All Oxford Learning Link CFEU Practice MCQ

CFEU Practice MCQ
The Schuman Plan was the initial proposal leading to the European Communities and,
ultimately, to the European Union.
True correct
False incorrect
The first direct impetus for the Communities came in the form of the plan proposed in May
1950 by Robert Schuman, the French Foreign Minister, in conjunction with the research and
plans of Jean Monnet, a French government official.
*not completed
Which of the following countries did the Schuman Plan initially involve?
France and Germany. correct
The United Kingdom and France. incorrect
France, Germany, Italy, and the Benelux countries. incorrect
Germany and Italy. incorrect
The Plan initially involved only France and Germany. It later expanded to include the six
original States.
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Which industries or sectors of the economy did the Schuman Plan propose to link?
Goods and persons. incorrect
Nuclear power and energy. incorrect
Coal and steel. correct
Transport and capital. incorrect
The Schuman Plan proposed to link only coal and steel, which were the industries that were
very much associated with the production of arms. Linking goods and persons and transport
and capital came later, under the Treaty of Rome. Nuclear power also came later, under the
Treaties of Rome.
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The European Coal and Steel Treaty no longer exists.
True correct
False incorrect
The European Coal and Steel Treaty expired in 2002, but the EC Treaty (now TFEU)
assumed all tasks, obligations, and duties arising under it.
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The Pleven Plan for a European _______ Community (1952) was rejected by the French.
Your response
| Correct response: Defence

The Pleven Plan for a European Defence Community was rejected by the French as too
ambitious.
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The same six nations that agreed the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) Treaty
went on to sign the Treaties of Rome establishing the European Economic Community and
the European Atomic Energy (Euratom) Community.
True correct
False incorrect
France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, the Netherlands, and Luxembourg signed the treaties in
1957.
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'Intergovernmentalism' means which of the following?
The creation of a federal state. incorrect
Political union. incorrect
Decision making by bodies above the member States. incorrect
Cooperation or agreement at the level of, or between, nation states. correct
'Intergorvernmentalism' means cooperation or agreement at the level of, or between, nation

states.
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'Supranationalism' means which of the following?
Simple agreements between nation states. incorrect
Nothing to do with nation states. incorrect

International cooperation or integration in which decision making is above the level of
member States and which decisions override national rules. correct
Federal union. incorrect
'Supranationalism' means international cooperation or integration in which decision making is

above the level of member States and which decisions override national rules.
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The ultimate goal of the European Union is federal and political union.
True incorrect
False correct
The ultimate goal has never been included in the treaties, which have spoken of an ever-
closer union. This is a topic that has been subject to heated political debate. Its ultimate
destination is far from clear.
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The 'Luxembourg Accords' are which of the following?
A Community treaty signed in Luxembourg. incorrect
An agreement to move to qualified majority voting in Council. incorrect
An agreement to disagree about majority and unanimous voting. correct
An agreement to abandon the use of national vetoes. incorrect
The 'Luxembourg Accords' are an agreement to disagree about majority and unanimous
voting. Essentially, France was not willing to proceed to majority voting when the other five
member States were and the Accords were the compromise agreed to allow the Communities
to continue with business.
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What is the 'Single European Act'?
A variety show. incorrect
The first treaty to make substantial amendments to the then three existing Treaties. correct
A declaration on the Common Market. incorrect
A secondary legal Act of the Communities (now Union). incorrect

Despite being called an Act, it is a formal amending Treaty of the European Communities
(now Union).
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The 'widening' and 'deepening' of the Communities (now Union) refers, respectively, to the
expansion in the number of member States and the degree of integration undertaken by those
member States.
True correct
False incorrect
The terms do basically mean that.
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What is the 'European Economic Area'?
This is a competitor trading area to the EU. incorrect
It is the successor to the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). incorrect
It is the area comprising the EU and a number of European Free Trade Association (EFTA)
member States. correct
This refers to all of the States of Europe whether members of the EU or not. incorrect
It is the area comprising the EU and a number of European Free Trade Association (EFTA)
member States.
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In 1995, Austria, Finland, Norway, and Sweden joined the EU.
True incorrect
False correct
Norway decided not to join at the last moment after a referendum of the electorate.
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Complete the following statement: Following the 2007 expansion, …
it has been decided that there will be no new member States. incorrect
the Union will stop taking members once 30 have joined. incorrect
only Croatia will be admitted. incorrect

Croatia joined in 2013 and Turkey, Iceland, Macedonia Montenegro and Serbia are candidate
countries for possible further expansion and other countries may also be considered in the
future. correct
Correct. That is the current situation.
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To what does the 'acquis Communautaire' refer?
The way in which the EU does things. incorrect
An index of EU terminology. incorrect
The accumulated body of EU law, including treaties, secondary legislation, and judicial
developments. correct
It is the French name for the European Union. incorrect
'Acquis Communautaire' refers to the accumulated body of EU law, including treaties,

secondary legislation, and judicial developments.
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The Single European Act (SEA) was concerned only with the completion of the Single
Market.
True incorrect
False correct
While that was the main thrust of its aims, it was also very much concerned with institutional
reform and the expansion of policies pursued by the Communities (now Union).
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The 1993 Treaty on European Union was also known as the '__________ Treaty'.
Your response
| Correct response: Maastricht

The most important treaties have their own name and also carry the name of the city in which
the member States agreed them, which can be confusing. Some amending treaties are only
known by the city: for example, those of Amsterdam and Nice.
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What was the principal change introduced by the Maastricht Treaty on European Union?
Further institutional changes in preparation for enlargement. incorrect

The renumbering of the Articles of the Treaties. incorrect
Preparation for a single Economic Monetary Union, complete with a single currency. correct
The introduction of a declaration on the future of Europe for further treaty amendment and a
possible Constitution for Europe. incorrect
The principal change introduced by the Maastricht Treaty was the preparation for a single
Economic Monetary Union, complete with a single currency It did also make numerous other
changes as well.
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The Constitutional Treaty was rejected by the member States in 2004.
True incorrect
False correct
In 2004, all the member States as the Council of Ministers accepted it, but in 2005, the
electorates of France and the Netherlands rejected it. The member States later abandoned it in
2007 and the Lisbon Reform Treaty was agreed to replace it.
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In order for a treaty to enter into legal force and be binding on all member States, by what
must it be ratified?
A simple majority of the member States. incorrect
A qualified majority of the member States. incorrect
Two-thirds of the member States. incorrect
All of the member States. correct
All of the member States must ratify it.
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Complete the following sentence: The 2007 Lisbon Treaty …
replaces the 2004 Constitutional Treaty with another single document treaty for the European
Union. incorrect
makes extensive amendments and renames the existing treaties. correct
completely abandons all of the changes proposed by the Constitutional Treaty. incorrect
started the process of Treaty amendment from the beginning to get this right. incorrect
The Lisbon Treaty retains most of the changes in the Constitutional Treaty, but instead
amends and renames the existing treaties.
Which Treaty created the European Economic Community?
The European Coal and Steel Community Treaty incorrect
The Treaty of Rome correct
The Single European Act incorrect
The European Convention on Human Rights incorrect
The European Economic Community was created by the Treaty of Rome 1957 (the EEC
Treaty), signed by the six original Member States, France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, the
Netherlands, and Luxembourg. This Treaty set up the common market, later to become
known as the internal market. The first steps towards formal European integration had been
taken with the creation European Coal and Steel Community by the European Coal and Steel
Community Treaty 1951.The EEC Treaty has been amended from time to time by subsequent
Treaties, such as the Single European Act 1986. On the entry into force of the Treaty on
European Union 1992, the EEC became the EC and the EEC Treaty became known as the EC
Treaty.
Page reference: 4
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How would you describe the structure of the European Union, as set up by the Treaty on
European Union 1992?
A structure incorporating national parliaments incorrect
A two-pillar structure incorrect
A three-pillar structure correct
A structure incorporating the European Court of Human Rights incorrect
The European Union was set up as a three-pillar structure, comprising the three Communities
(the first pillar), a Common Foreign and Security Policy (the second pillar) and Co-operation
on Justice and Home Affairs (the third pillar). The three Communities (the EC, Euratom, and
the ECSC) remained intact within the larger edifice of the EU. This structure was devised to
allow Member States to cooperate within the new policy areas of Common Foreign and
Security Policy and Co-operation on Justice and Home Affairs outside the mechanisms of the
Community Treaties. Although the second and third pillars shared the Community
institutions, decision-making within these pillars was based on national autonomy.
Page reference: 6
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What term is often applied to the complex and fragmented constitutional structure established
by the Treaty on European Union 1992?
A Europe of variable geometry correct
The acquis communautaire incorrect
Supranationalism incorrect
Intergovernmentalism incorrect
The constitutional structure of European Union, as established by the Treaty on European

Union 1992, is often described as a Europe of 'variable geometry'. It incorporated both
supranational elements (decision-making by the Community institutions, acting partly or
entirely independently of the Member States, within the first pillar) and intergovernmental
elements (decision-making by agreement between the Member States acting as independent
sovereign states, within the second and third pillars). Complexity and fragmentation were
further manifested in the opt-out protocols, giving rise to the description 'two-speed Europe'.
Page reference: 8
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What is meant by 'subsidiarity'?
Decisions or action taken at Union level incorrect
Decisions or action taken at national level incorrect
The relationship between national law and Union law incorrect
Where decisions or action are taken at Union level, rather than at national, regional, or local
level, this must be justified correct
Subsidiarity is a general principle of Union law. This principle is intended to ensure that
decisions are taken as closely as possible to the citizen.
Page reference: 9
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What is the composition of the Council?
Representatives elected by the citizens of the Union incorrect
Representatives elected by the European Parliament incorrect
Ministers of the Member States correct

Individuals appointed by the European Commission incorrect
The Council comprises ministers of the Member States. Its membership changes according to
the matter under discussion, for instance it comprises national ministers of agriculture if
agriculture is the topic under discussion. Unlike members of the European Commission, who
are required to act independently of national governments, members of the Council represent
national interest. The Presidency of the Council is held by each Member State, in turn, for six
months.
Page reference: 13
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How does qualified majority voting currently operate?
Any one Member State can veto a legislative proposal incorrect
Legislation cannot be adopted without the agreement of at least 80% of the Member
States incorrect
As a system of weighted votes correct
Unanimity is required for all legislation save for legislation concerning the internal
market incorrect
Qualified majority voting operates as a system of weighted voting. The larger the Member
State, the more votes it holds, ranging from 29 (for Germany, France and Italy) down to three
(for Malta).
Page reference: 14
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What is the composition of the European Commission?
Representatives of Member State governments incorrect
Individuals who are directly elected by the citizens of the Union incorrect
Individuals who are nominated by the President of the Commission and Member States and
approved by Member States and the European Parliament correct
Individuals appointed by the European Court of Justice incorrect
Commissioners are nominated by the President of the Commission and Member States and
approved by Heads of State or Government by qualified majority voting followed by
approval, as a body, by the European Parliament. The President of the Commission is
nominated, by qualified majority vote, by Heads of State or Government and appointed
following approval by Parliament. Unlike Council members, Commissioners are not
representatives of the respective Member States. They must be completely independent,
neither seeking nor taking instructions from their governments, and Member States must not
seek to influence them.
Page reference: 15
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Which of the following statements correctly describes a key feature of a directive?
A directive must be implemented by Member States correct
A directive must be implemented by the European Parliament incorrect
A directive has retrospective effect incorrect
A directive is binding on the governments of third countries incorrect
A directive is a form of European Union secondary legislation. Article 288 TFEU describes a
directive as 'binding as to the result to be achieved, upon each Member State to which it is
addressed, but leaving to the national authorities the choice of form and methods'. This means
that directives, which are set out in general terms, must be implemented by Member States
through the adoption of detailed measures, usually by national legislation. Directives specify
the deadline by which implementation must be completed.
Page reference: 18
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Name one of the general principles of EU law.
Intergovernmentalism incorrect
Primary legislation incorrect
Proportionality correct
Qualified majority voting incorrect
The EU legal order embraces a number of general principles of law. These include the
principle of proportionality, which requires that actions taken or measures adopted, whether
by Member States or the EU institutions, go no further than is necessary to achieve their
objective. The other notable general principles of EU law are equality, legal certainty, non-
retroactivity, legitimate expectation, and human or fundamental rights. In formulating its
judgments, the Court of Justice draws upon these general principles of law.
Page reference: 19
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What is meant by the 'legal base' of an EU measure?

The draft measure proposed by the European Commission incorrect
The Treaty article conferring the power to legislate in a particular area correct
The Council's decision to adopt a EU measure incorrect
The approval of a measure by the European Parliament incorrect
EU measures, generally comprising secondary legislation, can only be adopted by the EU

institutions if the Treaty confers on them the power to legislate in the relevant area. The 'legal
base' of an EU measure is the Treaty article conferring that power. The Treaty article forming
the legal base also sets out the procedure and the voting requirements in the Council –
unanimity, simple majority, or qualified majority – for the adoption of the legislation.
Page reference: 20
The aims of the EEC were exclusively economic.
True incorrect
False correct
Although the EEC was designed to create an economic community, the founder members
were fired by ideals as well as economic practicalities.
Section reference: 1.2
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Before a country can accede to the EU it must satisfy the following conditions: [Please select
all that apply].
The country must be European. correct
The country must have respect for democracy, liberty, human rights and fundamental
freedoms. correct
The country must fulfil the Copenhagen Criteria. correct
The country must accept all other conditions of admission put forward by the Member
States. incorrect
The conditions for accession are set out in Article 49 TEU. They include that a state should
be European and that it respects the principles set out in Article 6(1) TEU, that is, respect for
democracy, the rule of law and liberty as well as human rights and fundamental freedoms. In
addition to Article 49, the country must also fulfil the Copenhagen Criteria: the political
criterion, the economic criterion and the ability to adopt the Union acquis. If all these
requirements are met, the applicant can be recognised as a "candidate country" and accession
negotiations will be able to take place. This is a formal negotiating process between the
Member States and the applicant state, rather than a top-down imposition of further entry
requirements by one or more of the Member States.
Section reference: 1.3.3
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'Enhanced co-operation' among Member States is not possible where:
the cooperation runs contrary to the acquis communautaire. correct
less than the majority of the Member States are involved in the action. incorrect
Closer cooperation substantially affects the rights and obligations of Member States not
involved. incorrect
It is essential that the acquis be 'respected' by the action. At the time of the Treaty of
Amsterdam, the acquis had to be unaffected, but this was loosened by the Treaty of Nice. At
the time of the Treaty of Amsterdam a majority of the Member States was required for the
action to pass. Post Nice this has been changed to a minimum of nine Member States. The
action must further the objectives of the Union and must not affect the rights and obligations
of Member States not involved. The degree of interference is irrelevant.
Section reference: 1.6.3.
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Presently, there are seven main institutions of the European Union.
True correct
False incorrect
These comprise the Commission, the Council, the European Parliament, the European Court
of Justice, the Court of Auditors, and following the entry into force of the Lisbon Treaty, the
European Council and the European Central Bank in addition.
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In appointing the Commission, the European Parliament votes on each Commissioner one at
a time.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. The Parliament must approve the Commission presented by the President of the
Commission en bloc, but, politically, may be able to have particular Commissioners removed
that it does not wish to see appointed.
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If the European Parliament chooses to sanction the bad behaviour of a single Commissioner,
how can it do so?
By removing the Commissioners one at a time. incorrect
By prosecuting them before the European Court of Justice. incorrect
By passing a vote of no confidence to require the resignation of the Commissioner. incorrect
It cannot. It can only pass a vote of no confidence in the entire Commission, which is then
removed after a replacement Commission has been found. correct
It can only vote to censure them entirely under Art 234 TFEU.
But the application of political pressure may be successful in removing one or more
Commissioners rather than the Commission en bloc. There is however, a procedure under Art
247 TFEU by which the Council, but not the EP, may compulsorily retire a Commissioner for
serious misconduct or where he or she no longer fulfils the conditions for the performance of
his or her duties.
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Complete the following sentence: The Council (of Ministers) …
Is a full-time permanent institution of the Union. incorrect
Is made up of civil servants from the member States. incorrect
consists of representative Ministers of the member States ,depending on the subject matter
under discussion. correct
has a permanent president to provide continuity for its work. incorrect
It meets on an ad hoc basis and it is made up of Ministers from the member States. At
present, it has a member State as president for six months on a rotational basis, although the
newly appointed European President chairs the European Council.
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The Council of Ministers is the main legislator in the Union.
True correct
False incorrect
Correct. Despite substantial increases in the Parliament's powers, this remains the case.
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What is the meaning of 'qualified majority voting (QMV)'?
It means that each member State has a block number of votes that is crudely proportionate to
the size of its population and a predetermined majority of votes has to be achieved from the
sum of the blocks of votes of the member States. correct
Only certain qualified members of the Council may vote. incorrect
That a simple majority vote will succeed. incorrect
That all states must vote in favour for a proposal to succeed. incorrect
It means that each member State has a block number of votes that is crudely proportionate to
the size of its population and a predetermined majority of votes has to be achieved from the
sum of the blocks of votes of the member States.
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Complete the following sentence: The European Parliament is …
the main Union legislator. incorrect
shares lawmaking powers with the Council in areas for which the Treaty so provides. correct
a true parliament with two legislative chambers. incorrect
not involved with lawmaking at all. incorrect
Incorrect. It often shares lawmaking with the Council, but the Council just about remains the
main legislator. It is only a single chamber parliament and thus is unlike most parliaments. It
has though extensively increased its lawmaking powers over the years.
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The European Parliament is the only directly democratically elected institution in the EU.
True correct
False incorrect
It is, although the Council is indirectly democratic, because it is made up of ministers from
the elected governments of the member States.
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Complete the following sentence: The European Court of Justice is …
a single-body legal institution. incorrect
the supreme appeal court for all of the member States. incorrect
a self-standing independent Union court that is not in a hierarchical relationship with the
courts of the member States. correct
a court for cases brought by member States and institutions only. incorrect
It also now comprises the General Court and specialised Courts; it stands in an equal
relationship with the courts of the member States; It can also hear cases brought directly by
individuals.
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The role of the Advocate General is to assist the Court by giving an _______, in complete
independence and impartiality, on the legal issues of a case.
Your response
| Correct response: Opinion

The Advocate General gives an opinion, which is just that and does not have to be followed
by the courts (see, for example, the leading case C-26/62 Van Gend en Loos).
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The European Council is a policy steering body that originally lay outside the formal
institutional set-up of the Union.
True correct
False incorrect
Established originally by the Single European Act, it was outside of the formal set-up, but if
since the Lisbon Treaty came into force, it was made a full institution.
The Treaty of Nice addressed unresolved issues from the ________ such as size and
composition of the commission, the weighting of votes in the Council, and the extension of
qualified majority voting.
Your response
| Correct response: Treaty of Amsterdam

Correct answer: Treaty of Amsterdam
In particular these changes were advanced in order to reflect the challenges posed by the
enlargement intake, which had threatened the efficiency of the EU's decision taking.
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The Treaty establishing a Constitution for Europe was ratified by all Member States and came
into force in November 2010.
True incorrect
False correct
The Treaty Establishing a Constitution to Europe was rejected by France and the Netherlands.
Out of its ashes rose the Lisbon Treaty, signed on 13 December 2007 and which came into
force on 1 January 2009.
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Which of the following statements best define the concept of 'intergovernmentalism' in

relation to the integration of the EU?
The Union engages in non-contentious and discrete economic areas. Technocrats would
manage the integration process, without being influenced by the need to retain power, having
in mind the interests of the Union. incorrect
The central actors are the States themselves, which essentially act to protect their own
interests. correct
EU's power is located above Member States incorrect
Statement A best describes the 'functionalism' theory which was popular during the Union's
early years. Statement C describes the theory of 'supranationalism' which is an umbrella term
covering both functionalism and neo-functionalism. Intergovernmentalism, on the other hand,
can be seen from the example of the sections of the Union Treaty which deal with Common
Foreign and Security Policy and gives most power to the Council which consists of
representatives of Member States. This therefore represents an allocation of power to the
Member State, not to something or someone above it. This was characteristic of the
Luxembourg Accords period.
*not completed
The Single European Act is a turning point for the EU integration because: [Please select all
that apply]
it prepared for the completion of the internal market in the successive treaties. correct
it made the Union's decision making more efficient. correct
it introduced the Justice and Home Affairs, and Foreign and Security policy pillars. incorrect
it strengthened the role of the European Parliament. correct

The Single European Act had the principal purpose of eliminating the remaining barriers to
the single internal market. It aimed to do so before 31 December 1992. The Single European
Act introduced procedural changes to the Union's decision-making process, including
strengthening the role of the European Parliament. It also expanded Union competences. It
did not introduce the three pillar structure: that was set out in the Treaty of European Union,
signed at Maastricht on 7 February 1992, 6 years after the SEA.
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The UK had a referendum to withdraw from the European Union
True correct
False incorrect
In June 2016, there was a referendum in the UK, the outcome of which was to 'divorce' from
the EU.
1. In which decade did European integration begin?
1950s correct
1960s incorrect
1970s incorrect
1980s incorrect
European integration was initiated in the 1950s, following the end of the Second World War.
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2. Which of the following was not an objective of early European integration efforts?
Peace incorrect
Social rights correct
Economic reconstruction incorrect
Political stability incorrect
Countries of (Western) Europe began the process of European integration in a bid to ensure
future peace in the region and to promote economic reconstruction. European integration
satisfied both of these criteria as it allowed for the redevelopment of the German economy
(the economic powerhouse of Europe) whilst maintaining stability in the region.
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3. Which of the following institutions is not part of the 'institutional triangle'?
EU Council incorrect
European Parliament incorrect
European Commission incorrect
Member states correct
The institutional triangle comprises the European Commission, the European Parliament, and
the EU Council. Whilst these institutions play a key role in the formation of EU policy
(although to varying degrees depending on the particular policy area), many other European
and national bodies are also key actors in European decision-making.
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4. By 2021, how many member states were there in the EU?
15 incorrect
25 incorrect
27 correct
28 incorrect
Following 'Brexit', there were 27 member states of the EU in 2021.

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5. What is the EU's acquis communautaire?
They stipulate the necessary population size and geographical location of potential EU
member states. incorrect
They are the economic and political criteria with which to judge whether a candidate country
is ready to join the EU. correct
They are the internal institutional criteria that the EU must meet in order to expand. incorrect
They define the terms 'European' and 'democratic': two factors required for EU
membership. incorrect
When joining the EU, members sign up to the body of EU treaties, legislation, and norms,
that is, the so-called acquis Communautaire. However, they also sign up to a set of shared
common values, based on democracy, human rights, and principles of social justice.
Section reference:1.3
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6. How many countries have so far left the European Union?
None incorrect
Two incorrect
Three incorrect
One correct
The only case a member state—and a large one at that—has left the Union, was the United
Kingdom's departure.
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7. In which year was the European Union established?
1993 correct
1957 incorrect
1985 incorrect
2004 incorrect
In 1993, the European Community formally evolved to an organisation called the European
Union.
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8. Under the ordinary legislative procedure (OLP) which two institutions 'co-decide' EU
laws?
European Commission and EU Council incorrect
EU Council and European Parliament correct
European Commission and European Parliament incorrect
EU Council and Courts incorrect

Under the OLP it is the EU Council and the European Parliament that 'co-decide' EU laws
(the OLP was originally called the co-decision procedure). It is the European Commission (as
the executive) that proposes new laws.
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9. What were the two main objectives of the European integration in the 1950s?
Spreading liberal values worldwide and developing economy incorrect
Maintaining peace and developing economy correct
Maintaining peace and developing cooperation with the Soviet bloc incorrect
Developing economy and enhancing competition with the United States incorrect
Maintaining peace was a primary objective at the time. So too was economic recovery.
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10. Which of the following does not constitute one of the main challenges to the European
integration nowadays?
Climate change incorrect
Germany's economic power correct
Political crises in European neighbourhoods incorrect
The COVID-19 pandemic incorrect
A growing awareness of the threats posed to future generations from climate change, and to
current populations from environmental pollution, extreme instability in financial markets,
the rise of non-Western economies, such as Brazil, India, and China, and the economic crisis
and more recent Covid-19 crises, challenges to the dominant neo-liberal, capitalist paradigm,
and it seems that the period after 1989 marked a transition to a newly emerging world order.
However, this new world order is not static as the changing and challenging relations with
Russia, the problematic aftermath of the Arab Spring, the instability derived from Western
intervention in Libya, Iraq and Afghanistan, and the lengthy and continuing fallout from the
Syrian war have demonstrated.
The European Parliament exercises control over the appointment of the Council.
True incorrect
False correct
The Council is not subject to the control of Parliament, although it is subject to extensive
supervision. This can be compared with the position of the Commission: Article 17(7) TEU
sets a procedure where the Parliament must be consulted on the nomination of the president
and the appointment of Commissioners and the Commission as a whole has to be approved
by the Parliament.
Section reference: 2.3.3.3
*not completed
It is evident that the ______________ procedure is becoming the default legislative

procedure in the TFEU.
Your response
| Correct response: ordinary legislative

Correct answer: ordinary legislative
Since the Treaty of European Union, the European Parliament has gradually gained greater
power in adopting measures. The key reason for this is the increased allocation of the then
co-decision as the decision-making mechanism for a large number of areas of EU
competence. Effectively, the ordinary legislative procedure gives the European Parliament a
power of veto over matters subject to that procedure. The cooperation procedure, which only
gives the parliament a right to be consulted, in future will largely disappear. In particular, the
Lisbon Treaty extended the range of co-decision by making it the "ordinary legislative
procedure".
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The European Parliament has: [Please select all that apply]
a decisive influence over areas relating to JHA and CFSP. incorrect
direct political control over the Commission. correct
the right to dismiss the Commission. correct
a right of standing to protect its prerogatives. correct
The European Parliament's powers and responsibilities have increased noticeably since direct
elections were established in 1979. Article 234 TFEU allows the Parliament to dismiss the
Commission by passing a vote of censure. At the same time there is nothing to prevent
Member States reappointing the same commissioners, subject however to Article 17(7) TEU
which requires the Parliament's approval of the appointment of the Commission as a whole.
The Parliament can request the Commission to reply orally or in writing to its questions.
Other forms of political control involve meeting members of the Commission in committees,
and the involvement of members of the Parliament in the pre-legislation stage. The European
Parliament can challenge Union measures which did not follow the correct treaty base, in
breach of the parliamentary voting rights.
Section reference: 2.3.3.3
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The terms 'Council of Ministers' and the 'European Council' are interchangeable.
True incorrect
False correct
The Council of Ministers consists of representatives of Member States who must be at a

ministerial level. Its main task is to ensure that the objectives of the Treaty are attained,
through the adoption of rules, taking up decisions and the delegation of powers to the
Commission, in the acts which the Council adopts, powers for the implementation of those
rules (Article 291 TFEU). The European Council on the other hand consists of the Heads of
State or government of Member States and the president of the Commission, acting on
matters of both EU law and political cooperation. Post Lisbon the European Council is
recognised as an institution of the EU (Article 13(1) TEU).
*not completed
Where a Treaty Article requires that a measure be adopted by a qualified majority, the
following system of weighted voting applies:
The measure must be adopted unanimously by all Member States. incorrect
A minimum of 15 Member States must approve the measure weighing a minimum of 232
votes. incorrect
Article 16(4) TEU provides that a qualified majority comprises two elements: (a) at least 55
per cent of the Members of Council comprising at least 15 of them (thus representing the
interests of the states) (b) states representing at least 65 per cent of the population of the
Union. correct
Article 16(4) TEU provides that a qualified majority comprises two elements:
(a) at least 55 per cent of the Members of Council comprising at least 15 of them (thus
representing the interests of the states)
(b) states representing at least 65 per cent of the population of the Union.
*not completed
The CJ has been criticised for its _________.
Your response
| Correct response: activism

Correct answer: activism
The CJ has adopted a teleological approach, which seeks to give effect to the spirit of the
Treaties rather than a textual approach. However, more recent judgments of the court show
signs of a new conservatism.
*not completed
The CJ is not free to depart from previous decisions in light of new facts.
True incorrect
False correct
The system of binding precedent applying in English Law does not exist under EU law.
*not completed
The Lisbon Treaty established a separate office for the 'European Council President' and has
also established a 'High Representative for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy'. These are
ground-breaking developments in the personnel of the European Union.
True incorrect
False correct
While there are some aspects of the new positions which clearly enlarge on the pre- Lisbon
position, both are developments on pre-existing roles. Under the Lisbon Treaty, the President
of the Council cannot hold any national office. The High Representative perhaps has a greater
role after the Lisbon Treaty than its equivalent before it.
What is meant by the 'supremacy' of EU law?
Union citizens bringing claims in national courts must rely on any relevant provisions of EU
law, rather than on relevant provisions of national law. incorrect
The Court of Justice operates as a supreme court of appeal, with the power to overturn
decisions of national courts. incorrect
Decisions of the European Parliament bind national courts. incorrect
EU law takes precedence over conflicting provisions of national law. correct
The doctrine of supremacy dictates that EU law takes precedence over conflicting provisions
of national law. The Treaty makes no express reference to supremacy but the Court of Justice
has repeatedly held that supremacy is implied in Article 4 TEU, which requires Member
states to take all measures to ensure fulfilment of Treaty obligations and to refrain from
measures that could jeopardize Treaty objectives. The Court of Justice has held that EU law
takes precedence not only over conflicting national law that post-dates the Treaty
(Costa v ENEL) but over all national law, including national constitutional law
(Internationale Handelsgesellschaft)
Page reference: 26
*not completed
What is meant by the 'direct effect' of an EU provision?
The provision takes precedence over provisions of national law. incorrect
No implementation is required. incorrect
Individuals can rely on the provision in the national court. correct
The provision is binding on national courts from the date of its adoption. incorrect
If a provision of EU law – for instance a Treaty article or a provision of a directive – has

direct effect, it can be enforced by individuals in the national court. To be directly effective, a
provision must satisfy the necessary conditions. A Treaty article is directly effective if it is
clear, precise, and unconditional (Van Gend, Defrenne); a provision of a directive is directly
effective if it is clear, precise, and unconditional (Van Duyn), the implementation deadline has
passed (Ratti), and the claim is vertical (Marshall). Direct effect is a manifestation of
supremacy. EU law takes precedence over conflicting national law, which must be set aside
(Simmenthal).
Page reference: 28
*not completed
What is meant by 'vertically directly effective'?
Describes a provision of EU law that can be invoked in the national court against the state or
a public body. correct
Describes a provision of EU law that can be invoked in the national court against an
individual. incorrect
Describes a provision of EU law that can be invoked by individuals in the ECJ. incorrect
Describes a provision of EU law that can be invoked in the national courts of third
countries. incorrect
'Vertical' denotes the relationship between the individual and the state or the individual and a
public body. A provision of EU law is vertically directly effective if it can be invoked by
individuals against the state or a public body. Treaty articles (Van Gend), regulations (Politi,
Leonesio) and directives (Van Duyn) are all capable of vertical direct effect and are vertically
directly effective if the necessary conditions are satisfied. Distinguish 'vertical' direct effect
and 'horizontal' direct effect. A provision of EU law that has horizontal direct effect can be
invoked by an individual against another individual. Treaty articles and regulations are
capable of horizontal direct effect. Directives are not (Marshall).
Page reference: 32
*not completed
In the context of direct effect, which test has been formulated by the Court of Justice to
identify a 'public body' or 'emanation of the state?
The Francovich test. incorrect
The Factortame test. incorrect
The litmus test. incorrect
The Foster test. correct
In Foster, the Court of Justice set out a three-limbed test for 'public body' or 'emanation of the
state': a body made responsible by the state for providing a public service; under state control;
with special powers for that purpose, beyond those normally applicable between individuals.
The test refers to those bodies that are included within the scope of 'public body', so appears
not to be intended as a legal definition, though bodies that satisfy all three elements will
clearly qualify. Other entities could well qualify as public bodies too.
Page reference: 34
*not completed
What does the 'transfer of powers' mean?
Member States transfer all powers to the Union. incorrect
Member States transfer powers in limited agreed fields only. correct
Member States retain powers over all areas if they wish. incorrect
The Union decides which powers should be transferred. incorrect

There was a distinct transfer, but the 'power transfer', or 'transfer of sovereignty', occurred
only within limited fields and was not a general transfer of power. It is the member States that
agree in treaties which powers should be transferred.
*not completed
'Attributed competence' describes the range and limit of powers or competences transferred to
the Union.
True correct
False incorrect
It was supposed to work in a clear way, although subsequent developments made it more
difficult to see.
*not completed
The competences of the Union can be extended only by Treaty amendment.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. They can also be extended by implied and residual powers—by pre-emption and
the so-called 'competence creep'.
*not completed
The Treaty definition of 'Proportionality' in Art. 5 TEU reads: 'the content and form of Union
action shall not exceed what is _________ to achieve the objectives of the Treaties.'
Your response
| Correct response: Necessary

This is part of the ways in which the member States control the assumption of competences
by the Union.
*not completed
What does the principle of 'subsidiarity' mean?
That decisions be taken at the most appropriate level and, in the European Union context, this
focuses on whether a decision should be taken at the level of the Union or the level of the
member States. correct
That the Union is subsidiary to the member States. incorrect
That the member States are subsidiary to the Union. incorrect

That the Union and member States always share decision making. incorrect
It means that decisions be taken at the most appropriate level and in the European Union
context this focuses on whether a decision should be taken at the level of the Union or the
level of the member states.
*not completed
Complete the following sentence: The legal base of a legislative Act …
plays no significant role in lawmaking. incorrect
is the same for all acts of the Union. incorrect
determines which lawmaking procedure is used and the extent to which named institutions
participate in the process. correct
is decided by the Court of Justice. incorrect
It is vital in determining which lawmaking procedure is used and the extent to which named
institutions participate in the process. It differs according to the subject matter. It is
determined in advance within the Treaty.
*not completed
Complete the following sentence: The increase in the number and complexity of lawmaking
procedures resulted from …
the increase in the number of member States. incorrect
the increase in the European Parliament's lawmaking powers. incorrect
the change in voting arrangements in Council. incorrect
a number of developments, including the increase in the number of member States, the
increase in the lawmaking powers of the European Parliament, changes to voting in Council,
and increasing policy areas attributed to the Union. correct
The increase in the number and complexity of lawmaking procedures resulted from a number
of developments, including the increase in the number of member States, the increase in the
lawmaking powers of the European Parliament, changes to voting in Council, and increasing
policy areas attributed to the Union.
*not completed
The codecision procedure provides the European Parliament and Council with equal
lawmaking powers.
True incorrect
False correct
Ultimately, the Parliament can only veto a proposal if it does not agree with it; it cannot
positively promote a proposal against the wishes of the Council.
*not completed
The delegation of decision making to the Commission by the Council is subject to the setting
up of a system of __________ __________.
Your response
| Correct response: management committees

Even though the Council delegates decision making to the Commission, it manages the
exercise of this power by committees.
Which principle requires that national law be interpreted in accordance with relevant EU
law?
State liability. incorrect
Proportionality. incorrect
Legitimate expectation. incorrect
Indirect effect. correct
In Von Colson, the Court of Justice went some way to overcome the limitation it had imposed
in Marshall, namely that directives are not capable of horizontal direct effect. The Court
created the principle of indirect effect: national law must be interpreted in accordance with
relevant EU law. However, this principle has its own limitations. Marleasing established that,
although indirect effect applies to all national law, whether it pre-dates or post-dates the
relevant EU law, national courts are required to apply the principle only so far as possible.
They are not obliged to adopt a contra legem interpretation of national law (Pupino).
Page reference: 35
*not completed
Which principle was established by the Court of Justice in Francovich?
Indirect effect. incorrect
State liability. correct
Non-retroactivity. incorrect
Direct effect. incorrect

In Francovich, the claimants could not invoke the relevant EU directive in the national court
because it was insufficiently clear to be directly effective and was incapable of indirect effect
because there was no relevant national law. The Court of Justice established the principle of
state liability: an individual is entitled to damages against the state where the state has failed
to implement a directive, provided the necessary conditions are satisfied.
Page reference: 37
*not completed
In which situation can Francovich liability arise?
The Member State has failed to implement a directive. correct
The Member State has opposed the adoption of a directive. incorrect
The Member State has opposed the adoption of a regulation. incorrect
The Member State has failed to ratify a Treaty. incorrect
Francovich's claim concerned the non-implementation of directive by Italy. The Court of

Justice held that in these circumstances an individual would be entitled to damages against
the state, provided the necessary conditions were satisfied. The result prescribed by the
directive must entail the grant of rights to individuals; it must be possible to identify the
content of those rights from the directive; and there must be a causal link between the
Member State's failure and the loss suffered by the individual.
Page reference: 38
*not completed
Which case established state liability for a breach of EU law that did not entail the failure to
implement a directive?
Marshall. incorrect
Foster. incorrect
Von Colson. incorrect
Factortame. correct
Factortame concerned the UK's breach of the freedom of establishment provisions of Article
49 TEFU, through the adoption and retention of the Merchant Shipping Act 1988 which
prevented the applicants, Spanish fishermen, from fishing in UK territorial waters. The Court
of Justice held that a right to damages would arise provided three conditions were satisfied:
the rule of law infringed must be intended to confer rights on individuals; the breach must be
sufficiently serious; and there must be a direct causal link between the breach and the damage
sustained.
Page reference: 39
*not completed
According to Factortame, what was the 'decisive test' for a 'sufficiently serious breach'?
The Member State must have committed a breach of the Treaty. incorrect
The Member State must have failed to provide an explanation for the breach. incorrect
The Member State must have acted in an arbitrary manner. incorrect
The Member State must have manifestly and gravely disregarded the limits on its
discretion. correct
In its assessment of whether the Member State had manifestly and gravely disregarded the
limits on its discretion, the court may take into account a number of factors (paragraph 55 of
the judgment): the clarity and precision of the rule breached, the measure of discretion left by
that rule to the national or EU authorities, whether the infringement and the damage caused
was intentional or involuntary, whether any error of law was excusable or inexcusable, the
fact that the position taken by a EU institution may have contributed towards the omission,
and the adoption or retention of national measures or practices contrary to EU law.
Page reference: 39
*not completed
Following Factortame, the Court of Justice extended the scope of state liability. To what
situation was it applied in BT?
Incorrect interpretation of EU law by a national court of last instance. incorrect
Incorrect implementation of a directive. correct
An administrative breach. incorrect
Failure to implement a directive. incorrect
Following Factortame, the Court of Justice extended state liability to other situations,
including the incorrect implementation of a directive (BT), administrative breaches (Hedley
Lomas) and the incorrect interpretation of EU law by a national court of last instance
(Köbler). In BT and Köbler the ECJ found that the breach was not sufficiently serious to give
rise to liability.
Page reference: 40
What is the Court of Justice's jurisdiction under Article 267 (1) TFEU?
To deliver preliminary rulings on the interpretation of the European Convention on Human
Rights. incorrect
To deliver preliminary rulings on the interpretation and validity of EU law. correct
To deliver preliminary rulings on the validity of international agreements. incorrect
To deliver preliminary rulings on the interpretation of national law. incorrect
The scope of the Court of Justice's jurisdiction is to rule on the interpretation of the Treaty
and of secondary legislation and on the validity of secondary legislation. The Court has no
jurisdiction to give rulings on the application of EU law, on the interpretation of national law,
or on the compatibility of national law with EU law.
Page reference: 51
*not completed
What is the core rationale for the preliminary rulings procedure?
The application of the principle of supremacy of EU law. incorrect
To provide a right of appeal for individual claimants. incorrect
To ensure that Member States comply with their EU obligations. incorrect
To ensure the uniform and consistent interpretation of EU law. correct
Whilst the core rationale for the preliminary rulings procedure is the uniform and consistent
interpretation of EU law across the national courts, Article 267 has even broader significance.
Through this mechanism, the Court of Justice has been able to develop major legal principles
such as supremacy, direct effect, indirect effect and state liability.
Page reference: 51
*not completed
In what circumstances has the Court of Justice refused to accept preliminary references?
When the reference was made by a national court of last instance. incorrect
When the reference amounted to an abuse or misuse of procedure. correct
When the reference concerned the interpretation of the Treaty. incorrect
When the reference was made by a national court of first instance. incorrect
The Court of Justice has generally encouraged national courts to refer, but it nevertheless
exerts control over admissibility. Most notably, the Court has refused to accept references
when they amounted to an abuse or misuse of procedure. It has refused jurisdiction where
there was no genuine dispute between the parties (Foglia v Novello), where the questions
referred were irrelevant or hypothetical (Meilicke), and where the national court has failed to
provide sufficient legal or factual information (Telemarsicabruzzo).
Page reference: 53
*not completed
When the 'abstract theory' is applied, which courts are 'courts against whose decisions there is
no judicial remedy under national law'?
Courts whose decisions are not subject to appeal in the particular case in which a question of
EU law arises. incorrect
Courts of first instance. incorrect
Courts occupying the highest position in the national system and whose decisions are never
subject to appeal. correct
Courts martial. incorrect
The 'abstract theory' is to be distinguished from the 'concrete theory'. According to the latter
theory, the obligation to refer under Article 267(3) applies to courts whose decisions are not
subject to appeal in the particular case in which the question of EU law
arises. Costa suggested that the Court of Justice inclines to the 'concrete theory' in relation to
'courts against whose decisions there is no judicial remedy under national law'.
Page reference: 55
*not completed
What term is applied to a provision of EU law whose interpretation is clear?
Ad hoc. incorrect
De rigueur. incorrect
De minimis. incorrect
Acte clair. correct
The term acte clair, translated literally, means 'clear act'. According to CILFIT, when the
meaning of EU law is clear, there is no need to refer. However, the interpretation must be 'so
obvious as to leave no scope for reasonable doubt as to its meaning.' The national court must
be convinced that the matter is equally obvious to the courts of other Member States. It must
bear in mind that EU law is drafted in several languages; that EU law uses terminology that is
peculiar to it; that legal concepts do not necessarily have the same meaning in EU law and the
law of the various Member States; and that EU law must be placed in its context.
Page reference: 58
*not completed
How have the national courts tended to interpret 'acte clair'?
More loosely than CILFIT requires. correct
According to its meaning under French administrative law. incorrect
According to its meaning as enunciated in CILFIT. incorrect
More rigorously than CILFIT requires. incorrect
The application of the CILFIT criteria for 'acte clair' requires a level of linguistic ability
beyond the expertise of the typical national court. The criteria are so difficult for national
courts to satisfy that, in practice, they have tended to interpret acte clair more loosely.
However, this approach carries risks, as demonstrated by Köbler (state liability in damages
would arise if it was manifestly apparent that a national court of last resort had failed to
comply with its obligations under Article 267(3), for instance by misapplying the doctrine
of acte clair) and Trajhetti (liability for damage caused by 'manifest errors' of interpretation
of EU law by a court of last instance could not be ruled out).
Page reference: 60
*not completed
Which courts have a discretion to refer under Article 267(2)?
Only national courts of final appeal. incorrect
Only national courts of first instance. incorrect
Any national courts. correct
Only national courts of appeal and final appeal. incorrect
Article 267(2) provides that 'any court or tribunal may, if it considers that a decision on the
question [of EU law] is necessary to enable it to give judgment, request the ECJ to give a
ruling thereon.'
Page reference: 59
*not completed
What principle was established in Da Costa?
A previous ruling of the Court of Justice removes the obligation of a court of last resort to
refer, where the facts and questions of interpretation are identical. correct
A previous ruling of the Court of Justice does not remove the obligation of a court of last
resort to refer, even where the facts and questions of interpretation are identical. incorrect
A previous ruling by the Court of Justice on the same question precludes a reference by a
national court. incorrect
A previous ruling by a higher national court on the same question precludes a reference by a
national court. incorrect
In Da Costa, the question referred was substantially the same as that referred in Van
Gend. The Court of Justice held that a previous ruling removes the obligation to refer, where
the facts and questions of interpretation are identical. Nonetheless, the Court affirmed that
Article 267(2) allows a national court, if it considers it desirable, to 'refer questions of
interpretation to the Court again'.
Page reference: 58
*not completed
In CILFIT, how did the Court of Justice extend the Da Costa principle concerning previous
rulings?
A previous ruling on a similar question by a higher national court removes the obligation to
refer. incorrect
A previous ruling on the same question by a higher national court removes the obligation to
refer. incorrect
A previous ruling by the Court of Justice removes the obligation to refer, even where the
questions at issue are not strictly identical. correct
A previous ruling by a national court of last resort removes the obligation to refer, even where
the questions at issue are not strictly identical. incorrect
Da Costa and CILFIT indicate the development of a system of precedent. The Court of
Justice permits, indeed encourages, national courts to rely on its previous rulings, not only
when the facts and questions of interpretation are identical but also when the nature of the
proceedings is different and the questions are not identical. Nonetheless, as Da
Costa indicates, the binding effect of a preliminary ruling does not preclude a national court
from seeking further guidance from the Court of Justice. The Court retains the right to depart
from its previous rulings and may do so, for instance, when a different conclusion is
warranted by different facts.
Page reference: 58
*not completed
What principle was established in Rheinmühlen?

A previous ruling on interpretation by a higher national court does not preclude a reference
by a lower national court. correct
A national court of first instance is not required to apply the interpretation of EU law
provided to it by the Court of Justice in response to a preliminary reference. incorrect
A previous ruling on interpretation by the Court of Justice precludes a reference by a national

court. incorrect
A previous ruling on interpretation by a higher national court precludes a reference by a

lower national court. incorrect
National rules of precedent have no impact on the discretion to refer. A ruling of a higher
national court on an interpretation of EU law does not prevent a lower court in the national
system from requesting a ruling on the same provision.
Page reference: 61
What kind of action may be brought under Article 258 TFEU?
Action for annulment. incorrect
Action for damages against an EU institution. incorrect
Enforcement action against a Member State. correct
Action under the third pillar of the Treaty on European Union. incorrect
Member States have a duty, under 4 TEU, to fulfil their EU obligations. Under Article 258
TFEU the European Commission may bring enforcement proceedings against a Member
State in breach of Treaty obligations. Article 259 TFEU allows similar actions brought by
Member States. Article 260 TFEU requires compliance with the Court's judgment. Originally,
Article 258 was intended to be the principal mechanism for enforcement of EU law.
However, since the development of the doctrines of direct effect, indirect effect and state
liability, enforcement actions form only part of the system of 'dual enforcement' of EU law.
Page reference: 68
*not completed
Which document begins formal proceedings at the administrative stage under Article 258
TFEU?
The 'statement of objections'. incorrect
The 'letter of notice'. correct
The 'comfort letter'. incorrect
The 'letter of obligation'. incorrect

Article 258 provides that 'If the Commission considers that a Member State has failed to fulfil
an obligation under this Treaty, it shall deliver a reasoned opinion on the matter after giving
the state concerned the opportunity to submit its observations.' It is the Commission's practice
first to raise the matter informally with the Member State. If not satisfied with the response, it
commences the formal procedure, which begins with the letter of notice. If no settlement can
be negotiated, the Commission moves to the next phase, the reasoned opinion.
Page reference: 70
*not completed
What is the consequence if the matter is not settled by the time limit for a response to the
reasoned opinion?
An immediate fine is issued. incorrect
The Council is notified. incorrect
A new time limit is issued. incorrect
The Commission may commence proceedings in the Court of Justice. correct
Here, the Commission cannot rely on matters not raised in the reasoned opinion. Interested
Member States, but not individuals, may intervene in the proceedings.
Page reference: 71
*not completed
What is the effect of a successful Article 263 action?
Annulment of the EU act. correct
Delayed implementation of the EU act. incorrect
Immediate entry into force of the EU act. incorrect
Award of damages against the EU institution concerned. incorrect
Article 263 provides for judicial review of acts adopted by the EU institutions. Such acts may
be challenged on grounds of 'lack of competence, infringement of an essential procedural
requirement, infringement of this Treaty or of any rule of law relating to its application, or
misuse of powers.' If the challenge is successful, the act is annulled.
Page reference: 72
*not completed
What is meant by 'locus standi'?
The grounds of challenge. incorrect

The act under challenge. incorrect
The 'standing' or right to bring proceedings. correct
The jurisdiction of the General Court in relation to Article 263 actions. incorrect
Locus standi, or standing, is the most contentious element of Article 263. Whilst Member
States, the European Parliament, the Council, and the Commission have automatic right of
access to the Court in such cases, individuals' locus standi is limited.
Page reference: 73
*not completed
What term is often applied to individual applicants under Article 263?
Privileged applicants. incorrect
Non-privileged applicants. correct
Direct applicants. incorrect
Concerned applicants. incorrect
Member States, the Council, the Commission, and Parliament are referred to as privileged
applicants because they do not need to establish any particular interest in the legality of the
EU act which they are seeking to challenge. By contrast individuals, comprising natural
persons (including individuals in business), or legal persons (companies) have limited locus
standi to bring Article 263 proceedings.
Page reference: 73
*not completed
Which test was set out by the Court of Justice in Plaumann?
The test for 'individual concern'. correct
The test for 'locus standi'. incorrect
The test for 'public body'. incorrect
The test for 'non-privileged applicant' incorrect
In Plaumann the Court of Justice declared that persons other than those to whom a decision is
addressed are individually concerned only if the measure affects them 'by reason of certain
attributes which are peculiar to them or by reason of circumstances in which they are
differentiated from all other persons'. The decision must distinguish them individually in the
same way that it distinguished the original addressee. In practice, the Plaumann test is very
difficult to satisfy, though, despite the difficulties, individuals have sometimes been able to
establish individual concern.
Page reference: 76
*not completed
According to Lütticke which elements comprise the 'general principles common to the laws of
the Member States', referred to in Article 340 TFEU?
A sufficiently serious breach of a superior rule of law for the protection of

individuals incorrect
Actions verging on the arbitrary. incorrect
Wrongful act, actual damage, causation. correct
Losses arising from the normal economic risks inherent in business. incorrect
For liability to arise, all three elements must be satisfied.

Page reference: 82
*not completed
Which of the following statements is correct?
The Article 340 action provides for the award of damages against a Member State which has
committed a sufficiently serious breach of EU law. incorrect
The Article 340 action is not an independent form of action, so an applicant must first secure
annulment under Article 263 TFEU. incorrect
The Article 340 action provides for annulment of acts of the EU institutions. incorrect
The Article 340 action is an independent form of action, so an applicant need not first secure
annulment under Article 263. correct
Article 340 TFEU provides a mechanism for recovery of damages by individuals who have
suffered loss as a result of EU action. It is an independent form of action, so an applicant
need not first secure annulment of the act in question under Article 263 TFEU. In order to
succeed, the applicant must establish the three elements of liability, namely a wrongful act,
actual damage and causation. In Schöppenstedt, the Court of Justice applied a rigorous test in
relation to general legislative measures involving choices of economic policy, holding that
liability would arise in respect of these only where there was a 'sufficiently flagrant violation
of a superior rule of law for the protection of individuals'. In Bergaderm, the Court took a
different approach, aligning the principles relating to state liability and EU liability.
Page reference: 83
*not completed
What is the time limit for bringing proceedings under Article 340 TFEU?
Two months. incorrect
Three years. incorrect
Five years. correct
There is no time limit. incorrect
The five-year time limit is laid down by Article 46 of the Statute of the Court.
Page reference: 85
Complete the following sentence: Article 4 (3) TEU , the so-called 'good faith' Clause …
requires the member States to respect each other. incorrect
requires the member States to respect European citizens. incorrect
requires member States to take all appropriate measures to ensure that the obligations of the
Treaty are fulfilled and tasks of the Union are achieved. correct
requires member States to ensure that religious faith is respected. incorrect
It also requires them to do nothing that would jeopardize those goals. The European Court of
Justice often cites it in its progressive judgments.
*not completed
What is the meaning of 'directly applicable' EU law?
It is law that the member States are required to apply without delay. incorrect
Laws that have automatic legal validity in the member States, meaning that no further action
should be taken by a member State to incorporate or transform the law into the national legal
order. correct
Law that replaces national law in the same area. incorrect
Law that can be relied on by individuals before the national courts. incorrect
While EU law does take priority over national law, it is a requirement that the member States
remove inconsistent national law rather than that EU law replaces it.
*not completed
The Protocols attached to the treaties have the same status as the treaties.
True correct
False incorrect
According to Art. 51 TEU, they do.
*not completed
What is the meaning of the statement 'a Regulation shall have general application'?
That Regulations are general provisions of legislation applicable to the entire Community,
member States, institutions, and individuals—in short, everyone. correct
They apply only to member States. incorrect
They apply only to the institutions. incorrect
They apply only to individuals. incorrect
That is the position - They apply to everyone.
*not completed
What is the meaning of the statement 'a Directive shall be binding as to the result to be
achieved, but shall leave to the national authorities the choice of form and methods'?
That a Directive dictates exactly how the member States should implement it. incorrect
That a Directive leaves it to the member State to decide how best to achieve the goal set
out. correct
That the member States can ignore a Directive if they so wish. incorrect
That the Directive is not the member States' obligation, but that of the internal national
authorities. incorrect
They must achieve the end result, but it is left to the member State to decide how best to
achieve the goal set out. The obligation is imposed generally on the State, although it may
delegate to internal bodies how this is achieved.
*not completed
Regulations, Directives, and Decisions mentioned in Art. 288 TFEU are the only other forms
of binding EU law, apart from treaty Articles.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. There are more forms of EU law, including international agreements, the many
principles of law introduced often by the European Court of Justice (such as fundamental
rights), and many procedural principles of law.
*not completed
The European Court of Justice plays no role in lawmaking.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. While it does not formally participate in lawmaking as would be expected of a

court, it has played a significant role in the introduction of legal principles into the EU legal
order, including direct effects and supremacy.
How may customs duties and charges having equivalent effect be classified?
National taxation. incorrect
Non-tariff barriers to trade. incorrect
Tariff barriers to trade. correct
Measures having equivalent effect to quantitative restrictions. incorrect
Article 30 TFEU prohibits customs duties and charges having equivalent effect, which are
often classified as 'tariff barriers' to trade because they involve the direct payment of
money. Diamonds (Cases 2 & 3/69) defined a customs duty as 'any pecuniary charge imposed
on…goods by reason of the fact that they cross a frontier…' and a charge having equivalent
effect as ' any pecuniary charge…imposed on….goods by reason of the fact that they cross a
frontier and which is not a customs duty in the strict sense.'
Page reference: 94
*not completed
When will a charge for services rendered escape the scope of Article 30?
When the charge is protectionist. incorrect
When the service is of direct benefit to the importer and the charge is proportionate to the
value of the service. correct
When the charge is for health inspection services. incorrect
When the provision of the service is mandatory under the national legislation of the state of
import. incorrect
Member States have sometimes argued that charges on imports (or exports) fall outside
Article 30 because they are levied for services rendered. The Court of Justice has made it
clear that charges will fall outside Article 30 only if the service rendered is of direct benefit to
the importer (or exporter) and the charge is proportionate to the service
(Commission v Belgium (Customs Warehouses) (Case 132/82). It is a difficult argument to
sustain.
Page reference: 95
*not completed
When is a national internal taxation system indirectly discriminatory?
When it taxes imported goods at a higher rate than similar domestically-produced goods on
the basis of their origin. incorrect
When it allows deferment of payment of tax for domestically-produced goods but not for
imported goods. incorrect
When it taxes imported goods but not domestically-produced goods. incorrect
When it taxes imported and domestically-produced goods equally but its effect is to
disadvantage imports. correct
Measures that openly tax imported and domestically-produced goods at different rates are
directly discriminatory. This kind of discrimination in taxation is rare, as it is easily
identified. Indirectly discriminatory taxation is more difficult to identify. This is taxation that
appears not to discriminate between imported and domestic goods but nevertheless has a
discriminatory effect.
Page reference: 97
*not completed
To which kinds of measures does the Geddo definition refer: 'measures which amount to a
total or partial restraint of….imports, exports or goods in transit.'?
Customs duties. incorrect
Measures of EU internal market law. incorrect
Quantitative restrictions. correct
Treaty articles. incorrect
Like customs duties, quantitative restrictions are generally easily recognised. They include
import quotas ('partial restraints'), which place a limit on the quantity of particular goods that
can be imported, and import bans ('total restraints'), which block the import of particular
goods altogether. Article 34 TFEU prohibits quantitative restrictions on imports.
Page reference: 100
*not completed
In which case did the Court of Justice define 'measures having equivalent effect'?
Dassonvillle. correct
Humblot. incorrect
Diamonds. incorrect
Van Gend en Loos. incorrect
Measures having equivalent effect (MEQRs) take many different forms, such as health and
safety requirements, packaging requirements, and requirements relating to the composition or
marketing of goods. In Dassonville, the Court of Justice defined MEQRs as 'All trading rules
enacted by Member States which are capable of hindering, directly or indirectly, actually or
potentially interstate trade…' Article 34 TFEU prohibits MEQRs.
Page reference: 101
*not completed
How is an 'indistinctly applicable' MEQR defined?
A measure that applies equally to imported and domestic products. correct
A measure that does not apply equally to domestic and imported products. incorrect
A directly effective measure. incorrect
A measure that is of individual concern to the applicant. incorrect
Article 3 of Directive 70/50 refers to measures that apply equally to domestic and imported
products, commonly called 'indistinctly applicable' measures because they make no
distinction between domestic and imported products. Walter Rau provides an example of an
indistinctly applicable measure. This case concerned a Belgian rule requiring all margarine
for retail sale to be in cube-shaped form or packaging. By contrast, a 'distinctly applicable'
measure does not apply equally to imports and domestic products. Dassonville provides an
example of a distinctly applicable measure. In this case, the Belgian rule requiring goods
bearing a designation of origin to be accompanied by a certificate of origin applied only to
imports.
Page reference: 102
*not completed
Which principle dictates that, provided goods have been lawfully produced and marketed in
one Member State, there is no reason why they should not be introduced into another without
restriction?
The principle of proportionality. incorrect
The principle of non-retroactivity. incorrect

The principle of mutual recognition. correct
The principle of supremacy. incorrect
According to this principle, set out by the Court of Justice in Cassis de Dijon, free trade
between Member States is based upon the assumption that goods lawfully produced and
marketed in one Member State are acceptable in another. This assumption will be set aside if
the Cassis 'rule of reason' applies.
Page reference: 104
*not completed
Which of the following statements is correct?
The Cassis 'rule of reason' provides that MEQRs can be justified only on the grounds set out
in the Cassis judgment. incorrect
The Cassis 'rule of reason' provides that indirectly discriminatory taxation may be justified in
certain circumstances. incorrect
The Cassis 'rule of reason' provides that, provided goods have been lawfully produced and
marketed in one Member State, there is no reason why they should not be introduced into
another without restriction. incorrect
The Cassis rule of reason provides that restrictions on trade resulting from national
provisions on product marketing, which differ from those applying in other Member States,
are permissible if they are necessary to satisfy one of the mandatory requirements. correct
The assumption of mutual recognition will be set aside if the Cassis 'rule of reason' applies.
This rule incorporates the 'mandatory requirements', in other words the permissible
justifications, and, additionally, a proportionality requirement. To fall outside the Article 34
TFEU prohibition, a restrictive measure must not only satisfy one of the mandatory
requirements but it must also be proportionate. For example, the Belgian rule in Walter
Rau requiring margarine to be cube-shaped, whilst it purportedly aimed to protect the
consumer, was disproportionate. The desired objective could have been achieved by a
requirement to label the product, a measure that would be less of a hindrance to trade.
The Cassis rule of reason applies only to indistinctly applicable measures
(Commission v Ireland (Restrictions on Importation of Souvenirs)). In subsequent cases, the
Court of Justice has added to the list of mandatory requirements, for example environmental
protection (Danish Bottles) and legitimate interests of social policy (Oebel).
Page reference: 105
*not completed
Which case set out the rule that certain 'selling arrangements' do not fall within
the Dassonville formula?
Walter Rau. incorrect
Commission v UK (Origin Marking of Goods). incorrect
Keck. correct
Plaumann. incorrect
In Keck, the Court of Justice indicated that its judgment was aimed at traders who invoke
Article 34 TFEU to challenge national rules restricting their commercial freedom but do not
impede market access for imported products any more than for domestic products. Such
restrictions fall outside the scope of Article 34. The Court of Justice held that measures
concerning 'selling arrangements' do not fall within Dassonville provided they 'apply to all
affected traders operating within the national territory and…..affect in the same manner, in
law and in fact, the marketing of domestic products and those from other Member States.'
Page reference: 108
*not completed
In relation to MEQRs, which Treaty provision allows derogation from the principle of free
movement of goods?
Article 36 TFEU correct
Article 34 TFEU incorrect
Article 36 TFEU provides that 'Articles 34 and 35 shall not preclude prohibitions or
restrictions on imports, exports and goods in transit justified on grounds of public morality,
public policy or public security; the protection of health and life of animals, humans or
plants; the protection of national treasures possessing artistic, historic or archaeological
value; or the protection of industrial and commercial property.' Measures must be
proportionate and must not constitute a means of arbitrary discrimination or disguised
restriction on trade. Unlike the Cassis rule of reason, the Article 36 justifications can be
applied to both distinctly and indistinctly applicable MEQRs and quantitative restrictions.
However, the Article 36 list of justifications is exhaustive.
Page reference: 111
An express statement of EU law supremacy can be found in the Treaties.

True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. It cannot be found in any treaty, but was a principle confirmed by the European
Court of Justice but has now been acknowledged in Declaration 17 attached to the Treaties.
*not completed
Why did the European Court of Justice reason that Community (now EU) law must be
accorded supremacy in Case C-6/64 Costa v. ENEL?
Because the member States wished that it be so. incorrect
Because it was expressly required by the Treaty. incorrect
Because it suited the facts of the case itself. incorrect
Because the law stemming from the Treaty—an independent source of law—could not,
because of its special and original nature, be overridden by domestic legal provisions,
however framed, without being deprived of its character as Community (now EU) law and
without the legal basis of the Community (now EU) itself being called into question. correct
The member States have been reluctant even up to today to provide expressly for supremacy.
There is no express statement in the Treaty. Also, The logical conclusion otherwise would
mean that all national laws would prevail and there would be no order.
*not completed
EU law takes priority over Constitutional law and member State constitutional rules.
True correct
False incorrect
Correct. The CoJ held, in Case C-106/77 Simmental and subsequent cases, that the validity of
a Community (now EU) measure or its effect within a member State cannot be affected by
allegations that it runs counter either to fundamental rights as formulated by the Constitution
of that State, or to the principles of a national constitutional structure.
*not completed
The German courts have unquestionably accepted the supremacy of EU law in all instances.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. That is not the case if you consider the still-leading case of Brunner before the
German Federal Constitutional Court, which reserved to itself the right to review Community
(now EU) law in the light of the German Constitution if it considered it necessary.
Article 267 TFEU concerns which of the following?
An action for damages against the institutions of the EU. incorrect
An action to annul acts of the institutions. incorrect
The preliminary ruling procedure whereby the courts of the member States can ask the
European Court of Justice for a ruling on EU law. correct
An action against member States in the national courts. incorrect
Article 267 TFEU is the preliminary reference procedure by which the courts of the member
States can refer questions to the European Court of Justice on matters of EU law.
*not completed
Article 234 EC (now 267 TFEU) was instrumental in the development of the leading
principles of EU law by the European Court of Justice.
True correct
False incorrect
Correct. The CoJ was able to introduce the principles of direct effects, indirect effects, state
liability, and supremacy, among others.
*not completed
Which of the following describes the relationship between the European Court of Justice and
the national courts?
Hierarchical, with the CoJ at the apex of the hierarchy. incorrect
One in which the national supreme courts can demand a solution from the CoJ. incorrect
A system of appeal from the national courts to the CoJ. incorrect
One of equality. correct
The intended relationship was of equality and cooperation, rather than hierarchy or an appeal
system.
*not completed
Which of the following courts can refer?

Only national supreme courts. incorrect
Those that match the guidelines and case law of the European Court of Justice. correct
Only those labelled as courts. incorrect
Only those designated by the national authorities. incorrect
Essentially, those that match the guidelines and case law of the European Court of Justice can
refer a question.
*not completed
It is for the parties to a case to decide whether to refer a question.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. That decision is a question for the national court.
*not completed
Because it is a matter for the national court to decide if it requires a ruling, the European
Court of Justice may not refuse to give rulings on references from the national courts.
True incorrect
False correct
That would seem to be the case based on Art. 267 TFEU itself, but the CoJ has held, in a
number of cases, that it can refuse to give rulings if references are not properly formulated, or
are an abuse of the system in which no genuine dispute arises, or if they lack basic
information.
*not completed
According to Art. 267 TFEU, all national courts that have a question must do which of the
following?
Refer. incorrect
Decide whether to refer or not. incorrect
Seek approval from higher national courts to refer. incorrect
Refer, but only according to whether or not they are a court of last instance. correct
They may or may not be required to refer according to whether they are a court of last
instance or not.
*not completed
A question of the validity of secondary EU law must be referred to the European Court of
Justice.
True correct
False incorrect
They must, after Case C-314/85 Foto-Frost—unless the point has already been decided (see
Case C-66/80 ICC).
*not completed
When does Art. 267(3) TFEU oblige courts of last instance to refer?
In all circumstances. incorrect
Only when they decide to. incorrect
In all instances, except if the point has already been answered or if, in the EU context, the
answer is clear (acte clair). correct
Never. incorrect
They are obliged to refer except if where the point has already been answered or if, in the EU
context, the answer is clear (acte clair).
*not completed
'Acte clair' means that the national courts can decide for themselves how to apply EU law.
True incorrect
False correct
The national court can apply EU law that is clear (acte clair), but it must be convinced that
the matter is equally obvious to courts of other member States, that language differences will
not result in inconsistent decisions in member States, and that EU law will be applied in light
of its application as a whole in relation to the objectives of the EU.
*not completed
An Art. 267 TFEU ruling is not binding on any court.
True incorrect
False correct
It is binding on the court that made the reference and thus on the parties, and binding in other
cases according to the rules of precedent in each State. It is not binding on the European
Court of Justice in future cases.
Original Treaty provisions granted free movement rights to 'economically active' persons.
Which groups does this term include?
Students. incorrect
Workers' families. incorrect
Workers and the self-employed. correct
Unemployed persons. incorrect
The EEC Treaty granted the right of free movement to workers (now Article 45 TFEU), the
right of establishment (the right to move to another Member State to set up and run a business
or pursue a profession there, now Article 49 TFEU) and the right to provide services in
another Member State (now Article 56 TFEU). Rights of free movement for family members,
students, retired persons, and persons of independent means, which were contained in
subsequent secondary legislation, have been incorporated into Directive 2004/38.
Page reference: 125
*not completed
What status is established under Article 20 TFEU)?
Citizenship of the Member States. incorrect
European Union citizenship. correct
Worker status. incorrect
Minor status. incorrect
Article 17 EC (now Article 20 TFEU), inserted into the EC Treaty by the Treaty on European
Union, established citizenship of the European Union and provides that every national of a
Member State is a Union citizen. Article 21 TFEU grants free movement rights to all Union
citizens, subject to 'the limitations and conditions' in the Treaty and secondary legislation.
Clarification of Union citizens' free movement rights is found in case law and in Directive
2004/38. The Court of Justice has used Union citizenship as a basis for rights, for instance
in Sala, Grzelczyk and Baumbast.
Page reference: 125
*not completed
How has Directive 2004/38 extended the scope of 'family member'?

By including all descendants, irrespective of their age. incorrect
By including persons who wish to reside with the Union citizen in the host state. incorrect
By including 'registered partners'. correct
By including persons who are defined as 'family members' by the legislation of the host
state. incorrect
The secondary legislation pre-dating Directive 2004/38 made no reference to 'partner' but
only to 'spouse'. The Court of Justice stated in Reed that 'spouse' was restricted to persons
married to each other. Now, under Directive 2004/38, 'family member' includes 'the partner
with whom the Union citizen has contracted a registered partnership, on the basis of the
legislation of a Member State, if the legislation of the host state treats registered partnerships
as equivalent to marriage and in accordance with the conditions laid down in the relevant
legislation of the host Member State.'
Page reference: 131
*not completed
The meaning of 'worker' in EU law is to be found in which of the following?
The TFEU. incorrect
National legislation. incorrect
Case law of the Court of Justice. correct
Directive 2004/38. incorrect
The TFEU does not define 'worker' and the Court of Justice has emphasized that the term
may not be defined by national law but has a Union meaning. Clarification was provided
in Lawrie-Blum, in which the Court of Justice stated that the 'essential feature of an
employment relationship …is that for a certain period of time a person performs services for
and under the direction of another person in return for remuneration'. The Court of Justice has
interpreted 'worker' broadly, including within its scope part-time work (Levin, Kempf),
persons on fixed-term contracts (Ninni-Orasche). Jobseekers also have rights, Union citizens
being entitled to enter and remain in another Member State to seek work (Directive 2004/38,
Article 14).
Page reference: 136
*not completed
What principle is enshrined in Article 45(2) and re-iterated in Regulation 492/2011 in relation
to workers?
Supremacy. incorrect
Non-discrimination. correct
Mutual recognition. incorrect
Workers' right to non-discrimination is enshrined in the Treaty. Under Article 45(2) freedom
of movement entails the abolition of any discrimination between workers of the Member
States as regards employment, remuneration and other conditions of employment. Regulation
492/2011 provides for equality between EU migrant workers and workers of the host state
with respect to access to employment and conditions of employment. Directive 2004/38 also
incorporates the right to equality of treatment for persons falling with its scope, including
workers.
Page reference: 139
*not completed
Member States may restrict or deny access to employment on grounds of nationality in which
area?
Sports incorrect
Manufacturing incorrect
Retail incorrect
Public service correct
Member States may restrict or deny access to employment in the public service on grounds of
nationality (Article 45(4) TFEU). This provision applies only to access to employment.
Discriminatory conditions of employment infringe the free movement provisions (Sotgiu v
Deutsche Bundespost (Case 152/73)). 'Public service' is an EU concept. Its meaning is not to
be determined by Member States (Sotgiu, Commission v Belgium).
Page reference: 140
*not completed
Which secondary legislation extends the non-discrimination principle to conditions 0f

employment?
Regulation 492/2011 correct
Regulation 1/2003 incorrect
Directive 70/50 incorrect

Directive 2004/38 incorrect
Regulation 492/2011 extends the non-discrimination principle to conditions of employment,

in particular pay, dismissal, and, should the worker become unemployed, reinstatement and
re-employment. Workers are entitled to the same tax and social advantages and access to
vocational training as national workers (Article 7), as well as to equality regarding
membership of trade unions (Article 8) and housing, including home ownership (Article 9).
'Social and tax advantage' is interpreted broadly.
Page reference: 141
*not completed
On what grounds may Member States restrict rights of free movement?
Economic grounds. incorrect
Environmental grounds. incorrect
Public policy, public security or public health. correct
Educational grounds. incorrect
Articles 45(3), 52 and 62 TFEU allow Member States to restrict the rights of entry and
residence, respectively, of EU migrant workers, persons exercising the right of establishment,
and those providing services on grounds of public policy, public security, or public health.
Page reference: 144
*not completed
Which secondary legislation elucidates the scope of 'public policy, public security or public
health'?
Regulation 492/2011. incorrect
Directive 2004/38. correct
Directive 2004/38 draws on the provisions of Directive 64/221, which it repealed, and also
consolidates the pre-existing case law.
Page reference: 144
*not completed
Which provision of Directive 2004/38 sets out the scope of the public policy and public
security grounds?
Article 2. incorrect
Article 27. correct
Article 27 of Directive 2004/38 requires that measures taken on public policy or public
security grounds must be proportionate and based exclusively on the personal conduct of the
individual concerned. The personal conduct must represent a 'present' threat to the
requirements of public policy. Article 27 precludes public policy and public security
justifications that are 'isolated from the particulars of the case or that rely on considerations of
general prevention'. Previous criminal convictions are not in themselves grounds for
measures taken on public policy or public security grounds. All these principles have been
applied by the Court of Justice. Look at Orfanopoulos and Oliveri (a 'present' threat to public
policy, proportionality); Van Duyn, Calfa (personal conduct); Bonsignore (general
preventative measures); and Bouchereau (previous criminal convictions).
Page reference: 144
An action for damages against the institutions of the EU. incorrect
An action to annul acts of the institutions. incorrect
The preliminary ruling procedure whereby the courts of the member States can ask the
European Court of Justice for a ruling on EU law. correct
An action against member States in the national courts. incorrect
Article 267 TFEU is the preliminary reference procedure by which the courts of the member
States can refer questions to the European Court of Justice on matters of EU law.
*not completed
Article 234 EC (now 267 TFEU) was instrumental in the development of the leading
principles of EU law by the European Court of Justice.
True correct
False incorrect
Correct. The CoJ was able to introduce the principles of direct effects, indirect effects, state
liability, and supremacy, among others.
*not completed
Which of the following describes the relationship between the European Court of Justice and
the national courts?
Hierarchical, with the CoJ at the apex of the hierarchy. incorrect
One in which the national supreme courts can demand a solution from the CoJ. incorrect
A system of appeal from the national courts to the CoJ. incorrect
One of equality. correct
The intended relationship was of equality and cooperation, rather than hierarchy or an appeal
system.
*not completed
Which of the following courts can refer?
Only national supreme courts. incorrect
Those that match the guidelines and case law of the European Court of Justice. correct
Only those labelled as courts. incorrect
Only those designated by the national authorities. incorrect
Essentially, those that match the guidelines and case law of the European Court of Justice can
refer a question.
*not completed
It is for the parties to a case to decide whether to refer a question.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. That decision is a question for the national court.
*not completed
Because it is a matter for the national court to decide if it requires a ruling, the European
Court of Justice may not refuse to give rulings on references from the national courts.
True incorrect
False correct
That would seem to be the case based on Art. 267 TFEU itself, but the CoJ has held, in a
number of cases, that it can refuse to give rulings if references are not properly formulated, or
are an abuse of the system in which no genuine dispute arises, or if they lack basic
information.
*not completed
According to Art. 267 TFEU, all national courts that have a question must do which of the
following?
Refer. incorrect
Decide whether to refer or not. incorrect
Seek approval from higher national courts to refer. incorrect
Refer, but only according to whether or not they are a court of last instance. correct
They may or may not be required to refer according to whether they are a court of last
instance or not.
*not completed
A question of the validity of secondary EU law must be referred to the European Court of
Justice.
True correct
False incorrect
They must, after Case C-314/85 Foto-Frost—unless the point has already been decided (see
Case C-66/80 ICC).
*not completed
When does Art. 267(3) TFEU oblige courts of last instance to refer?
In all circumstances. incorrect
Only when they decide to. incorrect
In all instances, except if the point has already been answered or if, in the EU context, the
answer is clear (acte clair). correct
Never. incorrect
They are obliged to refer except if where the point has already been answered or if, in the EU
context, the answer is clear (acte clair).
*not completed
'Acte clair' means that the national courts can decide for themselves how to apply EU law.
True incorrect
False correct
The national court can apply EU law that is clear (acte clair), but it must be convinced that
the matter is equally obvious to courts of other member States, that language differences will
not result in inconsistent decisions in member States, and that EU law will be applied in light
of its application as a whole in relation to the objectives of the EU.
*not completed
An Art. 267 TFEU ruling is not binding on any court.
True incorrect
False correct
It is binding on the court that made the reference and thus on the parties, and binding in other
cases according to the rules of precedent in each State. It is not binding on the European
Court of Justice in future cases.
Which Treaty Article sets out the principle of freedom of establishment?
Article 49 TFEU sets out the principle of freedom of establishment. This freedom comprises
the right for EU citizens and companies to establish themselves in any Member State for a
commercial purpose and, when they are already established in a Member State, to set up
secondary establishments in another Member State.
Page reference: 158
*not completed
Who are beneficiaries of the freedom of establishment?
Natural persons only. incorrect
Legal persons only. incorrect
Natural and legal persons. correct
Neither natural nor legal persons. incorrect

Freedom of establishment is enjoyed by both natural persons (Jany) and legal persons. The
nationality of a company is determined by reference to the Member State in which it has its
seat according to its statute.
Page reference: 159
*not completed
In addition to freedom of establishment, what principle is enshrined in Article 49 TFEU in

relation to the self-employed?
Mutual recognition. incorrect
Supremacy. incorrect
Non-discrimination correct
For the self-employed, the key equality provision is Article 18 TFEU which sets out the
general principle of non-discrimination on grounds of nationality 'within the scope of
application of the Treaty'. Article 18 is supplemented by Article 49 TFEU, which includes the
right to pursue activity 'under the conditions laid down for its own nationals by the law of the
country where such establishment is effected'. Whilst providing for equality, this provision
can be problematic when applied to host state rules concerning professional conduct and
professional qualifications, which may hinder or make less attractive the exercise of free
movement rights. Persons wishing to exercise the right of establishment may well find the
host state's requirements difficult or impossible to satisfy, even though they comply with their
home state's requirements.
Page reference: 160
*not completed
How has the EU sought to address the problems associated with free movement and the
recognition of qualifications?
Through the process of harmonization. correct
By allowing Member States to lay down any requirements they consider to be

appropriate. incorrect
By amending the Treaty. incorrect
By extending the scope of 'equality'. incorrect
In order to address the problems associated with the recognition of qualifications, a

programme of EU harmonization was instigated, with the adoption of 12 sectoral directives
setting out the requirements for particular trades and professions. As progress was slow, a
new approach was subsequently taken, with the adoption of Directive 89/48 providing for the
mutual recognition of qualifications. Almost all the existing harmonizing legislation was
replaced and consolidated by Directive 2005/36 covering 'regulated professions' and applying
to all EU citizens seeking to practise, as employed or self-employed persons, in a Member
State other than that in which their qualification was obtained. In relation to services,
Directive 2006/123 provides for free access to and free exercise of a service activity within
another Member State, subject to the application of non-discriminatory, necessary, and
proportionate restrictions.
Page reference: 161
*not completed
Which Article sets out the principle of freedom of services?
Under Article 56 TFEU 'restrictions on freedom to provide services within the Union shall be
prohibited in respect of nationals of Member States who are established in a Member State
other than that of the person for whom the service is intended'.
Page reference: 161
*not completed
Does Article 56 TFEU include the right to receive services?
Only in the area of education. incorrect
No. incorrect
Yes. correct
Only in the areas of education and finance. incorrect
The Court of Justice has recognized that Article 56 includes the right to receive, as well as to
provide, services. In early decisions, it held that 'recipients of services' included persons
travelling to other Member States for medical treatment and for education and business
purposes (Luisi and Carbone v Ministero del Tresoro (Cases 286/82 & 26/83)). The rights of
recipients of services may be restricted, as for workers and others with free movement rights,
on grounds of public policy, public security, or public health.
Page reference: 163
*not completed
Can Member States place restrictions on the freedom to provide services?
Yes, always. incorrect
Yes, provided they are exercised 'under the same conditions as are imposed by that state on its
own nationals' correct
No, never. incorrect
Only in the first six months of the year. incorrect
Article 56 rights are, according to Article 57, exercised 'under the same conditions as are
imposed by that state on its own nationals'. As with the right of establishment, Member States
may impose restrictions on the freedom to provide services provided they are objectively
justified. In Van Binsbergen the Court of Justice held that requirements imposed on persons
providing services— particularly rules relating to organization, qualifications, professional
ethics, supervision, and liability—are compatible with EU law provided they are equally
applicable to host state nationals, objectively justified in the public interest, and
proportionate.
Page reference: 165
*not completed
Activities concerning the exercise of what provides a derogation from the freedom of
establishment and the freedom to provide services?
Official authority. correct
Distribution of money. incorrect
Sale of groceries. incorrect
Manufacture of matches. incorrect
Article 51 TFEU states that 'the provisions of this Chapter shall not apply, so far as any given
Member State is concerned, to activities which in that State are connected, even occasionally,
with the exercise of official authority'. Whilst Article 62 TFEU states that the 'provisions of
Articles 51 to 54 shall apply to the matters covered by this Chapter'. The relevant Chapters
referred to are Chapter 2 (Right of establishment) and Chapter 3 (Services). Consistent with
other restrictions on fundamental freedoms within the Treaty, the Court of Justice has
construed the official authority exception narrowly (Commission v Greece (Case C-306/89).
Page reference: 167
*not completed
On which grounds can derogations be made to the freedom of establishment and the freedom
to provide services?
Consumer protection incorrect
Public policy, public security and public health. correct
The rule of reason incorrect
Enironmental protection. incorrect
Article 52 and 62 TFEU state the grounds on which discrimination is allowed in the context
of the freedom of establishment and the freedom to provide services. The derogations are
regulated in secondary legislation. For natural persons that is Directive 2004/38, for
companies that is Directive 2006/123.
Page reference: 165
*not completed
Which case concerned the question of whether protection of human dignity constituted a
ground of public policy justifying restrictions?
Säger v Dennemeyer & Co Ltd (Case C-76/90) [1992] ECR I-4221. incorrect
Gourmet International (Case C-405/98) [2001] ECR I-1795. incorrect
Van Binsbergen v Bestuur van de Bedrijfsvereniging voor de Metaalnijverheid (Case 33/74)

[1974] ECR 1299. incorrect
Omega (Case C-36/02) [2004] ECR I-9609. correct
In Omega (Case C-36/02) [2004] ECR I-9609, German authorities made an order prohibiting
simulated killing in the course of a laser game on the basis of the game jeopardizing public
order, with human dignity being one of the principles safeguarded. Court of Justice held that
the protection of human dignity constituted a ground of public policy which could justify the
restriction on the freedom to provide services. In relation to whether the measure satisfied the
requirement of proportionality, the Court held that as the prohibition concerned only
commercial exploitation of the variant of the game which involved playing at killing people,
the prohibition did not go beyond that necessary to attain the objective pursued.
Page reference: 168

Actions by individuals against a member State for damages. incorrect
Actions to annul EU Acts. incorrect
Commission action against member States for failures to fulfil obligations under the
Treaty. correct
Actions by one member State against another member State. incorrect
Article 258 TFEU concerns commission action against member States for failures to fulfil
obligations under the Treaty.
*not completed
Failure to remove inconsistent legislation constitutes a breach even if the authorities no

longer apply the national legislation and apply the EU rules in preference.
True correct
False incorrect
It is a breach as was held by the European Court of Justice in Case C-167/73 Commission v
France.
*not completed
If an individual reports an infringement of a member State to the Commission, which one the
following is the consequence?
He or she is permitted to take part in the proceedings. incorrect
He or she is rewarded with part of any fine that may subsequently be levied on the member
State. incorrect
He or she is able to hold the Commission to account if it does not act. incorrect
He or she is unable to force the Commission to take any action in the matter. correct
See the decision in Case C-247/87 Star Fruit.
*not completed
If the Commission considers that a member State has failed to fulfil an obligation under this
treaty, it shall deliver a ________ _______ on the matter.
Your response
| Correct response: reasoned opinion

This is part of the formal process of establishing an infringement by a member state.
*not completed
If a member State should fail to comply with the reasoned opinion of the Commission, the
Commission then has the right (which is discretionary) to bring the matter before the
European Court of Justice, specifying its grounds for action.
True correct
False incorrect
The Commission has the right, see Case C-39/72 Commission v Italy.
*not completed
What does the following statement mean? 'The initial judgment is merely declaratory.'
The State can be fined immediately. incorrect
The breach is formally declared by the European Court of Justice and the offending State has
to take the necessary measures to end the infringement. correct
That nothing further can take place. incorrect
That anyone can now sue the State. incorrect
It means that the breach is formally declared by the European Court of Justice and that the
offending state has to take the necessary measures to end the infringement.
*not completed
There are numerous effective defences to an Article 258 TFEU action open to the member
States.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. In fact, the European Court of Justice has rejected most defences.
*not completed
In cases of urgency or in which economic hardship may ensue, the European Court of Justice
may order the suspension of a contested national Act or proscribe interim measures.
True correct
False incorrect
It may, see Arts 278 and 279 TFEU.
*not completed
Under the revised Art. 260 TFEU, the Commission may request and the European Court of
Justice may order which of the following?
The member State to promise not to breach EU law again. incorrect
The member State to withdraw from the European Union. incorrect
Reciprocal action by other States which might have suffered form the breach. incorrect
A fine in the form of a periodic payment, or lump sum, or both. correct
The revised procedure allows for the sanction of a fine to be applied following a further
procedural action. The European Court of Justice has the discretion to choose which to apply.
*not completed
A member State may bring an action against another member State at any time and without
delay.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. Under Art. 259 TFEU, it must first bring the matter before the Commission.
What kinds of restrictions are the target of Articles 101 and 102 TFEU?
Restrictions imposed by Member States. incorrect
Restrictions imposed by the European Commission. incorrect
Restrictive business practices. correct
Restrictions imposed by third countries. incorrect
Articles 101 and 102 TFEU prohibit anti-competitive business practices that threaten the
internal market, harm consumers and small and medium-sized enterprises, and reduce
business efficiency.
Page reference: 177
*not completed
Which secondary legislation contains the enforcement regime relating to Articles 101 and 102
TFEU?
Regulation 492/2011 incorrect
Regulation 1/2003. correct

Articles 101 and 102 TFEU are enforced by the European Commission, national competition
authorities and national courts. Regulation 1/2003 sets out a system of co-operation between
them. The Regulation empowers the European Commission and national competition
authorities to investigate alleged infringements, issue decisions and impose fines. Articles
101 and 102 are directly effective and so may be applied in national court proceedings. The
Regulation requires national courts, in applying Articles 101 and 102, to avoid judgments that
conflict with Commission decisions.
Page reference: 177
*not completed
What does Article 101(1) prohibit?
Anti-competitive arrangements between undertakings. correct
Abuse of market power by dominant undertakings. incorrect
State subsidies. incorrect
Measures having equivalent effect to quantitative restrictions. incorrect
Article 101(1) prohibits all agreements between undertakings, decisions of associations of

undertakings, and concerted practices which may affect trade between Member States and
which have as their object or effect the prevention, restriction, or distortion of competition
within the internal market.
Page reference: 177
*not completed
In which case was the meaning of 'concerted practice' first considered?
Bouchereau. incorrect
Van Gend en Loos. incorrect
Dyestuffs. correct
United Brands. incorrect
In Dyestuffs, the Court of Justice defined 'concerted practice' as 'a form of coordination
between undertakings which, without having reached the stage where an agreement properly
so-called has been concluded, knowingly substitutes practical cooperation between them for
the risks of competition'.
Page reference: 178
*not completed
What is a vertical agreement?
An agreement between undertakings operating at different levels of the

production/distribution chain. correct
An agreement between two independent undertakings. incorrect
An agreement between a parent company and its subsidiary. incorrect
An agreement between undertakings operating at the same level of the

production/distribution chain. incorrect
Article 101 TFEU catches both horizontal and vertical agreements. Restrictions in vertical
agreements are likely to affect intra-brand competition and are therefore less likely to harm
competition than are restrictions in horizontal agreements.
Page reference: 179
*not completed
What does Article 102 TFEU prohibit?
Anti-competitive agreements between undertakings. incorrect
Agreements between undertakings operating at different levels of the production/distribution

chain. incorrect
Abuse of a dominant position within the internal market. correct
Agreements between undertakings operating at the same level of the production/distribution

chain. incorrect
Article 102 TFEU prohibits, as incompatible with the internal market, any abuse by one or
more undertakings of a dominant position within the internal market or a substantial part of it
in so far as that abuse may affect trade between Member States
Page reference: 185
*not completed
Which of the following cases provides a definition of 'dominance'?
Dassonville. incorrect
Van Duyn. incorrect
United Brands. correct
Orfanopoulos. incorrect
In United Brands, the Court of Justice defined 'dominance' as 'a position of economic
strength enjoyed by an undertaking that enables it to prevent effective competition…… on
the relevant market by giving it the power to behave independently of its competitors,
customers….and consumers.'
Page reference: 185
*not completed
What question must be addressed to determine whether there is cross-elasticity of demand?
Would a producer of a similar product be willing and able to switch production to this
product? incorrect
Would the product be more attractive to consumers if it had several uses? incorrect
Would a significant proportion of the population buy this product if it were advertised more
widely? incorrect
Would the consumer be willing and able to substitute this product for another? correct
Demand substitutability concerns consumer behaviour. The question to be asked is whether a

consumer would be willing and able to substitute one product for another or, to put it another
way, to switch his/her demand from one product to another. If the consumer would be willing
and able to substitute one product for another, there is said to be cross-elasticity of demand.
Page reference: 186
*not completed
What does supply substitutability concern?
The capacity of other producers to increase production. incorrect
The capability of other producers to supply substitutable products. correct
The efficiency of distribution networks. incorrect
Consumer perception of similar products. incorrect
In Continental Can, the Court of Justice found that the Commission had not assessed supply-
side substitutability. To make this assessment, it is necessary to determine whether there are
any producers of similar products which could easily and cheaply, by simple adaptation of
their production, begin to produce substitutes acceptable to the consumer.
Page reference: 187
*not completed
How might predatory pricing be characterized?

As an exploitative abuse. incorrect
As an anti-competitive abuse. correct
As an indicator of dominance. incorrect
As a feature of the relevant product market. incorrect
Predatory pricing is an anti-competitive abuse consisting of the reduction of prices below the
cost of production. A dominant undertaking with significant resources may use a predatory
pricing strategy to drive existing competitors from the market or to prevent market entry by a
potential competitor. Ultimately, predatory pricing harms consumers, when the dominant
undertaking, having eliminated competition, is able to raise its prices without constraint.
Page reference: 193
What does 'direct effects' mean?
EU law is automatically part of national law. incorrect
The judicial enforcement of rights arising from provisions of EU law, which can be upheld in
favour of individuals in the courts of the member States. correct
EU law can be directly applied by the member States. incorrect
The ability to take a case directly before the European Court of Justice. incorrect
Direct effects is the term given to the judicial enforcement of rights arising from provisions
of EU law, which can be upheld in favour of individuals in the courts of the member States.
*not completed
Provided that certain criteria are satisfied, an EU law provision will give rise to a right that is
enforceable by individuals in the national courts.
True correct
False incorrect
Correct. To be capable of direct effects that are enforceable in the national courts, an EU law
provision must satisfy the criteria established by the European Court of Justice.
*not completed
To which of the following can direct effects can be applied?
Treaty Articles only. incorrect
Regulations only. incorrect
All forms of EU law. correct

Directives only. incorrect
Direct effects have been declared by the European Court of Justice in a series of cases in
respect of treaty Articles, Regulations, Directives, Decisions, and provisions of international
agreements to which the EU is a signatory.
*not completed
The leading case of ___ ____ __ ____ was the case in which the European Court of Justice
first introduced direct effects.
Your response
| Correct response: Van Gend en Loos

If there is any case which must be known it is this one!
*not completed
In Case C-152/84 Marshall, the European Court of Justice held that Directives could be
enforced horizontally by one individual against another.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. Quite the opposite: the CoJ held that Directives could not be so enforced.
*not completed
Emanations of the State against which direct effects are available were those bodies that are
which of the following?
Part of the central government. incorrect
Maintained with State money. incorrect
Public service providers under the control of the State and which, for that purpose, are
granted special powers. correct
Completely unconnected with the private sector. incorrect
In Foster v British Gas, the European Court of Justice held that it was those bodies that
provide a public service under the control of the State and which, for that purpose, are
granted special powers.
*not completed
'Indirect effects' is the principle that, further to ex Art. 10 EC (now 4(3) TEU), requires all
authorities of member States, including the courts, to interpret national law in such a way as
to ensure the obligations of a Directive are obeyed.
True correct
False incorrect
This was the principle established in the von Colson case.
*not completed
'Incidental horizontal effects' means that Directives can be enforced between individuals.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. Directives are being interpreted to determine the validity of national law in an
action that may affect the legal position of a private party to a court action. Any such
incidental effect applies only to prevent reliance on national law not conforming to EU law.
*not completed
The principle of 'State liability' means which of the following?
Member States are liable to implement all EU law. incorrect
Member States must pay fines to the Commission for breaches of EU law. incorrect
Member States are liable to be taken by individuals before the European Court of Justice for
breaches of EU law. incorrect
Member States should make good any damage caused to individuals that was the
consequence of a breach of EU law. correct
It is the liability that member States should make good any damage caused to individuals that
was the consequence of a breach of EU law according to the European Court of Justice
in Francovich.
*not completed
In order for liability to arise on the part of the member State, there must have been a
sufficiently serious breach of a superior rule of law designed for the protection of individuals.
True correct
False incorrect
That is the standard that the European Court of Justice held to be applicable in Factortame
(No. 3).
*not completed
The 'autonomy of national procedural law' means which of the following?
National procedural law must create new rules for EU law rights. incorrect
It is up to each member State to determine the procedural conditions governing court actions
even if involving EU law. correct
National procedural law must be repealed. incorrect
National procedural law can never apply to EU law. incorrect
even if involving EU law provided that national rules are no less favourable for Community
law rights as for domestic situations, nor make the EU law right impossible to realize.
What does 'direct effects' mean?
EU law is automatically part of national law. incorrect
The judicial enforcement of rights arising from provisions of EU law, which can be upheld in
favour of individuals in the courts of the member States. correct
EU law can be directly applied by the member States. incorrect
The ability to take a case directly before the European Court of Justice. incorrect
Direct effects is the term given to the judicial enforcement of rights arising from provisions
of EU law, which can be upheld in favour of individuals in the courts of the member States.
*not completed
Provided that certain criteria are satisfied, an EU law provision will give rise to a right that is
enforceable by individuals in the national courts.
True correct
False incorrect
Correct. To be capable of direct effects that are enforceable in the national courts, an EU law
provision must satisfy the criteria established by the European Court of Justice.
*not completed
To which of the following can direct effects can be applied?

Treaty Articles only. incorrect
Regulations only. incorrect
All forms of EU law. correct
Directives only. incorrect
Direct effects have been declared by the European Court of Justice in a series of cases in
respect of treaty Articles, Regulations, Directives, Decisions, and provisions of international
agreements to which the EU is a signatory.
*not completed
The leading case of ___ ____ __ ____ was the case in which the European Court of Justice
first introduced direct effects.
Your response
| Correct response: Van Gend en Loos

If there is any case which must be known it is this one!
*not completed
In Case C-152/84 Marshall, the European Court of Justice held that Directives could be
enforced horizontally by one individual against another.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. Quite the opposite: the CoJ held that Directives could not be so enforced.
*not completed
Emanations of the State against which direct effects are available were those bodies that are
Part of the central government. incorrect
Maintained with State money. incorrect
Public service providers under the control of the State and which, for that purpose, are
granted special powers. correct
Completely unconnected with the private sector. incorrect
In Foster v British Gas, the European Court of Justice held that it was those bodies that
provide a public service under the control of the State and which, for that purpose, are
granted special powers.
*not completed
'Indirect effects' is the principle that, further to ex Art. 10 EC (now 4(3) TEU), requires all
authorities of member States, including the courts, to interpret national law in such a way as
to ensure the obligations of a Directive are obeyed.
True correct
False incorrect
This was the principle established in the von Colson case.
*not completed
'Incidental horizontal effects' means that Directives can be enforced between individuals.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. Directives are being interpreted to determine the validity of national law in an
action that may affect the legal position of a private party to a court action. Any such
incidental effect applies only to prevent reliance on national law not conforming to EU law.
*not completed
The principle of 'State liability' means which of the following?
Member States are liable to implement all EU law. incorrect
Member States must pay fines to the Commission for breaches of EU law. incorrect
Member States are liable to be taken by individuals before the European Court of Justice for
breaches of EU law. incorrect
Member States should make good any damage caused to individuals that was the
consequence of a breach of EU law. correct
It is the liability that member States should make good any damage caused to individuals that
was the consequence of a breach of EU law according to the European Court of Justice
in Francovich.
*not completed
In order for liability to arise on the part of the member State, there must have been a
sufficiently serious breach of a superior rule of law designed for the protection of individuals.
True correct
False incorrect
That is the standard that the European Court of Justice held to be applicable in Factortame
(No. 3).
*not completed
The 'autonomy of national procedural law' means which of the following?
National procedural law must create new rules for EU law rights. incorrect
even if involving EU law. correct
National procedural law must be repealed. incorrect
National procedural law can never apply to EU law. incorrect
even if involving EU law provided that national rules are no less favourable for Community
law rights as for domestic situations, nor make the EU law right impossible to realize.
The basic definition of the internal market in Art. 26 TFEU is: 'An area without internal
frontiers in which the free movement of _____, _______, ________ ___ _______ is ensured.'
Your response
| Correct response: goods, persons, services and capital

The terms internal, common and single are all used to describe the EU market without
internal borders
*not completed
A customs union involves which of the following?
The agreement of a common set of tariffs between members. incorrect
A complete ban on imports from outside the customs union. incorrect
The removal of customs duties between member States and the creation of a common
external tariff whereby the same duties are imposed on goods entering the customs union
regardless of from where they are imported. correct
The establishment of the same customs tariff for all goods from all countries. incorrect
It involves the removal of customs duties between member States and the creation of a
common external tariff.
*not completed
'Negative integration' is achieved by modifying existing national laws and institutions either
through harmonization or the creation of new laws. 'Positive integration' is the removal of
existing impediments to free movement, such as the striking down of national rules and
practices that obstruct or prevent achievement of the internal market.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. The definitions are the wrong way round.
*not completed
The Common Customs Tariff (CCT) is which of the following?
A single tariff rate for all goods entering the Union. incorrect
A single customs protocol on import rules for the Union. incorrect
A single tariff list for goods entering the Union at any point of import. correct
A list of goods commonly imported. incorrect
It is a single tariff list for goods entering the Union at any point of import. Once in so-called
'free' circulation, no further tariffs may be imposed on those goods.
*not completed
A 'charge having equivalent effect' is defined as which of the following?
A charge that is a part of the taxation system. incorrect
Any pecuniary charge, however small and whatever its designation and mode of application,
which is imposed unilaterally on domestic or foreign goods by virtue of the fact that they
cross a frontier. correct
A charge made for any paperwork formalities. incorrect
A charge that is made when a service is provided. incorrect
The European Court of Justice defined this in Commission v Luxembourg as any pecuniary
charge, however small and whatever its designation and mode of application, which is
imposed unilaterally on domestic or foreign goods by virtue of the fact that they cross a
frontier.
*not completed
A charge is valid for a service rendered under which of the following?
When goods cross a frontier. incorrect

When goods are stored for customs clearance. incorrect
Inspections that are mandatory and uniform for all of the products in question in the EU, if
they are provided for by EU law in the interests of the EU and if they promote the free
movement of goods. correct
If required by national law. incorrect
They are valid under inspections that are mandatory and uniform for all of the products in
question in the EU, if they are provided for by EU law in the interests of the EU and if they
promote the free movement of goods. This was outlined by the European Court of Justice in
Case C-18/87 Commission v Germany.
*not completed
Article 110 TFEU allows member States to impose import taxes on goods when entering the
country.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. They cannot impose import taxes, but only taxes that equate with a domestic tax.
*not completed
If a charge imposed by a member State on imported goods is a measure of internal taxation

that is non-discriminatory, then it cannot be a charge having equivalent effect and cannot be
caught by Arts 28–30 TFEU. It is governed instead by Art. 110 TFEU, which deals with
internal taxation.
True correct
False incorrect
They are mutually exclusive categories.

Page reference: Section 10.3.3
*not completed
When considering the application of Art. 110(2) TFEU to other products, the focus is on
whether the products can be bought at the same time.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. It is more on whether they are substitutable.

Article 34 TFEU is concerned with actions of the State only.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. There are times at which the activities of private bodies are also caught when some
State involvement is engaged.
*not completed
Measures having equivalent effect do not include which of the following circumstances?
National promotional campaigns. incorrect
Discriminatory national marketing rules. incorrect
A complete import ban or quota imposition. correct
Product classification. incorrect
Whilst correct, a complete import ban or quota imposition would simply be prohibited
measures and not equivalents. The rest, however have also been included by case law.
*not completed
The list of derogations allowed the member States under Art. 36 TFEU can be added to by
case law.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. While the Cassis de Dijon case does appear to add to them, in reality, it does not
fall within Art. 36 TFEU, which is exhaustive.
*not completed
A prohibition on the grounds of public health will always be justified under Art. 36 TFEU.
True incorrect
False correct
It has to meet the criteria set out by the European Court of Justice in case law.
*not completed
The second sentence of Art. 36 TFEU provides: 'Such prohibitions or restrictions shall not,
however, constitute a means of _________ ______________ or a disguised restriction on
trade between Member States.'
Your response
| Correct response: arbitrary discrimination

i.e., Article 36 TFEU should not allow the member states the possibility of discriminating
under the excuse of a justified restriction.
*not completed
Which of the following describes 'indistinctly applicable' measures?
Those that are indistinct as to whether they apply to all products. incorrect
Those that apply to domestic products only. incorrect
Those that apply to imports only. incorrect
Those that apply to both imports and domestic goods. correct
On the face of it certainly, they apply equally to imports and domestic products.
*not completed
Apart from confirming the principle of equivalence, the Cassis de Dijon case made which of
the following clear?
The law of logic. incorrect
The principle of proportionality. incorrect
The rule of reason. correct
The tenet of truism. incorrect
It was the rule of reason, as first outlined in the Dassonville case.
*not completed
Which of the following describes 'mandatory measures'?
Those that are required by EU law. incorrect
Those that are required by the parties to a case. incorrect
Those that are required by national law. correct
Those that are needed to satisfy the product associations. incorrect
While a EU interest would take precedence, mandatory requirements are a matter of national
law.
*not completed
A dual burden rule imposes the same burden on imports as it does on domestic products.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. This would be an equal burden rule, whereas a dual burden rule adds a burden to
imports that have already probably had to satisfy the same burden in their State of origin.
*not completed
Which of the following describes 'certain selling arrangements'?
Types of product requirement. incorrect
Measures dealing with where, when, how, and by whom goods may be sold. correct
Technical standards for products. incorrect
Trade rules on the marketing of products. incorrect
They relate to measures dealing with where, when, how, and by whom goods may be sold.
*not completed
Selling arrangements that hinder market access may also infringe Art. 34 TFEU.
True correct
False incorrect
This acts in a similar manner to the Bosman case in respect of football transfer rules for
persons.
Free movement of workers rights were originally included to do which of the following?
To promote economic development. incorrect
To provide important social rights. incorrect
To help capitalists to find workers. incorrect
Address a combination of economic and social concerns. correct
While this might help to promote economic growth in theory, it was not the only original
basis. The social aspect is now certainly regarded as very important, but it was thought to be
less so originally. It is not even certain that it would be effective in helping capitalists find
workers.
*not completed
Under Art. 45 TFEU, 'freedom of movement shall entail the abolition of any discrimination
based on nationality between workers of the Member States as regards employment,
____________ and other conditions of work and employment'.
Your response
| Correct response: Remuneration

Clearly, workers of other countries should be paid the same as nationals and not be
discriminated against.
*not completed
In order to benefit from the rights of free movement of workers, a person does not have to be
a national of one of the member States.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. Workers have to be nationals, but family members need not.
*not completed
In which of the following ways does EU law define a 'worker'?
Someone who is in work. incorrect
Someone who is in full-time employment. incorrect
Someone who has never been unemployed. incorrect
Someone working full time, part time, or seeking work, or linked to studies. correct
It is not as restrictively defined as this—see the European Court of Justice judgments on this.
*not completed
Once defined as a worker, a person is entitled to all of the benefits of that status.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. When not in actual employment, the additional benefits of the status of worker may
not accrue, as in the Lebon case.
*not completed
Failure to comply with a host State's administrative requirements by an EU worker will allow
the host State to do which of the following?
Deport the EU national. incorrect
Impose a custodial sentence. incorrect
Impose penalties in line with those imposed on nationals for breaches of similar rules. correct
Impose the maximum administrative penalty. incorrect
That would be disproportionate and contrary both to prior case law and to Directive
2004/38/EC.
*not completed
The social and tax advantages under Art. 7(2) of Regulation 492/2011 refer to which of the
following?
Those of the worker only. incorrect
Social and tax matters only. incorrect
Any advantages or benefits enjoyed by national workers or their families. correct
Only those related to the contract of employment of the worker. incorrect
The European Court of Justice has interpreted this much more widely.
*not completed
'Family', for the purposes of free movement, is defined as which of the following?
Immediate family members only. incorrect
Family members on the side of the worker only. incorrect
Ascendants and descendants on the side of the worker, and spouse or partner, and
dependants. correct
The parents of the worker. incorrect
This is now much more widely provided for by Directive 2004/38 and includes ascendants
and descendants on the side of the worker, and spouse or partner, and dependants.
*not completed
The free movement of the self-employed can only be best achieved by harmonization of the
various professions.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. For some exceptional professions, that has been tried, but mutual recognition now
is the preferred solution.
*not completed
A decision to deport must be based on which of the following grounds?
The past criminal record of the person concerned. incorrect
The views of the national authorities. incorrect
The availability of resources. incorrect
The personal conduct of the person concerned. correct
It must be based on the personal conduct of the person concerned, see Directive 2004/38, Art
27.
*not completed
The derogation relating to the public service includes which of the following?
All those working for any public body. incorrect
Those working for a central civil service of the local authorities. incorrect
Those who exercise powers conferred by public law and who are there to safeguard the
interests of State. correct
Those who work directly for a member State government in a decision-taking

capacity. incorrect
This has now been defined by the European Court of Justice as those who exercise powers
conferred by public law and who are there to safeguard the interests of State.
A Competition law policy for the EU was an optional extra and not necessarily required for
the success of the Internal Market
True incorrect
False correct
Without a policy which provided that undertaking could not divide and fragment the market,
the other fundamental element of the EU, that of the free movement of goods would have
been seriously undermined.
*not completed
Which of the following conditions is not required to establish a breach of Art 101 TFEU
Affecting trade between Member States incorrect
The object or effect of the prevention, restriction or distortion of competition within the
common market incorrect
A confession by the companies involved in anti-competitive behaviour correct
an agreement between undertakings, or a decision by an association of undertakings or a

concerted practice incorrect
A confession is not needed but the other three elements are required to establish a breach of
Art 101 TFEU
*not completed
"Any agreements or decisions prohibited pursuant to this Article shall be ------------- ----"
Your response
| Correct response: Automatically void

Where possible though offending clauses can be severed rather than making the entire
agreement void.
*not completed
Which alternative is not an example of an abuse of a dominant position
Unfair trading conditions or pricing incorrect
Offering credit facilities correct
Limiting production or supply incorrect
Imposing unconnected supplementary conditions incorrect
Art 102 TFEU provides examples of abusive behaviour. Offering credit facilities is not
abusive behaviour.
*not completed
The Basic definition of the relevant market includes the product and geographic markets
True correct
False incorrect
Those are the two main elements although a temporal market may also be relevant in some
cases.
*not completed
Any abuse by one or more undertakings of a dominant position within the common market or
in a substantial part of it - shall be prohibited as incompatible with the common market -
insofar as it may affect ----- between Member States.
Your response
| Correct response: 'trade'

In some way the model of flow of trade must be affected.
Sex discrimination provisions were originally included for which of the following main
reasons?
The early provision of social equality laws. incorrect
As the first of the fundamental rights to be given a place in the Community (now EU) legal
order. incorrect
To ensure that economic conditions in the workplace were broadly equivalent in all member
States. correct
To encourage more women to enter the workforce. incorrect
Correct. The reason finding most favour was to ensure that economic conditions in the
workplace were broadly equivalent in all member States. There was no need to encourage
more women to enter the workforce at that time.
*not completed
The original Treaty base was not considered extensive enough and has now been expanded by
amendment.
True correct
False incorrect
It was expanded by the Treaty of Amsterdam.
*not completed
The concept of 'equal pay' concerns which of the following?
Only matters concerned directly with pay. incorrect
Pay and overtime payments only. incorrect
Pay and direct benefits only. incorrect
Anything arising out of the contract with the employer. correct

It has been interpreted much more widely to include anything arising out of the contract with
the employer - as interpreted following the Barber case.
*not completed
The ruling in Barber was held to be so significant that it was to apply prospectively only and
not to any backdated claims.
True correct
False incorrect
It was so held due to the potential adverse economic effect on commerce and industry.
*not completed
Indirect discrimination can be objectively justified on which of the following grounds?
Economic necessity on the part of the employer. incorrect
Overriding national legislation. incorrect
As corresponding to a genuine need of the enterprise, suitable for attaining the objective
pursued by the enterprise, and proportionate. correct
As part of an industrial agreement. incorrect
Economic necessity on the part of the employer are insufficient grounds. It is not acceptable
to override the EU law on the matter. It can be objectively justified on the grounds that the
discrimination corresponds to a genuine need of the enterprise, suitable for attaining the
objective pursued by the enterprise, and proportionate—as developed by the case law of the
European Court of Justice.
*not completed
In actions to prove discrimination on the grounds of sex, it is for the applicant to prove
discrimination.
True incorrect
False correct
Incorrect. Firstly under case law and then under Art 19 of Directive 2006/54, the burden is on
the employer to show that discrimination was not based on sex.
*not completed
It is possible, under the Equal Treatment Directive, to exempt certain occupations from the
application of the equal treatment principle.
True correct
False incorrect
It is, but such exemption is subject to objective justifications as outlined in the case law of the
European Court of Justice.
*not completed
Pregnancy is an absolute protection against dismissal from work or the failure to be taken on
under EU law.
True correct
False incorrect
From the case law, Pregnancy itself would appear to be so.
*not completed
Once the special period of protection of pregnancy and maternity leave has expired, a woman
can be dismissed for taking excessive illness time from work under normal circumstances.
True correct
False incorrect
Time can only start to accrue for dismissal purposes after the period of protection has ended.
*not completed
Positive discrimination in EU law permits which of the following?
Women to be appointed in preference to men in all circumstances. incorrect
Priority for women only if the candidates are objectively assessed to determine whether there
are any factors tilting the balance in favour of a male candidate and that such criteria
employed do not discriminate against women. correct
Women to be appointed with equal qualifications. incorrect
Women to be appointed in the event of any doubt whatsoever. incorrect
Positive discrimination in EU law permits priority for women only if the candidates are
objectively assessed to determine whether there are any factors tilting the balance in favour of
a male candidate and that such criteria employed do not discriminate against women - as
determined from the European Court of Justice case law.
*not completed
EU sex discrimination law requires national procedural law, which would otherwise remain
within the jurisdiction of the member States, to be amended to give full effect to EU law
rights, including that of adequate compensation above national limits.
True correct
False incorrect
While this seems to be going further than the member States agreed, this is nevertheless the
conclusion of the European Court of Justice case law.
1. Which is the correct order in which these treaties were signed?
Single European Act, Treaty of Amsterdam, Nice Treaty, Treaty on European Union incorrect
Treaty on European Union, Single European Act, Nice Treaty, Treaty of Amsterdam incorrect
Single European Act, Treaty on European Union, Treaty of Amsterdam, Nice Treaty correct
Single European Act, Treaty of Amsterdam, Nice Treaty, Treaty on European Union incorrect
The correct order is: SEA (1986), TEU (1992), Treaty of Amsterdam (1997), and the Treaty
of Nice (2001).
*not completed
2. Which of the following established the EU?
Maastricht Treaty correct
Nice Treaty incorrect
Treaty of Amsterdam incorrect
Laeken Declaration incorrect
The Maastricht Treaty (also known as the Treaty on European Union [TEU]) established the
EU.
*not completed
3. Two intergovernmental conferences (IGCs) preceded the Treaty on European Union. What
were they about?
Economic and Monetary Union (EMU) and European citizenship incorrect
Economic and Monetary Union (EMU) and political union correct

European citizenship and enlargement incorrect
Enlargement and political union incorrect
The two IGCs (held in 1990) were on the subjects of EMU and political union.
Section reference: 2.5, 2.6
*not completed
4. Which of the following prepared the EU for enlargement?
Maastricht Treaty incorrect
Single European Act incorrect
Nice Treaty correct
Although it was intended that the Treaty of Amsterdam (1997) would introduce institutional
reform in preparation for enlargement, it largely failed to do so. It was the Treaty of Nice
(2001) that paved the way for European enlargement.
*not completed
5. Which of the following was not a theme in the 'Future of Europe' debate?
The creation of a Charter of Fundamental Rights correct
The creation of a Constitution for Europe incorrect
The role of national parliaments in Europe incorrect
Simplification of treaties incorrect
The Charter of Fundamental Rights had already been proclaimed at the Nice European
Council.
*not completed
6. Which of the following established European citizenship?
Treaty on European Union correct

The TEU (1992) established European citizenship.
*not completed
7. Complete the following sentence: 'European citizenship was created ...
... as a replacement for national citizenship.' incorrect
... in addition to national citizenship.' correct
... as optional for citizens of EU member states.' incorrect
... as a special privilege for European leaders.' incorrect
European citizenship was conferred upon all citizens of EU member states, in addition to
their national citizenship status. The Treaty of Amsterdam (1997) re-emphasized that EU
citizenship does not undermine national citizenship.
*not completed
8. With respect to the TEU (1992), which of the following was not thought to undermine
European 'union'?
A 'three-tier' EMU incorrect
National opt-outs incorrect
The pillar structure incorrect
European citizenship correct
Following TEU (1992), there were fears that a three-tier EMU, national opt-outs, and the
pillar structure all contributed to the fragmentation of Europe.
*not completed
9. Which European institution gained decision-making power through the introduction of the
ordinary legislative procedure?
Commission incorrect
Council incorrect
ECJ incorrect
Parliament correct
The European Parliament is granted a second reading of proposed legislation under the
ordinary legislative procedure (OLP). The OLP was originally called the cooperation
procedure.
*not completed
10. The Court of First Instance was created to support which institution?
European Court of Justice correct
The Court of First Instance was created by the SEA (1986) to support the work of the ECJ.
When was the 'Future of Europe' debate launched?
1997 incorrect
2007 incorrect
2000 correct
2004 incorrect
The 'Future of Europe' debate was launched in 2000 at the Nice European Council. It was
furthered by the Laeken Declaration adopted in 2001.
*not completed
2. Which of the following was not a feature of the Convention on the Future of Europe
('European Convention')?
Representatives from national member state governments incorrect
Representatives from candidate countries incorrect
Attempts at open and inclusive discussion incorrect
High levels of popular and media interest correct
Despite the attempts made to create an open and inclusive forum and the inclusion of a wide
variety of actors, there was little public interest in the European Convention. It remained the
domain of a self-selecting European elite.
*not completed
3. The European Convention prepared and presented a draft treaty to the European Council in
June 2003. How was the draft treaty considered?
A complete failure incorrect
A good basis for negotiation correct
A complete success incorrect
The European Convention failed to produce a draft. incorrect
The draft treaty was considered a 'good basis' for negotiation. Despite all the amendments to
the text, 90% of the Treaty establishing a Constitution for Europe came from the Convention
draft.
*not completed
4. When was the complete version of the Treaty establishing a Constitution for Europe
signed?
June 2001 incorrect
October 2001 incorrect
June 2004 incorrect
October 2004 correct
The treaty was signed on 29 October 2004 in the same building as the 1957 Treaty of Rome
was signed.
*not completed
5. Which two countries voted against the Treaty establishing a Constitution for Europe?
France and the Netherlands correct
France and the UK incorrect
Czech Republic and the UK incorrect
Ireland and the Netherlands incorrect

The two 'No' votes from France and the Netherlands in 2004 marked the beginning of a
constitutional crisis in Europe.
*not completed
6. In 2007, under which Council presidency was a discussion about the EU's constitutional
situation successfully launched?
Portuguese incorrect
Italy incorrect
French incorrect
German correct
The Chancellor of Germany, Angela Merkel, was a believer in the Constitutional Treaty. As
such, she was focused on reviving discussion and achieving resolution to the crisis under the
German presidency of the Council in the first half of 2007.
*not completed
7. Which of the following is incorrect?
The Treaty of Lisbon adopts the Charter of Fundamental Rights. incorrect
The Treaty of Lisbon replaces all existing treaties. correct
The Treaty of Lisbon does not contain the constitutional elements found in the Constitutional
Treaty. incorrect
The Treaty of Lisbon increases the power of the European Parliament. incorrect
As opposed to replacing the existing treaties, the Treaty of Lisbon is an amending treaty.
Upon entering into force, it altered the existing TEU and TEC (the latter was changed to the
TFEU). The TEU and TFEU are known as the 'EU Treaties'.
*not completed
8. How does the Treaty of Lisbon affect the democratic credentials of the EU?
It strengthens them. correct
It weakens them. incorrect
It leaves them unchanged. incorrect

None of the above incorrect
The Treaty of Lisbon makes clear democratic improvements to the EU. Amongst other
changes, it increases the power of the European and national parliaments, it introduces the
citizens' initiative, and it makes the Charter of Fundamental Rights legally binding.
*not completed
9. With respect to the ratification of the Lisbon Treaty, which country voted twice?
Czech Republic incorrect
Denmark incorrect
Ireland correct
UK incorrect
Ireland voted 'No' to the Lisbon Treaty in a referendum held in June 2008. To address the
particular concerns of the Irish voters, Irish concessions were agreed at the European Council
of December 2008. A second referendum was held in October 2009, in which Ireland voted
'Yes'.
*not completed
10. Which of the following is the most accurate?
The Treaty of Lisbon has revolutionized the working of the EU. incorrect
Since ratification of the Treaty of Lisbon, apathy and a lack of interest in the EU have
returned. correct
Following the Treaty of Lisbon, further treaty change is highly unlikely. incorrect
The revision procedures introduced by Lisbon have yet to be used. incorrect
Aside from the crisis in the euro area, following the Treaty of Lisbon the EU has continued to
function as before. Despite the hopes that Lisbon would put an end to treaty reform in the
foreseeable future, this has not been the case. The revision procedures introduced by Lisbon
were put into action fairly quickly and further treaty change is likely.
1. Who introduced neo-functionalism as a theory of integration?
Ernst B. Haas correct
Jean Monnet incorrect

Andrew Moravcsik incorrect
Alec Stone Sweet and Wayne Sandholtz incorrect
Ernst B. Haas introduced neo-functionalism in 1958 in his book, The Uniting of Europe:
Political, Social and Economic Forces 1950–1957.
*not completed
2. Complete the following phrase. 'Neo-functionalism was originally intended as ...
a response to the failures of intergovernmentalism.' incorrect
a grand theory of integration.' correct
a theory of integration for Latin America.' incorrect
a partial theory of integration.' incorrect
Haas aimed to create a grand theory of integration which would explain processes of regional
integration in other parts of the world; however, neo-functionalism became firmly associated
with integration in Europe.
*not completed
3. What is the focus of neo-functionalism?
The final result of integration incorrect
The initial conditions prior to integration incorrect
Cost/benefit calculations of actors incorrect
The process of integration correct
Neo-functionalism is concerned with the process of integration.

*not completed
4. When did neo-functionalism fall out of favour as a theory of European integration?
1950s incorrect
1960s incorrect
1970s correct
1980s incorrect
Neo-functionalism was a popular theory of European integration up until the 1970s. Up to
this time (during the 1950s and 1960s) it successfully reflected the pattern of integration in
Europe.
*not completed
5. Which of the following is not a feature of neo-functionalism?
Elite socialization incorrect
European summits correct
Spillover incorrect
Supranational interest groups incorrect
European summits are part of an intergovernmental approach to integration. All the others
reflect (supranational) neo-functionalism.
*not completed
6. Which of the following is not a type of spillover predicted by neo-functionalism?
Cultivated incorrect
Functional incorrect
Political incorrect
Federal correct
Cultivated, functional (or technical), and political spillover are three different kinds of
spillover process predicted by neofunctionalism.
*not completed
7. Which of the following did not challenge neo-functionalism as a theory of integration?
The 'empty chair crisis' incorrect
The important role of national political leaders incorrect
The pace of integration during the 1970s and early1980s incorrect
The increasing importance of the European Parliament correct

The European Parliament is a supranational institution which has displayed characteristics of
'elite socialization' as predicted by neo-functionalism. The other factors were used to indicate
the unsuitability of neo-functionalism as a theory of European integration.
*not completed
8. Individuals in which two institutions are more likely to undergo the process of elite
socialization according to neo-functionalism?
Commission and EU Council incorrect
Commission and European Council incorrect
EU Council and European Council incorrect
European Parliament and Commission correct
As the Commission and the European Parliament are the most supranational of the
institutions listed, individuals in these institutions are more likely to undergo elite
socialization. The EU Council and the European Council are more firmly intergovernmental
institutions.
*not completed
9. Complete the following: 'Neo-functionalism predicts that integration will become less
political and more ...
... economic.' incorrect
... social.' incorrect
... technocratic.' correct
... randomized.' incorrect
Due to the socialization of elites, neo-functionalism predicts that integration will become less
political and more technocratic as a less political agenda affords greater scope for agreement.
*not completed
10. Which of the following does neo-functionalism fail to address?
The need to develop European interest groups incorrect
The need to cultivate legitimacy of EU governance correct

The role of Commission officials in furthering integration incorrect
The role of political and administrative elites incorrect
Neo-functionalism assumed that if political elites cooperated, then the people of the EU
would follow. This, however, has been highlighted as a major weakness in neo-functionalism
as this elite-focused approach overlooked the importance of securing legitimacy for EU
governance.
1. When was intergovernmentalism introduced as a theory of European integration?
1950s incorrect
1960s correct
1970s incorrect
1980s incorrect
Intergovernmentalism was introduced in the mid-1960s as a response to the failures of neo-

functionalism to provide a suitable account of European integration.
*not completed
2. Which of the following is not a feature of intergovernmentalism?
Elite socialization correct
State-centrism incorrect
Zero-sum bargaining process incorrect
Protection of national sovereignty incorrect
Elite socialization is a feature of neo-functionalism, not intergovernmentalism.

Intergovernmentalism is concerned with benefit/cost calculations of individual states in an
intergovernmental decision-making process.
*not completed
3. What would be an appropriate replacement for the word 'sovereignty'?
Isolation incorrect
Dependence incorrect
Independence correct
Interdependence incorrect
Independence is often used as a synonym for 'sovereignty'. It is an idea at the very heart of
intergovernmentalism.
*not completed
4. Which of the following institutions plays a central role in intergovernmentalism?
EU Council correct
European Court of Justice incorrect
The EU Council plays a central role in intergovernmentalism as it is here that member states
present and defend their national interests.
*not completed
5. With respect to classical intergovernmentalism, which of the following is considered 'low

politics'?
Matters in the economic sphere correct
Matters in the political sphere incorrect
Matters in the social sphere incorrect
Matters of national sovereignty incorrect
Classical intergovernmentalism distinguishes between high and low politics. High politics
concerns matters in the political sphere that are more likely to be controversial as they touch
upon national sovereignty and identity. Low politics concerns the economic sphere and
involves technocratic matters that are less controversial.
*not completed
6. With respect to the influence of classical intergovernmentalism on integration theories,

which of the following is the most accurate?
It has played a minor role with respect to confederalism. incorrect
It fuelled the development of supranational theories of integration. incorrect

It informed the development of other forms of intergovernmentalism. correct
It has not been at all influential. incorrect
Hoffman's intergovernmentalism has played a significant role in informing the development

of alternative intergovernmentalist approaches.
*not completed
7. Who developed the theory of liberal intergovernmentalism?
Haas incorrect
Hoffman incorrect
Moravcsik correct
Pierson incorrect
The theory of liberal intergovernmentalism was developed by Andrew Moravcsik in the

1990s.
*not completed
8. Which of the following does liberal intergovernmentalism not use to understand the
demand and supply sides of inter-state cooperation?
Relative power incorrect
Economic interest incorrect
Powers of persuasion correct
Credible commitments incorrect
Liberal intergovernmentalism draws on the theories of economic interest, relative power, and
credible commitments to explore 'demand' and 'supply'.
*not completed
9. According to liberal intergovernmentalism, which of the following is the most accurate?
Power may be transferred to supranational institutions in order to maximize the potential of

European integration. incorrect
Power may be transferred to supranational institutions in order to increase the efficiency of

inter-state bargaining. incorrect
Power may be delegated to supranational institutions in order to increase the efficiency of
inter-state bargaining. correct
Power may be delegated to supranational institutions in order to maximize the integration

potential. incorrect
According to liberal intergovernmentalism, power may be delegated to supranational

institutions in order to improve the efficiency of inter-state bargaining.
*not completed
10. Which of the following is not a critique of liberal intergovernmentalism?
It does not reflect the actual process of integration. incorrect
It uses a very narrow conception of the state. incorrect
It underplays the constraints faced by policy-makers. incorrect
It overplays the supranational dimension of integration. correct
Liberal intergovernmentalism focuses on the role of individual member states, as opposed to

the supranational elements of integration.
1. In terms of European integration theory, the 'classical debate' is between which of the
following?
Neo-functionalism and intergovernmentalism correct
International relations and international political economy incorrect
Feminism and Marxism incorrect
Historical institutionalism and social constructivism incorrect
It is the debate between neo-functionalism and intergovernmentalism that is termed the

'classical debate'. These two schools remain common reference points in contemporary
theoretical discussions.
*not completed
2. Taking a comparative political science approach to the study of the EU, the EU is
understood as what?
A unique regional organization incorrect

A state incorrect
A political system correct
A Free Trade Area incorrect
The move to comparative political science as an approach to investigate the EU is based on

the appreciation of the EU as a political system. As such, it can be compared to other
functioning political systems.
*not completed
3. What is the focus of the 'new institutionalisms'?
Analysis of formal institutions of governance incorrect
Analysis of informal institutions of governance incorrect
Analysis of formal and informal institutions of governance correct
The 'new institutionalisms' analyse both the formal and informal institutions of governance,
and the impact they have on policy outcomes.
*not completed
4. Which of the following 'institutionalisms' rejects the inherent rationalism of the others?
Rational choice institutionalism incorrect
Historical institutionalism incorrect
Sociological institutionalism correct
Sociological institutionalism rejects both rational choice and historical institutionalism

because of their inherent rationalism. It adopts a different ontology.
*not completed
5. Which of the following is a relative of Moravcsik's liberal intergovernmentalism?
Rational choice institutionalism correct

Sociological institutionalism incorrect
Rational choice institutionalism is related to Moravcsik's liberal intergovernmentalism.

*not completed
6. Which of the following is not a feature of social constructivist approaches to the EU?
Integration is understood as a process. incorrect
Interests are understood as socially constructed. incorrect
Institutions are taken to constitute the identities of actors. incorrect
Social ontologies are rejected in favour of rationalism. correct
Social constructivism adopts social (as opposed to more rational) ontologies which focus on
the formation of identity and the establishment of norms.
*not completed
7. What does international relations take to be the primary unit of analysis?
Regions incorrect
States correct
Free Trade Areas incorrect
Institutions incorrect
International relations has a state-centric approach to analysis. When thinking about the EU
as an international actor, this focus on states as primary units of analysis is challenged.
*not completed
8. What does IPE stand for?
Integration Politics and Economics incorrect
Institutionalization of Political Elites incorrect
International Political Economy correct
Internationalized Policy Environments incorrect

IPE stands for International Political Economy. It is a field of investigation that looks at the
relationship between political and economic processes.
*not completed
9. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a critical theory?
Commitment to challenging injustices incorrect
Non-mainstream approach incorrect
Acceptance of balance of social and political power correct
Attention to silences incorrect
In challenging injustices, critical theories challenge the social and political balance of power;
they do not accept the status quo.
*not completed
10. In terms of critical theories of the EU, which of the following is incorrect?
Feminist theories analyse gender in EU theory and politics. incorrect
Marxist theories look at the EU within the dynamics of capitalism. incorrect
Foucauldian theories use statistical data exclusively to explore the rationality of economic
integration. correct
Post-structuralist theories emphasize the linguistic construction of Europe. incorrect
Amongst other elements, Foucauldian theories look at how governing actors influence the
statistical and discursive construction of the space they govern.
1. Which of the following is not a feature of the governance approach?
The Euro-polity is taken as an independent variable. incorrect
It provides an alternative to the EU as a nascent state. incorrect
There is one, coherent understanding of 'governance'. correct
It emphasizes the role of non-hierarchical networks. incorrect
Governance means different things to different scholars. Indeed, it is becoming increasingly

difficult to identify a common, coherent understanding of governance. There are, however,
key commonalities that unite the different approaches.
*not completed
2. The factors that have led to the development of governance approaches are predominantly
what?
External factors correct
Internal factors incorrect
External and internal factors incorrect
Governance approaches all refer to something 'new' in the operation of the EU itself.
Therefore, as opposed to being influenced by internal, theoretical factors, the movement
away from traditional approaches has been driven by external factors.
*not completed
3. Multilevel governance was developed in response to which of the following?
Liberal intergovernmentalism correct
Functionalism incorrect
Neo-functionalism incorrect
New modes of governance incorrect
Multilevel governance developed in response to the dominance of Moravcsik's liberal

intergovernmentalism in the 1990s.
*not completed
4. Multilevel governance was initially focused on which of the following?
Environmental policy incorrect
Regional policy correct
Monetary policy incorrect
Employment policy incorrect

Multilevel governance expanded from its initial focus on EU regional policy.
*not completed
5. Multilevel governance looks at which stage of policy-making?
Agenda-setting only incorrect
Implementation only incorrect
Agenda-setting and implementation incorrect
Across the policy-making process correct
Multilevel governance looks at points across the policy-making process, including the
agenda-setting and implementation stages.
*not completed
6. 'New governance' understands the EU as what sort of state?
Welfare state incorrect
Authoritarian state incorrect
Regulatory state correct
'New governance' understands the EU as a regulatory state, as opposed to a welfare state.

Given that the EU cannot use taxes as a means to redistribute, it intervenes in the economy
and society through regulation.
*not completed
7. 'Comitology' takes place in which institution?
European Commission correct

Comitology refers to the decision-making process that results from the delegation of powers
to the European Commission.
*not completed
8. Which of the following is the least appropriate to describe the decision-making process
espoused in the 'new governance' approach?
Non-majoritarian incorrect
Removed from the electoral process incorrect
Liberal democratic correct
Regulatory democratic incorrect
The 'new governance' decision-making process is based on regulatory democracy. Decisions

are taken by non-elected technocrats as opposed to elected representatives. Decision-making
is therefore non-majoritarian and removed from the liberal democratic electoral process.
*not completed
9. Which institution is considered the non-majoritarian backbone of the regulatory state,

along with central banks and independent regulatory agencies?
Executive incorrect
Representative assembly incorrect
Second chamber of the assembly incorrect
Courts correct
The courts provide accountability in terms of judicial review. As such, they are part of the
non-majoritarian backbone of the regulatory state.
*not completed
10. In the provision of democratic legitimation for regulatory decisions, what is the suggested
alternative to the use of representative institutions?
Outsourcing to independent agency incorrect
Comitology incorrect
Deliberative mechanisms correct

Inclusion of additional experts incorrect
Deliberative mechanisms provide another route to secure the democratic legitimation of

regulatory decisions. However, whilst such opportunities do indeed exist, there are limitations
to this deliberative approach in the EU.
1. What is Europeanization?
EU influence on member state policy and processes incorrect
Member state influence on EU policy and processes incorrect
EU influence on third-country policy and processes incorrect
All of the above correct
Although 'Europeanization' is a contested concept it is conventionally concerned with the

interactions between the EU, member states, and third countries.
*not completed
2. What is 'downloading'?
The process through which the EU influences the domestic level correct
The process through which the member states influence the EU level incorrect
The two-way interaction between the EU and the member state incorrect
The specific role of the EU norm entrepreneurs incorrect
In accordance with top-down approaches to Europeanization, EU policies and processes are

'downloaded' to the national level.
*not completed
3. What is 'uploading'?
The process through which the EU influences the domestic level incorrect
The process through which the member states influence the EU level correct
The two-way interaction between the EU and the member state incorrect
The specific role of the national norm entrepreneurs incorrect

In accordance with bottom-up approaches to Europeanization, national preferences are
'uploaded' to the European level.
Section reference:8.4
*not completed
4. What is 'external Europeanization'?
Any interaction between the EU and a third country incorrect
Specifically interactions regarding the CAP between the EU and a third country incorrect
Europeanization of national officials in the European Parliament incorrect
The export of a European model of governance correct
External Europeanization is the term used to describe the EU's influence on third countries,
i.e. non-EU member states. This may happen through (for example) the EU's neighbourhood
policy.
Sections reference: 8.2, 8.3
*not completed
5. Which of the following best describes the effect Europeanization has had on the member
states?
No change incorrect
Uniform Europeanization incorrect
Differential Europeanization correct
Rapid fluctuations incorrect
Europeanization has had varying impacts across the member states. Europeanization has been
differential as opposed to resulting in a convergence.
*not completed
6. With respect to explaining top-down Europeanization, rational choice institutionalism is

concerned with which of the following?
Bargaining power incorrect
The logic of appropriateness incorrect
Changing opportunity structures correct
The power of argument incorrect

Rational choice institutionalism is concerned with changing opportunity structures.
*not completed
7. With respect to explaining top-down Europeanization, sociological institutionalism is

concerned with which of the following?
The logic of appropriateness correct
Changing opportunity structures incorrect
Sociological institutionalism is concerned with the logic of appropriateness.

*not completed
8. With respect to explaining bottom-up Europeanization, rational intergovernmental

approaches are concerned with which of the following?
Bargaining power correct
Rational intergovernmental approaches are concerned with bargaining power.

*not completed
9. With respect to bottom-up Europeanization, constructivist intergovernmental approaches

are concerned with which of the following?
The power of argument correct
Constructivist intergovernmental approaches are concerned with the power of argument.

*not completed
10. Three of the following are features of the sequential approach to Europeanization. Which
of the following is not?
It combines top-down and bottom-up considerations. incorrect
Member states do not passively take EU demands. incorrect
Member states proactively shape European policies. incorrect
Its potential has been exhausted. correct
A sequential perspective to Europeanization seeks to explain both the shaping and taking of
European policies by member states. To date there have been few attempts to integrate these
two approaches.
. Which of the following best describes the EU?
A state incorrect
An international organization incorrect
A supranational polity correct
The EU is best described as a supranational polity as it is more than a state but less than an
international organization.
*not completed
2. Complete the following: 'Legitimacy refers to the level of ________ that the governed
have towards the political system.'
distaste incorrect
sympathy incorrect
apathy incorrect
trust correct
Legitimacy refers to trust levels. This trust comes from both involvement in the decision-
making process and satisfaction with policy outcomes.
*not completed
3. Which of the following describes the role of the executive in the 'Monnet method' of
European integration?
Technical and strong correct
Technical and weak incorrect
Political and strong incorrect
Political and weak incorrect
The Commission is the executive body of the EU. Under the 'Monnet method' of integration,
the technical executive outweighs its weaker, political counterpart (the Parliamentary
Assembly). Decision-making favours technical expertise over democratic participation.
Legitimacy is based on output.
*not completed
4. In 1979 the first direct elections to the European Parliament were held in a bid to achieve
what?
To increase deliberative democracy incorrect
To increase participatory democracy incorrect
To increase representative democracy correct
The first direct elections to the European Parliament took place in 1979 as part of a bid to
boost representative democracy in the 1970s and 1980s.
*not completed
5. Which of the following is not used to explain the difficulty of engaging citizens in
European political debates?
There are no European interest groups. correct
European political parties are weak. incorrect
There is no European media. incorrect
There is no European 'public sphere'. incorrect

There are indeed European interest groups; however, their activity in Brussels is not visible in
member states.
*not completed
6. Three of the following were introduced by the 1992 Maastricht Treaty in order to boost the
representative democracy of the EU. Which of the following was not among them but was
instead introduced by the 2007 Lisbon Treaty?
European citizenship incorrect
Ordinary legislative procedure incorrect
Subsidiarity incorrect
Citizens' initiative correct
The citizens' initiative was introduced by the Lisbon Treaty. The Maastricht Treaty did,
however, strengthen representative democracy and introduce European citizenship, as well as
introducing the principle of subsidiarity.
*not completed
7. Which of the following organizations is primarily concerned with the representation of

civil society organizations in European decision-making?
Committee of the Regions incorrect
Economic and Social Committee correct
Since the end of the 1990s there has been a greater emphasis upon the involvement of civil
society organizations in European decision-making. The Commission has made efforts to
increase participation at the consultation stage of policy-making, whilst the Economic and
Social Committee has become the institution for the representation of civil society.
*not completed
8. The 'governance turn' is associated with three of the following. With which of the
following is it not associated?
Permissive consensus correct

Different modes of governance incorrect
Multiple levels of governance incorrect
Multiple actors incorrect
Permissive consensus is associated with the 'Monnet method' which was characteristic of the
early days of European integration. The 'governance turn' in EU studies took place in the late
1990s and early twenty-first century. It emphasized multiple stages, levels, and modes of
governance, as well as the complex dynamics between the multiple actors involved.
*not completed
The Lisbon Treaty strengthened both representative and participatory democracy. correct
The Lisbon Treaty strengthened representative democracy and weakened participatory

democracy. incorrect
The Lisbon Treaty weakened representative democracy and strengthened participatory

democracy. incorrect
The Lisbon Treaty weakened both representative and participatory democracy. incorrect
Amongst other developments in democracy and legitimacy, the Lisbon Treaty further
strengthened the role of the European Parliament as well as introducing the citizens'
initiative. As such it strengthened both the representative and participatory democratic
credentials of the Union.
*not completed
10. With respect to the economic crisis, which of the following impacts upon the legitimacy
and democratic credentials of the EU?
Transferring power over national budgets to Europe incorrect
Increased levels of unemployment incorrect
National politicians using the EU as a 'scapegoat' incorrect
All three have an effect upon the legitimacy and democratic credentials of the EU. The
transfer of power risks exacerbating the EU's democratic deficit; increased levels of
unemployment throw the EU's output legitimacy into question; and the use at a national level
of the EU as a scapegoat undermines public trust in the EU as an effective political system.
1. Which of the following is not a function of the Commission?
Policy initiation incorrect
Policy monitoring incorrect
Intergovernmental bargaining correct
Mediation between the Council and the Parliament incorrect
As the supranational executive of the EU, the Commission is not responsible for
intergovernmental bargaining, although it does facilitate intergovernmental cooperation. The
key site for intergovernmental bargaining is the EU Council and the European Council.
*not completed
2. In which of the following areas does the Commission not enjoy agenda-setting powers?
Common Foreign and Security Policy correct
Employment policy incorrect
Justice and Home Affairs incorrect
Whilst the Commission develops policy programmes in the area of Common Foreign and
Security Policy, it does not enjoy an agenda-setting role in this policy area.
*not completed
The Commission is purely intergovernmental. incorrect
The Commission displays both intergovernmental and supranational characteristics; however

it is becoming increasingly intergovernmental. incorrect
The Commission is purely supranational. incorrect
The Commission displays both intergovernmental and supranational characteristics; however

it is becoming increasingly European. correct
Despite certain intergovernmental elements, the Commission is increasingly becoming a
'European' (supranational) institution.
*not completed
4. How long is a Commissioner's term of office?
3 years incorrect
4 years incorrect
5 years correct
6 years incorrect
Originally, a Commissioner's term of office was four years; however, this was extended to
five years to mirror the period of office of members of the European Parliament.
*not completed
5. Complete the phrase: 'With respect to the College of Commissioners, over the years the
power of the European Parliament has ...'
... decreased.' incorrect
... increased.' correct
... remained the same.' incorrect
... fluctuated considerably.' incorrect
The role of the European Parliament has grown over the years. It has the power to dismiss the
College of Commissioners, it is involved in the appointment of the College of
Commissioners, and it is consulted during the process to select the Commission President and
must approve the selection.
*not completed
6. With respect to the College of Commissioners, three of the following are correct. Which of
the following is incorrect?
When voting, the President's vote carries the same weight as the other Commissioners'
votes. incorrect
Each Commissioner has his/her own portfolio. incorrect

There is one Commissioner per member state. incorrect
The principal mode of decision-making in the Commission is voting. correct
The Commission aims to reach consensus through processes of arguing and bargaining.
Voting is rare given that the Commission functions on the 'principle of collegiality'; however,
when a vote does take place all the Commissioners (including the President) have an equal
vote.
*not completed
7. Which of the following rights does the Commission President not have?
Right to reject a member state's selection of Commissioner incorrect
Right to reshuffle Commissioners' portfolios incorrect
Right to override the EU Council correct
Right to finalize Commissioners' portfolio allocations incorrect
The Commission President does not have any power over the EU Council.
*not completed
8. Which of the following is a functionally orientated DG?
DG Budget correct
DG Education and Culture incorrect
DG Enterprise and Industry incorrect
DG Environment incorrect
Functional DGs are organized around the functions that they perform, e.g. DG Budget, unlike
sectoral DGs which are organized around sectors, e.g. DG Education and Culture.
*not completed
9. How many expert committees are there working in the Commission?
Less than 50 incorrect
About 100 incorrect
About 500 incorrect

About 750 correct
Approximately 750 expert committees have been established in order to support the
Commission in its preparatory work on new legislation and beyond. They are usually
composed of national officials and other experts.
*not completed
10. Who is responsible for policy implementation in member states?
The College of Commissioners incorrect
The relevant DG incorrect
Member states themselves correct
The relevant Committee in the European Parliament incorrect
The member states are responsible for the implementation of policy at the national level.
1. Which of the following is the odd one out?
Council of the European Union incorrect
Council of Ministers incorrect
European Council correct
The EU Council, the Council of the European Union, and the Council of Ministers are all
synonyms, although the Council of Ministers is now antiquated. The European Council
(where the heads of state and government meet) is now an EU institution in its own right,
although it serves to set the agenda for the Council as a whole.
*not completed
2. Roughly how many officials are involved in the work of the Council?
10,000 incorrect
20,000 incorrect
62,000 correct
80,000 incorrect
The Council involves approximately 62,000 national officials.
*not completed
3. Which of the following provides the strategic direction for the Council?
General Secretariat incorrect
European Council correct
President of the Commission incorrect
General Affairs Council incorrect
The European Council is the highest political authority in the EU. It provides the overall
strategic guidance for the EU as a whole, including the EU Council.
*not completed
4. In a Council meeting, typically how many seats are there at the table for each delegation?
One incorrect
Two incorrect
Three correct
Six incorrect
Typically there are three seats per delegation at the negotiating table, although there may be
up to six people in the wings to assist with a particular subject of discussion.
*not completed
5. Which of the following is considered to be the preparatory body of the Council?
European Council incorrect
Working Groups incorrect
Secretariat General incorrect
Committee of Permanent Representatives correct
The Committee of Permanent Representatives (Coreper) is the preparatory body of the

Council. It is an intense site of negotiation which sits between the ministers and experts and
acts across all EU affairs.
*not completed
6. Which of the following is considered to be the workhorse of the Council?
Working Groups correct
Secretariat General incorrect
Coreper incorrect
The expert working groups are the workhorse of the Council. The 170 working groups
comprise a vast network of national officials who have specific specializations.
*not completed
7. Which of the following is considered to be the administrative backbone of the Council?
Working Groups incorrect
General Secretariat correct
Coreper incorrect
The General Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Council. It is staffed by
around 3,300 officials, most of whom undertake linguistic or clerical tasks.
*not completed
8. What current challenge facing the Council questions how the Council system will change
as the EU becomes more polycentric and differentiated?
Enlargement incorrect
Variable geometry correct
Increasing transaction costs incorrect
Differentiation incorrect
Variable geometry questions how the Council system will change as the EU becomes more
polycentric and differentiated.
*not completed
9. Which of the following is not a feature of the rotating presidency?
The presidency rotates every six months. incorrect
The presidency is a power equalizer between big and small member states. incorrect
Member states hold the presidency begrudgingly. correct
Member states work in a 'presidency trio'. incorrect
Despite the heavy workload, the presidency is highly coveted by member states as it provides
an opportunity to address issues of national importance. The presidency rotates in six-month
intervals through all member states. As such, it is a power equalizer. In order to boost
continuity and coordination, the 'presidency trio' groups three presidencies together.
*not completed
10. The Council's interaction with which of the following is said to provide the key dynamic
of European integration?
National parliaments incorrect
Although relations have been both smooth and strained, the Council's interactions with the
European Commission provide the thrust and direction for European integration.
1. What was the original name of the European Parliament?
Common Assembly correct
High Authority incorrect
Court of Justice incorrect

The European Parliament began its life in 1951 as the Common Assembly of the European
Coal and Steel Community (ECSC). The High Authority (which later became the European
Commission), the Council of Ministers (now the EU Council), and the Court of Justice were
also institutions of the ECSC.
*not completed
2. In what year were the first European Parliamentary elections held?
1957 incorrect
1968 incorrect
1979 correct
1985 incorrect
The first European Parliamentary elections were not held until 1979. The Council was
arguably reluctant to grant elections through direct suffrage as this would add strength to the
Parliament's calls for increased power.
*not completed
3. In which of the following areas does the EP not exercise power?
Appointment of Council correct
EU Budget incorrect
Appointment and dismissal of the executive incorrect
Decision-making incorrect
The European Parliament does not hold power over the composition of the various Council
formations. It is the national parliaments that hold the Council to account. The three key areas
of EP power and influence are: the EU Budget; the appointment and dismissal of the
executive (the Commission); and decision-making.
*not completed
4. Which of the following is correct?
The Parliament does not hold any power to influence the EU Budget. incorrect
The EU Budget is the only area where the Parliament enjoys any power. incorrect
The Parliament is involved in the EU Budget via the consultation procedure. incorrect
The Parliament and the Council constitute a bicameral budgetary authority. correct
The European Parliament and the Council are equal partners in the negotiation of the EU
Budget, i.e. they constitute a bicameral budgetary authority.
*not completed
5. How many times has the European Parliament exercised its right to dismiss the whole
Commission?
It does not enjoy this right. incorrect
Never correct
Once incorrect
Twice incorrect
The European Parliament has always enjoyed the right to dismiss the entire Commission.
Whilst it has never exercised this right it has come close to doing so (in 1999) and has used
the threat of such action to force individual Commissioners-designate to stand down.
*not completed
6. Which of the following modes of decision-making affords the European Parliament the
most power?
Consent procedure incorrect
Ordinary legislative procedure correct
Cooperation procedure incorrect
Consultation procedure incorrect
The ordinary legislative procedure (formerly called the co-decision procedure) affords the
European Parliament the most power in the decision-making process as it renders the
European Parliament a co-legislator with the Council.
*not completed
7. With respect to the internal politics of the European Parliament, three of the following are
correct. Which of the following is incorrect?
Political groups in the European Parliament are cross-national. incorrect
MEPs tend to behave in accordance with ideological preferences, as opposed to acting along
national lines. incorrect
Most parliamentary work takes place in the committees. incorrect
Internal posts are decided through openly contested elections. correct
The allocation of posts within the European Parliament is based on deals done between party
elites behind closed doors. Allocation is determined by the size of the political groups and the
size of the national delegation within groups.
*not completed
8. In which city/cities does the European Parliament have a seat?
Brussels incorrect
Luxembourg and Strasbourg incorrect
Brussels and Strasbourg correct
Brussels, Luxembourg, and Strasbourg incorrect
The European Parliament has a seat in both Brussels (in Belgium) and Strasbourg (in France).
Despite arguments that the monthly return trip from Brussels to Strasbourg is costly in terms
of both time and money, France is strongly against losing its seat. There continue to be some
administrative staff based in Luxembourg.
*not completed
9. How often do European elections take place?
Every 4 years incorrect
Every 5 years correct
Elections take place every five years. The most recent elections were held in 2014.
*not completed
10. Three of the following have been identified as potential causes of falling voter turnout in
European Parliamentary elections. Which of the following has not?
EP elections are treated as second-order national elections. incorrect
Increased participation in national elections correct
Election campaigns tend to be organized around national political parties not European
political groups. incorrect
Election campaigns tend to be based on national as opposed to European platforms. incorrect
Voter turnout has been falling in elections across the EU.

1. The Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU) was created in 1951 to serve which of
the following communities?
European Community incorrect
European Economic Community incorrect
European Coal and Steel Community correct
Euratom incorrect
The Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU) was established to serve the European
Coal and Steel Community (ECSC). Its powers were extended by the 1957 Treaties of Rome,
when it became the supranational court to serve the European Economic Community and
Euratom, in addition to the ECSC.
*not completed
2. Which of the following treaties extended the jurisdiction of the courts?
Treaty of Rome incorrect
Lisbon Treaty correct
The 2007 Lisbon Treaty strengthened the Court of Justice of the European Union and thus
also extended the jurisdiction of the courts.
*not completed
3. Where is the Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU) based?
Berlin incorrect
Brussels incorrect
Luxembourg correct
Strasbourg incorrect
The CJEU is based in Luxembourg. The European Court of Human Rights is based in
Strasbourg. The latter is not part of the EU; it is part of the Council of Europe.
*not completed
4. With respect to the judges of the CJEU, three of the following are true. Which of the
following is false?
There must be a balance between women and men judges. correct
Judges are appointed for a renewable, six-year term. incorrect
There is one judge per member state. incorrect
The judges elect a president by secret ballot. incorrect
There is no obligation to have gender balance amongst the appointed judges. Indeed, the
appointment of women judges is rare. The first woman judge (Fidelma Macken from Ireland)
was not appointed until 1999.
*not completed
5. With respect to Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU) judgments, three of the
following are true. Which of the following is false?
Decisions are adopted by a majority. incorrect
Decisions can be appealed. correct
Dissenting opinions are not mentioned in the judgment. incorrect
The judgment is published in the EU's Official Journal. incorrect
Decisions issuing from the Court of Justice are final: they cannot be appealed.
*not completed
6. The European General Court (EGC) is predominantly concerned with which of the
following?
Political and constitutional issues incorrect
Legal issues and fact finding correct
Cases involving the European administration incorrect
The EGC is predominantly concerned with legal issues and fact finding. It does not deal with
the more politically sensitive or constitutional cases; these are left to the Court of Justice of
the European Union (CJEU). Finally, it is the European Civil Tribunal that deals with issues
concerning the European administration.
*not completed
7. Three of the following are a type of a direct action. Which of the following is not?
Preliminary rulings correct
Infringement proceedings incorrect
Actions for judicial review incorrect
Actions for damages incorrect
In terms of judicial procedure, preliminary rulings are often distinguished from direct actions.
There are three types of direction action: infringement proceedings; actions for judicial
review, and actions for damages.
*not completed
8. In preliminary rulings, to which body does the Court of Justice of the European Union
(CJEU) offer an authoritative interpretation of EU law?
National government incorrect
National court correct

In preliminary rulings, the CJEU provides an authoritative interpretation of EU law to a
national court.
*not completed
9. How can the judicial activism of the Courts best be described?
The court has influenced the development of key legal principals. incorrect
The court has been involved in politically sensitive issues. incorrect
The court has influenced inter-institutional relationships. incorrect
The court has been active in the development of key legal principles, the expansion of EU
policies and the development of inter-institutional relations. It has not shied away from
politically sensitive issues. Taking these together, there is some concern that the court has
become too political.
*not completed
10. Which of the following is considered to be a current or future challenge for the Court?
Accession to the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR) correct
Eastern enlargement incorrect
Hostility from national governments incorrect
Increased workload incorrect
Accession to the European Convention on Human Rights (ECHR) is required by the Lisbon
Treaty. The ECHR has its own Court—the European Court of Human Rights (ECtHR)—and
accession will submit all EU institutions, including the CJEU, to the remit of the ECtHR.
. With respect to the nature of the EU and the impact this has on representation, which of the
following is incorrect?
The EU is a highly dynamic political system. incorrect
The EU is horizontally and vertically differentiated. incorrect
The EU is attempting to decrease the level of regulation of interest groups. correct
The EU promotes consensus seeking. incorrect

The EU is attempting to increase the regulation of interest groups, although there is
institutional differentiation regarding what is considered the most appropriate approach.
*not completed
2. Which of the following institutions do interest groups generally consider as the most
important?
Courts of Justice of the European Union incorrect
The Commission is considered the most important given its role as policy initiator. Interest
groups tend to strike up relationships with DGs (as opposed to approaching the entire
College) and also try to establish informal contacts.
*not completed
3. Which of the following organizations was established to channel the opinions of organized
interest groups into the policy-making process?
Committee of the Regions incorrect
European Ombudsman incorrect
European Economic and Social Committee correct
The European Economic and Social Committee was established as a bridge between civil
society and the EU decision-making process.
*not completed
4. What was the ETI?
European Transport Institution incorrect
European Transparency Initiative correct
European Agency of the Environment, Trade and Industry incorrect
Economic Treaty Initiative incorrect

ETI stands for the European Transparency Initiative, presented by the Estonian
Commissioner Siim Kallas in 2005. It proposed changes to the regulation of lobbying in
order to improve accountability and transparency in the policy-making process.
*not completed
5. In May 2011, the Commission and which other institution agreed to establish a common
Transparency Register?
European Parliament correct
European Economic and Social Committee incorrect
Courts of Justice of the European Union incorrect
The Commission and the European Parliament agreed to establish a common Transparency
Register, to replace both the Commission's 2008 register and the European Parliament's 1996
register.
*not completed
6. 'Eurogroups' are generally comprised of which of the following?
Parliamentarians incorrect
Large companies incorrect
National associations correct
Individuals incorrect
'Eurogroups' is another term for EU interest groups. They are usually comprised of national
associations, whereas national interest groups are comprised of individuals.
*not completed
7. With respect to European interest groups, which of the following is the most accurate?
There are more business interest groups in Europe than non-business interest groups. correct
There is almost exactly the same number of business and non-business interest
groups. incorrect
There are fewer business interest groups than non-business interest groups. incorrect
There are no business interest groups; all interest groups are non-business. incorrect
Business interest groups comprise the largest share of interest groups in the EU.
*not completed
8. Which of the following is not a challenge for non-business interest groups?
Overregulation in Europe correct
Lack of funds incorrect
Ideological differences incorrect
Overlapping responsibilities incorrect
Non-business interest groups have not developed at the same rate and to the same levels as
business interest groups. This is due to the lower levels of European regulation in non-
business areas. In addition to this, they are faced with collective action problems given their
broad scope and large and diffuse membership. They suffer from a lack of funds at the EU
level and there are often ideological differences, as well as the problem of overlapping
responsibilities.
*not completed
9. Which EU institutions provide support to non-business interest groups?
European Commission and EU Council incorrect
EU Council and European Parliament incorrect
European Commission and European Parliament correct
The European Commission and the European Parliament provide support to non-business
interest groups. This support includes financial support as well as boosting their standing in
the policy-making process.
*not completed
10. Which of the following is the least accurate?
European integration may impact upon the organization of national interest groups. incorrect
Resources determine whether national interest groups can be present in multiple
arenas. incorrect
European integration strengthens national executives as they act as gatekeepers between the
national and European levels. correct
If the national context is inhospitable, national interest groups may be inclined to pursue their
interests at the European level. incorrect
Whilst national executives may well act as gatekeepers to the European level, this is one of a
number of possible consequences of European integration. Taken together, it is not clear
whether European integration undermines or reinforces the influence of state institutions.
1. Which of the following has been in use since the 1970s to measure public support in
European integration?
European Public Opinion Polls (EPOP) incorrect
Europe-Gallop (E.G.) incorrect
Eurothermometer incorrect
Eurobarometer correct
The Eurobarometer polls have been in use since the 1970s in order to measure public support
for European integration. Citizens are asked whether they think membership of the EU is a
good thing, a bad thing, or neither good nor bad.
*not completed
2. In 1991, what percentage of Europeans thought that their country's membership was 'a
good thing'?
Less than 25% incorrect
More than 70% correct
Up to the 1992 Maastricht Treaty there was an increase in Euroenthusiasm. Indeed, by 1991
over 70% of Europeans thought that European membership was a good thing. Support was
only below two-thirds in the UK and Denmark.
*not completed
3. Out of the following, who is the least likely to support European integration?
Those with lower education levels correct
Those with higher incomes incorrect
Business executives incorrect
Highly skilled, non-manual workers incorrect
Individuals with higher levels of education will be more likely than those with little education
to feel that their knowledge and skills will serve them well in a wider EU market.
Furthermore, those with higher incomes are argued to be more favourable towards European
integration because of freed capital markets and monetary union.
*not completed
4. Up to 2004, which of the following was seen to be correct?
Net recipient member states were less supportive of integration. incorrect
Net recipient member states were more supportive of integration. correct
Net budgetary contribution had no impact on public opinion towards integration. incorrect
The influence of budgetary contribution on public opinion has yet to be explored. incorrect
In accordance with a sociotropic cost and benefit approach, up to 2004 whether a member
state was a net recipient or contributor to the EU Budget affected public opinion towards the
EU. Opinion in net recipient member states was affected positively.
*not completed
5. When there are problems with national political institutions, an individual's support of the
EU will tend to be ...
... lower. incorrect
... higher. correct
... unchanged. incorrect
This relationship has yet to be explored. incorrect

When there are problems with national political institutions the EU may be seen as a
counterbalance to this. Therefore, support for the EU is said to increase.
*not completed
6. Which of the following is incorrect?
The cognitively mobilized are more supportive of European integration. incorrect
Rational explanations of public opinion overlook the political drivers of integration. incorrect
The cognitively mobilized think about/discuss political issues. incorrect
The overriding goal of European integration is purely economic. correct
Rational explanations of public opinion have assumed that European integration is

predominantly economic; however, the overriding goal of union in Europe is political, i.e. to
secure peace. The cognitively mobilized (i.e. those who think about and discuss political
issues) are therefore more likely to be in favour of European integration.
*not completed
7. Which of the following best describes the coverage of the EU in popular media?
Generally low profile although increased by controversy or scandal correct
Generally high profile although decreased by controversy or scandal incorrect
Consistent and comprehensive coverage incorrect
Non-existent unless controversy or scandal incorrect
Day-to-day, coverage of the EU is generally low profile; however, it tends to be increased in

cases of controversy or scandal.
*not completed
8. What was the 'permissive consensus'?
An expression to suggest that electors remain content with the European project incorrect
Electors paid little attention to what their governments did in Brussels. correct
An 'anything goes' attitude to European integration incorrect
A current phenomenon that indicates broad support for the European Project incorrect
The permissive consensus was apparent when citizens generally held neutral opinions
regarding what their governments were doing in Brussels, giving these governments
considerable leeway to pursue policies outside of the purview of an attentive public. Recent
national election and referenda results indicate that the public often take into account
developments at the European level when voting.
*not completed
9. Which is the most accurate statement?
Medium numbers of citizens are openly hostile to the European Project. incorrect
No citizens are openly hostile to the European Project. incorrect
Small numbers of citizens are openly hostile to the European Project. correct
Large numbers of citizens are openly hostile to the European Project. incorrect
Despite the Brexit vote and the success of anti-European national political parties in recent
national elections only a small number of citizens are openly hostile to the EU.
*not completed
10. What is likely to happen in the field of research that looks at public opinion and European
integration?
There will be no change. incorrect
Work will continue with existing rationalist theories only. incorrect
Alternative theories will be developed. correct
Work in this area has ceased altogether since the Lisbon Treaty came into force. incorrect
As there is certainly room for improvement in the explanations available, it is likely that
alternative theories will be developed in the future.
1. Which of the following best describes the original Community method?
Two-way separation of power between the EU Council and European Parliament incorrect
Two-way separation of power between the Commission and the EU Council correct
Two-way separation of power between the Commission and the European

Parliament incorrect
Three-way separation of power between the Commission, the EU Council, and the European
Parliament incorrect
The original Community method was characterized by a two-way separation of power

between the Commission and the EU Council. The role of European Parliament was very
limited as it was only informed of decisions.
*not completed
2. In which areas of the European integration are there no legislative acts?
Economic governance incorrect
Agricultural policy incorrect
Foreign policy correct
Judiciary incorrect
There are no legislative acts in CFSP (Common Foreign and Security Policy). The Council
adopts the basic decisions in CFSP and the leading role is played by the High Representative
and the European External Action Service.
*not completed
3. Since which treaty has the Qualified Majority Voting (QMV) been the default setting?
Lisbon Treaty (2009) correct
Treaty on European Union (1992) incorrect
Amsterdam Treaty (1997) incorrect
Nice Treaty (2001) incorrect
Unanimity is still required to change the treaties and in most of the 'special legislative
procedures', as well as the common foreign and security policy. Simple majority continues to
be used for procedural purposes but is not used for the adoption of general norms. Since the
Lisbon Treaty came into force, however, QMV is the default setting. Moreover, since 1
November 2014, a qualified majority has required satisfaction of two criteria: 55% of the
member states ('at least 15', which means 15 out of 27 after Brexit) as well as 65% of the total
population of the EU. Conversely, a 'blocking minority' can be formed by either 45% of the
member states or at least 35% of the population (representing at least four member states).
*not completed
4. Which of the following is the most common EU act?
Decisions incorrect
Directives correct
Regulations incorrect
Recommendations and opinions incorrect
All of these are types of EU legal act; however, directives are the most common. Directives
present a common goal but leave it to the member states to develop national strategies to
achieve this goal.
*not completed
5. With reference to the ordinary legislative procedure (OLP), which two institutions are co-
legislators?
Court and the European Parliament incorrect
Commission and the Court incorrect
Commission and the EU Council incorrect
EU Council and the European Parliament correct
The EU Council and the European Parliament are co-legislators in the ordinary legislative
procedure. They must reach agreement on the content of the act.
*not completed
6. As part of the OLP, when the Commission sends a draft act to the EU Council and the
European Parliament, where is it also always sent?
All relevant European interest groups incorrect
Committee of the Regions (CoR) incorrect
European Economic and Social Committee (EESC) incorrect
National governments correct
Since the coming into force of the Lisbon Treaty in 2009, national parliaments have been
given the opportunity to check the compliance of all draft acts with the subsidiarity principle.
*not completed
7. What is the European Semester?
A term used to explain when the EP meets incorrect
European Commission Term dates incorrect
The economic plans and performance of member states are subject to review and
recommendations at EU level. correct
An expression used to explain how the EU budget is set incorrect
The European Semester is the term used to describe how economic plans and performance of
member states are reviewed by the Commission.
*not completed
8. When did EU member states first agree to some common goals and guidelines in economic
policy?
Single European Act (1986) incorrect
Lisbon European Council (2000) incorrect
Treaty on European Union (1992) correct
Nice European Council (2000) incorrect
Member states first agreed to some common goals and guidelines in economic policy in the
Maastricht Treaty as part of the initiative to create a common currency.
*not completed
9. Which of the following is not a feature of the Policy coordination?
Uniformly implemented correct
Decentralized approach to policy-making incorrect
Benchmarking of best practice incorrect
Voluntary incorrect
Policy coordination is a voluntary, informal, decentralized process of policy-making that

results in the creation of benchmarks and the exchange of best practice through 'clusters' of
national experts. It is not uniformly implemented.
*not completed
Increasing EU diversification increases the need for flexible policy tools. correct
Increasing EU diversification decreases the need for flexible policy tools. incorrect
Increasing EU diversification does not alter the need for flexible policy tools. incorrect
Increasing EU diversification increases the need for more formal policy tools. incorrect
As the EU enlarges its membership and becomes increasingly diversified, more flexible
policy tools (such as the OMC) will be required to enable cooperation.
1. EU external relations are principally concerned with which of the following policy areas?
Cultural incorrect
Economic correct
Political incorrect
Social incorrect
Economic policy is at the heart of EU external relations.

*not completed
2. Which of the following is not considered part of EU external relations policy?
Common Commercial Policy (CCP) incorrect
Development assistance policy incorrect
Common Agricultural Policy correct
International monetary policy incorrect
The Common Agricultural Policy is not part of EU external relations; however, there is
certainly overlap between the two. This provides an example of the complex nature of EU
external relations and its relationship with other policy areas.
*not completed
3. In which year was the Common Commercial Policy established?
1957 correct
1960 incorrect
1964 incorrect
1972 incorrect
The Treaty of Rome (1957) established the CCP; however, it was not implemented until the
late 1960s.
*not completed
4. Which of the following is not a measure used in CCP's 'trade defence'?
Rules of origin incorrect
Anti-subsidy measures incorrect
Sanctions incorrect
Pro-dumping measures correct
Trade defence is one of the two principal instruments of CCP (the other being trade
promotion). Trade defence seeks to combat perceived unfair trade practices such as the
dumping of cheap goods. It does this via anti-dumping and anti-subsidy measures, rules of
origin, and sanctions.
*not completed
5. Which of the following was a key prompt to the creation of development assistance?
Vietnam War incorrect
French decolonization correct
1968 riots incorrect
Creation of the single market incorrect
French decolonization was the major contributing factor to the creation of European
development assistance in the 1960s.
*not completed
6. The Lomé system institutionalized relations between the EEC and which of the following?
Algeria, Morocco, and Tunisia incorrect
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) incorrect

Countries of the Commonwealth incorrect
African, Caribbean, and Pacific (ACP) countries correct
The Lomé system institutionalized relations between the EEC and African, Caribbean, and
Pacific (ACP) countries.
*not completed
7. With respect to the Cotonou system, three of the following are correct. Which of the
It is composed mostly of developed nations. correct
It promotes a 'bottom-up' process of development. incorrect
It is a development assistance system. incorrect
It includes more than half of the world's countries. incorrect
The Cotonou system comprises more than half of the world's countries, including some of the
richest and lots of the very poorest. It addresses development using a 'bottom-up' approach.
*not completed
8. Amongst others, which two new issues have emerged in the area of development
assistance?
Agriculture and pollution incorrect
Armaments and human rights incorrect
Good governance human rights correct
Monetary policy and debt relief incorrect
As the EU's international objectives have changed so good governance and human rights
issues have become more prominent in EU policy-making on development assistance.
*not completed
9. Which country has not traditionally been a member of the 'liberal' free trading group in the
EU?
Denmark incorrect
UK incorrect
Sweden incorrect
Greece correct
Members of the 'liberal' free trading group in the Union have traditionally been keen
advocates of freer trade within the EU and trade with the rest of the world. Greece, amongst
other member states, has been more protectionist in its outlook than Denmark, the UK, and
Sweden.
*not completed
10. What will be the most likely impact of Brexit on EU development assistance?
A need to revise the decision-making processes used to make policy on development

assistance incorrect
A move away from 'geopolitical' or 'securitized' approach to development assistance incorrect
An increase in EU development assistance funds incorrect
A decision about how far to continue to assist the UK's ex-colonies correct
The EU's approach to development assistance was given added impetus when the UK joined
the EEC in 1973 by the UK's multidimensional relationship with its former colonies. The UK
is the largest single contributor to development assistance policies in the EU. The likely
impacts of Brexit will be far ranging and could lead the EU to reconsider its development
assistance approach to the UK's former colonies.
1. Following the 2013 Balkans enlargement, how many member states are there in the EU?
15 incorrect
28 incorrect
27 correct
30 incorrect
The Balkan enlargement started in 2013 when Croatia joined the European Union. By 2018,
negotiations were still ongoing with Montenegro and Serbia. In the meantime, the United
Kingdom left the EU in 2020.
*not completed
2. Which country has twice rejected membership of the EU in two referenda?

Croatia incorrect
Iceland incorrect
Norway correct
UK incorrect
The Norwegians have rejected membership of the EU in referenda held in 1972 (prior to the
Northern enlargement of 1973) and in 1994 (prior to the EFTA enlargement of 1995).
*not completed
3. Which of the following enlargements was the most complex for the EU?
Northern enlargement incorrect
Mediterranean enlargement incorrect
EFTA enlargement incorrect
Eastern enlargement correct
The Eastern enlargement was complex given the number and diversity of the acceding
countries. This necessitated both policy and institutional reforms in the EU.
*not completed
4. What are the Copenhagen criteria?
A set of political and economic conditions for membership of the EU correct
A set of economic conditions for membership of the EU incorrect
A set of additional political and economic conditions used specifically in the case of the
Western Balkans incorrect
A set of additional economic conditions used specifically in the case of the Western
Balkans incorrect
Established in 1993, the Copenhagen criteria satisfy both pro- and anti-enlargement groups
by providing clear political and economic conditions for membership of the EU. The
Stabilization and Association Process outlines the specific criteria for the Western Balkans.
These must be met in addition to the Copenhagen criteria.
*not completed
5. According to the 'new approach' to enlargement unveiled in 2011, which chapters will be
amongst the first to be opened?
Social policy and employment incorrect
Agriculture and fisheries incorrect
Law chapters correct
Agriculture and fundamental rights incorrect
Following the lessons learned from the 2004 enlargement, in forthcoming accession
negotiations greater attention will be paid to issues surrounding the rule of law. Chapters
concerning Justice and Home Affairs, and fundamental rights will be amongst the first
opened.
*not completed
6. Which of the following theories provides an explanation for the member states' acceptance
of Eastern enlargement?
Neo-functionalism incorrect
Liberal intergovernmentalism incorrect
Social constructivism correct
Of the three integration theories listed, only social constructivism provides an explanation for
the acceptance of Eastern enlargement by the member states. To do this, social constructivism
draws on the concepts of values, norms, and identity.
*not completed
Support for enlargement is high in both member states and candidate countries. incorrect
Support for enlargement is low in both member states and candidate countries. correct
Support for enlargement is low in member states but high in candidate countries. incorrect
Support for enlargement is high in member states but low in candidate countries. incorrect
As part of the phenomenon of 'enlargement fatigue', support for enlargement of the EU is low
in both the member states and the candidate countries.
*not completed
8. When did Croatia hold its referendum on EU membership?
January 2011 incorrect
January 2012 correct
The referendum was held by Croatia in January 2012, with 66% of the voters supporting EU
membership (33% voted against).
*not completed
9. The rise in what is a key factor holding up the enlargement process?
Bilateral disputes correct
Soft power incorrect
Supranational decision-making incorrect
Twinning projects incorrect
The rise in bilateral disputes between a member state and a candidate country is becoming
increasingly problematic. Not only do they delay the enlargement process but they undermine
the credibility and effectiveness of EU conditionality.
*not completed
10. With respect to the economic crisis, three of the following are correct. Which of the
It has increased member states' concerns about financial burdens from new member
states. incorrect
It has slowed the process of economic convergence between old and new member
states. incorrect
It has worsened the fiscal position of many candidate countries. incorrect

It has increased the EU's attractiveness to candidate countries. correct
The economic crisis has had a negative impact on EU enlargement. Although the EU still
remains attractive to candidate countries, its attractiveness has decreased.
1. In which year was the Common Foreign and Security Policy begun?
1989 incorrect
1991 incorrect
1993 correct
1995 incorrect
The Common Security and Defence Policy was introduced in 1993 and is largely seen by
electorates as one of the most popular EU policies.
*not completed
2. Which of the following states has a tradition of non-intervention?
Germany correct
UK incorrect
France incorrect
All of the above incorrect
Germany is seen as a non-interventionist state which has resulted in some clashes with more
interventionist states, such as the UK and France.
*not completed
3. Which treaty established the Common Foreign and Security Policy?
Treaty of Rome (1957) incorrect
Maastricht Treaty (1992) correct
Treaty of Amsterdam (1997) incorrect

It was the Maastricht Treaty (otherwise known as the Treaty on European Union) that
established the Common Foreign and Security Policy.
*not completed
4. The Common Foreign and Security Policy (CFSP) comprised which pillar of the European
Union?
Pillar 1 incorrect
Pillar 2 correct
Pillar 3 incorrect
All pillars incorrect
CFSP comprised the second Pillar of the European Union. This was an intergovernmental
pillar that required decisions to be passed via unanimity in the Council. The three-pillar
structure of the Union was removed by the Lisbon Treaty (2007).
*not completed
5. Which of the following is (and has always been) the least influential in the area of Foreign,
Security, and Defence policies?
Member state governments incorrect
The European Parliament has very little influence in the area of Foreign, Security, and
Defence policies. This is due to the sensitive nature of these issues and the reluctance of
member states to cede power to the supranational level.
*not completed
6. With respect to the development of European Security and Defence Policy (ESDP), which
two countries were at the heart of the Saint Malo process that began in 1998?
France and Germany incorrect
Germany and Italy incorrect

The UK and France correct
The UK and Italy incorrect
The Saint Malo process was led by the UK and France. It was widely held that the process
was crucial for the development of an EU defence policy. These two countries were
traditionally on opposite sides of the Atlanticist–Europeanist divide.
*not completed
7. Which institution defines the strategic outlook for the EU and adopts common strategies?
The Foreign Affairs Council (FAC) incorrect
The European Parliament incorrect
The European Commission incorrect
The European Council correct
The European Council defines the strategic outlook for the EU and adopts common
strategies. It also provides guidelines for the FAC on translating CFSP provisions into policy.
*not completed
8. Which body is the main advisor to the Foreign Affairs Council on CFSP?
PSC correct
EDSP incorrect
EEAS incorrect
European Defence Agency incorrect
The Political and Security Committee (PSC) is one of the main channels for the member
states to control the CFSP. The Committee consists of high-ranking national representatives
at the ambassador level.
*not completed
9. The High Representative of the Union for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy is assisted in
performing her/his duties by which of the following organizations?
NATO incorrect
Policy and Security Committee incorrect
European External Action Service correct
The High Representative is assisted by the European External Action Service, the latter of
which was created to act as the EU's diplomatic service. The High Representative is also a
Vice-President of the European Commission. Federica Mogherini is the current post-holder.
*not completed
10. Which of the following is not a former CSDP mission?
A civilian police mission to Bosnia Herzegovina (EUPM) incorrect
A peacekeeping mission in the Former Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia (FYROM) incorrect
Operation Artemis in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) incorrect
Civilian and border missions in Turkey correct
The following are all examples of former CSDP missions: a civilian police mission to Bosnia
Herzegovina (EUPM), a peacekeeping mission in the Former Yugoslav Republic of
Macedonia (FYROM), and operation Artemis in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC).
There have been 35 CSDP missions to date (by end of 2017).
1. Which treaty made the first moves towards a common market?
Treaty of Rome (1957) correct
Treaty on European Union (1992) incorrect
Nice Treaty (2001) incorrect
Following the Spaak Report (considered as the blueprint for the single market), the Treaty of
Rome (1957) contained the first moves towards a common market in Europe.
*not completed
2. What was the original timetable for the completion of the single market associated with the
Treaty of Rome?
Up to 5 years incorrect
Up to 15 years correct
It was originally intended that the single market would be complete in 12–15 years.
*not completed
3. Which of the following was not a part of the original common market plan?
Common income tax correct
Removal of customs duties between member states incorrect
Four freedoms incorrect
Uniform tariff barrier with non-EC countries incorrect
A common level of income tax across the member states was not a part of the proposed
European common market.
*not completed
4. In the 1980s, which country favoured a more radical neoliberal form of capitalism in a bid
to create a genuine common market?
France incorrect
Germany incorrect
Italy incorrect
The UK correct
The UK favoured the creation of a genuine single market through the pursuit of a more
radical neoliberal agenda. In contrast to this, the French favoured a more protectionist
approach.
*not completed
5. How did the SEA (1986) increase the power of the European Parliament (EP)?
Assent procedure incorrect
Ordinary legislative procedure incorrect
Cooperation procedure correct

Qualified majority voting (QMV) incorrect
The SEA (1986) increased the power of the EP through the introduction of the cooperation
procedure. This was repealed by the Lisbon Treaty so it is no longer in use.
*not completed
6. In 1992, Jacques Delors was heavily involved in pushing for the completion of the internal
market. What was his role at the time?
President of the EP incorrect
Internal Market Commissioner incorrect
President of the Commission correct
Britain's Permanent Representative incorrect
Jacques Delors was President of the Commission.

*not completed
7. With respect to the White Paper which became known as the '1992 Programme', which of
the following is incorrect?
It identified the remaining obstacles to trade. incorrect
It led to legislative proposals to improve market access. incorrect
The Commission complemented it with evaluations of the 'costs of non-Europe'. incorrect
It removed the concept of mutual recognition. correct
The '1992 Programme' was launched in 1985. It sought to achieve completion of the single
market by 1992 through removing the remaining obstacles to trade. The concept of mutual
recognition remained very much at the front and centre of the single market.
*not completed
8. Which of the following is not a feature of regulated capitalism?
Market intervention incorrect
Emphasis on welfare state and distributive policies incorrect
Regulatory competition among member states correct

Regulation at the European level incorrect
Proponents of regulated capitalism favoured government intervention in the market,

emphasized welfare states and distributive politics, and sought to increase the capacity to
regulate at a European level. Proponents of neo-liberalism were in favour of removing
restrictions to trade, emphasized regulatory competition amongst member states, and were
against any increase in regulatory power for EU institutions.
*not completed
9. Following the Monti Report, when was the Single Market Act launched?
1992 incorrect
1997 incorrect
2008 incorrect
2011 correct
The Single Market Act was launched by the Commission in 2011. It drew upon the 2010
Monti Report, A New Strategy for the Single Market: At the Service of Europe's Economy and
Society. It attempted to address the lack of confidence in the single market.
*not completed
10. With respect to globalization and the single market, three of the following are correct.
Which of the following is incorrect?
Some argue that globalization poses a threat to the European social model. incorrect
The EU has used market access as an instrument of 'soft power'. incorrect
The EU remains weak in multilateral trade negotiations. correct
The EU plays a leading role in international trade negotiations. incorrect
Thanks to the single market, the EU exercises authority in multilateral trade negotiations.
1. Which of the following most accurately describes the pace of cooperation in the Area of
Freedom, Security, and Justice?
Quick and easy incorrect
Slow and difficult correct

Quick yet considered incorrect
Slow yet relatively straightforward incorrect
The pace of cooperation in the Area of Freedom, Security, and Justice has been slow and
difficult because of the sensitive nature of the issues involved.
*not completed
2. The EC's 1975 'Trevi Group' and the subsequent groups that followed covered how many
policy clusters that were gradually becoming Europeanized?
Four correct
Six incorrect
Nine incorrect
Twelve incorrect
The 'Trevi Group' and those that came after it covered four policy clusters: immigration
policy, asylum policy, police cooperation, and judicial cooperation.
*not completed
3. Which of the following countries was an original member of the 1985 Schengen
Agreement?
Denmark incorrect
France correct
Ireland incorrect
The UK incorrect
Belgium, France, Germany, Italy, Luxembourg, and the Netherlands were original members
of the 1985 Schengen Agreement. Denmark, Ireland, and the UK were all highly sceptical of
the 'Schengen experiment'.
*not completed
4. When was 'Justice and Home Affairs' brought into the EU as the third pillar?
Maastricht Treaty correct

Amsterdam Treaty incorrect
The 1992 Maastricht Treaty (also known as the Treaty on European Union) brought JHA into
the EU as the third pillar. These third-pillar matters were gradually absorbed into the
mainstream policy arena until the pillar structure of the EU was abolished with the coming
into force of the Lisbon Treaty in 2009.
*not completed
5. Which of the following institutions has played the most important role in JHA/AFSJ?
EU Council correct
Courts incorrect
Traditionally, given the sensitivity of matters in this area, the Council has the most important
role to play in JHA/AFSJ. However, JHA/AFSJ is becoming less intergovernmental, which
affords an increased role to the Commission, the European Parliament, and the Courts.
*not completed
6. When parts of the JHA were 'Communitarized' by the Treaty of Amsterdam (1997), they
moved into which pillar?
Pillar 1 correct
Pillar 2 incorrect
Pillar 3 incorrect
Pillars 2 and 3 incorrect
The Treaty of Amsterdam (1997) moved parts of the JHA into Pillar 1, which is also known
as the Community Pillar, hence 'Communitarization'. The pillar structure of the EU was
abolished with the coming into force of the Lisbon Treaty in 2009.
*not completed
7. How many signatories are there to the Schengen Agreement?

32 incorrect
30 incorrect
28 incorrect
26 correct
There are currently 26 members, 22 are EU members and four (Iceland, Liechtenstein,
Norway, and Switzerland) are not.
*not completed
8. Post-Maastricht, the member states focused on which of the following?
Producing common rules of entry, stay, and expulsion for third-country nationals correct
Encouraging non-members to join Schengen incorrect
Judicial and police cooperation incorrect
Developing an integrated task force to combat human trafficking incorrect
Post-Maastricht, the member states first concentrated on rules to apply for the entry, stay, and
expulsion of third-country nationals.
*not completed
9. Which of the following have been required or steered to adopt all or some of the EU's
AFSJ policies?
Countries geographically close to the EU incorrect
Applicant countries incorrect
Trade and aid policy partners incorrect
The EU has steered or required other countries beyond its borders to adopt AFSJ policies.
Countries of origin and transit have entered into collective agreements with the EU, applicant
countries are required to adopt AFSJ policies, and trade and aid policy partners are steered
towards adopting EU policies, notably in the area of immigration and asylum.
*not completed
10. 'Fortress Europe' refers to what?

Secretive decision-making process in the JHA Council incorrect
The EU's high import tariffs incorrect
Europol headquarters incorrect
The EU's strict external border controls correct
'Fortress Europe' refers to the EU's strict external border controls in relation to immigration
and asylum policy.
1. What does EMU stand for?
European Monetary Union incorrect
European Macroeconomic Union incorrect
Economic and Macroeconomic Union incorrect
Economic and Monetary Union correct
EMU stands for Economic and Monetary Union.

*not completed
2. Which of the following is responsible for the single currency?
DG for Economic and Financial Affairs incorrect
The European Central Bank correct
The German Bundesbank incorrect
Euro area incorrect
The European Central Bank (ECB) is responsible for the single currency. It sets the short-
term interest rate and monitors the money supply.
*not completed
The institutional design of EMU has always been symmetrical. incorrect
The institutional design of the EMU is now asymmetrical. incorrect
Economic union is more developed than monetary union. incorrect

Monetary union is more developed than economic union. correct
The institutional design of EMU is asymmetrical. Monetary union is more developed than
economic union.
*not completed
4. Which of the following countries was forced to leave the Exchange Rate Mechanism
(ERM) on what came to be termed 'black Wednesday'?
France incorrect
Germany incorrect
Italy incorrect
The UK correct
After joining the ERM in 1991, the UK was forced to leave on Wednesday 16 September
1992.
*not completed
5. The currency of which country was used as the 'anchor currency' in the ERM?
France incorrect
Germany correct
Italy incorrect
The UK incorrect
The German Deutschmark was used as the anchor currency for the ERM as it was the most
stable of the currencies in the ERM.
*not completed
6. Which of the following is not one of the 'convergence criteria' to join EMU?
No excessive budgetary deficits incorrect
No excessive public debts incorrect
National central bank to be politically independent incorrect
Monetary financing compulsory correct

The convergence criteria concerned member state performance with reference to inflation
rates, interest rates, and exchange rates, as well as levels of budgetary deficits and public
debts. National central banks also had to be politically independent. Monetary financing
(printing off extra money to pay debts) was strictly forbidden.
*not completed
7. During the period of fluctuation post-Maastricht (1992–4), the ERM bands were increased
to what size?
± 2.5% incorrect
± 6% incorrect
± 15% correct
± 28% incorrect
The ERM bands were increased to 15% during the period of exchange rate fluctuation post-
Maastricht.
*not completed
8. How many countries joined the single currency on 1 January 1999?
6 incorrect
8 incorrect
11 correct
12 incorrect
Eleven countries joined the single currency in 1999 (EU15 minus Denmark, Sweden, the UK,
and Greece). Greece joined on 1 January 2001, when it was deemed to have met the
convergence criteria.
*not completed
9. Which of the following theories of EMU integration highlights the central role of the
Commission President and DG for Economic and Financial Affairs?
Economic theory of optimum currency area incorrect
Economic theory of central bank credibility incorrect

Political theory of neo-functionalism correct
Political theory of intergovernmentalism incorrect
The theory of neo-functionalism highlights the role of supranational actors in the integration
process. As such, the roles of the Commission President and DG for Economic and Financial
Affairs (DG ECFIN) are considered to have been key to this integration process.
*not completed
10. In the context of the financial and economic crisis, the Stability and Growth Pact (SGP)
was substantially revised. Which of the following was not one of the revisions?
Rules will come into force if countries do not comply with the 3% deficit and/or the 60%
debt criteria. incorrect
The Commission has a diminished supervisory role. correct
Qualified majority voting to be used to stop the imposition of sanctions. incorrect
Debt is considered as important a consideration as deficit. incorrect
The changes to the SGP (called the 'six pack', comprising five regulations and one directive)
afford the European Commission a larger supervisory role in guiding countries through the
fiscal year and ensuring sound medium-term policies.
1. The objectives of the Common Agricultural Policy (CAP) were originally included in
1951 Treaty of Paris incorrect
1957 Treaty of Rome correct
1965 Treaty of Brussels incorrect
1986 Single European Act incorrect
The objectives of the CAP were included in the 1957 Treaty of Rome.
*not completed
2. Which of the following was not one of the three underpinning principles of the CAP?
Market unity incorrect
Community preference incorrect

Market liberalization correct
Financial solidarity incorrect
The CAP was in favour of market protectionism as opposed to market liberalization. As such,
a public intervention system was established.
*not completed
The CAP was quick to meet its initial objectives. correct
The CAP was slow to meet its initial objectives. incorrect
The CAP has yet to meet its initial objectives. incorrect
The CAP's initial objectives were revised almost immediately. incorrect
The CAP quickly met its initial objectives of increasing productivity and achieving European
self-sufficiency.
*not completed
4. In what decade did over-production become a political issue?
1950s incorrect
1960s incorrect
1970s correct
1980s incorrect
Over-production became a political issue in the 1970s. This increased throughout the 1980s.
Over-production in Europe led to what were termed 'butter mountains' and 'wine lakes'.
*not completed
5. Which was the most significant factor in prompting the 1992 CAP reform?
International pressure correct
Increasing pressure from environmental lobbies incorrect
Pressure from French and Germany farmers' unions incorrect
Proactive President of the Council incorrect

The principal impetus for reform came from the international community which called for the
EC to end its unfair protectionism which was skewing the international agricultural market.
This call was led by the USA, resulting in the suspension of the 1986 GATT negotiations
until the matter was satisfactorily resolved.
*not completed
6. What does 'multifunctionality' refer to?
Money from EAGGF that may be spent on either 'guarantee' or 'guidance' issues incorrect
Large arable farms with livestock incorrect
The multiple roles of Council officials during CAP negotiations incorrect
The incorporation of non-production aspects of farming into the CAP correct
Multifunctionality refers to the incorporation of non-production aspects of farming into the

CAP, such as cultural or environmental issues.
*not completed
7. Which country was strongly opposed to the Commission's CAP reform plan of 2002
(which resulted in the 2003 'mid-term review')?
France correct
Denmark incorrect
Germany incorrect
The UK incorrect
There was strong French opposition to the Commission's 2002 plan. This resulted in a
compromise termed the 'mid-term review' of 2003.
*not completed
8. SFPs were introduced by the June 2003 reform. What does SFP stand for?
Single Farm Production incorrect
Solutions to Further Production incorrect
Single Farm Payment correct
Subsidies for Further Production incorrect

Single Farm Payments were introduced in a bid to further decouple CAP support from
production. Payments were linked to farm compliance with various standards regarding, for
example, the environment, food safety, and animal welfare.
*not completed
9. Environmentalists argue that direct payments should be linked to what?
Size of farm and/or number of livestock incorrect
Number of employees incorrect
Diversity of produce incorrect
Environmental performance correct
Environmentalists have become increasingly present in the debate on the CAP. Amongst
other things, they argue that direct payments ought to be linked to environmental
performance.
*not completed
10. To what does the term 'budgetary return' refer?
The benefits gained by a given country from the CAP less the contribution of that country to
the EU budget correct
The European Semester incorrect
The returning of a country's national budget by the Commission incorrect
A significant benefit for a member state related to agricultural spending incorrect
The term 'budgetary return' refers to the benefits gained by a given country from the
CAP less the contribution of that country to the EU budget. It is closely associated with
British Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher in her negotiations in the early 1980s to secure a
budget rebate.
1. How many Environmental Action Programmes (EAPs) have there been since (and
including) the first which began in 1973?
Four incorrect
Five incorrect
Six incorrect
Seven correct
There have been seven EAPs since (and including) the first which began in 1973. They began
as 'wish lists' and developed into comprehensive programmes for action.
*not completed
2. Which of the following played the most important role in the early development of
environmental policy?
Courts incorrect
The Commission played a fundamental role in the development of environmental policy,

principally through its reactive approach.
*not completed
3. Which of the following is considered to be the 'greenest' institution?
Courts incorrect
The European Parliament is considered to be the 'greenest' institution. It is increasingly

playing a role in environmental politics; however, it is still largely reactive.
*not completed
4. With respect to the EU Council's and European Council's role in environmental policy,
three of the following are correct. Which of the following is incorrect?
The first Environment Council took place in 1972. incorrect
National alliances can coalesce around specific issues. incorrect
There is a mixture of 'leaders' and 'laggards'. incorrect

The European Council has tended to take a lead role in environmental policy. correct
The European Council has never taken a leading role in environmental policy. The
Commission has played a more fundamental role.
*not completed
5. In which years did the number of environmental interest groups substantially increase?
1960s–1970s incorrect
1980s–1990s correct
The 1980s and 1990s witnessed a substantial increase in the number of environmental interest
groups operating at the European level. The first environmental interest group, called the
European Environment Bureau (EEB), was established in 1974.
*not completed
6. Which of the following is not one of the 'interacting dynamics' seen to be important in
exploring policy developments in this area?
Europeanization incorrect
Internationalization incorrect
Regionalization correct
Cross-sectoral policy integration incorrect
The interacting dynamics between Europeanization, internationalization, and cross-sectoral

policy integration have been identified as important to understanding the development of
environmental policy.
*not completed
7. Which of the following is a key area of European environmental policy as well as

European integration as a whole?
Wild animal welfare incorrect
Waste reduction incorrect

Water quality incorrect
Climate change correct
Combating climate change is a key part of the EU's environmental policy agenda in addition
to its importance in European integration as a whole.
*not completed
8. With respect to the implementation of environmental policy, three of the following are
correct. Which of the following is incorrect?
Implementation was publicized by the European Parliament in the 1980s. incorrect
European monitoring and enforcement capacities are weaker than at the national
level. incorrect
Poor levels of implementation are set to become less of an issue in the future. correct
The Commission relies on interest groups to flag implementation failures. incorrect
There is a concern that implementation will become increasingly problematic as tougher

targets are set in the future.
*not completed
9. Which of the following is the preferred instrument of environmental policy?
Informal management standards incorrect
Regulation correct
Market-based instruments incorrect
Voluntary agreements incorrect
Despite the availability of different tools, regulation has remained the key instrument to
advance environmental policy.
*not completed
Environmental policy is now a key EU-level competence. correct
Environmental policy remains largely intergovernmental. incorrect

Environmental policy is a complicated mixture of national and supranational
competence. incorrect
Environmental policy is predominantly governed by international institutions beyond the

EU. incorrect
Environmental policy is a key EU competence. Such is the role of the EU in this policy area,
nearly all environmental policy in Europe is made in the EU or in close association with the
EU.
1. The economic crisis in Europe began to unfold following difficulties in the subprime
mortgage market in which country?
France incorrect
USA correct
China incorrect
Greece incorrect
It was the difficulties in the subprime mortgage market in the USA that heralded the
beginning of the economic crisis.
*not completed
2. How much money did EU leaders pledge to support European banks in October 2008?
€2 billion incorrect
€3 billion incorrect
€2 trillion correct
€3 trillion incorrect
In addition to a far-reaching reform of the Stability and Growth Pact and other elements of
euro area governance, EU leaders pledged up to €2 trillion to revive European banks. (An
additional €1 trillion was pledged to contain the fiscal crisis in Cyprus, Greece, Ireland,
Portugal, Spain, and other euro area members.)
*not completed
3. What is the name of the permanent euro area assistance fund, the legal basis of which was
amended into the Lisbon Treaty?
European Stability Mechanism correct
The Fiscal Compact incorrect
The Banking Union incorrect
The European Monetary Fund incorrect
The euro crisis also triggered changes to the Lisbon Treaty which now contains a legal basis
for a permanent euro area assistance fund, the European Stability Mechanism (ESM).
*not completed
4. The European Commission provided administrative resources to the Greek authorities.

Which other two institutions have assisted with the Greek implementation of financial
assistance packages?
European Central Bank and European Council incorrect
European Central Bank and International Monetary Fund correct
European Central Bank and Eurogroup incorrect
International Monetary Fund and European Council incorrect
The European Central Bank and the International Monetary Fund have also provided support
in ensuring implementation of the financial assistance packages.
*not completed
5. In which year did the euro area first enter a period of recession?
2011 incorrect
2010 incorrect
2009 incorrect
2008 correct
The euro area entered a recession in the first quarter of 2008 due to a dramatic downturn in
global trade and a credit crunch.
*not completed
6. What is the Eurogroup?

Another term for 'euro area' incorrect
Another term for the ECOFIN Council incorrect
The grouping of euro area finance ministers correct
The grouping of the German, French, and British finance ministers. incorrect
The Eurogroup refers to the euro area finance ministers. It was established in 1997 by the
European Council and, since then, was the main forum for EMU decision-making.
*not completed
7. Since the economic crisis broke out, which of the following is the most accurate?
Heads of state and government have become less involved in the governance of
EMU. incorrect
The role of heads of state and government has not changed with respect to the governance of
EMU. incorrect
Heads of state and government have become more involved in the governance of EMU since
the end of the 1990s. correct
There is no role for heads of state and government in the governance of EMU. incorrect
Whereas the heads of state and government have already played an increased role in
overseeing EMU economic governance and various related coordination routines such as the
Lisbon Agenda since the end of the 1990s, the crisis was a catalyst for closer top-level
coordination.
*not completed
8. Which of the following institutions acts as the 'watchdog' for euro area governance?
Commission correct
EU Council (ECOFIN) incorrect
European Central Bank incorrect
The Commission acts as watchdog for compliance with euro area policy, which has been
reinforced by the six-pack and two-pack reforms.
*not completed
9. In what year did the fiscal stimulus package of 2008 produce a resumption of real GDP
growth in the euro area?
The second quarter of 2009 incorrect
The third quarter of 2010 incorrect
The third quarter of 2009 correct
The second quarter of 2010 incorrect
The fiscal stimulus package agreed by EU member states in 2008 provided a small but
valuable lifeline to consumers and businesses, contributing towards a resumption of real GDP
growth in the third quarter of 2009.
*not completed
10. According to Moravcsik, how did the national governments respond to stabilize the single
currency?
With overwhelming determination incorrect
With surprising stubbornness incorrect
With remarkable flexibility correct
With unparalleled motivation incorrect
The status and ambitions of the EU as a global actor have been undermined by the economic
crisis and the EU's response to it.
1. Which of the following regions did EU-level cooperation on migration focus on in the
1990s?
Middle East incorrect
Africa incorrect
Central and eastern Europe correct
Southeast Asia incorrect
In the 1990s, the focus of EU-level cooperation on migration issues was on central and
eastern Europe, including the former communist countries that had not yet joined the EU.
Already since the 2000s the EU has been particularly focused on migration from the Middle
East and Africa.
*not completed
2. Which of the following events or issues are not seen as one among the main causes of the
contemporary refugee flows from the Middle East and Africa?
Military interventions in the Middle East and Africa incorrect
Economic inequality and unequal development incorrect
Legacies of colonization and decolonization incorrect
Deficits in Euro-Atlantic cooperation on migration correct
The effects of military interventions by some European countries have exacerbated the
underlying conditions that can cause refugee flows, as well as the broader patterns of
economic inequality and unequal development. Looking more deeply, inescapable legacies of
colonization and decolonization continue to shape migration in a number of ways, as well as
discussion of 'good migration governance' that can be seen as requiring countries in Africa
and Middle East to adapt to the requirements of European countries in relation to border
control and security.
*not completed
3. What were the four main reasons why people legally migrated to the EU in 2019?
Employment, family, education, international protection correct
Employment, family, education, natural disasters incorrect
Employment, education, international protection, natural disasters incorrect
Employment, family, international protection, natural disasters incorrect
Three million residence permits were issued to non-EU citizens by an EU member state in
2019. 41 per cent of these permits were issued for employment reasons; 27 per cent for
family reasons; 14 per cent for education; 18 per cent for international protection (e.g.
refugees).
*not completed
4. Which of the following EU documents has made migration and asylum subject to the EU's
'ordinary legislative procedure'?
The Dublin Convention in 1990 incorrect
The Maastricht Treaty in 1992 incorrect
The Treaty of Amsterdam in 1997 incorrect
The Treaty of Lisbon in 2009 correct
The Treaty of Lisbon in 2009 has made migration and asylum subject to the EU's 'ordinary
legislative procedure' meaning co-decision between member states and the European
Parliament on legislation and jurisdiction for the Court of Justice. Worth noting, this decision
was preceded by the Treaty of Amsterdam that had moved migration and asylum from the
intergovernmental pillar into a new Title IV of the EU Treaty covering free movement,
migration and asylum, and imports the Schengen framework into the EU Treaty system.
*not completed
5. In 2015 more than one million people of which nationality or ethnicity made perilous
crossings by boat across the Aegean See from Turkey to Greece?
Turkish incorrect
Syrian correct
Libyan incorrect
Palestinian incorrect
They were mainly Syrian refugees fleeing a bloody civil war in Syria (that began in 2011 and
intensified during 2015) and seeking their way to Europe through Turkey.
*not completed
6. Which EU member state gave a quick, unilateral response and opened its borders to Syrian
refugees in August 2015?
Greece incorrect
Italy incorrect
France incorrect
Germany correct
The immediate, unilateral response in August 2015 by the German government led by Angela
Merkel was to open German borders to Syrian refugees. With the words 'wir schaffen das'
(we can do this), Chancellor Merkel said that any Syrian asylum-seeker could make their
claim for refugee status in Germany.
*not completed
7. What is the Dublin System known for?
A mechanism for allocating asylum seekers within the EU correct
Criteria according to which asylum applications are accepted incorrect
A policy allowing refugees to stay in the EU member state in which they have successfully
requested asylum incorrect
A new regulation requiring COVID-19 vaccine passports from asylum seekers incorrect
The Dublin System involves the mechanism for allocating responsibility for assessing the
claims of asylum seekers. Its basic principle is that the country of first arrival for an asylum
applicant would be the member state in which they made their claim for refugee status and
that any decision would be valid for the whole EU. This would prevent applications being
made in more than one member state.
*not completed
8. Governments of which of the following EU member states openly opposed to the EU

Council of September 2015 that proposed relocation of up to 160,000 asylum applicants
between member states?
Germany and France incorrect
Italy and Greece incorrect
United Kingdom and Ireland incorrect
Poland and Hungary correct
Particular opposition came from governments of the Czech Republic, Hungary, Poland and
Slovakia. There was a distinct reluctance to support forms of solidarity that would involve
relocating asylum-seekers and refugees between member states.
*not completed
9. Which of the following seeks to fix the EU's common asylum system after 2015?
The European Agenda on Migration incorrect
The New Pact on Migration and Asylum correct

The EU Blue Card incorrect
The Dublin principle incorrect
The Commission is promoting the New Pact on Migration and Asylum, seeking to get all
member states on board while promoting a more vertical form of convergence centred on EU
institutions and shared priorities. The Commission has proposed to keep the idea of relocation
and solidarity but also to allow member states that did not want to take relocated asylum
applicants to 'sponsor' the return (meaning expulsion) of failed asylum applicants from other
member states.
*not completed
10. Which of the following does not constitute one of the main internal challenges to EU
asylum policy as of mid-2021?
Vertical convergence around common EU priorities incorrect
Member states' solidarity with respect to relocating asylum seekers incorrect
Question which national groups of asylum seekers should be addressed correct
A stronger role of EU institutions incorrect
The key question that remains open is whether the EU will achieve greater vertical
convergence around common priorities and the EU institutions or whether the dynamics will
be more horizontal with groups of likeminded states working together within the general
framework of the EU Treaty. Some member states still do not agree to accept any form of
relocation of asylum seekers.
1. When did the UK first apply to join the European Economic Community?
1951 incorrect
1957 incorrect
1961 correct
1973 incorrect
The UK first applied to join the EEC in 1961.

*not completed
2. What was perceived to be the biggest barrier to British membership?

The attitude of French President Charles de Gaulle correct
The United States of America did not want its closest ally to join the EEC. incorrect
West Germany was opposed to British membership because of the poor state of the British
economy. incorrect
The existing six members were collectively more interested in developing the Treaty of Rome
rather than widening membership. incorrect
The attitude of French President Charles de Gaulle

*not completed
3. How long after the UK had joined the EEC did the UK have a referendum to decide if it
would remain as a member?
18 months correct
Five years incorrect
15 years incorrect
41 years incorrect
The UK held a referendum in 1975, 18 months after joining, to decide whether to remain a
member of the EEC. 67% of the population voted for continued membership.
*not completed
4. What issue in particular caused tensions between the UK and other member states during
the 1970s?
The border between Northern Ireland and Eire incorrect
Agricultural imports from the British Commonwealth incorrect
UK Budget contributions correct
The stationing of US Cruise missiles in Britain incorrect
UK Budget contributions were a continual source of tension for the British until Prime
Minister Thatcher negotiated a budget rebate in 1984.
*not completed
5. Which two issues combined to persuade the Blair government not to join the euro?
French and German opposition to British membership incorrect
The UK economy did not meet the entry criteria and lack of public enthusiasm. incorrect
Opposition from the USA and the views of the UK Independence Party incorrect
Limited public enthusiasm and failure to demonstrate that membership would benefit the
British economy correct
The UK Chancellor had set out a number of criteria to judge whether euro membership would
be in the interests of the British economy. A government report concluded it would not be.
This was coupled with limited enthusiasm by the British public for membership of the euro.
*not completed
6. The Cameron government demanded reform of the EU in four areas. Which of the
following was not one of the forms demanded?
Democratic accountability of the EU correct
Sovereignty incorrect
Migration incorrect
Competitiveness incorrect
The four areas in which PM Cameron demanded reform of the EU in 2015 prior to the
referendum were economic governance, competitiveness, sovereignty, and migration.
*not completed
7. In the 2016 referendum what was the key message of the Leave campaign?
'Britain for the British' incorrect
'No to euro membership' incorrect
'Take back control' correct
'Let's better fund the NHS' incorrect
The overall message of the Leave campaign was for the UK to repatriate control of policy
areas that were increasingly decided on in Brussels. This included control over borders and
immigration, amongst others.
*not completed
8. What is the focus of Article 50 of the Treaty on European Union?
Allows for a former member state to re-join the European Union incorrect
Recognizes that a member state may choose to leave the European Union correct
Permits a member state to restrict the free movement of people incorrect
Relates to the four freedoms which define the Single Market incorrect
Article 50 permits a member state to leave the European Union. The British Prime Minister
wrote to the European Council in March 2017 stating that the UK would be leaving the EU in
March 2019.
*not completed
9. How did Theresa May initially define a 'hard Brexit'?
Leaving only the EU Single Market incorrect
Becoming a member of the European Economic Area like Norway incorrect
Restricting the free movement of EU nationals to the UK incorrect
Leaving the EU Single Market and Customs Union correct
Initially Prime Minister May defined a 'hard Brexit' as leaving the EU Single Market and
Customs Union.
*not completed
10. What are the political reasons for not extending the March 2019 deadline for the UK to
leave the European Union?
Elections to the European Parliament are due in May 2019 and the appointment of a new
European Commission will follow the election. correct
Article 50 does not permit extensions. incorrect
Chancellor Merkel of Germany is opposed to any extension. incorrect
A new EU budgetary round needs to be signed off in April 2019. incorrect
Elections to the European Parliament are scheduled for May 2019. It would be politically
difficult to hold these with the UK still formally a member of the EU as provision has not
been made for the British to hold EP elections in 2019.
1. Historically, what were the main catalysts of European regulatory and policy developments
in health issues?
Low national health budgets incorrect
Energy security crises incorrect
Health and pharmaceutical crises correct
Strikes in public health agencies incorrect
EU health policy has historically advanced through crises that create a window of opportunity
for further regulatory and policy development. The 1965 Thalidomide disaster formed the
backdrop of the first harmonising regulations in the area of pharmaceuticals, whilst the first
EU public health programmes can be traced back to the HIV/AIDS crisis in the 1980s.
Similarly, it was the first severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) coronavirus which put
the creation of the ECDC on the agenda in 2003. This second, crisis-driven dynamic has the
potential to push health, usually a low-priority item, high up the EU agenda.
*not completed
2. Which of the following policy areas does not belong to so-called three faces of EU health
policy?
External security correct
Public health incorrect
Internal market incorrect
Fiscal governance incorrect
It is possible to think of EU health policy as having three faces: public health, internal market
and fiscal governance. The existing tools and actors that developed within these three faces
shaped the COVID-19 response.
*not completed
3. Which of the following non-EU countries does not participate in the Union Civil
Protection Mechanism (UCPM)?
Switzerland correct
Turkey incorrect
Norway incorrect
Serbia incorrect
A formal framework for coordination – the Union Civil Protection Mechanism (UCPM) –
was adopted in 2001 and subsequently strengthened to give the EU a role in certifying,
coordinating and deploying critical resources, as well as supporting preparedness and
prevention activities. In addition to EU member states, the UCPM has six 'participating
states': Iceland, Norway, Serbia, North Macedonia, Montenegro and Turkey.
*not completed
4. Which of the following EU responses to COVID-19, implemented as part of the UCPM

and its RescEU mechanism, was less successful than the remaining ones?
Dispatching medical teams to regions heavily affected by the virus incorrect
Distributing personal protective equipment, ventilators, and laboratory supplies incorrect
Coordinating transport for the repatriation of EU citizens from abroad when travel restrictions
were introduced incorrect
Providing all member states with the same resources at the same time correct
The UCPM is less well positioned to respond to a situation in which all member states require
the same resources at the same time. It performed well in some areas – for example, the
UCPM was used to coordinate transport for the repatriation of EU citizens stranded abroad
when travel restrictions were introduced. The new RescEU medical stockpile was used to
distribute personal protective equipment, ventilators and laboratory supplies, and medical
teams were also dispatched to regions heavily affected by the virus.
*not completed
5. When did EU cooperation in the area of civil protection begin, and which of the following
challenges had it initially addressed?
1950s; energy security incorrect
1970s; pharmaceutics supplies incorrect
1980s; natural disasters correct
2000s; health crises incorrect
EU cooperation in the area of civil protection began in the 1980s, with mutual assistance in
response to natural disasters.
*not completed
6. In which city is the European Centre for Disease Prevention and Control (ECDC) located?
Stockholm correct
Brussels incorrect
Strasbourg incorrect
Helsinki incorrect
Established in 2004, the ECDC is a decentralized EU health agency based in Stockholm

whose mission involves identifying, assessing, and communicating emerging health threats.
*not completed
7. Which of the following challenges is at the root of EU's vaccine problems?
EU credibility on global markets incorrect
EU budget incorrect
Member states' scepticism in ceding powers to Brussels incorrect
EU capacity for production on a large scale and at speed correct
At the root of the EU's vaccine problems is a lack of capacity for production on a large scale
and at speed, and broader, systematic weaknesses in the supply chains of pharmaceutical
manufacturing.
*not completed
8. What does it mean that the EU4Health programme is a soft law tool?
It provides only financial support for member states. incorrect
It does not require member states to act in a particular way. correct
It is responsible only for vaccine supplies within the EU. incorrect
It is a European Council mechanism. incorrect
The health programme is a soft law tool, meaning that it does not compel or require member
states to act in a particular way or change national policies. Rather, it provides funds for
collaborative projects and facilitates voluntary cooperation, exchange of best practices and
sharing of information between health officials, civil society actors and health professionals.
*not completed
9. Which of the following decisions has not been taken by the EU in order to help member
states mitigate the effects of the COVID-19 crisis and to repair their economies?
Adaptation of an amended EU budget incorrect
Permanent suspension of the limits on national deficits and debt correct
Introduction of a dedicated recovery package incorrect
Integration of the Recovery and Resilience Facility and the European Semester incorrect
First, the EU has activated the 'general escape clause' and temporarily(!) suspended the limits
on national deficits and debt that are applied by the EU's fiscal governance framework. This
decision recognises that restricting government spending during the pandemic is infeasible
and that the approach taken in 2011 caused further damage, including damage to health
system. Second, the EU has adopted an amended long-term budget, supplemented by a
dedicated recovery package, known as Next Generation EU (NGEU). Finally, the impact of
these new instruments on health will be determined by the administrative structure through
which they are applied, where key elements of the existing European Semester and the new
Recovery and Resilience Facility (RRF) are integrated in the context of national investment
projects and reforms to be undertaken with funds from the RRF.
*not completed
10. What is the total value of both loans and grants available for member states to support
their reforms and investments, within the Recovery and Resilience Facility?
Nearly €700 billion correct
Nearly €300 billion incorrect
Of the €672.5 billion available to member states under the Recovery and Resilience Facility
(RRF), a fund to support reforms and investment, €360 billion will be issued as loans and
€312.5 billion will be issued as grants.
1. Which of the following is generally thought to be the most unlikely and least plausible
scenario on the future of the EU?
A Federation of Nation States incorrect

Piecemeal Adjustment incorrect
Functional Federalism incorrect
Systemic disintegration correct
Given the current climate of austerity and the rise in popularity of Eurosceptic political
parties (especially in the UK and France), member states are not in favour of further
federation.
*not completed
2. In terms of contemporary risks of disintegration as fragmentation, which of the following

are not the examples of nationalism and identity politics in Europe?
Authoritarianism in Russia incorrect
The climate crisis correct
Brexit incorrect
Authoritarian turns in Hungary and Poland incorrect
Nationalism and identity politics have gained traction in Europe. Moreover, the return of
authoritarianism in Russia is a stark reminder that democratic transition is demanding and
remains uncertain in many states on the Union's borders. Also the EU itself has been subject
to a series of interrelated crises: Eurozone, migration crisis, Brexit and the rise of
authoritarian governments and leaders such as Viktor Orban in Hungary and the Law and
Justice Party (PiS) in Poland that have generated deep fissures in the Union.
*not completed
3. Who was the President of the European Central Bank who said in 2012 'The ECB is ready
to do whatever it takes to preserve the euro'?
Guy Verhofstadt incorrect
Jean-Claude Juncker incorrect
Martin Schulz incorrect
Mario Draghi correct
Mario Draghi is President of the ECB. Guy Verhofstadt is the Leader of the Group of the
Alliance of Liberals and Democrats for Europe in the European Parliament. Jean-Claude
Juncker is President of the European Commission. Martin Schulz is President of the
European Parliament.
*not completed
4. Which scenario on the future of the European Union is characterized by incremental

changes and satisficing?
Disintegration incorrect
Piecemeal Adjustment correct
Functional Federalism incorrect
Federation of Nation States incorrect
Piecemeal adjustment is characterized by step-by-step, flexible changes on an incremental

basis as opposed to a search for comprehensive solutions.
*not completed
5. Which European member state has led the eurozone crisis management and development?
Belgium incorrect
Germany correct
France incorrect
Luxembourg incorrect
Germany has led the eurozone crisis management, in conjunction with other creditor
countries and the European Central Bank.
*not completed
6. Which design fault of the euro was not exposed by the euro crisis?
Centralized monetary policy incorrect
A decentralized fiscal regime incorrect
A financial supervisory regime correct
Overvaluation incorrect
Centralized monetary policy accompanied by decentralized fiscal and financial supervisory
regimes were euro design faults exposed by the euro crisis.
*not completed
7. Which of the following is not one of the four pillars identified in the Van Rompuy report as
being the building blocks of the EMU?
An integrated social and employment framework correct
An integrated financial framework incorrect
An integrated budgetary framework incorrect
An integrated economic policy framework incorrect
The four pillars are: (1) An integrated financial framework (Banking Union); (2) An
integrated budgetary framework (Fiscal Integration); (3) An integrated economic policy
framework (Economic Policy Coordination); (4) Ensuring the necessary democratic
legitimacy and accountability of decision-making within EMU.
*not completed
8. In what year did the European Central Bank take over supervision of Europe's banking
system?
2014 correct
2013 incorrect
2012 incorrect
2011 incorrect
The ECB took over supervision of Europe's banking system in 2014, representing a further
move towards strengthening the power of the ECB.
*not completed
9. Who was the first European politician to use the term Federation of Nation States?
José Manuel Barroso incorrect
Paul-Henri Spaak incorrect

Jacques Delors correct
Jacques Delors first used the term in the 1990s in an attempt to reconcile the ideas of the
Federation and the Nation State.
*not completed
10. The EU is often considered to have extensive 'soft power' in its external relations. Which
of the following is not an example of its 'hard edge'?
The size of its domestic market incorrect
The EU's role in international trade incorrect
The EU's stance on Russian aggression towards Ukraine correct
The EU's military missions abroad incorrect
The EU is often described as being a 'soft power' actor in world affairs. Examples of the 'hard
edge' to EU external relations include the size of its domestic market, its role in trade, and the
EU's military missions abroad.
What form of co-operation resulted from the Schuman Plan?
A common customs union incorrect
A common European defence strategy incorrect
The European Coal and Steel Community correct
The Council of Europe incorrect
The Schuman Plan led to the creation of the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC),
which pooled the coal and steel resources of France, Germany, Italy, Belgium, the
Netherlands, and Luxembourg. The plan was named after French Foreign Minister Robert
Schuman and was developed together with Jean Monnet. The ECSC, established by the
Treaty of Paris in 1951, was seen as the first step in a broader plan to create a common
market and economic community. A proposal for a European Defence Community was
developed alongside the proposal for the ECSC, but this was vetoed by the French legislature
in 1954.
Page reference: 5
*not completed
What did David Mitrany's functionalism advocate?

A revival of nationalism incorrect
An international federation incorrect
Creation of several international regulatory agencies correct
Creation of a single supranational government incorrect
David Mitrany's functionalism advocated the creation of multiple agencies at regional and
international levels to regulate different technical aspects of life such as transport, energy, or
telecommunications. The aim of Mitrany's functionalism was to achieve peace between
European states. He believed that nationalism was the root cause of war Europe. Creating
functional agencies was a way of combating nationalism because it both shifted power away
from the state in small areas and simultaneously created interdependencies among states. As
an advocate of depoliticized, dispersed power and interdependencies, he did not believe in the
creation of a single supranational government.
Page reference: 7
*not completed
What did the European federalists advocate?
A revival of nationalism incorrect
Abolition of national, sovereign states correct
Creation of several international regulatory agencies incorrect
A strengthening of nation-states incorrect
European federalists, such as Altiero Spinelli, advocated the eventual abolition of the division
of Europe in national, sovereign states. The federalist movement was dedicated to peace, and
developed out of war-time Resistance movements. Like Mitrany, federalists saw nationalism
as a threat to peace and opposed both nationalism and the re-establishment of nation-states in
Europe. Unlike the functionalists, however, they saw the solution in the creation of a single
federal state in Europe united by a federal constitution. This would shift political power to a
single European government, in contrast to Mitrany's idea of depoliticizing existing European
states through the creation of technical international agencies.
Page reference: 8
*not completed
Which theorist is most closely associated with neo-functionalism?
Ernst Haas correct
Altiero Spinelli incorrect

Stanley Hoffman incorrect
Ernst Haas is most closely associated with neofunctionalism. Haas, writing in 1958,
developed a new pluralist theory of international politics to explain how and why integration
occurs. Other neo-functionalist theorists include Leon Lindberg and Philippe Schmitter.
Stanley Hoffman, by contrast, developed intergovernmentalist theories in response to neo-
functionalism. The ideas of Jean Monnet, who was an architect of the Schuman Plan and the
European Community, were compatible with and inspired neo-functionalist thought. Altiero
Spinelli was a federalist, not a neo-functionalist.
Page reference: 10
*not completed
Which of the following is not a form of spillover identified by neofunctionalists?
Functional spillover incorrect
Cultivated spillover incorrect
Political spillover incorrect
Cultural spillover correct
Functional, political, and cultivated spillover are all elements of neofunctionalist theory.
Functional spillover refers to integration resulting from the interconnectedness of economies,
with the result that integration in one area can lead to the need for integration in a closely
related policy area. For example, integration through the creation of a common market for
goods can create pressure for integration in the form of the creation of a common currency.
Political spillover refers to the gradual transfer of loyalties toward the European level among
political elites, and interest groups who operate at the European level. This increases their
support for integration, leading to further pressure for integration. Cultivated spilllover refers
to the Commission's role in fostering European-level interest groups and political elites.
Page reference: 11-12
*not completed
Which of the following theorists is associated with intergovernmentalism?
Wayne Sandholtz incorrect
Ernst Haas incorrect
Stanley Hoffman correct

Stanley Hoffman is credited with developing a realist theory of intergovernmentalism, which
argued that national governments are the most important actors in the integration process,
especially in areas of 'high politics'. Hoffman's approach refuted Haas's neofunctionalist
account which explains integration as a result of pressure from functional and political
spillover. Andrew Moravcsik later refined Hoffman's intergovernmentalism in his theory of
liberal intergovernmentalism. Although both Hoffman and Moravcsik saw states as realists
and rational actors, Moravcsik disagreed with Hoffman's depiction of states as unitary actors.
Wayne Sandholtz and Alec Stone Sweet's supranational governance approach is more closely
related to neofunctionalism than intergovernmentalism.
*not completed
What, according to liberal intergovernmentalists, is the key factor that shapes national
preferences?
Transnational interest groups incorrect
The policy goals of the largest domestic political party incorrect
The balance of domestic economic interests correct
The core security concerns of the state incorrect
Unlike intergovernmentalists, who tend to see national interests as indivisible, liberal

intergovernmentalists see the national interest as a product of pluralist competition among
different economic interests within the state. To liberal intergovernmentalists, these
competing economic interests are more important than partisan interests or security concerns
when it comes to defining the national interest. Governments then negotiate with each other
at the European level on the basis of this national interest. Both liberal intergovernmentalism
and standard intergovernmental accounts can be contrasted with neofunctionalist accounts,
which argue that supranational interests and actors are more important than national interests
in explaining European decision-making.
Page reference: 15
*not completed
According to liberal intergovernmentalists, why do national governments delegate decision-

making authority to supranational institutions?
National governments believe that supranational organizations can best enforce and
implement the policy decisions negotiated by national governments. correct
National governments believe that only supranational organizations can secure future peace
and the co-operation necessary for economic prosperity. incorrect
Delegation of power was a result of the influence of supranational institutions. incorrect
Delegation of power has occurred as a result of the influence of national civil servants who
have worked closely with and developed a shared identity with European officials. incorrect
The best answer is that national governments believe that supranational organizations can
enforce the collective decisions of national governments. Unlike federalists, liberal
intergovernmentalists do not see the delegation of authority as an end in itself. Rather,
delegating authority is a way to ensure the effective implementation of decisions negotiated
among member states. Unlike neo-functionalists, they do not regard integration as a result of
functional and political spillover, driven by supranational institutions and elites. Instead,
liberal intergovernmentalism emphasizes that national governments are in control of the
process.
*not completed
Which of the following theorists is associated with postfunctionalism?
Arne Niemann incorrect
Robert Putnam incorrect
Liesbet Hooghe correct
Liesbet Hooghe and Gary Marks are among the leading proponents of the postfunctionalist
theory of integration. Like earlier neofunctionalist and liberal intergovernmentalist theories,
postfunctionalist theories hold that integration is driven by elites, but they also pay closer
attention to the role of popular opinion in driving or constraining the process of integration.
Whereas both neofunctionalism and intergovernmentalism assume that integration brings
sufficient benefits so as to be supported by a 'permissive consensus' in public opinion,
postfunctionalism questions this assumption. Arne Niemann is a neo-functionalist theorist
whose work has focused on spillover, whereas Andrew Moravcisk is a liberal
intergovernmentalist whose theory of integration was influenced heavily by Robert Putnam's
'two-level game' theory.
*not completed
What preoccupation do postfunctionalist theories of European integration criticise other

theorists for?
National governments incorrect

Economic interests correct
Identity issues incorrect
Supranational institutions incorrect
Postfunctionalists like Hooghe and Marks have criticised other European integration theorists
for over-emphasizing the functional pressures associated with economic interests. Although
they share with intergovernmentalists and neofunctionalists the view that European
integration is triggered by a mismatch between efficiency and existing structures of authority,
they do not believe the outcome of this process will be based on a purely functional logic.
Instead, they suggest that political conflict is important and that communal identities are
central to this conflict. In other words, they argue that identity issues are a crucial
consideration in the process of European integration.
What was the 'governance turn' in EU studies?
A shift in focus from explaining the integration process to understanding the EU as a political
system incorrect
An increase in the use of tools from the study of domestic and comparative politics in order
to understand the EU incorrect
An attempt to escape from the supranational-intergovernmental debate dichotomy in EU

studies incorrect
Traditionally, scholars had relied on IR theories on the process of European integration—

including neofunctionalism and intergovernmentalism—in their attempts to understand the
EU. The 'governance turn' saw them instead turning to tools and theories from the study of
domestic and comparative politics in order to try and understand the EU as a political system:
to try and explain the 'nature of the beast'. This shift in attention first appeared in Lindberg
and Scheingold's Europe's Would-Be Polity in 1970, but became more mainstream in the late
1980s and 1990s. Its leading proponents including Simon Hix, who argued that scholars
within the discipline of comparative politics should view the EU as a suitable object for study
using established concepts and toolkits within the discipline.
*not completed
What is new about new institutionalism?
It includes informal norms or rules as well as formal institutions incorrect

It sees institutions as autonomous actors incorrect
It emphasizes that institutions are not value-neutral incorrect
While old institutionalism, which grew out of legal and constitutional studies, was
preoccupied with formal legal institutions, the new institutionalism broadened the definition
of institution to include informal forms such as culture or norms. Secondly, it emphasized that
institutions are not neutral, but can shape both outcomes and preferences, elevating the
position of institutions to one in which they were regarded as autonomous actors. Various
strands of new institutionalism differ in their emphasis. New institutionalism was also a
reaction to behaviouralism in political science, which focused on the behaviour of individuals
(for example, the behaviour of voters), while overlooking the way in which institutions shape
individual choices and behaviour.
*not completed
Which type of 'new institutionalism' focuses on the costs, opportunities, and constraints that
institutions create for actors?
Rational choice institutionalism correct
Rational choice institutionalism focuses on the costs, opportunities, and constraints that
institutions create for actors. It relies on the assumption that actors (such as member state
governments, voters, or MEPs) will act rationally in response to this structure of costs and
benefits, and seek to maximize their utility while minimizing costs. In contrast, historical
institutionalism emphasizes how institutions develop over time, sometimes leading to
unintended consequences. Sociological institutionalism focuses on how institutions are the
product of both formal and informal rules. Rather than seeing actors responding to the costs
and benefits structured by institutions in a search for efficiency, sociological institutionalism
emphasizes how actors continually construct institutions in pursuit of legitimacy and
appropriate institutions.
Page reference: 25
*not completed
Which form of new institutionalism is path dependence associated with?

Rational choice institutionalism incorrect
Historical institutionalism correct
Path dependence is associated with historical institutionalism. It refers to the tendency for
institutional design to become 'locked in' over time. Early policy decisions can close off other
options; radical policy change is costly and difficult and so subsequent policy change usually
occurs incrementally. For example, the Common Agricultural Policy, initially established as a
price support programme that guaranteed high commodity prices for farmers, is today
regarded as inefficient. However, it has been extremely difficult to reform because this
requires unanimous agreement among Member States, allowing only incremental change.
Path dependency also highlights that sometimes the development of institutions over time can
lead to unintended consequences. Policies are not the product of the best or most efficient
decisions being made, but often the most practical decisions. Governments may be stuck with
policies that are no longer in their interests, simply because the policies are difficult to
amend.
Page reference: 27
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How do multi-level governance theorists critique intergovernmental approaches?
They don't—multi-level governance theorists are essentially intergovernmentalists who also

pay attention to the subnational level. incorrect
Multi-level governance theorists argue that international influences are more important than
national interests when it comes to explaining policy outcomes. incorrect
Multi-level governance theorists argue that supranational institutions are in control of

integration and policy-making. incorrect
Multi-level governance theorists argue that national governments don't control integration
and policy making to the degree that intergovernmental approaches suggest. correct
Multi-level governance theorists do not reject the idea that national interests are important
when it comes to explaining European integration and policy making, but are critical of
intergovernmental approaches for over-emphasizing the importance of member state
governments. They note that member state governments have reduced influence over
outcomes because decisions are made collectively within the EU. Secondly, they emphasize
that power is diffused within the state across administrative departments or territorial levels,
and not concentrated in the national government. Finally, they argue that supranational
institutions are not controlled as easily as intergovernmental theories would suggest.
*not completed
Which of the following is not true of theories of multi-level governance?
Theories of multi-level governance hold that individual governments are not firmly in control
of policy-making processes incorrect
Theories of multi-level governance hold that decision-making competencies within the EU

are shared by actors at different levels incorrect
Theories of multi-level governance are in no way related to theories of federalism. correct
Theories of multi-level governance hold that non-state actors can form transnational networks
to influence policy-making at member-state level. incorrect
An early definition of multi-level governance by Gary Marks (1993) referred to 'a system of
continuous negotiation among nested governments at several territorial tiers—supranational,
national, regional and local'. Multi-level governance theories hold both that national
governments are not fully in control of decision making within the EU, and that decision-
making competencies are held by a number of actors at different levels. Some multi-level
governance theorists have also suggested that transgovernmental and transnational networks
of actors can influence policy-making within the 'domestic' politics of member states. Multi-
level governance draws on and is related to the literature on federalism.
*not completed
With which theorist is the idea of the EU as a regulatory system most closely associated?
Giandomenico Majone correct
Liesbet Hooghe incorrect
Gary Marks incorrect
Jan Olsson incorrect
Liesbet Hooghe and Gary Marks are among the leading theorists of multi-level governance.
They developed a two-fold typology of multi-level governance, which describes the formal
institutions of government at various territorial levels, and the many smaller governance
bodies that are set up at those various levels with a specific purpose or in order to deal with
specific policy challenges. Jan Olsson has argued that multi-level governance creates a
democratic deficit within the EU, and that elected institutions and democratic principles
should play a greater role in EU decision-making. Giandomenico Majone is most closely
associated with the idea of the EU as a regulatory system, examining how the creation of a
European single market (and accompanying regulatory bodies) has changed the nature of EU
governance.
Page reference: 35
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True or false: The policy network approach offers a predictive theory of policy making.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The policy networks approach is more of a descriptive framework that helps us to
understand policy making in the EU than a theory that helps us to make generalized
predictions about policy outcomes. The approach draws our attention to the importance of
policy networks and emphasizes them in the analysis of EU policy formulation. The nature of
the networks involved in policy making—how tightly or loosely structured they are—can
affect the extent to which external actors and external pressures affect policy outcomes. The
policy network approach is useful for understanding policy-making at its early stages of
formulating policy options—what Peterson calls the 'sub-systemic' stage.
Page reference: 36
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Under what circumstances do epistemic communities exercise particular influence over

policy?
When there are high financial costs associated with policy implementation. incorrect
When there is uncertainty about the likely consequences of policy choice. correct
When the national interest is clear. incorrect
All of the above. incorrect
Epistemic communities are likely to exercise particular influence over policy when policy
makers face conditions of uncertainty about the likely consequences of policy choice.
Epistemic communities provide expert analysis and policy prescriptions which may transcend
(or appear to transcend) particular political interests. They can, however, act as a powerful
political lever by which supranational actors like the European Commission might seek to of
further the integration of policy.
*not completed
What is differentiated integration?
A process characterised by opt-outs, whereby some member states do not participate fully in
all aspects of EU policy incorrect
A process characterised by 'horizontal differentiation', whereby different states participate

differently in some areas of EU policy incorrect
A process characterised by 'vertical differentiation', whereby different policy

areas within states are differently integrated within EU structures and decision-making
processes. incorrect
Differentiated integration was a trend established in 1979 when the UK did not participate in
the exchange rate mechanism of the European Monetary System. It has accelerated since the
1980s and particularly since the UK opted out of monetary union and the social chapter of the
Maastricht Treaty. Different states exhibit different levels of integration in different policy
areas. For example, some EU members states are absent from the Eurozone, or do not
participate in the Schengen passport-free zone. Further, and as identified by Leuffen et al.
(2013), within individual states, some areas of policy may be more fully integrated than
others.
Page reference: 42
What is 'Europeanization'?
Development of institutions at the European level incorrect
The imitation of forms of European political organization and institutions in other parts of the
world incorrect
Changes in the relationship between member states and the European Union incorrect
Europeanization is a broad term. It has been used in so many different ways that some
authors suggest that it is losing its meaning. It can be used to refer to the 'export' of a
European style of institutions elsewhere, or to legal, institutional, and political developments
of European integration. It is perhaps more commonly used to refer to changes in the
relationship between member states and the Union, especially as member states adapt and
respond to European policy-making. It is sometimes studied as a top-down process of
domestic adaptation to European change, and gradual policy convergence at the member state
level.
Page reference: 47
*not completed
According to studies of Europeanization, what best explains the degree of domestic

adaptation to changes in the EU?
The strength of public support for European integration incorrect
How closely domestic policies and institutions fit with European ones correct
The skill and staffing levels of national bureaucracies incorrect
Ladrech (1994) and Cowles et al. (2001) concluded that the 'closeness of fit' between
domestic policies, institutional structures, and norms and those at the European level were the
best predictor of the pressure for adaptation to developments in the EU. The more similar
these were, the less pressure there was for national governments to adapt. When the gap
between domestic and European policies and institutions was greater, it created more pressure
for the member state to change. Whether this adaptation occurred easily or not in turn
depended on additional domestic institutional factors. Europeanization is not, therefore, a
uniform process across all EU member states.
Page reference: 48
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True or false: Europeanization is an exclusively top-down process.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Early studies of Europeanization focused on the downward flow of pressures from the
EU to the national level, but later studies have increasingly highlighted the two-way
relationship between the EU and its member states. Ideas, norms, and practices are not
merely 'downloaded' from the EU, they are also 'uploaded' from member states to the EU
level. There are also instances of 'crossloading', where member states learn from each other
within the context of EU frameworks.
*not completed
What is the difference between 'first generation' and 'second generation' studies of
Europeanization?
Second generation studies emphasize the fit of domestic and European values and norms
rather than policies or institutions. incorrect
Second generation studies focus on policy learning and voluntary adaptation while first
generation studies focus on 'forced' policy change. incorrect
First generation studies emphasize top-down change while second generation studies
emphasize two-way effects. incorrect
All of the above. correct
According to Dyson and Goetz (2002), first and second generation Europeanization studies
differ in terms of the aspects of Europeanization they focus on, and the assumptions they
make about the process. First generation studies generally assumed Europeanization to be a
top-down process, where the domestic level was 'forced' to adapt its policies and institutions.
It assumed that the path of Europeanization was one of gradual convergence over time.
Second generation studies consider Europeanization can involve both top-down effects as
well as horizontal effects (across member states). They also widen their focus to consider the
impact of Europe on politics and identity, as well as policies and institutions.
Page reference: 51
*not completed
What is a permissive consensus?
Mass support for integration expressed through a referendum on a treaty incorrect
Mass support for integration expressed by lack of opposition correct
General agreement on European integration reached through successive rounds of

bargaining incorrect
A permissive consensus refers to tacit public approval, marked more by the absence of public
opposition than to direct or visible signs of support. In the context of the EU, the 'permissive
consensus' can describe the period of time before the Treaty of Maastricht (Treaty on
European Union (TEU)) where member states engaged in negotiations on integration and
decided policy issues whilst largely sheltered from the gaze of public opinion. After the TEU,
the Union entered a period where public opinion was sometimes mobilized against the EU,
and governments were under increasing pressure to seek direct consent from the people on
further integration.
Page reference: 55
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Which of the following is not a key proposition of the literature on politicization of the EU?
EU issues have become more salient to domestic politics incorrect

EU issues have become less contested correct
There is increasing divergence of preferences within and between member states incorrect
A wider set of actors are following EU issues incorrect
Politicization—the idea that EU issues have become more salient in the domestic politics of
member states—is a core concept in postfunctionalism, and has also generated its own
substantial literature. Leading examinations of politicization include those by Bellamy and
Kröger (2016), de Wilde (2011), and Statham and Trenz (2015). Politicization holds that EU
issues have become more important for domestic political actors, whose preferences in
relation to these issues have become ever more divergent. This has meant that EU issues have
become more contentious and contested.
Page reference: 55
*not completed
Which of the following is not true of 'Euroscepticism'?
It is an exclusively British political phenomenon correct
It can usefully be thought of as either 'hard' or 'soft' incorrect
It describes forms of bottom-up opposition to processes of European integration incorrect
It has increased across the EU as a result of the eurozone and migration crises incorrect
The term Euroscepticism originated in the UK in the mid-1980s, where it was used to refer to
Conservative MPs opposed to the direction of European integration and, more generally, to
bottom-up opposition to the European project. It has, however, gradually become a term with
EU-wide application, and is no longer exclusively associated with British politics. Taggart
(1998) identified an important distinction between 'hard' Eurosceptics, who are opposed to
European integration in principle, and 'soft' Eurosceptics, who take issue with specific aspects
of integration as it has evolved but who may not be opposed to integration as such.
Euroscepticism across the EU has increased in recent years, in the wake of the migration and
Eurozone crises, which have raised key questions about the EU's effectiveness.
*not completed
Which of the following theorists is most closely associated with the theory of disintegration?
Douglas Webber correct
Brigid Laffan incorrect
Peter Mair incorrect

Simon Hix incorrect
Douglas Webber is a key theorist of processes of European disintegration, arguing that it is at

least theoretically possible that political pressures may act to pull the European Union apart,
rather than act (as is often assumed in the literature on integration) always to further or
deepen the process of integration. Laffan (2019) has demonstrated, however, that even crises
like Brexit can have integrative consequences. Mair's (2013) work on the hollowing out of
democracy has been central in identifying understanding the types of democratic deficit that
exist at the heart of key political institutions, including the EU, while Hix (2008) has sought
to identify ways of addressing this democratic deficit and make the European institutions
more democratically accountable.
Page reference: 57
*not completed
The output dimension of democratic legitimacy can also be referred to as:
Legitimacy from performance. correct
Democratic accountability. incorrect
Participatory democracy. incorrect
All of the above. incorrect
The output dimension of democracy can also be referred to as legitimacy that is derived from
performance—'delivering the goods'. This means that when the European Union performs by
delivering policies that meet the needs of Europe, it can be an important source of
legitimation for the political system. Conversely, if Union policies fail to deliver by
producing ineffective, inefficient or undesirable outcomes, the legitimacy of the Union can
suffer. Output legitimacy can be distinguished from input legitimacy, which encompasses
voting, interest representation and participation. The work of Fritz Scharpf is associated with
the distinction between input and output legitimacy.
Page reference: 59
*not completed
Which of the following was an explicit intention of the 2009 Lisbon Treaty?
To promote an economic union incorrect
To enhance democracy in the EU correct
To facilitate Turkish accession to the EU incorrect
To undermine the supranational structures of the EU incorrect

One explicit intention of the Lisbon Treaty was to enhance democracy in the EU. The treaty
strengthens the powers of the European Parliament; enshrines the republican principle of
democratic equality between EU citizens; gives the national parliaments more control
powers; boosts the powers of EU-level parties; and introduces a new form of participatory
democracy (a petition needing one million supporters). Supporters and opponents of the
treaty however, were fiercely divided about some of these measures. For supporters,
democracy would be enhanced by strengthening the role of EP in a number of policy areas,
and through enhanced powers for national parliaments in relation to EU legislation.
Opponents of the treaty question the legitimacy of the EP in comparison with that of national
parliaments, and suggest that the enhanced powers for national legislatures are minimal and
do not allow them to reject or amend EU legislation.
Page reference: 62
Which of the following approaches is associated with methodological individualism?
Constructivism incorrect
Rationalist approaches correct
Rationalist approaches rely on methodological individualism. This means that they focus on
the individual actor and consider the interests or preferences of the actor to be separate from
its environment. For example, liberal intergovernmentalism assumes that member states
define their national interests and bring these to the Council. By contrast, constructivism, and
sociological institutionalism would argue that interests are shaped within the Council, and
that we can only understand individual action when we view the individual embedded within
a larger social context—the culture or institutions that they operate within. While interests of
individuals are assumed to be pre-existing in methodological individualism, constructivist
accounts consider interests to be actively shaped by the social environment.
*not completed
Is neofunctionalism rationalist or constructivist?
Rationalist incorrect
Constructivist incorrect
Both correct
Neither incorrect
Neofunctionalism contains elements of both rationalism and constructivism.
Neofunctionalism assumes that interest groups operating in a pluralist environment compete
for influence. This pursuit of self-interest fits with a rationalist ontology or world-view.
Neofunctionalist theory also includes an element of constructivism. The process of political
spillover in neo-functionalist theory is essentially constructivist. In this process, elites, such
as interest groups who lobby the supranational level, interact with the supranational
institutions, increasing their awareness of the benefits of integration and their support for
integration. A European identity and preferences for further integration is constructed as elites
transfer their loyalty to the supranational level.
*not completed
Social constructivism should be understood as an 'ontological approach to social inquiry'.

What does this mean?
This means that constructivists support the (rationalist) assumptions on which the dominant
integration theories were built incorrect
This means that constructivists support the neofunctional interpretation of

integration incorrect
This means that constructivists support the intergovernmental interpretation of

integration incorrect
This means that constructivists regard social and political reality as constructed, correct
Social constructivism entered the debate on the EU not to dispute either the
intergovernmental or supranational interpretation of integration, but rather to challenge the
(rationalist) assumptions on which the dominant integration theories were built. As such, it
should be understood as an 'ontological approach to social inquiry' (Cowles 2003: 110) which
regards social and political reality as constructed, rather than as a theory of EU politics or
integration. While critical of rationalist approaches, constructivists in both IR and EU studies
tend to situate themselves at different points on the positivist/post-positivist continuum. Many
who would associate with the constructivist label would see their approach as an attempt to
bridge the two extremes, taking seriously social construction while maintaining a
commitment to scientific positivism and objectivity.
Page reference: 68
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True or false: The social constructivist approach is closely related to sociological

institutionalism.
True correct
False incorrect
True. Both approaches emphasize that actors' behaviour is influenced by the 'logic of
appropriate behaviour' or norms. In this view, political actors internalize social norms, which
shape their identities and thus their interests. This is what constructivists refer to as the
'constitutive effects' of norms. The constructivist view that the actions of individuals cannot
be understood in isolation from their social environment contrasts with the rationalists'
emphasis on 'methodological individualism', in which the central focus is on 'individual
human action' (Risse 2009: 145). However, while constructivists emphasize that individuals'
interests and identities are shaped by the social environment in which they exist, equally they
argue that the social environment is shaped over time by the actions of individuals.
Page reference: 68
*not completed
How are neo-Marxist approaches critical of mainstream European integration theorizing?
They argue that mainstream theories over-emphasize member state economic interests in the
shaping of integration incorrect
They argue that mainstream theories ignore the role of interest groups in integration incorrect
They argue that mainstream theories do not recognize that business interests organize more
effectively than labour interests incorrect
They argue that mainstream theories are blind to the hidden structures of power that affect
integration correct
Neo-Marxist approaches are critical of what they view as a superficial and limited
understanding of power in mainstream theories of European integration. In particular,
mainstream theories tend to ignore the hidden 'structural power' that affects European
integration. In other words, mainstream theories do not explore the ways in which integration
outcomes are affected by the uneven distribution of power across classes. Intergovernmental
theories focus on national interests (or national economic interests) and neofunctionalist
theories assume that interest representation is pluralist. Neither attempts to connect interests
to the underlying structure of social class power. Finally, mainstream theories tend to ignore
the way in which the construction of a neoliberal market through integration replicates power
structures in society.
*not completed
True or False: 'Neo-Gramscian' scholars oppose the view that the political and social world is
constructed and that ideas and discourses therefore matter in shaping that world.
True incorrect
False correct
'Neo-Gramscian' scholars tend to concur with the constructivist assertion that the political and
social world is constructed and that ideas and discourses therefore matter in shaping that
world. However, they are critical of what they term 'liberal constructivist approaches',
asserting that we ought to take more seriously material or capitalist structures and
emphasizing that EU social and political reality is constructed in ways which favour
particular interests or classes. The work of such scholars thus seeks to expose the ways in
which particular elite or capitalist interests are constructed and have prevailed in the context
of European integration and constituted over time a 'neoliberal' order.
Page reference: 72
*not completed
Which of the following statements does not apply to Jurgen Habermas?
He is critical of processes of neoliberal globalization. incorrect
He promotes the idea of a 'constitutional patriotism' at the European level. incorrect
He does not view the EU as an agent which can support the preservation of certain features of
European social democracy. correct
His vision of a cosmopolitan EU is similar to a federalist vision of the EU. incorrect
Despite his reservations about the EU, Habermas nevertheless sought to promote the EU as
the agent that might realistically support the preservation of certain features of European
social democracy. This, he noted, would require the establishment of a new, essentially social
democratic constitution for Europe, underpinned by a stronger conception of European
citizenship and identity. Habermas's vision of a cosmopolitan EU is thus much closer to a
federalist vision of the EU than some of his social theorist colleagues. Habermas work on the
EU promotes the view that the EU can be conceived as an emerging or 'immanent'
cosmopolitan entity. He is concerned with the history of nationalism in the EU and promotes
the idea of a 'constitutional patriotism' at the European level. This is a patriotism not based on
national or ethnic roots, but on a shared belief in constitutional values such as human rights
and democracy. He is also explicitly critical of processes of neoliberal globalization and
concerned with the role that the EU has played in reinforcing and promoting them.
Page reference: 77
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Within the critical social theory literature, what does a methodological cosmopolitanism
advocate?
A Europe where only loyalty to nation is possible. incorrect
A Europe where only loyalty to Europe is possible. incorrect
A Europe where loyalty is an outdated concept. incorrect
A Europe where loyalty to both nation and loyalty to Europe is possible. correct
A methodological cosmopolitanism advocates a 'both-and' Europe (Beck and Grande 2007)

where both loyalty to nation and loyalty to Europe (and, indeed, globally) is possible. This
may involve reconsidering both the aims and logics of the European project and the very
notion of integration, which has pushed for the 'harmonization' of policy by all member
states. In so doing it has contributed to an abolition of difference through an assumption that
'uniformity is a precondition for unity' (2007: 73). Beck and Grande cited, as realities within
the EU that concur with this 'both-and' position, the EU's 'Open Method of Co-ordination' and
forms of 'enhanced co-operation' (whereby certain sub-sets of states may co-operate in a
policy area). For them, these are contexts which make possible both cooperation and the
preservation of some differences.
*not completed
In policy terms, what kind of EU does critical feminist work on the EU reveal?
An EU that is relatively progressive in relation to gender equality issues incorrect
An EU which perpetuates gender inequalities incorrect
An EU which limits the participation of women in key fora incorrect
All of the above are highlighted by feminist work on the EU. In policy terms, feminist work
reveals an EU that is relatively progressive in relation to gender equality issues. Gender
equality policies have their origins in Article 119 of the Treaty of Rome and have been
developed through subsequent treaty provisions, Directives, Court rulings and soft-law
instruments relating to a range of policy areas including part-time work, parental leave,
sexual harassment, childcare and violence against women. On the other hand however, many
major EU decisions continue to be taken without reference to gender or without adequate
representation of women. The European Commission's 2001 Governance White Paper is
given as an example of an important document that does not mention the word 'gender', and
the Constitutional Convention as an example of an important body with a very small
proportion of women members (17 per cent).
*not completed
Which of the following thinkers has inspired post-structuralist authors working on the EU?
Foucault incorrect
Bourdieu incorrect
Derrida incorrect
All of the above. Post-structural authors have drawn on thinkers such as Michel Foucault,
Pierre Bourdieu, and Jacques Derrida. The attempt to unsettle a sense of certainty or 'common
sense' in relation to the EU has been the uniting theme of post-structural analysis. The post-
structuralist contribution is particularly focused on highlighting the often concealed work that
is done by discourse, language, knowledge, and power in constituting a variety of 'European'
or EU realities and identities. For example, post-structuralists have used Foucault's notion of
'governmentality'—an interest in the particular rationalities that lie behind governmental
practices—to explore the ways in which various ideas and practices have constituted Europe
as an entity in very particular ways and its forms of government. Post-structural authors have
also deployed Foucault's work on liberalism to point to some important tensions or
ambiguities within EU governance.
True or false: The quest for European unity is unique to the post Second World War period.
True incorrect
False correct
False. There have been attempts throughout history to unify Europe militarily and politically,
and periods in history when unification has been achieved. In ancient times, the Roman
Empire united an area that included but was not limited to Europe. In the eighth century AD
Charlemagne briefly united Europe in a kingdom that stretched from France to the modern-
day Netherlands, Germany, and Italy. Military campaigns by Napoleon and Hitler can be seen
as attempts to unify Europe through military domination. Finally, federalist movements were
active in the inter-war period, advocating federalism as a path to peace and a way of
overcoming divisive nationalisms.
Page reference: 90
*not completed
What was the outcome of the 1948 European Congress?
The European Coal and Steel Community incorrect
Nothing—no agreement was reached incorrect
The Council of Europe correct
The Treaty of Paris incorrect
The 1948 European Congress, organized by the European Union of Federalists, resulted in
the creation of the Council of Europe. This was a small achievement of the Congress, which
had called for an economic and political union in Europe to guarantee its future security.
Many delegates had hoped the Congress would lead to the development of a constitution for a
federal Europe. Instead, delegates to the conference could not agree on whether to move
toward European federation or to take an intergovernmental path toward securing peace and
unity in Europe. In the end, the intergovernmentalists won and the Council of Europe was
established as an intergovernmental body, created to promote democracy, the rule of law,
human rights and the co-ordination of social and legal practices in Europe.
*not completed
What was the aim of the Marshall Plan?
To combat the threat of communism incorrect
To promote international trade incorrect
To assist European economic recovery incorrect
The Marshall Plan was a program of financial and food aid. Named after the US Secretary of
State George Marshall, the plan was intended to aid the economic recovery of Europe and
mitigate human suffering. However, scholars argue that the plan was also intended to serve
American political and economic interests. Financial aid provided Europe with convertible
currency needed for them to buy American goods, and gave the Americans a tool with which
to pressure European states to lower their trade barriers. The Americans also argued that the
Marshall Plan was an effective defence against communism; by assisting economic recovery,
the United States was making Europe less susceptible to communism.
Page reference: 94
*not completed
How did France initially wish to address the German problem?

They wanted to see Germany remain divided and occupied by the allies correct
They wanted to see Germany recover economically and militarily incorrect
They wanted Germany to pay a large amount of reparations incorrect
The German problem refers to the dilemma created by the need for reconstruction of
Germany and the security risk such reconstruction posed for Germany's neighbours when
memories of the Second World War were fresh. In the late 1940s, France preferred Germany
to remain weak, and ideally under the control of occupying allied armies. They were nervous
about the prospect of an economically or militarily powerful Germany, and wanted to see
German power contained by the French, British, and American occupying armies. France was
not supportive of the American plan for reconstruction of a newly independent Germany to
occur under the supervision of the OEEC. Instead, France wanted European states to be able
to maintain greater political control over the process.
*not completed
What was the Schuman Plan?
A plan for broad political and economic co-operation among European states incorrect
A plan to create a free trade area in Germany, France, Italy, and the Benelux
countries incorrect
An intergovernmental organization among Germany, France, Italy, and the Benelux

countries incorrect
A plan to pool the coal and steel resources of Germany, France, Italy, and the Benelux
countries, managed by a supranational body correct
The Schuman Plan was a plan to pool coal and steel resources, managed by a supranational
authority. While its architects, Jean Monnet and Robert Schuman, hoped it would eventually
lead to more complete economic integration across Europe, as well as broader political co-
operation, the Schuman Plan was strictly limited in its scope, attempting integration of the
coal and steel sectors only. It did not attempt to create a free trade area (as the European
Economic Community would later do). Also, it was distinctly supranational in design, with a
supranational body, the High Authority, exercising control over coal and steel production.
*not completed
When the Federal Republic of Germany was established in 1949, what problems did this
create for France?
France viewed a sovereign Germany as a security risk and it threatened French access to
German coal correct
The German steel industry was stronger than the French industry which threatened French
economic development incorrect
The Federal Republic of Germany supported more political and economic integration than
France wanted incorrect
The Federal Republic of Germany was economically weak, which led to mass labour
migration to France incorrect
The establishment of the sovereign Federal Republic of Germany in 1949 created problems
for France because a sovereign Germany was a security risk and, no longer under the control
of the British, French, American, and Soviet occupying forces, there was no guarantee that
France would be able to continue to access the German coal from the Ruhr valley that it
needed for its steel industry. France therefore faced a two-fold problem: it needed to find
some way of placing constraints on the reconstruction of a sovereign state while at the same
time co-operating economically in order to secure access to Germany's coal resources.
*not completed
What was Robert Schuman referring to when he said 'the solidarity in production will make it
plain that any war between France and Germany becomes not merely unthinkable, but
materially impossible'?
An integrated munitions industry incorrect
Pooling of coal and steel supplies correct
Co-operation in food and agricultural production incorrect
Joint monitoring of industrial developments incorrect
These words are taken from the Schuman Declaration. Robert Schuman was referring to his
plan for the pooling of coal and steel supplies. This was the Schuman Plan, which formed the
basis of the European Coal and Steel Community. The coal and steel industries not only
formed the backbone of national economies in Europe, but they were the industries upon
which national military power was built. By pooling coal and steel resources and bringing
their production under the supervision of a supranational high authority—beyond the reach of
the influence of nationalism—Schuman believed that building an economy for war would be
impossible.
Page reference: 99
*not completed
Why did Germany accept the Schuman Plan?
Konrad Adenauer's personal values and ideology incorrect
It rehabilitated Germany economically and restored its legitimacy in the eyes of the world
and strengthened its alliances incorrect
Germany faced US pressure to accept it incorrect
All of these statements describe reasons why German accepted the Schuman Plan. Konrad
Adenauer was a Christian Democrat who had been imprisoned by the Nazi regime during the
Second World War. He was a strong supporter of European integration and reconciliation
between France and Germany. The Schuman Plan was also in Germany's national interest
because it provided a path for German economic reconstruction in a manner that was not
threatening to its neighbours. Strong American support for the Schuman Plan also meant that
membership in the European Coal and Steel Community was a way for Germany to
strengthen its alliances with the West. The Americans put strong pressure on Germany to
accept the plan because it wanted to prevent the re-emergence of the German industrial
cartels.
*not completed
True or false: The Americans had little or no influence on the development of the European
Coal and Steel Community.
True incorrect
False correct
False. While the Schuman plan was created by the French, Jean Monnet and Robert
Schuman, the Americans played a very important role in the negotiations on the Treaty of
Paris, which founded the European Coal and Steel Community. The Germans were reluctant
to accept the deconcentration of the coal and steel industry (they wanted to re-establish the
German steel cartels) and they were delaying negotiations. The Americans were strongly
against the re-emergence of the German steel cartels, especially if Germany were to be re-
armed. The Americans told the German Chancellor, Konrad Adenauer, that if they continued
to delay, the Americans and the French would take their own measures to break up the
German steel cartels. This threat was effective and the Germans accepted the terms of the
Treaty of Paris.
Page reference: 103
*not completed
Which of the following was not a concession secured by member states during negotiations
of the Treaty of Paris?
The creation of a Council of Ministers incorrect
Subsidies for less efficient Belgian coal producers incorrect
Subsidies for less efficient Italian steel producers incorrect
Maintaining the German coal and steel cartels in the Ruhr valley correct
Both the US and France were adamant that the reconstruction of the coal and steel industry in
Germany could not allow the cartels in the German coal and steel industry that had existed in
the past. The Americans, along with Jean Monnet, the architect of the European Coal and
Steel Community (ECSC), chiefly objected to the disruption to competition caused by
concentration in the German steel industry. The French government, meanwhile, objected to
the cartels because they had been a source of strong support for a militaristic state and the
Nazi regime. Through negotiations in the Treaty of Paris, German Chancellor Konrad
Adenauer could win no concessions on the concentration of the German steel industry. The
Dutch and Germans were successful at requesting the creation of a Council of Ministers.
Belgian and Italian producers successfully requested subsidies for their inefficient industries.
What was the Pleven Plan?
A plan to create a European Coal and Steel Community incorrect
A plan to create a European Political Community incorrect
A plan to create a European Defence Community correct
The Pleven Plan was a plan to create a European Defence Community. The Plan, developed
by Jean Monnet, was named for the French Prime Minister, René Pleven, who announced it
in 1950. The Pleven Plan was a response to American requests for Europe to take more
responsibility for meeting its defence needs and it proposed a method of re-arming Germany
in a way that did not threaten French security. It called for the creation of a European Army
under a pooled command, and proposed the creation of a Commission, Council and
Assembly—a similar structure to the European Coal and Steel Community, which was being
negotiated at the same time.
*not completed
What event triggered the proposal of a European Defence Community?
The Korean War correct
The Berlin Blockade incorrect
The completion of the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) incorrect
The Korean War triggered the development of the proposal of the European Defence
Community. First, American troop commitments in Korea meant that the US had fewer
military resources to dedicate to the defence of Europe. Secondly, the Korean War escalated
the West's appraisal of the Communist threat and the perceived need for shoring up European
defence. The Americans supported the idea of re-arming Germany in order to meet Europe's
defence needs. This was unacceptable to France because they perceived a sovereign German
army to be a threat to their security. The French therefore developed the idea of a German
army constrained within the framework of a European army under joint command—the
Pleven Plan for the European Defence Community.
Page reference: 108
*not completed
True or false: The European Defence Community was linked to the European Coal and Steel
Community.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The proposals for the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and
Steel Community (ECSC) were linked. Jean Monnet was a key architect behind both plans,
and they shared a similar institutional design. The negotiation of the EDC and the ECSC were
also linked. Pleven insisted that the ECSC be signed before the EDC could proceed. Some
authors argue that linking the negotiations helped secure the success of the ECSC. The
German government wanted plans for the EDC to succeed; because agreement on the ECSC
was required, it was a factor that helped convince the Germans to agree to the terms of the
ECSC and in particular to its provisions that prevented the redevelopment of the cartels in the
German steel industry.
*not completed
What happened to the European Defence Community?
It was narrowly ratified in 1953 incorrect
It was ratified after amendments to remove references to the European Political

Community incorrect
The treaty was signed but never ratified correct
The governments failed to agree on a text of the treaty incorrect
The European Defence Community (EDC) Treaty was signed in May 1952, but was never
ratified. In particular, France failed to ratify the treaty due to the unpopularity of the idea of
German rearmament. Pleven narrowly won a vote in the National Assembly to approve the
treaty, but a subsequent election signalled that support for the treaty had eroded and a series
of French governments did not ratify the treaty. In 1954 the Americans, who were getting
impatient for the ratification, urged the French prime minister to bring the treaty to the
National Assembly. This was not enough to overcome opposition of the French government.
The treaty was not ratified and the EDC failed.
*not completed
True or false: After the failure of the European Defence Community (EDC), Europe's security
dilemma was addressed by the Western European Union.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The Western European Union (WEU) was another means for Europe to address its
security needs. Basically, it involved extending the treaty of Brussels (signed in 1948 by
Britain, France, Belgium, the Netherlands, and Luxembourg) to include Italy and Germany.
By joining this military alliance, the countries were bound to act if there were an act of
aggression against any one state, therefore providing collective security. The WEU was
formed to co-ordinate the alliance, with a Council of foreign and defence ministers, a
secretariat and an assembly—a similar structure to that which had been proposed under the
EDC. The WEU was linked to NATO. With the WEU in place and with Germany members of
the WEU and NATO, the allies withdrew from Germany and a limited German army was
permitted.
Page reference: 110
*not completed
What was the purpose of the conference in Messina in June 1955?
To encourage a European Political Community incorrect
To develop a common market correct
To revive the European Defence Community incorrect
To launch Euratom incorrect
The conference in Messina, Italy, in June 1955 was held to discuss the development of a
common market. An earlier attempt to initiate talks designed at extending sectoral integration
in nuclear energy and transport received a lukewarm response from member states who were
not interested in extended the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) (with the
exception of France, who supported the proposal). Attention then turned to the prospect of
developing a common market, an idea proposed by the Dutch foreign minister, Beyen. The
idea of a common market was supported by most states, except France. At Messina, the heads
of governments agreed to form a committee chaired by Belgian foreign affairs minister Paul-
Henri Spaak that would combine these two ideas, a common market and sectoral integration.
This was the basis of the treaties of Rome.
Page reference: 115
*not completed
Which of the following was not an area in which the French demanded a concession at
Messina?
Euratom incorrect
Agriculture incorrect
External relations incorrect
Regional development correct
The French were reluctant supporters of a common market. In negotiations, the French
successfully gained concessions in three areas to secure their support for the common market:
Euratom, agriculture, and external relations. First, the French were strong supporters of
extending sectoral integration into nuclear energy and transport (Monnet's initial idea in
1955). They wanted to develop their nuclear industry and become a nuclear power. With
sectoral integration in nuclear energy, Germany could subsidize these French ambitions.
Secondly, the French wanted agriculture to be included in the Treaty of Rome in order to
secure subsidies and market protection for France's politically important farmers. Finally,
they wanted to safeguard a special relationship with their overseas colonies.
*not completed
True or false: In the early days of the ECSC, national governments insisted that the High
Authority be given a wide range of powers.
True incorrect
False correct
False. In the early days of the ECSC, member state governments were unaccustomed to and
rather wary of ceding power to a supranational authority. In particular, the governments of the
Benelux countries and Germany were reluctant to make the High Authority too powerful. In
this case, the German government was voicing the concerns of German industrialists, who
did not like the Authority's intentions of challenging the re-formation of German steel cartels.
Governmental opposition to a powerful High Authority resulted in the creation of an
intergovernmental Council of Ministers to serve as a counterweight to supranational power in
the ECSC.
Page reference: 112
*not completed
What triggered crisis in the ECSC in 1959?
An acute shortage of coal incorrect
Widespread industrial action by coal and steel workers incorrect
The shift from coal to nuclear power incorrect
A fall in demand for coal correct
In 1959, the ECSC faced a crisis because the problem that it had been originally created to
address—a shortage of coal supplies—had disappeared. Demand for coal had fallen due to
increasing imports from the US, mild winters, and the increasing use of oil for Europe's
energy needs (not nuclear energy, this was not yet developed). This led to job losses and
economic hardship for the coal industry, which struggled to adjust, especially in Belgium.
The High Authority was not originally designed to deal with a crisis of this nature, and its
formal powers gave it few tools for aiding the restructuring of the industry.
Page reference: 112
*not completed
Why was agriculture included in the Treaty of Rome?
Germany insisted: they needed to rebuild their agricultural production incorrect
It was regarded as a vital dimension of the common market incorrect

It was politically important for securing French support correct
Agriculture was included in the Treaty of Rome primarily to help secure French support for
the deal. France had a large agricultural sector and farmers were a politically important
constituency in domestic French politics. France's small farmers were also relatively
inefficient and so the French wanted to secure the subsidies that a Common Agricultural
Policy could deliver. Agriculture was not a vital dimension of the common market, but rather
a bargaining chip used to secure it. The Germans accepted agriculture as a concession
because they wanted to secure the benefits of a common market, and the price they paid was
subsidizing French agriculture.
Who was the first president of the Commission of the EEC?
Paul Henri Spaak incorrect
Sicco Mansholt incorrect
Walter Hallstein correct
Walter Hallstein, a German, was the first president of the EEC Commission. He had been a
State Secretary in the German foreign office and had led the German team during
negotiations for the Treaty of Rome. Sicco Mansholt was the Dutch vice-president of the
Commission, and was also the Agriculture Commissioner. Jean Monnet was the first
president of the High Authority of the European Coal and Steel Community. When his term
ended in 1955, Monnet declared that he would not seek a second term. He did not seek the
presidency of the EEC Commission. Paul Henri Spaak was the Belgian foreign minister who
chaired the Spaak Committee that drafted the treaties of Rome.
*not completed
Who put pressure on national governments to speed up their reduction of internal tariffs in
the EEC during the period 1958-1960?
The Commission and business interests correct
The European Court of Justice and the Commission incorrect
The French government incorrect
The US incorrect
In the late 1950s, pressure for further integration came from business interests in Europe, as
well as the European Commission. Industry in Europe was in favour of reducing internal
barriers to trade within the European Community. The creation of the EEC triggered cross-
border investment and commerce. Industry was keen to see the speedy removal of internal
tariffs so they could reap the benefits and they lobbied national governments and the
European Commission to this end. The European Commission pushed for an accelerated
removal of internal trade barriers and the creation of a common external tariff; the Council of
Ministers agreed to this in 1960.
*not completed
True or false: Charles de Gaulle vetoed British membership of the EEC in 1963.
True correct
False incorrect
True. French President Charles de Gaulle vetoed the British membership application in
January 1963. By the early 1960s, Britain's ties with the old Commonwealth were waning
and its economic performance was lagging behind the EC six. Eager not to be left out, Britain
applied for membership of the EC in 1962. Charles de Gaulle did not welcome the
application. He argued that Britain's political and economic interests-and particularly its close
transatlantic relationship—were incompatible with those of the EC six. It is commonly
argued that British membership of the EC at the time would have threatened France's
dominant position in the EC. In January 1963, the French took a hard line in negotiations and
eventually forced their closure altogether, effectively vetoing the British application as well
as bringing to an end accession negotiations that were underway with Norway, Denmark, and
Ireland.
*not completed
What triggered the empty chair crisis in 1965?
French opposition to the British membership application incorrect
French opposition to the Common Agricultural Policy incorrect
German opposition to intergovernmentalism incorrect
French opposition to increasing the powers of the Parliamentary Assembly correct
The empty chair crisis in 1965 was triggered by French opposition to plans to increase the
powers of the Parliamentary Assembly and reform the revenue basis of the Community,
giving the EEC its own source revenues from a common external tariff. The EEC's budget
would then in turn be scrutinized by a more powerful Parliamentary Assembly (EPA), which
would have the power to reject the budget. At its root, this crisis was about French opposition
to increasing supranationalism in the EC. This shift in budgetary scrutiny power from
national governments to the supranational institutions was too much for French President
Charles De Gaulle, who wanted to see the EEC remain squarely intergovernmental. In
protest, he withdrew French ministers from Council meetings.
*not completed
What was the Luxembourg Compromise?
More supranationalism to appease Germany incorrect
More intergovernmentalism to appease France correct
An increase of the Parliamentary Assembly's powers to appease Luxembourg incorrect
A transition to majority voting to appease Luxembourg incorrect
The Luxembourg compromise, reached in January 1966, represented a move toward

increased intergovernmentalism in order to resolve the empty chair crisis—the French
boycott of Council of Minister meetings which arose out of de Gaulle's objection to
increasing supranationalism in the EC. The Luxembourg Compromise reinforced
intergovernmentalism in the EC through the following measures: first, it gave governments
the right to veto proposals in the Council of Ministers if their national interests were at stake.
This effectively halted a shift to majority voting, and consequently stalled integration. The
compromise also sought to limit supranationalism by keeping the EC budget funded by
national contributions and not from own resources and by limiting the political resources of
the Commission.
Page reference: 128
*not completed
What external circumstance hindered integration in the 1970s?
Decolonization incorrect
The Cold War incorrect
The oil crisis correct

The oil crisis hindered economic integration in the 1970s. Whereas the early progress of the
EEC had taken place against a background of sustained economic growth, a recession started
in 1971 which really began to bite after the December 1973 decision of the Organization of
the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) to force a quadrupling in the price of oil. This
context made governments more defensive and less inclined to agree to integrative measures
that would weaken their ability to preserve domestic markets for domestic producers. As the
economic context changed, the pace of European economic integration slowed and there was
no advance towards political union. Uncertainty within member states restricted the scope for
Commission activism.
*not completed
What does 'widening' of the EC refer to?
Enlargement to include more member states correct
Broadening of the range of policy areas in which the EC is active incorrect
Increases in the EC budget incorrect
Resolving outstanding issues on the EC agenda incorrect
Widening of the EC refers to geographical enlargement to include more member states.

Widening was one of the objectives of the 1969 Hague Summit. One year later, negotiations
began with the first group of accession countries, Britain, Ireland, Denmark, and Norway. In
1973, Britain, Ireland, and Denmark joined the union, but Norwegians rejected membership
in a referendum. Widening as a form of integration can be contrasted with deepening, which
refers to an extension of the range of policy areas in which the EC is active. The Hague
Summit sought to deepen integration by moving toward economic and monetary union.
Resolving outstanding issues on the EC agenda is referred to as 'completion'.
Page reference: 130
*not completed
How did the Hague Summit resolve the budgetary issue?
The EC budget remained dependent on Member State contributions with no parliamentary

oversight incorrect
The EC gained 'own resources' with full parliamentary oversight incorrect
The EC gained 'own resources' with limited parliamentary oversight correct
EC revenues were reduced, eliminating the need for own resources incorrect
The Hague Summit of 1969 resolved the budgetary issue in the EC by granting the EC its
own resources and granting limited oversight powers to the parliament. This meant that the
EC moved from a system in which it was financed by member state contributions to a system
in which it had its own resources. These included revenues from the common external tariff
on goods imported into the EC and tariffs on agricultural goods imported into the EC under
the Common Agricultural Policy. The European Parliament was given limited powers over
the budget: it could propose amendments to 'non-compulsory' expenditures. The Council of
Ministers had the final say on the budget.
*not completed
Why did Britain hold a referendum on EC membership in 1975?
It was a constitutional requirement incorrect
Parliamentary ratification had failed incorrect
To secure a popular mandate and to overcome opposition in the Labour Party correct
The Labour Party was adhering to a Conservative Party promise to hold a

referendum incorrect
Britain held a referendum on EC membership in 1975 because it was a useful political device
to secure a clear mandate for membership in the face of a party that was deeply divided on
the issue of EC membership. In 1974, the Labour Party won the general election under the
leadership of Harold Wilson. Because of its deep internal divisions on the question of EC
membership, when fighting the 1974 election campaign the Labour Party promised to
renegotiate the terms of British membership and take the decision to the people (the terms of
the accession treaty had been negotiated by the previous Conservative Party prime minister,
Edward Heath). Ratification of the treaty was not a constitutional requirement; in fact, use of
the referendum does not conform with British constitutional tradition.
Page reference: 131
*not completed
What did European Political Co-operation achieve?
It created an intergovernmental framework for coordination on foreign policy issues correct
It created the position of a foreign minister for the European Community incorrect
It introduced a foreign policy dimension to the European Community incorrect

European Political Co-operation (EPC) created an intergovernmental framework for
coordination on foreign policy issues. This represented 'deepening' of integration and it
allowed Member States to develop common positions on the Middle East (which was
important as part of Europe's response to the oil crisis caused by OPEC embargoes), and at
the Conference for Security and Co-operation in Europe and for UN General Assembly
voting. This co-operation was limited. EPC did not take place within the institutional
framework of the European Community; co-operation took place purely on an
intergovernmental basis, without the involvement of the European Commission, the European
Parliament and the European Court of Justice. It was also limited—it did not create a foreign
minister position.
Page reference: 133
Which of the following institutional developments took place within the EC during Roy
Jenkins' presidency of the European Commission?
Enhancements to the position of president incorrect
Reform and de-bureaucratisation of the Commission incorrect
Direct elections to the European Parliament incorrect
Roy Jenkins, a former UK cabinet minister, became European Commission president in 1977.
His presidency heralded some reforms of the Commission and the wider EC. He enhanced
the role of the President of the Commission by securing agreement from all member states
that the Commission should have a presence at international economic summits, and that the
President should act as a spokesperson for the EC as a whole. He also undertook a de-
bureaucratising reform of the internal structure of the Commission. Further, under Jenkins'
presidency, direct elections were held to the European Parliament for the first time in 1979.
*not completed
What event preceded the 1977 membership applications of Portugal and Spain?
The collapse of dictatorship correct
Negotiation of the terms of accession incorrect
A referendum on membership incorrect
Before Spain and Portugal submitted applications for membership of the European
Community in 1977, dictatorships in both countries collapsed and Spain and Portugal began
the transition to liberal democracy. Spain and Portugal had applied for membership in the
1960s, during authoritarian rule, but these applications were rejected. After Franco's death in
1975, Spain began a process of democratic transition. In 1977 it lodged its membership for
EC membership. In 1976, Portugal completed its transition to parliamentary democracy and
made a successful membership application in 1977. Although Italy and France were worried
about Spanish competition on agricultural goods, the EC approved the Spanish and
Portuguese membership applications and they joined the EC in 1986. Negotiation of the
terms of accession is conducted after a country lodges an application for membership.
Page reference: 140
*not completed
Why were Britain's per capita contributions to the budget high in the 1970s?
It had more food imports from outside the EC than other member states incorrect
Higher levels of spending meant contributions from VAT receipts were higher incorrect
Its small and efficient agricultural sector mean that it received a lower level of Common
Agricultural Policy (CAP) payments incorrect
Britain's per capita contributions to the budget in the 1970s were high for a number of
reasons. (1) Britain imported more goods, especially foodstuffs, from outside the EC than did
other member states, and therefore paid more in import levies. (2) Low direct taxes meant
that British consumers spent more in proportion to the relative wealth of the country, and
Britain therefore contributed more to the budget in value-added tax (VAT) receipts. (3)
Payments out of the budget were dominated by the common agricultural policy (CAP), and
Britain had a small and efficient farming sector that meant that it received less than states
with larger agricultural economies.
Page reference: 141
*not completed
Who became Commission president in 1981?
Roy Jenkins incorrect
Gaston Thorn correct
Valéry Giscard d'Estaing incorrect
Jacques Delors incorrect

Gaston Thorn, a former prime minister and foreign minister of Luxembourg, became the
president of the European Commission in 1981. He succeeded Roy Jenkins. Thorn held the
post until 1985, when Jacques Delors became Commission President. Before becoming
Commission President, Thorn was president of the United Nations General Assembly (from
1975 to 1976). The member states widely supported Thorn's appointment as Commission
President, and he was viewed as experienced and capable. He had served as a member of the
EP, and as both Foreign Minister and Prime Minister of Luxembourg, and while in these
posts had chaired the Council of Foreign Ministers and the European Council.
Page reference: 142
*not completed
The September 1981 plan for institutional reform was known as:
the Jenkins plan. incorrect
the Delors-Thorne plan. incorrect
the Kohl-Mitterand plan. incorrect
the Genscher-Colombo plan. correct
The September 1981 plan for institutional reform of the European Community was known as
the Genscher-Colombo plan. It was named after its sponsors, the German foreign minister
Hans-Dietrich Genscher and Italian foreign minister Emilio Colombo. The Genscher-
Colombo plan proposed extending the EC's powers into foreign policy and security matters.
The plan also proposed institutional reforms including increasing the powers of the European
Parliament and extending qualified majority voting in an effort to limit the paralyzing impact
of the national veto that had been introduced by the Luxembourg Compromise.
Page reference: 143
*not completed
Which institutional reform was necessary to implement the single market programme?
Qualified majority voting in the Council of Ministers correct
A directly elected European Parliament incorrect
Creating a three pillar structure of the European Union incorrect
QMV was designed to speed-up decision making by reducing substantially the number of
areas in which individual states could reject progress by use of their veto. QMV would apply
to measures related to the freeing of the internal market, although certain measures, including
the harmonization of indirect taxes and the removal of physical controls at borders, were
excluded at British insistence. Without the extension of QMV, the internal market project was
likely to be delayed and possibly lost through intergovernmental disputes. The European
Parliament had been directly elected since 1979. The Treaty of Maastricht created the three-
pillar structure to provide for co-operation in foreign and security policy and justice and
home affairs, not for completion of the single market.
*not completed
True or false: The British government was opposed to the single market programme.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The British government supported the single market programme. It coincided with the
belief of the British Prime Minister in universal free trade. In a 1990 speech to the House of
Commons, Margaret Thatcher described the single market as 'the most significant advance in
the Community since the Treaty of Rome', and gave the British government credit for having
been 'the driving force towards the single market'. For the British Conservative government at
the time, the single market represented a welcome move toward market liberalization.
*not completed
True or false: The SEA completely transformed the aims of integration far beyond those in
the Treaty of Rome.
True incorrect
False correct
False—while the SEA did extend the aims of integration beyond those in the Treaty of Rome,
they both had the same general goal: creation of a common market. In this sense, the SEA
was not a radical departure from the aims of the Treaty of Rome. The SEA gave the pace of
integration a huge boost in the mid-1980s, but it did not radically alter the direction in which
this integration took the EC. The SEA expanded integration to include some new policy
fields, such as the environment. It also introduced institutional reforms including the
introduction of qualified majority voting.
*not completed
Why did member states support the SEA?

It was seen as a way to revive economic growth correct
The deal on the SEA was made for the sake of European unity and co-operation incorrect
European voters demanded further integration incorrect
Member states supported the SEA because it was seen as a way to revive economic growth in
Europe, which had remained sluggish through the 1970s and 1980s. The great demand for
completing the single market came from governments and industry rather than from the
general public in Europe. Removing the remaining barriers to trade came with adjustment
costs for some of the EC's weaker economies, including Spain, Portugal, Greece, and Ireland.
To address this, the SEA reformed the structural funds to make money available to these
states to compensate them for their adjustment to the internal market. This helped to secure
their agreement on the treaty.
*not completed
What hindered implementation of the Single Market?
Lack of acceptance of the policy goal of a single market incorrect
Bureaucratic weakness incorrect
Demands for compensation for adjustment costs by new member states correct
Lack of clarity in the treaty incorrect
Implementation of the Single Market was hindered by demands made by some member states
for compensation to offset adjustment costs to market liberalizing reforms. While there was
general acceptance of the desirability of a Single Market, some countries faced greater
adjustment costs than others. The less developed economies of the new member states of
southern Europe in particular feared the impact of increased competition. They demanded and
received a substantial increase in structural fund payments, intended to foster economic
growth and development in the region. Neither bureaucratic weakness nor the clarity of the
treaty was a problem.
What were the recommendations of the 1989 Delors Report?
Removal of remaining barriers to completion of the single market incorrect
Introduction of a comprehensive Social Charter attached to the treaty incorrect
A shift toward intergovernmental decision-making incorrect

Progress toward monetary union and a single currency correct
The Delors Report addressed the issue of monetary union. At the Hanover European Council
meeting in 1988, the member states recognized that a commitment to completing the single
market led logically to a commitment to monetary union. They formed a committee, led by
Jacques Delors, to investigate how the EC could best move toward monetary union. The
Delors Report recommended a three-stage process to move toward economic and monetary
union. The report was presented to the June 1989 meeting of the European Council in
Madrid, which on a majority vote of eleven to one—Thatcher voting against—agreed to
convene an intergovernmental conference (IGC) to prepare proposals for changes to the
treaties to allow movement to a monetary union.
*not completed
Who famously described the TEU as a 'treaty too far'?
John Major incorrect
Helmut Kohl incorrect
François Mitterand incorrect
Margaret Thatcher correct
Margaret Thatcher described the Treaty of Maastricht as a 'treaty too far'. Having only
reluctantly agreed to the extension of qualified majority voting in the Single European Act in
order to reap the economic benefits of a single market, Thatcher viewed the extension of
powers to areas such as social policy, citizenship, foreign and security policy, and justice and
home affairs to be a blow to British sovereignty, and her successor as Prime Minister, John
Major, secured British opt outs from both the Treaty's social policy provisions and the final
stages of monetary union.
Page reference: 155
*not completed
What type of decision-making was the first pillar of the TEU characterized by?
The community method correct
Flexible co-operation incorrect
Intergovernmental incorrect

The first pillar was characterized by the community method. This meant that policy making
had a strong supranational dimension to it. In the first pillar (the 'community' pillar), the
Commission proposed legislation, and the Council of Ministers and the European Parliament
were co-legislators. The Council of Ministers generally operated by rules of qualified
majority voting. The European Court of Justice had jurisdiction to rule on disputes. By
contrast, the second pillar (common foreign and security policy) and the third pillar (policing
and judicial co-operation) operated on an intergovernmental basis, with little role for the
Commission. This three-pillar structure was created by the Treaty of Maastricht and was later
modified by the Treaty of Amsterdam. In 2009, the Lisbon Treaty fundamentally restructured
the EU's governing architecture by removing the three-pillar structure.
Page reference: 157
*not completed
Which of the following policy and institutional reforms were not included in the Treaty on
European Union?
Monetary Union incorrect
Extending the co-decision procedure in the European Parliament incorrect
The principle of subsidiarity incorrect
Electing judges of the European Court of Judges correct
Judges are appointed by the member states and have never been elected to the European
Court of Justice. The Treaty of Maastricht (another name for the TEU) did not alter that. The
treaty introduced a number of policy and institutional reforms. Monetary union was a major
policy initiative in the treaty. Institutionally, the treaty sought to make decision making more
efficient by extending qualified majority voting to a greater number of policy fields. It also
introduced the co-decision procedure in the European Parliament, which increased the power
of the European Parliament. The treaty made the principle of subsidiarity applicable to all
fields of shared policy jurisdiction. It meant that in these policy areas, action was only to be
taken by the Union if the policy objective could not be reached by member state action.
*not completed
True or false: The ratification of the TEU was difficult in many member states, eliciting a
public backlash.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The Treaty of Maastricht, signed on 7 February 1992, ran into difficulties during its
ratification process. In June of 1992, the Danish public rejected the treaty in a referendum by
50.7% to 49.3%, leading to the negotiation of an opt-out on joining the single currency and
on defence. The Danes later approved the treaty in a second referendum in May 1993. In
France, a referendum produced a very narrow majority in support of the treaty—50.3 to 49.7.
In Germany, the treaty was challenged in the Federal Constitutional Court. In Britain too,
there was clear evidence of serious public discontentment with the treaty. The treaty came
into force in November, 1993.
*not completed
Which member states joined the EU in the 1995 EFTA enlargement?
Norway, Sweden, and Finland incorrect
Sweden, Denmark, and Austria incorrect
Sweden, Finland, and Austria correct
Sweden, Norway, and Switzerland incorrect
Sweden, Finland and Austria joined the EU in the 1995 EFTA enlargement. All of these states
were members of the European Free Trade Association, created in 1960 with the aim of
establishing a free trade area. They applied for EU membership to capture the economic
benefits of the single market. While Norway had applied for membership in 1992 and had
taken part in accession negotiations, Norwegians rejected EU membership in a referendum
held in November 1994, the second time the Norwegian people voted to stay out of the EU
(the first referendum was in 1972). Denmark joined the EC in 1973, together with Britain and
Ireland. Switzerland is not a member of the EU.
Page reference: 160
*not completed
In what ways did plans for monetary union reflect German preferences?
The name of the currency incorrect
The convergence criteria incorrect
The location of the central bank incorrect
Plans for monetary union reflected the preferences of the German government in many ways.
These included the name of the currency, the convergence criteria and the location of the
central bank. The Germans supported calling the new currency the euro, while the French had
supported calling the currency the 'ecu'.
Secondly, the new central bank was to be located in Frankfurt. Finally, and most importantly,
the criteria for joining the single currency reflected German preferences for monetary
stability rather than French preferences for political influence. The convergence criteria for
joining the single currency were to be strictly enforced, and it was agreed that members of the
single currency would adhere to a stability pact, which limited inflation rates and deficit
spending.
*not completed
The 1994 Essen European Council put which foreign policy areas on the agenda?
The Maghreb and Middle East correct
Central and Eastern Europe incorrect
The Balkans incorrect
China incorrect
The 1994 Essen European Council put the Maghreb states and the Middle East on the foreign
policy agenda (the Maghreb refers to the Northern African states of Algeria, Morocco, and
Tunisia). This focus reflected the foreign policy interests of France and the Mediterranean
member states, who were most affected by instability in the region due to their geographical
proximity and, particularly for France, their historic ties to the Maghreb. The Essen Council
produced agreement on a stability pact and a package of several billion dollars' worth of aid
and loans from the European Investment Bank to encourage economic development.
Page reference: 164
*not completed
For what reasons were France and the Mediterranean states apprehensive about enlarging the
EU to the East?
They were concerned it would shift the balance of power in the EU. incorrect
They were concerned that problems affecting them would be relegated to a secondary
issue. incorrect
They were concerned that EU funds that came to them would be diverted to Eastern and
central Europe. incorrect

While the governments of France and the Mediterranean states could see the validity of
arguments in favour of enlarging the EU to accommodate formerly Communist Eastern
European states, they were apprehensive about the impact that such an enlargement would
have on the EU. They were concerned it would shift the balance of power definitively to the
North, and thereby relegate problems affecting them—including instability and conflict in
North Africa—to secondary issues. Finally, they were also concerned about the potential loss
of EU funding through the structural funds and CAP, which they felt would likely be diverted
to central and Eastern Europe.
Page reference: 164
*not completed
How has the Treaty of Amsterdam been characterized?
As a radical treaty incorrect
As a modest treaty correct
As a socialist treaty incorrect
As an economic treaty incorrect
The Treaty of Amsterdam has been characterized as a modest treaty. The treaty did produce
some policy developments in relation to CFSP and JHA and also increased the powers of the
European Parliament by extending the use of the co-decision procedure. However, no
agreement could be reached on other crucial institutional reforms that were believed to be
essential to pave the way for enlargement. Specifically, there was little extension of the use of
QMV by the Council of Ministers, because Germany blocked its extension to cover industrial
policy, social policy, and certain aspects of the free movement of labour. A compromise was
reached in relation to the number of European Commissioners—if more than two and fewer
than six members joined the EU, the Commission would continue to have one representative
from each member state. However, Spain insisted that it would only surrender its second
Commissioner in return for changes in the weighting of votes in the Council, which could not
be agreed. Consequently, a Protocol on the institutions was attached to the Treaty which tied
the size of the European Commission to the reweighting of votes in the Council. In these
ways, the treaty failed to fully agree broad institutional reform and therefore is deemed to be
a modest Treaty.
True or false: The Treaty of Nice extended qualified majority voting.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The Treaty of Nice extended qualified majority voting (QMV) in policy areas including
the free movement of citizens, judicial co-operation in civil matters, industrial policy,
international agreements on trade in services and intellectual property, and economic,
technical and financial co-operation with third countries. QMV was also extended to
appointments to some Union institutions (such as the Commission, the Court of Auditors and
the Committee of the Regions). It was not extended in taxation and social policy, two areas
that the Commission had identified as key areas for further integration. In addition, the
application of QMV to cohesion policy and immigration and asylum policy was delayed.
Page reference: 173
*not completed
What was the Lisbon Strategy?
A programme of institutional reform to prepare the EU for enlargement incorrect
A programme of policy reform to prepare the EU for enlargement incorrect
A programme on employment, economic growth, and social cohesion correct
A programme on transparency and accountability incorrect
The Lisbon Strategy is a programme focused on encouraging employment, economic growth

and social cohesion. In March 2000, the leaders of the EU member states agreed at the Lisbon
council meeting to commit themselves to the goal of making Europe 'the most competitive
and dynamic knowledge-driven economy by 2010'. Success of the Strategy depended on
strengthening investment in research and development, reducing bureaucracy to stimulate
innovation and entrepreneurship, and improving the employment rate to 70 per cent overall,
including a minimum of 60 per cent for women. Two features of the Strategy were
particularly significant. First, economic competitiveness and social cohesion were placed
side-by-side as objectives. Second, the Lisbon Strategy was to be pursued through what the
Presidency Conclusions to the summit described as the 'Open Method of Co-ordination'
(OMC).
*not completed
What were the main findings of the 2004 Kok report on progress toward the Union's Lisbon
agenda goals?
The Union was well on track to achieving its goals by 2010 incorrect
The Union needed to focus on employment and growth instead of social cohesion and
environmental sustainability incorrect
The Union needed to improve its coordination and focus on key areas of growth and
sustainability correct
The Lisbon agenda should be pursued by the community method due to lack of
progress incorrect
The Kok report, Facing the Challenge, was presented to the European Commission on 3
November 2004 and to the European Council the following day. It advocated a need to
improve coordination and focus on key areas of growth and sustainability. The report
confirmed what everyone knew already: that delivery on the process of reform had been
'disappointing'. Although it was already too late to meet some of the targets that had been set
for 2010, the report argued that the date should not be abandoned, as there was a need to instil
a sense of urgency into the process. Beyond that, the report pointed to the need to focus on
core objectives and to allocate responsibilities more precisely. So long as the Lisbon Agenda
remained so broad, it ran the risk of being about everything, and therefore about nothing. The
report also proposed that the number of key indicators should be reduced from over 100 to
just fourteen; and the emphasis should be placed clearly on growth and employment, because
they were essential to underpin the social and environmental objectives.
Page reference: 175
*not completed
What impact did the 2003 war in Iraq have on European Security and Defence Policy
(ESDP)?
It accelerated integration in this area incorrect
It led to the development of a united European front in support of military action incorrect
It led to the development of a united European front against US action incorrect
It created divisions among member states correct
The war in Iraq created divisions among member states in Europe. France and Germany were
opposed to the US-led war in Iraq. There was no evidence that the secular Ba'ath regime of
Saddam Hussein supported Islamic terrorism, or had any involvement in the September
terrorist attacks. Similarly, there was no more than circumstantial evidence, which
subsequently proved to be totally inaccurate, that Iraq possessed weapons of mass destruction
with which it could attack the United States or its allies. In the build-up to the eventual
invasion of Iraq, the EU split over how to react to the US initiative. Britain, however, was a
strong ally of the US. Spain, Italy, and a number of CEECs also supported the US. These
divisions made it very difficult for the European Union to maintain a united foreign policy
stance. In particular, the issue divided the two member states at the forefront of the ESDP,
France, and Britain.
Page reference: 176
*not completed
After meeting in Laeken in December 2001, how did member states propose to deal with
reform of the EU?
Hold an intergovernmental conference to draft a treaty incorrect
Create a constitutional convention to draft a treaty correct
Set up a Commission task force to draft a treaty incorrect
Leave the issue for five years incorrect
In December 2001, the heads of government, meeting in Laeken (Belgium), decided to create
a Constitutional Convention. The adoption of the Declaration on the Future of the European
Union committed the EU transforming its decision-making procedures to make them more
democratic and transparent and to prepare the ground for a European Constitution. The
vehicle for moving forward reform was a Constitutional Convention, which brought together
representatives of national governments and parliaments from both the member and accession
states with representatives of the EU and which was chaired by the former French President,
Valéry Giscard d'Estaing. It would be a unique forum in both its role and composition,
designed to secure legitimacy for the reforms by incorporating the views of a broad range of
actors. In addition to the formal members of the Convention and observers, various business
representatives, non-governmental organizations, academics, and other interested parties
would be consulted on specific topics. The Convention's Chair would report on progress at
each European Council meeting and receive the views of the heads of government, and the
Convention's final report would provide the starting point for discussions and decisions at an
IGC scheduled for 2004.
*not completed
True or false: After a long and difficult process of negotiation, the Constitutional Treaty failed
because of the refusal of some member states to sign it.
True incorrect
False correct
False. All 25 member states signed the Treaty Establishing a Constitution for Europe (also
known as the 'Constitutional Treaty') on 29 October 2004. However, in order for any treaty to
enter into force, it has to be ratified by each country, according to the constitutional traditions
of the country. This means that some countries ratify treaties through their national
parliaments, while others hold a referendum. This is where the Constitutional Treaty ran into
problems. On 29 May 2005, French voters rejected the treaty in a referendum. Dutch voters
followed suit three days later. Several member states subsequently postponed their ratification
plans, leaving the future of the ratification process uncertain.
Page reference: 178
*not completed
What circumstances led to increased optimism regarding Turkey's EU membership

application?
Improvement in Turkish-Greek relations incorrect
A stronger Turkish commitment to meeting the Copenhagen criteria incorrect
A change in government in Germany incorrect
Turkey's membership prospects improved following a thaw in Greek-Turkish relations, a

stronger Turkish commitment to meeting the Copenhagen criteria, and a change of
government in Germany. Turkish-Greek relations improved following the 'seismic diplomacy'
of 1999: the mutual exchange of aid and condolences following earthquakes in the two
countries that year. This in turn softened Greek opposition to Turkish membership. The
prospect of Turkish membership also improved following a change of government in
Germany in 1998. A change of government in Turkey in 2002 also produced rapid progress to
meeting the Copenhagen criteria. Moreover, the international climate meant that geo-strategic
factors were increasingly in Turkey's favour, although opposition to its accession remained
strong in some states in 2004, particularly in France.
*not completed
What characterized the 2004 European Parliamentary elections?
Widespread Euroscepticism incorrect
Campaigns fought on European foreign policy incorrect
Campaigns fought on the Constitutional Treaty incorrect
None of the above correct
None of the above. There was hope among EU leaders that the publicity that the 1 May 2004
enlargement had generated would result in an increased turn-out for the elections in June
2004. However, the 2004 European Parliamentary elections were characterized by a
historically low turnout of 45.7%. In the newest member states, it was even lower. Although
Eurosceptic parties recorded gains in some member states, they did not dominate the
campaign. Furthermore, like most European Parliamentary elections, campaigns tended not to
be fought on European issues such as the constitutional treaty or a European foreign policy,
but instead focused on national issues.
Page reference: 179
*not completed
Which of the following member states held two referendums on the Lisbon Treaty?
Czech Republic incorrect
Poland incorrect
Ireland correct
Germany incorrect
Ireland was the only EU member state committed to holding a referendum on the Lisbon
Treaty. This was in sharp contrast to the ten EU states who had decided to do this for the
Constitutional Treaty. In a first referendum on 12 June 2008, the Irish people rejected the
treaty with a vote of 53.4% against (from a turnout of 53.1%). Opinions varied on the reasons
for the no vote. Those disappointed by the outcome spoke of misinformation being spread
about the purposes of the treaty in relation to issues such as abortion, euthanasia, and defence
policy. Domestic politics also played a role, not least the unpopularity of Prime Minister
Bertie Ahern, who supported a yes vote. There was also widespread recognition that yes
campaign had been lacklustre. At the European Council of December 2008, Ireland was given
reassurances in relation to areas of concern raised in the referendum campaign, including
taxation policy, family and social issues, and foreign policy. In exchange, the Irish
government agreed to hold a referendum and in October 2009, 67.13% (on a turnout of 59%)
voted in favour of the treaty. Problems in relation to ratification were also experienced in the
Czech Republic, Poland and Germany. Controversies here centred on court rulings and splits
between political elites, but did not involve referendums.
Page reference: 181
*not completed
The failure to ratify the Constitutional Treaty and the difficulties in ratifying the Lisbon
Treaty suggest that the EU is subject to which of the following?
Permissive consensus incorrect
Constraining dissensus correct

Depoliticization incorrect
Chronic instability incorrect
According to Carbone (2010: 230), the EU is subject to a constraining dissensus. He states:

'the "permissive consensus" that characterized the early years of the European Union has
increasingly turned into a "constraining dissensus"'. Scholars have identified a gap between
elites and public opinion in relation to the pursuit of deeper European integration. Domestic
political audiences are becoming increasingly difficult for the political elite to ignore and can
no longer be relied upon to accept without question proposals for institutional change and
treaty reform. The underlying problem is one of legitimacy and the implication is that
European voters are not satisfied with the democratic credentials of the EU.
Page reference: 182
In May 2010, the EU and which of the following organisations agreed financial assistance of
€110 billion over three years to support the struggling Greek economy?
World Bank incorrect
International Monetary Fund (IMF) correct
G20 incorrect
Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) incorrect
In May 2010 and in response to the serious economic situation in Greece, the EU and the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) agreed financial assistance of €110 billion over three
years, in exchange for a programme of public sector reform leading to cuts in public spending
and increases in tax revenue. Greece had to accept a €30 billion package of spending cuts and
tax increases to reduce its budget deficit by five percentage points in 2010 and a further four
percentage points in 2011. Although there was some reluctance in some of the member states
to 'bail-out' Greece, EU leaders argued that if the EU did not act to bolster the Greek
economy there could be a domino effect that would threaten other weak euro-zone countries
(the so-called Piigs—Portugal, Ireland, Italy, and Spain in addition to Greece). Moreover, the
EU did not want to countenance Greece being forced out of the euro-zone and thus
undermining the credibility of the currency.
Page reference: 187
*not completed
Which of the following states received EU bail-outs?
Ireland, Portugal, Cyprus correct
Ireland, Spain, Italy incorrect

Spain, Portugal, Italy incorrect
Ireland, Cyprus, Italy incorrect
Ireland, Portugal and Cyprus received financial aid packages from the EU/IMF. In November
2010, the EU/IMF granted Ireland an assistance package worth €85 billion. In April 2011,
Portugal received a package worth €78 billion. In March 2013 a controversial €10 billion
loan was agreed for Cyprus. The bailouts required 'debtor' states to make significant
budgetary cuts and pursue policies of austerity. Despite being hit by a ratings downgrades and
high borrowing costs, Italy has not been in receipt of a bail-out from the EU.
*not completed
Which two EU states appointed unelected Prime Ministers for a period during the financial
crisis?
Greece and Italy correct
Greece and Portugal incorrect
Italy and Portugal incorrect
No EU state appointed an unelected Prime Minister correct
Greece and Italy appointed unelected Prime Ministers for a period during the financial crisis.
As Italy was hit by a wave of ratings downgrades and high borrowing costs, Silvio Berlusconi
resigned as Prime Minister in November 2011 and was replaced by Mario Monti—an
economist by training and a former EU Commissioner—who, until mid-2013, headed an
interim government tasked with implementing a series of austerity measures and liberalizing
the Italian economy. During the same period in Greece, Prime Minister George Papandreou
came under significant pressure from European governments leading to his resignation in
November 2011. His replacement as head of an interim coalition government was the
economist and former vice president of the European Central Bank (ECB), Lucas Papademos.
The appointment of two unelected and ostensibly 'market friendly technocrats' in Greece and
Italy could be interpreted as evidence of the way in which the crisis had exacerbated a
'democratic deficit' in the EU.
Page reference: 188
*not completed
True or False: The Treaty on Stability Co-ordination and Governance (TSCG) is not EU law.
True correct
False incorrect
The Treaty on Stability Co-ordination and Governance (TSCG) is not EU law. The initial
intention of Germany, and later the European Council President, Herman van Rompuy, was to
incorporate fiscal discipline rules through treaty reform. However, the UK withdrew its
support for treaty change when it was unable to extract concessions on financial services
regulation. The TSCG is therefore not EU law, but an intergovernmental treaty which
nevertheless uses EU institutions to ensure compliance. It was signed by twenty-five member
states (neither the UK nor the Czech Republic) on 2 March 2012. It was ratified using an
expedited process requiring ratification by twelve Eurozone member states and entered into
force (for those states that had ratified it) on 1 January 2013. It would enter into force for
other eurozone member states once ratification procedures were complete, and for non-
eurozone contracting parties when they adopted the euro.
*not completed
What does the Dublin Regulation stipulate?
That an application for asylum should be made and processed at the point of entry into the
EU. correct
That there are strict economic criteria that an EU member state has to meet before it is able to
accept asylum seekers. incorrect
That the President of the European Commission can rule on whether or not a claim for
asylum should be accepted. incorrect
That asylum seekers should be free to choose in which EU member state they would like to
make their asylum application. incorrect
The so-called Dublin Regulation specifies that an asylum application should be made and
processed at the point of arrival in the EU. In other words, an asylum seeker is required to
apply for asylum in the first EU member state they enter, and is not usually free to choose in
which member state they would prefer to make their application. During the so-called refugee
crisis, this put disproportionate strain on countries such as Greece and Italy—both among the
countries that had been most badly damaged economically by the eurozone crisis—as many
refugees fleeing the Civil War in Syria were arriving into these countries via the
Mediterranean Sea or the land border with Turkey.
Page reference: 192
*not completed
Which EU member states refused to accept any refugees under the terms of the September
2015 mandatory relocation scheme?
Germany and the UK incorrect
Greece and Italy incorrect
Hungary and Poland correct
France and Belgium incorrect
Against a chaotic backdrop, and despite opposition from a number of member states, in late
September 2015, a mandatory relocation scheme was agreed which sought to alleviate the
political and economic pressure on Greece and Italy caused by the Refugee Crisis by
relocating 160,000 refugees to other EU member states. The scheme was championed by the
European Commission and by receiving states like Germany, Greece and Italy, but support
for this and other measures to alleviate the crisis throughout the EU was mixed, particularly
in the wake of terror attacks in Paris. Notably, the populist governments of Hungary and
Poland refused to accept any refugees at all. By the time the scheme closed in September
2016, fewer that 20,000 refugees had been relocated.
Page reference: 193
*not completed
Which of the following was not part of the March 2016 agreement between the EU and
Turkey?
An EU undertaking to provide aid in support of refugees. incorrect
An EU undertaking to grant access to the Schengen area for Turkish nationals. incorrect
An EU undertaking to resettle some refugees from Turkish camps. incorrect
An EU undertaking to immediately extend full membership of the single market to

Turkey. correct
A controversial deal between the EU and Turkey in March 2016 sought to stem the flow of
refugees into the EU. Under the terms of the agreement, Greece would be able to return
migrants to Turkey. In exchange, the EU undertook to provide Turkey with a package of
financial aid (€6 billion); to extend access to the Schengen area to Turkish nationals; and to
resettle some refugees from camps in Turkey. The functioning of the agreement has been
fitful, with relations between Turkey and the EU being strained by Turkish military activities
in Kurdish Northern Syria. For its part, the Turkish government has argued that the EU has
been slow to fulfil its commitments under the terms of the deal.
Page reference: 193
*not completed
Which of the following is not a characteristic of populism?

Populism is a 'thin' ideology that makes an appeal to 'the people' in contrast to 'the
elite'. incorrect
It is an exclusively right-wing phenomenon: there are no left-wing populists. correct
Populists usually present 'the elite' as a threat to 'the people'. incorrect
Populist parties tend to be 'anti-system' parties. incorrect
Populism has posed a major threat to the EU. It is generally considered to be a 'thin'
ideology—more of a political tactic or strategy than an ideology per se—which makes an
appeal to 'the people' and seeks to warn them of the threat posed by 'the elite' or 'the
establishment'. Populism can be adopted as a strategy by political actors on both the left and
the right, and can include very different understandings of who are 'the people' and who are
'the elite'. Populist parties tend to be 'anti-system', in that they seek to overhaul key aspects of
the political and economic status quo.
Page reference: 191
*not completed
Which state completed its accession to the EU in 2013?
Croatia correct
Montenegro incorrect
Former Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia (FYRM) incorrect
Albania incorrect
Croatia became the twenty-eighth EU member state on 1 July 2013. Montenegro is a

candidate for EU membership and began accession negotiations in 2010. FYRM (which
became North Macedonia in 2019) is also a candidate state, and began accession negotiations
in 2010. Albania applied for EU membership in 2009, and became an official candidate for
accession in 2014. A combination of slow reform processes and 'enlargement fatigue' have
slowed the enlargement process, and no new states have acceded to the EU since Croatia.
Page reference: 191
*not completed
Europe 2020 was a successor to what?
Lisbon Treaty incorrect
Agenda 2000 incorrect
Lisbon Strategy correct

Europe 2010 incorrect
In 2010, the EU launched its 'Europe 2020' strategy as the successor to the Lisbon
Strategy/Agenda. Like its predecessor, it focused on promoting jobs and growth. Framed in
the context of the then-emerging crisis, the Europe 2020 strategy (European Commission
2010) claimed to provide the vision required for member states to 'exit from the exceptional
support measures adopted to combat the crisis'. It supported the moves towards budgetary
consolidation (austerity), while emphasizing that this should be 'growth-friendly'. The
strategy referred to the EU as embodying a 'social market economy' and promoted such an
economy in a similar fashion to the Lisbon Strategy. Agenda 2000 was an earlier document
which consisted of the Commission's recommendations for the Union's financial framework
for the period 2000-6. The Lisbon Treaty came into force in 2009 and revised earlier treaty
provisions with a view to enhancing democracy in the EU. The treaty has not been revised.
There is no document or strategy 'Europe 2010'.
Page reference: 198
Which of the following characterized the three-pillar structure of the EU as it existed from
1993 to 2009?
One intergovernmental pillar and two supranational pillars incorrect
One supranational pillar and two intergovernmental pillars correct
Three supranational pillars incorrect
Three intergovernmental pillars incorrect
The Maastricht Treaty introduced a structure consisting of three pillars which was
characterized by one supranational pillar and two intergovernmental pillars: the supranational
EC pillar, governed by the Treaty establishing the European Community (TEC); and two
intergovernmental pillars, covering the Common Foreign and Security Policy (CFSP) and
Justice and Home Affairs (JHA), governed by the Treaty on European Union (TEU).
Subsequent amendments, made by the Treaties of Amsterdam and Nice, scaled back the
policies covered by the JHA pillar by moving some to the EC pillar. However, the CFSP
remained distinctively intergovernmental. This three-pillar structure was an important part of
the EU's functioning from 1993–2009, but was abolished as of December 2009. The CFSP
remains distinctively intergovernmental, but all other policies are consolidated into a single
order governed by the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union (TFEU).
*not completed
Which of the following is one of the Union's consultative institutions?

The Council of Ministers incorrect
The Committee of the Regions correct
The European Parliament incorrect
The Commission incorrect
The Committee of the Regions (CoR), established by the Treaty of Maastricht, is one of the
Union's consultative committees. This committee represents the views of regional and local
governments in the Union. The Council and Commission consult the Committee of the
Regions when proposed legislation has a significant impact on regional and local
government. The other consultative body in the Union is the European Economic and Social
Committee (ESC), established by the 1957 Rome Treaties. The EESC is a consultative body
representing economic and social interest groups (employers, employees, and other interest
groups). These committees have consultative powers only—they cannot propose, amend, or
veto legislation. The Council of Ministers, the European Parliament, and the Commission are
all institutions with formal decision-making powers.
Page reference: 215
*not completed
Which EU treaty sets out in detail the operation of the European Council?
Treaty of Lisbon correct
Treaty of Maastricht incorrect
Treaty of Nice incorrect
The Treaty of Lisbon is the first EU treaty to set out in detail the operation of the European
Council. The body was set up in 1974 and has grown in importance but the treaties did not
spell out its operation until the Lisbon Treaty. The European Council is comprised of the EU's
top political figures: the Heads of State and Government of the 27 member states, the
President of the European Council, the President of the European Commission, and the EU's
High Representative for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy. It has an important agenda-
setting role and oversees all EU activity including Common Foreign and Security Policy
(CFSP). The European Council has effectively positioned itself at the apex of the European
Union, guiding the direction of all pillars of the EU during the period 1993-2009, and from
December 2009, of all EU policies. In practical terms, this means that legislation and other
decision making typically takes place in a context that the European Council may have
already agreed.
Page reference: 209
*not completed
What are the core functions of the Commission?
To approve the budget and implement legislation incorrect
To enact legislation and serve as guardian of the treaties incorrect
To co-legislate with the Parliament and draft the budget incorrect
To draft the budget and propose legislation correct
The core functions of the Commission are to draft the budget and propose legislation to the
Council of Ministers. The budget that the Commission prepares is subject to the approval of
the Council of Ministers and European Parliament (EP). The Commission has the sole legal
authority to propose legislation. It is then up to the Council of Ministers, together with the EP
to approve the legislation. The Commission has other important functions, which include
acting as the 'guardian' of the treaties, ensuring that the EU legislation is implemented and
adhered to. With few exceptions, it is the responsibility of the national governments to
implement legislation.
Page reference: 210
*not completed
Despite progressive extension of the use of qualified majority voting (QMV), which of the
following policy areas remains subject to unanimity?
Tax incorrect
Foreign policy incorrect
Language rules incorrect
All of these areas remain subject to unanimity. The TEU's Article 16(3), as revised by the
Lisbon Treaty, presents qualified majority voting (QMV) as the default provision for decision
making. There were quite a large number of new provisions for QMV in the Lisbon Treaty,
but quite a lot of them are limited in scope. The key moves to QMV were on energy security,
emergency humanitarian aid, intellectual property, social security for migrant workers, and
judicial co-operation (the last after a five-year transition period). The key areas that remain
subject to unanimity are: tax, social security, foreign policy, common defence, operational
police co-operation, language rules, and the location of the EU's institutions.
Page reference: 211
*not completed
The Lisbon Treaty has given more powers in the budgetary process to which EU institution?
European Central Bank incorrect
The Lisbon Treaty has given the European Parliament (EP) more powers in the budgetary
process. The European Council plays an important agenda-setting role but it plays no formal
role in the annual budgetary process. The Commission has responsibility for drawing up a
preliminary draft budget and for mediating between the Council and EP in the event that the
institutions fail to agree a final budget. The Council of Ministers adopts the draft budget
prepared by the Commission and then works with the EP to agree a final budget. New rules
introduced by the Lisbon Treaty have increased the powers of the EP during this phase of the
drafting process. The European Central Bank plays no role in the budgetary process.
*not completed
What is the Ordinary Legislative Procedure (OLP)?
Qualified majority voting (QMV) in the Council of Ministers and co-decision with the
European Parliament (EP) correct
Unanimity in the Council of Ministers and co-decision with the European Parliament
(EP) incorrect
Qualified majority voting (QMV) in the Council of Ministers and consultation with the
European Parliament (EP) incorrect
Qualified majority voting (QMV) in the Council of Ministers and consent with the European
Parliament (EP) incorrect
The term Ordinary Legislative Procedure (OLP) was introduced by the Lisbon Treaty to
cover those instances where the Council of Ministers may decide on legislation by QMV,
while holding co-decision powers with the European Parliament (EP). The terminology is
designed to present this pattern as the default arrangement in EU decision making, while all
other arrangements (unanimity in the Council and consent or consultation procedures in the
EP) are termed 'special legislative procedures'.
Page reference: 220
*not completed
Which of the following EC instruments is used to create legislation that is directly applicable
for member states?
Regulations correct
Directives incorrect
Decisions incorrect
Regulations are directly applicable in member states. This means that the national
government does not have to transpose the EC legislation into national law in order to
implement regulations. Regulations are binding. By contrast, directives are EC legislation
that must first be 'transposed' into national law through the creation or amendment of national
legislation. Directives, which are more widely used than regulations, allow the national
governments some flexibility to tailor the EC legislation to national conditions. Directives
specify the policy outcome, which is binding, but allow member states room to achieve this
through different means. Decisions are narrower than directives or regulations; they apply to
individual firms or individual member states.
*not completed
True or false: The Commission is responsible for the implementation of EU legislation.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The Commission has formal responsibility for ensuring that EU legislation is
implemented. This does not mean, however, that the Commission undertakes the day-to-day
task of the administration of policies. With the exception of a few policies, such as
competition policy and food aid, most policies are implemented by member states or jointly
by the Commission and the member states. As the guardian of the treaties, the Commission
ensures that member states are implementing EU legislation accurately and in a timely
manner. If the Commission believes a member state is failing to do so, it can take legal action
against it.
Page reference: 226
*not completed
Which of the following is not a type of EU competence?
Exclusive incorrect
Shared incorrect
Co-ordination incorrect
Inclusive correct
There is no EU 'inclusive' competence. The Lisbon Treaty spells out four types of EU
competence which define what the EU can or cannot do. Exclusive EU competence
represents the core business of the EU, and includes issues concerning the customs union,
competition rules for the common market and monetary policy for those states in the
Eurozone. Shared competences include the internal market, aspects of social policy, and
economic, social and territorial cohesion. The co-ordination competence relates to member
states' economic policies, employment, and social policies. The final area of competence is
supporting, co-ordinating, and supplementary action and concerns protection and
improvement of human health, culture, and tourism, among others. The Common Foreign and
Security Policy (CFSP) provisions are not included in the detailed catalogue of competencies
in the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union (TFEU) because it is outside the
Union method, and therefore contained in the Treaty on the European Union (TEU).
Page reference: 230
True or false: Commissioners represent each member state's interests.
True incorrect
False correct
False. While candidates for Commissioner positions are proposed by member states and the
portfolios are allocated among member states, individual Commissioners do not represent
their member states in the Commission. Instead, when Commissioners take office, they are
required to take an oath of loyalty to the Commission as a whole (the college of
Commissioners). The Commission operates by the principle of collegiality, or collective
responsibility—the whole Commission takes responsibility for the actions of any individual
Commissioners. It is for this reason that small member states tend to see the Commission as a
neutral agent and necessary counterweight to intergovernmental influence in the Union.
Larger member states once had a greater number of Commissioners; the Treaty of Nice
reduced this to one Commissioner for each member state from the 2004 enlargement onward.
Despite introducing a provision in the Lisbon Treaty to reduce the size of the Commission
even further, the European Council agreed to maintain the one Commissioner per member
state arrangement following concerns raised during the Irish Lisbon Treaty referendum
campaign.
*not completed
How long is the Commission's term of office?
Six months incorrect
Two years incorrect
Four years incorrect
Five years correct
The Commission is installed for a term of office of five years. (It was a four-year term before
this was extended to five years by the Treaty of Maastricht). This is the same length of time
as the European Parliament (EP). Aligning the terms of the Commission and the EP
strengthens the democratic linkage between the Commission and the voters because it allows
the newly elected European Parliament to scrutinize the nominees for Commission portfolios
and the nominee for Commission President. The Constitutional Treaty emphasizes this by
stipulating that the European Council should nominate the president taking into account the
political composition of the parliament. The term of the Commission president is renewable.
*not completed
According to intergovernmentalists, why do member states delegate policy-making to the

Commission?
It allows the member states to make use of the Commission's technical expertise. incorrect
It produces efficiency and credibility gains for member states. incorrect
It can do so without surrendering control over the broader direction of policy. incorrect
According to intergovernmentalists, the Commission is an important institution in the EU, but

the member states remain in control of the integration process. Member states choose to
delegate policy-making to the Commission for a number of reasons. First, it reduces the costs
of co-operation because the Commission is able to coordinate among member state positions
and find a common position that will receive support from the member states. Secondly, by
delegating the task of initiating policy, the member states can benefit from the Commission's
technical expertise, leading to sounder and more effective policies. Intergovernmentalists
argue that such delegation is accepted by member state because they are still able to steer the
broader agenda of the EU through the European Council and exercise effective oversight over
the Commission's actions. The intergovernmental interpretation also coincides with a
principal-agent interpretation of delegation to the Commission which draws on work from
comparative politics rather than integration theory. Majone (2001) argued that member states
delegate to the Commission for reasons of efficiency and credibility. According to this view,
the Commission (or agent) has better information and expertise than individual member states
or the EP. In credibility terms, the Commission is less exposed to being captured by powerful
interest groups.
*not completed
True or false: The Commission has sole right of initiative in 'Union method' legislation.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The Commission has the sole right to initiate proposals for legislation in all policy areas
under the Union method, with the exception of the Area of Freedom, Security and Justice
(AFSJ) where this power is shared. Articles 225 and 241 TFEU give the European Parliament
(EP) and the Council the right to invite the Commission to make policy proposals, but it
remains the prerogative of the Commission to make, amend and withdraw policy proposals.
The Commission's sole right of initiative has been weakened by the co-decision procedure,
where the Council and EP can agree on a text that differs from the Commission's original
proposal. Sharing the sole right of initiative that was granted in the EC Treaties is seen by the
Commission to threaten policy coherence and reduce the institutional equality between the
Parliament, Council and Commission, downgrading the Commission to a coordinating
institution.
Page reference: 244
*not completed
In which of the following policy areas does the Commission have direct implementation
powers?
Competition policy correct
Structural funds incorrect
Social policy incorrect
The Commission has limited resources compared to member states so it exercises sole power
of implementation over only a very limited range of policy areas. The Commission exercises
sole power of implementation over Competition policy. The Competition Directorate General
conducts its own investigations into mergers, price fixing, cartels, and state aid. Other policy
areas administered by the Commission are Fisheries and External Relations. Other policy
areas are administered by national governments in co-operation with the Commission. For
example, while the Commission oversees structural funds, they are administered by regional
agencies established by the member states. The Commission monitors national
implementation to ensure it conforms to the intentions of Community legislation.
Page reference: 251
*not completed
What event triggered a root-and-branch reform of the Commission's financial management?
The signing of the Maastricht Treaty in 1992 incorrect
The resignation of the Santer Commission in 1999 correct
The end of Jacques Delors' presidency of the Commission in 1995 incorrect
The post 2008 global financial crisis incorrect
The resignation of the Santer Commission in 1999 triggered a root-and-branch reform of the
Commission's financial management. The crisis was partly due to problems of financial
mismanagement. The Commission's White Paper of 2000 included, as one of four key
components, reform of the system of financial control and management. Internal
accountability was overhauled, with financial responsibility de-centralized to Director-
Generals, and the creation of an Internal Audit Service. More broadly, the Commission has to
make sure that fraud is not taking place using EU funds, but in this case including through
malpractice at member state level. The main weapon to this end is the European Anti-Fraud
Office, known by its French acronym, OLAF.
Page reference: 250
*not completed
How is the 'civil service' of the Commission structured?
It is organized by policy area into cabinets incorrect
It is organized by policy area into directorates-general correct
It is organized by country into national working groups incorrect
It is divided into councils staffed by member state and commission representatives incorrect
The services of the Commission are divided into Directorates-General. These can be
compared to ministries in national administrations. Currently there are 26 Directorates-
General, or 'DGs' and a number of services. In the past, Directorates-General were numbered,
but since 1999 they have been referred to by name. The Directorates-General are the
'bureaucracy' of the Union. Each DG is led by a Commissioner and his or her team, or
cabinet. The political leadership in the Commission is provided by the College of
Commissioners, led by the President of the Commission. Regular meetings of the college of
Commissioners allow the Commission to coordinate across the DGs and maintain policy
coherence.
Page reference: 239
*not completed
True or false: One of the reasons why the Commission is so influential is because it can
control the policy agenda.
True correct
False incorrect
True. Having sole right of initiation means that the Commission can control the policy agenda
of the European Union, not only deciding what policy proposals it sends to the Council and
Parliament, but also determining the timing of these proposals. This is an important resource
for the Commission. It means that the Commission can identify policy problems and propose
legislation without waiting for the Council to make the first move. Controlling the agenda
also means that the Commission can target the legislation to suit the prevailing political
climate, scaling back plans if potential support seems low, or proposing more sweeping
legislation to take advantage of a broader base of political support. By involving domestic
interests at the EU level, through instruments such as advisory committees, the Commission
seeks to win converts to the idea that an issue can best be handled at the European level.
Similarly, the Commission can utilize, and, if necessary, create, transnational networks of
producers who will be its allies in the private sector and bring pressure to bear on
governments to transfer competence in a sector to the EU level.
Page reference: 244
*not completed
How have the Commission's powers and independence within the decision-making process
been eroded?
The EP can request that the Commission initiate a proposal. incorrect
Co-decision means that there is a possibility that the Council and the EP may agree an
entirely different legislative text to that proposed by the Commission incorrect
Changes made to co-decision in the Treaty of Amsterdam incorrect

There are a number of ways in which the Commission's powers and independence within the
decision-making process have been eroded. Since Maastricht, the EP has the right to request
that the Commission 'submit any appropriate proposal on matters on which it considers that a
Community act is required for the purpose of implementing this Treaty' (Article 225 TFEU).
This allows the EP some power of initiation. The introduction of co-decision has made it
more difficult for the Commission to play the role of motor of integration because its
proposals have to satisfy a larger number of actors. Specifically, co-decision requires the
Commission to satisfy a majority in the EP as well as in the Council of Ministers. Co-
decision also opens the possibility of the Council and the EP agreeing an entirely different
legislative text from that put forward by the Commission. The changes made to co-decision
in the Treaty of Amsterdam have also further eroded the Commission's influence.
*not completed
Why has policy implementation become more difficult over time for the Commission?
The range of EC legislation is much greater than in the past incorrect
Policy responsibility is increasingly shared across different agencies and levels of

government incorrect
The capacities of the member states to implement policy varies across the EU incorrect
Managing policy implementation has become more challenging over time for the
Commission for a number of reasons. First, as integration has progressed, EC legislation has
spanned an increasing range of policy areas, making its job much bigger over time. Secondly,
managing policy implementation means managing the complex network of governments and
agencies that are involved in the delivery of Community policies—agencies at the national
and sub-national level. Through successive enlargements, the Union has become more
diverse. This has meant greater variation in the way different member states organize their
own administration and subnational agencies, as well as national variations in the capacity of
member states to effectively implement policies. All of these factors complicate the
Commission's task of monitoring implementation.
Whose interests are represented in the Council of the EU?
The heads of government of member states incorrect
Member state governments correct
Member state parliaments incorrect

Members of the European Parliament incorrect
The Council of the EU is an intergovernmental institution—it represents member state

governments. There is not one single Council. Instead, the term covers a range of ten sectoral
groupings according to the policy area under discussion. For example, environment ministers
meet together in the Environment Council, and agriculture and fisheries ministers meet
together in the Agriculture and Fisheries (Agfish) Council meetings. The Council of the EU is
a key EU institution. The functions of the Council are characterized by Hayes-Renshaw and
Wallace (2006: 323–7) as being legislature, executive, setter of guidelines, and forum. The
Council co-legislates with the European Parliament (EP) in a range of policy areas. The
executive functions of the institution relate to non-legislative decisions in areas including
Common Foreign and Security Policy (CFSP). Although the European Council has tended to
set policy guidelines, the Council does steer the course of policy in some areas, including
enlargement negotiations. Finally, the Council serves as a forum in those policy areas where
member state policy is being co-ordinated. This pattern of governance is known as the Open
Method of Co-ordination (OMC) and has in the last decade increased the 'forum' function of
the Council.
Page reference: 257–9
*not completed
Which of the following is a formal function of the European Council?
Oversight of treaty reform and enlargement incorrect
Provision of general political guidance and momentum incorrect
Decision maker of last resort incorrect
All of these options are functions of the European Council. The European Council is, since
the implementation of the Lisbon Treaty in 2009, a formal institution of the EU. The treaty
sets out in specific detail the composition and role of the European Council. It is composed of
the Heads of State or Government of the 27 member states, the President of the European
Council, the President of the European Commission, the High Representative of the Union
for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy, and, as necessitated by its agenda, Heads of State or
Government may each be assisted by a minister, and in the case of the President of the
European Commission, by a member of the Commission. The Lisbon Treaty sets out the
functions of the institution. These include providing broad political guidance and momentum,
oversight of treaty reform and enlargement, and the institution has a role in relation to
foreign-policy making. The Treaty also outlines the policy monitoring role of the European
Council in relation to the Area of Freedom, Security, and Justice (AFSJ), and details its role
as decision maker of last resort.
Page reference: 261
*not completed
True or false: The European Council is a formal EU institution.
True correct
False incorrect
True: The European Council is a formal institution since the implementation of the Lisbon
Treaty in December 2009. The origins of the European Council stemmed from French
President, Valéry Giscard D'Estaing, and the German Chancellor, Helmut Schmidt, who both
came to office in 1974. Both men strongly valued the opportunity to sit with their
counterparts and hold informal discussions in confidence without the requirement to take
formal decisions. This informal arrangement characterised the early operation of the
European Council. The existence of the European Council was first acknowledged in the
1986 Singe European Act (SEA), albeit in just three sentences. The Maastricht Treaty
formalized the European Council but did not cite it as being of the EU's institutions. It gave
the European Council a very small number of specific tasks, notably in economic and
monetary policy and in setting the direction of the Common Foreign and Security Policy
(CFSP). In 2009, the European Council set out more explicitly the role of the European
Council and unambiguously refers to it as an institution of the EU and makes specific
reference to the functions of the institution. These include oversight of general political
guidance and momentum, treaty reform and enlargement, and decision maker of last resort.
Page reference: 260
*not completed
What is COREPER?
The permanent committees of national civil servants who prepare the work of the
Council correct
The committee of Commission representatives to the Council incorrect
The Council meeting consisting of heads of government of member states incorrect
COREPER stands for the Committee of Permanent Representatives. They are the
ambassadors of member states and their deputies and they prepare the work of Council of
Ministers meetings by preparing the agenda and resolving lower-level issues that the
ministers themselves need not discuss. The ambassadors meet at least weekly as COREPER
II, and their deputies meet as COREPER I. The majority of the Council's work is settled in
the COREPER meetings, which means that the atmosphere is less political (and so less
potentially divisive). They decide which items need to be discussed by government ministers,
and so are important gate-keepers.
*not completed
Who chairs meetings of the Foreign Affairs Council?
President of the European Council incorrect
President of the European Commission incorrect
High Representative of the Union for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy correct
Foreign Affairs Minister of the state holding the Presidency of the EU incorrect
The High Representative of the Union for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy chairs
meetings of the Foreign Affairs Council. Following the 2009 Lisbon Treaty, the General
Affairs and External Relations Council (GAERC) was split into the General Affairs Council
(GAC) and the Foreign Affairs Council. GAERC had previously been by far the busiest
Council formation but also a very important one. The Foreign Affairs Council is composed of
the 27 Foreign Affairs Ministers and focuses on a narrower range of issues related to foreign
and security policy. The President of the European Council does not participate in Foreign
Affairs Councils, and nor does the President of the European Commission. Previous to the
creation of the post of High Representative of the Union for Foreign Affairs and Security
Policy, the GAERC was chaired by the Foreign Affairs Minister of the state holding the
Presidency of the EU.
Page reference: 266
*not completed
Why is bargaining in COREPER sometimes described as an 'iterated game'?
The ambassadors negotiate issues that do not affect their national interests incorrect
The ambassadors are involved in a bargain where each representative has a different and
deeply vested interest incorrect
The ambassadors are involved in a continuous process of bargains over a range of different
issues correct

The bargaining in the Committee of Permanent Representatives is sometimes described as an
'iterated game' because the representatives are involved in continuous negotiations over a
range of issues. To 'iterate' means to repeat. Because COREPER representatives face their
counterparts weekly to negotiate on a range of issues means that they are more likely to seek
compromise in order to facilitate agreement—doing so builds up mutual trust and goodwill
which will benefit their own bargaining position in future negotiations. This affects the
intergovernmental nature of Council bargaining. Member states may be willing to make a
concession on one issue because it may contribute to the 'social capital' necessary to earn a
concession in a future negotiation.
Page reference: 270
*not completed
Which of the following Council meetings does not have its agenda prepared by COREPER?
The Agriculture Council correct
The General Affairs Council incorrect
The Environment Council incorrect
The European Council incorrect
Most Council meetings have their agenda prepared by COREPER, the Committee of
Permanent Representatives. The Agriculture Council agendas, however, are prepared by the
Special Committee on Agriculture. The Special Committee on Agriculture (SCA) was
established in the 1960s to prepare the work of the Agriculture Council due to, what was at
the time, the highly technical nature of the agriculture dossier compared to other policy areas.
As a consequence of having its agenda prepared by the SCA, the work of the Agricultural
Council has been insulated to some degree from the cross-sectoral policy coordination that
occurs through COREPER preparation of Council agendas.
Page reference: 269
*not completed
Why was the European Council created?
To provide for intergovernmental leadership and policy coherence correct
To provide representation for member state governments in the policy process incorrect
To allow member states to coordinate more closely with the Commission incorrect

The European Council was introduced in the 1970s, a time of stalled integration, to provide
greater intergovernmental leadership and policy coherence in the European Community.
While the member state governments were already represented in the Council of Ministers,
creating summit meetings of European leaders provided an opportunity for member state
leaders to informally coordinate on policy areas, resolve difficult intergovernmental disputes,
set the broad policy agenda, and improve the policy coherence of EC activities. It was not
created to facilitate coordination with the Commission. Rather, the European Council was
created to provide a counterweight to Commission influence.
Page reference: 260
*not completed
True or false: The working parties that prepare material for COREPER work closely together
with the Commission.
True correct
False incorrect
True. Technical groups prepare the work of the Committee of Permanent Representatives of
the Council. These groups are composed of representatives from national governments. These
highly specialized groups work closely together with officials from the Commission to
develop recommendations for COREPER negotiations. Discussions within these groups more
closely resemble a technical problem-solving approach than a heavily politicized bargaining
approach, and research has shown that decisions tend not to be taken along national lines.
The close co-operation between the Commission and the technical groups of the Council
challenge traditional intergovernmental portrayals of the Council of the EU. Moreover, the
technical nature of their brief increases the autonomy of these groups.
*not completed
True or false: The post-Lisbon system comprises three different Presidencies across the
European Council and Council of the EU.
True correct
False incorrect
False: The post-Lisbon system comprises four different presidencies. Firstly, the President of
the European Council is appointed for a two-and-a-half year term. Secondly, the Presidency
of the Council of Foreign Affairs is chaired by the High Representative of the Union for
Foreign Affairs and Security Policy (a five-year appointment). Thirdly, the Euro Group,
which comprises only states in the Eurozone, elects its own president to a two-and-a-half year
term. Fourthly, a 'trio presidency' of three member states spans an eighteen month period, and
is responsible for other sectoral Councils and their preparatory bodies. The trio system had in
fact commenced in 2007, but was formalized by the Lisbon Treaty.
Page reference: 272
True or false: The European Parliament (EP) largely functions as a consultative body.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The EP has legislative, budgetary and supervisory functions. The EP can be best
described as a co-legislator, together with the Council of the EU, over many policy areas. The
Parliament's powers have steadily increased since it became directly elected and gained
budgetary powers in the 1970s. The turning point came with the Single European Act, when
the introduction of the co-operation procedure strengthened the role of the EP in the policy
process. This was further reinforced by the co-decision procedure introduced in the Treaty of
Maastricht. This procedure is based on parity between the EP and Council: neither may adopt
legislation without the other's agreement. This effectively means that the Council and EP are
co-legislators. Later treaty revisions further extended the use of co-decision. Under the
Lisbon Treaty, co-decision between the Council and the EP has become the predominant
basis for legislative decision-making.
*not completed
What scrutiny and supervisory powers does the EP have over the Commission?
It does not have the right to supervise the Commission incorrect
The right to dismiss individual Commissioners incorrect
The right to select and approve the incoming Commission president incorrect
The right to approve the appointment and call for the dismissal of the Commission correct
The EP has the power to approve the appointment of the Commission and to call for the
dismissal of the Commission as a whole. The Commission both approves the member states'
nominee for Commission President (approving, but not selecting this candidate) and votes to
approve the college of Commissioners. Before voting to approve an incoming Commission, it
holds confirmation hearings during which it subjects nominees to detailed questioning. The
Parliament does not have the legal right to dismiss individual Commissioners. This makes its
right of censure less powerful. Although the Lisbon Treaty did not result in major changes to
the relationship between the Commission and EP, the nomination of Commission President
must now take into account the results of elections to the EP (Article 17, TEU). This is a
means to ensure that the political persuasion of both institutions is reasonably uniform.
*not completed
True or false: The European Court of Justice has helped the Parliament increase its powers
over time.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The European Court of Justice (ECJ) has helped the EP increase its powers over time
through its rulings which have either clarified or expansively interpreted the powers of the
Parliament. The EP has made use of its right to take other institutions to the ECJ to clarify the
intent of the treaties. The 1980 Isoglucose ruling added teeth to the EP's right to be consulted
by specifying that this meant that the Council of Ministers had to wait for the Parliament's
opinion. This gave the Parliament a power of delay. Rulings on the Parliament's budgetary
powers confirmed the Parliament's role as a joint budgetary authority together with the
Council of Ministers. The budgetary powers of the EP have been further strengthened by the
Lisbon Treaty which removes the distinction between compulsory and non-compulsory
expenditure. This has served to make the EP and Council co-equal budgetary authorities.
Page reference: 282
*not completed
True or false: The President of the EP participates in European Council meetings.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The President of the EP is invited to the start of European Council sessions 'to be
heard' (Article 235 TFEU) but does not participate in its meetings after this opening
opportunity to make a contribution. The Lisbon Treaty (Article 15 TEU) formalized the
practice whereby the EP is given a report following each European Council meeting.
Page reference: 281
*not completed
How are MEPs organized in the Parliament?
They sit in national groups incorrect
They sit in national political parties incorrect
They sit in transnational party groupings correct

They do not form groups incorrect
MEPs sit in transnational party groupings within the EP. A small number of MEPs sit as non-
affiliated members. The largest party groupings are the European People's Party, a group that
brings together Christian Democratic parties from across Europe, and the Progressive
Alliance of Socialists and Democrats (formerly known as the Socialist Group but renamed
after the 2009 election), which brings together socialists, social democrats and other centre-
left parties. Since the 2009 election, forming a political group requires at least 25 MEPs from
at least a quarter of the member states. There is a strong incentive for MEPs to form groups.
Key political resources, such as funding, chairmanships and rapporteurships of committees
are only available to party groups.
Page reference: 290
*not completed
Why are European Parliamentary elections considered to be 'second order' elections?
Because voters consider national elections to be more important correct
Because EP elections are held after national elections incorrect
Because a single vote has less weight in EP elections than in national elections incorrect
European Parliamentary elections are considered to be 'second order' contests because to

voters, national elections are more important. Less is at stake in EP elections because the
composition of the Parliament does not determine the executive office. As a result, we find
that EP elections are characterized by lower turnout and voting decisions that reflect
assessments of national governing parties (voters tend to punish incumbent national parties).
National political parties contribute to this by focusing their election campaigns on national
issues. This affects the quality of representative democracy in the EU because it reduces the
ability of EP elections to effectively reflect voter preferences on European issues.
Page reference: 289
*not completed
How did the EP maximize their power to consent to the appointment of the Commission as a
whole?
They introduced public committee hearings correct
They introduced a requirement of unanimity to approve the Commission incorrect

The Treaty of Maastricht gave the EP the power to consent to the appointment of the
Commission. This power applies to the Commission in its entirety and not to individual
Commissioner appointments. Nevertheless, the EP maximized these powers by undertaking
their scrutiny of the nominated Commissioners in public committee hearings. Specialist
committees of the EP question the nominees for Commissioner posts in sessions that allowed
for a thorough examination of the Commissioner's grasp of the policy portfolio. The decision
to hold the hearings in public raised the profile of the Parliament's scrutiny role. Holding
public scrutiny meetings was not dictated by the treaty—it was the product of the
Parliament's own internal rules of procedure.
Page reference: 286
*not completed
Why did the member states agree in 1975 to introduce direct elections to the Parliament?
France supported stronger supranational institutions incorrect
European citizens were demanding more democracy incorrect
Germany, Italy, and the Benelux countries wanted a more democratic parliament correct
Britain refused to join the EC unless the Parliament was directly elected incorrect
Germany, Italy, Belgium, the Netherlands, and Luxembourg all supported a directly elected
parliament. Before the EP became directly elected in 1979, the European Political Assembly
(EPA) (as it was called) consisted of members of national parliaments. Its legitimacy was
indirect. The EPA was a weak body, with consultative powers. Germany, Italy, and the
Benelux countries supported the shift to direct elections because they thought it would
increase the democratic legitimacy of the Parliament. France agreed, partly because some
domestic political parties supported the move. Britain was reluctant to increase to introduce
direct elections. However, following the French decision to support direct elections, the
British (then led by the Labour Party) agreed to direct elections. However, Britain did insist
on delaying the first elections by one year until 1979 due to divisions within their own party
and the Labour Party's reliance on support from the Liberal Party to stay in office. The
transition to a directly elected Parliament was also a trade-off for increasing the budgetary
powers of the parliament during reforms that gave the EC own-source resources.
Page reference: 283
*not completed
True or false: While the EP has formal powers of scrutiny over the budget, it rarely exercises
this power.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Since it became directly elected, the EP has not been shy about exercising its powers of
scrutiny and discharge of the budget. In 1980, it blocked the Commission's budget, and in
1982, the Council took the EP to the European Court of Justice (ECJ) over its amendments to
the budget. The Council and Parliament went to the ECJ again in 1985 when the EP
attempted to reduce agricultural expenditure, which it was not entitled to do. Finally, the
resignation of the Santer Commission was triggered in 1999 when the Parliament refused to
sign off the 1996 budget. The 2009 Lisbon Treaty has further expanded the budgetary powers
of the EP by abolishing the distinction between compulsory and non-compulsory expenditure.
Consequently, the EP and the Council are co-equal budgetary authorities. In late 2010,
disagreements between the two institutions about the new budget emerged.
*not completed
What might reduce the independence of MEPs from their national parties?
MEPs may seek a career path that leads back to national politics incorrect
National parties control re-nomination for constituencies incorrect
Both of the above correct
Neither of the above incorrect
MEPs may face pressure to vote along the lines preferred by their national party. This
pressure could be particularly strong if MEPs hope to pursue a career at the national level.
This, together with the fact that national parties control re-nomination for constituency seats,
means that MEPs will be reluctant to fall foul of national party preferences and so may face
pressure to vote along national party lines rather than according to European party group
lines. This pressure can undermine the independence of MEPs. However, research suggests
that MEPs increasingly consider the EP to be a desirable site in its own right for a political
career.
The Court of Justice of the EU is comprised of which two courts?
The Court of Justice (CJEU) and the General Court correct
The Court of Justice (CJEU) and the EU Civil Service Tribunal incorrect
The General Court and the EU Civil Service Tribunal incorrect

The General Court and the Court of Auditors incorrect
The Court of Justice of the EU comprises the Court of Justice (CJEU and the General Court.
The General Court was established in 1989 as the Court of First Instance, but gained its new
name with implementation of the Lisbon Treaty in 2009. It was created to help the CJEU with
the sheer volume of business that it had to get through. The General Court is effectively the
central administrative court of the EU. It acts in a range of circumstances but plays a
significantly important role in competition law and external trade law cases. The CJEU is the
most important of the two courts. It makes binding decisions on disputes over Treaty
provisions or secondary legislation and so plays an essential role in developing the EU. The
EU Civil Service Tribunal was established in 2005, with responsibility for hearing disputes
between employees of the EU institutions and the institutions themselves. Its work was added
to the General Court's work in 2016. The Court of Auditors of the EU is not one of the three
courts of the Court of Justice of the EU. It was established in 1975 and its main task is the
auditing of the accounts and implementation of the EU budget.
Page reference: 299
*not completed
True or false: The CJEU has the power to annul Community legislation.
True correct
False incorrect
True. An annulment proceeding is one of the actions that the CJEU can hear. A member state,
the Council, the Commission, the European Parliament (EP), the Court of Auditors, the
European Central Bank (ECB), or the Committee of the Regions can apply to the CJEU as
plaintiffs for the annulment of EU acts of legislative acts. The court can annul legislation if it
finds that there was no basis in the Treaty for the Community to act, if action was taken by
the wrong institution or the wrong level of government (for example, if, according to
principle of subsidiarity, action should have been left to the member states), or if procedures
were not properly followed. Annulment can result in all or part of the legislation being struck
down. The 2009 Lisbon Treaty extended judicial review beyond acts of the Commission, the
Council, and the EP to include such acts of the European Council, the ECB, and EU agencies
as have legal effects.
Page reference: 301
*not completed
Who requests preliminary rulings from the CJEU?
The General Court incorrect

The Council of Ministers incorrect
Member state courts correct
Preliminary rulings are requested from the CJEU by national courts. Sometimes national
courts are faced with interpreting a point of EC law. The preliminary ruling, or preliminary
reference procedure, allows national courts to seek an initial (preliminary) ruling on the
interpretation of EC law. The national court can then use this interpretation. The use of the
preliminary reference procedure by national courts has increased over time. This has
sometimes been cited by commentators as evidence of legal integration driven by national
actors—in this case, national courts.
Page reference: 301
*not completed
True or false: The Isoglucose ruling effectively gave the European Parliament the power of
veto.
True incorrect
False correct
False. In the 1980 Isoglucose case, the Council and Commission enacted a piece of
legislation before it had received the Parliament's opinion on the draft legislation. (The
treaties gave Parliament the right of consultation in this area.) When the directive was later
challenged in Court, the CJEU struck down the legislation, ruling that the Commission and
Council had exceeded their authority by not waiting for the Parliament's opinion. This created
an effective power of delay for the Parliament. However, this ruling did not create a veto for
the Parliament. The Court also ruled that Parliament had a duty to submit its opinion in a
timely fashion.
Page reference: 302
*not completed
Which institution expanded its powers under the Les Verts ruling?
The Court of Justice of the EU correct
The Council incorrect

The 1986 Les Verts ruling extended the power of the CJEU by giving it jurisdiction to review
the legality of acts of the European Parliament (EP). The case is an example of the Court
rewriting the boundaries of the Community institutions. In an activist interpretation of the
Treaties, it expanded the scope of Article 173, which gives the CJEU jurisdiction to review
the legality of Council and Commission acts, to also include the EP, arguing that such an
interpretation was consistent with the spirit and intent of the treaty text. The Les Verts ruling
also laid the foundation for the future expansion of the powers of the European Parliament as
a plaintiff before the court.
Page reference: 303
*not completed
True or false: The Treaty of Rome established the doctrine of the supremacy of EC law.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The doctrine of the supremacy of EC law—the principle that EC law is the highest law
of the land, taking precedence over national law—was not contained in the founding treaties.
Instead, this legal doctrine was 'discovered' in the 1964 landmark case, Costa v ENEL. The
Court ruled that in the event of a conflict between EC and national law, EC law would
prevail. This contributed to a 'constitutionalization' of EC law. The Court's rationale was that
supremacy of EC law was necessary if there was to be a single body of EC law that applied
equally across member states.
Page reference: 305
*not completed
What ruling established the principle of direct effect?
Van Gend en Loos (1963) correct
Costa v. ENEL (1964) incorrect
Van Duyn v. Home Office (1974) incorrect
Factortame (1990) incorrect
The 1963 Van Gend en Loos ruling established the principle of direct effect. This meant that
EC law was directly applicable to individuals, as well as member states. This was an
important distinction that set EC law apart from international law. However, this doctrine was
not explicitly stated in the Treaties of Rome but was 'discovered' by the CJEU in its 1963 Van
Gend en Loos ruling. In the case, a company (Van Gend en Loos) took the Dutch government
to court for applying a higher levy on formaldehyde than the treaties allowed. The Court
ruled that the member states and their nationals are the subjects of community law, and that
both member states and their nationals could claim rights from the treaty.
Page reference: 305
*not completed
Which of the following procedures applies to the process for appointing judges and
advocates-general of the CJEU?
Candidates for the positions of judge or advocate general are to be scrutinized by a panel of
seven people correct
Candidates for the positions of judge or advocate general must have served as judges at the
national level incorrect
The European Parliament can veto judicial appointments incorrect
Similar to Commissioners designate, nominated judges and advocates general must

participate in European Parliament (EP) hearings incorrect
With implementation of the Lisbon Treaty, candidates for the positions of judge or advocate
general are to be scrutinized by a panel of seven people, comprising former EU judges,
national supreme court judges and a nominee of the European Parliament. The panel's
opinion will be offered to the Council on candidates' suitability, although it is not binding in
its effect. Judges and advocates general are not required to have served as judges at the
national level. Indeed, a number of CJEU judges and advocates general have been academics
and professional lawyers, rather than judges. The European Parliament does not have the
power to veto judicial appointments and nominated judges and advocates general do not
participate in EP hearings.
*not completed
Which of these is an intergovernmental account of CJEU behaviour?
The CJEU has deliberately acted as an engine of integration incorrect
The CJEU anticipates member state reactions to its rulings and acts accordingly correct
The CJEU uses the law as a 'mask and shield' to hide its integrationist strategy incorrect
Over time, a European legal network has developed incorrect
Intergovernmentalists argue that the member states are in control of legal integration—the
image of an all powerful CJEU driving integration is a myth. According to this argument,
when the CJEU makes its rulings, it does so anticipating the reactions of member states. It
avoids making judgments against the interests of powerful member states because non-
compliance would damage the CJEU's legitimacy. In this way, the Court is constrained by
member state interests. However, it is in the general interests of member states to maintain
the legitimacy of the CJEU. A neutral and effective court is necessary to serve as referee of
the single market.
Page reference: 310
*not completed
Which of the following could be considered to be a form of spillover?
The creation of a Court of First Instance incorrect
National courts making use of EC law and the preliminary reference procedure to increase
their powers correct
CJEU reluctance to rule against the interests of powerful member states incorrect
Member state support for a neutral CJEU incorrect
The increasing usage of the preliminary reference procedure (the Article 177 procedure),
which allows national courts to request a preliminary ruling to interpret EC law, is considered
to be evidence of spillover. Neo-functionalists argue that this happens because national courts
are eager to make use of the tools of EC law and the European legal system to augment their
power within the domestic legal system. More widely, it can be seen as evidence of the
development of a European legal community. CJEU reluctance to rule against the interests of
powerful member states and member state support for a neutral CJEU are components of the
intergovernmentalist argument that legal integration is controlled by the member states.
Page reference: 311
True or false: Since the late 1990s, most lobbyists have stopped lobbying national
governments and shifted their efforts to the focus exclusively on the European institutions.
True incorrect
False correct
Despite some confusion concerning the actual number of lobbyists in Brussels, there has been
a discernible growth in EU lobbying activity since the 1990s (as of 28 December 2019, there
were 11,892 organizations included on the Commission and EP's Joint Transparency
Register). Notably however, this lobbying at the European level has developed in addition to
national lobbying activity. Lobbyists continue to attempt to influence national governments
through their existing national-level interest networks, but also develop networks to influence
European-level institutions where policy is increasingly being formulated. While we can say
that there has been a shift in the focus of lobbying efforts to include the European level
institutions such as the Commission and the European Parliament, it has not necessarily
occurred at the expense of national lobbying networks.
Page reference: 317
*not completed
Why do European policy-makers involve interest groups?
Because the 'social partners' can veto legislation incorrect
Because interest groups fund European political parties incorrect
Because it gives European institutions access to the groups' expertise correct
European policymakers in the Commission and the European Parliament involve interest
groups because it gives them access to the expertise that these groups possess. This is
particularly important in the early policy formulation stage in policy areas that are rather
technical. The Commission lacks the resources to have detailed technical knowledge in all of
the areas in which they create legislation so they often rely on input of the groups that are
affected by legislation. Interest group can also help to legitimate the EU's activities by
bringing the wider public interest to the institutions' attention (Bouwen 2009).
*not completed
True or false: The European Roundtable of Industrialists has not been very influential in
European policy-making.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The European Roundtable of Industrialists (ERT) has been an influential driving force
supporting further integration to complete the single market in order to increase European
economic competitiveness. The ERT is composed of chief executives from corporations in
Europe. The group developed out of early co-operation between the chief executives of
Volvo, Fiat, and Philips. The first meeting of the group was held in 1983 and was soon
institutionalized. The creation of the ERT allowed industry to speak with one voice and
provided the Commission with a single contact point for industry. The ERT effectively
lobbied the Commission for the adoption of the Single European Act and was particularly
active in moves to launch the single-market programme.
*not completed
What is neo-corporatism?
The structured inclusion of business and labour interests in the policy process correct
An open process of interest representation characterized by multiple and competing

interests incorrect
The interest representation of business groups incorrect
Neo-corporatism refers to a system of interest representation that structures the inclusion of

business and labour interests in the policy process. Business and labour interests are each
represented by a single peak organization-European—level umbrella organizations that
represent the interests of each economic group. The Economic and Social Committee, created
by the Rome Treaties, give social and economic interests a consultative role in the policy
process. It resembles a neo-corporatist system of interest representation. When interest
representation is a more open process, with multiple and competing interests, this is called a
pluralist style of interest representation.
Page reference: 320
*not completed
When Jacques Delors become President of the Commission, what role did he want social
interest groups (such as trade unions) to play?
He wanted them to have no formal role because he feared it would disrupt progress on the
single market incorrect
He wanted trade unions and employers to launch a social dialogue correct
He wanted trade unions to be given greater influence in policy making than their business
counterparts incorrect
He did not propose any changes in the role of social interest groups because it was a low
priority for him incorrect
When Jacques Delors became Commission President he proposed the creation of a 'social
dialogue' between business and labour groups, The Union of Industrial and Employers'
Confederations in Europe (UNICE), and the European Trade Union Confederation (ETUC).
The social dialogue gives these business and labour groups influence over new social policy
proposals made by the Commission. The social dialogue was included in the Treaty of
Maastricht. Delors' support of the social dialogue, intended to foster the development of a
'social Europe' alongside an economically liberal market, can be understood in terms of
Delors' ideological background. Delors was a member of the French Socialist party and had
served as Economic and Finance Minister under Mitterand.
*not completed
True or false: The expert knowledge of interest groups helps the Commission produce better
legislation.
True correct
False incorrect
True. While the Commission possesses greater resources of expertise than institutions such as
the Council and the Parliament, it is still a relatively small bureaucracy. Consultation with
interest groups provides the Commission with valuable resources during the early stages of
policy formulation. These groups can provide the Commission with information about their
own needs as well as about what policy proposals might work best. Gathering input from
interest groups—who are typically those most directly effected by policy proposals—helps
the Commission produce legislation that reflects the needs and preference of user groups,
thereby indirectly increasing the legitimacy of the Commission.
*not completed
True or false: Interest groups have greater incentive and opportunity to lobby the Council of
the EU than the Commission.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Interest groups generally face greater opportunities to lobby the Commission than the
Council. The Commission is very receptive to lobbying efforts because contact with interest
groups helps the Commission to boost their information and design legislation that will
receive broad support. There is a strong incentive for interest groups to target the
Commission because it allows them to influence legislation in its early stages. Interest groups
usually do not lobby the Council of Ministers or the European Council directly because the
closed nature of the meetings of these institutions limits interest group access. Instead,
interest groups will lobby national governments, using their established national-level
networks.
*not completed
True or false: The extension of qualified majority voting has made lobbying national
governments more important than ever.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The extension of qualified majority voting rules to a greater range of policy areas has
somewhat reduced the importance of lobbying national governments. This is because
qualified majority voting rules, which have been extended to a greater range of policy areas
with every treaty amendment since the Single European Act, mean that national governments
can no longer veto legislation in the Council of Ministers, reducing their influence in the
legislation process. It can therefore be more productive for lobby groups to target their efforts
at the Commission, where they might influence legislation in the early stages of policy
initiation.
Page reference: 326
*not completed
True or false: The European Parliament is highly receptive to lobbying by European interest
associations.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The European Parliament is highly receptive to lobbying by European interest

associations. Information from interest groups helps the Parliament identify the policy needs
of different constituents and helps it to acquire expert information, both of which enable the
Parliament to propose more effective legislative amendments. Keeping in touch with
European and national interests groups can help prevent MEPs from losing touch with their
constituents. Championing issues that are brought to their attention by interest groups also
helps to raise the profile of the European Parliament, and gives it an opportunity to make a
greater policy impact.
Page reference: 326
*not completed
EU attempts to engage with interest groups are an important way for the EU institutions to
obtain which of the following?
Funding incorrect
Publicity incorrect
Legitimacy correct
Engagement with interest groups is an important way for the EU institutions to obtain
legitimacy at the input stage of policy making. It is particularly clear that the Commission is
dependent on the expertise of interest groups, thereby legitimating its work. There have been
attempts to advance this type of interaction as a new form of governance, characterized by the
Commission's engagement with civil society. However, it is questionable whether this
interaction offers a solution to the EU's democratic deficit. Moreover, if lobbying lacks
transparency, its legitimacy is called into question. Attempts to regulate lobbyists' access to
the institutions have been the response to this concern.
Page reference: 329
Which of the following is an example of policy expansion due to spillover?
Member states demanding single market legislation in response to increased competition

from Japan and the US incorrect
The creation of environmental regulations after acid rain caused environmental

degradation incorrect
The need for competition policies to prevent monopolies in the single market correct
The need for competition policies to prevent monopolies operating in the new single market
is an example of spillover. The other options—the demand for single market legislation in
response to increased international competition and demands for environmental regulations in
the wake of environmental harm are both examples of external events triggering a demand for
policies. Spillover occurs when integration in one area (creation of the single market) leads to
demand for policy making in other areas, such as regulating competition in the market or
regulating social policy to prevent unequal treatment of workers in a single European labour
market.
Page reference: 344
*not completed
Which of the following is influential in setting the EU policy agenda?
The European Council incorrect
Interest groups incorrect

All three of these groups—the Commission, the European Council, and interest groups—
collectively set the broad EU policy agenda. This reflects the fact that European solutions to
policy problems are often necessary and desirable. The Commission often demands European
policy solutions because increasing its policy reach increases its power. The Commission also
launches initiatives in response to policy problems that it identifies. However, the
Commission is not alone in demanding more European-level legislation. Member states often
demand European-level solutions, and use the European Council meetings to put new policy
items on the agenda. Indeed it is the European Council which is definitively responsible for
putting all items on the EU policy agenda. Interest groups also lobby the European
institutions to achieve policy objectives that they cannot achieve at the national level.
Page reference: 344
*not completed
The European Commission's role in relation to the development of EU energy policy is

generally classified as that of a:
Policy entrepreneur correct
Policy obstructionist incorrect
Policy spoiler incorrect
Policy radical incorrect
The Commission acted as a policy entrepreneur to cultivate spillover and broaden the focus
of energy policy. For a long time, the main objective of energy policy for the Commission
was the liberalization of national markets, which were dominated by monopolistic national
suppliers. This resulted in higher energy costs, which damaged the global competitiveness of
European manufacturers. However, once the principle had been established that national
energy markets would be opened up to competition from other member states, the potential
existed to shift other aspects of energy policy to the EU level. In 2004, the Commission
identified problems concerning the high level of dependence of the EU on fossil fuels and on
imported sources of energy. Thus, the transfer of energy supply from a national to a European
market brought in its train the prospect of a whole set of new competencies for the EU. The
Lisbon Treaty, Article 147, amended the wording of Title XXI of the TEU on energy policy to
reflect these revised policy objectives, emphasizing security of supply and the need to
achieve energy efficiency and energy saving in the context of environmental concerns.
*not completed
True or false: The Treaty of Rome gave the Commission power to regulate mergers in
Europe.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The Treaty of Rome contained no provision for European regulation of mergers. It
developed as a result of spillover. After the single market was created, merger control was
deemed to be necessary to maintain free competition within the single market. The European
Court of Justice was instrumental in identifying this policy competence when it ruled in 1987
that the power to regulate mergers could be inferred from the Treaties. Merger control is a
component of EU competition policy and is one of the few policy areas directly implemented
by the Commission, through the merger task force in the Directorate General for
Competition.
Page reference: 348
*not completed
True or false: In the Treaty of Rome, articles on social policy emphasized the creation of a
level playing field for a single market.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The original articles of the Treaty of Rome that addressed social policy were intended
to create a level playing field for economic competition. The Treaty provided a number of
bases for EC action, including the promotion of social cohesion, health and safety at work,
ensuring the free movement of labour and equality between the sexes. In other words, social
policy was addressed both because variations in social policy obligations across member
states were seen as an obstacle to the creation of the single market, leading to uneven cost
burdens on companies and governments in some member states and it hindered the free
movement of labour that was necessary to realize the single market.
Page reference: 350
*not completed
True or false: Integration in social policy proceeded quickly due to the pressures of 'spillover'.
True incorrect
False correct
False. While the Treaty of Rome contained several articles that related directly to social
policy, integration proceeded very slowly compared to other policy areas. Member states
were reluctant to extend qualified majority voting rules to social policy areas in the Single
European Act, preferring instead to keep this politically sensitive area under national control.
This put the brakes on integration in social policy due to spillover and national welfare states
were not harmonized. Modest provisions in social policy include the European Social Fund to
assist in retraining and promotion of employment and mobility, and the creation of a 'social
dialogue' between business, labour, and other civil society groups. Gender equality is an
exception to this. Legislation on equal pay and equal treatment for men and women emerged
in the 1970s.
Page reference: 350
*not completed
Which of the following is not a central objective of current EU transport policy?
Completing a single European transport area incorrect
Increasing the number of conventionally fuelled cars in European cities correct
Reducing greenhouse gas emissions incorrect
Improving technology and infrastructure for transport. incorrect
The Commission has produced two White Papers on Transport: one in 2001 and another in
2011. The latter is particularly concerned with: improving transport and mobility in the EU;
meeting the target of reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions by 60 per cent; completing a
single European transport area across all modes of transportation; improving technology and
infrastructure for transport; and making sure these goals are included as necessary in
international trade deals. The 2011 White Paper included a set of specific objectives,
including the phasing out of conventionally fuelled cars from cities by 2050.
*not completed
Which of the following institutions is excluded from the OMC method?
Court of Justice of the EU incorrect
Both of the above. The OMC method primarily involves member states. Each member state
draws up a National Reform Programme (NRP) in a given policy domain. This is then
submitted to the Commission and Council for scrutiny, and recommendations may be made.
The Commission then produces an annual report on the performance of member states and of
the EU as a whole in achieving its objectives. Targets may be adjusted at that point. The
influence of the EP and the CJEU is weakened by their effective and formal exclusion from
the OMC method.
Page reference: 351
*not completed
What explains the development of research policy in the EU?
A clear and extensive role in research policy set out in the Treaty of Rome incorrect
An activist Court of Justice of the EU incorrect
Early leadership from the Council of the EU incorrect
Policy entrepreneurship by the Commission correct
The development of research policy in the European Union is largely due to the
Commission's effectiveness as a policy entrepreneur. This means that the Commission has
been able to identify a problem (the need for a coordinated European research strategy) and
has formulated policy solutions while creating a coalition in support of its plans. Research
was not included in the articles of the Treaty of Rome, and the European Court of Justice did
not play a significant role in the development of integration in this policy area. Interest
groups did play a role—the Commission cultivated networks with technological firms to
lobby national governments for the creation of a research policy.
*not completed
Which of the following is a pillar of Horizon Europe?
Open Science incorrect
Global Challenges and Industrial Competitiveness incorrect
Open Innovation incorrect
Research and technology policy was formally incorporated into the Treaties with the SEA in
1986. A series of multi-annual 'Framework Programmes' sought to put the policy into
practice. The eighth Framework Programme, covering 2014-2020 was called Horizon
2020 and allocated a budget of €70 billion. Its successor programme, Horizon Europe will
cover the period 2021–2027, for which the Commission has sought a budget of €100 billion.
Like its predecessor, Horizon Europe will have three pillars: Open Science, to support
frontier research; Global Challenges and Industrial Competitiveness, which will seek to
improve competitiveness and address health and other social issues; and Open Innovation, to
make the EU a world-leader in innovation, supported by a European Innovation Council and
a European Institute of Innovation and Technology.
Page reference: 339
True or false: Neo-functionalism is usually considered to provide the best explanation for the
initial decision to establish a common market.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Neo-functionalism provides a good explanation for the pace of integration after the
signing of the Treaty of Rome, but it does not provide the best account of why the Treaty was
agreed in the first place. Usually, neo-functionalist explanations highlight the role that
producer groups and other interest groups play in lobbying government so they can capture
the benefits of creating a common market. This did not happen; while German industrialists
generally supported the idea, French industrialists opposed it. The agreement on the Treaty of
Rome is perhaps better understood in intergovernmental terms: as the result of national
governments pursuing their own interests.
Page reference: 370
*not completed
Why did the Council of Ministers agree to an accelerated timetable for completion of the
common market in 1960?
The removal of internal barriers to trade was popular with voters incorrect
It was made a condition of creating the Common Agricultural Policy, which member states
wanted incorrect
The German government finally dropped its opposition incorrect
European industrial interests were strongly in favour of it correct
The Council of Ministers agreed to an accelerated timetable for completion of the single
market in 1960 because European industrial interests were strongly in favour of this. After the
Treaty of Rome was signed, companies began to adapt to the arrival of the single market by
cultivating business interests across borders. Soon, even French industry, which was initially
opposed to the creation of a common internal market, recognized its economic advantages
and intensified lobbying activities—an example of political spillover. An accelerated
timetable was made conditional upon the creation of a Common Agricultural Policy, which
member states were less enthusiastic about. Early integration occurred during a period of
'permissive consensus', with little influence by voters.
Page reference: 361
*not completed
Which of the following is an example of a non-tariff barrier to trade?
A quota on the amount of goods that can enter a country incorrect
National product safety standards correct
A tax levied on imported goods incorrect
Tariffs are taxes that governments levy on imports of goods in order to protect domestic
producers and raise revenues for the government. Sometimes tariffs are accompanied by
quotas, which set import limits. Sometimes governments are able to restrict trade and protect
domestic producers without the use of tariffs. National product safety standards are an
example of a non-tariff barrier to trade. For example, by setting national safety standards, a
country can effectively bar foreign producers from selling their goods in the country unless
they make modifications for that specific national market—usually too costly for a
manufacturer to undertake. Non-tariff barriers to trade proliferated during the economic
downturn in the 1970s, as national governments sought to protect their domestic producers.
Page reference: 361
*not completed
What measure in the Single European Act was crucial for the success of the completion of the
single market?
The adoption of qualified majority voting in the Council correct
The removal of indirect taxation incorrect
The introduction of the single currency incorrect
The adoption of qualified majority voting in the Council of Ministers was an institutional
reform that was crucial for the completion of the single market. Unanimity rules in the
Council of Ministers made it difficult to reach decisions, slowing the pace of integration. In
order to overcome this problem and make implementation of the approximately 270 pieces of
legislation possible, the Single European Act introduced qualified majority voting for
measures that were related to the completion of the single market. The British government
insisted that measures related to tax harmonization and the removal of border controls remain
under unanimity rules.
*not completed
What were the 'freedoms' identified by the White Paper on the completion of the internal
market?
Free movement of goods and labour only incorrect
Free movement of goods, services, and labour incorrect
Free movement of goods, labour, and capital incorrect
Free movement of goods, services, labour, and capital correct
The White Paper on the completion of the internal market identified four freedoms: the free
movement of goods, services, labour, and capital. This had broad implications. Border checks
were to be reduced to a minimum to allow goods to move more freely, and technical barriers
that prevented the recognition of goods and services were to be reduced (justifiable only if
public safety or public health were threatened). The free movement of capital called for the
lifting of restrictions on cross-border investment, stock exchange access and access to credit
markets. The free movement of labour required providing non-national workers access to
social and welfare benefits.
Page reference: 363
*not completed
Which of the following factors do both intergovernmentalists and supranationalists agree was
an important motivating force behind the 1992 programme?
The work of Jacques Delors incorrect
The sluggish economic performance of Europe correct
Europe's rapid economic growth incorrect
The role of influential member state leaders incorrect
Both intergovernmentalists and supranationalists tend to agree that the sluggish economic
performance of Europe was an important motivating force behind the launch of the 1992
programme. The European economy was slow to recover from economic recession. In terms
of jobs, growth and foreign direct investment, the economies of the US and Japan were
outpacing Europe. These so-called 'structural factors' were important because they presented
a clear policy problem to both supranational actors and national governments alike.
Intergovernmentalists downplay the importance of supranational actors such as Commission
President Jacques Delors, and supranationalists tend to downplay the role of influential
member state governments.
*not completed
Research by Armstrong and Bulmer (1998) reveals that in relation to contested interpretations
of single market rules, the European Court of Justice (ECJ) generally favoured which of the
following?
Large states incorrect
Fines incorrect
National protectionism incorrect
Free-market interpretations correct
Armstrong and Bulmer`s (1998) research reveals that judgements favoured free-market
interpretations. In each of the six cases examined by the authors, the role of the ECJ was
significant. For example: 'In air transport, the EC had played next to no regulatory role until
the 1980s. The ECJ`s ruling that existing bilateral regulatory arrangements were illegal,
combined with the QMV introduced by the SEA, made liberalization inevitable and thus
skewed things in favour of states advocating, and with expertise on, such a policy (the UK
and the Netherlands)' (Bulmer 1998: 380). Protectionism was not a feature of the single
market programme. Indeed completing the single market required removal of all national
protectionist policies and practices. ECJ rulings on single market rules did not distinguish
between large and small states, and nor is the imposition of fines typically linked to the
interpretation of single market rules.
Page reference: 374
*not completed
The 'country-of-origin principle' applies to which of the following?
The free movement of people incorrect
The free movement of goods correct
The free movement of capital incorrect
The free movement of services incorrect
The 'country-of-origin principle' applies to the free movement of goods. Since the Cassis de
Dijon judgement of the European Court of Justice (ECJ) in 1979, the 'country-of-origin
principle' has applied to trade in goods. In other words, if a good could be sold legally in one
member state, it could be sold legally in any member state. This meant that where there were
no EU-level standards for a product, it had only to meet the national standards of the state in
which it was produced, and could then be legally exported to any other member state.
Although it had caused some protest at the time, this principle has come to be accepted for
trade in goods. The application of the same principle to trade in services though was
significantly more problematic. For services, the country-of-origin principle meant that if the
company that provided a service met the legal requirements of the member state in which it
was based, it could offer the services in other member states. The 2004 proposed Services
Directive met with fierce opposition because it proposed to apply to services the country-of-
origin principle. Against widespread opposition, the European Parliament (EP) removed
reference to the country-of-origin principle from the draft Services Directive, which was
finally agreed in 2006.
Page reference: 368
*not completed
True or false: The Commission tended to adopt targets and voluntary codes to encourage
implementation and enforcement.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The Commission set performance targets and used 'soft' measures to encourage
implementation and enforcement of single market legislation. This was part of a broader
trend away from heavy-handed compulsory measures and towards flexible and decentralized
implementation. The Commission published implementation records and set a target goal of
maximum rates of non-implementation of 1.5%. The Commission also established networks
of national officials to co-operate on resolving disputes over product or service recognition,
in order that the lead in implementation would be taken by national officials and not the
Commission. Finally, they introduced voluntary standards schemes for areas in which
member states had not harmonized standards for services.
Page reference: 364
*not completed
Which policy areas were excluded from the White Paper on the internal market?
Tax harmonization and energy incorrect
Tax harmonization and company law incorrect
Transport and telecommunications incorrect
Energy and telecommunications correct
Energy and telecommunications were two policy areas that were excluded from the 1985
White Paper on the internal market due to the high degree of public ownership in these
sectors (energy was originally included in the White Paper until opposition from national
industry led to its removal). It was only after the deregulation of telecommunications in the
US that the Commission attempted to pursue similar reforms in Europe. Tax harmonization
and company law were both addressed in the White Paper. Despite this, however, very little
progress was made in these areas. Agreement on company law was hindered by German
concerns that a new European company statute would result in the loss of employee
representation on company supervisory boards.
Page reference: 363
When did economic and monetary union become an objective of the EC?
1957 incorrect
1969 correct
1985 incorrect
1992 incorrect
At the Hague summit of 1969, European leaders committed themselves to the policy
objective of establishing economic and monetary union by the target date of 1980. The
summit represented a step forward in the 'deepening' of the EC policy agenda to include
EMU and co-operation in foreign policy. The summit led to the creation of a committee,
chaired by Luxembourg Prime Minister Pierre Werner, to produce a multi-stage plan for
achieving EMU. The 1970 Werner Report proposed that the co-ordination of economic policy
and the narrowing of exchange rate fluctuations should proceed in parallel. This arrangement
for approximating the exchange rates of member currencies one to another became known as
the 'snake-in-the-tunnel' because each currency could move up and down ('snake' up and
down) between a minimum and maximum value against other currencies in the system, which
formed a floor and a ceiling of fluctuation (the tunnel).
Page reference: 379
*not completed
What is meant by an 'economist' approach to monetary union?
Monetary union should only be attempted with a strict approach to monetary policy incorrect
Monetary union can be compatible with a wide range of fiscal policies incorrect
Monetary union should only be attempted after some convergence of economic policies is
achieved correct
Monetary union should occur before convergence of economic policies incorrect
An 'economist' approach to monetary union refers to the belief that monetary union should
occur only after governments have achieved some convergence of economic policies. In early
discussions about monetary union held at the 1969 Hague Summit, the German government
took an economist position-they wanted the member states to first bring their economic
policies in line with one another, especially to control inflationary policies. Monetary union
would then follow, and the economic convergence would help ensure price stability. This can
be contrasted with the 'monetarist' approach, favoured by France, which argued that the
process should occur in the opposite order: monetary union would help bring about economic
convergence.
Page reference: 379
*not completed
Why did the ' snake in the tunnel' not lead to monetary union after 1973?
Structural divergence in European economies incorrect
Pressure from a low US dollar incorrect
Currency speculation incorrect
The collapse by 1973 of the first attempt at monetary union was caused by a number of
factors, including structural divergence in European economies, competitive pressure from a
low US dollar that created low-price imports, and currency speculation. The members of the
floating snake found it difficult to coordinate their economic policies because they disagreed
with the German approach of prioritizing price stability (low inflation) over growth and jobs.
The high value of the Deutschmark, which kept other floating snake currencies high, made
members of the snake less competitive. Italy and France finally left the floating snake when
they found themselves unable to compete against cheap American imports caused by the low
US dollar.
Page reference: 380
*not completed
What did the Delors report propose?
An end to exchange rate targets until member state economies had converged incorrect
Maintaining the EMS with wider bands of exchange rate fluctuation incorrect
Increasing convergence in economic policy, creation of the European Central Bank and the
introduction of a single currency correct

The Delors report, delivered to the Madrid European Council in 1989, proposed a three-stage
process that would lead to economic and monetary union. The first stage was to be a period
of convergence in economic policies in member states brought about through closer
cooperation on monetary policy and monitoring of policies. The second stage involved the
creation of the European System of Central Banks in preparation for overseeing monetary
policy, and European currencies would be brought more closely in line with each other. In the
third stage, exchange rates would become fixed among member states and the single currency
would be introduced.
Page reference: 381
*not completed
How did the French and German positions on monetary union differ?
Germany wanted a highly independent European Central Bank and strong monetary
discipline correct
Germany wanted the European Central Bank to coordinate closely with national finance
ministers incorrect
France preferred the name 'euro' for the new currency, while Germany preferred
'ecu' incorrect
France favoured a rigid application of the budget deficit limits incorrect
The French and German positions on monetary union differed because Germany favoured a
highly independent European Central Bank (ECB) with strong monetary discipline, while
France preferred a bank that was subject to some political control and answerable to national
governments. These preferences reflect the French emphasis on jobs and growth and the
German emphasis on price stability. In addition, Germany and France differed because
Germany wanted the central bank to be located in Frankfurt, preferred the name 'euro' for the
currency and favoured the Dutch banker Wim Duisenberg to be the first head of the ECB.
The French, meanwhile, preferred the name 'ecu' for the currency and proposed the French
central banker, Jean-Claude Trichet, for the ECB's top job.
Page reference: 383
*not completed
Which four member states did not participate in the euro when it was launched in 1999?
Britain, Denmark, Portugal, and Greece incorrect
Britain, Portugal, Sweden, and Greece incorrect
Britain, Denmark, Sweden, and Portugal incorrect

Britain, Denmark, Sweden, and Greece correct
Britain, Denmark, Sweden and Greece did not participate in the euro when it was launched in
1999. Britain, Denmark, and Sweden met the criteria for participating in the single currency
but excluded themselves. Britain and Denmark were allowed to do this under the terms of
their 'opt-outs'. Sweden was able to claim on a technicality that it had not fulfilled the
conditions because it had not been a member of the ERM for two years prior to the launch of
the euro. Greece was excluded because it did not meet the convergence criteria. Denmark and
Greece joined a revised ERM-2 that was set up at the same time as the launch of the single
currency, but which retained the wide 15% fluctuation band. Greece later joined the Eurozone
in 2001. Britain and Sweden chose not to join the ERM-2. Portugal participated in the Euro
from the outset.
Page reference: 384
*not completed
Which of the following is not part of the convergence criteria?
Having no budget deficit for three years running correct
Maintaining a level of inflation not more than 1.5% above an agreed baseline incorrect
Maintaining interest rates not more than 2% above an agreed baseline incorrect
Maintaining exchange rates within the ERM band for two years incorrect
The convergence criteria, contained in the Treaty on European Union, proposed that in order
to be eligible to join the single currency, a state's budget deficit should not exceed 3% of
GDP. In addition, member states should not have a total public debt exceeding 60% of GDP.
Inflation rates in states should exceed 1.5 percentage points of an agreed baseline and interest
rates should remain within 2 percentage point of the baseline. (These baselines were defined
as the average interest rate or level of inflation of the three states with the lowest interest rate
or inflation.) Finally, member states had to stay within the ERM band for at least two years.
Once they joined the single currency, member states who did not meet the criteria were
subject to fines. The Dublin European Council meeting in 1996 would later introduce some
flexibility into the criteria, by waiving fines in cases of economic downturn.
*not completed
True or false: The 2004 enlargement committed all of the new member states to becoming
members of the single currency.
False incorrect
True correct
True. The 2004 enlargement committed all of the new member states to becoming members
of the single currency. However, they are required to fulfil the convergence criteria before
being allowed in, and have to be members of the ERM-2 for two years. Slovenia, Cyprus,
Malta, Slovakia, Estonia, and Latvia have since joined the euro.
Page reference: 384
*not completed
Which Euro Group state was the first to receive financial assistance from the EU in an
attempt to stabilize a serious national economic crisis?
Portugal incorrect
Latvia incorrect
Ireland incorrect
Greece correct
Greece was the first EU Euro Group state to receive financial assistance from the EU in an
attempt to stabilize a serious national economic crisis. After some procrastination, a €110
billion bailout for Greece was agreed as part of a bilateral agreement with other eurozone
member states and the International Monetary Fund (IMF). But as the bond markets and
credit rating agencies turned their attention to other eurozone states, and it became clear that
Greece would not be a stand-alone case, the EU and IMF put together a larger financial
support mechanism worth €750 billion. This had three components: the European Financial
Stability Facility (EFSF), backed by member states, was authorized to raise €440 billion; the
European Financial Stabilization Mechanism (EFSM), backed by the EU budget, was able to
raise €60 billion; and the
IMF was to provide a further €250 billion. Ireland was the second Eurozone member to avail
of EU assistance in November 2010. In 2011, support packages were put in place via these
mechanisms for Portugal and a second bailout for Greece.
*not completed
True or False: Post-crisis reforms in the Eurozone have tended to reflect French and debtor
state preferences.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Post-crisis reforms of the Eurozone have tended to accord with German and creditor
state preferences. These reforms have emphasised greater fiscal discipline and increased
powers of oversight at the EU centre. In Germany, this discipline is regarded as a necessary
quid-pro-quo for bail-out mechanisms like the European Stability Mechanism (ESM), which
might otherwise create 'moral hazard' in the European economy. Germany has a strong
preference for delegating risks to individual states, rather than sharing risk at the European
level. German concerns in this regard are the key reason why proposals aimed at risk-sharing,
such as 'eurobonds' and collective deposit insurance, have not been adopted. Such proposals
are favoured by France and were supported by many debtor states.
Page reference: 390
True or false: Agricultural policy developed in the EC despite not being mentioned in the
Treaty of Rome.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Agriculture was explicitly mentioned in the Treaty of Rome—in fact, it was given its
own title or section in the Treaty, which underscores the importance the member states
attached to this policy area at the formation of the EC. (The other common policies with titles
in the treaty were the free movement of goods, the free movement of persons, services and
capital, and transport). The inclusion of agricultural policy was a political trade-off that
secured French agreement for the creation of a common market. The large French agricultural
sector and the political importance of French farmers made the inclusion of CAP in the Treaty
a valuable concession for France to win.
Page reference: 399
*not completed
Which of the following objectives motivated EEC member states to create the Common
Agricultural Policy (CAP)?
The need to ensure adequate supplies of food at reasonable prices. incorrect
The need to provide an adequate income to farmers. incorrect
The need to increase agricultural productivity. incorrect
All of the above. The importance given to the agricultural sector by all member states owed a
great deal to food shortages at the end of the Second World War. Governments agreed that it
was important to ensure adequate supplies of food at reasonable prices. To achieve this it was
necessary to provide an adequate income to farmers, while taking measures to increase their
productivity. All of the states involved in the original EEC were in agreement on these
objectives.
*not completed
Which member state made it a condition of its participation in the EEC that agricultural
policy be a joint pillar alongside the common market in industrial goods?
Ireland incorrect
Italy incorrect
France correct
Belgium incorrect
France made it a condition of their participation in the EEC that agricultural policy be a joint
pillar alongside the common market in industrial goods. France had a particular interest in
agriculture. Small French farmers were politically important because they had the sympathy
of the French people. On the other hand, France also had a lot of large and efficient farms.
Part of the price that France insisted on for their participation in the common market in
industrial goods was the subsidization of the cost of maintaining their small farmers, plus the
guarantee of a protected market for French agricultural exports. Ireland did not join the EEC
until 1973. Italy and Belgium supported, in principle, the development of a Common
Agricultural Policy (CAP), but were not as insistent as France.
Page reference: 399
*not completed
True or false: The rise of environmentalism made it politically easier for governments to
pursue CAP reform.
False. incorrect
True. correct
True: In the 1980s there was growing concern about the environment in general, and about
the effect of the CAP in particular, The main beneficiaries of the CAP were large farmers who
responded to the high prices available from the price support system to maximise output. To
do this they pumped more and more fertilizer into the land, and hormones in animals, to
improve yields. This type of activity had a damaging impact on the environment and
provided a counter-weight to the general sympathy of European public opinion for farmers,
thereby making it politically easier for governments to pursue CAP reform.
*not completed
What produced pressure for CAP reform in the 1990s?
Budgetary pressures incorrect
Reunification of Germany incorrect
The need to stabilize democracy and capitalism in the states of Central and Eastern
Europe incorrect
All of the above. During the 1990s, budget pressures (which had abated in the 1980s) again
became significant as the USA allowed the value of the dollar to decline and reintroduced
agricultural export subsidies of its own. This forced down world food prices, and so increased
the cost of export subsidies for the EU. The reunification of Germany brought into immediate
membership of the EU considerable grain-producing areas, as well as extra dairy and beef
livestock, adding to the problems of over-production. The need to stabilize democracy and
capitalism in the states of central and eastern Europe demanded that the West buy exports
from them to allow them to obtain the hard currency necessary to buy from the West to re-
equip their industries. Agricultural products were among the few products where they had
comparative advantage. If the Common Agricultural Policy (CAP) had not prevented it,
several of the states could have exported their agricultural goods to the EC. In addition, the
Uruguay Round of the GATT was advancing and the EU was under enormous pressure from
the USA and Cairns Group to deal with agricultural issues. All of these pressures reinforced
the need for reform of the CAP.
Page reference: 402
*not completed
Which of the following statements best describes the aim of the MacSharry reforms?
To separate income support from production correct
To raise cereal and beef prices incorrect
To encourage more people to farm incorrect
To encourage farmers to cultivate more farmland incorrect
The MacSharry reforms of 1992 were a significant step forward in CAP reforms. Ray
MacSharry, an Irishman, was Agricultural Commissioner. Among other measures, the reforms
separated income support from production by using direct payments to producers to
compensate them for loss of income, without increasing agricultural production as price
supports did. This measure was accompanied by lower cereal and beef prices. The reforms
were intended to restructure the sector by encouraging farmers to take land out of cultivation
and to shift people out of agricultural jobs. Environmental elements were also introduced to
encourage sustainable farming practices.
Page reference: 402
*not completed
What did the Agenda 2000 reforms include?
Decreasing price levels incorrect
Decoupling direct payments to farmers from production incorrect
Linking payments to social and economic objectives incorrect
The Agenda 2000 reforms sought to decrease price levels for commodities and to compensate
farmers with direct payments that were not related to production levels. The reforms, agreed
at the Berlin summit in March 1999, reduced prices for cereals, milk, beef and veal by up to
20%. Secondly, the reforms strengthened the environmental provisions that were introduced
in the 1992 MacSharry reforms, and linked payments to the environmental stewardship, food
safety and animal welfare objectives. It also introduced rural development measures, aimed at
diversifying the economic life of the countryside. Member states retained some flexibility in
the implementation of these reforms.
Page reference: 403
*not completed
Which of the following factors prompted the 2013 reform of the CAP?
The application of co-decision to agriculture incorrect
Demands from national governments for overall budgetary constraint correct
Growing public concern about environmental issues incorrect
The end of the Doha Round of the WTO incorrect
Demands from national governments for overall budgetary constraint in the face of the
gathering crisis in the Eurozone placed pressure on the CAP to reform. The Lisbon Treaty had
transferred agriculture to co-decision, so agreement had to be reached not just within the
Council of Ministers, as previously, but also with the EP. Although the change had been made
in the name of increasing democratic control, the main effect was to provide the farm lobby
with another channel for resisting further reform. This development did not prompt reform,
rather it made the reform process more challenging. Following the 2003 reform of the CAP,
there was a decline in the level of public concern about environmental issues, reflecting the
more difficult economic situation faced by consumers across the EU. The Doha Round of the
WTO did not conclude in advance of the 2013 reform process.
Page reference: 402
*not completed
Which of the following best explains the setting up of the CAP?
Neofunctionalism incorrect
Institutionalism incorrect
Intergovernmentalism correct
Multi-level governance incorrect
Intergovernmentalism explains well the setting up of the CAP. Until the signing of the treaties
there were no institutional actors to take into account. The importance of agriculture
therefore, has to be understood in terms of the perceived national interests of the six states
that came together to form the EEC. Liberal intergovernmentalism looks at the domestic
politics that produce the positions taken up by national governments in international
negotiations. This directs attention to the importance of agriculture and of farmers in all the
member states at the time when the CAP was being negotiated. Neofunctionalism could only
come into play once the EEC and CAP existed. The same is true for institutionalism and
multi-level governance. All of these theories and models explain the development and
evolution of the CAP after its initial creation, but do not provide insights about its creation.
*not completed
Who tends to benefit most from the CAP?
Consumers incorrect
Large farms correct
Small farms incorrect
One of the undesirable characteristics of the CAP is that 70% of the CAP payments tend to go
to 25% of the largest and wealthiest farms. Large producers received more CAP payments
than small producers because the CAP had been based upon output. Consumers also lose out
under the CAP because it raises food prices by placing a tariff on imports and artificially
supporting the prices of agricultural goods produced within the EU. Some estimates have
placed the cost of the CAP to consumers as the equivalent of a 15% tax on food.
Page reference:404
With which treaty did environmental policy gain a legal basis as an area of EU policy?
Single European Act (1987) correct
Maastricht Treaty (1993) incorrect
Amsterdam Treaty (1999) incorrect
Lisbon Treaty (2009) incorrect
Environmental policy acquired a sound legal basis in the Single European Act (SEA) (1987).
In the founding treaties there was no reference to the environment. The European
Communities were established on economic grounds, and economic logic dictated the
direction of European integration. Even at the national level, there were no coherent
environmental policies in most member states during that period, so there was no pressure to
co-ordinate policy measures at the Community level, other than to avoid trade distortions. A
series of environmental disasters, the growth of the green movement and the increase in
environmental matters being adopted at the national level, prompted the EU to push for co-
ordinated action at the Community level. Three Environmental Action Programmes (EAP)
were agreed between 1973 and 1986. However, the EU still lacked explicit treaty provisions
on which to base its environmental objectives. In 1986, the member states agreed to give
environmental policy a treaty base and the SEA inserted a new Environment Title into the
treaties. Hence, environmental protection became part of the competences of the Community.
Page reference: 415
*not completed
What significant change to the environmental policy area was introduced by the Maastricht
Treaty?
Qualified majority voting (QMV) was extended to almost all areas of environmental
policy. incorrect
The environmental policy powers of the European Parliament (EP) were increased via the
introduction of the co-decision procedure. incorrect
The environment was listed as a major goal of the EU. incorrect
All of the above. The Maastricht Treaty increased further the visibility of environmental
policy in the Treaties. The environment was now listed in the opening articles as a major goal
of the EU, alongside the other major goals of an economic nature. In terms of processes,
QMV was extended to almost all areas of environmental policy, but unanimity was retained
in sensitive areas such as town and country planning, taxation and energy choices. The new
co-decision policy-making procedure was adopted for all measures related to the Common
Market, increasing the powers of the EP.
Page reference: 415
*not completed
What is meant by the legal implementation deficit?
The name applied to environmental legal rulings incorrect
The deficient number of EU environmental regulations being agreed by member

states incorrect
The failure to transpose EU legislation into national laws correct
The failure to implement EU legislation in practice incorrect
The legal implementation deficit refers to the failure to transpose laws into national law.
Implementation can be understood in either legal or political terms. The former refers to the
extent that there has been transposition of EU legislation into national laws, whereas the latter
refers to whether a law has been implemented in practice (Weale et al. 2000: 297–8). Since
the Commission is chronically under-staffed and under-resourced, it has found it easier to
focus more on the legal than on the practical implementation deficit. Problems with the legal
aspect of implementation are exacerbated because most EU environmental legislation comes
in the form of directives. Since directives are not directly applicable in the member states,
national governments are responsible for translating them into national laws. Hence,
problems arise when member states do not take the appropriate actions. Additionally, the
member states and sub-national authorities are responsible for the practical implementation of
those laws inside their territory. Consequently, the EU institutions are in the peculiar position
of adapting environmental measures that are to be applied and enforced by national and sub-
national authorities. In terms of the production of legislation, the environmental policy field
is among the most active, albeit its implementation record is among one of the worst in the
EU.
Page reference: 422
*not completed
Who can file a complaint with the Commission when there is incomplete implementation of
an environmental law by a member state?
Corporations incorrect
General public incorrect

Non-governmental organizations (NGOs) incorrect
All of the above. Corporations, the general public, and NGOs can all file a complaint with the
Commission when there is incomplete implementation of an environmental law by a member
state. National governments and parliaments may also file complaints. The role of the
Commission is to investigate the complaint, and if the complaint holds, begin infringement
proceedings against the member state. This can ultimately lead to a referral to the European
Court of Justice (CJEU). Until recently, the CJEU lacked the 'teeth' to enforce its verdicts on
the member states. However, since the Maastricht Treaty, the Commission can request the
CJEU to fine member states that have failed to comply with previous Court decisions.
Page reference: 422
*not completed
True or false: There is a clear cut divide between the rich North and poor South in promoting
and implementing environmental legislation.
False correct
True incorrect
False. Börzel (2000) has demonstrated that there is not a clear cut divide between the rich
North and poor South in promoting and implementing environmental legislation. This is
contrary to the view that there are two major camps of countries within the EU on
environmental policy: the leaders and the laggards. Denmark, the Netherlands, Germany,
Austria, Sweden and Finland are generally considered as leading countries in promoting
legislation, whereas Greece, Portugal, Ireland, and Spain—together with the new member
states—are considered to put obstacles in the way of the adoption of tougher environmental
measures. According to state-centric explanations, it is the push and pull between these two
camps that has contributed the most towards the evolution of EU environmental policy. This
view however, is regarded as far too simplistic and could lead to oversimplifications.
Page reference: 426
*not completed
What feature of the Commission explains why it has not always been in favour of
unconditional environmental policy expansion?
A reduction in its formal capacity to initiate environmental legislation incorrect
Lack of financial support incorrect
Fear of the European Court of Justice (CJEU) incorrect

Competition between Directorates-General (DGs) correct
Competition between the Directorates-General (DGs) has meant that the Commission has not
always been in favour of unconditional policy expansion. Despite being of paramount
importance in promoting EU environmental policy, closer scrutiny reveals that, as a result of
its inherent internal divisions, the role of the Commission has not always been expansionist.
There is great competition between the economic DGs (Trade, Competition) and the
Environment DG. The Commission does not always support green legislation, since the
Environment DG sometimes fails to gain broader support within the college of
Commissioners. Indeed, on occasion, the Commission has adopted points of view that are
less environmentally friendly (for example, the Danish bottle case). The formal power of the
Commission to initiate environmental legislation has not diminished, and nor is the question
of a lack of financial support significant, as the Commission's work does not require
extensive resources. The European Court of Justice (CJEU) has demonstrated policy
leadership and has generally supported the Commission throughout the years in its struggles
with the Council.
Page reference: 427
*not completed
True or false: The issue of climate change provides a very good example of the influence of
epistemic communities in EU policy-making?
True correct
False incorrect
True. The environment is a policy area in where scientific expertise is central to policy-
making. The epistemic communities approach can be used to explain the shifts that have
taken place in this area of EU policy in recent years. EU actors–who often lack the expertise
to make informed judgments on environmental issues-tend to turn to environmental experts in
order to increase their knowledge of climate change and how to tackle it. Experts have played
a key role in both articulating the nature of the problem, and in shaping policy responses to it.
Page reference: 427
*not completed
Which of the following has played a central role in influencing the character and ambition of
the EU's recent environmental policy?
Enlargement of the EU incorrect
The economic and financial crisis incorrect
Neither of the above incorrect

Both of the above. The enlargement of the EU has played a key role in shaping its
environmental policy. In particular, enlargement of the EU in the 2000s to bring in less
affluent states in Eastern and central Europe with no history of environmental policy has had
profound implications. The EU has struggled to agree a zero-carbon target for 2050 due to
reluctance of these states to sign up to it. From 2009, economic and financial crisis limited
the appetite in many member states for ambitious green targets—which were often viewed as
placing limits on the capacity for economic recovery and growth—and saw the environment
downgraded as a key issue on the policy agenda.
Page reference: 421
*not completed
True or false: climate change was a major issue in the 2019 European election?
True correct
False incorrect
In the wake of a record and deadly heatwave in Europe, wildfires in Australia, and record
global temperatures, climate change ascended the European and international policy agendas
in 2019. Social movements such as the School Strike for Climate, founded by Swedish
teenager, Greta Thunberg, and Extinction Rebellion, were pivotal in propelling the issue up
the list of international policy priorities. Climate change became a key issue in the European
Parliament (EP) election in 2019, and this contributed to unprecedented levels of electoral
success for Green parties across Europe. In 2019, the EU adopted the language of 'climate
crisis', rather than 'climate change' to capture the scale of the challenge.
Page reference: 417
*not completed
Which of the following was not promised by the 2019 European Green Deal?
A 'just transition' fund, to support the transition to carbon neutrality in states dependent on
fossil fuels incorrect
A new 'climate law', designed to set the EU on an irreversible path to carbon

neutrality incorrect
An 'ejection clause', designed to automatically eject from the EU any state that fails to attain
carbon neutrality by 2050 correct
A range of sector-specific policies, to support and facilitate a transition to carbon

neutrality incorrect
The European Green Deal was proposed by the incoming Commission President, Ursula von
der Leyen. While the previous Juncker Commission had showed limited interest in
environmental and climate policy, von der Leyen moved swiftly to establish her
environmental credentials. Her proposed Green Deal committed the EU to carbon neutrality
by 2050 and a suite of policies were promised to help deliver on that goal. These policies
included a 'just transition' fund that could be used to ease the financial burdens of transition in
states that were still dependent upon fossil fuels. This fund was central to securing buy-in
from central and east European states. A new 'climate law' was designed to set the EU onto an
irreversible path to climate neutrality, and a suite of sectoral policies to support and facilitate
achieving carbon neutrality were also proposed.
Page reference: 416
True or false: Justice and Home Affairs (JHA) was not envisaged as an area of European
policy in the founding treaties of the European Union.
True correct
False incorrect
True. The founding treaties of the EU made few provisions relating to the emergence during
the 1990s of Justice and Home Affairs (JHA)/Area of Freedom, Security and Justice (AFSJ).
The commitment to the free movement of persons, and specifically of workers was notable
(Art 48 EEC Treaty). Other very limited rights bestowed on citizens in the early decades of
integration were economic- and market-related. Many of these provisions however, only
became significant with the developing momentum in the mid-1980s to create the single
market. The fragmented policy initiatives during the 1980s were no indication of the scope
that AFSJ would later assume. The Maastricht Treaty (1993) located JHA in its own
intergovernmental pillar. The Amsterdam Treaty (1999) communitarized elements of JHA by
moving them into the first supranational pillar. The Lisbon Treaty further enhanced AFSJ by
ending the existence of the third pillar. AFSJ has thus developed its own governance
arrangements, including a range of agencies.
*not completed
What was 'Trevi'?
A loose form of co-operation within the European Political Co-operation (EPC) correct
Another name for the third pillar of the EU incorrect
An EU initiative to promote agreement on a common immigration and asylum

policy incorrect
A US-EU partnership to combat organized crime. incorrect
'Trevi' was a loose form of co-operation within the European Political Co-operation (EPC)
machinery. It was therefore an intergovernmental process comprising EU member states.
Trevi was set up in 1975 as a response to increasing terrorist activity in Europe, but was later
extended to the fight against drugs trafficking and organized crime. It also provided the
experience of working together that paved the way for more constructive co-operation once
the Treaty on European Union (TEU) was put into effect in 2003. The work of Trevi was
particularly influential for the development within JHA of Europol. The EU member states
have committed themselves to a common immigration and asylum policy, but this is separate
from Trevi. Similarly, combating organized crime is an area of intensive co-operation
between EU member states, but it is separate from Trevi and does not involve a formal
partnership with the US.
Page reference: 433
*not completed
The Schengen Group emerged as a 'laboratory' for creating which of the following?
A visa-free zone incorrect
A passport-free zone correct
An asylum-free zone incorrect
An immigration-free zone incorrect
The Schengen group of member states agreed to create a passport-free zone by eliminating
internal border controls. The initiative can be traced back to Franco-German efforts in 1984
to include some components of Justice and Home Affairs (JHA) activity in what became the
Single European Act (SEA). The lifting of passport controls facilitates the free movement of
people across borders and is therefore a key dimension of the single market programme. The
abolition of internal border checks by Schengen area members has been accompanied by
harmonized controls at the external frontiers of the Schengen zone. The implications of
removing passport controls however, proved to be far more far reaching than envisaged and
the scope of Justice and Home Affairs (JHA) widened to include further related agreements
on asylum, extradition and police co-operation. The Schengen area does not involve the
elimination of visas for third country visitors to the EU, nor does it seek to exclude asylum-
seekers or immigrants.
Page reference: 433
*not completed
Which of the following states is not a full member of the Schengen area?
Greece incorrect
Germany incorrect
Ireland correct
Malta incorrect
Ireland is not a full member of the Schengen area. Specifically, this means it is not in the
passport-free zone. The Schengen group was created in 1985. It comprises member states that
agree to eliminate internal border controls. The initiative can be traced back to Franco-
German efforts in 1984 to include some components of Justice and Home Affairs (JHA)
activity in what became the Single European Act (SEA). It became clear however, that one of
the core components—the lifting of passport controls to accompany the opening of the single
market—was not acceptable to Ireland, Britain, and Denmark and all three states secured opt-
outs. In the context of the broader JHA policy domain, the Schengen area is an example of
differentiated integration, as not all member states participate in all arrangements.
Page reference: 433,
*not completed
Which EU treaty committed the EU to creating an Area of Freedom, Security and Justice?
Maastricht Treaty incorrect
Amsterdam Treaty correct
Lisbon Treaty incorrect
The Amsterdam Treaty committed the EU to creating an Area of Freedom, Security and
Justice (AFSJ). This new initiative or 'project' involved a number of significant changes to
Justice and Home Affairs (JHA) policy. JHA constituted the third pillar of the Maastricht
Treaty and involved intergovernmental co-operation on a range of issues including
immigration and asylum; police and customs co-operation; and combating organized crime,
terrorism, drugs, and human trafficking. However, the institutional arrangements which
applied to JHA were less than satisfactory. The main difficulty was a slow and unwieldy
decision-making process which tended to produce policy decisions based on the lowest
common denominator. The visibility of JHA decision-making was also low and parliamentary
control virtually non-existent. This dissatisfaction with the JHA policy process led to pressure
for institutional reform, which came about with the 1997 Amsterdam Treaty. The treaty
transferred visa, asylum, and immigration policies to the supranational first pillar and these
areas became subject to qualified majority voting (QMV). Pillar three remained but with a
narrower set of JHA responsibilities.
Page reference: 436
*not completed
True or false: Since the entry into force of the Lisbon Treaty in 2009, the Commission has the
exclusive right of initiative for all JHA policies.
False correct
True incorrect
False. The Commission continues to be denied the exclusive right of initiative. This power is
shared with the member states, a quarter of which may also launch an initiative. The Lisbon
Treaty did bring about some fundamental institutional reforms of JHA policy, but this did not
extend to giving the Commission the sole right of initiative. Among the changes introduced
by the Lisbon Treaty is the upgraded commitment to the creation of an Area of Freedom,
Security and Justice (AFSJ). In addition, the abolition of the three-pillar system means that
those parts of JHA that remained in the third pillar, namely police and judicial co-operation in
criminal matters (PJCCM), are brought into the 'Union method' i.e. qualified majority voting
(QMV) in the Council, co-decision rights for the European Parliament and, with some
restrictions, the jurisdiction of the European Court of Justice (ECJ). However, the operation
of JHA is not fully conducted within a supranational framework, as a number of exceptional
arrangements and restrictions are written into the treaties. One such restriction is the
requirement for the Commission to share the right of initiative with the member states. This
reflects the reluctance of national governments to give up all policy powers related to AFSJ.
Page reference: 438
*not completed
Which of the following is not an agency in charge of particular aspects of the Area of
Freedom, Security and Justice (AFSJ)?
Frontex incorrect
Euroforce correct
Europol incorrect
Eurojust incorrect
Euroforce is not an agency of the EU. Frontex works to secure the external borders of the EU.
It engages in exchange of information and co-operation between member states' border
guards, customs, and police. Its policy remit focuses on the integration of member states'
border security systems to deal with threats at the EU's external frontiers. Europol is the
European law enforcement agency. It facilitates bilateral exchange of information between all
member state police forces. Its policy remit includes combating international crime; motor
vehicle crime; organized crime; drug trafficking; illicit immigration networks; terrorism;
forgery of money; trafficking in human beings; and money laundering. Eurojust is the EU's
judicial co-operation unit. It facilitates co-operation between investigating and prosecuting
authorities in the member states. This involves the exchange of personal data and judicial
information. Eurojust's policy remit is similar to that of Europol's.
Page reference: 439
*not completed
The 9/11 terrorist attacks in the US prompted swift EU agreement on which of the following?
Schengen Information System (SIS) incorrect
EU Rendition Policy incorrect
Dublin Convention incorrect
European Arrest Warrant (EAW) correct
European Arrest Warrant (EAW). Following the 9/11 terrorist attacks in the US, new
momentum in agreeing AFSJ policy measures was achieved. This culminated in the best
known development, the European Arrest Warrant (EAW), which has replaced conventional
extradition between member states with a judicial procedure. The Schengen Information
System (SIS) is a multinational database for the use of immigration, border control, police,
and judicial authorities in any of the Schengen member states. The creation of the database
was provided for in the Schengen Convention (1985). It is a key policy instrument put in
place to accompany removal of border and passport controls and was first developed in 1995.
The Dublin Convention, signed in 1990 and coming into force in 1997, was designed to stop
asylum seekers making more than one application to enter the EU, trying to find the easiest
point of access: a tactic known as 'asylum shopping'. The EU has no policy on rendition.
Page reference: 442
*not completed
Which of the following specific EU citizen rights are not provided for in the Maastricht
Treaty?
The right to move and reside freely within the territory of the member states incorrect
The right to vote and stand as candidates in national elections in their member state of
residence, under the same conditions as nationals of that state correct
The right to enjoy, in the territory of a third country in which the member state of which they
are nationals is not represented, the protection of the diplomatic and consular authorities of an
member state on the same conditions as the national of that state incorrect
The right to petition the European Parliament, to apply to the European Ombudsman, and to
address the institutions and advisory bodies of the Union in any of the Treaty languages and
to obtain a reply in the same language incorrect
EU citizens do not have the right to vote and stand as candidates in national elections in their
member state of residence. They do, however, have the right to vote and stand as candidates
in elections to the European Parliament and in municipal elections in their member state of
residence, under the same conditions as nationals of that state. A key aspect of the freedom
component of the Area of Freedom, Security and Justice (AFSJ) relates to the protection of
rights. Much of this has been pursued by progressive attempts to incorporate the Charter on
Fundamental Human Rights into the EU. However, another aspect of rights-related policy
involves citizenship. The Maastricht Treaty initiated the notion of EU citizenship, which
supplements rather than replaces national citizenship of a member state. The treaty also
fleshes out what it means to be an EU citizen by articulating four specific citizenship rights.
Page reference: 444
*not completed
True or false. Differentiated integration has been a key characteristic of JHA and AFSJ.
True correct
False incorrect
A key characteristic of JHA and AFSJ has been the use of differentiated integration. This
means that not all member states participate in all arrangements. This has been a consistent
feature of this policy area's evolution and has manifested itself in the use of 'laboratories'
outside the EU, and of EU measures that have not involved all member states. An example of
a laboratory is the Schengen area—a group of member states that agreed to eliminate internal
border controls during the 1980s. The core component of the Schengen area was the lifting of
passport controls. This proposal was not acceptable to some EU member states including
Britain and Ireland, which did not participate. In addition, Romania, Bulgaria, and Croatia are
not deemed to have high enough standards to be admitted to the Schengen border control
system. In 2010, enhanced co-operation was used in the AFSJ policy area for the first time
when fourteen states agreed to legislation in judicial cooperation on matters relating to
divorce and separation. This use of enhanced co-operation or pioneer groupings is a variation
within the EU of the laboratory approach that the Schengen Convention initially offered
outside the EU. This type of differentiated integration, however, does expose a tension
between a common EU approach and the practice of so-called pioneer groups moving ahead
more quickly. Specifically, differentiated integration begs questions about whether this
approach is a way of facilitating policy-making in instances where unanimous agreement
among 28 member states is difficult. Or whether it is a way of by-passing parliamentary
scrutiny and the Commission?
Page reference: 446
In the period after the Second World War, which of the following institutions governed trade
relations between states?
International Monetary Fund (IMF) incorrect
General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) correct
World Trade Organisation (WTO) incorrect
Bretton Woods incorrect
The General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT), a series of intergovernmental

negotiations, was created after the Second World War and governed trade relations between
states. There had been an intention to create an International Trade Organization (ITO) which
would facilitate the gradual introduction of global free trade agreements and regulate trade
disputes between states. However, the US Congress would not agree to the ITO, so instead a
series of intergovernmental negotiations were initiated known as the GATT. The GATT was a
weak organization and ran into a series of difficulties from the late 1970s. It was eventually
replaced by a far stronger body, the World Trade Organization (WTO), which was created in
1995. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was also created during this period. Its
objective was to assist states that got into temporary difficulties with their balance of
payments. Bretton Woods refers to a series of agreements reached in Bretton Woods, New
Hampshire, in 1944. These agreements set up several institutions designed to help an
international economic system to emerge.
Page reference: 457
*not completed
The accession to the EU of which state provided a stimulus for agreement on the Lomé
Convention?
Britain correct
Spain incorrect
Portugal incorrect
Greece incorrect
The accession of Britain to the EEC in 1973 provided a stimulus for agreement on the Lomé
Convention. Relations with ex-colonies was an area of considerable concern for the original
EEC. When the Treaty of Rome was signed in 1957, the vast majority of independent
countries that eventually became the African, Caribbean, and Pacific (ACP) group, remained
the responsibility of colonial powers. In 1956 France, which of the original EEC member
states had the largest number of colonies, requested that its overseas territories be granted
associated status with the proposed EEC. Relations were initially dealt with in an
Implementing Convention, which was replaced in 1963 by the Yaoundé Convention. Both of
these instruments had the objective of gradually moving towards a free trade area between the
EEC and the former French colonies and included the provision of financial aid. Neither
however, marked a serious attempt to break with the traditional pattern of relations between
Europe and the developing world. The Lomé Convention was negotiated in the early 1970s as
a result of British accession to the EEC and marked a turning point in these relations. Britain
was a former imperial power, similar to France, and the addition of its former colonies
brought to forty-six the number of associated states. It created 'a contract between equal
partners and [was] a step towards a New International Order' (Stevens 1984: 1). Spain and
Portugal were also former imperial powers but they acceded to the EC during the 1980s, after
the establishment of the Lomé Convention. Greece did not have colonies.
Page reference: 458
*not completed
What is the Lomé Convention?
A trade agreement between the EU and the Maghreb states incorrect
Reciprocal trade agreements between the EU and its former colonies incorrect
A trade and aid package between the EU and the African, Caribbean and Pacific
States correct
Preferential trade agreements concluded between the EU and France's former

colonies incorrect
The Lomé Convention refers to a trade and aid package between the EU and the African,
Caribbean, and Pacific (ACP) states, and covers a number of agreements from 1975 to 2000.
They are non-reciprocal trade agreements. This means that while the Lomé Conventions gave
the ACP countries access to EU markets for certain commodities (such as bananas) it did not
demand access to ACP markets in return. This non-reciprocity is one of the reasons why the
Commission argued that the Lomé Convention violated WTO rules. While the Convention
was originally created to accommodate French demands for a special association status for its
former colonies, it also includes former colonies of other member states.
Page reference: 458
*not completed
How did the Cotonou Agreement differ from the Lomé Convention?
The Cotonou Agreement reduced the number of products covered by trade

agreements incorrect
The Cotonou Agreement was an identical agreement apart from the fact that it needed
renewal every five years incorrect
The Cotonou Agreement included human rights provisions while the Lomé Convention did
not incorrect
The Cotonou Agreement introduced reciprocal trade agreements correct
The Cotonou Agreement, signed in June 2000, differed from the Lomé Convention because it
was based on the progressive and reciprocal removal of trade agreements between the EU and
the countries covered by the Cotonou Agreements. Lomé was incompatible with WTO rules.
Article 1 of the WTO Charter requires participants not to discriminate between other WTO
members in trade concessions. Exceptions are allowed to this rule for less developed
countries (LDCs), but the concessions must apply to all LDCs. There were two problems
about the compatibility of Lomé with these WTO rules: first, many of the ACP states covered
by Lomé were not classified as LDCs by the WTO; second, there were nine LDCs that were
not included in Lomé. In response to these problems with the existing arrangements, the
Commission proposed dividing the ACP states into the LDCs, which could choose to
continue to receive non-reciprocal trade concessions that would also be offered to the nine
LDC states that had previously been excluded, and the non-LDCs, which would be offered
Economic Partnership Agreements (EPAs). The EPAs would involve reciprocity, so the ACP
states would have to offer free market access to EU goods. To be WTO compatible, they
would also have to cover 'substantially all' trade, which was generally interpreted as 90 per
cent of products, so agricultural produce that had been excluded from Lomé to protect areas
that were adjudged 'sensitive' by EU member states would have to be included.
Page reference: 465
*not completed
True or false: Since the introduction of the WTO, recourse to dispute panels has decreased
considerably.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Partly because of the increased complexity of the rules, and partly because of the
advent of more effective machinery, recourse to dispute panels has increased considerably
since the introduction of the WTO. The WTO averages forty disputes a year as compared to
six per year under the previous GATT procedures (McQueen 1998: 436). This has affected
the EU because of increased challenges to its practices, particularly from the US. Since the
WTO was created in 1995, the US and the EU have struggled to dominate the procedures and
the agendas, or at least to ensure that the other does not dominate. Each side has brought
complaints against the other. Among the issues under dispute have been the EU's banana
regime, the application of biotechnology to agricultural produce and the Foreign Sales
Corporation (FSC) provisions of US tax law.
Page reference: 464
*not completed
What are the levels of 'three level game' of EU trade negotiations?
Within member states, among member states, and between the EU and its trading
partners correct
Among member states, between the Commission and Council and between the EU and its
trading partners incorrect
Among member states, between the Commission and Council and between the Commission
and European Court of Justice incorrect
Between member states and the EU's trading partners, the Commission and the EU's trading
partners, and national interest groups and the EU's trading partners incorrect
The three levels of the 'three level game' of EU trade negotiations are first, reaching
agreement within member states that reflects a balance of domestic interests, secondly,
reaching agreement among member states that reflects a balance of EU interests, and finally,
reaching agreement among the signatory states of the WTO (Collinson, 1999). Having to
reach agreement that satisfies three levels of bargaining complicates the process of
negotiations. Negotiations are also complicated by the fact that a wide range of issues are
under discussion. The 'three-level game' draws on the intergovernmental approach. Young
(2000) advocated supplementing liberal intergovernmental analysis of trade policy with an
institutionalist approach. According to this analysis, the three-level game is structured by the
institutionalization of the policy sector. In other words, different EU positions during trade
negotiations can be explained with reference to the different institutionalization of political
forces within each set of issues.
Page reference: 470
*not completed
What are Association Agreements?

A series of deals on agricultural trade between the US and EU incorrect
Agreements on trade in services between the EU, China, and the US incorrect
Bilateral trade agreements between European member states and their former
colonies incorrect
Pre-accession agreements with states that want to become full members of the EU correct
Association Agreements are pre-accession agreements with states that want to become full
members of the EU. These agreements typically provide for the liberalization of trade to
various degrees and often (though not necessarily) pave the way to formal accession
processes. One of the earliest such agreements was with Turkey in 1973. In recognition of the
disappointment of Turkey at not being treated as a candidate for membership of the EU in the
enlargement round that ended in 2004, in 1996, the Association Agreement with it was
extended into a special customs union. In the late 1990s and throughout the 2000s the EU
negotiated association agreements with a number of countries in the Mediterranean region
geared towards the liberalization of trade in goods. Since the late 2000s and in the context of
its Eastern Partnership, the EU has sought to negotiate further such agreements. As of early
2014 it had made significant progress towards the signature of agreements with Georgia and
Moldova.
Page reference: 468
*not completed
What was the difference in emphasis between Pascal Lamy as Trade Commissioner (1999–
2004) and his successor Peter Mandelson (2005–2008)?
Lamy linked EU trade policy to political objectives such as social justice and sustainable
development; Mandelson downgraded political objectives correct
Mandelson linked EU trade policy to political objectives such as social justice and
sustainable development; Lamy downgraded political objectives incorrect
Lamy did not support trade liberalization; Mandelson did incorrect
Mandelson did not support trade liberalization; Lamy did incorrect
Lamy linked EU trade policy to political objectives such as social justice and sustainable
development; Mandelson downgraded political objectives. Lamy favoured 'managed
capitalism', which made multilateralism the central doctrine of EU trade policy, and linked
trade to political objectives. 'Global Europe', a 2006 communication, outlines Mandelson's
position and argued that the central objective of EU trade policy should be to open markets
abroad for European companies. This effectively involved a downgrading of the political
adjuncts to trade negotiations and a retreat from the commitment to multilateralism. Both
Lamy and Mandelson favoured trade liberalization.
Page reference: 469
*not completed
Which state negotiated and initialled an association agreement with the EU, but in late 2013
opted not to sign it?
Moldova incorrect
Georgia incorrect
Russia incorrect
Ukraine correct
Despite having negotiated and initialled an association agreement with the EU, Ukraine opted
in late 2013 not to sign this in response to Russian pressure. This led to widespread political
opposition and upheaval in Ukraine in early 2014 and significant tensions between Russia
and the west. Russia is generally concerned about the extension of EU economic and political
influence in the east and particularly into soviet successor states.
Page reference: 468
*not completed
True or false: The European Neighbourhood Policy (ENP) covers states that are in line for
EU membership.
True incorrect
False correct
False. The objectives of the ENP are: to share the benefits of the 2004 enlargement with
neighbouring countries without offering the perspective of membership, and so to prevent the
emergence of stark dividing lines between EU and non-EU states; and to build security in the
area surrounding the EU. Although the ENP is not a purely economic arrangement, the
provision of financial assistance and economic co-operation, including access for the
neighbouring states to the EU's internal market, are central to its operation. In 2013 there
were sixteen ENP countries to the south and east of the EU.
Page reference: 468
EPC, CFSP, and ESDP are all examples of what?
Areas where the Commission has developed a leading role incorrect
Political co-operation in foreign policy correct
Areas of qualified majority voting decision-making incorrect

European Political Co-operation (EPC), the Common Foreign and Security Policy (CFSP),
and European Security and Defence Policy (ESDP) are all forms of political co-operation in
the EU. This means that they are all programmes that share the goal of co-operation in the
'high politics' of foreign policy, either in the diplomatic or the military realm. These forms of
co-operation are intergovernmental, which means that the European Council, and not the
Commission, plays a leading role. Most decisions in political co-operation are taken by
unanimity, although there are provisions for qualified majority voting in limited
circumstances as well as provisions for member states to abstain from voting without
blocking the process of political cooperation among other member states.
*not completed
Which of the following is not an example of EPC at work?
The Venice declaration of 1980 incorrect
Block voting in the UN incorrect
Common positions in the Conference on Security and Cooperation in Europe

(CSCE) incorrect
A common position on the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan correct
After the Soviet invasion of Afghanistan in December 1979, the member states of the EC
were unable to reach a common position on a response. The British supported an 'Atlanticist'
response of boycotting the Moscow Olympics; the French were not prepared to commit to
this action and the West German government was unhappy at the way the US used the issue
to heighten East-West tension. However, the member states of the EC had some success with
reaching common foreign policy positions in the late 1970s and early 1980s. After engaging
in the Euro-Arab dialogue through the 1970s, the EC member states articulated a common
position on the middle east in the Venice Declaration of 1980. They also achieved a record of
block voting in the United Nations and in the formulation of common positions through the
CSCE.
Page reference: 479
*not completed
True or false: The Single European Act (SEA) brought EPC into the treaties and under the
jurisdiction of the Court of Justice of the EU (CJEU).
True incorrect
False correct
False. While the SEA brought EPC into the treaty structure, it did not bring it under the
jurisdiction of the CJEU. In its early stages in the 1970s and early 1980s, EPC was
characterized by informal contact and co-operation between EC foreign ministers. The SEA
formalized and institutionalized this co-operation, codifying its procedures in the treaties, and
creating a political secretariat to support EPC. However, EPC remained intergovernmental
and it remained outside of CJEU jurisdiction. EPC was replaced by the Common Foreign and
Security Policy in the Treaty of Maastricht.
Page reference: 478
*not completed
What is the key contention of the 'capability-expectations gap' concept?
That the EU should be conceived as a coherent actor in international affairs incorrect
That as an international actor, the EU takes its lead from the USA incorrect
That the EU should not be conceived as an actor in international affairs correct
That the EU has no legitimate interest in political events outside of Europe. incorrect
The 'capability-expectations gap' casts doubt on whether the EU should be conceived as an

actor in international affairs. The concept was developed by Hill (1993), who produced an
assessment of political co-operation which noted that the EC lacked autonomy, and was not
distinct from other actors, notably the member states. To mistake it for an actor he suggested,
was to raise the expectations of what it could achieve. In this respect, Hill noted that the
Community lacked the necessary resources and instruments, and also, because it was not an
actor, lacked the ability to reach agreement internally on political co-operation. This was why
the capability-expectations gap existed and Hill believed that the gap had only been increased
by the SEA and the TEU, which suggested advances in the international activity of the
EC/EU that it was incapable of making.
Page reference: 487
*not completed
What was the significance of the Saint-Malo summit?
It marked the beginning of EPC incorrect
It marked the beginning of CFSP incorrect
It marked the beginning of ESDP correct

At the December 1998 summit in Saint-Malo, France, British prime minister Tony Blair and
French president Jacques Chirac agreed to support the creation of an ESDP therefore
extending co-operation in CFSP into the realm of security and defence. This represents a
further advance in security and defence cooperation beyond the Treaty of Amsterdam's
commitment of EU member states to carrying out the 'Petersberg tasks'. This was prompted
by the EU's inability to respond quickly to the crisis in Kosovo, forcing it to rely instead on
NATO troops. The Saint-Malo agreement was followed by the European Council's agreement
the following year to create a rapid reaction force of up to 60,000 troops.
Page reference: 480
*not completed
What role did the Treaty of Amsterdam commit all member states to?
NATO actions incorrect
Joint defense incorrect
Carrying out the Petersberg Tasks correct
The Treaty of Amsterdam committed EU member states to carrying out the Petersberg Tasks.
While defending Europe's territory is a task that falls to NATO, the Petersberg Tasks cover
humanitarian, peacekeeping and crisis management roles. The Treaty of Amsterdam did not
create the Petersberg Tasks —these were developed by the Western European Union (WEU)
in June 1992. (The WEU is a European organization for co-operation in security and defence.
It consists of 28 countries). Even member states that are not NATO members due to their
neutrality take part in carrying out the Petersberg Tasks.
*not completed
Which of the following actions/positions were taken by the EU following the 2001 terrorist
attack on the United States?
Creation of a European Arrest Warrant correct
EU support for the 2003 US-led invasion of Iraq incorrect
EU opposition to the US campaign to unseat the Taliban government in Afghanistan incorrect
EU leaders identified an axis of evil comprising Iran, Iraq and North Korea incorrect
The Commission rapidly tabled proposals for a European Arrest Warrant following the 2001
terrorist attack on the United States. Agreement on this was reached in December 2001,
despite reservations by Italy. The EU was not opposed to the subsequent US campaign in
Afghanistan to unseat the Taliban government. However, the US decision to invade Iraq
precipitated a serious split within the EU. In the build-up to the eventual invasion, France and
Germany led a small group of states that opposed any military action, while Britain, Spain,
and Italy were the leading supporters of a larger group (if the accession states are included)
that backed the US action. President George W. Bush, in his 2002 State of the Union speech,
identified an axis of evil comprising Ian, Iraq and North Korea. Bush's public condemnation
was a setback for the EU's efforts in developing constructive relations with Iran and North
Korea in particular.
Page reference: 483
*not completed
High Representative Catherine Ashton played a role in which of the following?
Diffusing ethnic tension in Bosnia in 2011 incorrect
Facilitating the negotiation of an agreement between the Kosovo and Serbian authorities in
2013 incorrect
Brokering of a deal with Iran in 2013, which led to talks in 2014 on its nuclear
programme incorrect
All of the above. High Representative Catherine Ashton became an important and visible
actor in certain international contexts. She played an important role in the Western Balkans,
successfully diffusing ethnic tension in Bosnia in 2011 and facilitating the negotiation of an
unlikely agreement between the Kosovo and Serbian authorities in 2013, with the latter
recognizing the autonomy of the former (which, in turn, paved the way for accession
negotiations to commence with Serbia in 2014). Baroness Ashton was also involved with the
brokering of a deal with Iran in 2013, which led to talks in 2014 on its nuclear programme.
Page reference: 485
*not completed
Which of the following amendments to CFSP is contained in the 2009 Lisbon Treaty?
All decisions to be made by qualified majority voting incorrect
Commission given sole power of initiative incorrect
Creation of a European External Action Service correct

The Lisbon Treaty established the European External Action Service (EEAS). The service is
to be formed by staff drawn from the external relations departments of the Council and
Commission, with provision for additional staff to be seconded from the national diplomatic
services of the member states. The function of the EEAS is to assist the newly appointed
High Representative of the Union for Foreign Affairs and Security Policy. This position was
also created by the Lisbon Treaty. It carries with it the position of Vice-President of the
Commission and the incumbent is also charged with chairing meetings of the Council of
Foreign Ministers. The new post therefore straddles two institutions and acts as a bridge
between external economic relations and the CFSP/ESDP. The vast majority of CFSP
decisions remain subject to unanimity whilst the Commission's role in CFSP is minimal and
does not extend to the sole power of initiative.
Page reference: 482
*not completed
Which of the following was not established or facilitated by PESCO (Permanent Structured
Co-operation)?
Joint military planning, development, and investment between member states incorrect
The harmonization of interoperability of member state militaries incorrect
A standing EU army correct
The pooling of military capabilities through a 'European Defence Agency' incorrect
PESCO was established in 2017 and involves twenty-five member states (all except Denmark
and Malta). It has its basis in Article 46.2 of the Lisbon Treaty. It allows participating states to
jointly plan, develop, and invest in shared capability projects. The aim is to harmonize the
interoperability of militaries in various ways, co-develop and pool military capabilities
through the 'European defence Agency', and thereby have the capacity to coordinate joint
missions more closely and effectively. Participating states are required to adopt annual
national implementation plans to ensure they are making the required reforms. PESCO did
not, however, establish a standing EU army.
Page reference: 482
How many times has the EU enlarged?
Four incorrect
Five incorrect
Six incorrect
Seven correct
The European Union (EU) has enlarged on seven separate occasions growing from six to
nine, then ten, then twelve, then fifteen, then twenty-five and now twenty-seven member
states. The first enlargement was in 1973 when Britain, Ireland and Denmark became
members. The second enlargement was in 1981 when Greece joined and the third was in
1986 when Spain and Portugal acceded to the Community. The fourth enlargement was that
of 1995, which admitted Austria, Finland and Sweden. The fifth enlargement in 2004 was the
single biggest expansion of the EU. It brought ten new member states into the EU—eight
from Central and Eastern Europe—and two small Mediterranean states—Cyprus and Malta.
The sixth enlargement happened in 2007 when Romania and Bulgaria joined and the most
recent enlargement was in 2013 when Croatia acceded to the EU.
Page reference: 496
*not completed
What is the final step in the membership process?
Conclusion of negotiations by working groups incorrect
Ratification of the Accession Treaty correct
Approval of the terms of membership by the European Council incorrect
Signing of the Accession Treaty by the new member state incorrect
The final step in the membership process is the ratification of the Accession Treaty. The
Treaty must be given assent in the European Parliament and the Treaty must be ratified
according to the constitutional traditions of the acceding member state. This could mean
ratification through a national referendum or ratification through national parliament.
Ratification occurs after the Commission working groups conclude negotiations upon
determining that its conditions of accession have been met and the applicant country has
satisfactorily adopted the acquis, the European Council approves the terms of membership,
and the Accession Treaty is signed by the applicant country.
Page reference: 501
*not completed
What are the second and third enlargements of the EC usually referred to as?
The Southern enlargement correct
The EFTA enlargement incorrect
The Iberian enlargement incorrect
The Northern enlargement incorrect

The second and third enlargements of the EC, when Greece joined in 1981 and when Spain
and Portugal joined in 1986, are usually referred to as the Southern enlargement. The Iberian
enlargement refers to the entry of Spain and Portugal, the countries of the Iberian peninsula.
The EFTA enlargement refers to the 1995 membership of Austria, Finland and Sweden. The
Northern enlargement is sometimes used to describe the round which saw Britain, Denmark
and Ireland join in 1973, although usually this is simply referred to as the 'first' enlargement.
Numbering the enlargements is difficult because technically, the accession of each member
state counts as a separate enlargement. The convention is to refer to the enlargements as
rounds: the first or Northern enlargement; the second or Southern enlargement; the third or
EFTA enlargement; the fourth or Eastward enlargement; etc.
Page reference: 497
*not completed
True or false: In 1967, Britain made its first application for EC membership.
True incorrect
False correct
False. Britain made its first application for EC membership in 1961, when it applied together
with Denmark and Ireland. (Norway later added its application to this group in 1962.) In
1963 French President Charles de Gaulle vetoed British membership, ending accession
negotiations with all of these countries. Britain made its second membership application in
1967, also with Ireland, Denmark, and, later, Norway. This time, Charles de Gaulle delayed
accession negotiations but his departure from office in 1969 removed the roadblock to
accession talks. Member states agreed at the Hague Summit to re-launch accession
negotiations and Britain became a member of the EC in January 1973.
*not completed
What policy was established with the first enlargement of the EC?
New member states were obligated to accept the whole acquis correct
Enlargement would lead to an Intergovernmental Conference (IGC) where the policies and
institutions were re-negotiated incorrect
New member states were not required to accept all policies of the EC incorrect
The first enlargement of the EC in 1973 established the practice that new member states
would accept the entire acquis communautaire—the body of laws and policies of the
European Community. The existing member states, and particularly the French, were
adamant that when new members joined the EC they should not be given the opportunity to
derail the policies and agreements negotiated by the original member states beforehand.
French President Pompidou was especially concerned that Britain should not be given an
opportunity to alter the Common Agricultural Policy and the own-resources budgetary
agreement that he calculated would benefit French agricultural interests.
Page reference: 501
*not completed
How did the accession of Greece, Spain, and Portugal affect the general principles of
enlargement?
It led to the development of strict economic criteria for membership incorrect
It led the EC to waive the requirement that new members adopt the acquis incorrect
It led the EC to prioritize political considerations over economic considerations correct
It led the EC to prioritise the compatibility of social policy over other considerations incorrect
The accession of Greece, Spain, and Portugal led the EC to prioritize political considerations
over economic considerations. For the EC, accession of Greece, Spain, and Portugal was
important for the consolidation of the new democratic regimes in these countries, and that led
the EC to be flexible on the economic readiness of these countries to join the EC. The EC did
not waive its requirement that new member states adopt the acquis, although this and
subsequent enlargements demonstrate that the EC was willing to offer resources and new
policy measures designed to help new member state adopt the acquis.
Page reference: 497
*not completed
True or false: Germany was a stronger supporter than France of eastward enlargement.
True correct
False incorrect
True. Germany was a strong supporter of eastward enlargement because its security and
economic interests were at stake. In particular, it pushed for the accession of Poland,
Hungary, and the Czech Republic. These countries were close geographical neighbours and
had close economic ties with Germany, and so Germany was keen to reduce the risk of
instability in these countries. Membership of the EC offered a way to do this. France,
meanwhile, was hesitant to support further enlargement of the union. Instability in the states
of eastern and central Europe did not pose an immediate security threat to France.
Enlargement, on the other hand, threatened to dilute French influence in the Union.
Page reference: 507
*not completed
Which EU leader argued in favour of a 'privileged partnership' instead of full membership for
Turkey?
Chancellor Angela Merkel correct
President Nicolas Sarkozy incorrect
Prime Minister Tony Blair incorrect
Prime Minister Silvio Berlusconi incorrect
Chancellor Angela Merkel argued in favour of a 'privileged partnership' instead of full

membership for Turkey. When the Christian Democrats returned to office in Germany in
2004, the German position became far less positive towards Turkish membership and hence
Angela Merkel's suggestion that Turkey be granted an alternative membership arrangement.
French President Nicolas Sarkozy was also against the Turkish membership. Before he took
office in 2007, he stated unequivocally that 'Turkey has no place inside the EU'. Britain,
always sympathetic to Turkey's claims, became a strong advocate of its case during the early
2000s. In the aftermath of a spate of terrorist bombings in Ankara in November 2003, the
British Foreign Secretary, Jack Straw, called for Turkish membership 'as soon as possible',
and the Europe Minister, Denis MacShane, said, 'Europe is incomplete without Turkey'
(Foreign and Commonwealth Office 2004). Italian Prime Minister Silvio Berlusconi was an
advocate for speedy Turkish accession to the EU.
Page reference: 510
*not completed
What issues proved to be difficult in the negotiations over eastward enlargement?
Agriculture incorrect
Structural funds incorrect
Qualified Majority Voting (QMV) and weighting of votes incorrect
In preparation for eastward enlargement, the EU faced politically difficult reforms over
agriculture and structural funds. In these redistributive policy areas, existing member states
were concerned that they would lose out. The new member states had larger agricultural
populations than the existing member states; enlargement would have meant a large increase
in EU Common Agricultural Policy expenditures. Similarly, countries such as Spain who
were beneficiaries from the structural funds in the EU 15 would no longer be a 'have-not'
country after enlargement. The introduction of new member states also required changing the
voting weights in the Council of Ministers. Member states resisted reforms that diluted their
influence.
Page reference: 499
*not completed
Which candidate state suspended negotiations with the EU in 2013?
Turkey incorrect
Iceland correct
Former Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia (FYRM) incorrect
Montenegro incorrect
Iceland suspended negotiations with the EU in April 2013. Following the financial crisis of
2008–2009, in which Icelandic banks suffered badly, the Icelandic parliament, the Althingi,
narrowly voted (by thirty-three votes to twenty-eight with two abstentions) to apply for EU
membership. Iceland was granted candidate status in June 2010 and accession negotiations
also began immediately. However, following elections in April 2013 which brought to power
Eurosceptic parties, negotiations with the EU were suspended. Negotiations with other
candidate states—Turkey, FYRM, and Montenegro—are ongoing.
Page reference: 500

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CFEU Practice MCQ

France and Germany. correct

The United Kingdom and France. incorrect

France, Germany, Italy, and the Benelux countries. incorrect

Germany and Italy. incorrect

Goods and persons. incorrect

Nuclear power and energy. incorrect

Coal and steel. correct

Transport and capital. incorrect

The European Coal and Steel Treaty no longer exists.

| Correct response: Defence

'Intergovernmentalism' means which of the following?

The creation of a federal state. incorrect

Political union. incorrect

Decision making by bodies above the member States. incorrect

Cooperation or agreement at the level of, or between, nation states. correct

'Intergorvernmentalism' means cooperation or agreement at the level of, or between, nation

'Supranationalism' means which of the following?

Simple agreements between nation states. incorrect

Nothing to do with nation states. incorrect

Federal union. incorrect

'Supranationalism' means international cooperation or integration in which decision making is

The 'Luxembourg Accords' are which of the following?

A Community treaty signed in Luxembourg. incorrect

An agreement to move to qualified majority voting in Council. incorrect

An agreement to disagree about majority and unanimous voting. correct

An agreement to abandon the use of national vetoes. incorrect

What is the 'Single European Act'?

A variety show. incorrect

A declaration on the Common Market. incorrect

A secondary legal Act of the Communities (now Union). incorrect

The terms do basically mean that.

What is the 'European Economic Area'?

This is a competitor trading area to the EU. incorrect

It is the successor to the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). incorrect

In 1995, Austria, Finland, Norway, and Sweden joined the EU.

Complete the following statement: Following the 2007 expansion, …

only Croatia will be admitted. incorrect

Correct. That is the current situation.

To what does the 'acquis Communautaire' refer?

The way in which the EU does things. incorrect

An index of EU terminology. incorrect

It is the French name for the European Union. incorrect

'Acquis Communautaire' refers to the accumulated body of EU law, including treaties,

| Correct response: Maastricht

Further institutional changes in preparation for enlargement. incorrect

The Constitutional Treaty was rejected by the member States in 2004.

A simple majority of the member States. incorrect

A qualified majority of the member States. incorrect

Two-thirds of the member States. incorrect

All of the member States. correct

All of the member States must ratify it.

Complete the following sentence: The 2007 Lisbon Treaty …

makes extensive amendments and renames the existing treaties. correct

Which Treaty created the European Economic Community?

The European Coal and Steel Community Treaty incorrect

The Treaty of Rome correct

The Single European Act incorrect

The European Convention on Human Rights incorrect

A structure incorporating national parliaments incorrect

A two-pillar structure incorrect

A three-pillar structure correct

A structure incorporating the European Court of Human Rights incorrect