____________ d) 64
a) 31 Answer: b
b) 32 Explanation: ASCII-8 can represent 256
c) 33 different characters. ASCII-8 uses 8-bits for
d) 34 the representation of numbers i.e. it can
Answer: c represent 28 = 256 different characters.
Explanation: The decimal representation of 306. The zone of alphabetic characters
a few basic characters are: from A to O in ASCII is _____________
33 : ! a) 1000
34 : ” b) 0100
35: # c) 0010
36 :$. d) 0001
303. The two types of ASCII are Answer: b
_____________ and ____________ Explanation: The zone used by ASCII for
a) ASCII-4 and ASCII-8 alphabets is 0100. For e.g. A is represented
b) ASCII-8 and ASCII-16 as 0100(zone)0001(digit). The hex
c) ASCII-7 and ASCII-8 equivalent is 41 for A. The zone used by
d) ASCII-4 and ASCII-16 numbers is 0011.
Answer: c 307. The representation of the number 8 in
Explanation: The two types of ASCII are binary in ASCII-8 format _________
ASCII-7 and ASCII-8. ASCII-7 uses 7 bits for a) 00111000

b) 01001000 Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code).

c) 1000 In zoned format, there is only one digit per
d) 00011000 byte.
Answer: a 308. Which of the following is not a type of
Explanation: The ASCII-8 format will have 8 numeric value in zoned format?
bits. The zone for the character 8 is 0011 a) Positive
and the digit is 1000. Therefore, its b) Negative
representation is 00111000. c) Double
308. Binary Coding for the letter X is d) Unsigned
______________ Answer: c
a) 01011000 Explanation: The zoned format can
b) 00111000 represent numeric values of type Positive,
c) 10001000 negative and unsigned numbers. A sign
d) 00010100 indicator is used in the zone position of the
Answer: a rightmost digit.
Explanation: The binary coding for the 309. The sign indicator of unsigned
letter X is 01011000. Here, 0101 is the zone numbers is ____________
whereas 1000 is the digit. The alphabets a) C
from P to Z have the zone 0101. b) D
309. Express the ASCII equivalent of the c) F
signed binary number (00110010)2. d) X
a) 2 Answer: c
b) 1 Explanation: A sign indicator is used in the
c) A zone position of the rightmost digit. A sign
d) , indicator C is used for positive, D for
Answer: a negative and F is used for negative
Explanation: The ASCII characters for the numbers.
remaining options are: 310. The EBCDIC value of the number 345
1 : 00110001 in zoned format is __________
A : 01000001 a) F3F4F5
, : 00101100. b) E3E4E5
307. The numbers used to represent c) F3F4C5
numeric values in EBCDIC are _______ d) F3F4D5
a) zoned Answer: a
b) unsigned Explanation: F is used for the
c) packed representation of unsigned numbers
d) eb therefore, F3F4F5 represents 345. F3F4C5
Answer: a represents +345 . F3F4D5 represents -345.
Explanation: Zoned numbers represent the 311. Which of the following is a valid
numeric values under EBCDIC (Extended encoding format?

a) UTF-1 a) (A) is false but (B) is true

b) UTF-8 b) Both (A) and (B) are false
c) UTF-A c) Both (A) and (B) are true
d) UTF-4 d) (A) is true but (B) is false
Answer: b Answer: Both (A) and (B) are true
Explanation: The various encoding formats 3. Select the correct statement from the
are UTF-8, UTF-16 and UTF-32. UTF stands following:
for Unicode Transformation Format. It is
(a) Link Resolver is a software application
basically an encoding system that supports
based on OpenURL protocol developed by
all languages.
Alan Harvey Guth.
(b) Link Resolver helps to provide seamless
access to electronic full-text content across
all databases and vendors for a desired
Unit -8 MCQs citation.
Option:
1. Which statements are true about
a) (a) is true, but (b) is false
Podcasting
b) (a) is false, but (b) is true
(a) An audio-video file on the internet c) Both (a) and (b) are true
(b) Accessed on a personal computer or d) Both (a) and (b) are false
portable MP3 Player Answer: (a) is false, but (b) is true
(c) can be released episodically 4. Which of the following are access
(d) Users can receive notification of new authentication methods for digital
episodes vis subscription to RSS feeds collection?
Option: (a) Shibboleth
a) (a), (b), and (c) are correct (b) Open ID
b) (b), (c), and (d) are correct (c) Open URL
c) (a), (c), and (d) are correct
(d) Counter
d) (a), (b), (c), and (d) are correct
Option:
Answer: (b), (c), and (d) are correct
a) (a) and (c) are correct
2. Choose the correct statement:
b) (a) and (b) are correct
Statement (A): The iPod, first version c) (b) and (c) are correct
released in 2001, is a portable media d) (b) and (d) are correct
player and smaller in size as compared to
Answer: (a) and (b) are correct
iPad.
5. Which among the following are online
Statement (B): The iPad, first version
tools for cataloguing books?
released in 2010 is a tablet computing
device, much bigger in size as compared to (a) LibraryThing
iPod. (b) GoodReads

(c) Scoop QR Code is a two-dimensional version of

(d) Reddit the barcode, typically made up of black
and white pixel patterns.
Option:
 Denso Wave, a Japanese subsidiary
a) (a) and (b) only
of the Toyota supplier Denso,
b) (b) and (c) only
developed them for marking
c) (b) and (d) only
components in order to accelerate
d) (c) and (d) only
logistics processes for their
Answer: (a) and (b) only automobile production. Now, it has
6. Select from the following the correct found its way into mobile marketing
reasons for digital divide? with the widespread adoption of
(a) Mobile number portability smartphones.
(b) Low Internet penetration  "QR" stands for "Quick Response",
which refers to the instant access to
(c) Non-availability of ICT infrastructure
the information hidden in the Code.
(d) Familiarity with information
8. Which of the following are library
technologies
networks?
Option:
1. INTERNET
a) (a) and (c) are correct
b) (a) and (b) are correct 2. DELNET
c) (c) and (d) are correct 3. NICNET
d) (b) and (c) are correct 4. OCLC Codes:
Answer: (b) and (c) are correct a) 1 and 2 are correct
7. Which of the following are correct about b) 2 and 4 are correct
QR code? c) 1 and 3 are correct
i) It is a two-dimensional (matrix) machine- d) None Of The Above
readable bar code made up of black and Answer: 2 and 4 are correct
white squares. 9. In artificial Intelligence, knowledge can
ii) It is used for storing URLs or other be represented as_______.
information that link directly to text, i. Predicate Logic
emails, websites, phone numbers. ii. Propositional Logic
iii) It can store up to 7089 digits. iii. Compound Logic
iv. Machine Logic
1. i, ii only
2. ii, iii only a. Both I and II
3. i, ii, iii b. Only II

c. Both II and III
4. i, iii only
d. Only IV
Answer: 3
Answer: a

Explanation: There are several techniques c) Personal Added Entry – 700

of Knowledge representation in AI, and d) Subject Added Entry (Topical Term) –
among them, one is Logical 650
Representation. The logical representation
(a) a, b and d are correct
can be done in two ways Predicate Logic
(b) a, b and c are correct
and Propositional Logic, hence knowledge
(c) b, c and d are correct
can be represented as both predicate and
(d) a, b, c, and d are correct
Propositional logic.
Answer: a, b, c, and d are correct
10. Which of the following are access
authentication methods for digital 13. Which of the following are the parts of
collection? MARC record structure?
a) Shibboleth a) Check digit
b) Open ID b) Leader
c) Open URL c) Directory
d) Counter d) Record Terminator
(a) c, and d are correct (a) a, b and d are correct
(b) a, and c are correct (b) a, b and c are correct
(c) b and c are correct (c) b, c and d are correct
(d) a, and b are correct (d) a, b, c, and d are correct
Answer: a, and b are correct Answer: b, c and d are correct
11. GitHub is a platform for developer to 14. Select the correct combinations of
___. MARC-21 elements with corresponding
tags:
a) Share source code
a) ISBN – 020
b) Compile source code
b) ISSN – 022
c) Track changes and visioning of the
software c) CODEN – 030
d) Host static web pages d) Language Code – 041
(a) a and b are correct (a) a, b, c, and d are correct
(b) a, c and d are correct (b) a, b and c are correct
(c) b, c and d are correct (c) b, c and d are correct
(d) a and c are correct (d) a, b and d are correct
Answer: a, c and d are correct Answer: a, b, c, and d are correct
12. Select the correct combinations of 15. Match the following :
MARC 21 elements with corresponding List – I List –
tags: II
a) Personal Main Entry – 100 a. POSDCORB i. Robert
b) Personal Subject Heading – 600 McNamara
b. TQM ii. Peter Phyrr
c. ZBB iii. Gulick F. (B) ii iii iv i

Urwick (C) ii iv i iii
d. PPBS iv. Edward (D) i iii ii iv
Deming
Answer: (C)
Codes :
abcd
(A) iv iii i ii
a. Scientific Management i. Max
(B) iii iv ii i Weber
(C) iii i ii iv b. System School ii. Mary Follett
(D) ii i iii iv c. Human Behaviour School iii. Henry
Answer: (B) Fayol
16. Match the following : d. Classical School iv. Louis Brandeis
List – I List – II Codes :
a. Remote resource sensing satellite i. abcd
Processing data (A) iv i ii iii
b. Memory chips ii. Transportation (B) iv ii i iii
of data
(C) ii i iii iv
c. VLSI chips iii. Capture data
(D) i iv ii iii
d. Optical fibre iv. Storage data
Answer: (A)
Codes :
19. Match the following as per
abcd Ranganathan’s Staff formula
(A) i ii iii iv recommended for a university library :
(B) iv iii ii i List – I List – II
(C) ii iii iv i a. Acquisition Section i. 1 person
(D) iii iv i ii for 1500 readers
Answer: (D) b. Reference Section ii. 1 person
for 500 titles
c. Periodical Section iii. 1 person
for 6000 titles
a. f(r) = K/r i. Bradford
d. Circulation Section iv. 1 person
b. xny = C ii. Zipf’s for 50 readers
c. L : n : n2 iii. Pareto Codes :
d. 80 – 20 iv. Lotka abcd
Codes : (A) i iv iii ii
abcd (B) iii iv ii i
(A) iv ii iii i
(C) iv i iii ii (iii) Orissa

(D) ii iii i iv (iv) Karnataka
Answer: (B) Codes :
20. Match the following standard (A) iv ii iii i
subdivisions from DDC : (B) iv ii i iii
List – I List – II (C) ii i iii iv
a. Philosophy & Theory i. 07 (D) iii ii i iv
b. Serial Publications ii. 05 Answer: (B)
c. Collections iii. 01 23. Give the following in sequence
d. Study and Teaching iv. 08 according to the year of their first
Codes : publication :
abcd (i) Bibliographic Classification
(A) i ii iv iii (ii) Universal Decimal Classification
(B) iii iv ii i (iii) Library of Congress Classification
(C) iii ii iv i (iv) Colon Classification
(D) ii iv i iii Codes :
Answer: (C) (A) ii iii i iv
21. Arrange the following in chronological (B) iv ii iii i
order of their establishment : (C) i iii ii iv
(i) ARPANET (D) iii ii iv i
(ii) DARPA Answer: (D)
(iii) SPUTNIK 24. Match the following:
(iv) ICCB (Internet Configuration Control List-I List-II
Board) a) British Library i) Russia
Codes : b) Bibliotheque National ii) USA
(A) iv i iii ii c) Lenin Library iii) UK
(B) iii ii i iv d) Library of Congress iv) French
(C) ii iii iv i Codes:
(D) i ii iv iii (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer: (B) (A) iv iii I ii
22. Arrange the following State Library (B) I ii iii iv
Acts according to their year of
(C) iii iv I ii
establishment :
(D) iii iv ii i
(i) Goa
Answer: (C)
(ii) West Bengal

25. Match the following: a) Software i) Key

List-I List-II words
a) Windows i) A revolving b) Hardware ii) CD
disc on which data is stored c) Storage Device iii) SOUL
b) Microprocessor ii) It is used d) I/O Device iv) CPU
for processing of text Codes:
c) Word processor iii) (a) (b) (c) (d)
Collection of programmes for computer
(A) ii iv iii i
system
(B) ii iii iv i
d) Software iv) A
graphical user interface working as Dos (C) iii ii iv i
Codes: (D) iii iv ii i
(a) (b) (c) (d) Answer: (D)
(A) iv I ii iii 28. Match the following:
(B) iii ii i iv List-I List-II
(C) ii iii iv i a) Planning i) Delegation of
authority
(D) i ii iii iv
b) Staffing ii) Audit
Answer: (A)
c) Control iii) Promotion
d) Organising iv) Resource
List-I List-II
management
(Library Act) (Year of
Codes:
Enactment)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a) Orissa i) 2006
(A) i ii iii iv
b) Goa ii) 2005
(B) ii iv i iii
c) Uttaranchal iii) 2001
(C) iii I ii iv
d) Uttar Pradesh iv) 1994
(D) iv iii ii i
Codes:
Answer: (D)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) i ii iii iv
List I List II
(B) iii iv ii i
(i) Information Please Almanac (w)
(C) iv iii ii i
Directory
(D) ii i iii iv
(ii) Keasing’s Record of World (x)
Answer: (B) Annual Events
27. Match the following: (iii) Encyclopaedia of Associations (y)
List-I List-II Bibliography

(iv) Publisher’s Weekly (z) a) Blacklight

News Digest b) eXtensible Catalog
Codes: c) Orchid
d) Vufind
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: Orchid
(A) (w) (z) (x) (y)
33. Select from the following, the IEEE
(B) (x) (z) (w) (y)
standard for Wimax:
(C) (x) (z) (y) (w)
a) IEEE 802.3
(D) (x) (y) (z) (w) b) IEEE 802.11
Answer: (B) c) IEEE 802.15
30. Match the following: d) IEEE 802.16
List I List II Answer: IEEE 802.16
(i) World of Learning (w) 34. The term 'Library 2.0' was coined by
Alphabetical __.
(ii) Sears List of Subject Headings (x) a) Tim Berners Lee
Classified b) Michael Casey
c) Georges Lemaitre
(iii) Data India (y)
Geographical d) Herbert Van de Sompel
Answer: Michael Casey
(iv) Indian National Bibliography (z)
Topical 35. Which search indexing tools are used
Codes: in Koha?
a) Lucene
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
b) Zebra
(A) (w) (y) (x) (z) c) Solr
(B) (x) (z) (w) (y) d) None of the above
(C) (y) (w) (z) (x) Answer: Zebra
(D) (y) (z) (x) (w) 36. Which technology is used in Barcode?
Answer: (C) a) Radio Waves
31. Which among the following web b) Laser
applications was developed by Tim c) Microwaves
Spalding? d) Infrared waves
a) GoodReads Answer: Laser
b) Feedly 37. The encoded data stored in a QR code
c) LibraryThing is known as __.
d) PBWorks a) Quiet Zone
Answer: LibraryThing b) Position Pattern
32. Which one of the following is NOT an c) Alignment Pattern
open source discovery interface? d) Data Zone

Answer: Data Zone 43. Select from the following commercial

38. A linear or one-dimensional (1D) service provider of Koha?
barcode symbol is surrounded by quiet a) Libline
zone from __. b) ByWater Solutions
a) One side c) YAZ Solutions
b) Two side d) (a) and (b) only
c) Three side Answer: (a) and (b) only
d) Four side 44. Which search indexing tools are used
Answer: Two side in DSpace?
39. A matrix barcode or two-dimensional a) Lucene and Solr
(2D) barcode symbol is surrounded by b) Lucene and MGPP
quiet zone from __. c) Zebra and MGPP
a) One side d) None of the above
b) Two side Answer: Lucene and Solr
c) Three side 45. Which one of the following is not an E-
d) Four side Contract License?
Answer: Four side a) Shrink Wrap
40. Shibboleth 2.0 was released in __. b) Browse Wrap
a) 2003 c) Bubble Wrap
b) 2005 d) Click Wrap
c) 2008 Answer: Bubble Wrap
d) 2010 46. EULA stands for __.
Answer: 2008 a) E-Monitoring Library for Academics
41. Which creative commons licenses are b) End User Logistics Association
the least permissive? c) Electronic Usage of Library
a) CC BY-NC-ND Acquisitions
b) CC BY-NC-SA d) End User License Agreement
c) CC BY-ND Answer: End User License Agreement
d) CC BY-SA 47. In order to use an online product and
Answer: CC BY-NC-ND service, providing a digital acceptance by
42. Which creative commons licenses are clicking a button or checking a box that
most permissive? states “I agree” is called:
a) CC-BY a) Click Wrap License
b) CC-BY-NC b) Bubble Wrap License
c) CC-BY-ND c) Shrink Wrap License
d) CC-BY-SA d) Browse Wrap License
Answer: CC-BY Answer: Click Wrap License
48. What is 'Information Commons'?

a) A Library model equipped with up- 52. National Digital Preservation Program
to-date technology & resources and is sponsored by __.
designed for social construction of a) Indian Institute of Technology
knowledge and shared learning (Kharagpur)
b) A department under British Library b) Ministry of Electronic and
c) A sister organization of Creative Information Technology, GOI
Commons c) Ministry of Culture, GOI
d) None of the above d) National Library of India
Answer: A Library model equipped with Answer: Ministry of Electronic and
up-to-date technology & resources and Information Technology, GOI
designed for social construction of
53. Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG)
knowledge and shared learning
is used to compress __.
49. A language defined for ontologies
a) Frames
development that provides description for
b) Images
classes and properties of RDF resources is
c) Audio
called:
d) Video
a) RDF/XML
Answer: Video
b) OWL
c) Turtle 54. 780 tag in MARC 21 is used for __.
d) RDF Schema a) Added Entry - Uncontrolled Related
Answer: OWL b) Added Entry - Analytical Title
c) Preceding Entry
50. OWL Stands for __.
d) Succeeding Entry
a) Web Ontology Language
Answer: Preceding Entry
b) Online Website Language
c) Onsite Wide Language 55. In OTT media service, OTT stands for
d) Ontology Website Language __.
Answer: Web Ontology Language a) Over-the-telecommunication
b) Over-the-television
51. SWORD Stands for __.
c) Over-the-top
a) Simple Web-Service Offering d) Over-the-table
Repository Deposit
Answer: Over-the-top
b) Simplified Web Organization
Repository Discovery 56. Which of the following committee was
c) Simple Web-Service Offering appointed on issues related to Net
Resource Deposit Neutrality in India?
d) Simplified Web Organization a) R. S. Sharma
Repository Deposit b) A. K. Bhargava
Answer: Simple Web-Service Offering c) Vijay Bhatkar
Repository Deposit d) Rahul Khullar
Answer: A. K. Bhargava

57. The easiest way to bring Internet video Answer: Ring topology
to one's desktop or download is known as 62. Which of the following is a method for
__. enabling authentication based on the URL?
a) Flogging a) Shibboleth
b) Podcasting b) Kerberos
c) Vodcasting c) Digital Signature
d) Blogging d) Referring URL
Answer: Vodcasting Answer: Referring URL
58. DORIA (Digital Object Management 63. An Application Program Interface (API)
System) is a digital library project of __. language is used for __.
a) British Library a) Network Management
b) Library of Congress b) Graphical User Interface
c) Stanford University Libraries c) Relational Interface in database
d) Helsinki University Library management
Answer: Helsinki University Library d) Database management system
59. In Network layer, the data packets Answer: Graphical User Interface
uses __ of devices to transfer data. 64. Knowledge Graph Infoboxes are used
a) MAC address in __.
b) IP address a) Yahoo
c) URL b) Altavista
d) PURL c) Google
Answer: IP address d) Rediff
60. Digital Object Identifier (DOI) is an __. Answer: Google
a) Internet based global network and 65. RSS Feed is generally arranged in __.
resolution system a) Alphabetical order
b) Internet based global naming and b) Chronological order
resolution system c) Reverse chronological order
c) Internet based global network and d) Subject wise
repository system
Answer: Reverse chronological order
d) Internet based global naming and
repository system 66. RSS Feed is coded in __.
Answer: Internet based global naming and a) HTML
resolution system b) SGML
c) XML
61. Which among the following is
d) TIFF
considered 'Active topology'?
Answer: XML
a) Ring topology
b) Bus topology 67. The Network layer concern with __.
c) Star topology a) Frames
d) All the above b) Bits
c) Packets Answer: Adding of gratuitous and

d) None of the above impertinent words or information to a
Answer: Packets work or piece of writing or speech
extraneously making the same more
68. In data transfer process, which of the
longer.
following is used for strengthening the
signals? 71. The device that is required to translate
digital signals into analog form and back
a) Hubs
again is called __.
b) Repeater
c) Switching Packets a) Modem
d) Firewalls b) Router
c) Connector
Answer: Repeater
d) Switch
69. Steganography is a technique for __.
Answer: Modem
a) Transforming information into an
72. LANs (Local Area Networks) can be
unintelligible form to save from
connected by device called:
unauthorized access
b) Hiding secret data or messages witin a) Bridges
an ordinary file or messages to avoid b) Routers
detection or unauthorized access c) Modems
c) Adding unnecessary, nonsense data d) Ethernet Cards
or phrases to the beginning, middle Answer: Bridges
or end of a message to obscure the 73. Which one is odd in the group:
fact
a) OpenID
d) None of the above
b) Shibboleth
Answer: Hiding secret data or messages c) Ezproxy
witin an ordinary file or messages to avoid d) Vufind
detection or unauthorized access
Answer: Vufind
70. Information Padding is __.
74. Villanova University is related to the
a) Inclusion of a source in the development of __.
bibliography which is relevant to
a) eXtensible Catalog
your work and duly consulted.
b) Blacklight
b) Inclusion of a source in the
c) Vufind
bibliography though not consulted,
d) LibraryFind
but required for further reading.
c) Adding of gratuitous and Answer: Vufind
impertinent words or information to 75. Shibboleth remote login system is
a work or piece of writing or speech based on __.
extraneously making the same more a) HTML
longer. b) SGML
c) SAML

d) XML d) Image Networking site

Answer: SAML Answer: Image Networking site
76. OpenAthens Project is developed in 81. Which among the following is NOT a
__. social bookmarking sites?
a) UK a) Scoop.it
b) USA b) Pocket
c) Greece c) Feedly
d) France d) Reddit
Answer: UK Answer: Feedly
77. Which one of the following statements 82. Knimbus is located in __.
is NOT true about Folksonomy? a) New Delhi
a) It is user-generated classification b) Bangalore
b) It is an activity of collaborative c) Mumbai
categorization d) Hyderabad
c) It has precision in language and Answer: New Delhi
syndetic structure
83. Which among the following is a Wiki
d) It reflects general populace's
Application?
language and needs
a) Feedly
Answer: It has precision in language and
b) PBWorks
syndetic structure
c) LiveJournal
78. Which one of the following is NOT a d) None of the above
remote access tool to access subsscribed
Answer: PBWorks
content outside an organization network?
84. Who wrote the book 'The Wiki Way'?
a) OpenAthens
b) Ezproxy a) Larry Sanger
c) Virtual Private Network (VPN) b) Evan Williams
d) Primo c) Ward Cunningham
d) Magnus Manske
Answer: Primo
Answer: Ward Cunningham
79. What is Zoomerang?
85. F1000 Research is now owned by __.
a) A citation management tool
b) An online lexical tool a) Elsevier
c) An online survey tool b) ProQuest
d) A graphical software c) Taylor and Francis
d) McGraw-Hill
Answer: An online survey tool
Answer: Taylor and Francis
80. Flickr is a ___.
86. F1000 is headquartered in __.
a) Audio Networking site
b) Social Networking site a) London
c) Academic Networking site b) Geneva

c) Washington 91. OpenURL protocol is developed by __.

d) New York a) Alan Harvey Guth
Answer: London b) Georges Lemaitre
87. F1000 is an open access scientific c) Herbert Van de Sompel
publishing platform mainly in the field of d) Tim Berners Lee
__. Answer: Herbert Van de Sompel
a) Social Sciences 92. SFX Link Resolver is developed by __.
b) Life Sciences a) Innovative Interfaces
c) Humanities b) Ex Libris
d) Law c) EBSCO
Answer: Life Sciences d) OCLC
88. RFID reader or Interrogator is a device Answer: Ex Libris
that consists of __. 93. OpenURL is a NISO Standard ___.
a) Antenna, Transceiver, and Decoder a) Z39.50
b) Microchip, Battery and Antenna b) Z39.84
c) RFID Label Printer, Server and c) Z39.88
External Book Return d) Z39.90
d) Social Clock, Microwave, and
Answer: Z39.88
Package
94. WebBridge Link Resolver is developed
Answer: Microchip, Battery and Antenna
by __.
89. BLUEcloud Library Services Platform
a) Innovative Interfaces
(LSP) is developed by __
b) OCLC
a) SirsiDynix c) Ex Libris
b) LibSys d) OVID
c) Informatics India
Answer: Innovative Interfaces
d) ProQuest
95. ________ is an important record of
Answer: SirsiDynix
books, which shows the position of any
90. 'COUNTER' stands for __. book on the shelves.
a) Collaborating Online Usage of a. Bay Guide
Networked Electronic Resources b. Authority File
b) Counting Online Usage of c. Accession List
Networked Electronic Resources d. Shelf List
c) Counting Offline Usage of
Answer: Shelf List
Networked Electronic Resources
d) Collaborating Offline Usage of 96. MARC 21 provides how many types of
Networked Electronic Resources data communication formats?
Answer: Counting Online Usage of (a) 2
Networked Electronic Resources (b) 4
(c) 5

(d) 7 a. 1985
Answer: 5 b. 1982
c. 1980
97. ‘Fair use’ is the norm for determining
d. None Of The Above
the legality of
Answer: 1985
a. Producing the second edition of a
book 102. What is a bug?
b. Photocopying an entire book a. Computer Virus
c. Making available a book to another b. Error in Computer Configuration
library on inter-library loan c. Error in a Programme
d. Prescribing a book as a text book d. None of these
Answer: Photocopying an entire book Answer: Error in a Programme
98. ________ is a process of helping 103. ISO-9960 is related with?
employees in an organization to acquire a. Standard for encoding data on CD-
new skills and competence on a continuing ROM
basis b. Standard for Computer Hardware
a. Total Quality Management c. Standard for Information Processing
b. Management Information System d. Standard for Networking
c. Financial Resources Development Answer: Standard for encoding data on CD-
d. None of the above ROM
Answer: Total Quality Management 104. Information retrieval is fastest from
99. On which of the following technologies a. Floppy Disk
semantic web is not based? b. Magnetic Tape
a. RDF c. Hard Disk
b. Ontologies d. None Of The Above
c. Cloud seeding Answer: Hard Disk
d. none of the above
105. The CD alphabets in CDS/ISIS stands
Answer: Cloud seeding for
100. What are three types of basic a. Computerized Documentation
languages used in computer programming? b. Condensed Disk
a. Zero, low and high levels c. Confirmed Disc
b. COBOL, BASIC and PROLOG d. Compact Disc
c. Machine, Assembly and high level Answer: Computerized Documentation
languages
106. Following is not a social bookmarking
site:
Answer: Machine, Assembly and high level
a. Digg
languages
b. Delicious
101. When CD-ROM was prepared and c. Sqidoo
made? d. None of the above

Answer: Sqidoo Answer: Online Computer Library Center

107. Following is not a Web 2.0 tool: 113. Annual Convention of INFLIBNET
a. Blog organized to discuss the progress of the
b. Facebook library automation and library services is
c. UGC-INFONET 2.0 known as:
d. RSS feeds a. ISCON
Answer: UGC-INFONET 2.0 b. NACLIN
c. CALIBER
108. Which type of protocol is used by
interface for public data network (PDN)?
Answer: CALIBER
a. X.25
b. X.12 114. Dublin Core Metadata” consists of:
c. X.13 a. 11 elements
d. All of the above b. 15 elements
Answer: X.25 c. 10 elements
109. Resource sharing is a part of …
Answer: 15 elements
a. Library cooperation
b. Library administration 115. Identify the development in the
c. Library management following library software’s in correct
d. None of these chronological sequence.
Answer: Library cooperation a. CDS/ISIS, SOUL, Green Stone, D-
Space
110. What is APS?
b. D-Space, SOUL, CDS/ISIS, Green
a. A Search Engine? Stone
b. A Full-text e-resource c. Green Stone, CDS/ISIS, D-Space,
c. Bibliographic database SOUL
d. None of the above d. SOUL, D-Space, Green Stone,
Answer: A Full-text e-resource CDS/ISIS
111. One of the following is not open Answer: CDS/ISIS, SOUL, Green Stone, D-
source software: Space
a. D space 116. OAI stands for
b. Windows a. Open Access Initiatives
c. Green-stone b. Open Archives Initiatives
d. Linux c. On-line Archives Initiatives
Answer: Windows d. On-line Access Initiatives
112. World Cat is maintained by Answer: Open Archives Initiatives
a. Library of Congress 117. RDA stands for
b. Online Computer Library Center a. Resource Description Agency
c. American Library Association b. Reference Description and Access
c. Reference Description Agency d. None of these

d. Resource Description and Access Answer: (A) is true but (R) is false
Answer: Resource Description and Access 122. Virtua accommodates Different
118. Conversion of barcode into electrical version of the MARC Standard?
signals id done by: a. USMARC
a. Scanners b. UKMARC
b. CRT c. CANMARC
c. Photo sensor d. SWEMARC/All of above
d. None of the above Answer: SWEMARC/All of above
Answer: Scanners 123. Questionnaire is a :
119. Arrange the following library a. Research method
automation software according to their b. Measurement Technique
date of origin: (i) SOUL (ii) KOHA (iii) New c. Tool for data collection
GENLIB (iv) LIBSYS Codes: d. None Of The Above
a. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) Answer: Tool for data collection
b. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
124. The term ‘Cyberspace’ was first used
c. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
by
d. none of the above
a. Andrew Pollock
Answer: (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
b. William Gibson
120. Select the right chronological c. John Postal
sequence of information systems, as per d. Joe Flower
their year of establishment
Answer: William Gibson
a. INIS, AGRIS, NISSAT, Patent
125. JSTOR is an online system for
Information System (India)
archiving and accessing academic journals.
b. AGRIS, NISSAT, INIS, Patent
It is located in
Information System (India)
c. Patent Information System (India), a. Germany
INIS, AGRIS, NISSAT b. UK
d. None Of The Above c. USA
Answer: Patent Information System
(India), INIS, AGRIS, NISSAT Answer: USA
121. Assertion (A): Web OPAC is a 126. Which among the following is a digital
computerized library catalogue available library software used in the creation of an
to the patrons online. Reason (R): It can be in-house digital library:
searched by the users within the four walls a. LIBSYS
of the library only. Codes: b. Greenstone
a. (A) is true but (R) is false c. Alice for Windows
b. (A) is false but (R) is true d. Micro CDS / ISIS
c. Both (A) and (R) are true Answer: Greenstone

127. Blog is a c. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

a. Off-line Journal d. None of the above
b. Internet Journal Answer: (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
c. Web Directory 133. NACLIN is sponsored by:
d. All of the above
a. INFLIBNET
Answer: Internet Journal b. DELNET
128. The following is the search engine for c. AGRINET
scientific information only: d. None Of The Above
a. Google Answer: DELNET
b. SCIRUS 134. What type of computing technology
c. Yahoo refers to services and applications that
d. None of these typically run on a distributed network
Answer: SCIRUS through virtualized resources?
129. Which of the following is a public a. Distributed Computing
domain database? b. Cloud Computing
a. INIS c. Soft Computing
b. AGRIS
d. Parallel Computing
c. Chemical Abstracts
d. None of the above Answer: B
Answer: AGRIS Explanation: Cloud computing is a
computing technique in which applications
130. The input Centre for INIS in India is
are accessed by common internet
a. DRDO protocols and networking standards.
b. DSIR
135. Which one of the following options
c. TFIR
can be considered as the Cloud?
d. BARC
a. Hadoop
Answer: BARC
b. Intranet
131. The complete bibliographic details in
MARC are available in: c. Web Applications
a. Leader d. All of the mentioned
b. Control fields Answer: A
c. Variable fields Explanation: Whenever any intranet
d. None of the above becomes large enough in size that a
Answer: Variable fields diagram is not able to differentiate the
132. Arrange the following Online Systems individual physical system, so at that stage
in the order of their origin: (i) ERIC (ii) intranet also becomes known as a cloud.
MEDLINE (iii) OCLC (iv) MARC Codes: Hadoop can be considered as a cloud.
a. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 136. Cloud computing is a kind of
b. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) abstraction which is based on the notion of

combining physical resources and unknown, administration of the systems

represents them as _______resources to are outsourced to others and can be
users. accessed by the user.
a. Real 139. Which one of the following
b. Cloud statements is not true?
c. Virtual a. The popularization of the Internet
actually enabled most cloud computing
d. none of the mentioned
systems.
Answer: C
b. Cloud computing makes the long-
Explanation: Cloud Computing is a kind of held dream of utility as a payment possible
new model for providing resources for for you, with an infinitely scalable,
applications such as staging applications, universally available system, pay what you
platform-independent user access to use.
services.
c. Soft computing addresses a real
137. Which of the following has many paradigm in the way in which the system is
features of that is now known as cloud deployed.
computing?
d. All of the mentioned
a. Web Service
Answer: C
b. Softwares
Explanation: Cloud computing is
c. All of the mentioned distinguished by the notion that resources
d. Internet are virtual and infinite and describe the
Answer: D physical systems on which software runs in
the abstracted manner from the user.
Explanation: Internet provides the
abstraction, runs through the same set of 140. Which one of the following can be
protocols and standards, and uses the considered as a utility is a dream that
same operating system and applications. dates from the beginning of the computing
industry itself?
138. Which one of the following cloud
concepts is related to sharing and pooling a. Computing
the resources? b. Model
a. Polymorphism c. Software
b. Virtualization d. All of the mentioned
c. Abstraction Answer: A
d. None of the mentioned Explanation: Cloud computing takes the
Answer: B technology, services, and applications that
are similar to those on the Internet and
Explanation: The application runs on
physical systems that are not specified in turns them into a self-service utility.
real. The information stored in the 141. Which of the following is an essential
locations that are also not specified or concept related to Cloud?

a. Reliability infrastructure as a service and lets you rent

b. Abstraction virtual computers on its own
infrastructure.
c. Productivity
144. What does QR stand for?
d. All of the mentioned
a) Quit Reading
Answer: B
b) Quiet Response
Explanation: Cloud computing hides all the c) Quick Rite
detail of system implementation from d) Quick Response
users and developers.
Answer: d
142. Which one of the following is Cloud
145. What does a QR code do
Platform by Amazon?
a) Hacks your computer
a. Azure
b) Nothing
b. AWS c) A code you can scan using a QR code
c. Cloudera scanner to open up a link (not just
d. All of the mentioned websites)
Answer: B d) Looks wierd
Answer: c
Explanation: Amazon web service is one of
the most successful cloud-based 146. Qr codes are always black and white
businesses, which offers infrastructure as a a) True
service and lets you rent virtual computers b) False
on its own infrastructure. Answer: b
143. Which of the following statement is 147. What is the QR code's purpose
not true?
a) To make life easier when inputting
a. Through cloud computing, one can data
begin with very small and become big in a b) To annoy people
rapid manner. c) To create a new link
b. All applications benefit from d) To do nothing
deployment in the Cloud. Answer: a
c. Cloud computing is revolutionary, 148. What is the cost of using QR codes?
even though the technology it is built on is
a) $10,000,000
evolutionary.
b) NOTHING!!!
d. None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Answer: B
149. What do the students need to do to
Explanation: A variety of issues, such as use QR codes?
issues with latency, security, and
a) Ask the teacher nicely
regulatory compliance, all are subject to
b) Write a paper about it
concern. AWS is one of the most successful
c) Download an app
cloud-based businesses, which is a type of
d) Pass a quiz
Answer: c b) It can store lesser data than

150. Are QR codes only digital? conventional bar code
a) No c) It can carry information both
b) Yes horizontally and vertically
Answer; a d) It can be read only by a bar code
reader
151. How many digits in the standard
barcode? The standard barcode has 12 Answer: c
digits. 156. The first bar code was issued in
a) 9 digits a) 1911
b) 10 digits b) 1988
c) 12 digits c) 1952
d) 4 digits d) 1918
Answer: c Answer: c
152. What information can a QR code 157. The first patent for bar code was
contain? issued by
a) color and size a) Sir Joseph Woodland Bernard
b) names and locations where sold. b) Sir Samuel W. Francis
c) links to the store's web site c) Sir Stephen Poplawski
d) All of the above d) Sir Louis Braille
Answer: d Answer: a
153. What two things does the barcode tell 158. How many components does the RFID
about a product? system consists of?
a) It identifies the maker. a) One
b) It identifies the product b) Two
c) It identifies both the maker and the c) Three
product. d) Four
Answer: d Answer: b
154. Surveys can be used to get data on 159. What is a different kind of radio
any topic area? frequency identification tags?
a) True a) Active
b) False b) Semi-passive
Answer: a c) Passive
d) All of the above
155. Which of the following is correct
about QR Code? Answer: d
a) It is a 3D Matrix machine readable 160. Which tag doesn’t have its own power
code supply?
a) Active
b) Semi-passive
c) Passive a) Up to 10cms
d) None of the above b) Up to 60cms
Answer: c c) 10 to 15 meters
161. In which RFID tag, the range is less? Answer: c
a) Active 167. For high frequency and low frequency
b) Semi-passive RFID tags the working principle is based on
c) Passive ____________
d) None of the above a) Inductive coupling
Answer: c b) Electromagnetic coupling
c) Both a and b
162. How many components does the RFID
reader consist of?
Answer: a
a) One
b) Two 168. For ultra-high frequency RFID tags the
c) Three working principle is based on
d) Four ____________
Answer: c a) Inductive coupling
b) Electromagnetic coupling
163. In which frequency range does the
c) Both a and b
RFID system operate?
a) High-frequency
Answer: b
b) Low-frequency
c) Ultra high-frequency 169. What are the strengths of RFID?
d) All of the above a) Advanced technology
Answer: d b) Small in size, easy to use
c) Has high memory capacity
164. What is the range of RFID tags which
d) All of the above
is using the low frequency?
Answer: d
a) Up to 10cms
b) Up to 60cms 170. What is the standard form of EPC?
c) Up to 80cms a) Electronic Product Code
d) Up to 10cms b) Electrical Product Code
Answer: a c) Electronic Process Code
is using the high frequency? Answer: b
a) Up to 10cms 171. What is the standard form of PML?
b) Up to 1meter a) Process Markup Language
c) Up to 80cms b) Physical Markup Language
Answer: b c) Product Markup Language
are using the ultra-high frequency? Answer: b

172. In which of the following line of sight Answer: b. Small Search Space
is required? Explanation: Blind Search is also known as
a) RFID uninformed search, and it does not contain
b) Barcode any domain information such as closeness,
c) Both a and b location of the goal, etc. Hence the most
d) None of the above appropriate situation that can be used for
Answer: b the blind search is Small-search Space.
173. Artificial Intelligence is about_____. 176. The application/applications of
Artificial Intelligence is/are
a. Playing a game on Computer
a. Expert Systems
b. Making a machine Intelligent
b. Gaming
c. Programming on Machine with your
Own Intelligence c. Vision Systems
d. Putting your intelligence in Machine d. All of the above
Answer: b. Making a machine Intelligent. Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: Artificial Intelligence is a Explanation: All the given options are the
branch of Computer science, which aims to applications of AI.
create intelligent machines so that 177. Among the given options, which
machine can think intelligently in the same search algorithm requires less memory?
manner as a human does. a. Optimal Search
174. Who is known as the -Father of AI"? b. Depth First Search
a. Fisher Ada c. Breadth-First Search
b. Alan Turing d. Linear Search
c. John McCarthy Answer: b. Depth First Search
d. Allen Newell Explanation: The Depth Search Algorithm
Answer: c. John McCarthy or DFS requires very little memory as it
Explanation: John McCarthy was a pioneer only stores the stack of nodes from the
in the AI field and known as the father of root node to the current node.
Artificial intelligence. He was not only the
known as the father of AI but also invented
the term Artificial Intelligence.
175. Select the most appropriate situation
for that a blind search can be used.
a. Real-life situation
b. Small Search Space
c. Complex game
d. All of the above

178. If a robot is able to change its own Explanation: In the year 1950,
trajectory as per the external conditions, mathematician and computing
then the robot is considered as the__ pioneer Alan Turing introduced a test to
a. Mobile determine whether a machine can think
like a human or not, which means it can
b. Non-Servo
demonstrate intelligence, known as
c. Open Loop the Turing Test. It was based on
d. Intelligent the "Imitation game" with some
Answer: d. Intelligent modifications. This technique is still a
measure of various successful AI projects,
Explanation: If a robot is able to change its
own trajectory as per the external with some updates.
conditions, then the robot is considered 181. The component of an Expert system
intelligent. Such type of agents come is_________.
under the category of AI agents or Rational a. Knowledge Base
Agents. b. Inference Engine
179. Which of the given language is not c. User Interface
commonly used for AI?
d. All of the above
a. LISP
Answer: d. All of the above
b. PROLOG
Explanation: Expert system is a part of AI
c. Python and a computer program that is used to
d. Perl solve complex problems, and to give the
Answer: d. Perl decision-making ability like human. It does
this with the help of a Knowledge base,
Explanation: Among the given languages,
Perl is not commonly used for AI. LISP and Inference engine, and User interface, and
PROLOG are the two languages that have all these are the components of an Expert
System.
been broadly used for AI innovation, and
the most preferred language is Python for
AI and Machine learning.
180. A technique that was developed to
determine whether a machine could or
could not demonstrate the artificial
intelligence known as the___
182. Which algorithm is used in the Game
a. Boolean Algebra
tree to make decisions of Win/Lose?
b. Turing Test
a. Heuristic Search Algorithm
c. Logarithm
b. DFS/BFS algorithm
d. Algorithm
c. Greedy Search Algorithm
Answer: b. Turing Test
d. Min/Max algorithm

Answer: d. Min/Max Algorithm 185. An AI agent perceives and acts upon

Explanation: A game tree is a directed the environment using___.
graph whose nodes represent the positions a. Sensors
in Game and edges represent the moves. b. Perceiver
To make any decision, the game tree uses
c. Actuators
the Min/Max algorithm. The Min/Max
algorithm is the preferred one over other d. Both a and c
search algorithms, as it provides the best Answer: d. Both a and c.
move to the player, assuming that the Explanation: An AI agent perceives and
opponent is also playing Optimally. acts upon the environment using Sensors
183. The available ways to solve a problem and Actuators. With Sensors, it senses the
of state-space-search. surrounding, and with Actuators, it acts on
a. 1 it.
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: b. 2
Explanation: There are only two ways to
solve the problems of state-space search.
184. Among the given options, which is not
186. Which rule is applied for the Simple
the required property of Knowledge
reflex agent?
representation?
a. Simple-action rule
a. Inferential Efficiency
b. Simple &Condition-action rule
b. Inferential Adequacy
c. Condition-action rule
c. Representational Verification
d. Representational Adequacy
Answer: c. Condition-action rule
Answer: C. Representational Verification
Explanation: The simple reflex agent takes
Explanation: Knowledge representation is
decisions only on the current condition and
the part of Artificial Intelligence that deals
acts accordingly; it ignores the rest of
with AI agent thinking and how their
history; hence it follows the Condition-
thinking affects the intelligent behavior of
action rule.
agents. A good knowledge representation
requires the following properties: 187. Which agent deals with the happy and
unhappy state?
o Representational Accuracy
a. Utility-based agent
o Inferential Adequacy
b. Model-based agent
o Inferential Efficiency
c. Goal-based Agent
o Acquisitional efficiency

d. Learning Agent a. Image Compression

Answer: a. Utility-based agent b. Image Editing
Explanation: Utility-based agent uses an c. Image Enhancement
extra component of utility that provides a d. Image Format
measure of success at a given state. It
Answer: d
decides that how efficient that state to
achieve the goal, which specifies the 193. Storage media that is considered
happiness of the agent. more reliable for preservation is:
188. Bit-stream refers to: a. Optical Disc
a. Transmission of sequence of bits b. Magnetic Disc

b. bits & bytes c. DAT
c. Video streaming d. Microfiche
d. Audio streaming Answer: d
Answer: a 194. Technological Obsolescence refers to:
189. Digital image technology can be used a. Obsolescence of Hardware
to create a copy of: b. Obsolescence of Software
High-quality of an original item
a. c. Obsolescence of File Format
Low-quality of an original item
b. d. All of the above
Same as an original item
c.
Answer: d
None of the above
d.
195. The term “analogue back-up” in
Answer: a context of digital preservation means:
190. Digital preservation addresses the
a. Taking a microfilm or high-quality
issue of: print
a. Storage
b. Bit-stream copying
b. Access c. Data Abstraction
c. Preservation
d. Canonicalization
d. All of the above Answer: a
Answer: d
196. The term “de facto standard” refers
191. Digital signature is mechanism used to:
for:
a. Standard used most widely or by
a. IP Enabling default
b. Information Retrieval b. Non-proprietary standard
c. Authentication c. ISO Standard
d. Searching d. WIPO Standard
Answer: c Answer: a
192. JPEG 2000 is standard used for:

197. The term “software re-engineering” in b. Software Re-engineering

context of digital preservation means: c. Emulation
a. Buying newer version of the d. Bit-stream copying
software
Answer: c
b. Making source code available in
202. Which one of the following is not a
public domain under GNU license
digital preservation strategy?
c. Re-writing and re-compilation of
a. Replication
source code
b. Bit-stream Copying
d. Embedding software in EPROM
c. Refreshing
Answer: c
d. Digital Watermarking
198. Universal Virtual Computer is a form
of: Answer: d
a. Encapsulation 203. Which one of the following is not a
short-term preservation strategy:
b. Emulation
a. Bit-stream copying
c. Normalization
b. Refreshing
d. Replication
c. Migration
Answer: b
d. Technology Preservation
199. Which one of the following has the
highest storage capacity: Answer: c
a. Microfiche 204. Which one of the following media is
likely to last longest:
b. Magnetic Harddisc
a. Paper
c. CD ROM
b. Microfiche
d. DVD ROM
c. CD ROM
Answer: d
d. Clay Tablet
200. Which one of the following is a
“Investment Strategy” for digital Answer: d
preservation: 205. Which one the following is not a
a. Migration proprietary file formats?
b. Encapsulation a. DOC
c. Emulation b. GIF
d. Replication c. JPEG
Answer: b d. TIFF
201. Which one of the following is a Answer: d

“Medium to Long-term Strategy” for digital 206. Which process is used for making an
preservation: exact duplicate of a digital object?
a. Refreshing a. Bit-stream copying

b. Refreshing a) SHERPA/FACT
c. Migration b) SHERPA/RoMEO
c) SHERPA/Juliet
d. Analogue backups
Answer: b
Answer: a
212. Which one of the creative commons
207. “Technology Preservation” is also
licenses are considered for commercial
referred to as:
use?
a. Version Migration
a) BY-NC-ND
b. Backward Compatibility b) BY-ND
c. Computer Museum c) BY-NC
d. Digital Archaeology Answer: b
Answer: c 213. What is/are the main barrier(s) in
208. Bethesda's statement on Open Access using the Open Educational Resources
Publishing took place in the year? (OER)?
a) 2001 a) Lack of time
b) 2002 b) Lack of awareness
c) 2003 c) Low internet connectivity
d) 2005 d) All of the above
Answer: c Answer: d
209. Which one of the following copyright 214. When the National Repository of
licenses is enclosed with software in Open Educational Resources (NROER) was
plastic-wrapped packaging? launched?
a) Shrink Wrap License a) 13 August 2014
b) Browse Wrap License b) 13 August 2013
c) Implied License c) 13 April 2014
d) Express Written Contractual License d) 13 April 2013
Answer: a Answer: b
210. Which one of the following 215. Which one of the following institutes
permissions is not related to Open did not took part in the first phase of the
Licensing? National Programme on Technology
a) Revise Enhanced Learning (NPTEL)?
b) Redistribute a) Indian Institute of Technology Delhi
c) Retain b) Indian Institute of Science
d) Revoke c) Indian Institute of Technology Patna
Answer: d d) Indian Institute of Technology
Guwahati
211. Which service of SHERPA is involved
Answer: c
in copyright and open access self-archiving
policies for academic journals?

216. What is/are the project(s) and 221. In a Click Wrap Agreement, a user
program(s) relating to INFLIBNET? must agree to terms and conditions before
a) IRINS using the product or service.
b) VIDWAN a) True
c) e-PGPathshala b) False
d) All of the above Answer: a
Answer: d 222. Two major characteristics of open
217. The MHRD has formed e-ShodhSindhu source software licenses are
by merging three consortia initiatives, a) Open and no IPR
namely UGC-INFONET, N-LIST, and b) Free copyright & free distribution
_________. c) Free distribution and open source
a) INDEST-AICTE code
b) INDCAT d) Free license and no IPR
c) DelCON Answer: c
d) NKRC
223. EULA stands for
Answer: a
a) E-monitoring Library for Academics
218. When did NPTEL begin offering open b) End User Logistics Association
online courses or MOOCs? c) Electronic Usage of Library
a) 2014 Acquisitions
b) 2015 d) End User License Agreement
c) 2016 Answer: d
d) 2017
224. When did the NPTEL begin its Phase
Answer: a II?
219. What is the name of the publisher a) 2010
who participated in the TULIP program? b) 2009
a) Springer c) 2008
b) Elsevier d) 2007
c) SAGE Answer: b
d) JSTOR
Answer: b commonly used OER repository?
220. In which year, the Journal Rankings a) COL-DOER
and Impact Factor (IF) metrics were b) OER Commons
introduced by the Science Citation Index? c) Wikimedia Commons
a) 1991 d) All of the above
b) 1964 Answer: d
c) 1972
226. Which search engine is commonly
d) 1986
used to find, locate and retrieve OER?
Answer: b
a) Bing

b) Google 232. The development of the semantic web

c) Yahoo! proceeds in steps, each step building a
d) None of the above _______ on top of another.
Answer: b (a) Signal
227. Mention the name of the OER portal (b) Layer
that supports the international community (c) Relation
of educators, learners, and researchers. (d) None of thes
a) Dgroups.org Answer; b
b) ePathshala 233. Which of the following refers to the
c) ePGPathshala problem of finding abstracted patterns (or
d) MERLOT structures) in the unlabeled data?
Answer: d a. Supervised learning
228. The Semantic web is a __________ . b. Unsupervised learning
(a) Web of data c. Hybrid learning
(b) global database d. Reinforcement learning
(c) Both a & b
Answer: b
(d) none of these
Explanation: Unsupervised learning is a
Answer; c
type of machine learning algorithm that is
229. RDF Stands for _____________ . generally used to find the hidden
(a) Resource Description Framework structured and patterns in the given
(b) Result Defined Framework unlabeled data.
(c) Reference Data Frame 234. Which one of the following refers to
(d) Relate Data Frame querying the unstructured textual data?
Answer: a a. Information access
230. In the context of web, ___________ b. Information update
provide a shared understanding of a
c. Information retrieval
domain.
d. Information manipulation
(a) Ontology
(b) Range Answer: c
(c) Relationship Explanation: Information retrieval refers to
(a) All of these querying the unstructured textual data.
Answer: a We can also understand information
retrieval as an activity (or process) in
231. _______are pieces of software the
which the tasks of obtaining information
work autonomously and proactively.
from system recourses that are relevant to
(a) Agents the information required from the huge
(b) Layers source of information.
(c) None of these
Answer: a

235. Which of the following can be Explanation: The term KDD or Knowledge
considered as the correct process of Data Discovery Database is refers to a broad
Mining? process of discovering the knowledge in
a. Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis, the data and emphasizes the high-level
Interpretation, Exploitation applications of specific Data Mining
techniques as well.
b. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis,
Interpretation, Exploitation 238. The adaptive system management
refers to:
c. Exploration, Infrastructure,
Interpretation, Analysis, Exploitation a. Science of making machine performs
the task that would require intelligence
d. Exploration, Infrastructure, Analysis,
when performed by humans.
Exploitation, Interpretation
b. A computational procedure that
Answer: a
takes some values as input and produces
Explanation: The process of data mining some values as the output.
contains many sub-processes in a specific
c. It uses machine learning techniques,
order. The correct order in which all sub-
in which programs learn from their past
processes of data mining executes is
experience and adapt themself to new
Infrastructure, Exploration, Analysis,
conditions or situations.
Interpretation, and Exploitation.
d. All of the above.
236. Which of the following is an essential
process in which the intelligent methods Answer: c
are applied to extract data patterns? Explanation: Generally, adaptive system
a. Warehousing management refers to using machine
learning techniques. In which the programs
b. Data Mining
learn from their past experience and adapt
c. Text Mining themselves for new conditions and events.
d. Data Selection 239. For what purpose, the analysis tools
Answer: b pre-compute the summaries of the huge
Explanation: Data mining is a type of amount of data?
process in which several intelligent a. In order to maintain consistency
methods are used to extract meaningful b. For authentication
data from the huge collection ( or set) of
c. For data access
data.
d. To obtain the queries response
237. What is KDD in data mining?
Answer: d
a. Knowledge Discovery Database
Explanation: Whenever a query is fired,
b. Knowledge Discovery Data
the response of the query would be put
c. Knowledge Data definition very earlier. So, for the query response,
d. Knowledge data house the analysis tools pre-compute the
Answer: a summaries of the huge amount of data. To

understand it in more details, consider the

following example:
Suppose that to get some information
about something, you write a keyword in
Google search. Google's analytical tools
will then pre-compute large amounts of
data to provide a quick output related to
the keywords you have written.
240. What are the functions of Data
Mining?
a. Association and correctional analysis
classification
b. Prediction and characterization a. Hierarchal
c. Cluster analysis and Evolution b. Naive Bayes
analysis
c. Partitional
d. All of the above
Answer: d
Answer: a
Explanation: In data mining, there are
Explanation: In the above-given diagram,
several functionalities used for performing
the hierarchal type of clustering is used.
the different types of tasks. The common
The hierarchal type of clustering
functionalities used in data mining are
categorizes data through a variety of scales
cluster analysis, prediction,
by making a cluster tree. So the correct
characterization, and evolution. Still, the
answer is A.
association and correctional analysis
classification are also one of the important 242. Which of the following statements is
functionalities of data mining. incorrect about the hierarchal clustering?
241. In the following given diagram, which a. The hierarchal type of clustering is
type of clustering is used? also known as the HCA
b. The choice of an appropriate metric
can influence the shape of the cluster
c. In general, the splits and merges
both are determined in a greedy manner
d. All of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: All following statements
given in the above question are incorrect,
so the correct answer is D.

243. As companies move past the with Hadoop would give a better
experimental phase with Hadoop, many understanding of data.
cite the need for additional capabilities, 246. Hadoop is a framework that works
including _______________ with a variety of related tools. Common
a) Improved data storage and information cohorts include ____________
retrieval a) MapReduce, Hive and HBase
b) Improved extract, transform and load b) MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps
features for data integration c) MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana
c) Improved data warehousing d) MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet
functionality
Answer: a
d) Improved security, workload
Explanation: To use Hive with HBase you’ll
management, and SQL support
typically want to launch two clusters, one
Answer: d to run HBase and the other to run Hive.
Explanation: Adding security to Hadoop is
247. Point out the wrong statement.
challenging because all the interactions do
a) Hardtop processing capabilities are huge
not follow the classic client-server pattern.
and its real advantage lies in the ability to
244. Point out the correct statement. process terabytes & petabytes of data
a) Hadoop do need specialized hardware b) Hadoop uses a programming model
to process the data called “MapReduce”, all the programs
b) Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream should conform to this model in order to
processing of real-time data work on the Hadoop platform
c) In the Hadoop programming framework c) The programming model, MapReduce,
output files are divided into lines or used by Hadoop is difficult to write and
records test
d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Hadoop batch processes data Explanation: The programming model,
distributed over a number of computers MapReduce, used by Hadoop is simple to
ranging in 100s and 1000s. write and test.
245. According to analysts, for what can 248. What was Hadoop named after?
traditional IT systems provide a foundation a) Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus
when they’re integrated with big data act
technologies like Hadoop? b) Cutting’s high school rock band
a) Big data management and data mining c) The toy elephant of Cutting’s son
b) Data warehousing and business d) A sound Cutting’s laptop made during
intelligence Hadoop development
c) Management of Hadoop clusters
Answer: c
d) Collecting and storing unstructured data
Explanation: Doug Cutting, Hadoop
Answer: a creator, named the framework after his
Explanation: Data warehousing integrated child’s stuffed toy elephant.

249. All of the following accurately Answer: a

describe Hadoop, EXCEPT ____________ Explanation: Prism automatically replicates
a) Open-source and moves data wherever it’s needed
b) Real-time across a vast network of computing
c) Java-based facilities.
d) Distributed computing approach 253. Data that has been generated with
Answer: b no connection to the Internet, and then
Explanation: Apache Hadoop is an open- registered into a system, which may be
source software framework for distributed accessed via the Internet later called
storage and distributed processing of Big A. offline originated data
Data on clusters of commodity hardware.
B. online originated data
250. __________ can best be described as
C. both a & b
a programming model used to develop
Hadoop-based applications that can D. none of the above
process massive amounts of data. Answer» A. offline originated data
a) MapReduce 254. What is one of the big differences
b) Mahout between traditional media and social
c) Oozie media?
d) All of the mentioned A. participatory production.
Answer: a B. social media reaches only a few
Explanation: MapReduce is a programming people at a time.
model and an associated implementation
for processing and generating large data C. the management structure of the
sets with a parallel, distributed algorithm. companies.
251. __________ has the world’s largest D. traditional media offers no way for
Hadoop cluster. audiences to communicate with media
a) Apple producers.
b) Datamatics Answer» A. participatory production.
c) Facebook 255. Estimated metrics include ………….
d) None of the mentioned which provide the number of times a user
Answer: c has potentially seen a certain piece of
Explanation: Facebook has many Hadoop content or advertising.
clusters, the largest among them is the one A. views
that is used for Data warehousing. B. impressions
252. Facebook Tackles Big Data With C. reach
_______ based on Hadoop.
D. all of the above
a) ‘Project Prism’
b) ‘Prism’ Answer» D. all of the above
c) ‘Project Big’ 256. ____________is a very fragile and
d) ‘Project Data’ unstable way of gathering data, because

when anything changes on the web site, B. click table rate

the source code is changed, C. click through rate
A. data mining D. clicks through rate
B. web crawling/scraping Answer» C. click through rate
C. both a & b 261. Which of the following clustering
D. none of the above requires merging approach?
Answer» B. web crawling/scraping A. Partitional
257. It allows a programmer to see a clear B. Hierarchical
structure of the information that is stored C. Naive Bayes
in the application Called
D. None of the mentioned
A. api
Answer» B. Hierarchical
B. program
262. Which of the following function is
C. data used for k-means clustering?
D. none of the above A. k-means
Answer» A. api B. k-mean
258. In terms of Facebook's ranking C. heatmap
algorithm, what does "weight" refer to?
D. None of the mentioned
A. the amount of comments, likes, etc.
Answer» A. k-means
a content post receives
263. For propositional Logic, which
B. how often a profile produces
statement is false?
content
a. The sentences of Propositional logic
C. how many highly ranked content
can have answers other than True or False.
posts a profile has in a given week
b. Each sentence is a declarative
D. how many followers/friends a
sentence.
company has
c. Propositional logic is a knowledge
Answer» A. the amount of comments,
representation technique in AI.
likes, etc. a content post receives
259. What is the name of Facebook's
Analytics tool? Answer: a. The sentences of Propositional
logic can have answers other than True or
A. facebook analytics
False
B. edge rank
Explanation: Propositional Knowledge or
C. page rank PL is the simplest form of logic that is used
D. insights to represent the knowledge, where all the
Answer» D. insights sentences are propositions. In this, each
sentence is a declarative sentence that can
260. What is CTR?
only be either true or False.
A. cost through rate

Such as, It is Sunday today. This sentence 259. Ways to achieve AI in real-life
can be either true or false only. are_________.
257. First order logic Statements a. Machine Learning
contains______. b. Deep Learning
a. Predicate and Preposition c. Both a & b
b. Subject and an Object d. None of the above
c. Predicate and Subject Answer: c. Both a &b
d. None of the above Explanation: Machine Learning and Deep
Answer: c. Predicate and Subject Learning are the two ways to achieve AI in
Explanation: The first-order logic is also real life.
known as the First-order predicate logic, 260. The main tasks of an AI agent
which is another way of knowledge are_______.
representation. The FOL statements a. Input and Output
contain two parts that are subject and
b. Moment and Humanly Actions
Predicate.
c. Perceiving, thinking, and acting on
For e.g., X is an Integer; In this, X is Subject
the environment
and Is an Integer is Predicate.
Answer: c. Perceiving, thinking, and acting
on the environment
Explanation: The AI agent is the rational
agent that runs in the cycle of Perceive,
think, and act.
258. A knowledge-based agent can be
defined with _____ levels. 261. The probabilistic reasoning depends
upon____________.
a. 2 Levels
a. Estimation
b. 3 Levels
b. Observations
c. 4 Levels
c. Likelihood
d. All of the above
Answer: b. 3 Levels
Answer: d. All of the above
Explanation: The knowledge-based agents
have the capability of making decisions Explanation: The probabilistic reasoning is
and reasoning to act efficiently. It can be used to represent uncertain knowledge,
viewed at three different levels, which are: where we are not sure about the
predicates. It depends Upon Estimation,
o Knowledge Level
Observation, and likelihood of objects.
o Logical Level
262. The inference engine works on
o Implementation Level ______.

a. Forward Chaining c. Wrong Values

b. Backward Chaining d. None of the above
c. Both a and b Answer: b. Estimated Values
d. None of the above Explanation: Like all probability theories
Answer: c. Both a and b and methods, Conditional Probability also
provides the estimated result value, which
Explanation: The inference engine is the
means the probability of an event to occur,
component of the intelligent system in
not a 100% accurate result.
artificial intelligence, which applies logical
rules to the knowledge base to infer new 265. The best AI agent is one
information from known facts. The first which____________
inference engine was part of the expert a. Needs user inputs for solving any
system. Inference engine commonly problem
proceeds in two modes, which are: b. Can solve a problem on its own
o Forward chaining without any human intervention
o Backward chaining c. Need a similar exemplary problem in
263. Which of the given statement is true its knowledge base
for Conditional Probability? d. All of the above
a. Conditional Probability gives 100% Answer: b. Can solve a problem on its own
accurate results. without any human intervention
b. Conditional Probability can be Explanation: The best AI agent is one that
applied to a single event. can solve the problem on its own without
c. Conditional Probability has no effect any human intervention.
or relevance on independent events. 266. The Bayesian Network gives________
d. None of the above. a. A complete description of the
Answer: c. Conditional Probability has no problem
effect or relevance on independent events. b. Partial Description of the domain
Explanation: The conditional probability is c. A complete description of the
said as the probability of occurring an domain
event when another event has already d. None of the above
occurred. And Independent events are
Answer: c. A complete description of the
those that are not affected by the
domain
occurrence of other events; hence
conditional probability has no effect or Explanation: A Bayesian network is a
relevance on independents events. probabilistic graphical model that
represents a set of variables and their
264. After applying conditional Probability
conditional dependencies using a directed
to a given problem, we get______
acyclic graph. It gives a complete
a. 100% accurate result description of the domain.
b. Estimated Values
267. Which of the following is not a (a) Tree topology

remote access tool to access subscribed (b) Mesh topology
content outside an organization network? (c) Star topology
(a) OpenAthens (d) Bus topology
(b) Virtual Private Network (VPN) Answer: Tree topology
(c) Ezproxy 273. The protocol used to provide security
(d) Primo to emails is known as __.
Answer: Primo (a) POP
268. 'Microsoft Edge' web browser was (b) PGP
first released in __. (c) SNMP
(a) 2011 (d) TCP
(b) 2014 Answer: PGP
(c) 2015 274. Usenet is __.
(d) 2017
(a) A low-cost dial-up network
Answer: 2015 (b) Used to forward jobs and files
269. Google Scholar was first launched in through several hosts
__. (c) A provider of news
(a) 2002 (d) None of the above
(b) 2004 Answer: A provider of news
(c) 2006 275. Which of the following is not related
(d) 2008 to Linked Open Data?
Answer: 2004 (a) RDF
270. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for (b) XML
__. (c) URI
(a) Uploading files only (d) Z39.50
(b) Downloading files only Answer: Z39.50
(c) Both A and B 276. Inference Engine is a part of which
(d) None of the above information system?
Answer: Both A and B (a) Management Information System
271. TCP/IP Model originally consists of (b) Decision Support System
__. (c) Expert System
(a) 3 layers (d) Open System
(b) 4 layers Answer: Expert System
(c) 6 layers 277. 'TIFF' file format was first created by
(d) 7 layers __.
Answer: 4 layers (a) Aldus Corporation
272. Which network topology is most (b) Microsoft
likely to contain multiple hubs? (c) C-Cube Microsstems

(d) Sun Microsystems (d) Network as a service

Answer: Aldus Corporation Answer: Software as a service
278. Considering all internet users in India 283. Which of the following devices is
equally without discriminating or charging used to connect different network
differently by user, content, site, platform, segments and manage the traffic between
application, type of attached equipment or them?
mode of communication is known as __. (a) Switch
(a) Preferential Net (b) Gateway
(b) Favoured Net (c) Bridge
(c) Reative Net (d) Repeater
(d) Net Neutrality Answer: Bridge
Answer: Net Neutrality 284. ESPIDA Institutional Digital
279. A computer program that converts Preservation Program is initiated at __.
one by one instruction into a machine (a) Stanford University
language is called: (b) University of Glasgow
(a) Interpreter (c) British Library
(b) CPU (d) Helsinki University Library
(c) Compiler Answer: University of Glasgow
(d) Simulator
285. ‘BAUD’ rate means __.
Answer: Interpreter
(a) The number of bits transmitted per
280. Nibble contains __. unit time
(a) 16 bit (b) The number of bytes transmitted per
(b) 8 bit unit time
(c) 1024 bit (c) The rate at which the signal changes
(d) 4 bit (d) None of the above
Answer: 4 bit Answer: The rate at which the signal
281. Which of the following is an example changes
of non-volatile memory? 286. Which section of the ‘IT Act, 2000’
(a) ROM describes the ‘Punishment for sending
(b) VLSI offensive messages through
(c) LSI communication service, etc.’?
(d) RAM (a) Sec. 44A
Answer: ROM (b) Sec. 66A
(c) Sec. 52 A
282. EX-Libris is an example of which type
(d) Sec. 43 A
of cloud computing?
Answer: Sec. 66A
(a) Infrastructure as a service
(b) Software as a service 287. The term ‘Bandwidth’ refers to
(c) Platform as a service ______.

(a) The amount of data that can be sent 292. Which of the following is an example
through communication media of 'microblogging'?
(b) The amount of data in the (a) Word Press
multimedia file (b) Blogspot
(c) The speed of transmission of data (c) Live Journal
(d) Number of bands available in the (d) Twitter
computer
Answer: Twitter
Answer: The amount of data that can be
293. Which of the OSI Model is mostly
sent through communication media
concerned with syntax of the data?
288. Who invented the relational model of
(a) Session layer
Database Management System?
(b) Presentation layer
(a) Edgar F. Codd (c) Network Layer
(b) H. E. Haines (d) Data Link Layer
(c) Tim Berners Lee
Answer: Presentation layer
(d) Charles Bachman
294. Identify the electronic depository in
Answer: Edgar F. Codd
which librarians of the participating
289. Who invented the concept of ‘Deep institutions have the right to put their
Web'? words in managing the depository?
(a) Andy Grove (a) PORTICO
(b) John C. Flanagan (b) LOCKSS
(c) Michael Bergman (c) CLOCKSS
(d) Larry Arvin (d) PubMed
Answer: Michael Bergman Answer: CLOCKSS
290. The purpose of the ____ protocol is 295. The Network layer concerns with __.
to provide a bi-directional communication
(a) Frames
facility.
(b) Bits
(a) FTP (c) Packets
(b) TELNET (d) None of the above
(c) SMTP
Answer: Packets
(d) Z39.50
296. Segmentation and reassembly is the
Answer: TELNET
responsibility of __.
291. The term ‘cookie’ was first coined
(a) Transport layer
by__.
(b) Session layer
(a) Ted Neslson (c) Network layer
(b) Lou Montulli (d) Presentation layer
(c) L. J. Cook
Answer: Transport layer
(d) Tim Berners-Lee
297. 'SLIM' Library Management Software
Answer: Lou Montulli
is developed by __.

(a) ALGORITHM (d) Serial frequency

(b) DESIDOC Answer: Holding Institution
(c) NISCAIR
303. MARC 21 tag 856 represents __.
(d) NIC
(a) Holding Information
Answer: ALGORITHM
(b) Electronic Location & Access
298. 'ASCII' has how many codes? (c) Subject Descriptions
(a) 246 (d) Series Editor
(b) 260 Answer: Electronic Location & Access
(c) 256
(d) 265
Answer: 256
299. ‘MODS’ in the context of digital
standard stands for __.
Unit -9 MCQS
(a) Metadata Object Description 1. Match List I with List II
Schema
(b) Multiple Object Digital Schema List-I List -II
(c) Metadata Object Digital Schema
Data collection
(d) Multiple Object Description Schema Characteristics
method
Answer: Metadata Object Description
Schema Collects
Field
300. METS digital content standard is A. I. information from
observation
many data sources
developed by __.
(a) Library of Congress Gathers detailed
(b) OCLC information from a
B. Focus group II.
(c) British Library small, non-random
(d) ISO sample
Answer: Library of Congress Gathers preliminary
301. ‘ALTO’ Digital Library Standard is Intensive
C. III. information for a
developed by __. interviewing
research project
(a) OCLC
Studies a
(b) ISI
D. Case study IV. phenomenon in
(c) Library of Congress
natural settings
(d) ISO
Answer: Library of Congress Choose the correct answer from the
302. MARC 21 tag '850' represents __. options given below:
(a) Electronic documents 1. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
(b) Holding Institution 2. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
(c) Series statement 3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D)-(I) c) Consistency in the way of thesis writing
Answer: 4 d) Well defined abstract
2. Which of the following are remote data Select the answers from the codes given
collection procedures? below:
(A) Third-party interview a. b), c) and d)
(B) Pop-ups b. a), b), c) and d)
(C) Database e-mail c. a), b) and c)
(D) Instant messaging d. a), b) and d)
(E) Panel discussions Answer: B. a), b), c) and d)
Choose the correct answer from the 5. Which one among the following
options given below : statements is correct in context to
research?
1. (A), (B), (C) only
a) Research refers to a series of systematic
2. (B), (C), (D) only
activity or activities undertaken to find out
3. (C), (D), (E) only the solution to a problem.
4. (A), (B), (E) only b) It is a systematic, logical and unbiased
Answer: 2 process wherein verification of
hypotheses, data analysis, interpretation
3. Arrange the following stages of
processing of data in a correct sequence: and formation of principles can be done.
c) It is an intellectual inquiry or quest
(A) Coding towards truth,
(B) Editing d) It enhances knowledge.
(C) Tabulation Select the correct answer from the codes
(D) Classification given below:
(E) Using Percentages a. a), b), c) and d)
Choose the correct answer from the b. a), b) and c)
options given below: c. b), c) and d)
1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) d. a), c) and d)
2. (D), (A), (B), (C), (E) Answer: A. a), b), c) and d)
3. (C), (D), (A), (B), (E) 6. Match List I with List II
4. (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)
List I List II
Answer: 4
4. What does a good thesis involve? Tests of Reliability Description
a) Reducing punctuations as well as Delivering a
grammatical errors to minimalist Test and re- questionnaire in two
b) Correct reference citations A. I.
test parts, separately, to
a sample group.

Providing different No hyphotheses are Basic

versions of a (D) (IV)
proposed or tested Research
B. Inter-rater II. questionnare which
are equivalent for Choose the correct answer from the
respondents. options given below:
1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
The same test is
Parallel 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
C. III. conducted by
forms
different people. 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
The same test, over 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
D. Split-half IV. a period of time, is Answer: 2 : (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D)
repeated. - (I)
8. Match the types of research in List I with
Choose the correct answer from the the features in List II.
options given below: List I
List II
1. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV Types of
Features
2. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I research
3. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
Quantitative and
4. A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I qualitative data are
a) Exploratory i)
Answer: 4 : A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I gathered and
7. Match List I with List II integrated
List I List II Qualitative data is

Cross- gathered first and
b) ii)
(Theory/concept) (Description) sectional the same
predominate later
Development of Assessment
(A) (I) Retrospective
theories studies
c) Explanatory iii) analysis of history of
Finding solution of a unit
immediate
problems in a Quantitative data is
particular setting Applied gathered first and
(B) (II) d) Triangulation iv)
without Research the same
generalisation of predominates later
findings beyond the Macro level analysis
situation studied e) Longitudinal v) attempted for the
Adaptation of Action data
(C) (III)
theories Research

Choose the correct answer from the same predominate

options given belows: later
1. a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-iv
2. a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-iii Retrospective
c) Explanatory iii) analysis of history of
3. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-v
a unit
4. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
Answer: 2 Quantitative data is
gathered first and the
9. Match the following : d) Triangulation iv)
same predominates
List – I List – II later
a Experimental i Criticism Macro level analysis

e) Longitudinal v) attempted for the
b Historical ii Control data
c Case study iii Interpretative

Choose the correct answer from the
d Ethnography iv Intensive options given belows:
1. a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-iv
v Intuitive
2. a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-iii
Codes : 3. a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-v
1. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v 4. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v
2. a-i, b-ii, c-v, d-iii Answer; 2
3. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-v 11. Match List I with List II
4. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
List I List II
Answer: 4
10. Match the types of research in List I Research Perspective Discipline
with the features in List II. A. Phenomenology I. Anthropology
List I B. Ethnography II. Sociology
List II
Types of
Features Social
research C. Ethnomethodology III.
psychology
Quantitative and
qualitative data are Symbolic
a) Exploratory i) D. IV. Philosophy
gathered and interactionism
integrated Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
Cross-
b) ii) Qualitative data is 1. A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
sectional gathered first and the

2. A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I 2. Rekha interviews parents and their

3. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II children regarding transition
4. A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III 3. Sameer looks at percentages of
successful transitions from the
Answer: 4 : A - IV, B - I, C - II, D – III
district and class grades
Explanation:
4. Reshma conducts observations and
Research supplements her findings with class
Discipline
Perspective grades
Answer: 4 : Reshma conducts observations
Phenomenology is the
and supplements her findings with class
study of structures of
grades
consciousness as they
Phenomenology Explanation: Mixed Method Research:
are encountered in
the first-person Mixed method research use both
perspective. qualitative and quantitative methods, and
thus collect two types of data (e.g., textual
A subfield of and numerical), two types of data analysis
anthropology called (thematic and statistical). Based on the
Ethnography ethnography is the type of data collection procedure and
systematic study of analysis of data conclusions are drawn of
particular civilizations. two types also subjectively and
objectively. It can be called as etic and
Ethnomethodology is
emic representation of data.
the study of how
Ethnomethodology social interaction and 13. Given below are two statements:
social processes result Statement I: Field notes are important for
in social order. prompting the ethnographer's memory
and form much of the data for subsequent
Symbolic interaction analysis.
assumes that humans
Symbolic exist in both the Statement II: Research methods such as
interactionism physical environment qualitative interviewing are flexible, and
and the symbolic are less disruptive of the work and
environment. personal lives of both researchers and
research participants.
In the light of the above statements,
12. Which of the following best illustrates choose the most appropriate answer from
an example of a mixed-methods research the options given below:
study? 1. Both Statement I and Statement II
1. Sahil conducts interviews and are correct
observations in his study of 2. Both Statement I and Statement II
transitional students are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement Select the correct answer from the
II is incorrect following options:
4. Statement I is incorrect but 1. i), iii) and iv)
Statement II is correct 2. i), ii) and iii)
Answer: 1 3. ii), iii) and v)
Explanation: 4. ii). iv) and v)
Statement I: Answer: 1 : i), iii) and iv)
 Ethnography is the scientific study Explanation:
of individual civilizations.
Qualitative research: It is grounded in the
 Ethnographic research based on assumption that individuals construct
fieldwork, ethnographers examine social reality in the form of meanings and
and understand culture, its interpretations, and that these
universalities, and its variations. constructions tend to be transitory and
Therefore, Statement I is correct. situational.
Statement II: A qualitative interview is the Qualitative research typically involves
research method used for one-on-one qualitative data, i.e., data obtained
interaction is necessary and in-depth through methods such as interviews, on-
information is needed from the site observations, and focus groups that
participant. are in narrative rather than numerical
 Qualitative methods are more form. Such data are analyzed by looking
flexible, as it allows for themes and patterns.
greater instinctive and adaptation of 15. Which from the following are parts of
the interaction between the the purpose of quantitative research?
researcher and the study participant. A. Understanding of cultural traditions
Thus, Statement II is correct. B. Discovery of relationships among
14. Identify the qualitative research variables
designs from the list given below: C. Interpretation of human relationships
i) Exploring common experiences of D. Confirmation of hypotheses
individuals to develop a theory
E. Generalization of results to other
ii) Controlling. manipulating. observing and situations
measuring the effect
1. A, C and D
iii) Exploring the shared culture of a group
2. A, B and E
of people
3. B, C and D
iv) Exploring individual stories to describe
the lives of people 4. B, D and E
v) Extending generalizations from sample Answer: 4
to population Explanation: Quantitative research is the
process of collecting and analyzing

numerical data. It can be used to find Reason (R): Formal requirements and their
patterns and averages, make predictions, observance help promote standardization
test causal relationships, and generalize and objectivity.
results to wider populations. In the light of the above statements,
16. Match List I with List II choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
List I
List II 1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
Referencing
Format of Citation the correct explanation of (A)
Style
Author, date... NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(Sharma, Kailesh
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
(A) APA Style (I) suggested
photochromatic effect 4. (A) is false but (R) is true
(2006)) Answer: 1 : Both (A) and (R) are true and
(R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(Author Surname,
(B) MLA Style (II) Year)..... (Sharma, A research thesis is a report on
2006) a research project or study or an extended
analysis of a topic.
Number in square Assertion (A): Format and styles of
Chicago brackets..... This theory
(C) (III) referencing in a research thesis are formal
Style was first put forward in requirements.
2006 [10]
Format and styles of referencing in a
Authorname in text, research thesis are important to show the
allows footnotes.... reader that the researcher has done
(D) IEEE Style (IV)
Sharma develops this proper research is done by listing sources.
argument (67-69) it is also used to get information.
Choose the correct answer from the Reason (R): Formal requirements and their
options given below: observance help promote standardization
1. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) and objectivity.
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) A good thesis should be clear and
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) unambiguous and should have a logical
structure that should assist the reader's
4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D) -(II)
understanding of the argument being
Answer: 3 : (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) presented not obscure it.
17. Given below are two statements: One In order to achieve this objective, the
is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is layout, and physical appearance of the
labeled as Reason (R): thesis should conform to a set pattern.
Assertion (A): Format and styles of Therefore, Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
referencing in a research thesis are formal is the correct explanation of (A)
requirements.
18. Which of the following are the basic (b) Sanjay (ii) CMC
rules of APA style of referencing format? (c) Granthalaya (iii) UNESCO
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as (d) Maitrayee (iv) DESIDOC
journal articles or essays
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(b) Invert authors' names (last name first)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as
(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
books and journals
(C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) Alphabetically index reference list
(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below: Answer: (D)
1. (a) and (b) 21. Arrange the following in correct order :
2. (b), (c) and (d) (i) Deductive phase
3. (c) and (d) (ii) Empirical phase
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) (iii) Verification phase
Answer: 2 (iv) Hypothesizing phase
19. Match the following: (A) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
List I List (B) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
II (C) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(i) DDC (w) (D) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
15th ed. Answer: (D)
(ii) SLSH (x) 22. Which of the following guides are used
34th ed. in maintenance section of the library ?
(iii) DDC, Abridged (y) (i) Gangway guides
23rd ed.
(ii) Shelf guides
(iv) LCSH (z) (iii) Tier guides
20th ed.
(iv) User guides
Codes:
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(A) (y) (x) (z) (w)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(B) (y) (z) (x) (w)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (w) (y) (z) (x)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (y) (z) (w) (x)
Answer: (B)
Answer: (D)
23. Which of the following are ‘TQM’ tools
?
List I List II (i) Fishbone Diagram
(a) CDS/ISIS (i) NISCAIR
(ii) Histogram (i) Human-computer Interaction

(iii) Pie Chart (ii) Individual users with customisation
(iv) Run Charts (iii) Simplify execution of operations
Codes : (iv) Basis for computer-computer interface
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct. Codes :
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct. (A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct. (B) (i) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct. (C) (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer: (D) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
24. Library Ethics is a combination of Answer: (B)
what? 27. As per Voigt’s study, which are the
(i) Responsibility approaches of the scientists towards
(ii) Accountability information ?
(iii) Commitment (i) Current
(iv) Decision Making (ii) Everybody
Codes : (iii) Exhaustive
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. (iv) Browsing
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct. Codes :
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct. (A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct. (B) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer: (A) (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
25. Which of the following is/are related to (D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
open access initiatives ? Answer: (C)
(i) Creative Commons 28. Why to cite ?
(ii) DOAJ (i) Acknowledging the source
(iii) FOSS (ii) Crediting the original ideas
(iv) GNU (iii) Substantiate findings
Codes : (iv) For popularising cited sources
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct. Codes :
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct. (A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct. (B) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(D) (i) and (ii) are correct. (C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer: (D) (D) All are correct.
26. User-friendly interface caters to Answer: (B)

29. Match the following : 31. On what basis did Jean Piaget give his
List – I List – II theory of cognitive development of
humans?
a. DCMES i. Defined Functional
Requirements of Records a. Evaluation Research
b. MARC ii. Rules for b. Fundamental Research
Bibliographic Records c. Applied Research
c. RDA iii. Retrieval and d. Action Research
Data Exchange Answer: b) Fundamental Research
d. FRBR iv. Coding Scheme for Explanation: Jean Piaget, in his cognitive-
computerized Bibliographic Records developmental theory, proposed the idea
Codes : that children can actively construct
abcd knowledge simply by exploring and
manipulating the world around them.
(A) iii iv ii i
32. What are the core elements of a
(B) iv ii iii i
dissertation?
(C) i ii iii iv
a. Introduction; Data Collection; Data
(D) ii iv i iii Analysis; Conclusions and
Answer: (A) Recommendations
30. Match the following dialogue systems : b. Executive Summary; Literature
List – I List – II Review; Data Gathered; Conclusions;
a. Menu i. Computer recognizable Bibliography
dialogues c. Research Plan; Research Data;
Analysis; References
b. Icons ii. Communicating with computers
with everyday language d. Introduction; Literature Review;
c. Natural language iii. List of options Research Methodology; Results;
available Discussions and Conclusions
d. Common language iv. Pictorial Answer: d) Introduction; Literature

representation of objects Review; Research Methodology; Results;
Discussions and Conclusions
Codes :
Explanation: The core elements of the
abcd dissertation are as follows:
(A) i iii iv ii Introduction; Literature Review; Research
(B) ii iv iii i Methodology; Results; Discussions and
(C) iii iv ii i Conclusions
(D) iv ii iii i 33. "Sampling Cases" can be defined as
Answer: (C) a. Sampling using a sampling frame
b. Identifying people who are suitable
for research
c. Literally the researcher's brief case Answer: c) Can be one-tailed as well as

d. A sampling of people, newspapers, two-tailed depending on the hypotheses
television programs etc. Explanation: An F-test corresponds to a
Answer: d) A sampling of people, statistical test in which the test statistic
newspapers, television programs etc. has an F-distribution under the null
hypothesis.
Explanation: In general, sampling in case
study research involves decisions made by 37. Which one among the following is the
the researchers regarding the strategies of most comprehensive source of population
sampling, the number of case studies, and data?
the definition of the unit of analysis. a. Census
34. Which technique is generally followed b. National Sample Surveys
when the population is finite? c. Demographic Health Surveys
a. Systematic Sampling Technique d. National Family Health Surveys
b. Purposive Sampling Technique Answer: a) Census
c. Area Sampling Technique Explanation: Census is an official survey
d. None of the above that keeps track of the population data.
Answer: a) Systematic Sampling Technique 38. The process not needed in
Explanation: Systematic sampling can be experimental research is
understood as a probability sampling a. Controlling
method in which the members of the b. Observation
population are selected by the researchers
c. Reference collection
at a regular interval.
d. Manipulation and replication
35. Research problem is selected from the
standpoint of Answer: b) Observation
a. Social relevance 39. What are those conditions where a
research problem is not viable?
b. Financial support
a. It is new and adds something to
c. Researcher's interest
knowledge
d. Availability of relevant literature
b. It can be researched
Answer: a) Social relevance
c. It has utility and relevance
36. The F-test:
d. It contains dependent and
a. Is essentially a two-tailed test. independent variables
b. Is essentially a one-tailed test. Answer: d) It contains dependent and
c. Can be one-tailed as well as two- independent variables
tailed depending on the hypotheses. Explanation: A research problem can be
d. Can never be one tailed test. defined as a statement about the
concerned area, a condition needed to be
improved, a difficulty that has to be
eliminated, or a troubling question existing Answer: a) The cultural background of the

in scholarly literature, in theory, or in country
practice pointing towards the need of Explanation: An assumption can be
delivering a deliberate investigation. identified as an unexamined belief, which
40. How can we enhance the research we contemplate without even
objective? comprehending it. Also, the conclusions
a. By making it more valid that we draw are often based on
assumptions.
b. By making it more reliable
43. Which one among the following falls
c. By making it more impartial
under the category of research
d. All of the above development?
Answer: d) All of the above a. Descriptive Research
Explanation: The research objectives must b. Philosophical Research
be concisely described before starting the
c. Action Research
research as it illustrates what we are going
to achieve as an end result after the d. All of the above
accomplishment. Answer: d) All of the above
41. Action-research can be understood as Explanation: No explanation.
___________ 44. What is the use of Factorial Analysis?
a. A longitudinal research a. For setting the hypotheses
b. An applied research b. To understand the difference
c. A kind of research being carried out between two variables
to solve a specific problem c. To understand the relationship
d. All of the above between two variables
Answer: c) A kind of research being carried d. To understand the difference
out to solve a specific problem between various variables
Explanation: In general, action research is Answer: b) To understand the difference
termed as a philosophy or a research between two variables
methodology, which is implemented in Explanation: Factor analysis can be
social sciences. understood as a statistical method that
42. On what basis can one formulate the defines the variability between two
assumptions? variables in terms of factors, which are
a. The cultural background of the nothing but unobserved variables.
country 45. What is the best-suited name for a
b. Universities process that doesn't necessitate
experimental research?
c. Some specific characteristics of
castes a. Manipulation
d. All of the above b. Controlling

c. Content analysis c. Objective Observation

d. Observation d. Systematic Activity
Answer: a) Manipulation Answer: c) Objective Observation
Explanation: In an experimental research Explanation: The research process
design, whenever the independent comprises classifying, locating, evaluating,
variables (i.e., treatment variables or and investigating the data, which is
factors) decisively get altered by required to support your research
researchers, then that process is termed as question, followed by developing and
an experimental manipulation. expressing your ideas.
46. Which one among the following 49. Which of the following are known as
variables cannot be expressed in the types of research data?
quantitative terms? a) Organised data and unorganised
a. Numerical Aptitude data
b. Marital Status b) Qualitative data and quantitative
data
c. Socio-economic Status
c) Processed data and unprocessed
d. Professional Attitude data
Answer: d) Professional Attitude d) None of the above
Explanation: A professional attitude is an Answer: b
ability that inclines you to manage your 50. Which of the following statements is
time, portray a leadership quality, make true about the collection of data?
you self-determined and persistent.
a. The data that is collected from the
47. The "Sociogram" technique is used to place of origin is known as primary
study _________ data
a. Vocational Interest b. The data that is collected from the
b. Human Relations place of origin is known as
secondary data
c. Professional Competence
c. The data that is collected from the
d. Achievement Motivation place of origin is known as tertiary
Answer: b) Human Relations data
Explanation: The term sociogram can be d. None of the above
defined as a graphical representation of Answer: a
human relation that portrays the social 51. Which of the following statements is
links formed by one particular person. true about the source of data?
48. Which one among the following a. The source of data that is collected
phrases does not correspond to the and compiled by others is known as
meaning of research as a process? secondary data
a. Problem Solving
b. Trial and Error

b. The source of data that is collected b. The formulation of hypothesis

and compiled by others is known as precedes the selection of research
tertiary data tools
c. The source of data that is collected c. The formulation of hypothesis
and compiled by others is known as precedes the statement of objectives
primary data d. The formulation of hypothesis
d. None of the above precedes the analysis of data
Answer: a Answer: a
52. Which of the following statements is 55. Which of the following statements is
true about data in research? true about the census?
a. The data used for research is a. The census involves a process of
quantitative choosing a few units out of the
b. The data used for research can be entire population for collecting data
qualitative but never quantitative b. The census involves a process of
c. The data used for research can be organising and publishing the data
both quantitative and qualitative c. The census involves a process of
d. The data used for research can be collecting data from each and every
quantitative but never qualitative unit
Answer: c d. None of the above
53. Which of the following statements is Answer: c
not true about the collection of data? 56. What is the meaning of cluster
a. In the structured interview, the sampling?
interviewer asks a set of pre-planned a. It is a process where the sampling
questions in a standard format universe is divided into multiple
b. In the observation method, the groups
researcher collects data with the b. It is a process where the samples for
help of their observational skills a study is obtained through
c. In an indirect interview, the conscious selection
investigator directly asks the c. It is a process where the samples for
informants for the data a study are selected at regular
d. In a direct interview, the researcher intervals
meets the interviewees directly to d. It is a process through which the
collect the data sample for a study is divided into
Answer: c multiple groups
54. Which of the following is an accurate Answer: b
representation of the process of 57. Which of the following situations is
conducting research? suitable for direct personal investigation?
a. The formulation of hypothesis a. It is suitable when the field of
precedes the collection of data investigation is large and complex

b. It is suitable when the information a. The problem of doubtful confusion

to be collected is complex and arises in the case of an indirect oral
confidential investigation
c. It is suitable when the researcher b. The problem of doubtful confusion
needs second-hand data for their takes place when the information is
research accessed through correspondents
d. It is suitable when direct contact c. The problem of doubtful confusion
with the interviewees is not possible occurs when the researcher obtains
Answer: b data through mailed questionnaires
d. The problem of doubtful confusion
58. Which of the following is a drawback of
happens in the case of direct
the direct personal investigation?
personal interviews
a. This method of investigation lacks
Answer: a
reliability
b. It is an extremely costly and time- 61. Which of the following is the main
consuming process point of difference between primary data
c. The questions asked under this and secondary data?
method can be subject to a. The collection of secondary data is
misinterpretation costlier and more time consuming
d. It is difficult to get original data when compared to primary data
using the direct personal b. The secondary data is always original
investigation method whereas the primary data is not
Answer: b c. The primary data is much more
reliable than secondary data
59. Which of the following situations is
because it is collected directly from
suitable for an indirect oral investigation?
respondents
a. This method is suitable when the d. None of the above
field of investigation is large
Answer: c
b. This method is used when the
informants are not capable of 62. Which of these statements is true for
providing information to the collecting information from a third party?
investigator a. The indirect oral investigation is
c. The indirect oral investigation used to collect data from the third
method is suitable when it is not parties
possible to talk to the respondents b. The mailed questionnaire method is
directly apt for gathering information from
d. All of the above third parties
Answer: d c. Third parties prefer direct personal
interviews to provide data to the
60. Which of the following statements is
researcher
true about the collection of data?
d. All of the above
Answer: a

63. The main feature of secondary source 67. The techniques by which we can study
of data is that _________. an individual's personality by observing
a. It provides first-hand information to his/her style of life, behaviour, manner,
the researcher thoughts and feelings is called-
b. It is more reliable compared to 1. Inventory
primary data 2. Case history
c. It implies that the data is collected
3. Rating scale
from its original source
d. It involves collecting data from 4. Projective
existing sources that had gathered Answer: 2
primary data beforehand for their 68. _______ includes data concerning the
research purpose family background and educational
Answer: d development.
64. Which one of the following stages of 1. Case study
the marketing research process is most 2. General behaviour
expensive ?
3. Genetic approach
1. Data analysis 4. Adequacy
2. Data collection
Answer: 1
3. Developing the research plan 69. A researcher wants to study the
4. Report writing association between gender and using a
Answer: 2 mobile phone. Data collected for this study
65. A researcher wants to study the will be ______
association between gender and using a 1. Quantitative data
mobile phone. Data collected for this study 2. Qualitative data
will be ______ 3. Continuous data
1. Quantitative data
4. Classified data
2. Qualitative data
Answer: 2
3. Continuous data 70. Name the method which deals with
4. Classified data only one person at a time and promotes
Answer: 2 his adjustment
66. Which data is cheaper to collect? 1. Case study
1. Primary data 2. Questionnaire
2. Secondary data 3. Clinical method
3. New Data 4. Experimental mental
4. Collective data Answer: 2
Answer: 2 71. Which data is cheaper to collect?
1. Primary data

2. Secondary data 3. Corpus

3. New Data 4. Mediation
4. Collective data Answer: 1
Answer: 2 76. Who coined the term ‘Webometrics’?
72. If a survey is conducted telephonically, a. Almind and Ingwerson
which among the following statements is b. Alan Pritchard
true? c. Vassily V. Nalimov and Z.M
1. It improves quality of data Mulchenko
2. It improves the validity research
Answer: a
3. It reduces the cost of data collection
77. How to calculate Citations Per
4. It makes participants comfortable
Publication (CPP)?
Answer: 3
a. Total Citations Sent/Total Papers
73. The procedure of assigning numbers to b. Total Citations Received/Total
various degrees of opinion, attitude and Papers
other concepts, is called as c. Total Citations Received/Citation Per
1. Regression. Paper
2. Scaling. d. Total Citations Sent/Citation Per
Paper
3. Variance.
Answer: b
4. Concordance.
Answer: 2 : Scaling. 78. Which one of the following services
offers the researchers monitoring of all
74. The process which involves the types of feedback about their scientific
construction of an artificial environment work?
within which relevant information and
data can be generated is called as a. ImpactStory
b. PaperCritic
1. Inferential approach c. ReaderMeter
2. Experimental approach d. PLoS
3. Simulation approach Answer: b
4. Qualitative approach 79. The study of the quantitative aspect of
Answer: 3 production, dissemination, and use of
75. In research, the combination of recorded information is called:
different methods, study groups, local and a. Cybermetrics
temporal settings, and different b. Scientometrics
theoretical perspectives in dealing with a c. Blogometrics
phenomenon is called: d. Bibliometrics
1. Triangulation Answer: d
2. Content analysis

80. Which of the following bibliometric Answer: a

laws describe the frequency of 85. Which of the following academic
publications by the author? identities are integrated with IRINS?
a. Bradford’s law a. ORCID ID and Scopus ID
b. Lotka’s law b. Microsoft Academic ID and Google
c. Zipf’s law Scholar ID
d. None of the above c. None of the above
Answer: b d. All of the above
81. Which one of the following topics is Answer: d
mainly applied for ‘Scientometric’ studies? 86. The Impact Factor (IF) is:
a. Science policy and decision a. The average number of citations
indicators received for each published article in
b. Growth of science and scientific the particular year.
institutions b. The total number of citations
c. Behavior of science and scientists received for each published article in
d. All of the above the particular year.
Answer: d c. The average number of publications
82. The Journal Impact Factor was devised in the particular year.
by: d. The total number of publications in
the particular year.
a. Eugene Garfield
b. Derek de Solla Price Answer: a
c. Alan Pritchard 87. The areas of ‘webometrics’ research
d. Jorge E. Hirsch are as follows:
Answer: a a. Web page content and web link
83. Which one of the following web structure analysis
services is an analysis of scholarly tweets? b. Web usage and web terminology
analysis
a. ScienceCard
c. All of the above
b. CrowdoMeter
c. ReaderMeter
d. None of the above Answer: c
Answer: b 88. Who developed the ‘law of scattering’?
84. IRINS is a research information a. Derek De Solla Price
management system that captures b. Samuel C. Bradford
scholarly communication artefacts such as c. Eugene Garfield
people who do research, their research d. Alfred J. Lotka
activities, achievements and their research Answer: b
output. 89. The e-index is a/an __
a. True a. Associated with excess citations
b. False
b. Associated with low citation d. Free license and no IPR

c. All of the above Answer: c
95. In a Click Wrap Agreement, a user must
Answer: a agree to terms and conditions before using
90. When did the NPTEL begin its Phase II? the product or service.
a. 2010 a. True
b. 2009 b. False
c. 2008 Answer: a
d. 2007
96. What is the correct sequence of actions
Answer: b in conducting an intervention-based action
91. Which one of the following is the research in Education?
commonly used OER repository? 1. Act, observe, plan and reflect
a. COL-DOER 2. Plan, act, observe and reflect
b. OER Commons
3. Observe, plan, reflect and act
c. Wikimedia Commons
d. All of the above 4. Reflect, observe, plan and act
Answer: d Answer: 2
92. Which search engine is commonly used 97. A researcher conducted a study to have
to find, locate, and retrieve OER? initial idea of scope and magnitude of the
problem under study and to test the
a. Bing
feasibility of more extensive research.
b. Google
Such a study is called:
c. Yahoo!
d. None of the above 1. Explanatory study
Answer: b 2. Confirmatory study
93. Mention the name of the OER portal 3. Descriptive study
that supports the international community 4. Exploratory study
of educators, learners and researchers. Answer: 4
a. Dgroups.org 98. Which of the following purposes
b. ePathshala demands Action Research?
c. ePGPathshala
1. Developing a theory
d. MERLOT
2. Writing a thesis
Answer: d
3. Solving a classroom problem
94. Two major characteristics of open
source software licenses are: 4. Testing a theory
a. Free copyright & free distribution Answer: 3 : Solving a classroom problem
b. Open and no IPR 99. A non-government organization
c. Free distribution and open source conducted a study in a Gram Panchayat to
code see the impacts of campaign approach on

enrolment and retention of rural 4. a well informed individual who is

elementary school children. This is an approachable.
example of Answer: 2
1. Descriptive Study A key informant is an expert source of
2. Field Experiment information. The key informant technique
3. Ex-post facto research is an ethnographic research method which
was originally used in the field of cultural
4. Historical Research
anthropology and is now being used more
Answer: 2 widely in other branches of social science
100. What is the correct sequence of investigation.
actions in conducting an intervention- 103. Which of the following represents the
based action research in Education? distinctive feature of qualitative research?
1. Act, observe, plan and reflect 1. Perspective based, inductive and
2. Plan, act, observe and reflect meaning giving
3. Observe, plan, reflect and act 2. Hypothesis based, deductive and
4. Reflect, observe, plan and act testing
Answer: 2 3. Deductive cum inductive based
101. The study of people using participant approach and generalization
observation and face to face interviewing 4. Deductive inquiry with focus and
is called- hypotheses being tested
1. Phenomenology Answer: 1
2. Social mapping Research is a systematic inquiry towards
3. Ethnography understanding a complex social
phenomenon or a process. Based on the
4. Epidemiology research problem, the selection of
Answer: 3 research methods by the researcher may
Ethnography is the systematic study of vary. There are two types of research on
individual cbehaviorultures and is a part of the basis of a process i.e Quantitative
anthropology. research and Qualitative research.
Ethnography investigates cultural 104. Which method of the qualitative
phenomena from the perspective of the research focuses on language and
research subject. meanings that are given to texts, for the
102. ‘The Key Informant’ in the Key purpose of creating and shaping
Informant Interviewing Technique is knowledge and behaviour?
1. a representative of the majority. 1. Discourse analysis
2. a source of information as per the 2. Narrative research
researcher’s desire. 3. Trend analysis
3. a substitute of the researcher. 4. Grounded theory

Answer: 1 Explanation: Ethnographic research:

Discourse analysis: Ethnography means a systematic detailed
study about a particular culture or society,
 It is an umbrella term for a number
primarily based on fieldwork.
of qualitative research
approaches that examine the use of Ethnographic research is conducted in the
language (oral and written texts) in natural setting by covering the everyday
social contexts in helping activities of the subjects under qualitative
researchers find answers to their investigation.
research questions or problems. 107. An investigator conducted a study to
 It focuses on language and meanings examine the effect of gender on attitude
that are given to texts, for the towards dowry system. The nature of this
purpose of creating and shaping study was
knowledge and behavior. 1. Descriptive
105. Which of the following research 2. Correlational
designs is the most appropriate for 3. Causal comparative
depicting lived experiential realities?
4. Experimental
1. Phenomenological designs
Answer: 3
2. Case study designs
Explanation: Causal comparative: Causal-
3. Grounded theory designs comparative research seeks to find
4. Narrative research designs relationships between independent and
Answer: 1 dependent variables after an action or
event has already occurred.
Phenomenology: Phenomenology is
concerned with the study of experience The researcher's goal is to determine
from the perspective of the whether the independent variable affected
individual, ‘bracketing’ taken-for-granted the outcome, or dependent variable, by
assumptions, and usual ways of comparing two or more groups of
perceiving. individuals.
106. In ethnographic research, a researcher 108. What is the distinctive feature of case
uses a non-interactive strategy, which study research?
describes people's experiences and 1. Arriving at generalizations
connotes their feelings. Which of the 2. Presenting a detailed case history
following strategies does it refer to?
3. Developing an in-depth
1. Field notes understanding of the case
2. Inductive analysis 4. Helping solve the problem of the
3. Artifact collection case
4. Discovery analysis Answer: 3
Answer: 3 Explanation: Case study method

 A case study is a deep, detailed, and B) Action research

intensive study of a social unit; C) Fundamental research
 It is a method of qualitative D) Diagnostic study
research;
Answer: C
 The Case Study method shows the
112. The first and most significant step in
way to deepen our perception and
the research process is to formulate a
sharpen insights to understand
…………..?
biographies.
A) Hypothesis
109. An investigator wants to study the
functioning of a school meant for tribal B) Research objectives
children. The most appropriate research B) Concepts
design for this context would be classified D) Research problem
as:
Answer: D
1. Narrative Research
113. Observation method helps
2. Phenomenology you...............
3. Grounded Theory A) To studying perspectives and viewpoints
4. Ethnography B) To studying what is happening now
Answer: 4 C) To studying historical incidents or
Ethnography: It is qualitative research. The activities
process to study and describe a culture D) None of the above
(shared attitudes, values, norms, the Answer: B
language of a group of people) in detail.
114. Who coined the term ‘Thick
Data is collected through observation or
description’?
the researcher may go and live in that
specific community where the research is A) Ferdinand Tonnies
going to conduct and study the culture and B) Clifford Geertz
their educational practices. C) Louis Worth
110. In educational research, case study D) Howard Winant
method gives importance to : Answer: B
1. Prediction 115. Which of the following is an
2. Causal connections advantage of using a convenience
3. Generalization sampling?
4. Unique characteristics A) It is cheapest and most straightforward
Answer: 4 process
111. Pure research is also known as B) It does not necessitate a population list
……………………. C) It does not necessitate any statistical
A) Formulative research knowledge
D) All of the above
Answer: D B) Variable
116. Which of the sampling technique is C) Concept
most appropriate when the population is D) Data
dispersed over a large geographic area and
Answer: A
no sampling frame or list is available?
121. The effectiveness of an experimental
A) Multi-stage sampling
variable is examined by comparing it with
B) Area sampling another variable, known as ………………..?
C) Cluster sampling A) Confounding variable
D) Systematic random sampling B) Ordinal variable
Answer: A C) Controlled variable
117. Who defined “systematic effort to D) Categorical variable
gain new knowledge we call research”?
Answer: C
A) Martin Albrow
122. Which of these is not a method of
B) Eric Anderson data collection
C) L.V. Redman and A.V.H. Morry A) Observation
D) Barry Barnes B) social survey
Answer: C C) Interview Schedule
118. The sample survey and experimental D) ethnography
method are the most typical examples of
Answer: C
…………….?
123. Who defined “an interview involves
A) Quantitative research
an interviewer reading questions to
B) Qualitative research respondents and recording their answers”?
C) Historical research A) Monette
D) case study B) John Porter
Answer: A C) John Scott
119. Blue print of a research process is D) W P Thompson
known as ………………….?
Answer: A
A) Research Draft
124. Which of the following should a
B) Analytical layout researcher careful for when preparing a
C) Abstract questionnaire?
D) Research design A) Double barreled questions
Answer: D B) Complex Questions
120. …………………..as a tentative statement C) Question sequencing
about something D) all of the above
A) Hypothesis Answer: D

125. ……………………………. is a method of D) Action outline

selecting a sample by subdividing it into a Answer: B
homogeneous class from population.
130. A concept which can take on different
A) Simple random sampling quantitative values is called
B) Stratified sampling A) Variable
C) Area sampling B) Objective
D) Cluster sampling C) Observation
Answer: B D) Simulation
126. Which of following is the systematic Answer: A
process of arranging of keywords to enable
131. The researcher can the type of
users to locate items in a document?
research design mainly using to study
A) In-text citation ongoing or repetitive methods to track
B) Endnotes specific people over long, it is called
C) Bibliography ………………?
D) Indexing A) Exploratory Design
Answer: D B) Diagnostic Design
127. Which of the following is a plagiarism C) Longitudinal studies
detecting software? D) Historical design
A) Zotero Answer: C
B) URKUND 132. Who defined “hypothesis as a
C) Mendley tentative statement about something, the
validity of which is usually unknown”
D) EndNote
A) Patrick Geddes
Answer: B
B) Emory
128. Ethnographic research mainly used in
……………………… C) Black and Champion
A) Qualitative research D) Clover and Balsley
B) Quantitative research Answer: C
C) Survey 133. The variable that is antecedent to the
dependent variable is termed as an
D) None of the above
………………?
Answer: A
A) Independent variable
129. The task of preparing the research
B) Controlled variable
project plan, is known as ……………….?
C) Confounding variable
A) Content frame
D) Ordinal variable
B) Research design
Answer: A
C) Research sketch

134. In this method of data collection, C) Indexing

researcher become a participant in the D) Bibliography
culture or context being observed, it is
Answer: A
called
139. ………………….. is described as the act of
A) Indirect observation
copying documents, ideas, principles and
B) Participant observation thought etc. without permission or proper
C) Non-Participant observation acknowledgement
D) Structured observation A) Paraphrasing
Answer: B B) Digital object identifier
135. Find out odd one C) Plagiarism
A) Autobiography D) Quoting
B) Speeches Answer: C
C) Minute of a meeting 140. The type of ……………, main aim is to
D) Diaries analysis of a parallel assessment of an
action plan launched to solve a problem or
Answer: C
improve a current situation?
136. …………….. is a strategy used to test or
A) Exploratory research
determine the feasibility of the
questionnaire using a smaller sample B) Action research
compared to the planned sample size. C) Applied research
A) Binomial test D) Pure research
B) Pilot survey Answer: B
C) Sampling test 141. Which of the following approach help
D) Diagnostic test the researcher to achieve objectivity?
Answer: B A) Patience and Self-control
137. Which of the following is not a type of B) Use of standardized concepts
probability sampling? C) Open mind
A) Stratified random sampling D) All of the above
B) Systematic random sampling Answer: D
C) Cluster and area sampling 142. ……………… is something that measures
D) Quota sampling the characteristics of the same person at
least twice over time?
Answer: D
A) Exploratory Design
138. Questionnaire, Interview guide or
schedule, photo etc. can be included in B) Longitudinal design
…………….? C) Diagnostic Design
A) Appendix D) Historical design
B) Footnotes Answer: B
143. Which of the following is a major B) How you pick the items from the
function of literature review population
A) Gives theoretical foundation to your C) Classification of sample
research D) A list of the all items in your population
B) Connecting with existing knowledge’s Answer: D
C) Bringing clarity and focus to your 148. What is the expansion of APA?
research problem
A) Autonomous Physical Association
D) all of the above
B) American Physiological Authority
Answer: D
C) American Psychological Association
144. Which of the following term is usually
D) Anthropological physiological authority
expressed as a short question about the
relationship between two or more Answer: C
variables? 149. Who defined “Research is a
A) Research objectives systematic, controlled, empirical and
critical investigation of hypothetical
B) Research problem
relations among natural phenomena?”
C) Hypothesis
A) Kerlinger
D) Concepts
B) Howard S Becker
Answer: B
C) Perter Blau
145. Interviews are conducted using a
D) Kingsley Davis
series of preset questions and extremely
standardized recording techniques, it is Answer: A
called ………………? 150. Discovery, definition, and
A) Structured interview experimentation is the sequential process
of ………………..?
B) Conversational interview
D) Applied research
C) Unstructured Interview
B) Exploratory research
D) Informal interview
C) Action research
Answer: A
D) Descriptive research
146. Participant observation is a main data
collection tool of ………………? Answer: B
A) Social survey 151. The functions of social science
research are …………………?
B) Interview
A) Prediction
C) Ethnography
B) Diagnosis of problems and their analysis
D) Content analysis
C) Development of planning
Answer: C
D) All of the above
147. What is sampling frame?
Answer: D
A) The number of items

152. The research objectives will help you D) Acknowledgement

to Answer: B
A) Describe the experiences 157. Which of the following is not a type of
B) Define the focus of your study non-probability sampling?
C) Report the stories A) Convenience sampling
D) Should be wide and narrow B) Snow-ball sampling
Answer: B C) Stratified random sampling
153. Cardinal variables are divided into D) Purposive sampling
Continuous variables and ………………..? Answer: C
A) Ordinal variable 158. ………………………… is a scientific and
B) Discrete variables systematic search for pertinent
C) Categorical variable information on a specific topic?
D) Continuous variable A) Enquiry
Answer: B B) Examination
154. The data obtained by the researcher C) Probe
through conducting a survey, is called? D) Research
A) Secondary data Answer: D
B) Tertiary data 159. The exploration of new concepts and
C) Continuous data perspectives is a significant focus of
…………….. research design
D) Primary data
A) Historical
Answer: D
B) Exploratory
155. Which one of the following is a tools
for data collection? C) Causal
A) Ethnography D) Inferential
B) Questionnaire Answer: B
C) Social survey 160. Which of the following factor
adversely affects objectivity?
D) oral history
A) Personal prejudices and bias
Answer: B
B) Value judgment
156. Which component of the dissertation
helping to gain an understanding of what C) Ethical dilemma
was done without reading the entire D) All of the above
work? Answer: D
A) Synopsis 161. The type of hypothesis mainly
B) Abstract focusing on describing the characteristics
C) Research methodology of a variable?

A) Relational hypothesis 166. Which of the following an

B) causal hypothesis indispensable element of the scientific
method?
C) Descriptive hypothesis
A) Value judgement
D) Null hypothesis
B) Objectivity
Answer: C
C) Arbitrary methods
162. In-depth interview is a popular tool of
data collection for …………….? D) Variables
A) Oral history Answer: B
B) Content analysis 167. Which type of research purpose is to
gaining knowledge without any intention
C) Social survey
of applying it in practice?
D) Online survey
A) Pure research
Answer: A
B) Applied research
163. ........................ are lists of the topics
C) Formulative research
and questions an interviewer plans to
cover during an interview. D) Descriptive research
A) Interview schedule Answer: A
B) Question frame 168. Which of the following is not a
criticism of quantitative research?
C) Interview guide
A) Researcher detachment from the
D) Prototype Questions
participants
Answer: C
B) Data is summarized collectively
164. Find out an example for Discrete
C) The research is too rigid and inflexible
variable?
D) Replicability is possible
A) Number of children
Answer: D
B) height
169. Find out an example for primary data
C) Distance
A) Diaries
D) speed
B) Reports of Government Departments
Answer: A
C) Financial Journals
165. Which of the following is considered
as the characteristics of research D) Newspapers
A) Observable or empirical evidence Answer: A
B) It adopts scientific method 170. The lottery method is a………….. ?
C) Planned and critical investigation of a A) Cluster sampling
phenomenon B) Convenience sampling
D) All of the above C) Random sampling technique
Answer: D D) Quota sampling

Answer: C 175. Which step is not involved in planning

171. Which of the following is a major goal a Review of Literature?
of dissertation? A) To decide what knowledge is valuable
A) Demonstrate evidence of independent and what is not
investigation B) To determine how to record what is
B) Combine relevant theories and suggest gathered from a published material
alternatives C) To planning the data collection methods
C) Enable interaction with practitioners D) To set up an orderly recording or note-
D) All of the above taking system
Answer: D Answer: C
172. Everyone in your population has an 176. …………………….. is a sampling
equal chance of getting selected, is technique in which researcher relies on his
called................? or her own judgment when selecting
members of population to participate in
A) Probability sampling
the study.
B) Non Probability sampling
A) Purposive sampling
C) Snow ball sampling
B) convenience sampling
D) Accidental sampling
C) Stratified sampling
Answer: A
D) Snow ball sampling
173. When a group is subject to normal
Answer: A
conditions in an experimental hypothesis-
testing study, it is referred to as ………………. 177. Which of the component of
dissertation provide supplementary
A) Informal Group
information to that supports the originality
B) Control group of their study?
C) Process group A) Indexing
D) Reference group B) Appendix
Answer: B C) Footnotes
174. Which of the following method of D) Source references
data collection allows for the collection of
Answer: B
information on a large number of
individuals? 178. Which of the following is a feature of
a good research report?
A) Oral history
A) Clarity
B) case study
B) Conciseness
C) Historical study
C) Veracity
D) Social survey
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Answer: D

179. Which one of the following best suit C) David lane

for applied research? D) Andrew Milner
A) Problem-focused and action-oriented Answer: A
B) Gaining knowledge without applying 184. A variable which can take an
C) Focused on exploratory analysis uncountable set of values or infinite set of
D) Parallel assessment of an action plan values, which is called?
Answer: A A) Ordinal variables
180. Which of the following term States B) Categorical variable
that there is no relationship between two C) Intervening Variable
population parameters? D) Continuous variables
A) Working Hypothesis Answer: D
B) Null hypothesis 185. Subjective evaluation is the central
C) Descriptive hypothesis characteristics of ……………………?
D) Relational Hypothesis A) Quantitative research
Answer: B B) Qualitative research
181. The data collected from published C) Analytical study
reports is known as D) Experimental research
A) Primary data Answer: B
B) Secondary data 186. …………………………… is a form of
C) Tertiary data preliminary investigation into a new
D) none of the above problem about which the researcher
knows little or nothing?
Answer: B
A) Pure research
182. ...................... is the method of data
gathering and it explaining past or existing B) Applied research
facts based on the personal memories? C) Descriptive research
A) Social survey D) Exploratory research
B) Online survey Answer: D
C) Oral history 187. A sample is a subset of the ……………….
D) Content analysis A) Data
Answer: C B) Random method
183. The book “Strategies for social C) Variables
research-The methodological imagination” D) Population
authored by?
Answer: D
A) Smith, H W
188. If the Researcher interested in
B) Robert Hertz studying different types of sensitive

subjects, or difficult-toreach communities, B) Sample

which of the sampling technique is most C) Stratified case
appropriate?
D) Test group
A) Snowball sampling
Answer: B
B) Multi-stage sampling
193. Which of the following is the major
C) Area sampling purpose of oral history?
D) Quota sampling A) Filling in the historical record
Answer: A B) Understanding people’s subjective
189. ………................. is a list of all the experiences of past and present
sources you have used or not, and it is an C) Gaining community experiential
authoritative list of sources of all relevant knowledge
content in the study.
D) All of the above
A) References
Answer: D
B) Bibliography
194. Which of the following is an
C) Footnote advantage of using a simple random
D) Endnotes sample?
Answer: B A) Results can be replicability
190. In this tool of data collection, B) Each variable has an equal probability of
questionnaire is filled by the respondents being selected
themselves, it is called....................... ? C) Applicable in heterogeneous population
A) Interview guide D) It provides a representative sample
B) Group interview Answer: B
C) In-depth interview 195. Which of the following research
D) Interview schedule design mainly focusing on describing the
Answer: D factors responsible for the problematic
situation.
191. Purposive Sampling is also known as
………………? A) Diagnostic research design
A) Convenience sampling B) historical design
B) Simple random sampling C) Exploratory design
C) Judgmental sampling D) Descriptive design
D) Cluster sampling Answer: A
Answer: C 196. A type of book written on a single
specialized topic, primarily based on
192. The method of selecting a smaller
original research papers, is called
representation from a larger whole, is
……………….?
called....................?
A) Dissertation
A) Exemplification

B) Thesis 201. Research design means?

C) Monograph A) Brief analysis of the findings
D) Project report B) Systematic strategy for how to conduct
Answer: C a research project
197. ………………….. is an abstract symbol C) Helping to choose sampling method
that represents an entity, a property of an D) Selecting appropriate method of data
object, or a phenomenon collection
A) Concept Answer: B
B) Hypothesis 202. Exploratory research is also known as
C) Variable ………………?
D) Objective A) Formulative research
Answer: A B) Evaluation studies
198. ………………….. are a specific category C) Descriptive research
of information that can be gathered by D) Action research
observation, surveys, or inquiries Answer: A
A) Hypothesis 203. Which one of the following is a data
B) Variables collection method?
C) Data A) Questionnaire
D) Objectives B) Interview Schedule
Answer: C C) Interview
199. Whatever effect is noticed on D) Interview Guide
dependent variables as a result of Answer: C
extraneous variable(s) is technically
204. According to Merton, which of the
described as an ……………………?
following elements to formulation of a
A) Sampling error research issue?
B) Experimental error A) Originating question
C) Instrumental error B) rationale of the question
D) Measurement error C) Specifying questions
Answer: B D) All of the above
200. Find out odd one? Answer: D
A) Experimental Research 205. Which type of the following research’s
B) Analytical Study main aim is to analysis of a parallel
C) Historical Research assessment of an action plan launched to
solve a problem or improve a current
D) Descriptive Study
situation?
Answer: A
A) Evaluation studies

B) Descriptive research D) Non participant observation

C) Action research Answer: D
D) Formulative research 210. Which of the following is research
Answer: C based on a deductive approach?
206. Which of the data collection method A) Historical approach
giving more emphasize to visual sense B) Quantitative research
rather than audio? C) Qualitative approach
A) Survey D) Quantitative and qualitative approach
B) Observation Answer: B
C) Interview 211. ………………..is a method of testing the
D) Oral history validity of a statistical hypothesis related
Answer: B to a research topic?
207. Why should you review existing A) Experiment
literature? B) Descriptive
A) To help with your general study C) Exploration
B) For providing extensive references D) None of the above
C) To find out what is already known about Answer: A
your area of your study 212. What is Cross-sectional design?
D) Because it is part of the research A) To formulate a topic for further study
process
B) Defining the traits of a specific person or
Answer: C community
208. Which type of research helps to C) Exploration of new concepts and
describe the facts and characteristics of a perspectives
given population or area?
D) It is a research type that can examine
A) Pure research several variables at the same time
B) Action research Answer: D
C) Descriptive research 213. The term ……………………, refers to an
D) Experimental research issue that is addressed in the study by data
Answer: C analysis and interpretation?
209. In this observation process, the A) Assumption
observer stands apart from the B) Research questions
phenomenon being observed and does not C) Concepts
take part in it, can be called ……………?
D) Variables
A) Uncontrolled observation
Answer: B
B) Participant observation
214. Which of the following is a criteria of
C) Direct observation good research problem?
A) Should characterize the relationship d. None of the above

between two or more variables Answer: c. Both of the above
B) Research issue should be formulated as 219. Which of the following is not a
a query Spreadsheet Software?
C) Issue must be able to be empirically a. Microsoft Excel
checked
b. LibreOffice Calc
D) All of the above
c. OpenOffice Calc
Answer: D
215. Which of the following data source
Answer: d. None of the above
consider as an original data source and
obtained by the researcher directly? 220. The “SPSS” is a package of programs
for.
A) Primary data source
A. manipulation
B) Secondary data Source
B. analyzing
C) Tertiary data source
C. presenting data
D) all of the above
D. all of these
Answer: A
216. Which of the following help us to
perform various calculations? 221. The “SPSS” is more widely use in.
a. Writer A. social and behavioral sciences
b. Spreadsheet B. aerial science
c. Impress C. a&b
d. None of the above D. none of these
Answer: b. Spreadsheet Answer: A. social and behavioral sciences
217. Spreadsheet is used for : 222. SPSS base provides method for.
a. Managing financial and accounting A. data description
documents. B. linear regression
b. Creating data reports. C. simple inference
c. Data analysis D. all of these
d. All of the above. Answer: D. all of these
Answer: d. All of the above. 223. In SPSS online help is provides from
218. Spreadsheet packages also provide the.
built-in _______ formulae A. help menu
B. context menu
a. Mathematical
C. help button
b. Statistical D. all of these
c. Both of the above Answer: D. all of these

224. When SPSS is first open a default A. data entry

dialogue box appears that gives the user a B. data editor
number of. C. A & B
A. editing tutorial D. data type
B. date type Answer: D. data type
C. options
230. Storing and retrieving data files
D. A & B
carried out via the.
Answer: C. options A. drop-up menu
225. When SPSS is first open At the top of B. drop-down menu
the screen is a. C. A & B
A. status bar D. none of these
B. menu bar Answer: B. drop-down menu
C. A & B 231. A data file shown in the data editor
can be saved by using the commands.
D. None of these
A. save
Answer: B. menu bar B. save as
226. When SPSS is first open at the bottom C. A & B
of the screen is a. D. none of these
A. status bar Answer: C. A & B
B. menu bar
232. A source variables list is a list of
C. A & B
variables from the _______spreadsheet.
D. None of these
A. data view
Answer: A. status bar B. variable view
227. SPSS also provides a toolbar for quick C. A & B
and easy access to ____tasks. D. none of these
A. complex Answer: A. data view
B. simple
233. SPSS provides a choice between
C. common
displaying variable names or variable
D. none of these
labels in the.
Answer: C. common A. boxes
228. The SPSS default is to align string B. dialogue boxes
variables to the _________side of a cell. C. A & B
A. right hand D. none of these
B. left hand Answer: B. dialogue boxes
C. A & B
234. Which command is used for sorting.
D. none of these
A. sort
Answer: B. left hand B. sort case
229. The default chosen by SPSS depends C. A & B
on the. D. none of these

Answer: B. sort case 240. The_________ command is typically

235. Which command is used for used in connection with categorical data.
swapping. A. weight case
A. swap B. sort case
B. transpose C. A & B
C. A & B D. none of these
D. none of these Answer: A. weight case
Answer: B. transpose 241. The first page of the research report
236. The paired t test is used to test is:
_________ between two population a) Appendix.
means. b) Bibliography.
A. statistical significance
c) Index.
B. statistical inference
C. none of these d) Title page.
Answer: A. statistical significance Ans: d) Title page.
237. In medical science research 242. The last page of the research report is:
a________ test would be used to compare a) Appendix.
means. b) Bibliography.
A. Z-test c) Index.
B. F-test
C. chi-square test d) Title page.
D. paired t-test Ans: a) Appendix.
Answer: D. paired t-test 243. The content of the research report is
238. A scatter plots displays individual can be classified into 3 parts which are:
observation in an area determined by a a) Prefatory items.
_____ axis. b) Text.
A. vertical c) Terminal/References.
B. horizontal
d) All of the above.
C. A & B
D. none of these [Note: Bibliography contains the sources of
references taken and consulted.]
Answer: C. A & B
Ans: d) All of the above.
239. In scatter plots we look for a
relationship between the _____variables. 244. Bibliography means
A. one a) Foot Note.
B. two b) Quotations.
C. three
c) List of Books referred.
D. four
d) Biography.
Answer: B. two
Ans: c) List of Books referred.

245. The list of special terms and phrases Ans: a) All of the above.
used is given in the form of a: 250. The last state of research process is:
a) Foot Note. a) Review of literature.
b) Quotations. b) Report writing.
c) Glossary. c) Research design.
d) Bibliography. d) Analysis of data.
Ans: c) Glossary. Ans: b) Report writing.
246. An abstract is a: 251. A long essay on a single piece of work
a) Synopsis. is called:
b) Quotations. a) Research report.
c) Glossary. b) Monograph.
d) Bibliography. c) Dissertation.
Ans: a) Synopsis. d) Book.
247. In research methodology, Ans: b) Monograph.
interpretation is the search of: 252. Thesis is also known as:
a) Statistical data. a) Research report.
b) Research problem. b) Monograph.
c) Research findings. c) Dissertation.
d) Research plan. d) Book.
Ans: c) Research findings. Ans: c) Dissertation.
248. Interpretation should be: 253. A detailed disclosure on the subject
a) Subjective. under study is called:
b) Objective. a) Research report.
c) Integrity. b) Monograph.
d) None of the above. c) Dissertation or thesis.
Ans: a) Subjective. d) Book.
249. Which of the following statements are Ans: c) Dissertation or thesis.
true about interpretation of data? 254. Which of the following is not true
a) Interpretation can’t proceed without about e-journals?
analysis. a) They are distributed through digital
b) Analysis and interpretation are methods.
interdependent. b) They also have editors or editorial
c) The data to be interpreted should be boards.
homogeneous in nature. c) They are publications of serial nature.
a) All of the above. d) They are always free of cost.

Ans: d) They are always free of cost. Ans: b) A brief summary of the findings of
255. In which of the following, reporting the report.
format is formally prescribed ? 260. When academicians are called to
a) Doctoral level thesis. deliver lecture or presentation to an
audience on certain topics or a set of
b) Conference of researchers.
topics of educational nature, it is called
c) Workshops and seminars.
a) Training Program.
d) Symposia.
b) Seminar.
Ans: a) Doctoral level thesis.
c) Workshop.
256. Which of the following is an optional
d) Symposium.
supplement of a research paper?
Ans: b) Seminar.
a) Foot Note.
261. The core elements of a dissertation
b) Appendix.
are:
c) Glossary.
a) Introduction; Data Collection; Data
d) Bibliography. Analysis; Conclusions and
Ans: b) Appendix. Recommendations.
257. In a thesis, figures and tables are b) Executive Summary; Literature review;
included in Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography.
a) the appendix. c) Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis;
b) a separate chapter. References.
c) the concluding chapter. d) Introduction; Literature Review;
d) the text itself. Research Methodology; Results; Discussion
and Conclusion.
Ans: a) the appendix.
Ans: a) Introduction; Data Collection; Data
258. A thesis statement is Analysis; Conclusions and
a) an observation. Recommendations.
b) a fact. 262. A written format of a research work is
c) an assertion. known as:
d) a discussion. a) Research Paper.
Ans: c) an assertion. b) Monograph.
259. An abstract contains: c) Project report.
a) A brief summary of research problems. d) Research report.
b) A brief summary of the findings of the Ans: d) Research report.
report. 263. Row headings of a table is known as:
c) A brief analysis of data. a) Stum.
d) A brief interpretation of data. b) Stub.

c) Columns. c) Junior Fellowship.

d) Data. d) None of the above.
Ans: b) Stub. Ans: b) Junior Research Fellowship.
264. A treatise on single subject is called: 269. Concept is of two types
a) Research report. a) Abstract and Coherent.
b) Monograph. b) Concrete and Coherent.
c) Dissertation or thesis. c) Abstract and concrete.
d) Book. d) None of the above.
Ans: b) Monograph. Ans: c) Abstract and concrete.
265. ICSSR stands for 270. The word “data” is originated from
a) Indian Council for Survey and Research. the Latin word:
b) Indian Council for strategic Research. a) Detum
c) Indian Council for Social Science b) Datum
Research. c) Datam
d) Inter National Council for Social Science d) Detem
Research. Ans: b) Datum
Ans: c) Indian Council for Social Science 271. What are the two types of research
Research. data?
266. UGC Stands for a) Organised and unorganised data
a) University Grants Commission. b) Qualitative and Quantitative data
b) Union Government Commission. c) Processed and unprocessed data
c) University Governance Council. d) None of the above
d) Union government Council. Ans: b) Qualitative and Quantitative data
Ans: a) University Grants Commission. 272. The data which are collected from the
267. The Report submitted when there is a place of origin is known as:
time lag between data collection and a) Primary data
presentation of Result is called
b) Secondary data
a) Thesis.
c) Primary & Secondary
b) Interim Report.
d) None of these
c) Summary Report.
Ans: a) Primary data
d) Article.
273. Source of data collected and compiled
Ans: b) Interim Report. by others is called:
268. JRF is for a) Primary data
a) Junior Research Functions. b) Secondary data
b) Junior Research Fellowship. c) Primary & Secondary
d) None of these Ans: d) All of the above.

Ans: b) Secondary data 279. Which of the following is a method of
274. Which of the following is an example collecting primary data?
of primary data? a) Observation method
a) Book b) Interview method
b) Journal c) Questionnaires and schedule method
c) News Paper d) All of the above
d) Census Report Ans: d) All of the above
Ans: d) Census Report 280. A schedule is generally filled up by:
275. Which of the following is an example a) Researcher
of secondary data? b) Informants
a) RBI Bulletin c) Government
b) Government Publication d) Educational institutions
c) Committees and Commissions Ans: a) Researcher
d) All of the above 281. Structured observation is appropriate
Ans: d) All of the above in case of:
276. The data of research is: a) Analytical studies
a) Qualitative b) Descriptive studies
b) Quantitative c) Fundamental studies
c) Both Qualitative and Quantitative d) Experimental studies
d) None of the above Ans: b) Descriptive studies
Ans: c) Both Qualitative and Quantitative 282. The data which are collected through
277. Information in the research is: Internet is called:
a) Raw Data a) Internal secondary data
b) Processed Data b) External secondary data
c) Input data c) Documentary sources
d) Organized data d) None of the above
Ans: d) Organized data Ans: b) External secondary data
278. Which of the following is true about 283. Selection of appropriate method of
secondary data? data collection is based on:
a) Secondary data must be suitable. a) Nature, object and scope of study
b) Secondary data must be reliable. b) Availability of funds
c) Secondary data must be adequate. c) Time Factor
d) All of the above. d) All of the above
Ans: d) All of the above
284. Pantry audits is used to: c) Identity of respondent is known in case

a) Estimate the annual sale of goods. of schedule.
b) Estimate consumption of various goods d) Identity of respondent is known in case
by consumer. of questionnaire.
c) Estimate the wastage of goods. Ans: d) Identity of respondent is known in
case of questionnaire.
d) Estimate the average collection from
sales. 289. Which of the following statements are
true about the data in research?
Ans: b) Estimate consumption of various
goods by consumer. a) In research the data can be qualitative
285. In the process of conducting research b) In research the data can be quantitative
‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by: c) In research the data can be both
a) Statement of Objectives qualitative & quantitative
b) Analysis of Data d) In research the data can be quantitative
but never qualitative
c) Selection of Research Tools
Ans: c) In research the data can be both
d) Collection of Data
qualitative & quantitative
Ans: d) Collection of Data
290. Which of the following is not true
286. The search for answers to research about the collection of data?
questions is called collection of:
a) In observation method, the researcher
a) Data usually collects data through observations.
b) Information b) In direct personal interview, the
c) Forms investigator meets informants directly and
d) Schedules collects information.
Ans: a) Data c) In indirect interview the investigator
collects data from informants directly.
287. Primary data can be collected
through: d) In structured interview pre-planned set
a) Experiment of questions are asked in standard form.
Ans: c) In indirect interview the
b) Survey
investigator collects data from informants
c) Both of the above directly.
d) None of the above 291. Primary data can be collected by the:
Ans: c) Both of the above a) Researcher himself
288. Which of the following is not true? b) Government
a) Schedule method is costly as compared c) Auditor
to questionnaire method.
d) Banks and Financial institutions
b) A questionnaire is generally filled up by
informants. Ans: a) Researcher himself
292. Unorganized data is called:
a) Row data a) Scaling

b) Information b) Survey
c) Facts c) Case study
d) Figures d) None of the above
Ans: a) Row data Ans: a) Scaling
293. Organized data is called: 298. Library is used for data collection in:
a) Row data a) Doctrinal method
b) Information b) Non-doctrinal method
c) Facts c) Empirical research method
d) Figures d) None of them
Ans: b) Information Ans: a) Doctrinal method
294. Data obtained by conducting a survey 299. Which of the following is the main
is called: point of difference between primary data
a) Primary data and secondary data?
b) Secondary data a) The collection of secondary data is
costlier and more time consuming when
c) Both a & b
compared to primary data.
b) The secondary data is always original
Ans: a) Primary data whereas the primary data is not.
295. Which of the following is an example c) The primary data is much more reliable
of secondary data collection methods? than secondary data because it is collected
a) Online surveys directly from respondents
b) Social media tracking d) None of the above
c) Interview Ans: c)
d) Feedback results 300. What is the full form of 'MLA' as a
Ans: d) Feedback results referencing style?
296. Primary data is ___________. 1. Machine Language Adaptation
a) Always collected before secondary data 2. Modern Language Association
b) Collected for the specific purpose at 3. Management Language Authority
hand 4. Mainstream Language Association
c) Information that already exists Answer: 2
c) Data collected for other purposes  A referencing style is a uniform
Ans: b) Collected for the specific purpose approach to citing the sources both
at hand in the body of your writing and in
the reference list.
297. Any social behaviour and attributes of
man is measurable by:

 There are different types  APA style uses the author/date

of referencing styles method of citation in which the
as MLA, APA, the Harvard system, author's last name and the year of
MHRA, Chicago/Turabian and IEEE the publication are inserted in the
Style. actual text of the paper.
 Whereas, MLA stands for Modern  It is the style recommended by
Language Association and was the American Psychological
established in 1883. Association and used in many of the
Thus, the full form of 'MLA' is Modern social sciences.
Language Association. 303. In a thesis Format and styles of
301. Which is the most recent edition of referencing have been inappropriately
APA style of referencing? followed, this is an example of:
1. 6th edition 1. Technical lapse on the part of
researcher
2. 7th edition
2. Unethical practice of the researcher
3. 8th edition
3. Inability of the researcher to write a
4. 9th edition
thesis
Answer: 2
4. Lack of commitment on the part of
APA style of referencing: the researcher to write a thesis
 The guidelines of the American
Answer: 1
Psychological Association’s
 Errors can be classified into slips and
Publication Manual are widely used
lapses and mistakes according to
in the health and social sciences.
how they occur.
 The American Psychological  Slips and lapses are found in skilled
Association (APA) updated its style behavior - execution of procedures
manual in the fall of 2019. that the user has already learned.
Hence, the correct answer is the 7th 304. In writing a thesis/dissertation, Which
edition. of the following is not a part of Qualitative
302. What is the accepted style of Research Format?
referencing in writing an educational 1. Abstract
research report?
2. Definition of Terms
1. DSM III
3. Data Analysis
2. APA
4. References
3. MLA
Answer: 2
4. Chicago style
Definition of terms
Answer: 2
 Definition of terms is usually
APA Style of referencing: an annex to a
work (book, research paper,

pamphlet, etc.) either at b. Synopsis of Research

the beginning or more likely near the c. Research paradigm
end with a list of acronyms, jargon,
d. Research design
credits, etc.
Answer: d) Research design
 This is an important part of a
Research paper or report is that in Explanation: A conceptual framework can
which the key or important terms in be understood as a Research design that
the study are clearly defined. you require before research.
Hence, option 2 is the correct answer. 304. What is the main role of research in
education?
301. Who was the author of the book
named "Methods in Social Research"? a. To upsurge one's social status.
a. Kerlinger b. To increase one's job prospects.
b. CR Kothari c. To augment one's personal growth.
c. Goode and Hatt d. To help an applicant in becoming a
renowned educationalist.
d. Wilkinson
Answer: d) To help an applicant in
Answer: c) Goode and Halt
becoming a renowned educationalist
Explanation: The book named "Methods in
Explanation: Educational research can be
Social Research" was authored by Goode
defined as an assurance for reviewing and
and Hatt on Dec 01, 1952, which was
improving educational practice, which will
specifically aimed to improve student's
result in becoming a renowned
knowledge as well as response skills.
educationalist.
302. What is the major attribute of
305. Which of the following features are
Correlation Analysis?
considered as critical in qualitative
a. Association among variables research?
b. Difference among variables a. Collecting data with the help of
c. Regression among variables standardized research tools.
d. Variations among variables b. Design sampling with probability
Answer: a) Association among variables sample techniques.
Explanation: Mainly the correlational c. Collecting data with bottom-up
analysis focus on finding the association empirical evidence.
between one or more quantitative d. Gathering data with top-down
independent variables and one or more schematic evidence.
quantitative dependent variables. Answer: c) Collecting data with bottom-up
303. What is the name of the conceptual empirical evidence.
framework in which the research is carried Explanation: In qualitative research, we
out? use an inductive methodology that starts
a. Research hypothesis from particular to general. In other words,

we study society from the bottom, then Explanation: Tippit table was first
move upward to make the theories. published by L.H.C Tippett in 1927.
306. How is random sampling helpful? 309. In order to pursue the research, which
a. Reasonably accurate of the following is priorly required?
b. An economical method of data a. Developing a research design
collection b. Formulating a research question
c. Free from personal biases c. Deciding about the data analysis
d. All of the above procedure
Answer: d) All of the above d. Formulating a research hypothesis
Explanation: In random sampling, for each Answer: b) Formulating a research
element of the set, there exist a possibility question
to get selected. Explanation: Before starting with research,
307. A research intends to explore the it is necessary to have a research question
result of possible factors for the or a topic because once the problem is
organization of effective mid-day meal identified, then we can decide the research
interventions. Which research method will design.
be most appropriate for this study? 310. The format of thesis writing is the
a. Descriptive survey method same as in
b. Historical method a. Writing of Seminar representation
c. Ex-post facto method b. Preparation of research
paper/article
d. Experimental method
c. A research dissertation
Answer: c) Ex-post facto method
d. Presenting a workshop/conference
Explanation: Mainly in the ex-post facto
paper
method, the existing groups with qualities
are compared on some dependent Answer: c) A research dissertation
variable. It is also known as quasi- Explanation: The format of thesis writing is
experimental for the fact that instead of similar to that of a research dissertation, or
randomly assigning the subjects, they are we can simply say that dissertation is
grouped on the basis of a particular another word for a thesis.
characteristic or trait. 311. Which one among the following
308. Tippit table refers to as _________ statements is false in the context of
a. Table of random digits participatory research?
b. The table used in sampling methods a. It recognizes knowledge as power
c. The table used in statistical b. It is a collective process of inquiry
investigations c. It emphasizes people as experts
d. All of the above d. Its sole purpose is the production of
Answer: d) All of the above knowledge

Answer: d) Its sole purpose is the b. R&D can enhance people's standard
production of knowledge of living in the country
Explanation: Participatory action research c. R&D reflects the actual economic
is a kind of research that stresses and social conditions being prevailed
participation and action. in the country
312. Which one among the following d. All the above
statement is true in the context of the Answer: d) All of the above.
testing of hypotheses?
315. What does the longitudinal research
a. It is only the alternative hypotheses approach actually deal with?
that can be tested.
a. Long-term research
b. It is only the null hypotheses that
b. Short-term research
can be tested.
c. Horizontal research
c. Both the alternative and the null
hypotheses can be tested. d. None of the above
d. Both the alternative and the null Answer: a) Long-term research
hypotheses cannot be tested. Explanation: In general, the longitudinal
Answer: b) It is only the null hypothesis approach is long-term research in which
that can be tested. the researchers keep on examining similar
individuals to detect if any change has
Explanation: Hypotheses testing evaluates
occurred over a while.
its plausibility by using sample data.
316. What do you understand by the term
313. What are the conditions in which
"Anusandhan"?
Type-I error occurs?
a. Goal-oriented
a. The null hypotheses get accepted
even if it is false b. Following an aim
b. The null hypotheses get rejected c. Attaining an aim
even if it is true d. Praying to achieve an aim
c. Both the null hypotheses as well as Answer: b) Following an aim
alternative hypotheses are rejected 317. Evaluation Research is concerned with
d. None of the above __________
Answer: b) The null hypotheses get a. How well are we doing?
rejected even if it is true b. Why are we doing?
Explanation: The Type-I Error can be c. What are we doing?
defined as the first kind of error. d. None of the above
314. Research and Development become Answer: a) How well are we doing?
the index of development of the country.
Which of the following reasons are true Explanation: Instead of focusing on the
with regards to this statement? process, the evaluation research measures
a. R&D targets human development
the consequences of the process, for Answer: b) To bring out the holistic
example, if the objectives are met or not. approach to research
318. Which of the following does not Explanation: Particularly in
correspond to characteristics of research? interdisciplinary research, it combines two
a. Research is not passive or more hypothetical disciplines into one
activity.
b. Research is systematic
321. The main aim of the scientific method
c. Research is not a problem-oriented
in the research field is to _________
d. Research is not a process
a. Improve data interpretation
Answer: d) Research is not a process
b. Confirm triangulation
Explanation: Research is an inspired and
c. Introduce new variables
systematic work that is undertaken by the
researchers to intensify expertise. d. Eliminate spurious relations
319. Which of the following options are Answer: d) Eliminate spurious relations
the main tasks of research in modern Explanation: Scientific research aims to
society? build knowledge by hypothesizing new
a. To learn new things theories and discovering laws.
b. To keep pace with the advancement 322. A researcher is interested in studying
in knowledge the prospects of a particular political party
in an urban area. So, what tool should he
c. To systematically examine and
prefer for the study?
critically analyze the
investigations/sources with the a. Rating Scale
objective b. Interview
d. All of the above c. Questionnaire
Answer: d) All of the above d. Schedule
Explanation: Research is an inspired and Answer: c) Questionnaire
systematic work that is undertaken by the Explanation: Since it is an urban area, so
researchers to intensify expertise. there is a probability of literacy amongst a
320. What is the main aim of greater number of people. Also, there
interdisciplinary research? would be numerous questions over the
a. To over simplify the problem of ruling period of a political party, which
research cannot be simply answered by rating. The
rating can only be considered if any
b. To bring out the holistic approach to
political party has done some work, which
research
is why the Questionnaire is used.
c. To create a new trend in research
323. The conclusions/findings of which
methodology
type of research cannot be generalized to
d. To reduce the emphasis on a single other situations?
subject in the research domain
a. Casual Comparative Research
b. Historical Research Explanation: Mainly the research method

c. Descriptive Research comprises strategies, processes or
techniques that are being utilized to collect
d. Experimental Research
the data or evidence so as to reveal new
Answer: b) Historical Research information or create a better
Explanation: One cannot generalize understanding of a topic.
historical research in the USA, which has 327. A research problem is feasible only
been done in India. when
324. How to judge the depth of any a. It has utility and relevance
research?
b. It is new and adds something to
a. By research title knowledge
b. By research duration c. It is researchable
c. By research objectives d. All of the above
d. By total expenditure on research Answer: d) All of the above
Answer: c) By research objectives Explanation: A research problem can be
Explanation: Research objectives concisely defined as a statement about the area of
demonstrate what we are trying to achieve interest, a condition that is required to be
through the research. improved, a difficulty that has to be
325. Who can successfully conduct eradicated, or any disquieting question
Research? existing in scholarly literature, in theory, or
in practice that points to be solved.
a. Someone who is a hard worker
b. Possesses post-graduation degree 328. Circle graphs are used to show
c. Has studied research methodology a. How is one part related to other

parts?
d. Possesses thinking and reasoning
ability b. How various sections share in the
whole?
Answer: c) Has studied research
c. How is one whole related to another
methodology
whole?
Explanation: Anyone who has studied the
research methodology can undergo the d. How are various parts related to the
whole?
research.
326. Which of the following is not the Answer: d) How are various parts related
to the whole?
method of Research?
Explanation: A circle graph helps in
a. Survey
visualizing information as well as the data.
b. Historical
329. Authenticity of a research finding is its
c. Observation
a. Validity
d. Philosophical
b. Objectivity
Answer: c) Observation

c. Originality (a) (b) (c) (d)

d. All of the above (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: b) Objectivity (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
330. Which one is called non-probability (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
sampling? (4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
a. Quota sampling Answer: (2)
b. Cluster sampling 2. Match the following:
c. Systematic sampling
List — I List – II
d. Stratified random sampling
Types of Focus
Answer: a) Quota sampling
Research
Explanation: In non-probability sampling,
all the members do not get an equal
(a) (i) Present events
opportunity to participate in the study.
Ethnographic (ii) Social behavior
(b) Evaluative (iii) Causation
(c) Descriptive (iv) Judgement about
(d) quality
Unit -10 MCQ Experimental
1. Match the following Sections of Code:
Copyright Act 1957 (India) with their
(a) (b) (c) (d)
correct explanation:
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
List – I List — II (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) (i) Offence of infringement
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Section of copyright
55 Answer: (1)
(ii) Enhanced penalty on
(b) second and subsequent 3. Match the following:
Section convictions
List – I List — II
63 (iii) Civil remedies for
Countries Name of the Library
(c) infringement of copyright
Section (iv) Power of Police to seize
63 A (a) Egypt (i) library of Ashurbanipal
infringing copies
(d) (b) (ii) Villa of Papyri
Section Turkey (iii) Library of Pergamum
64 (c) Italy (iv) Royal Library of
(d) Iraq Alexandria
Code:

Code: (2) (b), (a), (d), (c)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) (c), (b), (d), (a)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) (d), (a), (b), (c)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Answer: (All)
(3) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) 6. Arrange the following Padma Shri award
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) recipients in chronological of their year of
the award:
Answer: (2)
(a) Bellari Shamanna Kesavan
(b) Shiyali Ramamrita Ranganathan
List – I List — II (c) Prithvi Nath Kaula
(d) Iyyanki Venkata Ramanayya
(a) Dr. Zakir (i) Indian Institute
Code:
Husain library of Science,
Bangalore (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(b) J.R.D. Tata
library (ii) Jamia Mililia (2) (a), (d), (b) and (c)
(c) Sayaji Rao Islamia, Delhi (3) (b), (a), (d) and (c)
Gaekwad library (iii) TIM, (4) (b), (d), (a) and (c)
(d) Vikram Ahmedabad Answer: (3)
Sarabhai Library (iv) B.H.U. 7. Arrange the following Public Libraries
Varanasi Acts according to their year of enactment:
Code: (a) Bihar Public Libraries Act
(b) Uttaranchal Public Libraries Act
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) Haryana Public Libraries Act
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(d) Orissa Public Libraries Act
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Code:
(1) (b), (d), (a), (c)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
Answer: (2)
(3) (d), (c), (b), (a)
5. Arrange the following IPR related Acts in
India according to their year of enactment: (4) (c), (d), (b), (a)
(a) The Copy Right Act Answer: (4)
(b) The Design Act 8. Arrange the following laws of Library
(c) Information Technology Act Science enunciated by S.R. Ranganathan in
a sequence as recorded by L.S. Connaway
(d) Trade and Merchandise Marks Act and I.M. Faniel for OCLC Project.
Code: (a) Library is a growing organism
(1) (a), (b), (d), (c) (b) Save the time of the readers

(c) Books are for use (3) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(d) Every book its reader (4) (d), (a), (c), (b)
Code: Answer: (3)
(1) (b), (c), (d), (a) 11. Arrange the following e-book sites
(2) (c), (d), (a), (b) according to the chronological order of
their origin:
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(a) Project Gutenberg
(4) (d), (a), (b), (c)
(b) Open Library
Answer: (1)
(c) Google Books
9. Arrange the following Information
Sources according to their first year of (d) DOAB
Publication: Code:
(a) Ulrich’s International Periodical (1) (a), (c), (b), (d)
Directory (2) (b), (a), (c), (d)
(b) Guide to Indian Periodical Literature (3) (c), (b), (d), (a)
(c) Library Literature (4) (d), (c), (a), (b)
(d) Indian Science Abstracts Answer: (1)
Code: 12. Arrange the following entities
(1) (a), (c), (b), (d) according to FRBR Model:
(2) (b), (c), (d), (a) (a) Item
(3) (c), (a), (b), (d) (b) Expression
(4) (d), (a), (b), (c) (c) Work
Answer: (1) (d) Manifestation
10. Arrange the following according to the Code:
year of their first publication: (1) (c), (b), (d), (a)
(a) Bibliotheca Universalis by Konard (2) (d), (a), (b), (c)
Gesner
(3) (c), (d), (a), (b)
(b) Catalogue of Books in the 15th century
(4) (c), (a), (b), (d)
by the British Museum
Answer: (1)
(c) The Bibliographic Instructive Rare Books
by G.E. Bura 13. Which of the following Sections
Constitute the parts of main entry
(d) Union catalogue of learned periodical
according to CCC (Ed.5) ?
Publications in South Asia by S.R.
Ranganathan (a) Leading Section
Code: (b) Title Section
(1) (a), (b), (d), (c) (c) Format Section
(2) (b), (a), (d), (c) (d) Note Section

Code: 16. Arrange the following according to

(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct. their year of origin:
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct. (a) Myspace
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct. (b) MOSAIC
(4) (a), (c) and (d) are correct. (c) Friendster
Answer: (2) (d) Blogger
14. Which of the following are the features Code:
of Vector Space Model IR ? (1) (b), (c), (a), (d)
(a) Complex model based on non-linear (2) (a), (d), (c), (b)
algebra (3) (b), (d), (c), (a)
(b) Term weights are not binary (4) (d), (b), (c), (a)
(c) Allows computing a continuous degree Answer: (3)
of similarity between queries and
17. Arrange the filters as proposed by
documents
Robert S. Tylor that may be employed by
(d) Do not allow ranking documents Librarians to approximate the higher
according to their possible relevance information needs of individuals.
Code: (a) Personal characteristics of the inquirer
(1) (a) and (b) are correct. (b) Relationship of inquiry description to
(2) (b) and (c) are correct. file organisation
(3) (c) and (d) are correct. (c) Objective and motivation
(4) (a) and (d) are correct. (d) Determination of the subject
Answer: (2) Code:
15. Arrange the following work (1) (c), (a), (b), (d)
components of WINISIS according to the (2) (d), (c), (a), (b)
order of sequence of approach:
(3) (a), (c), (b), (d)
(a) FST
(4) (d), (b), (a), (c)
(b) FDT
Answer: (2)
(c) Print Format
18. Arrange the names of the following
(d) Worksheet librarians of Library of Congress in the
Code: chronological order of their period of
(1) (b), (d), (c), (a) service in LC:
(2) (b), (c), (d), (a) (a) Carla Hayden
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) (b) John James Beckley
(4) (d), (c), (b), (a) (c) James H. Billington
Answer: (1) (d) George Waterston

Code: Reason (R): Interoperatability leads to

(1) (b), (d), (c), (a) information reuse as a requisite to access
data, and takes into account quality,
(2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
contents, knowledge, products and
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) services.
(4) (b), (a), (d), (c) Code:
Answer: (1) (1) Both (A) and (R) are true.
19. Assertion (A): Information, not data, is (2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
the fundamental fuel of the current Big
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Data Phenomenon.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Reason (R): The reason behind the quick
expansion of Big Data is the extensive Answer: (1)
degree to which data are created, shared 22. Assertion (A): Inclusion of DOAJ implies
and utilised in recent times. the quality of an open access journals.
Code: Reason (R): DOAJ is an online directory
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true. that indexes and provides access to open
access and peer viewed journals. Besides
(2) (R) is false but (A) is true.
DOAJ has tightened the listing criteria.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Code:
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true.
Answer: (4)
20. Assertion (A): Preprint archives, such as
arxiv and SSRN rapidly achieved
prominence in the field of scholarly (4) (A) is true but (R) is false.
communication. Answer: (1)
Reason (R): These archives contain 23. Assertion (A): In the Information
Preprint along with DOI. Retrieval domain, Probabilistic Model is
Code: becoming unpopular.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. Reason (R): Probabilistic Model fails to
provide accurate estimate for the first
run probabilities since index terms are not
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true. weighted and terms are assumed mutually
(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false. independent.
Answer: (4) Code:
21. Assertion (A): There has been a (1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
demand for data exchange between library (2) Both (A) and (R) are true.
catalogues and databases with records of
(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
documentary information.

Answer: (2) providing an open testing event and

24. Assertion (A): System effectiveness standard evaluation scenario.
may be evident while evaluating an IR Code:
system but cost effectiveness may not be (1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
satisfactory.
Reason (R): A cost effectiveness study of
an IR system is the evaluation in terms of
how to satisfy the users’ information (4) (A) is true but (R) is false.
requirements in the most efficient Answer: (3)
and economical way. 27. Assertion (A): As is true for an
Code: organisation, effective leadership is crucial
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true. for success, as poor managerial leadership
may mar the organisational goals.
Reason (R): Patterns of poor managerial
leadership create low morale,
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. poor organisational climate, distrust
Answer: (3) towards supervisors among
25. Assertion (A): Principle of canonical subordinates, lack of team work and
sequence is mainly followed to arrange the consensus building and shared goals, etc.
array of subjects in a classification scheme. which are the clear indicators of a wrong
person attained a managerial
Reason (R): This principle sets the proviso
leadership position.
that when subjects in an array of subjects
are traditionally referred to in a specific Code:
sequence, it will be convenient to conform (1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
to this traditional sequence. (2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Code: (3) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true. Answer: (3)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false. 28. Assertion (A): Netiquette mandates
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false. that you do your best to act within the
Answer: (1) laws of cyberspace and society.
26. Assertion (A): TREC is credited for Reason (R): Failing to respect others
bringing the concept of the evaluation of privacy and impolite way of
IR system. communication in considered breach of
Netiquette.
Reason (R): TREC series of IR experiment
has drawn attention of the LIS Code:
professionals all over the world for (1) Both (A) and (R) are false.

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. in any popular citation style like APA, MLA,
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. or Chicago style.
Answer: (2) Reason (R): Web-based solutions related
to online reference management have
29. Assertion (A): Serial crisis led to the
become freely available to the global
formation of library consortia around the
researchers engaged in collaborative
world.
research project.
Reason (R): Serial crisis arises due to the
Code:
situation in which budget of the library
for subscription of Journals remains static (1) Both (A) and (R) are false.
in spite of rising subscription cost (2) Both (A) and (R) are true.
of Journals which in turn affect the (3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
collection development policy of
the libraries.
Answer: (2)
Code:
32. Assertion (A): Dr. Eugene Garfields
original invention still continues to serve
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false. as a reliable and efficient guide to the
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. sprawling world of research.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true. Reason (R): Garfield was not only honored
Answer: (1) for his work in developing the field of
Citation Analysis, but also his subsequent
30. Assertion (A): Plagarism is the wrongful
contribution in founding ISI (1960)
appreciation and stealing and publication
that developed and launched SCI (1964)
of another author’s language, thought,
consequently led to the development of
ideas or expressions.
numerous citation databases of first order
Reason (R): Plagarism is in itself a crime, including ‘Web of Science’, all of which
and thus constitute copyright brought him an idiomatic identity in the
infringement. research world till the date.
Code: Code:
(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (1) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false. (3) Both (A) and (R) are true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
31. Assertion (A): The Mendeley is one of 33. Assertion (A): In technical writing, style
the most preferred online reference manuals and citation standards are
managers which can store bibliographic essential in structuring and maintaining
records as well as full text documents and uniformity of research report.
help in creating bibliographical references

Reason (R): The Quality of research can be (3) Both (A) and (R) are true.
achieved only by standardising the (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
structure of research report, but not by the
Answer: (2)
content.
36. Assertion (A): In recent times, it is
Code:
easier to copy, and paste the contents
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. from a digital documents for which people
(2) Both (A) and (R) are false. knowingly avoid to credit the sources.
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false. Increased access to digital documents has
provided a means for increase
(4) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
of plagiarism.
Answer: (3)
Reason (R): Software assisted detection
34. Assertion (A): Delphi Techniques in tools like ithenticate, turnitin etc. now
Social Science Research do not give allow vast collection of online documents
weightage to consensus. to be compared to each other
Reason (R): Consensus opinions expressed making successful detection of plagiarism.
by the panel of experts is valuable in Code:
drawing inferences.
Code:
(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3) (R) is true, but (A) is false.
Answer: (4)
(4) Both (R) and (A) are false.
37. Assertion (A): F.W. Lancaster’s
Answer: (2) cocksure prediction of a paperless society
35. Assertion (A): In social research, a high by the end of 20th century holds no good.
proportion of refusals to answer a research Reason (R): Transition from print
always occurs solely due to inadequate dominance to paperless ascendancy,
interview instructions or poor change from scroll to codex and
interview training. introduction of movable type were not
Reason (R): Within the questionnaire or only the few historical shifts, but were also
interview, even a substantive number hugely significant innovations. Inspite
of questions often remain unanswered of rapid technological changes, the future
making difficult for the researcher to state libraries will still accommodate a very large
an exact figure and forcing him to restudy print collection. However, the propelling
the questions carefully as fault might lie vision of an informationdriven paperless
upon a poor transition. society, though seems inevitable to avoid
Code: space, staff, and cost crunch, may buy
more time to become a reality.
Code:

(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true. the correct explanation
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true. Answer: (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. 41. The call number for a document
consists of three elements namely Class
Answer: (2)
Number, Book Number and
38. Assertion (A): The curriculum of LIS
A. Collection Numbers
education in India is mostly unsteady as
local LIS requirements vary. B. Accession Numbers
Reason (R): Adoption of UGC model C. Serial Numbers
syllabus is not mandatory for the LIS D. Reference Numbers
schools in India. Answer: A
Code: 42. An ordinal number, which fixes the
(1) (A) is true, but (R) is false. place of a subject relative to other subjects
(2) (A) is false, but (R) is true. in a scheme of classification is known as —
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true. A. Collection Number
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false. B. Accession number
Answer: (3) C. Call Number
39. Assertion (A): Periodical collection is D. Class Number
extensively used in University Libraries. Answer: D
Reason (R): Academia of University 43. An ordinal number which fixes the
Libraries are engaged in research work. place of a document in a library relative to
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false the documents having the same number is
known as —
A. accession number
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the
correct explanation B. collection number
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false C. book number
Answer: (C) D. call number
40. Assertion (A): Marketing libraries is Answer: D
necessary to promote the use of library 44. The amount of literature published or
products and services likely to be published on a subject is
Reason (R): Information commodities are known as —
not saleable and cannot be consumed A. users warrant
(A) (A) is true, but (R) is false B. literary warrant
(B) (A) is false, but (R) is true C. collocation
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true D. dilatory sequence
Answer: B

45. A designer of a classification D. KWAC

is________ Answer: A
A. classificationist 50. The ________ lay down the process of
B. classifier work in the idea plane.
C. user A. Principles
D. expert B. Laws
Answer: A C. Postulates
46. Who published the first edition of D. Canons
Subject Classification in 1906? Answer: B
A. W. C. B. Sayers 51. The four canons for growing universe
B. E. C. Richardson deal with the capacity of a ________
C. J. D. Brown system for admission of newly emerging
classes in the scheme of classification.
D. E. W. Hulme
A. Cataloguing
Answer: A
B. Classification
47. It is one of the basic concepts of
classification, propounded by Bliss which C. Automated
was termed by Dr. Ranganathan as the D. Notational
filiatory sequence is — Answer: C
A. Collocation 52. Ranganathan postulated that the
B. Consensus fundamental category________ may
C. Notion manifest itself in one & the same subject
more than once.
D. Subordination
A. Personality
Answer: A
B. Matter
48. The book Prolegomena to Library
Classification is written by ________ C. Energy
A. Parkhi D. Time
B. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan Answer: A
C. Bhattacharya 53. Maharashtra Public Libraries Act was
enacted in —
D. Neelameghan
A. 1960
Answer: B
B. 1964
49. Which system in 1971 replaced
Ranganathan՚s Chain procedure in BNB? C. 1967
A. PRECIS D. 1970
B. POPSI Answer: C
C. COMPASS 54. Goa Public Libraries Act was enacted in
—
A. 1989 59. Which state has largest number of

B. 1992 libraries?
C. 1993 A. Maharashtra
D. 1994 B. Tamil Nadu
Answer: D C. West Bengal
55. Manipur Public Libraries Act was D. Andhra Pradesh
enacted in — Answer: A
A. 1980 60. The helpful factor/s of Library Cess
B. 1988 is/are —
C. 1992 A. Library Cess makes it imperative on the
government to actively consider the
D. 1933
establishment and maintenance of
Answer: B libraries
56. Which states՚ Public Libraries Act is a B. The provision for library cess has a
unique and famous for its democratic & greater impact as a democratic right of
more decentralized pattern? citizens to contribute to the development
A. Goa as well as to get access to library facilities
B. Pondicherry C. It gives provision for financial
C. Kerala management
D. Manipur D. A & B only
Answer: C Answer: D
57. Haryana Public Libraries Act was 61. Which state՚s entire technical staff of
enacted in the year — the public libraries comes under the cadre
of “Library Service”?
A. 1989
B. 1994 A. Karnataka
C. 1992 B. New Delhi
D. 1988 C. West Bengal

D. Manipur
Answer: A
58. Which states levy library cess on either Answer: A
property tax or house tax? 62. Which state has largest number of
readers of public libraries?
A. Goa
A. West Bengal
B. Mizoram
B. Karnataka
C. West Bengal
D. Haryana C. Tamil Nadu
D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: D
Answer: B

63. The first conference of Indian Library 68. RRRLF is the nodal agency for
Association was organised — promoting
A. on October 13,1933 (a) Academic Libraries
B. in 1976 (b) Special Libraries
(c) Public Libraries
C. on September 12,1933
(d) Corporate Libraries
D. in 1971
Answer: Public Libraries
Answer: C
69. HeadQuarters of RRRLF Located in
64. Find out the correct sequence of the
(a) Chennai
following forms of Main Class Literature
(b) Mumbai
according to Colon Classification (sixth
(c) New Delhi
reprint edition):
(d) Kolkata
(1) Poetry, Fiction, Campu, Oration
Answer: Kolkata
(2) Poetry, Fiction, Oration, Campu
70. Present chairman of RRRLF is
(3) Poetry, Oration, Fiction, Campu
(a) Shri Gangapuram Kishan Reddy
(4) Fiction, Poetry, Campu, Oration (b) Mahalaxmi Ramakrishnan
Answer: (2) (c) K. Sreenivasarao
65. RRRLF established in the year (d) Brij Kishore Sharma
(a) 1965 Answer: Shri Gangapuram Kishan Reddy (
(b) 1972 Nov 2022) Question write
(c) 1984 71. Eastern Zonal office of RRRLF Located
(d) 1991 in
Answer: 1972 (a) Kolkata
66. RRRLF established in the year also Raja (b) Guwahati
Rammohun Roy's (c) Patna
(d) Siliguri
(a) Centenary year of the birth
(b) Bi -Centenary year of the birth Answer: Kolkata
(c) Tricentenary of the death 72. RRRLF established and fully financed
(d) Centenary year of the death by
Answer: Bi -Centenary year of the birth (a) Ministry of finance
67. RRRLF's supreme policy-making body (b) Ministry of education
is called the Foundation. It consists of (c) Ministry of culture
(a) 7 members (d) Ministry of human resource
(b) 9 members development
(c) 22 members Answer: Ministry of culture
(d) 15 members 73. Select the incorrect pair of RRRLF's
Answer: 22 members assistance under Matching schemes
(a) For developed States - 50: 50

(b) Developing and lagging states - 60: 77. According to Census 2001 which kind
40 of disability is more in India?
(c) North-Eastern States - 80: 20 (a) Hearing Handicapped
(d) None of the above (b) Arm Handicapped
Answer: North-Eastern States - 80: 20 (c) Visual Handicapped
74. Assistance under Non Matchings (d) Mental Disability
schemes are given fully from the RRRLF's Answer: Hearing Handicapped
own resources except 78. Which one of the following tool allows
(a) Assistance towards building up of blind users to avail library services?
adequate stock of books through (a) WYNN
central selection (b) Kurzweil 3000
(b) Assistance to voluntary (c) Library Website
organisations (NGOs) providing (d) Jaws Pro Talking Software
public library services.
Answer: Jaws Pro Talking Software
(c) Assistance to centrally sponsored
libraries 79. Who is responsible to regulate the
(d) Assistance towards Establishment of training policies and programmes in the
RRRLF Children's Corner field of rehabilitation of persons with
disabilities
Answer: Assistance to voluntary
organisations (NGOs) providing public (a) University Grants Commission
library services. (b) Rehabilitation Council of India
(c) Ministry of Skill Development
75. Which policy is developed by Ministry
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and
of Social Justice and Empowerment?
Empowerment
(a) Persons with Disability Act, 1995
Answer: Rehabilitation Council of India
(b) Integrated Education for Disabled
Children 80. W3C Stands for?
(c) National Policy for Persons with (a) World Wide Web Circulation
Disabilities, 2006 (b) World Wide Web Construction
(d) Right to Education (c) World Wide Web Consortium
Answer: National Policy for Persons with (d) World Wide Web Computers
Disabilities, 2006 Answer: World Wide Web Consortium
76. According to Census 2001 how many 81. TEPSE is Stands for
persons are having one or other kind of (a) Teacher Preparation in Special
disability? Environment
(a) 20 Million (b) Training & Preparation in Special
(b) 22 Million Education
(c) 21 Million (c) Teacher Programs in Special
Answer: 21 Million Education
(d) Teacher Preparation in Special
Education
Answer: Teacher Preparation in Special Answer: Partially Blind users

Education 85. Integrated Education for Disabled
82. Match the Colum Children scheme is devised by?
1. Institute for the Physically Handicapped (a) Ministry of Skill Development
A. Secunderabad. (b) Ministry of Human Resources
2. National Institute of Visually Development
Handicapped B. (c) University Grants Commission
(d) Ministry of Social Justice and
Kolkata
Empowerment
3. National Institute for Orthopedically
Answer: Ministry of Human Resources
Handicapped C. Dehradun
Development
4. National Institute for Mentally
86. National Institute of Hearing
Handicapped D. New Delhi.
Handicapped is situated at?
(a) 1-A, 2- B, 3-C, 4- D
(a) Kolkata
(b) 1-D 2- C, 3-B, 4- A
(b) Bangalore
(c) 1-B, 2- C, 3-D, 4- A
(c) Mumbai
(d) 1-D, 2- A, 3-C, 4- B
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
Answer: Mumbai
i) Institute for the Physically Handicapped,
87. Who has devised an Action Plan for
New Delhi.
Inclusive Education of Children and Youth
ii) National Institute of Visually with Disabilities?
Handicapped, Dehradun
(a) Ministry of Culture
iii) National Institute for Orthopedically (b) Ministry of Human Resource
Handicapped, Kolkata Development
iv) National Institute for Mentally (c) Ministry of Skill Development
Handicapped, Secunderabad. (d) Ministry of Information and
83. National Institute of Visually Broadcasting
Handicapped is situated at? Answer: Ministry of Human Resource
(a) Dehradun Development
(b) Lucknow 88. In Which Year Pass this Act Person
(c) New Delhi with Disability (Equal Opportunities,
(d) Ahmedabad Protection of Rights and Full Participation)
Answer: Dehradun (a) 1995
84. Prisma Magnification Device is used to (b) 1996
provide library services to? (c) 1997
(a) Deaf and Dumb (d) 1998
(b) Learning disability Answer: 1995
(c) Completely Blind Users 89. HEPSN Stands for
(d) Partially Blind users
(a) High Engineering for Persons with (d) Digital application information
Special Needs Differently-abled system
Persons Answer: Digital accessible information
(b) Helping Environment for Persons system
with Special Needs Differently-abled
93. WYNN is which type of software used
Persons
by Learning Disabliities?
(c) Hope Ear Phone for Persons with
Special Needs Differently-abled (a) Download, Upload and Rewriting
Persons Software
(d) Higher Education for Persons with (b) Solid, Retial and Wholesale Software
Special Needs Differently-abled (c) Scanning, Reading and Writing
Persons Software
(d) Holding, Listing and Wholmark
Answer: Higher Education for Persons with
Software
Special Needs Differently-abled Persons
Answer: Scanning, Reading and Writing
90. National Institute of Rehabilitation
Software
Training & Research is Where Situated?
94. Which is the major metadata type
(a) New Delhi.
used for authentication in Preservation
(b) Cuttack
Description Information?
(c) Dehradun
(d) Kolkata (a) Reference Information
(b) Provenance Information
Wrong! You have selected wrong answer.
(c) Context Information
Answer: Cuttack (d) Fixity Information
91. IGNOU, New Delhi has established the Answer: Fixity Information
National Centre for Disability Studies in
95. The online information search services
November ………….. with the mission “to
like DIALOG, BRS Search and STN worked
provide quality education at the doorsteps
on
of the learners including persons with
disabilities”. (a) Host-terminal Technology
(b) Client-Server Architecture
(a) 2006
(c) Information Technology
(b) 2005
(d) Digital Library
(c) 2007
(d) 2008 Answer: Host-terminal Technology
Answer: 2006 96. The primary objective of cost-benefit
analysis is
92. DAISY Stands for
(a) to find out direct and indirect cost of
(a) Digital accessible innovative system
developing the information system
(b) Digital accessible information system
(b) to determine the tangible benefits of
(c) Disabilty accessible information
the information system
system

(c) to determine if it is economically Answer: Training role

worthwhile to invest in developing 101. Purpose of Selective Dissemination of
the system Information is
(d) to determine the intangible benefits
(a) Providing exhaustive list of articles
of the information system
(b) Enquiry service
information system
(c) User education
Answer: to determine if it is economically (d) Current awareness
worthwhile to invest in developing the
Answer: Current awareness
system
The main objective is to kept the user well-
97. Indian National Digital Library in
informed and up-todate in his area of
Engineering Sciences and Technology
interest.
(INDEST) Consortium provides access to
102. Gazette of India is available in print
(a) English magazines
form through
(b) DVDs
(c) Full text e- journals (a) Publication Division
(d) Engineering databases (b) Ministry of Industry & Commerce
(c) Central Reference Library
Answer: Engineering databases
(d) Department of Publications
98. The number of Social Science Research
Answer: Department of Publications
Institutions financially supported by the
ICSSR is 103. The analysis of document for
classification purpose is generally called
(a) 10
(b) 15 (a) postulates
(c) 30 (b) content analysis
(d) 27 (c) subject analysis
(d) facet analysis
Answer: 30
Answer: content analysis
99. Principle of Osmosis was included in
which edition of Classified Catalogue Code: 104. Food grains in the CC have been
arranged by:
(a) Ed 3.
(b) Ed 4. (a) size of the grain
(c) Ed 5 (b) literary warrant
(d) Ed. 2 (c) later in evolution
(d) none of the above
Answer: Ed. 5
Answer: literary warrant
100. Which one of the following roles does
not constitute "Management Roles" as 105. Which of the following is an essential
proposed by Henry Mintzberg requisite of MBO?
(a) Interpersonal role (a) Joint goal-setting of the Organisation
(b) Informational role (b) Mid-term review of all employees
(c) Decisional role (c) Developing reviews of employees
(d) Training role (d) None of the above

Answer: Joint goal-setting of the (d) None of the Above

Organisation Answer: IBM
106. Multi-tier stacks are suited to 112. Ontology is Classification of Internet
(a) School libraries based documents
(b) Storage libraries (a) True
(c) Public libraries (b) False
(d) DVD libraries
Answer: True
Answer: Storage libraries
113. Usenet resemble with bulletin board
107. The 2nd edition of CCF was published system (BBS).
in 1988
(a) True
(a) True (b) False
(b) False
Answer: True
Answer: True
114. SFX is the OpenURL link resolver
108. In operations research, the --------------
(a) True
--------------------------are prepared for
(b) False
situations
Answer: True
(a) mathematical models
(b) physical models diagrammatic 115. The term Truncation is used for
(c) diagrammatic models budgeting
(d) None of the above (a) True
Answer: mathematical models (b) False
109. Internal customers are Answer: False
(a) Funding agencies 116. The great history and evolution of
(b) Internal auditors libraries in the ancient times was largely
(c) Colleagues working in the same influenced by the:
organization (a) Public Libraries
(d) Suppliers (b) Modern Libraries
Answer: Colleagues working in the same (c) Private Libraries
organization (d) Monastic Libraries
110. LISA is accessible through ProQuest Answer: d
Library Science
Explanation:
(a) True.
(b) False  Monastic Libraries: Monastic
libraries were established
Answer: True
by religious orders and contained
111. SQL Developed by books and manuscripts related
(a) Microsoft to theology, philosophy, and other
(b) Infosys religious topics.
(c) IBM
 Many of these libraries were (b) Kothari Commission

associated with monasteries and (c) Chattopadhyaya Commission
were used by monks for study and
(d) National Knowledge Commission
research.
Answer: 4
117. The main role of a library is to help
the users gain: Explanation: National Knowledge
Commission (NKC)-
(a) Access to People
 It was set up in India on June 13,
(b) Access to Culture
2005, by the Government of India.
(c) Access to Knowledge  Its aim was to prepare a blueprint to
(d) Access to the World make a reform in education,
Answer: c research Institutes, and intellectual
Explanation: property legislation.
 It recommended for "A National
 The main role of a library is to help
Mission on Libraries should be set
users gain access to knowledge.
up for a period of three years which
 Libraries play an important role in should be converted into a
supporting education, research, and permanent Commission".
lifelong learning by providing access
120. Whose statement is this about the
to a wide range of resources,
hybrid library "‘the name hybrid library is
including books, journals, databases,
intended to reflect the transitional state of
and multimedia materials.
the library, which today can neither be
118. Khuda Baksh oriental library is located fully print not fully digital"?
at:
(a) Chris Rusbridge
(a) Nagpur
(b) Stephen Pinfield
(b) Delhi
(c) Oppenheim
(c) Patna
(d) Paul Otlet
(d) Kolkata
Answer: 1
Answer: c
Explanation: Hybrid Libraries- A hybrid
 The Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Library is library has been defined as a library where
located in the city of Patna, which is digital and printed information resources
the capital of the Indian state of coexist and is brought together in an
Bihar. integrated information service accessible
 It was opened to the public on locally as well as remotely.
the 29th of October in 1891 by HMJ 121. 'Indian Library Review' is a blog of:
Sir Khan Bahadur Khuda Bakhsh.
1. Delhi Public Library
119. Which commission recommended the
2. RRRLF
'National Census of all Libraries'?
3. Indian Library Association (ILA)
(a) Radha Krishnan Commission
4. National Library of India, Kolkata
Answer: Option 4 Answer: 4

Explanation: National Library of India, Explanation: Andhra Pradesh Library
Kolkata: Association- It was established on April
 The National Library of India is the 10, 1914. Its earlier name was "Andhra
largest in India by volume and public Desh Grantha Bhandagara Sangham". It
record. was renamed as Andhra Pradesh Library
Association (Andhra Pradesh Granthalaya
 It came into existence through
Sangham) after the formation of Andhra
the Imperial Library (Change of
Pradesh State.
name) Act, of 1948.
124. Chattopadhyay Committee was
 Maulana Abul Kalam Azad opened
appointed by
the National Library to the public in
1953. 1. Raja Ram Mohan Roy Library
Foundation
 It was renamed The National Library
of India by the National Library of 2. Department of Culture, Govt. of
India Act, 1976. India
122. Which commission recommended 3. Indian Library Association
6.5% of the total budget of a University for 4. National Library, Calcutta
its library? Answer: 2
1. Kothari Education Commission Explanation:
2. Radha Krishnan Commission for Ministry of Culture- The Ministry of Culture
Higher Education is the Ministry of the Government of India.
3. Ranganathan Committee It has the responsibility to promote and
4. Sinha Committee preserve the art and culture of India.
Answer: 2 125. Match the following lists based on the
institutions and their year of
Explanation: The University Education
establishment:
Commission was set up in 1948 under the
chairmanship of Dr. S. Radhakrishnan and American Library
recommended that 6.25 % of the total (a) 1895 (i)
Association (ALA)
budget of the university or Rs. 40 per
student should be spent on libraries. (b) 1909 (ii) CILIP (UK)
123. Which of the first library association (c) 1876 (iii) FID
to introduce library education in India?
1. Madras Library Association in 1920 Special Library Association
(d) 2002 (iv)
(SLA)
2. Bangal Library Association in 1920
3. Delhi Library Association in 1920 1. (a - iii), (b - iv), (c - i), (d - ii)
4. Andhra Pradesh Library Association 2. (a - ii), (b - iv), (c - iii), (d - i)
in 1920 3. (a - iii), (b - i), (c - iv), (d - ii)

4. (a - i), (b - ii), (c - iv), (d - iii) o create a love for books and

Answer: 1 other learning resources; and
Explanation: o inculcate the habit of reading
in a slow but deliberate
ALA- American Library Association,
process.
Established in 1876- The American
Library Association is a nonprofit 127. Who is responsible for establishment
organization situated in the United States. of an institute for library education first
time'?
CILIP- Chartered Institute of Library and
Information Professionals, Established in 1. Asa Don Dickinson
2002 by merging the Library 2. Margret Mann
Association (LA) and the Institute of 3. Melvil Dewey
Information Scientists (IIS).
4. C. A. Cutter
It is an association for librarians,
Answer: 3
information specialists, and knowledge
managers in the United Kingdom. Explanation: The first ever library school
was started by Melvil Dewey in the USA
FID- International Federation for
in 1887 at Columbia College (now
Information and Documentation - It is the
Columbia University). In 1889 the program
international professional association for
moved to the New York State Library in
documentalists, information scientists, and
Albany when Dewey became the Director.
other specialists in information
management. 128. When Melvil Dewey become librarian
of Columbia College, New York City?
SLA (Special Library Association)- It is an
international professional association for 1. In 1883
library and information professionals. 2. In 1876
126. What are main objectives of the 3. In 1887
school library? 4. In 1889
1. Promote research Answer: 1
2. Promoting Reading Habit Explanation: Melvil Dewey becomes the
3. Establishment of information society librarian of Columbia College, New York
4. All of the above City in the year 1883. Melvil Dewey was
chief librarian at the Columbia University
Answer: 2
Libraries from 1883-1888.
Explanation: The school library should aim
129. Raja Rammohun Roy Library
to:
Foundation was established in __________
o foster book-mindedness; at Kolkata
o strengthen learning skills 1. May, 1972
through kits now available in
2. June, 1972
plenty;
3. July 1972

4. August, 1972 A. Abacus

Answer: 1 B. Acta numerica
Explanation: RRRLF: C. Interlending and Document supply
 RRRLF was established in May D. All of above
1972 by the department of culture, Answer: C
govt. of India.
133. The term 'literary warrant' was first
 It consists of 22 members nominated introduced by
by Govt. of India amongst eminent
A. S.R.Ranga nathan
Educationists, Librarians,
B. E.Wyndhan Hulme
Administrators, and senior officials.
C. A.Neelamegam
130. "Dharmaganja" was the name of the D. Senguptha
library of which University/Monastry ?
Answer: B
1. Vikramshila
134. POSDCORB coined by:
2. Odantapuri
A. Fayol
3. Nalanda B. Maslow
4. Somapuri C. Gulic
Answer: 3 D. Ranganathan
Explanation: Nalanda, Bihar: Answer: C
 Nalanda University was established 135. Expansion of AGRIS
in 400 A.D. situated in Bihar and A. Agricultural Research Information
contains one of the biggest libraries System
known by the poetical name B. Agricultural Retrieval Index System
the Dharmaganj. C. Agricultural Retrieval Information
 Nalanda University Library was of System
three huge buildings D. Agricultural Research in Science
called RatnaSagar, Ratnodadhi, and Answer: A
Ratnaranjaka. 136. Relational Database is
131. In USA, what was student expenditure A. AA work which has some
on college and university library 1964- relationship to another work
1965? B. A symbol representing relationship
A. \$ 51.75 between two concepts
B. $ 52.75 C. Manipulation commands which
C. \$ 53.75 relate records in different fields
D. All of the above
D. \$ 54.75
Answer: C
Answer: B
137. The purposes of Metadata are
132. Which is the journal of Library and
Information Science? i. Unique identification

ii. Authentication of records 4. CLA

iii. Shelf arrangement Answer: A
Shows the collection of a library 142. Virtua accommodates Different
A. (i), (ii) are correct. version of the MARC Standard?
B. (ii), (iii) are correct. 1. USMARC
C. (iii), (iv) are correct. 2. UKMARC
D. (iv), (i) are correct. 3. CANMARC
Answer: B 4. SWEMARC/All of above
138. The annual report of college library Answer: D
does not include the 143. The Principle of Canonical Sequence is
A. Total number of booksB one of the principles of:
B. Activities of library A. Facet Sequence
C. Financial constrains B. Fundamental Categories
D. Loss of books C. Helpful Sequence
Answer: D D. Basic laws
139. Principle of maximum aggregate Answer: C
benefit is concerned with..... 144. A sale organized fair by a library to
A. Growth of library dispose of surplus and out-depted sale
B. Library use books is
C. Library service A. Book fair
D. Library fee B. Book Sale
Answer: C C. Book stall
140. When the permission of copyright D. Book week
owner is not needed? Answer: B
1. Criticism or review 145. In which of the following the term
2. Translation ''Truncation'' is used
3. Research purpose A. Budgeting
4. Photocopy for sale B. Search Formulation
Option: C. Coordination
1. (i) and (iii) are correct. D. Classified bibliography
2. (i) and (iv) are correct. Answer: B
3. (iii) and (iv) are correct. 146. Index Indiana, an index to Indian
4. (ii) and (iii) are correct. Periodical Literature is being compiled by
Answer: A (1) Central Reference Library, Kolkata
141. Who printed "A.A.Code" draft? (2) National Library of India
1. LC (3) NISCAIR
2. ALA
(4) IASLIC
3. LA

Answer: (1) 151. According to S.R. Ranganathan the

147. According to OCLC research report canons for chain are
'Know your community and its needs' is (1) Canon of Ascertainability
the rephrasing of which law of (2) Canon of Recall Value
Ranganathan?
(3) Canon of array and filitary sequence
(1) First Law
(4) Canon of decreasing extension and
(2) Second Law modulation
(3) Third Law Answer: (4)
(4) Fourth Law 152. In Colon Classification (6th edition)
Answer: (2) 'LB' denotes
148. Identify the document which is (1) Special
published by H.W. Wilson. (2) System
(1) Europa World Yearbook 55th ed. 2014 (3) Canonical Class
(2) The International Who's Who 78th ed. (4) Rounds
2014
Answer: (2)
(3) Sears list of subject Headings 20th ed.
153. According to AACR 2R who will be
2010
considered for the access point of the Main
(4) Ulrich's Periodicals Directory 53rd ed. Entry for the document entitled
2015 'Adventures of Tom Sawyer by Mark
Answer: (3) Twain; rewritten for young readers by Felix
149. 'Open Journal System' is an example Sutton.
of which of the following open access (1) Sawyer, Tom
models? (2) Twain, Mark
(1) Green (3) Mark Twain
(2) Red (4) Sutton, Felix
(3) Gold Answer: (4)
(4) Platinum 154. 'Time and. Motion' study was
Answer: (4) enunciated by
150. When was the final `ISBD (1) Edward Evans
Consolidation Edition' published by IFLA? (2) Frank and Lillian Gilbreth
(1) 2008 (3) Harrington Emerson
(2) 2009 (4) G. McGregor
(3) 2010 Answer: (2)
(4) 2011 155. Which RFID component is attached to
Answer: (4) the Book/item for identification?
(1) Barcode

(2) Antenna Answer: (4)

(3) Reader 160. If 'r' is a rank of a word and T is its
(4) Tag frequency then rf = c, where 'c' is a
constant. Which law is this?
Answer: (4)
(1) Bradford's law
156. What is RJ45?
(2) Lotka's law
(1) A network cable connector
(3) Narain's law
(2) A node
(4) Zipf s law
(3) An electronic coupler
Answer: (4)
(4) A video display unit for signalling and
controlling multimedia 161. VIDWAN (INFLIBNET) is
Answer: (1) (1) An open source software
157. SIP, the communication protocol (2) An Association of Intellectuals
communication stands for (3) A Programming Language
(1) Signalling Information Protocol (4) A Database of Experts and a network of
(2) Internet Session Protocol Researchers and Scientists at national level
(3) Sound Initiation Protocol Answer: (4)
(4) Session Initiation Protocol 162. Systems that convert documents and
images into digital form so that they can
Answer: (4)
be stored and accesed by the computer are
158. The Fifth Anniversary of the general called:
release of OCLC World Share Management
1. Virtual reality systems
Service — the first-ever cloud-based
Cooperative Library Management System 2. Document imaging systems
(that selected 500 libraries spanning six 3. Scanners
continents) was celebrated on: 4. Presentation graphics systems
(1) July 01, 2015 5. Neural networks
(2) July 03, 2015 Answer: Document imaging systems
(3) May 01, 2016 163. he strategy used to search through
(4) August 12, 2016 the rule base in an expert system defines:
Answer: (Wrong Question) 1. an AI shell
159. Which of the following is a measure of 2. fuzzy logic
dispersion? 3. CASE
(1) Geometric mean 4. an inference engine
(2) Median 5. a genetic algorithm
(3) Mode Answer: an inference engine
(4) Root Mean Square Deviation

164. Which of the following is a specialist b) Third party includes a public authority
who elicits information and expertise from also.
other professionals and translates it into a c) Both (a) & (b) are true.
set of rules or frames for an expert
d) Neither (a) nor (b) is true.
system?
Answer: c
1. Knowledge translator
168. The basic object of the Right to
2. Knowledge analyst
Information Act 2005 is:
3. Knowledge engineer
a) To empower the citizens,
4. Expert analyst
b) Promote transparency and
5. Systems analyst accountability in the working of the
Answer: Knowledge engineer Government
165. Which of the following refers to rule- c) Contain corruption,
based AI tolerates imprecision by using d) All the above
non-specific terms called membership
Answer: d
functions to solve problems?
169. Which of the following is not correct?
1. Genetic algorithms
a) The CPIO cannot seek the assistance of
2. Fuzzy logic
any other officer for proper discharge of
3. Hybrid system his or her duties
4. Expert system b) The CPIO may seek the assistance of any
5. Neural network other officer for proper discharge of his or
6. Virtual reality system her duties
Answer: Fuzzy logic c) Every CPIO shall deal with requests from
persons seeking such information and
166. The set of processes developed in an
render reasonable assistance to the
organization to create, gather, store,
persons seeking such information
transfer, and apply knowledge, best
describes: d) CPIO should provide information if not
exempted within 30 days
1. organizational learnings
Answer: a
2. knowledge management
170. 'Herald of Library Science' is
3. organizational memory
published since __.
4. knowledge assets
1. 1958
5. business process engineering
2. 1956
Answer: knowledge management
3. 1962
167. With reference to the RTI Act, which
4. 1964
of the following statement/s is/ are true?
Answer: 1962
a) A third party is a person other than the
citizen making a request

171. Annals of Library and Information 176. When entities are books or other
Studies (ALIS) is published since __. items of information, their classification is
1. 1952 known as —
2. 1954 A. Book
3. 1956 B. Library
4. 1958 C. Depth
Answer: 1954 D. Broad
172. 'Yojana' journal started publishing in Answer: B
the year __. 177. The subject that has a basic facet &
1. 1954 one or more isolate facets —
2. 1955 A. Complex
3. 1957 B. Compound
4. 1959 C. Basic
Answer: 1957 D. Specific
173. 'Indian Science Abstracts' is published Answer: A
since __. 178. Which sequence means placing
1. 1965 together closely related classes?
2. 1964 A. Parallel
3. 1959 B. Alphabetical
4. 1969 C. Filiatory
Answer: 1965 D. Helpful
174. Which of the following are NOT Answer: C
ranking parameters used in NIRF? 179. A sequence of Coordinate Classes
1. Research and Professional Practices arranged in some definite order is called
2. Outreach and Inclusivity A. an arrary
3. Social and Cultural Activities B. a chain
4. Perception C. a category
Answer: Social and Cultural Activities D. a facet
175. First NIRF Ranking was released on Answer: D
__. 180. classification are contemptuously
1. 4th April 2016 described as mark & park systems.
2. 29th September 2015 A. Facet
3. 29th September 2016 B. Enumerative
4. 4th April 2015 C. Freely faceted
Answer: 4th April 2016 D: Rigidly faceted

Answer: C b. Institute of Information Scientists

181. Numbers that are used in counting c. Institute of Documentation
and in expressing measures are — d. Institute of Librarianship
A. ordinary Answer: b
B. ordinal 185. Who published the journal
International classification?
C. cardinal
a. IFLA
D. indicator
b. UNESCO
Answer: C c. ISKO
182. In Colon Classification, the ordinal d. ALA
value of the digit “A” (delta) lies between Answer: c
the
186. Which association in India awards
digits — teachers in LIS?
A. X and Y a. IATLIS
B. A and B b. ILA
C. O and P c. IASLIC
d. SIS
D. M and N
Answer: a
Answer: A
183. The total number of digits in the 187. Which law of library Science relates to
the growth of libraries
notational system of Colon Classification is
— a. Forth law
b. First law
A. 74
c. Second law
B. 60 d. Fifth law
C. 14 Answer: d
D. 06 188. Resource sharing is a part of
Answer: B a. Library cooperation
184. Which two organizations jointly b. Library Administration
publish survey on digitization and c. Library Management
preservation? d. Library Cataloging
a. IFLA + UNESCO Answer: a
b. ALA + UNESCO 189. Library Technology Report is a
c. IFLA + ALA publication of
d. IFLA + LC
a. ALA
Answer: a b. IASLIC
184. Which organization was joined with c. LA
Library Association to form CILIP in 2002? d. ILA
a. Institute of Bibliography Answer: a

190. ABGILA is a quarterly publication of Answer: d

a. Assam Library Association 196. BERN CONVENTION (1886) is
b. Andhra Desa Library Association concerned with:
c. Indian Library Association a. Translations
d. Raja Ram Mohun Roy Foundation b. Copyright
Answer: c c. Patent
191. The Librarian Day celebrated on d. Standards
a. 15th Sep Answer: b
b. 24th Nov 197. The invisible web refers to-
c. 11th Dec a. The internet, since we cannot see it
d. 12th Aug b. That part of the internet, which is
Answer: d hidden from the search engines
192. Forms of Extension service c. The telecommunication signals
which are not seen
a. Library Websites
d. The failure in accessing the web
b. Library Orientation
pages
c. Book fair and Exhibition
d. All Answer: b
Answer: d 198. Which organisation applied Library
and Information Policy in India at national
193. Which of the following is a Tertiary
level?
Sources of Information?
a. NISSAT
a. Journal
b. INSDOC
b. Bibliography
c. UNESCO
c. Encyclopaedia
d. RRRLF
d. Bibliography of Bibliographies
Answer: d
Answer: d
199. The act enacted in India in 1856 on
194. Number of States in India which have
Intellectual Property Right was based on:
enacted Public Library Legislation till date
is a. American Patent Law 1810
b. British Patent Law 1852
a. Nineteen
c. The Patent Bill
b. Fourteen
d. The Design Act of 1911
c. Thirteen
d. Sixteen Answer: b
Answer: a 200. Whether intellectual property can be
sold.
195. Information is …
a. No
a. Raw data
b. Sale is possible
b. Raw knowledge
c. Yes
c. Input data
d. None of these
d. Organized data

Answer: b a. University of Delhi

201. The term communication came from b. University of Madras
which language? c. S. N. D. T. Women University,
Bombay
a. Greek
d. Aligar Muslim University
b. Latin
c. German Answer: a
d. French 207. Which Commission recommended 10
Answer: b % of the total college budget for
development of Libraries?
202. To which country the credit is given to
coin the term information society? a. Dr. S. R. Ranganathan Committee
b. Mehrotra Committee
a. USA
c. Kothari Committee
b. France
d. Curriculum Development Committee
c. Japan
in LIS
d. India
Answer: c
Answer: c
208. Where did Dr. S. R. Ranganathan put
203. Today information is regarded as
forth his five laws of library science?
which of the following?
a. Meenakshi College, Annamalainagar
a. Wealth
b. Hindu College, New Delhi
b. Commodity
c. City College, Bangalore
c. Products
d. Christ College, Bangalore
d. All the above
Answer: a
Answer: d
209. UNISIST is a
204. What is the unit of information?
a. Software
a. Bit
b. A Programme
b. Byte
c. Welfare association
c. Gram
d. A committee
d. Hertz
Answer: b
Answer: a
210. Which association՚s tagline is
205. Now a day՚s what is a most important
“managing information”
vital resource for societal development of
a country? a. IFLA
b. ASLIB
a. Books
c. ALA
b. Kowledge
d. LC
c. Information
d. Data Answer: b
Answer: c 211. Which association՚s tagline is
“connecting people and information”
206. Which Indian University first started
M. Lib. Sc. & M. Phil courses a. SLA

b. IFLA 216. Who said 'some books are to be

c. ALA tasted, others to be swallowed and some
d. COMLA few to be chewed and digested' ?
Answer: a A. John Milton
212. Which organization has introduced B. William Jones
the concept of “Sister libraries” for C. Francis Bacon
children՚s and young adults reading?
D. Benjamin Franklin
a. UNESCO
Answer : C. Francis Bacon
b. IFLA
c. LC 217. Who contributed on the systematic
d. LA use of user's education ?
Answer: b A. S.S.Green
213. DDC 22nd edition is published by? B. Melvil Dewey
A. OCLC C. E. J. Coates
B. Forest Press D. Patricia B. Knapp
C. IFLA Answer : D. Patricia B. Knapp
D. UNESCO. 218. What is Delphi method ?
Answer : A. OCLC A. It is a programming language
214. What is the full form of IATLIS ? B. It is a method of research
A. International Association of Trade C. It is used for cost-benefit analysis.
Unions of Library Science D. It is a software
B. Indian Air Traffic Light, Information and Answer : C. It is used for cost-benefit
Signal. analysis.
C. Indian Airlines Technical Lower 219. What is not open source software for
Intelligence Services library management ?
D. Indian Association of Teachers in Library A. KOHA
& Information Science B. AVANT1
Answer : D. Indian Association of Teachers C. 2.39-50.
in Library & Information Science
D. php my Library
215. In which year was the International
Answer : C. 2.39-50.
Book Year celebrated by UNESCO ?
220. Information may be categorised into
A. 1931
A. Systematic, analytical and descriptive.
B. 1947
B. Analytical, statistical and systematic
C. 1952
C. Logical, analytical and statistical
D. 1972.
D. Statistical, descriptive and analytical
Answer : D. 1972.

Answer : D. Statistical, descriptive and 226. The term 'Bibliophile' refers to

analytical A. A Bibliographer dictionary
221. A. B. Maslow is related to B. A Book Lover
A. Theory X and Theory Y C. A Publisher
B. Hygienic factors. D. A Book Binder.
C. Hierarchy of human needs Answer : B. A Book Lover
D. 14 principles 227. 'Kinesis' is related to
Answer : B. Hygienic factors. A. Communication
222. In which year did A. W. Borden start a B. Generation
refresher course for librarians in India ?
C. Storage
A. 1905
D. None of these
B. 1913
Answer : A. Communication
C. 1912
228. Information Science is a discipline
D. 1910 that investigates
Answer : D. 1910 A. The properties and behaviour of
223. Which record is the hub of the stack in information
a library ? B. The forces governing the flow of
A. Accession register information
B. Shelf list register C. The means for processing of information
C. Book catalogue for optimal uses
D. Staff manual. D. All of these.
Answer : A. Accession register Answer : D. All of these.
224. MeSH is the name of a 229. The 'Five Laws of Library Science'
propounded by Dr. S. R. Ranganathan, is
A. Controlled Vocabulary
which type of research?
B. Medical Library
A. Pure research
C. C.S.I.R. Unit
B. Basic research
D. none of these.
C. Survey research.
Answer : A. Controlled Vocabulary
D. Applied research
225. Theory X and Theory Y were
Answer : D. Applied research
formulated by
230. Whether Library is a system ?
A. Peter Drucker
A. No, it cannot be a system
B. Douglas Murray McGregor
B. It is quite impossible
C. Abraham Maslow
D. F. W. Taylor.
Answer : B. Douglas Murray McGregor
C. Yes, it has various sections as sub- A. Physical

systems coordinating each other forming a B. Technical
system
C. Financial
D. Library is separate from a system.
D. Human
Answer : C. Yes, it has various sections as
Answer : D. Human
sub-systems coordinating each other
forming a system 235. A set of rules that govern overall data
communications system is popularly
231. How is stochastic equation of
known as...............
information solved ?
A. Memorandum
A. By statistical and dynamic rules
B. Pact
B. By statistical rules
C. Agreement
C. By dynamic rules
D. Protocol
D. None of these.
Answer : D. Protocol
Answer : A. By statistical and dynamic
rules 236. Which of the following is an
‘Acronym’ ?
232. What is the meaning of 'Translation
Pools' ? A. UNO
A. Details about the names of translation B. UNESCO
experts C. UNDP
B. Details about the addresses of the D. UGC
translators Answer : B. UNESCO
C. Agency of the names of translation 237. Protocol means...............
experts A. Interchange of data between two
D. None of these devices
Answer : C. Agency of the names of B. Interchange of data between two
translation experts computers
233. Which of the following is not true C. Linkage between two computers
about e journals ? D. Linkage between two devices
A. They are always free of cost
Answer: A. Linkage between two devices
B. They are distributed through digital
238. IFLA’s programme for capacity
methods building of library associations is named as
C. They also have editors or editorial
(A) BSLA
boards
(B) ALP
D. They are publications of serial nature
(C) CLM
Answer : A. They are always free of cost
(D) PAC
234. Staffing is concerned with providing
and maintaining................resources ? Answer - (A)

239. A characteristic in which information Codes :

tends to leak and the more it leaks, the (A) (i) and (iii) are correct
more we have, is
(B) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(A) Synergetic characteristics
(C) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(B) Diffusive characteristics
(D) (i) and (iv) are correct
(C) Compressible characteristics
Answer - (D)
(D) Shareable characteristics
243. Who was the Chairman of ‘National
Answer - (B) Policy on Library & Information Systems’
240. Which of the following organizations (1986) ?
are associated with the concept of ‘1000 (A) D. N. Banerjee
crore plan to link 9000 libraries in India’ ?
(B) D. P. Chattopadhyay
(i) National Library of India
(C) Sam Pitroda
(ii) National Mission on Libraries
(D) Kalpana Dasgupta
(iii) INFLIBNET
Answer - (B)
(iv) RRRLF
244. Identify the methods used for
Codes : plagiarism detection :
(A) (ii) and (iii) are correct. (i) Term occurrence analysis
(B) (iii) and (iv) are correct. (ii) API Testing
(C) (i) and (iv) are correct. (iii) Citation-based plagiarism detection
(D) (ii) and (iv) are correct. (iv) Local similarity assessment
Answer - (D) Codes :
241. Which of the following does not (A) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
protect intellectual property ?
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(A) Encryption of data
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(B) Digital watermark
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(C) Uniquely encoded licences
Answer - (B)
(D) Plug-ins
245. The significance of the year 2011 for
Answer - (D) LIS education in India is
242. Which of the following are value (A) Golden Jubilee year
added information services?
(B) Platinum Jubilee year
(i) Aggregator Service
(C) Diamond Jubilee year
(ii) Referral Service
(D) Centenary year
(iii) Document Delivery Service
Answer - (D)
(iv) Research Reports/Market Survey
246. Which of the following are the main
Reports
role operators of PRECIS ?

(i) Key System (D) Metadata Harvesting

(ii) Action Answer - (D)
(iii) Performer of action 250. A rubber stamp impressed on the
(iv) Form of Document verso of title page giving information
concerning the records and processing of
Codes :
each individual book acquired is called
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(A) Book stamp
(B) (ii), (i) and (iv)
(B) Process stamp
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) Date stamp
(D) (ii), (iii) and (i)
(D) Accession stamp
Answer - (A)
Answer - (D)
247. Digital Reference Service can be
251. Ontology is
offered through
(A) A Documentation service
(A) FAX
(B) An Indexing method
(B) OPAC
(C) Classification of Internet based
(C) Ask your librarian
documents
(D) Consortia
(D) Cataloging of Internet based
Answer - (C) documents
248. Which of the following are limitations Answer - (C)
of digital libraries?
252. In colon classification, which
(i) Full text searching mnemonic is displayed in the use of digit
(ii) Operational costs ‘4’ as for pathology, disease, transport,
(iii) Rights management hybrid etc.?
(iv) Hyper text linking (A) Seminal
Codes : (B) Systematic
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct (C) Scheduled
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct (D) Alphabetical
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct Answer - (A)
(D) (i) and (iv) are correct 253. Name the similarity measure in which
similarity of a document is adjusted such
Answer - (B)
that the similarity of a document to itself is
249. OAISTER is an example of digital
(A) Cosine measure
libraries architecture based on
(A) CORBA (B) Distance measure
(C) Swet’s measure
(B) Software Agents Architecture
(D) Normalised similarity measure
(C) Federated Database System
Answer - (D)

254. Which law states that “An 258. The Dewey Decimal Classification
information retrieval system will tend not divides human knowledge into
to be used whenever it is more painful and (A) 10 basic categories.
troublesome for a customer to have
(B) 100 basic categories.
information than for him not to have it” ?
(C) 1000 basic categories.
(A) Bradford’s Law
(D) 10000 basic categories.
(B) Mooer’s Law
Answer: (A)
(C) Ziff’s Law
259. Call Number of a Book Means
(D) Lotka’s Law
(A) Book Number
Answer - (B)
(B) Class Number
255. Who is the compiler of Web-
Bibliography of Rabindranath Tagore? (C) Both (A) and (B) are true
(A) Bengal Library Association (D) None of the above
(B) RRRLF Answer: (C)
(C) National Library of India 260. Accession Number means
(D) IASLIC (A) Call Number of a book
Answer - (B) (B) Unique Number for a book inside a
particular library.
256. Who are the publishers of ‘Year Book
on Human Rights’? (C) Book Number
(A) United Nations (D) Class number
(B) Ministry of Law, Govt. of India Answer: (B)
(C) Europa Publishers 261. How many digits have in the ISSN
(D) R.R. Bowker (A) 10
Answer - (A) (B) 8
257. ASTINFO stands for (C) 13
(A) Asian Scientific and Technological (D) 15
Information Network Answer: (B)
(B) Association of Scientific and 262. Main use of Shelf list is
Technological Information Scientists in (A) Cataloging
Asia
(B) Circulation
(C) International Network for Exchange of
(C) Stock Verification
Science and Technology Information
(D) Book Selection
(D) Regional Network for the Exchange of
Information and Experience in Science and Answer: (C)
Technology in Asia and the Pacific 263. Posting the right person at the right
Answer - (D) place is called ________

(A) Recruitment Answer: (D)

(B) Coaching 268. A budget which mainly covers items
(C) Deployment of current revenue and expenditure is
called __.
(D) Induction
(A) Programme budget
Answer: (A)
(B) Welfare economics
264. TQM is a system of continuous
improvement employing participative (C) Current budgeting
management and centered on needs of the (D) Capital budgeting
________ Answer: (D)
(A) Customers 269. The library budget of a university is
(B) Staff passed by the ?
(C) Organization (A) Senate
(D) Government (B) Executive Council
Answer: (C) (C) Academic Council
265. Financial support given to libraries are (D) Research Council
of two types - Recurring and Answer: (B)
(A) Ad-hoc 270. In fund accounting, _______ fund can
(B) Endowments not be used for other purposes.
(C) Annual (A) Recurring
(D) Non-recurring (B) Non-recurring
Answer: (B) (C) Restricted
266. Principle of maximum aggregate (D) Encumbering
benefit is concerned with__ Answer: (A)
(A) Growth of library 271. Scrutiny of financial transactions is
(B) Library use called
(C) Library service (A) Budgeting
(D) Library fee (B) Programming
Answer: (C) (C) Accounting
267. …….. takes items of expenditure for (D) Auditing
libraries as the working data for allocation Answer: (D)
of funds.
272. What are the two parts of the annual
(A) Method of details report of the library
(B) Per capita method (A) Primary and Secondary
(C) Principle of economy (B) Analytical and Systematic
(D) Library budget (C) Upper and Lower

(D) Descriptive and Statistical 278. What are the standard size of the
Answer: (D) Accession Register is
273. How many columns are there in the (A) 16” * 12”
accession register? (B) 16” * 13”
(A) 10 (C) 16” * 11”
(B) 12 (D) 16” * 18”
(C) 14 Answer: (B)
(D) 16 279. A good library building is an outcome
Answer: (C) of librarian and.
274. PPBS relates to (A) Registrar
(A) Book selection (B) Building Corporation
(B) Journal selection (C) Finance Officer
(C) Budgeting (D) Architect
(D) Library records Answer: (D)
Answer: (C) 280. ________ are the storage areas for
the various types of documents kept in a
275. Zero based budget is concerned with
library.
(A) Present
(A) Tasks .
(B) Past
(B). Racks
(C) Future
(C) Stacks
(D) Remote future
(D) Desks
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
276. Another term of PERT is
281. Study carrels are exclusive areas
(A) CPM meant for
(B) POSDCORB (A) Students
(C) MBO (B) Public
(D) HRM (C) Women
Answer: (A) (D) Researchers
277. POSDCORB is related to Answer: (D)
(A) Library cataloguing 282. Library catalogue cards are filed in
(B) Library reference service specially designed drawers called
(C) Library administration (A) Charging tray
(D) Library automation (B) Catalogue cabinet
Answer: (C) (C) Display rack .
(D) Filling equipment

Answer: (B) (B) Classification

283. Information Gatekeepers come under (C)Cataloguing
________ sources. (D) Arrangement in the shelve
(A) Documentary Answer: (A)
(B) Human 288. The standard size of an accession
(C) Institutional register is ?
(D) Neo-conventional (A) 15” x 13”
Answer: (A) (B) 16 x 13”
284. ________ is a legal document and can (C)12” x 5”
be used as a source of industrial (D) 5” x 3”
information.
Answer: (B)
(A) Report
289. Technical section performs mainly
(B) Law Review two functions namely classification and
(C) Patent (A) Accessioning
(D) Specification (B) Bills payment
Answer: (D) (C) Cataloguing
285. In Encyclopaedia Britianica, (D) Shelving
___________ acts as an index to
Answer: (C)
macropaedia.
290. Getting books back from the users
(A) Bibliography
and releasing the borrower’s ticket is
(B) Introduction Part known as
(C) Propaedia (A) Charging
(D) Micropaedia (B) Holding
Answer: (D) (C) Reserving
286. One of the book selection principles (D) Discharging
states that “the best reading for the largest
Answer: (D)
number at the ……………Cost.”
291. While entering the library, the
(A) Maximum
personal belongings of a reader is kept in
(B) Medium ________
(C) Least (A) Cloak Room
(D) Zero (B) Property Counter
Answer: (C) (C) Gate counter
287. Payments for the books purchased (D) Store room
can be made only after
Answer: (B)
(A) Accessioning

292. Books misplaced on the shelves by (C) Head bands

readers are restored. This work is referred (D) Gilding
to as.
Answer: (A)
(A) Shelving
297. Leather being used as one of the
(B) Stock verification binding materials i.e., _________ is the
(C) Shelf rectification strongest leather.
(D) Shifting (A) Roan
Answer: (C) (B) Imitation
293. Outdated and seldom used books are (C) Pig skin
withdrawn from the library is known as (D) Sheep skin
___________.
Answer: (D)
(A) Shelving
298. ________ has prescribed certain
(B) Weeding standards for library binding.
(C) Circulating (A) ILA
(D) Guiding (B) ALA
Answer: (B) (C) BLA
294. The objective of library binding is (D) NBT
________of the library materials.
Answer: (B)
(A) Proper organisation
299. A skillful method of providing means
(B) Accessibility. mechanism and structural elements to.
(C) Durability streamline organizational work is known
(D) Humidity control as _______
Answer: (C) (A) Strategic planning
295. All part and pages of a volume are (B) Role analysis
correctly sequenced in the first stage of (C) Work culture
binding process known as? (D) Autonomous planning
(A) Sewing Answer: (A)
(B) Guard 300. Calcutta Public Library was
(C) Pulling established during
(D) Collation (A) 15th Century
Answer: (D) (B) 16th Century
296. Sheets before and after the text of a (C) 19th Century
book are called _________. . (D) 20th Century.
(A) End papers Answer: (C)
(B) Attach cover

301. ______ budgeting does not take into Answer: (A)

account what happened in the past but 306. The marketing concepts in Library
emphasizes on current activities. Service include
(A) Formula (A) analysis, planning, implementation and
(B) Performance control
(C) Programme (B) advertising, planning, analysis and
(D) Zero-base control
Answer: (B) (C) distribution, control, analysis,
implementation
302. The library budget of a university is
passed by the? (D) indexing, planning, control and
implementation.
(A) Senate
Answer: (B)
(B) Executive Council
307. There are a few basic factors which
(C) Academic Council
may be applied in winning the hearts of
(D) Research Council the readers. They are
Answer: (B) (A) Psychological factor, environmental
303. In fund accounting, _______ fund factor, social factor
cannot be used for other purposes. (B) Self factor, psychological factor, service
(A) Recurring factor
(B) Non-recurring (C) Service factor, philosophical factor, self
(C) Restricted factor
(D) Encumbering (Dl Technological factor, service factor, self
factor.
Answer: (A)
Answer: (D)
304. Scrutiny of financial transactions is
called Read the following passage carefully and
answer the questions based on your
(A) Budgeting
understanding (Q. 307 – 311):
(B) Programming
In the agentic sociocognitive view, people
(C) Accounting are self-organizing, proactive, self-
(D) Auditing reflecting, and self-regulating, not just
Answer: (D) reactive organisms shaped and
305. ________ is one of the records of shepherded by external events.
circulation section. People have the power to influence their
own actions to produce certain results. The
(A) Accession Register
capacity to exercise control over one’s
(B) Day book thought processes, motivation, affect, and
(C) Catalogue Card action operates through mechanisms of
(D) AACR-2 (R) personal agency. Human agency has been

conceptualized in at least three different courses of action and reflecting on the

ways – as either autonomous agency, adequacy of one’s thinking and actions.
mechanically reactive agency or emergent There is an important difference between
interactive agency. The notion that being conscious of the experiences one is
humans operate as entirely independent undergoing, and consciously producing
agents has few serious advocates, given experiences. For example,
although it is sometimes invoked in consciousness of one’s heart rate
caricatures of cognitive theories of human and consciously and intentionally doing
behaviour. things known to elevate one’s heart rate
The tools for the exercise of agency are illustrate the difference between passive
derived, in large part, from experiences undergoing and agentic doing. The
but what is created by their generative use purposive accessing and deliberative
is not reducible to those experiences. processing of information to fashion
Human action, being socially situated, is efficacious courses of action represent the
the product of a dynamic interplay of functional consciousness. Consciousness
personal and situational influences. cannot be reduced to an epiphenomenon
of the output of a mental process
A second approach to the self system is to
realized mechanically at nonconscious
construe it as mechanically reactive
lower levels. In the connectionist line of
agency. It is an internal system through
theorizing, sensory organs deliver up
which external influences operate
information through their diverse
mechanistically on action, but individuals
pathways to the hidden network acting as
exert no motivative, self-reflective, self-
the cognitive agent that does the
reactive, creative or directive influence on
construing, planning, motivating and
the process. The self system is merely a
regulating. However, stripped
repository for implanted structures and a
of consciousness and agentic capability of
conduit for external
decision and action, people are mere
influences. The more dynamic models
automatons undergoing actions devoid of
operating holistically include multilevel
any subjectivity, conscious regulation,
neural networks. However, a diverse mix
phenomenological life, or personal
of parallel distributed neural activity
identity.
cannot remain fragmented. It requires an
integrative system. Given the proactive 307. In the agentic socio-cognitive view,
nature of human functioning, such a “human action” is the product of:
system must have agentic capabilities as (1) A dynamic interplay of personal and
well as integrative reactive ones. Agentic situational influences
functions get lodged in a hidden network (2) Personal determinants and mechanisms
operating without any consciousness. of human functioning
Consciousness is the very substance of
(3) Social bespoke and practices
phenomenal and functional mental life. It
provides the information base for thinking (4) Schematic processing of experiences
about events, planning, constructing and memory representation


308. Why the second approach to the ‘self 311. How does the author differentiate
system’ is construed by the author as between “passive undergoing” and
“mechanically reactive agency” ? “agentic doing” ?
(1) An external system through which (1) Conscious of the experiences one is
internal influences operate mechanically. undergoing and consciously producing
(2) An internal system through which given experiences.
external influences operate mechanically (2) Conscious of the experiences one is
on action having no directive influence undergoing, but fail to use the given
exerted by the individuals on process. experiences.
(3) An external system through which (3) Conscious of the past experience and
external influences operate mechanically their wrongful use irrelevant to need.
on action. (4) Unconscious of the experience and
(4) An external system through which their non-intentional use.
external influences operate in which Answer: (1)
individuals exert direct influence on the
process.
Answer: (2)
309. According to the agentic view of
“Personality”, what does the ‘self system’
meant to the author ?
(1) A Repository for implanted structures
and a conduit for internal influences.
(2) A Repository for implanted structures
and a conduit for external influences.
(3) An archive for preserving unusual
human instincts.
(4) A Pen-stock to restrict the flow of
unusual and instant human behaviour.
Answer: (2)
310. What does ‘consciousness’
conceptually meant to the author ?
(1) A demonstration of physical condition
based on situation
(2) The very substance of phenomenal and
functional mental life
(3) The rigid state of mental condition.
(4) A Spiritual state of mind

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UGC NET Library Science Unitwise MCQ

 Thoroughly Revised and Updated

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Note - The Book is in Original format & Bound

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Features of the Book-

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Unit -1 MCQs 3. 1 is true and 2 is False

b) (ii) only d) The Chief information Commissioner

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d) (i) and (ii) only 2. facts acquired through education

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Answer: 2 (i) SYNTagmatic Organisation

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Reason (R): The copyright is not infringed Codes:

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(A) (i) and (ii) are correct (iv) Publication of DDC

b. Unprocessed data b. Wisdom->Information->Knowledge-

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(c) 60 days offices under it to provide information to

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(a) 5 days 3. Section 6

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61. IT Act 2000 amended various sections 3. Section 10

3. Three year imprisonment or 5 lakh Answer: 3

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78. What is the maximum penalty for 3. 60 days

(A) It shall extend to the whole of India (A)Data license

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2. Getting a comparison or similarity Answer: 1

3. Turnitin 3. Ignorance about citation form and

4. 1 & 3 both 134. Which of the following is not the

Answer: (b) (b) Principal place of business

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169. In the case of copyright the 3. Bradford Principle

4. Evaluation 4. None of the above

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189. Mass communication traditionally 1. external noise

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Answer: R.V.L. Hartley 3. Bruce Westley and Malcolm S

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2. Standard Operational Procedures Answer: Expert System

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232. Which of the following is not the 2. Government to Citizen (G2C)

1. VOICE 1. National Data Sharing and

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Answer: MCA21 3. 1838

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5. All Above Supported 260. NASSCOM stands for

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11.World Technical Organization Answer: Datum

1. Mix aspect of communication. Pragmatics is

Answer: Ackoff 3. Biology

275. Shannon and Weaver’s Theory of 4. Philosophy

276. The science of signs and sign systems 4. Episodic Knowledge

memory; • Semantic knowledge: It is 282. “Information society is the building

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(a) Rs.20/- Answer: d

a) Tamil Nadu Answer: a

294. What is the maximum amount if diploma programme in Library science /