GATE SYLLABUS

Section 1 : Engineering Mathematics

Linear Algebra : Matrix algebra, systems of linear equations, eigenvalues and
eigenvectors.
Calculus : Functions of single variable, limit, continuity and differentiability, mean value
theorems, indeterminate forms; evaluation of definite and improper integrals; double
and triple integrals; partial derivatives, total derivative, Taylor series (in one and two
variables), maxima and minima, Fourier series; gradient, divergence and curl, vector
identities, directional derivatives, line, surface and volume integrals, applications of
Gauss, Stokes and Green’s theorems.
Differential Equations : First order equations (linear and nonlinear); higher order linear
differential equations with constant coefficients; Euler-Cauchy equation; initial and
boundary value problems; Laplace transforms; solutions of heat, wave and Laplace's
equations.
Complex Variables : Analytic functions; Cauchy-Riemann equations; Cauchy’s integral
theorem and integral formula; Taylor and Laurent series.
Probability and Statistics : Definitions of probability, sampling theorems, conditional
probability; mean, median, mode and standard deviation; random variables, binomial,
Poisson and normal distributions.
Numerical Methods : Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations;
integration by trapezoidal and Simpson’s rules; single and multi-step methods for
differential equations.
Section 2 : Applied Mechanics and Design
Engineering Mechanics : Free-body diagrams and equilibrium; friction and its
applications including rolling friction, belt-pulley, brakes, clutches, screw jack, wedge,
vehicles, etc.; trusses and frames; virtual work; kinematics and dynamics of rigid bodies
in plane motion; impulse and momentum (linear and angular) and energy formulations;
Lagrange’s equation.
Mechanics of Materials : Stress and strain, elastic constants, Poisson's ratio; Mohr’s
circle for plane stress and plane strain; thin cylinders; shear force and bending moment
diagrams; bending and shear stresses; concept of shear centre; deflection of beams;
torsion of circular shafts; Euler’s theory of columns; energy methods; thermal stresses;
strain gauges and rosettes; testing of materials with universal testing machine; testing
of hardness and impact strength.
Theory of Machines : Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane
mechanisms; dynamic analysis of linkages; cams; gears and gear trains; flywheels and
governors; balancing of reciprocating and rotating masses; gyroscope.
 Vibrations : Free and forced vibration of single degree of freedom systems, effect of
damping; vibration isolation; resonance; critical speeds of shafts.
Machine Design : Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue
strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the design of machine elements such as
bolted, riveted and welded joints; shafts, gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings,
brakes and clutches, springs.
Section 3 : Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences
Fluid Mechanics : Fluid properties; fluid statics, forces on submerged bodies, stability
of floating bodies; controlvolume analysis of mass, momentum and energy; fluid
acceleration; differential equations of continuity and momentum; Bernoulli’s equation;
dimensional analysis; viscous flow of incompressible fluids, boundary layer, elementary
turbulent flow, flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends and fittings; basics of
compressible fluid flow.
Heat-Transfer : Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance
concept and electrical analogy, heat transfer through fins; unsteady heat conduction,
lumped parameter system, Heisler's charts; thermal boundary layer, dimensionless
parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, heat transfer correlations for
flow over flat plates and through pipes, effect of turbulence; heat exchanger
performance, LMTD and NTU methods; radiative heat transfer, Stefan- Boltzmann law,
Wien's displacement law, black and grey surfaces, view factors, radiation network
analysis.
Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic systems and processes; properties of pure
substances, behavior of ideal and real gases; zeroth and first laws of thermodynamics,
calculation of work and heat in various processes; second law of thermodynamics;
thermodynamic property charts and tables, availability and irreversibility;
thermodynamic relations.
Applications : Power Engineering : Air and gas compressors; vapour and gas power
cycles, concepts of regeneration and reheat. I.C. Engines : Air-standard Otto, Diesel and
dual cycles. Refrigeration and Air-conditioning : Vapour and gas refrigeration and heat
pump cycles; properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric
processes. Turbomachinery : Impulse and reaction principles, velocity diagrams,
Peltonwheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines; steam and gas turbines.
Section 4 : Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering
Engineering Materials : Structure and properties of engineering materials, phase
diagrams, heat treatment, stressstrain diagrams for engineering materials.
 Casting, Forming and Joining Processes : Different types of castings, design of patterns,
moulds and cores; solidification and cooling; riser and gating design. Plastic deformation
and yield criteria; fundamentals of hot and cold working processes; load estimation for
bulk (forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing) and sheet (shearing, deep drawing, bending)
metal forming processes; principles of powder metallurgy. Principles of welding,
brazing, soldering and adhesive bonding.
Machining and Machine Tool Operations : Mechanics of machining; basic machine
tools; single and multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials, tool life and
wear; economics of machining; principles of nontraditional machining processes;
principles of work holding, jigs and fixtures; abrasive machining processes; NC/CNC
machines and CNC programming.
Metrology and Inspection : Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular
measurements; comparators; interferometry; form and finish measurement; alignment
and testing methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly; concepts of
coordinate-measuring machine (CMM).
Computer Integrated Manufacturing : Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their
integration tools; additive manufacturing.
Production Planning and Control : Forecasting models, aggregate production planning,
scheduling, materials requirement planning; lean manufacturing.
Inventory Control : Deterministic models; safety stock inventory control systems.
Operations Research : Linear programming, simplex method, transportation,
assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.
General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability : Basic English grammar : tenses, articles, adjectives, prepositions,
conjunctions, verb-noun agreement, and other parts of speech.
Basic vocabulary : words, idioms, and phrases in context.
Reading and comprehension.
Narrative sequencing.
Quantitative Aptitude : Data interpretation : data graphs (bar graphs, pie charts, and
other graphs representing data), 2-and 3-dimensional plots, maps, and tables.
Numerical computation and estimation : ratios, percentages, powers, exponents and
logarithms, permutations and combinations, and series.
Mensuration and geometry.
Elementary statistics and probability.
Analytical Aptitude : Logic : deduction and induction, Analogy, Numerical relations and
reasoning.
Spatial Aptitude : Transformation of shapes : translation, rotation, scaling, mirroring,
assembling, and grouping Paper folding, cutting, and patterns in 2 and 3 dimensions.
 CONTENTS

S. No. Topics
1. Fluid Mechanics
1. Properties of Fluid
2. Pressure & Its Measurement
3. Hydrostatic Forces
4. Buoyancy & Floatation
5. Kinematics of Fluid
6. Dynamics of Fluid
7. Laminar & Turbulent Flow, Viscous Flow, Flow Through Pipes
8. Boundary Layer Theory
9. Hydraulic Machines
2. Thermodynamics
1. Thermodynamics System & Process
2. First Law of Thermodynamics
3. Second Law of Thermodynamics
4. Entropy
5. Availability & Irreversibility
6. Pure Substances
7. Steam Power Cycles
8. Gas Power Cycles
9. Internal Combustion Engine
3. Heat Transfer
1. Conduction
2. Fins & Unsteady Heat Transfer
3. Free & Forced Convection
4. Heat Exchanger
5. Radiation
4. Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning (RAC)
1. Vapour Refrigeration
2. Properties of Moist Air & Psychrometric Processes
3. Heat Pumps & Cycles
5. Mechanics of Materials
1. Stress & Strain
2. Complex Stress
3. Elastic Constants & Theory of Failure
4. Strain Energy & Thermal Stresses
5. Shear Force & Bending Moment Diagrams
6. Bending of Beam
7. Torsion of Shaft
8. Springs
9. Euler's Theory of Column
10. Thin Cylinder
6. Machine Design
1. Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure)
2. Design Against Dynamic Load (Fatigue Strength & SN Diagram)
3. Gears
4. Bearings, Shaft & Keys
5. Clutches, Ropes & Belts
6. Brakes
7. Joints (Bolted, Riveted & Welded)
8. Power Screws & Springs
7. General Aptitude
1. Numerical Ability
2. Logical Reasoning
3. Verbal Ability
Syllabus : Fluid Mechanics

Fluid properties; fluid statics, forces on submerged bodies, stability of floating bodies;
controlvolume analysis of mass, momentum and energy; fluid acceleration; differential
equations of continuity and momentum; Bernoulli’s equation; dimensional analysis; viscous
flow of incompressible fluids, boundary layer, elementary turbulent flow, flow through pipes,
head losses in pipes, bends and fittings; basics of compressible fluid flow.
Contents : Fluid Mechanics

S. No. Topics
1. Properties of Fluid
2. Pressure & Its Measurement
3. Hydrostatic Forces
4. Buoyancy & Floatation
5. Kinematics of Fluid
6. Dynamics of Fluid
7. Laminar & Turbulent Flow, Viscous Flow, Flow Through Pipes
8. Boundary Layer Theory
9. Hydraulic Machines
1 Properties of fluid
2014 IIT Kharagpur
1.1 The difference in pressure (in N/m2 ) across
an air bubble of diameter 0.001 m immersed
in water (surface tension = 0.072 N/m) is
______. [1 Mark]
1.2 In a simple concentric shaft-bearing
arrangement, the lubricant flows in the 2 mm
gap between the shaft and the bearing. The
flow may be assumed to be a plane Couette
flow with zero pressure gradient. The
diameter of the shaft is 100 mm and its
tangential speed is 10 m/s. the dynamic
viscosity of the lubricant is 0.1 kg/ms. The
frictional resisting force (in newton) per 100
mm length of the bearing is _______.
[2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
1.3 Couette flow is characterized by
[1 Mark]
(A) Steady, incompressible, laminar flow
through a straight circular pipe.
(B) Fully developed turbulent flow through a
straight circular pipe.
(C) Steady, incompressible, laminar flow
between two fixed parallel plates.
(D) Steady, incompressible, laminar flow
between one fixed plate and the other
moving with a constant velocity.
2016 IISc Bangalore
1.4 Consider fluid flow between two infinite
horizontal plates which are parallel (the gap
between them being 50 mm). The top plate
is sliding parallel to the stationary bottom
plate at a speed of 3 m/s. The flow between
Fluid Mechanics
the plates is solely due to the motion of the
top plate. The force per unit area
(magnitude) required to maintain the bottom
plate stationary is _____ N/m 2 .
Viscosity of the fluid   0.44 kg/m-s and
density   888kg/m3 . [2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
1.5 A solid block of 2.0 kg mass slides steadiy at
a velocity V along a vertical wall as shown
in the figure below. A thin oil film of
thickness h = 0.15 mm provides lubrication
between the block and the wall. The surface
area of the face of the block in contact with
the oil film is 0.04 m 2 . The velocity
distribution within the oil film gap is linear
as shown in the figure. Take dynamic
viscosity of oil as 7 103 Pa-s and
accleration due to gravity as 10 m/s 2 .
Neglect weight of the oil. The terminal
velocity V (in m/s ) of the block is _______
(correct to one decimal place)
[2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
1.6 Two immiscible, incompressible, viscous
fluids having same densities but different
viscosities are contained between two
infinite horizontal parallel plates, 2 m apart
as shown below. The bottom plate is fixed
and the upper plate moves to the right with a
1
 constant velocity of 3 m/s. With the
assumptions of Newtonian fluid, steady and
fully developed laminar flow with zero
pressure gradient in all directions, the
momentum equations simplify to
d 2u
 0.
dy 2
If the dynamic viscosity of the lower fluid
 2 is twice that of the upper fluid, 1 , then
the velocity at the interface (round off to two
decimal places) is ______ m/s.
[2 Marks]

1.1 288
Given : Diameter of air bubble ( D)  0.001m
Surface tension of water ()  0.072 N/m Formula used for calculating pressure difference
Pressure difference in air bubble immersed in is,
water is given by, 4
p 
4 4  0.072 D
p    288 N/m2 Since, here only one common surface (interface),
D 0.001
Hence, the difference in pressure across an air that’s why in this case this bubble is acting as a
drop, so we apply formula of drop.
bubble immersed in water is 288 N / m2 .
1.2 15.7
Given :
Diameter of shaft (d )  100 mm  0.1 m
 Key Point Tangential velocity of shaft (V )  10 m/s
Case-1 : Dynamic viscosity ()  0.1 kg/m.s
Two surface or two interface,
Length of shaft ( L)  100 mm  0.1 m
Gap between shaft and bearing ( y )  0.002 m

It is a bubble, so formula used for calculating

pressure difference is,
8
p 
D
Case-2 :
One interface or one surface, Assume velocity gradient is linear, then the shear
stress is given by,

2 Fluid Mechanics
 du V du
   F   A
dy y dy
10 F du  du V  0 
  0.1  500 N/m2   dy  h  0 
0.002 A dy  
Surface area is given by, F 30
 0.44  3
 26.4 N/m2
A  dL   0.1 0.1  0.0314 m2 A 50 10  0
Hence, the force per unit area required to maintain
Frictional resisting force is given by, the bottom plate stationary is 26.4 N / m 2 .
F  A
F  500  0.0314  15.7 N
Hence, the frictional resisting force per 100 mm
length of the bearing is 15.7 N.  Key Point
Flow of fluid between two flat plate with one plate
fix and another plate moving, if gap is small and
dp
pressure gradient  0, then velocity profile
1.3 (D) dx
will be linear, such flow is known as Couette flow.
Steady, incompressible, laminar flow between one
fixed plate and the other moving with a constant 1.5 10.714
velocity.
Given : Mass of the block (m)  2 kg
Oil film thickness (h)  0.15 mm
Surface area of the block ( A)  0.04 m2
Dynamic viscosity ()  7 10 3 Pa-s
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10 m/s2
Hence, the correct option is (D). Here terminal velocity is constant means net
acceleration will be zero.
1.4 26.4
 Fnet  ma  0 ,
Given :  A  mg  0
3
Gap between plates ( y)  50 mm  50 10 m du
Viscosity of the fluid ()  0.44 kg/m-s   A  m g
dy
 0.44 N-sec/m2 V
  A  m  g
Speed of top plate (V )  3 m/sec h
Density of the fluid ()  888 kg/m3 V
7 103   0.04  2 10
0.15 103
V  10.714 m/s
The terminal velocity V of the block is 10.714 m/s.

Assuming linear velocity profile.

According to newton’s law of viscosity,
du

dy

Fluid Mechanics 3
  Key Point
Terminal velocity of an object falling in/over fluid
is the velocity at which net force acting on the
body becomes zero.

After attaining terminal velocity the velocity of

body will not change until an external force is
applied on the system.

1.6 1
According to question, velocity profile is laminar in
both the fluids,
d 2u du
2
 0,  c1 and u  c1 y  c2
dy dy
i.e., we can assume linear velocity profile.

If velocity profile is linear, then shear stress will

be constant in gap everywhere.
Let u is the velocity at interface.
At interface, 1  2
 du   du 
1     2  
 dy 1  dy 2
3u u 0
1   21 
2 1 1 0
3  2u  u  3  3u
On solving, u  1 m/s
Hence, the velocity at the interface is 1 m/s.



4 Fluid Mechanics
2 Pressure & Its Measurement

2016 IISc Bangalore 2021 IIT Bombay

2.1 Assuming constant temperature condition 2.4 A pressure measurement device fitted on the
and air to be an ideal gas, the variation in surface of a submarine located at a depth of
atmospheric pressure with height calculated H below the surface of an ocean, reads an
from fluid statics is [1 Mark] absolute pressure of 4.2 MPa . The density
(A) Linear (B) Exponential of sea water is 1050kg/m3 , the atmospheric
(C) Quadratic (D) Cubic pressure is 101 kPa, and the acceleration due
2.2 An inverted U-tube manometer is used to to gravity is 9.8m/s2 . The depth H is
measure the pressure difference between two
_________ m. (round off to the nearest
pipes A and B as shown in the figure. Pipe A
integer) [2 Marks]
is carrying oil (specific gravity  0.8 ) and
pipe B is carrying water. The densities of air
and water are 1.16 kg / m3 and 1000 kg / m3
, respectively. The pressure difference
between pipes A and B is _____ kPa.
Acceleration due to gravity g  10m/s2 .
[2 Marks]

2020 IIT Delhi

2.3 In the space above the mercury column in a
barometer tube, the gauge pressure of the
vapour is [1 Mark]
(A) Positive, but less than one atmosphere
(B) Positive, but more than one atmosphere
(C) Negative
(D) Zero

Fluid Mechanics 1
 2.1 (B) Density of air (air )  1.16 kg / m3
Given : Temperature = Constant From menometry principle,
Air = Ideal gas Pressure at left limb = Pressure at right limb.
Using ideal gas equation, pA  (oil  g  hoil )  (air  g  hair )
pV  mRT  pB  (water  g  hwater )
p  RT pA
 (800  0.2)  (1.16  0.08)
p g

RT pB
  (1000  0.38)
Now, variation of hydrostatic pressure in upward g
direction is given by, ( p A  pB )
dp   219.908
  g g
dy
( pA  pB )   2157.29 Pa   2.15 kPa
dp p
 g Hence, the pressure difference between pipes A
dy RT
and B is 2.15 kPa.
Integrating the above equation,
p h
dp 1
p p h0  RT  g dy
atm

1 2.3 (C)
[ln p] ppatm   g[h]
RT
Gauge pressure by definition is pressure shown by
1
ln( p)  ln( patm )   g (h) a pressure gauge and it is always above or below
RT atmospheric pressure.
 p  1
ln    g ( h) Since, there is vacuum above the mercury column
 patm  RT in a barometer, the gauge pressure will be below
So, the variation of pressure is exponential, atmospheric pressure i.e. negative.
 gh
p  
 e RT 
patm

Hence, the correct option is (C).

2.4 398.347

Hence, the correct option is (B). Given :

Patm  101kPa = 101103 Pa
2.2 2.19
Absolute pressure, P  4.2MPa = 4.2 106 Pa
Given : Specific gravity of oil ( Soil )  0.8
sea  1050 kg/m3
Specific gravity of water ( Swater )  1.0

2 Fluid Mechanics
P  Patm  aea gH
4.2 106  101103  1050  9.8  H
H  398.347 m
Hence, the depth H is 398.347 m.



Fluid Mechanics 3
3 Hydrostatic Forces

2013 IIT Bombay (C) R2gL

 2
3.1 A hinged gate of length 5 m inclined at 300 (D) R gL
with the horizontal and with water mass on 2
its left, is shown in the figure below. Density 2020 IIT Delhi
of water is 1000 kg m3 . The minimum mass
3.3 The barrier shown between two tanks of unit
of the gate in kg per unit width width (1 m) into the plane of the screen is
(perpendicular to the plane of paper), modeled as cantilever
required to keep it closed is [2 Marks]

(A) 5000 (B) 6600

(C) 7546 (D) 9623

2016 IISc Bangalore

3.2 Consider a frictionless, massless and leak-
proof plug blocking a rectangular hole of
dimensions 2𝑅 × 𝐿 at the bottom of an open
tank as shown in the figure. The head of the
plug has the shape of a semi-cylinder of
radius R. The tank is filled with a liquid of
density  up to the tip of the plug. The
gravitational acceleration is g.
Neglect the effect of the atmospheric
pressure.
Taking the density of water as 1000 kg/m3
and the acceleration due to gravity as
10 m/s 2 the maximum absolute bending
moment developed in the cantilever is _____
kN-m. (round off to nearest integer).
[2 Marks]
2023 IIT Kanpur
3.4 The figure shows two fluids held by a hinged
gate. The atmospheric pressure is Pa = 100
kPa. The moment per unit width about the
base of the hinge is _________. kNm/m.
(Rounded off to one decimal place) Take the
acceleration due to gravity to be g = 9.8 m/s2

The force F required to hold the plug in its 1000 Kglm 3

1m
position is [2 Marks]
g
 
(A) 2R 2 gL 1  
 4 2m 2000 Kglm
3

 
(B) 2R 2 gL 1  
 4

Fluid Mechanics 1
 3.1 (D)

Given : Length of gate (l )  5 m

Inclination of gate ()  300

Density of water (w )  1000 kg/m3

Let ‘m’ be the mass of the gate.

ycp  Distance of center of pressure from free

surface.
ydA  1st moment of area of element about free
surface.
y 2 dA  2nd moment of area about free surface
Hydrostatic force acting on the gate, I 00   y 2 dA  2nd moment of whole area about
F  gAx free surface i.e., moment of inertia.
F  10  9.81 (5 1) 1.25  df  h  F  y
3
cp

F  61.3125 kN
 dA  h  F  y cp
Depth of centre of pressure (P) from free surface
of water,  (gh)dA  h  F  y cp

ICG 2 1
ycp  x  sin 
F 
ycp   gh2 dA
Ax
(1 53 ) 12 5 1
ycp  1.25  sin 2 30  m ycp  g   h 2 dA
(5 1) 1.25 3 gAx
Now, taking moment about hinge.
 h dA  I00
2

ycp ycp  ( I 00   h 2 dA)

F  mg  2.5cos 30 Ax Ax
sin 30
I xc  Ax 2
61.3125 10  53 ycp  (Parallel axis theorem)
 m Ax
9.81 (2.5cos30)  (3sin 30) I xc
m  9623kg ycp  x 
Ax
Hence, the correct option is (D). Position of centre of pressure ( ycp ) for
submerged body inclined at an angle  :
I xc sin 2 
ycp  x 
Ax
 Key Point
Position of centre of pressure ( ycp ) for 3.2 (A)
vertically submerged body : Force required to hold the block

2 Fluid Mechanics
  Weight of water above it bh3
 g  Volume of water above block ycp1
I
 x  xc  x  12
 g  Area  Length Ax Ax
1 4 3

  R 2  
 gL  (2 R  R)    ycp1  2  12  2.666 m
  2  (1 4)  2
113
 
 2 R gL 1  
2
12
 4 and ycp2  0.5   0.666 m
(11)  0.5
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.4 57.225

3.3 105

Given : Width of barrier ( w)  1 m

Hydrostatic force on right side of barrier,
F1  gA.x1  1000 10  (1 4)  2  80 kN
Hydrostatic force on left side of barrier,
F2  gA.x 2  1000 10  (11)  0.5  5 kN
(1000  9.811)
P1 
1000
P1  9.81KPa
2000  9.81 2
P2  P1  2 gh 2  9.81 
2
P2  49.05 KPa

 P  2 P1  2 7
x  2  
 P1  P2  3 9
2h1  h2 L 4 4
S1      1.33 m 1
h1  h2 3 4 3 F1   P1 11
1 1 2
and S2    0.33 m 2
1 3 F2  ( P1  P2 )   58.86KN
Bending moment about A, 2
M A  80 1.33  5  0.33  105 kN-m 7
M 0  F1   F2  x
Hence, the maximum absolute bending moment 3
developed in the cantilever is 105 kN-m. M 0  57.225 KN-m

 Key Point Hence, the correct answer is 57.225.

The value of center of pressure ( ycp1 and ycp2 ) on

both side of the barrier.

Fluid Mechanics 3
4 Buoyancy & Floatation
2014 IIT Kharagpur
4.1 For a completely submerged body with
centre of gravity 'G' and centre of buoyancy
'B', the condition of stability will be
[1 Mark]
(A) G is located below B.
(B) G is located above B.
(C) G and B are coincident.
(D) Independent of the locations of G and B.
4.2 An aluminium alloy (density 2600 kg/m3)
casting is to be produced. A cylindrical hole
of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm length is
made in the casting using sand core (density
1600 kg/m3). The net buoyancy force (in
newton) acting on the core is ______.
[2 Marks]
4.3 A spherical balloon with a diameter of 10 m,
shown in the figure below is used for
advertisements. The balloon is filled with
helium ( RHe  2.08 kJ/kg K) at ambient
conditions of 150 C and 100 kPa.
[2 Marks]
Assuming no disturbances due to wind, the
maximum allowable weight (in newton) of
balloon material and rope required to avoid
the fall of the balloon ( Rair  0.289 kJ/kg K)
is ______.
2016 IISc Bangalore
4.4 For a floating body, buoyant force acts at the
[1 Mark]
(A) Centroid of the floating body.
Fluid Mechanics
(B) Center of gravity of the body.
(C) Centroid of the fluid vertically below the
body.
(D) Centroid of the displaced fluid.
4.5 The large vessel shown in the figure contains
oil and water. A body is submerged at the
interface of oil and water such that 45
percent of its volume is in oil while the rest
is in water. The density of the body is
______ kg/m3.
The specific gravity of oil is 0.7 and density
of water is 1000 kg/m3.
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2.
[2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
4.6 For the stability of floating body the
[1 Mark]
(A) Centre of buoyancy must coincide with
the centre of gravity.
(B) Centre of buoyancy must be above the
centre of gravity.
(C) Centre of gravity must be above the
centre of buoyancy.
(D) Metacentre must be above the centre of
gravity.
2019 IIT Madras
4.7 A cube of side 100 mm is placed at the
bottom of an empty container on one of its
faces. The density of cube material is
800 kg/m3 . Liquid of density is 1000 kg/m3
is now poured into the container. The
1
 minimum height to which the liquid needs to immersed in the water and is hinged without
poured into the container for the cube to just friction at point A on the waterline as shown
lift up is ______ mm. [2 Marks] in the figure. A solid spherical ball made of
lead (specific gravity = 11.4) is attached to
2020 IIT Delhi
the free end of the rod to keep the assembly
4.8 Which of the following conditions is used to in static equilibrium inside the water. For
determine the stable equilibrium of all simplicity, assume that the radius of the ball
partially submerged floating bodies? is much smaller than the length of the rod.
[1 Mark] Assume density of water = 103 kg/m3 and π
(A) Metacenter must be at a lower level than = 3.14.
the centre of gravity Radius of the ball is _______ cm (round off
(B) Metacenter must be at a higher level than to 2 decimal places). [2 Marks]
the centre of gravity
(C) Center of buoyancy must be below the A
centre of gravity
(D) Center of buoyancy must be above the
centre of gravity
2022 IIT Kharagpur
4.9 A uniform wooden rod (specific gravity =
0.6, diameter = 4 cm and length = 8 m) is

4.1 (A)
Stability (Rotational stability) of a submerged
body :
A body is said to be stable i.e., in stable
equilibrium if the centre of gravity is directly
below the centre of buoyancy for the body.

When the centre of gravity and the centre of

buoyancy coincide, the submerged body is said to
be neutrally stable i.e., in neutral equilibrium.

Hence, the correct option is (A).

 Key Point 4.2 7.7

However if the centre of gravity is directly above
Given :
the centre of buoyancy, then the submerged body
is said to be unstable i.e., in unstable equilibrium. Density of aluminium (Al )  2600 kg/m3

2 Fluid Mechanics
Density of core material (C )  1600 kg/m3 Net buoyancy force is given by,
Length of hole (l )  100 mm  0.1m F  628  87.38  540.64 kg
Diameter of hole (d )  100 mm  0.1m Hence maximum allowable weight must be equal
to net buoyance force,
The volume of the core is given by
 540.64  9.81  5303.68 N

V  d 2 l Hence, the rope required to avoid the fall of the
4
 balloon is 5303.68 N .
V   0.12  0.1  7.85 104 m3
4
The net buoyancy force (in newton) acting on the
core is
F  (Al  C )Vg 4.4 (D)
4
F  (2600  1600)  7.85 10  9.81 Buoyant force acts at centre of buoyancy, which is
F  7.7 N centroid of the displaced fluid.
Hence, the net buoyancy force acting on the core Hence, the correct option is (D).
is 7.7 N.  Key Point
4.3 5303.68 Centre of buoyancy : The point of application of
the buoyant force on a body is known as the centre
Given : Diameter of balloon ( D)  10 m of buoyancy. It is always located at the centroid of
Characteristics gas constant of Helium the fluid volume displaced by the body.
( RHe )  2.08kJ/kg K
4.5 865
Initial temperature (T1 )  150 C  288 K
Given : Specific gravity of oil ( Soil )  0.7
Initial pressure ( p1 )  100 kPa
Characteristic gas constant of air Specific gravity of water ( Sw )  1.0
( Ra )  0.289 kJ/kg K Volume submerged in oil (Voil )  45% of
Volume of balloon is given by, V  0.45V
4
V  R3 Volume submerged water (Vwater )  55% of
3 V  0.55V
4
V   53  523.59m3 Weight of body  Buoyant force  Volume
3 (g )metal  Volume  ( g)oil
Mass of balloon :
 (Volume displaced oil) (g )water
Using Ideal gas equation, we have
p 100  (Volume displaced water)
   0.1669kg/m3
RT 2.08  288
Mass of balloon is,
mHe  0.1669  523.59  87.38kg
Mass of displaced air :
Using ideal gas equation, we have
p 100
   1.2kg/m3
RT 0.289  288 m V  oil  (0.45)V  water V  0.55
Mass of balloon is m  (0.7  0.45 1000)  (1000  0.55)
ma  1.2  523.59  628kg

Fluid Mechanics 3
 m  865 kg/m3 Let, x is the height of water required to just lift
the block.
Hence, the density of body is 865 kg / m3 .
At equilibrium,
Net upward force = Net downward force
Fb  W

4.6 (D) LVL g  sVs g

According to question, 1000  (0.1 0.1) x  800  (0.1 0.1 0.1)

800  0.1
x  0.08m  80 mm
1000
Hence, the cube to just lift up is 80 mm.

4.8 (B)
If the metacenter is above the centre of gravity,
buoyancy restores stability when the ship tilts. The
Metacentric height (GM)
stability increases with the distance between
I min metacenter and centre of gravity, called the meta
GM   Distance between centre of
Vdisplaced centric height.
gravity and centre of buoyancy BG If the metacentre is below the centre of gravity, the
boat is unstable, and a tilt results in capsizing.
I min
GM   BG Hence, the correct option is (B).
Vdisplaced
4.9 3.61
For stable equilibrium GM  0 ( ve) or ' M '
should be at greater height that is ' G '. Given :
Hence, the correct option is (D). Specific gravity of wooden rod (S1 )  0.6
Diameter of the rod ( D1 )  4 cm  r1  2 cm
Length of rod (l )  8 m
Specific gravity of spherical ball ( S2 )  11.4
4.7 80 2x
Given : Side of cube (a) = 100 mm x
Density of cube material (s )  800 kg/m3 A
FB1
Density of liquid (L )  1000 kg/m3 G
FB 2
W1

W2

Weight of the rod W1  1 g r12l

4
Weight of the sphere ball W2  2 g r23
3

4 Fluid Mechanics
Where,
r1  radius of rod
r2  radius of sphere
 4 
Buoyant force   F gVFd  F g  r12l  r23 
 3 
MA  0 (For equilibrium)
W1 x  W2 (2 x)  FB1  x  FB2  2 x
4
1 g r12l  22 g r23
3
 4 
 W g  r12l  r23  2
 3 
4 4
S1lr12  2S2 g r23  r12l  r23  2
3 3
4 4
2S2 g r23  2  r23  r12l  S1lr12
3 3
 1 2 
 S1   and S2   
 w w 

4
(2S2  2) r23  (1  S1 )r12l
3
4
(2 11.2  2) r23  (1  0.6)  8  (0.02)2
3
r2  0.03610 m
r2  3.61 cm
Hence, the radius of the ball is 3.61 cm.



Fluid Mechanics 5
5 Kinematics of Fluid

(A) K (B) K
2014 IIT Kharagpur
K K
(C) (D)
5.1 For an incompressible flow field V , which 2 2
one of the following conditions must be
satisfied ? [1 Mark] 2015 IIT Kanpur

(A) .V  0 5.5 If the fluid velocity for a potential flow is

given by V ( x, y )  u ( x, y ) i  v( x, y ) j with
(B) V  0
usual notations, then the slope of the
(C) (V .)V  0 potential line at ( x, y ) is [1 Mark]
V v u
(D)  (V .)V  0 (A) (B) 
t u v
5.2 A flow field which has only convective v2 u
(C) (D)
acceleration is [1 Mark] u 2
v
(A) A steady uniform flow. 5.6 Match the following pairs : [2 Marks]
(B) An unsteady uniform flow. Physical
Equation
(C) A steady non-uniform flow. interpretation
(D) An unsteady non-uniform flow. P. V  0 I. Incompressible
5.3 Consider the following statements regarding continuity
streamline (s) : equation
(i) It is a continuous line such that the Q. V  0 II. Steady flow
tangent at any point on it shows the velocity
R. V III. Irrotational flow
vector at that point 0
(ii) There is no flow across streamline t
dx dy dz S. V IV. Zero acceleration
(iii)   is the differential equation 0
u v w t of fluid
of a streamline, where u, v and w are particle
velocities in directions x, y and z, (A) P-IV, Q-I, R-II, S-III
respectively (B) P-IV, Q-III, R-I, S-II
(iv) In an unsteady flow the path of a particle
(C) P-III, Q-I, R-IV, S-II
is a streamline
Which one of the following combina-tions of (D) P-III, Q-I, R-II, S-IV
the statements is true? 5.7 The velocity field of an incompressible flow
[2 Marks] is given by
(A) (i), (ii), (iv) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) V  (a1 x  a2 y  a3 z ) iˆ
(C) (i), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b1 x  b2 y  b3 z ) ˆj
5.4 Consider a velocity field V  K ( yiˆ  xkˆ)
(c1 x  c2 y  c3 z ) kˆ,
where K is a constant. The vorticity  Z is
[2 Marks]
Fluid Mechanics 1
 where a1  2 and c3   4 . The value of b2 2017 IIT Roorkee
is ______. [2 Marks] 5.11 Consider the two-dimensional velocity field
2016 IISc Bangalore given by

5.8 The volumetric flow rate (per unit depth) V  (5  a1 x  b1 y )iˆ  (4  a2 x  b2 y ) ˆj ,

between two streamlines having stream where a1 , b1 , a2 and b2 are constants. Which
function 1 and 2 is [1 Mark]
one of the following conditions needs to be
(A) 1   2 (B) 1 2 satisfied for the flow to be incompressible?
[1 Mark]
1
(C) (D) 1   2 (A) a1  b1  0 (B) a1  b2  0
2
5.9 For a certain two-dimensional (C) a2  b2  0 (D) a2  b1  0
incompressible flow, velocity field is given 5.12 For a steady flow, the velocity field is
by 2xyiˆ  y 2 ˆj . The streamlines for this flow
V  ( x 2  3 y )iˆ  (2 xy ) ˆj .
are given by the family of curves
[1 Mark] The magnitude of the acceleration of a
particle at (1, –1) is [2 Marks]
(A) x 2 y 2  Constant.
(A) 2 (B) 1
(B) xy 2  Constant.
(C) 2 5 (D) 0
(C) 2xy  y 2  Constant.
2018 IIT Guwahati
(D) xy  Constant.
5.13 For a two-dimensional incompressible flow
5.10 For a two-dimensional flow, the velocity
x ˆ y field given by u  A( xiˆ  yjˆ) where A > 0.
field is u  2 i 2 ˆj , where iˆ
x y 2
x  y2 Which of the following statements is FALSE
[1 Mark]
and ĵ are the basis vectors in the x-y
(A) It satisfies continuity equation.
Cartesian coordinate system. Identify the
(B) It is unidirectional when x  0 and
CORRECT statements from below,
y .
[2 Marks]
(C) Its streamlines are given by x  y .
(1) The flow is incompressible
(D) It is irrotational.
(2) The flow is unsteady
5.14 A flat plate of width L= 1 m is pushed down
(3) y- component of acceleration, with a velocity U  0.01m/s towards a wall
y resulting in the drainage of the fluid between
ay 
( x  y 2 )2
2
the plate and the wall as shown in the figure.
Assume two-dimensional incompressible
(4) x- component of acceleration,
flow and that the plate remains parallel to the
 ( x  y)
ax  wall. The average velocity, U avg of the fluid
( x 2  y 2 )2
(in m/s) draining out at the instant shown in
(A) (2) and (3) (B) (1) and (3) the figure is __________ (correct upto three
(C) (1) and (2) (D) (3) and (4) decimal places)
[1 Mark]

2 Fluid Mechanics
 and y directions, respectively, the expression
(u 2 ) (uv)

x y
can be simplified to [2 Marks]
u u
(A) 2u  v
x y
5.15 In a Lagrangian system, the position of a u v
(B) u u
fluid particle in a flow is described as x y
x  x0 e  kt and y  y0 e kt where t is the time u v
(C) 2u u
x y
while x0 , y0 and k are constant. The flow is
u u
[2 Marks] (D) u v
x y
(A) Unsteady and one dimensional.
(B) Steady and two dimensional. 5.19 A two dimensional flow has velocities in x
and y directions given by u  2 xyt and
(C) Steady and one dimensional.
(D) Unsteady and two dimensional. v   y 2t , where t denotes time. The
equation for streamline passing through x =
2019 IIT Madras
1, y = 1 is [2 Marks]
5.16 Water flows through pipe with velocity
(A) x 2 y  1
4 
V    x  y  ˆj m/s, where ĵ is the unit (B) x2 y 2  1
t 
vector in y  direction, at t ( 0) is in second (C) xy 2  1
and x and y are in metres. The magnitude x
(D) 1
of total acceleration at the point ( x, y )  (1,1) y2
at t  2 seconds is ______ m/s. 2022 IIT Kharagpur
[1 Mark]
5.20 A tiny temperature probe is fully immersed
2020 IIT Delhi in a flowing fluid and is moving with zero
relative velocity with respect to the fluid.
5.17 The velocity field of an incompressible flow
The velocity field in the fluid is
in a Cartesian system is represented by
[1 Mark] V  (2 x)iˆ  ( y  3t ) ˆj , and the temperature
V  2( x 2  y 2 )iˆ  vjˆ  3kˆ . field in the fluid is T  2 x2  xy  4t , where
Which one of the following expressions for x and y are the spatial coordinates, and t is
v is valid? the time. The time rate of change of
(A) 4 xy  4 xz (B) 4 xy  4 xz temperature recorded by the probe at (𝑥 = 1,
(C) 4 xz  6 xy (D) 4 xz  6 xy 𝑦 = 1, 𝑡 = 1) is _______. [1 Mark]
(A) 4 (B) 0
2021 IIT Bombay
(C) 18 (D) 14
5.18 For a two-dimensional, incompressible flow
5.21 A steady two-dimensional flow field is
having velocity components u and v in the x
specified by the stream function   kx3 y,
where x and y are in meter and the constant

Fluid Mechanics 3
 k  1 m 2s 1. The magnitude of acceleration
at a point (x, y) = (1 m, 1 m) is ________
m/s2 (round off to 2 decimal places).
[2 Marks]
5.22 The velocity field in a fluid is given to be
 
V   4 xy  iˆ  2 x 2  y 2 ˆj .
Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct? [1 Mark]
(A) The velocity field is one-dimensional.
(B) The flow is incompressible.
(C) The flow is irrotational.
(D) The acceleration experienced by a fluid
particle is zero at (𝑥 = 0, 𝑦 = 0).
5.23 The steady velocity field in an inviscid fluid
of density 1.5 is given to be
V   y 2  x 2  iˆ   2 xy  ˆj . Neglecting body
forces, the pressure gradient at (𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 1)
is __________. [2 Marks]
(A) 10 ĵ (B) 20 iˆ
(C) −6 iˆ − 6 ĵ (D) −4 iˆ − 4 ĵ
2023 IIT Kanpur
5.23 The velocity field of a certain 2-D flow is
given by V ( x, y )  K ( xi  yi ) , where
K  2 s 1 . The co-ordinates x & y are in
meters. Assume gravitational effect to be
negligible.
If the density of the fluid is 1000 kg/m3 and
the pressure at the origin is 100 kPa the
pressure at location (2m, 2m) is ________
kPa.
5.24 Consider a unidirectional fluid flow with
velocity field is given by
V ( x, y, z, t )  u ( x, t )iˆ , where u (0,1)  1 . If
spatially homogeneous density varies with
t
time as (t )  1  0.2e .
The value of u (2,1)  ________. (Round off
to two decimal places). Assume all
quantities to be dimensionless.

5.1 (A)
D 
  V (   constant)
Dt t
0  0  (  V )
V  0
V  0 (as   constant)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Key Point
For an incompressible flow field, divergence must So, if it is steady flow, then local acceleration
becomes zero and if it is uniform flow then
be zero i.e., V  0 .
convective acceleration becomes zero.
5.2 (C) Hence, the correct options is (C).

5.3 (D)
Streamline (s) has the following properties :
1. It is a continuous line such that the tangent at
any point on it shows the velocity vector
at that point.
4 Fluid Mechanics
2. There is no flow across streamlines.  dy  u
  
3.
dx dy dz
  is the differential equation of a  dx  v
u v w Hence, the correct option is (B).
streamline, where u, v and w are velocities in 5.6 (C)
directions x, y and z, respectively.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1. V  0 Irrotional flow
5.4 (A)
2. V  0 Incompressible continuity
equation.
Given : Velocity field (V )  Kyiˆ  Kxkˆ V
3.  0 Zero acceleration of fluid particle
Velocity component in x-direction, t
u  Ky V
4.  0 Steady flow
Velocity component in z-direction, dt
w  Kx Hence, the correct option is (C).
 Vorticity is given by,
v u 5.7 2
z    0  K  K
x y Given : Velocity field
Hence, the correct option is (A). (V )  (a1 x  a2 y  a3 z ) iˆ  (b1 x  b2 y  b3 z ) ˆj
(c1 x  c2 y  c3 z ) kˆ
where a1  2 and c3   4 .
Using continuity equation, we have
 Key Point u v w
Vorticity :   0
x y z
1 a1  b2  c3  0
Vorticity,   2  2  (V )
2
2  b2  4  0
ˆ ˆ ˆ
i  j  k    V
b2  2
 v u 
So,  x   , y   Hence, the value of b2 is 2.
y z z x
v u
and  z  
x y
Vortex line equation :
dx dy dz 5.8 (D)
 
x  y z Volume flow rate per unit depth  1   2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
5.5 (B)
 Key Point
Given : Flow net : Grid obtained by number of potential
Velocity field [V ( x, y )]  u ( x, y ) i  v( x, y ) j line and stream line is called flow net.
Potential function can be written as,
 
d  dx  dy
x y
 
Also, we know that  u and  v
x y
Hence, we have d   ( udx)  ( vdy ) Flow rate
 1   2
Considering potential function to be constant i.e. Depth
d  0 ,
Fluid Mechanics 5
 5.9 (B) u   x 
Now,   
x x  x 2  y 2 
Given : Velocity field (V )  2 xyiˆ  y 2 ˆj
Velocity component in x-direction, u ( x 2  y 2 )  x  2 x

u  2 xy x ( x 2  y 2 )2
Velocity component in y-direction, u ( y 2  x 2 )
 …(i)
v   y2 x ( x 2  y 2 )2
Equation of stream line, v   y 
and   
dx dy y y  x 2  y 2 

u v v ( x 2  y 2 )1  y  2 y
dx dy 
 y ( x 2  y 2 )2
2 xy  y 2
v ( x 2  y 2 )
dx dy  …(ii)
 y ( x 2  y 2 )2
2x y
From equation (i) and (ii),
On integrating, we get u v
1  0
ln x   ln y  ln c x y
2
y 2  x2 x2  y 2
ln x  ln y  ln c  0
( x 2  y 2 )2 ( x 2  y 2 )2
ln x  y  ln c Flow is incompressible.
or xy c From the above two conclusion itself we can
choose the 2nd option.
xy 2  c
For a x and a y , we can have the following solution
Hence, the correct option is (B).
:
x component :
u u u
ax  u v
t x y
5.10 (B)  u 
  0, steady flow 
Given :  t 
Velocity field (u ) 
x
i 2
y  x  ( x 2  y 2 )  2 x 2 
x y2 2
x  y2
j a x   2 2  
 x  y  ( x  y ) 
2 2 2

Velocity component in x-direction,

 y  ( x 2  y 2 )  0  x  2 y 
x   2 2  
u 2
x  y2  x  y  ( x 2  y 2 )2 
Velocity component in y-direction,  x 2 xy 2 
ax   2  2
 2

( x 2  y 2 )3 
( y x )
 (x  y )
2 3
y
v 2
x  y2
  x 3  xy 2  x( x 2  y 2 )
1. From velocity vector there is no term of time ax   2 2 3
 
 (x  y )  ( x 2  y 2 )3
(t ) so we can say flow is steady flow.
x
2. For incompressible flow, flow must satisfy ax   2
continuity equation. ( x  y 2 )2
u v y component :
 0
x y

6 Fluid Mechanics
 v v v
ay  u v
t x y
 v 
  0, steady flow 
 t  5.12 (C)
 x  ( x 2  y 2 )  0  y  2 x  Given :
a y   2 2  
 x  y  ( x 2  y 2 )2  Velocity field (V )  ( x 2  3 y)iˆ  (2 xy) ˆj
 y  ( x 2  y 2 )  1  y  2 y  Velocity component in x-direction,
  2 2  
 x  y  ( x 2  y 2 )2  u   x2  3 y
 x    2 xy   Velocity component in y-direction,
a y   2 2  2 2  v  2 xy
 ( x  y )   ( x  y )  
2

For steady flow acceleration is given by,

 y( x2  y 2 ) 
 2 2 3 
u u
 (x  y )  ax  u v
x y
 2 x2 y yx 2  y 3  x2 y  y3  ( x 2  3 y )
ay    ax  (  x 2  3 y )
( x 2  y 2 )3 ( x 2  y 2 )3 ( x 2  y 2 )3 x
 y ( x2  y 2 ) y  ( x 2  3 y )
ay   2 (2 xy)
(x  y )
2 2 3
( x  y 2 )2 y
Hence, the correct option is (B). ax  ( x 2  3 y )  ( 2 x)  2 xy  3
5.11 (B) ax  2 x3  6 xy  6 xy  2 x3
Given : Velocity field At point (1, – 1), ax  2
(V )  (5  a1 x  b1 y )iˆ  (4  a2 x  b2 y ) ˆj v v
Again, ay  u v
Velocity component in x-direction, x y
u  5  a1 x  b1 y (2 xy ) (2 xy )
a y  ( x 2  3 y )  (2 xy )
Velocity component in y-direction, x y
v  4  a2 x  b2 y a y  ( x 2  3 y )  2 y  2 xy  2 x
Where, a1 , b1 , a2 , b2  constants. ay   2x2 y  6 y 2  4x2 y
Now, for the case of incompressible flow,
ay  2x2 y  6 y 2
V  0
At point (1, – 1), a y  4
u v
Hence,  0 Total acceleration is given by,
x y
u  a  ax2  ay2  22  42  20  2 5
Now,  (5  a1 x  b1 y)  a1
x x Hence, the correct option is (C).
v 
 (4  a2 x  b2 y )  b2
y y
a1  b2  0
Hence, the correct option is (B).

Fluid Mechanics 7
 5.13 (C) dl
  U avg
On checking the given statements, dt
Now, volume of fluid displaced by plate
u v  ( Ax) ( Ay )
(A)     A A  0  Volume of fluid drained out at that instant
x y x y
L  b  dh  2  dl  (d  dh)  b
It satisfy the continuity equation.
L  (U  dt )  2  (U avg  dt )  d
(B) u  Axiˆ  Ayjˆ
2  (U avg  dt )  (U  dt )
If y   , velocity vector field will not be
defined along y-axis. Therefore flow will be L  U  dt  2  U avg  dt  d
along x-axis only i.e., 1 D flow. [ dt  dt  0 ]
(C) Stream line equation, L U 1 0.01
U avg    0.05 m/s
dx dy dx dy 2d 2  0.1
  
u v Ax  Ay Hence, the average velocity, U avg of the fluid
ln x   ln y  ln c draining out at the instant shown in the figure is
c 0.05 m/s.
x  xy  c
y 5.15 (B)
It does not satisfy the stream line equation.
Given : Position of fluid particle in x-direction,
1  v u  x  x0 e  kt
(D) z    
2  x y 
Position of fluid particle in y-direction,
1  ( Ay) ( Ax)  y  y0 e kt
z   0
2  x y  Velocity component in x-direction,
It satisfy the irrotational flow. dx
u   kx0e kt   kx
Hence, the correct option is (C). dt
Velocity component in y-direction,
5.14 0.05
dy
Given : Width of the flat plate ( L)  1 m v  ky0ekt  ky
dt
Downward velocity of flat plate (U )  0.01 m/s
 V  uiˆ  vjˆ
Suppose length of the plate is b and in small time,
V   kiˆ  kyjˆ
let the plate be displaced by dh .
dh Since, V is not a function of time.
 U Therefore, the flow is steady. Here the flow field
dt
is a function of two space coordinates in x, y-
direction.
Therefore, the flow is two dimensional also.
Hence, the correct option is (B).

At the same instant fluid drained out by dl from

one side,

8 Fluid Mechanics
 5.16 3 v
4x  0 0
y
4 
Given : Velocity field (V )    x  y  ˆj m/s v
t   4 x
y
Velocity component in x-direction, u  0
Velocity component in y-direction,  v   4 xy  f ( xz)
4 V  4 xy  f ( x, z )   4 xy  4 xz
v   x y
t
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Velocity component in z-direction,
w0 5.18 (D)
 Acceleration in x-direction, u 2 (uv)
u u u u 
ax  u v w 0 x y
t x y z
Differentiating,
Acceleration in y-direction, u v u
v v v v 2u u v
ay  u v  w x y y
t x y z u u v u
u u u v
x x y y
 4  4   4  u  u v  u
ay    x  y  x  y   x  y u u   v
t  t   t 
 y t  x  x y  y
u v
4 4 ( for 2D incompressible flow  0)
ay  2   x  y x y
t t u u
At t  2sec, x  1 and y  1 u v
x y
4 4 Hence, the correct option is (D).
ay  2
  1  1  1  2  2  3 m/s 2
2 2
5.19 (C)
Acceleration in z-direction,
w w w w Given : u  2 xyt and v   y 2t
az  u v w 0
t x y z dx dy

Magnitude of total acceleration, u v
a  ax2  ay2  az2  02  32  02 dx
 2
dy
2 xyt  y t
a  3 m/s2
dx dy
Hence, the magnitude of total acceleration 
2x  y
( x, y )  (1,1) at t  2 seconds is 3 m/s2.
On integrating,
5.17 (A) 1
ln( x)   ln( y)  c
Given : 2
Velocity field (V )  2 ( x 2  y 2 ) i  v j  3 k At x  1 , y  1
  
u v w
1
ln(1)   ln(1)  c
For incompressible and steady fluid flow, 2
u v w c0
  0
x y z ln x
 ln y  0
2

Fluid Mechanics 9
 ln x  2ln y
0 5.22 (B, C, D)
2
V  (4 xy )iˆ  2( x 2  y 2 ) ˆj
ln xy 2  ln1
V  0
xy 2  1
u v w
Hence, the correct option is (C).   0
x y z
5.20 (C) (4 xy) [2( x 2  y 2 )]
 0
V  2 xiˆ  ( y  3t ) ˆj x y
 w 
T  2 x 2  xy  4t   0
 z 
d
Find at x  1,   1, t  1 4y  4y  0
dt
0  0 (Flow is incompressible)
Using relation –
Now, checking irrotational,
dT T T T
 u U 1  v u 
dt t x y z    
2  x y 
 4  2(4  1)  (1  3) 1
1  [2( x 2  y 2 )]  (4 xy ) 
   
 4  10  4  18 2 x y 
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1
 (4 x  4 x)
5.21 4.2426 2
z  0 (Flow is irrotational)
  Kx3 y – stream function is Given
Now, checking the acceleration experienced by a

u   Kx3 fluid particle is zero at ( x  0, y  0) ,
y
u v
 ax  u v 00
v  3Kx2 y x y
x
 
u u  4 xy 4 xy  (2 x 2  2 y 2 ) (2 x 2  2 y 2 )
ax  u  v  0  0 x y
x y
 16 xy 2  (2 x2  2 y 2 )  ( 4 y)
K  1, x  1, y  1
ax  16 xy 2  8 x 2 y  8 y 3
ax  ( Kx3 )  (3Kx 2 )  (1)(3)  3 unit At ( x  0, y  0) :
v u ax  0
ay  u v 00
x y
v v
And a y  u v 00
 ( Kx )(6Kxy)  3Kx y (3Kx )
3 2 2
x y
a y  (1) (6)  9  3 unit  
 4 xy (2 x 2  2 y 2 )  (2 x 2  2 y 2 ) (2 x 2  2 y 2 )
x y
at  ax 2  ay 2  4 xy  4 x  (2 x2  2 y 2 )  (4 y)
atotal  9  9  18  4.2426 unit a y  16 x 2 y  8 x 2 y  8 y 3
Hence, the correct answer is 4.2426. At ( x  0, y  0) :

10 Fluid Mechanics
 ay  0 5.24 84
 Total acceleration, atotal  ax2  ay2 Given :
v  x1 y   k  xi  yi 
atotal  0  0
k  2s 1 ,   1000 kg/m3 , p1  100 kPa
atotal  0 (Acceleration experienced by a fluid
u  kx
particle is zero at x  0, y  0 ).
v   ky
Since, V  (4 xy )iˆ  2( x 2  y 2 ) ˆj shows 4xy in iˆ
v  (kx)2  (ky)2  k x 2  y 2
direction and 2( x 2  y 2 ) in ĵ direction i.e.
velocity field is two dimensional. At origin  0, 0   v(0,0)  0
Hence, the correct option is (B), (C) and (D).
At (2, 2)  v(2,2)  2 22  22  4 2
5.23 (C) Applying Bernoulli’s equation,
V  ( y 2  x 2 ) iˆ  (2 xy ) ˆj p1 v12 0
0
p v2 0
  gz1  2  2  gz2
Fg  Fv  Fp  m  atotal g 2 g g 2 g
0  0  Fp  m  atotal p2 p1 v22
 
 dv  g g 2 g
P  g   
 dt 
 
2

v 2 1000  4 2
 V V  p2  p1   100 103 
2

 P  u. iˆ  v ˆj  …(i) 2 2
 x y  p2  84000  84 kPa.
At x  1, y  1 Hence, the correct answer is 84.
u u
ax  u v 00 5.25 1.14
x y
u v w p
ax  ( y 2  x 2 )(2 x)  2 xy (2 y )      0
x y z t
a x  4 iˆ …(ii)
 u v w 
v v (1  0.2et )      0.2et  0
And a y  u  v  0  0  x y z 
x y
 u 
a y  ( y 2  x 2 )(2 y )  2 xy (2 x) (1  0.2e  t )    0.2e  t  0
 x 
a y  2 ˆj …(iii)  u 
(1  0.2e  t )    0.2e  t
From equation (i), (ii) and (iii)  x 
 V V  u  0.2e  t 
P  u iˆ  v ˆj   
 x y  x  1  0.2e  t 

P   4iˆ  4 ˆj   0.2 e  t 

u  t xC
 1  0.2 e 
P  1.5  4iˆ  4 ˆj 
Since u (0, t )  1 c 1
P  6 iˆ  6 ˆj
 0.2  e  t 
Hence, the correct option is (C). u  t 
 2 1
 1  0.2 e 

Fluid Mechanics 11
 u  1.1371 m/s
u 1.14 m/s
Hence, the correct answer is 1.14.



12 Fluid Mechanics
6 Dynamics of Fluid
2013 IIT Bombay
6.1 Water is coming out from a tap and falls
vertically downwards. At the tap opening,
the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform
velocity of 2 m/s. Acceleration due to gravity
is 9.81 m/s2 . Assuming steady, inviscid
flow, constant atmospheric pressure every-
where and neglecting curvature and surface
tension effects, the diameter in mm of the
stream 0.5 m below the tap is approximately
[2 Marks]
(A) 10 (B) 15
(C) 20 (D) 25
2014 IIT Kharagpur
6.2 A siphon is used to drain water from a large
tank as shown in figure below. Assume that
the level of water is maintained constant.
Ignore frictional effect due to viscosity and
losses at entry and exit. At the exit of the
siphon, the velocity of water is [2 Marks]
(A) 2 g ( ZQ  Z R )
(B) 2 g (Z P  Z R )
(C) 2 g ( ZO  Z R )
(D) 2 gZ Q
Fluid Mechanics
2015 IIT Kanpur
6.3 Within a boundary layer for a steady
incompressible flow, the Bernoulli equation
[1 Mark]
(A) Holds because the flow is steady
(B) Holds because the flow is
incompressible
(C) Holds because the flow is transitional
(D) Does not hold because the flow is
frictional
6.4 A Prandtl tube (Pitot-static tube with C = 1)
is used to measure the velocity of water. The
differential manometer reading is 10 mm of
liquid column with a relative density of 10.
Assuming g = 9.8 m/s2, the velocity of water
(in m/s) is _______. [2 Marks]
6.5 Water (  = 1000 kg/m ) flows through a
3
venturimeter with inlet diameter 80 mm and
throat diameter 40 mm. The inlet and throat
gauge pressures are measured to be 400 kPa
and 130 kPa respectively. Assuming the
venturimeter to be horizontal and neglecting
friction, the inlet velocity (in m/s) is ______.
[2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
6.6 A channel of width 450 mm branches into
two sub-channels having width 300 mm and
200 mm as shown in figure. If the volumetric
flow rate (taking unit depth) of an
incompressible flow through the main
channel is 0.9 m3/s and the velocity in the
sub-channel of width 200 mm is 3 m/s, the
velocity in the sub-channel of width 300 mm
is ______ m/s.
Assume both inlet and outlet to be at the
same elevation. [1 Mark]
1

6.7 The water jet exiting from a stationary tank
through a circular opening of diameter 300
mm impinges on a rigid wall as shown in the
figure. Neglect all minor losses and assume
the water level in the tank to remain constant.
The net horizontal force experienced by the
wall is _______ kN. [2 Marks]
Density of water is 1000 kg/m3.
Acceleration due to gravity g  10 m/s2 .
2017 IIT Roorkee
6.8 The arrangement shown in the figure
measures the velocity V of a gas of density
1 kg / m3 flowing through a pipe. The
acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m / s2 . If
the manometric fluid is water (density 1000
kg / m3 ) and the velocity V is 20 m/s, the
differential head h (in mm) between the two
arms of the manometer is ______.
[2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
6.9 A tank open at the top with a water level of
1 m, as shown in the figure has hole at a
2 Fluid Mechanics
height of 0.5 m. A free jet leaves horizontally
from the smooth hole. The distance X (in m)
where the jet strikes the floor is
[2 Marks]
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
6.10 A frictionless circular piston of area 102 m 2
and mass 100 kg sinks into a cylindrical
container of the same area filled with water
of density 1000kg/m3 as shown in the
figure. The container has a hole of area
103 m 2 at the bottom that is open to the
atmosphere. Assuming there is no leakage
from the edges of the piston and considering
water to be incompressible, the magnitude of
the piston velocity (in m/s) at the instant
shown is______ (correct to three decimal
places). [2 Marks]
6.11 Air flows at the rate of 1.5 m3/s through a
horizontal pipe with a gradually reducing
cross-section as shown in the figure. The two
cross-section of the pipe have diameters of
400 mm and 200 mm. Take the air density as
1.2 kg/m3 and assume inviscid
incompressible flow. The change in pressure
 p2  p1  (in kPa) between section 1 and 2
is [2 Marks]
 and zB  9.1 m, respectively. If acceleration
due to gravity is 10 m/s2 then the head lost
due to friction is _____ m (round off to one
(A) 1.28 (B) 2.56 decimal place). [2 Marks]
(C) 2.13 (D) 1.28 6.15 Consider a flow through nozzle, as shown in
2019 IIT Madras the figure below.

6.12 A two-dimensional incompressible

frictionless flow field is given by V  xiˆ  yjˆ
. If  is the density of the fluid, the
expression for pressure gradient vector at
any point in the flow field is given as,
[1 Mark]
(A) ( xiˆ  yjˆ)
The air flow is steady, incompressible and
(B) ( xiˆ  yjˆ)
inviscid. The density of air is 1.23 kg/m3 .
(C)  ( xiˆ  yjˆ) The pressure difference ( p1  patm ) is
(D) ( x iˆ  y ˆj )
2 2
______ kPa. (round off to 2 decimal place)
[2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
2021 IIT Bombay
6.13 Air discharges steadily through a horizontal
nozzle and impinges on a stationary vertical 6.16 Water flows out from a large tank of cross -
place as shown in figure. [2 Marks] sectional area At  1 m 2 through a small
rounded orifice of cross - sectional area
A0  1 cm 2 , located at y  0 . Initially the
water level (H), measured from y = 0, is 1 m.
The acceleration due to gravity is 9.8m/sec2
.
The inlet and outlet areas of the nozzle are Cross-sectional
area, At
0.1 m 2 and 0.02 m2 , respectively. Take air
density as constant and equal to 1.2 kg/m3 . y=H
Orifice
If the inlet gauge pressure of air is 0.36 kPa, cross-sectional
the gauge pressure at point O on the plate is A0 area
y= 0
______ kPa (round off to two decimal
places). Neglecting any losses, the time taken by
H
6.14 Water (density  1000 kg/m3 ) flow through water in the tank to reach a level of y 
4
an inclined pipe of uniform diameter. The is _________ seconds (round off to one
velocity, pressure and elevation at section A decimal place). [2 Marks]
are vA  3.2 m/s , p A  186 kPa and
z A  24.5m, respectively, and those at
section B are vB  3.2 m/s, pB  260 kPa

Fluid Mechanics 3
 2022 IIT Kharagpur  2
(A) DV
4
6.17 Consider steady, one-dimensional

compressible flow of a gas in a pipe of (B) D2 2 gh2
diameter 1 m. At one location in the pipe, the 4

density and velocity are 1 kg/m3 and 100 (C) D2 2 g  h1  h2 
m/s, respectively. At a downstream location 4
in the pipe, the velocity is 170 m/s. If the 
(D) D2 V 2  2 gh2
pressure drop between these two locations is 4
10 kPa, the force exerted by the gas on the 2023 IIT Kanpur
pipe between these two locations is
6.19 An explosion at time t = 0 releases energy E
____________ N. [2 Marks]
at the origin in a space filled with a gas
(A) 350 2 (B) 750 density    . Subsequently, a hemispherical
(C) 1000 (D) 3000 blast wave propagates radially outwards as
6.18 A tube of uniform diameter D is immersed in shown in the figure. Let R denotes the radius
a steady flowing inviscid liquid stream of of the front of the hemispherical blast wave.
velocity V, as shown in the figure. The radius R follows the relationship:
Gravitational acceleration is represented by R  k  t a E bc where k is a dimensionless
g. The volume flow rate through the tube is
constant. The value of exponent a is
______. [2 Marks]
________. (Rounded off to one decimal
place)
Patm Free surface
h2 of the liquid 
stream
Liquid
h1
stream R
V
E

6.1 (B) AV1 1  A2V2 …(i)

Bernoulli’s equation between (1) and (2),
According to question,
p1 V12 p V2
  Z1  2  2  Z 2
g 2 g g 2 g
 p1  p2  0 (atm) 
V22  V12  2 gZ  
 Z1  Z , Z 2  0 
V22  V12  2 gZ
V22  4  2  9.81 0.5  13.81
 V2  3.716 m/s
From equation (1),
AV
Continuity equation between (1) and (2), A2  1 1
V2

4 Fluid Mechanics
  2  2  
 d2   202  h  x  m  1
4 4 3.716  w 
202  2 h  0.01(10  1)  0.09 m of water
d2   14.67 mm  15 mm
3.716 Velocity of water is given by
Hence, the correct option is (B).
V  2 gh  2  9.8  0.09
V  1.33m/s
Hence, the velocity of water is 1.33 m/s.
6.2 (B) 6.5 6
Applying Bernoulli’s equation between the points Given : Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3
‘p’ and ‘R’.
Pipe diameter (d1 )  80 mm  0.08 m
pP VP2 p V2
  ZP  R  R  ZR Diameter of throat (d2 )  40 mm  0.04 m
g 2 g g 2 g
Since, velocity of water in the reservoir at P is Pressure at inlet ( p1 )  400 kPa
zero or negligible (i.e., VP  0) and Pressure at throat ( p2 )  130 kPa
pP  pR  patm  0
VR2
 (Z P  Z R )
2g
 VR  2 g (Z P  Z R )
Velocity at p is zero as fluid at this point is
stationary.
Using the continuity equation, we have
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1 1  A2V2
AV
 2 
d1 V1  d22V2
4 4
2
d 
2
6.3 (D)  0.08 
V2   1  V1    V1
Bernoulli equation does not hold because it is for  d2   0.04 
non-viscous flow V2  4V1 …(i)
Hence, the correct option is (D). Using the Bernoulli’s equation, we have
6.4 1.33 p1 V12 p V2
  Z1  2  2  Z 2
Given : g 2 g g 2 g
Manometer reading ( x)  10 mm  0.01 m p1  p2 V22  V12
  Z1  Z 2 
Relative density of manometric liquid  2
 400  130 (4V1 ) 2  V12
( S m )  m  10 10 
3

w 1000 2
540  15V12
Height in terms of water is given by,
V1  6 m/s
Hence, the inlet velocity is 6 m/s.

Fluid Mechanics 5
 Applying Bernoulli’s equation at point (1) and (2)
p1 V12 p V2
  Z1  2  2  Z 2
 2g  2g
6.6 1
( V1  0, Z1  h, Z 2  0, p1  p2  patm  0)
Depth is unity, apply mass conservation and
assuming flow is incompressible.  V22  2 g h  2 10  6.2  124
According to question, V2  124  11.13 m/s
Again to calculate force,
F  AV22  1000  0.0707  (11.13) 2
F  8.76 kN
Hence, the net horizontal force experienced by the
wall is 8.76 kN.

Conservation of mass flow,

Q  Q1  Q2
0.9  AV
1 1  A2V2  0.3  V1  0.2  3 6.8 20.4
V1  1 m/s Given : Density of gas ( g )  1 kg/m 3
Hence, the velocity in the sub-channel of width
300 mm is 1 m/s. Density of water (w )  1000 kg/m3
Velocity of gas (V )  20 m/s
Velocity is given by,
V 2  2 gH
6.7 8.76
 
Given : Diameter of opening (d )  300 mm Where, H  h  w  1
 g 
Static head (h)  6.2 m
 
Density of water (w )  1000 kg/m3  202  2  9.81 h  w  1
 g 
Gravitational acceleration ( g )  10 m/s 2
 1000 
Area of opening, 202  2  9.81 h   1
   1 
A  d 2   (0.3)2  0.0707 m h  0.0204 m  20.4 mm
4 4
Hence, the differential head h between the two
arms of the manometer is 20.4 mm.

6.9 (B)
Let free jet velocity is having X displacement,
X
t …(i)
V
Velocity of free jet is given by,
V  2 gH …(ii)

6 Fluid Mechanics
From equation (i) and (ii),
X
t …(iii)
2 gH
Applying continuity equation between (1) and (2),
Now, by equation of motion,
1 1  A2V2
AV
1
s  ut  gt 2 A 
2 V2   1  V1
 A2 
1 2
For free fall u  0, s  gt p1 V12 p V2
2   Z1  2  2  Z 2
So, the time of free fall of object is given by, g 2 g g 2 g
 patm  105  V12 patm A12 V12
t
2s

2Y
…(iv)     0.5   
g g   g  2 g g A22 2 g

Equating the equation (iii) and (iv),  Z 2  0 and patm  0 

X  4HY  4  0.5  0.5  1 m 105  A2  V 2

 0.5   12  1 1
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1000  10  A2  2g
 A1 10 2 
   3  10 
 A2 10 
V12
6.10 1.456 10  0.5  (102  1)
2g
Given : 10.5  2 10
Cross-sectional area of piston ( A1 )  10 2 m 2 V12   2.12
99
Area at circular opening ( A2 )  10 3 m2 V1  1.456 m/s
Mass of piston (m)  100 kg Hence, the magnitude of the piston velocity at the
Gravitational acceleration ( g )  10 m/s 2
instant shown is 1.456 m/s.
Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3
Elevation of point-1 (Z1 )  0.5 m
Pressure exerted by piston on fluid,
m  g 100 10 6.11 (A)
p   105 N/m 2
A1 10 2 Given : Density of air ()  1.2 kg/m3
Flow rate (Q)  1.5 m3 /sec
Diameter at inlet (d1 )  400 mm  0.4 m
Diameter at exit (d2 )  200 mm  0.2 m

Fluid Mechanics 7
 Q 1.5
V1    11.94 m/sec 6.13 0.375
 2 
 d1  0.4 2
Given : Inlet area of nozzle ( A1 )  0.1 m 2
4 4
Q 1.5 Outlet area of nozzle ( A2 )  0.02 m2
V2    47.75 m/sec
 2  Pressure at inlet of nozzle ( p1 )  0.36 kPa
 d2  0.2 2

4 4
Density of air ()  1.2 kg/m3
Applying Bernaulli’s equation and simplifying it,
we get
p1 V12 p2 V22
  
g 2 g g 2 g
p2  p1 V12  V22

g 2g Using continuity equation,
p2  p1 V  V 1 1  A2V2
2 2
AV
 1 2

 2 0.1V1  0.02V2
11.94  47.75
2 2
V2  5V1
p2  p1  1.2
2 Applying B.E. between 1 and 2,
p2  p1  1.282 kPa p1 V12 p2 V22
  z1    z1
Hence, the correct option is (A). g 2 g g 2 g
6.12 (C) p1 V22  V12

g 2g
Given : Velocity field (V )  xiˆ  yjˆ
0.36 103 25V12  V12 24V12
Velocity component in x-direction, u  x  
1.2 2 2
Velocity component in y-direction, v   y
V1  5 m/s
Euler’s equation for vector form (incompressible
V2  25 m/s
and frictionless),
Applying B.E. between 2 and 3,
Fp  Fg  Fi
p2 V22 p V2
  z2  3  3  z3
Fp  Fg  ma g 2 g g 2 g
g  g x iˆ  g y ˆj  g z kˆ p3 V22

g 2 g
g  0 iˆ  0 ˆj  ( g ) kˆ
252
DV p3  1.2  375 Pa  0.375 kPa
 p  g   2
Dt Hence, the gauge pressure at point O on the plate
 V ˆ V ˆ V ˆ V  is 0.375 kPa.
  p  g    u i v jw k 
 x y z t  6.14 8
p  g    x iˆ  ( y) ( ˆj )  0  0 Given :
Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3 ,
p   0 iˆ  0 ˆj     x iˆ  y ˆj 
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10m/ s2 ,
p    x iˆ  y ˆj 
Hence, the correct option is (C).

8 Fluid Mechanics
Velocity at section A and B (vA )  3 . 2 m / and
s Using Bernoulli’s principle,
(vB )  3.2 m/s , p1 v12 p2 v22
  z1    z2
Pressure at section A and B ( p A )  186 kPa , g 2 g g 2 g
( pB )  260 kPa, and p1  patm v22  v12 502  52
  ( p2  patm )
Elevation at section A and B ( z A )  24.5m, 1.23 2 2
( zB )  9.1m, p1  patm  1522.125 Pa  1.522 kPa
Hence, the pressure difference ( p1  patm ) is 1.522
kPa.
6.16 2258.76

Given : A  1m2 ; a  1cm2  104 m2

By using Bernoulli’s principle,
pA vA2 p v2 and g  9.8m/sec2
  z A  B  B  zB  hL No losses, Cd  1
g 2 g g 2 g
vA  vB
 190 103   260 103 
  24.1   9.1  hL
 1000 10   1000 10 
43.1  35.1  hL
Head loss, hL  8 m H 1
Hence, the head lost due to friction is 8 m. When H 2 becomes   0.25m
4 4
6.15 1.522 2 A( H1  H 2 )
T
Given : Density of air (air )  1.23kg/m3 , Cd .a 2 g
At section (1) : Area ( A1 )  0.2 m 2 2 1 ( 1  0.25)
T  2258.76 sec
At section (2) : Area ( A2 )  0.02 m 2 , , Velocity 1104  2  9.8
Hence, the time taken by water in the tank to reach
(v2 )  50 m/s, , Pressure ( p2 )  patm
H
a level of y  is 2258.76 sec.
4
6.17 (B)
Given :
Diameter (d )  1 m
Density ()  1kg/m3
Velocity (V1 )  100 m/s
Since, mass flow rate (m)1  Mass flow rate (m) 2
Velocity (V2 )  170 m/s
1 A1v1  2 A2v2
Pressure drop between two location =10 kPa
0.2  v1  0.02  50
Force exerted by the gas on the pipe between two
0.02  50 locations is
Velocity, v1   5 m/s
0.2

Fluid Mechanics 9
 P  10 kPa V2 V2
D  1m h1   h1  h2  1
1  1kg/m3 2g 2g
Direction of V2  170 m/s
V1  100 m/s force is V12 V2
F  h1  h1  h2 
2g 2g
1 2 V12 V 2
  h2
( P1  P2 )  F  m(V2  V1 ) 2g 2g

 V1  V 2  2 gh2
(10 10 )  12  F  1 AV
3
1 1[V2  V1 ]
4
Now, Q  AV  D2 V 2  2 gh2
  4
10 103   F  1  d 2 100[170  100]
4 4 { A  Area}
F  750  Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 6.19 (D)

6.18 (D) E = Energy,   Gas density, R = Radius, t = Time

2 Given : R  kt a E bc
Where, k is a dimensionless constant writing down
h2 Z2 in [MLT] dimension form each term.
a b c
M0LT 1 0
 = M0L0T1  ML2T-2  ML-3T0 
h1 1
V Comparing powers of M, L and T on both sides.
Z1 P0 bc  0
b  c …(i)
From Bernoulli’s equation (Point 1 to 2) 1  2b  3c
P1 V12 P V2 1  2c  3c
  Z1  2  2  Z 2
g 2g g 2g 1
c
{ A1  A2 &V1  V2 } 5
1
P1 b
 Z1  0  Z 2 5
g
a  2b  0
P1  g (Z 2  Z1 )  g (h1  h2 ) a  2b
from diagram, it is clear that 2
a
(Z2  Z1 )  (h2  h1 ) 5
P0  gh1 a  0.4
Hence, the correct answer is 0.4.
P0 V 2 P1 V12
  Z0    Z1
g 2g g 2g

{ Z0  Z1 }
gh1 V 2 g (h1  h2 ) V12
  
g 2g g 2g

10 Fluid Mechanics
7 Laminar & Turbulent Flow, Viscous Flow, Flow Through
Pipes

2013 IIT Bombay viscosity of water are 997 kg/m3 and

7.1 For steady, fully developed flow inside a 855 10 6 N.s/m 2 , respectively.
straight pipe of diameter D, neglecting Assuming fully-developed flow, the
gravity effects, the pressure drop  p over a pressure drop (in Pa) in the pipe is ______.
length L and the wall shear stress  w are [2 Marks]
related by [1 Mark] 7.6 A fluid of dynamic viscosity 2 10 5 kg/ms
pD pD 2 and density 1 kg/m3 flows with an average
(A) w  (B)  w 
4L 4 L2 velocity ofs 1 m/s through a long duct of
pD 4pL rectangular (25 mm 15 mm) cross-section.
(C) w  (D) w 
2L D Assuming laminar flow, the pressure drop
2014 IIT Kharagpur (in Pa) in the fully developed region per
meter length of the duct is _______.
7.2 Consider the turbulent flow of a fluid
[2 Marks]
through a circular pipe of diameter D.
Identify the correct pair of statements. 2015 IIT Kanpur
[1 Mark] 7.7 Consider fully developed flow in a circular
(i) The fluid is well-mixed. pipe with negligible entrance length effects.
(ii) The fluid is unmixed. Assuming the mass flow rate, density and
(iii) ReD  2300 . friction factor to be constant, if the length of
(iv) ReD  2300 . the pipe is doubled and the diameter is
halved, the head loss due to friction will
(A) I and III (B) II and IV
increase by a factor of l [1 Mark]
(C) II and III (D) I and IV
7.3 Water flows through a pipe having an inner (A) 4 (B) 16
radius of 10 mm at the rate of 36 kg/hr at (C) 32 (D) 64
250 C . The viscosity of water at 250 C is 7.8 Three parallel pipes connected at the two
0.001 kg/m.s. The Reynolds number of the ends have flow-rates Q1, Q2 and Q3
flow is ______. respectively, and the corresponding
[2 Marks] frictional head losses are hL1 , hL2 and hL3
7.4 For a fully developed flow of water in a pipe
having diameter 10 cm, velocity 0.1 m/s and respectively. The correct expressions for
total flow rate (Q) and frictional head loss
kinematic viscosity 105 m2 /s , the value of
across the two ends ( H L ) are
Darcy friction factor is ______.
[2 Marks] [1 Mark]
7.5 Water flows through a 10 mm diameter and (A) Q  Q1  Q2  Q3 , hL  hL1  hL2  hL3
250 m long smooth pipe at an average
velocity of 0.1 m/s. The density and the (B) Q  Q1  Q2  Q3 , hL  hL1  hL2  hL3

Fluid Mechanics 1
 (C) Q  Q1  Q2  Q3 , hL  hL1  hL2  hL3
(D) Q  Q1  Q2  Q3 , hL  hL1  hL2  hL3
7.9 The head loss for a laminar incompressi-ble
flow through a horizontal circular pipe is h1 .
Pipe length and fluid remain-ing the same, if
the average flow velocity doubles and the
pipe diameter reduces to half its previous
value, the head loss is h2 . The ratio h2 / h1 is
[2 Marks]
pipes are of equal length and the flow is
turbulent in both pipes. The friction factor
for turbulent flow though pipes is of the
form, f  K (Re) n , where K and n are
known positive constants and Re is the
Reynolds number. Neglecting minor losses,
the ratio of the frictional pressure drop in
 p 
pipe 1 to that in pipe 2.  1  is given by
  p2 
[2 Marks]
(5  n ) 5

(A) 1 (B) 4 d  d 
(A)  2  (B)  2 
(C) 8 (D) 16  d1   d1 
7.10 For a fully developed laminar flow of water (3 n ) (5  n )
d  d 
(dynamic viscosity 0.001 Pa-s ) through a (C)  2  (D)  2 
 d1   d1 
pipe radius 5 cm , the axial pressure gradient
is -10Pa/m . The magnitude of axial velocity 7.14 Oil (kinematic viscosity,  oil  1.0 105
(in m/s ) at a radial location of 0.2 cm is m 2 /s ) flow through a pipe of 0.5 m diameter
_______. with a velocity of 10 m/s . Water (kinematic
[2 Marks] viscosity  w  0.89 106 m 2 /s ) is flowing
2016 IISc Bangalore through a model pipe of diameter 20 mm.
For satisfying the dynamic similarity, the
7.11 The instantaneous stream-wise velocity of a
turbulent flow is given as follows : velocity of water (in m/s ) is _______.
u ( x, y, z, t )  u ( x, y, z )  u '( x, y, z, t ) [2 Marks]
The time-average of the fluctuation velocity 7.15 Consider a fully developed steady laminar
u '( x, y , z , t ) is [1 Mark] flow of an incompressible fluid with
viscosity  through a circular pipe of radius
u' u
(A) (B) R. Given that the velocity at a radial location
2 2
R
u of from the centerline of the pipe is U1 ,
(C) Zero (D) 2
2
K U1
7.12 Water (density  1000 kg/m3 ) at ambient the shear stress at the wall is , where
R
temperature flows through a horizontal pipe
K is _______.
of uniform cross section at the rate of 1 kg/s.
If the pressure drop across the pipe is 100 [2 Marks]
kPa, the minimum power required to pump 7.16 In a fully developed turbulent flow through
the water across the pipe in watts, is a circular pipe, a head loss of h1 is observed.
_______. [1 Mark] The diameter of the pipe is increased by 10%
7.13 Consider steady flow of an incompressible for the same flow rate and a head loss of h2
fluid through two long and straight pipes of
is noted. Assume friction factor for both
diameters d1 and d 2 arranged in series. Both

2 Fluid Mechanics
 cases of pipe flow is the same. The ratio of 7.20 Consider steady, viscous, fully developed
h2 flow of a fluid through a circular pipe of
is closet to
h1 internal diameter D. We know that the
velocity profile forms a paraboloid about the
[2 Marks]
pipe centre line, given by :
(A) 0.34 (B) 0.62 [2 Marks]
(C) 0.87 (D) 1.00
 2 D2 
V  C  r   m/s,
2017 IIT Roorkee  4 
7.17 For steady flow of a viscous incompressible where C is a constant. The rate of kinetic
fluid through a circular pipe of constant energy (in J/s) at the control surface A-B, as
diameter, the average velocity in the fully shown in the figure, is proportional to D n .
developed region is constant. Which one of The value of n is _______.
the following statements about the average
velocity in the developing region is TRUE?
[1 Mark]
(A) It increases until the flow is fully
developed.
(B) It is constant and is equal to the average 2021 IIT Bombay
velocity in the fully developed region. 7.21 Consider fully developed, steady state
(C) It decreases until the flow is fully incompressible laminar flow of a viscous
developed. fluid between two large parallel horizontal
(D) It is constant but is always lower than the plates. The bottom plate is fixed and the top
average velocity in the fully developed plate moves with a constant velocity of
region. U  4m/s. Separation between the plates is
2019 IIT Madras 5 mm . There is no pressure gradient in the

7.18 Water flows through two different pipes A direction of flow. The density of fluid is
and B of the same circular cross-section but 800 kg/m3 , and the kinematic viscosity is
at different flow rates. The length of pipe A 1.25 104 m2 /s . The average shear stress in
is 1.0 m and that of pipe B is 2.0 m. The the fluid is ________ Pa (round off to the
flow in both the pipes is laminar and fully nearest integer). [2 Marks]
developed. If the frictional head loss across 7.22 Which of the following is responsible for
the length of the pipes is same, the ratio of eddy viscosity (or turbulent viscosity) in a
volume flow rates QB / QA is _____ (round turbulent boundary layer on a flat plate ?
off to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
[2 Marks] (A) Reynolds stresses
2020 IIT Delhi (B) Nikuradse stresses
(C) Prandtl stresses
7.19 Froude number is the ratio of [1 Mark]
(D) Boussinesq stresses
(A) Buoyancy force to inertia force
(B) Inertia force to viscous force 2023 IIT Kanpur
(C) Buoyancy force to viscous force
(D) Inertia force to gravity force
Fluid Mechanics 3
 5
7.23 Air (density 1.2 Kg/m3,   1.5 10 m /s )
2
(A) w / 2 (B) 2  w
flow over a flat plate with a free stream w
velocity of 2 m/s. the wall shear stress of a (C) 2w (D)
2
Location 15 mm from the leading, edge is  w
. What is the wall shear stress of a location
30 mm from the leading edge?

7.1 (A)
Relationship between pressure gradient and wall
shear stress in pipe flow,
r  p  D  p  pD
w       
2  x  4  L  4L
Hence, the correct option is (A).
R p
 Key Point R     w
2 x
Hagen poissullie flow :
7.2 (D)
For turbulent flow, Re  2300
Turbulent flow is considered as well mixed flow.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Equation of motion,
F  ma 7.3 636.9

u u u u Given : Radius (r )  10 mm
ax  u v  Diameter (d )  2 10  20 mm  0.2 m
t x y z
kg 36
ax  0 Mass (m)  36   0.01kg/s
hr 3600
u Viscosity ()  0.001kg/ms
( Flow is steady so,  0 and uniform so all
t Vd
convective acceleration = 0) Reynold number, Re 

So, F  0 From continuity equation, m  AV
 p  m m 4m
Now, pdA   p  dx  dA   2rdx  0 V   2
 x  A  d 2 d 
p 4
  dxdA   2rdx d 4m 4m
x  Re   2 
 d  d
p 
  dx   r 2   2rdx 4  0.01
x 4 Re   636.94
3.14  0.001 0.02
r p
  Hence, the Reynolds number of the flow is 636.94.
2 dx

4 Fluid Mechanics
 7.4 0.064 Average velocity of fluid (U )  1 m/s
Given : Diameter of pipe (d )  10 cm  0.1 m Characteristic diameter of a duct is given by,
Kinematic viscosity (v)  10 5 m2 /s 4A 4bt
D 
Velocity (V )  0.1 m/s P 2(b  t )
4(0.025  0.015)
Reynold number is given by, D  0.0187 m
Vd 0.1 0.1 2(0.025  0.015)
Re    1000
v 105 The pressure drop in a duct is given by,
Hence, flow is laminar. p 32U

Now, Darcy friction factor for laminar flow is L D2
given by, p 32  2 105 1
64 64   1.83Pa/m
f    0.064 L 0.0187 2
Re 1000 Hence, the pressure drop in the fully developed
Hence, the value of Darcy friction factor is 0.064. region per meter length of the duct is 1.83 Pa/m.
7.5 6840
Given :
Diameter of pipe ( D)  10 mm  0.01 m
7.7 (D)
Length of pipe ( L)  250 m
Density of water ()  997 kg/m3 Given : Diameter of first pipe (d1 )  d m

Viscosity of water ()  855 10 6 Ns/m2 Length of first pipe ( L1 )  L m

Average velocity (V )  0.1 m/s Diameter of second pipe (d2 ) 
d
m
The pressure drop in a pipe is given by, 2
VD 997  0.1 0.01 Length of second pipe ( L2 )  2L m
Re    1166.08
 855 10 6 Mass flow rate is given by,

So, flow is laminar pressure drop in the pipe, m  aV   d 2V
32UL 4
p  4m
D2 V
d 2
32  0.1 855 10 6  250
p  Head loss due to friction is given by,
(0.01)2
fLV 2 fL 8m2
p  6840 Pa hf    2 2 4
2 gd gd   d
Hence, the pressure drop in the pipe is 6840 Pa.
L
hf 
d5
L1 L
So, h f1  C  5
C 5 …(i)
d1 d
7.6 1.83
L2 2L
Given : Width of duct (b)  25 mm  0.025 m Similarly, h f2  C  5
 C 5 …(ii)
d2 d 
Thickness of duct (t )  15 mm  0.015 m  
2
Viscosity of fluid ()  2 10 5 kg/m s Hence taking the ratio of two different pipes.
Density of fluid ()  1 kg/m3 Now from equation (i) and (ii),

Fluid Mechanics 5
 h f1 L1 d 25 L d  1
5 h2
  5    5 
1 8
h f2 L2 d1 2 L  2  d 64 h1

h f2  64 h f1 Hence, the correct option is (C).

Hence, the correct option is (D). 7.10 6.24

7.8 (B) Given : Dynamic viscosity ()  0.001 Pa-s

According to question, Radius of pipe ( R)  5 cm  0.05 m

 p 
Axial pressure gradient    10 Pa/m
 x 

For laminar flow through pipe velocity at any

radius r is given by,
From figure, Q  Q1  Q2  Q3 1  p 
u    [R2  r 2 ]
p 4  x 
and we know that, h 
g u
1
(10)[0.0502  0.0022 ]
As such  p is small for all three pipes,
4  0.001
u  6.24 m/s
hL  hL1  hL2  hL3 Hence, the magnitude of axial velocity at a radial
Hence, the correct option is (B). location of 0.2 cm is 6.24 m/s.

7.9 (C)
Given : Diameter of first pipe (d1 )  d m
Length of first pipe ( L1 )  L m 7.11 (C)

d According to question, instantaneous stream-wise

Diameter of second pipe (d2 )  m velocity
2 = Mean velocity + Fluctuation velocity
Length of second pipe ( L2 )  L m u ( x, y, z, t )  u ( x, y, z )  u '( x, y, z, t )
Average velocity in first pipe (U1 )  u m/s
Average velocity in second pipe (U 2 )  2u m/s
Head loss is given by,
T
32U1L1 32uL 1
T 0
h1   Since, u udT
gd12 gd 2
T T
u ' dT    u  u  dT
32U 2 L2 32  2u  L 1 1
and h2    u' 
T 0 T 0
gd 22 d 
2

g   T T
2 1 1
u '   udT   udT
Taking the ratio, we have T 0 T 0
u'  u u = 0

6 Fluid Mechanics
Hence, the correct option is (C).
7.14 22.25
7.12 100 Given :
Given : Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3 Kinematic viscosity of oil ( oil )  1.0 105 m 2 /s
Pressure drop in pipe (p)  100 kPa Diameter of pipe ( D )  0.5 m
Mass flow rate (m)  1 kg/s Velocity of oil (V )  10 m / s
Minimum power required is given by,
Kinematic viscosity of water
p
 mgh f  mg  ( w )  0.89 106 m2 /s
g
1100 1000 Diameter of model pipe ( Dm )  0.02 m
  100 Watts
1000 For satisfying dynamic similarity,
Hence, the minimum power required to pump the
(Re1 )flow pipe  (Re2 ) model pipe
water across the pipe in watts is 100 Watts.
 VD   VD 
   
  flow pipe   model pipe
10  0.5 V  0.02
 m
7.13 (A) 1.0 10 5
0.89 106
Given : Diameter of pipe 1 = d1 Vm  22.25 m/s
Diameter of pipe 2  d2 Hence, the velocity of water is 22.25 m/s.

Friction factor ( f )  K (Re) n 7.15 2.66

p1 gh f1 h f1 Given : For fully developed laminar flow we have

  equation,
p2 gh f 2 h f 2
  p   R  r 
2 2

p1  f l V   2 gd 2 
2 ur    
 
11 1
  x   4 
p2  2 gd1   f 2l2V22 

p1  8 f1l1Q 2  gd 25 
  
p2  gd15  8 f 2l2Q 2 
R
p1 f1 d25 Re1 n d 25 Here at r  ,
  2
p2 f 2 d15 Re 2 n d15
 2  R 2 
Vd 4Qg  R   
where, Re     p   2 
 d  U1    
 x   4 
1
Re  3 2
R 
d   p   4
U1    
Putting the above value, we get  x   4 
5 n
p1 d 2 n d 25  d 2    p   3 R 
2
   U1   …(i)
p2 d1 n d15  d1   
 x   16  
Hence, the correct option is (A). Wall shear stress has been defined as,
  p   R 
  
 x   2 
Fluid Mechanics 7
   p  7.17 (B)
Putting value of   from equation (i),
 x  As the pipe is of uniform diameter and a flow is
16U1 R 8U1 steady incompressible, discharge remains
   …(ii)
3R2 2 3R constant. As diameter is constant, average velocity
K U1 is constant.
and   …(iii)
R Hence, the correct option is (B).
From equation (ii) and (iii), 7.18 0.5
K  2.66
Given : Length of pipe A, ( LA )  1 m
Hence, the value of constant K is 2.66.
Length of pipe B, ( LB )  2 m
According to Hagen Poisulli’s equations,
32 VL
hf 
gD 2
7.16 (B)
Since, for both the pipes h f is constant.
Given : Diameter of pipe in 1st case (d1 )  d
 h fA  h fB
Diameter of pipe in 2nd case (d 2 )  1.1 d
32 VA LA 32 VB LB
Head loss in pipe due to turbulent flow is given 
g DA2 g DB2
by,
VB DB2 LA
fLV 2   …(i)
h VA DA2 LB
2 gd
Q  AV
Q Q 4Q
Where, V    2 Q
A  d 2 d V
 2
4 D
2
4
 4Q  Now, from equation (i),
fL 
 d12  16 Q 2 f  L  QB
Now, h1   2
2d1 g   2 g  d15   2
DB
4 DB2 LA
When the diameter of pipe increase by 10%,  2
QA DA LB
d 2  1.1 d1
 2
DA
16Q 2 f  L  4
h2  2
  2 g  (1.1d1 )5  QB LA 1
   0.5 ( Given DA  DB )
According to question, QA LB 2
16 Q 2 f  L  Hence, the ratio of volume flow rates QB / QA is
h2 2 2 g  (1.1d1 )5  0.5.

h1 16 Q 2 f  L 
7.19 (D)
2  2 g  d15 
Inertia force
h2 d15 1 Froude number 
   0.6209 Gravity force
h1 (1.1 d1 ) 5
1.15
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence the correct option is (B).

8 Fluid Mechanics
 7.20 (B) For plane Coutte flow linearization of Newton’s
law of viscosity is used
 D2 
Given : V   C  r 2   m/s 
du

U
   v 
 4  dy t
 D2 
  800 1.25 104  
V  C  r2     C (r  R )
2 2 4
 4  5 103
 r2    80 Pa
V  C ( R  r )  CR 1  2 
2 2 2

 R  Hence, the average shear stress in the fluid is 80

R
1 Pa.
KE 
20 V 3dA
7.22 (A)
3
R
 r  2
Reynold stresses is responsible for eddy viscosity
KE   C 3 R 6 1  2   2r dr
0
 R  (turbulent viscosity) in a turbulent layer on a flat
3 plate.
 r2  R
KE  C R 2 1  2  dr
3 6
Hence, the correct option is (A).
0
 R 
7.23 (D)
 r 3r  r  
R 6 2 2
KE  C 3 R6 2 1  6  2 1  2   r dr u  L 2  0.03
0
R R  R  Re  
 1.5 105
R
 r 6 3r 2 3r 4  Re  4000  5  105
KE  C 3 R 6 2  1  6  2  4  r dr
0
 R R R 
 R 2 R 2 3R 2 R 2 
KE  C R 2  
3 6
  
 2 8 4 2
 R 2 3R 2 
KE  C 3 R6 2  R 2  
 8 4 
 R2 
KE  C R 2  
3 6

8 
1 1
C 3 2 8 C 3 2 w2  x  2  15  2
KE  R   D8  1   
8 8  28 w1  x2   30 
n 8
w1
Hence, the value of n is 8. w2 
2
7.21 80
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Given :
  800 kg/m3 , v  1.25 104 m2 /s, 
3
t  5mm  5 10 m
U  4 m/s

t  5 mm
y0

Fluid Mechanics 9
8 Boundary Layer Theory

2014 IIT Kharagpur   y   y 2 

u  U 0 2       .
8.1 Consider laminar flow of water over a flat        
plate of length 1 m. If the boundary layer
thickness at a distance of 0.25 m from the
leading edge of the plate is 8 mm, the
boundary layer thickness (in mm), at a
distance of 0.75 m, is ______.
[2 Marks]

2015 IIT Kanpur The ratio of the mass flow rate mbd , leaving

8.2 The Blasius equation related to boundary through the horizontal section b-d to that
layer theory is [1 Mark] entering through the vertical section a-b is
(A) third order linear partial differential _______. [2 Marks]
equation. 2017 IIT Roorkee
(B) third order non-linear partial
8.5 Consider a laminar flow at zero incidence
differential equation.
over a flat plate. The shear stress at the wall
(C) second order non-linear ordinary
is denoted by  w . The axial positions x1 and
differential equation.
(D) third order non-linear ordinary x2 on the plate are measured from the leading
differential equation. edge in the direction of flow. If x2  x1 then
8.3 Air ( 1.2 kg/m and kinematic viscosity,
3
[1 Mark]
v  2 105 m2 /s ) with a velocity of 2 m/s
(A) w x1
 w x2
0
flows over the top surface of a flat plate of
length 2.5 m . If the average value of friction (B) w x1
 w x2
0
1.328
coefficient is C f  . (C) w x1
 w x2
Re x
The total drag force (in N) per unit width of (D) w x1
 w x2
the plate is _______. [2 Marks]
8.6 The velocity profile inside the boundary
2016 IISc Bangalore layer for flow over a flat plate is given as
u  y
8.4 A steady laminar boundary layer is formed  sin   , where U  is the free
over a flat plate as shown in the figure. The U 2 
free stream velocity of the fluid is U 0 . The stream velocity and  is the local boundary
layer thickness. If  * is the local
velocity profile at the inlet a-b is uniform,
while that at a downstream location c-d is *
displacement thickness, the value of is
given by, 
[2 Marks]
Fluid Mechanics 1
 2 2 2021 IIT Bombay
(A) (B) 1
 
8.10 A high velocity water jet of cross section
2
(C) 1 (D) 0 area = 0.01 m2 and velocity = 35 m/s enters
 a pipe filled with stagnant water. The
8.7 For the laminar flow of water over a sphere,
diameter of the pipe is 0.32 m. This high
the drag coefficient C F is defined as
velocity water jet entrains additional water
F from the pipe and the total water leaves the
CF  , where F is the drag force,
(U 2 D 2 ) pipe with a velocity of 6 m/s as shown in the
 is the fluid density, U is the fluid velocity figure.
Pipe
and D is the diameter of the sphere. The Entrained
density of water is 1000 kg/m3 . When the water
Total water
Inlet jet out flow
diameter of the sphere is 100 mm and the 35 m/s at uniform
velocity 6 m/s
fluid velocity is 2 m/s, the drag coefficient is Entrained
water
0.5. If water now flows over another sphere
of diameter 200 mm under dynamically The flow rate of entrained water is
similar conditions, the drag force (in N) on ___________ litres/s (round off to two
this sphere is ______. [2 Marks] decimal places). [2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
2018 IIT Guwahati
8.8 The viscous laminar flow of air over a flat 8.11 A solid spherical bead of lead (uniform
plate results in the formation of a boundary density = 11000 kg/m3) of diameter d = 0.1
layer. The boundary layer thickness at the mm sinks with a constant velocity V in a
end of the plate of length L is  L . When the large stagnant pool of a liquid (dynamic
plate length is increased to twice its original viscosity  1.1103 kg  m1  s 1 ). The
length, the percentage change in laminar 24
coefficient of drag is given by cD  ,
boundary layer thickness at the end of the Re
plate (with respect to  L ) is ______ (correct where the Reynolds number (Re) is defined
to two decimal places). [1 Mark] on the basis of the diameter of the bead. The
drag force acting on the bead is expressed as
2019 IIT Madras
 d 2 
8.9 The aerodynamic drag on a sports can D  (cD )(0.5V ) 
2
 , where  is the
depends on its shape. The car has a drag  4 
coefficient of 0.1 with the windows and the density of the liquid. Neglect the buoyancy
roof closed. With the windows and the roof force. Using g  10 m/s2 , the velocity V is
open, the drag coefficient becomes 0.8. The __________ m/s. [2 Marks]
car travels at 44 km/h with the windows and 1 1
roof closed. For the same amount of power (A) (B)
24 6
needed to overcome the aerodynamic drag,
the speed of the car with the windows and 1 1
(C) (D)
roof open (round off to two decimal places), 18 12
is ______ km/h (the density of air and the
frontal area may be assumed to be constant).
[2 Marks]

2 Fluid Mechanics
 8.1 13.86
Given : Length of plate ( L)  1 m
Distance from leading edge ( x1 )  0.25 m
Distance from leading edge ( x2 )  0.75 m
Average shear stress is given by,
Boundary layer thickness (1 )  8 mm
U 2 1.328 U 2
  Cf   
For laminar flow over a flat plate, 2 Re L 2
 5 5
 1/2
 1/2
Drag force is given by,
x (Re x )  Vx  Fd    A
  
 
1.328 U 2
 Constant Fd   A
  ( , V &  are constant) Re L 2
x x
 1.328 1.2  22
 Constant Fd    (2.5 1)
x 2.5 105 2

1  Fd  0.0159 N
 2
x1 x2 Hence, the total drag force per unit width of the
plate is 0.0159 N.
x2 0.75
2  1   8  13.86 mm
x1 0.25
Hence, the boundary layer thickness at a distance
of 0.75 m is 13.86 mm. 8.4 0.33
8.2 (D) According to question, mass flow rate through
Blasius equation of boundary layer theory is a section ab,
third order non-linear ordinary differential mab   A V
equation. mab   (1) U 0 (Unit width b = 1)
Hence, the correct option is (D). mab  U0 …(i)
8.3 0.0159 Mass flow rate through section dc,

Given : Density of air ()  1.2 kg/m3 mdc    dy 1 u
0

Kinematic viscosity (v)  2 10 5 m2 /s    y   y 2 

mdc    U 0  2       dy
Velocity (U )  2 m/s 0
       
Length of plate ( L)  2.5 m 
 2 y 2 y3 
Reynold number at the plate end is, mdc   U 0   2
  2 3 0
UL 2  2.5
ReL   5
 2.5 105   2 3 
v 2 10 mdc   U 0   2 
  3 
  2
mdc   U 0      U 0 …(ii)
 3 3

Fluid Mechanics 3
 
From conservation of mass,    y 
*   1  sin    dy
mab  mcd  mbd  2  
0
mab  mcd = mbd 
 2   y  2
2    y   cos       
*

U 0  U 0  mbd    2  0 

3
* 2
1
m  U 0  1
3  
mbd 1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Here the ratio    0.33
mab 3 8.7 20
Hence, the vertical section a-b is 0.33. Given : Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3
For case 1 :
Velocity (V1 )  2 m/s
Drag coefficient for small sphere (C f1 )  0.5
8.5 (C)
Diameter of small sphere ( D1 )  100 mm
According to question,
For case 2 :
Diameter of large sphere ( D2 )  200 mm
Given that the condition is dynamic similarity, and
in the given condition, Inertia and viscous force
plays major role, hence Reynold’s number should
u 3 y
Assuming,    be same for both the spheres.
U 2   
So, Re1  Re2
Note : It is assumed only to explain the concept.
V1 D1 V2 D2
 du  3U  
We know,  w       
 dy  y 0 2 1000  2 100 1000  V2  200

4.65 x  
Where,    x
Re x V2  1m/s
1 Therefore drag force on the second sphere
We get,  w 
x F2  C f 2 (V2 2 D2 2 ) ( C f1  C f2 )
Hence, as x increase  w decreases. F2  0.5(1000 12  0.22 )  20 N
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the drag force on this sphere is 20 N.
8.6 (B)
Given :
 u   y
Velocity distribution    sin   8.8 41.4
 U  2 
Given :
Displacment thickness is given by,
 For case 1 :
 u 
   1 
*
dy Length of the plate ( L1 )  L
0
U 
Boundary layer thickness (1 )  

4 Fluid Mechanics
For case 2 :
Length of the plate ( L2 )  2L 8.10 132.548
1 Given :
2  L2  2
   aJ  0.01 m2 , vJ  35 m/sec, d  0.32 m
1  L1 
1 v  6 m/sec
2  2L  2
 
  L  Inlet jet
m J
2  2  
 total
m
  2    
m
 % change  2 1  35 m/s 6 m/s
1  Entrained water
Total output
% change  1.414 1  0.414  41.4%
Hence, the percentage change in laminar boundary mJ  m  mtotal
layer thickness at the end of the plate (with respect QJ  Q  Qtotal
to  L ) is 41.4%.
Q  Qtotal  QJ
8.9 22

Q (0.32)2  6  0.01 35
Given : 4
For the windows and the roof closed : Q  0.13254 m3 /sec
Drag coefficient (CD1 )  0.1
Q  (0.13254 1000) lit/sec
Speed of the car (U1 )  44 km/h
Q  132.548 lit/sec
For the windows and the roof open :
Hence, the flow rate of entrained water is 132.548
Drag coefficient (CD 2 )  0.8 litres/s.
1 8.11 (C)
As we know, power P  CD  U 3  A
2
Given :
For same power, density and frontal area for both
the cases will be same. Density of spherical bead,
 (Power)1  (Power)2 ( spherical bead )  11000 kg/m 3
1 1 Diameter, (d )  0.1 mm
CD1 1 AU
1 1  CD 2
3
2 A2U 23
2 2
( 1  2 , A1  A2 ) Dynamic viscosity, ()  1.1103 kg/m-sec
24
Coefficient of drag,  CD  
3 3
 U2  CD1  U  0.1
    2  Re
 U1  CD 2  44  0.8
Neglect Buoyancy force ( FB  0)
44
U2   22 km/h
2  d 2 
Hence, the speed of the car with the windows and FD  CD  0.5 3V  2

 4 
roof open is 22 km/h.
FD  FB  Weigth of spherical bead

Fluid Mechanics 5
 d 2 4  d 
3

CD  0.5 water  V 
2
   spherical bead g
4 3 2

24 d 2 4  d 
 0.5 water  V 2      spherical bead  g
waterVd 4 3 2

24 1.110 3 
3
 0.5   (0.110 3 ) 2  V
0.110 4
3
4  0.110 3 
     11000 10
3  2 
264  0.5  V  7.85 10 9  5.75 10 8
1
V m/sec  0.055 m/sec
18
Hence, the correct option is (C).



6 Fluid Mechanics
9 Hydraulic Machines

2013 IIT Bombay

9.1 In order to have maximum power from a
Pelton turbine, the bucket speed must be
[1 Mark]
(A) Equal to the jet speed.
(B) Equal to half of the jet speed.
(C) Equal to twice the jet speed. 2015 IIT Kanpur
(D) Independent of the jet speed. 9.5 Which of the following statements are
2014 IIT Kharagpur TRUE, when the cavitation parameter
  0? [2 Marks]
9.2 Kaplan water turbine commonly used when
the flow through its runner is i. The local pressure is reduced to vapor
[1 Mark] pressure
(A) Axial and the head available is more than ii. Cavitation starts
100 m iii. Boiling of liquid starts
(B) Axial and the head available is less than iv. Cavitation stops
10 m (A) i, ii and iv (B) only ii and iii
(C) Radial and the head available is more (C) only i and iii (D) i, ii and iii
than 100 m
(D) Mixed and the head available is about 50 2016 IISc Bangalore
m 9.6 Consider two hydraulic turbines having
9.3 An ideal water jet with volume flow rate of identical specific speed and effective head at
0.05 m3/s strikes a flat plate placed normal to the inlet. If the speed ratio ( N1 / N 2 ) of the
its path and exerts a force of 1000 N.
two turbines is 2, then the respective power
Considering the density of water as 1000
kg/m3, the diameter (in mm) of the water jet ratio ( P1 / P2 ) is _______. [1 Mark]
is _______. [2 Marks] 9.7 The blade and fluid velocities for an axial
9.4 At the inlet of an axial impulse turbine rotor, turbine are as shown in the figure.
the blade linear speed is 25 m/s, the
magnitude of absolute velocity is 100 m/s
and the angle between them is 250 . The
relative velocity and the axial component of
velocity remain the same between the inlet
and outlet of the blades. The blade inlet and
outlet velocity triangles are shown in figure. The magnitude of absolute velocity at entry
Assuming no losses, the specific work (in
is 300 m/s at an angle of 650 to the axial
J/kg) is ________. [2 Marks]
direction, while the magnitude of the
absolute velocity at exit is 150 m/s. The exit

Fluid Mechanics 1
 velocity vector has a components in the
downward direction. Given that the axial
(horizontal) velocity is the same at entry and
exit, the specific work (in kJ/kg) is _______.
[1 Mark]
2017 IIT Roorkee
9.8 Which one the following NOT a rotating
machine? [1 Mark]
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Gear pump
(C) Jet pump
(D) Vane pump
9.9 Which one of the following statements is
TRUE? [1 Mark]
(A) Both Pelton and Francis turbines are
impulse turbines
(B) Francis turbine is a reaction turbine but
Kaplan turbine is an impulse turbine.
(C) Francis turbine is an axial-flow reaction
turbine.
(D) Kaplan turbine is an axial-flow reaction
turbine.
9.10 A 60 mm-diameter water jet strikes a plate
containing a hole of 40 mm diameter as
shown in the figure. Part of the jet passes
through the hole horizontally and remaining
is deflected vertically. The density of water
is 1000 kg/m3. If velocities are as indicated
in the figure, the magnitude of horizontal
force (in N) required to hold the plate is
______. [2 Marks]
2 Fluid Mechanics
2018 IIT Guwahati
9.11 For a Pelton wheel with given water jet
velocity, the maximum output power from
the Pelton wheel is obtained when the ratio
of the bucket speed to the water jet speed is
______. (correct to two decimal places)
[1 Mark]
9.12 A sprinkler shown in the figure rotates about
its hinge point in a horizontal plane due to
water flow discharged through its two exit
nozzles.
The total flow rate Q through the sprinkler
is 1 litre/sec and the cross-sectional area of
each exit nozzle is 1cm 2 . Assuming equal
flow rate through both arms and a
frictionless hinge, the steady state angular
speed of rotation (in rad/s) of the sprinkler is
______ (correct to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
9.13 A test is conducted on a one fifth scale model
of a Francis turbine under a head of 2 m and
volumetric flow rate of 1m3 /s at 450 rpm.
Take the water density and the acceleration
due to gravity as 103 kg/m3 and 10 m/s2 ,
respectively. Assume no losses both in
model and prototype turbine. The power (in
MW) of a full sized turbine while working
under a head of 30 m is _____ (correct to two
decimal place). [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
9.14 As per common design practice, three types
of hydraulic turbines in decreasing order of
flow rate are [1 Mark]
(A) Pelton, Francis, Kaplan
(B) Francis, Pelton, Kaplan
(C) Kaplan, Francis, Pelton
(D) Francis, Kaplan, Pelton
9.15 An idealized centrifugal pump (blade outer
radius of 50 mm) consumes 2 kW power
 while running at 3000 rpm. The entry of the
liquid into the pump is axial and exit from D
the pump is radial with respect to impeller. If
the losses are neglected, then the mass flow
rate of the liquid through the pump is _____
kg/s (round off to two decimal places).
Spring constant, k
[2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi If the spring shows a steady deflection of 1
cm upon impingement of jet, then the
9.16 The value of enthalpies at the stator inlet and
velocity of the incoming jet is _________
rotor outlet of a hydraulic turbomachine
stage are h1 and h3 respectively, the enthalpy m/s. (round off to one decimal place ).
[1 Mark]
at the stator outlet (or, rotor inlet) is h2 . The
9.19 A single jet Pelton wheel operates at 300
condition (h2  h1 )  (h3  h2 ) indicates that rpm. The mean diameter of the wheel is 2 m.
the degree of reaction of this stage is Operating head and dimensions of jet are
[1 Mark]
such that water comes out of the jet with a
(A) 75% (B) 50%
velocity of 40 m/s and flow rate of
(C) Zero (D) 100%
5m3 / sec . The jet is deflected by the bucket
9.17 For a Kaplan axial flow turbine, outlet blade
velocity diagram at a section is shown in at an angle of 1650. Neglecting all losses, the
figure power developed by the Pelton wheel is
________MW (round off to two decimal
places). [2 Marks]
9.20 A vertical shaft Francis turbine rotates at
300 rpm. The available head at the inlet to
the turbine is 200 m. The tip speed of the
rotor is 40 m/s. Water leaves the runner of
The diameter at this section is 3 m. The hub the turbine without whirl. Velocity at the
and tip diameter of the blade are 2 m and 4 exit of the draft tube is 3.5 m/s. The head
m respectively. The water volume flow rate losses in different components of the
is 100 m3 /s . The rotational speed of the turbine are : (i) stator and guide vanes: 5.0
turbine is 300 rpm. The blade outlet angle ( m, (ii) rotor: 10 m, and (iii) draft tube: 2
 ) is ______ degree (round off to one m. Flow rate through the turbine is 20 m3/s.
decimal place). [2 Marks] Take g  9.8 m/s2 . The hydraulic
2021 IIT Bombay efficiency of the turbine is ___________
9.18 A cylindrical jet of water (density = 1000 % (round off to one decimal
kg/m3) impinges at the center of a flat, place). [1 Mark]
circular plate and spreads radially outward,
as shown in figure. The plate is resting on a
linear spring with a spring constant k = l
kN/m. The incoming jet diameter is D =
1cm.

Fluid Mechanics 3
 9.1 (B) Hence, the correct option is (B).
For a particular blade, 9.3 56.4
wheel  f (ks ) Given : An ideal water jet,
Where, ks  Speed ratio  u / V1  Volume flow rate (Q)  0.05 m3 /s
u  u Force on plate ( Fx )  1000 N
wheel  2   1 (1  k cos 2 )
V1  V1  Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3
(k  Blade factor)
In order to have maximum efficiency,
d wheel
0
dks
d
 2ks (1  ks )(1  k cos 2 )
d (ks )
2(1  k cos 2 )(1  2ks )  0
(1  2ks )  0 Assuming plate is fixed, force on plate is given by,
1 F  AV 2  QV
ks 
2 Now, by continuity equation,
u 1 Q  AV

V1 2 
0.05   d 2  20
V1 4
Bucket speed (u)  d  0.056 m  56.4 mm
2
Hence, the diameter of the water jet is 56.4 mm.
Where, V1  Jet speed.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 9.4 3280
Given : Blade linear speed (u )  25 m/s
9.2 (B)
Absolute velocity at inlet (V1 )  100 m/s
1. High head turbine (if H  250 m ) :
Nozzle angle (1 )  250
If head available is above 250 m such
turbine is called high head turbine. Relative velocity at inlet and outlet
Example : Pelton turbine. (Vr1 )  (Vr2 )  78 m/s
2. Medium heat turbine : Axial component of velocity remain same
If head available is in between 250 to 60 (V f1 )  V f 2
then such type of turbine is called medium Absolute velocity of outlet (V2 )  58.6 m/s
head turbine. Velocity (Vw ) is given by,
1
Example : Francis turbine.
Vw1  V1  cos 1
3. Low head turbine :
Vw1  100  cos 25  90.36 m/s
If head available is less than 60 m this type
of turbine is called low head turbine.
Example : Kaplan turbine and propeller.

4 Fluid Mechanics
  (Specific speed)1  (Specific speed)2
N1 P1 N 2 P2

H15/4 H 25/4
N1 P1  N2 P2 ( H1  H 2 )
2
P1  N 2   1 
2
1
    
P2  N1   2  4

Axial component of velocity is given by, Hence, the respective power ratio ( P1 / P2 ) is 1/4.
Vf Vf
sin 1  1  2 9.7 52.80
V1 V1
According to question,
(Since, the flow velocities are equal)
Vf
sin 250  2
100
V f2  42.26 m/s
Whirl component of velocity (Vw ) is given by,
2

Vw2  V22  V f22

Axial (horizontal) velocity is same at entry and
Vw2  58.62  42.262  40.59 m/s
exit (given condition),
Specific work is given by, V f1  V f2
w  (Vw1  Vw2 )u
126.78  V2 cos 2
w  (90.63  40.59)  25  3280.5 J/kg
126.78  150cos 2
Hence, the specific work is 3280.5 J/kg.
 2  32.300
So, Vw2  V2 sin  2
Vw2  150sin(32.300 )  80.15 m/s
9.5 (D) Specific work is given by,
When the cavitation parameter,   0 w  (Vw1  Vw2 )  u
Then the local pressure is reduced to vapour w  (271.89  80.15) 150
pressure and because of this boiling of liquid starts w  52806  52.80 kJ/kg
and cavitation begins.
Hence, the specific work is 52.80 kJ/kg.
Statement (i), (ii) and (iii) is correct.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
9.6 1/4
Given : Turbines having equal specific speed 9.8 (C)
( N s1 )  N s2 In the given options all the pumps have rotating
Turbines having equal head ( H1 )  H 2 machine elements except jet pump.
Centrifugal pump : It has rotating part e.g.,
N 
Speed ratio,  1   2 impeller, Vane.
 N2 

Fluid Mechanics 5
 Gear pump : In this pump there is gear Hence, the magnitude of horizontal force required
mechanism which is rotating part. to hold the plate is 628.318 N.
Jet pump : Jet pump utilizes ejector principle 9.11 0.50
which have nozzle and diffuser not rotating parts.
For maximum power output in Pelton wheel is
given by,
Bucket speed (u ) 1
  0.50
Water jet speed (V1 ) 2
Hence, the ratio of the bucket speed to the water
jet speed is 0.50.
9.12 10
Figure shoes schematic diagram of jet pumps.
Vane pump : It consist of rotating disc which Given : Flow rate (Q)  1liter/s  110 3 m3 /s
called as rotor in which number of radial slots are Cross-sectional area of nozzle
there where sliding vanes is inserted. ( A)  1 cm2  110 4 m2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
9.9 (D)
Kaplan is an axial flow impulse reaction or
reaction turbine having adjustable moving blades.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
9.10 628.32 Relative velocities of water with sprinkler,
Q / 2 110 3
VA    5 m/s
A 2 10 4
 VB  5 m/s
Absolute velocity (B side),
VB'  VB  rB   5  0.1 
Absolute velocity (A side),
F  (Momentum)inlet  (Momentum)outlet
VA'  VA  rA   5  0.2 
F  (mV )in  (mV )out
By principle of conservation of angular
F  (QV )in  (QV )out momentum,
   mAVA' rA  mBVB' rB
F     ( D1 )2  V 2 
 4 in
Q Q
      (5  0.2) 0.2   (5  0.1)0.1
    ( D2 )2  V 2  2 2
 4 out
1  0.04   0.5  0.01   0
  
F   V    D12   D22 
2

4 4  0.05   0.5
     10 rad/s
F  1000  202   0.062   0.042 
4 4  Hence, the steady state angular speed of rotation
F  628.318 N of the sprinkler is 10 rad/s.

6 Fluid Mechanics
 9.14 (C)
QKaplan  QFrancis  QPelton

9.13 29.04
Hence, the correct option is (C).

D  1 9.15 8.1056
Given : Scale ratio  m  
 Dp  5 Given : Power consume ( P)  2 kW

Head of model ( H m )  2 m Blade outer radius ( R)  50 mm  0.05 m

Speed of the blade ( N )  3000 rpm
Flow rate of model (Q)  1 m3 /s
 Diameter of outer blade,
Speed of model ( Nm )  450 rpm D  2 R  2  0.05  0.1 m
Density of water ()  103 kg/m3 DN
u
Head of prototype ( H p )  30 m 60
 0.1 3000
Head coefficient is given by, u  15.708m/s
60
H H
k  For centrifugal pump,
D2 N 2 D2 N 2
p m
Power  Q (u 2 )
Hp Hm
 2 103  m (15.708)2
2 2
D N Dm2 N m2
p p m  8.1056 kg/s
2
D H Hence, the mass flow rate of the liquid through
N p2  m
2
 N m2  p
Dp Hm the pump is 8.1056 kg/s.
2
D  H
N p   m   p  N m2
 Dp  H m
2 9.16 (B)
 1  30
N p      4502  348.56 rpm Given : Enthalpy at the stator inlet  h1 ,
5 2
Again power coefficient is given by, Enthalpy at the stator outlet  h2
P P Enthalpy at the rotor outlet  h3
5 3
k  5 3
DN p DN m
Pp Pm
5 3

D N
p p Dm5 N m3
5 3
D  N 
Pp   p   p  (gQH )
 Dm   N m 
( Pm  gQH )
3
 348.56 
Pp  55     (10 10 1 2)
3
From the figure shown,
 450 
h h
Pp  29.04 MW Degree of reaction  2 3
h1  h3
Hence, the power of a full sized turbine while
working under a head of 30 m is 29.04 MW.
Fluid Mechanics 7
 Given condition, h2  h1  h3  h2   12.680
By observing the figure, Hence, the blade outlet angle (  ) is 12.680.
So, h1  h3  2(h2  h3 ) 9.18 11.283
h2  h3 Given :
D.O.R 
2(h2  h3 )   1000 kg/m3 , k  1 kN/m 1000 N/m
1
D.O.R   50%
2 1 1
D=1 cm= m , x=1 cm = m and v1  ?
Hence, the correct option is (B). 100 100
9.17 12.68
Given : Mean diameter ( Dmin )  3 m
Hub diameter ( Db )  2 m
Outer diameter ( D0 )  4 m
Volume flow rate (Q)  100 m3 /sec
Draw FBD of plate,
Discharge through runner is given by,
 1  Fimpact
mv

Q  A  C f  ( D02  Db2 )  C f
4

100  (42  22 )  C f
4 Spring = kx
Flow velocity (C f )  10.61 m/sec Balancing the force,
kx  mv1
According to figure,
kx  (w a j v1 )v1
10
v12 

1000  (10 2 )2
4
v1  11.283 m/s
Hence, the velocity of the incoming jet is
11.283 m/s.
Now, blade velocity is given by,
D  N 9.19 2.65
Cb  mean
60 Given :
 3  300 V1  40 m/s, Q  5 m3 /s,   1650 , N  300 rpm, D  2 m
Cb   47.12 m/sec
60
 42
 Dmean  
 2 
Cf
Therefore, tan  
Cb
10.61
tan    0.225
47.12
8 Fluid Mechanics
 Bucket Q (Vw1  Vw2 )u
Power in MW 
106
1000  5[40  23.127]  31.415
Jet 
106
 2.65 MW
Hence, the power developed by the Pelton wheel
At inlet : is 2.65 MW.
9.20 91.18

Given : N  300 rpm , H  200 m , g  9.8m/s 2 ,

(Flow rate) Q  20m3 /sec
u1  40 m/s , Vw2  0 and V  3.5 m/sec
DN  2  300
u  Losses :
60 60 Stator and Guide vanes  5 m
 31.415 m/sec Rotor = 10 m
Draft tube = 2 m
Vw1  V1  40 m/sec
Apply energy balance :
At exit:  Vw u1  3.52
200   1   (10  2  5) 
 g  2 g
Vw1 u1
 182.375 m
g
(V1 u1 )/ g
ny 
H
182.375
ny  100  91.18%
200
Hence, the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine is
91.18 %.
Blade are smooth so,
Vr1  Vr2  V1  u 

 40  31.415
 8.585 m/sec
Vw2  u  Vr2 cos 

 31.415  8.585cos150
 23.127 m/sec

Fluid Mechanics 9
Syllabus : Thermodynamics

Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic systems and processes; properties of pure substances,

behavior of ideal and real gases; zeroth and first laws of thermodynamics, calculation of work
and heat in various processes; second law of thermodynamics; thermodynamic property charts
and tables, availability and irreversibility; thermodynamic relations.
Applications : Power Engineering : Air and gas compressors; vapour and gas power cycles,
concepts of regeneration and reheat. I.C. Engines : Air-standard Otto, Diesel and dual cycles.
Contents : Thermodynamics

S. No. Topics
1. Thermodynamics System & Process
2. First Law of Thermodynamics
3. Second Law of Thermodynamics
4. Entropy
5. Availability & Irreversibility
6. Pure Substances
7. Steam Power Cycles
8. Gas Power Cycles
9. Internal Combustion Engine
1 Thermodynamics System & Process

2014 IIT Kharagpur gauge pressure indicated by a manometer

fitted to the wall of the vessel is 0.5 bar. If the
1.1 A certain amount of an ideal gas is initially
gas constant of air is R  287 J/kg K and the
at a pressure p1 and temperature T1.
atmospheric pressure is 1 bar, the mass of air
First, it undergoes a constant pressure (in kg) in the vessel is [2 Marks]
3T (A) 1.67 (B) 3.33
process 1-2 such that T2  1 . Then, it
4 (C) 5.00 (D) 6.66
undergoes a constant volume process 2-3
2019 IIT Madras
T
such that T3  1 . The ratio of the final 1.4 If one mole of H 2 gas is occupies a rigid
2
volume to the initial volume of the ideal gas container with a capacity of 1000 litres and
is [2 Marks] the temperature is raised from 27 0 C to
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.75 37 0 C , the change in pressure of the
(C) 1.0 (D) 1.5 contained gas (round off to two decimal
2016 IISc Bangalore places), assuming ideal gas behaviour is
______ Pa. [2 Marks]
1.2 Which of the following statements are
TRUE with respect to heat and work? 2022 IIT Kharagpur
[1 Mark] 1.5 A polytropic process is carried out from an
(i) They are boundary phenomena initial pressure of 110 kPa and volume of 5
(ii) They are exact differentials m3 to a final volume of 2.5 m3. The
(iii)They are path functions polytropic index is given by n = 1.2. The
(A) Both (i) and (ii) absolute value of the work done during the
(B) Both (i) and (iii) process is _______ kJ (round off to 2
(C) Both (ii) and (iii) decimal places). [1 Mark]
(D) Only (iii) 1.6 Which one of the following is an intensive
2017 IIT Roorkee property of a thermodynamic system?
1.3 The volume and temperature of air (assumed [1 Mark]
to be an ideal gas) in a closed vessel is (A) Mass (B) Density
2.87 m3 and 300 K, respecti-vely. The (C) Energy (D) Volume

Thermodynamics 1
 1.1 (B) Gas constant of air,
R  287 J / kg K  0.287 kJ/kg K
For process 1  2 , we have
pabs  patm  pgauge  1.5 bar
pabs  1.5 100  150 kPa
Using ideal gas equation, we have
pV  mRT
150  2.87  m  0.287  300
m  5.0 kg
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3
T2  T1
4
T2 3

T1 4 1.4 83.14
At constant pressure, we have Given : Volume of rigid container
T2 V2 3
  (V )  1000 litre  1 m3
T1 V1 4
Initial temperature of the gas (T1 )  270 C
For process 2  3 , we have
Final temperature of the gas (T2 )  370 C
T
T3  2 Number of mole of hydrogen (n)  1
2
Since, V3  V2 (Constant volume process) p1V  nRT1
Ratio of final to initial volume is given by, p2V  nRT2
V V 3
 3  2   0.75  ( p2  p1 )V  nR (T2  T1 )
V1 V1 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). p 1  1 8.314  (37  27)
p  83.14 Pa
Hence, the change in pressure of the contained gas,
assuming ideal gas behaviour is 83.14 Pa.
1.2 (B)
Heat and work are :
(i) They are boundary phenomena
(ii) They are inexact differential
(iii) They are path functions 1.5 408.912
(iv) They are not property of system Given :
Hence, the correct option is (B). Initial pressure P1  110 kPa
1.3 (C)
Initial volume (V1 )  5 m3
Given : Volume of air (V1 )  2.87 m3 Polytrophic index (n)  1.2
Temperature of air (T1 )  300 K
Final volume (V2 )  2.5 m3

2 Thermodynamics
From polytropic process,
1 1  PV
n n
PV 2 2

140  53  P2 (2.5) n
P2  252.713 kPa

1 1  PV
PV
Work done  2 2

n 1
110  5  252.713  2.5

0.2
 408.912 kJ (absolute value)
Hence, the correct answer is 408.912.
1.6 (B)
Density is an intensive property of a
thermodynamic system.
Hence, the correct option is (B).



Thermodynamics 3
2 First law of Thermodynamics
2013 IIT Bombay
2.1 A cylinder contains 5m3 of an ideal gas at a
pressure of 1 bar. This gas is compressed in
a reversible isothermal process till its
pressure increases to 5 bar. The work in kJ
required for this process is
[1 Mark]
(A) 804.7 (B) 953.2
(B) 981.7 (D) 1012.2
2015 IIT Kanpur
2.2 For an ideal gas with constant values of
specific heats, for calculation of the specific
enthalpy, [2 Marks]
(A) It is sufficient to know only the
temperature.
(B) Both temperature and pressure are
required to be known.
(C) Both temperature and volume are
required to be known.
(D) Both temperature and mass are required
to be known.
2.3 Temperature of nitrogen in a vessel of
volume 2 m3 is 288 K. A U-tube manometer
connected by the vessel shows a reading of
70 cm of mercury (level higher in the end
open to atmosphere). The universal gas
constant is 8314 J/kmol K, atmospheric
pressure is 1.01325 bar, acceleration due to
gravity is 9.81 m/s2 and density of mercury
is 13600 kg/m3.The mass of nitrogen (in kg)
in the vessel is ______.
[2 Marks]
2.4 A well-insulated rigid container of volume 1
m3 contains 1.0 kg of an ideal gas
[ c p  1000 J/kg K and cv  800 J/kg K] at a
pressure of 105 Pa. A stirrer is rotated at
constant rpm in the container for 1000
rotations and the applied torque is 100 Nm.
The final temperature of the gas (in K) is
______. [2 Marks]
Thermodynamics
2.5 Work is done on an adiabatic system due to
which its velocity changes from 10 m/s to 20
m/s, elevation increases by 20 m and
temperature increases by 1 K. The mass of
the system is 10 kg. cv  100 J/kg K and
gravitational acceleration is 10 m/s2. If there
is no change in any other component of the
energy of the system, the magnitude of total
work done (in kJ) on the system is _______.
[2 Marks]
2.6 Steam enters a turbine at 30 bar, 3000 C (u =
2750 kJ/kg, h = 2993 kJ/kg) and exits the
turbine as saturated liquid at 15 kPa (u = 225
kJ/kg, h = 226 kJ/kg). Heat loss to the
surrounding is 50 kJ/kg of steam flowing
through the turbine. Neglecting changes in
kinetic energy and potential energy, the work
output of the turbine (in kJ/kg of steam) is
_______. [2 Marks]
2.7 A mixture of ideal gases has the following
composition by mass :
N2 O2 CO2
60% 30% 10%
If the universal gas constant is 8314 J/k mol
K, the characteristic gas constant of the
mixture (in J/kg-K) is ______.
[2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
2.8 The internal energy of an ideal gas is a
function of [1 Mark]
(A) Temperature and pressure
(B) Volume and pressure
(C) Entropy and pressure
(D) Temperature only
1
 2.9 An ideal gas undergoes a reversible process
in which the pressure varies linearly with
volume. The conditions at the start (subscript
1) and at the end (subscript 2) of the process
with usual notation are : p1  100 kPa ,
The final pressure is p2 and volume is V2 .
The work done on the system is considered
positive. If R is the gas constant and T is the
temperature, then the work done in the
process is

V1  0.2 m3 and p2  200 kPa , V2  0.1 m3 [1 Mark]

and the gas constant, R  0.275 kJ / kg-K . V2 p1

The magnitude of the work required for the
process (in kJ) is ______. [2 Marks]
2.10 A piston-cylinder device initially contains
3
0.4 m of air (to be treated as an ideal gas) at
0
100 kPa and 80 C. The air is now
3
isothermally compressed to 0.1 m . The
work done during this process is ______ kJ.
(Take the sign convention such that work
done on the system is negative).
[2 Marks]
2.11 Steam at an initial enthalpy of 100 kJ/kg and
inlet velocity of 100 m/s, enters an insulated
horizontal nozzle. It leaves the nozzle at 200
m/s. The exit enthalpy (in kJ/kg) is
________. [2 Marks]
(A) p1V1 ln (B)  p1V1 ln
V1 p2
V2 p2
(C) RT ln (D) mRT ln
V1 p1
2.14 Water (density = 1000 kg/m3 ) at ambient
temperature flows through a horizontal pipe
uniform cross section at the rate of 1kg/s . If
the pressure drop across the pipe is 100 kPa,
the minimum power required to pump the
water across the pipe, in Watts, is _____.
[1 Mark]
2.15 A calorically perfect gas (specific heat at
constant pressure 1000 J/kg K) enters and
leaves a gas turbine with the same velocity.
The temperature of the gas at turbine entry
and exit are 1100 K and 400 K respectively.
The power produced is 4.6 MW and heat

2017 IIT Roorkee escapes at the rate of 300 kJ/s through the
turbine casing. The mass flow rate of the gas
2.12 The molar specifie heat at constant volume
(in kg/s) through the turbine is
of an ideal gas is equal to 2.5 times the
[2 Marks]
universal gas constant (8.314 J/mol K).
(A) 6.14 (B) 7.00
When the temperature increases by 100 K, the
(C) 7.50 (D) 8.00
change in molar specific enthalpy is
2018 IIT Guwahati
_______ J/mol. [1 Mark]
2.16 An engine operates on the reversible cycles
2.13 A mass m of a perfect gas at pressure p1 and as shown in the figure. The work output from
the engine (in kJ/cycle) is _____ (correct to
volume V1 undergoes an isothermal process. two decimal places). [1 Mark]

2 Thermodynamics

2.17 Steam flows through a nozzle at mass flow
rate of m  0.1kg/s with a heat loss of 5 kW.
The enthalpies at inlet and exit are 2500
kJ/kg and 2350 kJ/kg, respectively.
Assuming negligible velocity at inlet (V1  0)
, the velocity (V2 ) of steam (in m/s) at the
nozzle exit is _____ (correct to two decimal
places).
[2 Marks]
2.18 Air is held inside a non-insulated cylinder
using a piston (mass M  25 kg and area
A  100cm2 ) and stoppers (of negligible
area), as shown in the figure. The initial
pressure p1 and temperature T1 of air inside
the cylinder are 200 kPa and 400 0 C ,
respectively. The ambient pressure p and
temperature T are 100 kPa and 27 0 C
respectively. The temperature of the air
inside the cylinder (0 C) at which the piston
will begin to move is _____ (correct to two
decimal places). [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
Thermodynamics
2.19 During a non-flow thermodynamic process
(1-2), executed by a perfect gas, the heat
interaction is equal to the work interaction
(Q1-2  W1-2 ) . When the process is
[1 Mark]
(A) Adiabatic (B) Isothermal
(C) Isentropic (D) Polytropic
2.20 A Gas is heated in a duct as it flows over
resistance heater. Consider a 101 kW electric
heating system. The gas enters the heating
section of the duct at 100 kPa and 27 0C with
a volume flow rate of 15 m3/s. If heat is lost
from the gas in the duct to the surroundings
at a rate of 51 kW, the exit temperature of the
gas is (Assume constant pressure, ideal gas
negligible change in kinetic and potential
energies and constant specific heat :
c p  1 kJ/kg K , R  0.5 kJ/kg K)
[2 Marks]
0 0
(A) 53 C (B) 37 C
(C) 76 0C (D) 32 0C
2020 IIT Delhi
2.21 One kg of air, initially at a temperature of
127 0 C expands reversibly at a constant
pressure until the volume is doubled. If the
gas constant of air is 287 J/kg K, the
magnitude of work transfer is ________ kJ.
(round off to 2 decimal places) [2 Marks]
2.22 Air is contained in a frictionless piston-
cylinder arrangement as shown in the figure.
The atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa and the
initial pressure of air in the cylinder is 105
kPa. The area of piston is 300 cm 2 . Heat is
now added and the piston moves slowly from
its initial position until it reaches the stops.
3
 The spring constant of the linear spring is
12.5 N/mm. Considering the air inside the
cylinder as the system, the work interaction
is ______ J (round off to the nearest integer).
[2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
2.23 A rigid insulated tank is initially evacuated.
It is connected through a valve to supply line
that carries air at a constant pressure and
temperature of 250 kPa and 400 K
respectively. Now the valve is opened and
air is allowed to flow into the tank until the
pressure inside the tank reaches to 250 kPa
at which point the valve is closed. Assume
that the air behaves as a perfect gas with
constant properties (c p  1.005 kJ/kgK ,
cv  0.718 kJ/kgK, R  0.287 kJ/kgK) .
Final temperature of the air inside the tank is
___________ K (round off to one decimal
place). [2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
2.24 Consider 1 kg of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 300
K contained in a rigid and perfectly insulated
container. The specific heat of the gas at
constant volume cv is equal to 750
J.kg-1.K -1 . A stirrer performs 225 kJ of work
on the gas. Assume that the container does
not participate in the thermodynamic
interaction. The final pressure of the gas will
be ___________ bar (in integer).
[1 Mark]
2.1 (A)
Given : Volume (V1 )  5.0 m3
Initial pressure ( p1 )  1bar  100 kPa
Final pressure ( p2 )  5bar  500 kPa
We know that,
P2
Work done (W )   Vdp …(i)
P1
Since, process is isothermal
4 Thermodynamics
2.25 A rigid tank of volume of 8 m3 is being filled
up with air from a pipeline connected
through a valve. Initially the valve is closed
and the tank is assumed to be completely
evacuated. The air pressure and temperature
inside the pipeline are maintained at 600 kPa
and 306 K, respectively. The filling of the
tank begins by opening the valve and the
process ends when the tank pressure is equal
to the pipeline pressure. During the filling
process, heat loss to the surrounding is 1000
kJ. The specific heats of air at constant
pressure and at constant volume are 1.005
kJ/kg.K and 0.718 kJ/kg.K, respectively.
Neglect changes in kinetic energy and
potential energy.
The final temperature of the tank after the
completion of the filling process is
_________ K (round off to the nearest
integer). [2 Marks]
2.26 At steady state, 500 kg/s of steam enters a
turbine with specific enthalpy equal to 3500
kJ/kg and specific entropy equal to 6.5 kJ∙kg-
∙K . It expands reversibly in the turbine to
1 -1
the condenser pressure. Heat loss occurs
reversibly in the turbine at a temperature of
500 K. If the exit specific enthalpy and
specific entropy are 2500 kJ/kg and 6.3
kJ∙kg-1∙K-1, respectively, the work output
from the turbine is ________ MW (in
integer). [2 Marks]
Therefore, pV  mRT  Constant (C) …(ii)
Now, from equations (i) and (ii),
p2
C p 
W p
dp  C ln  2 
 p1 
p1
p 
W  p1V1 ln  2   C  p1V1  p2V2 
 p1 
 500 
W  (100  5)  ln    804.7 kJ
 100 
Hence, the correct option is (A). R
R
Molar mass
8.314
R  0.296 kJ/kg K
28
2.2 (A)
pV 194.6  2
m   4.56 kg
 dh  RT 0.296  288
cp   
 dT  p  C Hence, the mass of nitrogen in the vessel is 4.56
kg.
dh  c p (dT )
Specific enthalpy is a function of temperature
only. Hence, only temperature is enough.
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2.4 1285.4

Given : Volume of container (V )  1 m3

Mass of ideal gas ( m)  1kg
2.3 4.56 Specific heat of gas at constant pressure
(c p )  1000 J/kg
Given : Temperature of nitrogen (T )  288 K
Reading of manometer (h)  70 cm  0.7 m Specific heat of gas at constant volume
(cv )  800 J/kg
Universal gas constant ( R )  8314 J/kmol K
Atmospheric pressure
( patm )  1.01325 bar  101.3 kPa
Density of mercury ( Hg )  13600 kg/m 3
Volume of vessel (V )  2 m3

Work done (W )  T  
W  100  21000   628.318 kJ
Note : Work is negative as it is done on the system,
this sign is important as we will use the first law
Mercury gauge pressure is given by,
of thermodynamics to find the final temperature.
 Hg  h  g
Initial temperature can be found using the ideal gas
 13600  0.7  9.81  93.39 kPa equation
Absolute pressure is given by, p1V1  mRT1
p  101.3  93.39  194.6 kPa where, R i.e., specific gas constant given by,
Using the ideal gas equation, R  c p  cv  0.2 kJ/kg K
pV  mRT
p1V1 100 1
Where, R is specific gas constant given by, T1    500 K
mR 0.2 1
Thermodynamics 5
 According to 1st law of thermodynamics Specific enthalpy at inlet (h1 )  2993 kJ/kg
Q  W  U
Pressure at outlet of turbine ( p2 )  15 kPa
0  (628.318)  mcv (T2  T1 )
Specific internal energy at outlet (u2 )  225 kJ/kg
0  (628.318)  1 0.8(T2  500)
Specific enthalpy at outlet (h2 )  226 kJ/kg
Solving, we get
Heat loss to the surrounding (Q)  50 kJ/kg
T2  1285.4 K
Hence, the final temperature of the gas is 1285.4
K.

2.5 4.5
Given : Initial velocity (V1 )  10 m/s
Final velocity (V2 )  20 m/s Work output is given by,
Temperature rise (T )  T2  T1  1 K w  h1  h2  q
Mass (m)  10 kg w  2993  226  50  2717 kJ/kg
Specific heat at constant volume Hence, the work output of the turbine is 2717
(cv )  100 J/kg K  0.1 kJ/kg K kJ/kg.
Elevation rise (Z )  Z2  Z1  20 m
Using the steady flow energy equation,
  V2 V 2  (Z  Z 2 ) g 
m cv T   1  2   1  W 2.7 275
  2000 2000  1000 
Given :
For adiabatic process, Q  0 N2 O2 CO2
60% 30% 10%
  102 202  ( 20)  10  Universal gas constant (R) = 8314 J/kmol K.
10   0.1 1      W Let m be the mass of mixture, than the mass of
  2000 2000  1000 
nitrogen, oxygen and carbon di-oxide are 0.6 m,
0.3 m and 0.1 m respectively.
W   4.5 kJ Characteristic gas constant ( R) of the mixture is
W  4.5 kJ given by,
Hence, the magnitude of total work done on the  mN mO mCO2 
mR   2  2 
 M N M O M CO 
R
system is 4.5 kJ.
 2 2 2 

2.6 2717
 0.6m 0.3m 0.1m 
mR       8314
Given :  28 32 44 
Pressure at inlet of turbine ( p1 )  30 bar R  274.99 J/kg K  275 J/kg K
Temperature at inlet of turbine (T1 )  3000 C Comments : The mixture gas constant depends
both on the mole fraction and the molecular weight
Specific internal energy at inlet
of each gas.
(u1 )  2750 kJ/kg

6 Thermodynamics
Hence, the characteristic gas constant of the Final volume (V2 )  0.1m3
mixture is 275 J/kgK.
V 
Isothermal work  p1V1 ln  2 
 V1 

 0.1 
2.8 (D)  100  0.4 ln  
 0.4 
Internal energy of ideal gas in only function of  55.45 kJ
temperature.
Hence, the work done during this process is
Hence, the correct option is (D). – 55.45 kJ.
2.11 85
According to question,
2.9 15
Given : Initial pressure ( p1 )  100 kPa
Final pressure ( p2 )  200 kPa Applying SFEE equation in nozzle,
Initial volume (V1 )  0.2 m 3
 V12 Z 
m  h1   1 Q
Final volume (V2 )  0.1 m3  2000 1000 
Gas constant ( R)  0.275 kJ/kg K  V2 Z 
 m  h2  2  2   W
 2000 1000 
Q  0, W  0 and Z1  Z2
V12 V2
h1   h2  2
2000 2000
2
100 2002
100   h2 
2000 2000
h2  85 kJ/kg
Hence, the exit enthalpy is 85 kJ/kg.
Magnitude of work 2.12 2909.9
 Area under curve ABCD Given : Molar specific heat at constant volume
  AED  BCDE (cv )  2.5 R
1 Universal gas cosntant ( R )  8.314 J/mol K
 100  0.1  0.1100  15 kJ
2 Temperature rise (T )  100 K
Hence, the magnitude of the work required for the
Specific enthalpy is given by,
process is 15 kJ.
h  c p T  (cv  R )T
h  (2.5R  R )T
h  3.5  8.314 100  2909.9 J/mol
2.10 – 55.45 Hence, the change in molar specific enthalpy is
Given : Initial volume (V1 )  0.4 m3 2909.9 J/mol.
Initial pressure ( p1 )  100 kPa  Key Point
Initial temperature (T1 )  80  273  353K

Thermodynamics 7
 Comment : The difference of specific heat is gas
constant i.e., c p  cv  R .
The difference of molar or molar specific heat is
universal gas constant i.e.,
c p  cv  R
Initial velocity (V1 )  Final velocity (V2 )
Inlet temperature (T1 )  1100 K
Outlet temperature (T2 )  400 K
Power ( P)  4600 kW
Heat loss (Qr )  300 kJ/sec

2.13 (B)
Applying SFEE equation, we have
Isothermal work is given by,
V12 V2
W    pdV h1   gZ1  h2  1  gZ 2  P  Qr
2 2
For isothermal, pV  C h1  h2  P  Qr
p1V1  pV  C
mc p (T1  T2 )  P  Qr
C
dV   C ln V V12
V2
W   m  1 (1100  400)  4600  300
V

V V1
m  7 kg/s
V 
W   p1V1 ln  2   p1V1  C  Hence, the correct option is (B).
 V1 
2.16 62.5
Since, p1V1  p2V2
Work output = Area enclosed on p-V diagram
p  1
W   p1V1 ln  1   (2.5  2)  (650  400)
 p2  2
Hence, the correct option is (B).  62.5 kJ/cycle
Hence, the work output from the engine is 62.5
kJ/cycle.

2.14 100

Given : Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3

2.17 447.213
Mass flow rate (m)  1.0 kg/s
Pressure drop  p   100 kPa Given : Mass of steam (m)  0.1kg/s

Minimum power is given by, Heat loss (Q)  5kW .

P  m(p  v)  m  p  
1 Applying SFEE,
   V2 
m  h1  1  gZ1   Q
1  2 
P  1100   0.1 kW  100 W
1000  V2 
 m  h2  2  gZ 2   W
Hence, the water across the pipe is 100 W.  2 
2.15 (B) V1  0 and W  0
Given : Specific heat at constant pressure,
(c p )  1000 J/kg K  1 kJ/kg K

8 Thermodynamics
 Final pressure of air at which it is about to move is
p f  125 kPa .
Applying mass conservation at two states i and f
(initial and final).
mi  m f
Assume, Z1  Z2
piVi p f V f
1  ( Vi  V f )
mh1  Q  mh2  m V22 RTi RT f
2
pi p f
1 
m  V22  m(h1  h2 )  Q Ti T f
2
1 200 125
0.1 V22 10 3  0.1(2500  2350)  5 
2 673 T f
V2  447.213 m/s T f  420.625 K  147.625 C
0

Hence, the velocity (V2 ) of steam at the nozzle Hence, the temperature of the air inside the
exit is 447.213 m/s. cylinder (0 C) at which the piston will begin to
move is 147.6250 C .

2.18 147.625
According to question, 2.19 (B)
From first law for process,
Q1-2  U  W1-2
For isothermal process, assuming air as perfect
gas,
U  0
Q1-2  W1-2
FBD : Only for isothermal process executed by an perfect
gas.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.20 (D)

Given : Volume flow rate (V1 )  15m3 /s

3
Mg 25 10 10 Initial pressure of gas ( p1 )  100kPa
p piston  
A 0.01
Specific heat (c p )  1 kJ/kg K
p piston  25 kPa
Total external pressure  p  p piston  125 kPa Initial temperature of gas (T1 )  270 C  300 K
Specific gas constant ( R)  0.5 kJ/kg K
Initial pressure of air, pi  200 kPa
Piston will be about to come down if system
pressure is equal to total pressure i.e., 125 kPa.

Thermodynamics 9
 :Method 2:
W   pdv  p(V2  V1 )  pV2  pV1
W  mRT2  mRT1
W  mR(T2  T1 )
So, volume of gas at inlet,
V1 V2
RT 0.5  300 and 
v1  1   1.5m3 /kg T1 T2
p1 100
V1 T1 1 T
Mass flow rate,    1
V2 T2 2 T2
V1 15
m   10 kg/s T2  2T1
v1 1.5
W  mR(2T1  T1 )
Now, using SFEE (neglecting KE , PE and
heat being lost), W  mRT1  1 287  400  114.8 kJ
mh1  Q  mh2  W Hence, the magnitude of work transfer is 114.8 kJ.
mh1  mh2  Q  W 2.22 544
10[c p (T1  T2 )]   50 Given : Initial pressure ( p1 )  105 kPa ,
1 (300  T2 )   5 Atmospheric pressure ( patm )  100 kPa ,
T2  305 K or T2  305  273  320 C Area of piston ( A)  300 cm2 and
Hence, the correct option is (D). Spring constant (k )  12.5 N/mm .
Here work done by piston, Wpiston  p1  dV
Wpiston  p1  (Area Distance)

2.21 114.8 W piston  105  103  (300  104 16 10 2 )  504 J
Now, work done by spring,
Given : Mass of air (m)  1 kg ,
1
Initial temperature of air Wspring  kx 2
2
(T1 )  127  273  400 K
1
Gas constant ( R)  287 J/kg K Wspring  12.5 103  (8 102 )2  40J
2
:Method 1:  Wtotal  Wpiston  Wspring
V2
Wtotal  504  40  544 J
W   pdV  p  dV
V1 Hence, the work interaction is 544 J.
W  p(V2  V1 )  p(2V  V )  pV 2.23 560
pV  mRT Given : Initially evacuated tank rigid and
mRT insulated.
p
V
mRT
W V  1 287  400
V
W  114.8 kJ
Hence, the magnitude of work transfer is 114.8 kJ.

10 Thermodynamics
 250 kPa, 400 K Supply line dQ  dv  (dw)disp  (dw) stirrer
dV  (dw)stirrer
Valve ( (dw) disp  0 and dQ  0)
mcv (TF  T :)  (225)
1 0.750(TF  300)  225
225
TF  300 
0.75
( PF )inside tank  250 kPa TF  600 K
cP  1.005 kJ/kg-K Since, rigid container (volume = constant),
cV  0.718 kJ/kg-K  p T
600
cP p2  1
  1.39972 1.4 300
cV
p2 T2
Using unsteady flow energy equation : 
p1 T1
dU CV
 mi hi  me he  dQ  dW p2  2 bar
dt no exit insulated rigid
Hence, the final pressure of the gas will be 2 bar.
dU CV
 mi hi  me he  dQ  dW 2.25 395.39
dt no exit(0) insulated(0) rigid(0)

Air 600 kPa, 306 K

dU CV  dm 
  hi
dt  dt 
Initially evacuated
U 2  U1  (m2  m1 ) hi 1000 kJ
V 8m 3 rigid pipe

initially evacuated

(m1u1 ) Unsteady flow energy equation :

dU
initially evacuated
 mi hi  mehe  Q  W
m2u2  m2 hi  cV T2  cPTi dt
(me  0 and W  0)
T2  Ti  T2  1.4 (400)
dm
T2  560 K We know,  mi  me
dt
Hence, final temperature of the air inside the tank dm
is 560 K.  mi ( me  0)
dt
2.24 2 dU dm
  hi  (1000)
dt dt
m2u2  m1u1  (m2  m1 )hi  1000
m2u2  m2hi  1000
Stirrer
8 (m1  0,because initially evacuated)
Ideal gas 1000
u2  hi 
m2
1000
CV TF  CPTi 
From first law, m2

Thermodynamics 11
 PV We know,
m2  2 2
RT2 Power ( P)  m(dw)
1000 P  m  (h1  h2 )  dQ  … (ii)
 CV TF  CPTi   RT2
PV
2 2 Since, reversible heat transfer,
1000 dQ
0.718TF  1.005  306   0.287  TF (s2  s1 ) 
600  8 T
( T2  TF ) dQ  T (s2  s1 )
TF  395.389 K 395.39 K dQ  500(6.3  6.5)
Hence, the final temperature of the tank after the dQ  100 kJ/kg
completion of the filling process is 395.39 K. By putting in equation (ii),
2.26 450 P  500  (3500  2500)  100
P  450000 kW
dQLoss
P  450 MW
h1  3500 kJ/kg
Hence, the work output from the turbine is 450
m  500 kg/s h2  2500 kJ/kg
MW.
1 2
s2  6.3 kJ/kg K
s1  6.5 kJ/kg K 
Applying steady flow energy equation,
v12 gz v2 gz
h1   1  dQ  h2  2  2  dw
2000 1000 2000 1000
dw  (h1  h2 )  dQ … (i)
( v1  0, v2  0, z1  z2 )

12 Thermodynamics
3 Second Law of Thermodynamics

2014 IIT Kharagpur 2016 IISc Bangalore

3.1 Which one of the following pairs of 3.5 The heat removal rate from a refrigerated
equations describes an irreversible heat space and the power input to the compressor
are 7.2 kW and 1.8 kW, respectively. The
engine? [1 Mark]
coefficient of performance (COP) of the
Q
 Q  0 and 
(A) 0 refrigerator is ______. [1 Mark]
T 3.6 A reversible cycle receives 40 kJ of heat
Q from one heat source at a temperature of
(B)  Q  0 and  0
T 127 0 C and 37 kJ from another heat source
Q at 970 C. The heat rejected (in kJ) to the heat
(C)  Q  0 and  0
T sink at 47 0 C is _______. [2 Marks]
Q
(D)  Q  0 and  0 2017 IIT Roorkee
T
3.2 A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator 3.7 A heat pump absorbs 10kW of heat from
outside environment at 250 K while
maintains a temperature of  50 C . The
absorbing 15 kW of work. It delivers the heat
ambient air temperature is 350 C . The heat to a room that must be kept warm at 300 K.
The coefficient of performance (COP) of the
gained by the refrigerator at a continuous
heat pump is _______. [1 Mark]
rate is 2.5 kJ/s . The power (in watt) required
2019 IIT Madras
to pump this heat out continuously is
3.8 The figure shows a heat engine (HE)
______. [1 Mark] working between two reservoirs. The
2015 IIT Kanpur amount of heat (Q2 ) rejected by the heat
3.3 A Carnot engine (CE-1) works between two engine is drawn by a heat pump (HP). The
temperature reservoirs A and B, where heat pump receives the entire work output
TA  900 K and TB  500 K. A second (W) of the heat engine. If temperatures,
Carnot engine (CE-2) works between
T1  T3  T2 , then the relation between the
temperature reservoirs B and C, where efficiency () of the heat engine and the
TC  300 K. In each cycle of CE-1 and CE- coefficient of performance (COP) of the heat
2, all the heat rejected by CE-1 to reservoir pump is [2 Marks]
B is used by CE-2. For one cycle of
operation, if the net Q absorbed by CE-1
from reservoir A is 150 MJ, the net heat
rejected to reservoir C by CE-2 (in MJ) is
______. [1 Mark]
3.4 The COP of a Carnot heat pump operating
between 60 C and 37 0 C is ______.
(A) COP  1  1 (B) COP  1  
[1 Mark]
Thermodynamics 1
 (C) COP  1 (D) COP   (D) QH  6000J, QL  600J, W  5500J
2020 IIT Delhi 3.12 Consider a fully adiabatic piston-cylinder
arrangement as shown in figure. The piston
3.9 If a reversed carnot cycle operates between
is mass less and cross-sectional area of the
the temperature limits of 27 0C and 3 0C , cylinder is A. The fluid inside the cylinder is
then the ratio of the COP of a refrigerator to
Air (prefect gas) with   C p / Cv for air.
that of a heat pump (COP of
refrigerator/COP of heat pump) based on the The piston is initially located at a position L1
cycle is _______. (round off to 2 decimal . The initial pressure of the air inside the
places) [1 Mark]
cylinder is P1  P , where P0 is the atm. The
2022 IIT Kharagpur
stop S1 is instantaneously removed and the
3.10 The Clausius inequality holds good for
piston moves to the position L2 , where the
[1 Mark]
equilibrium pressure of air inside the
(A) any process
cylinder is P2  P0 .
(B) any cycle
(C) only reversible process What is the work done by piston on the
atmosphere during this process?
(D) only reversible cycle
2023 IIT Kanpur
3.11 A heat engine external heat (QH) from a
thermal reservoir at a temperature of 1000 K
an reject heat (QL) to a thermal reservoir at a
temperature of 100 K while producing work
(W). Which one of the combination of [QH,
QL & W] given is allowed.
(A) QH  2000J, QL  500J, W  1000J (A) 0 (B) P0 A  L2  L1 
(B) QH  2000J, QL  750J, W  1250J
(C) P1 AL1 ln
L1
(D)
 P2 L2  PL
1 1 A
(C) QH  6000J, QL  500J, W  5500J L2 l 

3.1 (A) For an irreversible process heat transfer for a

thermodynamic cycle is always greater than zero
Clausius inequality is given by,
i.e.,  Q  0
Q
 T 0 Hence, the correct option is (A).
Various cases of the above equation are, 3.2 373.13
Q
 T  0 the heat engine is irreversible According to question,

Q
 T  0 the heat engine is reversible
Q
 T  0 not possible
2 Thermodynamics
 Q3  50 MJ
Hence, the net heat rejected to reservoir C by
CE-2 is 50 MJ.

3.4 10
COP of refrigerator is given by, According to question,
TL Q
(COP) R   L
(TH  TL ) Win
268 2.5

(308  268) Win
Win  0.37313kW  373.13 W

TH 310
(COP) HP    10
TH  TL  (310  279)
3.3 50
According to question,

3.5 4

Given : Heat removed (Q2 )  7.2kW

Compressor work input (Wnet )  1.8kW

Carnot engine CE -1 :
T Q
1  1  2  1  2
T1 Q1 Desired effect (Q2 ) 7.2
(COP) r ef   4
T2 Q2 500 Q2 Work input (Wnet ) 1.8
  
T1 Q1 900 150 Hence, the coefficient of performance (COP) of the
Q2  83.33 MJ refrigerator is 4.
Carnot engine CE -2 :
T3 Q
2  1   1 3
T2 Q2
T3 Q3 300 Q 3.6 64
   3
T2 Q2 500 83.33 According to question,

Thermodynamics 3
 Applying Clausius theorem, W W
 
Q Q1 Q2  W
 T
0
Q3
R
and, COP 
Q1 Q2 Q3 W
  0 Q W
T1 T2 T3 COP  2
W
40 37 QR
  0 1
 COP   1
400 370 320 
QR  64 kJ
Hence, the correct option is (C).
0
Hence, the heat rejected to the heat sink at 47 C is
64 kJ.

3.9 0.9

3.7 1.67 According to questions,

According to question,

Q1 25
(COP) HP    1.67 QAbs T2
W 15 (COP) R  
Hence, the coefficient of performance (COP) of W W
the heat pump is 1.67. Q T
and (COP) HP  R  1
W W
(COP ) R T2 W
Required ratio   
(COP ) HP W T1
3.8 (C)
T2 270
According to question,    0.9
T1 300
Hence, the ratio of the COP of a refrigerator to that
of a heat pump is 0.9.
3.10 (B)

4 Thermodynamics
Clausius inequality : Hence, the correct option is (B).
SQ 3.12 (B)
 T
0

Is hold good for any cycle hence the correct

option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
3.11 (B)

Given :
According to 1st law of thermodynamics,
QH  QL  H Work done by piston on
Atmosphere air  P0 (V )  P0 A( L2  L1 )
Hence, the correct option is (B).



(A) 2000  500 + 1000

(B) 2000 = 750 + 1250
(C) 6000  600 + 5500
(D) 6000 = 500 + 5500
According to 2nd law of Thermodynamics
dQ
Clausius Inequality,  0
T
QH Q
 L 0
1000 100
Option (D) :
6000 500
 0
1000 100
(6  5)  0
1  0
1  0
Option (B) :
2000 750
 0
1000 100
(2  7.5)  0
5.5  0
Option (B) is satisfy 1st law and 2nd law of
Thermodynamics so option (B) is correct.

Thermodynamics 5
4 Entropy

2014 IIT Kharagpur entropy of the system is ______ J/K.

[2 Marks]
4.1 An amount of 100 kW of heat is transferred
through a wall in steady state. One side of the 4.6 One kg of an ideal gas (gas constant
0
wall is maintained at 127 C and the other R  287 J/kg K ) undergoes an irrever-sible
0
side at 27 C. The entropy generated (in process from state-1 (1 bar, 300 K) to state-
W/K) due to the heat transfer through the 2 (2 bar, 300 K). The change in specific
wall is ______. [2 Marks]
entropy ( s2  s1 ) of the gas (in J / kg K ) in
4.2 A closed system contains 10 kg of saturated
0
liquid ammonia at 10 C. Heat addition the process is ______. [2 Marks]
required to convert the entire liquid into 2018 IIT Guwahati
saturated vapour at a constant pressure is
16.2 MJ. If the entropy of the saturated liquid 4.7 An ideal gas undergoes a process state 1
is 0.88 kJ/kg K, the entropy (in kJ/kg K) of (T1  300K, p1  100kPa) to state 2
saturated vapour is ______. [2 Marks]
4.3 Two identical metal blocks L and M (T2  600K, p2  500kPa) . The specific
(specific heat  0.4 kJ/kg K), each having a heats of the ideal gas are :
mass of 5 kg, are initially at 313 K. A
reversible refrigerator extracts heat from c p  1 kJ/kg K and cv  0.7 kJ/kgK.
block L and rejects heat to block M until The change in specific entropy of an ideal
the temperature of block L reaches 293 K.
The final temperature (in K) of block M is gas from state 1 to state 2 (in kJ/kg K) is
______. [2 Marks] _______ (correct to two decimal places).
2015 IIT Kanpur [1 Mark]
4.8 For an ideal gas with constant properties
4.4 One kg of air (R = 287 J/kg-K) undergoes an undergoing a quasi-static process, which one
irreversible process between equilibrium of the following represents the change of
3
state 1 ( 200 C, 0.9 m ) and equilibrium state entropy ( s ) from state 1 to 2?
3 [1 Mark]
2 ( 200 C, 0.6 m ). The change in entropy
T  p 
s2  s1 (in J/kg K) is ______. [2 Marks] (A) s  c p ln  2   R ln  2 
 T1   p1 
2017 IIT Roorkee T  V 
(B) s  cv ln  2   c p ln  2 
4.5 One kg of an ideal gas (gas constant, R = 400  T1   V1 
J/kg K, specific heat at constant volume, cv T  p 
(C) s  c p ln  2   c p ln  2 
= 1000 J/kg K) at 1 bar, and 300 K is  T1   p1 
contained in a sealed rigid cylinder. During T  V 
(D) s  cv ln  2   R ln  1 
an adiabatic process, 100 kJ of work is done  T1   V2 
on the system by a stirrer. The increase in

Thermodynamics 1
 2019 IIT Madras J/kg K and the ratio of specific heats   1.4
, then the change in the specific entropy (in
4.9 Air of mass 1 kg, initially at 300 K and 10
J/kg K) of the air in the process is [2 Marks]
bar, is allowed to expand isothermally till it
reaches a pressure of 1 bar. Assuming air as (A) 172.0
an ideal gas with gas constant of 0.287 kJ/kg (B) indeterminate, as the process is
K, the change in entropy of air (in kJ/kg K, irreversible
round off to two decimal place) is _______. (C) 28.4
[1 Mark]
4.10 For a simple compressible system v, s, p and (D) –26.3
T are specific volume, specific entropy, 2021 IIT Bombay
pressure and temperature respectively. As
4.14 An adiabatic vortex tube, shown in the figure
 v 
per Max-wells relations   is equal to given below is supplied with 5 kg/s of air
 s  P (inlet 1) at 500 kPa and 300 K. Two separate
[1 Mark] streams of air are leaving the device from
 p   T  outlets 2 and 3. Hot air leaves the device at a
(A)   (B)  
 v T  p  s rate of 3 kg/s from outlet 2 at 100 kPa and
 s   T  340 K, while 2 kg/s of cold air stream is
(C)   (D)    leaving the device from outlet 3 at 100 kPa
 T  p  v  p
and 240 K.
2020 IIT Delhi High pressure air inlet
1
4.11 For an ideal gas the value of Joule-Thomson
Low pressure hot air outlet Low pressure cold air outlet
coefficient is ______. [1 Mark]
(A) Positive (B) Negative 2 3
(C) Indeterminate (D) Zero] Consider constant specific heat of air is 1005
4.12 For an ideal gas, a constant pressure line and J/kg-K and gas constant is 287 J/kg-K. There
constant volume line intersect at a point, in is no work transfer across the boundary of
the temperature (T) versus specific entropy this device. The rate of entropy generation is
(S) diagram. CP is the specific at constant _________ kW/K (round off to one decimal
pressure and CV is specific at constant place). [1 Mark]
volume. The ratio of the slopes of the 2022 IIT Kharagpur
constant pressure and constant volume lines 4.15 Consider a one-dimensional steady heat
at the point of intersection is [1 Mark] conduction process through a solid slab of
C  CV C  CV thickness 0.1 m. The higher temperature side
(A) P (B) P
CV CP A has a surface temperature of 800 C, and the
CP CV heat transfer rate per unit area to low
(C) (D) temperature side B is 4.5 kW/m2. The
CV CP
thermal conductivity of the slab is 15
4.13 One kg of air in a closed system undergoes W/m.K. The rate of entropy generation per
an irreversible process from an initial state of unit area during the heat transfer process is
p1  1 bar (absolute) and T1  270 C , to a ________ W/m2.K (round off to 2 decimal
final state of p2  3 bar (absolute) and places). [2 Marks]

T2  1270 C . If the gas constant of air is 287

2 Thermodynamics
 4.1 83.33 Initial temperature (T1 )  313K
Given : Heat transfer (Q)  100 kW Find temperature of block L (T2 )  293K .
The process is steady and thus rate of heat transfer Let, TF  Find temperature of block M
through the wall is constants.

Q 2
(S ) system    Sgen
1 T

For steady state condition,

Sunvi  SL  SM
(S ) system  0
Since, for reversible refrigerator Suniv  0
100 100
 0   Sgen T2 T
400 300 mc ln  mc ln f  0
T1 T1
Sgen  0.083 kW/K  83.33 W/K
TT
Hence, the entropy generated due to the heat mc ln 2 2 f  0
T1
transfer through the wall is 83.33 W/K.
T2T f
 e0  1
T12
T12 3132
Tf    334.36 K
4.2 6.6 T2 293
For closed system, Hence, the final temperature of block M is 334.36
K.

4.4 – 116.368
dQ  TdS Given :
16.2 10  (273  10) 10( sg  0.88)
3
Specific gas constant ( R )  287 J/kg-K
sg  6.604 kJ/kg K Initial volume (V1 )  0.9 m3
Hence, the entropy of saturated vapour is 6.604 Final volume (V2 )  0.6 m3
kJ/kg K.
Q  dU  pdV
Tds  cV dT  pdV
dT p dT R
ds  cV  dV  cV  dV
4.3 334.36 T T T V
Given : Specific heat (c)  0.4 kJ/kgK T V
ds  cV ln 2  R ln 2
Mass of metal blocks (m)  5 kg T1 V1

Thermodynamics 3
 Since, temperature is constant. Hence, the increase in entropy of the system is
V 287.68 J/K.
ds  s2  s1  R ln 2
V1
 0.6 
ds  287 ln  
 0.9 
4.6 – 198.93
ds  116.368 J/kg K
Given : Mass of ideal gas (m)  1 kg
Hence, the change in entropy s2  s1 is – 116.368
J/kg K. Specific gas constant ( R)  287 J/kgK
Initial pressure ( p1 )  1 bar
Final pressure ( p2 )  2 bar

4.5 287.68 Initial temperature (T1 )  300 K

Given : Mass of ideal gas ( m)  1kg Final temperature (T2 )  300 K

Specific gas constant ( R )  400 J/kg K We know that,

T2 p
Specific heat (cV )  1000 J/kg K s2  s1  c p ln  R ln 1
T1 p2
Pressure of gas ( p )  100 kPa
2
Temperature of gas (T1 )  300 K s2  s1  0  287ln [ T2  T1 ]
1
Work transfer (W )  100 kJ s  198.93 J/kgK
Hence, the change in specific entropy ( s2  s1 ) of
the gas in the process is – 198.93 J/kg K.
4.7 0.21
Given : Initial temperature of gas (T1 )  300 K
Using first law of thermodynamics, we have
Final temperature of gas (T2 )  600k
Q  dU  W  dU  100
Initial pressure of gas ( p1 )  100 kPa
Q  0 (Adiabatic process)
Final pressure of gas ( p2 )  500kPa
mcV dT  W  100
Specific heat (c p )  1kJ/kg K and
W 100 103
dT    100 (cv )  0.7 kJ/kg K
mcV 11000
 Change in specific entropy,
T2  T1  dT  300  100  400 K Tds  c p dT  Vdp
Entropy change for ideal gas, dT V dT dp
ds  c p  dp  c p R
T2 V T T T p
(S )system  S 2  S1  cV ln  R ln 2
T1 V1 dT dp
ds  c p  (c p  cv )
400 T p
S2  S1  1000  ln  0 ( V1  V2 )
300 T p
 s2  s1  c p ln 2  (c p  cv ) ln 2
(S )system  S2  S1  287.68 J/K T1 p1

4 Thermodynamics
  600   500  Hence, the change in entropy of air is 0.6608
s2  s1  1 ln    (1  0.7)  ln  
 100   100  kJ/kg K.
s2  s1  0.21kJ/kg K
Hence, the change in specific entropy of an ideal
gas from state 1 to state 2 is 0.21 kJ/kg K.
4.10 (B)
As per Max-wells relations,
 v   T 
  
4.8 (A)  s  P  p s
From T s equation, Hence, the correct option is (B).
Tds  c p dT  Vdp
dT V dT dp
ds  c p  dp  c p R
T T T p
4.11 (D)
On integrating both sides, we get
 T 
T  p  Joule-Thomson coefficient;     0
s  c p ln  2   R ln  2   P h
 T1   p1  For ideal gas,   0 (Ideal gases neither warm nor
Hence, the correct option is (A). cool upon being expanded at constant enthalpy)
For real gas,   Positive or Negative
Hence, the correct option is (D).
4.12 (D)
4.9 0.6608
T
Given : Given : Constant pressure slope 
Initial pressure ( p1 )  10 bar  1000 kPa CP
T
Initial temperature (T1 )  300 K Constant volume slope 
CV
Final pressure ( p2 )  1 bar  100 kPa
Mass of air (m)  1 kg
Specific gas constant ( R)  0.287 kJ/kg K
Initial volume is given by relation,
mRT1 1 0.287  300
V1    0.0861 m3
p1 1000
For isothermal process, T
p1V1  p2V2 C C
Ratio  P  V
1000  0.0861  100 V2 T CP
V2  0.861 m3 CV
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Change in entropy,
V 4.13 (D)
S  mR ln 2
V1 Given : Gas constant for air ( R)  287 J/kgK ,
0.861 Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4 ,
 1 0.287ln
0.0861 Initial state :
 0.6608 kJ/kg K Temperature (T1 )  270 C  300 K

Thermodynamics 5
 Absolute pressure ( p1 )  1bar ds  C p
dT
R
dP
Final state : T P
Temperature (T2 )  1270 C  400 K, T  P 
s  C p ln  f   R ln  f 
Absolute pressure ( p2 )  3bar  Ti   Pi 
Change in entropy is given by,
T  p    340   1    240 
S  C p ln  2   R ln  2  S gen  3 1.005ln    0.287 ln     2 1.005ln    0.
 T1   p1    300   5    300 
 400   3
S  1005ln    287 ln  
 300  1 S gen  1.763  0.475
S   26.18 J/kgK
S gen  2.238 kW/K
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the rate of entropy generation is 2.238
4.14 2.238
kW/K.
Given :
4.15 1.1821
T1  300K , P1  500 kpa , P2  100kpa
Thickness (t )  0.1 m
T2  340 K , P3  100 kpa , T3  240 K ,
C p  1005 J/kg-k Temperature (T2 )  800 C  353 k

R  287 J/kg-k , m1  5kg/sec , Heat transfer rate per unit area (Q)  4.5 kW/m2
m2  3kg/sec , m3  2kg/sec Thermal conductivity (k )  15 W/mk

T
For an open system, q
Rth
Scv Q
  mi si   me se   S gen L
t T Rth  .A
k
 Scv 
 0, Q0 [ Flow is steady and (80  T1 )15
 t  4.5 103 
duct is insulated] 0.1
S gen   me se   mi si 4.5 103  0.1
 80  T1
15
S gen   (m2 s2  m3 s3 )  m1si 
30  80  T1
S gen   (m2 s2  m3 s3 )  (m2  m3 ) s1 
T1  500 C
[ m1  m2  m3 (conservation of mass)]
Now, Entropy generation
S gen  m2 ( s2  s1 )  m3 ( s3  s1 )
dQ
Tds  dh  vdp dS 
T

6 Thermodynamics
 Q Q
dS  
T1 T2

4.5 103 4.5 103

dS  
323 353
d S  1.184 W/m2  k
Hence, the correct answer is 1.184.



Thermodynamics 7
5 Availability & Irreversibility

2013 IIT Bombay rejects 1 kJ of heat to a reservoir at 400 K.

The network output (in kJ) of the cycle is
5.1 The pressure, temperature and velocity of air
flowing in a pipe are 5 bar, 500 K and 50 m/s, [2 Marks]
respectively. The specific heats of air at (A) 0.8 (B) 1.0
constant pressure and at constant volume are (C) 1.4 (D) 2.0
1.005 kJ/kg K and 0.718 kJ/kgK, 2015 IIT Kanpur
respectively. Neglect potential energy. If the 5.5 One side of a wall is maintained at 400 K and
pressure and temperature of the the other at 300 K. The rate of heat transfer
surroundings are 1 bar and 300 K, through the wall is 1000 W and the
respectively, the available energy in kJ/kg of surrounding temperature is 25 0 C .
the air stream is [2 Marks]
Assuming no generation of heat within the
(A) 170 (B) 187 wall, the irreversibility (in W) due to heat
(C) 191 (D) 213 transfer through the wall is ________.
2014 IIT Kharagpur [2 Marks]
5.2 A source at a temperature of 500 K provides 2019 IIT Madras
1000 kJ of heat. The temperature of
5.6 Water flowing at the rate of 1 kg/s through a
environment is 270 C. The maximum useful system is heated using an electric heater such
work (in kJ) that can be obtained from the that the specific enthalpy of the water
heat source is ______. [1 Mark] increases by 2.50 kJ/kg and the specific
5.3 The maximum theoretical work obtainable, entropy increases by 0.007 kJ/kg-K. The
when a system interacts to equilibrium with power input to the electric heater is 2.50 kW.
a reference environment, is called [1 Mark] There is no other work or heat interaction
(A) entropy (B) enthalpy between the system and the surroundings.
(C) exergy (D) rothalpy Assuming an ambient temperature of 300 K,
5.4 A reversible heat engine receives 2 kJ of heat the irreversibility rate of the system is
from a reservoir at 1000 K and a certain ______ kW (round off to two decimal
amount of heat from a reservoir at 800 K. It places). [2 Marks]

5.1 (B) Final pressure of air ( p2 )  ( p0 )  1 bar

Given : Initial temperature of air (T1 )  500 K Initial velocity of air (V1 )  50 m/s
Final temperature of air (T2 )  (T0 )  300 K Specific heat (c p )  1.005 kJ/kg K and
Initial pressure of air ( p1 )  5 bar (cV )  0.718kJ/kg K

Thermodynamics 1
 Available energy is the amount of energy useful Efficiency can also be defined as,
when the air stream is brought to the condition of W
  max
surrounding. Q1
Wmax
0.4 
1000
Wmax  400 kJ
Hence, the maximum useful work that can be
obtained from the heat source is 400 kJ.

Available energy ( AE ) ,
5.3 (C)
 V12 V02 
AE  (h1  h2 )  T0 (s1  s2 )     Exergy or availability (A) of a given system is
 2 2 
defined as the maximum useful work that is
T  p 
 ( s1  s2 )  c p ln  1   R ln  1  obtainable in a process in which the system comes
 T2   p2  to equilibrium with its surroundings i.e., the ‘dead
state’.
 500  5 Hence, the correct option is (C).
 1.005ln    0.287 ln  
 300  1 5.4 (C)
 0.05147 kJ/kg K According to question,
V12
 AE  c p (T1  T2 )  T0  (s1  s2 ) 
2000
502
 1.005  200  300  0.05147 
2000
AE  186.8 kJ/kg  187 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct option is (B).

For eversible heat engine, according to Clausius

theorem,
5.2 400
Q Q Q Q
Given : Temperature of source (T1 )  500 K R T  0  T11  T22  T33
Efficiency of a heat engine is given by, 2 Q 1
T 300  2  0
  1 2  1  0.4 1000 800 400
T1 500
Q2  0.4 kJ
Balancing the heat transfer, we have
Q1  Q2  W  Q3
2  0.4  W  1
W  1.4 kJ
Hence, the correct option is (C).

2 Thermodynamics
 ..Method 1..
I  T0 S gen  300  S gen
S gen  Sexit  Sinlet  (ms2 )  (ms1  0)
5.5 248.23
(Entropy associated with work is zero)
Given :
Temperature at left side of wall (T1 )  400 K S gen  m ( s2  s1 )  1 0.007  0.007

Temperature at right side of wall (T2 )  300 K  I  300  0.007  2.10kW

Rate of heat transfer (Q)  1000 W Hence, the irreversibility rate of the system is 2.1
kW.
Surrounding temperature (T0 )  250 C  298 K
..Method 2..
Suniverse  S sys  S surr
Suniverse  S sys
Suniverse  m ( s2  s1 )  1(0.007)
Entropy change of the system of two bodies is Suniverse  0.007 kW/k
given by, Irreversibility rate,
Q Q 1000 1000 I  T0 Suniverse
(S )system      
T1 T2 400 300
I  300  0.007  2.1kW
(S )system  0.833 W/K
Hence, the irreversibility rate of the system is 2.1
Irreversibility is given by, kW.
I  T0  (S )Universe
Where, T0 is atmospheric temperature.
I  T0  (Ssystem  SSurr )
I  298(0.833  0) [ (S )surr  0] 
I  248.23 W
Hence, the irreversibility due to heat transfer
through the wall is 248.23 W.

5.6 2.1
Given :
Increase in enthalpy (h2  h1 )  2.50kJ/kg
Increase in entropy (s2  s1 )  0.007 kJ/kg K
Ambient temperature (T0 )  300 K

Thermodynamics 3
6 Pure Substances

2015 IIT Kanpur (A) There is no constant temperature

vaporization process
6.1 The Van der Waals equation of state is
(B) It has point of inflection with zero slope
 a
 p  2  (v  b)  RT , p pressure, v is (C) The ice directly converts from solid
 v 
phase to vapor phase
specific volume, T is temperature and R is
(D) Saturated liquid and saturated vapor
characteristic gas constant. The SI unit of a
states are identical
is [1 Mark]
(A) J/kg-K 3
(B) m /kg 2018 IIT Guwahati

(C) m5 /kg-s 2 (D) Pa/kg 6.5 Which one of the following statements is
correct for a superheated vapour?
6.2 A rigid container of volume 0.5 m3 contains [1 Mark]
1.0 kg of water at 1200 C (A) Its pressure is less than the saturation
(v f  0.00106 m3 /kg, vg  0.8908 m3 /kg ). pressure at a given temperature.
The state of water is [1 Mark] (B) Its temperature is less than the saturation
temperature at a given pressure.
(A) Compressed liquid
(C) Its volume is less than the volume of the
(B) Saturated liquid saturated vapour at a given temperature.
(C) A mixture of saturated liquid and (D) Its enthalpy is less than enthalpy of the
saturated vapor saturated vapour at a given pressure.
(D) Superheated vapor 6.6 A tank of volume 0.05 m3 contains a
2016 IISc Bangalore mixture of saturated water and saturated
steam at 200 0 C . The mass of the liquid
6.3 For water at 250 C, present is 8 kg. The entropy (in kJ/kgK) of
dpS the mixture is _____ (correct of two decimal
 0.189 kPa / K places) property data for saturated steam and
dTS
water are : [2 Marks]
( pS is the saturation pressure in kPa and TS
At 200 C , psat  1.5538 MPa ,
0

is the saturation temperature in K) and the

specific volume of dry saturated vapour is v f  0.001157 m3 /kg ,
43.38 m3 / kg . Assume that the specific vg  0.12736 m 3 /kg ,
volume of liquid is negligible in comparison
s fg  4.1014 kJ/kgK ,
with that of vapour. Using the Clausius-
Clapeyron equation, an estimate of the s f  2.3309 kJ/kgK .
enthalpy of evaporation of water at 250 C (in
2020 IIT Delhi
kJ/kg) is _______. [1 Mark]
6.4 The INCORRECT statement about the 6.7 A closed vessel contains pure water, in
characteristics of critical point of a pure thermal equilibrium with its vapour at 250 C
substance is that [1 Mark] (Stage#1), as shown.

Thermodynamics 1
 temperature at the triple point is _______K
(round off to one decimal place).
6.10 Superheated steam at 1500 kPa, has a
3
specific volume of 2.75 m /kmol and
compressibility factor (Z) of 0.95. The
0
temperature of steam is ______ C .(round
off to the nearest integer). [2 Marks]
The vessel in this stage is then kept inside an (A) 522 (B) 471
isothermal oven which is having an
(C) 249 (D) 198
atmosphere of hot air maintained at 80 0 C .
6.11 The fundamental thermodynamic relation
The vessel exchanges heat with the oven
for a rubber band is given by dU = TdS + 
atmosphere and attains a new thermal
dL, where T is absolute temperature, S is the
equilibrium (Stage#2). If the valve A is now
entropy,  is the tension in the rubber band,
opened inside the oven, what will happen
and L is the length of the rubber band. Which
immediately after opening the valve?
one of the following relations is CORRECT
[1 Mark]
: [2 Marks]
(A) Hot air will go inside the vessel through
 T      U 
valve A (A)      (B)    
(B) Water vapor inside the vessel will come  S  L  L  S  S  L
out of the valve A  U   T    
(C) T    (D)    
(C) All the vapor inside the vessel will  S   L  S  S  L
immediately condense 6.12 A rigid tank of volume 50 m3 contains a pure
(D) Nothing will happen-the vessel will substance as a saturated liquid vapour
continue to remain in equilibrium mixture at 400 kPa. Of the total mass of the
6.8 Which one of the following statement about mixture, 20% mass is liquid and 80% mass
a phase diagram is INCORRECT? is vapour. Properties at 400 kPa are :
[1 Mark] Saturation temperature, Tsat  143.610 C ,
(A) It indicates the temperature at which specific volume of saturated liquid,
different phases start to melt v f  0.001084 m 3 /kg;
(B) Relative amount of different phases can Specific volume of saturated vapour,
be found under given equilibrium
vg  0.46242 m 3 /kg . The total mass of
conditions
(C) It gives information on transformation liquid vapour mixture in the tank is
rates ___________ kg. (round off to the nearest
(D) Solid solubility limits are depicted by its integer). [1 Mark]

2021 IIT Bombay 2023 IIT Kanpur

6.9 In the vicinity of the triple point, the equation 6.13 Consider a mixture of two ideal gases, X
of liquid-vapour boundary in the P-T phase and Y with molar masses
diagram for ammonia is M x  10 kg/kmol and M y  20 kg/kmol
ln p  24.38  3063 / T , where p is pressure respectively. in a container. The total
(in Pa) and T is temperature (in K). pressure in the container is 100 kPa, the
Similarly, the solid-vapour boundary is total volume of the container is 10 m3 and
given by ln p  27.92  3754 / T . The the temperature of the contents of the

2 Thermodynamics
 container is 300 K. If the mass of gas-X in Assume that the universal gas constant is
the container is 2 kg, then the mass of gas- 8314J kmol-1 -K-1
Y in the container is ________ kg.
(Rounded off to one decimal place)

6.1 (C) So, state of water is a mixture of saturated liquid

and saturated water.
Since, a /v 2 is added to p , hence both have the Hence, the correct option is (C).
same units
N a
2
 3
m (m /kg) 2
kg-m-s 2 akg 2 6.3 2443.24
 6
m2 m dps
5 Given :  0.189 kPa/ K ,
m dTs
a
kg-s 2 Volume of vapour (vg )  43.38 m3 / kg
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Volume liquid (v f )  0 (Negligible),
Saturation temperature (Tsat )  298K .
By Clapeyron equation,
6.2 (C)
dps h fg h fg
 
Given : Volume of container (V )  0.5 m 3
dTs Ts  v fg 298  43.38
Mass of water (m)  1 kg
0.189  298  43.38  h fg
Specific volume of liquid (v f )  0.00106 m3 /kg
h fg  2443.24 kJ / kg
Specific volume of vapour (vg )  0.8908 m /kg 3
Hence, the enthalpy of evaporation of water at
..Method 1.. 250 C is 2443.24 kJ/kg.
V 0.5
v   0.5 m3 /kg
m 1
 It is lying between v f and vg . The state of
water is a mixture of saturated liquid and saturated 6.4 (C)
vapour. At critical point of pure substance liquid phase
Hence, the correct option is (C). directly converts into vapour phase.
..Method 2..
Specific volume of water,
Volume 0.5
v   0.5m3 /kg
Mass of water 1
Let x be the dryness fraction,
v  v f  x (v g  v f )
0.5  0.00106  x(0.8908  0.00106)
Hence, the correct option is (C).
x  0.5608

Thermodynamics 3
 So, from equation (ii), we get
0.04074  mV  0.12736
mV  0.3198kg
6.5 (A) mV
Dryness fraction, x 
According to question, mV  mL
0.3198
x  0.0384
0.3198  8
Specific entropy of mixture (s),
s  s f  x  s fg
s  2.3309  0.0384  4.1014
s  2.4884 kJ/kg K
psat at T1  Saturation pressure at T1 temperature Hence, the entropy of the mixture is 2.4884
p1  Pressure of superheated vapour at state 1 kJ/kgK.

p1  psat at T1
Hence, the correct option is (A).
6.7 (A)
Initially when water and water vapour mixture is
6.6 2.4884 at 250 C then the maximum vapour pressure that
can be at 250 C is the saturation pressure of vapour
Given : Total volume of tank (V )  0.05m3
at 250 C .
Mass of liquid (mL )  8 kg
The saturation pressure at 250 C is very less than
1 atm (101.3 kPa). It is around 3.17 kPa

Total volume, V  VL  VV …(i)

Where, VL  Volume of liquid in tank,
VV  Volume of vapour in tank.
 VV  mV vV …(ii)
vV  vg at 2000 C  0.12736 m 3 /kg
Again, VL  mL vL
vL  v f at 2000 C  0.001157 m 3 /kg
VL  8  0.001157  9.256 103 m3
Putting in equation (i), we get
0.05  9.256 10 3  VV
Now when this vessel will be kept in oven at 80 0 C
then at 80 0 C the saturation pressure of water is
still less than 1 atm. It is around 47.2 kPa
The vapour pressure will reach 1 atm when
temperature is 1000 C . Hence at 80 0 C stage, still
the pressure will be less than 1 atm. Therefore,
when opening the valve A hot air will go inside the
vessel.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
6.8 (C)

VV  0.04074 m3 An equilibrium phase diagram presents the phases

and phase changes expected under equilibrium
4 Thermodynamics
conditions, but it provides no information about T  Absolute temperature, S  Entropy,  
the rates of transformation. Although changes in Tension, L  Length
pressure, composition, or temperature can cause
Comparing with dz  Mdx  Ndy
phase transformation, it is temperature changes
that are more important.
 z 
Hence, the correct option is (C). M  
 x  y
6.9 195.19
 z 
Given: Triple point regime for ammonia (NH3) N  
 y  x
3063
ln P  24.38   liquid vapour line
T Since z is exact differential
… (i)
 M   N 
ln P  27.92 
3754
    
Solid - vapour line  y  x  x  y
T
… (ii) Since U is exact differential
Triple point of any substance, all the three phases
coexist with each other in phase equation.  U   z 
T   since M   
 By equating (i) and (ii),  S  L  x  y
3754 3063
27.92   24.38   U   z 
T T T   Since N   
 L S  y  x
3754  3063
(27.92  24.38) 
T  T    
T  195.19 K    
 L S  S  L
Hence, the temperature at the triple point is 195.19
K. Hence, the correct option is (D).

6.10 (C) 6.12 135.08

Given :
Given : P  1500 kPa, v  2.75 m3 /kmol
V  50 m3 ,
Z  0.95
T ?
P  400 kPa ,
Pv  ZRT v f  0.001084 m3 /kg ,
R = Universal gas constant = 8.314 kJ/kmol-K vg  0.46242 m 3 /kg ,
1500  2.75  0.95  8.314  T
Tsat  143.610 C ,
1500  2.75
T  522.26 K Liquid  20 % , Vapor  80%
0.95  8.314
T  249.260 C 0.8
x  0.8
Hence, the correct option is (C). 0.2  0.8
v f  0.001084 m3 / kg
6.11 (D)
vg  0.46242 m 3 /kg
Given :
dU  Tds  dL v  v f  x (v g  v f )
v  0.001084  0.8(0.46242  0.001084)

Thermodynamics 5
 v  0.37015 m3 / kg
V
v
m

50
m  135.08 kg
0.37015
Hence, the total mass of liquid vapour mixture in
the tank is 135.08 kg.
6.13 4.02

Given : M x  10 kg/k-mol, M y  20 kg/k-mol,

Pc  100 kPa, Vc  10 m3, Tc  300 k and
mx  2 kg.

mx 2
Nx    0.2
M x 10
Px v  N x RT
0.2  8.314  300
Px = = 49.884 kPa
10
Py  100  49.884  50.116 kPa
Py v  N y RT
50.116 10  N y  8.314  300
N y  0.201
m y  N y  M y  0.2  20  4.02 kg
Hence, the correct answer is 4.02.



6 Thermodynamics
7 Steam Power Cycles
2013 IIT Bombay
7.1 Specific enthalpy and velocity of steam at
inlet and exit of a steam turbine, running
under steady state, are as given below,
Specific enthalpy Velocity
(kJ/kg) (m/s)
Inlet steam
3250 180
condition
Exit steam
2360 5
condition
The rate of heat loss from the turbine per kg
of steam flow rate is 5 kW. Neglecting
changes in potential energy of steam, the
power developed in kW by the steam turbine
per kg of steam flow rate, is [2 Marks]
(A) 901.2 (B) 911.2
(C) 17072.5 (D) 17082.5
2014 IIT Kharagpur
7.2 In a power plant, water (density = 1000
kg/m3) is pumped from 80 kPa to 3 MPa. The
pump has an isentropic efficiency of 0.85.
Assuming that the temperature of the water
remains the same, the specific work (in
kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is [1 Mark]
(A) 0.34 (B) 2.48
(C) 2.92 (D) 3.43
7.3 An ideal reheat Rankine cycle operates
between the pressure limits of 10 kPa and 8
MPa, with reheat being done at 4 MPa. The
temperature of steam at the inlets of both
turbines is 5000 C and the enthalpy of steam
is 3185 kJ/kg at the exit of the high pressure
turbine and 2247 kJ/kg at the exit of low
pressure turbine. The enthalpy of water at the
exit from the pump is 191 kJ/kg, Use the
following table for relevant data.
Thermodynamics
Disregarding the pump work, the cycle
efficiency (in percentage) is _______ .
[2 Marks]
7.4 Steam at a velocity of 10 m/s enters the
impulse turbine stage with symmetrical
blading having blade angle 30 0. The enthalpy
drop in the stage is 100 kJ. The nozzle angle
is 200. The maximum blade efficiency (in
percent) is ______. [2 Marks]
7.5 Steam with specific enthalpy (h) 3214 kJ/kg
enters an adiabatic turbine operating at
steady state with a flow rate 10 kg/s. As it
expands, at a point where h is 2920 kJ/kg, 1.5
kg/s is extracted for heating purposes. The
remaining 8.5 kg/s further expands to the
turbine exit, where h = 2374 kJ/kg.
Neglecting changes in kinetic and potential
energies, the net power output (in kW) of the
turbine is ______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
7.6 Which of the following statements regarding
a Rankine cycle with reheating are TRUE?
[1 Mark]
(i) Increase in a average temperature of heat
addition
(ii) Reduction in thermal efficiency
(iii)Drier steam at the turbine exit
(A) Only (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(C) Only (i) and (iii) are correct
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
7.7 Steam enters a well-insulated turbine and
expands isentropically throughout. At an
intermediate pressure, 20 percent of the mass
1
 is extracted for process heating and the
remaining steam expands isentropically to 9
kPa. Inlet to turbine :
p = 14 MPa, T  5600 C,
h = 3486 kJ/kg, s = 6.6 kJ/kg K
Intermediate stage : h = 2776 kJ/kg
Exit of turbine :
p = 9 kPa, h f  174 kJ/kg,
hg  2574 kJ/kg, s f  0.6 kJ/kg K,
sg  8.1 kJ/kg K
If the flow rate of steam entering the turbine
is 100 kg/s, then the work output (in MW)is
______. [2 Marks]
7.8 In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine
entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187
kJ/kg, respectively. If the specific pump
work is 2 kJ/kg, the specific steam
consumption (in kg/kW-h) of the cycle based
on net output is ______. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
7.9 The INCORRECT statement about
regeneration in vapor power cycle is that
[1 Mark]
(A) It increases the irreversibility by adding
the liquid with higher energy content to
the steam generator.
(B) Heat is exchanged between the
expanding fluid in the turbine and the
compressed fluid before heat addition.
(C) The principle is similar to the principle
of Stirling gas cycle.
(D) It is practically implemented by
providing feed water heaters.
7.10 In a steam power plant operating on an ideal
Rankine cycle, superheated steam enters the
turbine at 3 MPa and 350 0 C . The condenser
pressure is 75 kPa. The thermal efficiency of
the cycle is _____ %. Given data :
[2 Marks]
For saturated liquid, at p  75 kPa
2 Thermodynamics
h f  384.39 kJ/kg ,
v f  0.001037 m 3 /kg
s f  1.213 kJ/kg K
At 75 kPa, h fg  2278.6 kJ/kg
s fg  6.2434 kJ/kg K
At p  3 MPa and T  3500 C
(superheated steam)
h  3115.3 kJ/kg ,
s  6.7428 kJ/kg K
2017 IIT Roorkee
7.11 In the Rankine cycle for a steam power plant
the turbine entry and exit enthalpies are 2803
kJ/kg and 1800 kJ/kg, respectively. The
enthalpies of water at pump entry and exit
are 121 kJ/kg and 124 kJ/kg respectively.
The specific steam consumption (in
kg / kW h ) of the cycle is ______.
[2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
7.12 Select the correct statement for 50% reaction
stage in a steam turbine. [1 Mark]
(A) The rotor blade is symmetric
(B) The stator blade is symmetric
(C) The absolute inlet flow angle is equal to
absolute exit flow angle
(D) The absolute exit flow angle is equal to
inlet angle of rotor blade.
2019 IIT Madras
7.13 Which one of the following modifications of
the simple ideal Rankine cycle increases the
thermal efficiency and reduces the moisture
content of the steam at the turbine outlet?
[1 Mark]
(A) Decreasing the condenser pressure.
(B) Increasing the boiler pressure.
(C) Increasing the turbine inlet temperature.
(D) Decreasing the boiler pressure.
7.14 A steam power cycle with regeneration as
shown below on the T-s diagram employs a
single open feedwater heater for efficiency
 improvement. The fluids mix with each
other in an open feedwater heater. The
turbine is isentropic and the input (bleed) to
the feedwater heater from the turbine is at
state 2 as shown in the figure. Process 3-4
occurs in the condenser. The pump work is
negligible. The input to the boiler is at state Saturated steam table :
5. The following information is available
from the steam tables :

2021 IIT Bombay

7.17 Consider a steam power plant operating on
an ideal reheat Rankine cycle. The work
input to the pump is 20kJ/kg. The work
output from the high pressure turbine is 750
kJ/kg. The work output from the low
The mass flow rate of steam bled from the pressure turbine is 1500 kJ/kg. The thermal
turbine as a percentage of the total mass flow efficiency of the cycle is 50%. The enthalpy
rate at the inlet to the turbine at state 1 is of saturated liquid and saturated vapour at
_______. [2 Marks] condenser pressure are 200 kJ/kg and 2600
2020 IIT Delhi kJ/kg, respectively. The quality of steam at
the exit of the low pressure turbine is
7.15 For an ideal Rankine cycle operating _______ %(round off to the nearest integer).
between pressure of 30 bar and 0.04 bar the
[2 Marks]
work output from the turbine is 903kJ/kg
7.18 Consider the open feed water heater (FWH)
and the work input to the feed pump is
shown in the figure given below:
3kJ/kg . The specific steam consumption is
______ kg/kWh (round off to 2 decimal
places). [2 Marks]
7.16 In a steam power plant, superheated steam at
10 MPa and 5000 C , is expanded
isentropically in a turbine until it becomes a
saturated vapour. It is then reheated at
constant pressure to 5000 C . The steam is
next expanded isentropically in another
turbine until it reaches the condenser
pressure of 20 kPa. Relevant properties of
steam are given in the following two tables. Specific enthalpy of steam at location 2 is
The work done by both the turbines together 2624 kJ/kg. Specific enthalpy of water at
is ______ kJ/kg. (round off to the nearest location 5 is 226.7 kJ/kg and specific
integer) [2 Marks] enthalpy of saturated water at location 6 is
Superheated steam table : 708.6 kJ/kg. If the mass rate of water

Thermodynamics 3
 entering the open feed water heater (at
location 5) is 100 kg/s then the mass flow
rate of steam at location 2 will be
___________ kg/s (round off to one decimal
place). [2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
7.19 In a steam power plant based on Rankine
cycle, steam is initially expanded in a high-
pressure turbine. The steam is then reheated
in a reheater and finally expanded in a low-
pressure turbine. The expansion work in the
high-pressure turbine is 400 kJ/kg and in the
low-pressure turbine is 850 kJ/kg, whereas
the pump work is 15 kJ/kg. If the cycle
efficiency is 32%, the heat rejected in the
condenser is ________ kJ/kg (round off to 2
decimal places). [2 Marks]

7.1 (A) Isentropic efficiency of pump ( p )  0.85

Steam turbine operates on SFEE equation : Specific work (in kJ/kg) supplied to the pump is,
For SFEE flow process the following schematic Ideal work input,
diagram can be referred wp  v f p
1  V 1
wp  ( p2  p1 )  v f   
 water  m 
(3000  80) 2920
wp    2.92 kJ/kg
1000 1000
w 2.92
Actual input work  p   3.43kJ/kg
 0.85
Hence, the correct option is (D).

7.3 40.7
According to question,

 Applying SFEE at inlet and exit condition.

V2 V2
h1  1  q  h2  2  wT
2 2
2
180 52
3250   5  2360   wT
2000 2000
wT  901.2 kW/kg
Hence, the correct option is (A).
7.2 (D)
Given : Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3
Initial pressure ( p1 )  80 kPa
Final pressure ( p2 )  3MPa  3000 kPa

4 Thermodynamics
 7.5 7581
According to question,

Turbine work is given by,

wT  (h3  h4 )  (h5  h6 ) Net power output is given by,
wT  (3399  3185)  (3446  2247) wT  m1 (h1  h2 )  m3 (h2  h3 )
wT  1413 kJ/kg wT  10(3214  2920)  8.5(2920  2374)
Heat addition is given by, wT  7581 kW
q  (h3  h2 )  (h5  h4 ) Hence, the net power output of the turbine is 7581
q  (3399  191)  (3446  3185) kW.
q  3469 kJ/kg
Efficiency is given by,
W WT  Wp
  net  7.6 (C)
q q
w 1413 Rankine cycle with reheating :
 T   0.407  40.7
q 3469
( Neglecting pump work W p  0 )
Hence, the cycle efficiency is 40.7%.

7.4 88.3
Given : Nozzle angle ()  200 1. Increase in a average temperature of heat
The maximum blade efficiency is addition.
b , max  cos 2  2. Increase in thermal efficiency.
3. Drier steam at the turbine exit i.e., decrease
b , max  (cos 200 ) 2  0.883  88.3% in moisture content of the steam at the low-
Hence, the maximum blade efficiency is 88.3%. pressure turbine exit, reducing the turbine
blade erosion.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Thermodynamics 5

7.7 125.56
Given parameters are :
h1  3486 kJ/kg , s1  6.6 kJ/kg K
h2  2776 kJ/kg
At exit of turbine at 9 kPa pressure,
h f  174 kJ/kg , hg  2574 kJ/kg
s f  0.6 kJ/kg K , sg  8.1kJ/kg K
m1  100 kg/s
20 % extracted at intermediate pressure.
 m2  20 kg/s
m1  m2  100  20  80 kg/s
Since process 1  3 is isentropic, so
s3  s1  s f  xs fg
6.6  0.6  x(8.1  0.6)
6.6  0.6
x  0.8
7.5
Finding the enthalpy at state 3,
h3  hr  xh fg
h3  174  0.8(2574  174)
h3  2094 kJ/kg
Work output is given by,
 m1 (h1  h2 )  (m1  m2 )(h2  h3 )
 100(3486  2776)  80(2776  2094)
 100  710  80  682
 125560 kW  125.56 MW
Hence, the work output is 125.56 MW.
6 Thermodynamics
7.8 3.711
Given :
Enthalpy at turbine inlet (h1 )  3159 kJ/kg
Enthalpy at turbine outlet (h2 )  2187 kJ/kg
Specific pump work ( wp )  2 kJ/kg
Process 1  2 :
Isentropic expansion in turbine.
Process 3  4 :
Isentropic compression in pump,
wturbine  h1  h2
wturbine  3159  2187  972 kJ/kg
and wnet  wT  wpump
wnet  972  2  970 kJ/kg
Specific steam consumption,
3600
 kg/kWh
wnet
3600
 kg/kWh  3.711kg/kWh
970
Hence, the specific steam consumption of the
cycle based on net output is 3.711 kg/kWh.
7.9 (A)
Regeneration in vapour power cycle is achieved
by transferring heat from expanding steam to
liquid. The temperature difference between liquid
water and steam is approximately same. So
irreversibility involved is not much more.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 7.10 26
According to question,

Enthalpy at point 1 is given by,

h1  h4  vdp
h1  384.39  (0.001037)(3000  75)
h1  387.43 kJ / kg
For process 2  3 , which is isentropic expansion
So, s2  s3
Work done by turbine is given by,
6.7428  s4  x3 ( s fg ) wT  h1  h2  2803  1800
6.7428  1.213  x3  6.2434 wT  1003 kJ/kg
x3  0.8857 (dryness fraction) Work done by pump is given by,
Enthalpy at point 3 is given by, wpump  h4  h3  124  121
h3  h4  x3  h fg wpump  3 kJ/kg
h3  384.39  0.8857  2278.6 Net work output is given by,
h3  2402.54 kJ / kgK wnet  1003  3  1000 kJ/kg
The thermal efficiency of cycle is given by, Specific steam consumption is given by,
w (h  h )  (h1  h4 )
th  net  2 3 3600 3600
qin (h2  h1 )    3.6 kg/kWh
wnet 1000
(3115.3  2402.54)  (387.43  384.39)
th  Hence, the specific steam consumption of the
(3115.3  387.43)
cycle is 3.6 kg/kWh.
th  0.26  26%
Hence, the thermal efficiency of the cycle is 26%.

7.12 (D)
Parson’s reaction turbine :
7.11 3.6
It is a type of turbine in which the moving blade
Accoding to question,
and the fixed blade must have the same shape, i.e.,
symmetrical velocity triangles.

Thermodynamics 7
 7.15 4
Given :
Work output of turbine (WT )  903 kJ/kg
Work input to pump (WC )  3 kJ/kg
Specific steam consumption
R  50% 3600 3600 3600
For and symmetrical triangle   
(1  2 , 2  1 , V1  Vr2 , V2  Vr1 ) Wnet WT  WC 903  3

 Absolute exit flow angle ( 2 ) 3600

  4 kg/kWh
900
= Inlet angle of rotor blade (1 )
Hence, the specific steam consumption is 4
Hence, the correct option is (D). kg/kWh.
7.16 1513
According to question, the graph shown below,
7.13 (C)
Increasing the turbine inlet temperature increases
the thermal efficiency of simple ideal Rankine
cycle and reduces the moisture content of the
steam at the turbine outlet.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

Using the given table, to find dryness fraction x ,

7.14 20
S 4  S3  S f  x ( S g  S f )
According to question,
7.7621  0.8319  x(7.9085  0.8319)
x  0.9793
Now, for h4 using the corresponding table again,
h4  h f  x(hg  h f )
h4  251.38  0.9793(2609.7  251.38)
From energy balance equation, h4  2560.9
mh2  (1  m) h4  1 h5
(Since, h f  h4  hg that means it shows the mixed
mh2  m h4  h4  h5 state)
m (h2  h4 )  h5  h4 Therefore, total work done by both the turbine,
h5  h4 Wturbine  (Wturbine )1-2  (Wturbine )3-4
m
(h2  h4 ) Wturbine  (3373.6  2778.1)  (3478.4  2560.91)
700  175 Wturbine  1512.98 kJ/kg  1513 kJ/kg
m 100  20 %
(2800  175)
Hence, the work done by both turbines together is
Hence, the turbine at state 1 is 20%. 1513 kJ/kg.
8 Thermodynamics
 7.17 92.91 Hence, the quality of steam at the exit of the low
pressure turbine is 92.91 %.
Given :
7.18 25.15
WHPT1  750 kJ/kg, WLPT2  1500 kJ/kg
h2 =2624 kJ/kg
  50%, WP  20 kJ/kg
2 m2 = ?
h f  200 kJ/kg, hg  2600 kJ/kg
Wnet m6 = m2 + m5 h 5 =226.7 kJ/kg
 6
Open FWH
5 m5 = 100 kg/s
Qsupplied
h6 = 708.6 kJ/kg

Energy in = Energy out

(m2  m5 )h6  m2  2624  m5  h5

(m2  100)708.6  m2 2624  100  226.7

m2  25.15 kg/s

Hence, the mass flow rate of steam at location 2

will be 25.15 kg/s.
Wnet  WHPT1  WLPT2  WP 7.19 2624.375

Wnet  750  1500  20  2230 kJ/kg Given :

2230 Work of turbine (wt )  400 kJ/kg
0.50 
QS Pump work ( wp )  15 kJ/kg
QS  4460 kJ/kg Cycle efficiency rankine  32%
QR
  1 Work of turbine in (low pressure)  850 kJ/kg
QS
wT  wp
Q 
0.50  1  R Qadd
4460
QR (850  400)  15
0.50  0.32 
4460 Qadd
QR  2230 kJ/kg Qadd  3859.37 kJ/kg

QR  h4  h5  2230 kJ/kg h5  h f  Qrejected

  1
For condenser pressure Qadded
h4  h5  x(hg  h f ) Qrejected
0.32  1 
h4  h5  x(hg  h f ) Qadded

2230  x(2600  200) 0.68  3859.375  Qrejected

2230 Qrej  2624.375 kJ/kg

x  0.9291  92.91%
2400 Hence, the correct answer is 2624.375


Thermodynamics 9
8 Gas Power Cycles

2013 IIT Bombay P. Smaller in size compared to steam power

plant for same power output
Q. Starts quickly compared to steam power
Common Data for
plant
Questions 8.1 & 8.2
R. Works on the principle of Rankine cycle
In a simple Brayton cycle, the pressure ratio is 8 S. Good compatibility with solid fuel
and temperatures at the entrance of compressor (A) P and Q (B) R and S
and turbine are 300 K and 1400 K, respectively. (C) Q and R (D) P and S
Both compressor and gas turbine have isentropic 8.5 In an ideal Brayton cycle, atmospheric air
efficiencies equal to 80%. For the gas, assume a
(ratio of specific heats, c p / cv  1.4, specific
constant value of c p (specific heat at constant
heat at constant pressure = 1.005 kJ/kg K) at
pressure) equal to 1 kJ/kg K and ratio of specific 1 bar and 300 K is compressed to 8 bar. The
heats as 1.4. Neglect changes in kinetic and maximum temperature in the cycle is limited
potential energies. to 1280 K. If the heat is supplied at the rate
8.1 The power required by the compressor in of 80 MW, the mass flow rate (in kg/s) of air
kW/kg of gas flow rate is [2 Marks] required in the cycle is ______. [2 Marks]
(A) 194.7 (B) 243.4 2016 IISc Bangalore
(C) 304.3 (D) 378.5 8.6 Consider a simple gas turbine (Brayton)
cycle and a gas turbine cycle with perfect
8.2 The thermal efficiency of the cycle in
regeneration. In both the cycles, the pressure
percentage (%) is [2 Marks]
ratio is 6 and the ratio of the specific heats of
(A) 24.8 (B) 38.6 the working medium is 1.4. The ratio of
minimum to maximum temperatures is 0.3
(C) 44.8 (D) 53.1
(with temperatures expressed in K) in the
2014 IIT Kharagpur regenerative cycle. The ratio of the thermal
efficiency of the simple cycle to that of the
8.3 The thermal efficiency of an air-standard regenerative cycle is _______. [1 Mark]
Brayton cycle in terms of pressure ratio rp
8.7 In a 3-stage air compressor, the inlet pressure
and  ( c p / cv ) is given by [1 Mark] is p1 , discharge pressure is p4 and the
1 1 intermediate pressures are p2 and
(A) 1  1
(B) 1 
rp rp p3 ( p2  p3 ). The total pressure ratio of the
1 1 compressor is 10 and the pressure ratios of
(C) 1  (D) 1 
rp1/  r( 1)/ 
p
the stages are equal. If p1  100 kPa, the

8.4 For a gas turbine power plant, identify the value of the pressure p3 (in kPa) is ______.
correct pair of statements. [1 Mark] [2 Marks]

Thermodynamics 1
 2017 IIT Roorkee
8.8 The pressure ratio across a gas turbine (for
air, specific heat at constant pressure, c p 
1040 J/kg K and ratio of specific heats,  
1.4) is 10. If the inlet temperature to the
turbine is 1200 K and the isentropic
efficiency is 0.9, the gas temperature at
turbine exit is ______ K. [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
8.9 A gas turbine with air as the working fluid
has an isentropic efficiency of 0.70 when
operating at a pressure ratio of 3. Now, the
pressure ratio of the turbine is increased to 5,
while maintaining the same inlet conditions.
Assume air as a perfect gas with specific heat
ratio   1.4 . If the specific work output
remains the same for both the cases, the
isentropic efficiency of the turbine at the
pressure ratio of 5 is ______ (round off to
two decimal places). [2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
8.10 The compressor of a gas turbine plant,
operating on an ideal intercooled Brayton
cycle, accomplishes an overall pressure ratio
of 6 in a two stage compression process.
Intercooling is used to cool the air coming
out from the first stage to the inlet
temperature of the first stage, before its entry
to the second stage. Air enters the
compressor at 300 K and 100 kPa. If the
properties of gas are constant, the
intercooling pressure for minimum
compressor work is ______ kPa (round off
to 2 decimal places). [1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay
8.11 In which of the following pairs of cycles,
both cycles have at least one isothermal
process? [1 Mark]
(A) Bell-Coleman cycle and Vapour
compression refrigeration cycle
(B) Carnot cycle and Stirling cycle
(C) Brayton cycle and Rankine cycle
(D) Diesel cycle and Otto cycle

8.1 (C) For process (1  2) is isentropic,

1
Given : Pressure ratio ( rp )  8 T2  p2  
1 0.4
   (rp ) 
 (8) 1.4

Minimum temperature of cycle (T1 )  300 K T1  p1 

Maximum temperature of cycle (T3 )  1400K

0.4
T2  300  (8) 1.4
 543.43K
Isentropic efficiencies (C )  (T )  80% Compressor efficiency is given by,
Specific heat (c p )  1 kJ/kg K T T
C  2 1
Specific heat ratio ( r )  1.4 T2'  T1
T2  T1
T2'  T1 
C
543.434  300
T2'  300   304.293 K
0.8
 T2'  604.293 K
 Power required by compressor,
wC  h2  h1

2 Thermodynamics
 wC  c p (T2'  T1 )  1 (604.293  300) 1
or Brayton  1 
(rp )( 1)/ 
wC  304.3 kJ/kg
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 Key Point
8.2 (A)
v1
If rk  Compression ratio  the efficiency
For process (3  4) is isentropic, v2
1 1
0.4 becomes,
T4  p4   1  
 1  1.4
      v 
1
T3  p3  r 8   1  2 
 p 
0.4
 v1 
 1  1.4 1
T4  1400     772.863 K or Brayton  1 
8 rk1
Turbine efficiency is given by,
T T '
T  3 4
T3  T4
T3  T4'  T  (T3  T4 ) 8.4 (A)
T3  T4'  0.8  (1400  772.863) 1. Gas turbines are compact and hence have
T3  T4'  501.709 K low weight whereas steam plants have boiler
and condenser making them bulky.
T4'  1400  501.709 2. Gas turbine can be started and shut down
T4'  898.29 K quickly whereas in steam plants boiler takes a lot
of time to start.
 Efficiency of the cycle,
3. Gas turbine works on Brayton cycle
w  wc
 T  100 4. Only liquid fuel or pulverized coal is used.
qs
Hence, the correct option is (A).
(T3  T4' )  (T2 '  T1 )
  100
T3  T2'
(501.710)  (304.293)
 100
1400  604.293 8.5 108.07
  24.81%
Given : Ratio of specific heat (  )  1.4
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Specific heat at constant pressure
(c p )  1.005 kJ/kg K
Minimum pressure of cycle ( p1 )  1 bar
8.3 (D) Minimum temperature of cycle (T1 )  300 K
p2 Maximum pressure of cycle ( p2 )  8bar
If rp  Pressure ratio  , the efficiency may be
p1 Maximum temperature of cycle (T3 )  1280K
expressed in the following form,
Heat supplied (Q)  80MW  80 103 kW
( 1)/ 
p 
  1  1 
 p2 

Thermodynamics 3
 Simple cycle 0.4
  0.80
Regenerative cycle 0.4994
Hence, the required ratio is 0.80.

8.7 464.06
For constant entropy process 1  2 , we have According to question,
1
p4
T2  p2    10
  p1
T1  p1 
T2
 (8)0.4/1.4 p4 p3 p2
   10
300 p3 p2 p1
T2  543.43 K 3
 p2 
Heat supplied in process 2  3 is given by,    10
Q  mc p (T3  T2 )  p1 
( Pressure ratio of each
80 103  m 1.005(1280  543.43) stage is equal)
m  108.07 kg/s p2 3
 10  2.154
Hence, the mass flow rate of air required in the p1
cycle is 108.07 kg/s.
p2  2.154 100
(Given, p1  100kPa )
p2  215.44 kPa
8.6 0.80 p3
Again,  2.154
Given : Pressure ratio ( rp )  6 p2
Ratio of minimum temperature to maximum p3  215.44  2.154
temperature for regenerative cycle p3  464.06 kPa
(Tmin / Tmax )  0.3 Hence, the value of the pressure p3 is 464.06 kPa.
Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4
For simple gas turbine cycle efficiency is given by,
1 1
Simple cycle  1  1  1  0.4  0.4
rp  6 1.4 8.8 679.38

For perfect regeneration in Brayton cycle Given : Pressure ratio ( p1 / p2 )  10

efficiency is given by,
Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4
 1  Tmin  
Regenerative cycle  1   rP   Inlet turbine temperature (T1 )  1200 K
  Tmax  
Isentropic efficiency of turbine (T )  0.9
 1.41.41 
Regenerative cycle  1  (6)  0.3  0.4994
The ratio of the thermal efficiency of the simple
cycle to that of the regenerative cycle is given by,

4 Thermodynamics
 Wact

Wideal
Since, Wact or specific work output is same for
both the cases.
2 (Wideal )1 (h3  h4 s )1 (T3  T4 s )1
   
1 (Wideal ) 2 (h3  h4 s ) 2 (T3  T4 s ) 2
For 1  2 isentropic process, we have 1
1 T4 s1 1  1 
T2  p2   1   
 
  2 T3 r
 
p1
T1  p1  0.7 T4 s2 1
1 1  1 
0.4
T3   
 1  1.4 
r 
T2  1200     621.54 K p2
 10 
1
Isentropic efficiency of turbine is given by, 1  0.4 
 
 1.4 
T1  T2' 2  3  0.7  0.514
T  1
T1  T2 1  0.4 
 
 1.4 
5
1200  T2'
0.9  Consider it is asked only for turbine portion as for
1200  621.54
full cycle, data is not sufficient.
T2'  679.38 K
Hence, the isentropic efficiency of the turbine at
Hence, the gas temperature at turbine exit is the pressure ratio of 5 is 0.514.
679.38 K.

8.10 244.9
8.9 0.514
p 
Given : Given : Overall pressure ratio  2   6 ,
 p1 
Isentropic efficiency of condition 1, (1 )  0.7
Temperature at inlet of compressor
Pressure ratio for condition 1, (rp1 )  3 
p3 (T1 )  (T3 )  300 K
p4 s1 Pressure at inlet of 1st stage compressor
p3 ( p1 )  300KPa
Pressure ratio for condition 2, (rp2 )  5 
p4 s2
Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4

We know that, isentropic efficiency of the turbine

is,
Thermodynamics 5
 Intermediate pressure,
pi  p1 p2
pi  100  6  100  100 6
pi  244.95kPa
Hence, the intercooling pressure for minimum
compressor work is 244.9 kPa.
8.11 B
Both carnot cycle and stirling cycle include atleast
one isothermal process.
T T
1 2 1 2

4 3 4 3
S S
carnot cycle Stirling cycle
Hence, the correct option is (B).



6 Thermodynamics
9 Internal Combustion Engine (ICE)

2014 IIT Kharagpur 1-2 : Air is compressed isentropically.

2-3 : Heat is added at constant pressure.
9.1 In an air-standard Otto cycle, air is supplied
3-4 : Air expands isentropically to the
at 0.1 MPa and 308 K. The ratio of the
original volume.
specific heats (  ) and the specific gas
4-1 : Heat is rejected at constant volume.
constant (R) of air are 1.4 and 288.8 J/kg K,
If  and T denote the, specific heat ratio and
respectively. If the compression ratio is 8
and the maximum temperature in the cycle is temperature, respectively, the efficiency of
2660 K, the heat (in kJ/kg) supplied to the the cycle is [1 Mark]
engine is_______. [2 Marks] T T T T
(A) 1  4 1 (B) 1  4 1
9.2 A diesel engine has a compression ratio of T3  T2  (T3  T2 )
17 and cut-off takes place at 10% of the  (T4  T1 ) T4  T1
(C) 1  (D) 1 
stroke. Assuming ratio of specific heats (  ) T3  T2 (   1)(T3  T2 )
as 1.4, the air-standard efficiency (in 9.7 For the same values of peak pressure, peak
percent) is _______. [2 Marks] temperature and heat rejection, the correct
9.3 In a compression ignition engine, the inlet air order of efficiencies for Otto, Duel and
pressure is 1 bar and the pressure at the end Diesel cycles is [2 Marks]
of isentropic compression is 32.42 bar. The (A) Otto  Dual  Diesel
expansion ratio is 8. Assuming ratio of (B) Diesel  Dual  Otto
specific heats (  ) as 1.4, the air standard
(C) Dual  Diesel  Otto
efficiency (in percent) is _______.
(D) Diesel  Otto  Dual
[2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur 2016 IISc Bangalore
9.8 Propane (C3H8 ) is burned in an oxygen
9.4 Air enters a diesel engine with a density of
1.0 kg/m3 . The compression ratio is 21. At atmospheric with 10% deficit oxygen with
respect to the stoichiometric requirement.
steady state, the air intake is 30  10 3 kg/s
Assuming no hydrocar-bons in the products,
and the net work output is 15 kW. The mean
the volume percentage of CO in the products
effective pressure (kPa) is_______.
is_______. [1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
9.9 The figure below shows an air standard
9.5 A rope-brake dynamometer attached to the Diesel cycle in p-V diagram. The cut-off
crank shaft of an I.C. engine measures a ratio is given by [1 Mark]
brake power of 10 kW. When the speed of
rotation of the shaft is 400 rad/sec. The shaft
torque (in N-m) sensed by the dynamometer
is______. [1 Mark]
9.6 An air-standard Diesel cycle consists of the
following processes

Thermodynamics 1
 2019 IIT Madras
9.13 An air standard Otto cycle has thermal
efficiency of 0.5 and the mean effective
pressure of the cycle is 1000 kPa. For air,
assuming specific heat ratio   1.4 and
specific gas constant R  0.287 kJ/kgK . If
V3 V2 the pressure and temperature at the
(A) (B)
V1 V1 beginning of the compression stroke are 100
V3 V1 kPa and 300 K respectively, then the specific
(C) (D) network output of the cycle is _______
V2 V3
kJ/kg. (Round off to two decimal place)
2017 IIT Kanpur
[2 Marks]
9.10 Air contains 79 % N 2 and 21% O2 on a
2020 IIT Delhi
molar basis. Methane (CH4 ) is burned with
9.14 The indicated power developed by an engine
50% excess air than required
with compression ratio of 8, is calculated
stoichiometrically. Assuming complete
using an air-standard Otto cycle (constant
combustion of methane, the molar
properties). The rate of heat addition is 10
percentage of N 2 in the products is ______.
kW. The ratio of specific heats at constant
[2 Marks] pressure and constant volume is 1.4. The
9.11 A vehicle powered by a spark ignition engine mechanical efficiency of the engine is 80
follows air standard Otto cycle (   1.4) . percent. The brake power output of the
The engine generates 70 kW while engine is _____ kW (round off to 1 decimal
consuming 10.3 kg/hr of fuel. The calorific place). [2 Marks]
value of fuel is 44, 000 kJ/kg. The 9.15 Air (ideal gas) enters a perfect insulated
compression ratio is _____ (correct to two compressor of a temperature of 310 K. The
decimal places). [2 Marks] pressure ratio of compressor is 6, Specific
heat at constant pressure for air 1005 J/kgK
2018 IIT Guwahati and ratio of specific heats at constant
9.12 An engine working on air standard Otto pressure and constant volume is 1.4. Assume
cycle is supplied with air at 0.1 MPa and that specific heat of air is constant. If the
350 C . The compression ratio is 8. The heat isentropic efficiency of the compressor is 85
percent, the difference in enthalpies of air
supplied is 500 kJ/kg. Property data
between the exit and inlet of the compressor
c p  1.005 kJ/kg K , cv  0.718kJ/kg K and is _______ kJ/kg (round off to nearest
R  0.287 kJ/kg K. integer). [2 Marks]
The maximum temperature (in K) of the 9.16 For an air-standard diesel cycle, [1 Mark]
cycle is ______ (correct to one decimal (A) heat addition is at constant pressure and
place). [2 Marks] heat rejection is at constant pressure
(B) heat addition is at constant pressure and
heat rejection is at constant volume

2 Thermodynamics
 (C) heat addition is at constant volume and
heat rejection is at constant volume
9.18 An engine running on an air standard Otto
(D) heat addition is at constant volume and
heat rejection is at constant pressure
9.17 Keeping all other parameters identical, the
Compression Ratio (CR) of an air standard
diesel cycle is increased from 15 to 21. Take
ratio of specific heats = 1.3 and cutoff ratio
of the cycle rc  2 . The difference between
the new and the old efficiency values, in
percentage,
(new CR  21
)  (old CR 15
)  ________ % .
(round off to one decimal place).
[2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
cycle has a displacement volume 250 cm3
and a clearance volume 35.7 cm3. The
pressure and temperature at the beginning of
the compression process are 100 kPa and 300
K, respectively. Heat transfer during
constant-volume heat addition process is 800
kJ/kg. The specific heat at constant volume
is 0.718 kJ/kg.K and the ratio of specific
heats at constant pressure and constant
volume is 1.4. Assume the specific heats to
remain constant during the cycle. The
maximum pressure in the cycle is ______
kPa (round off to the nearest integer).
[2 Marks]

9.1 1409.6 The heat supplied to the engine is given by,

Q  mcv (T3  T2 )
Given : Initial temperature (T1 )  308K
R 288.8
Initial pressure ( p1 )  0.1MPa Where, cv    722 J/kgK
 1 0.4
Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4
cv  0.722 kJ/kg K
Specific gas constant ( R)  288.8 J/kg K
Also for process 1  2 ,
Compression ratio (rk )  8 1
T2  V1 
Maximum temperature (T3 )  2660 K    80.4
T1  V2 
T2  308  80.4  707.6 K
 Heat supplied is given by
Q  mcv (T3  T2 )
Q  1 0.722(2660  707.6)
Q  1409.63kJ/kg
Hence, the heat supplied to the engine is 1409.6
kJ/kg.

9.2 59.6

Given : Compression ratio (rk )  17

Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4

Thermodynamics 3
 Cut-off take place at 10 % of the stroke can be
written as, V4 V1
re   8
V3  V2  0.1(V1  V2 ) V3 V3
For isentropic process 1  2 ,
V3 V 
 1  0.1 1  1  V1  p2

V2  V2      32.42
 V2  p1
V3
 0.1(17  1)  1 Compression ratio is given by,
V2
V
V3 rk  1  12
rc   2.6 V2
V2
Cut-off ratio is given by,
Note : rc is cutoff ratio and not compression ratio, V V 12
rc  3  1   1.5 ( rk  rc  re )
All the short forms are taken from PK Nag. V2 8 V1
Efficiency is given by, Efficiency is given by,
1 1  r  1

1 1  r   1
Diesel  1  
c
 Diesel  1   1   c 
 rk1  rc  1   rk  rc  1 
1 1  2.61.4  1 1 1 1.51.4  1
Diesel  1  Diesel  1   0.4  
1.4 170.4  2.6  1  1.4 12 
 1.5  1 
Diesel  0.596  59.6 % Diesel  0.596  59.6 %
Hence, the air-standard efficiency is 59.6%. Hence, the air standard efficiency is 59.6%.

9.3 59.6 9.4 525.02

Given : Inlet air pressure ( p1 )  1bar
Final pressure ( p2 )  32.42 bar
Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4
Expansion ratio (re )  8
Given : Density of air ()  1.0 kg/m3
Compression ratio (rk )  21
Air intake (m)  30 10 3 kg/sec
Net-work output (W )  15 kW

4 Thermodynamics
 9.6 (B)

Compression ratio is given by,

V1
rk   21 …(i)
V2
Volume at the inlet can be written as,
m 30 103
V1    30 103 m3 /s
 1
Using equation (i),
V1 30 103 Heat added to the system, Qadd  c p (T3  T2 )
V2    1.428  103 m3 /s
rk 21
Heat rejected by the system, QR  cv (T4  T1 )
Mean effective pressure is defined as,  Efficiency is given by,
Work W Q c T T
    1  R  1 v 4 1
Swept volume V1  V2 Qadd c p T3  T2
T T

15

15   1 4 1
3
30 10  1.428 10 3
28.57 103  (T3  T2 )
 525.02 kPa Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the mean effective pressure is 525.02
kPa.

9.7 (B)
Figure shows a comparison of the three air
9.5 25 standard cycles for the same maximum pressure
and temperature (state 4), the heat rejection being
Given : Brake power ( P)  10 kW
also the same.
Speed of rotation ()  400 rad/sec
Here, 1-6-4-5 Otto cycle
We know that, P  T  1-7-4-5 Diesel cycle
10, 000  T  400 1-2-3-4-5 Dual cycle
T  25 Nm Q1 is represented by the area under 6-4 for the Otto
Hence, the shaft torque sensed by the dynamo- cycle, by the area under 7-4 for the diesel cycle
meter is 25 N-m. and by the area under 2-3-4 for the dual cycle in
the T-s plot, Q2 being the same.
 Diesel  dual  Otto

Thermodynamics 5
 This comparison is of greater significance, since The volume percentage of CO in the product
the diesel cycle would definitely have a higher   
compression ratio than the Otto cycle.   100
    
  
  100  14.28%
 2 1 4 
Hence, the volume percentage of CO in the
products is 14.28%.

Hence, the correct option is (B).

9.9 (C)

The cut-off ratio in diesel cycle is defined as,

9.8 14.28
V3
Propane (C3H8 ) rc 
V2
Chemically correct mixture (for complete
Hence, the correct option is (C).
combustion of fuel) :
C3H8  5O2  3CO2  4H2O
For stoichiometric burning (i.e., chemically
correct), number of moles of O2 required = 5.
9.10 73.83
As it is burnt with 10% deficient O2 it will
Stoichiometric reaction,
generate CO.
 79 
That is, the new equation is CH 4  2 O2  N2
 21 
C3H8  0.9  5O2  CO2  CO  H2O
79
Balancing carbon atoms, we get  2H2O  CO2  2   N2
21
3    …(i) 50% excess air,
Balancing hydrogen atoms, we get  79 
CH 4  3 O 2  N2
  2 or   4  21 
79
Balancing oxygen atoms, we get  2H2O  CO2  3   N 2  O2
21
0.9 10  2    
3  79
9  2    4 21
%N 2   100  73.83%
5  2   …(ii) 2 11 3
79
21
Equation (ii) – (i), we get
Hence, the molar percentage of N 2 in the products
2   or   2
is 73.83.
Substituting   2 in equation (ii), we get
5  2  2 
 1
 C3H8  4.5O2  2CO2  CO  4H2O

6 Thermodynamics
 9.11 7.61 Heat supplied,
qs  cv (T3  T2 )  500
Given : Power of engine (W )  70 kW
0.718(T3  707.6)  500
Mass of fuel (m f )  10.3 kg/hr
500
10.3 T3   707.6  1403.97 K
mf   2.86 103 kg/s 0.718
60  60
Hence, the maximum temperature of the cycle is
Calorific value of fuel (CV )  44, 000 kJ/kg
1403.97 K.
Heat added, Qadd  m f  CV
Qadd  2.86 103  44000  125.84 kW
Efficiency of engine,
9.13 709
W 70
   0.556 Given :
Qadd 125.84
Mean effective pressure ( pm )  1000 kPa
1
 0.556  1  1.4 1 Specific heat ratio (  )  1.4
rk

Compression ratio, rk  7.61 . Specific gas constant ( R)  0.287 kJ/kgK

Hence, the compression ratio is 7.61. Initial pressure ( p1 )  100 kPa

Initial temperature (T1 )  300 K
Thermal efficiency (th )  0.5
Efficiency of Otto cycle is given by,
9.12 1403.97
1
th  1  1
Given : rk
Initial pressure ( p1 )  0.1 MPa  100 kPa 1 1
0.5  1  1.4 1
  0.5
Initial temperature (T1 )  35  273  308 K r
k rk0.4
1
V1
Compression ratio (rk )  8  1  0.4
   2
1/0.4
V2 rk    5.66
 0.5 
Heat supplied (qs )  500 kJ/kg v1
 v2 
Specific heat (c p )  1.005 kJ/kg K and 5.66
(cv )  0.718 kJ/kg K RT 0.287  300
and v1  1   0.861 m3 /kg
p1 100
0.861
Hence, v2   0.152 m3 /kg
5.66
Now, network done,
W
pm  net ( vs  v1  v2 )
For adiabatic process, vs
1
T2  V1  Wnet  1000   0.861  0.152 
 
T1  V2  Wnet  709 kJ/kg
1.4 1
T2  8  308  707.6 K

Thermodynamics 7
 Hence, the specific network output of the cycle is 1
T2  P2   0.4
709 kJ/kg.    6 1.4
T1  P1 
9.14 4.5
T2  517.238
Given : Compression ratio ( r )  8 ,
WIdeal
Heat addition (Q)  10 kW , Isen 
Wact
 Cp 
Ratio of specific heat      1.4 CP (T2  T1 )
 Cv  0.85 
CP (T2 '  T1 )
Mechanical efficiency (mech )  0.8 T2  T1
T2 '  T1 
B.P. 0.85
mech  ( I .P  Wnet )
I .P. T T
T2 '  T1  2 1  553.809 K
1 W 0.85
otto  1  1  net
r QS h2'  h1  CP (T2'  T1 )
 1   1005[553.809  310]
 Wnet  1  1  QS
 r   245.1 kJ/kg
 1 
Wnet  1  1.41  10  5.64 kW Hence, the difference in enthalpies of air between
 8  the exit and inlet of the compressor is 245.1 kJ/kg.
B.P
mech  9.16 (B)
I .P
The p-V diagram for the Diesel cycle is shown
 B.P  mech  I .P
below,
B.P.  0.8  5.64  4.512 kW
B.P.  4.5 kW
Hence, the brake power output of the engine is 4.5
kW.
9.15 245.1

Given : Initial temperature of air (T1 )  310 K ,

Pressure ratio (rP )  6 ,
Specific heat at constant pressure (CP )  1005
J/kg K,
Ratio of specific heat (  )  1.4
Isentropic efficiency of compressor
(Insentropic )  0.85
The four processes of the diesel cycle are as
follows :
1  2 Isentropic compression.
2  3 Constant - pressure heat addition.
3  4 Isentropic expansion.
4  1 Constant - volume heat rejection.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
9.17 4.8
Given : Specific heat ratio (  )  1.3,
Cut off ratio (rc )  2

8 Thermodynamics
According to question, keeping all the parameter
identical.
Thermal efficiency of new cycle,
1  rc  1  1
new CR  21  1    
(r ) 1  rc  1  

1  rc  1  1
new CR  21  1    
(CR ) 1  rc  1  
Process 1-2 : Isentropic compression
1  21.3  1  1
new CR 21  1    1
(21)1.31  2  1  1.3 1
T2  P2   V 
   1  or r 1
new CR 21  0.5487 T1  P1   V2 
Similarly, Also,
1  r 1  1

old  1 1
 c
 Compression ratio (r ) 
V1 V
 1 S  1
250
 rc  1  
CR 15
(CR) V2 VC 35.7
1  21.3  1  1 r 8
old  1  
CR 15
(15)1.3 1  2  1  1.3 T2 T2
Using,  r 1   81.41
old  0.5008 T1 300
CR15

 (new )CR21  (old )CR15  0.5487  0.5008 T2  689.21 K

1
 0.0479
 P2  
(new )CR21  (old )CR15  4.79%  4.8%    r 1
 P1 
Hence, the difference between the new and old 1.41
efficiency values in percentage is 4.8%.  P2  1.4
   81.41
9.18 4809.17  100 

Given : P2  1837.917 kPa

Displacement Volume (VS )  250 cm3 For Process 2-3 : Heat addition at constant volume

Clearance Volume (VC )  35.7 cm3 (Qa )  CV (T3  T2 )

Initial pressure ( P1 )  100 kPa 800  0.718  (T3  689.21)

Initial temperature (T1 )  300 K T3  1803.416 K

Heat addition at constant volume (Qa )  800 kJ/kg Also,

P3 T3
Specific heat at constant volume  [for constant volume process]
P2 T2
(CV )  0.718 kJ/kg
P3 1803.416
C 
  P  1.4 1837.917 689.21
CV
Maximum pressure  P3  4809.17 kPa
Hence, the correct answer is 4809.17.

Thermodynamics 9
10 Compressible Fluid Flow
2021 IIT Bombay
10.1 An object is moving with a Mach number of
0.6 in an ideal gas environment, which is at
a temperature of 350 K. The gas constant is
320 J/kg-K and ratio of specific heats is 1.3.
The speed of object is _________ m/s.
(Round off to the nearest integer).
[1 Mark]
10.2 Consider adiabatic flow of air through a
duct. At a given point in the duct, velocity of
air is 300 m/s, temperature is 330K and
pressure is 180 kPa. Assume that the air
behaves as a perfect gas with constant
C p  1.005 kJ/kg-K . The stagnation
temperature at this point is _________ K
(round off to two decimal places). [1 Mark]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
10.3 The figure shows a purely convergent nozzle
with a steady, inviscid compressible flow of
an ideal gas with constant thermophysical
properties operating under choked condition.
The exit plane shown in the figure is located
within the nozzle. If the inlet pressure ( P0 ) is
increased while keeping the back pressure (
Pback ) unchanged, which of the following
statements is/are true? [1 Mark]
10.1 228.94
Given : M  0.6 , T  350 K , R  320 J/kg-K ,
  1.3 and V  ?
V 381.57
M
C
C RT
Thermodynamics
P0 Pback
Exit plane
(A) Mass flow rate through the nozzle will
remain unchanged.
(B) Mach number at the exit plane of the
nozzle will remain unchanged at unity.
(C) Mass flow rate through the nozzle will
increase.
(D) Mach number at the exit plane of the
nozzle will become more than unity.
10.4 Consider a steady flow through a horizontal
divergent channel, as shown in the figure,
with supersonic flow at the inlet. The
direction of flow is from left to right.
Pressure at location B is observed to be
higher than that at an upstream location A.
Which among the following options can be
the reason? [1 Mark]
A B
(A) Since volume flow rate is constant,
velocity at B is lower than velocity at A
(B) Normal shock
(C) Viscous effect
(D) Boundary layer separation
For an ideal gas
C  1.3  320  350
V
M  0.6 
V  228.94 m/sec
Hence, the speed of object is 228.94 m/s.
1
 10.2 374.77 downstream in course of a supersonic flow in a
passage or around a body.
Given : V  300 m/sec , P  180 kPa T1  330 K ,
Since, volume flow rate is constant, velocity at B
CP  1.005 kJ/kg-K is lower than velocity at A and pressure at location
Applying Steady Flow Energy Equation, B is observed to be higher than that at an upstream
Vd V2 location A. Therefore, it indicates the normal
h01   h1  1 shock.
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
V12
CPT01  0  CPT1 
2 
2
V
T01  T1  1

2CP
 V2 
T01  T1 1  1 
 2CPT1 
 (300)2 
T01  330 1  
 2 1005  330 
T01  374.77 K
Hence, the stagnation temperature at this point is
374.77 K.
10.3 (B), (C)
In a purely convergent nozzle with a steady
inviscid compressible flow of an ideal gas.
* Mass flow rate through the nozzle will
increase.
(m)max  0.685 A2 P1 1

P1 ( P0 )  mmax 
* Mach number at the exit plane of the nozzle
will remain unchanged at unity.
Hence, the correct option is (B), (C).
10.4 (B)

Within the distance of a mean free path, the flow

passes from a supersonic to a subsonic state, the
velocity decreases suddenly and the pressure rises
sharply. A normal shock is said to have occurred
if there is an abrupt reduction of velocity in the
2 Thermodynamics
Syllabus : Heat Transfer

Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance concept and electrical
analogy, heat transfer through fins; unsteady heat conduction, lumped parameter system,
Heisler's charts; thermal boundary layer, dimensionless parameters in free and forced
convective heat transfer, heat transfer correlations for flow over flat plates and through pipes,
effect of turbulence; heat exchanger performance, LMTD and NTU methods; radiative heat
transfer, Stefan- Boltzmann law, Wien's displacement law, black and grey surfaces, view factors,
radiation network analysis.
Contents : Heat Transfer

S. No. Topics
1. Conduction
2. Fins & Unsteady Heat Transfer
3. Free & Forced Convection
4. Heat Exchanger
5. Radiation
1 Conduction

2013 IIT Bombay 2014 IIT Kharagpur

1.1 Consider one-dimensional steady state heat 1.3 Consider a long cylindrical tube of inner and
conduction, without heat generation, in a outer radii, ri and r0 respectively, length L
plane wall, with boundary conditions as and thermal conductivity k. its inner and
shown in the figure below. The conductivity outer surfaces are maintained at T1 and T0 ,
of the wall is given by k  k0  bT , where k 0
respectively (T1  T0 ) . Assuming one-
and b are positive constants, and T is
dimensional steady state heat conduction in
temperature.
the radial direction, the thermal resistance in
the wall of the tube is [1 Mark]
1 r  L
(A) ln  i  (B)
2kL  r0  2ri k
1 r  1 r 
(C) ln  0  (D) ln  0 
As x increases, the temperature gradient 2kL  ri  4 k L  ri 
 dT  1.4 As the temperature increases, the thermal
  will [1 Mark]
 dx  conductivity of a gas [1 Mark]
(A) Remain constant. (B) Be zero. (A) Increases
(C) Increase. (D) Decrease. (B) Decreases
1.2 Consider one-dimensional steady state heat (C) Remain constant
conduction along x-axis ( 0  x  L ), (D) Increases up to a certain temperature and
through a plane with the boundary surfaces ( then decreases
x0 and x  L) maintained at 1.5 Consider one dimensional steady state heat
0 0
temperatures of 0 C and 100 C . Heat is conduction across a wall (as shown in figure
generated uniformly throughout the wall. below) of thickness 30 mm and thermal
Choose the correct statements. conductivity 15 W/mK. At x  0 a constant
[1 Mark] heat flux, q ''  1105 W/m2 is applied. On
(A) The direction of heat transfer will be the other side of the wall, heat is removed
from the surface at 1000 C to the surface from the wall by convection with a fluid at
at 00 C . 250 C and heat transfer coefficient of
0
(B) The maximum temperature inside the 250 W/m2 K. The temperature (in C ), at
wall must be greater than 1000 C. x  0 is ________. [2 Marks]
(C) The temperature distribution is linear
within the wall.
(D) The temperature distribution is
symmetric about the mid-plane of the
wall.

Heat Transfer 1

1.6 A material P of thickness 1 mm is
sandwiched between two steel slabs, as
shown in the figure below. A heat flux
10kW/m2 is supplied to one of the steel slabs
as shown. The boundary temperatures of the
slabs are indicated in the figure. Assume
thermal conductivity of this steel is 10
W/mK. considering one-dimensional steady
state heat conduction for the configuration,
the thermal conductivity (k, in W/mK) of
material P is ________. [2 Marks]
1.7 Heat transfer through a composite wall is
shown in figure. Both the sections of the wall
have equal thickness ( l ). The conductivity
of one section is k and that of the other is 2k.
The left face of the wall is at 600 K and the
right face is at 300 K. [2 Marks]
2 Heat Transfer
The interface temperature Ti (in K) of the
composite wall is ______.
1.8 A plane wall has a thermal conductivity of
1.15 W/mK. If the inner surface is at 11000 C
and the outer surface is at 3500 C , then the
design thickness (in meter) of the wall to
maintain a steady heat flux of 2500 W/m2
should be ____. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
1.9 If a foam insulation is added to a 4 cm outer
diameter pipe as shown in the figure, the
critical radius of insulation (in cm) is
_______. [1 Mark]
1.10 A 10 mm diameter electrical conductor is
covered by an insulation of 2 mm thickness.
The conductivity of the insulation is 0.08
W/mK and the convection coefficient at the
insulation surface is 10W/m2 K . Addition of
further insulation of the same material will
[2 Marks]
(A) Increases heat loss continuously
(B) Decreases heat loss continuously
(C) Increases heat loss to a maximum and
then decreases heat loss
(D) Decreases heat loss to a minimum and
then increases heat loss
1.11 A brick wall (k  0.9 W/mK) of thickness 2kL 2kL
(C) (D)
0.18 m separates the warm air in a room from r  r 
ln  2  ln  1 
the cold ambient air. On a particular winter  r1   r2 
day, the outside air temperature is  50 C and
1.15 Steady one-dimensional heat conduction
the room needs to be maintained at 27 0 C . takes place across the faces 1 and 3 of a
The heat transfer coefficient associated with composite slab consisting of slabs A and B
outside air is 20 W/m2 K . Neglecting the in perfect contact as shown in the figure,
convective resistance of the air inside the where k A , k B denote the respective thermal
room, the heat loss, in W/m 2 , is [2 Marks] conductivities. Using the data as given in the
(A) 88 (B) 110 figure, the interface temperature T2 (in 0 C )
(C) 128 (D) 160 is ______. [1 Mark]

1.12 A cylindrical uranium fuel rod of radius 5

mm in a nuclear reactor is generating heat at
the rate of 4 107 W/m3 . The rod is cooled
by a liquid (convective heat transfer
coefficient 1000 W/m2 K ) at 250 C . At
steady state, the surface temperature (in K)
of the rod is [2 Marks]
(A) 308 (B) 398
(C) 418 (D) 448 2017 IIT Roorkee
2016 IISc Bangalore 1.16 Heat is generated uniformly in a long solid
1.13 A plastic sleeve of outer radius r0  1 mm cylindrical rod (diameter = 10 mm) at the
rate of 4 107 W/m3 . The thermal
covers a wire (radius r  0.5 mm ) carrying
conductivity of the rod material is 25 W/m
electric current. Thermal conductivity of the K. Under steady state conditions, the
plastic is 0.15 W / m K . The heat transfer temperature difference between the center
coefficient on the outer surface of the sleeve
and the surface of the rod is ________ 0 C
exposed to air is 25 W / m 2 K . Due to the [2 Marks]
addition of the plastic cover, the heat transfer
from the wire to the ambient will 2018 IIT Guwahati
[1 Mark] 1.17 A plane slab of thickness L and thermal
(A) Increase (B) Remain the same conductivity k is heated with a fluid on one
(C) Decrease (D) Be zero side (P) and other side (Q) is maintained at a
1.14 A hollow cylinder has length L , inner radius constant temperature TQ of 250 C , as shown
r1 , outer radius r2 , and thermal conductivity in the figure. The fluid is at 450 C and the
k . The thermal resistance of the cylinder for surface heat transfer coefficient, h is
radial conduction is [1 Mark] 10 W/m2 K . The steady state temperature T p
r  r  (in 0 C ) of the side which is exposed to the
ln  2  ln  1 
(A)  1  (B)  2 
r r fluid is ______ (correct to two decimal
2kL 2kL places). [2 Marks]

Heat Transfer 3
 The heat transfer in the slabs is assumed to
be one dimensional and steady, and all
properties are constant. If the left extreme
face temperature T1 is measured to be 1000 C
, the right extreme face temperature T2 is
_____ 0 C . [2 Marks]

2019 IIT Madras

1.18 A slender rod of length L and diameter
d ( L  d ) and thermal conductivity k1 is
joined with another rod of identical
dimensions, but of thermal conductivity k 2 ,
to form a composite cylindrical rod of length 2020 IIT Delhi
2L. The heat transfer in radial direction and
contact resistance are negligible. The 1.21 In a furnace the inner and outer sides of the
effective thermal conductivity of the brick wall (k1  2.5 W/mK) are maintained
composite rod is [1 Mark] at 11000 C and 700 0 C , respectively as
2k1k 2 k1k 2 shown in figure
(A) (B)
k1  k 2 k1  k 2
(C) k1  k2 (D) k1k2
1.19 One-dimensional steady state heat
conduction takes place through a solid
whose cross section area varies linearly in
the direction of heat transfer. Assume there
is no heat generation in solid and thermal
conductivity of the material is constant and The brick wall is covered by an insulating
independent of temperature. The material of thermal conductivity k 2 . The
temperature distribution in the solid is
[1 Mark] thickness of insulation is 1 / 4 th of the
(A) Linearly (B) Quadratic thickness of brick wall. The outer surface of
(C) Logarithmic (D) Exponential insulation is at 200 0 C . The heat flux
1.20 Three slabs are joined together as shown in through the composite walls is 2500 W/m2 .
the figure. There is no thermal contact The value of k 2 is ______W/mK. (Round
resistance at the interfaces. The center slab off to one decimal place) [1 Mark]
experiences a non-uniform internal heat
2021 IIT Bombay
generation with an average value equal to
10000 Wm3 , while the left and right slabs 1.22 An uninsulated cylindrical wire of radius 1.0
have no internal heat generation. All slabs mm produces electric heating at the rate of
have thickness equal to 1 m and thermal 5.0 W/m. The temperature of the surface of
conductivity of each slab is equal to the wire is 750 C when placed in air at 250 C
5 Wm1K 1 . The two extreme faces are . When the wire is coated with PVC of
exposed to fluid with heat transfer thickness 1.0 mm, the temperature of the
coefficient 100 Wm2 K 1 and bulk surface of the wire reduces to 550 C .
Assuming that the heat generation rate from
temperature 30 0 C as shown.
4 Heat Transfer
 the wire and the convective heat transfer
coefficient are same for both uninsulated
600 K 600 K
wire and the coated wire. The thermal
conductivity of PVC is ______ W/m.K
(round off to two decimal places) [2 Marks] x  L xL
2022 IIT Kharagpur x0
1.23 Consider a rod of uniform thermal 2023 IIT Kanpur
conductivity whose one end (x = 0) is
insulated and the other end (x = L) is exposed 1.25 Consider a laterally insulated rod of length L
and constant thermal conductivity K.
to flow of air at temperature T with
Assuming one dimension heat conduction in
convective heat transfer coefficient h. The the rod, which of the following steady state
cylindrical surface of the rod is insulated so temperature profile(s) can occur without
that the heat transfer is strictly along the axis heat generation.
of the rod. The rate of internal heat
generation per unit volume inside the rod is
2x
given as q  cos . The steady state
L
temperature at the mid-location of the rod is (A)
given as TA . What will be the temperature at
the same location, if the convective heat
transfer coefficient increases to 2h?
[2 Marks]
(B)
qL
(A) TA 
2h
(B) 2TA

(C) TA (C)
 qL  qL T
(D) TA 1   T
 4h  4h
1.24 Consider steady state, one-dimensional heat
conduction in an infinite slab of thickness 2𝐿 X
(D) 0 L
(𝐿 = 1 m) as shown in the figure. The
conductivity (𝑘) of the material varies with
temperature as 𝑘 = 𝐶𝑇, where 𝑇 is the
temperature in K, and 𝐶 is a constant equal
to 2 W∙m-1∙K-2. There is a uniform heat
generation of 1280 kW/m3 in the slab. If both
faces of the slab are maintained at 600 K,
then the temperature at 𝑥 = 0 is ________ K
(in integer). [2 Marks]

Heat Transfer 5
 1.1 (D) qg L2
100    C1 L
Thermal conductivity, 2k
k  k0  bT 100 qg L
C1  
Since, heat conduction is one dimensional L 2k
So that, equation (i) becomes
q  dT 
Heat flux,   k   qg x 2  100 qg L 
A  dx  T     x
As x increase, temperature in the wall increase and 2k  L 2k 
so the thermal conductivity increase, then the This equation shows that temperature distribution
in the wall will not be linear but parabolic.
 dT 
value of   must decreases to ensure constant For maximum temperature,
 dx 
dT qg  2 x 100 qg L
heat flux. 0    0
Hence, the correct option is (D). dx 2k L 2k
k  100 qg L 
1.2 (B) x   
qg  L 2k 
qg  Heat generation per unit volume. 100k L
x 
Steady state, one dimensional heat conduction qg L 2
equation,
So the curve shows that maximum temperature
d 2T qg will be more than that of 1000 C , which will be
 0
dx 2 k close to x  L and heat will flow, both sides of this
d 2T q maximum temperature plane.
 g
dx 2
k Hence, the correct option is (B).

1.3 (C)
Let, Ti  Inner surface temperature of cylindrical
tube
T0  Outer surface temperature of cylindrical
Integrating both sides,
q tube
dT
  g x  C1 Using electrical analogy,
dx k
Again integration both sides,
q Ti  T0 T
T   g x 2  C1 x  C2 …(i) Q  …(i)
2k Rth Rth
Now, applying the boundary condition on
From Fourier law for one dimensional (radial) heat
equation (i),
transfer through pipe,
At x  0, T  0 then,
C2  0
At x  L, T  1000 C then,

6 Heat Transfer
 Hence, the correct option is (A).

1.5 625
Given : Thickness of wall ( L)  30 mm
Thermal conductivity of wall (k )  15 W/mK
Consider an elementary cylinder of radius ‘r’ and
thickness dr. Heat flux at x  0 (q ")  1105 W/m2
Area, A  2rL (where, L is length of tube) Convective heat transfer coefficient
From Fourier law, (under steady state condition), (h)  250 W/m2 K

Q   kA
dT
  k 2rL
dT Temperature of surrounding (T )  250 C
dr dr
r0 T0
Q dr
r 2kLr  T  dT
i i

Q  r0
ln r ri   T Ti0
T

2kL
Q
(ln r0  ln ri )  (Ti  T0 )
2kL
Ti  T0
Q …(ii)
1 r 
ln  0 
2kL  ri 
Comparing equation (i) and (ii),
For the given problem, the network of thermal
1 r
Rth  ln 0 resistance involves two resistances in series as
2kL ri shown in figure,
Hence, the correct option is (C).
1.4 (A) Conductive thermal resistance,
nV cv L
k Rcond 
3N A kA
Where, k = Thermal conductivity Convective thermal resistance,
V = Mean particle speed 1
Rconv 
 = Mean free path hA
cv = Molar heat capacity Rate of heat transfer,
T
N A = Avogadro's number Q
Rth
n = Particles per unit volume
Gases transfer heat by direct collisions between T1  T T1  T
Q 
molecules. As the temperature increases, the Rcond  Rconv  L   1 
  
thermal conductivity increases due to increase in  kA   hA 
speed, movement and collisions in the Heat flux,
molecules. From the above expression, by T1  T
increasing mean particle speed, the thermal q" 
L 1
conductivity increases.   
 k h
Heat Transfer 7
 T1  25 k2  0.1W/mK
1105 
0.03 1 Hence, the thermal conductivity of material P is

15 250 0.1 W/mK.
T  25
1105  1
0.006
T1  (1105  0.006)  25  6250 C
Hence, the temperature at x  0 is 6250C.
1.7 400
Given :
Thermal conductivity of 1st section (k1 )  k
Thermal conductivity of 2nd section (k2 )  2k
1.6 0.1
Temperature of left face of 1st section (T1 )  600 K
Given : Thickness of 1 steel slab (l1 )  20 mm
st
Temperature of right face of 2nd section
Thickness of 2nd steel slab (l2 )  20 mm (T2 )  300 K
Thickness of P material (l3 )  1mm At steady state, heat transfer is given by,
Heat flux (q)  10 kW/m 2 Fourier’s equation of heat conduction,
Thermal conductivity of 1st and 2nd steel slab Q = – kA(dT/dx)
(k1 )  (k2 )  10 W/mK
Temperature of 1st steel slab (T1 )  500 K
Temperature of 2nd steel slab (T3 )  360 K
As per steady state heat conduction equation,

For 1st section,

 dT 
Q1   k1 A   …(i)
 dx 
According to question applying steady state heat For 2nd section,
conduction equation.  dT 
Q2   k2 A   …(ii)
Heat flux is given by,  dx 
T1  T2 Now, equating equations (i) and (ii)
q" 
 l1   l2   l3  Q1  Q2
 k  k  k 
 1  2  3
 dT   dT 
500  360 k1 A    k2 A  
10000  3
 dx   dx 
20 10 0.001 20 10 3
  (T  T ) k A(Ti  T2 )
10 k2 10 k1 A 1 i  2
l l
140 kA(T1  Ti ) 2kA(Ti  T2 )
10000  
0.001
0.002   0.002 l l
k2

8 Heat Transfer
 T1  Ti  2Ti  2T2 Convective heat transfer coefficient outside foam
T1  2T2  2Ti  Ti insulation h0  2 W/m2 K
T1  2T2  3Ti Thermal conductivity of pipe (k pipe )  15 W/mK
T1  2T2 600  2  300 Thermal conductivity of foam insulation
Ti    400 K (k foam )  0.1 W/mK
3 3
Hence, the interface temperature Ti of the According to question it is given that the pipe is
composite wall is 400 K. insulated by foam from outer side.
So, we find the critical radius of insulation.
k 0.1
rc  foam   0.05 m
h0 2
Critical radius of insulation rc  5cm .
1.8 0.345
Hence, the critical radius of insulation is 5 cm.
Given :
Thermal conductivity (k )  1.15 W/mK  Key Point
In finding critical insulation the thermal
Inner surface temperature (Ti )  11000 C
conductivity of the insulation material is taken and
Outer surface temperature (T0 )  3500 C hence, here there is no use of the thermal
Heat flux (q)  2500 W/m2 conductivity of the pipe.

1.10 (C)
Given :
Diameter of electrical conductor (d )  10 mm
 ( r )  5 mm
Fourier’s equation of heat conduction, Thickness of insulation (t )  2 mm
Q = – kA(dT/dx)
Thermal conductivity of insulation
k Ti  T0  (ki )  0.08 W/mK
q
L Convective coefficient of insulation surface
1.15 1100  350 
2500  (hi )  10 W/m 2 K
L
ki 0.08
Solving, we get Critical radius, rc    0.008 m
L  0.345 m hi 10
Hence, the design thickness of the wall to maintain  rc  8 mm
a steady heat flux of 2500 W/m2 should be 0.345
m.
1.9 5
Given : Diameter of pipe (d )  4 cm
Convective heat transfer coefficient inside pipe
(hi )  15 W/m2 K

Heat Transfer 9
 Thickness of critical insulation is, 1.12 (B)
tc  rc  r  8  5  3mm
Given : Radius of uranium fuel rod
Heat flow for various radius is shown in above (r )  5 mm  0.005 m
figure. Heat loss will increase up to thickness 3
Heat generation in nuclear reactor
mm of insulation then it will decreases.
(qg )  4 107 W/m 3
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Convective heat transfer coefficient
(h)  1000 W/m2 K
Surrounding temperature (T )  250 C
1.11 (C) For steady state conduction,
Given : Thermal conductivity of brick wall Qgen  Qconv
(k )  0.9 W/mK qg  V  hAT
Thickness of brick wall ( L)  0.18 m
qg  r 2 L  h(2rL)T
Outside (surrounding) temperature of air
(T )   50 C qg  r  2hT

Temperature of room (Ti )  270 C 4 107  0.005  2 1000(Ts  T )

Convective heat transfer coefficient 4 107  0.005
(Ts  T )   100
(h)  20 W/m2 K 2 1000
Ts  100  T
Ts  100  25  1250 C
But in this question temperature asked in Kelvin
so,
Ts  125  273  398K
Hence, the correct option is (B).

Total thermal resistance,

1 1

Rth 1  L
h k 1.13 (A)
1 1
 4 Given :
Rth 1 0.18 Outer radius of plastic sleeve (r0 )  1mm

20 0.9
Electric current carrying wire radius (r )  0.5 mm
1
Rth  W/K Thermal conductivity of plastic (k )  0.15 W/mK
4
Heat loss inside the room is, Convective heat transfer coefficient
T 27  ( 5) (h)  25 W/m2 K
Q   128 W/m2
Rth 1 According to question it is said that the wire is
4 insulated by a plastic sleeve which shown in figure
Hence, the correct option is (C). below,

10 Heat Transfer
 k 0.15
Critical radius, rc    6 10 3 m
h 25 The thermal resistance network for the
rc  6 mm representative section of slab becomes as shown in
Here, we can see that the critical radius is greater figure. Then the individual thermal resistance is,
than the radius of coating (rc  r0 ) . Therefore,
addition of plastic sleeve will increase the heat
transfer. LA 0.1 L 0.3
R1   and R2  B 
Hence, the correct option is (A). k A 20 k B 100
For steady one-dimensional heat conduction,
T T T T
Q 1 3  1 2
R1  R2 R1
130  30 130  T2
1.14 (A) Q 
0.1 0.3 0.1

L  Length, k  Thermal conductivity 20 100 20
100 130  T2

0.8 0.1
100 20
130  T2  62.5
T2  130  62.5  67.50 C
ln(r2 / r1 ) Hence, the interface temperature T2 is 67.5 0 C .
Thermal resistance given by 
2kL
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.15 67.5

Given : Temperature at face 1 (T1 )  1300 C 1.16 10

Given :
Temperature at face 3 (T3 )  300 C
Diameter of solid cylinder rod ( D)  10 mm
Thermal conductivity of slab A (k A )  20 W/mK
Heat generated in rod (qg )  4 107 W/m 3
Thermal conductivity of slab B (kB )  100 W/mK Thermal conductivity of the rod (k )  25 W/mK
Length of slab A ( LA )  0.1m Temperature distribution in a cylindrical rod with
Length of slab B ( LB )  0.3m uniform heat generation under steady state is given
by
qg ( R 2  r 2 )
Tr  Ts 
4k
At center r  0 and Tr  T0

Heat Transfer 11
 qg R 2 qg R 2 qg r 2
T0  Ts  T  Ts  
4k 4k 4k
And radius of solid cylinder, q
D 10 T  Ts  g ( R 2  r 2 ) …(iv)
R   5 mm 4k
2 2
In case of solid cylinder value of r is zero then the
4 107   5 10 3 
2
equation (iv) becomes,
 T0  Ts   100 C
4  25 qg R 2
T  Ts 
Hence, the temperature difference between the 4k
centre and the surface of the rod is 10 0 C .
 Key Point
Under steady state one dimensional heat
conduction in cylinder is derived below,
1.17 33.88
Given : Thickness of slab ( L)  20 cm
Thermal conductivity of slab (k )  2.5 W/mK
Convective heat transfer coefficient
  T  qg r (h)  10 W/m2 K
r  …(i)
r  r  k Ambient temperature (T )  450 C
Integrating above equation, we get
Surface temperature (TQ )  250 C
T qg r 2
r   c1 Considering steady state condition,
r 2k
T qr c
 g  1
r 2k r
T
At r  0, T  T0 and 0
r
c1  0
T qr
 g …(ii)
r 2k Thermal resistance circuit for the given problem
Again integrating equation (ii), as,
qg r 2
T   c2 …(iii)
4k
At r  R, T  Ts
1 1
qg R 2 Rconv  
Ts    c2 hA 10 A
4k L 0.2
Rcond  
qg R 2 kA 2.5 A
c2  Ts 
4k For steady state one dimensional heat generation,
Putting the value of c2 in equation (iii), T T
Q 
qg r 2 qg R 2 Rconv Rcond
T   Ts  T  TP TP  TQ
4k 4k Q 
1 0.2
10 A 2.5 A

12 Heat Transfer
 45  TP TP  25 Q dT
Q  So, 
1 0.2  K (a  bx) dx
10 2.5 L Q T
45  TP TP  25   dx   dT
Q  0  K ( a  bx ) 0
0.1 0.08
Q
0.08(45  TP )  0.1(TP  25)   ln(a  bL)  T
bK
TP  33.880 C
So, temperature is varying logarithmic.
Hence, the steady state temperature T p of the side Hence, the correct option is (C).
which is exposed to the fluid is 33.880 C .

1.20 60
1.18 (A) According to question,

 Eg  10000  ( L  A)
Rth  Rth1  Rth2
2L L L Eg  10000 11  10000 W
 
ke k1 k2 and, hA (T1  T )  qconv1  qcond1
2 1 1 k1  k2 100  (100  30)  qcond1
  
ke k1 k2 k1k2
qcond1  7000 W
2k k
ke  1 2
k1  k2 Again, qconv2  hA (T2  T )  100 1 (T2  30)
Hence, the correct option is (A). qconv2  100(T2  30)  qcond2
At steady state,
Eg  Eout

1.19 (C) Eg  qcond1  qcond2

Fourier law, assumptions are, 10000  7000  100(T2  30)

1. Steady state, one dimensioned.  3000 
2. No internal heat generation. T2     30  60 C
0

 100 
3. Thermal conductivity = Constant
Hence, the right extreme face temperature T2 is
dT
Q   kA 600C.
dx
Given, area is varying linearly.
A  a  bx (a and b are constant)
Assuming, x  0 , T  0 and x  L , T  T

Heat Transfer 13
 After coating wire with PVC, final temperature
1.21 0.5
 550 C
Given :
Case 1 :
Inner side brick wall temperature (T1 )  11000 C
Outer side brick wall temperature (T2 )  7000 C
Outer surface of insulation temperature
(T3 )  2000 C
Heat flux (q)  2500 W/m2
According to question, Qconv.  hA1 T
Qgen  Qconv  5  h  A1 T

 A  2rh  2 0.0011mm 

1
2

5
h
2   0.001 (750  250 )
h  15.915 W/m2 K
Case 2 :
Conduction through composite wall, since heat
flow through all sections must be same.
T1  T2 T2  T3
Q 
L1 L2
k1 A k2 A
1100  700 00  200
 Q 
L1 L2
k1 k2
400 500 T 550  250
  Qgen    5 W/m
4 L2 L2 Rth 1 2 1
 ln   
2.5 k2 2k 1  1  15.915  2 0.002 1
400  2.5 k2  500
 On solving k  0.1103 W/mK
4  L2 L2
Hence, the thermal conductivity of PVC is
k2  0.5 W/mK 0.1103W/m.K.
Hence, the value of k 2 is 0.5 W/mK.
1.23 (C)
1.22 0.1103 Insulated

Given : Qgen  5 W/m

Temperature of air  250 C q g
Temperature of wire surface when placed in air
 750 C
x 0 x
Thickness of PVC = 1 mm  1103 m
General heat conduction equation for plane wall,
Radius of uninsulated wire r = 1 mm = 1 10 3 m

14 Heat Transfer
 qg1 dT Put the value of C1 and C2 in equation (B),
 2T  
k  d qg
For one dimensional heat conduction with steady T  Tw  ( 2  x 2 )
2k
state,
(Temperature variation (20 parabola))
d 2T q g
 0 According to question :
dx 2 k
2x
d 2T qg cos
 TA  Tw  L ( 2  x 2 )
dx 2 k 2k
Integrate with respect to x, 2x
(Because qg  cos , when h1  H )
dT qg L
 x  C1 … (A)
dx k x
At   (at mid plane) :
Again integrate, 2

 qg 2x
cos
T x  C1 x  C2 L  x  x 2  … (C)
2
2
… (B) T  Tw 
2k  
2k  4 
C1 and C2 are the integration constant.
Equation (C) shows the temperature distribution
Boundary conditions : equation which is independent of heat transfer
coefficient.
At x  0, Q  0
So there is no effect of heat transfer coefficient on
At x  , T  Tw temperature TA .
Apply first boundary equation :
Hence, the correct option is (C).
(1) At x  0, Qcond  0
1.24 1000
dT
kA 0 Given :
dx
dT
0
dx
600 K 600 K
dT
At, x  0, 0
dx x 0

From, equation (A)

x  L x0 xL
C1  0
Thickness of slab 2 L (L = 1 m)
Second boundary condition : k  CT ,
(2) At x  , T  Tw Where
Put in equation (B), C  2 Wm1K 2
 qg Uniform heat generation (q)  1280 kW / m
3
Tw    C2
2

2k Temperature of the slab (T )  600 K

qg Steady state, one dimensional heat conduction
C2  Tw  2
2k   T 
k   q
x  x 
Heat Transfer 15
 On integrating, So only linear temperature profile is possible.
dT Hence, the correct options are (A) & (B).
k  qx  C1
dx
dT 
2T  qx  C1
dx
 qx  C1 
TdT    dx
 2
On integrating,
T 2 1  qx 2 
   C1 x   C2 … (i)
2 2 2 
Boundary condition:
At x = L = 1 m  T = 600 K
Put the value in equations (i)
1280 103 12
6002   C1 1  C2
2
C1  C2  106 … (ii)
At x  L  1  T  600 K
1280 103  (1) 2
6002   C1  (1)  C2
2
C1  C2  106 … (iii)
By equations (ii) and (iii) we get,
C1  0 C2  106
By equations (i) we get,
qx 2
T2   C2
2
At x = 0
T (0)2  C2
T (0)  C2  106

T  103  1000 K
Tx0  1000 K
Hence, the temperature at 𝑥 = 0 is 1000 K.
1.25 (A),(B)

This is heat flow through constant cross –

sectional area. Without volumetric heat
Generation.
16 Heat Transfer
2 Fins & Unsteady Heat Transfer
2013 IIT Bombay
2.1 A steel ball of diameter 60 mm is initially in
thermal equilibrium at 10300 C in a furnace.
It is suddenly removed from the furnace and
cooled in ambient air at 30 0 C , with
convective heat transfer coefficient
h  20 W/m2 K . The thermo-physical
properties of steel are density
  7800kg/m , conductivity k  40 W/mK
3
and specific heat c  600 J/kgK . The time
required in second to cool the steel ball in air
from 10300 C to 430 0 C is [2 Marks]
(A) 519 (B) 931
(C) 1195 (D) 2144
2014 IIT Kharagpur
2.2 Biot number signifies the ratio of [1 Mark]
(A) Convective resistance in the fluid to
conductive resistance in the solid.
(B) Conductive resistance in the solid to
convective resistance in the fluid.
(C) Inertia force to viscous force in the fluid.
(D) Buoyancy force to viscous force in the
fluid.
2016 IISc Bangalore
2.3 A steel ball of 10 mm diameter at 1000 K is
required to be cooled to 350 K by immersing
it in a water environment at 300 K. The
convective heat transfer coefficient is 1000
W / m 2 -K . Thermal conductivity of steel is
40 W / m-K . The time constant for the
cooling process  is 16 s. The time required
(in s) to reach the final temperature is
______. [2 Marks]
2.4 Two cylindrical shafts A and B at the same
initial temperature are simultaneously placed
in a furnace. The surfaces of the shafts
remain at the furnace gas temperature at all
Heat Transfer
times after they are introduced into the
furnace. The temperature variation in the
axial direction of the shafts can be assumed
to be negligible. The data related to shafts A
and B is given in the following Table.
Quantity Shaft A Shaft B
Diameter (m), 0.4 0.1
Thermal conductivity
40 20
(W/mK)
Volumetric heat
2  106 2  107
capacity (J/m3K)
The temperature at the centerline of the shaft
A reaches 400 0 C after two hours. The time
required (in hours) for the centerline of the
shaft B to attain the temperature of 400 0 C is
_______. [2 Marks]
2.5 A cylindrical steel rod, 0.01 m in diameter
and 0.2 m in length is first heated to 750 0 C
and then immersed in a water bath at 1000 C.
The heat transfer coefficient is 250 W/m2 K
. The density, specific heat and thermal
conductivity of steel are   7801kg/m3 ,
c  473J/kgK and k  43 W/mK,
respectively. The time required for the rod to
reach 3000 C is ______ seconds. [2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
2.6 The heat loss from a fin is 6 W. The
effectiveness and efficiency of the fin are 3
and 0.75, respectively. The heat loss (in W)
from the fin, keeping the entire fin surface at
base temperature is ________. [1 Mark]
2.7 A metal ball of diameter 60 mm is initially at
220 0 C . The ball is suddenly cooled by an air
jet of 200 C. The heat transfer coefficient is
200 W/m2 K . The specific heat, thermal
conductivity and density of the metal ball are
400 J/kgK, 400 W/mK and 9000 kg/m3 ,
1
 respecti-vely. The ball temperature (in 0 C ) 1
(C) 2 (D)
after 90 seconds will be approximately 2
[2 Marks]
2023 IIT Kanpur
(A) 141 (B) 163
2.10 A very large metal plate of thickness 𝑑 and
(C) 189 (D) 210
thermal conductivity 𝑘 is cooled by a stream
2020 IIT Delhi of air at temperature 𝑇∞ = 300 K with a heat
2.8 A small metal bead (radius 0.5 mm ), transfer coefficient ℎ, as shown in the figure.
The centerline temperature of the plate is TP.
initially at 1000 C , when placed in a stream
In which of the following case(s) can the
of fluid at 200 C , attains a temp of 280 C in
lumped parameter model be used to study the
4.35sec . The density and specific heat of the
heat transfer in the metal plate?
metal are 8500 kg/m3 and 400 J/kg K
respectively. If the bead is considered as
lumped system, the convective heat transfer d TP
d/2
coefficient in ( W/m2 .K ) between the metal
bead and the fluid stream is [2 Marks]
(A) 283.3 (B) 149.9
(A) h  10 Wm 2 K 1 , k  100 Wm 1K 1 ,
(C) 449.7 (D) 299.8
d  1mm, Tp  350 K
2021 IIT Bombay
2.9 An infinitely long pin fin, attached to an (B) h  100 Wm 2 K 1 , k  100 Wm 1K 1 ,
isothermal hot surface, transfers heat at a d  1m, Tp  325 K
steady rate of Q1 to the ambient air. If the
2 1 1 1
(C) h  100 Wm K , k  1000 Wm K ,
thermal conductivity of the fin material is
doubled, while keeping everything else d  1mm, Tp  325 K
constant, the rate of steady-state heat transfer
from the fin becomes Q2 . The ratio Q2 / Q1 (D) h  1000 Wm 2 K 1 , k  1000 Wm 1K 1 ,
is d  1m, Tp  350 K
1
(A) 2 (B)
2

2.1 (D) Final temperature of the steel ball (T )  4300 C

Given : Diameter of the ball (d) = 60 mm Applying lumped parameter analysis,
 hA 
 (r )  30 mm  0.03 m T  T 
Vc 
t
A 4r 2 3
 e  p  and  
Initial temperature of ball T0   1030 C T0  T
0
V 4 r 3 r
3
Ambient air temperature (T )  300 C  203 
430  30  t
Heat transfer coefficient (h)  20 W/m K 2
 e  0.037800600 
1030  30
Density of the steel ()  7800Kg/m3 400 4
 e4.27310 t
Thermal conductivity  k   40 W/mK 1000
Specific heat of steel (c p )  600 J/kgK 0.9162  4.273 104 t

2 Heat Transfer
 t  2144.161sec  2144 sec T  T 
t
e 
Hence, the correct option is (D). T0  T
350  300 
t
 e 16
1000  300
t

2.2 (B) 0.07142  e 16
Biot number : It is the ratio of internal resistance Taking natural log on left side,
of body which is conduction resistance to external t
resistance which is heat convection, 2.6391  
16
R
Bi  conduction t  42.22sec
Rconvection Hence, the time required to reach the final
Hence, the correct option is (B). temperature is 42.22 sec.
2.3 42.22
Given : Diameter of steel ball (d) = 10 mm
Initial temperature of ball = T0  =1000 K 2.4 2.5
Final temperature of ball (T) = 350 K Given : Diameter of shaft A (d A )  0.4 m
Ambient temperature (T ) = 300K Thermal conductivity of shaft A  k A   40 W/mK
Heat transfer coefficient (h)  1000 W/m K
2
Time constant for A ( A )  2hrs
Thermal conductivity of ball (k)  40 W/mK Volumetric heat capacity for A
Time constant for cooling   16 sec (c p ) A  2 106 J/m 3K
hL
Biot number, Bi  …(i) Thermal conductivity of shaft B (kB )  20 W/mK
k
Diameter of shaft B (d B )  0.1m
For length we use relation between area and
volume in terms of radius. Volumetric heat capacity for B
4 3 (c p ) B  2 107 J/m3K
r
V 3 r d
  or
A 4r 2
3 6
r d 10
Length, L     1.66 mm Comparing both shaft’s thermal dimensionless
3 6 6
number,
Putting the value of L in equation (i), we get
 A  B
1000 1.66 103 k A A kB B
Bi   0.0415 
40 (c p ) A  AA  c p  B AB
Here Biot number is less than 0.1 (Bi < 0.1) so
40  2 20  B
using lumped parameter analysis, 
 
 hA  2 106  (0.4)2 2 107  (0.1) 2
T  T 
Vc 
t
4 4
e  p
T0  T 40  2  2 10  0.1
7 2
B   2.5 hrs
Vc p 2 106  20  0.42
Time constant,    16sec
hA

Heat Transfer 3
 The time required for the counter line of the shaft  hAs 
T  T 
Vc 
t

B to attain the temperature of 400 0 C will be 2.5 e  p

T0  T
hours.
 2506.28103 
Hence, the time required for the centerline of the 300  100  5
t

shaft B to attain the temperature of 400 0 C is 2.5  e  78011.5710 473 

750  100
hours. 200  
 e 0.02710 t
2.5 43.46 650
Given : Diameter of the rod (d) = 0.01 m  200 
ln  
Length of the rod (L) = 0.2 m t  650   43.49 sec
Initial temperature (T0 )  7500 C   0.02710 
Hence, the time required for the rod to reach
Ambient temperature (T )  1000 C
3000 C is 43.49 sec.
Heat transfer coefficient (h)  250 W/m2 K 2.6 8
Thermal conductivity (k )  43 W/mK
Given : Actual heat loss from fin (Qact )  6 W
Density of the steel rod ()  7801Kg/m3
Efficiency of the fin ()  0.75
Specific heat (c p )  473J/kg K
Effectiveness of the fin     3
Final temperature of rod (T )  3000 C Q
Efficiency of the fin,   act
Qmax
6
0.75 
Qmax
Volume of the cylindrical rod, 6
Qmax   8W
  0.75
V  d 2 L   (0.01)2  0.2
4 4 Hence, the heat loss from the fin, keeping the
V  1.5707 10 5 entire fin surface at base temperature is 8 W.
Surface area of the cylindrical rod,
As  dL   (0.01)  0.2
As  6.2831103
2.7 (A)
Now, calculating Biot number to check whether it
is under lumped condition or not, Given : Diameter of metal ball (d) = 60 mm
hL Initial temperature of ball (T0 )  2200 C
Bi  c
k Ambient temperature (T )  200 C
Lc is characteristics length,
5
Heat transfer coefficient (h)  200 W/m2 K
V 1.570 10
Lc   Thermal conductivity of ball (k )  400 W/mK
As 6.2831103
Specific heat of the ball (c p )  400 J/kg K
Lc  2.498 103 m
Density of the ball ()  9000 kg/m3
hL 250  2.498 103
 Bi  c 
k 43
Bi  0.014
Here Biot number is less than 0.1 so we use
lumped parameter analysis.
4 Heat Transfer
Time for attending final temperature (t )  90sec Time t  4.35sec
Temperature of fluid stream T  20 C
0

Density of metal   8500kg/m3

Specific heat of metal C  400 J/ kg-K
 hAt
T  T
 e VC
Ti  T
(Metal bead is like a sphere)
Calculating Biot number for lumped parameter  h34.35
28  20
 e 85000.510 400
3
analysis,
100  20
hL
Bi   V  4/3 r 3 r 
k    
A 4r 2 3
4 3
r 8 3
V r  0.1  e h7.67610
L  3 2 
A 4r 3 80
r d 60
h  7.676 103  ln(0.1)
L    10 mm
3 6 6 h  299.97 W/m2 K
200 10 103 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Bi   0.005
400 2.9 (A)
Bi  0.1 Heat transfer with long fin is Q1 (conductivity =
Using lumped parameter, K)
 hA 
T  T 
Vc 
t
Q1  hPKAC (T0  T )
e  p
T0  T Heat transfer with long fin Q2 (conductivity = 2K)
A 3 Q2  hP2KAC (T0  T )
Here we can put the value of 
V r
 2003  Q2 hP 2 KAC (T0  T )
T  20  90   2
e  90000.03 400 
Q1 hPKAC (T0  T )
220  20
1
 
Hence, the correct option is (A).
T  20  e 2
 200  121.306
2.10 (A),(C)
T  121.306  20  141.3060 C
As we know,
So, the final temperature of the metal ball is
To apply lumped analysis, Bi  0.1
141.3060 C which is reached in 90 sec.
hL
Hence, the correct option is (A). Bi  c
k
Where, Lc  Characteristic length, h = Heat
transfer coefficient in (W/m2k),
2.8 (D) k = Thermal conductivity in (W/mk)
Given : Radius of metal bead r  0.5 103 m v
Lc 
As
Temperature at time t, T  280 C
d  L L
Initial temperature Ti  100 C
0
For large plate, Lc 
2L2
Heat Transfer 5
 d
Lc 
2
So, check all options
Option (A) :
10  0.5 103
Bi   0.5 104
100
Option (B) :
100  0.5
Bi   0.5
100
Option (C) :
100  0.5 103
Bi   5 105
1000
Option (D) :
1000  0.5
Bi   500
1
Hence, the correct options are (A) and (C).



6 Heat Transfer
3 Free & Forced Convection

2013 IIT Bombay B. Grashof 2. Ratio of inertia

number force to viscous
force
Common Data for
C. Prandtl 3. Ratio of
Questions 3.1 & 3.2
number momentum to
Water (specific heat c p  4.18 kJ/kgK) enters a thermal
diffusivities
pipe at a rate of 0.01 kg/s and a temperature of
D. Reynolds 4. Ratio of internal
20 0 C . The pipe of diameter 50 mm and length 3 number thermal resistance
m, is subjected to a wall heat flux, q"w in W/m 2 to boundary layer
thermal resistance
3.1 If q"w  2500 x , where x is in m and in the
(A) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
direction of flow ( x  0 at the inlet), the bulk (B) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
mean temperature of the water leaving the
(C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
pipe in 0 C is [2 Marks]
(D) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 [1 Mark]
(A) 42 (B) 62
3.5 Consider a two-dimensional laminar flow
(C) 74 (D) 104 over a long cylinder as shown in the figure
3.2 If qw"  5000 and the convective heat transfer below,
coefficient at the pipe outlet is 1000 W/m2 K
, the temperature in 0 C at the inner surface
of the pipe at the outlet is [2 Marks]
(A) 71 (B) 76
(C) 79 (D) 81

2014 IIT Kharagpur The free stream velocity is U  and the free
3.3 For laminar forced convection over a flat stream temperature T is lower than the
plate, if the free stream velocity increases by
cylinder surface temperature Ts . The local
a factor of 2, the average heat transfer
coefficient [1 Mark] heat transfer coefficient is minimum at point
(A) Remains same [1 Mark]
(A) 1 (B) 2
(B) Decreases by a factor of 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Rises by a factor of 2 3.6 The non-dimensional fluid temperature
(D) Rises by a factor of 4 profile near the surface of a convectively
3.4 Match Group-A with Group-B : cooled flat plate is given by
Tw  T
2
Group-A Group-B y  y
 a b  c  , where y is
A. Biot 1. Ratio of buoyancy Tw  T L L
number to viscous force measured perpendicular to the plate, L is the
plate length, and a, b and c are arbitrary

Heat Transfer 1
 constants. Tw and T are wall and ambient 3.11 For flow through a pipe of radius R, the
temperatures, respectively. If the thermal velocity and temperature distribution are as
conductivity of the fluid is k and the wall follows :
heat flux is q '' , the Nusselt number   r 3 
u(r , x)  C1 and T (r , x)  C2 1    
q '' L
Nu  is equal to [2 Marks]   R  
Tw  T k
where C1 and C2 are constants.
(A) a (B) b
The bulk temperature is given by
(C) 2c (D) (b+2c)
2 R
3.7 Water flows through a tube of diameter 25
mm at an average velocity of 1.0 m/s. The
Tm 
U m R2 
0
u (r , x) T (r , x) rdr

properties of water are with U m being the mean velocity of flow.

4
  1000 kg/m ,   7.25 10 Ns/m ,
3 2
The value of Tm is [2 Marks]
k  0.625 W/m K, Pr  4.85 .
0.5 C2
Using Nu  0.023Re0.8 Pr 0.4 , (A)
Um
(B) 0.5C2
the convective heat transfer coefficient (in
0.6 C2
W/m 2 K ) is ______. [2 Marks] (C) 0.6C2 (D)
Um
2015 IIT Kanpur
2016 IISc Bangalore
3.8 In the laminar flow of air (Pr  0.7) over a
3.12 A fluid (Prandtl number, Pr  1 ) at 500 K
heated plate, if  and T denote,
flows over a flat plate of 1.5 m length,
respectively, the hydrodynamic and thermal maintained at 300 K. The velocity of the
boundary layer thicknesses, then fluid is 10 m / s . Assuming kinematic
[1 Mark]
viscosity,   30 106 m2 /s . The thermal
(A)   T (B)   T
boundary layer thickness (in mm) at 0.5 m
(C)   T (D)   0 but T  0 from the leading edge is ______. [2 Marks]
3.9 The ratio of momentum diffusivity (  ) to 3.13 Grashof number signifies the ratio of
thermal diffusivity (  ), is called [1 Mark] [1 Mark]
(A) Prandtl number (A) Inertia force to viscous force
(B) Nusselt number (B) Buoyancy force to viscous force
(C) Biot number (C) Buoyancy force to inertia force
(D) Lewis number (D) Inertia force to surface tension force
3.10 For flow of viscous fluid over a flat plate, if 2019 IIT Madras
the fluid temperature is the same as the plate
temperature, the thermal boundary layer is 3.14 For a hydrodynamically and thermally fully
[1 Mark] developed laminar flow through a circular
pipe of constant cross section, the nusselt
(A) Thinner than the velocity boundary layer
number at constant wall heat flux (Nu q ) and
(B) Thicker than the velocity boundary layer
that at constant wall temperature (NuT ) are
(C) Of the same thickness as the velocity
boundary layer related as [1 Mark]
(A) Nu q  Nu T
(D) Not formed at all
(B) Nu q  Nu T

2 Heat Transfer
 (C) Nu q  Nu T
(D) Nu q  (Nu T ) 2
3.15 A thin vertical flat plate of height L , and
infinite width perpendicular to the plane of
the figure is losing heat to the surroundings
by natural convection. The temperatures of Among the locations P, Q and R the flow is
plate and the surrounding and the properties thermally developed at [2 Marks]
of surrounding fluid are constant. The (A) P, Q and R (B) Q and R only
relation between the average Nusselt and
(C) R only (D) P and Q only
Rayleigh numbers is given as Nu  K Ra1/4
, where K is constant. The length scales for 2020 IIT Delhi
Nusselt and Rayleigh numbers are the height 3.17 Match the following non-dimensional
of the plate. The height of plate is increased numbers with the corresponding definitions
to 16L keeping all other factors constant. [1 Mark]
Non dimension
Definition
number
Reynolds Buoyancy force
1
P. numbe Viscous force
.
r
If the average convective heat transfer Grashof Momentum diffusivity
Q 2
coefficient for the first plate is h1 and that for numbe
. .Thermal diffusivity
r
the second plate is h2 , the value of the ratio
Nusselt Inertial force
h1 R 3
is _______. [1 Mark] numbe Viscous force
h2 . .
r
3.16 The wall of a constant diameter pipe of Prandtl Convective heat transfer
4
length 1 m is heated uniformly with flux q” S. numbe Conductive heat transfer
.
by wrapping a heater coil around it. The flow r
at the inlet to the pipe is hydro-dynamically (A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
fully developed. The fluid is incompressible
and the flow is assumed to be laminar and (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
steady all through the pipe. The bulk (C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
temperature of the fluid is equal to 00 C at (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
the inlet and 50 0 C at the exit. The wall 3.18 Water flows through a tube of 3 cm internal
temperatures are measured at three locations, diameter and length 20 m . The outside
P, Q and R as shown in the figure. The surface of the tube is heated electrically so
flow thermally develops after some distance that it is subjected to uniform heat flux
from the inlet. The following measurements circumferentially and axially. The mean inlet
are made : and exit temperatures of water are 100 C and
Point P Q R 700 C respectively. The mass flow rate of the
Wall temperature ( C ) 0 50 80 90 water is 720 kg/h . Disregard the thermal
resistance of the tube wall. The internal heat
transfer coefficient is 1697 W/m 2 K . Take

Heat Transfer 3
 specific heat c p of water as 4.179 kJ/kg K . (B) Ratio of buoyancy force to viscous force.
The inner surface temperature at the exist (C) Viscous force per unit mass.
section of the tube is ______ 0 C (round of to (D) Buoyancy force per unit mass.
one decimal place) [2 Marks] 3.22 Which of the following non-dimensional
2021 IIT Bombay terms is an estimate of Nusselt number?
[1 Mark]
3.19 In forced convective heat transfer, Stanton
(A) Ratio of internal thermal resistance of a
number (St), Nusselt number (Nu), Reynolds
solid to the boundary layer thermal
number (Re) and Prandtl number (Pr) are
resistance
related as [1 Mark]
(B) Ratio of the rate at which internal energy
Nu Nu Re
(A) St = (B) St = is advected to the rate of conduction heat
Re Pr Pr transfer
Nu Pr (C) Non-dimensional temperature gradient
(C) St = (D) St =Nu Pr Re
Re (D) Non-dimensional velocity gradient
3.20 Ambient air flows over a heated slab having multiplied by Prandtl number
flat, top surface at y = 0. The local 3.23 Consider a hydrodynamically and thermally
temperature (in Kelvin) profile within the fully-developed, steady fluid flow of 1 kg/s
thermal boundary layer is given by in a uniformly heated pipe with diameter of
T ( y )  300  200 exp ( 5 y), where y is the 0.1 m and length of 40 m. A constant heat
distance measured from the slab surface in flux of magnitude 15000 W/m2 is imposed
meters. If the thermal conductivity of air is on the outer surface of the pipe. The bulk-
1.0 W/m-K and that of the slab is 100 mean temperature of the fluid at the entrance
W/mK, then the magnitude of temperature to the pipe is 200 0 C . The Reynolds number
dT (Re) of the flow is 85000, and the Prandtl
gradient within the slab at y  0 is
dy number (Pr) of the fluid is 5. The thermal
_________ K/m (round off to the nearest conductivity and the specific heat of the fluid
integer). [2 Marks] are 0.08 W∙m-1∙K-1and 2600 J∙kg-1∙K-1,
respectively. The correlation Nu = 0.023
2022 IIT Kharagpur Re0.8 Pr0.4 is applicable, where the Nusselt
3.21 In the following two-dimensional Number (Nu) is defined on the basis of the
momentum equation for natural convection pipe diameter. The pipe surface temperature
over a surface immersed in a quiescent fluid at the exit is ________ 0 C (round off to the
at temperature T (g is the gravitational nearest integer). [2 Marks]
acceleration,  is the volumetric thermal 2023 IIT Kanpur
expansion coefficient, v is the kinematic 3.24 Consider incompressible laminar fluid flow
viscosity, u and v are the velocities in 𝑥 and of constant property Newtonian fluid in an
𝑦 directions, respectively, and T is the isothermal circular tube. Flow is steady with
temperature)
fully developed temperature and velocity
u u  2u profiles. The Nusselt number for this flow
u v  g(T  T )  v 2 , the
x y y depends on.
term g(T  T ) represents [1 Mark] (A) Neither the Reynold number nor the
Prandtl number
(A) Ratio of inertial force to viscous force. (B) Both the Reynold number and
Prandtl number

4 Heat Transfer
 (C) The Reynold number but not the (D) The Prandtl number but not the
Prandtl number Reynold number

3.1 (B) Given : Wall heat flux (q ")  5000 W/m2

Given : Mass of water (mw )  0.01kg/s Convective heat transfer coefficient
(h)  1000 W/m2 K
Diameter of the pipe (d )  50 mm
Amount of heat transfer through wall of pipe is,
Length of the pipe (l )  3m
Q  q " Asurface  q " dl
Specific heat of water (c p )  4.18 kJ/kgK
Q  5000   0.05  3  2356.194 W
Initial temperature of water (Ti )  200 C
Heat gained by the water is,
Heat flux at the surface of pipe Q  mwc p (T0  Ti )
(qw")  2500 x W/m 2
2356.194  0.01 4180(T0  20)
2356.194
T0   20  76.360 C
0.01 4180
Now, the flux is constant then the bulk mean
temperature,

Considering small element dx , the total heat

transfer from the small element dx is,
dQ  q"w  d  dx
dQ  2500 x   0.05  dx
dQ  392.69  x dx
Integrating both side and putting the limit x  0 to
x  L,
xL
 dQ   x 0
392.69 x dx Now, heat transfer taking place at the end of pipe
L 3 whose cross-section is shown in the figure.
 x2   x2 
Q  392.69    392.69   q "  hT  h(Tsi  T0 )
 2 0  2 0
5000  1000(Tsi  76.36)
392.69  9
Q  1767.10 W
2 5000
Tsi   76.36  81.36  810 C
Applying energy balancing and equating, we get 1000
Q  mwc p (T0  Ti ) Hence, the correct option is (D).

1767.10  0.01 4180(T0  20)

1767.10
T0   20  62.270 C
0.01 4180 3.3 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
For laminar forced convection over a flat plate,
3.2 (D) Nu  0.664(Re)0.5 (Pr)0.33

Heat Transfer 5
 hL  UL 
0.5 Reynolds number : Ratio of inertia force to
 0.664   (Pr)
0.33
viscous force. The Reynolds number, referred to
k   
as Re, is used to determine whether the fluid flow
h  U 0.5 is laminar or turbulent. It is one of the main
0.5
h2  U 2  controlling parameters in all viscous flows where
  a numerical model is selected according to pre-
h1  U1 
0.5
calculated Reynolds number.
h2  2U1  Hence, the correct option is (A).
   2
h1  U1 
h2  2h1
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.5 (B)
 Key Point
For laminar forced flow over flat plate, we have
significance of Nusselt number is in two contexts,
(i) It shows how much is the heat is transfered
due to fluid motion as compared to the heat
transfer by fluid by the process of conduction.
Always do remember the formula hL/k which we
get from Nusselt number, k is the conductivity of
fluid.
(ii) We can also understand Nusselt number like
it is the ratio of conduction resistance offered by
fluid if it were stable to the convection resistance
offered by fluid. Remember it is always greater
than one in case of fluids.

3.4 (A)
Biot number : Ratio of internal thermal resistance
to boundary layer thermal resistance. It is key
parameter for applying lumped system analysis
and is similar to Nusselt number.
Grashof number : Ratio of buoyancy to viscous
force. Grashof number is significant in cases of
fluid flow due to natural convection. This means
that the fluid motion is caused not due to an
external source but due to the difference in
densities between two points.
Prandtl number : Ratio of momentum to thermal
diffusivities. Tells us how fast the thermal
diffusion takes place in comparison to momentum
diffusion.
Fig. : Variation of the local heat transfer
coefficient along the circumference of a circular
cylinder in cross flow of air
 The variation of the local Nusselt number
(Nu) around the periphery of a cylinder subjected
to cross flow of air is given in figure.
 Note that, for all cases, the value of Nusselt
number starts out relatively high at the stagnation
point (0°) but decreases with increasing angle as a
result of the thickening of the laminar boundary
layer.

6 Heat Transfer
 On the two curves shown in figure Nusselt b
number reaches a minimum at 80°, which is the k  Tw  T     h Tw  T 
L
separation point in laminar flow.
b
 So the correct option can approximated from k h
the given option to be at 90° i.e., option (B). L
Hence, the correct option is (B). Rearranging, we get
 Key Point hL
 Nu  b
In beginning, the lowest (minimum) value of k
convection heat transfer coefficient ( h ) is at 800 Hence, the correct option is (B).
because separation takes place and 2nd lowest  Key Point
value of ( h ) is at 140 0 . q '' L
Nu 
Tw  T k
Given in the question is nothing but
hL
Nu 
k
Since, q ''  h Tw  T  .

3.7 4614

3.6 (B) Given :

Diameter of the tube (d )  25 mm  0.025 m
According to question, at the wall interface
Average velocity of water (U )  1m/s
Density of the water ()  1000 kg/m3
Dynamic viscosity ()  7.25 104 Ns/m2
Thermal conductivity (k )  0.625 W/mK
Prandtl number (Pr)  4.85
Reynolds’s number,
 dT  Ud 1000 1 0.025
q ''  k    h Tw  T  Re  
 dx  y 0  7.25 104
Solving the temperature variation Re  34482.75
 y  y 
2
Using the relation between Nu , Re and Pr we
Tw  T  Tw  T   a  b  c   
 L  L   find the value of convective heat transfer
coefficient,
 dT   b 2c 
    Tw  T    2  0 Nu  0.023 Re 0.8 Pr 0.4
 dx  y 0 L L 
Nu  0.023  (34482.756)0.8  (4.85)0.4
 dT  b Nu  184.56
    Tw  T   
 dx  y 0 L hd h  0.025
Nu  
 dT  k 0.625
Hence, k    h Tw  T  Solving for h, we get
 dx  y 0
184.56  0.625
h  4614 W/m2 K
0.025
Heat Transfer 7
 Hence, the convective heat transfer coefficient is
4614 W / m2K .

3.10 (D)

3.8 (C)
The hydrodynamic and thermal boundary layer
thicknesses can be related as,
3
  
Pr  0.7   
 T 
   
0.71/3  0.887    If the fluid temperature is the same as the
 T  plate temperature then TS  T and hence no

1 temperature gradient will occur.
T  Therefore thermal boundary layer will not
  T be formed at all.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (D).
 Key Point
If Pr > 1 than,
 Higher momentum diffusivity compared to
heat diffusivity. 3.11 (C)
 More thickness of velocity boundary layer. It has been mentioned that for flow through a pipe
 Smaller entrance region. of radius R,
 Smaller friction factor. Velocity are as follows :
 Less power required for the fluid to flow a u(r , x)  C1 ,
certain distance. Temperature distribution are as follows :
 Lower diffusivity of heat.
  r 3 
 Less thickness of the thermal boundary layer T (r , x)  C2 1    
 Longer entrance region.   R  
 Higher heat transfer coefficient more heat Where C1 and C2 are constants.
transfer. The mean bulk temperature is given by,
2 R
2 0
Tm  u (r , x) T (r , x) rdr
UmR
with U m being the mean velocity of flow.
3.9 (A)
Mean bulk temperature calculated as follows,
The ratio of momentum diffusivity to thermal 2 R
2 0
diffusivity is called Prandtl number, Tm  u (r , x) T (r , x) rdr
UmR
Momentum diffusivity 
Pr   2   r 3 
 R
Heat diffusivity Tm   C1 C2 1     rdr
U m R2   R  
0
Hence, the correct option is (A).

8 Heat Transfer
 2C1C2  r4  5x 5  0.5
R
h  
Tm 
U m R2 0


r   dr
R3  Re x Ux
R 
2C C  r 2 r 5 
Tm  1 22   3  5  0.5
U m R  2 5R  0 h   6.123 mm
10  0.5
2C1C2  R 2 R5  30  106
Tm  
U m R 2  2 5R3  But the given Prandtl number is 1,
h
2C1C2  R 2 R 2  So,  (Pr)1/3  (1)1/3
Tm    t
U m R 2  2 5 
h  t  6.123 mm
2C C  5R 2  2 R 2 
Tm  1 22   Hence, the thermal boundary layer thickness at 0.5
UmR  10  m from the leading edge is 6.123 mm.
2C1C2  3R 2  3R 2C1C2
Tm  
U m R 2  10  5U m R 2
0.6C1C2
Tm  …(i) 3.13 (B)
Um
Grashof number (Gr), is a non-dimensional
Since, u(r , x)  C1 then U m  C1
parameter used in the correlation of heat and mass
Putting the value of U m in equation (i), transfer due to thermally induced natural
Tm  0.6 C2 convection at a solid surface immersed in a fluid.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 Key Point Buoyancy force
Grashof number 
Mean bulk temperature : Convection is one of Viscous force
the mode of heat transfer and unlike conduction g   T lc3
heat transfer in convection involve molecular Gr 
v2
diffusion (i.e., motion of molecules ) along with
motion of bulk. It is a macroscopic mode of heat Hence, the correct option is (B).
transfer. So that we need to consider the
temperature of fluid in bulk.

3.14 (C)

For constant heat flux, Nu q  4.36

3.12 6.123 For constant wall temperature,
Given : Length of plate ( L)  1.5 m NuT  3.66
Prandtl number for fluid ( Pr )  1 Nu q
Velocity of the fluid (U )  10 m/s  1.191
NuT

Kinetic viscosity ()   30 10 6 m 2 /s Nu q  Nu T

Hence, the correct option is (C).
Distance from leading edge ( x)  0.5 m
th at 0.5 m from leading edge is the calculate.
Hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness,

Heat Transfer 9
 3.15 2 T ( x)  A  Bx

Given : Relation between average Nusselt number At x  0, T  00 C

and Rayleigh number (Nu)  K (Ra)1/4 .  A  00 C
hLc At x  1 , T  500 C
 Nu  K (Ra)1/4 
K  B  500 C
 T ( x)  50 x
Nu  (Ra)1/4  hLc …(i)
and Ra  (Gr Pr)
gTL3c
Here, Gr  2
 Gr  L3c
v
Lp
Pr   constant Hence, the correct option is (B).
K fluid
So, Ra  Gr  L3c
From equation (i),
hLc   L3c 
1/4
3.17 (B)

L3/4  1 
1/4 (P  3) : Reynolds number is the ratio of inertia
h c h  force to viscous force.
Lc  Lc 
1/4 (Q  1) : Grashof number is the ratio of
h1  Lc2 
1/4
 16 L 
    2 buoyancy to viscous force.
h2  Lc1   L  (R  4) : Nusselt number (Nu) is the ratio of rate
[ Lc2  16 L (given)] of heat flow by convention process under a unit
temperature gradient to the rate of heat flow by
h1
Hence, the value of the ratio is 2. conduction process under a unit temperature
h2 gradient through a stationary thickness of L
meters.
(S  2) : Prandtl number is the ratio of
momentum to thermal diffusivities.
3.16 (B) Hence, the correct option is (B).
According to question, 3.18 58.67
Given : Internal diameter of tube (d )  3cm ,
Length of the tube (l )  20 m,
Mean inlet temperature (Ti )  100 C
Mean exit temperature (Te )  70 C ,
0

.
In case of uniform heat flux, bulk mean Mass flow rate (m)  720kg/ h ,
temperature varies linearly. The difference Internal heat transfer coefficient
between bulk mean temperature and wall (h)  1697 W/m2 K ,
temperature is constant in thermally developed
region so bulk temperature, Specific heat of water (C p )  4.179kJ/kg K

10 Heat Transfer
 dT 1
 1000e y y 0
dy y 0
100
1000
  10 K/m
100
Magnitude of temperature gradient  10 K/m .
Hence, the magnitude of temperature gradient
dT
Q  mC p T  hAT ( A  DL ) within the slab at y  0 is 10 K/m.
dy
720
 4.179 103  (70  10) 3.21 (D)
3600
 1697   3 102  20  (Ts  70) uu vu  2u
  g(T  T )   2
x y y
Ts  85.670 C
We know that
Hence, the inner surface temperature at the exit
Buoyancy force,
section of the tube is 85.67 0 C .
FB  m  g(T  T )  L3C g (T  T )
3.19 (A)
FB L3 g(T  T )
Stanton number is given by  C  g (T  T )
mass L3C
Nu
St 
Re Pr Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, correct option is (A). 3.22 (C)
3.20 10 Nusselt number equal to the dimensionless
Given : temperature gradient at the surface, and it provides
kair  1W/m-K a measure of the convective heat transfer
occurring at the surface.
kslab  100 W/m-K
hD
Nusselt number, Nu 
k fluid
Where, k fluid  thermal conductivity of fluid
Qconv. Condution thermal resistance offered by fluid if it were
Nu  
Qcond . Surface convection thermal resistance
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.23 321.267
{(Qcond ) slab }y 0  {(Qcond )air }y 0 Given :
Entrance temp (Tb inlet) 2000 C
Reynold number ( Re )  85000
dT d
kslab   kair  (300  200e 5 y ) Prandtl number ( pr )  5
dy y 0
dy y 1
1
Thermal conductivity ( K )  0.08 Wm K  1
Specific heat of the fluid (C p )  2600 J.kg 1K 1

Heat Transfer 11
 Heat flux (q ")  15000 W/m
2
3.24 A
Diameter of pipe ( D)  0.1m In incompressible laminar fluid flow for
Length of the pipe ( L)  40 m isothermal circular tube the value of Nusselt
Fluid flow of mass (m)  1 kg/s number is constant.
L  40 m For constant heat flux = 4.36
TW
D  0.1 m
For constant wall temperature = 3.66
Tb inlet  200 C
0 m  1kg/s
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Tb exit


q "  15000 W/m2

To get Tb exit :
q " DL  m f  C p
( Tb exit – Tb inlet)
15000  0.1 40
 1 2600  (Tb exit  200)
Tb exit  272.4980 C
hD
Nusselt number, Nu   0.023Re0.8 Pr 0.4
k
So,
h 0.1
 0.023  (85000)0.8  50.4
0.08
h  307.5678 W/m2 K
Now for TW wall temperature
By newton’s law of cooling
q "  h(TW exit  Tbexit)
15000  307.567(TW exit  272.498)
15000
TW exit   272.498
307.567
TW exit  321.2670 C
Hence, the pipe surface temperature at the exit is
321.2670C.

12 Heat Transfer
4 Heat Exchanger
2014 IIT Kharagpur
4.1 In a heat exchanger, it is observed that
T1  T2 where T1 is the temperature
difference between the two single phase
fluid streams at one end and T2 is the
temperature difference at the other end. This
heat exchanger is [1 Mark]
(A) A condenser 4.5
(B) An evaporator
(C) A counter flow heat exchanger
(D) A parallel flow heat exchanger
4.2 In a concentric counter flow heat exchanger,
water flows through the inner tube at 250 C
and leaves at 420 C . The engine oil enters at
1000 C and flows in the annular flow
passage. The exit temperature of the engine
oil is 50 0 C . Mass flow rate of water and the
engine oil are 1.5 kg/s and 1 kg/s,
2016
respectively. The specific heat of water and
oil are 4178 J/kg.K and 2130 J/kg.K, 4.6
respectively. The effectiveness of this heat
exchanger is ________. [2 Marks]
4.3 A double pipe counter flow heat exchanger
transfers heat between two water streams.
Tube side water at 19 litre/s is heated from
100 C to 380 C . Shell side water at 25 litre/s
is entering at 460 C . Assume constant
properties of water density is 1000 kg/m3
and specific heat is 4186 J/kg-K. The LMTD
(in 0 C ) is ________. [2 Marks]
4.7
2015 IIT Kanpur
4.4 Saturated vapor is condensed to saturated
liquid in a condenser. The heat capacity ratio
c
is R  min . The effectiveness (  ) of the
cmax
condenser is [1 Mark]
Heat Transfer
1  exp[ NTU (1  R)]
(A)
1 R
1  exp[ NTU (1  R)]
(B)
1  R[ NTU (1  R)]
NTU
(C)
1  NTU
(D) 1  exp( NTU )
A balanced counter flow heat exchanger has
a surface area of 20 m2 and overall heat
transfer coefficient of 20 W/m2 -K . Air
(c p  1000 J/kg-K) entering at 0.4 kg/s and
280 K is to be preheated by the air leaving
the system at 0.4 kg/s and 300 K. The
temperature (in K) of the preheated air is
[2 Marks]
(A) 290 (B) 300
(C) 320 (D) 350
IISc Bangalore
For a heat exchanger, Tmax is the maximum
temperature difference and Tmin is the
minimum temperature difference between
the two fluids. LMTD is the log mean
temperature difference, cmin and cmax are the
minimum and the maximum heat capacity
rates. The maximum possible heat transfer
(Qmax ) between the two fluids is [1 Mark]
(A) cmin LMTD (B) cmin Tmax
(C) cmax Tmax (D) cmax Tmin
Consider a parallel-flow heat exchanger with
area Ap and a counter-flow heat exchanger
with area Ac . In both the heat exchangers,
the hot stream flowing at 1 kg/s cools from
80 0 C to 500 C. For the cold stream in both
the heat exchangers, the flow rate and the
1
 inlet temperature are 2 kg/s and 100 C,
respectively. The hot and cold streams in
both the heat exchangers are of the same
fluid. Also, both the heat exchangers have
the same overall heat transfer coefficient.
A 4.12 In a concentric tube counter flow heat
The ratio c is ________. [2 Marks]
Ap
2017 IIT Roorkee
0
4.8 Saturated steam at 100 C condenses on the
outside of a tube. Cold fluid enters the tube
at 200 C and exits at 50 0 C . The value of the
Log Mean temperature difference (LMTD)
is _______ 0 C . [1 Mark]
4.9 In a counter-flow heat exchanger, water is
heated at the rate of 1.5 kg/s from 400 C to
80 0 C by an oil entering at 1200 C and
leaving at 600 C . The specific heats of water
and oil are 4.2 kJ/kg K and 2 kJ/kgK
respectively. The overall heat transfer
coefficient is 400 W / m 2 K . The required
heat transfer surface area (in m 2 ) is
[2 Marks]
(A) 0.104 (B) 0.022
(C) 10.4 (D) 21.84
2018 IIT Guwahati
4.10 Steam in the condenser of a thermal power
plant is to be condensed at a temperature of
300 C with cooling water which enters the
tubes of the condenser at 140 C and exits at
220 C . The total surface area of the tubes is
50 m2 and the overall heat transfer
coefficient is 2000 W/m2 . The heat transfer
(in MW) to the condenser is ______ (correct
to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
4.11 Hot and cold fluids enter a parallel flow
double tube heat exchanger at 1000 C and
150 C respectively. The heat capacity rates of
hot and cold fluids are Ch  2000 W/K and
Cc  1200 W/K respectively. If the outlet
2 Heat Transfer
temperature of cold fluid is 450 C , the log
mean temperature difference (LMTD) of the
heat exchanger is ______ K. [2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
0
exchanger, hot oil enters at 102 C and
0 0
leaves at 65 C . Cold water at 25 C and
0
leaves at 42 C . The log mean temperature
difference (LTMD) is ______ 0 C (round off
to one decimal places). [1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay
4.13 A shell and tube heat exchanger is used as a
steam condenser. Coolant water enters the
tube at 300 K at a rate of 100 kg/s. The
overall heat transfer coefficient is 1500
W/m2 - K , and total heat transfer area is
400 m 2 . Steam condenses at a saturation
temperature of 350 K. Assume that the
specific heat of coolant water is 4000 J/kg-
K. The temperature of the coolant water
coming out of the condenser is __________
K (round off to the nearest integer).
[1 Mark]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
4.14 During open-heart surgery, a patient’s blood
is cooled down to 250 C from 37 0 C using a
concentric tube counter-flow heat
exchanger. Water enters the heat exchanger
at 4 0 C and leaves at 180 C. Blood flow rate
during the surgery is 5 L/minute.
Use the following fluid properties:
Density Specific heat (J/kg-
Fluid 3
(kg/m ) K)
Blood 1050 3740
Water 1000 4200
Effectiveness of the heat exchanger is
_________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
[2 Marks]
4.15 Saturated vapor at 200 0 C condenses to
saturated liquid at the rate of 150 kg/s on the
shell side of a heat exchanger (enthalpy of
 condensation h fg = 2400 kJ/kg). A fluid with
c p = 4 kJ∙kg ∙K -1 -1 0
enters at 100 C on the
tube side. If the effectiveness of the heat
exchanger is 0.9, then the mass flow rate of
the fluid in the tube side is ________ kg/s (in
integer). [2 Marks]
4.1 (C)
Given :
Inlet temperature difference (Ti )
= Exit temperature difference (Te )
Now, we drawing a figure which shows the
temperature variation of different heat exchanger.
Case 1 : Parallel flow heat exchanger,
Ti  Thi  Tci
Te  The  Tce
 T1  T2
From the above figure it is not possible the
difference of inlet temperature and exit
temperature will be same.
Ti  Te will happen only if phase change
occurs. But it is asked to find the type of heat
exchanger where there is no phase change.
Case 2 : Counter flow heat exchanger,
Heat Transfer
2023 IIT Kanpur
4.16 Consider a counter-flow heat exchanger with
the inlet temperature of two fluids (1 and 2)
being T1,in  300 K and T2,in  350 K. The
heat capacity rates of the two fluids are C1 
1000 W/K and C2  400 W/K and the
effectiveness of the heat exchanger is 0.5.
The actual heat transfer rate is ________
kW.
Ti  Thi  Tce
Te  The  Tci
T1  T2
From figure it is possible that the Ti may be
equal to the Te without occurring phase change
and remains same throughout.
Case 3 : Condenser and evaporator,
Ti  Te
As for one fluid temperature does not change.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.2 0.667
Given : Inlet temperature of water (Tci )  250 C
Exit temperature of water (Tce )  420 C
Inlet temperature of engine oil (Thi )  1000 C
Exit temperature of engine oil (The )  500 C
Mass flow rate of water (mc )  1.5kg/s
Mass flow rate of engine oil (mh )  1kg/s
Specific heat of engine oil (c ph )  2130 J/kg K
Specific heat of water (c pc )  4187 kJ/kg
3
 Effectiveness of heat exchanger, Ti  Te (Thi  Tce )  (The  Tci )
LMTD  
Q
  act  Ti   Th  Tce 
ln   ln  i 
Qmax  Te   The  Tci 
Qact  Ch (Th )  mh c ph (Thi  The )  46  38   (24.72  10)

 1 2130  (100  50)  106.5 kW  (46  38) 
ln  
Qmax  Cmin (Thi  Tci )  (24.72  10) 
Cmin  mh c ph  1 2130  2130 J/K-s LMTD  11.020 C
Hence, the value of LMTD is 11.020 C .
Qmax  1 2130  (100  25)
Qmax  159.75 kW
106.5
  0.667
159.75 4.4 (D)
Hence, the effectiveness of this heat exchanger is
Throughout condenser, the hot fluid (steam)
0.667.
remains at constant temperature. Hence cmax is 
4.3 11.02
and cmin is for cold fluid.
Given : cmin
Inlet temperature of cooling water (Tci )  100 C  R 0
cmax
Exit temperature of cooling water (Tce )  380 C For parallel flow,
Mass flow rate of cooling water (mc )  19 l /s 1  exp  NTU 1  R
 …(i)
Inlet temperature of hot water (Thi )  46 C 0 1 R
For counter flow,
Mass flow rate of hot water (mh )  25 l /s
1  exp   NTU 1  R
Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3 
1  R exp   NTU 1  R
Specific heat of water (c p )  4186 J/kg K
…(ii)
Put R  0 in both equation (i) and (ii), we get
  1  exp( NTU )
Hence, the correct option is (D).
 Key Point
By applying energy balance equation, first we find NTU (Number of transferred units) signifies rate
the exit temperature of hot water. of net heat exchange between two fluids of heat
exchanger.
mh c ph (Thi  The )  mc c pc (Tce  Tci )
The NTU method or Effectiveness method helps
25  4186(46  The )  19  4186  (38  10) determine the maximum heat transfer that can
19(38  10) occur in a heat exchanger to determine NTU or
The  46  effectiveness number you must start with some
25
assumptions :
The  24.72 C
0

(i) The heat exchanger has infinite length.

Now by using the value of The we calculate (ii) The rate of heat transfer is maximum (Qmax )
LMTD. .

4 Heat Transfer
NTU method use when only one temperature
either exit or inlet is known or given information
will not sufficient to use LMTD (log mean
temperature difference).
4.5 (B)
Given :
Surface area of the heat exchanger (A)  20 m2
Overall heat transfer coefficient (U )  20 W/m2 K
Mass flow rate of air (mc )  0.4 kg/s
Exit temperature of hot air (The )  300 K
Inlet temperature of cold air (Tci )  280 K
Mass flow rate of hot air (mh )  0.4 kg/s
Specific heat of air (c p )  1000 J/kgK
Since, mass flow rate m is same for both the air
and specific heat of air is given as c p  1000 J/kgK
then heat capacity rate for both same. Then,
mc c pc  Cc and mh c pc  Ch .
Cc  Ch  mc c pc  mh c ph
Cc  Ch  0.4 1000  400 J/K s
 Thi  Tce  The  Tci
Ti  Te
From energy balance,
UATi  mc p (Tce  Tci )
20  20  (300  280)  0.4 1000(Tce  280)
8000
T   280  300 K
400
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.6 (B)
Given :
Maximum temperature difference  Tmax
Heat Transfer
Minimum temperature difference  Tmin
Maximum heat capacity rate = cmax
Minimum heat capacity rate = cmin
For maximum heat transfer heat capacity rate
should be minimum and temperature should
maximum,
Q  m(c p )min  (T )max  cmin (T )max Hence,
the correct option is (B).
4.7 0.927
Given :
Inlet temperature of hot stream (Thi )  800 C
Exit temperature of hot stream (The )  500 C
Mass flow rate of hot stream (mh )  1kg/s
Inlet temperature of cold stream (Tci )  100 C
Mass flow rate of cold stream (mc )  2kg/s
Overall heat transfer coefficient (U )  U P  U C
Specific heat (c p )  c pc  c ph
By using energy balance equation,
Q  m  c p  T  UATm
mc c pc Tc  mh c ph Th
mc Tc  mh Th
2  Tc  1 (Thi  The )
2Tc  1 (80  50)
Tc  15
(Tce  Tci )  15
Tce  15  Tci  15  10  250 C
Case 1 : Parallel flow
i  Thi  Tci  80  10  700 C
e  The  Tci  50  25  250 C
Now calculating LMTD for parallel flow,
5
 i  e 70  25 i  Thi  Tci  100  20  800 C
(LMTD) p    43.70
 i   70  e  The  Tce  100  50  500 C
ln   ln  
 e   25 
i  e 80  50
(LMTD) p  43.700 C LMTD    63.820 C
   80 
ln  i  ln  
Case 2 : Counter flow  e   50 
Hence, the value of the log mean temperature
difference (LMTD) is 63.820 C .

i  Thi  Tce  80  25  550 C 4.9 (D)

e  The  Tci  50  10  40 C
0
Given : Mass flow rate of water (mc )  1.5kg/s
i  e 55  40 Inlet temperature of water Tci   400 C
(LMTD)c    47.10
 i   55 
ln   ln   Exit temperature of water (Tce )  800 C
 e   40 
(LMTD)c  47.100 C Inlet temperature of oil (Thi )  1200 C
Now, for same heat transfer in both the heat Exit temperature of oil (The )  600 C
exchanger,
Specific heat of water (c pc )  4.2 kJ/kg K
UAp (LMTD) p  UAc (LMTD)c
Specific heat of oil (c ph )  2 kJ/kg K
Ac (LMTD) p 3.70
   0.927 Overall heat transfer coefficient
Ap (LMTD)c 47.10
(U )  400 W/m2 K
Ac
Hence, the ratio of is 0.927.
Ap

4.8 63.82
Given : Temperature of condenses steam
(Thi )  (The )  1000 C
Log mean temperature difference is given by,
Inlet temperature of cold fluid (Tci )  200 C   e
LMTD  i …(i)
Exit temperature of cold fluid (Tce )  500 C  i 
ln  
Now, calculating LMTD for the given question,  e 
i  Thi  Tce  120  80  400 C
e  The  Tci  60  40  200 C
From equation (i),
40  20
LMTD(Tm )   28.850 C
 40 
ln  
 20 
6 Heat Transfer
Now by energy balance equation applying for both
ends,
mc c pc Tc  UATm
1.5  4.2 103  (80  40)  400  A  28.85 4.11 57.71

1.5  4.2 103  40 Given :

A  21.83m2 Heat capacity of hot fluid (Ch )  2000 W/K
400  28.85
Hence, the correct option is (D). Heat capacity of cold fluid (Cc )  1200 W/K
According to question we have to find Th2 .

4.10 1.154

Given : Inlet temperature of steam (Thi )  300 C

Exit temperature of steam The   300 C
Inlet temperature of cooling water (Tci )  140 C By energy balance,
Exit temperature of cooling water (Tce )  22 C    
0
Ch Th1  Th2  Cc Tc2  Tc1
Surface area of the tubes ( A)  50 m 2
2000(100  Th2 )  1200(45  15)
Overall heat transfer coefficient
2000 30
(U )  2000 W/m2 K 
1200 100  Th2
1000  10Th2  180
820
Th2   820 C
10
1  2

100  15  82  45
LMTD , m 
  100  15 
ln 1 ln  
2  82  45 
i  e m  57.710 C or 57.71K
LMTD (Tm ) 
  Hence, the log mean temperature difference
ln  i 
 e  (LMTD) of the heat exchanger is 57.71 K.
i  Thi  Tci  30  14  160 C Note : The temperature difference will be same in
e  The  Tce  30  22  80 C Celsius and Kelvin.

16  8
Tm   11.540 C
 16 
ln  
8
4.12 49.3
The heat transfer to the condenser,
Q  UA  Tm  2000  50 11.54 Given :

Q  1.154 106 W  1.154 MW Temperature of hot fluid at inlet (Thi )  1020 C

Hence, the heat transfer to the condenser is 1.154 Temperature of hot fluid at outlet (The )  650 C
MW.
Heat Transfer 7
 Temperature of cold fluid of inlet (Tci )  250 C Outlet temperature of cold fluid (TCe )  180 C
Temperature of cold fluid at exit (Tce )  420 C Effectiveness () ,
Cc (tc2  tc1 )

Cmin (Th1  TC1 )

5 10 3
mh  1050  0.0875 kg/sec
60
mhCh (Thi  The )  mcCc (Tce  Tci )

Ti  Te 0.0875  3740 12  mc  4200 14

LMTD 
T
ln i mc  0.667
Te
60  40 20 Th  370 C
LMTD    49.320 C i

60 ln1.5
ln
40 Th  250 C
Hence, the log mean temperature difference Tc  18 0 C e

e Counter flow
(LTMD) is 49.32 0 C .
4.13 338.8434 Tc  4 0 C
i

Given : Cc  Cmin
Tci  300 K, mc  100 kg/sec, U  1500 W/m2 -K
18  4
A  400 m2 , Tsat  350 K  Thi  The   0.4242
37  4
C  4000 J/kg-K, Tce  ? Hence, the correct answer is 0.4242.
C ph    Cmax 4.15 1000
Cmin  100  4000  400, 000 TCi  100 0C
UA 1500  400
NTU    1.5
Cmin 400, 000
T T Thi  200 0C
 HE  1  e  NTU
 ce ci 2000C
Thi  Tci
Tce  300
1  e1.5    0.9
350  300
Tce  50 1  e1.5   300  338.8434 K mcond  150 kg/sec
h fg  Latent heat of vapourisation  2400 kJ/kg
Hence, the temperature of the coolant water
coming out of the condenser is 338.8434 K. Heat released  mcond  h fg
4.14 0.4242 Heat released  150  2400
Heat released  Heat absorbed by cold fluid.
Inlet temperature of hot fluid (Thi )  37 0 C

Outlet temperature of hot fluid (The )  250 C 150  2400  mCF  (c p )CF  (TF  Ti ) … (i)
We know that, for condensation :
Inlet temperature of cold fluid (TCi )  40 C

8 Heat Transfer
T for condensing fluid  0 Actual heat transfer  0.5  400  (350  300)
mc   = 10 kW
Therefore, for cold fluid  (mC ) will be Hence, the correct answer is 10 kW.
minimum.
TCe  TCi
 0.9  
Thi  TCi
TCe  100
0.9 
200  100
TCe  190
From equation (i),
150  2400  mCF  4  (190  100)
 TF  TCe and Ti  TCi 
mCF  1000 kg/sec
Hence, the mass flow rate of the fluid in the tube
side is 1000 kg/s.
4.16 10

Inlet temperature of first fluid T1(in)  300 K

Inlet temperature of second fluid T2(in)  350

K
Heat capacity of first fluid C1  1000 W/k
Heat capacity of second fluid C2  400 W/k
Effectiveness of heat exchanger (counter
flow)   0.5
As we know,
Effectiveness
Actual heat transfer

maximum possible heat transfer
Actual heat transfer
0.5 

Cmin T2(in)  T1in  
Heat Transfer 9
5 Radiation

2013 IIT Bombay 5.4 Two infinite parallel plates are placed at a
certain distance apart. An infinite radiation
5.1 Two large diffuse gray parallel plates,
shield is inserted between the plates without
separated by a small distance, have surface
touching any of them to reduce heat
temperature of 400 K and 300 K. If the
exchange between the plates. Assume that
emissivities of the surfaces are 0.8 and the
the emissivities of plates and radiation shield
Stefan Boltzmann constant is
8
are equal. The ratio of the net heat exchange
5.67 10 W/m K , the net radiation heat
2 4
between the plates with and without the
exchange rate in kW/m 2 between the two shield is [2 Marks]
plates is [2 Marks] 1 1
(A) 0.66 (B) 0.79 (A) (B)
2 3
(C) 0.99 (D) 3.96 1 1
(C) (D)
2014 IIT Kharagpur 4 8
5.2 A hemispherical furnace of 1 m radius has 2015 IIT Kanpur
the inner surface (emissivity,   1 ) of its 5.5 The total emissive power of a surface is
roof maintained at 800 K, while its floor
500 W/m2 at temperature T1 and 1200 W/m2
(  0.5) is kept at 600 K. Stefan-
at a temperature T2 , where the temperature
Boltzmann constant is 5.668  108 W/m 2 K 4
. The net radiative heat transfer (in kW) from are in Kelvin. Assuming the emissivity of the
the roof to the floor is _________. [2 Marks] surface to be constant the ratio of the
temperature T1 / T2 is [2 Marks]
5.3 A solid sphere of radius r1  20 mm is placed
concentrically inside a hollow sphere of (A) 0.0308 (B) 0.416
radius r2  30 mm as shown in the figure. (C) 0.803 (D) 0.874
5.6 A solid sphere 1 of radius ‘r’ is placed inside
a hollow, closed hemispherical surface 2 of
radius ‘4r’. The shape factor F2 1 is
[2 Marks]

The view factor F21 for radiation heat

transfer is [2 Marks]
2 4
(A) (B)
3 9 1 1
(A) (B)
8 9 12 2
(C) (D)
27 4 (C) 2 (D) 12

Heat Transfer 1
 2016 IISc Bangalore (C) 8P (D) 16P
5.7 Consider the radiation heat exchange inside 5.11 Two black surfaces, AB and BC, of lengths 5
an annulus between two very long concentric m and 6 m, respectively, are oriented as
cylinders. The radius of the outer cylinder is shown. Both surfaces extend infinitely into
R0 and that of the inner cylinder is Ri . The the third dimension. Given that view factor
radiation view factor of the outer cylinder F12  0.5, T1  800 K, T2  600 K,
onto itself is [1 Mark] Ts  300 K and Stefan Boltzmann constant
Ri Ri b  5.67 108 W/m2 K 4 , the heat transfer
(A) 1  (B) 1 
R0 R0 rate from surface 2 to the surrounding
1 environment is ______ kW. [2 Marks]
 R 3 R
(C) 1   i  (D) 1  i
 R0  R0
5.8 An infinitely long furnace of 0.5 m  0.4 m
cross-section is shown in the figure below.
Consider all surfaces of the furnace to be
black. The top and bottom walls are
maintained at temperature T1  T3  9270 C
while the side walls are at temperature
T2  T4  5270 C . The view factor, F1-2 is 2018 IIT Guwahati
0.26. The net radiation heat loss or gain on 5.12 The peak wavelength of radiation emitted by
side 1 is ______ W / m . a black body at a temperature of 2000 K is
Stefan-Boltzmann constant  5.67 108 1.45 m . If the peak wavelength of emitted
W/m 2 -K 4 . [2 Marks] radiation changes to 2.90 m , then the
temperature (in K) of the black body is
[1 Mark]
(A) 500 (B) 1000
(C) 4000 (D) 8000
5.13 A 0.2 m thick infinite black plate having a
thermal conductivity of 3.96 W/m-K is
exposed to the infinite black surface at 300
5.9 Two large parallel plates having a gap of 10 K and 400 K as shown in the figure. At
mm in between then are maintained at steady state, the surface temperature of the
temperature T1  1000 K and T2  400 K. plate facing the cold side is 350 K. The value
Given emissivity values, 1  0.5, 2  0.25 of Stefan-Boltzmann constant is
8
and Stefan-Boltzmann constant 5.67 10 W/m K . Assume 1-D heat
2 4

8
b  5.67 10 W/m K , the heat transfer
2 4
conduction, the magnitude of heat flux
between the plates (in kW/m2) is ______. through the plate (in W/m 2 ) is ____ (correct
[2 Marks] to two decimal place). [2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
5.10 The emissive power of a blackbody is P. If
its absolute temperature is doubled, the
emissive power becomes. [1 Mark]
(A) 2P (B) 4P

2 Heat Transfer
 original wavelength  max then the
temperature T2 is ______K (round off to
nearest integer). [2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
5.17 A solid sphere of radius 10 mm is placed at
the centroid of a hollow cubical enclosure of
side length 30 mm. The outer surface of the
2019 IIT Madras sphere is denoted by 1 and the inner surface
5.14 Sphere 1 with a diameter 0.1 is completely of the cube is denoted by 2. The view factor
enclosed by another sphere 2 of diameter 0.4 F22 for radiation heat transfer is _______
m. The view factor F12 is [1 Mark] (round off to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
(A) 0.0625 (B) 0.25 2022 IIT Kharagpur

(C) 0.5 (D) 1.0
5.15 Three set of parallel plates LM, NR, PQ are
in figure (a), (b), (c). The view factor FIJ is
defined as the fraction of radiation leaving
plate I that is intercepted by plate J, assume
that the value of FLM and FNR are 0.8 and
0.4 respectively. The value of FPQ is
_______. [2 Marks]
Fig. (a)
Fig. (b) Fig. (c)
2020 IIT Delhi
5.16 The spectral distribution of radiation from a
black body at T1  3000K has a maximum at
wavelength  max . The body cools down to a
temperature T2 . If the wavelength
corresponding to the maximum of the
spectral distribution at T2 is 1.2 times of the
5.18 A flat plate made of cast iron is exposed to a
solar flux of 600 W/m2 at an ambient
temperature of 250 C. Assume that the entire
solar flux is absorbed by the plate.
Cast iron has a low temperature absorptivity
of 0.21. Use Stefan-Boltzmann constant
 5.669 108 W/m 2 -K 4 . Neglect all other
modes of heat transfer except radiation.
Under the aforementioned conditions, the
radiation equilibrium temperature of the
plate is __________ 0 C (round off to the
nearest integer). [1 Mark]
5.19 Consider a solid slab (thermal conductivity,
k  10 W  m 1  K 1 ) with thickness 0.2 m
and of infinite extent in the other two
directions as shown in the figure. Surface 2,
at 300 K, is exposed to a fluid flow at a free
stream temperature ( T ) of 293 K, with a
convective heat transfer coefficient (h) of
100 W  m 2  K 1 . Surface 2 is opaque,
diffuse and gray with an emissivity (  ) of
0.5 and exchanges heat by radiation with
very large surroundings at 0 K. Radiative
heat transfer inside the solid slab is
neglected. The Stefan-Boltzmann constant is
5.67 108 W  m 2  K 4 . The temperature T1
of Surface 1 of the slab, under steady-state
conditions, is _________ K (round off to the
nearest integer). [2 Marks]

Heat Transfer 3
 Fluid, T  293 K Tsurr  0 K figure below (1Å = 10–10 m). The
h  100 W/m2 -K
  0.5 Surface 2
temperature at which the total hemispherical
T2  300 K emissivity will be highest is __________ K
To infinity 0.2 m k  10 W/mk To infinity (round off to the nearest integer). [1 Mark]
T1

Surface 1

5.20 Wien’s law is stated as follows:  mT  C ,

where C is 2898 μm∙K and  m is the wave
length at which the emissive power of a
black body is maximum for a given
 (A)
0

temperature T. The spectral hemispherical 5000 6000 7000

emissivity (   ) of a surface is shown in the

5.1 (A) Temperature of furnace floor (T2 )  600 K

Given : Temperature of 1st plate (T1 )  400 K
Temperature of 2nd plate (T2 )  300 K
Emissivity of 1st plate (1 )  0.8
Emissivity of 2nd plate (2 )  0.8
Stefan Boltzmann constant
W/m 2 K 4
Emissivity of furnace floor (2 )  0.5
Stefan Boltzmann constant (b )  5.668 108
W/m 2 K 4
(b )  5.67 10 8

Using the formula for heat exchange between any

two bodies
b T14  T24 
Q12  ...(i)
1  1 1 1  2
 
A11 A2 F21 A2  2
Using the basic Radiation heat exchange equation
Multiplying by A1 to both numerator and
q b (T24  T14 )
 denominator in equation (i),
A 1 1
 1
1  2 A1b T14  T24 
Q12 
q 5.67 10 8 (4004  3004 ) 1  1 A A 1  2
  1  1
A 1 1 1 A2 F21 A2 2
 1
0.8 0.8 A1 2r 2
q where,  2
 661.5 W/m2  0.66kW/m2 A2 r 2
A
Hence, the correct option is (A). F21  1
5.2 24.94 Now solving we get,
212  5.67 10 8 (8004  6004 )
Given : Q12 
Radius of hemispherical furnace ( r )  1 m 1  1 2 2 1  0.5
  
Emissivity of inner surface of furnace (1 )  1 1 1 1 0.5
Q12  24937.96 W  24.94 kW
Temperature of furnace roof (T1 )  800 K

4 Heat Transfer
Hence, the net radiative heat transfer from the roof 1
Qwith N shield  Qwithout any shield
to the floor is 24.94 kW. N 1
For N  1, shield the ratio is
Qwith N shield 1 1
  
Qwithout any shield 1  1 2
5.3 (B) Hence, the correct option is (A).
Given : Radius of solid sphere (r1 )  20 mm 5.5 (C)
Radius of hollow sphere (r2 )  30 mm Given : Total emissive power of a surface at
According to the Summation Rule that says the temperature T1 ( E1 )  500 W/m2
sum of the view factor from the surface 1 of an Total emissive power of a surface at temperature
enclosure to all the surface of the enclosure, T2 ( E2 )  1200 W/m2
including itself, must be equal to unity.
F11  F12  1 We known for all gray body emmisive power is
function of temperature of power four, hence we
F11  0
can write
(Since, for convex type surface it is zero)
E (emmisive power)  T 4 (   Constant)
 F12  1
The formula for total emissive power for a surface
Using reciprocity theorem
at temperature T is given by,
A1F12  A2 F21
E  b AT 4
A1 4r
2
F21   F12  1
1 E T4
A2 4r
2
2
4
E1  T1 
20 2
4  
F21  2
 E2  T2 
30 9
1/4
Hence, the correct option is (B). T1  500 
   0.803
T2  1200 
Hence, the correct option is (C).

5.4 (A)
According to question,
5.6 (A)
Given : Radius of solid sphere (r1 )  r
Radius of hollow sphere (r2 )  4r
It has been mentioned in following question that a
solid sphere 1 of radius ‘r’ is placed inside a
hollow, closed hemispherical surface 2 of radius
1   s  2   ‘4r’.
You must remember that when the shield also has
the same emissivity as that of the
Plate, than it can be generalized for “N” shields
kept between two plates

Heat Transfer 5
 Ri
F22  1 
R0
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Using reciprocity theorem,

A1F12  A2 F21 5.8 24530.68

Since, F12  1 Given :

Temperature of 1st and 3rd surface
A1 4 r12 (T1 )  (T3 )  927 0 C  1200 K
F21   …(i)
A2 2r22  r22
Temperature of 2nd and 4th surface
Where, r1  r and r2  4r (T2 )  (T4 )  5270 C  800 K
Putting in equation (i), View factor for 1st to 2nd surface ( F1-2 )  0.26
4r 2 (b )  5.67 10 8
F21  Stefan Boltzmann constant
2(4r )2  (4r )2
W/m 2 K 4
4r 2
F21 
32r 2  16r 2
4r 2 1
F21  
48r 2
12
Hence, the correct option is (A).

 Q13  0,
5.7 (D)
Because they both have same temperature.
Given : Area of cylinder 1 ( A1S )  2Ri L
F12  0.26, F14  0.26 due to symmetry
Area of cylinder 2 ( A2 S )  2R0 L .
Net radiation from (1)
Q13  Q12  Q14  2Q12
Q12  Q14  2   (T14  T24 )  F12  Area

 2  0.26  5.67 108

Here, F11  0, F12  1 (view factor)
From reciprocity theorem, (12004  8004 )  (0.5 1)
A1F12  A2 F21
A1 2Ri L Ri
 24530.68 W/m
F21   
A2 2R0 L R0 Hence, the net radiation heat loss or gain on side-
1 is 24530.68 W/m.
 F21  F22  1
Ri
F22  1  F21  1 
R0

6 Heat Transfer
 5.9 11.049 5.11 13.778
Given : Temperature of plate 1 (T1 )  1000 K Given : Length of ( AB)  5 m
Length of ( BC )  6 m
Temperature of plate 2 (T2 )  400 K
Shape factor ( F12 )  0.5
Emissivity of plate 1 (1 )  0.5
Emissivity of plate 2 (2 )  0.25
Stefan Boltzmann constant (b )  5.67 10 8
W/m 2 K 4

By reciprocal theorem,
A1F12  A2 F21
Net heat for between two infinite parallel plate (1 6)  0.5  (1 5)  F21
q  (T14  T24 ) F21  0.6
   1 1
 A 1-2  1 Also, F21  F22  F23  1
1  2
0.6  0  F23  1
8
q 5.67 10 [1000  400 ]4 4
F23  0.4
  
 A 1-2 1

1
1 Heat transfer from surface (2) to surrounding is,
0.5 0.25
(T24  T34 )
q [Q2-3 ]net  …(i)
   11049.69 W/m
2
1  2 1 1  3
 A 1-2  
A2  2 A2 F23 A33
q
   11.049 kW/m
2
Here, A3   (surrounding)
 A 1-2
1  3
Hence, the heat transfer between the plates is  0
11.049 kW/m2. A33
Also, 2  1
1  2
 0
A2  2
5.10 (D) By equation (i), we get
Emissive power of a blackbody is related to (T24  T34 )
absolute temperature as follows by Stefan- [Q2-3 ]net   A2 F23(T24  T34 )
1
Boltzman law, A2 F23
P T4
[Q2-3 ]net  (5 1)  0.4  5.67
 P '  (2T )4  16T 4
108 (6004  3004 )
P '  16P
Hence, the correct option is (D). [Q2-3 ]net  13778.1 W  13.778 kW
Hence, the heat transfer rate from surface 2 to the
surrounding environment is 13.778 kW.

Heat Transfer 7
  [(Ts1 ) 4  (T1 ) 4 ]
5.12 (B)
Given :  6.67 108 (3504  3004 )
Initial temperature of black body (T1 )  2000 K  391.58 W/m2
Peak wave length of radiation (1 )  1.45 m Hence, the magnitude of heat flux through the
Peak final wavelength of radiation plate is 391.584 W / m2 .
( 2 )  2.90 m
According to Wein’s displacement law
1  T1   2  T2
5.14 (D)
1.45  2000  2.9  T2
T2  1000 K For convex surface view factor, F12  1
Hence, the correct option is (B).

5.13 391.584
Given :
Thickness of infinite long plate (t )  0.2 m
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Thermal conductivity of plate
(k )  3.96 W/mK
Temperature at one side (T1 )  300 K
Temperature at other side (T2 )  400 K
5.15 0.6
Surface temperature of the plate on cold side
(Ts )  350 K According to question,
Stefan Boltzmann constant (b )  5.67 10 8
W/m 2 K 4 .
At steady state condition, heat transfer from all the
parts is equal.

F11  0
F12  F13  F14  0.8 (given)

F13  0.4 (given)

 Magnitude of heat flux,

k[(Ts2 )  (Ts1 )]
[(Ts1 )4  (T1 ) 4 ] 
0.2
 [T24  (Ts2 ) 4 ]
F12  F14  0.4
Since, (Ts2 ) is not given.
 Magnitude of heat flux But, F12  F14

8 Heat Transfer
 F12  F14  0.2 F12  1
Apply reciprocal theorem,
A1F12  A2  F21
4R 2 1  6 L2  F21

4(10 103 ) 2  6(30 103 ) 2  F21

F13  F14  0.4  0.2  0.6 0.001256

F21  = 0.23259
0.0054
Hence, the value of FPQ is 0.6.
F21  F22  1
5.16 2500
F22  1  0.23259
Given :
F22  0.7641
Initial temperature of black body (T1 )  3000 K
Hence, the view factor F22 for radiation heat
According to Wien’s displacement law,
transfer is 0.7641.
 maxT  C
5.18 218.33
Let, 1   max
Given :
As given in question, Solar flux (Qenter )  600 W/m 2
 2  1.2 max
Absorptivity ()  0.21
 1T1   2T2 Ambient temperature (T )  250 C  298 K
 max  3000  1.2 maxT2 Stefan Boltzmann constant
8
T2  2500 K ()  5.66 10 W/m2 K 4
Hence, the temperature T2 is 2500 K.
Qente r  600 W/m 2 Qleav e   (Ts4  T4 ) W/m2
5.17 0.7641
Given : R  10 mm  10 103 m
L  30mm  30 103 m Because all flux is absorbed by the plate, so, we
can say that the value of absorptivity is equal to 1.
From Kirchoff’s law,
Emissivity = absorptivity,     0.21
At equilibrium, Qenter  Qleave
600  (T  T )
s
4

4

600  0.21 5.669 10 8 (Ts4  2984 )

Ts  491.33K
Surface 1 is a convex surface (sphere)
Ts  218.330 C
So, F11  0
Hence, the correct answer is 218.33.
F11  F12  1

Heat Transfer 9
 5.19 318.59 Hence, the temperature at which the total
hemispherical emissivity will be highest is 4830
Given :
K.
Thermal conductivity (k )  10 W/mk
Thickness ( L)  0.2 m 
Temperature at surface (2) (T2 )  300 k
Heat transfer coefficient (h)  100 W/m2
Emissivity of surface (2) ()  0.5
Surrounding temperature (T )  293k
Temperature of large surrounding (Tlarge )  0 k
Stefan boltzman constant
()  5.67 108 w/m2k 4

Qconvection  Qconduction  Qrudiation

kA(T1  T2 )
 hA(T2  T )  A[T24  Tlarge
4
]
L
10  (T1  300)
 100  (300  293)
0.2
0.5  5.67 108[3004  04 ]
T1  318.59 K
Hence, the correct answer is 318.59 K.
5.20 4830

(  ) max

o
(A)
6000
 mT  C
(6000 1010 )  Tmax  2898 106
Tmax  4830 K

10 Heat Transfer
Syllabus : Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning (RAC)

Vapour and gas refrigeration and heat pump cycles; properties of moist air, psychrometric chart,
basic psychrometric processes.
Contents : Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning (RAC)

S. No. Topics
1. Vapour Refrigeration
2. Properties of Moist Air & Psychrometric Processes
3. Heat Pumps & Cycles
1 Vapour Refrigeration
2014 IIT Kharagpur
1.1 Which one of the following is a CFC
refrigerant? [1 Mark]
(A) R744 (B) R290
(C) R502 (D) R718
2015 IIT Kanpur
1.2 Refrigerant vapour enters into the
compressor of a standard vapor compression
cycle at 10 0 C (h  402 kJ/kg) and leaves
the compressor at 50 0 C (h  432 kJ/kg) . It
0
leaves the condenser at 30 C
1.5
(h  237 kJ/kg) . The COP of the cycle is
______. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
1.3 In the vapour compression cycle shown in
the figure, the evaporating and condensing
temperatures are 260 K and 310 K,
respectively. The compressor takes in liquid-
vapour mixture (state 1) and isentropically
compresses it to a dry saturated vapour
condition (state 2). The specific heat of the
liquid refrigerant is 4.8 kJ/kg-K and may be
treated as constant. The enthalpy of
evaporation for the refrigerant at 310 K is
1054 kJ/kg. [2 Marks]
1.6
The difference between the enthalpies at
state points 1 and 0 (in kJ/kg) is ______.
1.4 A refrigerator uses R-134a as its refrigerant
and operates on an ideal vapour-
compression refrigeration cycle between
0.14 MPa and 0.8 MPa. If the mass flow rate
of the refrigerant is 0.05 kg/s, the rate of heat
rejection to the environment is ______ kW.
[2 Marks]
Given :
At p = 0.14 MPa, h = 236.04 kJ/kg,
s = 0.9322 kJ/kg-K
At p = 0.8 MPa, h = 272.05kJ/kg
(superheated vapour)
At p = 0.8 MPa, h = 93.42kJ/kg (saturated
liquid)
2018 IIT Guwahati
A standard vapour compression refrigeration
cycle operating with a condensing
temperature of 350 C and an evaporating
temperature of 10 0 C develops 15 kW of
cooling. The p  h diagram shows the
enthalpies at various states. If the isentropic
efficiency of the compressor is 0.75, the
magnitude of compressor power (in kW) is
______ (correct to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
Consider an ideal vapour compression
refrigeration cycle. If the throttling process
is replaced by an isentropic expansion
process, keeping all the other processes
unchanged, which one of the following
statements is true for the modified cycle?
[1 Mark]
(A) Coefficient of performance is higher
than that of the original cycle.
 (B) Coefficient of performance is lower than 2022
that of the original cycle.
1.8
(C) Coefficient of performance is same as
that of the original cycle.
(D) Refrigeration effect is lower than that of
the original cycle.
2021 IIT Bombay
1.7 Consider an ideal vapour compression
refrigeration cycle working on R-134a
refrigerant. The COP of the cycle is 10 and
the refrigeration capacity is 150 kJ/kg. The
heat rejected by the refrigerant in the
condenser is ___________kJ/kg (round off
to the nearest integer). [2 Marks]
IIT Kharagpur
In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle,
the refrigerant enters the compressor in
saturated vapour state at evaporator pressure,
with specific enthalpy equal to 250 kJ/kg.
The exit of the compressor is superheated at
condenser pressure with specific enthalpy
equal to 300 kJ/kg. At the condenser exit, the
refrigerant is throttled to the evaporator
pressure. The coefficient of performance
(COP) of the cycle is 3. If the specific
enthalpy of the saturated liquid at evaporator
pressure is 50 kJ/kg, then the dryness
fraction of the refrigerant at entry to
evaporator is _________. [2 Marks]
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.25
(C) 0.3 (D) 0.35

1.1 (C)
CFC refrigerant is having clorine and flourine
elements in it
R744  CO2
R290  C3H8 (Propane)
R502  CHClF3  CClF2CF3
Coefficient of performance
R718  Water RE
Hence, the correct option is (C). [COP] 
W
Refrigeration effect,
RE  h1  h4  402  237  165

1.2 5.5
Work input in compressor,
W  h2  h1  432  402  30
Given : Enthalpy at inlet to compressor
(h1 )  402 kJ/kg 165
[COP]   5.5
30
Enthalpy at exit of compressor (h2 )  432 kJ/kg
Hence, the COP of the cycle is 5.5.
Enthalpy at exit of condenser (h3 )  237 kJ/kg
h4  h3  237 (isenthalpic process)

1.3 1103.49

Given : Specific heat of liquid (c)  4.8 kJ/kg

(h fg )310K  h2  h3  1054 kJ/kgK
Temperature at evaporator (TE )  260K
Temperature at condenser (TC )  310K

Heat rejected  (h2  h3 )

 (272.05  93.42)  178.63kJ/kg
Process 0-1 : Heat rejected  178.63 0.05 (kW)
 8.9315 kW
h1  h0
 s1  s0 ( s2  s1 ) Hence, the rate of heat rejection to the
TE
environment is 8.9315 kW.
h1  h0  260  (s2  s0 ) …(i)
Process 2-3 :
h2  h3 1054
s2  s3   …(ii)
TC 310 1.5 10
Process 3-0 : Given : Refrigeration effect (Q)  15 kW
T 310
s3  s0  c ln C  4.8  ln …(iii) Isentropic efficiency of compressor,
TE 260
h h
On adding equation (ii) and (iii), comp  2 1  0.75
h2'  h1
1054 310
s2  s0   4.8  ln 475  400
310 260 h2'  400   100 kJ/kg
0.75
s2  s0  4.2442 kJ/kgK
h2'  100  400  500 kJ/kg
Putting, the above value in equation (i),
Compressor work,
h1  h0  4.2442  260  1103.49 kJ/kg
Wc  h2'  h1
Hence, the difference between the enthalpies at
state points 1 and 0 is 1103.49 kJ/kg. Wc  500  400  100 kJ/kg …(i)

1.4 8.9315
Given : Mass flow rate  0.05 kg/s
Enthalpy at inlet to compressor
(h1 )  236.04 kJ/kg But refrigeration effect,
Enthalpy at exit of compressor Q  mR (h1  h4 )
(h2 )  272.05 kJ/kg 15  mR (400  250)
Enthalpy at exit of condenser mR  0.1 kg/s
(h3 )  93.42 kJ/kg From equation (i),
 Wc  100  0.1  10 kW
Hence, the magnitude of compressor power is 10
kW.
 Hence, the heat rejected by the refrigerant in the
condenser is 165 kJ/kg.
1.8 (B)
1.6 (A) T
If isenthalpic expansion is replaced by an
2
isentropic expansion, then the simple expansion
value being using in VCRS has to be replaced by 3
an isentropic expander which will add cost.
But, the isentropic expander will produce some
positive work. 1
4

S
h4  h f  x(hg  h f ) ... (i)
h1  h4 250  h4
COP  
h2  h1 300  250
250  h4
3
300  250
Hence, Wnet  Wc  We (isentropic expansion) h4  100 kJ/kg
Wnet  Wc (isenthalpic expansion) From equation (i),
Also, from T-S diagram, 100  50  x(250  50)
Q x  0.25
COP  E
Wnet Hence, the correct option is (B).
(QE )hc  (QE )s c

(Wnet )hc  (Wnet )s c
Hence, [COP]s c  [COP]hc
Hence, the correct option is (A).

1.7 165
Given :
COP  10, Refrigeration Capacity, ( RC )  150 kJ/kg

(QR )condenser  ?
RC
COP  10 
Win
150
10 
Win
Win  15 kJ/kg
(QR )condenser  RC  Win
 (150  15)  165 kJ/kg
 Properties of Moist Air & Psychrometric
2 Processes
2013 IIT Bombay
2.1 The pressure, dry bulb temperature and
relative humidity of air in room are 1 bar,
300 C and 70%, respectively. If the saturated
steam pressure at 300 C is 4.25 kPa, the
specific humidity of the room air in kg water
vapour/kg dry air is [1 Mark]
(A) 0.0083 (B) 0.0101
(C) 0.0191 (D) 0.0232
2014 IIT Kharagpur
2.2 A sample of moist air at a total pressure of
85 kPa has a dry bulb temperature of 30 0 C
(saturation vapour pressure of water
 4.24 kPa ). If the air sample has a relative
humidity of 65% , the absolute humidity (in
gram) to water vapour per kg of dry air is
______. [1 Mark]
2.3 Moist air at 350 C and 100% relative
humidity is entering a psychrometric device
and leaving at 250 C and 100% relative
humidity. The name of the device is
[1 Mark]
(A) Humidifier (B) Dehumidifier
(C) Sensible heater (D) Sensible cooler
2015 IIT Kanpur
2.4 A stream of moist air (mass flow rate
 10.1 kg/s ) with humidity ratio of (0.01
kg/kg dry air) mixed with a second stream of
superheated water vapour flowing at
0.1 kg/s . Assuming proper and uniform
mixing with no condensation, the humidity
ratio of the final stream (in kg/kg dry air) is
_____. [1 Mark]
0
2.5 Air in a room is at 35 C and 60% relative
humidity (RH). The pressure in the room is
0.1 MPa. The saturation pressure of water at
Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning
350 C is 5.63 kPa. The humidity ratio of the
air (in gram/kg of dry air) is ______.
[2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
2.6 The partial pressure of water vapour in a
moist air sample of relative humidity 70% is
1.6 kPa, the total pressure being 101.325
kPa. Moist air may be treated as an ideal gas
mixture of water vapour and dry air. The
relation between saturation temperature ( Ts
in K) and saturation pressure ( ps in kPa) for
water is given by
p  5304
ln  s   14.317 
 p0  Ts
where p0  101.325 kPa. The dry bulb
temperature of the moist air sample (in 0 C )
is ______. [2 Marks]
2.7 In a mixture of dry air and water vapor at a
total pressure of 750 mm of Hg, the partial
pressure of water vapor is 20 mm of Hg. The
humidity ratio of the air in grams of water
vapor per kg of dry air (gm/kg da) is ______.
[2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
2.8 If a mass of moist air contained in a closed
metallic vessel is heated, then its [1 Mark]
(A) Relative humidity decreases
(B) Relative humidity increases
(C) Specific humidity increases
(D) Specific humidity decreases
2.9 Moist air is treated as an ideal gas mixture of
water vapor and dry air (molecular weight of
air = 28.84 and molecular weight of water =
18). At a location, the total pressure is 100
kPa, the temperature is 30 0 C and the
relative humidity is 55%. Given that the
1
 saturation pressure of water at 30 0 C is 4246
Pa, the mass of water vapor per kg of dry air
is ______ grams. [2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
2.10 Ambient air is at a pressure of 100 kPa, dry
bulb temperature of 30 0 C and 60% relative
humidity. The saturation pressure of water at
30 0 C is 4.24 kPa. The specific humidity of
air (in g/kg of dry air) is ______ (correct to
two decimal place). [2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
2.11 Moist air at 105kPa,300 C and 80 % relative
humidity flows over a cooling coil in an
insulated air-conditioning duct. Saturated air
0
exit the duct at 100 kPa and 15 C . The
0
saturation pressure of water at 30 C and
150 C are 4.24 kPa and 1.7 kPa respectively.
Molecular weight of water is 18g/mol and
that of air is 28.94 g/mol . The mass of water
condensing out from the duct is ______ g/kg
of dry air (round off to nearest integer)
[2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
2.12 The relative humidity of ambient air at 300
K is 50% with a partial pressure of water
vapour equal to pv . The saturation pressure
of water at 300 K is psat. The correct relation
for the air-water mixture is
(A) pv  psat (B) pv  0.622 psat
(C) pv  0.5 psat (D) pv  2 psat
2.13 An air-conditioning system provides a
continuous flow of air to a room using an
intake duct and an exit duct, as shown in the
figure. To maintain the quality of the indoor
air, the intake duct supplies a mixture of
fresh air with a cold air stream. The two
streams are mixed in an insulated mixing
chamber located upstream of the intake duct.
Cold air enters the mixing chamber at 5˚ C,
105 kPa with a volume flow rate of 1.25 m3/s
2 Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning
during steady state operation. Fresh air
enters the mixing chamber at 34˚ C and 105
kPa. The mass flow rate of the fresh air is 1.6
times of the cold air stream. Air leaves the
room through the exit duct at 24˚ C.
Cold Air Intake
Duct
ROOM
Exit Duct
Fresh Air Mixing
Chamber
Assuming the air behaves as an ideal gas
with
C p  1.005kJ/kg.K and R =0.287 kJ/kg.K,
the rate of heat gain by the air from the room
is ________ kW (round off to two decimal
places). [2 Marks]
2.14 Ambient pressure, temperature and relative
humidity at a location are 101 kPa, 300 K
and 60% respectively. The saturation
pressure of water at 300 K is 3.6 kPa. The
specific humidity of ambient air is
__________ g/kg of dry air. [2 Marks]
(A) 21.9 (B) 21.4
(C) 13.6 (D) 35.1
2022 IIT Kharagpur
2.15 Which of the following methods can
improve the fatigue strength of a circular
mild steel (MS) shaft? [1 Mark]
(A) Enhancing surface finish
(B) Shot peening of the shaft
(C) Increasing relative humidity
(D) Reducing relative humidity
 2.1 (C) Relative humidity ()  100%

Given : Relative humidity ()  0.7 Dry bulb temperature at exit (Tdb2 )  250 C

Saturated steam pressure ( pvs )  4.25 kPa

Total pressure ( pt )  1 bar  100 kPa
Specific humidity,
pv
  0.622  …(i)
pt  pv
Again from relative humidity,
p
 v
pvs
pv  0.7  pvs  2.975 kPa Since, water content in moist air is reducing as it
From equation (i), is evident from the decrease in the humidity ratio
2.975 () . The device is Dehumidifier.
  0.622   0.0191
100  2.975 Hence, the correct option is (B).
  0.0191 kg w.v/kg d.a.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

2.4 0.02
Given : First stream of moist air
2.2 20.84
m
Given : Total pressure ( pt )  85 kPa Humidity ratio ()  0.01  v
ma
Saturated vapour pressure ( pvs )  4.24 kPa Equating the mass in the first stream
Relative humidity ()  0.65 Mass of moist air = Mass of dry air (ma )
p
  v + Mass of water vapor (mw )
pvs
10.1  ma  0.01 ma
 pv  0.65  4.24  2.756 kPa
Specific humidity, ma  10 kg/s
0.622 pv 0.622  2.756 Mass of vapour in moist air,
 
pt  pv 85  2.756 mv  10.1 10  0.1 kg/s
  0.02084 kg w.v/kg d.a Superheated vapour mv'  0.1 kg/s
 (in grams)  20.84 g.w.v/kg d.a After mixing total water vapor
Hence, the absolute humidity (in gram) to water  mv  mv'  0.2 kg/s
vapour per kg of dry air is 20.84. The dry air mass will remain same, therefore,
0.2
mix   0.02kg/kg
10
Hence, the humidity ratio of the final stream is
2.3 (B) 0.02 kg/kg.
Given : Dry bulb temperature (Tdb1 )  350 C

Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning 3

 Hence, the dry bulb temperature of the moist air
0
sample is 19.6 C .

2.5 21.74

Given : Dry bulb temperature (Tdb )  350 C

2.7 17.04
Relative humidity ()  60%  0.60
Given : Total pressure ( pt )  750 mm Hg,
Total pressure ( pt )  0.1MPa = 100kPa
Vapour pressure ( pv )  20 mm Hg
Saturated vapour pressure ( pvs )  5.63kPa at 35 C
0

 pv 
Given relative humidity and saturation pressure   0.622  
p  pt  pv 
 v
pvs From specific humidity ratio,
pv  20 
0.60    0.622    17.04 gm/kg da
5.63  750  20 
pv  0.60  5.63  3.378 kPa Hence, the humidity ratio of the air in grams of
Humidity ratio, water vapor per kg of dry air is 17.04 gm/kg da.
0.622  pv 0.622  3.378
 
pt  pv 100  3.378
  0.02174 kg of w.v./kg of dry air
2.8 (A)
  21.74 g of w.v./kg of dry air As heating is being done in a closed vessel. No
Hence, the humidity ratio of the air is 21.74 water is added or removed. Hence, humidity or
gram/kg of dry air. specific humidity will not change.
2.6 19.6 But dry bulb temperature will rise (sensible
heating).
Given : Relative humidity ()  70% So, from the psychometric chart
Vapour pressure ( pv )  1.6 kPa
Total pressure ( pt )  101.325kPa

p   5304 
ln  s   14.317   …(i)
 p0   Ts 
Here, p0  101.325kPa
Relative humidity, We can say that at constant specific humidity, as
p temperature increases relative humidity decreases
 v
ps i.e., 2  1 .
pv 1.6 Hence, the correct option is (A).
ps    2.285 kPa
 0.7
Now from equation (i),
 2.285  5304
ln    14.315  2.9 14.87
 101.325  Ts
Given : Total pressure ( pt )  100 kPa,
Ts  292.6 K  19.6 0 C

4 Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning

Saturated vapour pressure ( pvs )  4246 Pa Saturated air pressure ( p2 )  100 kPa,
Relative humidity ()  55% (T2 )  150 C ,
Relative humidity is given by, Relative humidity (RH) = 0.8,
p Saturation pressure ( ps1 )  4.24 kPa ,
 v
pvs Saturation pressure ( ps2 )  1.7 kPa ,
pv  0.55  4246  2335.3 Pa Molecular weight of water ( M w )  18 g/mol and
Specific humidity is given by, Molecular weight of air (M a )  28.94 g/mol
pv
  0.622  Relative humidity
pt  pv
Partial pressure of water vapour

 2335.3  Saturation vapour pressure
  0.622   5 
 10  2335.3  p
RH  v
  14.87 g / kg of dry air ps
Hence, the mass of water vapor per kg of dry air is pv1
14.87 grams. 0.8 
4.24
pv1  3.392 kPa
Mass of water vapour in moist air,
pv1
2.10 16.24 w1  0.622  ( patm  p1 )
patm  pv1
Given : Total pressure ( pt )  100 kPa
3.392
Relative humidity ()  60% w1  0.622 
105  3.392
Vapour pressure ( pvs )  4.24 kPa w1  20.764 g/kg of air
pv Mass of water vapour in saturated air,

pvs pv2
w2  0.622 
pv  0.6  4.24  2.544 kPa patm  pv2

   0.622 
pv ( pv2  ps2 as saturated air, patm  p2 )
pt  pv 1.7
w2  0.622   10.756 g/kg of air
  0.622 
2.544 100  1.7
100  2.544  Mass of water condensed
  0.01624 kg/kg of dry air  20.764  10.756  10.007 g/kg of air .
  16.24 g/kg of dry air Hence, the mass of water condensing out from the
duct is 10 g/kg of dry air.
Hence, the specific humidity of air is 16.24 g/kg
of dry air. 2.12 C
Given : Relative humidity = 50%
p
Relative humidity  v
psat
2.11 10 pv
0.5 
Given : psat
Moist air pressure ( p1 )  105 kPa, (T1 )  300 C, pv  0.5 psat
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning 5
 2.13 4.96 pv
  pv  0.6  3.6
Given : m f  1.6 mc pvs

Temperature of fresh air, T2  340 C = 307 K pv  2.16 kPa

Temperature of cold air T1  50 C  284 K pv 2.16

  0.622    0.622 
Specific heat at constant pressure, p  pv (101  2.16)
(CP )  1.005 kJ/kgK   0.013593
kg water vapour
Characteristic gas constant, kg of dry air
( R)  0.287 kJ/ kgK gm water vapour
  13.6
kg of dry air
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.15 A, B, D
Method which can improve fatigue strength of a
Qair  ? circular mild steel shaft are :
State 1 :  Enhancing surface finish.
1 1  m c RT1
PV
 Shot peening of the shaft.
(105) 1.25  mc  0.287  278
 Reducing relative humidity
mc  1.645 kg/sec
Hence, the correct option is (A), (B), (D).
m f  1.6  mc 
m f  1.6 1.645  

m f  2.632 kg/sec
Energy balance for mixing chamber :
(mc hc )  (m f h f )  (mc  m f )hmix
(1.645) 1.005  278  (2.632) 1.005  307
  (1.645  2.632) 1.005  T3 
T3  295.85 K
Load calculation for the room (heat taken by the
air)
Q  mc CP T
Q  (1.645  2.632) 1.005  (297  295.85)
Q  4.96 kW
Hence, the rate of heat gain by the air from the
room is 4.96 kW.
2.14 (C)
Given : P  101kPa ; T  300 K and   0.6
Pvs  3.6kPa at 300 K
?

6 Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning

3 Heat Pumps and Cycles

2014 IIT Kharagpur

3.1 A reversed Carnot cycle refrigerator
maintains a temperature of  50 C . The
ambient air temperature is 350 C . The heat 2015 IIT Kanpur
gained by the refrigerator at a continuous 3.3 The thermodynamic cycle shown in figure
(T-s diagram) indicates. [1 Mark]
rate is 2.5 kJ/s. The power (in watt) required
to pump this heat out continuously is
______. [1 Mark]
3.2 A heat pump with refrigerant R22 is used for
space heating between temperature limits of
20 0 C and 250 C . The heat required is 200
MJ/h. Assume specific heat of vapour at the (A) Reversed Carnot cycle
time of discharge as 0.98 kJ/kg.K. Other (B) Reversed Brayton cycle
relevant properties are given below. The (C) Vapor compression cycle
enthalpy (in kJ/kg ) of the refrigerant at (D) Vapor absorption cycle
isentropic compressor discharge is _______. 3.4 The [COP] of a Carnot heat pump operation
[2 Marks] between 60 C and 37 0 C is _____.
[1 Mark]

3.1 373.13 T2
[COP] 
T1  T2
Given : Sink temperature (T2 )   50 C
268
Source temperature (T1 )  350 C [COP]   6.7
308  268
We can also define COP in the following way,
Q
[COP]  2
W
2.5 103
6.7 
W
W  373.13J/s  373.13 W
Hence, the power required to pump this heat out
continuously is 373.13 W.
3.2 433.3
[COP] of refrigerator is defined as,
Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning 1
 Given : According to question 3.3 (B)
Given : The thermodynamic cycle shown in figure
(T-s diagram) indicates.

The relative between state 2 and 3 is,

T
s2  s3  c p ln 2 Reversed Brayton cycle is shown in the figure.
T3 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Where, s2  s1  1.7841 kJ/kgK 3.4 10
s3  1.7183 kJ/kgK Given : The [COP] of a Carnot heat pump
c p  0.98 kJ/kgK operation between 60 C and 37 0 C is.
Putting these values, we get Converting both the temperature into Kelvin
T 1.7841  1.7183
ln 2  TL  60 C  (6  273) K
298 0.98
Solving, we get TL  279K
T2  318.695K TH  370 C  (37  273)K
Also we have TH  310K
h2  h3  c p (T2  T3 )
[COP] of heat pump is given by,
 h2  413.02  0.98(318.695  298) TH
h2  433.3 kJ/kg [COP]HP 
TH  TL
Hence, the enthalpy of the refrigerant at isentropic
310
compressor discharge is 433.3 kJ/kg. [COP]HP   10
310  279
Hence, the [COP] of a Carnot heat pump operation
between 60 C and 37 0 C is 10.



2 Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning

Syllabus : Mechanics of Materials

Stress and strain, elastic constants, Poisson's ratio; Mohr’s circle for plane stress and plane
strain; thin cylinders; shear force and bending moment diagrams; bending and shear stresses;
concept of shear centre; deflection of beams; torsion of circular shafts; Euler’s theory of columns;
energy methods; thermal stresses; strain gauges and rosettes; testing of materials with universal
testing machine; testing of hardness and impact strength.
Contents : Mechanics of Materials

S. No. Topics
1. Stress & Strain
2. Complex Stress
3. Elastic Constants & Theory of Failure
4. Strain Energy & Thermal Stresses
5. Shear Force & Bending Moment Diagrams
6. Bending & Deflection of Beam
7. Torsion of Shaft
8. Springs
9. Euler’s Theory of Column
10. Thin Cylinder
1 Stress and Strain

2013 IIT Bombay correct option referring to both figure and

table. [1 Mark]
1.1 For a ductile material, toughness is a
measure of [1 Mark]
(A) Resistance to scratching
(B) Ability to absorb energy up to fracture
(C) Ability to absorb energy till elastic limit
(D) Resistance to indentation
1.2 A rod of length L having uniform cross-
sectional area A is subjected to a tensile force
P as shown in the figure below. If the
Young’s modulus of the material varies
linearly from E1 to E2 along the length of Point on
Description of the point
the graph
the rod, the normal stress developed at the
section-SS is [1 Mark] P 1. Upper yield point
Q 2. Ultimate tensile
strength
R 3. Proportionality limit
S 4. Elastic limit
T 5. Lower yield point
P P ( E1  E2 )
(A) (B) U 6. Failure
A A( E1  E2 )
(A) P -1, Q-2, R -3, S -4, T -5,U -6
PE2 PE1
(C) (D) (B) P - 3, Q-1, R-4, S -2, T -6, U -5
AE1 AE2
(C) P - 3, Q-4, R -1, S -5, T -2,U -6
2014 IIT Kharagpur
(D) P - 4, Q -1, R -5, S -2, T -3,U -6
1.3 The relationship between true strain (T )
1.5 A metal rod of initial length L0 is subjected
and engineering strain ( E ) in a uniaxial
to a drawing process. The length of the rod
tension test is given as [1 Mark] at any instant is given by the expression,
(A)  E  ln(1  T ) L(t )  L0 (1  t 2 ) , where t is the time in
(B)  E  ln(1  T ) minutes. The true strain rate (in min 1 ) at the
(C) T  ln(1   E ) end of one minute is ______. [2 Marks]
(D) T  ln(1   E )
2015 IIT Kanpur
1.4 The stress-strain curve for mild steel is
1.6 Which one of the following types of stress-
shown in figure given below. Choose the
strain relationship best describes the

Mechanics of Materials 1
 behavior of brittle materials, such as 2016 IISc Bangalore
ceramics and thermosetting plastic,
1.9 The value of true strain produced in
(   Stress and   Strain)? [1 Mark]
compressing a cylinder to half its original
(A) length is [1 Mark]
(A) 0.69 (B) – 0.69
(C) 0.5 (D) – 0.5
1.10 Engineering strain of a mild steel sample is
recorded as 0.100%. The true strain is
[1 Mark]
(B) (A) 0.010% (B) 0.055%
(C) 0.099% (C) 0.101%
1.11 A horizontal bar with a constant cross-
section is subjected to loading as shown in
the figure. The Young’s moduli for the
section AB and BC are 3E and E,
(C) respectively. [2 Marks]

For the deflection at C to be zero, the ratio

P
is _______.
(D) F
1.12 A hypothetical engineering stress-strain
curve shown in the figure has three straight
lines PQ, QR, RS with coordinates P(0, 0) ,
Q (0.2, 100) , R (0.6, 140) and S (0.8, 130) .
‘Q’ is the yield point, ‘R’ is the UTS point
1.7 The strain hardening exponent n of stainless and ‘S’ the fracture point. [2 Marks]
steel SS 304 with distinct yield and UTS
values undergoing plastic deformation is
[1 Mark]
(A) n  0 (B) n  0
(C) 0  n  1 (D) n  1
1.8 The flow stress (in MPa) of a material is
given by   500 0.1 , where  is the strain.
The Young’s modulus of elasticity of the
material is 200 GPa. A block of thickness
100 mm made of this material is compressed
The toughness of the material (in MJ / m 3 ) is
to 95 mm thickness and then the load is
_______.
removed. The final dimension of the block
1.13 A square plate of dimension L  L is
(in mm) is ______. [2 Marks] subjected to a uniform pressure load

2 Mechanics of Materials
 p  250 MPa on its edges as shown in the the axis of the bar. An axial tensile load of
figure. Assume plane stress conditions. The 10 kN is applied at the free end ( x  1) . The
Young’s modulus E  200 GPa. [2 Marks] axial displacement of the free end is ______
mm. [2 Marks]
1.16 A point mass of 100 kg is dropped onto a
massless elastic bar (cross-sectional area
 100 mm2 , length  1m, Young’s modulus
= 100 GPa) from a height H of 10 mm as
shown (figure is not to scale). If g  10 m/s 2 ,
the maximum compre-ssion of the elastic bar
The deformed shape is a square of dimension
is ______ mm. [2 Marks]
L  2. If L  2 m and   0.001 m. The
poisson’s ratio of the plate material is
________.
1.14 In the figure, the load P  1 N, length
L  1 m, Young’s modulus E  70 GPa,
and the cross-section of the links is a square
with dimension 10 mm  10 mm. All joints
are pin joints

1.17 A rod of length 20 mm is stretched to make

a rod of length 40 mm. Subsequently, it is
compressed to make a rod of final length 10
mm. Consider the longitudinal tensile strain
as positive and compressive strain as
negative. The total true longitudinal strain in
the rod is [2 Marks]
(A) – 0.5 (B) – 0.69
(C) – 0.75 (D) – 1.0

2018 IIT Guwahati

1.18 A bar of uniform cross section and weighing
The stress (in Pa) in the link AB is ____.
(Indicate compressive stress by a negative 100 N is held horizontally using two
sign and tensile stress by a positive sign) massless and inextensible strings S1 and S 2
[2 Marks] as shown in the figure.
2017 IIT Roorkee
1.15 A horizontal bar, fixed at one end ( x  0) ,
has a length of 1 m, and cross-sectional area
of 100 mm2 . Its elastic modulus varies along
its length as given by E ( x)  100 e x GPa,
where x is the length coordinate (in m) along The tension in the strings are [1 Mark]

Mechanics of Materials 3
 (A) T1  100N and T2  0 N
(B) T1  0 N and T2  100 N
(C) T1  75N and T2  25N
(D) T1  25 N and T2  75 N
1.19 In a linearly hardening plastic material the
true stress beyond initial yielding. [1 Mark]
(A) Increases linearly with the true strain
2019 IIT Madras
(B) Decreases linearly with the true strain
1.23 Consider the stress-strain curve for an ideal
(C) First increases linearly and then
elastic- plastic strain hardening metal as
decreases linearly with the true strain
shown in the figure. The metal was loaded in
(D) Remains constant uniaxial tension starting from O. Upon
1.20 A bimetallic cylindrical bar of cross- loading, the stress-strain curve passes
sectional area 1m 2 is made by bonding. Steel through initial yield point at P, and then
(Young’s modulus  210 GPa ) and strain hardens to point Q, where the loading
Aluminium (Young’s modulus  70 GPa ) as was stopped. From point Q, the specimen
shown in the figure. To maintain tensile axial was unloaded to point R, where the stress is
strain of magnitude 10 6 in Steel bar and zero. If the same specimen is reloaded in
tension from point R, the value of stress at
compressive axial strain of magnitude 10 6
which the material yields again is ______
in aluminum bar, the magnitude of the
MPa. [1 Mark]
required force P (in kN) along the indicated
direction is [2 Marks]

(A) 70 (B) 140

(C) 210 (D) 280
1.21 A bar is compressed to half of its original
length. The magnitude of true strain produce
in the deformed bar is _____ (correct to two
decimal places). [2 Marks]
1.22 The true stress () - true strain (  ) diagram
of a strain hardening material is shown in
figure. First, there is loading up to point A,
i.e., up to stress of 500 MPa and strain of 0.5.
Then from point A, there is unloading up to
point B, i.e. to stress of 100 MPa.
Given that the Young’s modulus
E  200 GPa, the natural strain at point
B ( B ) is _____ (correct to three decimal
places) [2 Marks]
1.24 In UTM experiment, a sample of length 100
mm, was loaded in tension until failure. The
failure load was 40 kN. The displacement,
measured using the cross-head, at failure,
was 15 mm. The compliance of the UTM is
8
constant and is given by 5 10 m/N . The
strain at failure in the sample is ______%.
[2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
1.25 The loading and unloading response of a
metal is shown in figure. The elastic and
plastic strains corresponding to 200 MPa
stress, respectively, are

4 Mechanics of Materials
 Stress () the elastic curve of the beam is always
straight.
200Stress,  (M Pa) 1.29 Which one of the following is the definition
of ultimate tensile strength (UTS) obtained
from a stress-strain test on a metal specimen?
[1 Mark]
Strain   (A) Stress value where the stress-strain curve
0.01 0.03 transitions from elastic to plastic
(A) 0.01 and 0.02 (B) 0.02 and 0.02
behavior
(C) 0.02 and 0.01 (D) 0.01 and 0.01
(B) The maximum load attained divided by
1.26 A prismatic bar PQRST is subjected to axial the original cross-sectional area
loads as shown in the figure. The segments
(C) The maximum load attained divided by
having maximum and minimum axial
the corresponding instantaneous cross-
stresses, respectively, are [2 Marks]
sectional area
(D) Stress where the specimen fractures
2023 IIT Kanpur
(A) QR and PQ (B) ST and PQ
(C) ST and RS (D) QR and RS 1.30 Cylindrical bars P and Q have identical
1.27 A steel cubic block of side 200 mm is length and radii, but are composed of
subjected to hydrostatic pressure of 250 different linear elastic materials. The
Young’s modulus and coefficient of thermal
N/mm2. The elastic modulus is
expansion of Q are twice the corresponding
2 10 N/mm and Poisson’s ratio is 0.3 for
5 2
values of P. Assume the bars to be
steel. The side of the block is reduced by perfecting bonded at the interface, and their
________ mm. (round off to two decimal weights to be negligible. The bars are held
places). [1 Mark] between rigid supports as shown in figure
2022 IIT Kharagpur and the temperature is raised by T .
Assume that the stress in each bar is
1.28 Assuming the material considered in each homogeneous and uniaxial. Denote the
statement is homogeneous, isotropic, linear
magnitudes of stress in P and Q by 1 and
elastic, and the deformations are in the
elastic range, which one or more of the 2 respectively.
following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
[1 Mark]
(A) A body subjected to hydrostatic pressure Which of the following statement is/are
has no shear stress. correct
(B) If a long solid steel rod is subjected to (A) Interface between P and Q moves to left
tensile load, then its volume increases. after heating
(C) Maximum shear stress theory is suitable (B) Interface between P and Q moves to right
for failure analysis of brittle materials. after heating

(D) If a portion of a beam has zero shear (C) 1  2

force, then the corresponding portion of (D) 1  2

Mechanics of Materials 5
 1.1 (B)
Toughness of a material is defined by energy
absorbed up to fracture. It is equal to area under
load deformation diagram. Area under stress strain
diagram up to fracture represents energy absorbed
per unit volume which is known as modulus of
toughness, it is measure of toughness of material.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.2 (A)

Normal stress at every point will be P/A because P: Proportionality limit

stress is independent of Young’s modulus of the
Q : Elastic limit
rod material.
R : Upper yield point
Resisting force P
 ss   S: Lower yield point
Area A
T: Ultimate tensile strength
From above relation we can see stress depends on
U : Failure/Rupture
resisting force (due to external load) and area. It
does not depends on the materials elastic property. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A).  Key Point
Engineering stress-strain curve is plotted between
engineering stress and strain.
True stress-strain curve is plotted between true
stress and strain.
1.3 (C)

True strain : It is defined as change in gauge 1.5 1

length divided by instantaneous gauge length. It is Given :
also known as natural strain.
Length of rod at any instant ( L)  L0 (1  t 2 )
Mathematically,
dL
Lf
dL True strain, T  
T   L
L
Li 2 L0 t 2t
T   dt   dt
L  L0 (1  t )
2
1 t2
T  ln  f 
 Li  True strain rate at the end of one minute,
 L  Li   L f  Li   d T  d  2t 
T  ln 1  f   E       dt 
 dt  dt  1  t 
2

 Li   Li 
 d T  2t
T  ln (1   E )  
 dt  1  t
2

Hence, the correct option is (C).

True strain rate after 1 minute i.e., t  1 .
1.4 (C)

6 Mechanics of Materials
  d T  2 1
   1
 dt t 1 1  1
2

 d T  1
   1 min
 dt t 1
Hence, the true strain rate at the end of one minute
is 1 min 1 . (iv) Rigid plastic material (strain hardening)
:
A rigid plastic material i.e., strain hardening
is depicted in the figure below,
1.6 (D)
Ceramics and thermosets are brittle materials
which does not undergo plastic deformation.
Therefore the stress strain curve will end end
elastic point (where stress is proportional to strain)
and then it fails. (v) Elastic perfectly plastic material :
Hence, the correct option is (D). The elastic perfectly plastic material is
 Key Point having the characteristics as shown below,
(i) Linear elastic material :
A linear elastic material is one in which the
strain is proportional to stress as shown
below,

There are also other types of idealized
models of material behavior.
(ii) Rigid materials :
It is the one which do not experience any
strain regardless of the applied stress
(iii) Perfectly plastic (non-strain hardening) :
A perfectly plastic i.e. non-strain hardening
material is shown below,
1.7 (C)
For some metals and alloys the regions of the true
stress-strain curve from the onset of plastic
deformation to the point at which necking begins
(strain hardening zone) may be approximately
given by,
T  K Tn
K and n are constants and value will vary from
alloy to alloy and will also depends on the
condition of the material. (i.e., whether it has been
plastically deformed, heat treated etc.)
Where, K  Strength coefficient,
n  Strain hardening exponent and
value of n is always less than unity.
0  n 1
For stainless steel SS304
n  0.44 (approx.)

Mechanics of Materials 7
 Hence, the correct option is (C). L
Lf 
 Key Point 2
Relationship between true stress and true strain is Since, necking phenomena has not happened then,
given as, Volume before compression
T  K Tn = Volume after compression
Ai Li  Af L f
Where, K  Strength coefficient
n  Strain hardening exponent Ai L f L / 2 1
  
Value of n varies between 0 to 1. Af Li L 2
n  0 perfectly plastic material Now, true strain,
n  1 perfectly elastic material. Lf 1
T  ln  ln     0.693
1.8 95.176 Li 2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : Flow stress (0 )  500 0.1
0
 Key Point
Young’s modulus ( E )  200 GPa
Lf  A  D 
 True strain, True strain (T )  ln  ln  i   2 ln  i 
Li A
 f   Df 
 95 
 0  ln     0.05129 Where, Li , Ai , Di are the initial length, area,
 100 
(–ve sign shows compression) diameter respectively.
L f , Af , D f are the final length, area, diameter
 0  500  (0.05129)0.1  371.512 MPa
respectively.
Now from Hook’s law,
Stress 1.10 (C)
Strain 
E Given : Engineering strain ()  0.1%
t 371.512 True strain is given by,

t 200 103  0.1 
T  ln (1  )  ln 1  
tF  t  100 
 1.85756 103
t
T  9.995 104  0.0995%
 tF  95  0.1756 (Here, t  95 mm )
Hence, the correct option is (C).
tF  95.176mm
 Final dimension of the block,
tF  95.176mm
Hence, the final dimension of the block is 95.176 1.11 4
mm. According to question,
1.9 (B) Free body diagram :
Consider initial length and final length as,
Li  L

8 Mechanics of Materials
  Area PQU  Area QRX  Area QXVU 
 Area RSY  Area SWVY 

 1 0.2 
   100 
 2 100 
 1 0.4   0.4 
    40    100  
 2 100   100 
For deflection at ‘C’ to be zero, there should be not
change in length of bar,  1 0.2   0.2 
   10    130  
l  0 ,  2 100   100 
 PL   PL   0.1  0.08  0.4  0.01  0.26
    0
 AE  AB  AE  BC Modulus of toughness  0.85 MJ/m3
FL ( F  P) L
 0 Hence, the toughness of the material is 0.85
AE A  3E MJ / m 3 .
F F P
 0
E 3E
3F  F  P  0
4F  P  0
1.13 0.2
4F  P
P Given : Uniform pressure load ( p)  250 MPa
So, 4
F Deformation ()  0.001 m
P Young’s modulus ( E )  200 GPa
Hence, the ratio is 4.
F Length ( L)  2 m
According to question,
 x   y   p   250 MPa

1.12 0.85
According to question,

Change in length along x-direction,

Lx  2 (– ve) represents compression
Change in length along y-direction,
Ly  2 (– ve) represents compression
Strain in x-direction,
Area PQU  Area QRVU  Area RSWV

Mechanics of Materials 9
 Lx
x 
L
x  p p
x   y  
E E E E
2  0.001 250 106
   1   
2 200 109
On solving,   0.2
P FAB
Hence, the poisson’s ratio of the plate material is  ( P  1 kN)
sin135 sin1800
0

0.2.
FAB  0
1.14 0
Stress in AB is zero.
Given : Load ( P)  1 kN Hence, the stress in the AB is 0 Pa.
..Method 1..
1.15 1.718
FBD :
Given : Length (l )  1 m
Cross-sectional area ( A)  100 mm2
Axial tensile load ( P )  10 kN
According to question, elastic modulus varies
along its length as given by,
E ( x)  100 e x GPa

By resolving vertical forces (FV  0) ,

(At equilibrium)
FBC sin 45  FAB  P sin 45 …(i) Elongation is given by,
By resolving horizontal forces, P P L 1

x
l   dx  dx
FH  0 , (At equilibrium) 0 AE ( x) A 105 0 e x
FBC cos 45  P cos 45 P 10 103 1
l  [e  1] 
1
[e  1]
 FBC  P A 105 100 105
Now, from equation (i), l  1.718 103 m  1.718 mm
P sin 45  FAB  P sin 45 Hence, the axial displacement of the free end is
1.718 mm.
FAB  0
If load is zero, there is no stress in the member.
  AB  0 Pa
Hence, the stress in the AB is 0 Pa. 1.16 1.517
..Method 2..
Given : Mass (m) = 100 kg
Using Lemi’s equation at point B,
Height (H) = 10 mm  10 10 3 m
Length of bar (L) = 1 m = 1000 mm

10 Mechanics of Materials
Young modulus (E) = 100 GPa 1000 1000
 100 103 N/mm2  100 109 N/m
 L impact 
100 100 103
Weight (W)  mg  100 10  1000 N  2 100 103 100 10 
 1  1  
Gravitational acceleration ( g )  10 m/s2  1000  1000 
 
Area of cross section Change in length due to falling load
( A)  100 mm2  100 10 6 m  L impact  1.5177 mm
..Method 1.. Hence, the maximum compression of the elastic
Using conservation of energy, bar is 1.517 mm.
Potential energy = Strain energy  Key Point
1 Impact factor is ratio of deformation due to
mg ( H  x)  Kbar x 2 …(i)
2 impact load to deformation due to static load
Where, x  Compression Limpact
IF 
W EA Lstatic
Kbar  
 L 2H
IF  1  1 
100 109 100 106 Lstatic
Kbar   107 N/m
1
2 EAH
So, from equation (i), or IF  1  1 
WL
1
100 10(10 103  x)  107  x2
2 1.17 (B)
Solving the equation, we get Given : Length of bar ( L)  20 mm
3
x  1.517 10 m  1.517 mm When length is increase to 40 mm :
Hence, the maximum compression of the elastic
bar is 1.517 mm.
..Method 2.. Engineering strain is given by,
According to question, L 40  20
  1
L 20
True strain (T )  ln(1  )  ln(1  1)  ln 2
When length is decrease from 40 mm to 10 mm
:

L 40  10
   0.75
L 40
Putting all units in mm,
True strain  ln(1  0.75)  ln 0.25
WL  2 EAH 
Now,  L impact  1  1   Total true strain is given by
AE  WL   ln 2  ln 0.25   0.693
Hence, the correct option is (B).

Mechanics of Materials 11
    y  c1
Where,  y  Yield stress, c1  Constant.

1.18 (B) 1.20 (D)

According to question, Given : Cross-sectional area ( A)  1 m2

Young’s modulus of steel ( Esteel )  210 GPa
Young’s modulus of aluminium ( EAl )  70 GPa
Tensile strain in steel bar ( steel )  10 6
Compressive strain in aluminium bar ( Al )  10 6

Now, taking moment about A,

MA  0,
 Fx  0 ,
L L
T2   100  PSteel  PAl  P …(i)
2 2
As bar is fixed at both ends,
T2  100 N
FBD :
 Fy  0 ,
T1  T2  100  T1  100  T2
 T1  0 N
Hence, the correct option is (B). (L)Total  0

1.19 (A) (L)Steel  (L)Al  0

For a linearly hardening plastic material true stress (L)Steel  (L)Al

varies linearly with true stress after yielding. PSteel  L / 2 PAl  L / 2

A  ESteel A  EAl
PSteel ESteel 210
  3
PAl EAl 70
PSteel  3PAl …(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
P
3PAl  PAl  P  PAl 
4
PAl  L / 2
Hence, the correct option is (A).  L  A  EAl
  Al     Al
 Key Point  L  Al L/2
Ideal plastic material : It is one that experiences PAl
 Al   106
no work hardening during plastic deformation. AAl  EAl
Linear work hardening material : The linear PAl  106 1 70 109
hardening material follows linear work hardening
rule after yielding,

12 Mechanics of Materials
 P Initial loading up to yield point (i.e. P  180 MPa
 70 103  P  280 kN
4 ) and then unloading to zero load results in work
Hence, the correct option is (D). hardening of the material. As a result, yield
strength increases on immediate next reloading.
Since it is ideal elastic plastic, material yield
strength on reloading of the specimen increases
and it will be 210 MPa.
1.21 0.69
Initial length( Li )
Given : Final length ( L f ) 
2
L  1
True strain, T  ln  f   ln  
 Li  2
T  ln(0.5)   0.693
Hence, the value of stress at which the material
Magnitude of (T )  0.69
yields again is 210 MPa.
Hence, the magnitude of true strain produce in the
1.24 2
deformed bar is 0.69.
1.22 0.498 Given : Length of sample ( L)  100 mm
Failure load ( P )  40 kN

Given : E   200 103 MPa
 Compliance of UTM is constant
Slope of initial part of stress strain curve is the L
  5 108 m/N
young’s modulus of the material, AE
500  100 PL
Slope of line AB   L 
0.5   B AE
Slope of line AB = Young’s modulus of material L L 1
 Strain   P 
500  100 L AE L
 200 103
0.5   B 40 103  5 108
Strain   0.02
400 100 103
200 103 
0.5   B Strain  0.02  100  2%
 B  0.498 Hence, the strain at failure in the sample is 2%.
Hence, the natural strain at point B is 0.498. 1.25 (C)
 Key Point Stress ( )

Slope of stress strain diagram is Young’s

modulus of elasticity for a linear elastic behavior
200 MPa A
of material.

B 0.01 0.03
O Strain ()
C
1.23 210 Permanent Elastic
strain strain

Mechanics of Materials 13
 Plastic/Permanent strain = OB = 0.01 L '  199.9 mm
Elastic strain = BC = 0.03 – 0.01 = 0.02 L  L  L '  200  199.9  0.1mm
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the side of the block is reduced by 0.1 mm.
1.26 (C)
1.28 (A), (B)
P Q R S T
For homogeneous, isotropy and linear elastic :
10 kN 15 kN 20 kN
25 kN (A) A body is subjected to hydrostatic pressure
has no shear stress.

FRS  5 kN
FQR  20 kN

FPQ  10 kN FST  25 kN

Fmin  5 kN in RS portion
  0 (In case of hydrostatic loading)
F
min  min in RS portion (B) If a long solid rod is subjected to tensile load
A then volume increases.
Fmax  25 kN in ST portion x   y  z
 (1  2)  v
Fmax E
max  in ST portion
A ( z   y  0) …. (i)
Hence, the correct option is (C).
We know that the value of Possions ratio for
1.27 0.1 elastic material is less than 0.5
Given : E  2 105 N/mm2 ,   0.3, (Side of From equation (i), the value of

steel cubic) a  200 mm ,   250 N/mm2  x 

 E (1  2)  is positive when

(  0.5) so,  v is also positive.

Hence, volume increases
Hence, the correct option is (A), (B).
1.29 (B)

E  3K (1  2) The definition of ultimate tensile strength (UTS)

obtained from a stress-strain test on a metal
2 105
K  1.67 105 N/mm2 specimen is the maximum load attained divided by
3(1  2  0.3)
the original cross-sectional area.
We can take as,
P
 i.e. ult  max
K b A0
v
Where, ult  ultimate tensile strength,
250
v   1.497 103
1.67 105 Pmax  maximum load obtained in a tensile test,
V A0  original cross-sectional area before load
v 
V
applied
V f  V  V  v
Hence, the correct option is (B).
(L3 )  2003  2003 1.497 103

14 Mechanics of Materials
 1.30 (A), (D)

According to question,
Where, E = Modulus of elasticity
  Coefficient of thermal expansion .
As we know form question bar is fixed in both
sides
Apply Fx  0 ,
R
Stress in bar (P)   1 ......(i)
A
R
Stress in bar (Q)   2 ......(ii)
A
From equations (i) and (ii),
1  2
P Q

R R

So, option (D) will correct

Apply compatibility equation
ltotal  0
1l l
l T   2l T  1  0
E 2E
31l
 3l T
2E
1  2 ET
Change in length in bar P
l
 l  1  lT  2lT  lT
E
Minus sign shows that bar P compress so this
interface will moves towards left.
Hence the correct option are (A) and (D).


Mechanics of Materials 15
2 Complex Stress

2014 IIT Kharagpur 2016 IISc Bangalore

2.1 A thin plate of uniform thickness is subject 2.4 A shaft with a circular cross-section is
to pressure as shown in the figure below subjected to pure twisting moment. The ratio
of the maximum shear stress to the largest
[1 Mark]
principal stress is [1 Mark]
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.0
(C) 0.5 (D) 0
2.5 The state of stress at a point on an element is
shown in figure (a). The same state of stress
is shown in another coordinate system in
figure (b).

Under the assumption of plane stress, which

one of the following is correct?
(A) Normal stress is zero in the z-direction
(B) Normal stress is tensile in the z-direction
(C) Normal stress is compressive in the z- (a) (b)
direction The components ( xx ,  yy ,  xy ) are given by
(D) Normal stress varies in the z-direction [1 Mark]
2.2 The state of stress at a point is given by  p p 
 x   6 MPa,  y  4 MPa and (A)  , , 0  (B) (0, 0, p)
 2 2 
 xy   8 MPa . The maximum tensile stress  p   p 
(C)  p,  p,  (D)  0, 0, 
(in MPa) at the point is _______. [2 Marks]  2  2

2015 IIT Kanpur 2017 IIT Roorkee

2.3 In a plane stress condition, the components 2.6 The state of stress at a point is
of stress at point are  x  20 MPa,  y  80  x   y   z   xz   zx   yz   zy  0 and

MPa and  xy  40 MPa. The maximum shear  xy   yx  50 MPa . The maximum normal

stress (in MPa) at the point is [2 Marks] stress (in MPa) at that point is ________.
[1 Mark]
(A) 20 (B) 25
(C) 50 (D) 100

Mechanics of Materials 1
 2018 IIT Guwahati 2020 IIT Delhi

2.7 If 1 and 3 are the algebraically largest and 2.11 The stress state at a point in a material under
plane stress condition is equi-biaxial tension
smallest principal stresses respectively, the
with magnitude of 10 MPa. If one unit on the
value of the maximum shear stress is
- plane is 1 MPa, the Mohr’s circle
[1 Mark]
representation of the state of stress is given
  3   3
(A) 1 (B) 1 by [1 Mark]
2 2
(A) A circle with radius equal to principal
  3 1  3 stress and its center at the origin of the
(C) 1 (D)
2 2 - plane.
2.8 The state of stress at a point, for a body in
(B) A circle with radius of 10 units on the
plane stress, is shown in the figure below. If
- plane.
the minimum principal stress is 10 kPa, then
(C) A point on the  -axis at a distance of 10
the normal stress  y (in kPa) is [2 Marks]
units from the origin.
(D) A point on the  -axis at a distance of 10
units from the origin.
2022 IIT Kharagpur
2.12 A linear elastic structure under plane stress
condition is subjected to two sets of loading,
(A) 9.45 (B) 18.88 I and II. The resulting states of stress at a
(C) 37.78 (D) 75.5 point corresponding to these two loadings
are as shown in the figure below. If these two
2019 IIT Madras
sets of loading are applied simultaneously,
2.9 Consider a linear elastic rectangular thin then the net normal component of stress  xx
sheet metal, subjected to uniform uniaxial is ________. [2 Marks]
tensile stress 100 MPa along the length 
direction. Assume plane stress condition in
the plane normal to the thickness. The x1
y y1
45 0
Young’s modulus of elasticity E  200 MPa x
 
and Poisson’s ratio   0.3 are given. The x

principal strains in the plane of the sheet are 

[1 Mark] Loading-I Loading-II
(A) (0.35, – 0.15) (B) (0.5, 0.0)
3  1 
(C) (0.5, – 0.5) (D) (0.5, – 0.15). (A) (B)  1  
2.10 The state of stress at a point in a component 2  2
is represented by a Mohr’s circle of radius   1 
(C) (D)  1  
100 MPa centered at 200 MPa on the normal 2  2
stress axis. On a plane passing through the
2023 IIT Kanpur
same point, the normal stress is 260 MPa.
The magnitude of the shear stress on the 2.13 Which of the plot(s) shown is/are valid
same plane at the same point is ______ MPa. Mohr’s circle representation of a plane stress
[1 Mark]
2 Mechanics of Materials
 state in a material? (The center of each circle (A) M1 (B) M2
represented by O.) (C) M3 (D) M4

Fig: M1 Fig:M2 Fig: M3 Fig:M4

2.1 (A) max  50 MPa

Under assumption of plane stresses the normal Hence, the correct option is (C).
stress in z-plane and z-direction are neglected or
2.4 (B)
taken as zero.
Hence, the correct option is (A). For pure torsion 1  max and 2   max
2.2 8.43 max
  1.0
Given : Stress along x-direction (x )   6MPa 1
Stress along y-direction ( y )  4 MPa
Shear stress ( xy )   8 MPa

x   y    y 
2

1,2    x    xy
2

2  2 

6 4  6 4 
2

1,2      ( 8)
2

2  2 
1,2  1  89 Hence, the correct option is (B).

Taking () ve sign, 2.5 (B)

1  8.43 MPa ..Method 1..

Hence, the correct answer is 8.43 MPa.
2.3 (C)

Given : x  20 MPa ,  y  80 MPa

 xy  40 MPa
Minimum shear stress,

   y 
2

max   x    xy
2

 2 
To transform the given state of stress in figure (a)
 20  80 
2
into state of stress in figure (b), element in figure
max     40
2

 2  (a) is to be rotated by 450 in (CW) direction which

Mechanics of Materials 3
 means element in (b) is at a location 450 CW from    
Also, 450    xx yy  sin  2  45 
0
that of in figure (a).  2 
Drawing Mohr circle for given state of stress  xy cos  2  450 
considering A as reference plane in figure (a).
450   A  0
(  A  0 , shear stress at plane A is zero)
 xx   yy
 0
2
 xx   yy …(iii)
Subtracting equation (ii) by equation (i), we get
2 p  ( 2 p)   xx   yy   zz   xx   yy  2 zz
4 p  4 xy
Point ‘C’ represents the state of a plane 45 (CW) 0
 xy  p …(iv)
from plane A in given state of stress. Here, normal
stress are zero. Hence, value of  xx ,  yy = 0 and Now from equation (i), (iii) and (iv),
2 p  2xx  2 p
 xy  p, from Mohr’s circle it is clear that  xy is
anticlockwise on vertical plane C. p  xx  p
Hence, the correct option is (B).  xx  0
..Method 2.. Also,  yy  0
From figure (b) we will get figure (a) if element in
Hence, the correct option is (B).
figure (b) is rotated 450 ACW.
..Method 3..
Hence, angle between plane C and plane A is
State of stress in figure (b), consider in plane A and
  450
B there no shear stress hence p and – p are
 xx   yy  xx   yy
450   cos  2  450  principle stress at a plane 450 ACW and 1350
2 2 ACW from plane C.
  xy sin  2  450 
We can observe that 1  p, 2   p are having
2 p   xx   yy  2 xy …(i) equal magnitude and opposite nature such case
Angle between plane C and B is   1350 take place only under following condition.
 xx   yy  xx   yy (i) Pure shear stress ( xy  max  1  2 ) in
1350   p  
2 2 magnitude.
 cos  2  1350   xy sin  2  1350  (ii) Unlike stresses with shear stress having
equal magnitude.
 xx   yy
p    xy State of stress in figure (a) is only possible for pure
2 stress in figure (b) with  xy   yx  p
2 p   xx   yy  2 xy
Hence, the correct option is (B).
…(ii)

4 Mechanics of Materials
 Minimum principal stress,

x   y    y 
2

2    x    xy
2

2  2 
2.6 50
100   y  100   y 
2
Given : This is a case of pure shear stress,
10      ( 50)
2

2  2 
On solving the above equation,
 y  37.78 kPa
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.9 (D)

Given :

Hence, the maximum normal stress at that point is Major principal stress (1 )   x  100 MPa
50 MPa. Minor principal stress (2 )   y  0
2.7 (B) Young’s modulus of elasticity ( E )  200 MPa
For triaxial stress of : 1  2  3 Poisson’s ratio ()  0.3
Maximum shear stress (absolute maximum shear
stress),
= Radius of Mohr’s circle

Using generalized Hooke’s law,

Major principal strain,
1  100
From Mohr’s circle, 1  Major principal stress, 1   2   0.5
E E 200
3  Minor principal stress.
Minor principal strain,
Hence, maximum shear stress, 2  100
  3 2    1  0  0.3    0.15
max  1 E E 200
2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.8 (C)

Given : Stress along x direction (x )  100 kPa

Shear stress ( xy )   50 kPa
Minimum principal stress (2 )  10 kPa

Mechanics of Materials 5
 2.10 80 2.12 (A)

Given :
y
Maximum shear stress (max )  100 MPa
x1

  y1 45 0 P
According to question, the Mohr’s circle will x x

become as, 
Loading -I Loading -II

xx   p …(i)
For loading II
     
   cos 2 
x y x y
p xy sin 2
 2   2 

DE    100 2  60 2 x  0, y  , xy  0,  450
DE    80 MPa (negative sign of angle represents that the angle is
Hence, the magnitude of the shear stress on the measured with reference to x1 axis)
same plane at the same point is 80 MPa. 0  6 0  
  cos 2(45)  0
 2   2 
p

 
p   0
2  2 
2.11 (D)
p  …(ii)
According to question, 2
From equation (i),
xx   p

xx  
2
3
This is a case of hydrostatic loading. So, its xx 
Mohr’s circle is a point. 2
 Hence, the correct option is (A).
2.13 (A),(C)
As we know,
The radius of Mohr’s circle always lies in   
mohr circle

0 axis. Hence, the correct options are (A) and (C).
10 MPa
So, radius of Mohr’s circle R  0 and Mohr’s
circle is a point on  -axis at distance of 10 units 
from origin.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

6 Mechanics of Materials
3 Elastic Constant & Theory of Failure
2014 IIT Kharagpur
3.1 A metallic rod of 500 mm length and 50 mm
diameter, when subjected to a tensile force
of 100 kN at the ends, experiences an
increase in its length by 0.5 mm and a
reduction in its diameter by 0.015 mm. The
Poisson’s ratio of the rod material is
_______. [1 Mark]
3.2 Which of the following is NOT correct?
[1 Mark]
(A) Intermediate principle stress is ignored
when applying the maximum principal
stress theory
(B) The maximum shear stress theory gives
the most accurate results amongst all the
failure theories
(C) As per the maximum strain energy
theory, failure occurs when the strain
energy per unit volume exceeds a critical
value
(D) As per the maximum distortion energy
theory, failure occurs when the distortion
energy per unit volume exceeds a critical
value
3.3 If the Poisson’s ratio of an elastic material is
0.4, the ratio of modulus of rigidity to
Young’s modulus is ______. [1 Mark]
3.4 The number of independent elastic constants
required to define the stress-strain
relationship for an isotropic elastic solid is
_______. [1 Mark]
3.5 Consider the two states of stress as shown in
configurations (I) and (II) in the figure
below. From the standpoint of distortion
energy (Von-Mises) criterion, which one of
the following statements is true? [2 Marks]
Mechanics of Materials
(I) (II)
(A) (I) yields after (II)
(B) (II) yields after (I)
(C) Both yield simultaneously
(D) Nothing can be said about their relative
yielding
3.6 A shaft is subjected to pure torsional
moment. The maximum shear stress
developed in the shaft is 100 MPa. The yield
and ultimate strengths of the shaft material in
tension are 300 MPa and 450 MPa,
respectively. The factor of safety using
maximum distortion energy (Von-Mises)
theory is _______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
3.7 A rod is subjected to a uniaxial load within
linear elastic limit. When the change in the
stress is 200 MPa, the change in the strain is
0.001. if the Poisson’s ratio of the rod is 0.3,
the modulus of rigidity (in GPa) is _____.
[1 Mark]
3.8 The uniaxial yields stress of a material is 300
MPa. According to Von-Mises criterion, the
shear yield stress in (MPa) of the material is
______. [1 Mark]
3.9 A machine element is subjected to the
following bi-axial state of stress :
x  80MPa ,  y  20MPa , xy  40MPa . If
the shear strength of the material is 100 MPa,
the factor of safety as per Tresca’s maximum
shear stress theory is [2 Marks]
1
 (A) 1.0 (B) 2.0  xx  0.001,  yy  0.002,  xy  0.003 . The
(C) 2.5 (D) 3.3 deformed length of the elongated diagonal,
2016 IISc Bangalore upto three decimal places is _______ units.
3.10 The principal stresses at a point inside a solid [2 Marks]
object are 1  100 MPa , 2  100 MPa 3.15 A carpenter glues a pair of cylindrical
wooden logs by bonding their end faces at an
and 3  0 MPa . The yield strength of the
angle of   300 as shown in the figure.
material is 200 MPa. The factor of safety
calculated using Tresca (maximum shear
stress) theory is nT and the factor of safety
calculated using Von-Mises (maximum
distortional energy) theory is nV . Which one
of the following relations is TRUE? The glue used at the interface fails if
[2 Marks] Criterion 1 : The maximum normal stress
 3 exceeds 2.5 MPa.
(A) nT    nV (B) nT  ( 3) nV
 2  Criterian 2 : The maximum shear stress
exceeds 1.5 MPa.
(C) nT  nV (D) nV  ( 3) nT
Assume that the interface fails before the
2017 IIT Roorkee logs fail. When a uniform tensile stress of 4
3.11 In the engineering stress-stain curve for mild MPa is applied at the interface [2 Marks]
steel, the ultimate tensile strength (UTS) (A) Fails only because of criterion 1
refers to [1 Mark] (B) Fails only because of criterion 2
(A) Yield stress
(C) Fails because of both criterion 1 and 2
(B) Proportional limit
(D) Does not fail
(C) Maximum stress
(D) Fracture stress 3.16 The principal stresses at a point in a critical
3.12 The Poisson’s ratio for a perfectly section of a machine component are
incompressible linear elastic material is 1  60 MPa , 2  5MPa and
[1 Mark] 3  40 MPa . For the material of the
(A) 1 (B) 0.5 component, the tensile yield strength is
(C) 0 (D) infinity  y  200 MPa . According to the maximum
3.13 In a metal forming operation when the
shear stress theory, the factor of safety is
material has just started yielding, the
[2 Marks]
principal stresses are 1  180 MPa,
(A) 1.67 (B) 2.00
2  100 MPa, 3  0 following Von-
(C) 3.60 (D) 4.00
Mises criterion the yield stress is _____
MPa. [1 Mark] 2019 IIT Madras
3.14 A rectangular region in a solid is in a state of 3.17 At a critical point in a component, the state
plane strain. The (x, y) coordinates of the of stress is given as xx  100 MPa ,
corners of the undeformed rectangle are
 yy  200 Mpa,  xy   yx  80 MPa and all
given by P(0, 0), Q(4, 0), R(4, 3), S(0, 3).
The rectangle is subjected to uniform strains, other stress components are zero. The yield

2 Mechanics of Materials
 strength of the material is 468 MPa. The
factor of safety on the basis of maximum
stress theory is _______ (round off to one
decimal place). [2 Marks]

3.1 0.3 G 1

E 2(1  )
Given : Length (L) = 500 mm
G 1
Diameter (D) = 50 mm   0.357
E 2(1  0.4)
Tensile force (P) = 100 kN
Hence, the ratio of modulus of rigidity to Young’s
Increase in length (L)  0.5 mm modulus is 0.357.
Decrease in diameter (D)  0.015 mm
Lateralstrain

Longitudinalstrain

 D  3.4 2
   (0.015 / 50)
 
D  There are two Independent constants required
  0.3
 L  0.5 / 500 which are E and G or E and K or K and E.
 
 L  Hence, the stress-strain relationship for an
Hence, the Poisson’s ratio of the rod material is isotropic elastic solid is 2.
0.3.  Key Point

3.2 (B)

The maximum shear stress theory ( S ys  0.5S yt ) is

the most conservative theory out of various other 3.5 (C)
theories of failure. It gives the over safe and
Configuration 1 :
uneconomical results. While, maximum distortion
Principal stresses are
energy theory ( S ys  0.577 S yt ) gives the most
 
2
accurate results (results are very close to 1,2      2
experimental results). It gives the safe and 2 2
economical results. 3  0
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence maximum distortion energy theory,
1
3.3 0.357  1  2    2  2    3  1    S yt2
2 2 2

2 
Given : Poisson’s ratio ()  0.4
1         2   2 2  
2
The relation is,  
     2            S yt
2 2
4
E  2G (1  ) 2   2    2   2  

Mechanics of Materials 3
 1 2 1  300 
  42  2  22   S yt2 FOS   
2 3  100 
Configuration 2 :
FOS  3  1.732
Principal stresses are : 1  , 2  , 3  
 FOS  1.73
Hence, maximum distortion energy theory
Hence, the factor of safety using maximum
1
(  )2  (2)2  (  2 )   S yt2 distortion energy (Von-Mises) theory is 1.73.
2
1
2(2  2 )  42   S yt2
2
2  32  S yt2
3.7 77
Both will yield simultaneously.
Given : Change in stress (d)  200 MPa
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Change in strain (d)  0.001
3.6 1.73
Poisson’s ratio ()  0.3
Given :
Maximum shear stress (max )  100 MPa Slope of stress strain diagram at point is equal to
Young’s modulus (sometimes this is also referred
Yield strength ( S yt )  300 MPa
as tangent modulus)
Tensile strength ( Sut )  450 MPa d  200
E   200GPa
d  0.001
Using the relation,
E  2G (1  )
200  2G (1  0.3)
G  77 GPa
Hence, the modulus of rigidity is 77 GPa.
From Mohr’s circle, for pure torsion,  Key Point
 1  max
If the slope of stress strain diagram for a material
2  max is changing, it is different to predict the value
3  0 (plane stress condition) Young’s modulus in such case, Young’s modulus
is calculated as
As per maximum distortion energy theory
(MDET). (i) Tangent modulus :
2
 S 
    12   yt 
2 2

 FOS 
1 2

2
 S 
3 2
  yt 
 FOS 
max

1  S yt 
 FOS  . 
3  max 

4 Mechanics of Materials
 d max 
100
 50MPa
E
d 2
(ii) Secant modulus : Shear strength of material = 100 MPa
100
FOS  2
50
Hence, the correct option is (B).

3.10 (C)
  2  1 Given : Principal stresses are (1 )  100 MPa ,
E 
  2  1 (2 )  100 MPa and (3 )  0 MPa
3.8 173.1 Yield strength ( S yt )  200 MPa
Given : Yield tensile stress ( S yt )  300 MPa Factor of safety by Tresca theory  nT
Maximum shear stress according to Von-Mises Factor of safety by Von-Mises theory  nV
theory, Tresca theory (maximum shear stress),
Yield shear strength, S yt
S yt max 
S ys  2 FOS
3  1  3  200
  S ys  
 2  2FOS
  0.577  300  173.1 MPa 100
50 
Hence, the shear yield stress in of the material is nT
173.1 MPa. nT  2 …(i)
3.9 (B) Von-Mises theory (maximum distortion energy) is
Given : Stress along x-direction (x )  80 MPa given by,
2
Stress along y-direction ( y )  20 MPa  S 
(    12 )   yt 
2
1
2
2

Shear stress ( xy )  40 MPa  FOS 

2
Principal stresses,  200 
100  100  100  
2 2

2

 FOS 
x   y    y 
2

1/2    x    xy
2
 200 
2
2  2  100  2

 nV 
1/2  50  (30)2  (40)2
nV  2 …(ii)
1/2  50  50
From above two equations (i) and (ii),
1  100; 2  0 ; 3  0
nT  nV
Maximum shear stress,
Hence, the correct option is (C).

Mechanics of Materials 5
 3.11 (C)

For mild steel, stress-strain curve is,

( PR)
 (along PR)
PR
( PR)
  xx cos 12   yy sin 12
PR
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 xy cos 1 sin 1
3.12 (B)
( PR)
2 2
4 3
Volumetric strain for linear elastic material, is  0.001    0.002   
PR 5 5
given by,
4 3
V 1  2 0.003  
v 
V

E
 x   y  z  5 5
4 3
For incompressible material, we have Where, cos 1  ; sin 1 
5 5
V  0
Putting in the equation, we get
1  2  0
( PR) 7

  0.5 PR 2500
Hence, the correct option is (B). 7
( PR)  5
3.13 245.76 2500
 ( PR )  0.014 mm
Given : Principal stresses are (1 )  180 MPa ,
Length of diagonal after elongation is,
(2 )  100 MPa and (3 )  0 MPa
( PR)  PR  5.014 mm
According to Von-Mises criteria, we have Hence, the length of diagonal after elongation is
 1  2    2  3    3  1   2
2 2 2 2
m
5.014 mm.
3.15 (C)
180  100   100  0   0  180  22m
2 2 2

Given : Stress along x-direction ( x )  4 MPa ,

m  245.7 MPa
Hence, the yield stress is 245.76 MPa. Stress along y-direction ( y )  0 MPa ,

3.14 5.014 Orientation of interface ()   300 (i.e. ACW

from reference plane)
Given : The uniform strains are ( xx )  0.001,
Permissible normal stress (n ) per  2.5 MPa
( yy )  0.002 and ( xy )  0.003
Permissible shear stress ( per )  1.5 MPa

6 Mechanics of Materials
Normal stress of interface, Major principal stress, and minor principal stress,
 x   y   x   y  x   y  (   y ) 
2
n     cos 2   xy sin 2 1,2    x    xy
2
 2   2  2  2 
 40  40
n     cos( 60 )  0
0
100  220  100  220 
2

 2   2  1,2      80


n  3 MPa
2  2 
Taking positive sign,
Shear stress at interface,
1  260 MPa and 2  60 MPa
 x   y 
  sin 2   xy cos 2    2 1 2 
 2  max  max  1 , , 
 2 2 2
 40
    sin( 60 )  0  1.73MPa
0
1 260
 2   max    130 MPa
So, interface fails because of both criterion 1 and 2 2
2. As per maximum shear stress theory,
Hence, the correct option is (C). S yt
max 
3.16 (B) FOS  2
 S yt 468 
Given : The principle stresses : 1  60 MPa,  S ys    234 MPa 
 2 2 
2  5MPa, 3  40MPa
S yt 468
Maximum design shear stress, FOS    1.8
max  2 130  2
60  (40)
max   50 MPa Hence, the factor of safety on basis of maximum
2
Factor of safety, stress theory is 1.8.
S ys  200
FOS   y  2
max 2max 2  50
Hence, the correct option is (B).
 Key Point

 Maximum design shear stress is given by,
1   2  2  3 3  1
Maximum of , ,
2 2 2
 Maximum design shear stress in terms of
yield stress and factor of safety is given by,
y
max 
2  FOS
Where, 1 , 2 and 3 are the principal stresses
 y is the yield shear strength.

3.17 1.8
Given : State of stresses :  xx  100 MPa   y ,
 yy  220 MPa   x ,  xy   yx  80 MPa  z xy .

Mechanics of Materials 7
4 Strain Energy & Thermal Stresses
2013 IIT Bombay
4.1 Two threaded bolts A and B of same material
and length are subjected to identical tensile
load. If the elastic energy stored in bolt A is
4 times that of the bolt B and the mean
diameter of bolt A is 12 mm, the mean
diameter of bolt B in mm is [1 Mark]
(A) 16 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 48
2014 IIT Kharagpur
4.2 A circular rod of length ‘L’ and area of cross-
section ‘A’ has a modulus of elasticity ‘E’
and coefficient of thermal expansion ‘  ’.
One end of the rod is fixed and other end is
free. If the temperature of the rod is
increased by T , then [1 Mark]
(A) Stress developed in the rod is ET and
strain developed in the rod is T
(B) Both stress and strain developed in the
rod are zero
(C) Stress developed in the rod is zero and
strain developed in the rod is T
(D) Stress developed in the rod is ET and
strain developed in the rod is zero
4.3 A steel cube, with all faces free to deform,
has Young’s modulus, E, Poisson’s ratio  ,
and coefficient of thermal expansion  . The
pressure (hydrostatic stress) developed
within the cube, when it is subjected to a
uniform increase in temperature, T , is
given by [1 Mark]
 ( T ) E
(A) 0 (B)
1  2
(T ) E (T ) E
(C)  (D) 
1  2 3(1  2)
Mechanics of Materials
4.4 A 200 mm long, stress free rod at room
temperature is held between two immovable
rigid between two immovable rigid walls.
The temperature of the rod is uniformly
raised by 250 0 C . If the Young’s modulus
and coefficient of thermal expansion are 200
GPa and 1105 / 0C , respectively, the
magnitude of the longitudinal stress (in
MPa) developed in the rod is _______.
[2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
4.5 A circular metallic rod of length 250 mm is
placed between two rigid immovable walls
as shown in the figure. The rod is in perfect
contact with the wall on the left side and
there is a gap of 0.2 mm between the rod and
the wall on the right side. If the temperature
of the rod is increased by 200 0 C , the axial
stress developed in the rod is _____ MPa.
Young’s modulus of the material of the rod
is 200 GPa and the coefficient of thermal
expansion is 10 5 per 0 C . [2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
4.6 A cantilever beam of length L and flexural
modulus EI is subjected to a point load P at
the free end. The elastic strain energy stored
in the beam due to bending (neglecting
transverse shear) is [1 Mark]
P 2 L3 P 2 L3
(A) (B)
6 EI 3 EI
PL3 PL3
(C) (D)
3 EI 6 EI
4.7 A steel bar is held by two fixed supports as
shown in the figure and is subjected to an
1
 increase of temperature T  1000 C . If the minimum temperature rise required to cause
coefficient of thermal expansion and Euler buckling of beam is ______ K.
Young’s modulus of elasticity of steel are [2 Marks]
11106 / 0 C and 200 GPa, respectively, the
magnitude of thermal stress (in MPa)
induced in the bar is _______. [1 Mark] 2020 IIT Delhi

4.11 A thin-walled cylinder of radius r and

thickness t is open at both ends, and fits
4.8 An initially stress-free massless elastic beam snugly between two rigid walls under
of length L and circular cross-section with ambient conditions, as shown in figure.
diameter d (d  L) is held fixed between
two walls as shown. The beam material has
Young’s modulus E and coefficient of
thermal expansion  .

The material of the cylinder has Young’s

If the beam is slowly and uniformly heated,
modulus E, Poisson’s ratio v and coefficient
the temperature rise required to cause the
of thermal expansion  . What is minimum
beam to buckle is proportional to [2 Marks]
rise in temperature T of the cylinder
(A) d (B) d 2 (assume uniform cylinder temperature with
(C) d 3 (D) d 4 no buckling of the cylinder) required to
prevent gas leakage if the cylinder has to
2019 IIT Madras
store the gas at an internal pressure of p
4.9 A Solid cube of side 1 m is kept at a above the atmosphere? [2 Marks]
temperature of 320 C. The coefficient of vpr
(A) T 
linear thermal expansion of the cube material tE
is 1105 / 0C , and the bulk modulus is 3vpr
(B) T 
200 GPa. If the cube is constrained all 2tE
around and heated to 420 C, then the  1  pr
(C) T   v  
magnitude of volumetric (mean) stress (in  4  tE
MPa) induce due to heating is ______.
 1  pr
(D) T   v  
[1 Mark]  2  tE
4.10 Consider a prismatic straight beam of length
L   m, pinned at the two ends as shown 2020 IIT Bombay

in the figure. The beam has a square cross-
section of side p  6 mm . The Young’s
modulus E  200 GPa, and the coefficient of
thermal expansion   3 10 6 K 1 . The
4.12 A right solid circular cone standing on its
base on a horizontal surface is of height H
and base radius R. The cone is made of a
material with specific weight w and elastic

2 Mechanics of Materials
 modulus E. The vertical deflection at the as shown in the figure and is in a state of
mid-height of the cone due to self-weight is uniaxial tension due to its self-weight.
given by [1 Mark] The elastic strain energy stored in the bar
wRH wH 2 equals _________ J. (Rounded off to two
(A) (B) decimal places)
6E 8E
Take the acceleration due to gravity as
wRH wH 2
(C)
8E
(D)
6E g  9.8 m/s 2 .

2023 IIT Kanpur

4.13 A cylindrical bar has a length 𝐿 =5 𝑚 and

cross section area S  10 m2 . The bar is
made of a linear elastic material with a
density   2700 kg/m 3 and Young’s
modulus E = 70 GPa. The bar is suspended

4.1 (B) Hence, the correct option is (C).

Strain energy is given by,
P2 L
U
2 AE
4.3 (A)
Given that, U A  4U B
Thermal stress occur only when there is resistance
P2 L P2 L
4 to its deformation, since here its free to deform
2 AA E 2 AB E hence no thermal stress.
Since bolts are of same material, length are Hence, the correct option is (A).
subjected to identical tensile load,
1 1
4
AA AB
1 1
2
4 2 4.4 500
DA DB
DB  2DA  2 12  24 mm Given : Length (l )  200 mm
Hence, the correct option is (B). Temperature change (T )  2500 C
4.2 (C) Coefficient of linear expansion ()  110 5 / 0C
For thermal stress to be non-zero the deformation Young’s modulus ( E )  200 GPa
of the bar should be either fully or partially
Thermal stress is given by,
restricted. If change is not restricted it is known as
    TE
free expansion.
Free expansion, lt  Tl   10 5  250  200 103  500 MPa
lt Hence, the magnitude of the longitudinal stress
Therefore, thermal strain, t   T
l developed in the rod is 500 MPa.

Mechanics of Materials 3
 lT  l  y
If there is no yielding of support i.e. gap is zero,
lT  l  0
4.5 240 lT  l
Given : Length of rod (l )  250 mm
Gap between the rod, ()  0.2 mm
Increase in temperature (T )  2000 C
Coefficient of thermal expansion ()  105 / 0C 4.6 (A)
Young’s modulus of material of the rod
( E )  200 GPa
Axial stress developed in the rod :
Free expansion – Restrained expansion
= Gap or yield of support
 l  Bending moment is given by, M x  Px
Tl     
E
Where, x is distance measured from the point of
5  0.25
10  200  0.25   0.2 103 load.
200 103
Strain energy is given by,
  240 MPa L ( Px)2
Hence, the axial stress developed in the rod is 240 U x   0 2 EI
dx
MPa.
P 2 L3
 Key Point U
6 EI
Deformation due to thermal stress :
Hence, the correct option is (A).
4.7 220
Thermal stress is given by,
  ET
If temperature of a bar is changed by T it will
  200  103  11 106  100  220 MPa
expand d by (lT )  Tl . Hence, the magnitude of thermal stress induced in
If the bar is placed between a wall this free the bar is 220 MPa.
expansion will be restricted by wall while 4.8 (B)
restricting the free expansion wall will apply a
compressive force on bar. Given : Length of beam = L
Thus some free expansion will be restricted by, Diameter of beam = d
Pl Young’s modulus of beam = E,
(l )  Coefficient of thermal expansion  
AE
So, we can write Upon increasing temperature, the thermal strain,
Free expansion – Restrained expansion L  L0 L0 (1   T )  L0
    T
= Gap between bar and walls L0 L0
(i.e., yield of support) Thermal stress,    TE …(i)

4 Mechanics of Materials
Buckling load,
d 4
2 E 
 EI min
2
64
Pcr   2
le2 l
 
2
3  E  d 4
Pcr 
16l 2
 l 
 le  for both ends fixed  Strain due to compressive stress offered by the
 2 
wall,
d4  
Here, I min for a circular cross-section  x   2
64 E E
Buckling stress, 
 x   2  1 …(ii)
Pcr 3 Ed 4 4 E
cr    2
A 16l d 
T   2  1
Ed 2 E
cr  …(ii)
16l  E T 
     E  3K 1  2  
Equating thermal stress and buckling stress,  1  2 
2 Ed 2 3K 1  2  T
 TE    1 105 
16 l 1  2 
2 d 2   1 105  3  200  109   42  32 
T 
16l
   60 106 N/m2
So, T is directly proportional to d 2 .
Hence, the correct option is (B).    60 MPa  60 MPa

4.9 60 Hence, the magnitude of volumetric (mean) stress

induce due to heating is 60 MPa.
Given : Side of cube (a)  1m
4.10 1
Initial temperature (T1 )  320 C
Given : Side of square cross section ( p )  6 mm
Coefficient of thermal
Coefficient of thermal expansion
Expansion ()  1105 / 0 C
()  3 106 / 0 C
Bulk modulus ( K )  200 GPa
Young’s modulus of elasticity ( E )  200 GPa
Final temperature (T2 )  42 0 C
Strain in x direction due to temperature rise,
 x  T …(i)
2 EI max
Crippling load, Pcr 
L2
  A    E  A    T  E  A
2 EI
T  E  A 
2

Mechanics of Materials 5
 p4 1 
Tp 2    w  ax 
12 3 
p4 wax
T  
12 3
p2 (6 10 3 )2 Displacement of mid point ( B )
T   1 K
d 12 3 10 6 12
 wax 
Hence, the minimum temperature rise required to H   dx
cause Euler buckling of beam is 1 K. B  B/C    3 
H/2
aE
4.11 (A)
H
Given : Cylinder radius = r , w  x2 
B  B /C 
Cylinder thickness  t , 3E  2  H /2
Young’s modulus = E,
w H2 H2 
Poisson’s ratio  v , B  B /C   
3E  2 8 
Coefficient of thermal expansion   ,
Pressure  p wH 2
B  B /C  
Since cylinder is open at both end. 8E

 L  0 B 
wH 2
(downward)
8E
For no leakage,  LPr   Ltemp
Hence, the correct option is (B).
vn
 T 4.12 20.88
E
vpr 1
 T Strain energy  ()  Volume
tE 2
vpr 1  2 
T  Strain energy     Volume
tE 2 E 
Hence, the correct option is (A).
4.12 (B)

(Ax) g
  xg
A
2 x 2 g 2
du   Adx
2E
2 g 2 A h 2
2 E 0
U x dx  2.088 J

Axial force = –weight of shaded region Hence, the correct answer is 2.088 J.

6 Mechanics of Materials
5 Shear Force & Bending Moment Diagrams

2013 IIT Bombay 2017 IIT Roorkee

5.1 A simply supported beam of length L is
subjected to a varying distributed load
sin(3x / L) Nm-1 , where the distance x is
measured from the left support. The
magnitude of the vertical reaction force in N
at the left support is [2 Marks]
L section at x  10 mm is _______. [1 Mark]
(A) Zero (B)
3
L 2L
(C) (D)
 
2015 IIT Kanpur
5.2 A cantilever beam OP is connected to
another beam PQ with a pin joint as shown
in the figure. A load of 10 kN is applied at
the mid-point of PQ. The magnitude of
bending moment (in kN-m) at fixed end O
is____. [2 Marks]
5.4 For a loaded cantilever beam of uniform
cross-section, the bending moment (in N-
mm) along the length is M ( x)  5 x 2  10 x ,
where x is the distance (in mm) measured
from the free end of the beam. The
magnitude of shear force (in N) in the cross-
2023 IIT Kanpur
5.5 A beam of length L is loaded in the xy-plane
by a uniformly distributed load, and by a
concentrated tip load parallel to the z-axis,
as shown in the figure. The resulting
bending moment distribution about the y
and the z axes are denoted by My and Mz,
respectively.
Which one of the options given depict
qualitatively CORRECT variation of My
and Mz along the length of the beam?
y

(A) 2.5 (B) 5 x

(C) 10 (D) 25
5.3 For the overhanging beam shown in figure,
the magnitude of maximum bending z P
moment (in kN-m) is_______. [2 Marks] (A)
My Mz

0 x 0 x
L L

Mechanics of Materials 1
 (B) (D)
My My
Mz Mz

0 x 0 x 0 x 0 x
L L L L

(C)
My
Mz

0 x 0 x
L L

5.1 (B) W L
R1  R2  
2 3
Given :
Hence, the correct option is (B).
 3x 
Intensity of variable load, wx  sin   N/m
 L 
Where x is distance at any section along beam.
At x  0, wx  0
5.2 (C)
l
At x  , wx  0 Given : Point load (W )  10 kN
3
2l
At x  , wx  0
3
At x  L, wx  sin 3  0
Based on above observation load distribution
diagram is drawn below,

Net vertical load :

W  Area of load distribution diagram
L  3x  2L
W   sin   dx 
0  L  3
Vertical reaction :
Due to symmetrical loading,

2 Mechanics of Materials
To find out the reaction force at Q, take moment
w.r.t. point P,
1
W   RQ 1
2
10  0.5  RQ 1

RQ  5 kN
Also, to balance the forces on the beam PQ a force
of 5 kN acts at P in upward direction and to
maintain neutrality on the hinge a force of 5 kN Methods to find maximum bending moment:
acts downward on the beam OP. ..Method 1..
Bending moment at O on beam OP is given by, In shear force diagram between A to B we can see
there is a point at which SFD changes its nature.
M O  5  2  10 kNm Let us assume that it is a distance ‘x’ from ‘A’.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Using similarity of triangle.
10 30

x 4 x
x  1 m from A
5.3 40
Also at support (B) S.F.D. changes its nature.
Hence there are two point at which Vx  0 , i.e.
 dM 
  0
 dx 
1
Bending moment at D  RA 1  10 1
2
Fy  0 ,  BM D  10 1  5  5 kN-m
RA  RB  60 …(i) 4
Bending moment at B  RA  4  10  4 
M A  0 , 2
 4  BM B  10  4 10  4  2
RB  4  10  4    20  6
 2  BM B  40 kN-m
RB  50 kN …(ii)
Hence, the maximum bending moment is 40 kN-
From equation (i), we get m (hogging).
RA  60  50
..Method 2..
RA  10 kN

For any section X - X from A at a distance ‘x’

For A to B,

Mechanics of Materials 3
 10  x 2 5.5 (B)
 M x  AB  RA x 
2
The vertical bending moment diagram in x-y plane
 M x  AB  10 x  5 x 2
…(i) due to uniformly distributed load is given as :
A B
dM x
0 VBMD
dx
d  (x-y plane)
10 x  5x 2   0
dx
10 10x  0 l 2
x 1 m 2

 M  
x max AB
 10 1  5 1  5 kN-m The horizontal bending moment diagram
due to horizontal point load is given as :
At B,  BM B  20  2  40 kN PL

Hence, the maximum bending moment is 40 kN-

m (hogging).
HBMD

(x-z plane)
5.4 110
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : M ( x)  5 x  10 x
2

Shear force is given by, 

 BM   5x2  10 x 
d d
V
dx dx
V  10 x  10  10(10)  10  110 N
Hence, the magnitude of shear force in the cross-
section at x  10 mm is 110 N.

4 Mechanics of Materials
6 Bending & Deflection of Beams

2014 IIT Kharagpur would be the value of x so that the

displacement at ‘A’ is equal to zero?
6.1 The flexural rigidity (EI) of a cantilever
[2 Marks]
beam is assumed to be constant over the
length of the beam shown in figure. If a load
PL
P and bending moment are applied at
2
the free end of the beam then the value of the
slope at the free end is [2 Marks]
(A) 0.5 L (B) 0.25 L
(C) 0.33 L (D) 0.66 L
6.5 A frame is subjected to a load P as shown in
2 2
1 PL PL the figure. The frame has a constant flexural
(A) (B)
2 EI EI rigidity EI. The effect of axial load is
neglected. The deflection at point A due to
3 PL2 5 PL2
(C) (D) the applied load P is [2 Marks]
2 EI 2 EI
6.2 A cantilever beam of length, L, with uniform
cross-section and flexural rigidity, EI, is
loaded uniformly by a vertical load, w per
unit length. The maximum vertical
deflection of the beam is given by
[2 Marks]
wL4 wL4
(A) (B) 1 PL3 2 PL3
8 EI 16 EI (A) (B)
3 EI 3 EI
wL4 wL4
(C) (D) PL4 4 PL3
4 EI 24 EI (C) (D)
EI 3 EI
6.3 Consider a simply supported beam of length,
50h, with a rectangular cross-section of 2015 IIT Kanpur
depth, h, and width, 2h. The beam carries a 6.6 A cantilever beam with flexural rigidity of
vertical point load, P, at its mid-point. The 200 Nm2 is loaded as shown in the figure.
ratio of the maximum shear stress to the The deflection (in mm) at the tip of the beam
maximum bending stress in the beam is is ______. [2 Marks]
[2 Marks]
(A) 0.02 (B) 0.10
(C) 0.05 (D) 0.01
6.4 A force P is applied at a distance x from the
end of the beam as shown in the figure. What 6.7 A cantilever beam with square cross-section
of 6 mm side is subjected to a load of 2 kN

Mechanics of Materials 1
 normal to the top surface as shown in the 6.11 A simply-supported beam of length 3L is
figure. The Young's modulus of elasticity of subjected to the loading shown in the figure.
the material of the beam is 210 GPa. The
magnitude of slope (in radian) at Q (20 mm
from the fixed end) is________. [2 Marks]

It is given that P  1 N , L  1 m and

Young’s modulus E  200 GPa . The cross-
6.8 The value of moment of inertia of the section section is a square with dimension
shown in the figure about the axis-XX is 10 mm 10 mm . The bending stress (in Pa)
[2 Marks] at the point A located at the top surface of the
beam at a distance of 1.5 L from the left end
is ______. (indicated compressive stress by
a negative sign and tensile stress by a
positive sign.) [2 Marks]
6.12 A beam of length L is carryings uniformly
distributed load w per unit length. The
flexural rigidity of the beam is EI. The
reaction at the simple support at the right end
is [2 Marks]
(A) 8.5050 106 mm4
(B) 6.8850 106 mm4
(C) 7.7625 10 mm
6 4

(D) 8.5725 106 mm4

2016 IISc Bangalore wL 3wL
(A) (B)
2 8
6.9 The cross-section of two solid bars made of
the same material are shown in the figure. wL wL
(C) (D)
The square cross-section has flexural 4 8
(bending) rigidity I1 , while the circular 6.13 The figures shows cross-section of a beam
subjected to bending. The area moment of
cross-section has flexural rigidity I 2 . Both
inertia (in mm4 ) of this cross-section about
sections have the same cross-sectional area. its base is ______. [2 Marks]
The ratio I1 / I 2 is [1 Mark]

(A) 1/  (B) 2 / 
(C)  / 3 (D)  / 6
6.10 A cantilever beam having square cross-
section of side a is subjected to an end load.
If a is increased by 19%, the tip deflection
decrease approximately by [1 Mark] 6.14 A simply supported beam of length 2L is
(A) 19% (B) 29% subjected to a moment M at the mid-point
(C) 41% (D) 50%

2 Mechanics of Materials
 x  0 as shown in the figure. The deflection maximum tensile stress developed in the
in the domain 0  x  L is given by, wire is ______ MPa. [1 Mark]
Mx 6.18 A prismatic, straight, elastic, cantilever
W ( L  x)( x  c) beam is subjected to a linearly distributed
12EIL
Where E is the Young’s modulus, I is the transverse load as shown below. If the beam
area moment of inertia and c is a constant (to length is L, Young’s modulus E , and area
be determined). [2 Marks] moment of inertia I , the magnitude of the
maximum deflection is [2 Marks]

The slope at the center x  0 is

(A) ML/(2EI) (B) ML/(3EI)
(C) ML/(6EI) (D) ML/(12EI)
qL4 qL4
2017 IIT Roorkee (A) (B)
10 EI 60 EI
6.15 Consider a beam with circular cross-section 4
qL qL4
of diameter d . The ratio of the second (C) (D)
15 EI 30 EI
moment of area about the neutral axis to the
6.19 A horizontal cantilever bean of circular cross
section modulus of the area is [1 Mark]
section length l  1 m and Flexural rigidity
d d
(A)
2
(B)
2 EI  200 Nm2 is subjected to an applied
(C) d (D)  d moment M A  1.0 Nm at free end as shown
in figure. The vertical deflection of free end
2018 IIT Guwahati
is ______ mm. (Round off to one decimal
6.16 A simply supported beam of width 100 mm, place) [2 Marks]
height 200 mm and length 4 m is carrying a
uniformly distributed load of intensity 10
kN/m. The maximum bending stress (in
MPa) in the beam is ____ (correct to one 6.20 Consider an elastic straight beam of length
decimal place). L  10 m, with square cross-section of side
a  5 mm, and Young’s modulus
E  200 GPa. This straight beam was bent
in such a way that the two ends meet, to form
a circle of mean radius R. Assuming that
Euler-Bernoulli beam theory is applicable to
this bending problem, the maximum tensile
2019 IIT Madras bending stress in the bent beam is _____
6.17 A wire of circular cross-section of diameter MPa. [2 Marks]
1.0 mm is bent into a circular are of radius
1.0 m by application of pure bending
moments at its ends. The Young’s modulus
of the material of wire is 100 GPa. The

Mechanics of Materials 3
 2020 IIT Delhi of the bending moment diagram
corresponding to the full length of the beam
6.21 A rectangular steel bar of length 500 mm, is 10000 Nm2. The magnitude of the slope of
width 100 mm thickness 15 mm is the beam at its free end is ___________
cantilevered micro radian (round off to the nearest
L M integer). [2 Marks]
x 2022 IIT Kharagpur
ML2 ML2 6.25 An L-shaped elastic member ABC with
(A) (B)
2 EI 16 EI slender arms AB and BC of uniform cross-
section is clamped at end A and connected to
ML2 ML2
(C) (D) a pin at end C. The pin remains in continuous
8 EI 4 EI contact with and is constrained to move in a
6.22 An overhanging beam PQR is subjected to smooth horizontal slot. The section modulus
uniformly distributed load 20 kN/m as of the member is same in both the arms. The
shown in the figure. end C is subjected to a horizontal force P and
20 kN/m Beam cross-section
y all the deflections are in the plane of the
figure. Given the length AB is 4𝑎 and length
z P Q R z
100 x BC is 𝑎, the magnitude and direction of the
2000 1000 normal force on the pin from the slot,
24
respectively, are [2 Marks]
All dimensions are in mm 4a
A B
The maximum bending stress developed in
the beam is _______ MPa (round off to one a
P
decimal place). [2 Marks]
6.23 A plane frame PQR (fixed at P and free at R) C
is shown in the figure. Both member (PQ and (A) 3𝑃/8, and downwards
QR) have length, L, and flexural rigidity, EI.
(B) 5𝑃/8, and upwards
Neglecting the effect of axial stress and
transverse shear, the horizontal deflection at (C) 𝑃/4, and downwards
free end, R, is [1 Mark] (D) 3𝑃/4, and upwards
L 6.26 A rigid beam AD of length 3𝑎 = 6 m is
Q
P hinged at frictionless pin joint A and
supported by two strings as shown in the
L
figure. String BC passes over two small
frictionless pulleys of negligible radius. All
the strings are made of the same material and
R
F have equal cross-sectional area. A force 𝐹 =
2 FL3 5 FL3 9 kN is applied at C and the resulting stresses
(A) (B) in the strings are within linear elastic limit.
3EI 3EI
The self-weight of the beam is negligible
4 FL3 FL3 with respect to the applied load. Assuming
(C) (D)
3EI 3 EI small deflections, the tension developed in
6.24 A cantilever beam with a uniform flexural the string at C is _________ kN (round off to
rigidity ( EI  200 106 Nm2 ) is loaded with 2 decimal places). [2 Marks]
a concentrated force at its free end. The area
4 Mechanics of Materials
 options given represent(s) the bending
Rigid beam
a stress distribution at cross section A-A after
A B C D plastic yielding
a a a

F
2023 IIT Kanpur
6.27 The effective stiffness of a cantilever beam
of length L and flexural rigidity EI (A) (B)
subjected to transverse tip load W is
W

L
3EI 2EI
(A) (B)
L3 L3
L3 L3 (C) (D)
(C) (D)
2 EI 3 EI
6.28 A beam is undergoing pure bending as
shown in figure. The stress () strain (  )
curve for the material also given .The yield
strength of the material is  y Which of the

6.1 (B) Area of bending moment

diagram between A to B
According to question, B   A 
EI
For moment at free end :
(  A1  0 for fixed end)
Pl
l
Pl 2
 B1  2 
EI 2 EI
(i) For point load at free end :
(  A1  0 for fixed end)
1
Pl  l
2 Pl 2
 B2  
EI 2 EI
(ii) Hence, net slope at free end (from superposition
As per Mohr’s first theorem (moment area principle).
method)

Mechanics of Materials 5
 B  B1  B2 
Pl 2 Pl 2

Pl 2 U 1  2 Pl 3 2wl 4 
 B     
2 EI 2 EI EI P 2 EI  3 8 
Hence, the correct option is (B). Now, P0
wl 4
B 
8EI
Hence, the correct option is (A).
6.2 (A) ..Method 2..
According to question, Unit load method :

..Method 1..
Strain energy method : (i)
Assume a fictitious point load P at free end.
Taking a section X-X form free end,

(ii)
As per unit load method,
l
Mm dx
y …(i)
wx 2
 wx 2  0
EI
M x   Px     Px  
2  2  Where, M  Bending moment at a section for
given beam.
Strain energy :
m  Bending moment at a section for same
2
  wx 2   beam but carrying only a unit load at the

l  
Px  
l
M x2 dx   2  point at which deflection is to be
U   calculated.
0
2 EI 0
2 EI
wx 2
 2 2 wx 2
wx 
4 2 M
P x   2 Px 2
l  dx
U   4 2  m  1 x  x
0
2 EI From equation (i), we get
l wx 2
P 2 x3 w2 x5 2 Pwx 4  x dx l l
 
l
wx 3 wx3
3 20 8 y 2  dx 
U EI 2 EI 8EI
2 EI 0
0 0 0
4
wl
P 2l 3 w2l 5 2Pwl 4 ymax 
  8EI
U 3 20 8
2 EI Hence, the correct option is (A).
Now, using Castigliano’s theorem deflection at
free end will be,
6 Mechanics of Materials
 6.3 (D) According to question,
According to question,

Now, we see that it is a combination of a cantilever

with a point load at free end and a moment at free
end, also deflection produced by both are in
opposite direction.
Deflection due to point load (downward)
PL3
1 
3EI
Deflection due to moment (upward)
Maximum shear stress : ML2
2 
Note : For rectangular cross-section maximum 2 EI
shear stress is 1.5 times the mean shear stress, For zero deflection,
hence 1  2

max 
3V PL3 P( L  x) L2

2A 3EI 2 EI
Where, F is maximum shear force equal to P/2 as 2L  3L  3x
shown in the figure. L
x  0.33 L
3 P/2 3 P 3
max  
2 h(2h) 8 h 2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Maximum bending stress,
M max
max  y
I
PL 6.5 (D)
Where, M max 
4 ..Method 1..
3 3 4
bh (2h)h h According to question,
I  
12 12 6
h
y
2
Putting all the values, we get
75 P
max 
2 h2
Now, taking the ration of both the stress, we have
(i) (ii)
max 2 3
   0.01
max 75 8
Hence, the correct option is (D).

6.4 (C)
(iii)

Mechanics of Materials 7
 U  U AB  U BC PL3 PL3 4 PL3
v   
L
( M x ) 2 dx
L
( M y ) 2 dy 3EI EI 3EI
U   Hence, the correct option is (D).
0
2 EI 0
2 EI
L L
( Px) 2 dx ( PL) 2 dy
U  
0
2 EI 0
2 EI

P 2 x3 P 2 L2 y
L L 6.6 0.26
U 
6 EI 0 2 EI 0
2 3 2 3
P L P L
U 
6 EI 2 EI
Vertical deflection : To find vertical deflection at
‘A’ use Castigliano’s theorem (here P is vertical Deflection at A can be defined as sum of
load at A).  A  1  2
U   P 2 L3 P 2 L3  Where,  B is deflection by a point load on
v     
P P  6 EI 2 EI  cantilever beam of length 50 mm, defined as,
2 PL3 2 PL3 PL3 500  0.053
v   B  
6 EI 2 EI 3EI 3  200
PL3 PL3 4 PL3 1   B  1.0416 104 m
v    Also for the same case angle at the end B is defined
3EI EI 3EI
by,
Hence, the correct option is (D).
PL2 500  0.052
..Method 2.. B  C  
2 EI 2  200
Unit load method,
 A  B  3.125 103 rad
So, we have
2  B  50
2  3.125 103  50  0.15625 mm
Hence, total deflection at the extreme end A is,
  1  2

  1.0416 10 4  0.15625  0.26 mm

v  () AB  () BC
Hence, the deflection at the tip of the beam is 0.26
 l Mmdx   l Mmdy 
v       mm.
 0 EI  AB  0 EI  BC
Here, M  B.M at a section due to load (P).
m  B.M at a section due to unit load.
L L
( PL) x ( wL) Ldx
v   dx   6.7 0.158
0
EI 0
EI
L L According to question,
Px3 PL2 x
v  
3EI 0
EI 0

8 Mechanics of Materials
 I XX  6.885 106 mm 4
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.9 (C)
Consider side of square is ‘a’ and diameter of
circle is ‘d’.

For a cantilever with a point load at the end, the

Two cross-sections made of same material have
slope at any distance x from fixed end is given by,
same cross-sectional area.
Px
 (2L  x) Moment of inertia of square section 
a4
2EI 12
Where, x is the distance taken from the fixed end. d 4
Moment of inertia of circular section 
So, for x  0.02 m and L  0.1 m 64
2000  0.02 Since, according to question,
 [2(0.1)  0.02] Area of square = Area of circle
0.0064
2  210 10 
9

12 
a2  d 2
Solving, we get 4
  0.158 rad 2 4
Squaring both side, a 4  d
16
Hence, the magnitude of slope at Q is 0.158
Now, flexural rigidity is given by,
radian.
Flexural rigidity = Young’s modulus
 Moment of inertia
So, flexural rigidity of square
a4
6.8 (B) I1  E1  …(i)
12
Moment of inertia of the section about the axis and flexural rigidity of circle,
d 4
I 2  E2  …(ii)
64
Dividing equation (i) by equation (ii),
I1 E  a 4  64
Ratio,  1
I 2 E2 12  d 4
I1 2  d 4  64

I 2 16 12  d 4

 60 1203   30  303   2 d 4 
  E1  E2 and a 4  
I XX   2  (30  30)  302 
 16 
 12   12 
I1 
 60 1203   304   
I XX    2  304  I2 3
 12   12 
Hence, the correct option is (C).
I XX  8640000  2(877500)
I XX  6885000 mm4

Mechanics of Materials 9
  Key Point Now, bending moment at point ‘A’,
For two same material, the flexural rigidity P 3L L
depends only on moment of inertia of the cross
M   P
3 2 2
section of beam. If flexural rigidity increase then
PL PL
beam is safer against bending failure. M  0
2 2
6.10 (D) Since, M  0 at A, hence bending stress at A will
Given : be zero.
PL3 Hence, the bending stress (in Pa) at the point A
Deflection at free end of cantilever 
3EI located at the top surface of the beam at a distance
of 1.5 L from the left end is 0.

1  a4 
  I  6.12 (B)
I  12 
1 According to question,
 4
a
a2  1.19 a1

2 a14 1
 4  0.5
1 a2 (1.19)4
2  0.5 1
Deflection decreases by 50%
Hence, the correct option is (D).
..Method 1..
6.11 0
At right end deflection is zero.
Given : Point load ( P)  1 N
wL4 RB  L3
Length of beam (3L)  3 m So, 
8EI 3EI
Young’s modulus ( E )  200 GPa

Bending stress at mid-point ‘A’,

From force balance and couple balance.
R1  R2 (Symmetrical loading)
3wL
M  0,   RB
8
P 1  R  3
3wL
1  RB 
R2  N 8
3
Hence, the correct option is (B).
10 Mechanics of Materials
..Method 2..
Moment area method :

The figure given consist of a rectangle and two

semi-circle
Moment of inertia of Rectangle about its base
(using parallel axis theorem)
I R  I G  Ay 2
bd 3 100 103
Where, I G  
12 12
Y is distance of center of gravity of rectangle from
Ax
(t B / A )1   B1  rectangular base.
EI Putting the values, we get
 1 wL2  2 I R  6666.67  (10  20) 102
   L  L
I R  26, 666.67 mm4
wL4
 B1    3
2 2

EI 8EI Moment of inertia of two semicircular about its
center of gravity,
Ax
(tB / A )2   B2  1  
EI IG  2    d 4 
 2 64 
1  2
  RB L  L   L R L3 1  
I G  2     84   201.06 mm 4
 B2    3  B
2
 2 64 
EI 3EI
Moment of inertia of two semi-circle about the
Net deflection at B is zero, as there is a pin support.
base of rectangle
Hence,  B   B  0
1 2 I C  I G  Ay 2
 B1   B2 4 2
I C  201.06  2  102
wL4 RB L3 2
 I C  5227.61 mm 4
8 EI 3EI
3wL Now, the moment of inertia of the diagram given
RB  in the question about its base is,
8EI
ICD  I R  IC
Hence, the correct option is (B).
ICD  26666.67  5227.61
6.13 21439.06
I CD  21439.06 mm4
According to question, Hence, the area moment of inertia of this cross-
section about its base is the correct answer is
21439.06 mm 4 .

Mechanics of Materials 11
 6.14 (C) U

..Method 1.. M
A simply supported beam of length ‘2L’ is   M 2 L  2ML ML
subjected to moment M at midpoint ( x  0)
   
M  12EI  12EI 6EI
deflection in domain 0  x  L . Hence, the correct option is (C).
Mx ..Method 2..
W ( L  x)( x  c)
12EIL Bending moment at AC,
M
Mx   x
2L
Differentiating w.r.t. moment,
M x  M  x
   x 
M M  2 L  2L
By modified Castigliano’s theorem, slope at a
section
 M x  M x 
L
i  2      dx
0
M   EI 
 x  Mx 
L
i  2      dx
0
 2 L  2 L  EI 
2
L
 M  x2 
i    dx
EI 0  4 L2 
L
Bending moment at any section, 2 M  x3 
i    
M EI 4 L2  3 0
Mx  x
2L 2 ML3
i   2
Strain energy in portion AC, EI 4 L  3
L
( M x )2 2 ML ML
U AC  dx i   
0
2 EI EI 12 6EI
Hence, the correct option is (C).
M 
L   x  dx 6.15 (A)
U AC    2L 
0
2 EI Ratio of second moment of area is given by,
L x 4
1 M 2  x3  I 64
d
d
U AC   2   y  
2 EI 4 L  3 0 Z x 3 2
d
1 M 2  L3  32
U AC     Hence, the correct option is (A).
2 EI 4 L2  3 
6.16 30
Utotal  U Ac  U BC  2U AC
Given :
 M 2L  M 2L
U total  2  Simply supported beam of length (l )  4m
 12 EI  12 EI Intensity of U.D.L. ( w)  10 kN/m  10000 N/m
Using Castigliano’s theorem, slope of beam at a Width of beam (b)  100 mm  0.1m
section

12 Mechanics of Materials
Thickness of beam (h)  200 mm  0.2 m
Maximum bending moment,
wl 2 10000  42
M max    20000 Nm 6.18 (D)
8 8
 Maximum bending stress, According question,
M max y
b 
I
I
Where, Z is section modulus given as
y
I is moment of inertia of section about
neutral axis. Using load method,
l
M Mmdx
b  max  …(i)
z 0
EI
bh 2 0.1 0.22
Z   6.66 10 4 m3
6 6
2000
 4
 3 107 N/m2  30 MPa
6.66 10
Hence, the maximum bending stress in the beam
is 30 MPa.

qx q
6.17 50 By similarity of triangle, 
x L
Given : Young’s modulus of elasticity qx
qx 
( E )  100GPa  100 103 MPa L
Diameter of wire (d )  1mm  1 qx  x qx
3
Mx     x 
Radius of circular arc ( R )  1m 2 L  3 6L
m  1 x  x
Deflection,
 qx3 
l   .x L
 6L  qx 4
 dx   dx
EI 6 LEI
y  0.5mm  0.5 103 m 0 0
L
 E qx5
  dx
y R 30 LEI 0
100 103 max 
qL4
  0.5 103  50 MPa
1 30 EI
Hence, the maximum tensile stress developed in Hence, the correct option is (D).
the wire is 50 MPa.

Mechanics of Materials 13
 6.19 2.5
Given : Length of beam ( L )  1m
Flexural rigidity ( EI )  200 Nm2
Moment about point A ( M A )  1Nm
Vertical deflection is given by,
 ML2  P  10 kN
A    1000  mm
 2 EI 
r1  r2  r3  r4
112 1
A  1000  100 r1  502  502  70.71 mm
2  200 400
 A  2.5mm Eccentricity, e  400 mm
Hence, the vertical deflection of free end is 2.5 P 10
mm. Primary force, P1    2.5 kN
4 4
6.20 100 Per1
Secondary force, P2 
Given : Young’s modulus ( E )  200 GPa r  r  r32  r42
1
2
2
2

Side of square cross-section (a)  5 mm 10  400  70.71

P2   14.14 kN
Length of beam ( L)  10m 4  (70.71)2
5   900  450  450
y  2.5 mm  2.5 10 3 m
2 Resultant shear force on bolt B ,
PB  P12  P22  2 PP
1 2 cos 45
0

PB  (2.5)2  (14.14)2  2  2.5 14.14cos 450

Now, circumference of neutral plane, PB  16 kN

2R  L Hence, the resultant shear load on the bolt at B, is
2R  10  R  5m 16 kN.
E 6.22 250
 y
R 20 kN/m
Q
200 103  2.5 10 3 P
  100 MPa R
5
Hence, the maximum tensile bending stress in the
bent beam is 100 MPa. 2m 1m
RP  15kN RQ  45 kN

Taking M A  0 ,
RQ  2  (20  3 1.5)  0
6.21 16
RQ  45 kN
According to question,
Taking Fy  0 ,
RP  RQ  60
RP  45  60

14 Mechanics of Materials
RP  15 kN

 M x 
mx  
U
xR    A horizontal     F 
F EI
RQ portion :
x 2 x

15 25
25x  30 15x
x  0.75 m
For ( BM ) P  0
20 x 2
For ( BM ) D  15 x   5.625 kNm
 U 
L
2 ( Fx )( x)dx
  
1  dF  RQ 0 EI
For ( BM )Q   20 1  10 kNm
2  U  FL3
For ( BM ) R  0   
 dF  RQ 3EI
M max  10 kNm QP portion :
M max  10 10 Nmm 6

50 mm

N
(Neglecting axial stress effect)
100 mm
 U 
L
( FL)( L) FL3
 dF QP 0 EI
   dx 
EI
24 mm U FL3 FL3 4 FL3
24 100 3   A   xA    
I F 3EI EI 3 EI
12 Hence, the correct option is (C).
M max
(0 )max  ymax 6.24 50
I
Given : EI  200 106 Nm2
10 106 12
(0 ) max   50  250 MPa Area of BMD between A and B  10000 Nm2
24 1003
Hence, the maximum bending stress developed in Area of BMD between A and B
 A  B 
the beam is 250 MPa. EI
6.23 (C)
10000
A 
200 106
 A  50 106 rad =50 micro rad
Hence, the magnitude of the slope of the beam at
its free end is 50 micro radian.

Mechanics of Materials 15
 6.25 (A) 8Pa3 64a3  F

4a EI 3EI
3P
A B F downward.
8
Hence, the correct option is (A).
a 6.26 1.5
T2 T2 T1

Deflection in x-direction due to load P :

9000 N
M 0  0
T1  3a  T2  2a  T2  a  9000  2a  0
3T1  3T2  1800  0
T1  T2  6000 …(i)
T2 T2 T1
Deflection in y-direction due to load P :

a B
C

9000 N

a a a
C
 B
 a

3a 2a a
C 3 a
B 2 a
2
Pa(4a) 
C1  1 C
2 EI
 PL 
   
F (4a)3 AE 
2 a B
C2 
3EI T2  3a
3  a 2 a
8Pa AE
C1  …(i)
EI T2  3 a
3 a
64 Fa 3 AE
C2  … (ii) T2 a
a 
3EI …(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii), AE
We know,

16 Mechanics of Materials
 1  C 6.27 A
T1a
3 a As we know, stiffness =
Load
AE Deflection
T1a W 3EI
a  …(iii) k 3
 3
3 AE WL L
Equating eq. (ii) and (iii), 3EI
T2 a T1a Hence, the correct option is (A).

AE 3 AE 6.28 (A),(D)
T1  3T2 After Plastic Yielding, bending stress will remain
Putting the value of T1 in equation (i), constant.
T1  T2  6000
3T2  T2  6000
4T2  6000
6000
T2 
4
T2  1500 N
T2  1.5 kN Hence, the correct options are (C) & (D).
Hence, the tension developed in the string at C is
1.5 kN. 

Mechanics of Materials 17
7 Torsion of Shaft
2014 IIT Kharagpur
7.1 Two solid circular shafts of radii R1 and R2
are subjected to same torque. The maximum
shear stresses developed in the two shafts are
R 
1 and  2 . If 1  2 , then 2 is ______.
R2 1
[1 Mark]
2015 IIT Kanpur
7.2 Consider a stepped shaft subjected to a
twisting moment applied at B as shown in the
figure. Assume shear modulus, G = 77 GPa.
The angle of twist at C (in degree) 7.6
is________. [1 Mark]
7.3 A hollow shaft (d0  2di where d 0 and di
are the outer and inner diameters
respectively) needs to transmit 20 kW power
at 3000 rpm. If the maximum permissible
shear stress is 30 MPa, d 0 is [2 Marks]
(A) 11.29 mm (B) 22.58 mm
(C) 33.87 mm (D) 45.16 mm
7.4 A hollow shaft of 1 m length is designed to
transmit a power of 30 kW at 700 rpm. The
maximum permissible angle of twist in the 7.7
shaft is 10 . The inner diameter of the shaft is
0.7 times the outer diameter. The modulus of
rigidity is 80 GPa. The outside diameter (in
mm) of the shaft is________. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore 7.8
7.5 The cross sections of two hollow bars made
of the same material are concentric circles as
shown in the figure. It is given that r3  r1 and
r4  r2 , and that the areas of the cross-
Mechanics of Materials
sections are the same, J 1 and J 2 are the
torsional rigidities of the bars on the left and
J
right, respectively. The ratio 2 is
J1
[1 Mark]
(A) >1 (B)  0.5
(C)  1 (D) Between 0.5 and 1
A machine element XY, fixed at end X, is
subjected to an axial load P, transverse load
F, and a twisting moment T at its free end Y.
The most critical point from the strength
point of view is [1 Mark]
(A) A point on the circumference at location
Y
(B) A point at the center at location Y
(C) A point on the circumference at location
X
(D) A point at the center at location X
A shaft with a circular cross-section is
subjected to pure twisting moment. The ratio
of the maximum shear stress to the largest
stress is [1 Mark]
(A) 0.25 (B) 1.0
(C) 0.5 (D) 0
Two circular shafts made of same material,
one solid (S) and one hollow (H), have the
same length and polar moment of inertia.
Both are subjected to same torque. Here,  S
is the twist and  S is the maximum shear
1
 stress in the solid shaft, whereas H is the
twist and H is the maximum shear stress in
the hollow shaft. Which one of the following
is TRUE? [2 Marks]
(A) S  H and S   H
(B) S  H and S   H
(C) S  H and S   H
(D) S  H and S   H
7.9 A rigid horizontal rod of length 2L is fixed
to a circular cylinder of radius R as shown in
the figure. Vertical forces of magnitude P are
applied at the two ends as shown in the
figure. The shear modulus for the cylinder is
G and the Young’s modulus is E. [2 Marks]
The vertical deflection at point A is
PL3 PL3
(A) (B)
(R 4G) (R 4 E )
2PL3 4 PL3
(C) (D)
(R 4 E ) (R 4G)
2017 IIT Roorkee
7.10 A motor driving a solid circular steel shaft
transmits 40 kW of power at 500 rpm. If the
diameter of the shaft is 40 mm the maximum
shear stress in the shaft is _______ MPa.
[1 Mark]
2018 IIT Guwahati
7.11 A hollow circular shaft of inner radius 10
mm outer radius 20 mm and length 1 m is to
be used as a torsional spring. If the shear
modulus of the material of the shaft is 150
GPa. The torsional stiffness of the shaft (in
kN-m/rad) is _______ (correct to two
decimal places). [1 Mark]
2 Mechanics of Materials
7.12 A bar of circular cross section is clamped at
ends P and Q as shown in the figure. A
torsional moment T  150 Nm is applied at
a distance of 100 mm from end P. The
torsional reactions (TP , TQ ) in Nm at the
ends P and Q respectively are [2 Marks]
(A) (50, 100) (B) (75, 75)
(C) (100, 50) (D) (120, 30)
2019 IIT Madras
7.13 A cylindrical rod of diameter 10 mm and
length 1.0 m is fixed at one end. The other
end is twisted by an angle of 100 by applying
a torque. If the maximum shear strain in the
rod is p 103 , then p is equal to _____
(round off to two decimal places) [1 Mark]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
7.14 A shaft of length 𝐿 is made of two materials,
one in the inner core and the other in the
outer rim, and the two are perfectly joined
together (no slip at the interface) along the
entire length of the shaft. The diameter of the
inner core is di and the external diameter of
the rim is d o , as shown in the figure. The
modulus of rigidity of the core and rim
materials are Gi and Go , respectively. It is
given that do  2di and Gi  3Go . When the
shaft is twisted by application of a torque
along the shaft axis, the maximum shear
stress developed in the outer rim and the
inner core turn out to be  o and i ,
respectively. All the deformations are in the
elastic range and stress strain relations are

linear. Then the ratio i is ______ (round
o
off to 2 decimal places). [2 Marks]
 available in the on-screen virtual calculator.
Neglecting shock and fatigue loading and
assuming maximum shear stress theory, the
minimum required shaft diameter is
_______ mm (round off to 2 decimal places).
di [2 Marks]
A B r
d0
Shaft cross-section Mz C
7.15 A shaft AC rotating at a constant speed
carries a thin pulley of radius 𝑟 = 0.4 m at the x L L
end C which drives a belt. A motor is coupled y z T1 T2
at the end A of the shaft such that it applies a
torque M z about the shaft axis without 2023 IIT Kanpur
causing any bending moment. The shaft is 7.16 A cylindrical transmission shaft of length 1.5
mounted on narrow frictionless bearings at A m and diameter 100 mm is made of a linear
and B where AB = BC = 𝐿 = 0.5 m. The taut elastic material with a shear modulus of 80
and slack side tensions of the belt are T1 = GPa. While operating at 500 rpm, the angle
of twist across its length is found to be 0.5
300 N and T2 = 100 N, respectively. The
degrees. Power transmitted by the shaft is
allowable shear stress for the shaft material ______ kW. (Rounded off to two decimal
is 80 MPa. The self-weights of the pulley and places) Take π = 3.14
the shaft are negligible. Use the value of 

7.1 8 Torque (T )  10 Nm  10 103 Nmm

R 
Given : Ratio of radius of shaft  1   2
 R2 
Maximum shear stress is given by, using the
torsion formula
16T 2T As there is no torque between C to B.
max   Angle of twist at C (C )
D3 R3
1 = Angle of twist at B ( B )
max  3
R  TL 
C   B   
Taking the ratio of two shear stresses, we have  GJ  AB
10 103  500  32
3
2  R1  C 
    23  8
1  R2  (20)4  77 103
 C  4.1338 10 3 rad
Hence, 2 is 8.
1 180
C  4.1338 10 3   0.23680

7.2 0.2368
Hence, the angle of twist at C is 0.23680 .
Given :
7.3 (B)
Shear modulus (G)  77 GPa  77 103 N/mm2
Given : Power ( P)  20 kW  20 103 W

Mechanics of Materials 3
 Speed ( N )  3000 rpm 409.25 1000
J
Maximum shear stress 
 80 103
(max )  30 MPa  30 N/mm2 180
Outer diameter (d0 )  2  Inner diameter (di ) d 04
409.25 103 1000
 (1  0.7 4 ) 
32 
2NT  80 103
Power, P  180
60 d0  44.5213 mm
2 3000  T
20 103  Hence, the outside diameter of the shaft is 44.5213
60 mm.
T  63.66 Nm  63.66 103 N-mm
For hollow shaft maximum shear stress is given
by,
16T  d 
max  3  k  i  0.5  7.5 (A)
d 0 (1  k )
4
 d0 
According to question,
16  63.66 103
30 
d 03 (1  0.54 )
d0  22.58mm
Hence, the correct option is (B).

Area of two cross-section are same A1  A2

(r22  r12 )  (r42  r32 ) …(i)
7.4 44.5213
As the material of both shafts is same hence,
Given :
G1  G2 .
Length of hollow shaft (l )  1m  1000 mm
J2
Power ( P)  30 kW  30 103 W The ratio of is,
J1
Speed ( N )  700 rpm
Permissible angle of twist (max )  10  4 4
(r  r ) r 4  r 4
J2 2 4 3
Inner diameter of the hollow shaft (di )   44 34

 0.7  Outer diameter of hollow shaft (d0 )
J1 (r24  r14 ) r2  r1
2
Modulus of rigidity (G )  80 GPa Now, from using equation (i),
 80 103 N/mm2 J 2 (r42  r32 ) (r42  r32 ) r42  r32
  …(ii)
2NT J1 (r22  r12 ) (r22  r12 ) r22  r12
Power, P 
60 From equation (ii),
2 700  T
30 103  r3  r1 , r4  r2
60
T  409.25 Nm J 2  J1
Using torsion formula, we have Hence, the correct option is (A).
T Gmax 7.6 (C)

J l
According to question,

4 Mechanics of Materials
 7.8 (D)
Given : Both shafts have same polar moment of
inertia and length, ( J solid )  J hollow and
(lsolid )  lhollow .

P = Axial force, F = Shear force and

T = Torque

Angle of twist (θ) :

T G
Torsion equation 
J l
Tl

GJ
Tlsolid
S 
GJ solid
Tlhollow
and,  H 
GJ hollow
After observing all type of loads it can be S
 1 ( T , l , G, I P are same)
concluded section X will be most critical section H
and critical stress will occur on circumference of
solid  hollow
the machine element as bending stress due torsion
will be maximum at circumference. Maximum shear stress :
Hence, the correct option is (C). J hollow  J solid
7.7 (B)  4 
( D1  D24 )  D4
According to question shaft is subjected to pure 32 32
torsion, ( D14  D24 )  D 4 …(i)
From torsion equation,
T  TR
 
J R J
hollow Rhollow
 ( R  Outer radius)
 solid Rsolid
Major principal stress (1 )   D1
Minor principal stress (2 )   hollow D
 2  1
 solid D D
Shear stress ()  
2
Ratio of major principal stress to the shear stress
From equation (i),
 
   1. D14  D 4  D24
1 
1
Hence, the correct option is (B).
D1  ( D 4  D24 ) 4

Mechanics of Materials 5
 1
4PL3
D1 ( D 4  D24 ) 4   L 
 R 4G
D D
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1
hollow ( D 4  D24 ) 4
 
solid D
4
 hollow  ( D 4  D24 ) D24 7.10 60.79
    1 
 solid  D4 D4
Given : Power ( P)  40 kW  40 103 W
1
Speed ( N )  500 rpm
hollow   D2   4
4

 1     Diameter of shaft (d )  40 mm  0.04 m

solid   D  
…(ii) Power is given by,
From equation (ii), 2NT
P
 D2 
4 60
    ve 2 500  T
 D 40 103 
hollow 60
So, 1
 solid T  763.94 N-m
 hollow  solid 16T 16  763.94
    60.79 MPa
Hence, the correct option is (D). d 3  0.043
7.9 (D) Hence, the maximum shear stress in the shaft is
60.79 MPa.
Given :
Vertical deflection of point ‘A’ after applying 7.11 35.34
torque : B  B ', C  C ' .
Given : Inner radius ( R1 )  10 mm
Outer radius ( R2 )  20 mm
Length ( L)  1 m  1000 mm
Shear modulus
(G)  150 GPa  150 103 N/mm2
Torsional stiffness,
Tl (2 PL)  L GJ 150 103   ( D24  D14 )
   
GJ R 4 l 1000  32
G
2 150  103    (404  204 )

1000  32
 35342917.35 N-mm/rad
 35.343 kN-m/rad
Hence, the torsional stiffness of the shaft is 35.343
4PL 2 kN-m/rad.

R 4G 7.12 (C)
Deflection at ‘A’
Given : Torsional moment (T )  150 Nm

6 Mechanics of Materials
 7.14 1.5
Given :
d 0  2d j
Gi  3G0
Core and Rim are perfectly joined (no slip)
L  Li  L0 and  i  0
From Torsion equation,
T G
 
By using compatibility equation, J r L
 P  Q  0 G
max   rmax
TPl1 (TP  T )l2 L
 0 …(i)
GJ GJ
TP  0.1 (TP  150)  0.2 For core,
 0 Gi i di
GJ GJ i ( )
max core  
TP  0.1   TP  0.2  150  0.2 Li 2
TP  0.3  150  0.2 
Gi i di
TP  100 Nm (ccw) 2 Li
Again, TQ  TP  T …(ii)
G0 0 d 0
TQ  100  150   50 Nm (acw) 0  ( max ) Rin 
2 L0
Hence, the correct option is (C).
…(ii)
7.13 0.872 From equation (i) & (ii)
Given : Diameter of rod ( D)  10 mm Gi i di
Length of rod ( L )  1m 2 Li
i

Twisting angle ()  100 0
G0 0 d 0
Maximum shear strain ()  p 103 2 L0
Gi i di 2 L0
i
 
0 2 Li G0 0 d 0
3G0  di 2L
i
 
0 2L G0   2di
3 2 6
BC
i
 
  BC  L 0 2 2 4
L
BC  L i
 1.5
Also, angle of twist,    0
R R
i
 p 10 3 1000 Hence, the ratio is 1.5.
10   o
180 5
p  0.872
Hence, the maximum shear strain in the rod is
p 103 , then p is equal to 0.872.

Mechanics of Materials 7
 7.15 23.93 7.16 239.25
C
A B
Given :
r  0.4 m
Length (l) = 1.5 m, Diameter (d) = 100 mm, Shear
Mz
0.5 m 0.5 m
modulus (G) = 80 GPa
Speed (N) = 500 r.p.m
RA RB T1  300 N T2  100 N
0.5  
Angle of twist = 0.50  rad
Twisting moment is given by, 180
As we know,
M z  Tmax  (T 1  T2 ) r T G
Torsion equation, 
 (300  100)  0.4 j l
 80 Nm  80 103 N.mm  80 109  (0.1) 4   0.5
T
Tmax  80 Nm Tmax  80 Nm 32 180 1.5
C
T  4569.261 N-m
A
2NT 2   500  4569.261
Power   = 239.25
60 60
RA  400 N RB  800 N T  400 N
kW
A B C
Hence, the correct answer is 239.25.
( ) BMD


200 Nm
Taking moment about point A
M A  0
RB (0.5)  400  2  0.5
RB  800 N()
V  0
RA  400()
According to maximum shear stress theory,
16 S
M max
2  Tmax
2  ys
rd 3 FOS
 S ys  80 MPa 
16 80
 200 103   80 103  
2 2

rd 3 1
d  23.9357 mm
Hence, the minimum required shaft diameter is
23.9357 mm.

8 Mechanics of Materials
8 Springs

2014 IIT Kharagpur (B) Material strength

8.1 A bolt of major diameter 12 mm is required
to clamp two steel plates. Cross sectional
area of the threaded portion of the bolt is
84.3 mm2 . The length of the threaded
portion in grip is 30 mm, while the length of
the unthreaded portion in grip is 8 mm.
Young’s modulus of material is 200 GPa.
The effective stiffness (in MN/m) of the bolt
in the clamped zone is ______. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
8.2 The spring constant of a helical compression
spring DOES NOT depend on [1 Mark]
(A) Coil diameter
(C) Number of active turns
(D) Wire diameter
2017 IIT Roorkee
8.3 A helical compression spring made of a wire
of circular cross-section is subjected to a
compressive load. The maximum shear
induced in the cross-section of the wire is 24
MPa. For the same compressive load, if both
the wire diameter and the mean coil diameter
are doubled, the maximum shear stress (in
MPa) induced in the cross-section of the wire
is _______. [2 Marks]

8.1 468.82 A1 E
k1 
L1
Given : The length of the threaded portion
( L1 )  30 mm 84.3  200
k1   562 MN/m
Cross sectional area of the threaded portion 30
Stiffness of unthreaded portion,
( A1 )  84.3mm 2
AE
Length of the unthreaded portion ( L2 )  8mm k2  2
L2
Major diameter (d2 )  12 mm 
Young’s modulus of material ( E )  200 GPa (12) 2  200
k2  4  2827.433 MN/m
We know that stiffness, 8
load( P)  Effective stiffness of the bolt,
k …(i)
deformation (l ) k k
k 1 2
Also deformation under uniaxial load (change in k1  k2
length) 562  2827.433
k
l 
PL
…(ii) 562  2827.433
AE k  468.815 MN/m
From equation (i) and (ii),  k 468.82 MN/m
AE
k Hence, the effective stiffness of the bolt in the
L clamped zone is 468.82 MN/m.
 Stiffness of threaded portion,

Mechanics of Materials 1
 8.2 (B) According to question, if wire diameter and mean
coils diameter is doubled.
For helical compression spring,
d2  2d and D2  2 D1
Gd 4
Spring constant  Now shear stress,
8D3n
8 PD2 8 P  2 D1
Where, G  Modulus of rigidity 2  
d 23 (2d1 )3
d  Wire diameter
D  Coil diameter 16 PD1 1 8 PD1
2   
n  Number of coils or number of turns 8d13 4 d13
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1 1
2   1   24  6 MPa
8.3 6 4 4
Given : Maximum shear stress induced Hence, the maximum shear stress induced in the
cross-section of the wire is 6 MPa.
(max )  24 MPa
 Key Point
Let, initial diameter of wire  d1
The shear stress in the wire of helical springs,
Final diameter of wire (d 2 )  2d1 8PD

Initial mean coil diameter  D1 d 3
Final mean coil diameter, D2  2 D1 Where, D  Mean coil diameter
and, applied load is constant i.e., d  Wire diameter, P  Applied force
P1  P2  P   Shear stress.
The shear stress in the wire of helical springs,
8PD1 
1 
d13

2 Mechanics of Materials
9 Euler’s Theory of Column

2015 IIT Kanpur 32 EI 42 EI

(C) P  (D) P 
9.1 Consider a steel (Young's modulus E = 200 4 L2 L2
GPa) column hinged on both sides. Its 2020 IIT Delhi
heights is 1.0 m and cross-section is 10 mm
9.5 The truss shown in the figure has four
 20 mm. The lowest Euler critical buckling members of length l and flexural rigidity EI,
load (in N) is______. [1 Mark]
and one member of length l 2 and flexural
2017 IIT Roorkee rigidity 4EI. The truss is loaded by a pair of
9.2 An initially stress-free massless elastic beam forces of magnitude P, as shown in the
of length L and circular cross-section with figure.
diameter d (d  L ) is held fixed between
two walls as shown. The beam material has
Young’s modulus E and coefficient of
thermal expansion  .

If the beam is slowly and uniformly heated,

the temperature rise required to cause the
beam to buckle is proportional to [2 Marks] The smallest value of P, at which any of the
(A) d (B) d 2 truss member will buckle is [2 Marks]
(C) d 3 (D) d 4 22 EI 22 EI
(A) (B)
l2 l2
2018 IIT Guwahati
2 EI 2 EI
9.3 A steel column of rectangular cross-section (C) (D)
2l 2 l2
(15 mm  10 mm) and length 1.5 m is
simply supported at both ends. Assuming 2021 IIT Bombay
modulus of elasticity, E  200 GPa for steel,
9.6 A column with one end fixed and one end
the critical axial load (in kN) is ________ free has a critical buckling load of 100 N. For
(correct to two decimal places). [1 Mark] the same column, if the free end is replaced
9.4 The minimum axial compressive load P, with a pinned end then the critical buckling
required to initiate buckling for a pinned- load will be __________ N (round off to the
pinned slender column with bending nearest integer). [1 Mark]
stiffness EI and length L is [1 Mark]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
2 EI 2 EI
(A) P  (B) P  2 9.7 A uniform light slender beam AB of section
4 L2 L
modulus EI is pinned by a frictionless joint
A to the ground and supported by a light

Mechanics of Materials 1
 inextensible cable CB to hang a weight 𝑊 as C g
shown. If the maximum value of W to avoid
buckling of the beam AB is obtained as
2 EI , where  is the ratio of A 30 0
B
circumference to diameter of a circle, then 2.5 m
the value of  is [1 Mark] W

(A) 0.0924 m 2 (B) 0.0713 m 2

(C) 0.1261 m 2 (D) 0.1417 m 2

9.1 3289.87 2 EI  2 EI min 

T  2 min  Pcr  
Given : Young’s modulus le AE  le2 
( E )  200 GPa  200 103 N/mm2 2 E I min
T  2 
Effective length of column le E A
(le )  L  1 m  1000 mm (both end hinged) 
d4
Cross-sectional area ( A)  10  20  200 mm 2 E 64
T  2
2

le E   d 2
2 EI min
Pcr  4
le 2
T  d 2
20 10 3
Hence, the correct option is (B).
I min   1666.67 mm 4
12 9.3 1.096
2  200 103 1666.67
Pcr  Given :
1000 2 Cross-sectional area ( A)  15 mm 10 mm
Pcr  3289.87 N  150 mm2
Hence, the lowest Euler critical buckling load is Young’s modulus ( E )  200 GPa
3289.87 N.
Length of column (l )  1.5 m
9.2 (B) Now, critical load is given by,
According to question, 2 EI min
Pcr 
L2
15 103
2  200 103 
Pcr  12
2
As the beam is fixed at both the ends net change in 1500
length will be zero. Pcr  1096.62 N  1.096 kN
Hence, Hence, the critical axial load is 1.096 kN.
Expansion due to rise in temperature 9.4 (B)
= Contraction due to support reaction For Euler column, critical load,
TL  cr
PL 2 EI min
Pcr 
AE L2e
If P is axial load then buckling will occur if
P  Pcr .

2 Mechanics of Materials
For both end pinned column,
Le  L
2 EI min
Pcr 
L2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
9.5 (A)
According to question,
So, in vertical direction,
P
TBD cos 450  0
2
TBD   P
Maximum load acting on the bar BD, so bar BD
buckle first.
2 4 EI
Buckling load, P 
( 2l ) 2
Free body diagram of joint A, (both ends are hinge)
2 EI 2
P
l2
Hence, the correct option is (A).
9.6 800
Given : Pcr1  100 N
Pcr2 Le12

Pcr1 Le 22
P
TAB  P cos 450  Pcr2 (2 L)2 4 L2
2  2
 8
Pcr1  L  L2
P
TAD  P sin 450   
 2 2
2
Pcr2  8Pcr1  800 N
Free body diagram of bar BD,
Hence, if the free end is replaced with a pinned end
then the critical buckling load will be 800 N.
9.7 (A)

Free body diagram of joint B, 0

30 B
A
W
L  2.5 m

Mechanics of Materials 3
 F.B.D. at point B :
FB C

300
FA B

   FV  0

FBC sin 300  W

FBC  2 W … (i)

   FH  0
FAB  FBC cos300

3
FAB  2W 
2
FAB  3 W … (ii)
Buckling load
2 EI 2 EI
PC   … (iii)
L2C 2.52
From equation (ii) and (iii)
2 EI
3W
2.52
2 EI
3 2 EI 
2.52
1

3  2.52
  0.092
Hence, the correct option is (A).



4 Mechanics of Materials
10 Thin Cylinder
2013 IIT Bombay
10.1 A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed
at both the ends, is subjected to an internal
pressure. The ratio of the hoop stress
(circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress
developed in the shell is [1 Mark]
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(C) 2.0 (D) 4.0
2014 IIT Kharagpur
10.2 A thin gas cylinder with an internal radius of
100 mm is subject to an internal pressure of
10 MPa. The maximum permissible working
stress is restricted to 100 MPa. The
minimum cylinder wall thickness (in mm)
for safe design must be_______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
10.3 A gas is stored in a cylindrical tank of inner
radius 7 m and wall thickness 50 mm. The
gauge pressure of the gas is 2 MPa. The
maximum shear stress (in MPa) in the wall
is [1 Mark]
(A) 35 (B) 70
(C) 140 (D) 280
10.4 A cylindrical tank with closed ends is filled
with compressed air at a pressure of 500
kPa. The inner radius of the tank is 2 m,
and it has wall thickness of 10 mm. The
magnitude of maximum in-plane shear
stress (in MPa) is_______. [1 Mark]
2016 IISc Bangalore
10.5 A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with
closed-ends is subjected to internal
pressure. The ratio of circumferential
(hoop) stress to the longitudinal stress is
[1 Mark]
Mechanics of Materials
(A)0.25 (B) 0.50
(C)1.0 (D) 2.0
2018 IIT Guwahati
10.6 A thin-walled cylindrical can with rigid end
caps has a mean radius R  100 mm and a
wall thickness of t  5 mm . The can is
pressurized and an additional tensile stress
of 50 MPa is imposed along the axial
direction as shown in the figure.
Assume that the state of stress in the wall
is uniform along its length. If the
magnitudes of axial and circumferential
components of stress in the can are equal,
the pressure (in MPa) inside the can is
______ (correct to two decimal place).
[2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
10.7 Consider two concentric circular cylinders
of different materials M and N in contact
each other at r  b , as shown below. The
interface at r  b is frictionless. The
composite cylinder system is subjected to
internal pressure P . Let (urM , uM ) and
( rrM , 
M
) denote the radial and tangential
displacement and stress components,
respectively, in material M . Similarly,
(urN , uN ) and (rrN , 
N
) denote the radial
and tangential displacement and stress
components, respectively, in material N .
The boundary conditions that need to be
1
 satisfied at the frictionless interface Which one of the plots depicts
between the two cylinders are, [2 Marks] qualitatively CORRECT dependence of
the magnitudes of axial wall stress (1 )
and circumferential wall stress (2 ) on 𝑦?

(A) rrM  rrN and 

M
  
N
only.

(B) urM  urN and rrM  rrN only.

(A)
(C) urM  urN and rrM  rrN and uM  uN and

M
  
N
.

(D) uM  uN and 

M
  
N
only.

2022 IIT Kharagpur

10.8 A thin-walled cylindrical pressure vessel has
mean wall thickness of t and nominal (B)
radius of r. The Poisson’s ratio of the wall
material is 1/3. When it was subjected to
some internal pressure, its nominal
perimeter in the cylindrical portion
increased by 0.1% and the corresponding
wall thickness became t . The
corresponding change in the wall thickness (C)
of the cylindrical portion, i.e.
100   t  t  / t , is ________% (round off
to 3 decimal places). [2 Marks]

2023 IIT Kanpur

10.9 The figure shows a thin-walled open-top

cylindrical vessel of radius 𝑟 and wall (D)
thickness 𝑡. The vessel is held along the
brim and contains a constant-density liquid
to height ℎ from the base. Neglect
atmospheric pressure, the weight of the
vessel and bending stresses in the vessel
walls.

2 Mechanics of Materials
 10.1 (C) 3  0 MPa
Circumferential stress is given by, Now, absolute maximum shear stress is defined as
pd maximum of in plane maximum shear stresses.
c  1   2 2  3 3  1
2t , ,
Longitudinal stress is given by, 2 2 2
pd
l 
4t
Hence, the ratio is,
c
 2
l
Hence, the correct option is (C).
10.2 10
Given : Internal radius (r )  100 mm
Internal pressure ( p)  10 MPa or 10 N/mm2
Permissible working stress (working )  100 MPa
or 100 N/mm 2
pd
working  (d = 2r = 200 mm)
2t
pd 10  200
t   10 mm
2 w 2 100
Hence, the minimum cylinder wall thickness for max 1 , max 2 and max 3 are in plane maximum shear
safe design must be 10 mm. stress.
Absolute maximum shear stress,
  3
(max )abs  1 (3  0)
2
10.3 (C)   3 280  0
Hence, (max )abs  1 
2 2
Given : Inner radius (r )  7 m or 7000 mm
(max )abs  140 MPa
Wall thickness (t )  50 mm
Note : In plane maximum shear stress is the
Internal pressure ( p)  2MPa or 2 N/mm2
maximum shear stress acting on the element in
Circumferential stress, given plane. Plane stress condition states that
pd 2 14 1000 stress along third direction is zero (3  0) taking
1    280 MPa
2t 2  50 this value into account the calculation of shear
Longitudinal stress, stress gives us the absolute shear stress.
pd 2 14 1000 An absolute maximum shear stress is maximum
2    140 MPa
4t 4  50 of also, max .
Radial stress (negligible in thin cylinder)
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Mechanics of Materials 3
 pd pR
Circumferential stress, c  
2t t
pR
Axial stress, l   50 MPa
10.4 25 2t
Now, according to question,
Given : Internal pressure ( p)  500 kPa
c  l
Inner radius (r )  2 m  2000 mm
pR pR
Wall thickness (t )  10 mm   50
t 2t
Since it is given to find shear stress in-plane, hence
pR
we have only two stresses i.e., circumferential and   50
longitudinal stress given by, 2t
50  2  5
pd pd p  5MPa
c  , l  100
2t 4t
Hence, the pressure inside the can is 5 MPa.
So, maximum in-plane shear stress is given by
  l
max  c
2
pd pd
 10.7 (C)
max  2t 4t
2 We have to consider only pressure effect i.e.
pd 500 10  4000
3
shrinking effect should be neglected because
max    25 MPa
8t 8 10 interface is frictionless. Here, tangential, radial
Hence, the magnitude of maximum in-plane shear displacement and stresses will remain same at the
stress is 25 MPa. interface.
10.5 (D) Hence, the correct option is (C).

We know that, 10.8 –0.06%

Pd 1
Hoop stress, c  Given : Poisson’s ratio () 
2t 3
Pd Hoop strain ( H )  0.1%
Longitudinal stress,  l 
4t
D 1 0.1
Where, p  Gauge pressure inside cylinder Hoop strain ( H )   (H  L ) 
D E 100
t  Thickness, d = Internal diameter
PD  PD
  We know, H  , L  H 
Ratio of  c   2 2t 2 4t
 l 
1  PD PD 
Therefore,  H   
4t 
Hence, the correct option is (D).
E  2t
10.6 5
0.1 PD
Given : Mean radius ( R)  100 mm  (2  ) … (i)
100 4tE
Wall thickness (t )  5 mm t 1
R    R  (H  L ) 
Additional tensile stress (t )  50MPa t E
R  0

4 Mechanics of Materials
 t 1   PD PD   10.9 (A)
R   0   
t E  2t 4t  
As we move from the free surface towards bottom,
PD  3  the pressure variation can be written as:
  
2tE  2 
t PD
 3 … (ii)
t 4tE
From equation (i)
PD 0.001 0.001
  … (iii)
4tE 2   2  1
3
P  gh
From equation (ii) and (iii)
PD D
t 1  0.001 3  Now, h   gh  
 3     2t  2t 
t 3  6 1 
 h  h
t
 0.0006 Longitudinal stress will be developed because of
t
the total amount of fluid and since this amount is
( t  t ) t
  0.06% constant, the longitudinal stress will be constant.
t t Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the correct answer is – 0.06.


Mechanics of Materials 5
Syllabus : Machine Design

Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue strength and the S-N diagram;
principles of the design of machine elements such as bolted, riveted and welded joints; shafts,
gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings, brakes and clutches, springs.
Contents : Machine Design

S. No. Topics
1. Design Against Static Load (Theory of Failure)
2. Design Against Dynamic Load (Fatigue Strength & S-N Diagram)
3. Gears
4. Bearings, Shaft & Keys
5. Clutches, Ropes & Belts
6. Brakes
7. Joints (Bolted, Riveted & Welded)
8. Power Screws & Springs
1 Design Against Static Load

and ultimate strengths of the shaft material in

2014 IIT Kharagpur
tension are 300 MPa and 450 MPa ,
1.1 Which one of the following is not correct?
respectively. The factor of safety using
[1 Mark] maximum distortion energy (Von-Mises)
(A) Intermediate principal stress is ignored theory is _______. [2 Marks]
when applying the maximum principal
1.4 The state of stress at a point is given by  x 
stress theory.
(B) The maximum shear stress theory gives – 6 MPa,  y  4 MPa and  xy  – 8 MPa.
the most accurate results amongst all the The maximum tensile stress (in MPa) at the
failure theories. point is _____. [2 Marks]
(C) As per the maximum strain energy
2015 IIT Kanpur
theory, failure occurs when the strain
energy per unit volume exceeds a 1.5 The uniaxial yield stress of a material is 300
pcritical value. MPa. According to Von-Mises criterion, the
(D) As per the maximum distortion energy shear yield stress (in MPa) of the material is
theory, failure occurs when the distortion ______. [1 Mark]
energy per unit volume exceeds a critical 1.6 A machine element is subjected to the
value. following bi-axial state of stress :
1.2 Consider the two states of stress as shown in
 x  80 MPa,  y  20 MPa,
configurations I and II in the figure below.
From the standpoint of distortion energy  xy  40 MPa .
(Von-Mises) criterion, which one of the If the shear strength of the material is 100
following statements is true? [2 Marks] MPa, the factor of safety as per Tresca’s
maximum shear stress theory is [2 Marks]
(A) 1.0 (B) 2.0
(C) 2.5 (D) 3.3

2016 IISc Bangalore

1.7 A machine element XY, fixed at end X, is
subjected to an axial load P, transverse load
(A) I yield after II.
F, and a twisting moment T at its free end Y.
(B) II yields after I. The most critical point from the strength
(C) Both yield simultaneously. point of view is [1 Mark]
(D) Nothing can be said about their relative
yielding.
1.3 A shaft is subjected to pure torsional
moment. The maximum shear stress
developed in the shaft is 100 MPa . The yield

Machine Design 1
 (A) a point on the circumference at location 3   40 MPa . For the material of the
Y. component, the tensile yield strength is
(B) a point at the center at location Y.  y  200 MPa .
(C) a point on the circumference at location According to the maximum shear stress
X. theory, the factor of safety is [2 Marks]
(D) a point at the center at location X. (A) 1.67 (B) 2.00
(C) 3.60 (D) 4.00
1.8 The principal stresses at a point inside a solid
object are 1  100 MPa, 2  100 MPa and 2018 IIT Guwahati
3  0 MPa. The yield strength of the 1.11 If 1 and 3 are the algebraically largest and
material is 200 MPa. smallest principal stresses respectively, the
The factor of safety calculated using Tresca value of the maximum shear stress is
(maximum shear stress) theory is nT and the [1 Mark]
factor of safety calculated using Von Mises   3   3
(A) 1 (B) 1
(maximum distortional energy) theory is nv . 2 2
Which one of the following relations is 1  3 1  3
(C) (D)
TRUE? [2 Marks] 2 2
 3 1.12 A carpenter glues a pair of cylinderical
(A) nT    nv (B) nT  ( 3) nv wooden logs by bonding their end faces at an
 2  angle of   300 as shown in the figure.
(C) nT  nv (D) nv  ( 3) nT [2 Marks]

2017 IIT Roorkee

1.9 Consider the schematic of a riveted lap joint
subjected to tensile load F, as shown below.
Let d be the diameter of the rivets and S f The glue used at the interface fails if
be the maximum permissible tensile stress in Criterion 1 : The maximum normal stress
the plates. What should be the minimum exceeds 2.5 MPa.
value for the thickness of the plates to guard Criterion 2 : The maximum shear stress
against tensile failure of the plates? Assume exceeds 1.5 MPa.
the plates to be identical. [1 Mark] Assume that the interface fails before the
logs fail. When a uniform tensile stress of 4
MPa is applied, the interface
(A) fails only because of criterion 1.
(B) fails only because of criterion 2.
(C) fails because of both criteria 1 and 2.
(D) does not fail.
F F
(A) (B) 2020 IIT Delhi
S f (W  2d ) S fW
F 2F 1.13 A machine member is subjected to
(C) (D) fluctuating stress   0 cos (8t ). The
S f (W  d ) S fW
1.10 The principal stresses at a point in a critical endurance limit of the material is 350 MPa.
If the factor of safety used in the design is
section of a machine component are
1  60 MPa, 2  5MPa and 3.5 then the maximum allowable value of 0

2 Machine Design
 is _______ MPa (round off to 2 decimal
places). [1 Mark]
1.14 Bars of square and circular cross-section
with 0.5 m length are made of a material with
shear strength of 20 MPa. The square bar
cross-section dimension is 4 cm  4 cm and
the cylindrical bar cross-section diameter is
4 cm. The specimens are loaded as shown in
the figure.
Which specimen (s) will fail due to the
applied load as per maximum shear stress
theory? [2 Marks]
(A) Tensile and compressive load specimens
(B) None of the specimens
(C) Torsional load specimen
(D) Bending load specimen
2021 IIT Bombay
1.15 The Von-Mises stress at a point in a body
subjected to forces is proportional to the
square root of the [2 Marks]
1.1 (B)
The maximum shear stress theory gives values for
the most-safe design but not accurate results
amongst all the failure theories.
For ductile materials, the choice of theory depends
on the level of accuracy required and the degree of
computational difficulty the designer is ready to
face. For ductile materials, the most accurate way
Machine Design
(A) plastic strain energy per unit volume
(B) distortional strain energy per unit
volume
(C) total strain energy per unit volume
(D) dilatational strain energy per unit volume
2022 IIT Kharagpur
1.16 A structural member under loading has a
uniform state of plane stress which in usual
notations is given by  x  3P,  y  2 P and
xy  2P , where P > 0. The yield strength
of the material is 350 MPa. If the member is
designed using the maximum distortion
energy theory, then the value of 𝑃 at which
yielding starts (according to the maximum
distortion energy theory) is [1 Mark]
(A) 70 MPa (B) 90 MPa
(C) 120 MPa (D) 75 MPa
2023 IIT Kanpur
1.17 The principal stresses at a point P in a solid
are 70 MPa, – 70 MPa and 0, the yield stress
of the material is 100 MPa, which
predictions about material failure at P is/are
correct
(A) Maximum normal stress theory predicts
that the material fails.
(B) Maximum shear stress theory predicts
that material fails.
(C) Maximum normal stress theory predicts
that material does not fail.
(D) Maximum shear stresses theory predicts
that material does not fail.
to design is to use distortion energy theory of
failure and the easiest way to design is to apply
maximum shear stress theory.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.2 (C)
3
 According to question, simplified Von-Mises
equation for general load scenario is given by,

A shaft is subjected to pure torsional moment is

subjected to reversal of stresses, hence stresses are
1 given by as per maximum distortion energy (Von-
S yt [( x   y )2  ( y   z ) 2  ( z   x ) 2
 2 Mises yield theory),
FOS
 6(2xy  2yz  2zx )]
1 (1  2 )  (2  3 )   S yt 
2 2 2

For case 1 :    
2   (3  1 )2   FOS 
 x  0,  y  ,  z  0
( 3  0 )
 xy  0,  yz  ,  xz  0
2
1  300 
S yt
1 (2002  1002  1002 )   
 (22  62 ) 2  FOS 
FOS 2
S yt FOS  3  1.732
So,  2  32 Hence, the factor of safety using maximum
FOS
For case 2 : distortion energy (Von-Mises) theory is 1.732.
 x  0,  y  ,  z  0
 xy  0,  yz  0,  xz  
S yt 1
 (22  62 ) 1.4 8.434
FOS 2
S yt Given : Stress in x-direction (x )   6 MPa
So,    3
2 2
Stress in y-direction ( y )  4 MPa
FOS
S yt Shear stress ( xy )   8 MPa
as is same for both.
FOS
x   y    y 
2
Conclusion : Since, both of them have same yield 1    x    xy
2

stress according to Von-Mises, hence they both 2  2 

yield simultaneously.
6  4  6  4 
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1     8
2

1.3 1.732
2  2 
1  8.434 MPa
Given : Yield strength ( S yt )  300 MPa
Hence, the maximum tensile stress at the point is
Ultimate strength ( Sut )  450 MPa 8.434 MPa.
Maximum shear stress (max )  100 MPa
1.5 173.1
Maximum stress (1 )  100 MPa
Minimum stress (2 )  100 MPa Given :
Yield stress of material ( S yt ) = 300 MPa
For pure torsion condition Mohr circle is,
As per Von Mises failure theory,

4 Machine Design
 S sy  0.577  S yt
S sy  0.577  300  173.1MPa
Hence, the shear yield stress of the material is
173.1 MPa.

1.6 (B)
Given : Stress in x- direction (x )  80 MPa
Stress in y- direction ( y )  20 MPa
Shear stress ( xy )  40 MPa
Permissible shear stress ( S sy ) = 100 MPa
From the above two elements X and Y, we see that
number of stresses induced in X is more than Y.
Hence the most critical point is on the
circumference at location X.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

1.8 (C)
According to maximum shear stress theory,
S
Z max  yt
2 nT
In two-dimensional stress system, the maximum
200
shear stress is given by,  nT  2
100
   y 
2
According to distortion energy theory,
max   x    xy
2

 2  S
12  22  12  yt
nv
 80  20 
2

max     40  50 MPa
2
But 1  2 , let it is 1
 2 
According to maximum shear stress theory is, S yt
12  12  12 
S sy nv
100
max   50  S yt
FOS FOS 200
 nv   2
FOS  2 1 100
Hence, the correct option is (B).  nT  nv
Hence, the correct option is (C).

1.7 (C)
1.9 (A)
Given : Tensile load = F
Minimum thickness  tmin

Machine Design 5
 Diameter of rivet  d 1.11 (B)
Maximum permissible tensile stress   per
Given : 1  2  3
Considering tensile strength of plate along section
max  min
XX, (max ) abs 
(W  2d )tmin   per  F 2
1  3
tmin 
F (max )abs 
(W  2d )   per 2

The above diagram shows Mohr’s circle for tri-

axial state of stress.
Hence, the correct options is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.10 (B)
Given : Principal stresses are (1 )  60 MPa
1.12 (C)
(2 )  5 MPa and (3 )   40 MPa
Given :
Yield strength ( S yt )  200 MPa
Uniform tensile stress :
According to maximum shear stress theory, Normal stress on inclined plan,
S yt  N  t cos 2 (t )  4 MPa
max 
2  FS
 N  4  cos 2 300  2.99 MPa  3MPa
1  3 S yt
 Shear stress on inclined plane,
2 2  FOS
  sin 2
S  t
1  3  yt 2
FOS
4  sin(2  300 )
200   1.73MPa
60  (40)  2
FOS
The values of normal and shear stresses at
200
100  interface plane i.e. inclined plane are greater than
FOS the maximum normal stress and maximum shear
 FOS  2
stress. Hence the interface will fail because of both
Hence, the correct option is (B).
criteria “1” and “2”.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

6 Machine Design
 1.13 100
320  103
Given : Fluctuating stress ()  0 cos(8t ) ,  3
 30 N/mm 2
40
Endurance limit (Se )  350 MPa ,
6
Factor of safety ( FOS )  3.5

max  0 and min   0 max   15 N/mm2  20MPa
2
max  min
mean  0 Hence, the correct option is (A).
2
1.15 (B)
  min 20
a  max   0
2 2 Von-Mises stress is proportional to square root of
m a 1 distortion strain energy.
  
S yt Se FOS Hence, the correct option is (B).
a 1 1.16 (A)

350 3.5 For the maximum distortion energy theory,
0  100 MPa
1 2
Hence, the maximum allowable value of 0 is 100 Ud  [1  22  32  (12  23  31 )] …
6G
MPa. (i)
1.14 (A) For actual condition,
Given : Shear strength of bar (max )  20 MPa 3  0 (because 2D condition)
Square bar cross section  40  40 mm2 Radius of Mohr’s circle
Diameter of cylindrical bar (d )  40 mm     yy 
2

Case 1 : ( R)   xx    xy
2

 2 

 3P  2 P 
2

80 103 R    ( 2 P)
2

  50 N/mm 2  2 
402
 25P 2
max   25 N/mm2  20MPa R  2P2
2 4
Case 2 : 25  8
P
4
33
P
4
16T 16  64103
max   R  2.8722P
d 3 (40)3
Now, principal stresses,
 16 N/mm2  20 MPa
   yy
Case 3 : 1,2  xx R
2
3P  2P
  2.8722P
2
Machine Design 7
 P Hence, the correct option is (A).
1,2   2.8722P
2 1.17 (B),(C)
P
1   2.8722P Given : 1  70 MPa
2
6.7444P 2  70 MPa
1 
2 3  0
1  3.3722P  y  100 MPa
P
And 2   2.8722 P According to maximum normal stress theory to
2 avoid failure
4.7444P max  S yt

2
70  100
2  2.3722P So, it will safe according to maximum normal
By putting in equation (i), stress theory.
1 According to maximum shear stress theory to
Ud  [(3.3722P)2  (2.3722P)2
6G avoid failure.
0  (3.3722 P  2.3722 P)  0  0] max  0.5S yt
1 1  2
 [11.37 P2  5.627 P2  7.999P2 ]  0.5 100
6G 2
1 70  70
 [16.997 P2  7.999P2 ]  50
6G 2
1 70  50
Ud  [24.996P 2 ] … (ii)
6G 70  50
During tensile test failure, So, it will fail according to shear stress theory.
1   f , 2  0, 3  0 Hence, the correct options are (B) and (C).


Where,  f is tensile yield strength = 350 MPa.
1 2
So, (U d )failure  [ f  0  0  ( f  0  0  0)]
6G
 2f
(U d ) f  … (iii)
6G
Equating equation (ii) and (iii),
U d  (U d ) f

1  2f
 24.996 P 2 
6G 6G
24.996 P 2   2f

24.996P2  (350)2 (  f  350 MPa)

P  70 MPa

8 Machine Design
2 Dynamic Against Dynamic Load

2013 IIT Bombay

2.1 A bar is subjected to fluctuating tensile load
from 20 kN to 100 kN . The material has
yield strength of 240 MPa and endurance
limit in reversed bending is 160 MPa .
According to the Soderberg principle, the
area of cross-section in mm2 of the bar for a (A) 100 MPa and 5
factor of safety of 2 is [2 Marks] (B) 250 MPa and 5
(A) 400 (B) 600 (C) 100 MPa and 0.20
(C) 750 (D) 1000 (D) 250 MPa and 0.20
2.5 Which one of the following is the most
2014 IIT Kharagpur conservation fatigue failure criterion?
2.2 A rotating steel shaft is supported at the ends. [1 Mark]
It is subjected to a point load at the center. (A) Soderberg
The maximum bending stress developed is (B) Modified Goodman
100 MPa . If the yield, ultimate and (C) ASME elliptic
(D) Gerber
corrected endurance strength of the shaft
material are 300 MPa , 500 MPa and 2016 IISc Bangalore
200 MPa , respectively, then the factor of
2.6 In a structural member under fatigue loading,
safety for the shaft is _______. [1 Mark] the minimum and maximum stresses
2.3 In a structure subjected to fatigue loading, developed at the critical point are 50 MPa
the minimum and maximum stresses and 150 MPa, respectively. The endurance,
developed in a cycle are 200 MPa and yield, and the ultimate strengths of the
400 MPa respectively. The value of stress material are 200 MPa, 300 MPa and 400
MPa, respectively. The factor of safety using
amplitude (in MPa) is_______. [1 Mark]
modified Goodman criterion is [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur 3 8
(A) (B)
2.4 For the given fluctuating fatigue load, the 2 5
values of stress amplitude and stress ratio are 12
(C) (D) 2
respectively [1 Mark] 7
2017 IIT Roorkee
2.7 A machine component made of a ductile
material is subjected to a variable loading
with min  50 MPa and max  50 MPa .

Machine Design 1
 If the corrected endurance limit and the yield
strength for the material are e'  100 MPa
and  y  300 MPa respectively, the factor
of safety is ______ . [1 Mark]
2.8 A machine element has an ultimate strength
(u ) of 600 N/mm2 , and endurance limit
(en ) of 250 N/mm 2 . The fatigue curve for
the element on a log-log plot is shown below.
If the element is to be designed for a finite
life of 10000 cycle the maximum amplitude
of a completely reversed operating stress is
______ N/mm 2 . [2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
2.9 Fatigue life of a material for a fully reversed
loading condition is estimated from
a  1100 N  0.15
where a is the stress amplitude in MPa and
N is the failure life in cycles.
The maximum allowable stress amplitude
(in MPa) for a life of 1105 cycles under the
same loading condition is ______. (correct
upto two decimal places). [1 Mark]
2.10 A bar is subjected to a combination of a
steady load of 60 kN and a load fluctuating
between – 10 kN and 90 kN. The corrected
endurance limit of the bar is 150 MPa, the
yield strength of the material is 480 MPa and
the ultimate strength of the material is 600
MPa. The bar cross section is square with
side a. if the factor of safety is 2, the value of
a (in mm), according to the modified
2 Machine Design
Goodman’s criterion, is _____ (Correct upto
two decimal places). [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
2.11 During a high cycle fatigue test a metallic
specimen is subjected to cyclic loading with
a mean stress of +140 MPa, and minimum
stress of – 70 MPa. The R-ratio (minimum
stress to maximum stress) for this cyclic
loading is _________ (round off to one
decimal place) [1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay
2.12 A machine part in the form of cantilever
beam is subjected to fluctuating load as
shown in the figure. The load varies from
800 N to 1600 N. The modified endurance,
yield and ultimate strengths of the material
are 200 MPa. 500 MPa and 600 MPa,
respectively.
800 N to 1600 N Beam
Cross-section
20
100
12
All dimensions are in mm
The factor of safety of the beam using
modified Goodman criterion is_________
(round off to one decimal place).
2.13 The figure shows the relationship between
fatigue strength ( S ) and fatigue life ( N ) of
a material. The fatigue strength of the
material for a life of 1000 cycles is 450 MPa,
while its fatigue strength for a life of 10 6
cycles is 150 MPa.
 log10 S 2023 IIT Kanpur
2.14 The S-N curve from a fatigue test for steel
is shown. Which of the following options
gives endurance limit?

S ut

S1 1

Fatigue strength S
log10 N
7 2
S2
The life of a cylinder shaft made of this 3
S3
material subjected to an alternating stress of 4
200 MPa will then be ____________ cycles S4
(round off to the nearest integer). [1 Mark]
0 N1 N2 N3 N4
Number of cycles N
(A) Sut (B) S 2
(C) S3 (D) S 4

2.1 (D) max  min Pmax  Pmin 120 103

 m  
Given : Maximum tensile load 2 2A 2A
Amplitude stress is given by,
( Pmax )  100 kN  100 103 N
  min Pmax  Pmin 80 103
Minimum tensile load a  max  
2 2A 2A
( Pmin )  20 kN  20 103 N  From Soderberg equation,
Yield tensile stress ( S yt )  240 MPa 1  
 m a
Factor of safety ( FOS )  2 FOS S yt Se
Endurance stress ( Se )  160 MPa 1 120 103 80 103
 
2 240  2  A 160  2  A
1 1 1 1
  
2 4000 A 4000 A 2000 A
 A  10 3 m 2  1000 mm2
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Let ‘A’ be the area of cross-section of the bar.

P 100 103 2.2 2
 max  max 
A A
Given : Bending stress ()   100 MPa
P 20 103
min  min  Yield tensile stress ( S yt ) = 300 MPa
A A
Mean stress is given by, Ultimate tensile stress ( Sut ) = 500 MPa

Machine Design 3
 Endurance stress (Se ) = 200 MPa

Stress amplitude is given by,

400  200
a   100 MPa
2
Hence, the value of stress amplitude is 100 MPa.

2.4 (C)
From the graph given in question :
Maximum stress (max )  250 MPa
Minimum stress (min )  50 MPa

Bending stress is a completely reversible stress

and for bending stress mean stress is given by,
  min
m  max 0
2
Stress amplitude is given by,
  min 100  100 Stress ratio is simply the ratio of the minimum
a  max   100MPa
2 2 stress experienced during a cycle to the maximum
As the steel is ductile material, Soderberg criteria stress experienced during a cycle.
will be applied. Stress amplitude,
m a 1 100 1   min 250  50
     a  max   100 MPa
S yt Se FOS 200 FOS 2 2
FOS  2  50
Stress ratio,  r  min   0.2
Hence, the factor of safety for the shaft is 2.  max 250
Hence, the correct option is (C).

2.3 100
2.5 (A)
Given : Minimum stress (min )  200 MPa
Soderberg line : A straight line joining S e on the
Maximum stress (max )  400 MPa
ordinate to S yt on the abscissa is called the
Soderberg line.

4 Machine Design
 m a 1
 
S yt S yt FOS
100 50 1
 
300 300 FOS
FOS  2
According to modified Goodman criteria, we will
select the smaller value of factor of safety from the
above two values. But the above two values of
The Soderberg line is a more conservative failure FOS are same.
criterion and there is no need to consider even  FOS  2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
yielding in this case.
Hence, the correct option is (A).

2.6 (D)

Given : Minimum stress (min )  50 MPa 2.7 2

Maximum stress (max )  150 MPa Given : Minimum stress (min )   50MPa
Endurance strength ( Se )  200 MPa Maximum stress (max )  50 MPa
Yield strength ( S yt )  300 MPa Endurance limit (e' ) 100 MPa
Ultimate strength ( Sut )  400 MPa Yield strength ( y )  300 MPa .
Stress amplitude, The stress is completely reversed stress and mean
  min 150  50 stress, m  0 and stress amplitude a  50 MPa .
a  max   50 MPa
2 2 Se'
a  ( e'  Se' )
Mean stress, FOS
  min 150  50 100
m  max   100 MPa 50 
2 2 FOS
FOS  2
Hence, the factor of safety is 2.

2.8 386.34

Given : Ultimate strength (u )  600 MPa

Endurance limit (en )  250 MPa
According to Goodman criteria, Life of element ( N )  104 cycles
m a 1
  ..Method 1..
Sut Se FOS
100 50 1
 
400 200 FOS
FOS  2
Again, solution by yield (Langer’s) line equation,

Machine Design 5
  
1/ B

N  a 
 A
( N ) B  A  a
a  10000 0.0944  921.170  386.13 MPa
Hence, the maximum amplitude of a completely
reversed operating stress is 386.13 N / mm 2 .

2.9 195.61

Given : Stress amplitude (a )  1100 N  0.15

Number of cycles ( N )  1105 cycles

 log10 N  3  FC
4  3  FC Stress amplifier is given by,
FC  1   min max  (max )
a  max 
EB  AF 2 2
Again, FC 
AE ( min  max )
(6  3)  (2.6812  log10 a )
1 2max
(2.6812  2.3979) a 
2
log10 a  2.5867
 1100N  0.15  max
a  386.10 N/mm 2
max  1100  (1105 )  0.15  195.61
Hence, the maximum amplitude of a completely
reversed operating stress is 386.10 N / mm 2 . Hence, the maximum allowable stress amplitude
..Method 2.. for a life of 1105 cycles under the same loading
Find A and B of Basquin’s equation using ut condition is 195.61 MPa.
and  e ,
log e  log(0.8 ut )
B
3
log 250  log(0.8  600) 2.10 31.62
B   0.0944
3 Given : Endurance strength (Se )  150 MPa
 250 Ultimate strength ( Sut )  600 MPa
and A  6eB  (6 0.0944)  921.170
10 10
Yield strength ( S yt )  480 MPa
Applying Basquin’s equation to calculate ( a ) ,
Area of bar  a 2

6 Machine Design
Factor of safety ( FOS )  2 100 103 50 103 1
 
a 2  480 a 2  480 2
a  25 mm
Hence, selecting the bigger of these two criteria
which is the modified Goodman’s criterion is
31.62 mm.
Maximum and minimum load is given by, 2.11 – 0.2
Pmax  90kN  60kN  150kN
Given : Mean stress (mean )  140 MPa
Pmin  10 kN  60 kN  50 kN
Minimum stress (min )   70 MPa
P P 150  50
 Pm  max min   100 kN max  min
2 2 mean 
2
Mean stress is given by,
  ( 70)
100 103 140  max
m  MPa 2
a2
280  max  70
P P 150  50
and Pa  max min   50kN
2 2 max  280  70  350
Amplitude stress is given by, min  70 1
Ratio,     0.2
50 10
3
max 350 5
a  MPa
a2 Hence, the R-ratio for this cyclic loading is – 0.2.

2.12 2
Given : e  200 MPa
S yt  500 MPa
Sut  600 MPa
max A   max B at A due to 1600 N
Now, using Goodman’s equation, 6M 6 1600 100
m a  
1 12   20 
2
  bd 2
Sut Se FOS
max A  200 MPa
100 103 50 103 1
  min A  min B at A due to 800N
a 2  600 a 2 150 2
a  31.62 mm 6  800 100
min A   100 MPa
12   20 
2

Solution by yield (Langer’s) line equation,

m a 1 m a 1
  Goodman criterion,  
S yt S yt FOS Sut e N

Machine Design 7
 max  min log N  5.214421
m   150 MPa
2
N  163840.58 cycle
   min
 a  max  50 MPa
2 N  163840 cycles
150 50 1
  Hence, the life of a cylinder shaft made of this
600 200 N material subjected to an alternating stress of 200
N 2 MPa will then be 163840 cycles.
N 2 2.14 D
m a 1
Langer,   As we know in SN diagram, SN curve become
S yt S yt N asymptotic for infinite life, which is called
150 50 1 endurance limit.
 
500 500 N Hence, the correct option is (D).
N  2.5
According to modified Goodman criteria, 
we will select the smaller value of factor of
safety from the above two values. So,
factor of safety will be 2.

2.13 163840
Given :
Sut  450 MPa

Se  150 MPa

 act  200 MPa

log10 ( S ) log10 (450)

1

( x, y )  log N , log10 (200)

log10 (200)

log10 (150) 2

log(103 )  3 log( N ) log(10 6 )  6 log(10 N )

x  x1 y  y1

x2  x1 y2  y1

x  3 log10 200  log10 (450)


6  3 log10 (150)  log(450)

x  5.214421

8 Machine Design
3 Gears

magnitude of the force applied on the gear in

2014 IIT Kharagpur
the radial direction is [1 Mark]
3.1 For the given statements : [1 Mark]
(A) 0.73 kN (B) 1.39 kN
I. Mating spur gear teeth is an example of (C) 0.36 kN (D) 2.78 kN
higher pair
3.6 A spur gear has pitch circle diameter D and
II. A revolute joint is an example of lower number of teeth T , the circular pitch of the
pair gear is [1 Mark]
Indicate the correct answer. D T
(A) (B)
(A) Both I and II are false. T D
(B) I is true and II is false. 2D D
(C) (D)
(C) I is false and II is true. T T
(D) Both I and II are true.
2020 IIT Delhi
3.2 Which one of the following is used to
convert a rotational motion into a 3.7 A helical gear with 200 pressure angle and
translational motion? [1 Mark] 300 helix angle mounted at the mid-span of
(A) Bevel gears a shaft that is supported between two
bearings at the ends. The nature of stresses
(B) Double helical gears
induced in the shaft is [1 Mark]
(C) Worm gears
(A) Normal stresses due to bending in two
(D) Rack and pinion gears planes; shear stress due to torsion
3.3 A pair of spur gears with module 5 mm and (B) Normal stresses due to bending in two
a center distance of 450 mm is used for a planes and axial loading; shear stress due
speed reduction of 5 : 1. The number of teeth to torsion
on pinion is ______. [1 Mark] (C) Normal stress due to bending only
3.4 A spur pinion of pitch diameter 50 mm (D) Normal stresses due to bending in one
rotates at 200 rad/s and transmits 3 kW plane and axial loading; shear stress due
power. The pressure angle of the tooth of to torsion
the pinion is 200 . Assuming that only one 3.8 A steel spur pinion has a module (m) of 1.25
pair of the teeth is in contact, the total force mm, 20 teeth and 200 pressure angle. The
(in Newton) exerted by a tooth of the pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and transmits
pinion on the tooth on a mating gear is power to a 60 teeth gear. The face width (F)
_______. [2 Marks] is 50 mm, Lewis form factor Y  0.322 and
2019 IIT Madras a dynamic factor, KV  1.26 . The bending
stress () , induced in a tooth can be
3.5 A spur gear with 200 full depth teeth is
transmitting 20 kW at 200 rad/s. The pitch calculated by using the Lewis formula given
circle diameter of the gear is 100 mm. The below. If the maximum bending stress

Machine Design 1
 experienced by the pinion is 400 MPa, the
power transmitted is ________ kW. (round
off to one decimal place)
KV W t
Lewis formula,   , where W t is the
FmY
tangential load acting on the pinion
[2 Marks]

3.1 (D)
Lower pair examples : Screw pair, cylindrical
joint, Spherical joint, Revolute and prismatic pairs
Higher pair examples : Cam and follower, Wheel
rolling on surface, Meshing of teeth of two gears.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

3.2 (D)
Bevel gears Rotational motion transfer Center distance between two gears is given as,
mT mT
between axes at right angle. C  RP  RG  P  G
Worm gears For large reduction ratio in a 2 2
single stage. 5  TP 5  5TP
450  
Double helical Rotational motion transfer 2 2
gears between parallel axes. TP  30 teeth
Rack and To convert rotational Hence, the number of teeth on pinion is 30 teeth.
Pinion gears. motion into a translation/
linear motion 3.4 638.5
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Given : Pitch diameter ( D)  50 mm
 R  0.025 m
Pinion speed ()  200 rad/s
Power ( P)  3kW  3000 W
3.3 30
Pressure angle ()  200
Given : Module (m)  5 mm
Centre distance (C )  450 mm
Reduction ratio (i )  5 :1
N P TG
 i  5
N G TP
TG  5TP
Torque transmitted is given by,
P 3000
T   15 Nm
 200

2 Machine Design
Various forces acting on a tooth is shown in D
 Pc 
diagram below, T
Ft  R  T Hence, the correct option is (D).
Ft  0.025  15 3.7 (B)
Ft  600 N In a helical gear axial thrust is present as well as
Tangential component of force is given by, tangential and radial forces are also present so
“Normal stresses due to bending in one planes and
Ft  Fn cos 
axial load, shear stress due to torsion.”
600  Fn cos 200 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Fn  638.5 N 3.8 10.035
Hence, the total force exerted by a tooth of the Given : Module (m)  1.25 mm
pinion on the tooth on a mating gear is 638.5 N.
Number of teeth on pinion ( Z p )  20 teeth
Number of teeth on gear ( Z g )  60 teeth
Pressure angle ()  200
3.5 (A) Speed ( N )  1200 rpm
Given : Power ( P)  20 kW Face width ( F )  50 mm
Pressure angle ()  200 Lewis form factor (Y )  0.322
Angular velocity ()  200 rad/s Dynamic factor ( KV )  1.26
Pitch circle diameter Maximum bending stress (b )  400 MPa
3
(d )  100 mm  100 10 m Tangential load on pinion  W t
 Power is given by, KV W t
P  T . Lewis formula, b 
FmY
20  T  200 (According to question)
T  0.1 kNm 1.26  (W t )
400 
T 0.1103 50 1.25  0.322
 FT    2000 N
d 50 10 3 W t  6388.88 N
2
( M t )2N (W t  R)2N
Radial force, FR  FT tan  Now, power ( P)  
60 60
FR  2000  tan 200  mZ p  3
6388.88    10  21200
FR  727.94 N  0.73 kN P  2 
Hence, the correct option is (A).
60
 1.25  20 
3.6 (D) 6388.88     21200
P  2 
Circular pitch is given by, 60 1000
Pc  m P  10035.63 W  10.035 kW
Hence, the power transmitted is 10.035 kW.
D
Where, m  Module   
T 
Machine Design 3
4 Bearings, Shaft & Keys

(in kN ) for a life of one million revolutions

2014 IIT Kharagpur
4.1 Ball bearing are rated by a manufacturer for
a life of 10 6 revolutions. The catalogue rating 2016
of a particular bearing is 16 kN . If the 4.4
design load is 2 kN , the life of the bearing
will be P  106 revolutions, where P is equal
to _______. [1 Mark]
4.2 A hydrodynamic journal bearing is subjected
to 2000 N load at a rotational speed of
2000 rpm . Both bearing bore diameter and
length are 40 mm . If radial clearance is 2018
20  m and bearing is lubricated with an oil
4.5
having viscosity 0.03 Pa-s, the Sommerfeld
number of the bearing is ______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
is______. [2 Marks]
IISc Bangalore
Which of the bearings given below
SHOULD NOT be subjected to a thrust
load? [1 Mark]
(A) Deep groove ball bearing
(B) Angular contact ball bearing
(C) Cylindrical (straight) roller bearing
(D) Single row tapered roller bearing
IIT Guwahati
A self-aligning ball bearing has a basic
dynamic load rating ( C10 , for 10 6
revolutions) of 35 kN. If the equivalent
radial load on the bearing is 45 kN, the

4.3 For ball bearing, the fatigue life L measured expected life (in 10 6 revolutions) is
in number of revolutions and the radial load [2 Marks]
F are related by FL1/3  K , where K is a (A) below 0.5 (B) 0.5 to 0.8
constant. It withstands a radial load of 2 kN (C) 0.8 to 1.0 (D) above 1.0
for a life of 540 million revolutions. The load

4.1 512
Given : Dynamic load capacity (C )  16 kN
Load on bearing (W )  2 kN
4.2 0.8
Life of be given by relation,
k 3 3
Given : Load on bearing (W )  2000 N
C  16 
L10        512 mr Speed of journal ( N )  2000 rpm
W   2
2000
 L10  P 106 rev  512 106 rev  ns   33.33rps
60
P  512 Bearing bore diameter (d )  40 mm
Hence, the value of P is 512 mr.
Length of bearing (l )  40 mm
Radial clearance (c)  20 m  20 10 3 mm

Machine Design 1
 Viscosity of lubricant ()  0.03Pa-s 4.5 (A)
Bearing pressure is given by, Given : Dynamic load capacity (C )  35 kN
W 2000
p  Radial load on bearing (W )  45 kN
l  d 40  40 10 6
p  1.25 106 N/m2 Life of bearing is given by relation,
k 3 3
Sommerfeld number is given by, C  35 
L10     
W   45 
 r  n
2

S    s L10  0.4705 mr (million revolution)

c p
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 20  0.03  33.33
2

S     0.8
 20 10 3  1.25 106
Hence, the Sommerfeld number of the bearing is
0.8.


4.3 16.286

Given : Radial load ( F1 )  2 kN

Life of bearing ( L1 )  540 mr
Second life of bearing ( L2 )  1 mr
From the given relation,
FL1/3  K
1  F2 L2
F1L1/3 1/3

2  5401/3  F2 (1)1/3
 F2  16.286kN
Hence, the load for a life of one million
revolutions is 16.286 kN.

4.4 (C)
Only cylindrical (straight) roller bearing in the
given option, which cannot sustain axial load rest
can take considerably.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

2 Machine Design
5 Clutches, Ropes & Belts

2014 IIT Kharagpur then the ratio F1 / F2 is _______.

[2 Marks]
5.1 A disc clutch with a single friction surface
has coefficient of friction equal to 0.3. The 2022 IIT Kharagpur
maximum pressure which can be imposed 5.4 A rope with two mass-less platforms at its
on the friction material is 1.5 MPa. The two ends passes over a fixed pulley as
outer diameter of the clutch plate is 200 shown in the figure. Discs with narrow
mm and its internal diameter is 100 mm. slots and having equal weight of 20 N each
Assuming uniform wear theory for the can be placed on the platforms. The
clutch plate, the maximum torque (in Nm) number of discs placed on the left side
that can be transmitted is______. platform is 𝑛 and that on the right side
[2 Marks] platform is 𝑚.
2017 IIT Roorkee It is found that for 𝑛 = 5 and 𝑚 = 0, a force
𝐹= 200 N (refer to part (i) of the figure) is
5.2 A single-plate clutch has a friction disc
just sufficient to initiate upward motion of
with inner and outer radii of 20 mm and 40
the left side platform. If the force 𝐹 is
mm, respectively. The friction lining in the
removed then the minimum value of 𝑚
disc is made in such a way that the
(refer to part (ii) of the figure) required to
coefficient of friction  varies radially as
prevent downward motion of the left side
  0.01r , where r is in mm. The clutch platform is______ (in
needs to transmit a friction torque of 18.85 integer). [1 Mark]
kN-mm. As per uniform pressure theory, Fixed pulley Fixed pulley
(i) (ii)
the pressure (in MPa) on the disc is
______. [2 Marks]
g
2020 IIT Delhi
5.3 In a disc type axial clutch, the frictional
m discs
contact takes place within an annular n discs n discs

region with outer and inner diameters 250 F

mm and 50 mm respectively. An axial Mass-less platforms Mass-less platforms

force F1 is needed to transmit a torque by a
new clutch. However to transmit the same
torque, one needs on axial force F2 when
the clutch wears out. If contact pressure
remains uniform during operation of a new
clutch while the wear is assumed to be
uniform for an old clutch and the
coefficient of friction does not change,

Machine Design 1
 40
5.1 530.14
 dT  0.01 2p  r dr
3

Given : Outer radius ( R0 )  100 mm  0.1 m 20

40
Inner radius ( Ri )  50 mm  0.05 m  r4 
18.85 10  0.01 2p  
3

Coefficient of friction ()  0.3  4  20

Maximum pressure ( pmax )  1.5 MPa  404 204 
18.85 103  0.01 2p   
Intensity of pressure is maximum at the inner  4 4 
radius so pmax  C / ri p  0.5 MPa
Hence, the pressure on the disc is 0.5 MPa.
Total force acing on the friction surface,
W  2C (r0  ri )  2pmax ri (r0  ri )
According to the uniform wear theory,
r r 
T  WRmean  W  0 i  5.3 0.871
 2 
Given :
T  Pmax ri  r02  ri 2 
Outer diameter ( D0 )  250 mm , R0  125 mm
T   0.3 1.5 106 Inner diameter ( Di )  50 mm , Ri  25 mm
 0.1   0.2   0.1  
2 2

       
T1 (Uniform pressure theory)
 2   2   2  
 T2 (Uniform wear theory)
T  530.14 Nm
(T1 )new  (T2 )old
Hence, the maximum torque that can be
2 R3  Ri3 R  Ri
transmitted is 530.14 Nm. F1  02  F2  0
3 R0  Ri2
2
F1 R0  Ri 3 R02  Ri2
   3
F2 2 2 R0  Ri3
5.2 0.5 F1 3 ( R0  Ri )2  ( R0  Ri )
 
Given : Outer radius of drum (r1 )  40 mm F2 4 R03  Ri3
Inner radius of drum (r2 )  20 mm F1 3 (125  25)2  (125  25)
   0.871
Coefficient of friction ()  0.01r F2 4 1253  253
Torque transmitted (T )  18.85 kN-mm Hence, the ratio F1 / F2 is 0.871.
According to uniform pressure theory,
p  constant 5.4 3

We know that, T  Wr …(i) Condition – I :

where, W  p (2r ) dr
So, from equation (i), we get
dT  p (2r 2 ) dr

2 Machine Design
  1800 rad

Fixed pulley

100 N 200 N
T1
e
T2
Where angle of lap ( ) 
200 
e
100
2  e …(i)
Condition-II :
rad

Fixed pulley

100 N T3

T1
e
T3
200 
e …(ii)
T3
On equating equation (i) and (ii)
T3  50 N
50
For 50 N number of discs   2.5
20
Hence minimum value of m required to prevent
downward motion of the left side of platform is 3.



Machine Design 3
6 Brakes

2014 IIT Kharagpur

6.1 A drum brake is shown in figure. The drum
is rotating in anticlockwise direction. The
coefficient of friction between drum and
shoe is 0.2. The dimensions shown in the
figure are in mm . The braking torque (in
6.4 For the brake shown in the figure, which one
Nm) for the brake shoe is _______.
of the following is TRUE? [1 Mark]
[2 Marks]

(A) Self energizing for clockwise rotation of

6.2 A four-wheel vehicle of mass 1000 kg
moves uniformly in a straight line with
wheels revolving at 10 rad/s. The wheels are
identical, each with a radius of 0.2 m.
Then a constant braking torque is applied to
all the wheels and the vehicle experience a
uniform deceleration. For the vehicle to stop
in 10s, the braking torque (in Nm) on each
wheel is ______. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
6.3 The forces F1 and F2 in a brake band and the
direction of rotation of the drum are as
shown in the figure. The coefficient of
3
friction is 0.25. The angle of wrap is
2
radians. It is given that R  1 m and
F2  1 N. The torque (in N-m) exerted on the
drum is ______. [1 Mark]
the drum.
(B) Self energizing for anti-clockwise
rotation of the drum.
(C) Self energizing for rotation in either
direction of the drum.
(D) Not of the self-energizing type.
6.5 A mass of 2000 kg is currently being
lowered at a velocity of 2 m/s from the drum
as shown in the figure. The mass moment of
inertia of the drum is 150 kg-m2 . On
applying the brake, the mass is brought to
rest in a distance of 0.5 m. The energy
absorbed by the brake (in kJ) is _______.
[2 Marks]

Machine Design 1
 2018 IIT Guwahati
6.6 The schematic of an external drum rotating
clockwise engaging with a short shoe is
shown in the figure. The shoe is mounted at
point Y on a rigid lever XYZ hinged at point
X. A force F  100 N is applied at the free
end of the lever as shown. Given that the
coefficient of friction between the shoe and
the drum is 0.3, the braking torque (in Nm)
applied on the drum is ______ (correct upto
two decimal places). [2 Marks]
2021
6.9
2019 IIT Madras
6.7 A single block brake with a short shoe and
torque capacity of 250 N-m is shown. The
cylindrical brake drum rotates anticlockwise
at 100 rpm and the coefficient of friction is
0.25. The value of a, in mm (round off to
one decimal place), such that the maximum
actuating force P is 2000 N, is _______.
[2 Marks]
2023
6.10
6.8 A short shoe external brake is shown in the
fig. with brake drum with diameter of
2 Machine Design
D  500 mm . If a  1000 mm,
b  500 mm, c  200 mm, μ  0.35 and
F  100 N . If drum is rotating anti
clockwise, the braking torque ______ Nm.
(round off two decimal place) [2 Marks]
IIT Bombay
A short shoe drum (radius 260 mm) brake is
shown in the figure. A force of 1 kN is
applied to the lever. The coefficient of
friction is 0.4.
1 kN
500 500
310
Drum rotation
260
All dimensions are in mm
The magnitude of the torque applied by the
brake is _______ N.m (round off to one
decimal place). [1 Marks]
IIT Kanpur
The braking system shown in the figure
uses a belt to slow down a pulley rotating
in the clockwise direction by the
application of a force P. The belt wraps
around the pulley over an angle α = 270
degrees. The coefficient of friction
between the belt and the pulley is 0.3. The
influence of centrifugal forces on the belt
is negligible. During braking, the ratio of
 the tensions T1 to T2 in the belt is equal to pulley
__________. (Rounded off to two decimal 
places) Take π = 3.14.

belt

6.1 64 6.2 10

Given : Coefficient of friction ()  0.2 Given : Mass of vehicle (m)  1000kg
Free body diagram of lever and brake dram are, Speed of wheel ()  10 rad/sec
Time to stop (t )  10 sec
Radius of wheel ( r )  0.2 m
Initial velocity (u )  r  10  0.2  2 m/s
Using equation of motion for deceleration, we
have
v  u  at
0  2  a 10
a  0.2 m/s2
Braking force is given by,
For lever moment about O, F  1000  0.2  200 N
 MO  0 , Braking force on each wheel is,
1000  800  Ft 100  RN  480 F 200
Fw    50 N
8000  Ft  4.8 RN …(i) 4 4
Ft  RN  0.2RN …(ii) Hence braking torque on individual wheel is given
From equation (i) and (ii), by,
8000  0.2RN  4.8RN T  Fw  r  50  0.2  10 Nm
8000  5RN Hence, the braking torque on each wheel is 10
8000 Nm.
RN   1600 N
5
Tangential force, Ft  RN  0.2 1600  320 N
Braking torque, Tb  Ft  r  320  0.2  64 Nm
Hence, the braking torque for the brake shoe is 64 6.3 2.248
Nm. 3
Given : Wrap angle ()  rad
2
Radius of drum ( R )  1m
Coefficient of friction ()  0.25
Force on slack side of band ( F2 )  1 N

Machine Design 3
 Ratio of tensions in band,  Key Point
F1 If the pivot is above the friction force line the
 e 
F2 situation will be reverse i.e., anticlockwise
3 rotation will be self-energizing.
F1 0.25
e 2
 3.248 6.5 14.11
F2
F1  3.248 N Given : Mass (m)  2000 kg

Torque  ( F1  F2 )  R Velocity (V1 )  2 m/s

Torque  (3.248  1)  1  2.248 Nm Mass moment of inertia ( I )  150 kg-m2
Hence, the torque exerted on the drum is 2.248 Distance (h)  0.5 m
Nm. 1
( KE)T  m (V12  V22 )
2
1
( KE )T   2000  (22  0)  4000 J
2
6.4 (A) 1
( KE ) R  I (12  22 )
When the friction force between drum and shoe 2
helps in brake application, the brake is called self- 1
( KE ) R  150  (22  0)  300 J
energizing. 2
In the given figure, the pivot is below the center PE  mgh  2000  9.81 0.5  9810 J
line of friction surface as shown below, Total energy,
E  4000  300  9810
E  14110 J  14.11 kJ
Hence, the energy absorbed by the brake is 14.11
kJ.

Case-1 : Clockwise rotating of drum, the friction 6.6 8.18

force on shoe is toward right. Taking moment
Given : Force ( F )  100 N
about ‘O’,
 F   Ft  a  RN  x Coefficient of friction ()  0.3
Since Ft (friction force) is contributing in brake Radius of brake drum (r )  100 mm  0.1 m
application, so clockwise rotation is self-
energizing.
Case-2 : Anticlockwise rotation of drum, the
friction is force on shoe is toward lift. Taking
moment about ‘O’,
F   Ft  a  RN  x
Hence it is not self-energizing.
Hence, the correct option is (A).

4 Machine Design
M X  0 , M O  0 ,
RN  200  F  300  Ft  300 1000 0.25 1000 a
 2000  2.5a  a   0
RN  200  100  300  RN  300 a a 4
a  0.2125 m  212.5 mm
RN  200  100  300  0.3  RN  300
Hence, the value of a is 212.5 mm.
1.1 RN  300
RN  272.72 N
Braking torque,
T  RN  r  0.3  272.72  0.1
6.8 20.348
T  8.18 Nm
Given : Distance (a )  1000 mm  0.1m ,
Hence, the braking torque applied on the drum is
8.18 Nm. (b)  500 mm  0.5 m , (c)  200 mm  0.2 m
Coefficient of friction ()  0.35
Force ( F )  100 N
Diameter of drum ( D)  500 mm
6.7 212.5  R  0.25 m
Given : Torque (T )  250 Nm
Radius of drum = a
Speed ( N )  100 rpm
Maximum applied force ( P)  2000 N
Coefficient of friction ()  0.25

Taking moment about point O,

FBD :
M O  0,
 F  a  N  b  N  c  0
100 1  N  0.5  0.35  N  0.2  0
N  232.55 N
Breaking torque, T  N  R
Torque is given by,
T  0.35  232.55  0.25  20.348 Nm.
T  F a
Hence, the braking torque 20.348 Nm.
250  F  a
250
F  N
a
250 1000
N 
0.25  a a
Taking moment about point O,
Machine Design 5
 6.9 200
260
Given : r  260 mm  m
1000
P  1000 N
  0.4 N

μN =0.4N N

In FBD of lever :
Taking moment about O, M O  0
(1000 1000)  ( N  500)  (0.4 N  50)  0
N  1923.0768 N
Braking torque,
TB  N  r  0.4 1923.076  0.26
TB  200 Nm
Hence, The magnitude of the torque applied by the
brake is 200 N.m.
6.10 4.11
Using the equation
3
T1 0.3 
 e  e 2
T2
T1
  4.11
T2
Hence, the correct answer is 4.11.



6 Machine Design
7 Joints (Bolted, Riveted & Welded)

2013 IIT Bombay Allowable tensile stress of the plate

 p  200 MPa ,
7.1 A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread
angle 600 is inspected for its pitch diameter Allowable shear stress of the rivet s  100 MPa
using 3-wire method. The diameter of the and allowable bearing stress of the rivet
best size wire in mm is [1 Mark] c  150 MPa .
(A) 0.866 (B) 1.000
7.3 If the rivets are to be designed to avoid
(C) 1.154 (D) 2.000
crushing failure, the maximum permissible
7.2 Two threaded bolts A and B of same load P in kN is [2 Marks]
material and length are subjected to
identical tensile load. If the elastic strain (A) 7.50 (B) 15.00
energy stored in bolt A is 4 times that of (C) 22.50 (D) 30.00
bolt B and the mean diameter of bolt A is 12
7.4 If the plates are to be designed to avoid
mm, the mean diameter of bolt B in mm is
tearing failure, the maximum permissible
[1 Mark]
load P in kN is [2 Marks]
(A) 16 (B) 24
(C) 36 (D) 48 (A) 83 (B) 125
(C) 167 (D) 501
Common Data for
Questions 7.14 & 7.15 2014 IIT Kharagpur
7.5 For the three bolt system shown in the figure,
A single riveted lap joint of two similar plates as
the bolt material has shear yield strength of
shown in the figure below has the following
200 MPa. For a factor of safety of 2, the
geometrical and material details :
minimum metric specification required for
the bolt is [2 Marks]

(A) M 8 (B) M 10
(C) M 12 (D) M 16

Width of the plate w  200 mm , 7.6 A bolt of major diameter 12 mm is required

Thickness of the plate t  5 mm , to clamp two plates. Cross sectional area of

Number of rivets n  3 , the threaded portion of the bolt is 84.3 mm2

Diameter of the rivet dr  10 mm ,
Diameter of the rivet hole dh  11 mm ,
. The length of the threaded portion in grip is
30 mm, while the length of the unthreaded
portion in grip is 8 mm. Young’s modulus of
material is 200 GPa. The effective stiffness

Machine Design 1
 (in MN/m ) of the bolt in the clamped zone is 2016 IISc Bangalore
_______. [2 Marks]
7.10 A bolted joint has four bolts arranged as
7.7 A butt weld joint is developed on steel plates shown in figure. The cross sectional area of
having yield and ultimate tensile strength of each bolt is 25 mm2 . A torque T  200 N-
500 MPa and 700 MPa, respectively. The m is acting on the joint. Neglecting friction
thickness of the plates is 8 mm and width is due to clamping force, maximum shear
20 mm. Improper selection of welding stress in a bolt is ______ MPa. [2 Marks]
parameters caused an undercut of 3 mm
depth along the weld. The maximum
transverse tensile load (in kN ) carrying
capacity of the developed weld joint is
______. [2 Marks]

2015 IIT Kanpur

7.8 A horizontal plate has been joined to a
vertical post using four rivets arranged as 2017 III Roorkee
shown in the figure. The magnitude of the
7.11 A steel plate connected to a fixed channel
load on the worst loaded rivet (in N ) is
using three identical bolts A, B and C
_______. [2 Marks]
carries a load of 6 kN as shown in figure.
Considering the effect of direct load and
moment, the magnitude of resultant shear
force (in kN) on bolts C is [2 Marks]

7.9 A cantilever bracket is bolted to a column

using three M 12 1.75 bolts , P, Q and R.
The value of maximum shear stress
developed in the bolt P (in MPa ) is
________. [2 Marks]
(A) 13 (B) 15
(C) 17 (D) 30

2018 IIT Guwahati

7.12 Pre-tensioning of a bolted joint is used to
[1 Mark]
(A) Strain harden the bolt head
(B) Decrease stiffness of the bolted joint
(C) Increase stiffness of the bolted joint
(D) Prevent yielding of the thread root

2 Machine Design
7.13 The type of weld represented by the shaded Considering that the allowable shear stress
region in the figure is [1 Mark] in weld is 60 N/mm2 , the minimum size
(leg) of the weld required is
___________mm (round off to one
decimal place).
2022 IIT Kharagpur
7.15 A bracket is attached to a vertical column by
means of two identical rivets U and V
(A) Groove (B) Spot separated by a distance of 2a = 100 mm, as
(C) Fillet (D) Plug shown in the figure. The permissible shear
2021 IIT Bombay stress of the rivet material is 50 MPa. If a
load P = 10 kN is applied at an eccentricity
7.14 A cantilever beam of rectangular cross-
e  3 7a , the minimum cross-sectional area
section is welded to a support by means of
two fillet welds as shown in figure. A of each of the rivets to avoid failure is
vertical load of 2 kN acts at free end of the ___________ mm2. [2 Marks]
beam P
e
2 kN
50 mm 150 mm
U
Bracket
40 2a
mm
V
Column

Support (A) 800 (B) 25

(C) 100 7 (D) 200

7.1 (C) 1 1 PL P 2 L
U P   P 
2 2 AE 2 AE
Given : Pitch ( p )  2 mm
Since, P, L and E are constant.
Thread angle (2)  600    300
1
For 600 C thread angle, best wire size by three  U
A
wire method is, 2
U B AA  d A 
 2   
U A AB  d B 
p
d sec  
2  2 
2 But, U A  4U B
d  sec300  1.154 mm
2  d B2  4d A2  4  (12)2  576
Hence, the correct option is (C). d B  24 mm
7.2 (B) Hence, the correct option is (B).
Elastic energy,

Machine Design 3
 7.3 (C) 7.5 (B)
Given : Diameter of rivet (dr )  10 mm Given : Shear yield strength ( y )  200 MPa
Diameter of rivet hole (dh )  11mm Factor of safety = 2
Number of bolts ( n )  3
Allowable tensile stress of plate (P )  200 MPa
Allowable shear stress (s )  100 MPa
Allowable bearing stress of rivet (c )  150MPa
Number of rivets ( n )  3
Equating the force and stress, we have
Thickness of the plate (t )  5 mm y
P  d2 n
To avoid the crushing failure of rivets. FOS 4
Maximum stress induced Where, n is number of bolts
 Allowable bearing stress of the rivet
200 106  2
P 19000   d 3
 c 2 4
nd r t
19000  2  4
So, maximum permissible load d2 
200 106   3
P  (c )  (Projected area)
d  8.98 mm
 (Number of rivets)
P  c  dr  t  n So, the diameter should be atleast greater than this
hence the next dimension in the given option is
P  150 10  5  3  22500 N  22.5 kN
M10, which is the correct answer.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
7.4 (C)
Given : Width of the plate ( w)  200 mm
Net minimum area of cross section of plate that
experiences tension is, 7.6 468.80
A  (w  3dh )t Given : Major diameter of bolt (d) = 12 mm
To avoid tearing failure of the plate, Area of cross section at threaded portion
Maximum stress induced ( A1 )  84.3mm 2
 Allowable tensile stress of the plate
Length of threaded portion (l1 )  30 mm
P
 P
Area Length of unthreaded portion (l2 )  8 mm
So, allowable load for tearing Young modulus ( E )  200 GPa
Pt  (Allowable tension stress)  A
 2 105 N/mm2
Pt  P  A  P (w  n  dh )  t
Pt  200  [200  (3 11)]  5  167 kN
Hence, the correct option is (C).

4 Machine Design
 t  u tcut w
t  700  (8  3)  20
t  70000 N  70 kN
Hence, the maximum transverse tensile load
carrying capacity of the developed weld joint is 70
kN.

Stiffness in threaded portion is given by,

A1 E 84.3  200 103
k1  
L1 0.03 7.8 1839.83
k1  562 10 N/m  562 MN/m
6
Given : Number of rivets ( n)  4
Stiffness in Un-threaded portion is given by,

 122  200  103
A2 E 4
k2  
L2 0.008
k2  2827 106 N/m  2827 MN/m
Note : Units are taken in following way,
mm 2  N/mm 2 N There are two types of shear force acting.
k 
m m 400
Primary shear force, F1   100 N
Effective stress is given by, 4
1 1 1
 
k k1 k2
1 1 1
 
k 562 2827
k  468.80 MN/m
Hence, the effective stiffness of the bolt in the
clamped zone is 468.80 MN/m.

7.7 70
Given : Yield strength ( y )  500 MPa
Ultimate strength (u )  700 MPa
Thickness of plate (t )  8 mm
Width of plate ( w)  20 mm
Depth of undercut (tcut )  3mm
Secondary shear force,
External turning moment is equal to internal
resisting moment of the rivets, hence we have,
Distance between ‘O’ and all rivets is,
R  202  202  20 2 mm
Secondary force on all rivets is same and equal to
F2 , on account of symmetry
400  500  F2  R  F2  R
 F2  R  F2  R

Maximum transverse tensile load is given by, 400  500  4 F2  20 2

Machine Design 5
 F2  1767.76 N
The bolts A and B both have the same least value
of  (  A   B  450 ) and hence both having
worst loaded shear force, which is equal to
R  F12  F22  2 F1F2 cos 45  rP  30 mm , rR  30 mm and rQ  0
Pe
1002  1176.72  2 100 PP"   rP
R r  rQ2  rR2
2
P
1767.7  cos 450
9000  250
R  1839.83 N PP"   30  37.5 kN
302  02  302
Note : The angle between F1 and F2 in bolts A Pe
PR"  2 2 2  rR
rP  rQ  rR
and B is 450 .
9000  250
Hence, the magnitude of the load on the worst PR"   30  37.5 kN
loaded rivet is 1839.83 N. 302  02  302
Pe
PQ"  2 2 2  rQ
rP  rQ  rR
9000  250
PQ"   0  0 kN
7.9 332.63 302  02  302
Resultant shear force due to symmetry, stress in
Given : Load ( P)  9 kN P, R will be equal in magnitude,
Eccentricity (e)  250 mm
PP  PR   3   37.5  37.62 kN
2 2

PP PP 37.62
  
A   d 2 x  0.0122
4 4
  332.633MPa
Hence, the value of maximum shear stress
developed in the bolt P is 332.633 MPa.

Primary shear force, 7.10 40

Given :
Area of cross section of each bolt ( A)  25mm2
Torque (T )  200 Nm and Radius ( R)  50 mm

P 9
PP'  PQ'  PR' 
  3kN
3 3
Secondary shear force,
By symmetry C.G. lies at the centre of bolt Q.

6 Machine Design
 P 7.12 (C)
Shear stress on bolt, max 
A Preload is the tension load developed in a bolt
Where, P  Force applied.
while tightening. The tensile force thus induced in
Torque  4  Force  Distance (Perpendicular)
bolt, creates a compressive force in the bolted joint
200  4  P  50 10 3 this is called clamp force.
200 Generally, bolts that experience increased axial
P  1000
4  50 10 3 tensile loads as a result of the applied external load
1000 will require preloading to reduce cyclic stresses,
max   40 MPa prevent pressure leakage, prevent joint separation,
25
Hence, the maximum shear stress in a bolt is 40 decreases the shrinkage cracking and increase
MPa. system stiffness etc.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

7.13 (C)

The type of weld represented by the shaded region

7.11 (C)
in the figure is fillet.
Given : Load carrying steel plate (W )  6 kN
Hence, the correct option is (C).

7.14 6.655

Load (W ) 6
Primary shear force, Pp  
Number of bolts 3 Given :
Pp  2 kN Allowable shear stress,  p  60 N/mm
2

Secondary shear force,

Taking moment about bolt B , we get
6  250  ( Ps  50)  2
( Bolt A and C are at same distance from B )
6  250
Ps   15 kN
50  2
Resultant shear force on C is given by, At  40t  40t  80t mm 2
R  Ps  Pp  2  15  17 kN t (40)3 t (40)3 t (40)3
I NA   
Hence, the correct option is (C). 12 12 6
(i) Primary shear stress ( ') ,
2000 25
'   N/mm2
80t t
Machine Design 7
 (ii) Maximum bending stress (b )max , R  Pp2  Ps2  50002  39686.262
2000 150 2000 150  6
(b ) max   ymax   20 Rmax  40000 N
I t (40)3
Rmax
562.5 
(b )max  N/mm2 A
t
400000
A
 
2

max   b   ( ')2 50
 2  A  800 mm2
2 2
 562.5   25  282.35 Hence, the correct option is (A).
max       N/mm2
 t2   t  t
max   p 
282.35
 60
t
t  4.706 mm
ht 2
h  6.655 mm
Hence, the minimum size (leg) of the weld
required is 6.655mm.

7.15 (A)
Given :
Load P  10 kN
Distance 2a  100 mm
Eccentricity (e)  3 7a
P
e

U
Bracket
2a
V
Column

Primary force,
10 103
Pp   5000 N
2
Ps1
Psec ondary  P  e   4a 2
2a
10  103  3 7 a  Ps1  2a
Ps1  39686.26 N

8 Machine Design
8 Power Screws & Springs

(A) direct shear stress in coil wire cross-

2016 IISc Bangalore
section
8.1 The springs constant of a helical (B) combined direct shear and torsional
compression springs DOES NOT depend on shear stress in the coil wire cross-section
[1 Mark] (C) combined direct shear and torsional
(A) Coil diameter shear stress along with the effect of stress
(B) Material strength concentration at inside edge of the coil
(C) Number of active turns wire cross-section
(D) Wire diameter (D) torsional shear stress in the coil wire
2018 IIT Guwahati cross-section

8.2 If the wire diameter of a compressive helical 2022 IIT Kharagpur

spring is increased by 2%, the change in 8.5 A square threaded screw is used to lift a load
spring stiffness (in %) is ______ (correct to W by applying a force F. Efficiency of
two decimal place). [1 Mark] square threaded screw is expressed as
2020 IIT Delhi [1 Mark]
(A) The ratio of work done by W per
8.3 A helical spring has spring constant k. If the
revolution to work done by F per
wire diameter, spring diameter and the
revolution
number of coils are all doubled then the
spring constant of the new spring becomes (B) W/F
[2 Marks] (C) F/W
k (D) The ratio of work done by F per
(A) (B) k
2 revolution to work done by W per
(C) 8 k (D) 16 k revolution

2021 IIT Bombay

8.4 Shear stress distribution on the cross-section
of the coil wire in a helical compression
spring is shown in the figure. This shear
stress distribution represents

Machine Design 1
 8.1 (B) Deflection of helical spring () is given by,
8PD3 N
64WR 3n 
Helical coil spring deflection,   Gd 4
Gd 4
Stiffness or spring constant, and, spring constant for helical spring ( k ) ,
W W Gd 4 P P  Gd 4 Gd 4
   k  
 64WR 3 n 64 R 3 n  8PD3 N 8D3 N
Gd 4 According to question spring constant ( k ')
From the above formula, spring constant depends becomes,
on coil diameter (D), wire diameter (d), number of
G  24 d 4
active turns (n) and modulus of rigidity (G). It does k'
8  23 D3  2 N
not depend upon material strength.
k'k
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B).

8.4 (B)

8.2 8.24
Wire diameter of compressive helical spring as
increased by 2%.
i.e., d 2  1.02 d1
Stiffness of spring 2 is given by,
G d 24 G  (1.02 d1 )4
k2  
8D3n 8D3n
 Gd4  Fig. Direct shear stress distribution across the
k2  1.0824  31   1.0824  k1 cross section of wire
 8D n 
Change in spring stiffness (in %),
(k  k )
 2 1  100
k1
(1.0824k1  k1 )
 100  8.24%
k1
Hence, the change in spring stiffness is 8.24%.

Fig. Torsional shear stress distribution across the

cross section of wire
8.3 (B)
Given : Wire diameter (d )  2 d
Spring diameter (D)  2D and
Number of coils ( N )  2 N

2 Machine Design
Fig. Resultant shear stress variation across the
cross section of wire (without considering stress
concentration effect)

Fig. Resultant shear stress variation considering

stress concentration effect
Hence, the correct option is (B).

8.5 (A)
Given :
Load  W
Applied force  F
The efficiency of square thread salent is
Work done by load per revolution

Work done by force per revolution
Hence, the correct option is (A).



Machine Design 3
Syllabus : General Aptitude

Verbal Ability : Basic English grammar : tenses, articles, adjectives, prepositions,

conjunctions, verb-noun agreement, and other parts of speech.
Basic vocabulary : words, idioms, and phrases in context.
Reading and comprehension. Narrative sequencing.
Quantitative Aptitude : Data interpretation : data graphs (bar graphs, pie charts, and
other graphs representing data), 2-and 3-dimensional plots, maps, and tables.
Numerical computation and estimation : ratios, percentages, powers, exponents and
logarithms, permutations and combinations, and series.
Mensuration and geometry.
Elementary statistics and probability.
Analytical Aptitude : Logic : deduction and induction, Analogy, Numerical relations and
reasoning.
Spatial Aptitude : Transformation of shapes : translation, rotation, scaling, mirroring,
assembling, and grouping Paper folding, cutting, and patterns in 2 and 3 dimensions.
Contents : General Aptitude

S. No. Topics
1. Numerical Ability
2. Logical Reasoning
3. Verbal Ability
Contents :

S. No. Topics
1. Number System & Series
2. Average, Percentage & Ratio
3. Mixture Allegation & Direction
4. Permutation & Combination
5. Probability & Statistics
6. Time, Speed & Distance
7. Work & Time
1 Number System & Series

2013 IIT Bombay 1.8 The next term in the series is 81, 54, 36, 24,
______? [1 Mark]
1.1 What will be the maximum sum of 44, 42,
1.9 In which of the following options will be
40, ______? [1 Mark]
expression P < M be definitely true?
(A) 502 (B) 504
[1 Mark]
(C) 506 (D) 500
(A) M < R > P > S
1.2 Find the sum of the expression
(B) M > S < P < F
1 1 1 1
   ...... (C) Q < M < F = P
1 2 2 3 3 4 80  81 (D) P = A < R < M
[2 Marks] 1.10 Find the next term in the sequence :
(A) 7 (B) 8 7G, 11K, 13M, ______. [2 Marks]
(C) 9 (D) 10 (A) 15Q (B) 17Q
2014 IIT Kharagpur (C) 15P (D) 17P
1.3 Fill in the missing number in the series. 1.11 In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd
numbers, the sum of the first 5 numbers is
2 3 6 15 _______ 157.5 630.
425. What is the sum of the last 5 numbers
[1 Mark]
in the sequence? [1 Mark]
1.4 What is the next number in the series?
1.12 Find the next term in the sequence :
12 35 81 173 357 _______.
[1 Mark] 13 M , 17 Q , 19 S , ______ [2 Marks]
1.5 Find the odd one from the following group : (A) 21W (B) 21V
[2 Marks] (C) 23W (D) 23V
W, E, K, O I, Q, W, A
1.13 A five digit number is formed using the
F, N, T, X N, V, B, D
digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of
(A) W, E, K, O (B) I, Q, W, A them. What is the sum of all such possible
(C) F, N, T, X (D) N, V, B, D five digit numbers? [2 Marks]
1.6 Find the odd one in the following group
(A) 6666660 (B) 6666600
Q, W, Z, B B, H, K, M
(C) 6666666 (D) 6666606
W, C, G, J M, S, V, X
[2 Marks] 2015 IIT Kanpur
(A) Q, W, Z, B (B) B, H, K, M 1.14 Find the missing sequence in the letter series
(C) W, C, G, J (D) M, S, V, X below : [1 Mark]
1.7 The sum of eight consecutive odd numbers A, CD, GHI, ?, UVWXY
is 656. The average of four consecutive even
(A) LMN (B) MNO
numbers is 87. What is the sum of the
(C) MNOP (D) NOPQ
smallest odd number and second largest even
number? [2 Marks] 1.15 If a 2  b 2  c 2  1 , then ab  bc  ac lies in
the interval [2 Marks]
General Aptitude 1
 (A) [1, 2/3] (B) [–1/2, 1] 5_ _ _ _
(C) [–1, 1/2] (D) [2, –4]  48 _ 89
1.16 If x > y > 1, which of the following must be 1111
true? [1 Mark]
(A) 8
(i) ln x > ln y (ii) e x  e y (B) 10
(iii) y x  x y (iv) cos x  cos y (C) 11
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (D) Cannot be determined
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv) 1.22 If a and b are integers and a  b is even,
which of the following must always be even?
1.17 log tan10  log tan 20   log tan890 is
[1 Mark]
_______. [2 Marks]
(A) ab (B) a 2  b 2  1
1
(A) 1 (B) (C) a 2  b  1 (D) ab  b
2
(C) 0 (D) –1 2018 IIT Guwahati

2016 IISc Bangalore 1.23 Given that a and b are integers and
a  a b is odd then, which one of the
2 3
1 1 1
1.18 If q  a  and r b  and s  c  , the following statements is correct? [1 Mark]
r s q
(A) a and b are both odd
value of abc is _______. [2 Marks]
(B) a and b are both even
(A) (rqs ) 1 (B) 0
(C) a is even and b is odd
(C) 1 (D) r  q  s
(D) a is odd and b is even
1.19 Given (9 inches)  (0.25 yards) , which
1/2 1/2
1.24 A number consists of two digits, the sum of
one of the following statements is TRUE? digits is 9. If 45 is subtracted from the
[1 Mark] number, its digits are interchanged. What is
(A) 3 inches = 0.5 yards the number? [1 Mark]
(B) 9 inches = 1.5 yards (A) 63 (B) 72
(C) 9 inches = 0.25 yards (C) 81 (D) 90
(D) 81 inches = 0.0625 yards 1.25 Find the missing group of letters in the
1.20 Two and a quarter hours back, when seen in following series : BC, FGH, LMNO,
a mirror, the reflection of a wall clock ________. [1 Mark]
without number markings seemed to show (A) UVWXY (B) TUVWX
1:30. What is the actual current time shown
(C) STUVW (D) RSTUV
by the clock? [2 Marks]
(A) 8 : 15 (B) 11 : 15 2019 IIT Madras

(C) 12 : 15 (D) 12 : 45 1.26 The sum and product of two integers are 26
2017 IIT Roorkee
and 165 respectively. The difference
between these two integers is [1 Mark]
1.21 What is the sum of the missing digits in the (A) 4 (B) 6
subtraction problem below? [2 Marks]
(C) 3 (D) 2

2 General Aptitude
1.27 If IMHO = JNIP, IDK = JEL and SO = TP (A) e (B) y
then IDC = ______. [1 Mark] (C) d (D) w
(A) JDE (B) JED 2022 IIT Kharagpur
(C) JCE (D) JEC
1.30 Which one of the following is a
2020 IIT Delhi representation (not to scale and in bold) of
all values of 𝑥 satisfying the inequality 2 −
1.28 The sum of the first n terms in the sequence
6x  5
8, 88, 888, 8888, ….. is _______. 5𝑥 ≤ − on the real number line?
3
[1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
81 n 9 x
(A) (10  1)  n (A) 0 (B)
80 8 x
81 n 9 0
(B) (10  1)  n x
80 8 (C) 0 (D)
x
80 n 8 0
(C) (10  1)  n
81 9 1.31 Consider the following functions for non-
80 8 zero positive integers, 𝑝 and 𝑞.
(D) (10n  1)  n
81 9 f  p, q   p  p  p  ... ... ... p  p q ; f  p,1  p
q terms
1.29 Find the missing element in the following
(up to q terms )
figure. [1 Mark] p

g  p, q   p p
pp
; g ( p,1)  p
Which one of the following options is correct
based on the above? [2 Marks]
(A) f(2,2) = g(2,2)
(B) fg(2,2), 2) < 𝑓(2, g(2,2))
(C) g(2,1) ≠ 𝑓(2,1)
(D) f(3,2) > g(3,2)

1.1 (C) where, n  number of terms

a  first term
Given : 44, 42, 40
l  last term
The given series is decreasing by 2. For the sum to
 22 
be maximum, the series should not include Sum  2   (1  22)   506
negative numbers. So, the series should be 2 
44, 42, 40, 38 2, 0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Sum  0  2  4 44
Sum  2(1  2  3 22)
Given series is an A.P. series. 1.2 (B)
Therefore, sum of the series is given by,
1 1 1
n
Sum  (a  l ) Let S    
2 1 2 2 3 3 4

General Aptitude 3
 1
......... 
80  81
   
2 1 3 2
S   
2  

2 
 2    3    In the given series consecutive difference doubles
2 2
 1   2 
    with each term.
  So,
81  80
......   
2 
 81   
2
 80 
 
S  2 1    3 2   .....  81  80  Hence, the next number in the series is 725.

S  81  1  9 1  8
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.5 (D)
The alphabets can be numbered as given below,
A B C D E F G H I
1.3 45
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Given : Series is
J K L M N O P Q R
2 3 6 15 x 157.5 630
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Let the missing number is ‘x’
S T U V W X Y Z
3 6 15 630
Here  1.5 ,  2,  2.5 , 4 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
2 3 6 157.5
x 157.5
Series : 1.5, 2, 2.5, , , 4 Notice the pattern of given options using the above
15 x
table.
The ratio of consecutive numbers is in AP where,
Common difference d = 0.5 Option (A) :
First term a  1.5
Then according to the given series,
x
 a  3d Option (B) :
15
x
 3  x  45
15
Hence, the missing number in the series is 45.
Option (C) :

1.4 725
The numbers 7, 5 and 3 represent the number of
Given : Series is 12 35 81 173 357 __
alphabets in between.

4 General Aptitude
Option (D) :
1.7 163
. Method 1 :
(i) For odd numbers :
Let 1st term  a0
Hence, the correct option is (D). Common difference, d  2
n 8
Sum of AP series,
n(n  1)
Sn  na0  d  656
1.6 (C) 2
8 7
The alphabets can be numbered as given below, Sn  8a0   2  656
2
A B C D E F G H I
a0  75
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(ii) For even numbers :
J K L M N O P Q R
Let 1st term  ae
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
S T U V W X Y Z Common difference, d  2
n4
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Sn
Average of n consecutive numbers   87
Notice the pattern of given options using the above n
table. 1 1 n (n  1) 
 Sn   n ae  d
Option (A) : n n 2 
(n  1)
87  ae  d
2
(4  1)
Option (B) : 87  ae  2
2
ae  84
Hence, the sequence is,
The numbers 5, 2 and 1 represent the number of
alphabets in between. 84, 86, 88, 90
Option (C) : The second largest number is 88.
Sum of smallest odd number and second largest
even number is,
 75  88  163
Hence, the sum of the following numbers is 163.
Option (D) : . Method 2 :
Let us consider eight consecutive odd numbers,
they are
Hence, the correct option is (C). a  6, a  4, a  2, a, a  2, a  4, a  6, a  8
Sum of eight consecutive odd numbers  656
a 6a 4 a 2 a a 2 a 4
a  6  a  8  656

General Aptitude 5
 8a  8  656 In option (C), P = F and F > M, so P > M therefor
a  1  82 it is incorrect.
a  81 In option (D), P = A and A < M therefore P < M is
Smallest odd number definitely true.
a  6  81  6  75 …(i)
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Again consider four consecutive even number,
b  2, b, b  2, b  4 1.10 (B)

Average of these numbers : Given : Sequence is,

b2bb2b4 7G, 11K, 13M, ___
 87
4 A B C D E F G H I
4b  4  87  4
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
b  1  87
J K L M N O P Q R
b  86
And second largest even number 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
b  2  86  2  88 …(ii) S T U V W X Y Z
Adding equations (i) and (ii), 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
75  88  163 Here, 7, 11, 13 are consecutive prime number.
Hence, the sum of the following numbers is 163. Thus next prime number will be 17.
1.8 16 and G is 7th alphabet, K is 11th alphabet and M is
Given : Series is 81, 54, 36, 24, ...... 13th alphabet.
Let 5th term is x. 7th, 11th and 13th are again consecutive prime
Then 81, 54, 36, 24, x number.
Therefore, So, the next alphabet will be 17th alphabet which
54 2 36 2 24 2 is Q.
 ,  , 
81 3 54 3 36 3 Thus the next term will be 17Q.
x 2
Hence,  Hence, the correct option is (B).
24 3
x  16
Hence, the next term in the series is 16.

1.11 495

Given : In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd

1.9 (D)
In option (A), P and M both are less than R but
there is no clear relation between P and M.
In option (B), P and M both are greater than is but
again there is no clear relation between P and M.
numbers, sum of the first 5 numbers is 425.
Let the sequence is :
a , a  2 , a  4 , a  6 ,….. a  22
. Method 1 :
Sum of first five odd numbers is,
425  a  (a  2)  (a  4)  (a  6)  (a  8)

6 General Aptitude
 425  5a  20 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
a  81
S T U V W X Y Z
Sum of last five odd numbers is given by,
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
 (a  14)  (a  16)  ( a  18)
Checking from the options, only option (C) has the
(a  20)  (a  22)
correct combination of number and alphabet.
 5a  90 Hence, the correct option is (C).
 (5  81)  90  495
Hence, the sum of the last 5 numbers in the
sequence is 495.
. Method 2 : 1.13 (B)
It is an AP series where, Overall there will be 5!  120 numbers
First term  a (let) Digit 1 will appear at unit, tenth, hundredth,
Common difference, d  2 thousandth and ten thousandth place 4! times each.
Thus Sum of first n terms is given by, So sum received due to all 1’s will be
n(n  1)d 4!  (1  10  100  1000  10000)
Sn  na 
2  4!  11111
Sum of 5 consecutive numbers, Similarly, sum received due to all 3’s
5 4 = 4!(3  30  300  3000  30, 000)
S5  5  a  2
2  4!  33333
According to question,
Similarly, sum received due to all 5’s
425  5a  20
= 4!(5  50  500  5000  50, 000)
a  81
 4!  55555
Sum of 12 consecutive numbers is,
Similarly, sum received due to all 7’s
12 11
S12  12a   2  1104 = 4!(7  70  700  7000  70, 000)
2
Sum of first 7 consecutive numbers is,  4!  77777
76 Similarly, sum received due to all 9’s
S7  7 a   2  609
2 = 4!(9  90  900  9000  90, 000)
So, the sum of last 5 terms is given by,  4!  99999
 S12  S7  1104  609  495 So, overall sum received due to all digits
Hence, the sum of the last 5 numbers in the  4!11111 (1  3  5  7  9)
sequence is 495.  4!11111 25  6666600
1.12 (C) Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : Sequence is
13 M , 17 Q , 19 S , ____
A B C D E F G H I 1.14 (C)
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 In the alphabetical sequence, the missing word is
J K L M N O P Q R as follows

General Aptitude 7
 y x  x y is false
(iv) cos x  cos y
cos3  0.998
cos 2  0.999
Therefore, the missing word in the sequence is
‘MNOP’. cos x  cos y is false.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.15 (B) 1.17 (C)

Given : a 2  b 2  c 2  1 Let x  log tan10  log tan 20   log tan890

Since, (a  b  c) 2  a 2  b 2  c 2 x  log(tan10  tan 20  tan890 )
 2(ab  bc  ca ) {Since, log m  log n  log(mn)

(a  b  c) 2  ( a 2  b 2  c 2 ) and tan(900  )  cot 

ab  bc  ca 
2 8 tan 890  tan(900  10 ) }
For minimum value of ab  bc  ca , x  log(tan10  tan 20  tan 450
Put a  b  c  0
 cot 450  cot 20  cot10 )
1
Minimum (ab  bc  ca)   1 
2 cot   tan   tan  cot   1
(Since, a 2  b 2  c 2  1 ) x  log(111.....  1)  log(1)  0
1
Only option (B) has minimum value as . Hence, the correct option is (C).
2
1.18 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1 1 1
1.16 (A) Given : q  a  , r b  , s  c  ,
r s q
Given : x  y  1 q a  r , r b  s, s c  q
For x  y  1 , ln x  ln y and also e x  e y Taking log on both sides,
Since e x and ln x are monotonically increasing log q a  log r , log r b  log s,
function. log s c  log q
Example : log r
a  log q  log r  a 
Assume x  3 , y  2 log q
(i) ln x  ln y log s
b  log r  log s  b 
ln 3  1.0986 , ln 2  0.693 log r
ln x  ln y is true c  log s  log q  c 
log q
log s
(ii) ex  e y
log r log s log q
e3  20.08 , e 2  7.38 So, abc    1
log q log r log s
e x  e y is true Hence, the correct option is (C).
(iii) y  x
x y

(2)3  8 , (3)2  9

8 General Aptitude
 1.19 (C) S  10
Since, the sum can either be 8 or 10, therefore it
Given :
can not be determined.
(9 inches)1/2 = (0.25 yards)1/2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Squaring both sides,
1.22 (D)
9 inches = 0.25 yards.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Given :
1.20 (D)
(i) a and b are integers.
(ii) a  b is even.
The following diagram, shows the clock when its
Let a  5 and b  3 where both are integers and
reflection seemed like 1 : 30, two and a quarter
their difference is even.
hours (2 hr. and 15 min) back.
From option (A) :
ab  15 [not even,
incorrect]
From option (B) :
a 2  b 2  1  25  9  1  35
[not even, incorrect]
From option (C) :
a 2  b  1  25  3  1  29
[not even, incorrect]
From option (D) :
Mirror image of 1 : 30 is 10 : 30 ab  b  15  3  12 [even]
So, the actual current time shown by the clock will Hence, the correct option is (D).
be,
(10 : 30) + (2 : 15) = 12 : 45
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.23 (D)
1.21 (D)
Given : Given :
(i) a and b are integer.
(ii) a  a 2b3 is odd
So, a(1  ab3 ) is also odd.
Case (i) :
. Method 1 :
Since, multiplication of odd and odd number is
odd.
Sum of missing digits  0  0  0  0  8 Therefore, a and (1  ab3 ) will be odd. If 1  ab3 is
S 8
odd, then ab3 will be even.
Case (ii) :
Since, a is odd, so ab3 to be even, b must be even.
Therefore, a is odd and b is even.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Sum of missing digits  0  1  0  0  9

General Aptitude 9
 . Method 2 : So, next term will be TUVWX.
Checking from the options : Hence, the correct option is (B).
a  a 2b3 1.26 (A)
Options a b
(Odd) Given : x  y  26 …(i)
Option x  y  165
1(odd) 3(odd) 28(incorrect)
(A)
165
Option y
2(even) 4(even) 258(incorrect) x
(B)
Putting the value of y in equation (i),
Option
2(even) 1(odd) 6(incorrect) 165
(C) x  26
x
Option
(D)
1(odd) 2(even) 9(correct) x2  165  26 x
x 2  26 x  165  0
Hence, the correct option is (D). x2  15 x  11x  165  0
x  15, 11
Taking positive value x  15 .
165
1.24 (B) y  11
15
Given : So, x  y  4
(i) Sum of a two-digit number is 9. The difference between x and y is 4.
(ii) When the number is subtracted by 45, the Hence, the correct option is (A).
digits of the number are interchanged.
1.27 (B)
Let the two digit number be xy.
Then x  y  9 …(i) Given :
and (10 x  y )  45  10 y  x
x y 5 …(ii)
Hence,
From equation (i) and (ii),
x  7, y  2
So, the number is 72
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.28 (D)

Given : Sn  8  88  888  ......  n

Sn  8(1  11  111  ......)
1.25 (B)
8
Sn  (9  99  999  ......)
Given : Series is BC, FGH, LMNO,………. 9
It is clear from the given series that each term has 8
Sn  [(10  1)  (100  1)  (1000  1)  ......]
one more alphabet previous each term. Also, gap 9
between each term increases by one alphabet as 8
well. Sn  [(10  100  1000  ......)  n]
9
BC, DE, FGH, IJK, LMNO, PQRS

10 General Aptitude
 8 1.31 (A)
Sn  [(101  102  103  ......)  n]
9
Given:
8  10(10n  1)    a (r n  1)  f ( p, q)  p q ; f ( p,1)  p
S n   
   n
n S  
9  10  1    r 1  (up to q terms )
p

g  p, q   p p
pp
80 n 8 ; g ( p,1)  p
 Sn  (10  1)  n
81 9 (A) f (2, 2)  22  4
Hence, the correct option is (D).
g (2,2)  22  4
1.29 (C)
f (2, 2)  g (2, 2)
Codes :  option (A) is correct
1-a (B) f (4, 2)  f (2, 4)
2-b
42  24
3-c
 option (B) is wrong
- (C) g (2,1)  2; f (2,1)  2
26 - z  option (C) is wrong
(D) f (3,2)  32  9
g (3,2)  33  27
 option (D) is wrong
Hence, the correct option is (A).



Here, 4 is denoted as d.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
1.30 (C)
6x  5
2  5x  
3
 3  2  5x     6 x  5
 6 15x  6x  5
 1  9x
1
x
9
Hence, the correct option is (C).

General Aptitude 11
2 Average, Percentage & Ratio

2014 IIT Kharagpur percentage increase in actual Fiscal deficit is

[2 Marks]
2.1 Industrial consumption of power doubled
(A) 37.50 (B) 35.70
from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the
annual rate of increase in percent, assuming C) 25 (D) 10
it to be uniform over the years. [2 Marks] 2020 IIT Delhi
(A) 5.6 (B) 7.2 2.6 There are five levels {P, Q, R, S, T} in a
(C) 10.0 (D)12.2 linear supply chain before a product reaches
2015 IIT Kanpur customers, as shown in the figure.

2.2 From a circular sheet of paper of radius 30

cm, a sector of 10% area is removed. If the At each of the five levels, the price of the
remaining part is used to make a conical product is increased by 25%. If the product
surface, then the ratio of the radius and is produced at level P at the cost of Rs.120
height of the cone is ______. [2 Marks] per unit, what is the price paid (in rupees) by
the customers? [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
(A) 187.50 (B) 366.21
2.3 The product of three integers X, Y and Z is (C) 234.38 (D) 292.96
192. If Z is equal to 4 and P is equal to
average of X and Y. What is the minimum 2021 IIT Bombay
possible value of P? [1 Mark] 2.7 The number of hens, ducks and goats in farm
(A) 7 (B) 9.5 P are 65, 91 and 169, respectively. The total
(C) 6 (D) 8 number of hens, ducks and goats in a nearby
2.4 A person divided an amount of Rs. 100,000 farm Q is 416. The ratio of hens:ducks:goats
into two parts and invested in two different in farm Q is 5:14:13. All the hens, ducks and
schemes. In one he got 10% profit and in the goats are sent from farm Q to farm P.
other he got 12%. If the profit percentages The new ratio of hens:ducks:goats in farm P
are interchanged with these investments he is ________. [2 Marks]
would have got Rs. 120 less. Find the ratio (A) 5:14:13 (B) 10:21:26
between his investments in the two schemes. (C) 5:7:13 (D) 21:10:26
[2 Marks] 2.8
(A) 11 : 14 (B) 47 : 53
(C) 37 : 63 (D) 9 : 16
2.5 Fiscal deficit was 4% of GDP in 2015 and
that increased to 5% in 2016. If the GDP
increased by 10% from 2015 to 2016. The

General Aptitude 1
 The ratio of the area of the inscribed circle to (C) (3 3) : 4 : 2  (D) (3 3) : 2 : 2 
the area of the circumscribed circle of an
equilateral triangle is _______. [1 Mark]
(A) 1/6 (B) 1/8
2.12 If (𝑥) = 2ln  e  , what is the area bounded
x

by 𝑓(𝑥) for the interval [0, 2] on the 𝑥-axis?

(C) 1/2 (D) 1/4
[1 Mark]
2022 IIT Kharagpur 1
(A) (B) 1
2.9 The average of the monthly salaries of M, N 2
and S is Rs. 4000. The average of the (C) 2 (D) 4
monthly salaries of N, S and P is Rs. 5000. 2.13 For the past 𝑚 days, the average daily
The monthly salary of P is Rs. 6000. production at a company was 100 units per
What is the monthly salary of M as a day.
percentage of the monthly salary of P? If today’s production of 180 units changes
[1 Mark] the average to 110 units per day, what is the
(A) 50% (B) 75% value of 𝑚? [2 Marks]
(A) 18 (B) 10
(C) 100% (D) 125%
(C) 7 (D) 5
2.10 A person travelled 80 km in 6 hours. If the
2.14 Equal sized circular regions are shaded in a
person travelled the first part with a uniform
square sheet of paper of 1 cm side length.
speed of 10 kmph and the remaining part
Two cases, case M and case N, are
with a uniform speed of 18 kmph.
considered as shown in the figures below. In
What percentage of the total distance is the case M, four circles are shaded in the
travelled at a uniform speed of 10 kmph? square sheet and in the case N, nine circles
[1 Mark] are shaded in the square sheet as shown.
(A) 28.25 (B) 37.25 What is the ratio of the areas of unshaded
(C) 43.75 (D) 50.00 regions of case M to that of case N?
2.11 An equilateral triangle, a square and a circle [2 Marks]
have equal areas.
What is the ratio of the perimeters of the
equilateral triangle to square to circle?
[2 Marks]
Case M Case N
(A) 3 3 : 2 :  (B) (3 3) : 2 :  (A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 1
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 1

n
2.1 (B)  r 
A  P 1 
Given :  100 
10
The industrial consumption of power doubled  r 
2 P  P 1 
from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011.  100 
Thus, let n  10 year, A  2P 10
 r 
2  1 
 100 
The relation between amount, principal, rate and
numbers of years is,
2 General Aptitude
 r  7.2% 2
h 
Hence, the correct option is (B). r
1
2
1   1   0.9r 2
 r1 
2
h 
(0.9r ) 2
1   1   0.9r 2
 r1 
2.2 2.065
2
Radius of sheet of paper r  30 cm h  1
1  1  
If a sector of 10% area is removed  r1  0.9
2
h   1 
2

1  1    
 r1   0.9 
2
 h1   1 
2

     1  0.2345
 r1   0.9 
The area of remaining 90% paper, h1
 0.4842
A  0.9  r 2  0.9 (30)2 cm2 …(i) r1
The perimeter of remaining 90% paper, r1
 2.065
P  0.9  2r  1.8 30 cm …(ii) h1
When it is made into a conical surface by Hence, the ratio of radius and height of cone is
connecting points P and Q. 2.065.
Let, the radius and height of cone are r1 and h1 2.3 (A)
respectively. P is the average of X and Y,
192  26  3
Since, Z  4 the factorization is reduced to 2 4  3
192  23  (2  3)  8  6
Here, X  8 and Y  6 . Which is minimum value.
According to question,
X Y 8 6
P  7
2 2
The perimeter of base (circle of radius r1 )
Hence, the minimum possible value of P is 7.
 2r1  P [From equation (ii)]
2.4 (B)
Let, the first amount  Rs. x and second amount
2r1  1.8r
 Rs. (100000  x)
r1  0.9r  0.9  30  27cm According to first given condition of question,
Curved surface area of the cone, (100000  x) 12%  x 10%  12000  0.02 x
A1  r1 l1  r1 r12  h12  A …(i)
According to second given condition of question,
[From equation (i)]
(100000  x) 10%  x 12%  10000  0.02 x
…(ii)
r1 r12  h12  0.9r 2

General Aptitude 3
 Now, as per the question the difference of equation 2.7 (B)
(i) and (ii) will give the profit of Rs. 120.
Given :
So, (12000  0.02 x)  (10000  0.02)  120
Farm P :
2000  0.04 x  120
H p  65, Dp  91 and G p  169
2000  120
x  Rs.47000 Farm Q :
0.04
So, the required ratio H Q  DQ  GQ  416 …(i)
x 47000 47 H Q : DQ : GQ  5 :14 :13
  
100000  x 100000  47000 53 From equation (i),
Hence, the correct option is (B). 5x  14x  13x  416
2.5 (A) 32x  416
416
Let as assume GDP is Rs.100 in year 2015 and x  13
making a table, 32
Year GDP FD H Q  5 x  5 13  65
2015 100 4% DQ  14 x  14 13  182
2016 110 5%
GQ  13x  13 13  169
It is given that, GDP increased by 10% from 2015
to 2016. According to question,
Now percentage increase in fiscal deficit. ( H p  H Q ) : ( Dp  DQ ) : (G p  GQ )
Percent change (65  65) : (91  182) : (169  169)
F.V.  I.V. 130 : 273 : (2 169)
 100
I.V. 10 : 21: 26
110  5%  100  4%
 100 Hence, the correct option is (B).
100  4%
2.8 (D)
5.5  4
Percent change  100  37.50 %.
4
Hence, the correct option is (A).

1
h  3a r h
2.6 (B) 3
2 r 1
Initial cost of the product = Rs. 120 /unit R h 
3 R 2
After every stage price is increasing by 25% or
(Perimeter) small 2r r 1
1.25 and there is total 5 stage including customer   
(Perimeter)big 2R R 2
stage.
(Area) small r 2  r   1  1
2 2
 The price paid by the customer      
(Area)big R 2  R   2  4
 (1.25)5 120 = Rs. 366.21
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B).

4 General Aptitude
 2.9 (A) Percentage of the total distance is travelled at a
uniform speed of 10 kmph
Given :
35
Average salary of M,N,S = Rs. 4000  100  43.75%
80
Average salary of N,S,P = Rs 5000
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Monthly salary of P = Rs. 6000
2.11 (B)
M N S
 4000 Let, equilateral ∆ of side a
3
N SP square of side b
 5000
3 radius of circle = r
M  N  S  12000 3a 2
 b 2  r 2
N  S  P  15000 4
Monthly salary of P  6000  3
b a
N  S  6000  15000  2 
 
N  S  9000
 3 1
M  9000  12000 r   a
  2
M  3000  
Percentage salary of M with respect to Ratio of perimeters, 3a : 4b : 2r
3000
 100%  50% 4 3a 3 1
6000 3a : : 2  a
2  2
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3: 2 3: 3
2.10 (C)

Given : 3 3 : 2 3 : 3
Total distance covered by a person = 80 km 3 3
 :2:  3 3 :2: 
Total time taken by that person = 6 hours 2
Speed of first part of journey = 10 kmph Hence, the correct option is (B).
Speed of second part of journey = 18 kmph
2.12 (C)
Assume, time taken for 1st part = t hrs
Given :
Time taken for 2nd part = (6-t) hrs
Distance = Speed  Time Function, f ( x)  2ln ( e x )
80  10t  18(6  t ) Area bounded by f ( x) for the interval  0, 2  on

80  10t  108  8t the x-axis,

x b
28  8t Area   f ( x) dx
t  3.5 hrs x a
2
Distance travelled with speed 10 kmph   2 ln ( e x ) dx
10  3.5  35 km 0

General Aptitude 5
 2
π
 2  ln ( e x ) dx Area  cm2
0
16
2
So, Area of unshaded region  Area of square
 2  ln (e x )1/2 dx sheet – Area of 4 shaded circular region.
0  Area of unshaded region
2
1  
 2  ln (e x ) dx  1  4   cm 2
0
2  16 
2  22 
1  1   cm 2
2 0
 2 x dx
 28 
6
2
 x2   4   cm2
      0 28
 2 0  2  Case N :
2
Therefore, area will be 2.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.13 (C)

Average production =
all production till to day
=100
m 1 cm
1 1
According today, average production = diameter  and radius 
all production till today + 180 3 6
m+1  Area of unshaded region of case N = Area of
100m  180 square sheet – Area of shaded circular region.
 100  
m 1 
 1  9   cm 2
 110m  110  100m  180  36 
 10m : 70  22 
 1   cm 2
 m=7  28 
Hence, the correct option is (C). 6
 cm2
2.14 (B) 28
 The ratio of the areas of unshaded region of case
Case M :
M to that of case N
6 6
cm2 : cm2
1 cm 28 28
 1:1
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1 cm 

1 
Diameter of a shaded circle  cm
2
1
 Radius of shaded circle  cm
4

6 General Aptitude
3 Mixture Alligation & Direction

2014 IIT Kharagpur (A) 18.60 (B) 22.50

(C) 20.61 (D) 25.00
3.1 It takes 30 minutes to empty a half-full tank
by draining it at a constant rate. It is decided 2021 IIT Bombay
to simultaneously pump water into the half-
3.3 Ms. X came out of a building through its
full tank while draining it. What is the rate at front door to find her shadow due to the
which water has to be pumped in so that it morning sun falling to her right side with the
gets fully filled in 10 minutes? [2 Marks] building to her back. From this, it can be
inferred that building is facing_____.
(A) 4 times the draining rate.
[1 Mark]
(B) 3 times the draining rate. (A) North (B) East
(C) 2.5 times the draining rate. (C) West (D) South
(D) 2 times the draining rate. 3.4 The front door of Mr. X’s house faces East.
Mr. X leaves the house, walking 50 m
2016 IISc Bangalore
straight from the back door that is situated
directly opposite to the front door. He then
3.2 M and N start from the same location. M
turns to his right, walks for another 50 m and
travels 10 km East and then 10 km North- stops. The direction of the point Mr. X is
East. N travels 5 km South and then 4 km now located at with respect to the starting
South-East. What is the shortest distance (in point is _________. [1 Mark]
(A) North West (B) North East
km) between M and N at the end of their
(C) South East (D) West
travel? [2 Marks]

3.1 (A) C
The half-full tank, i.e. to fill remaining
2
Let the capacity of tank  C litres
Time taken  10 mins
C
Time taken to empty half full tank i.e. litres C/2
2  x y
 30 mins 10
From equation (i),
So draining rate,
C 1
C/2 C x y    60 y
y  litres/min …(i) 20 20
30 60
x  4y
Let the filling rate  x litres/ min
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Net rate of filling (when simultaneously filling and
draining)  x  y (let x  y )

General Aptitude 1
 3.2 (C) 3.3 (D)

According to the given question, the following North

diagram shows the travelled path. Building

Front
West Sun East
Shadow
R L

South

Hence, the correct option is (D).

3.4 (A)

North

x
sin 450  50 m
10
H
x  10 sin 450  5 2 50 m o
West Back u Front East
s
x 5 2 e
tan 450  
y y S.P.
y5 2 South
Similarly, Hence, the correct option is (A).
a 
sin 450  
4
a2 2
a
tan 450 
b
b2 2
MM '  5 2  5  2 2
MM '  5  7 2
NM '  10  5 2  2 2
NM '  10  3 2
By Pythagoras theorem,

MN  ( MM ') 2  ( NM ') 2

MN  (5  7 2) 2  (10  3 2) 2
MN  20.61
Hence, the correct option is (C).

2 General Aptitude
4 Permutation & Combination

2015 IIT Kanpur likely to be chosen then the probability that

at least one women will be selected is
4.1 Five teams have to compete in a league, with _______ (round off to 2 decimal places).
every team playing every other team exactly
[1 Mark]
once, before going to the next round. How
many matches will have to be held to 2021 IIT Bombay
complete the league round of matches? 4.4 Five persons P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a
[1 Mark] row not necessarily in the same order. Q and
(A) 20 (B) 10 R are separated by one person, and S should
(C) 8 (D) 5 not be seated adjacent to Q.
2017 IIT Roorkee The number of distinct seating
arrangements possible is : [1 Mark]
4.2 There are 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men V, (A) 10 (B) 8
W, X, Y, Z in a group. We are required to
(C) 4 (D) 16
form pairs each consisting of one woman and
4.5 Five person P, Q, R, S and T are to be seated
one man P is not to be paired with Z and Y
in a row, all facing the same direction, but
must necessarily be paired with someone. In
not necessarily in the same order. P and T
how many ways can 4 such pairs be formed?
cannot be seated at either end of the row. P
[2 Marks]
should not be seated adjacent to S. R is to be
(A) 74 (B) 76
seated at the second position from the left
(C) 78 (D) 80 end of the row. The number of distinct
2020 IIT Delhi seating arrangements possible is : [2 Marks]
(A) 2 (B) 4
4.3 A company is hiring to fill four managerial
(C) 3 (D) 5
vacancies. The candidates are five men and
three women. If every candidate is equally

4.1 (B) (4, 5)

Given : Total number of teams = 5 OR

Every team will play with every other team exactly Selection of two teams for a match in total of five
once before going to the next round. teams  5C2  10 .
Therefore, the total number of combinations of There are total 10 combinations.
two teams for a match is given by, Hence, the correct option is (B).
(1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4) (1, 5)
(2, 3) (2, 4) (2, 5)
(3, 4) (3, 5)

General Aptitude 1
 4.2 (C)
Q S


+
Given : Step 2 : Possibilities of seating arrangements.
(i) 4 women P, Q, R, S and 5 men V, W, X, Y, Z Case 1 : Q P R S T
are in a group. Q T R S P
(ii) A pair should consist one man and one Q P R T S
woman but P should not be paired with Z and Y Q T R P S
must be paired with someone. Case 2 : P Q T R S
Total pairs that can be formed without any T Q P R S
conditions is given by, Case 3 : S P Q T R
T1  5  4  3  2  120 S T Q P R
Number of pairs which consist of pair between P Case 4 : R P Q T S
and Z is given by, R T Q P S
T2  4  3  2  24 Case 5 : S R P Q T
Number of pairs which do not consist Y is given S R T Q P
by, Case 6 : P S R T Q
T3  4  3  2 1  24 T S R P Q
S P R T Q
Number of pairs common between T2 and T3 is
S T R P Q
given by,
Hence, the correct option is (D).
T4  3  2 1  6
4.5 (C)
Therefore, required number of ways to form
conditional pairs, is given by, Step (1) : Make proper drafting of given
information,
T  T1  (T2  T3  T4 )
1. P and T  end 
T  120  (24  24  6) P S
T  78 2.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3. Left end 
2nd
R
4.3 0.93 Step (2) : Make possibilities according to drafting,
Probability of selecting at least one women Q R P T S
3
C1  C3  C2  C2  C3  C1
5 3 5 3 5
S R P T Q
 8
C4 Q R T P S
3 10  3 10  5
  0.9285  0.93 Hence, the correct option is (C).
8 7  6 5 
4  3 2 
Hence, the probability that at least one women will
be selected is 0.93.
4.4 (D)
Step 1 : Make proper drafting of given
information
 Q 1 R

2 General Aptitude
5 Probability & Statistics

2013 IIT Bombay defective. A batch typically has five

defective bulbs. The probability that the
5.1 Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and current batch is accepted is ______.
100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at [2 Marks]
random. What is probability that the selected 2015 IIT Kanpur
number is not divisible by 7? [2 Marks] 5.5 Ram and Ramesh appeared in an interview
13 12 for two vacancies in the same department.
(A) (B)
90 90 The probability of Ram’s selection is 1/6 and
78 77 that of Ramesh is 1/8. What is the probability
(C) (D) that only one of them will be selected?
90 90
[1 Mark]
2014 IIT Kharagpur
(A) 47/48 (B) 1/4
5.2 You are given three coins : one has heads on (C) 13/48 (D) 35/48
both faces, the second has tails on both faces, 5.6 A coin tossed thrice. Let X be the event that
and the third has a head on one face and a tail head occurs in each of the first two tosses.
on the other. You choose a coin at random Let Y be the event that a tail occurs on the
and toss it, and it comes up heads. The third toss. Let Z be the event that two tails
probability that the other face is tails is occurs in three tosses. Based on the above
[2 Marks] information, which one of the following
1 1 statements is TRUE? [2 Marks]
(A) (B)
4 3 (A) X and Y are not independent
1 2 (B) Y and Z are dependent
(C) (D)
2 3 (C) Y and Z are independent
5.2 A regular die has six sides with numbers 1 to (D) X and Z are independent
6 marked on its sides. If a very large number 2016 IISc Bangalore
of throws show the following frequencies of
5.7 A person moving through a tuberculosis
occurrence :
prone zone has a 50% probability of
1  0.167; 2  0.167; 3  0.152; becoming infected. However, only 30% of
4  0.166; 5  0.168; 6  0.180. infected people develop the disease. What
percentage of people moving through a
We call this die [1 Mark]
tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but
(A) irregular (B) biased does not show symptoms of disease?
(C) Gaussian (D) insufficient [2 Marks]
5.4 A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected by (A) 15 (B) 33
testing four randomly chosen bulbs. The (C) 35 (D) 37
batch is rejected if even one of the bulbs is

General Aptitude 1
 5.8 Students taking an exam are divided into two 2018 IIT Guwahati
groups. P and Q such that each group has the
5.10 An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row
same number of students. The performance
and four different such trials are conducted.
of each of the students in a test was evaluated
One trial implies six tosses of the coin. If H
out of 200 marks. It was observed that the
stands for head and T stands for tail, the
mean of group P was 105, while that of
following are the observations from the four
group Q was 85. The standard deviation of
trials :
group P was 25, while that of group Q was
(1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT
5. Assuming that the marks were distributed
(3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT_ _
on a normal distribution, which of the
Which statement describing the last two coin
following statements will have the highest
tosses of the fourth trial has the higher
probability of being TRUE? [2 Marks]
probability of being correct? [1 Mark]
(A) No student in group Q scored less marks
(A) Two T will occur
than any student in group P.
(B) One H and one T will occur
(B) No student in group P scored less marks
(C) Two H will occur
than any student in group Q.
(D) One H will be followed by one T
(C) Most students of group Q scored marks
in a narrower range than students in 2021 IIT Bombay
group P. 5.11 A box contains 15 blue balls and 45 black
(D) The median of the marks of group P is balls. If 2 balls are selected randomly,
100. without replacement, the probability of an
2017 IIT Roorkee outcome in which the first selected is a blue
ball and the second selected is a black ball,
5.9 A couple has 2 children. The probability that
is _________. [2 Marks]
both children are boys if the older is a boy is
[1 Mark] (A) 3/16 (B) 45/236
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/3 (C) 3/4 (D) 1/4
(C) 1/2 (D) 1

5.1 (D) So, 90 13  77

Therefore, probability that selected number is not
Two digit numbers divisible by 7 are,
divisivle by 7 is,
14, 21, ......98 .
77
This is a A.P. series. So, P( E ) 
90
Tn  a  (n  1)d Hence, the correct option is (D).
98  14  ( n  1)7
84
 (n  1)
7
n  13 5.2 (B)
There are 13 two digit numbers which are divisible There are three coins. One coin is selected at
by 7 and between 1 to 100, there are 90 two digit random and tossed.
numbers. The result of toss is head.

2 General Aptitude
So, the coin is possibly one of the following two The probability that bulb is not defective,
coins. p  1  q  0.95
Coin 1 : Head on both sides.
Number of trials n  4
Coin 2 : A head and a tail.
The total possibilities for the other side of selected One bulb is defective thus r  1
coin are : Using binomial theorem :
{head, head, tail} P ( r )  n Cr p r q n  r
Therefore, n( S )  3 P(0)  4C0 (0.05)0  (0.95)40  0.8145
Let A represent the event of occurrence of tail on Hence, the probability that the batch is accepted is
other side of selected coin. 0.82.
n( A)  1
Required probability is given by,
n( A) 1
P( A)  
n( S ) 3 5.5 (B)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
The probability that Ram is selected,
5.3 (B) 1
A
For a very large number of throws, the frequency 6
should be same for unbiased throws and if not and the probability that Ram is not selected,
same then the dice is biased. 1 5
Hence, the correct option is (B). A  1 A  1 
6 6
5.4 0.82 Similarly, the probabilities of Ramesh’s selection
. Method 1 : and rejection,
Probability of bulb being defective 1 1 7
B B  (1  B)  1  
5 8, 8 8
  0.05
100 The probability that only one of them get selected
Probability for bulb being non-defective is given by,

95
 0.95 P  A B  A  B
100 1 7 5 1 1
Probability that the batch is accepted P    
6 8 6 8 4
 None of the four bulb being defective Hence, the correct option is (B).
  0.95  0.8145
4

Hence, the probability that the batch is accepted is

0.82.
. Method 2 : 5.6 (B)

Total number of bulbs  100 Given : A coin is tossed three times.

Event X consists of occurrence of head in the first
Number of defective bulbs  5
two tosses.
So, the probability that a randomly selected bulb
Event Y consists of occurrence of tail in the third
is defective,
toss.
5
q  0.05
100
General Aptitude 3
 Event Z consists of occurrence of two tails in three 70 50 35
    35%
tosses. 100 100 100
Two events are said to be dependent if occurrence Hence, the correct option is (C).
of one event gives information about the 5.8 (C)
occurrence of another events. Given : Mean of P  105 , standard deviation of
If two heads occur in the first two tosses (event X) P  25
Mean of Q  85 , standard deviation of Q  5
then it remove the possibility of occurrence of
event Z. Maximum marks of group
Therefore, events X and Z are dependent. P    3  180
Hence, option (D) is incorrect. Minimum marks of group
Event Y states that a tail occurs in third toss but P    3  30
does not comment about first and second toss. Range = 180 – 30 = 150
Therefore, outcome of first and second toss can be
any combination of head and tail which will
include,
(i) Occurrence of two heads which means event
Y gives some information about event X.
Therefore, events X and Y are dependent.
Hence, option (A) is incorrect.
(ii) Occurrence of one head and one tail i.e. a
Similarly for ‘Q’,
total of two tails in three tosses which means
event Y gives some information about event Maximum marks    3  85  15  100
Z. Minimum marks    3  85  15  70
Therefore, event Y and Z are dependent. Range = 100 – 70 = 30
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.7 (C)
Given :
Probability of becoming infected = 50%
Probability of infected people developed the
disease = 30%
According to the question, following information
can is obtained.
From above figures, it is clear that most students
of group Q scored marks in a narrower range than
students in group P.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.9 (C)

Given : Couple has 2 children.

If older kid is a boy then younger kid can be either
Therefore, percentage of people moving through a
tuberculosis prone zone remains infected but does girl or boy with equal probability.
not show symptoms of disease

4 General Aptitude
So, if one kid is a boy, the probability that other 1

1 2

kid will be a boy 2 Therefore, it is clear that last two coin tosses of the
Hence, the correct option is (C). fourth trial that has higher probability of being
correct is one head and one tail.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.11 (B)
5.10 (B)
Given : Blue ball = 15, black ball = 45
Given : Total ball = 60
(i) Four trials are performed. Probability that the outcome in which the first
(ii) Each trial consist of six tosses. selected is a blue ball and the second selected is a
(iii) Output of all the trials are as shown below, black ball
15 45 45
HT HT HT   
TT H H HT 60 59 236
Hence, the correct option is (B).
HTT H HT

H H H T 

Output of last two coin tosses can be as shown
below,
(i) HT

(ii) TH

(iii) H H
(iv) T T
From option (A) : Two T will occur.
1 1 1
 P (T , T )   
Probability 2 2 4
From option (C) : Two H will occur.
1 1 1
 P (H , H )   
Probability 2 2 4
From option (D) : One H will be followed by one
T
1 1 1
 P (H ,T )   
Probability 2 2 4
From option (B) : One H and one T will occur.
Probability  P ( H , T )  P (T , H )
1 1 1 1
   
2 2 2 2

General Aptitude 5
6 Time, Speed & Distance

2013 IIT Bombay (A) 3.00 (B) 4.99

(C) 6.02 (D) 7.01
6.1 A tourist covers half of his journey by train
2018 IIT Guwahati
at 60 km / h , half of the remainder by bus at
30 km / h and the rest by cycle at 10 km / h . 6.6 From the time the front of a trains enters a
The average speed of the tourist in km / h platform, it takes 25 sec for the back of the
during his entire journey is [2 Marks] train to leave the platform, while train
(A) 36 (B) 30 travelling at a constant speed of 54 km/h. At
(C) 24 (D) 18 the same speed, it takes 14 sec to pass a man
running at 9 km/h in the same direction as
2014 IIT Kharagpur
the train. What is the length of the train and
6.2 A train that is 280 meters long, travelling at that of the platform in meters respectively?
a uniform speed, crosses a platform in 60 [2 Marks]
seconds and passes a man standing on the (A) 210 and 140
platform in 20 seconds. What is the length of (B) 162.5 and 187.5
the platform in meters? [2 Marks] (C) 245 and 130
6.3 A man can row at 8 km per hour in still (D) 175 and 200
water. If it takes him thrice as long to row
2021 IIT Bombay
upstream, as to row downstream, then find
the stream velocity in km per hour. 6.7 A digital watch X beeps every 30 seconds
[2 Marks] while watch Y beeps every 32 seconds. They
2015 IIT Kanpur
beeped together at 10 AM. The immediate
next time that they will beep together is
6.4 A tiger is 50 leaps of its own behind a deer. _________. [2 Marks]
The tiger takes 5 leaps per minute to the deer
(A) 10.42 AM (B) 11.00 AM
is 4. If the tiger and the deer cover 8 metre
(C) 10.00 PM (D) 10.08 AM
and 5 metre per leap respectively, what
distance in metres will the tiger have to run 2022 IIT Kharagpur
before it catches the deer? 6.8 In a 12-hour clock that runs correctly, how
[2 Marks] many times do the second, minute, and hour
2016 IISc Bangalore hands of the clock coincide, in a 12-hour
6.5 Michael lives 10 km away from where I live. duration from 3 PM in a day to 3 AM the
Ahmed lives 5 km away and Susan lives 7 next day? [2 Marks]
km away from where I live. Arun is farther (A) 11 (B) 12
away than Ahmed but closer than Susan (C) 144 (D) 2
from where I live. From the information
6.9 Four cities P, Q, R and S are connected
provided here, what is one possible distance
through one-way routes as shown in the
(in km) at which I live from Arun's place?
figure. The travel time between any two
[1 Mark]

General Aptitude 1
 connected cities is one hour. The boxes 8 AM
Q 5 AM
P
beside each city name describe the starting 90 120
min min
time of first train of the day and their
frequency of operation. For example, from
city P, the first trains of the day start at 8 AM
with a frequency of 90 minutes to each of R
and S. A person does not spend additional
7 AM R S 8 AM
time at any city other than the waiting time
for the next connecting train. 60 min 45 min

If the person starts from R at 7 AM and is (A) 6 hours 30 minutes

required to visit S and return to R, what is the (B) 3 hours 45 minutes
minimum time required? [2 Marks] (C) 4 hours 30 minutes
(D) 5 hours 15 minutes

6.1 (C) Distance = Speed  Time

(280  L)  ST  60 …(i)
Let ‘l’ be the total distance.
While passing a man, a train covers only the length
Average speed,
of its own.
Total distance covered
Savg  Distance  280 m
Total time
With a speed of ST m/sec , it takes 20 sec.
l 1
Savg  
l/2 l/4 l/4 1 1 1 280  ST  20 …(ii)
   
60 30 10 120 120 40 Solving equation (i) and (ii),
Savg 
120 280  L 60

5 280 20
Savg  24 km/h L   280  3  280  560 m
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, length of platform is 560 m.
. Method 2 :
Let the speed of train  v
Length of platform  l
6.2 560
Length of train  L  280 m
Given : Length of train  280 (m) To cross a man standing on the platform, the train
Consider length of platform  L (m) has to travel a distance equal to its length.
So, according to question,
. Method 1 :
L
While passing a platform, a train covers the length  20sec
v
of its own and the length of platform.
280
Distance  (280  L)m  20
v
And it takes 60 sec. to cross it with speed of
v  14 m/s
ST m/sec .

2 General Aptitude
To cross the platform it has to travel a distance vT  5  8  40 m/minute
equal to the sum of the length of train & length of
vD  4  5  20 m/minute
platform,
Ll Now relative distance of 400 m have to be covered
 60 with (40  20)  20 m/min
v
280  l Required time 
Distance
 60 Relative speed
14
l  560 m 400 m
  20 min
Hence, length of platform is 560 m. (40  20)m/min
So, the distance travelled by tiger is
 40 m/min  20 min  800 m
Hence, the distance is 800 m.
6.3 4
6.5 (C)
Given :
Speed of man, x  8 kmph Following line with respective distances can be
drawn
And speed of stream  y kmph
Distance
Time 
Speed
Time in upstream  3  Time in downstream
D 3 D
 Arun can reside anywhere between Ahmed and
x y x y Susan i.e. between 5 km and 7 km from I.
( x  y )  3( x  y ) From options, only 6.02 is between the range
x  y  3x  3 y 5 < 6.02 < 7
2x  4 y Hence, the correct option is (C).
x 6.6 (D)
y {since, x = 8}
2 Given : Speed of train  54 km/h
y  4 kmph Time for travelling the length of train and length
Hence, the stream velocity is 4 kmph. of platform  25 sec
Speed of man  9 km/h
Speed of train  54  9  45 km/h
Time taken by the train to pass the man  14 sec
6.4 800
Length of train  Speed  Time
Given : Tiger is 50 leap of its own behind deer. 5
 45 
14  175 m
The distance covered per leap by tiger, lt  8 m 18
The distance covered per leap by deer, l p  5 m Total length  Speed of train  Time

So, initial separation  50  8  400 m 5

 54   25  375 m
18
Speed = Number of leaps  distance per leap
Length of platform  375 175  200 m
Speed of tiger and deer are :
Hence, the correct option is (D).
General Aptitude 3
 For example, from city P, the first trains of the day
start at 8 AM with a frequency of 90 minutes to
each of R and S.
6.7 (D) A person does not spend additional time at any city
other than the waiting time for the next connecting
Given :
train.
x  30 sec/beep
If the person starts from R at 7 AM and is required
y  32 sec/beep to visit S and return to R, the minimum time
Take L.C.M. of limiting of x and y we get  480 required will be calculated as,
sec Here, the travel time between any two connected
480 cities is one hour and waiting time at any city is
Convert this to minute  sec  8 min different and according to the city shown in above
60
figure.
Earlier they beeped together at 10 AM
Hence, the total journey time from city R to city S
Next they will beeped at 10 : 00 + 00 : 08 = 10:08
and return to city R is calculated as shown in
AM
below figure.
Hence, the correct option is (D). City R 1 hr
City Q City P
1 hr
City S
8 AM 11 AM 12 PM
6.8 (A) 7 AM
1 hr
1 hr
1 hr 30 min
1 hr
9 AM 10 AM 12:30 City R
In a 12 hour duration second, minute and hour City R to city Q travel time is 1 hour.
hands of clock can be coincide, 11 times.
Waiting time at city Q for next train is 1 hour.
In every 1 hour hands of a clock will coincide one City Q to city P travel time is 1 hour.
time and in 12 hour period hands of a clock will
Waiting time at city P for next train is 1 hour.
coincide only for 11 time as between 11 to 1 hands
City P to city S travel time is 1 hour.
will be coincided only for 1 time at exactly 12.
Waiting time at city S for next train is 30 min.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
City S to city R travel time is 1 hour.
6.9 (A)
Here, the minimum time required for traveling
Given : Four cities P, Q, R and S are connected from city R to visit city S and return to city R is,
through one-way routes as shown in the figure, RQ  Q  QP  P  PS  S  SR
8 AM 5 AM
P Q 1h + 1h + 1h + 1h + 1h + 30m + 1h = 6 hours 30
90 120
min min minutes
Hence, the correct option is (A).



7 AM R S 8 AM

60 min 45 min

The boxes beside each city name describe the

starting time of first train of the day and their
frequency of operation.

4 General Aptitude
7 Work & Time

2013 IIT Bombay (A) 30 (B) 35

7.1 The current erection cost of a structure is Rs.
13, 200. If the labour wages per day increase
by 1/5 of the current wages and the working
7.5
hours decrease by 1/24 of the current period,
then the new cost of erection in Rs. is
[2 Marks]
(A) 16,500 (B) 15,180
(C) 11,000 (D) 10,120
2016 IISc Bangalore
7.6
7.2 P, Q, R and S are working on a project. Q
can finish the task in 25 days, working alone
for 12 hours a day. R can finish the task in
50 days, working alone for 12 hours per day.
Q worked 12 hours a day but took sick leave
in the beginning for two days. R worked 18
hours a day on all days. What is the ratio of
work done by Q and R after 7 days from the
start of the project? [2 Marks]
(A) 10 : 11 (B) 11 : 10
(C) 20 : 21 (D) 21 : 20
7.3 S, M, E and F are working in shifts in a team
to finish a project. M works with twice the 7.7
efficiency of others but for half as many days
as E worked. S and M have 6 hour shifts in
a day, whereas E and F have 12 hours shifts.
What is the ratio of contribution of M to
contribution of E in the project? [1 Mark]
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 1
2017 IIT Roorkee 7.8
7.4 X bullocks and Y tractors take 8 days to
plough a field. If we halve the number of
bullocks and double the number of tractors,
it takes 5 days to plough the same field. How
many days will it take X bullocks to plough
the field? [2 Marks]
(C) 40 (D) 45
2018 IIT Guwahati
Seven machines take 7 minutes to make 7
identical toys. At the same time rate how
many minutes would it take for 100
machines to make 100 toys? [1 Mark]
(A) 1 (B) 7
(C) 100 (D) 700
A contract is to be completed in 52 days and
125 identical robots were employed, each
operational for 7 hours a day. After 39 days,
five-seventh of the work was completed.
How many additional robots would be
required to complete the work on time, if
each robot is now operational for 8 hours a
day? [1 Mark]
(A) 50 (B) 89
(C) 146 (D) 175
2019 IIT Madras
A worker noticed that hour hand on the
factory clock hand moved by 225 degree
during her stay at the factory. For how long
did she stay in the factory? [1 Mark]
(A) 3.75 hours
(B) 4 hours and 15 minutes
(C) 7.5 hours
(D) 8.5 hours
Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 6 hours
and 9 hours respectively, while a third pipe
R can empty the tank in 12 hours. Initially,
P and R are open for 4 hours. Then P is
closed and Q is opened. After 6 more hours
R is closed. The total time taken to fill the
tank (in hours) is ______. [2 Marks]

General Aptitude 1
 (A) 13.50 (B) 15.50 an emergency, 12 men were sent to another
(C) 16.50 (D) 14.50 project. How many number of days, more
2020 IIT Delhi than the original estimate, will be required to
complete the strip? [2 Marks]
7.9 It was estimated that 52 men can complete a
(A) 3 days (B) 10 days
strip in a newly constructed highway
(C) 5 days (D) 13 days
connecting cities P & Q in 10 days. Due to

7.1 (B) 1
for Q i.e. 300 hrs) he will do only of work
Let ‘X’ be the labour wages and ‘R’ be the working 5
 60 1 
hours.   .
Now, total cost  X  R  13200  300 5 
1 While R worked for all 7 days at a rate of 18
Increase in wages  i.e. 20% hrs/day.
5
So, R will do 18 × 7 = 126 of his work (Total work
X 6X
So, revised wages  X   for 600 hrs)
5 5
 126 
6X R will do   0.21 of his work
X '  600 
5
So, required ratio,
 1 
Decrease in labour time    %  1 126 
 24   :   120 :126 = 20 : 21
 5 600 
 R
So, revised time   R   Hence, the correct option is (C).
 24 
7.3 (B)
23
R'  R Given :
24
Efficiency of M = 2  (Efficiency of S, E and F)
Therefore, revised total cost
Let M works for x days then E works for 2x days.
23
X ' R '  1.2 X  R  1.15 XR Contribution of M in the project
24 = x days × 6 hrs × 2
X ' R '  1.15 13200  15180
Contribution of E in the project
Hence, the correct option is (B). = 2x days × 12 hrs × 1
7.2 (C) Contribution of M : Contribution of E
Given : x × 6 × 2 : 2x × 12 × 1
Q can finish the work in 25 days × 12 hours 1:2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
= 300 hrs
R can finish the work in 50 days × 12 hours  Key Point
= 600 hrs Number of hours per day, working days and
efficiency are the 3 attributes of contribution to
So, Q is twice efficient as R.
work given in the problem. So these 3 must be
Now, Q worked only for 5 days at a rate of 12
multiplied to compare the individual’s
hrs/day. So for 60 hours of his work (Total work
contribution.

2 General Aptitude
 (i) Work has to be completed in 52 days using
7.4 (A)
125 robots each working 7 hours/day.
Given :
(ii) 39 days later, five-seventh of the work is
(i) X bullocks and Y tractors take 8 days to
completed.
plough the field.
Then, work done in 39 days  125  7  39
X
(ii) bullocks and 2Y tractors take 5 days to 5
2 W  125  7  39
7
plough the field.
W  47775 robot/hours
According to given data,
5 2
1 So, left work  W  W  W  13650 robot/
1 day of work by X and Y  7 7
8
hours.
1
X Y  …(i) According to question, for the next 13 days robots
8
will work for 8 hours/day. So,
X 1
1 day of work by and 2Y  13 x  8  13650
2 5
x  131.25
X 1
 2Y  …(ii) Additional robots required,
2 5
 131.25 125  6.25  7
From equations (i) and (ii),
Note : None of the options match the correct
1 11
X  ,Y  answer. For this question, MTA (Marks to all)
30 120
was given by IIT Guwahati.
1 day of work by,
1 7.7 (C)
X
30 Given :
So, X will plough the complete field in 30 days. The angle by which hour hand turned ()  2250
Hence, the correct option is (A). Since, the angle turned by hour hand in hour
7.5 (B) 3600
  300
DMTE 12
Concept :  C (Constant)
W So, the working time of worker
Where, D  Days, M  Man power/machines  2250
   7.5 hour.
T  Time, E  Efficiency, W  Work 300 300
M 1T1 M 2T2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
So, 
W1 W2
7.8 (D)
7  7 100  T2
 1
7 100 In 1 hour P can fill 
6
T2  7 min
1
Hence, the correct option is (B). In 1 hour Q can fill 
9
1
In 1 hour R can empty 
12
7.6 MTA 1 1  1
In 4 hour (P + R) can fill  4     
 6 12  3
Given :
General Aptitude 3
 1 1  1
In 6 hour (Q + R) can fill  6     
 9 12  6
1 1 1
In 10 hour tank can fill   
3 6 2
1 1
Remaining part of tank  1  
2 2
1 1
tank Q can fill   9  4.5 hour
2 2
Total time  10  4.5  14.5 hours
Hence, the correct option is (D).

7.9 (A)

Given : 52 men can complete a strip in 10 days.

If 12 men were sent to another project then
52 – 12 = 40 men left
Work completed by 40 men is given by,
52 10  40x
x  13
So, number of days required more than the original
estimate  13 10  3 .
Hence, the correct option is (A).



4 General Aptitude
Contents :

S. No. Topics
1. Data Interpretation
2. Syllogism
3. Numerical Computation
1 Data Interpretation

2014 IIT Kharagpur table. Who is the most consistent batsman of

these four?
1.1 The multi-level hierarchical pie chart shows
[1 Mark]
the population of animals in a reserve forest.
Standard
[2 Marks] Batsman Average
deviation
K 31.2 5.21
L 46.0 6.35
M 54.4 6.22
N 17.9 5.90

(A) K (B) L
(C) M (D) N
1.4 For submitting tax returns, all resident males
with annual income below Rs. 10 lakh
The correct conclusions from this should fill up form P and all resident females
information are : with income below Rs. 8 lakh should fill up
(i) Butterflies are birds. form Q. All people with incomes above Rs.
(ii) There are more tigers in this forest than
10 lakh should fill up form R, except non-
red ants.
(iii)All reptiles in this forest are either snakes residents with income above Rs. 15 lakhs,
or crocodiles. who should fill up form S. All others should
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in fill form T. An example of a person who
this forest.
should fill form T is, [2 Marks]
(A) (i) and (ii) only.
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). (A) A resident male with annual income Rs.
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) only. 9 lakh.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) only. (B) A resident female with annual income
1.2 If “KCLFTSB” stands for “best of luck” and Rs. 9 lakh.
“SHSWDG” stands for “good wishes”,
(C) A non-resident male with annual income
which of the following indicates “ace the
exam”? [2 Marks] Rs. 16 lakh.
(A) MCHTX (B) MXHTC (D) A non-resident female with annual
(C) XMHCT (D) XMHTC income Rs. 16 lakh.
1.3 The statistics of runs scored in a series by
1.5 The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.) of
four batsmen are provided in the following
a country from 2000 to 2007 are given in the

General Aptitude 1
 following bar chart. If the trade deficit is 1.7
defined as excess of imports over exports, in
th
which year is the trade deficit 1/5 of the
exports? [2 Marks]
(A) 2005 (B) 2004
(C) 2007 (D) 2006
1.6 Lights of four colors (red, blue, green,
yellow) are hung on a ladder. On every step
of the ladder there are two lights. If one of
the lights is red, the other light on that step
will always be blue. If one of the lights on a
step is green, the other light on that step will
always be yellow. Which of the following
statements is not necessarily correct?
1.8
[2 Marks]
(A) The number of red lights is equal to the
number of blue lights.
(B) The number of green lights is equal to the
number of yellow lights.
(C) The sum of the red and green lights is
equal to the sum of the yellow and blue
lights.
(D) The sum of the red and blue lights is
equal to the sum of the green and yellow
lights.
2 General Aptitude
The total exports and revenues from the
exports of a country are given in the two
charts shown below. The pie chart for
exports shows the quantity of each item
exported as a percentage of the total quantity
of exports. The pie chart for the revenues
shows the percentage of the total revenue
generated through export of each item. The
total quantity of exports of all the items is
500 thousand tonnes and the total revenues
are 250 crore rupees. Which item among the
following has generated the maximum
revenue per kg? [2 Marks]
(A) Item 2 (B) Item 3
(C) Item 6 (D) Item 5
A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units
in 2012. The following pie chart presents the
share of raw material, labour, energy, plant
and machinery, and transportation costs in
the total manufacturing cost of the firm in
2012. The expenditure on labour in 2012 is
Rs. 4,50,000. In 2013, the raw material
expenses increased by 30% and all other
expenses increased by 20%. If the company
registered profit of Rs. 10 lakhs in 2012, at
what price in Rs. was each air purifier sold?
[2 Marks]
 1. On Diwali, the family rises early in the
morning.
2. The whole family, including the young
and the old enjoy doing this.
3. Children let off fireworks later in the
night with their friends.
4. At sunset, the lamps are lit and the family
performs various rituals.
5. Father, mother and children visit
relatives and exchange gifts and sweets.
1.9 A firm producing air purifiers sold 200 units 6. Houses looks so pretty with lighted
in 2012. The following pie chart presents the lamps all around.
share of raw material, labour, energy plant (A) 2, 5, 3, 4 (B) 5, 2, 4, 3
and machinery, and transportation costs in (C) 3, 5, 4, 2 (D) 4, 5, 2, 3
the total manufacturing cost of the firm in 1.11 An electric bus has onboard instruments that
2012. The expenditure on labour in 2012 is report the total electricity consumed since
Rs. 450000. In 2013, the raw material the start of the trip as well as the total
expenses increased by 30% and all other
distance covered. During a single day of
expenses increased by 20%. What is the
operation, the bus travels on stretches M, N,
percentage increase in total cost for the O and P, in that order. The cumulative
company in 2013? [2 Marks] distance travelled and the corresponding
electricity consumption are shown in the
Table below : [1 Mark]
Cumulative Electricity
Stretch distance used
(km) (kWh)
M 20 12
N 45 25
O 75 45
P 100 57

2015 IIT Kanpur

The stretch where the electricity
1.10 In the following question, the first and the consumption per km is minimum is
last sentence of the passage are in order and
(A) M (B) N
numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage is
(C) O (D) P
split into 4 parts and numbered as 2, 3, 4 and
1.12 Ms. X will be in Bagdogra from 01/05/2014
5. These 4 parts are not arranged in proper
to 20/05/2014 and from 22/05/2014 to
order. Read the sentences and arrange them
31/05/2014. On the morning of 21/05/2014,
in a logical sequence to make a passage and
she will reach Kochi via Mumbai. Which
choose the correct sequence from the given
one of the statements below is logically valid
options. [2 Marks]

General Aptitude 3
 and can be inferred from the above (C) 79 (D) 108
sentences? [2 Marks] 1.16 Find the missing sequence in the letter series.
(A) Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day, only [2 Marks]
in May. B, FH, LNP, ___________.
(B) Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one day (A) SUWY (B) TUVW
in May. (C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ
(C) Ms. X will be only in Kochi for one day 2017 IIT Roorkee
in May.
1.17 P, Q, and R talk about S’s car collection. P
(D) Only Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day
states that S has at least 3 cars. Q believes
in May.
that S has less than 3 cars. R indicates that to
1.13 Tanya is older than Eric. Cliff is older than his knowledge, S has at least one car. Only
Tanya. Eric is older than Cliff. If the first two one of P, Q and R is right. The number of
statements are true, then the third statement cars owned by S is
is [1 Mark] [1 Mark]
(A) True (B) False (A) 0
(C) Uncertain (D) Data insufficient (B) 1
2016 IISc Bangalore (C) 3
(D) Cannot be determined
1.14 In a huge pile of apples and oranges, both
1.18 The growth of bacteria (lactobacillus) in
ripe and unripe mixed together, 15% are
milk leads to curd formation. A minimum
unripe fruits. Of the unripe fruits, 45% are
bacterial population density of 0.8 (in
apples. Of the ripe ones, 66% are oranges. If
suitable units) is needed to form curd. In the
the pile contains a total of 5692000 fruits,
graph below, the population density of
how many of them are apples? [1 Mark]
lactobacillus in 1 litre of milk is plotted as a
(A) 2029198 (B) 2467482 function of time, at two different
(C) 2789080 (D) 3577422 temperatures, 250 C and 37 0 C .
1.15 The Venn diagram shows the preference of
the student population for leisure activities.

From the data given, the number of students Consider the following statements based on
who like to read books or play sports is ____. the data shown above :
[2 Marks]
(A) 44 (B) 51
4 General Aptitude
 (i) The growth in bacterial population stops
0 0
earlier at 37 C as compared to 25 C
(ii) The time taken for curd formation at
250 C is twice the time taken at 37 0 C
Which one of the following options is
correct? [2 Marks]
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
1.19 P looks at Q while Q looks at R.P is married
R is not. The number of pairs of people in
which a married person is looking at an
unmarried person is
[1 Mark]
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) Can not be determined
1.20 In the graph below, the concentration of a
particular pollutant in a lake is plotted over
(alternate) days of a month in winter
(average temperature 100 C ) and a month in
summer (average temperature 300 C )
Consider the following statements based on
the data shown above :
General Aptitude
(i) Over the given months, the difference
between the maximum and the minimum
pollutant concentrations is the same in
both winter and summer.
(ii) There are at least four days in the
summer month such that the pollutant
concentration on those days are within 1
ppm of the pollutant concentrations on
the corresponding days in the winter
month.
Which one of the following option is
correct? [2 Marks]
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
2018 IIT Guwahati
1.21 A house has a number which needs to be
identified. The following three statements
are given that can help in identifying the
house number.
(i) If the house number is a multiple of 3,
then it is a number from 50 to 59.
(ii) If the house number NOT a multiple of
4, then it is a number from 60 to 69.
(iii)If the house number is NOT a multiple of
6, then it is a number from 70 to 79.
What is the house number? [1 Mark]
(A) 54 (B) 65
(C) 66 (D) 76
2019 IIT Madras
1.22 A firm hires employees at five different skill
levels P, Q, R, S, T. The shares of
employment at these skill levels of total
employment in 2010 is given in the pie chart
as shown. There were a total of 600
employees in 2010 and the total employment
increased by 15% from 2010 to 2016. The
total employment at skill levels P, Q and R
remained unchanged during this period. If
the employment at skill level S increased by
5
 40% from 2010 to 2016 how many Performance of school, P, Q, R and S
800
employees were there at skill level T in Appeared Passed
700

Number of students
2016? [2 Marks]
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
School School School School
P Q R S
(A) 30 (B) 72
(A) 59.3 % (B) 58.8 %
(C) 60 (D) 35
(C) 59.0 % (D) 58.5 %
1.23 Mola is a digital platform for taxis in a city.
It offers three types of rides – Pool, Mini and 1.26 An Engineer measures THREE quantities X,
Prime. The table below presents the number Y and Z in an experiment. She finds that they
of rides for the past four months. The follow a relationship that is represented in
platform earns one US dollar per ride. What the figure below : (the product of X and Y
is the percentage share of revenue linearly varies with Z).
contributed by Prime to the total revenues of
Mola, for the entire duration?
[2 Marks]
Months
Type
Jan Feb Mar Apr
Pool 170 320 215 190
Mini 110 220 180 70
Prime 75 180 120 90 Then, which of the following statements is
(A) 16.24 (B) 23.97 FALSE? [1 Mark]
(C) 38.74 (D) 25.86 (A) For fixed Y; X is proportional to Z
(B) For fixed Z; X is proportional to Y
2020 IIT Delhi
(C) XY/Z is constant
1.24 P, Q, R and S are to be uniquely coded using (D) For fixed X; Z is proportional to Y
 and  . If P is coded as  and Q as  , 1.27 The two pie-charts given below. Show the
then R and S respectively, can be coded as data of total students and only girls
_____. [2 Marks] registered in different streams in a
(A)  and  (B)  and  university. If the total number of students
(C)  and  (D)  and  registered in the university students is 5000,
and the total number of the registered girls is
1.25 The bar graph shows the data of students
1500; then the ratio of boys enrolled in Arts
who appeared and passed in an examination
to the girls enrolled in the Management is
for four schools P, Q, R and S. The average
_____. [2 Marks]
of success rate (in percentage) of these four
schools is _______. [2 Marks]

6 General Aptitude
 C6
C1
15% 20%
C5 C2
5%
20% C3
8%
32%
C4
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 9 : 22
(C) 11 : 9 (D) 22 : 9

2021 IIT Bombay Company Ratio

C1 3:2
C2 1:4
1.28 “The increased consumption of leafy C3 5:3
vegetables in the recent months is a clear C4 2:3
indication that the people in the state have C5 9:1
begun to lead a healthy lifestyle” C6 3:4
Which of the following can be logically
inferred from the information presented in The distribution of employees at the rank of
the above statement? [1 Mark] executives, across different companies C1,
(A) Leading a healthy lifestyle is related to a C2, ….., C6 is presented in the chart given
diet with leafy vegetables. above. The ratio of executives with a
(B) The people in the state have increased management degree to those without a
awareness of health hazards causing by management degree in each of these
consumption of junk foods companies is provided in the table above.
(C) The people in the state did not consume The total number of executives across all
leafy vegetables earlier. companies is 10,000.
(D) Consumption of leafy vegetables may The total number of management degree
not be the only indicator of healthy holders among the executives in companies
lifestyle. C2 and C5 together is _________ .
1.29 [2 Marks]
 " "means"–", (A) 2500 (B) 600
" "means"  ",
 (C) 1900 (D) 225
If 
 "  "means"+", 1.31 If   2;    3;   5;   10
"  "means"  ", Then, the value of (  ) 2 , is :
Then the value of the expression [2 Marks]
 2  3((4  2) 4)  (A) 4 (B) 1
[1 Mark] (C) 0 (D) 16
(A) 7 (B) – 0.5
2022 IIT Kharagpur
(C) – 1 (D) 6
1.30 1.32 Humans are naturally compassionate and
honest. In a study using strategically placed
wallets that appear “lost”, it was found that
wallets with money are more likely to be
General Aptitude 7
 returned than wallets without money. Which one of the groups given below can be
Similarly, wallets that had a key and money assembled to get the shape that is shown
are more likely to be returned than wallets above using each piece only once without
with the same amount of money alone. This overlapping with each other? (rotation and
suggests that the primary reason for this translation operations may be used).
behavior is compassion and empathy. [1 Mark]
Which one of the following is the
CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?
[2 Marks]
(A) Wallets with a key are more likely to be
returned because people do not care about
(A)
money
(B) Wallets with a key are more likely to be
returned because people relate to suffering of
others
(C) Wallets used in experiments are more
likely to be returned than wallets that are (B)
really lost
(D) Money is always more important than
keys
1.33 A person was born on the fifth Monday of
February in a particular year. Which one of (C)
the following statements is correct based on
the above information? [1
Mark]
(A) The 2nd February of
that year is a Tuesday
(B) There will be five (D)
Sundays in the month of February in that 2023 IIT Kanpur
year
1.35 A certain country has 504 universities of
(C) The 1st February of
25951 colleges. These are categorized into
that year is a Sunday
grade 1, 2, 3 as shown in the given pie charts.
(D) All Mondays of What is the percentage, correct to one
February in that year have even dates decimal place, of higher education
1.34 institutions (colleges and universities) that
fall into Grade III?

8 General Aptitude
 Universities College 2. Every 2  2 square delineated by bold
lines must contains each of the 4
symbols.
GRATE II
GRATE II GRATE III
Which symbol will occupy the box marked
GR
AT GR with ‘?’ in the partially filled figure?
EI AT
II EI

GRATE I
? 
 
(A) 22.7 (B) 23.7
(C) 15.0 (D) 66.8  
1.36 The symbol  are to be filled one in   
each box, as shown below. (A)  (B) 
The rule for filling in the 4 symbols are as (C)  (D) 
follows.
1. Every row and every column must
contain each of the 4 symbols.

1.1 (D) Hence, the correct option is (B).

1.3 (A)
Following statements can be derived from the
given diagram : Batsman ‘K’ is the most consistent because it has
(i) Butterflies are shown in birds category. minimum standard deviation. Average has no
(ii) The area corresponding to the tiger in pie relationship with consistency.
chart is larger than that of red ants. Hence, the correct option is (A).
(iii) There are only two types of reptiles i.e.  Key Point
snakes and crocodiles. Standard deviation is the difference of a particular
(iv) It is not correct as the size of animals is not value with the calculated mean of all the values
specified in the pie chart but the numbers are (here averages of the batsmen) so the batsman
specified. with minimum deviation should be the most
consistent batsman.
Elephants are in largest number in mammals.
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1.4 (B)
1.2 (B) Form Category
BEST OF LUCK P Resident male income < 10 lakh
B _ ST _ F L_CK  KCLFTSB Q Resident female income < 8 lakh
R Resident male/female income > 10 lakh
GOOD WISHES
S Non resident income > 15 lakh
G _ _D W_SH_S  SHSWDG
Since, a resident female with income in range 8 to
From above two we can conclude that vowels are 10 lakh does not fall in above categories.
missing and then reversed. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence,
1.5 (D)
ACE THE EXAM
_C_ TH_ _X_M Since, for year 2000, 2001 and 2002 exports are
more than imports hence, the concept of trade
and reverse is MXHTC.
deficit does not exist.
General Aptitude 9
 Import  Export From the given pie charts :
% Trade deficit 
Export Item kg Revenues Revenue/kg
From option (B) : In 2004, 1. 0.11x 0.12 y 1.0909( y /x)
Import  Export 10 1 2. 0.2 y ( y /x )
  0.2x
Export 70 7
3. 0.19x 0.23y 1.21( y /x)
From option (A) : In 2005,
4. 0.22x 0.06 y 0.27( y /x)
90  80 10 1
  5. 0.12x 0.2 y 1.67( y /x)
80 80 8
From option (D) : In 2006, 6. 0.16x 0.19 y 1.19( y /x)
120  100 20 1
 
100 100 5 From the table, item-5 has maximum ratio.
From option (C) : In 2007, Hence, the correct option is (D).
110  100 10 1 1.8 20000
 
100 100 10
Let total cost in 2012  x
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Total number of air purifiers sold  200
Consider x be the total manufacturing cost in
2012.
From pie chart, share of labour in cost  15%
1.6 (D)
Expenditure on labour
There are two lights on every step of ladder if one  15% of x  4,50, 000
of the light is red (R), the another will be blue (B).
100
And if one of the light is green (G), the another x  4,50,000   30, 00, 000
15
will be yellow (Y).
Total profit in 2012  Rs.10, 00, 000
The number of R  number of B = x (let)
The number of G  number of Y = y (let) Selling price  Rs.30, 00, 000  10, 00, 000
Checking from the options, = Rs. 40,00,000
(A) Correct statement Selling price of one air purifiers
(B) Correct statement 40,00,000
  Rs.20,000
(C) Sum, R  G  B  Y  x  y 200
Correct statement. Hence, the price of each air purifier is Rs. 20,000.
(D) Sum, R  B  2x 1.9 22
G  Y  2y . Method 1 :
Not necessarily, x  y Let, total cost in 2012 is Rs. 100
So, R + B  G + Y in general. Raw material increases in 2013 by 30%,
This statement is not necessarily correct. 1.3  20  26
Hence, the correct option is (D). Other expenses increased in 2013 by 20%,
1.7 (D) 1.2  80  96
Total cost in 2013 = 96 + 26 = 122
Let, Total reports, x  500 thousand tonnes
Total cost increased by 22%.
Total revenues, y  250 crore rupees

10 General Aptitude
Hence, the percentage increased in the total cost This arrangement makes a logical sequence (5, 2,
for the company in 2013 is 22. 4, 3) in clockwise order.
. Method 2 : Hence, the correct option is (B).
Let total expenses  x 1.11 (D)
Sr. Product Cost Increment
0.3  0.2 x  0.06 x
Following table can be drawn from cumulative
1. Raw 0.2x
[@30%]
table :
material
2. Energy 0.25x 0.2  0.25 x  0.05 x Electricity
Electrici
[@ 20%] Stretc Distanc Consumptio
ty used
3. Plant & 0.3x 0.2  0.3x  0.06 x h e n
(kWh)
Machinery [@ 20%] per km
4. Transporta 0.1x 0.2  0.1x  0.02 x 12
M 20 12  0.6
tion [@ 20%] 20
5. Labour 0.15x 0.2  0.15 x  0.03 x 45 – 20 25 – 12 13
[@ 20%] N  0.52
= 25 = 13 25
Total x 0.22 x
75 – 45 45 – 25 20
O  0.66
= 30 = 20 30
Hence, % increment in total cost  22%
100 – 57 – 45 12
Hence, the percentage increased in the total cost P  0.48
75 = 25 = 12 25
for the company in 2013 is 22.
1.10 (B)
The electricity consumption per km is minimum
Given : As per the question, the first and the last
for P.
sentence of the passage are in proper order and
number 1 and 6. Hence, the correct option is (D).
The above question is based on time sequence. 1.12 (B)
Thus, the sentence should be organized in a
If you look into the given statement there is a gap
chronological order clockwise.
of one day between 20/5/2014 and 22/5/2014. This
Hence, the proper order of above paragraph is,
means Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one day in
Sentence Order may.
On Diwali, the family rises early in
1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
the morning.
Father, mother and children visit 1.13 (B)
relatives and exchange gifts and 5 Given : Tanya is older than Eric and Cliff is older
sweets. than Tanya.
The whole family, including the Cliff
2
young and the old enjoy doing this.

At sunset, the lamps are lit and the
4 Tanya
family performs various rituals.

Children let off fireworks later in the
3 Eric
night with their friends.
Houses looks so pretty with lighted From above figure, Cliff is older than Eric if first
6
lamps all around. two statements are true.

General Aptitude 11
 Statement 3 : Eric is older than Cliff.
So, it is a false statement.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.14 (A)
Given : Total fruits = 5692000
Unripe fruits = 15%
Apples in unripe fruits = 45%
Oranges in ripe fruits = 66%
According to the question, following tree diagram
can be made.
Total number of apples
= Ripe apples + Unripe apples
 [(0.85  0.34)   0.15  0.45 ]
 5692000
 2029198
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.15 (D)
The number of students who read books,
n(R) = 12 + 44 + 7 + 13 = 76
The number of students who play sports,
n(S) = 44 + 7 + 17 +15 = 83
The number of students who read books and play
sports.
12
n( R  S ) = 44 + 7 = 51
The number of students who read books or play
sports is given by,
n( R  S )  n( R )  n( S )  n( R  S )
n( R  S ) = 76 + 83 – 51 = 108
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.16 (C)
Given : B, FH, LNP
Position of B  02
B  04  02  04  06 (F)
Position of F and H  06 and 08
H  4  8  4  12 (L)
Position of L, N and P  12, 14 and 16
P  4  16  4  20 (T)
It is clear that alphabets in the series have single
alphabet spacing between them. So,
T U V W X Y Z
Hence, the correct option is (C).
1.17 (A)
Given :
(i) P states that S has at least 3 cars
i.e. S  3  S  3, 4....
(ii) Q believes that S has less than 3 cars
i.e. S  3  S  0, 1, 2
(iii) R believes that S has at least 1 car
i.e. S  1  S  1, 2,3....
(iv) Only one of P, Q and R is right
If we assume P is right then S can have 4, 5, 6, …..
cars but not 3 because then R will be right as well
but only one of them can be right. But 4, 5, 6, ….
are not given in the options.
If we assume Q is right then S will have 0 cars
because S 1, 2 is also present in R.
If we assume R is right then P and Q will be right
as well.
General Aptitude
Therefore, the number of cars owned by S is 0.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.18 (A)
Given : Minimum bacterial population density of
0.8 is needed to form curd.
According to the given graph,
(i) Growth in bacterial population stops at150
min. at 37 0 C and for 250 C, it stops at 180 min.
So, statement (i) is true.
(ii) The time taken for curd formation at 250 C is
a little more than 120 min. At 370 C, it is 90 min.
So, statement (ii) is not true.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.19 (D)
Given :
(i) P looks at Q and Q looks at R.
(ii) P is married and R is unmarried.
Since, the martial status of Q is unknown, it can
not be determined that how many pairs of people
in which a married person is looking at an
unmarried person.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.20 (B)
Given plot is shown below,
According to the above plot,
(i) In winter, the difference between maximum
and minimum pollutant concentration
 80  8
In summer, the difference between
maximum and minimum pollutant concentration
 10.5 1.5  9
So, statement (i) is incorrect.
(ii) Between 10th day and 14th day (4 days) in the
summer month, the pollutant concentrations on the
corresponding days in the winter month.
So, statement (ii) is correct.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
General Aptitude
1.21 (D)
Given :
A house has a number which needs to be
identified, using 3 given conditions.
According to statement (i) :
Possible numbers are  51, 54 , 57
According to statement (ii) :
Possible numbers are
 61, 62, 63, 65, 66, 67 , 69
According to statement (iii) :
Possible numbers are
 70, 71, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77 , 79
From option (A) : 54 is a multiple of 3 and it is a
number from 50 to 59 [first condition satisfied]. 54
is not a multiple of 4 but it does not belong to the
range 60-69. Therefore, it is incorrect.
From option (B) : Condition 1 can not be applied
for 65. 65 is not a multiple of 4 and belongs to rage
60-69 [Second condition satisfied]. Also, 65 is not
a multiple of 6 but it does not belong to the range
70 -79. Therefore, it is also incorrect.
From option (C) : 66 is a multiple of a 3 but does
not belong to the range 50 – 59. Therefore it is
incorrect
From option (D) : Condition (i) and (ii) can not
be applied here because 76 is not a multiple of 3
but it is a multiple of 4. 76 though, it is not a
multiple of 6 and belongs to the range 70-79
[Third condition satisfied]
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.22 (C)
Total employees in 2010 is 600
Employees increased by 15% in 2016
 Total employees in 2016
15
 600  600   690 …(i)
100
Employees in S category in 2010
25
 600   150
100
13
 Now, S category increased by 40% in 2016 According to question :
 Employees in S category in 2016 280
1st case pass %  100  56
40 500
 150  150   210 …(ii)
100 330
2nd case pass %  100  55
Since, there is no change in P, Q, and R categories 600
of employees so total number of employees of all
455
three categories is given by, 3rd case pass %  100  65
700
Number of employees
240
20 25 25 4th case pass %  100  60
 600   600   600   420 400
100 100 100
Total average passing percentage of students
So, total number employees in T category
 690  (420  210)  60 56  55  65  60
  59.0%
4
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
1.23 (B)
1.26 (B)
Months
Type Revenue According to question XY  Z
Jan Feb Mar Apr
Pool 170 320 215 190 895 XY  KZ
Mini 110 220 180 70 580 By the observation from above equation,
Prime 75 180 120 90 465 statement of option (B) is false.

Total Hence, the correct option is (B).

revenue 1.27 (D)
1940
Ratio of boys enrolled in arts to the girls enrolled
% share of revenue contributed by prime to total in management
revenue
Total students in art  Girls in art

465 Girls in management
 100  23.97
1940
5000  0.20  1500  0.30
Hence, the correct option is (B).   22 : 9
1500  0.15
1.24 (A) Hence, the correct option is (D).

Since, it is asked in the question that P, Q, R and S 1.28 (A)

are to be uniquely coded. As increased consumption of leafy vegetables is
According to question, P   directly proportional to healthy lifestyle. So we
can infer that leading a healthy lifestyle is related
Q  
to diet with leafy vegetables.
Therefore, by observation option (B), (C) and (D) Hence, the correct option is (A).
are eliminated.
1.29 (A)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
As per the data new equation will be :
1.25 (C)
Step 1 : 2  3  ((4  2)  4)

14 General Aptitude
Step 2 : 2  3  8 = 7     10
Hence, the correct option is (A). 
1.30 (C) 2  5  10
Given : Total number of employees = 10000 So, that
  
C1 C1 2
C6 C6
0

15
0

5  6
,0

1
% C2 C2 2
10

00
of 00 15
of

20
10 0,0 00
%

,0 f1 50
0
%o
20

00
5
00 8%
C5 10
,0 of
10 C3  C5
00
80
0
C3 Hence, the correct option is (B).
of ,00
20
% 0
20
32 % of 10,000 3200 1.32 (B)
C4 C4 Option (B) is correct logical inference as wallets
Management and without management with a key are more likely to be returned because
degree ratio = C2  1: 4 and C5  9 :1 people relate to suffering of others as mentioned in
 Number of management degree executive of the passage “the primary reason for this behavior
C2 and C5 , is compassion and empathy”.
1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
C2  500   100
5 1.33 (A)
9
C5  2000   1800 Given :
10 A person was born on the fifth Monday of
Thus, number of management degree employees February in a particular year.
in C2 and C5 together  1900 . Then,
Hence, the correct option is (C). That year should be a leap year, as in a leap year
1.31 (B) February month is of 29 days.
If 1st February is Monday then next Monday is on

By given information we can conclude  8th, 15th, 22nd and 29th of the month.
2
So 1st and last day of the month February will be

and   same.
3
Here, the 2nd February of that year is a Tuesday.
Put these values on  5 Hence, the correct option is (A).
 
We get,  5 1.34 (B)
2 3
Given :
3  2 
5
6
5  30
6
By equation,
  3
 The group that can be assembled to get the shape
that is shown above is, according to option (B).
62  3
By equation,

General Aptitude 15
 In the row R4 symbol  will be placed in
free space and in column C4 symbol  will
be placed in free space.
Hence, the correct option is (B). C1 C2 C3 C4

1.35 (A) R1 ? 

Given : R2   
Universities U  504 R3  
Collages C  25951
R4    
Total U  C   504  25951  26455
For grade 3 collage and university Now, is column C3 we can place symbol 
7 in free space and in row R2  can be places.
G3 (U )   504  35.28
100 C1 C2 C3 C4
23
G3 (C )   2595  5968.73 R1 ?  
100
G3 (U  C )  35.28  5968.73  6004.01 R2    

6004.01 R3  
Now, required % = 100 = 22.7%
26455 R4    
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Now, is column C2 we can have to place
1.36 (B)
symbol  symbol in place of ?, as if can not
Given : be use in R1C1 , symbol  is already placed
The rules for filling in the four symbols : , , 
in R4C1 .
and  are as follows :
1. Every row and every column must C1 C2 C3 C4
contain each of the 4 symbols. R1   
2. Every 2  2 square delineated by bold
lines must contains each of the 4
R2    
symbols. R3  
In the given figure there are 4 rows
R4    
R1 , R2 , R3 , R4 and 4 columns are C1 , C2 , C3
After placing symbols at R3C1 , R3C2 and
and C4 .
R1C1 the figure will look alike.
C1 C2 C3 C4
C1 C2 C3 C4
R1 ? 
R1    
R2  
R2    
R3  
R3    
R4   
R4    
Hence, the correct option is (B).

16 General Aptitude
2 Syllogism
2014 IIT Kharagpur
2.1 Read the statements :
All women are entrepreneurs.
Some women are doctors.
Which of the following conclusions can be
logically inferred from the above
statements? [1 Mark]
(A) All women are doctors.
(B) All doctors are entrepreneurs.
(C) All entrepreneurs are women.
(D) Some entrepreneurs are doctors.
2015 IIT Kanpur
2.2 Given below are two statements followed by
two conclusions. Assuming these statements
to be true, decide which one logically
follows : [2 Marks]
Statements :
I. No manager is a leader.
II. All leaders are executive.
Conclusions :
I. No manager is an executive.
II. All executives are manager.
(A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Only conclusion II follows.
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(D) Both conclusion I and II follow.
2.3 Given below are two statements followed by
two conclusions. Assuming these statements
to be true, decide which one logically
follows : [2 Marks]
Statements :
I. All film star are playback singers.
II. All film directors are film stars.
General Aptitude
Conclusions :
I. All film directors are playback singers.
II. Some film stars are film directors.
(A) Only conclusion I follows.
(B) Only conclusion I nor II follows.
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow.
2018 IIT Guwahati
2.4 Consider the following three statements
(i) Some roses are red.
(ii) All red flowers fade quickly.
(iii)Some roses fade quickly.
Which of the following statements can be
logically inferred from the above
statements? [2 Marks]
(A) If (i) is true & (ii) is false, then (ii) is false
(B) If (i) is true & (ii) is false, then (iii) is true
(C) If (i) & (ii) are true, then (iii) is true
(D) If (i) & (ii) are false, then (iii) is false
2.5 Forty students watched films A. B and C
over a week. Each student watched either
only one film or all three. Thirteen students
watched film A. sixteen students watched
film B and nineteen students watched film C.
How many students watched all three films?
[2 Marks]
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 8
2020 IIT Delhi
2.6 Crowd funding deals with mobilisation of
funds for a project from a large number of
people, who would be willing to invest
1
 smaller amounts through web-based
platforms in the project.
Based on the above paragraph, which of the
following is correct about crowd funding?
[2 Marks]
(A) Funds raised through voluntary
contributions on web-based platforms.
(B) Funds raised through unwilling
contributions on web-based platforms.
(C) Funds raised through large contributions
on web-based platforms.
(D) Funds raised through coerced
contributions on web-based platforms.
2.7 Climate change and resilience deal with two
aspects - reduction of sources of
nonrenewable energy resources and
reducing vulnerability of climate change
aspects. The terms 'mitigation' and
'adaptation' are used to refer to these aspects,
respectively.
Which of the following assertions is best
supported by the above information?
[1 Mark]
(A) Mitigation deals with consequences of
climate change.
(B) Adaptation deals with causes of climate
change.
(C) Mitigation deals with actions taken to
reduce the use of fossil fuels.
(D) Adaptation deals with actions taken to
combat green-house gas emissions.
2021 IIT Bombay
2.8 Given below are two statements 1 and 2, and
two conclusions I and II.
Statement 1: All entrepreneurs are wealthy.
Statement 2 : All wealthy are risk seekers.
Conclusion I : All risk seekers are wealthy.
Conclusion II : Only some entrepreneurs
are risk seekers.
2 General Aptitude
Based on the above statement and
conclusions, which of the following options
is CORRECT ? [1 Mark]
(A) Only conclusion I is correct.
(B) Only conclusion II is correct.
(C) Both conclusion I and II are correct .
(D) Neither Conclusion I nor II is correct.
2022 IIT Kharagpur
2.9 Four girls P, Q, R and S are studying
languages in a University. P is learning
French and Dutch. Q is learning Chinese and
Japanese. R is learning Spanish and French.
S is learning Dutch and Japanese.
Given that: French is easier than Dutch;
Chinese is harder than Japanese; Dutch is
easier than Japanese, and Spanish is easier
than French.
Based on the above information, which girl
is learning the most difficult pair of
languages? [1 Mark]
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S
2.10 Given below are three conclusions drawn
based on the following three statements.
Statement 1: All teachers are professors.
Statement 2: No professor is a male.
Statement 3: Some males are engineers.
Conclusion I: No engineer is a professor.
Conclusion II: Some engineers are
professors.
Conclusion III: No male is a teacher.
Which one of the following options can be
logically inferred? [2 Marks]
(A) Only conclusion III is correct
(B) Only conclusion I and conclusion II are
correct
(C) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are
correct
(D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are
correct
 2.1 (D)

From this diagram, conclusions I and II logically

Hence, the correct option is (D). follows.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

2.2 (C)
2.4 (C)
Given :
S1 : No manager is a leader. Given :
(i) Some roses are red.
(ii) All red flowers fade quickly.
S2 : All leaders are executive.
(iii) Some roses fade quickly.
Option (A) and (B) :
If some roses are red and red flowers don’t fade
Fig. (a) Fig.(b) quickly then it cannot be inferred whether some
Conclusion 1 : roses fade quickly or not.
No manager is an executive. Therefore, option (A) and (B) are incorrect.
From possibility of case presented in figure (b), Option (C) : If some roses are red and all red
conclusion 1 does not follow. flowers fade quickly.
Conclusion 2 :
From figure (a) and figure (b), it is clear that in any
case, all executives cannot be managers. So,
conclusion 2 also does not follow.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
It can be inferred from above Venn diagram that
some roses fade quickly.
Therefore, if statement (i) and (ii) are true, then
statement (iii) is also true.
2.3 (D) Hence, the correct option is (C).
The possible Venn diagram drawn from the given
statements is

2.5 (C)

General Aptitude 3
 Let ' x ' number of students watched all three
movies. According to given data, venn diagram RS
can be drawn as shown below, W
E

Hence, the correct option is (D).

2.9 (B)
Given :
P is learning French and Dutch
Q is learning Chinese and Japanese
Number of students Watched only R is learning Spanish and French
13  x A S is learning Dutch and Japanese
16  x B French<Dutch … (i)
19  x C Chinese>Japanese … (ii)
Japanese>Dutch … (iii)
Total students  13  x  16  x  19  x  x  40 French>Spanish … (iv)
x4 By equation (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Hence, the correct option is (C). Chinese > Japanese > Dutch > French > Span
according to the difficulty level arrangement
2.6 (A)
Girl Q is learning most difficult pair of languages,
The given paragraph clearly mentions “willing to which is Chinese and Japanese.
invest smaller amounts” therefore it can be Hence, the correct option is (B).
inferred that crowd finding are the funds raised
2.10 (A)
through voluntary contributions.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Given :
2.7 (C) Professors
Male
The given passage clearly mentions “reduction of
sources of non-renewable energy resources”, Teacher
therefore, the term “mitigation” refers to reducing Engineer
the usage of fossil fuels.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.8 (D) Conclusion I : No engineer is professor
As no information is provided for some part of
(1) Can’t say (Wrong)
engineers, they can be part of professors and
(2) Definitely wrong
cannot be part of professors.
Hence, it can be inferred from statement.
Conclusion II : Some engineers are professor.
As no information is provided for some part of
engineers, they can be part of professors and
cannot be part of professors.
4 General Aptitude
Hence, it can be inferred from statement.
Conclusion III : No male is a teacher.
Can be inferred from statement as we can see in
the diagram.
All part of teacher is inside of professors and no
professor is male. Hence teachers are also not
male.
Hence, the correct option is (A).



General Aptitude 5
3 Numerical Computation

2014 IIT Kharagpur sides are in the ratio of

1 : 2. What is the length of the side of the
3.6 In the given figure angle Q is a right angle,
square (in mm) such that the combined area
PS : QS = 3 : 1, RT : QT = 5 : 2 and PU : UR
of the square and the rectangle is a
= 1 : 1. If area of triangle QTS is 20 cm 2 ,
MINIMUM? [2 Marks]
then the area of triangle PQR in cm 2 is
______. [2 Marks] (A) 30 (B) 40
(C) 120 (D) 180
3.10 A window is made up of a square portion and
an equilateral triangle portion above it. The
base of the triangular portion coincides with
the upper side of the square. If the perimeter
of the window is 6 m, the area of the window
in m 2 is ______. [1 Mark]
(A) 1.43 (B) 2.06
3.7 Let f ( x, y)  x n y m  P . If x is doubled and
(C) 2.68 (D) 2.88
y is half, the new value of f is [1 Mark]
3.11 The binary operation is defined as
(A) 2n  m P (B) 2m n P
a b  ab  (a  b), where a and b are any
(C) 2(n  m) P (D) 2(m  n) P
two real numbers. The value of the identity
2015 IIT Kanpur element of this operation, defined as the
3.8 Right triangle PQR is to be constructed in the number x such that a x  a, for any a, is
xy-plane so that the right angle is at P and _______. [2 Marks]
line PR is parallel to the x-axis. The x and y (A) 0 (B) 1
coordinates of P, Q, and R are to be integers (C) 2 (D) 10
that satisfy the inequalities :  4  x  5 and 3.12 Which of the following curves represents the
6  y  16 How many different triangles
could be constructed with these properties?

function y  ln e sin ( x )  for x  2 ? Here,

[2 Marks] x represents the abscissa and y represents

(A) 110 (B) 1,100 the ordinate. [2 Marks]
(C) 9,900 (D) 10,000
2016 IISc Bangalore

3.9 A wire of length 340 mm is to be cut into two

parts. One of the parts is to be made into a
square and the other into a rectangle where
General Aptitude 1
 (A) 5 5
(A) (B)
12 24
24  10
(C) (D)
5 13
3.14 In a company with 100 employees, 45 earn
Rs. 20,000 per month, 25 earn Rs. 30,000, 20
earn Rs. 40,000, 8 earn Rs. 60,000, and 2
(B)
earn Rs. 150,000. The median of the salaries
is [1 Mark]
(A) Rs. 20,000 (B) Rs. 30,000
(C) Rs. 32,300 (D) Rs. 40,000
3.15 Let S1 be the plane figure consisting of the
points (x, y) given by the inequalities
(C)
x  1  2 and y  2  3. Let S 2 be the plane
figure given by the inequalities x  y  2,
y  1 and x  3 . Let S be the union of S1 and
S 2 . The area of S is [2 Marks]
(A) 26 (B) 28
(C) 32 (D) 34
(D)
2018 IIT Guwahati
3.16 Which of the following functions describe
the graph shown in figure below [1 Mark]

2017 IIT Roorkee

3.13 A right-angled cone (with base radius 5 cm

and height 12 cm), as shown in the figure
below, is rolled on the ground keeping the
point P fixed until the point Q (at the base of (A) y  || x | 1| 2
the cone, as shown) touches the ground (B) y  || x | 1| 1
again. (C) y  || x | 1| 1
(D) y  || x  1| 1|
3.17 A rectangle becomes a square when its
length and breadth are reduced by 10m and
5 m respectively. During this process, the
rectangle losses 650 m2 of area. What is the
By what angle (in radians) about P does the area of the original rectangle in square
cone travel? [1 Mark] meters? [1 Mark]
(A) 1125 (B) 2250

2 General Aptitude
 (C) 2924 (D) 4500 in the interval 0  x  1 , for integer values of
3.18 For integers a, b and c what would be m, where m  1. [2 Marks]
the minimum and maximum value (A)
respectively of a  b  c if
log | a |  log | b |  log | c | 0? [1 Mark]
(A) – 3 and 3 (B) –1 and 1
(C) –1 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
3.19 The perimeters of a circle, a square and an
equilateral triangle are equal. Which one of
the following statement is true? [1 Mark] (B)
(A) The circle has the largest area.
(B) The square has the largest area.
(C) The equilateral triangle has the largest
area
(D) All the three shapes have the same area
3.20 The value of the expression
1 1 1 (C)
  is
1  log u vw 1  log v wu 1  log w uv
_______. [1 Mark]
(A) –1 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 3
3.21 A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m2, if
it is bent into a square. The wire is cut into (D)
two pieces. The longer piece is thrice as long
as the shorter piece. The long and the short
pieces are bent into a square and a circle,
respectively. Which of the following choices
is closest to the sum of the areas enclosed by
the two pieces in square meters? [1 Mark]
(A) 1096 (B) 1111
2021 IIT Bombay
(C) 1243 (D) 2486
2020 IIT Delhi 3.24
M
3.22 Define [x] as the greatest integer less than or
equal to x, for each x  (, ) . If y  [ x ] ,
then area under y for x [1, 4] is _______.
[2 Marks] O N
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 6 (D) 1
3.23 Select the graph that schematically
represents both y  xm and y  x1/m properly In the above figure, O is the center of the
circle and, M and N lie on the circle. The

General Aptitude 3
 area of the right triangle MON is 50 cm2 . (C) 665 (D) 664
What is the area of the circle in cm 2 ? 3.40 An opaque pyramid (shown below), with a
square base and isosceles faces, is suspended
[2 Marks]
in the path of a parallel beam of light, such
(A) 2 (B) 50 (C) that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented
100 (D) 75 perpendicular to the direction of the light
3.25 Consider a square sheet of side 1 unit. The beam. The pyramid can be reoriented in any
sheet is first folded along the main diagonal. direction within the light beam. Under these
This is followed by a fold along its line of conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q,
symmetry. The resulting folded shape is R, and S is NOT possible?
again folded along its line of symmetry. The
Opaque
area of each face of the final folded shape, in pyramid
square units, equal to _______. [1 Mark]
(A) 1/8 (B) 1/16
(C) 1/4 (D) 1/32
2022 IIT Kharagpur
P Q
3.26 A rhombus is formed by joining the
midpoints of the sides of a unit square.
What is the diameter of the largest circle that
R S
can be inscribed within the rhombus?
[2 Marks]
(A) P (B) Q
1 1
(A) (B) (C) R (D) S
2 2 2
(C) 2 (D) 2 2
2023 IIT Kanpur
3.37 The minute-hand and second hand of clock
cross each other _______ times between
9:15 AM to 9:45 AM on a day.
(A) 30 (B) 15
(C) 29 (D) 31
3.38 There are two inequalities :
p 2  4q  4
3 p  2q  6
Where p and q are positive integers. The
value of p + q is __________.
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) 4
3.39 How many pairs of sets (S, T) are possible
among the subsets of {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} that
satisfy the condition that S is subset of T?
(A) 729 (B) 728
4 General Aptitude
 m
3.6 280  y
So, f ( x ', y ')  (2 x)   
n

Given : 2
f ( x ', y ')  2n x n  y m  2 m
f ( x ', y ')  2n m  x n  y m
Since, xn y m  P
f ( x ', y ')  2n m P
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.8 (C)

PS 3 Given : Total number of points in x-axis according

  k1 (let) to range  4  x  5 = 10.
QS 1
PS  3k1 , QS  k1 Total number of points in y-axis according to
range 6  y  16 = 11.
RT 5
  k2 (let)
QT 2
RT  5k2 , QT  2k2
Area of triangle QTS  20 cm2
1
 2k2  k1  20
2
k1k2  20 …(i) Total number of coordinates that point P can take
Area of triangle, in given range  10 11  110
1 If P is fixed, then R can only vary in x axis and
PQR   PQ  QR take total number of co-ordinates = 9 and Q can
2
only vary in y axis and take total number of co-
…(ii)
ordinates = 10.
From figure,
Therefore, total number of triangle that can be
PQ  PS  QS  3k1  k1  4k1
constructed  110  9 10  9900
QR  QT  RT  2k2  5k2  7k2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
From equation (ii), 3.9 (B)
1
PQR   4k1  7k2  14k1k2 Given : Length of the wire = 340 mm
2 Also the sides of rectangle are in the ratio 1 : 2.
From equation (i), ..Method 1..
PQR  14  20  280 cm2
Hence, the area of triangle PQR in cm 2 is 280.
3.7 (A)
Let length and width of rectangle be 2x and x
Given : f ( x, y)  x n y m  P
respectively.
Since, x is double and y is half Perimeter of rectangle  2(2 x  x)  6 x

General Aptitude 5
 Perimeter of square  340  6x 2x = 36.66 × 2 = 73.32
340  6 x Area of square = x2 = (30)2 = 900
Side of square, s 
4 Area of rectangle
Total area = x × 2x = 36.66 × 73.32 = 2688.27
= Area of square  Area of rectangle Total area (A) = 900 + 2688.27 = 3588.27 mm2
Option (B) :
 340  6 x 
2

   2x  x Side of the square = x = 40 mm

 4 
Perimeter of the square  4  40  160
 340  6 x 
2

 Perimeter of the square = 340 – 160 = 180 mm

  2x
2

 4  2x + 2 × 2x = 180 mm
Given condition : Combined area of square + 6x = 180 mm
rectangle should be minimum, x = 30 mm
 340  6 x 
2 Area of the square = 40 × 40 = 1600 mm2
Let f ( x)     2x
2
Area of the rectangle = 30 × 2 × 30 = 1800 mm2
 4 
Total area = 1600 + 1800
For minimum value of F ( x)
Area (B) = 3400 mm2
f '( x)  0
Option (C) :
  340  6 x   6  Side of the square  x  120
f '( x)   2       4x  0
  4  4  Perimeter of the square  4 120  480
 340  6 x  Here perimeter of the square > length of wire
3    4 x So, this option is incorrect.
 4 
Option (D) :
340  6 x 4 x
 Side of the square  x  180
4 3 Perimeter of the square  4 180  720
340 4 x 3x
  Here perimeter of the square > length of wire
4 3 2 So, this option is incorrect.
340 17 x On comparing the valid areas of options (A) and

4 6 (B),
340  6 Area (B) < Area (A)
x  30 mm
17  4 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Side of square, ..Method 3..
340  6 x 340  180 As per data
s   40 mm Wire is divided into two parts –
4 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). Let a  b  340
..Method 2..
Checking from the options,
Option (A) :
Side of the square = x = 30 mm
Perimeter of rectangle,
Perimeter of the square = 4  30 = 120 mm
b  2x  x  2x  x
Therefore,
b  6x
Perimeter of the rectangle = 340–120 = 220 mm
x  b/6
2x + 2 × 2x = 220
and perimeter of square , a  4 y
x = 36.66

6 General Aptitude
 y  a /4  3  2  3  36
A    1 a    1 
Sum of area A  Area of square + Area of
 4   4  25
rectangle
A  2.06
A  y 2  2x2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
A  (a /4)2  2(b/6)2
3.11 (A)
a 2 b2
A  Given : a b  ab  (a  b) … (i)
16 18
and a x  a
a 2 (340  a) 2
A  Checking from options,
16 18
From option (A) : x  0
For minimum area,
From equation (i),
dA
0 a 0a
da a b  ab  (a  b)
2a 2(340  a)
  (1)  0 For b  0,
16 18
a 0  a  0  ( a  0)  a
a (340  a)
 Option (A) satisfied the property of identify
8 9 element.
9a  2720  8a
Hence, the correct option is (A).
a  160 m
3.12 (C)
a
Side of square   40 m
4  
Given : y  ln e sin( x ) ; x  2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
where, x represents the abscissa and y
3.10 (B) represents the ordinate.
Given : Perimeter of the window = 6 m, At x  2
5a  6 m
6
y  ln e sin 2 
0
a m So, option (D) is incorrect.
5
3
At x  ,
2

 sin 2 
3

y  ln  e 0

 

y  ln e  1
This eliminates option (A) and (B) as well.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Area of window will be, 3.13 (D)
A  area of triangle ABE + area of
Given :
rectangle ABCD
3 2
A  a  a2
4

General Aptitude 7
 Distance travelled by cone in one rotation while P
is fixed until the Q touches the ground again, is
given by,
Perimeter  2r  2 5  10
Slant height of the cone is given by,
S  52  122  13
(ii) Plane S2 : x  y  2, y  1 and x  3
or x  y  2, y  1 and x  3
 y  x2
Arc  10 cm
Angle about P is given by,
arc 10
  rad
Slant hight 13
Hence, the correct option is (D).
3.14 (B)
Given :

Employees Salaries
45 20,000 Union of S1 and S 2 i.e. S is shown below,
25 30,000
20 40,000
8 60,000
2 150,000

Median is defined as the data in the series which is

in middle of the series.
According to the table, the employee that is in the
middle is one of the 25 employees, whose salary is
30,000.
So, median of the salaries is 30,000.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Area of ACDE  6  4  24
3.15 (C)
1
Given : Area of ABC   4  4  8
2
(i) Plane S1 : x  1  2 and y  2  3
Total area  24  8  32
x 1  2 y23 Hence, the correct option is (C).
or and
x  1  2 y  2  3
3.16 (B)
From the given graph,
x y
0 0
1 1

8 General Aptitude
 2 0 3.18 (A)
Checking from options : Given :
At x = 1, log| a |  log| b |  log| c | 0 …(i)
Option (A) : log[| a | | b | | c |]  0
y  x 1  2  2  2  0 | a |  | b |  | c | 1
According to the table shown above, option (A) is Let, a  1
incorrect. | b |  | c | 1
Option (B) : 1
| b |
y  x  1  1  0  1  1 |c|
According to the table shown above, option (B) is Now, equation (i) will be satisfied for multiple
correct. values of b and c [ a  1]
Option (C) : Therefore, checking from the options,
y  x  1 1  2 1  1 From option (A),
According to the table shown above, option (C) is Maximum value = 3
incorrect. Minimum value = –3
Option (D) : Now, equation (i) will be true, only if | a | , | b | and
y  x 1 1  0 1  1 | c | all are equal to 1.

According to the table shown above, option (D) is So, maximum value  a  b  c max

incorrect.  111  3
Hence, the correct option is (B).
and minimum value  a  b  c min
3.17 (B)
 1 1 1  3
Let the length and breadth of rectangle are L and Hence, the correct option is (A).
B. So,
Area ( AR )  L  B
By reducing length by 10 m and breadth by 5 m,
rectangle becomes square (arms of a square are 3.19 (A)
equal).
Given : Parameters of circle, square and
So, L  10  B  5
equilateral triangle are equal.
LB 5 …(i)
So, D  4a  3 A …(i)
Area of square  AR  650
( L  10)( B  5)  AR  650
LB  5L  10B  50  AR  650
5L  10B  700 …(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),  2
Area of circle  D …(ii)
B  45 m, L  50 m 4
Area of rectangle, Area of square  a 2
AR  45  50  2250 m2 From equation (i),
Hence, the correct option is (B).

General Aptitude 9
  D  2 D 2
2 Wire is divided into two pieces, longer piece is
a 
2
  …(iii) thrice as long as shorter piece.
 4  16
So, longer piece length  3 44  132 m
3 2 And shorter piece length  1 44  44 m
Area of equilateral triangle  A
4 According to question,
From equation (i), Longer piece wire is bent into square,
3  D 
2
3 2 32 D 2 So, 4A  132
A     …(iv)
4 4  3  36 A  33 m
From equation (ii), (iii) and (iv), Therefore, area of longer piece wire’s square,
D D
2 2
3 D
2 2 2
 A2  332  1089 m 2
 
4 16 36 Shorter piece wire is bent in circle,
Therefore, area of the circle is largest. So, circle perimeter  D  44
Hence, the correct option is (A). 22
3.20 (C)
 D  44
7
Let I 
1

1

1 D  14 m
1  log u vw 1  log v wu 1  log w uv  
Area of circle   D2  142  153.94 m 2
1 1 1 4 4
I  
log e vw log e wu log e uv Total area enclosed
1 1 1
log e u log e v log e w = Area of square + Area of circle
 log e b   1089  153.94
log a b  
 log e a   1242.97  1243 m 2
log u log v Hence, the correct option is (C).
I 
log u  log v  log w log u  log v  log w 3.22 (C)
log w

log u  log v  log w
log u  log v  log w
I
log u  log v  log w
I=1
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.21 (C)
Area of wire, when it is bent into square
 1936 m 2
Area under y  [ x ] is
A2  1936 m2
 1 (2  1)  2  (3  2)  3  (4  3)
A  44 m
 1 2  3 = 6
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.23 (B)

y  xm 
Given : 0  x  1
y  x1/ m 
So, the length of wire  4A  4  44  176 m

10 General Aptitude
 y
1
Area of AOB  BO  OA
2
1 /m
x 1 1 1 1
0.7071     Square unit
2 2 2 8
xm
0.25 Hence, the correct option is (A).
x 3.26 (A)
x = 0.5
Put x  0.5 and m  2 , Let ABCD be the square of unit length and
y  x  0.5  0.25
m 2 P, Q, R, S be midpoints of AB, BC , CD, DA
y  x1/ m  0.51/2  0.7071 respectively
D R C
Hence, the correct option is (B).
T
3.24 (C) 1/ 2
r
Given : S Q
O 1/ 2
Area of triangle MNO  50 cm2 1/ 2
1
 OM  ON  50 A 1/ 2 B
2 P
Since, the radius of circle is OM  ON  r Let O be centre of circle
1 2 1
Therefore,  r  50 OR  OQ  units
2 2
r 2  100 2 2
1 1
r  10 cm SP       (in SAP )
2 2
Then, the area of circle  r 2  (10)2  100 cm2
1
Hence, the correct option is (C).  2
2
3.25 (A)
SP  PQ  RQ  PS (rhombus)
1
Area of ORQ  OROQ
2
1
 OT  RQ
2
1 1 1 1
. .   r  RQ
2 2 2 2
1
r
2 2
AO  AB 2  OB 2
1
1 1 1 Diameter  2r 
AO    2
2 4 2
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.27 (A)

General Aptitude 11
 The minute hand and second hand of a clock a 3.29 (A)
cross each other one time in every minute but in
Let two number be (5, 6)
one hour (60 minute) minute hand and second
T  S  -1
hand crosses each other only for 59 times.
For an example, in between 9:00 to 10:00 in one T 5 S  , 5 -2
hours they will cross each other for 59 times. T 6 S  , 6 -2
The time period in which minute hand and second T  5, 6 S  ,5, 6 -3
hand does not cross each other is from 9:00 to Here, we get 9 possibilities (1+2+2+3) which is
9:01. 32
As at 9:00 minute hand and second hand are So, (5,6)  32  9
already coincided and when second hand starts (4,5, 6)  33  27
rotating it will not be coincide with hour hand till (3, 4,5, 6)  34  81
9:01.
Similarly, (1, 2,3, 4,5,6)  36  729
The given time period is from 9:15 am to 9:45 am
Hence, the correct option is (A).
total minutes are 30.
In these 30 minutes, minute hand and second hand 3.30 (B)
will cross each other for 30 times. Given :
Hence, the correct option is (A). An opaque pyramid with a square base and
3.28 (A) isosceles faces is suspended in the path of a
parallel beam of light such that its shadow is cast
3 p  2q  6
an a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction
6 p  4q  12 of the light beam.
4q  12  6 p ......(i) The pyramid can be reoriented in any direction
p 2  4q  4 within the light beam under these conditions the
p 2  4  4q ......(ii) shadow Q, is not possible.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
p 2  4  12  6 p
p 2  6 p  16  0 
p 2  8 p  2 p  16  0
p ( p  8)  2( p  8)  0
( p  8)( p  2)  0
p  (8, 2)
Since p is positive integer
So, p = 1
Using this in equation (i)
4q  12  6 p (p  1)
4q  6
3
q
2
q 1
 pq 2
Hence, the correct option is (A).

12 General Aptitude
Contents :

S. No. Topics
1. Synonyms & Antonyms
2. Analogies
3. Sentence Completion
4. Idioms & Phrases
5. Grammar
6. Case Studies
1 Synonyms & Antonyms

2013 IIT Bombay (A) dissent (B) descent

(C) decent (D) decadent
1.1 Which one of the following option is the
1.3 While receiving the award, the scientist said,
closest in meaning to the word given below?
“I feel vindicated”. Which of the following
[1 Mark]
is closest in meaning to the word
Nadir
“Vindicated”? [1 Mark]
(A) Highest (B) Lowest
(A) Punished (B) Substantiated
(C) Medium (D) Integration
(C) Appreciated (D) Chastened
2014 IIT Kharagpur
2015 IIT Kanpur
1.2 Which of the following option is the closest
1.4 Choose the word most similar in meaning to
in meaning to the word underlined in the
the given word : [1 Mark]
sentence below?
Awkward
In a democracy, everybody has the freedom
(A) Inept (B) Graceful
to disagree with the government.
[1 Mark] (C) Suitable (D) Dreadful

1.1 (B) Substantiated : Means to show to be true,

Nadir : It means the lowest point which is in
opposite to the word Zenith (highest point).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.2 (A)
Dissent : To fail to agree, to differ in opinion, to
cause discomfort or distress.
Descent : To move downward, lineage, origin.
Decent : Satisfactory, civilized, proper.
Decadent : To decline, retrogressive, tending to
fall.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.3 (B)
justified, providing evidence.
Appreciated : To recognize how good something
or someone is.
Chastened : To bring down.
Here, closest in meaning to the word vindicated is
substantiated.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
1.4 (A)
Awkward : Clumsy, unskilled, inept.
Graceful : A way of moving that is smooth and
attractive and is not stiff or awkward.
Suitable : Proper; appropriate.
Dreadful : Very bad or unpleasant.
Hence, the correct option is (A).



Vindicated : To set free, to free from allegation,
confirm, to provide justification.

General Aptitude 1
2 Analogies

2020 IIT Delhi White : Whitening : : Light : _______.

(A) Enlightening (B) Lightning
2.1 Select the word that fits the analogy
(C) Lightening (D) Lighting
[1 Mark]
2023 IIT Kanpur
Build : Building : : Grow : ______.
(A) Growth (B) Grew 2.3 Planting: Seed :: Raising : ?
(C) Growed (D) Grown (A) Child (B) Temperature
2.2 Select the word that fits the analogy : (C) Height (D) Lift
[1 Mark]

2.1 (A)
Since the pair build – building is verb noun.
Similarly : Grow : Growth
Hence, the correct option is (A).
2.2 (D)
White : Whitening : : Light-lighting [Gerund
form].
Hence, the correct option is (D).
2.3 (A)
Planting is related to seeding specific manner
putting seeds into the soil and taking care of them
so that they can grow. In the same way raising is
related to child graving a child by taking care of
him/her can be related as raising.
Hence, the correct option is (A).




General Aptitude 1
3 Sentence Completion

2013 IIT Bombay 3.6 Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of

the four options given below, to complete the
3.1 Complete the sentence :
following sentence :
Universalism is to particularism as
Apparent lifelessness _____ dormant life.
diffuseness is to ______. [1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
(A) Specificity (B) Neutrality (A) Harbours (B) Leads to
(C) Generality (D) Adaptation (C) Supports (D) Affects
2014 IIT Kharagpur 2016 IISc Bangalore
3.2 The value of one U.S. dollar is 65 Indian
3.7 Despite the new medicine’s ________ in
Rupees today, compared to 60 last year. The
treating diabetes, it is not _______ widely.
Indian Rupee has _______.
[1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
(A) effectiveness –– prescribed
(A) Depressed (B) Depreciated
(C) Appreciated (D) Stabilized (B) availability –– used
3.3 Choose the most appropriate word from the (C) prescription –– available
options given below to complete the (D) acceptance –– prescribed
following sentence. 3.8 The students _______ the teacher on
Many ancient cultures attributed disease to teachers’ day for twenty years of dedicated
supernatural causes. However, modern teaching. [1 Mark]
science has largely helped ________ such (A) facilitated (B) felicitated
notions. (C) fantasized (D) facillitated
[1 Mark] 3.9 The unruly crowd demanded that the
(A) impel (B) dispel accused be ______ without trial.
(C) propel (D) repel
[1 Mark]
3.4 Choose the most appropriate pair of words
(A) Hanged (B) Hanging
from the options given below to complete the
following sentence. (C) Hankering (D) Hung
She could not _____ the thought of ______ 2017 IIT Roorkee
the election to her bitter rival.
3.10 As the two speakers became increasingly
[1 Mark]
agitated, the debate became ______.
(A) bear, loosing (B) bare, loosing
[1 Mark]
(C) bear, losing (D) bare, losing
3.5 After the discussion, Tom said to me, (A) lukewarm (B) poetic
“Please revert!”. He expects me to_______. (C) forgiving (D) heated
[1 Mark] 3.11 He was one of my best _________ and I felt
(A) retract (B) get back to him his loss _________. [1 Mark]
(C) move in reverse (D) retreat (A) friend, keenly (B) friends, keen
2015 IIT Kanpur (C) friend, keener (D) friends, keenly

General Aptitude 1
 3.12 If you choose plane P, you will have to (C) Belting (D) Tying
________ plane Q as these two are mutually 3.17 A final examination is the _______ of a
_______. [1 Mark]
series of evaluation that a student has to go
(A) forgo, exclusive
through [1 Mark]
(B) forget, inclusive
(A) Consultation (B) Insinuation
(C) accept, exhaustive
(D) adopt, intrusive (C) Culmination (D) Desperation
3.18 Once the team of analysts identify the
2018 IIT Guwahati
problem, we _______ in a better position to
3.13 Her _________ should not be confused with comment on the issue. Which one of the
miserliness; she is ever willing to assist those following choices CANNOT fill the given
in need. [1 Mark] blank. [1 Mark]
(A) Cleanliness (B) Punctuality (A) Might be (B) Are going to be
(C) Frugality (D) Greatness (C) Were to be (D) Will be
3.14 Going by the ________ that many hand
2020 IIT Delhi
make light work, the school _______
involved all the students in the task. 3.19 The recent measures to improve the output
would ______ the level of production to our
[1 Mark]
satisfaction [2 Marks]
(A) Principle, Principal
(A) equalise (B) speed
(B) Principal, Principle
(C) increase (D) decrease
(C) Principle, Principle
2022 IIT Kharagpur
(D) Principal, Principal
3.20 After playing _________ hours of tennis, I
3.15 “The judge’s standing in the legal
am feeling _________ tired to walk back.
community, through shaken by false [1 Mark]
allegations of wrongdoing, remained
(A) too / too (B) too / two
________.” The word that best fills the blank
(C) two / two (D) two / too
in the above sentence is [1 Mark]
3.21 Writing too many things on the ________
(A) Undiminished (B) Damaged while teaching could make the students get
(C) Illegal (D) Uncertain _________. [1 Mark]
2019 IIT Madras (A) bored / board (B) board / bored
(C) board / board (D) bored / bored
3.16 The minister avoided any mention of the
2023 IIT Kanpur
issue of women’s reservation in private
3.22 He did not manage to fix the car himself, so
sector. He was accused of _______ the issue.
he ________ in the garage.
[1 Mark] (A) got it fixed (B) getting it fixed
(A) Skirting (B) Collaring (C) gets fixed (D) got fixed

2 General Aptitude
 3.1 (A)
Universalism : Complete devotion in the interest
of one and all.
3.3 (B)
Particularism : Special devotion in a particular
interest. Impel : To force somebody.
Universalism and Particularism are opposite Dispel : To disappear something, especially an
words. Similarly, we require a word which is idea or notion.
opposite to diffuseness. Propel : To push.
Specificity : Means the quality of beam particular Repel : To force back.
or specific.
According to the sentence, ancient cultures
Neutrality : Means not taking any side in a
pointed out that disease is caused due to
conflict.
supernatural causes. But modern science has
Generality : Covering range of things rather than
helped to disappear such notions.
being specific. Similar to diffuseness.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Adaptation : Act of changing something or
yourself to make it suitable for a situation. 3.4 (C)
Diffuseness refers to spreading or causing to Bear : To carry something.
spread in all directions. Specificity is an Bare : Without anything.
appropriate opposite. Loosing : To loosen something.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Losing : Getting defeated in a battle.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

3.2 (B)
3.5 (B)
The value of rupees gets depreciated.
‘Revert’ means return to former state or reply;
Depressed : sad.
respond.
Depreciated : lose value. Retract : Taking back a given statement.
Appreciated : praised. Get back to him : Reply or respond.
Stabilized : to make stable. Retreat : Moving away or withdrawing from
1 enemy forces.
Last year 1$  Rs.60  1 Rupee  $
60 Hence, the correct option is (B).
1
This year 1$  Rs.65  1 Rupee  $
65
1 
 3.6 (A)
60 65
So, it can be said that there is depreciation in Harbours/Harbor : Giving home or shelter.
rupee. Dormant : Temporarily inactive.
Affects : Having an effect on.
Hence, the correct option is (B).

General Aptitude 3
 According to all the options, option (A) is the most
appropriate choice.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.7 (A)
‘effectiveness’ is noun and ‘prescribed’ is verb.
These words are apt and befitting with the word
‘medicine.’
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.8 (B)
Felicitated : To compliment upon a happy event;
congratulate or Honour.
Facillitated : No such word exists.
Facilitated : Make easy or easier.
Fantasized : Imagine something desirable.
Therefore, the most appropriate word is felicitated.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
3.9 (A)
Hankering : Having a strong desire towards
something.
“hanged” means death by hanging, ‘hung’ is used
only with things not living.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.10 (D)
Lukewarm : Only slightly warm.
Poetic : Something like a poem.
Heated : Marked by excitement or angry feeling.
Agitated : Troubled or distributed or angry.
Since, the two speakers were getting angry the
debate became heated.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
3.11 (D)
Keenly : Intensely, deeply.
The sentence states ‘one of my best’ meaning out
of many best friends.
So, the sentence should be ‘He was one of my best
friends and I felt his loss keenly.
4 General Aptitude
Hence, the correct option is (D).
3.12 (A)
Forgo : Leave, let go.
Exclusive : Not including both.
Inclusive : Including both.
Intrusive : Causing disruption.
The most suitable words are forgo and exclusive.
‘If you choose plan P, you will have to forgo plan
Q, as these two are mutually exclusive.’
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.13 (C)
Miserliness : Excessive desire to save money,
miser.
Frugality : Being economical with money or
food.
In the given sentence, it is implied that one of her
qualities is sometimes taken as miserliness but it
should not be done. So, that quality is similar to
miserliness.
Therefore, frugality is the most appropriate word.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.14 (A)
Principal : Someone of importance or of high
rank.
Principle : Rule of action or conduct.
Going by the principle that many hand make light
work, the school principal involved all the students
in the task.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.15 (A)
Given sentence states that the judge was falsely
accused of wrongdoing. The use of word
‘remained’ indicates that even after the false
allegations, his standing in the legal community
did not change or remained undiminished.
Undiminished means not becoming any less or not
tarnishing.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 3.19 (C)
To improve the output, increase in the level of
production is required.
3.16 (A) Hence, the correct option is (C).
Skirting : Avoid or try to avoid fulfilling, 3.20 (D)
answering, or performing. In first filler we need to mention number so option
Collaring : Seize by the size or collar. (A) and (B) are eliminated and in second filler we
Belting : Strike someone by belt. are getting the sense of exhausted, so it should be
Tying : The act of tying or binding things together. ‘too’.
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (D).
3.17 (C) 3.21 (B)
Consultation: Act of referring for consulting. Writing too many things on the board while
Example: A consultation of several medical teaching could make the students get bored.
specialist. Hence, the correct option is (B).
Insinuation: The act of gaining acceptance or
3.22 (A)
affection for yourself by persuasive and subtle
blandishments. Given :
Example: Even in this lower house very recently He did not manage to fix the car himself, so he got
an insinuation was made that it was not the it fixed in the garage.
peoples movement which won freedom. Hence, the correct option is (A).
Culmination: A concluding action. 
Example: As a culmination of this process, the 
president of South Africa, Mr. Cyril Ramaphosa
visited India in January 2019 and was the chief
guest at the Republic day parade.
Desperation: A state in which all hope is lost or
absent.
Example: In desperation terrorist turned to
action such as the large scale massacre of innocent
civilians.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.18 (C)
The initial statement of the sentence ‘once the
analysts identify the problem’ suggests that
completion of first part will lead to the possibility
of second part mentioned in the latter part of
statement. It means that the blank will either be a
word that describes possibility or future.
Only option (C) describes the past, which can not
be used in the subject.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

General Aptitude 5
4 Idioms & Phrases

2014 IIT Kharagpur (D) Bird from the flock

4.1 Which of the options given below best
completes the following sentence?
She will feel much better if she ______.
[1 Mark]
(A) will get some rest
(B) gets some rest
(C) will be getting some rest
(D) is getting some rest
4.2 “India is a country of rich heritage and
cultural diversity.”
Which one of the following facts best
supports the claim made in the above
sentence? [1 Mark]
(A) India is a union of 28 states and 7 union
territories.
(B) India has a population of over 1.1 billion.
(C) India is home to 22 official languages
and thousands of dialects.
(D) The Indian cricket team draws players
from over ten states.
2015 IIT Kanpur
4.5 Choose the statement where underlined
word is used correctly. [1 Mark]
(A) When the teacher eludes to different
authors, he is being elusive.
(B) When the thief keeps eluding the police,
he is being elusive.
(C) Matters that are difficult to understand,
identify or remember are allusive.
(D) Mirages can be allusive, but a better
way to express them is illusory.
4.6 Select the appropriate option in place of
underlined part of the sentence.
Increased productivity necessary reflects
greater efforts made by the employees.
[2 Marks]
(A) Increase in productivity necessary
(B) Increase productivity is necessary
(C) Increase in productivity necessarily
(D) No improvement required
2016 IISc Bangalore

4.3 Choose the most suitable one word substitute 4.7 After India’s cricket world cup victory in
for the following expression : 1985, Shrotria who was playing both tennis
[1 Mark] and cricket till then, decided to concentrate
Connotation of a road or way only on cricket. And the rest is history.
(A) Pertinacious (B) Viaticum What does the underlined phrase mean in
(C) Clandestine (D) Ravenous this context? [1 Mark]
4.4 Fill in the blank with the correct idiom/ (A) history will rest in peace
phrase.
(B) rest is recorded in history books
That boy from the town was a ______ in
(C) rest is well known
the sleepy village. [1 Mark]
(D) rest is archaic
(A) Dog out of herd
(B) Sheep from the heap
(C) Fish out of water

General Aptitude 1
 2019 IIT Madras
4.8 Under a certain legal system, prisoners are
allowed to make one statement. If their
statement turns out to be true then they are
hanged. If the statement turns out to be false
then they are shot. One prisoner made a
statement and the judge had no option but to
set him free. Which one of the following
could be that statement? [2
Marks]
(A) You committed the crime
(B) I committed the crime
(C) I will be shot
(D) I didn't commit the crime
4.9 M and N had four children (P, Q, R and S) of
them, only P and R are married. They had
children X and Y respectively. If Y is the
legitimate child of W, which one of the
following statement is necessarily FALSE?
[2 Marks]
(A) W is the wife of P
(B) W is the wife of R
(C) M is the grandmother of Y
(D) R is the father of Y
2020 IIT Delhi
100. GATE
4.1 (B)
If two events in the future is being talked about
then the sentence starting with ‘if ’ takes simple
present tense and the other sentence takes simple
future tense.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.2 (C)
2 General Aptitude
4.10 He is known for his unscrupulous ways. He
always sheds _______ tears to deceive
people. [1 Mark]
(A) Crocodile (B) Fox’s
(C) Fox (D) Crocodile’s
4.11 I do not think you know the case well enough
to have opinions. Having said that, I agree
with your other point.
What does the phrase “having said that”
mean in the given text? [1 Mark]
(A) As opposed to what I have said
(B) Despite what I have said
(C) Contrary to what I have said
(D) In addition to what I have said
4.12 In one of the greatest innings ever seen in
142 years of the Test history, Ben Stokes
upped the tempo in a five-and-a-half hour
long stay of 219 balls including 11 fours and
8 sixes that saw him finish on a 135 not out
as England squared the five-match series.
Based on their connotations in the given
passage, which one of the following
meanings DOES NOT match? [1 Mark]
(A) upped = increased
(B) squared = lost
(C) saw = resulted in
(D) tempo = enthusiasm
Only in option (C), actual diversity is shown in
terms of different languages.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.3 (B)
Connotation : A feeling or idea that is suggested
by a particular word.
Pertinacious : Determined, firm, strong, resolute.
Viaticum : Provisions for a journey.
Clandestine : Secret, confidential, latent.
Ravenous : Very hungry, predatory, vultures.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.4 (C)
Dog out of herd : This phrase refers to someone
who is out of his/her group.
[Herd : Large group of animal]
Sheep from the heap : This phrase does not hold
any specific correct meaning.
[Heap : Stack, bundle]
Fish out of water : This idiom refers to being
uncomfortable in an unknown environment.
Bird from the flock : This phrase refers to
someone who belongs to their respective group.
[Flock : Large group of birds or animals]
Given sentence in the question means the boy is
from town, so he feels uncomfortable in the
village.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.5 (B)
Elude : Escaping from or avoiding danger.
Elusive : Difficult to catch, find or achieve.
Allusive : Implying or indirectly suggesting
something.
‘When the thief keeps eluding the police’ means
when the thief is escaping from police again and
again. ‘He is being elusive’ means he is hard to
catch.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.6 (C)
Necessary : Adjective
Necessarily : Adverb
Adverb always gives extra information about the
verb and adjective gives extra information about
the noun.
Here in the question great effort is necessarily
reflected by increase in productivity.
General Aptitude
Adverb ‘Necessarily’ is giving extra information
that great efforts are the main reason to reflect
(verb) increase in productivity.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.7 (C)
Archaic : Very old fashion
The underlined phrase means that rest is well
known. As history is permanent documentation
and well known.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.8 (C)
Given : If the statement is true then prisoner is
hanged and if the statement is false then prisoners
is shot.
From option (C) : I will be shot.
If the statement is true then he should be hanged
but for it to be true, he has to be shot.
If the statement is false then he should be shot but
for it to be false, he has to be hanged. Therefore,
the judge will have no option but to set him free.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.9 (A)
Since, only P and R married and the both have
child X and Y respectively whereas Y is also child
of W. So, there is no relation between P and W that
is W can’t be wife of P.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
4.10 (A)
The idiom ‘crocodile tears’ refers to tears or
expression of sorrow that are insincere.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
4.11 (B)
3
 The speaker, while criticizing the listener,
concedes that the listener does have one valid
point of view.
Having said that : Despite what one has said.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.12 (B)

In the given passage, “squared” refers to victory or

completing a task successfully,
 “Squared = Lost” does not matches with the
passage.
Hence, the correct option is (B).



4 General Aptitude
5 Grammar

2013 IIT Bombay 2015 IIT Kanpur

5.1 Were you a bird, you _____ in the sky? 5.6 Choose the appropriate word/phase, out of
the four options given below, to complete the
[1 Mark]
following sentence :
(A) Would fly (B) Shall fly Dhoni, as well as the other team members of
(C) Should fly (D) Shall have flown the Indian team ______ present on the
5.2 Choose the grammatically incorrect occasion. [1 Mark]
sentence: [1 Mark] (A) were (B) was
(A) He is of Asian origin. (C) has (D) have
5.7 What is the adverb for the given word
(B) They belonged to Africa.
below? [1 Mark]
(C) She is an European.
Misogynous
(D) They migrated from India to Australia. (A) Misogynousness (B) Misogynity
2014 IIT Kharagpur (C) Misogynously (D) Misogynous
5.3 Choose the most appropriate phrase from the 5.8 In the following sentence certain parts are
options given below to complete the underlined and marked P, Q and R. One of
following sentence. the parts may contain certain error or may
The aircraft ______ take off as soon as its not be acceptable in standard written
flight plan was filed. [1 Mark] communication. Select the part containing
(A) is allowed to an ERROR. Choose D as your answer if
(B) will be allowed to there is NO ERROR.
(C) was allowed to [2 Marks]
(D) has been allowed to The student corrected all the errors that
5.4 Choose the most appropriate word from the P
options given below to complete the the instructor marked on the answer book
following sentence. .
Q R
Communication and interpersonal skills are
(A) P (B) Q
_______ important in their own ways.
(C) R (D) No Error
[1 Mark]
(A) each (B) both 5.9 Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank
(C) all (D) either below: [1 Mark]
5.5 ‘Advice’ is _______. [1 Mark] Let us ______.
(A) a verb. (A) introvert (B) alternate
(B) a noun. (C) atheist (D) altruist
(C) an adjective.
(D) both a verb and a noun.

General Aptitude 1
 5.10 Choose the most appropriate word from the (A) Mr. X is longer than Mr. Y.
options given below to complete the (B) Mr. X is more elongated than Mr. Y.
following sentence. (C) Mr. X is taller than Mr. Y.
If the athlete had wanted to come first in the (D) Mr. X is lengthier than Mr. Y.
race, he ______ several hours every day. 5.15 The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 unit is
[1 Mark] ______ than the volume of a cube of side 1
(A) should practice unit. [1 Mark]
(B) should have practiced (A) Least (B) Less
(C) practiced (C) Lesser (D) Low
(D) should be practicing 5.16 Choose the statement(s) where the
5.11 Ram and Shyam shared a secret and underlined word is used correctly :
promised to each other that it would remain [1 Mark]
between them. Ram express himself in one (i) A prone is a dried plum.
of the following ways as given in the choices
(ii) He was lying prone on the floor.
below. Identify the correct way as per
(iii)People who eat a lot of fat are prone to
standard English.
heart disease.
[2 Marks]
(A) (i) and (ii) only
(A) It would remain between you and me.
(B) It would remain between I and you. (B) (iii) only
(C) It would remain between you and I. (C) (i) and (ii) only
(D) It would remain with me. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
2016 IISc Bangalore 2017 IIT Roorkee

5.12 Which of the following is CORRECT with 5.17 The ways in which this game can be played
respect to grammar and usage? _____ potentially infinite.
[1 Mark] [1 Mark]
Mount Everest is ________. (A) is (B) is being
(A) the highest peak in the world. (C) are (D) are being
(B) highest peak in the world.
2018 IIT Guwahati
(C) one of highest peak in the world.
(D) one of the highest peak in the world. 5.18 The dress ______ her so well that they all
5.13 The policeman asked the victim of a theft, immediately______ her for appearance. The
“What did you _______?” words that best fill blanks in the above are
[1 Mark] [1 Mark]
(A) loose (B) lose (A) complemented, complemented
(C) loss (D) louse (B) complimented, complemented
5.14 Based on the given statements, select the (C) complimented, complimented
appropriate option with respect to grammar (D) complemented, complimented
and usage. [1 Mark]
2019 IIT Madras
Statements :
(i) The height of Mr. X is 6 feet. 5.19 John Thomas, an _______ writer, passed
(ii) The height of Mr. Y is 5 feet. away in 2018 [1 Mark]

2 General Aptitude
 (A) Prominent (B) Eminent (i) After his surgery, Raja hardly could
(C) Imminent (D) Dominant walk.
5.20 ________ I permitted him to leave, I (ii) After his surgery, Raja could barely
wouldn’t have had any problem with him walk.
being absent ______ I? [1 Mark] (iii)After his surgery, Raja barely could
(A) Had, would walk.
(B) Have, would (iv) After his surgery, Raja could hardly
walk. [2 Marks]
(C) Had, wouldn’t
(A) (i) and (iii)
(D) Have, wouldn’t
(B) (i) and (ii)
5.21 Are there enough seats here? There are
(C) (iii) and (iv)
_______ people here than I expected.
(D) (ii) and (iv)
[1 Mark]
2023 IIT Kanpur
(A) Least (B) Many
(C) More (D) Most 5.25 Which one of the sentence sequence in the
given option creates a coherent narrative?
2020 IIT Delhi
(i) I could not bring myself to knock
5.22 Jofra Archer, the England fast bowler is (ii) There was a number of unfamiliar voices
_______ than accurate [1 Mark] coming from the big drawing room and
(A) More fast (B) More faster the door was firmly shut.
(C) Less fast (D) Faster (iii)The passage was dark for a bit, but then
it suddenly opened into a bright kitchen.
5.23 While I agree ______ his proposal this time,
(iv) I decided I would rather wander down
I do not often agree ______ him.
the passage.
[2 Marks]
(A) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
(A) to, with (B) to, to (B) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
(C) with, with (D) with, to (C) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
2021 IIT Bombay (D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

5.24 Consider the following statements :

5.1 (A) Usage of article ‘an’ depends more on sound of the

Refer to the concept of Solution 5.2
The first clause in the given question is in past
tense (unrealistic situation). So, second
conditional sentence concept will be applied.
Therefore the correct assertion is,
Were you a bird, you would fly in the sky.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
5.2 (C)
From option (C) : She is an European
General Aptitude
first alphabet of the word than on it being a vowel.
If the sound is vowel, ‘an’ is used and if the sound
is of consonant then ‘a’ is used.
In option (C), ‘European’ has a sound of ‘yoo’
which is a consonant. Therefore, appropriate
article will be ‘a’ and not ‘an’.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.3 (C)
The sentence is in past tense. So, the correct option
is “was allowed to”.
3
 Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.4 (B)
‘Each’ and ‘either’ are incorrect because the
pronoun used in the sentence is ‘their’. Two words
have been used in the sentence i.e. communication
and interpersonal skills. So, ‘both’ is correct when
we are referring to it.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.5 (B)
Advice is a noun which means an opinion or
recommendation offered as a guide to action or
conduct etc.
Advise is a verb which means to give counsel or
offer opinion worth following.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.6 (B)
To find the correct answer, we simply ignore the
additional information and focus on the first
subject. In the given question, the first subject is
‘Dhoni’ because in the given sentence we have ‘as
well as’ and not ‘and’. So the main subject is just
Dhoni and therefore, ‘was’ is the appropriate word
for the blank.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.7 (C)
Words in options (A) and (B) are nouns and (D) is
an adjective.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.8 (B)
In the given question, the part which contains error
is Q. the correct assertion should be,
The student corrected all the errors that the
instructor had marked on the answer book.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4 General Aptitude
5.9 (B)
Words in option (A), (C) and (D) are nouns. “Let
us” is followed by a verb.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.10 (B)
According to the concept of third conditional
sentences, if the ‘if clause’ is in past perfect tense
then the main clause includes should have / would
have / could have + verb (III).
Hence the correct assertion is,
If the athlete had wanted to come first in the race,
he should have practiced several hours every day.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.11 (A)
‘Between’ is followed by pronoun in object form.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
5.12 (A)
Before superlative article ‘the’ has to be used. The
expression ‘one of ’ should take plural noun and
so options (C) and (D) can’t be the answer.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
5.13 (B)
‘lose’ is a verb.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.14 (C)
In degrees of comparison, Mr. X is taller than Mr.
Y.
Positive degree – tall
Comparative degree – taller
Superlative degree – tallest
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.15 (B)
Given sentence compares between the volume of
sphere and cube.
The comparative degree of less is less.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.16 (D)
Prone : Likely to suffer.
Prone : Tilted, inclined, facing downward.
Sentence (ii) and (iii) are correctly using the word
prone.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
5.17 (C)
The object in the given sentence is ‘the ways’
which is in plural form so, the most appropriate
word is ‘are’.
The ways in which this game can be played are
potentially infinite.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.18 (D)
Complemented : adding extra feature to
something.
Complimented : Remark of admiration
The dress added extra feature to her looks i.e.
complemented her looks. So, everyone
complimented her on her appearance.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
5.19 (B)
Prominent : Having a quality that thrusts itself
into attention.
Eminent : Standing above others in quality or
position that is well qualified.
Imminent : About to occur.
Dominant : Most frequent or common.
Eminent is the suitable word because it defines the
qualities that writer should have.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
General Aptitude
5.20 (A)
Given sentence is the third type of conditional
clause. In which first clause is in past perfect tense
and subsequent clause includes would have /
should have / would not have / should not have.
Due to past perfect tense in first clause, ‘Had’ will
be appropriate. In the subsequent clause, the
question part should use ‘would’ because of use of
‘would not have’ in the sentence.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
5.21 (C)
The above sentence is belongs to the criteria of
comparison. So we directly go through the option
which show comparative degree.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.22 (A)
The sentence refers to two adjectives, more fast
than accurate, comparing one being more than the
other.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
5.23 (A)
Agree to something is used to show consent to a
request.
Agree with someone is used to shows same
opinion.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
5.24 (D)
Hardly/Barely have same sense that is negative
and they are used after the verb.
Grammatically correct statements are :
(i) After his surgery, Raja could barely walk.
(ii) After his surgery, Raja could hardly walk.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
5.25 (C)
Given :
1. I could not bring myself to knock
5
 2. There was a number of unfamiliar voices
coming from the big drawing room and
the door was firmly shut.
3. The passage was dark for a bit, but then
it suddenly opened into a bright kitchen.
4. I decided I would rather wander down
the passage.
We will make pair of two sentence for the
sequences which creates a coherent
narrative.
The pairs will be 2-1 and 4-3 which gives a
meaningful narrative.
According to the options, sequence in option
(C) will give best coherent meaning.
Hence, the correct option is (C).



6 General Aptitude
6 Case Studies
2013 IIT Bombay
6.1 After several defeats in wars, Robert Bruce
went in exile and wanted to commit suicide.
Just before committing suicide, he came
across a spider attempting tirelessly to have
its net. Time and again, the spider failed but
that did not deter it to refrain from making
attempts. Such attempts by the spider made
Bruce curious. Thus, Bruce started
observing the near impossible goal of the
spider to have the net. Ultimately, the spider
succeeded in having its net despite several
failures. Such act of the spider encouraged
Bruce not to commit suicide. And then,
Bruce went back again and won many a
battle, and the rest is history.
Which of the following assertions is best
supported by the above information?
[1 Mark]
(A) Failure is the pillar of success
(B) Honesty is the best policy
(C) Life begins and ends with adventures
(D) No adversity justifies giving up hope
2015 IIT Kanpur
6.2 Lamenting the gradual sidelining of the arts
in school curricula, a group of prominent
artists wrote to the Chief Minister last year,
asking him to allocate more funds to support
arts education in schools. However, no such
increase has been announced in this year’s
Budget. The artists expressed their deep
anguish at their request not being approved,
but many of them remain optimistic about
funding in the future.
Which of the statement(s) below is/are
logically valid and can be inferred from the
above statements? [2 Marks]
(i) The artists expected funding for the arts
to increase this year.
General Aptitude
(ii) The Chief Minister was receptive to the
idea of increasing funding for the arts.
(iii)The Chief Minister is a prominent artists.
(iv) Schools are giving less importance to
arts education nowadays.
(A) (iii) and (iv) (B) (i) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii)
2016 IISc Bangalore
6.3 In a world filled with uncertainty, he was
glad to have many good friends. He has
always assisted them in times of need and
was confident that they would reciprocate.
However, the events of the last week proved
him wrong.
Which of the following inference(s) is/are
logically valid and can be inferred from the
above passage? [2 Marks]
(i) His friends were always asking him to
help them.
(ii) He felt that when in need of help, his
friends would let him down.
(iii) He was sure that his friends would help
him when in need.
(iv) His friends did not help him last week.
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) only (D) (iv) only
6.4 Leela is older than her cousin Pavithra.
Pavithra's brother Shiva is older than Leela.
When Pavithra and Shiva are visiting Leela,
all three like to play chess. Pavithra wins
more often than Leela does.
Which one of the following statements must
be TRUE based on the above?
[2 Marks]
1
 (A) When Shiva plays chess with Leela and
Pavithra, he often loses.
(B) Leela is the oldest of the three.
(C) Shiva is a better chess player than
Pavithra.
(D) Pavithra is the youngest of the three.
6.5 Social science disciplines were in existence
in an amorphous form until the colonial
period when they were institutionalized. In
varying degrees, they were intended to
further the colonial interest. In the time of
globalization and the economic rise of
postcolonial countries like India,
conventional ways of knowledge production
have become obsolete.
Which of the following can be logically
inferred from the above statements?
[2 Marks]
(i) Social science disciplines have becomes
obsolete.
(ii) Social science disciplines had a pre-
colonial origin.
(iii)Social science disciplines always
promote colonialism.
(iv) Social science must maintain
disciplinary boundaries.
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i) and (iii) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) (iii) and (iv) only
6.6 Fact : If it rains, then the field is wet.
Read the following statements :
(i) It rains
(ii) The field is not wet
(iii)The field is wet
(iv) It did not rain
Which one of the options given below is
NOT logically possible based on the given
fact? [1 Mark]
(A) If (iii), then (iv)
2 General Aptitude
(B) If (i), then (iii)
(C) If (i), then (ii)
(D) If (ii), then (iv)
6.7 A smart city integrates all modes of
transport, uses clean energy and promotes
sustainable use of resources. It also uses
technology to ensure safety and security of
the city, something which critics argue, will
lead to a surveillance state.
Which of the following can be logically
inferred from the above paragraph?
[2 Marks]
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation
of surveillance states.
(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of a smart
city.
(iii)Sustainability and surveillance go hand
in hand in a smart city.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities
promote surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) only
(B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only
(D) (i) only
2017 IIT Roorkee
6.8 Two very famous sportsmen Mark and Steve
happened to be brothers, and played for
country K. Mark teased James, an opponent
from country E. “There is no way you are
good enough to play for your country”.
James replied, “Maybe not, but at least I am
the best player in my own family”.
Which one of the following can be inferred
from this conversation?
[2 Marks]
(A) Mark was known to play better than
James
(B) Steve was known to play better than
Mark
(C) James and Steve were good friends
(D) James played better than Steve
6.9 “Here, throughout the early 1820s, Stuart
continued to fight his losing battle to allow
his sepoys to wear their caste-marks and
their own choice of facial hair on parade,
being again reprimanded by the commander-
in-chief. His retort that ‘A stronger instance
than this of European prejudice with relation
to this country has never come under my
observations’ had no effect on his
superiors”.
According to this paragraph, which of the
statements below is most accurate?
[2 Marks]
(A) Stuart’s commander-in-chief was moved
by this demonstration of his prejudice.
(B) The Europeans were accommodating of
the sepoys’ desire to wear their caste-
marks.
(C) Stuart’s ‘losing battle’ refers to his
inability to succeed in enabling sepoys to
wear caste-marks.
(D) The commander-in-chief was exempt
from the European prejudice that
dictated how the sepoys were to dress.
6.10 If you are looking for a history of India or for
an account of the rise and fall of the British
Raj, or for the reason of the cleaving of the
subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic
parts and the effects this mutilation will have
in the respective sections, and ultimately on
Asia, you will not find it in these pages: for
though I have spent a lifetime in the county.
I lived too near the seat of events and was too
intimately associated with the actors to get
the perspective needed for the impartial
recording of these matters.
Which of the following is closest in meaning
to cleaving? [2 Marks]
(A) Deteriorating (B) Arguing
(C) Departing (D) Splitting
6.11 All people in a certain island are either
“Knights” or “Knaves” and each person
knows every other person’s identity. Knights
NEVER lie and Knaves ALWAYS lie
General Aptitude
P say “Both of us are knights” Q say “None
of us are Knaves
Which one of the following can be logically
inferred from the above?
[2 Marks]
(A) Both P and Q are knights
(B) P is knight; Q is a knave
(C) Both P and Q are knaves
(D) The identities of P, Q cannot be
determined
2019 IIT Madras
6.12 Congo was named by Europeans Congo’s
dictator Mobuto later changed the name of
the country and the river to Zaire with the
objective of Africanising names of person
and space. However the name Zaire was a
Portuguese alteration of Nzadi O Nzere, a
local African term meaning. River that
swallows Rivers. Zaire was the Portuguese
name for the Congo river in the 16th and 17th
centuries.
Which one of the following statements can
be inferred from the paragraph above?
[2 Marks]
(A) Mobuto was not entirely successful in
Africanising the name of his country
(B) Mobuto’s desire to Africanise names
was prevented by the Portuguese
(C) As a dictator Mobuto ordered the
Portuguese to alter the name of the river
to Zaire
(D) The team Nzadi O Nzere was of
Portuguese origin
6.13 While teaching a creative writing class in
India, I was surprised at receiving stories
from the students that were all set in distant
places : in the American West with cowboys
and in Manhattan penthouses with clinking
ice cubes. This was, till an eminent
Caribbean writer gave the writers in the
once-colonised countries the confidence to
see the shabby lives around them as worthy
of being “told”.
3
 The writer of this passage is surprised by the 6.15 Oxpeckers and rhinos manifest a symbiotic
creative writing assignments of his students, relationship in the wild. The oxpeckers warn
the rhinos about approaching poachers, thus
because ______. [2 Marks]
possibly saving the lives of the rhinos.
(A) Some of the students had written stories Oxpeckers also feed on the parasitic ticks
found on rhinos.
set in foreign places.
In the symbiotic relationship described
(B) None of the students had written stories above, the primary benefits for oxpeckers
set in India. and rhinos respectively are.
[2 Marks]
(C) Some of the students had written about (A) Oxpeckers get a food source, rhinos may
ice cubes and cowboys. be saved from the poachers.
(B) Oxpeckers get a food source, rhinos have
(D) None of the students had written about
no benefit.
ice tubes and cowboys. (C) Oxpeckers save their habitat from
6.14 X is an online media provider. By offering poachers while the rhinos have no
benefit.
unlimited and exclusive online content at
(D) Oxpeckers save the lives of poachers,
attractive prices for a loyalty membership, rhinos save their own lives.
X is almost forcing its customers towards its 6.16 Consider the following sentences:
loyalty membership. If its loyalty (i) The number of candidates who appear
membership continues to grow at its current for the GATE examination is staggering.
(ii) A number of candidates from my class
rate, within the next eight years more
are appearing for the GATE
households will be watching X than cable examination.
television. (iii)The number of candidates who appear
Which one of the following statements can for the GATE examination are
be inferred from the above paragraph? staggering.
(iv) A number of candidates from my class is
[2 Marks]
appearing for the GATE examination.
(A) The X is cancelling accounts of non-
Which of the above sentences are
members. grammatically CORRECT?
(B) Cable television operators don’t [1 Mark]
subscribe to X’s loyalty membership. (A) ii and iv
(C) Non-members prefer to watch cable (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
television.
(D) (i) and (iii)
(D) Most households that subscribe to X’s
6.17 The world is going through the worst
loyalty membership discontinue pandemic in the past hundred years. The air
watching cable television. travel industry is facing a crisis, as the
resulting quarantine requirement for
2021 IIT Bombay
travelers led to weak demand.

4 General Aptitude
 In relation to the first sentence above, what
does the second sentence do?
[2 Marks]
(A) The two statements are unrelated.
(B) States an effect of the first sentence.
(C) Restates an idea from the first sentence.
(D) Second sentence entirely contradicts the
first sentence.
2022 IIT Kharagpur
6.18 Fish belonging to species S in the deep sea
have skins that are extremely black (ultra-
black skin). This helps them not only to
avoid predators but also sneakily attack their
prey. However, having this extra layer of
black pigment results in lower collagen on
their skin, making their skin more fragile.
Which one of the following is the
CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?
[2 Marks]
(A) Having ultra-black skin is only
advantageous to species S
(B) Species S with lower collagen in their
skin are at an advantage because it helps
them avoid predators
(C) Having ultra-black skin has both
advantages and disadvantages to species
S
6.1 (D)
According to the given passage, it is clear that
option (B) and (C) are wrong because there is no
context about honesty or adventure.
Between option (A) and (D), option (D) is more
suitable because the passage explains how bruce
was motivated by the fact that despite having a
near-impossible goal, the spider never gave up and
continued its attempt to create its net without
giving up hope.
General Aptitude
(D) Having ultra-black skin is only
disadvantageous to species S but
advantageous only to their predators
2023 IIT Kanpur
6.19 In a recently held parents-teacher meeting,
the teachers had very few complaints about
Ravi. After all, Ravi was a hardworking and
kind student. Incidentally, almost all of
Ravi’s friends at school were hard working
and kind too, but the teachers drew attention
to Ravi’s complete lack of interest in sports.
The teachers believed that along with some
of his friends who shows similar disinterest
in sports, Ravi needed to engage in some
sports for his overall development.
Based only on the information provided
above, which one of the following
statements can be logically inferred with
certainty?
(A) All of Ravi’s friends are hardworking
and kind.
(B) No one who is not a friend of Ravi is
hardworking and kind.
(C) None of Ravi’s friends are interested in
sports.
(D) Some of Ravi’s friends are hardworking
and kind.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
6.2 (B)
In the given passage, it is stated that the artists
wrote to chief minister last year asking him to
allocate more funds and when no such increase
was announced, they expressed their and anguish
which means they were expecting funding for the
arts to increase this year so statement (i) can be
logically inferred.
5
 There is no mention of mind set of chief minister
about whether he was receptive to the idea of
increasing funding for the arts. Hence statement
(ii) is incorrect.
Statement (iii) is nowhere near mentioned in the
passage.
Lamenting the gradual sidelining of the arts in
school curricula means the artists expressed
sorrow about the ignorance of arts in school
curriculum. So it can be inferred that schools are
giving less importance to arts education
nowadays.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.3 (B)
The words “was confident that they would
reciprocate” and “last week proved him wrong”
lead to statements (iii) and (iv) as logically valid
inferences.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.4 (D)
From the given data, following relations are
possible.
L > P (Leela is older than Pavithra)
S > L (Shiva is older than Leela)
So, Pavithra is youngest.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
6.5 (A)
Obsolete : No longer in use
Amorphous : Without any clear form
“Until the colonial period” means pre-colonial
origin.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
6.6 (C)
Fact : If it rains, then the field is wet correct
statements are :
(logically correct)
(i) If it rains then field is wet
(ii) If the field is not wet then it did not rain
(iii) If the field is wet then It did not rain.
(possibility)
6 General Aptitude
Option (C) is logically negating the given fact.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
6.7 (D)
Given passage states that critics have perception
that smart cities promote surveillance.
Therefore, only statement (iv) can be logically
inferred.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
6.8 (B)
According to the given passage, James states that
he may not be good enough to play for his country
but at least he is the best player in his own family
which indicates that in Mark’s family he wasn’t
the best player (making Steve a better player than
Mark).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.9 (C)
Reprimanded : Disapproval of something
strongly.
From option (A) :
According to the passage, the commander-in-chief
strongly disapproved of Stuart’s fight.
So, option (A) is incorrect.
From option (B) :
Passage states that Stuart was fighting a battle with
his superiors to let the sepoys’ wear their caste-
marks i.e. Europeans were not accommodating
So, option (B) is incorrect.
From option (C) :
Passage states that Stuart was loosing his battle to
allow his sepoys’ to wear their caste marks which
means he was unable to succeed in battle of
providing his sepoys’ the right of wearing their
caste marks.
So, option (C) is correct.
From option (D) :
There is no mention of commander-in-chief’s
exemption of European prejudice.
So, option (D) is incorrect.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 6.10 (D) 6.14 (D)
Cleaving : Splitting or sever. Most households that subscribe to X’s loyalty
The given passage talks about the division of membership discontinue watching cable
historical India into India and Pakistan after television. It is estimated that if X continues to
British Raj was over. offer loyalty membership, the number of
Hence, the correct option is (D). subscribers of X will outgrow that of cable
6.11 (D)
television.
It is based on the assumption that most of the
Given :
households subscribing to X don’t watch cable
(i) All people in a certain island are either
television any longer.
‘knights’ or ‘knaves’
Hence, the correct option is (D).
(ii) P says ‘both of us are knights’.
Q says ‘none of us are knaves’. 6.15 (A)
(iii) Knights never lie and knaves always lie. As per the data given in above statement, (A)
If P is a knight then both P and Q are knights Oxpeckers get food source, rhinos may be saved
because knights never lie and if Q is also a knight from the poachers.
then he is also telling the truth that none of them Hence, the correct option is (A).
are knaves.
6.16 (B)
Hence, both are knights.
If P is a knave and lying then both P and Q are ● “The number of” is singular and it takes
knaves and Q is also lying that none of them are singular verb.
knaves. ● “A number of” is plural and it takes plural
Hence, both are knaves. verb.
Therefore, their identities can not be logically Hence, the correct option is (B).
inferred from above data. 6.17 (B)
Hence, the correct option is (D). ● The first sentence is cause (a shut down) and
6.12 (A) the second sentence is effect (demand
deficit).
Mobuto changed the name of the country and the
river to Zaire with the objective of Africanising ● First option is wrong because second
names of person and space but Zaire was a sentence does not contradict the first
Portuguese alteration which indicates that Mobuto sentence.
was not entirely successful in Africanising the ● Third option is wrong because two sentences
name of his country. we related.
Hence, the correct option is (A). ● Fourth option is wrong because the second
6.13 (B) sentence does not repeat the first one.
None of the students had written stories set in Hence, the correct option is (B).
India. It is explicitly stated that the writer was 6.18 (C)
surprised at receiving stories from the students that
were all set in distant places. Option (C) can be inferred, as having ultra black
skin has both advantages and disadvantages to
Hence, the correct option is (B).
species S.
General Aptitude 7
 Hence, the correct option is (C).
6.19 (C)

Given :
In a recently held parents teacher meeting, the
teachers had very few complaints about Ravi.
After all, Ravi was a hardworking and kind
student. Incidentally, almost all of Ravi’s friends
at school were hard working and kind too. But the
teachers drew attention to Ravi’s complete lack of
interest in sports. The teachers believed that along
with some of his friends who shows similar
disinterest in sports, Ravi needed to engage in
some sports for his overall development.
Option (A) is not correct, as only some of Ravi’s
friend are hardworking and kind.
Option (B) is not correct, as almost all Ravi’s
friend are hardworking and kind.
Option (C) is not correct, as some of the Ravi’s
friend are interested in sports.
Option (D) is correct, as all of Ravi’s friends are
hardworking and kind.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

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8 General Aptitude