CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT TEST

Subject: PCM Topic: JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7 Batch: JEE MAIN-25(HO,EB,SB)

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 7A
Date of Test: 12/02/2024 Maximum Marks: 300
Name of Student : ……………………………………………………………………. Roll No. : ………………… Batch :…….
Set Code

7A
Note : 1. Please Check Your Question Paper. It Contain Pages 1 to 12.
2. Also, please check that it contain total 75 Questions. (Physics – 25Q., Chemistry – 25Q., Mathematics – 25Q.)
3. Fill Correct Roll Number and Write Correct Name, Test No. (Set Code) on OMR Sheet.
4. There are Two Parts in each subject. For both the parts, there is negative marking scheme (4R – 1W). Which
means that for correct answer 4 marks will be awarded & for wrong answers 1 mark will be deducted. No marks
will be awarded or deducted if no bubble is filled
5. For Part B, in Numerical Value Type Questions, Fill OMR Sheet as per the following examples.
Example 1 - If answer is 9, write 00009 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 2 - If answer is 13, write 00013 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 3 - If answer is 110, write 00110 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 4 - If answer is 5556, write 05556 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 5 - If answer is –234, write –0234 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 6 - If answer is 0, write 00000 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles

PHYSICS
NOTE: There are 25 questions in this part.

PART : A (20 × 4 = 80 Marks) (4R – 1W)

CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION:
Q.1) Two spheres of masses 'm' and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between
them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3.
Gravitational force will now be :
F F
(A) F (B) 3F (C) (D)
3 9
Q.2) Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their
spaceship. The two will
(A) Move towards each other
(B) Move away from each other
(C) Will become stationary
(D) Keep floating at the same distance between them
6
Q.3) Gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet is g , where ‗g‘ is the gravitational
11
2
acceleration on the surface of the earth. The average mass density of the planet is times
3
that of the earth. If the escape speed on the surface of the earth is taken to be 11 km s 1 ,
the escape speed on the surface of the planet in km s 1 will be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 1

Q.4) Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to gravity on earth. If the
e 5
ratio of densities of earth ( e ) and moon ( m ) is then radius of moon Rm in terms
m 3
of Re will be
5 1 3 1
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) Re
18 e 6 e 18 e 2 3
Q.5) A mass ‗m‘ is placed in the cavity inside a hollow sphere of mass M as shown in the figure.
What is the gravitational force on the mass m?

GMm GMm GMm

(A) (B) (C) (D) Zero
R 2
r 2
(R r)2
Q.6) Two concentric shells of uniform density of mass M1 and M2 are situated as shown in the
figure. The forces experienced by a particle of mass m when placed at positions A, B and C
respectively are (given OA = p, OB = q and OC = r)

M1m (M1 M2 )m (M1 M2 )m (M1 M2 )m M1m

(A) zero, G and G (B) G ,G and G
q2 p2 p2 q2 r2
Mm (M M )m (M1 M2 )m M1m
(C) G 12 , G 1 2 2 and zero (D) G ,G and zero
q p p2 q2
Q.7) The gravitational force between a point like mass ‗M‘ and an infinitely long, thin rod of linear
mass density at perpendicular distance L from M is
MG 1 MG 2 MG
(A) (B) (C) (D) infinite
L 2 L L
Q.8) An infinite number of masses, each of one kg are placed on the +ve X-axis at 1m, 2m, 4m
from the origin. The magnitude of the gravitational field at origin due to this distribution of
masses is:
4G 3G
(A) 2G (B) (C) (D)
3 4
Q.9) The change in the value of 'g' at a height 'h' above the surface of the Earth is the same as at
a depth 'd' below the surface of Earth. When both 'd' and 'h' are much smaller than the
radius of Earth, then which one of the following is correct ?
h 3h
(A) d 2 h (B) d h (C) d (D) d
2 2

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 2

Q.10) Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle
with distance 'r' due to a thin spherical shell of radius R ? (r is measured from the centre of
the spherical shell)
F F

(A) (B)
O r O r
R R
F F

(C) (D)
O r O r
R R
Q.11) A solid disc rolls clockwise without slipping over a horizontal path with a constant speed ‗v‘.
Then the magnitude of the velocities of points A, B and C (see figure) with respect to a
standing observer are, respectively,

(A) v, v and v (B) 2v, 2v and zero

(C) v, 2v and zero (D) 2v, 2v and 2v
Q.12) Find moment of inertia of a uniform rod of mass 'm' and length 'L ' about given axis of
rotation which is passing through centre of mass of rod is ___

60°

ML2 ML2 ML2 3ML2

(A) (B) (C) 3 (D)
3 12 24 48
Q.13) Two rods OA and OB of equal length and mass are lying in xy plane as shown in figure. Let
Ix , Iy and Iz be the moment of inertias of both the rods about x, y and z-axis respectively.
Then

(A) Ix Iy Iz (B) Ix Iy Iz (C) Ix Iy Iz (D) Iz Iy Ix

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 3

Q.14) A mass m supported by a massless string would around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass
m and radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the
mass fall on release? (where g = acceleration due to gravity)

m R

m
2g g 5g
(A) (B) (C) (D) g
3 2 6
Q.15) The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to
the disc and passing through

(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) A

Q.16) Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4 R and mass M, figure. The
moment of inertia of the remaining portion about Z-axis is
y

4 4 8 10
(A) MR2 (B) MR2 (C) MR2 (D) MR2
12 3 4 3 6 3 16
Q.17) A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface and its rotational kinetic energy is
equal to the translational kinetic energy. The body is
(A) Disc (B) Sphere (C) Cylinder (D) Ring
Q.18) Three particles, each of mass m grams situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle
ABC of side l cm (as shown in figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line AX
perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in gram- cm2 units will be

3 2 5 3
(A) ml (B) 2ml2 (C) ml2 (D) ml2
4 4 2
Q.19) The plate shown has mass M and is half of a uniform square of side ‗a‘. Its moment of
inertia about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of the plate is

O
Ma 2
2 Ma 2
Ma2 Ma2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 6 2 3 2

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 4

Q.20) The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity at a height 1km above and at a
depth of 1km below the earth‘s surface is (radius of earth is R in Km)
R 2 R R 2 2R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 1 R 1 R R 1

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
Q.21) A particle of mass ―m‖ is projected with a velocity ―V‖ making an angle 45º above the
horizontal. The magnitude of its angular momentum about the point of projection when the
mV 3
particle is at its highest point is . The value of A + B is _____
A Bg
Q.22) A mass M = 40 kg is fixed at the very edge of a long plank of mass 80 kg and length 1m
which is pivoted such that it is in equilibrium. How far (approx.) from the pivot should a
mass of 100 kg be attached so that the plank starts rotating with an angular acceleration of
1 rad / s2 (in m)?
40 kg

1m
Q.23) Four solid spheres each of diameter 5 cm and mass 0.5 kg are placed with their centres
at the corners of a square of side 4 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about the
diagonal of the square is N 10 4 kg m2, then N is
Q.24) The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of mars is about 3200 km. The mass of the
earth is about 10 times the mass of mars. An object weighs 200 N on earth‘s surface, then
its weight on the surface of mars will be (in Newton)
Q.25) A body of mass M is divided into two parts m and M – m. The gravitational force between
M
them is maximum, if is
m


JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 5

 CHEMISTRY
NOTE: There are 25 questions in this part.

PART : A (20 × 4 = 80 Marks) (4R – 1W)

CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION :

Q.26) The homologue of alkyne is
(A) C2H4 (B) C2H6 (C) C3H6 (D) C3H4

Q.27) Consider the following compound.

IUPAC name of this compound is

(A) 5, 6-diethyl-3-methyldecane (B) 5, 6-diethyl-3-methyldec-4-ene
(C) 3, 5, 6-trimethyldec-6-ene (D) 3, 5, 6-triethyldec-4-ene
Q.28) Give the IUPAC name of the alkene

(A) 3-methyl-4-propyl-3-octene (B) 4-methyl-3-propyl-3-octene

(C) 4-butyl-3-methyl-3-heptene (D) 2-ethyl-3-propyl-2-heptene
Q.29) The IUPAC name of (CH3 )3 C CH CH2 is
(A) 1, 1, 1-trimethyl-2-propene (B) 3, 3, 3-trimethyl-2-propene
(C) 2, 2-dimethyl-3-butene (D) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene
Q.30) IUPAC name of the following compound
HOOC — CH2 — CH — CH2 — COOH
|
COOH
(A) 3-Carboxy pentanedioic acid (B) propane-1, 2, 3-tricarboxylic acid
(C) 2-carboxy methyl butanedioic acid (D) All of these
Q.31) NaOCl is used as a bleaching agent and sterilising agent. It can be synthesized by the
action of
(A) NaCl with H2O (B) NH4Cl with NaOH
(C) Cl2 with cold and dilute NaOH (D) Cl2 with hot and concentrated NaOH.

Q.32) The constituents of Portland cement are

(A) CaCO3 clay sand (B) CaCO3 aluminium silicate
(C) CaCO3 clay SiO2 (D) CaCO3 gypsum clay

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 6

Q.33) Which of the following s-block metals do not impart any colour to the flame

(A) Li, Be (B) Cs, Fr (C) Be, Mg (D) Ba, Ra

Q.34) Which can not be used to generate H2 :-

(A) Al NaOH (B) Zn NaOH (C) Mg NaOH (D) LiH H2O

Q.35) Alkali metals dissolve in liquid NH3 then which of the following observations is not true :

(A) It becomes paramagnetic

(B) Solution turns into blue due to solvated electrons
(C) It becomes diamagnetic
(D) Solution becomes conducting
Q.36) The slaked lime is prepared by adding water to -
(A) Quick lime (B) Nitrolim (C) Lime stone (D) Plaster of paris
Q.37) Consider the following points
(1) Cs is the strongest reducing agent in IA group element in gaseous phase.
(2) Be does not form peroxide in II A group elements
(3) The density of potassium is less than sodium
(4) In alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, lithium has the minimum value of M.P.
Point out that the statement -
(A) (1) & (2) are correct (B) (1), (2) & (3) are correct
(C) (2) & (3) are correct (D) (2), (3) & (4) are correct
Q.38) Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay process, the products that are recycled are
(A) CO2 and NH3 (B) CO2 and NH4Cl (C) NaCl and CaO (D) CaCl2 and CaO
Q.39) One of the following is an incorrect statement, point it out.
(A) Permanent hardness can be removed by boiling water
(B) Hardness of water effects soap consumption
(C) Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
(D) Permanent hardness is due to the soluble SO42 , Cl of Ca and Mg
Q.40) Which of the following could act as propellant for rockets?
(A) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon (B) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen
(C) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen (D) Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen
Q.41) Which is false about H2O2 ?
(A) Acts both as oxidising and reducing agents
(B) Two OH bonds lie in the same plane
(C) Pale blue liquid
(D) Can be oxidised by O3
Q.42) Among CaH2 , NH3 , NaH and B2H6 , which are covalent hydrides?
(A) NH3 and B2H6 (B) NaH and CaH2 (C) NaH and NH3 (D) CaH2 and B2H6
Q.43) Which of the following is not correct regarding the electrolytic preparation of H2O2 ?
(A) Lead is used as cathode (B) 50% of H2SO4 is used

(C) Hydrogen is liberated at anode (D) Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 7

Q.44) The following can convert hard water into soft water:
(A) Sodium palmitate (B) H2O2

(C) Lead nitrate (D) Sodium aluminium silicate

Q.45) Ortho and para hydrogen have:
(A) identical chemical properties but different physical properties
(B) identical physical and chemical properties
(C) identical physical properties but different chemical properties
(D) different physical and chemical properties

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
2
Q.46) The number of sp hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene
Q.47) Normality of an aqueous solution of H2O2 labelled as 16.8 vol will be ____.

Q.48) How many moles of water are consumed during hardening of 4 moles of plaster of paris ?

Q.49) Portland cement contains how many of the following compounds ?

MgO, MgCO3, MgCl2, CaO, SiO2, Fe2O3, CaSO4,FeSO4 ,SO3 ,Al2O3 and CaCl2 .
2
Q.50) How much volume of 10 volume H2O2 is required to liberate 50 cm of oxygen at STP?



JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 8

 MATHEMATICS
NOTE: There are 25 questions in this part.

PART : A (20 × 4 = 80 Marks) (4R – 1W)

CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION:
Q.51) The lines ax by c 0 , bx cy a 0 and cx ay b 0(a b c ) are concurrent, if
(A) a3 b3 c 3 3abc 0 (B) a2 b2 c 2 3abc 0
(C) a b c 0 (D) None of these
Q.52) A point equidistant from the lines 4x 3y 10 0, 5x 12y 26 0 and 7x 24y 50 0
is
(A) (1, –1) (B) (1, 1) (C) (0, 0) (D) (0, 1)
Q.53) The point moves such that the area of the triangle formed by it with the points (1, 5) and
(3, –7) is 21 sq units. The locus of the point is
(A) 6x y 32 0 (B) 6x y 32 0 (C) x 6y 32 0 (D) 6x y 32 0
Q.54) The equation of the straight line passing through the point (4, 3) and making intercepts on
the coordinate axes whose sum is –1, is
x y x y x y x y
(A) 1, 1 (B) 1, 1
2 3 2 1 2 3 2 1
x y x y x y x y
(C) 1, 1 (D) 1, 1
2 3 2 1 2 3 2 1
Q.55) The equation of the line common to the pair of lines m2 x 2 (m2 1)xy y 2 0 and
mx 2 (m 1)xy y2 0 is :
(A) mx y 0 (B) x y 0 (C) x y 0 (D) x y m
Q.56) If the lines represented by ax 2 2hxy by 2 2gx 2fy c 0 are written in the form
y m1x c1 and y m2 x c2, then :
(A) m1 m2 a / b, m1m2 2h / b (B) m1 m2 2h / b, m1m2 a / b
(C) m1 m2 2h / b, m1m2 b/a (D) m1 m2 2h / b, m1m2 a / b
Q.57) The image of the point (3, –8) in the line x y 0 is
(A) (–8, 3) (B) (–3, 8) (C) (8, –3) (D) (3, 8)
Q.58) The equation of the line bisecting the obtuse angle between y x 2 and 3y x 5 is
y x 2 3y x 5 y x 2 3y x 5
(A) (B)
2 2 2 2
y x 2 3y x 5
(C) (D) none of these
2 2
Q.59) The lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of 2x 2 3 xy 4 x 1 0 and
3 x y 1 given by
(A) x 2 y2 5 xy 0 (B) x 2 y2 5 xy 0
(C) x 2 y2 5 xy 0 (D) x 2 y2 5 xy 0
2 2
Q.60) Equation of a circle with centre (4, 3) touching the circle x y 1 is
2 2 2 2
(A) x y 8x 6y 9 0 (B) x y 8x 6y 11 0
2 2 2 2
(C) x y 8x 6y 11 0 (D) x y 8x 6y 9 0
Q.61) A square is inscribed in the circle x 2 y2 2x 4y 3 0 . Its sides are parallel to the axes.
Then the one vertex of the square is
(A) (1 2, 2) (B) (1 2, 2) (C) (1, 2 2) (D) none of these

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 9

Q.62) A line is drawn through a fixed point P ( , ) to cut the circle x 2 y2 r 2 at A and B. Then
PA PB is equal to
(A) ( )2 r 2 (B) 2 2
r2 (C) ( )2 r2 (D) None of these
2
Q.63) The length of the tangent from any point on the circle 15 x 15y 2 48x 64y 0 to the
2 2 2 2
two circles 5x 5y 24x 32y 75 0 and 5 x 5y 48 x 64y 300 0 are in the
ratio of
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 4 (D) None of these
Q.64) The distance of point (2, 3) from the line x y 5 0 measured along the line
2x 2y 3 0
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 4 2 (D) None of these
Q.65) The combined equation of pair of straight lines through origin which are perpendicular to the
lines 6x 2 xy 12y 2 8x 29y 14 0.
2 2
(A) 12x xy 6y 0 (B) 12x 2 xy 6y 2 0
2 2
(C) 12x xy 6y 0 (D) None of these
Q.66) The locus of the midpoint of a chord of the circle x 2 y2 4 which subtends a right angle
at the origin is
(A) x y 2 (B) x 2 y 2 1 (C) x 2 y 2 2 (D) x y 1
Q.67) The locus of the center of the circles such that the point (2, 3) is the midpoint of the chord
5x 2y 16 is
(A) 2x 5y 11 0 (B) 2x 5y 11 0
(C) 2x 5y 11 0 (D) none of these
Q.68) The line 2x y 1 0 is tangent to the circle at the point (2, 5) and the center of the circle
lies on x 2y 4 . The radius of the circle is
(A) 3 5 (B) 5 3 (C) 2 5 (D) 5 2
Q.69) If the chord y mx 1 of the circles x 2 y 2 1 subtends an angle of 45 at the major
segment of the circle, then the value of m is
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) –1 (D) none of these
Q.70) A family of lines is given by (1 2 )x (1 )y 0, being the parameter. The line
belonging to this family at the maximum distance from the point (1, 4) is
(A) 4 x y 1 (B) 12x 33y 7 (C) 13x 12y 9 0 (D) none of these

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
Q.71) If the centre of the circle 2x 2 2y 2 4x 6y 1 0 is at (a, b) , then a 2b equals.
Q.72) Area of square (in sq. units) inscribed in the circle x 2 y2 6 x 8y 0 is
Q.73) If the point of intersection of the pair of lines x 2 xy 2y 2 3x 2y 4 0 is (m, n ) , then
the value of m2 n3 is _______.
6a
Q.74) If the angle between the lines x 2 2xy sec y2 0 is a, then the value of is _____.
6
Q.75) The area inclosed by 3 | x | 4 | y | 12


JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 10

 Scribble Pad

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 11

 Scribble Pad

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 12

 CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT TEST
Subject: PCM Topic: JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7 Batch: JEE MAIN-25(HO,EB,SB)
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 7A
Date of Test: 12/02/2024 Maximum Marks: 300
Name of Student : ……………………………………………………………………. Roll No. : ………………… Batch :…….
Set Code

7A
Provisional Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Maths

1. A 26. D 51. C
2. A 27. B 52. C
3. C 28. A 53. A
4. A 29. D 54. D
5. D 30. B 55. C
6. D 31. C 56. B
7. C 32. D 57. C
8. B 33. C 58. A
9. A 34. C 59. A
10. B 35. C 60. D
11. B 36. A 61. D
12. D 37. B 62. B
13. B 38. A 63. A
14. B 39. A 64. B
15. A 40. C 65. A
16. D 41. B 66. C
17. D 42. A 67. A
18. C 43. C 68. A
19. A 44. D 69. C
20. A 45. A 70. B
21. 6 46. 6 71. 4
22. 1 47. 3 72. 50
23. 9 48. 6 73. 3
24. 80 49. 6 74. 1
25. 2 50. 5 75. 24



JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7A (HO,EB,SB) 1

 CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT TEST
Subject: PCM Topic: JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7 Batch: JEE MAIN-25(HO,EB,SB)
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 7B
Date of Test: 12/02/2024 Maximum Marks: 300
Name of Student : ……………………………………………………………………. Roll No. : ………………… Batch :…….
Set Code

7B
Note : 1. Please Check Your Question Paper. It Contain Pages 1 to 12.
2. Also, please check that it contain total 75 Questions. (Physics – 25Q., Chemistry – 25Q., Mathematics – 25Q.)
3. Fill Correct Roll Number and Write Correct Name, Test No. (Set Code) on OMR Sheet.
4. There are Two Parts in each subject. For both the parts, there is negative marking scheme (4R – 1W). Which
means that for correct answer 4 marks will be awarded & for wrong answers 1 mark will be deducted. No marks
will be awarded or deducted if no bubble is filled
5. For Part B, in Numerical Value Type Questions, Fill OMR Sheet as per the following examples.
Example 1 - If answer is 9, write 00009 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 2 - If answer is 13, write 00013 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 3 - If answer is 110, write 00110 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 4 - If answer is 5556, write 05556 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 5 - If answer is –234, write –0234 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles.
Example 6 - If answer is 0, write 00000 in the top box and fill appropriate bubbles

PHYSICS
NOTE: There are 25 questions in this part.

PART : A (20 × 4 = 80 Marks) (4R – 1W)

CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION:
Q.1) A mass ‗m‘ is placed in the cavity inside a hollow sphere of mass M as shown in the figure.
What is the gravitational force on the mass m?

GMm GMm GMm

(A) (B) (C) (D) Zero
R 2
r 2
(R r)2
Q.2) The change in the value of 'g' at a height 'h' above the surface of the Earth is the same as at
a depth 'd' below the surface of Earth. When both 'd' and 'h' are much smaller than the
radius of Earth, then which one of the following is correct ?
h 3h
(A) d 2 h (B) d h (C) d (D) d
2 2

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 1

Q.3) Two concentric shells of uniform density of mass M1 and M2 are situated as shown in the
figure. The forces experienced by a particle of mass m when placed at positions A, B and C
respectively are (given OA = p, OB = q and OC = r)

M1m (M1 M2 )m (M1 M2 )m (M1 M2 )m M1m

(A) zero, G 2
and G 2
(B) G 2
,G 2
and G
q p p q r2
M1m (M1 M2 )m (M1 M2 )m M1m
(C) G 2
,G 2
and zero (D) G 2
,G
and zero
q p p q2
Q.4) An infinite number of masses, each of one kg are placed on the +ve X-axis at 1m, 2m, 4m
from the origin. The magnitude of the gravitational field at origin due to this distribution of
masses is:
4G 3G
(A) 2G (B) (C) (D)
3 4
Q.5) A solid disc rolls clockwise without slipping over a horizontal path with a constant speed ‗v‘.
Then the magnitude of the velocities of points A, B and C (see figure) with respect to a
standing observer are, respectively,

(A) v, v and v (B) 2v, 2v and zero

(C) v, 2v and zero (D) 2v, 2v and 2v
Q.6) Find moment of inertia of a uniform rod of mass 'm' and length 'L ' about given axis of
rotation which is passing through centre of mass of rod is ___

60°

ML2 ML2 ML2 3ML2

(A) (B) (C) 3 (D)
3 12 24 48
Q.7) Two rods OA and OB of equal length and mass are lying in xy plane as shown in figure. Let
Ix , Iy and Iz be the moment of inertias of both the rods about x, y and z-axis respectively.
Then

(A) Ix Iy Iz (B) Ix Iy Iz (C) Ix Iy Iz (D) Iz Iy Ix

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 2

Q.8) Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4 R and mass M, figure. The
moment of inertia of the remaining portion about Z-axis is
y

4 4 8 10
(A) MR2 (B) MR2 (C) MR2 (D) MR2
12 3 4 3 6 3 16
Q.9) A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface and its rotational kinetic energy is
equal to the translational kinetic energy. The body is
(A) Disc (B) Sphere (C) Cylinder (D) Ring
Q.10) Three particles, each of mass m grams situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle
ABC of side l cm (as shown in figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line AX
perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in gram- cm2 units will be

3 2 5 3
(A) ml (B) 2ml2 (C) ml2 (D) ml2
4 4 2
Q.11) The plate shown has mass M and is half of a uniform square of side ‗a‘. Its moment of
inertia about an axis passing through O and perpendicular to the plane of the plate is

O
Ma 2
2 Ma 2
Ma2 Ma2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 6 2 3 2
Q.12) The ratio between the values of acceleration due to gravity at a height 1km above and at a
depth of 1km below the earth‘s surface is (radius of earth is R in Km)
R 2 R R 2 2R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
R 1 R 1 R R 1
Q.13) Two spheres of masses 'm' and M are situated in air and the gravitational force between
them is F. The space around the masses is now filled with a liquid of specific gravity 3.
Gravitational force will now be :
F F
(A) F (B) 3F (C) (D)
3 9
Q.14) Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space after having lost contact with their
spaceship. The two will
(A) Move towards each other
(B) Move away from each other
(C) Will become stationary
(D) Keep floating at the same distance between them

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 3

 6
Q.15) Gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet is g , where ‗g‘ is the gravitational
11
2
acceleration on the surface of the earth. The average mass density of the planet is times
3
that of the earth. If the escape speed on the surface of the earth is taken to be 11 km s 1 ,
the escape speed on the surface of the planet in km s 1 will be

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.16) Acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6 of the acceleration due to gravity on earth. If the
e 5
ratio of densities of earth ( e) and moon ( m) is then radius of moon Rm in
m 3
terms of Re will be
5 1 3 1
(A) R (B) R (C) R (D) Re
18 e 6 e 18 e 2 3
Q.17) The gravitational force between a point like mass ‗M‘ and an infinitely long, thin rod of linear
mass density at perpendicular distance L from M is
MG 1 MG 2 MG
(A) (B) (C) (D) infinite
L 2 L L
Q.18) Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle

with distance 'r' due to a thin spherical shell of radius R ? (r is measured from the centre of
the spherical shell)
F F

(A) (B)
O r O r
R R
F F

(C) (D)
O r O r
R R
Q.19) A mass m supported by a massless string would around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass

m and radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the
mass fall on release? (where g = acceleration due to gravity)

m R

m
2g g 5g
(A) (B) (C) (D) g
3 2 6
JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 4
Q.20) The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to
the disc and passing through

(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) A

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
Q.21) Four solid spheres each of diameter 5 cm and mass 0.5 kg are placed with their centres
at the corners of a square of side 4 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about the
diagonal of the square is N 10 4 kg m2, then N is
Q.22) The radius of earth is about 6400 km and that of mars is about 3200 km. The mass of the
earth is about 10 times the mass of mars. An object weighs 200 N on earth‘s surface, then
its weight on the surface of mars will be (in Newton)
Q.23) A body of mass M is divided into two parts m and M – m. The gravitational force between
M
them is maximum, if is
m
Q.24) A particle of mass ―m‖ is projected with a velocity ―V‖ making an angle 45º above the
horizontal. The magnitude of its angular momentum about the point of projection when the
mV 3
particle is at its highest point is . The value of A + B is _____
A Bg
Q.25) A mass M = 40 kg is fixed at the very edge of a long plank of mass 80 kg and length 1m
which is pivoted such that it is in equilibrium. How far (approx.) from the pivot should a
mass of 100 kg be attached so that the plank starts rotating with an angular acceleration of
1 rad / s2 (in m)?
40 kg

1m



JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 5

 CHEMISTRY
NOTE: There are 25 questions in this part.

PART : A (20 × 4 = 80 Marks) (4R – 1W)

CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION :

Q.26) The IUPAC name of (CH3 )3 C CH CH2 is
(A) 1, 1, 1-trimethyl-2-propene (B) 3, 3, 3-trimethyl-2-propene
(C) 2, 2-dimethyl-3-butene (D) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene
Q.27) NaOCl is used as a bleaching agent and sterilising agent. It can be synthesized by the
action of
(A) NaCl with H2O (B) NH4Cl with NaOH
(C) Cl2 with cold and dilute NaOH (D) Cl2 with hot and concentrated NaOH.
Q.28) Which can not be used to generate H2 :-
(A) Al NaOH (B) Zn NaOH (C) Mg NaOH (D) LiH H2O
Q.29) The slaked lime is prepared by adding water to -
(A) Quick lime (B) Nitrolim (C) Lime stone (D) Plaster of paris
Q.30) Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay process, the products that are recycled are
(A) CO2 and NH3 (B) CO2 and NH4Cl (C) NaCl and CaO (D) CaCl2 and CaO

Q.31) One of the following is an incorrect statement, point it out.

(A) Permanent hardness can be removed by boiling water
(B) Hardness of water effects soap consumption
(C) Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of Ca and Mg
(D) Permanent hardness is due to the soluble SO42 , Cl of Ca and Mg
Q.32) Among CaH2 , NH3 , NaH and B2H6 , which are covalent hydrides?
(A) NH3 and B2H6 (B) NaH and CaH2 (C) NaH and NH3 (D) CaH2 and B2H6
Q.33) Which of the following is not correct regarding the electrolytic preparation of H2O2 ?
(A) Lead is used as cathode (B) 50% of H2SO4 is used

(C) Hydrogen is liberated at anode (D) Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation

Q.34) The following can convert hard water into soft water:
(A) Sodium palmitate (B) H2O2

(C) Lead nitrate (D) Sodium aluminium silicate

Q.35) Ortho and para hydrogen have:
(A) identical chemical properties but different physical properties
(B) identical physical and chemical properties
(C) identical physical properties but different chemical properties
(D) different physical and chemical properties

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 6

Q.36) The homologue of alkyne is
(A) C2H4 (B) C2H6 (C) C3H6 (D) C3H4

Q.37) Consider the following compound.

IUPAC name of this compound is

(A) 5, 6-diethyl-3-methyldecane (B) 5, 6-diethyl-3-methyldec-4-ene
(C) 3, 5, 6-trimethyldec-6-ene (D) 3, 5, 6-triethyldec-4-ene
Q.38) Give the IUPAC name of the alkene

(A) 3-methyl-4-propyl-3-octene (B) 4-methyl-3-propyl-3-octene

(C) 4-butyl-3-methyl-3-heptene (D) 2-ethyl-3-propyl-2-heptene
Q.39) IUPAC name of the following compound
HOOC — CH2 — CH — CH2 — COOH
|
COOH
(A) 3-Carboxy pentanedioic acid (B) propane-1, 2, 3-tricarboxylic acid
(C) 2-carboxy methyl butanedioic acid (D) All of these
Q.40) The constituents of Portland cement are
(A) CaCO3 clay sand (B) CaCO3 aluminium silicate
(C) CaCO3 clay SiO2 (D) CaCO3 gypsum clay
Q.41) Which of the following s-block metals do not impart any colour to the flame
(A) Li, Be (B) Cs, Fr (C) Be, Mg (D) Ba, Ra
Q.42) Alkali metals dissolve in liquid NH3 then which of the following observations is not true :
(A) It becomes paramagnetic
(B) Solution turns into blue due to solvated electrons
(C) It becomes diamagnetic
(D) Solution becomes conducting
Q.43) Consider the following points
(1) Cs is the strongest reducing agent in IA group element in gaseous phase.
(2) Be does not form peroxide in II A group elements
(3) The density of potassium is less than sodium
(4) In alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, lithium has the minimum value of M.P.
Point out that the statement -
(A) (1) & (2) are correct (B) (1), (2) & (3) are correct
(C) (2) & (3) are correct (D) (2), (3) & (4) are correct
JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 7
Q.44) Which of the following could act as propellant for rockets?
(A) Liquid oxygen + liquid argon (B) Liquid nitrogen + liquid oxygen
(C) Liquid hydrogen + liquid oxygen (D) Liquid hydrogen + liquid nitrogen
Q.45) Which is false about H2O2 ?
(A) Acts both as oxidising and reducing agents
(B) Two OH bonds lie in the same plane
(C) Pale blue liquid
(D) Can be oxidised by O3

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :

Q.46) How many moles of water are consumed during hardening of 4 moles of plaster of paris ?

Q.47) Portland cement contains how many of the following compounds ?

MgO, MgCO3, MgCl2, CaO, SiO2, Fe2O3, CaSO4,FeSO4 ,SO3 ,Al2O3 and CaCl2 .
Q.48) How much volume of 10 volume H2O2 is required to liberate 50 cm2 of oxygen at STP?
2
Q.49) The number of sp hybrid orbitals in a molecule of benzene
Q.50) Normality of an aqueous solution of H2O2 labelled as 16.8 vol will be ____.



JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 8

 MATHEMATICS
NOTE: There are 25 questions in this part.

PART : A (20 × 4 = 80 Marks) (4R – 1W)

CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION:
Q.51) The point moves such that the area of the triangle formed by it with the points (1, 5) and
(3, –7) is 21 sq units. The locus of the point is
(A) 6x y 32 0 (B) 6x y 32 0 (C) x 6y 32 0 (D) 6x y 32 0
Q.52) The equation of the line common to the pair of lines m2 x 2 (m2 1)xy y2 0 and
mx 2 (m 1)xy y2 0 is :
(A) mx y 0 (B) x y 0 (C) x y 0 (D) x y m
Q.53) The equation of the line bisecting the obtuse angle between y x 2 and 3y x 5 is
y x 2 3y x 5 y x 2 3y x 5
(A) (B)
2 2 2 2
y x 2 3y x 5
(C) (D) none of these
2 2
Q.54) A square is inscribed in the circle x 2 y 2 2x 4y 3 0 . Its sides are parallel to the
axes. Then the one vertex of the square is
(A) (1 2, 2) (B) (1 2, 2) (C) (1, 2 2) (D) none of these
Q.55) A line is drawn through a fixed point P ( , ) to cut the circle x 2 y2 r 2 at A and B. Then
PA PB is equal to
(A) ( )2 r 2 (B) 2 2
r2 (C) ( )2 r2 (D) None of these
Q.56) The length of the tangent from any point on the circle 15 x 2 15y 2 48x 64y 0 to the
2 2 2 2
two circles 5x 5y 24x 32y 75 0 and 5 x 5y 48 x 64y 300 0 are in the
ratio of
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3 (C) 3 : 4 (D) None of these
Q.57) The distance of point (2, 3) from the line x y 5 0 measured along the line
2x 2y 3 0
(A) 2 (B) 2 2 (C) 4 2 (D) None of these
Q.58) The locus of the center of the circles such that the point (2, 3) is the midpoint of the chord
5x 2y 16 is
(A) 2x 5y 11 0 (B) 2x 5y 11 0 (C) 2x 5y 11 0 (D) none of these
Q.59) The line 2x y 1 0 is tangent to the circle at the point (2, 5) and the center of the circle
lies on x 2y 4 . The radius of the circle is
(A) 3 5 (B) 5 3 (C) 2 5 (D) 5 2
Q.60) If the chord y mx 1 of the circles x 2 y 2 1 subtends an angle of 45 at the major
segment of the circle, then the value of m is
(A) 2 (B) –2 (C) –1 (D) none of these
Q.61) A family of lines is given by (1 2 )x (1 )y 0, being the parameter. The line
belonging to this family at the maximum distance from the point (1, 4) is
(A) 4 x y 1 (B) 12x 33y 7 (C) 13x 12y 9 0 (D) none of these
Q.62) The lines ax by c 0 , bx cy a 0 and cx ay b 0(a b c ) are concurrent, if
(A) a3 b3 c 3 3abc 0 (B) a2 b2 c 2 3abc 0
(C) a b c 0 (D) None of these

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 9

Q.63) A point equidistant from the lines 4x 3y 10 0, 5x 12y 26 0 and 7x 24y 50 0
is
(A) (1, –1) (B) (1, 1) (C) (0, 0) (D) (0, 1)
Q.64) The equation of the straight line passing through the point (4, 3) and making intercepts on
the coordinate axes whose sum is –1, is
x y x y x y x y
(A) 1, 1 (B) 1, 1
2 3 2 1 2 3 2 1
x y x y x y x y
(C) 1, 1 (D) 1, 1
2 3 2 1 2 3 2 1
Q.65) If the lines represented by ax 2 2hxy by 2 2gx 2fy c 0 are written in the form
y m1x c1 and y m2 x c2, then :
(A) m1 m2 a / b, m1m2 2h / b (B) m1 m2 2h / b, m1m2 a / b
(C) m1 m2 2h / b, m1m2 b/a (D) m1 m2 2h / b, m1m2 a / b
Q.66) The image of the point (3, –8) in the line x y 0 is
(A) (–8, 3) (B) (–3, 8) (C) (8, –3) (D) (3, 8)
Q.67) The lines joining the origin to the points of intersection of 2x 2 3 xy 4 x 1 0 and
3 x y 1 given by
(A) x 2 y2 5 xy 0 (B) x 2 y2 5 xy 0
(C) x 2 y2 5 xy 0 (D) x 2 y2 5 xy 0
Q.68) Equation of a circle with centre (4, 3) touching the circle x 2 y2 1 is
(A) x 2 y2 8x 6y 9 0 (B) x 2 y2 8x 6y 11 0
(C) x 2 y 2 8x 6y 11 0 (D) x 2 y 2 8x 6y 9 0
Q.69) The combined equation of pair of straight lines through origin which are perpendicular to the
lines 6x 2 xy 12y 2 8x 29y 14 0 .
(A) 12x 2 xy 6y 2 0 (B) 12x 2 xy 6y 2 0
(C) 12x 2 xy 6y 2 0 (D) None of these
Q.70) The locus of the midpoint of a chord of the circle x 2 y2 4 which subtends a right angle
at the origin is
(A) x y 2 (B) x 2 y2 1 (C) x 2 y2 2 (D) x y 1

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)

PART : B (5 × 4 = 20 Marks) (4R – 1W)
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
Q.71) If the point of intersection of the pair of lines x 2 xy 2y 2 3x 2y 4 0 is (m, n ) , then
2 3
the value of m n is _______.
2 6a
Q.72) If the angle between the lines x 2xy sec y2 0 is a, then the value of is _____.
6
Q.73) The area inclosed by 3 | x | 4 | y | 12
Q.74) If the centre of the circle 2x 2 2y 2 4x 6y 1 0 is at (a, b) , then a 2b equals.
Q.75) Area of square (in sq. units) inscribed in the circle x 2 y2 6 x 8y 0 is


JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 10

 Scribble Pad

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 11

 Scribble Pad

JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 12

 CONTINUOUS ASSESSMENT TEST
Subject: PCM Topic: JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7 Batch: JEE MAIN-25(HO,EB,SB)
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 7B
Date of Test: 12/02/2024 Maximum Marks: 300
Name of Student : ……………………………………………………………………. Roll No. : ………………… Batch :…….
Set Code

7B
Provisional Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Maths

1. D 26. D 51. A
2. A 27. C 52. C
3. D 28. C 53. A
4. B 29. A 54. D
5. B 30. A 55. B
6. D 31. A 56. A
7. B 32. A 57. B
8. D 33. C 58. A
9. D 34. D 59. A
10. C 35. A 60. C
11. A 36. D 61. B
12. A 37. B 62. C
13. A 38. A 63. C
14. A 39. B 64. D
15. C 40. D 65. B
16. A 41. C 66. C
17. C 42. C 67. A
18. B 43. B 68. D
19. B 44. C 69. A
20. A 45. B 70. C
21. 9 46. 6 71. 3
22. 80 47. 6 72. 1
23. 2 48. 5 73. 24
24. 6 49. 6 74. 4
25. 1 50. 3 75. 50



JEE MAIN-25-CAT-7B (HO,EB,SB) 1