GATE 2024

Mechanical Engineering
(Volume - II)

TOPIC WISE GATE SOLUTIONS

2013 - 2023

unacademy
 GATE SYLLABUS
Section 1 : Engineering Mathematics
Linear Algebra : Matrix algebra, systems of linear equations, eigenvalues and
eigenvectors.
Calculus : Functions of single variable, limit, continuity and differentiability, mean value
theorems, indeterminate forms; evaluation of definite and improper integrals; double
and triple integrals; partial derivatives, total derivative, Taylor series (in one and two
variables), maxima and minima, Fourier series; gradient, divergence and curl, vector
identities, directional derivatives, line, surface and volume integrals, applications of
Gauss, Stokes and Green’s theorems.
Differential Equations : First order equations (linear and nonlinear); higher order linear
differential equations with constant coefficients; Euler-Cauchy equation; initial and
boundary value problems; Laplace transforms; solutions of heat, wave and Laplace's
equations.
Complex Variables : Analytic functions; Cauchy-Riemann equations; Cauchy’s integral
theorem and integral formula; Taylor and Laurent series.
Probability and Statistics : Definitions of probability, sampling theorems, conditional
probability; mean, median, mode and standard deviation; random variables, binomial,
Poisson and normal distributions.
Numerical Methods : Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations;
integration by trapezoidal and Simpson’s rules; single and multi-step methods for
differential equations.
Section 2 : Applied Mechanics and Design
Engineering Mechanics : Free-body diagrams and equilibrium; friction and its
applications including rolling friction, belt-pulley, brakes, clutches, screw jack, wedge,
vehicles, etc.; trusses and frames; virtual work; kinematics and dynamics of rigid bodies
in plane motion; impulse and momentum (linear and angular) and energy formulations;
Lagrange’s equation.
Mechanics of Materials : Stress and strain, elastic constants, Poisson's ratio; Mohr’s
circle for plane stress and plane strain; thin cylinders; shear force and bending moment
diagrams; bending and shear stresses; concept of shear centre; deflection of beams;
torsion of circular shafts; Euler’s theory of columns; energy methods; thermal stresses;
strain gauges and rosettes; testing of materials with universal testing machine; testing
of hardness and impact strength.
Theory of Machines : Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane
mechanisms; dynamic analysis of linkages; cams; gears and gear trains; flywheels and
governors; balancing of reciprocating and rotating masses; gyroscope.
 Vibrations : Free and forced vibration of single degree of freedom systems, effect of
damping; vibration isolation; resonance; critical speeds of shafts.
Machine Design : Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue
strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the design of machine elements such as
bolted, riveted and welded joints; shafts, gears, rolling and sliding contact bearings,
brakes and clutches, springs.
Section 3 : Fluid Mechanics and Thermal Sciences
Fluid Mechanics : Fluid properties; fluid statics, forces on submerged bodies, stability
of floating bodies; controlvolume analysis of mass, momentum and energy; fluid
acceleration; differential equations of continuity and momentum; Bernoulli’s equation;
dimensional analysis; viscous flow of incompressible fluids, boundary layer, elementary
turbulent flow, flow through pipes, head losses in pipes, bends and fittings; basics of
compressible fluid flow.
Heat-Transfer : Modes of heat transfer; one dimensional heat conduction, resistance
concept and electrical analogy, heat transfer through fins; unsteady heat conduction,
lumped parameter system, Heisler's charts; thermal boundary layer, dimensionless
parameters in free and forced convective heat transfer, heat transfer correlations for
flow over flat plates and through pipes, effect of turbulence; heat exchanger
performance, LMTD and NTU methods; radiative heat transfer, Stefan- Boltzmann law,
Wien's displacement law, black and grey surfaces, view factors, radiation network
analysis.
Thermodynamics : Thermodynamic systems and processes; properties of pure
substances, behavior of ideal and real gases; zeroth and first laws of thermodynamics,
calculation of work and heat in various processes; second law of thermodynamics;
thermodynamic property charts and tables, availability and irreversibility;
thermodynamic relations.
Applications : Power Engineering : Air and gas compressors; vapour and gas power
cycles, concepts of regeneration and reheat. I.C. Engines : Air-standard Otto, Diesel and
dual cycles. Refrigeration and Airconditioning : Vapour and gas refrigeration and heat
pump cycles; properties of moist air, psychrometric chart, basic psychrometric
processes. Turbomachinery : Impulse and reaction principles, velocity diagrams,
Peltonwheel, Francis and Kaplan turbines; steam and gas turbines.
Section 4 : Materials, Manufacturing and Industrial Engineering
Engineering Materials : Structure and properties of engineering materials, phase
diagrams, heat treatment, stressstrain diagrams for engineering materials.
 Casting, Forming and Joining Processes : Different types of castings, design of patterns,
moulds and cores; solidification and cooling; riser and gating design. Plastic deformation
and yield criteria; fundamentals of hot and cold working processes; load estimation for
bulk (forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing) and sheet (shearing, deep drawing, bending)
metal forming processes; principles of powder metallurgy. Principles of welding,
brazing, soldering and adhesive bonding.
Machining and Machine Tool Operations : Mechanics of machining; basic machine
tools; single and multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials, tool life and
wear; economics of machining; principles of nontraditional machining processes;
principles of work holding, jigs and fixtures; abrasive machining processes; NC/CNC
machines and CNC programming.
Metrology and Inspection : Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular
measurements; comparators; interferometry; form and finish measurement; alignment
and testing methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly; concepts of
coordinate-measuring machine (CMM).
Computer Integrated Manufacturing : Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their
integration tools; additive manufacturing.
Production Planning and Control : Forecasting models, aggregate production planning,
scheduling, materials requirement planning; lean manufacturing.
Inventory Control : Deterministic models; safety stock inventory control systems.
Operations Research : Linear programming, simplex method, transportation,
assignment, network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.
General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability : Basic English grammar : tenses, articles, adjectives, prepositions,
conjunctions, verb-noun agreement, and other parts of speech.
Basic vocabulary : words, idioms, and phrases in context.
Reading and comprehension.
Narrative sequencing.
Quantitative Aptitude : Data interpretation : data graphs (bar graphs, pie charts, and
other graphs representing data), 2-and 3-dimensional plots, maps, and tables.
Numerical computation and estimation : ratios, percentages, powers, exponents and
logarithms, permutations and combinations, and series.
Mensuration and geometry.
Elementary statistics and probability.
Analytical Aptitude : Logic : deduction and induction, Analogy, Numerical relations and
reasoning.
Spatial Aptitude : Transformation of shapes : translation, rotation, scaling, mirroring,
assembling, and grouping Paper folding, cutting, and patterns in 2 and 3 dimensions.
 CONTENTS

S. No. Topics
1. Engineering Mechanics
1. FBD & Equilibrium of Forces
2. Plane Trusses
3. Friction
4. Kinematics of Particles & Rigid Body
5. Kinetics of Particles & Rigid Body
6. Impulse, Momentum, Collision & Work Energy
2. Theory of Machines
1. Displacement, Velocity & Acceleration
2. Planer Mechanisms
3. Cams
4. Dynamic Analysis of Slider-Crank
5. Gear & Gear Trains
6. Flywheel
7. Vibration
8. Balancing
9. Gyroscope
3. Industrial Engineering
1. Inventory Control
2. Linear Programming Problem
3. Transportation & Assignment Model
4. CPM & PERT
5. Queuing Theory
6. Forecasting
7. Break Even Analysis
 8. Sequencing
9. Line Balancing or Assembly Line
10. MRP
11. Work Study
12. Miscellaneous
4. Production Engineering
1. Casting
2. Welding
3. Machining
4. Forming
5. Sheet Metal Working
6. Metrology & Inspection
7. Computer Integrated Manufacturing
8. Unconventional Machining
9. Material Science
5. Engineering Mathematics
1. Linear Algebra
2. Differential Equation
3. Integral & Differential Calculus
4. Vector Calculus
5. Maxima & Minima
6. Mean Value Theorem
7. Complex Variables
8. Limit and Series Expansion
9. Probability & Statistics
10. Numerical Methods
11. Transform Theory
Syllabus : Engineering Mechanics

Free-body diagrams and equilibrium; friction and its applications including rolling friction, belt-
pulley, brakes, clutches, screw jack, wedge, vehicles, etc.; trusses and frames; virtual work;
kinematics and dynamics of rigid bodies in plane motion; impulse and momentum (linear and
angular) and energy formulations; Lagrange’s equation.
Contents : Engineering Mechanics

S. No. Topics
1. FBD & Equilibrium Forces
2. Plane Trusses
3. Friction
4. Kinematics of Particles & Rigid Body
5. Kinetics of Particles & Rigid Body
6. Impulse, Momentum, Collision & Work Energy
1 FBD & Equilibrium of Forces

2014 IIT Kharagpur 2016 IISc Bangalore

1.3
1.1 A ladder AB of length 5 m and weight (W)
600 N is resting against a wall. Assuming
frictionless contact at the floor (B) and the
wall (A), the magnitude of the force P (in
newton) required to maintain equilibrium of
the ladder is_________.
[2 Marks]
A rigid ball of weight 100 N is suspended
with the help of a string. The ball is pulled
by a horizontal force F such that the string
makes an angle of 300 with the vertical. The
magnitude of force F (in N) is ______.
[1 Mark]

1.4 A force F is acting on a bent bar which is

clamped at one end as shown in the figure.
[1 Mark]

2015 IIT Kanpur

1.2 A weight of 500 N is supported by two
metallic ropes as shown in the figure. The
values of tensions T1 and T2 are
The CORRECT free body diagram is
respectively. [1 Mark]
(A)

(A) 433 N and 250 N

(B)
(B) 250 N and 433 N
(C) 353.5 N and 250 N
(D) 250 N and 353.5 N

Engineering Mechanics 1
 (C)

W W h
(A) R f     a,
(D) 2 g l
W W h
Rr    a
2 g l
W W h
(B) R f  Rr    a
2 g l
2018 IIT Guwahati W W h
(C) R f  Rr    a
1.5 A bar of uniform cross section weighing 100 2 g l
N is held horizontally using two massless W W h
and inextensible strings S1 and S 2 as shown (D) R f     a,
2 g l
in the figure.
W W h
[1 Mark] Rr    a
2 g l
2020 IIT Delhi
1.7 A beam of negligible mass is hinged at
support P and has a roller support Q as
shown in the figure.
(A) T1  100 N and T2  0
(B) T1  0 and T2  100 N
(C) T1  75N and T2  25N
(D) T1  25N and T2  75N
2019 IIT Madras A point load of 1200 N is applied at point R,
1.6 A car is having weight W is moving in the the magnitude of reaction force at support Q
direction as shown in the figure. The centre is ______ N.
of gravity (CG) of the car is located at height [1 Mark]
h from the ground, midway between the 1.8 The magnitude of reaction force at joint C of
front and rear wheels. The distance between the hinge-beam shown in the figure is
the front and rear wheels, is l . The ______ kN (round off to 2 decimal places).
acceleration of the car is a , and acceleration [2 Marks]
due to gravity is g. The reactions on the front
wheels ( R f ) and rear wheels ( Rr ) are given
by,
[2 Marks]

2 Engineering Mechanics
 2021 IIT Bombay 2022 IIT Kharagpur
1.9 Two smooth identical spheres each of radius 1.10 A square plate is supported in four different
125 mm and weight 100 N rest in a ways (configurations (P) to (S) as shown in
horizontal channel having vertical walls. The the figure). A couple moment C is applied on
distance between vertical walls of the the plate. Assume all the members to be rigid
channel is 400 mm. and mass-less, and all joints to be
frictionless. All support links of the plate are
400 identical.

125 C C C C

+ ( P) ( Q) ( R) (S )

The square plate can remain in equilibrium

125
+ in its initial state for which one or more of
the following support configurations?
[1 Mark]
(A) Configuration(P)
All dimensions are in mm
The reaction at the point of contact between (B) Configuration (Q)
two spheres is _____ N (round off to one (C) Configuration(R)
decimal place). (D)Configuration (S)

1.1 400 600  2  P  3  600  4  0

P  400 N
Given : Length of ladder = 5 m Hence, the magnitude of the force P required to
Weight of ladder = 600 N maintain equilibrium of the ladder is 400 N.
FBD :  Key Point
FBD :

For ladder to be in equilibrium, 3

tan  
FV  0 , 4
W  RB  600 N 3
  tan 1    36.860
4
Considering moment at A,
Consider point C at which when reaction are
M A  0 , extended, their line of actions intersect.
W  2  P  3  RB  4  0 Moment about point C,

Engineering Mechanics 3
 M C  0 , Free body diagram is a diagram free from all
W  2.5cos36.860  P  3 support. Option (B) is incorrect as there is support
on its base. Option (C) is incorrect as there is no
600  2.5cos36.860
P  400 N horizontal reaction force indicated and option (D)
3 is incorrect as there is no moment indicated on its
base.

1.2 (A)
FBD :

Hence, the correct option is (A).

1.5 (B)
FBD :
By applying Lami’s theorem,
T1 T2 500
 
sin120 sin150 sin 90
By solving the equations,
T1  433 N and T2  250 N
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Considering equilibrium of bar FV  0,
Hence, T1  T2  100 …(i)
Considering moment at A,
M A  0 ,
1.3 57.74 L L
T2   100 
FBD : 2 2
 T2  100 N
Now from equation (i),
T1  0
Hence, the correct option is (B).
 Key Point
From figure, it is clear that :
1. String S 2 bears whole weight of the bar as it
By applying Lami’s theorem is fixed at the centre where the weight is
100 F T concentrated.
  2. If the strings were extensible, string S1 will
sin120 sin(60  90) sin 90
100sin150 also bear some load after string S 2
F  57.74 N elongated, but due to inextensible strings,
sin120
Hence, the magnitude of force F is 57.74 N. only string S 2 will bear the load.
1.4 (A)
1.6 (D)

4 Engineering Mechanics
Inertial force, Fi  ma in opposite direction of
1.8 20
motion of car. According to question,

Taking BC part, M B  0
Resolving vertical forces (FV  0) ,
( internal hinge at B)
Rr  R f  W …(i)
RC  4  40  2
Taking moment about A, (M A  0) ,
RC  20 kN
l
Fi  h  R f  l  W  Hence, the magnitude of reaction force at joint C
2
Wl of the hinge-beam shown in the figure is 20 kN.
mah  R f l 
2 1.9 125
W mah A
Rf  
2 l
W W h 125
Rf      a
2 g l
…(ii) B +P
0
From equation (i) and (ii), 25
125 
W W h
Rr  W      a +
O 150 Q
2 g l
W W h
Rr      a
2 g l 400
P
Hence, the correct option is (D).
0
25


O Q
150
1.7 1500 150 OQ
cos   
250 OP
According question,
  53.130
FBD of body A,

Taking moment about P,

(M ) P  0 N sin 53.13  100
1200  5  RQ  4  0 100
N  125 N
RQ  1500 N sin 53.13
Hence, the reaction at the point of contact between
Hence, the magnitude of reaction force at support
two spheres is 125 N.
Q is 1500 N.
1.10 (B, C, D)

Engineering Mechanics 5
 Configuration (P) : this counter action of forces (F) to resist the couple
moment c, the square plate will remain in
equilibrium.
i.e.
F

Therefore, it is structure and stable system will be F

in equilibrium. Forces (F) giving counter clockwise moment and
But, we know equilibrium is a state of the body couple moment c giving clockwise moment.
where all the forces are of the same magnitude Hence, will remain in equilibrium.
making the net resultant zero. This is called static Configuration (R) :
concurrent equilibrium.
i.e.
F F

Similarly as we discussed above, here also the

forces (F) resisting the couple moment c which is
F in clockwise direction by providing the
But, the given square plate has couple moment c anticlockwise moment.
which will be the disturbing action for the i.e.
concurrent forces and the square plate F
(configurations P) due to this action cannot be
remain in equilibrium.
c
Hence, cannot be remain in equilibrium.
Configuration (Q) :
1 F
Hence, will remain in equilibrium.
2 5 Configuration (S) :

3 4

Here, the forces acting on the square plate is

countering the action of couple moment c. Due to In the above arrangement, due to couple moment
c , the reactions forces will try to counter the
6 Engineering Mechanics
clockwise rotation which in result bring the 
arrangement in equilibrium or stable position 
i.e. 

c 



F F

Hence, will remain in equilibrium. 
Hence the correct option is (B), (C), (D). 




Engineering Mechanics 7
Basics of Signals 200
2 Plane Trusses

2014 IIT Kharagpur E  200 GPa . The force in the truss AB (in
N) is__________. [1 Mark]
2.1 In a statically determinate plane truss, the
number of joints (j) and the number of
members (m) are related by [1 Mark]
(A) j  2m  3 (B) m  2 j  1
(C) m  2 j  3 (D) m  2 j  1
2.2 A two member truss ABC is shown in the
2.5 For the truss shown in figure, the magnitude
figure. The force (in kN) transmitted in
of the force in member PR and the support
member AB is [1 Mark]
reaction at R are respectively
[2 Marks]

2.3 For the truss shown in the figure, the force

F1 and F2 are 9 kN and 3 kN
respectively. The force (in kN) in the
member QS is [2 Marks]

(A) 122.47 kN and 50 kN

(B) 70.71 kN and 100 kN
(C) 70.71 kN and 50 kN
(D) 81.65 kN and 100 kN
2.6 For the truss shown in the figure, the
magnitude of the force (in kN) in the
member SR is [2 Marks]
(A) 11.25 (Tension)
(B) 11.25 (Compression)
(C) 13.5 (Tension)
(D) 13.5 (Compression)
2015 IIT Kanpur
2.4 Two identical trusses support a load of
100 N as shown in the figure. The length of
each truss is 1.0 m , cross-sectional area is (A) 10 (B) 14.14
2 (C) 20 (D) 28.28
200 mm , Young’s modulus

Engineering Me 1
 2016 IISc Bangalore 2.10 The figure shows an idealized plane truss. If
a horizontal force of 300 N is applied at
2.7 A two-member truss PQR is supporting a point A, then the magnitude of the force
load W. The axial forces in members PQ produced in member CD is _______.
and QR are respectively. [2 Marks] [1 Mark]

(A) 2W Tensile and 3W Compressive

2020 IIT Delhi
(B) 3W Tensile and 2W Compressive
2.11 The members carrying zero force (i.e., zero-
(C) 3W Compressive and 2W Tensile force members) in the truss shown in the
(D) 2W Compressive and 3W Tensile figure, for any load P > 0 with no
appreciable deformation of the truss (i.e.
2.8 In the figure, the load P  1N, length
with no appreciable change in angles
L  1m, Young’s modulus E  70GPa , between the members), are [1 Mark]
and the cross-section of the links is a square
with dimension 10 mm 10 mm . All joints
are pin joints. [2 Marks]

(A) BF, DH, GC, CD and DE only

(B) BF, DH, GC, FG and GH only
(C) BF, DH and GC
(D) BF and DH only
The stress (in Pa) in the AB is _______. 2021 IIT Bombay
(Indicate compressive stress by a negative
sign and tensile stress by a positive sign.) 2.12 A plane truss PQRS (PQ = RS, and ∠PQR =
90˚) is shown in the figure.
2019 IIT Madras L
Q R
F
2.9 A truss is composed of members AB, BC,
CD, AD and BD, as shown in the figure. A
vertical load of 10 kN is applied at point D.
L
The magnitude of force (in kN) in the
member BC is ______. [2 Marks]
P S

The forces in the members PR and RS,

respectively, are __________[2 Marks]
(A) F (compressive) and
F 2 (compressive)

2 Engineering Mechanics
 Q
(B) F 2(tensile) and F (compressive)
D F
(C) F 2(tensile) and F (tensile) C E
(D) F (tensile) and F 2(tensile) Q
G H
2022 IIT Kharagpur
A B
2.13 A structure, along with the loads applied on
it, is shown in the figure. Self-weight of all Which one or more of the following
the members is negligible and all the pin members do not carry any load (force)?
joints are friction-less. AE is a single [2 Marks]
member that contains pin C. Likewise, BE (A) AB (B) CD
is a single member that contains pin D. (C) EF (D) GH
Members GI and FH are overlapping rigid 2023 IIT Kanpur
members. The magnitude of the force
2.15 The options show frames consisting of rigid
carried by member CI is ________ kN (in
bars connected by pin joints. Which one of
integer). [2 Marks]
the frames is non-rigid?
A
3.5 m 3m
C I H
3m

2 kN
(A)
G
B D E F
2m 2m 3m 3m

4 kN (B)
2.14 The lengths of members BC and CE in the
frame shown in the figure are equal. All the
members are rigid and lightweight, and the
friction at the joints is negligible. Two (C)
forces of magnitude 𝑄 > 0 are applied as
shown, each at the mid-length of the
respective member on which it acts.
(D)

2.1 (C) 2.2 20

For a statically determinate plane truss, the ..Method 1..
relationship between the number of joints (j) and FBD :
number of members (m) is given by
m  2 j 3
Hence, the correct option is (C)

Engineering Me 3
   26.5650
As forces are in equilibrium we can use Lemis
equation at point B,
FAB 10

sin (90  26.565 ) sin (26.5650 )
0

FAB  20 kN
Hence, reaction at point A ( RA ) is 20 kN.

Fx  0 , 2.3 (A)

RAH  RCH  0 According to question,

Fy  0 ,
RCV  RAV  10 kN
M c  0 ,
10 1  RAH  0.5  0
RAH   20 kN
 RCH  20 kN
(Using the method of sections taking P and S as a
Joint (A) :
system).
FBD :

Fx  0 ,
FAB  RAH  0
FAB   RAH   ( 20)  20 kN
Hence, reaction at point A ( RA ) is 20 kN.
Angle  is given by,
..Method 2..
 2 
  tan 1    53.130
 1.5 
By resolving vertical forces (FV  0) ,
F1  FQS sin 
9  FQS sin53.13
Considering FBD of point B, FQS  11.25 kN (Tensile)
Hence, the correct option is (A).

 0.5 
  tan 1  
 1 

4 Engineering Mechanics
 2.4 100
FBD :

By resolving horizontal forces (FH  0) ,

FPR cos 45  50  0
By applying Lami’s theorem,
FPR  70.71 kN
FAB 100

sin120 sin120 Hence, the correct option is (C).
FAB  100 N ..Method 2..
Using method of sections,
Hence, the force in the truss AB is 100 N.

2.5 (C)

FBD :

Considering part (ii),

FPR sin 450  R
50
FPR   70.71 kN
sin 450
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.6 (C)
PQ  QR  tan 45  4m
FBD :
Considering moment at Q,
MQ  0 ,
50  4  RV  4  0
Rv  50 kN
Again Fx  0 ,
QH  50 kN
..Method 1.. Considering moment at P,
Hence, force in member QR  50 kN M P  0 ,
Drawing free body diagram of R, we have
30  2  RQ  3  0

Engineering Me 5
 RQ  20 kN 2.7 (B)
..Method 1.. FBD (Considering forces at point Q)
Considering forces at point R,

By resolving vertical forces (FV  0) ,

TRQ cos60  W  0
By resolving vertical forces (FV  0) . TRQ  2W
FRT cos 45  RQ  0 TRQ  2W (Compressive)
RQ 20 By resolving horizontal forces (FH  0) ,
FRT    20 2
cos 45 cos 45 TPQ  TRQ sin 60  0
By resolving horizontal forces (FH  0) ,
TPQ   ( 2W )sin 60
FSR  FRT sin 45  0
TPQ  3 W (Tensile)
FSR   20 2 sin 45   20 N Hence, the correct option is (B).
FRS  20 kN (Compressive) 2.8 0
Hence, the correct option is (C). Given : Load ( P)  1 kN
..Method 2.. ..Method 1..
Using method of sections, FBD :

Taking moment about T, (in method of sections,

the point which is considered for taking moment By resolving vertical forces (FV  0) ,
may also be outside the section considered). (At equilibrium)
M T  0 , FBC sin 45  FAB  P sin 45 …(i)
FRS 1  RQ 1  0 By resolving horizontal forces,
FH  0 , (At equilibrium)
FRS   20 kN
FBC cos 45  P cos 45
Negative sign indicates load is compressive in
nature.  FBC  P
Hence, the correct option is (C). Now, from equation (i),
P sin 45  FAB  P sin 45
FAB  0
If load is zero, there is no stress in the member.

6 Engineering Mechanics
  AB  0 Pa FBC 5

Hence, the stress in the AB is 0 Pa. sin(45 ) sin(450 )
0

..Method 2.. FBC  5kN

Using Lemi’s equation at point B, Hence, the magnitude of force in the member BC
is 5 kN.
2.10 0
According to question,

P FAB
 ( P  1 kN)
sin135 sin1800
0

FAB  0 Since, members are collinear, therefore, there will

Stress in AB is zero. be no force in member BC,
Hence, the stress in the AB is 0 Pa. FBC  0

2.9 5
According to question, Again, FCD  0
FBD :
Hence, the magnitude of the force produced in
member CD is 0.
2.11 (A)
According to question,

Resolving vertical forces (Fy  0) ,

RA  RC  10
Taking moment about point A, (M A  0)
RC  2 x  10 x  0 By resolving vertical forces ( Fy  0) ,
RC  5kN RAy  RE cos(45)  P
Applying sine rule,
Considering moment at A (M A  0) ,
RE cos (45)  4  P  2  0
P2 P
 RE  
1 2
4
2

Engineering Me 7
 P P 2.13 18
So, RAy  P  
2 2
FBD :
By observation force in member FB, GC and HD
are zero. A
3.5 m 3m
Now at joint E ( Fx  0 ),  C I H
3 m C’ 2 kN
FCI


B
2m 2m 3m 3m
D E F
4 kN
Because AE is a single link.
P P 3
FDE  cos (45)  cos (45)  0 In ( AEB) tan  
2 2 4
FDE 0   36.86
So, FCD  0 In triangle ACC ' ,
 Force in member BF , DH , GC , CD and DE AC ' AC '
tan   
are zero. CC ' 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). tan(36.86)  2  AC '
2.12 (B) AC '  1.5 m
At joint Q, no load is acting. So, force in member C ' B  AB  AC '
PQ & QR will be zero.  3  1.5  1.5 m
0
225
Apply method of section, take moment at point
R
F (E),
450 900 FCI 1.5  2 1.5  4  6
450
FCI  18 kN
FPR
F RS Hence, the correct answer is 18.
FPR FRS F 2.14 (B), (D)
 
sin 90 sin 225 sin 450
0 0
Q
F F D F
FPR  0
 sin 900  1
sin 45 1 C E
2
Q
FPR  2F(T) G H
B
F F  1  A
FRS   sin 2250   
sin 450
1  
2 CD and GH are the members do not carry any load
2 (force).
Hence, the correct option is (B), (D).
FRS  F(C)
2.15 (C)

Hence, the correct option is (D). Option (A) : m  9, j  6

8 Engineering Mechanics
m  3  12 
2 j  12 
m  3  2 j  Rigid 

Option (B) : m  5, j  4

m3 8

2j 8 
m  3  2 j  Rigid 
Option (C) : m  13, j  8 
m  3  16 
2 j  16 

m  3  2 j  Rigid

Option (D) : m  13, j  9 
m  3  16 
2 j  18 
m  3  2 j  Non - rigid 
Hence, the correct option is (C). 




Engineering Me 9
3 Friction

2014 IIT Kharagpur distance travelled (in meter) by the body

along the plane is _______.
3.1 A block R of mass 100 kg is placed on a [2 Marks]
block S of mass 150 kg as shown in the
figure. Block R is tied to the wall by a
massless and inextensible string PQ. If the
coefficient of static friction for all surfaces
is 0.4 , the minimum force F (in kN )
needed to move the block S is
[2 Marks] 3.5 A wardrobe (mass 100 kg, height 4 m, width
2 m and depth 1 m) symmetric about the Y-
Y axis, stands on a rough level floor as
shown in the figure. A force P is applied at
mid height on the wardrobe so as to tip it
about point Q without slipping. What are
the minimum values of force (in newton)
(A) 0.69 (B) 0.88
and the static coefficient of friction 
(C) 0.98 (D) 1.37
between the floor and the wardrobe,
3.2 A block weighing 200 N is in contact with a respectively?
level plane whose coefficients of static and
[2 Marks]
kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.2,
respectively. The block is acted upon by a
horizontal force (in newton) P  10 t ,
where t denotes the time in seconds. The
velocity (in m/s ) of the block attained after
10 seconds is _______.
[2 Marks] (A) 490.5 and 0.5 (B) 981 and 0.5
0
3.3 A truck accelerates up a 10 incline with a (C) 1000.5 and 0.15 (D) 1000.5 and 0.25
crate of 100 kg. Value of static coefficient
2016 IISc Bangalore
of friction between the crate and the truck
surface is 0.3. The maximum value of 3.6 A block of mass m rests on an inclined plane
2
acceleration (in m/s ) of the truck such and is attached by a string to the wall as
that the crate does not slide down is shown in the figure. The coefficient of
_______. static friction between the plane and the
block is 0.25. The string can withstand a
[2 Marks]
maximum force of 20 N. The maximum
3.4 A body of mass (m) 10 kg is initially
value of the mass (m) for which the string
stationary on a 450 inclined plane as
will not break and the block will be in
shown in figure. The coefficient of
static equilibrium is _______ kg.
dynamic friction between the body and the
[2 Marks]
plane is 0.5. The body slides down the
plane and attains a velocity of 20 m/s. The Take cos   0.8 and sin   0.6 .

Engineering Mechanics 1
 Acceleration due to gravity g  10 m/s
2 roller is just about to climb over the step.
[1 Mark]
(A)

2018 IIT Guwahati

3.7 A force of 100 N is applied to the centre of a
circular disc of mass 10 kg and radius 1 m,
resting on a floor as shown in the figure. If (B)
the disc rolls without slipping on the floor,
2
the linear acceleration (in m/s ) of the
centre of the disc is ________. (correct to
two decimal places). [2 Marks]

(C)

2019 IIT Madras

3.8 A block of mass 10 kg rests on a horizontal
floor. The acceleration due to gravity is
9.81 m/s2. The coefficient of static friction (D)
between the floor and the block is 0.2. A
horizontal force of 10 N is applied on the
block as shown in the figure. The
magnitude of force of friction (in N) on the
block is _______. [1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay
3.10 A block of negligible mass rests on a surface
2020 IIT Delhi that is inclined at 30˚ to horizontal plane as
3.9 An attempt is made to pull a roller of weight shown in the figure. When a vertical force
W over a curb (step) by applying a of 900 N and a horizontal force of 750 N
horizontal force F as shown in the figure, are applied, the block is just about to slide.
900 N

750 N

300
The coefficient of static friction between the
The coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface is__________
roller and the ground (including the edge (round of to two decimal places).
of the step) is  . Identify the correct free [2 Marks]
body diagram (FBD) of the roller when the

2 Engineering Mechanics
 2022 IIT Kharagpur
3.11 Two rigid massless rods PR and RQ are
joined at frictionless pin-joint R and are
resting on ground at P and Q, respectively,
as shown in the figure. A vertical force F
acts on the pin R as shown. When the
simultaneously at points P and Q. Then the
ratio of the coefficient of friction at Q to
that at P ( Q / P ) is _________ (round
off to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
F
R

included angle   900 , the rods remain in 5m  12 m

static equilibrium due to Coulomb friction P Q

between the rods and ground at locations P
and Q. At   90 , impending slip occurs
0

..Method 2..
Block (S )  150 kg
Block ( R)  100 kg
3.1 (D) ()  0.4 (For all surface)
..Method 1..
Given : Mass of block R, (m1 )  100kg
Mass of block S , (m2 )  150kg
Coefficient of friction ()  0.4
FBD : (a) Both blocks move together both block
treated as single entity,
F  T  ( N )  0
F  T  0.4  250  9.81  0 …(i)

By resolving vertical forces (FV  0) , (b) Both treated as separate,

N1  m1g …(i)
and, N2  (m1  m2 ) g …(ii)
By resolving horizontal forces (Fh  0) , T  f1  0 …(ii)

T  N1 and f1  0.4 100  9.81 ( f1  N1   mg )

and F  N1  N2 …(iii)  T  f1  392.4 N
By putting values from equation (i) and (ii) in Using equation (i),
equation (iii), F  T  0.4  250  9.81
F  (m1g )  (m1  m2 ) g F  392.4  0.4  250  9.81
 (2m1  m2 ) g F  1373.4 N or 1.373 kN
 0.4(2 100  150)  9.81 Hence, the correct option is (D).
F 1.37 kN
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Engineering Mechanics 3
 v  4.905 m/s
3.2 4.905
Hence, the velocity of the block attained after 10
Given : Weight of block (W )  200 N seconds is 4.905 m/s.
Coefficient of static friction (s )  0.4
Coefficient of dynamic friction (k )  0.2
Applied force ( P)  10 t N
3.3 1.19
Given : Mass of crate ( W )  100 kg
Coefficient of friction ()  0.3
Surface inclination ()  10
0

FBD :
By resolving vertical forces (FV  0) ,
N  200  0
N  200
By resolving horizontal forces (FH  0) ,
10t  s N
10t  0.4  200
t  8sec
It is clear that static friction will work for t  8sec
, means the block will have no motion for 8
seconds. The block will move for 10  8  2  sec
only.
Now, by Newton’s law of motion Considering the equilibrium i.e., when crate is
P k N  ma  0 not sliding.
dv By resolving forces normal to the crate,
10t  40  m N  mg cos10 …(i)
dt
By resolving forces along the crate,
 (10t  40)dt   mdv
t2 v

t1 u mg sin10  ma  N  0
10 (t  4)dt  m dv
10 v
By putting value of N from equation (i),
8 0
10 mg sin10  ma  (mg cos10)  0
t2 
10   4t   mv0 mg ( cos10  sin10)
v

2 8 a
m
10 2
t  8t   m v 0 a  g ( cos10  sin10)
10 v

2 8
a  9.81(0.3  cos10  sin10)
10
(102  8 10)  (82  8  8)  a  1.19 m/s2
2
200 Hence, the maximum value of acceleration of the

9.81
 v  0 truck such that the crate does not slide down is
1.19 m/s2.
10 200
2
 (20  0 
9.81
 v  0
10  20 200v

2 9.81

4 Engineering Mechanics
 3.4 57.67 ( F )  S  Change in kinetic energy

Given : Mass of body (m)  10 kg 1

(mg sin   mg cos )  S  m (v 2  u 2 )
2
Coefficient of friction (s )  0.5
Final velocity of block (v)  20 m/s (10  9.81  sin 450  0.5 10  9.81cos 450 )
1
Horizontal inclination ()  45  S  10 (20)2  (0)2 
0

2
..Method 1..
S  57.664 or 57.67 m
Hence, the distance travelled by the body along the
plane is 57.67 m.

By resolving forces normal to the crate 3.5 (A)

N  mg sin 45  0
Given : Mass of wardrobe (m)  100 kg
N  mg sin 45 …(i)
Height (h)  4 m
By resolving forces along the crate,
mg cos 45  N  ma  0 Width ( w)  2 m
By putting value of N from equation (i) Depth (d )  1m
mg cos 45  (mg sin 45)  ma  0 FBD :
ma  mg (cos 45   sin 45)
a  g (cos 45   sin 45)
a  9.81(cos 45  0.5  sin 45)
a  3.468 m/s 2
Now, by using equation of motion
v 2  u 2  2as Considering moment at Q,
202  0  2  3.468  s MQ  0
s  57.67 m P  2  mg 1  0
Hence, the distance travelled by the body along the mg
plane is 57.67 m. P  490.5 N
2
..Method 2.. At the verge of tip about point Q , we have
Given : Final velocity (v)  20 m / sec P  mg
Initial velocity (u)  0 m / sec 490.5  100  9.81
Using work energy principle,   0.5
FBD : Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.6 5
Given : Coefficient of friction ()  0.25
cos   0.8, sin   0.6
Tmax  20 N and g  10 m / s2

Engineering Mechanics 5
 m  aC
100   m  aC
2
3(m  aC )
100 
2
100  2 100  2
aC    6.67 m/s2
3m 3 10
Now, we know that friction force ( F )   N
Hence, the linear acceleration of the centre of the
F  0.25  mg cos  2
disc is 6.67 m / s .
F  0.25 m 10  0.8  2m
 Key Point
Considering the condition of equilibrium,
For rolling with sliding :
mg sin   20  Friction force
mg  0.6  20  2m
m  5 kg
Hence, the maximum value of the mass (m) for
which the string will not break and the block will
be in static equilibrium is 5 kg. 1. In this case direction of friction force will be
apposite to that of applied force.
2. Moment generated between applied force
and friction force constitutes torque.
For rolling without sliding :
3.7 6.67
Given : Force on the disc ( F )  100 N
Mass of the disc (m)  10 kg
Radius of disc (r )  1m
Let, linear acceleration of centre  aC In this case external torque is applied, for example
Angular acceleration   cars etc.
FBD :

3.8 10
Given : Mass of block (m)  10 kg
Coefficient of static friction ()  0.2
Now, by Newton’s second law, Applied force = 10 N.
100  f  m  aC …(i) FBD :
Torque on the disc,
T  I 
mr 2
f r  
2
m  r m  aC Fy  0 , N  W  0
f   …(ii)
2 2
N  98.1N
( aC  r)
Now, maximum friction force is given by,
By solving equations,

6 Engineering Mechanics
 F  N  0.2  98.1  19.62 N
But, applied load, P  10   2  19.62 N
Hence, friction force will be equal to applied load
10 N.
Hence, the magnitude of force of friction on the
block is 10 N.
3.9 (C)
Given : Weigh = W

From Lamis theorem,

(i) When the cylinder is about to make out of R 750 900
 
the curb, it will loose its contact at point A, sin 90 sin(150  ) sin(120  )
only contact will be at it B. On solving,
(ii) At verge of moving out of curb, roller will be   9.8050
in equillibrium under W, F and contact
force from B and these three forces has to Coefficient of friction,   tan 
be concurrent so contact force from B will  tan(9.805)  0.173
pass through C. Hence, the coefficient of static friction between
(iii) Even the surfaces are rough but there will be the block and the surface is 0.173.
no friction at B for the said condition FBD. 3.11 5.8

FBD of point P
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.10 0.173
p 1
Given :   300 (inclined angle), FV  900 N, 1
N1
FH  750 N,
RFP
Np

Calculation of angle :
12
tan 1 
5
1  67.380
5
tan 2 
12

Engineering Mechanics 7
 2  22.160 Apply x  0 ,
Apply x  0 , Q NQ  FRQ cos(22.16) … (iii)
 p N p  RFP cos 67.38 … (i) Apply y  0 ,
Apply y  0 , NQ  FRQ sin(22.16) … (iv)
N p  RFP  sin 67.38 … (ii) From (iii) and (iv),
From equation (i) and equation (ii), Q FRQ sin(22.16)  FRQ cos(22.16)
 p  RFp sin 67.38  FRP  cos 67.38 Q  2.45
cos 67.38 Q 2.45
p  Ratio of   5.8
sin 67.38  p 0.41
 p  0.4166 Hence, the correct answer is 5.8.
FBD of point Q :
NQ 

22.16
 Q NQ
Q 22.16

FRQ

8 Engineering Mechanics
4 Kinematics of Particles & Rigid Body

2014 IIT Kharagpur magnitude of the resultant acceleration (in

4.1 A circular object of radius r rolls without
slipping on a horizontal level floor with the
center having velocity V. The velocity at the
point of contact between the object and the
floor is [1 Mark]
(A) Zero
(B) V in the direction of motion
(C) V opposite to the direction of motion
(D) V vertically upward from the floor
4.2 Consider a flywheel whose mass M is
distributed almost equally between a heavy
ring-like rim of radius R and a concentric
disk-like feature of radius R / 2 . Other parts
of the flywheel, such as spokes etc., have
negligible mass. The best approximation for
 , if the moment of inertia of the flywheel
about its axis of rotation is expressed as
MR 2 , is ______. [2 Marks]
4.3 A uniform slender rod ( 8 m length and 3 kg
mass) rotates in a vertical plane about a
horizontal axis 1 m from its end as shown in
the figure. The magnitude of the angular
2
acceleration (in rad/s ) of the rod at the
position shown is _______.
[2 Marks]
m/sec2 ) of the end P is ______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
4.5 A wheel of radius r rolls without slipping on
a horizontal surface shown below. If the
velocity of point P is 10 m/s in the horizontal
direction, the magnitude of velocity of point
Q (in m/s) is _______. [1 Mark]
4.6 A swimmer can swim 10 km in 2 hours when
swimming along the flow of a river. While
swimming against the flow, she takes 5
hours for the same distance. Her speed in still
water (in km/h) is ______. [1 Mark]
4.7 For the same material and the mass, which of
the following configurations of flywheel will
have maximum mass moment of inertia
about the axis of rotation O-O’ passing
through the center of gravity. [1 Mark]
(A)

4.4 A rigid link PQ of length 2 m rotates about

the pinned end Q with a constant angular
(B)
2
acceleration of 12 rad/sec . When the
angular velocity of the link is 4 rad/sec , the

Engineering Mechanics 1
 (C) respectively. The distance between the
points A and B is 300 mm. The diameter of
the wheel (in mm) is _______. [2 Marks]

(D)

4.8 A mobile phone has a small motor with an
eccentric mass used for vibrator mode. The
location of the eccentric mass on motor with
respect to center of gravity (CG) of the
mobile and the rest of the dimension of the
mobile phone are shown. The mobile is kept
on a flat horizontal surface.
4.11 A bullet spins as the shot is fired from a gun.
For this purpose, two helical slots as shown
in the figure are cut in the barrel. Projections
A and B on the bullet engage in each of the
slots.

Helical slots are such that one turn of helix is

Given in addition that the eccentric mass = 2 completed over a distance of 0.5 m. If
grams, eccentricity = 2.19 mm, mass of the
velocity of bullet when it exits the barrel is
mobile = 90 grams, g  9.81m/s .
2
20 m/s, its spinning speed in rad/s is
Uniform speed of the motor in RPM for
which the mobile will get just lifted off the _______. [2 Marks]
ground at the end Q is approximately 2016 IISc Bangalore
[2 Marks]
(A) 3000 (B) 3500 4.12 A rigid link PQ is undergoing plane motion
(C) 4000 (D) 4500 as shown in the figure ( VP and VQ are non-
4.9 The initial velocity of an object is 40 m/s.
The acceleration a of the object is given by zero). VQP is the relative velocity of point Q
the following expression. with respect to point P. [1 Mark]
a   0.1 v
where, v is the instantaneous velocity of the
object. The velocity of the object after 3
seconds will be _______.
[2 Marks]
Which one the following is TRUE?
4.10 Figure shows a wheel rotating about O . Two
(A) VQP has components along and
points A and B located along the radius of
wheel have speeds of 80 m/s and 140 m/s perpendicular to PQ

2 Engineering Mechanics
 (B) VQP has only one component directed
from P to Q
(C) VQP has only one component directed
from Q to P
(D) VQP has only one component
perpendicular to PQ

2017 IIT Roorkee 2018 IIT Guwahati

4.13 The following figure shows the velocity time
plot for a particle traveling along a straight
line. The distance covered by the particle
from t  0 to t  5s is _____ m. [1 Mark]
4.15 A ball is dropped from rest from a height of
1 m in a frictionless tube as shown in the
figure. If the tube profile is approximated by
two straight lines (ignoring the curved
portion), the total distance travelled (in m)
by the ball is _______ (correct to two
decimal places). [1 Mark]

4.14 The rod PQ of length L  2 m and

uniformly distributed mass of M = 10 kg, is 4.16 A rigid rod of length 1 m is resting at an
released from rest at the position shown in angle   450 as shown in the figure. The
the figure. The ends slide along the end P is dragged with a velocity of U = 5 m/s
to the right. At the instant shown, the
frictionless faces OP and OQ. Assume
magnitude of the velocity V (in m/s) of point
acceleration due to gravity g  10 m/s . The
2
Q as it moves along the wall without losing
mass moment of inertia of the rod about its contact is [2 Marks]
centre of mass and an axis perpendicular to
2
the plane of the figure is ( ML /12) . At this
instant, the magnitude of angular
acceleration (in radian/s2) of the rod is
_______. [2 Marks]
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10
4.17 In a rigid body in plane motion, the point R
is accelerating with respect to point P at
101800 m/s2 . If the instantaneous

Engineering Mechanics 3
 acceleration of point Q is zero, the when it was placed on a flat horizontal
acceleration in m/s2 of point R is [2 Marks] surface and released (refer to the figure).
Gravity g acts vertically downwards as
shown in the figure. The coefficient of
friction between the disc and the surface is
finite and positive. Disregarding any other
dissipation except that due to friction
between the disc and the surface, the
horizontal velocity of the center of the disc,
when it starts rolling without slipping, will
(A) 82330 (B) 102250
be _________ m/s (round off to 2 decimal
(C) 102170 (D) 8217 0 places). [2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
r
m  g
4.18 A cylindrical disc of mass m = 1 kg and
radius r = 0.15 m was spinning at   5 rad/s

4.1 (A) 9
I MR 2 …(i)
In rolling motion (combination of rectilinear 16
motion and rotational motion), the velocity at the and, I  MR 2 …(ii)
point of contact between the circular object and the Comparing equation (i) and (ii),
horizontal plane about which the object is rolling, 9
is zero.   0.5625
16
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the moment of inertia of the flywheel about
4.2 0.5625 its axis of rotation is expressed as MR 2 is
Given : Mass of flywheel  M 0.5625.
Radius of flywheel  R
Moment of inertia of the flywheel about its axis of
rotation ( I )  MR 2
4.3 2.05
Given : Mass of rod  3kg
Length of rod = 8 m
Centre of rotation = 1 m from left end
..Method 1..
FBD :
Moment of inertia is given by,
1
I  I disc  I ring  mr 2  mr 2
2 Moment of inertia at center of gravity,
2
1 M R M 2
I  2  2 R mL2 3  82
2 2   IO    16 kgm2
12 12
Using parallel axis theorem, we have

4 Engineering Mechanics
 I B  IO  m  OB2 ml 2
and I CG  (MOI of uniform rigid rod about
12
I B  16  3 32  43 kgm2
center of gravity)
3 1 ml 2
Also, mAB   0.375 kg  I  mr 2
1 7 12
3 7 3  82
mBC   2.625 kg I  3  32  43 kgm2
1 7 12
Torque is given by, Putting value of I in equation (i),
BC AB 3  9.81  3  43  
T  mBC g  mAB g
2 2
  2.053 rad / sec2
7 1
T  2.625(9.81)  0.375(9.81) Hence, the magnitude of the angular acceleration of
2 2 the rod at the position shown is 2.053 rad/s2.
T  88.29 Nm
4.4 40
Also, we have
Given : Length of the rod PQ ( L)  2 m
T  I
Angular acceleration ()  12 rad/sec2
88.29  43  
Angular velocity ()  4 rad/sec
  2.05 rad/s 2
FBD :
Hence, the magnitude of the angular acceleration
of the rod at the position shown is 2.05 rad/s2.
..Method 2..

Now consider that weight of rod is concentrated at Now, tangential acceleration of the rod is given
centre of gravity of rod. by,
Applying Newton’s law for rotational motion (aT )  r   2 12  24m/s2
about fulcrum, Normal acceleration is given by,
(aN )  r 2  2  42  32m/s2
The resultant acceleration is given by,
(aR )  aT2  aN2  242  322
 T  I 
mg  3  I   …(i) (aR )  40m/s2
For mass moment of inertia, using parallel axis Hence, the magnitude of the resultant acceleration
2
theorem, of the end P is 40m/s .
I  ICG  m  r 2
where, r  Distance between fulcrum and weight
applied.

Engineering Mechanics 5
 4.5 20 4.7 (B)
Given : Velocity at centre (VP )  10 m/s We know that, mass moment of inertia is given by,
FBD : I  mk 2
Where, k is radius of gyration
Materials and masses are same for all
configurations shown above, hence the mass
moment of inertia will depend upon the mass
distribution or radius of gyration (k).
By considering all configurations, we found that
option (B) has the greater value of mass
We know that, distribution or we can say that the value of radius
V  r of gyration is maximum in this case, about the axis
VP  r  10 (VP  V ) O-O’.
VP and VQ can be related as, Hence, the correct option is (B).
VQ  2VP  20 m/s 4.8 (B)
Hence, the magnitude of velocity of point Q is 20 Given : Mass of mobile (m)  90gram
m/s.
Mass of eccentricity (me )  2 grams
 Key Point
Eccentricity (e)  2.19 mm

V '  r  V
VP  10  r Considering moment about P, ( M P  0)
VQ  V  V ' VQ  2VP  20 m/sec . mg  6  me  e 2  9
4.6 3.5 90  9.81 6 102  2  2.19 103  2
Let, the swimmer’s speed in still water  x  9 102
Speed of flow of water in river  y 2N
  366.5836 
10 60
We have, x  y  5
2 N  3500.6155 rpm
x y 5 …(i) Hence, the correct option is (B).
10
x y   2 4.9 29.63
5
x y 2 …(ii) Given : Initial velocity (u)  40 m/s
Solving, two equations, we get Acceleration of object (a)   0.1v
We know that, the acceleration is the derivative of
x  3.5 km/h
velocity with time
Hence, the speed in still water is 3.5 km/h. dv
a  0.1v
dt
The velocity after 3 sec

6 Engineering Mechanics
 dv 2 2
40 v 0 0.1dt
V 3
    251.3 rad/s
t 0.025
v
[log v ]40   0.1[t ]30 Hence, the spinning speed is 251.3 rad/s.
log v  log 40   0.1[3  0]   0.3
4.12 (D)
log v  log 40  0.3
( loge 40  ln 40  3.6888 ) FBD :
log v = 3.3888
v  e3.3888  29.63 m/s
Hence, the velocity of the object after 3 seconds
will be 29.63 m/s.

By the analysis of velocity components it is clear

that the relative velocity VQP has only one
4.10 1400 component perpendicular to PQ.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Given : Velocity at A (vA )  80m/s
Velocity at B (vB )  140m/s 4.13 10

In velocity time, plot the distance covered by the

particle traveling along a straight line is the sum of
area covered from t  0 to t  5 seconds as shown
in figure drawn below.

The angular velocity at any point of the same

rotating element is always same.
A  B
vA v
 B ( v  R )
R  300 R Hence, distance covered by the particle is area of
80 140 region

R  300 R ABCDEGA (ABJ  BCIJ  ICDH  HDEG)
R  700 mm 1
 (11)  (11)+(11)
D  2R  1400 mm 2
Hence, the diameter of the wheel is 1400 mm. 1 1
 (1 3)  (2  2)  (2  2)
2 2
4.11 251.3
 10 m
Given : One turn of helix = 0.5 m
Hence, the distance covered by the particle from
Exit velocity of bullet = 20 m/s t  0 to t  5s is 10 m.
Now, time taken for one revolution is given by,
0.5 4.14 7.5
t  0.025 s
20 Given : Length of the rod ( L)  2 m
The spinning speed is given by,

Engineering Mechanics 7
 Mass of the rod ( M )  10 kg Considering ABC ,
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10 m/s
2

AB 1
AB  BC  AB   1
sin 45 sin 45
AB  BC  2.414 m
Now, from  IQR
y Hence, the total distance travelled by the ball is
tan 45  2.414 m.
2/2
2
y m
2
Moment of inertia about I,
4.16 (A)
ML2
I  My 2
12 Given : Length of rod ( L)  1m
2
10  ( 2) 2
 2
I  10    6.67 kg-m
2 Velocity of point P, (VP )  5m/s
12  2 
Angle ()  45 .
0
Moment balance about point I is,
mgx  I  …(i) ..Method 1..
Where,   angular acceleration VP   OP
2 VQ   OQ
x  sin 45   0.5 m
2
By solving equation (i), we get
10 10  0.5
  7.5 rad/s 2
6.67
Hence, the magnitude of angular acceleration of VQ OQ 1 sin 450
the rod is 7.5 rad/s2.   1
VP OP 1 cos 450
4.15 2.414 VQ  1VP  1 5  5 m/s
By conservation of energy, the ball will rise Hence, the correct option is (A).
through the same height. Hence the total distance ..Method 2..
traveled will be equal to the sum of AB and BC.

The rod is rigid, velocity at any point will

be same,

8 Engineering Mechanics
 r g

m

VA  VB  V
VQ cos 450  5cos 450 Let us horizontal velocity of disc  v m/s
VQ  5m /sec

Hence, the correct option is (A). m
a


F
4.17 (D) We know,
Newton’s second law for linear motion :
According to question,
F  ma … (i)
And Newton’s second law for angular motion :
T  I 0 
mr 2
T  … (ii)
 12  2
sin    
 20  Newton’s 1st law of motion, for linear motion :
 12  v  u  at
  sin 1    36.870
 20  [ u  0 because when disc touches the ground
initial velocity will be zero]
aRP  2  PR  10
F
10 10 v t
 
2
 m
PR 20
Newton’s 1st law of motion for angular motion:
2  0.5
  0  t
aR  2  QR  0.5 16  8m/s2
v 2F vm
Angle  180    180  36.87  216.87  2170  5 
r mr F
Hence, the correct option is (D).
From equation (ii),
v 2v
 5
r r
3v
4.18 0.25 5
r
Given :
5  0.15
Mass of cylindrical disc (m)  1 kg v
3
Radius of disc (r )  0.15 m v  0.25 m/s
Initial angular velocity of disc (0 )  5 rad/s Hence, the correct answer is 0.25.
2
Gravitational acceleration = g (m/s )

Engineering Mechanics 9
5 Kinetics of Particles & Rigid Body

2014 IIT Kharagpur 1

(C) F1  F2 ; 1  I11 ; F2  I 2 1
r2
5.1 A four wheel vehicle of mass 1000 kg moves
  r1  
2
uniformly in a straight line with the wheels (D) F1  F2 ; 1   I1  I 2    1 ;
revolving at 10 rad/sec . The wheels are   r2  
identical, each with a radius of 0.2 m. When 1
F2  I 2 1
a constant braking torque is applied to all the r2
wheels and the vehicle experiences a
2016 IISc Bangalore
uniform deceleration. For the vehicle to stop
in 10 sec, the braking torque in (Nm) on each 5.3 An inextensible massless string goes over a
wheel is _______. [2 Marks] frictionless pulley. Two weights of 100 N
and 200 N are attached to the two ends of the
2015 IIT Kanpur string. The weights are released from rest
and start moving due to gravity. The tension
5.2 A pinion with radius r1 and inertia I1 is
in the string (in N) is _______. [2 Marks]
driving a gear with radius r2 and inertia I 2 .
Torque 1 is applied on pinion. The
following are free body diagram of pinion
and gear showing important forces
(F1 and F2 ) of interaction. Which of the
following relations holds true?
2018 IIT Guwahati
5.4 Block P of mass 2 kg slides down the surface
and has a speed 20 m/s at the lowest point, Q
where the local radius of curvature is 2 m as
shown in the figure. Assuming g  10m/s ,
2

the normal force (in N) at Q is ______.

(Correct to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
1, 2  Angular displacements
[2 Marks]
r1
(A) F1  F2 ; 1  I11 ; F2  I 2 1
r 22
  r1  
2
2021 IIT Bombay
(B) F1  F2 ; 1   I1  I 2    1 ;
  r2   5.5 The wheels and axle system lying on a rough
r surface is shown in the figure.
F2  I 2 12 1
r2

Engineering Mechanics 1
 Wheel The acceleration of the wheel axle system in
horizontal direction is _______ m/s2 (round
Axle off to one decimal place). [1 Mark]
g

0.2 m
2023 IIT Kanpur
0.8m
5.6 The area moment of inertia about the y-axis
10 N
of a linearly tapered section shown in the
Each wheel has diameter 0.8 m and mass 1 figure is ________ m4. (Answer in integer)
kg. Assume that the mass of the wheel is
y
concentrated at rim and neglect the mass of
the spokes. The diameter of axle is 0.2 m 3m
and its mass is 1.5 kg. Neglect the moment 1.5 m
of Inertia of the axle and assume 1.5 m x
g  9.8 m/s2 . An effort of 10 N is applied on 3m

the axle in the horizontal direction shown at

12 m
mid span of the axle. Assume that the wheels
move on a horizontal surface without slip.

5.1 10 Torque on each wheel,

Given : Mass of the vehicle (m)  1000 kg
40
T  10 Nm
4
Initial angular velocity of wheels ()  10 rad/sec
Hence, the braking torque in on each wheel is 10
Radius of wheels (r )  0.2 m
Nm.
Time taken to stop the vehicle (t )  10sec.
Let  ' be the final angular velocity of the wheels
Now,  '    t
0  10  10
  1rad/sec2 5.2 (B)
Degree of rotation before the wheels stops
1 1 1  Fr
1 1  I11 …(i)
  t  t 2  10 10  (1) 102
2 2 F1  F2 …(ii)
  50 rad (Action and reaction are equal, by Newton’s 3rd
Now, work done by the brakes to stop the vehicle
law)
1
T   m(v12  v22 ) F2r2  2  I22 …(iii)
2
1 From equation (ii) and (iii),
T   mr 2 [2  ( ')2 ] ( v  r)
2 I 2 2
1 F2  F1  …(iv)
T  1000  0.22  (102  0) r2
2
T  50  2000 From equation (i) and (iv),
T  40 Nm I  
40 Nm braking torque will be applied on all four 1   2 2  r1  I11 …(v)
 r2 
wheels.

2 Engineering Mechanics
We know, r11  r22
r11  r22
Differentiating with respect to time,
r11  r22
r11
2 
r2
Combined acceleration of body,
I  r1  Net force 200  100
 1  I11  2  r 1  r1 a= 
r2 2  Total mass 100  200
  r1  
2 9.81 9.81
1   I1  I 2    1
  r2   a =3.27 m /sec2
and, 2  I22  F2r2
I I r  r
F2  2 2  2  1 1   I 2 12 1
r2 r2  r2  r2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
200  T  m  a
5.3 133.33
200
Given : 200  T   3.27
9.81
Mass of body-1 (m1 )  100 / 9.81  10.1936 200
T  200   3.27  133.33 N
Mass of body-2 (m2 )  200 / 9.81  20.3873 9.81
Hence, the tension in the string is 133.33 N.
..Method 1..
FBD :

5.4 420
Given : Mass of block (m)  2 kg
Velocity of sliding (v)  20 m/s
Radius of curvature of the path ( R)  2 m

Tension in the string is simply given by, FBD :

 mm 
T   1 2   2g
 m1  m2 
 10.1936  20.3873 
T    2  9.81
 10.1936  20.3873 
T  133.33 N By Newton’s second law,
Hence, the tension in the string is 133.33 N. F  mar
..Method 2.. N  mg  mar
N  mg  mar  0

Engineering Mechanics 3
 mv2 2  20  20
N  mg   2 10 
R 2
N  420 N
Hence, the normal force at Q is 420 N.
 Key Point

mwheel  1kg/wheel

maxle  1.5kg

IG  mR2 (Two wheel should be consider)

IG  2 1 0.42

mv2 IG  0.32kgm2
Case 1 : N  mg 
r
f  ma
mv2
N  mg
r 10  2 f  3.5 a (a  0.4 )
2
mv
Case 2 : N   mg 10  2 f  1.4  …(i)
r
mv 2 TG  IG 
 mg (to maintain contact)
r
2 2 f .r  10  0.1  2 1 0.42 
mv
Case 3 : N  mg 
r 2  f  0.4  10  0.1  2 1 0.42 
mv2
N  mg 0.8 f  1  0.32  …(ii)
r
mv 2 From equation (i)
 mg (to maintain contact)
r 10  1.4 
f 
2
f  5  0.7 

5.5 1.3696 Equation using (ii)

Given : 0.8(5  0.7 )  1  0.32 
DW  0.8m 4  0.56   1  0.32 

Daxle  0.2m 3  (0.32  0.56) 

Fe  10 N 
3
0.88
g = 9.8 m/s2

4 Engineering Mechanics
  3.409rad/sec

We know that a  0.4 

a  1.3696 m/sec2

Hence, the acceleration of the wheel axle system

in horizontal direction is 1.3696 m/s2 .
5.6 3024

I y   I y Rect  2I trinagle

3123 1.5 123 1  2 12  

2

Iy   2   12 1.5    
3  36 2  3  
 3024 m4
Hence, the correct option is 3024.



Engineering Mechanics 5
6 Impulse, Momentum, Collision & Work Energy

2013 IIT Bombay (in N-m sensed by the dynamometer is

______. [1 Mark]
6.1 A single degree of freedom system having
mass 1 kg and stiffness 10 kN/m initially at 6.5 A small ball of mass 1 kg moving with a
rest is subjected to an impulse force of velocity of 12 m/s undergoes a direct central
magnitude 5 kN for 104 seconds. The impact with a stationary ball of mass 2 kg.
amplitude in mm of the resulting free The impact is perfectly elastic. The speed (in
vibration is [2 Marks]
m/s) of 2 kg mass ball after the impact will
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
be ______.
(C) 5.0 (D) 10.0
[1 Mark]
2014 IIT Kharagpur
6.6 A ball of mass 0.1 kg initially at rest, is
6.2 A mass m1 of 100 kg travelling with a dropped from height of 1 m. Ball hits the
uniform velocity of 5 m/s along a line, ground and bounces off the ground. Upon
collides with a stationary mass m2 of 1000 impact with the ground, the velocity reduced
kg. After the collision, both the masses travel by 20%. The height (in m) to which the ball
together with the same velocity. The
will rise is _______.
coefficient of restitution is
[1 Mark] [2 Marks]
(A) 0.6 (B) 0.1 2016 IISc Bangalore
(C) 0.01 (D) 0 6.7 A point mass M is released from rest and
6.3 An annular disc has a mass m, inner radius R slider down a spherical bowl of radius R
and outer radius 2R. The disc rolls on a flat from a height H as shown in the figure
surface without slipping. If the velocity of
below. The surface of the bowl is smooth (no
the center of mass is v, the kinetic energy of
the disc is [2 Marks] friction). The velocity of the mass at the
9 11 bottom of the bowl is [1 Mark]
(A) mv2 (B) mv2
16 16
13 2 15 2
(C) mv (D) mv
16 16
2015 IIT Kanpur
(A) gH (B) 2gR
6.4 A rope brake dynamometer attached to the
(C) 2gH (D) 0
crankshaft of an IC engine measures a brake
6.8 A point mass having mass M is moving with
power of 10 kW when the speed of rotation
a velocity V at an angle  to the wall as
of the shaft is 400 rad/sec. The shaft torque shown in the figure. The mass undergoes a
perfectly elastic collision with the smooth
wall and rebounds. The total change (final
Engineering Mechanics 1
 minus initial) in the momentum of the mass
is [1 Mark]
(A)  2MV cos  Jˆ
(B) 2MV sin  Jˆ
(C) 2MV cos  Jˆ
(D)  2MV sin  Jˆ
6.9 A mass of 2000 kg is currently being
lowered at a velocity of 2 m/s from the drum
as shown in the figure. The mass moment of
2
inertia of the drum is 150kg-m . On
applying the brake, the mass is brought to
rest in a distance of 0.5 m . The energy
absorbed by the brake (in kJ) is _______.
[2 Marks]
6.10 A circular disc of radius 100 mm and mass 1
kg, initially at rest at position A, rolls
without slipping down a curved path as
shown in figure. The speed v of the disc
when it reaches position B is ______ m/s.
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10 m/s .
2
6.11 A system of particles in motion has mass
center G as shown in the figure. The particle
i has mass mi and its position with respect
to a fixed point O is given by the position
vector ri . The position of the particle with
respect to G is given by the vector i . The
time rate of change of the angular
momentum of the system of particles about
G is
(The quantity i indicates second derivative
of i with respect to time and likewise for ri
). [2 Marks]
(A) i ri  mi i (B) i  mi ri
(C) i ri  mi ri (D) i i  mi i
2017 IIT Roorkee
6.12 A particle of unit mass is moving on a plane.
Its trajectory in polar coordinates, is given by
r (t )  t 2 ,   (t ), where t is time. The
kinetic energy of the particle at time t  2 is
[1 Mark]
(A) 4 (B) 12
(C) 16 (D) 24
6.13 Two disks A and B with identical mass (m)
and radius (R) are initially at rest. They roll

down from the top of identical inclined

[2 Marks]
planes without slipping. Disk A has all of its
mass concentrated at the rim, while disk B
has its mass uniformly distributed. At the
bottom of the plane, the ratio of velocity of
the center of disk A to the velocity of the
center of disk B is [2 Marks]
3 3
(A) (B)
4 2
(C) 1 (D) 2

2 Engineering Mechanics
 2018 IIT Guwahati
6.14 A point mass is shot vertically up from
ground level with a velocity of 4 m/s at time,
t  0 . It loses 20% of its impact velocity
after each collision with the ground.
Assuming that the acceleration due to
2
gravity is 10m/s and that air resistance is
negligible, the mass stops bouncing and
comes to complete rest on the ground after a
total time (in seconds) of [2 Marks]
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 
2019 IIT Madras
6.15 A ball of mass 3 kg is moving with velocity
of 4 m/sec undergoes perfectly elastic direct
central impact with a stationary ball of mass
m. After impact the kinetic energy of ball of
mass 3 kg is 6 J. The value of m is/are
[2 Marks]
(A) 1 kg, 6 kg (B) 6 kg
(C) 1 kg, 9 kg (D) 9 kg
2020 IIT Delhi
6.16 A rigid block of mass m1  10 kg having
velocity v0  2 m/s strikes a stationary block
of ma m2  30 kg after travelling 1 m along a
frictionless horizontal surface as shown in
the figure.
The two masses stick together and jointly
move by a distance of 0.25m further along
the same frictionless surface, before they
touch the mass - less buffer that is connected
to the rigid vertical wall by means of a linear
spring having a spring constant k  105 N/m.
The maximum deflection of the spring is
______ cm (round off to 2 decimal places).
[2 Marks]
6.17 The 2 kg block shown in figure (top view)
rests on a smooth horizontal surface and is
Engineering Mechanics
attached to a mass-less elastic cord that has a
stiffness 5 N/m.
The cord hinged at O is initially unstretched
and always remains elastic. The block is
given a velocity v of 1.5 m/s perpendicular
to the cord. The magnitude of velocity in m/s
of the block at the instant the cord is
stretched by 0.4 m is [2 Marks]
(A) 1.50 (B) 1.07
(C) 0.83 (D) 1.36
2022 IIT Kharagpur
6.18 The plane of the figure represents a
horizontal plane. A thin rigid rod at rest is
pivoted without friction about a fixed
vertical axis passing through O. Its mass
moment of inertia is equal to 0.1 kg∙cm2
about O. A point mass of 0.001 kg hits it
normally at 200 cm/s at the location shown,
and sticks to it. Immediately after the impact,
the angular velocity of the rod is
___________ rad/s (in integer). [1 Mark]
O
10 cm 200 cm/s
6.19 A rigid homogeneous uniform block of mass
1 kg, height ℎ = 0.4 m and width 𝑏 = 0.3 m
is pinned at one corner and placed upright in
a uniform gravitational field (g = 9.81 m/s2),
supported by a roller in the configuration
shown in the figure. A short duration
(impulsive) force 𝐹, producing an impulse
I F , is applied at a height of 𝑑 = 0.3 m from
the bottom as shown. Assume all joints to be
frictionless. The minimum value of I F
required to topple the block is [2 Marks]
3
 b collision is perfectly elastic. What is the
momentum vector of the ball (in kg m/s)
F
g just after impact?
Take the acceleration due to gravity to be
h
d g  9.8m/s2 . Options have been rounded
off to one decimal place.
2 kg

4.9 m

(A) 0.953 Ns (B) 1.403 Ns ĵ

g
(C) 0.814 Ns (D) 1.172 Ns
Rigid
2023 IIT Kanpur Block
iˆ 30 0
6.20 A spherical ball weighing 2 kg is dropped
from a height of 4.9 m onto an immovable (A) 19.6iˆ (B) 19.6 ˆj
rigid block as shown in the figure. If the (C) 17.0iˆ  9.8 ˆj (D) 9.8iˆ  17.0 ˆj

6.1 (C) mv22 1 0.52

 
Given : Mass of the block (m)  1kg k 10 1000
  0.005m  5mm
Stiffness (k )  10 kN/m
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Impulse force ( F )  5 kN
4
Time (t )  10 s

6.2 (D)

Given : Moving mass (m1 )  100kg

Stationary mass (m2 )  1000kg
Initial velocity of mass 1, (u1 )  5m/s
Magnitude of force is give as, Initial velocity of mass 2, (u2 )  0
dv Let, v be the final velocity of both masses
F  m traveling together.
dt

 Fdt  m dv
t2 v2

t1 v1

F (t2  t1 )  m(v2  v1 )
5 103 (104  0)  1 (v2  0) Now, coefficient of restitution,
Relative speed after collision
v2  0.5m/s CR 
Relative speed before collision
Kinetic energy of the block will be equal to the vv 0
energy stored in the spring, CR   0
u1  u2 5  0
1 2 1 2
mv2  k  Since, after collision both travel with same
2 2 velocity and hence relative velocity is zero.
4 Engineering Mechanics
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1 1
KE  I 2  mv 2
6.3 (C) 2 2
2
Given : Velocity at centre = v (m/s) 1 5mR2  v  1 2
KE      mv
Mass of disk = m (kg) 2 2  2R  2
Inner radius = R where, v  2 R  
Outer radius = 2R 5 1
KE  mv 2  mv 2
16 2
13
KE  mv 2
16
Hence, the correct option is (C).
6.4 25
Consider a strip at a radial distance ' r ' of which Given : Brake power ( PB )  10kW
thickness is considered as unity.
Rotation of the shaft ()  400 rad/sec
We know that,
Brake power  Torque  speed of rotation
10 103  T  400
10 103
T  25 N-m
400
Hence, the shaft torque sensed by the dynamo-
Area of annular disc ( A)  4R2  R2  3R 2 meter is 25 N-m.
Area of strip (dA)  2rdr 6.5 8
strip  disc
Given : Mass of small ball (m1 )  1 kg
dm m
 Velocity of small ball before impact (u1 )  12 m/s
dv v
Mass of stationary ball (m2 )  2 kg
dm m

(2rdr ) 1 (3R 2 ) 1 Let, u2 be the velocity of the stationary ball before
2rm dr 2mr impact and v1, v2 be the velocities of small ball
dm   2 dr
3R 2 3R and stationary ball after the impact respectively.
By applying momentum conservation principle,
I   r 2 dm
2R
 R Total momentum before impact
2m 2 R 3
3R2 R
I r dr = Total momentum after impact
m1u1  m2u2  m1v1  m2v2
2m 1 12  0  v1  2v2
I  2  [(2R)4  R 4 ]
3R 4
12  v1  2v2 …(i)
2m 1 5
I  2  15R4  mR2 Energy conservation is given by,
3R 4 2
1 1 1 1
Total kinetic energy is given by, m1u12  m2u22  m1v12  m2v22
2 2 2 2
KE  (KE)Rotation  (KE)Translation

Engineering Mechanics 5
 1 1
(144  0)  (v12  2v22 )
2 2
144  v12  2v22 …(ii)
By solving equations, v2  8 m/s
Hence, the speed of 2 kg mass ball after the impact
will be 8 m/s. No external force are applied on system, so
momentum remains conserved.
Kinetic energy does not remain conserved, as
velocity is reduced by 20%
6.6 0.64 Coefficient of restitution (e) ,
Given : Mass of (m)  0.1 kg  (Velocityof separation)
e
Velcotiyof approach
Initial height (h)  1 m
 (Vb'  Va ' )
Reduction in velocity after impact  20% e
Vb  Va
..Method 1..
 PE at (1)  kE at (2) 
Let, u be the velocity just before impact and v be and, Va  2 gh  1 
the velocity just after impact  mgh  mVa 2

 2 
Also, Va'  0.8 2 gh
 e  0.8
Va'
Again, e
Va
Velocity just before impact 2 gh '
0.8 
u  2 gh 2 gh
u  2(9.81)(1)  4.429 m/s h'
0.64  ( h 1 m )
h
Reduced velocity after impact (100 – 20 = 80%)
h '  0.64 m
v  0.8  4.429  3.54 m/s
Hence, the height (in m) to which the ball will rise
Now, the kinetic energy remaining after the impact
is 0.64 m.
will be equal to the potential energy attained at a
height h
1 2
mv  mgh
2
6.7 (C)
1
 3.542  9.81 h Given : Mass of the block = m
2
h  0.64 m Height where the mass is placed = H

Hence, the height (in m) to which the ball will rise

is 0.64 m.
..Method 2..
By applying energy conservation principle,

6 Engineering Mechanics
Total energy of the block at position  1 brake to bring the mass into the rest. In this case
= Total energy of the block at position  2 the brake energy will be equal to the energy of the
system when the mass is at the height (h)  0.5m .
1
mgH  mv 2 Mathematically,
2
Brake energy
v  2 gH
= Energy of the system before going to rest
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1 1
EBrake  mv 2  I 2  mgh
2 2
1 1
  2000  22  150  22 2000 10  0.5
2 2
6.8 (D) EBrake 14300J  14.3kJ
Let, Initial momentum Hence, the energy absorbed by the brake is 14.3
( Pi )  MV cos iˆ  MV sin  ˆj kJ.
 Key Point
Final momentum ( Pf )  MV cos iˆ  MV sin  ˆj
Energy will not remain conserve if brakes are
FBD : applied due to non-conservative force (friction due
to brakes), hence in order to use energy
conservation principal at two points 1 and 2,
E1  E2  Eloss
where, Eloss  Brake energy.

6.10 20

Now, by the change of momentum Given : Radius of the disc ( R)  100 mm

= Final momentum – Initial momentum Mass of the disc (m)  1 kg
 MV cos iˆ  MV sin  ˆj Height at position A, (h)  30 m
(MV cos iˆ  MV sin  ˆj ) Gravitational acceleration ( g )  10 m/s
2

 MV (cos iˆ  sin  ˆj  cos iˆ  sin  ˆj ) Mass moment of inertia of disc ( I ) 
1
mR 2
2
 2MV sin  ˆj By applying energy conservation principle,
Hence, the correct option is (D). Total energy of the disc at point A
= Total energy of the disc at point B
(PE)atA  (KERotational  KETranslational )atB
1 2 1 2
6.9 14.3 mgh  I   mv
2 2
Given : Mass of the block (m)  2000 kg
1  mR2  v   1 22
mgh      mv
Velocity of lowering (v)  2 m/s 2  2  R   2
Mass moment of inertia of the drum ( I ) 
1 1 3
150kgm2 mgh  mv 2  mv 2  mv 2
4 2 4
Considering the lowering mass and the drum as a
system in which the energy is absorbed by the

Engineering Mechanics 7
 4 mgh Kinetic energy of the particle at t  2 can
v  be given as,
3 m
1
4 10  30 KE  mv 2
v  20 m/s 2
3
1
Hence, the speed v of the disc when it reaches KE  1 ( 32)2  16
2
position B is 20 m/s.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 Key Point

6.11 (B)
According to question,
6.13 (A)
Given : Mass of each disc  m
Radius of each disc  R
Mass moment of inertia of disc A, ( I A )  mR2
mR2
Mass moment of inertia of disc B, ( I B ) 
2
Let VA and VB be the velocity of disc A and B
Time rate of change of angular momentum,
respectively
dL

dt
L  r  P (for particle mi about G)
( Li )G  i  Pi  i  mV
i i  i  mi ri

(Li )G  i  mi ri Initially both the disc have the same potential

energy ( KE  0) and at the bottom also they will
Lbody  i  mi ri
have same kinetic energy ( PE  0) as PE gets
Hence, the correct option is (B).
converted to KE completely.
6.12 (C) By applying energy conservation principle
Given : Mass of the particle (m)  1kg (Equating the translation and rotational kinetic
energy at the bottom)
Trajectory in polar coordinates r (t )  t , (t )
2
1 1 1 1
Velocity of the unit mass can be determined as mVA2  I A2A  mVB2  I B 2B
2 2 2 2
dr
v  r(tˆ)  rˆ  t 2 1(tˆ)  2trˆ m R22 
dt
2

m 2

VA  RA22A  VB2  B B 
2 2 
 d 
v  t 2 (tˆ)  2 t(rˆ)  dt    1 RB2 2B
  VA2  RA2 2A  VB2 
At t  2s , 2
VB2
v  4(tˆ)  4(rˆ) VA2  VA2  VB2   V  R 
2
v  16 16  32

8 Engineering Mechanics
 2VB2  VB2
2VA2 
2
2
3V Now, coefficient of restitution,
VA2  B
4 vB  vA
e 1
VA

3 u A  uB
VB 4 vB  vA
Hence, the correct option is (A). e 1
40
vB  vA  4
1
and, mAvA2  6
6.14 (C) 2
1
Given : Initial velocity (u )  4 m/s  3  vA2  6
2
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10 m/s
2
vA  2 m/s ()
Loss of velocity after each impact  20%
Now, by the equation of motion,  vB  6 m/s ()
v  u  at By applying momentum conservation principal,
0  4  10t (a   g  10m/s ) 2
mAuA  mBuB  mAvA  mBvB
t  0.4s 3 4  0  3 2  m  6
Again, v1  0.8u1  at1 (20% loss of velocity) 12  6  6m
0  3.2  10t1 m  1 kg
t1  0.32s Case 2 : Assume after collision both mass moves
opposite direction,
Similarly, t2  0.24s
Since, there is no other force affecting the motion,
the time taken is in geometric progression. So total
time taken by the particle to stop bouncing can be Now, coefficient of restitution,
given by vB  vA
Total tine  2(t  t1  t2 . . . . .  0) e 1
u A  uB
 2(0.4  0.32  0.24  . . . . .  0)
vA  vB
0.4 e 1
 2  2  2  4s 40
1  0.8
vA  vB  4
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 vA  2 m/s ()
 vB  2 m/s ()
By applying momentum conservation principal,
6.15 (C) mAuA  mBuB  mAvA  mBvB
Case 1 : Assume after collision both mass moves 3  4  0  3  ( 2)  m  2
same direction, 12   6  m  2
m  9 kg
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Engineering Mechanics 9
 V0  1.360m/s
Hence, the correct option is (D).
6.18 10
6.16 1
Given :
Given : Mass of block 1 (m1 )  10kg ,
Mass of particle (m)  0.001 kg
Velocity of block 1 (v0 )  2m/s ,
Velocity of particle (v)  200 cm/s
Mass of block 2 (m2 )  30kg,
Moment of inertia about point
Distance between block 1 and block 2 (d1 )  1m,
(I0 )  0.1 kg  cm2
Distance between block 2 and spring buffer
(d2 )  0.25m , O

Spring constant ( K )  10 N/m

5
10 cm

m  0.001 kg
v  200 cm/sec

Let us angular velocity of rod  r' rad/s

We know, Momentum conservation principle
Using conservation of momentum,
I r r  I mn  ( I r  I m )r'
m1  v0  m2  0  (m1  m2 )  v
200
10  2  (10  30)v 0  0.001102   (0.1  0.001102 ) r'
10
20  40v
r '  10 rad/s
Velocity of both blocks, v  0.5m/s
From work-energy principle, Hence, the angular velocity of rod
1 1 r'  10 rad/s
Now, (m1  m2 )v 2  kx 2
2 2 Hence, the correct answer is 10.
1 1 6.19 (A)
 40  (0.5)2  105  x 2
2 2 0.3 m
10  10  x 5 2

1 F
 x2 
104 G
0.4 m
1
x m  1cm 0.3 m r
100 0.2 m
mg
Hence, the maximum deflection of the spring is 1
Rx
cm. A 0.15 m O
6.17 (D)
Ry
Energy conservation,
Where, G  centre of gravity point
1 1 1
mV12  mV02  kx 2 For AOG :
2 2 2
OG 2  AG 2  AO2
 2 1.5  2 V  5  0.4
2 2 2
0
r 2  (0.2)2  (0.15)2
10 Engineering Mechanics
 r  0.25 m 0.3  I F  0.0833 2 … (ii)
Moment of intertial about point O : Position 2 Position 3

Applying parallel axis theorem,

I0  IG  m(r )2 … (i)
G
Where, IG  moment of inertia about its centre, G h
K
m  mass of block. mg
0.2 m mg 0.2 m
We know, moment of inertia of rectangular block,
m 2 2
IG  (h  b ) O
12 Then, at position 2 the block will come in angular
1
 (0.42  0.32 ) motion with 2 but after shifting of centroid point
12 i.e. G along the axis of point ‘O’ let say position 3,
IG  0.0208 kgm2 at position 3, 3 will become zero because at this
By putting in equation (i), point angular rotation will be due to shifting of
I0  0.0208 1(0.25)2 centroid of block and eccentric distance will
I0  0.0833 kgm2 produce torque that will be the actual reason of
rotation only.
Now, net moment (M 0 )  I 0 OG  r  0.25 m, OK  0.2 m
d  h  OG  OK
F  0.3  mg  0.15  I 0 
dt h  0.25  0.2
( F  0.3  1 9.81 0.15)dt  I 0  d  h  0.05 m
( F  0.3  1.4715)dt  I 0  d  Balancing energy conservation for position (2)
and position (3) :
Integrating the equation by taking limit from
initial position 1 (not topple) to final position 2 ( K .E.)2  ( K .E.)3  ( P.E.)3
(toppled). 1 1
2 2 2
I 022  I 032  mg  h
2 2
0.3 Fdt 1.4715 dt   I 0d 
1
1 1 1 I 022  0  mg  h ( 3  0)
2 2
Here,  Fdt representing impulse force, ( I
1
F ). 1
 0.0833 22  0  1 9.81 0.05
2 2
2
 0.3 I F 1.4715 dt   I 0d  0.04165 22  0.4905
2  11.777
1 1

Since, the impulsive force is acting for short

duration, therefore neglecting, dt  0 2  3.4317 rad/sec
Now, By putting in equation (ii),
2
0.3  I F  0.0833  3.4317
0.3  I F  0   I 0 d 
1 I F  0.9528 N-s 0.953 N-s
0.3  I F  I 0 (2  1 ) Impulse, I F  0.953 N-s
0.3  I F  0.0833(2  0) Hence, the correct option is (A).
( 1 is at initial position during not
topple will be zero)

Engineering Mechanics 11
 6.20 C

VA'  VB'
e  1   
VA  VB

2kg
VA

VA'
30
60 30
30

30

ĵ

9.8  VA

30
iˆ
VB  V  0'
B

VA  VA'
VA  2  9.81 4.9
VA  9.8m/s

VA  VA'  9.8m/s
VA  9.8cos  30 iˆ  9.8sin  30 ˆj
Momentum  mVA


 2 9.8cos  30  iˆ  9.8sin 30  ˆj 
Hence, the correct option is (C).



12 Engineering Mechanics
Syllabus : Theory of Machines

Displacement, velocity and acceleration analysis of plane mechanisms; dynamic analysis of

linkages; cams; gears and gear trains; flywheels and governors; balancing of reciprocating and
rotating masses; gyroscope.
Contents : Theory of Machines

S. No. Topics
1. Displacement, Velocity & Acceleration
2. Planer Mechanisms
3. Cams
4. Dynamic Analysis of Slider-Crank
5. Gear & Gear Trains
6. Flywheel
7. Vibration
8. Balancing
9. Gyroscope
1 Displacement Velocity & Acceleration

point of contact between the object and the

2013 IIT Bombay
floor is [1 Mark]
1.1 A link OB rotating with a constant angular (A) Zero
velocity of 2 rad/s in counter clockwise (B) V in the direction of motion
(C) V opposite to the direction of motion
direction and a block is sliding radially
(D) V vertically upward from the floor
outward on it with an uniform velocity of
1.4 A rigid link PQ of length 2 m rotates about
0.75 m/s with respect to the rod, as shown in the pinned end Q with a constant angular
the figure below. If OA = 1 m, the magnitude acceleration of 12 rad/s2 . When the angular
of the absolute acceleration of the block at velocity of the link is 4 rad/s, the magnitude
location A in m/s2 is [1 Mark] of the resultant acceleration (in m/s2 ) of the
end P is ________. [2 Marks]
1.5 A slider-crank mechanism with crank radius
60 mm and connecting rod length 240 mm is
shown in figure. The crank is rotating with a
uniform angular speed of 10 rad/s, counter
clockwise. For the given configuration, the
(A) 3 (B) 4 speed (in m/s) of the slider is ________.
(C) 5 (D) 6 [2 Marks]

2014 IIT Kharagpur

1.2 A rigid link PQ is 2 m long and oriented at
200 to the horizontal as shown in the figure.
The magnitude and direction of velocity VQ
and the direction of velocity VP are given.
The magnitude of VP (in m/s) at this instant
is [1 Mark]
2015 IIT Kanpur
1.6 In the figure, link 2 rotates with constant
angular velocity 2 . A slider link 3 moves
outwards with a constant relative velocity
VQ/ P , where Q is a point on slider 3 and P is
a point on link 2. The magnitude and
direction of Coriolis component of
acceleration is given by [1 Mark]

(A) 2.14 (B) 1.89

(C) 1.21 (D) 0.96
1.3 A circular object of radius r rolls without
slipping on a horizontal level floor with the
center having velocity V. The velocity at the

Theory of Machines 1
 (A) 22 VQ/ P , direction of VQ/ P rotated by (C) VQP has only one component directed
900 in the direction 2 from Q to P
(B) 2 VQ/ P , direction of VQ/ P rotated by 900 (D) VQP has only one components
perpendicular to PQ
in the direction 2
1.10 The rod AB, of length 1 m, shown in the
(C) 22 VQ/ P direction of VQ/ P rotated by figure is connected to two sliders at each end
900 opposite to the direction of 2 through pins. The sliders can slide along QP
and QR. If the velocity VA of the slider at A
(D) 2 VQ/ P direction of VQ/ P rotated by 900
is 2 m/s, the velocity of the midpoint of the
opposite to the direction 2
rod at this instant is _______ m/s. [2 Marks]
1.7 A wheel of radius r rolls without slipping a
horizontal surface shown below. If velocity
of point P is 10 m/s in the horizontal
direction, the magnitude of velocity of point
Q (in m/s) is ______. [1 Mark]

1.11 A rigid rod (AB) of length L  2 m is

undergoing translational as well as rotational
2016 IISc Bangalore motion in the x-y plane (see the figure). The
1.8 The number of degrees of freedom in a point A has the velocity V1  i  2 j m/s . The
planer mechanism having n links and j
end B is constrained to move only along the
simple hinge joints is [1 Mark]
x direction.
(A) 3(n  3)  2 j (B) 3(n 1)  2 j
(C) 3 n  2 j (D) 2 j  3 n  4
1.9 A rigid link PQ is undergoing plane motion
as shown in the figure ( VP and VQ are non-
zero). VQP is the relative velocity of point Q
with respect to point P. [1 Mark]
The magnitude of the velocity V2 (in m/s) at
the end B is _____. [2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
1.12 In a slider crank mechanism, the lengths of
the crank and the connecting rod are 100 mm
Which one of the following is TRUE? and 160 mm, respectively. The crank is
(A) VQP has components along and rotating with an angular velocity of 10
perpendicular to PQ radian/s counter-clockwise. The magnitude
(B) VQP has only one components directed of linear velocity (in m/s) of the piston at the
instant corresponding to the configuration
from P to Q

2 Theory of Machines
 shown in the figure is _______. (A) 5 (B) 6
[1 Mark] (C) 8 (D) 10
1.16 In a rigid body in plane motions, the point R
is acceleration with respect to point P at
101800 m/s2 . If the instantaneous
acceleration of point Q is zero, the
1.13 Block 2 slides outward on link 1 at a uniform acceleration (in m/s2 ) of point R is
velocity of 6 m/s as shown in the figure. Link [2 Marks]
1 is rotating at a constant angular velocity of
20 radian/s counter-clockwise. The
magnitude of the total acceleration (in m/s2)
of point P of the block with respect to fixed
point O is ________. [2 Marks]

(A) 82330 (B) 102250

(C) 102170 (D) 8217 0
2019 IIT Madras
1.17 A rigid triangular body PQR with sides of
equal length 1 units moves on a flat plate. At
the instant shown, edge QR is parallel to the
x-axis, and the body moves such that
1.14 For an inline slider-crank mechanism, the
lengths of the crank and connecting rod are velocities of point P and R are VP and VR in
3 m and 4 m, respectively. At the instant the x and y direction, respectively. The
when the connecting rod is perpendicular to magnitude of the angular velocity of the
the crank, if the velocity of the slider is 1 m/s, body is [1 Mark]
the magnitude of angular velocity (upto 3
decimal points accuracy) of the crank is
_____ radian/s. [2 Marks]

2018 IIT Guwahati

1.5 A rigid rod of length 1 m is resting at an

angle   450 as shown in the figure. The (A) 2 VR (B) VP / 3
end P is dragged with a velocity of U = 5 (C) VR / 3 (D) 2VP
m/s to the right. At the instant shown, the
1.18 In a four-bar planar mechanism shown in
magnitude of the velocity V (in m/s) of point
Q as it moves along the wall without losing figure, AB  5 cm, AD  4 cm and
contact is [2 Marks] DC  2 cm. In the configuration shown, both
AB and DC are perpendicular to AD. The bar
AB rotates with angular velocity of 10
rad/sec. The magnitude of angular velocity
(in rad/s) of bar DC at this instant is
[2 Marks]
Theory of Machines 3
 where the crank is parallel to x-axis, is given
by [2 Marks]
(A)  22 r (B)  2 r
(C) 22 r (D) 2 r
2020 IIT Delhi
1.21 A circular disk of radius r is confined to roll
(A) 10 (B) 0 without slipping at P and Q as shown in
(C) 15 (D) 25 figure.
1.19 A 4 bar mechanism shown in figure. The link
numbers are mentioned near the links, input
link 2 is rotating anti-clockwise with the
constant angular speed 2 . Length of
different links are If the plates have velocities as shown, the
magnitude of the angular velocity of the disk
O2O4  O2 A  L , AB  O4 B  2L
is [1 Mark]
The magnitude of the angular speed of the
2v v
output link 4 is 4 at the instant when link 2 (A) (B)
3r r
makes an angle of 900 with O2O4 as shown. 3v v
(C) (D)
2r 2r
The ratio 4 / 2 is _______. (Round off to
two decimal place) [2 Marks] 2023 IIT Kanpur
1.22 The figure shows a wheel rolling without
slipping on a horizontal plane with angular
velocity 1 . A rigid bar PQ is pinned to the
wheel at P while the end Q slides on the
floor. What is the angular velocity 2 of the
bar PQ?
ĵ

1.20 The crank of a slider-crank mechanism iˆ

1
rotates counter clockwise (CCW) with a p 2
2m k̂
constant angular velocity  , as shown.
3m Q
Assume the length of the crank to be r .
R

8m

(A) 2  21 (B) 2  1

(C) 2  0.51 (D) 2  0.251

Using exact analysis, the acceleration of the

slider in the y-direction, at the instant shown,

4 Theory of Machines
 1.1 (C) Given : Length of link ( L)  2 m

Given : Link rotating with constant angular Velocity at point Q , (VQ )  1m/s

velocity ()  0 ..Method 1..

Angular velocity of link ()  2 rad/s

Block is sliding with uniform velocity (a)  0
Velocity of block (V )  0.75m/s
Length of rod (r )  1m

The angular velocity of a link about an extremity

Acceleration of A along OB, is of the same magnitude as the angular velocity
a c  a  2 r about the other end,
Where, a  Linear acceleration of the slider on the VP VQ
 
link. IP IQ

 ac  0  22 1   4m/s2  VP  VQ 
IP
IQ
Acceleration of A  to OB,
From QIP , by applying sine rule,
at  2V  Tangential acceleration
QI IP
at  2V  r 0

sin 70 sin 650
at  2  2  0.75  1 0 (   0) sin 650 IP

at  3m/s2 sin 700 QP
IP
As, both components are perpendicular to each  0.964
QP
other resultant acceleration is given by,
 VP  1 0.964  0.964 m/s
aabs  42  32  5m/s2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (C).

1.2 (D)

Theory of Machines 5
 ..Method 2.. Resultant acceleration is given by,

a  ( a t ) 2  (a c ) 2

a  242  322  40m/s

Hence, the magnitude of the resultant acceleration
of the end P is 40 m/s2.

The component of VQ along PQ  Component of

VP along PQ, since PQ is a rigid link. 1.5 0.618
VQ cos 25  VP cos 20
0 0
Given : Length of crank (r )  60 mm  0.06 m
cos 250 Length of connecting ( L)  240 mm  0.24 m
VP  VQ 
cos 200 Angular velocity of crank (AB )  10rad/s
VP  1 0.964  0.964 m/s
Hence, the correct option is (D).

1.3 (A)
The relative velocity at point of contact between
object and floor is zero for pure rolling (without
slipping).
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.4 40

Given : Angular velocity of link ()  4 rad/s Let I be the instantaneous center of rotation,
VB  AB AB  0.06 10  0.6m/s
Angular acceleration ()  12rad/s2
r 0.06
Length of link (r )  2 m and, tan   
L 0.240
 0.06 
  tan 1    14.036
0

 0.240 
   900    900  14.0360  75.9640
Again, I 23 I13  BC tan 
I23 I13  0.240  tan(75.9640 )
Acceleration of P  to QP , I 23 I13  0.96 m
at  r  12  2  24m/s2 BC
and, I13 I34   0.9895m
cos 
Acceleration of P parallel to QP ,
V 0.6
BC  B   0.625rad/s
ac  2 r  42  2  32m/s2 BI 0.96

6 Theory of Machines
 VC  BC  I13 I34 10
VQ  2R   20 m/s
VC  0.625  0.9895  0.618 m/s R
Hence, the magnitude of velocity of point Q is 20
Hence, the speed of the slider is 0.618 m/s.
m/s.
1.8 (B)
Given : Number of links (l )  n

1.6 (A) Number of binary joint = j

According to Grubbler equation of degree of
The Coriollis component of the acceleration of Q
with respect to P, freedom,
c
aQP  aQP
t
 22VQP F  3(l  1)  2 j  h

The direction of Coriolis component of where, h  Number of higher pair (h  0) .

acceleration is obtained by rotating VQP at 900 ,
about its origin in the same direction as that of 2
.  Key Point
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Key Point
The direction of Coriolis component of
acceleration (22VQP ) for all four possible cases,
is shown below,
 F  3(n  1)  2 j
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Degree of freedom (mobility of linkage) :
The number of independent variables required to
define motion or position of a system is known as
degree of freedom of the system.
DOF  6  Restraints (Arrested)
The motion which not possible is called arrested.
Kutzback equation of degree of freedom,
F  3(l  1)  2 j  h  Fr
where, Fr  The motion which is not part of
mechanism.

1.9 (D)

To find relative velocity direction of VP is

reversed and placed at tail of VQ .

1.7 20
Velocity of point P, VP  R  10m/s
VP 10 Resultant VQP is perpendicular to link PQ.
 
R R
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Velocity of point Q, VQ  2R

Theory of Machines 7
  Key Point ..Method 2..
Consider a rigid link PQ, rotating at a constant According to question,
angular velocity  about the end P.

Length of ( AM )  0.5m
Velocity of point Q with respect to P is V V
and   A  M …(i)
VQP  (PQ) and its direction is perpendicular to AI MI
From AMI ,
PQ. Similarly, velocity of point R on link with
AM
respect to P is VRP   ( PR) and its direction is cos300 
AI
perpendicular to PR. AM 0.5
 AI  0
  0.577 m
1.10 1
cos30 cos300
Again from AMI ,
Given : Length of rod  1m MI
sin 300 
Velocity of slider A, (VA )  2m/s AI
 MI  AI sin 300
..Method 1..
MI  0.577  sin 300  0.2885m
Velocity diagram,
Using equation (i), we get
VA VM

0.577 0.2885
2 VM
  (VA  2m/s)
0.577 0.2885
VM  1m/s
Hence, the velocity of the midpoint of the rod at
Applying sine rule in  ACQ , this instant is 1 m/s.
QC QA
0

sin 30 sin 900
2
QC  0
 sin 300  1m/s 1.11 2.98
sin 90
Value of QC  1 m/s Given : Length of rigid link ( L)  2 m
Hence, the velocity of the midpoint of the rod at Velocity of point A, (V1 )  i  2 j m/s
this instant is 1 m/s.  V1x  1m/s and V1y  2m/s
and V1  12  22  2.236 m/s

8 Theory of Machines
 ..Method 1..

Calculating the angle  ,

For 900 crank angle, the velocity of slider is equal
V 2
tan(  450 )  1 y  to velocity of crank.
V1x 1  VB  VC
1
  45  tan (2)  63.435
0
 r  VC
  63.435  45  18.4350
10  0.100  VC
and,   900  (  450 )  26.5650
Angular velocity of rod is given by, VC  1m/s
V V Hence, the magnitude of linear velocity of piston
 1  2 …(i)
AI BI 1 m/s.
From ACI , ..Method 2..
AC 1
AI  
cos  cos(26.5650 )
( AC  BC  1m)
AI  1.108m
and, BI  BC  CI  BC  AI 2  AC 2
BI  1  1.1082 12  1.477m After plotting I-centres,
From equation (i), we get
V
V2  1  BI
AI
2.236
V2  1.477  2.98m/s
1.108
Hence, the magnitude of the velocity V2 at the end Here, I 23 and I 24 will come at same point.
B is 2.98 m/s. Applying angular velocity theorem at I 24 .
 2 ( I 24 I12 )  V4  VB
VB  2 ( I 24 I12 )
VB  10  0.1  1m/s
1.12 1
Hence, the magnitude of linear velocity of piston
Given : 1 m/s.
Angular velocity of crank ()  10 rad/s
Length of crank (r )  100 mm  0.100 m
Length of connecting rod ( L)  160 mm
1.13 243.310

Given : Velocity of block (V )  6 m/s

Angular velocity of link 1, ()  20 rad/s
Theory of Machines 9
 Vrod  0.800 m/s
Angular velocity of crank,
Vrod 0.800
crank    0.266 rad/s
r 3
Hence, the magnitude of angular velocity of the
crank is 0.266 radian/s.
Coriolis acceleration is given by, ..Method 2..

a cor  2V  2  20  6  240m/s2

Centripetal (radial) acceleration is given by,
ac  2 r  (20)2  0.1  40 m/s2
Resultant acceleration is given by,

a p  (acor )2  (ac )2
Applying angular velocity theorem at I 24 ,
ap  240  40  243.310m/s
2 2 2
 2  ( I 24 I12 )  VB  VC  1
Hence, the magnitude of the total acceleration of  2  ( I 24 I12 )  1
point P of the block with respect to fixed point O
is 243.310 m/s2. In AI 24C ,
I 24 I12
tan  
AC
I 24 I12  tan(36.869)  5  3.749
1.14 0.266 1 1
 2    0.266 rad/s
Given : Length of crank (r )  3m I 24 I12 3.749
Length of connecting rod ( L)  4 m Hence, the magnitude of angular velocity of the
Velocity of slider (Vc )  1m/s crank is 0.266 radian/s.

..Method 1..

1.15 (A)

Given : Length of rod ( L)  1m

Velocity of point P, (VP )  5m/s
AC  r  L  3  4  5m
2 2 2 2
Angle ()  450
4 VP   IP
and,   cos1    36.8690
5 VQ   IQ
The component of velocity of slider along the
connecting rod,
Vrod  Vc  cos36.8690

10 Theory of Machines
 1
aR  QR(2 )  16   8m/s2
2

VQ IQ 1 sin 450
  1
VP IP 1 cos 450
VQ  1VP  1 5  5 m/s
Hence, the correct option is (A). And will be in the horizontal backward direction,
but our reference is only PR, so the angle of it from
1.16 (D) reference is (180  ) .
According to question, From PQR ,
12
tan      36.86
16
So, 180  36.86  216.86  2170
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.17 (A)
Given body is rigid body. So velocity of every
particle is same,
It is given by, Q has 0 acceleration so it is clear
than body PQR hinged at Q .
And acceleration of R with respect to Q is given
aRP  10m/sec2 at angle of 1800 that means only
radial acceleration is hence at that instant and
reference is PR

For rigid body,

Vp cos(60)  VR cos300
VP
VR 
3
So, angular velocity of body
aRP  at  ar 1
VR  
aRP  ar ( at  0) 2
  2VR (Ans.)
aRP  (RP)  102
3
or VP  
20  10
2
2
2

1  VP
2 3
As  of PQR should be same so point R has only Since,
2
VP not given in the option.
radial acceleration at that instant 3
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Theory of Machines 11
 1.20 (D)

1.18 (D)
Given : Length of links ( AB)  5 cm,
(AD)  4 cm and ( DC )  2 cm
Angular velocity of AB, (AB )  10 rad/sec VBA  0 and BA  0
Acceleration of BA  0 ,

aB
tan 450 
r 2
aB  r 2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Fig. Velocity diagram
For such situation, VB  VC
AB  AB  CD  CD
10  5  2 CD 1.21 (C)
CD  25 rad/s According to question,
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.19 0.788
According to question,

For pure rolling,

4 ( I 24 I14 )  2 ( I 24 I12 )
 L   L 
4   L  0
 2 
 tan15   tan150 
4
 0.788
2
 VP  V  QR  …(i)
Hence, the ratio 4 is 0.788.
2
VQ  2V  QR  …(ii)
Dividing equation (ii) by equation (i),

12 Theory of Machines
 QR 1.22 (D)
2  QR  2( PR)
PR
PR  QR  2r
PR  2( PR)  2r
(23)
2
PR  r
3
From equation (i),
2  82  122
V   r 
3 
3V

2r 1
(12)
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2m
3m 2

(13) 8m
2m 3

1  I13 I12   2  I12 I 23 

22  32
1   2
82  122

0.251   2
Hence, the correct option is (D).












Theory of Machines 13
2 Planer Mechanisms

2013 IIT Bombay Indicate the correct answer,

(A) Both I and II are false
2.1 A planar closed kinematic chain is formed
with rigid links PQ = 2.0 m, QR = 3.0 m, RS (B) I is true and II is false
= 2.5 m and SP = 2.7 m with all revolute (C) I is false and II is true
joints. The link to be fixed obtain a double (D) Both I and II are true
rocker (rocker-rocker) mechanism is
2.5 An offset slider-crank mechanism is shown
[1 Mark]
(A) PQ (B) QR in the figure at an instant. Conventionally,
(C) RS (D) SP the Quick Return Ratio (QRR) is considered
2014 IIT Kharagpur to be greater than one. The value of QRR is
______. [2 Marks]
2.2 A 4-bar mechanism with all revolute pairs
has link lengths l f  20 mm, lin  40 mm,
lco  50 mm and lout  60 mm. The suffixes
‘f’, ‘in’, ‘co’ and ‘out’ denote the fixed link,
the input link, the coupler and output link
respectively. Which one of the following 2015 IIT Kanpur
statements is true about the input and output 2.6 Consider a slider crank mechanism with
links? [1 Mark]
nonzero masses and inertia. A constant
(A) Both links can execute full circular
motion torque T is applied on the crank as shown in
(B) Both links cannot execute full circular the figure. Which of the following plots best
motion resembles variation of crank angle  versus
(C) Only the output link cannot execute full time. [1 Mark]
circular motion
(D) Only the input link cannot execute full
circular motion
2.3 In a statically determinate plane truss, the
number of joins (j) and the number of
(A)
members (m) are related by [1 Mark]
(A) j  2m  3 (B) m  2 j  1
(C) m  2 j  3 (D) m  2 j  1
2.4 For the given statements : [1 Mark]
I. Mating spur gear teeth is an example of
(B)
higher pair.
II. A revolute joint is an example of lower
pair.

Theory of Machines 1
 (C) 2018 IIT Guwahati

2.10 A four bar mechanism is made up of links of

length 100 mm, 200 mm, 300 mm and 350
mm. If the 350 mm link is fixed, the number
of links that can rotate fully is _______.
(D)
[1 Mark]
2.11 For an Oldham coupling used between two
shafts, which among the following
statements are correct? [1 Mark]
2.7 The number of degree of freedom of the I. Torsional load is transferred along shaft
planetary gear train shown in the figure is axis.
[1 Mark]
II. A velocity ratio of 1:2 between shafts is
obtained without using gears
III. Bending load is transferred transverse to
shaft axis.
IV. Rotational is transferred along shafts
axis.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (A) I and III (B) I and IV
(C) 2 (D) 3
(C) II and III (D) II and IV
2.8 The number of degrees of freedom of the
linkage shown in the figure is 2020 IIT Delhi
[2 Marks]
2.12 A four bar mechanism is shown below

(A)  3 (B) 0
(C) 1 (D) 2
2016 IISc Bangalore
For the mechanism to be crank-rocker
2.9 The number of degrees of freedom in a mechanism, the length of the link PQ can be
[1 Mark]
planner mechanism having n links and j
(A) 200 mm (B) 350 mm
simple hinge joints is [1 Mark]
(C) 80 mm (D) 300 mm
(A) 3(n  3)  2 j (B) 3(n  1)  2 j 2.13 The number of qualitatively distinct
(C) 3n  2 j (D) 2 j  3n  4 kinematic inversions possible for a Grash of
chain with four revolute pairs is [1 Mark]
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 1 (D) 3

2 Theory of Machines
 2021 IIT Bombay CDEF is constructed such that the slider B
can cross the point D, and CE is sufficiently
2.14 The Whitworth quick return mechanism is long. For the given lengths as shown, the
shown in the figure with link lengths as mechanism is [2 Marks]
follows: OP = 300 mm, OA = 150 mm, AR E
= 160 mm, RS = 450 mm.
G 3 cm
R
1.5 cm
D
5 cm F
S
A
B
A 3 cm
O P C
(A) a Grashof chain with links AG, AB, and
The quick return ratio for the mechanism is CDEF completely rotatable about the
_____ (round off to one decimal place). ground link FG
[2 Marks] (B) a non-Grashof chain with all oscillating
2.15 Consider the mechanism shown in the links
figure. There is rolling contact without slip (C) a Grashof chain with AB completely
between the disc and ground. rotatable about the ground link FG, and
U oscillatory links AG and CDEF
(D) on the border of Grashof and non-
Grashof chains with uncertain
configuration(s)
S 4 2.17 In the configuration of the planar four-bar
mechanism at a certain instant as shown in
P 1 R T
the figure, the angular velocity of the 2 cm
2 3 long link is 2 = 5 rad/s. Given the
Q dimensions as shown, the magnitude of the
Select the correct statement about angular velocity 4 of the 4 cm long link is
instantaneous centers in the mechanism. given by _____ rad/s (round off to 2 decimal
[1 Mark] places).
(A) Only points P, Q, R, S and U are [2 Marks]
instantaneous centres of mechanism
(B) Only points P, Q, S and T are 5 cm 4 cm
instantaneous centres of mechanism
2
(C) Only points P, Q and S are instantaneous 2 cm 4

centres of mechanism 10 cm

(D) All points P, Q, R, S, T and U are

instantaneous centres of mechanism 2023 IIT Kanpur

2022 IIT Kharagpur 2.18 A cuboidal part has to be accurately

2.16 A planar four-bar linkage mechanism with 3
revolute kinematic pairs and 1 prismatic
kinematic pair is shown in the figure, where
AB  CE and FD  CE . The T-shaped link
positioned first, arresting six degrees of
freedom and then clamped in a fixture, to be
used for machining. Locating pins in the
form of cylinders with hemi-spherical tips
are to be placed on the fixture for

Theory of Machines 3
 positioning. Four different configurations of
locating pins are proposed as shown. Which
one of the options given is correct?
Configuration P1 Configuration P2
Configuration P3 Configuration P4
(A) Configuration P1 arrests 6 degrees of
freedom, while Configurations P2 and
P4 are over-constrained and
Configuration P3 is under-constrained.
(B) Configuration P2 arrests 6 degrees of
freedom, while Configurations P1 and
P3 are over-constrained and
Configuration P4 is under-constrained.
(C) Configuration P3 arrests 6 degrees of
freedom, while Configurations P2 and
P4 are over-constrained and
Configuration P1 is under-constrained.
(D) Configuration P4 arrests 6 degrees of
freedom, while Configurations P1 and
P3 are over-constrained and
Configuration P2 is under-constrained.

2.1 (C) Hence, the correct options is (A).

According to question,

2.3 (C)
The relation is given by,
m  3  2( j  3)
m  2 j 3
Since, ( PQ  QR  RS  SP) .
Hence, the correct options is (C).
Therefore, Grashof’s law is satisfied.
2.4 (D)
According to Grashof’s law, when link opposite to
shortest link is fixed in an inversion of 4 bar Mating of spur gear teeth forms higher pair and
mechanism, the double rocker mechanism is revolute joint is a lower pair, because mating of
obtained. Since, in this problem, link opposite to spur gear forms line contact whereas revolute joint
shortest link is RS. Therefore RS link must be forms surface contact.
fixed. Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct options is (C).

2.5 1.25
2.2 (A) Given : Length of connecting rod (l )  40 mm
S  L  PQ Crank radius (r )  20 mm
This is a case, where sum of smallest and largest Eccentricity (e)  10 mm
link is less than the other two links At extreme right, start of the return stroke,
In such a case if smallest link is fixed we obtain
double-crank mechanism.
So, both link can execute full circular motion.

4 Theory of Machines
     2N 
  C  
 2N   R 
C 1800  
QRR  
R 1800  
1800  20.40
  1.25
At extreme left, end of the return stroke. 1800  20.40
Hence, the value of QRR is 1.25.

2.6 (D)
Position A and B are the closest and furthest. Under Ideal conditions, torque is given by
d 2
T I 2
dt
d  T
2

dt 2 I
Integrating, we get
 d T
QRR   t  c1
 dt I
1800  AOB Integrating, we get
QRR  T
1800  AOB   t 2  c1t  c2
In AOC , I
So we see that it is a parabolic equation, but in real
10
AOC  sin 1  300 conditions it will fluctuate around the parabola
40  20 curve.
In BOC ' , Hence, the correct options is (D).
10
BOC '  sin 1  9.590 2.7 (C)
40  20
Hence, AOB  AOC  BOC ' Given : Number of links (l )  4
AOB  20.410 Number of binary joints ( j )  3
1800  20.410 Number of higher pair (h)  1
QRR 
1800  20.410
QRR  1.25
Fact : The stroke length is not equal to twice the
crank radius as it is offset slider.
 e   e 
  cos1    cos1  
l r  l r 
1 1
 cos1    cos1    20.40
6  2
Time of advance stroke
QRR  Now, from Gruebler’s equation degree of freedom
Time of return stroke
is given by,

Theory of Machines 5
 F  3(l  1)  2 j  h
F  3  (4  1)  2  3  1
F  9  6 1  2
Hence, the correct options is (C).
2.8 (C)
Given : Number of links (l )  6
Number of binary joints ( j )  7
Number of higher pair (h)  0
sl  pq
100  350  200  300
450  500
Grashof’s law is satisfied and adjacent to shortest
link is fixed, so the mechanism will be crank
rocker mechanism and only one link can rotate.
Hence, the number of links that can rotate fully is
1.

2.11 (B)

Oldham’s coupling is used to connect to shaft

which is slightly misaligned, to transmit torque
and rotational speed. It is third inversion of double
slider crank mechanism and it does not vary the
velocity ratio.
Form the degree of freedom equation of planar
Hence, the correct option is (B).
mechanism,
F  3(6  1)  2  7  0  Key Point
Oldham’s coupling :
F  15  14  1
Hence, the correct options is (C).

2.9 (B) Where, d  Lateral misalignment between shaft

Degree of freedom can be given by Gruebler’s   Angular velocity of shaft.
equation as follows, Maximum sliding velocity   d .
F  3(n  1)  2 j
Where, F  Total degrees of freedom in the 2.12 (C)
mechanism According to question,
n  Number of links (including the frame)
j  Number of lower pairs (one degree of
freedom).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.10 1

Grashof’s law applicable for crank rocker

mechanism,
S  L  PQ ( L  600 , P  400 )
S  600  400  300

6 Theory of Machines
 S  100 2.15 (D)
From option S  80 mm only satisfied the law.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.13 (D)

Inversion is created by grounding a different link

in a kinematic chain. There are as many inversions
of a given linkage as it has links.
In Grashof four bar linkage,

S  L  PQ
We have 4 inversions of which 3 are distinct
inversions : Hence, the correct option is (D).
1. Double crank mechanism 2.16 (A)
2. Crank-rocker mechanism
1
3. Double rocker mechanism G 3 cm E
Hence, the correct option is (D). 1.5 cm D 4

F Lx
2.14 2 5 cm
2
Given : OP  300 mm , OA  150 mm , AR = 160

mm, RS = 450 mm A 3 cm B Lx
3

Link (1)  3 cm  shortest

Link (2)  5 cm

Link (3)  3 cm + Lx  Longest

 150 OA Link (4)  1.5cm  Lx

cos  
2 300 OP
S l  pq
  600  2  1200
 3  3  Lx  5  1.5  Lx
 QRR
 6  6.5
360  120
QRR  2 Law satisfied and shortest link is fixed  Double
120
crank
Hence, the quick return ratio for the mechanism is
2. Hence, the correct option is (A).

Theory of Machines 7
 2.17 1.25 2.18 (A)
I34
By providing 6 pin 6 degrees of freedom are
arrested. But in Configurations P2 and P4 number
5 cm
I24 4 cm of pins are more than six so they are over
I 12 3 4
2 cm constrained and Configuration P3 numbers of pins
8 cm I14
I23 are less than six so it is under constrained.
2
2 Hence, the correct option is (A).
10 cm


1 2
12, 14
24
23, 34
4 3
4 ( I 24 I14 )  2 ( I 24 I12 )
4  8  5  2
4  1.25 rad/s
Hence, the magnitude of the angular velocity 4
of the 4 cm long link is given by 1.25 rad/sec.

8 Theory of Machines
3 Cams

2014 IIT Kharagpur position of follower is y (0)  0 and the

system is in the configuration shown below.
3.1 Consider a rotating disk cam and a
[1 Mark]
translating roller follower with zero offset.
Which one of the following pitch curves,
parameterized by t, lying in the interval 0 to
2 , is associated with the maximum
translation of the follower during one full
rotation of the cam rotating about the center
at ( x, y)  (0,0)? [2 Marks]
(A) x(t )  cos t , y(t )  sin t
(B) x(t )  cos t , y(t )  2sin t
1
(C) x(t )   cos t , y(t )  2sin t
2
1
(D) x(t )   cos t , y(t )  sin t
2 The vertical position of follower face y (t ) is
2018 IIT Guwahati given by
(A) e(1  cos 2t ) (B) e(1  cos t )
3.2 In a cam follower, the follower rises by ‘h’
(C) e sin t (D) e sin 2t
as the cam rotates by  (radians) at constant
angular velocity  (radian/s) . The follower 2020 IIT Delhi
is uniformly accelerating during first half of 3.4 A cam with a translating flat-face follower is
the rise period and it is uniformly desired to have the follower motion
decelerating in the latter half of the rise
period. Assuming that the magnitude of the y()  4 2 x  2  , 0    2 .
acceleration and deceleration are same, the Contact stress considerations dictate that the
maximum velocity of the follower is radius of curvature of the cam profile should
[2 Marks] not less than 40 mm anywhere. The
4h minimum permissible base circle radius is
(A) (B) h ________ mm (round off to 1 decimal

place). [2 Marks]
2h
(C) (D) 2h 2021 IIT Bombay

3.5 A tappet valve mechanism in an IC engine
2019 IIT Madras
comprises a rocker arm ABC that is hinged
3.3 A flat faced follower is driven using a at B as shown in the figure. The rocker is
circular eccentric cam rotating at constant assumed rigid and it oscillates about the
angular velocity  . At time t  0 , vertical hinge B. The mass moment of inertia of the
rocker about B is 10 4 kg.m2 . The rocker

Theory of Machines 1
 arm dimensions are a  3.5 cm and a b
b  2.5 cm . A pushrod pushes the rocker at
A HINGE B c
location A, when moved vertically by a cam +
that rotates at N rpm. The pushrod is Rocker Spring
assumed massless and has a stiffness of 15
N/mm. At the other end C, the rocker pushes
a valve against a spring of stiffness 10 Push rod
Cylinder head
N/mm. The valve is assumed mass-less and Valve
rigid.
Cam
+

Resonance in the rocker system occurs when

the cam shaft runs at a speed of _________
rpm (round off to the nearest integer).
[2 Marks]
(A) 496 (B) 4739
(C) 2369 (D) 790

3.1 (C) For option (B) :

x2 y 2
From all the four options the maximum amplitudes   cos2 t  sin 2 t  1
is in point ‘C’ as t  0 12 22

Option ( x )t  0 ( y )t  0
(A) x 1 y0
(B) x 1 y0
(C) 3
x y0
2
(D) 3
x y0
2
Hence, the correct option is (C). Follower stroke length,
 Key Point x  2  1  1units
For option (A) : For option (C) :
x 2  y 2  cos2 t  sin 2 t  1
2
 1
x 
 2   y  cos2 t  sin 2 t  1
2
1 22

Follower stroke length,

x  1  1  0 units

2 Theory of Machines
 2s
or a  Constant
t2
As a is constant during the accelerating period,
considering the follower at the midway,
h /2
s  and t 
2 
2h / 2 4h2
 a 2 
 / 42 2
The velocity is linear during the period and is
Follow stroke length, given by,
2
1 1 ds 1
v    2at  at
x     22   1.56unit
 2 2 dt 2
4h2 
For option (D) : v 2  (  t )
2  
 1 4h
 x    y  cos t  sin t  1
2 2 2

 2 v  2 

The velocity is maximum when  is maximum or

the follower is at the midway, i.e., when   .
2
4h  2h
vmax  2  
 2 
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 Follower stroke length,
3 1
x    1unit
2 2
Hence, the stroke length is maximum in option 3.3 (B)
(C).
A flat face follower,

3.2 (C)
The equation for the linear motion with constant
acceleration a (during the first half of the follower
motion) is found as follows,
1
s  v0 t  at 2
2
Where, v0 is the initial velocity at the start of the
motion (rise or fall) and is zero in this case, Vertical lift, x  e  e cos 
1
 s  at 2 If  is constant angular accelerator then,
2

Theory of Machines 3
  3.5 (B)
    t
t
Given :
x  e  e cos t  e(1  cos t )
0.035 m 0.025 m
Hence, the correct option is (B). 


15000 N/m 10000 N/m

3.4 48

Given : Flat face follower
(10000)  0.025 
Displacement equation,
(10000)  (0.025) 2 
y  4(2  2 ) 

dy (15000)  (0.035) 2 
 V  4(2  2)
d (15000)  0.035 

I
 8(  )
I  104 kg-m2
dy
(For y to be max 0 ) By D’Alembert Principle
d
dv
a  8 I  [10000  (0.025)2  15000  (0.035)2 ]  0
d
(R curvature )Min  RBase  ( y  a)min (104 )  (24.625)  0
( ymin is 0 at   0, 2 )  24.625 
  4 
0
40  RBase  [0  8]Min  10 
40  RBase  [8] 2n  246250
RBase  40  (80)  40  8  48min n  496.2358 rad/s
Hence, the minimum permissible base circle 496.2358  60
radius is 48 mm. NC   4738.7031 rpm
2
Hence, the correct option is (B).



4 Theory of Machines
4 Dynamic Analysis of Slider-Crank
2014 IIT Kharagpur
4.1 A slider-crank mechanism has slider mass of
10 kg, stroke of 0.2 m and rotates with a
uniform angular velocity of 10 rad/s. The
primary inertia forces of the slider are
partially balanced by a revolving mass of 6
kg at the crank placed at a distance equal to
crank radius. Neglect the mass of connecting
rod and crank. When the crank angle (with
respect to slider axis) is 300 , the unbalanced
force (in newton) normal to the slider axis is
_______. [2 Marks]
4.2 A slider-crank mechanism with crank radius
60 mm and connecting rod length 240 mm is
shown in figure. The crank is rotating with a
uniform angular speed of 10 rad/s, counter
clockwise. For the given configuration, the
speed (in m/s) of the slider is ________.
[2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
4.3 Consider a slider crank mechanism with non
zero masses of inertia. A constant torque 
is applied on the crank as shown in the
figure. Which of the following plots best
resembles variation of crank angle,  virsus
time. [1 Mark]
(A) (B)
Theory of Machines
(C) (D)
4.4 In a certain slider-crank mechanism, lengths
of crank and connecting rod are equal. If the
crank rotates with a uniform angular speed
of 14 rad/s and the crank length is 300 mm,
the maximum acceleration of the slider (in
m/s2 ) is _________. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
4.5 A slider crank mechanism with crank radius
200 mm and connecting rod length 800 mm
is shown. The crank is rotating at 600 rpm in
the counter-clockwise direction. In the
configuration shown, the crank makes an
angle of 900 with the sliding direction of the
slider, and a force of 5 kN is acting on the
slider. Neglecting the inertia forces, the
turning moment on the crank (in kN-m) is
________. [2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
4.6 A slider crank mechanism is shown in the
figure. At some instant, the crank angle is
450 and a force of 40 N is acting towards the
left on the slider. The length of the crank is
30 mm and the connecting rod is 70 mm.
Ignoring the effect of gravity, friction and
inertial forces, the magnitude of the crank
shaft torque (in Nm) needed to keep the
mechanism in equilibrium is ________
(correct to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
1
 4.1 30  sin 2 
V  r sin  
 2n 
Given : Mass of slider (m)  10 kg
 sin151.92 
Balancing mass at crank (mb )  6 kg V  10  0.06 sin 75.96  
 8
Stroke = 0.2 m V  0.617
 Radius of crank (r )  0.1m Hence, the speed of the slider is 0.617 m/s.
Angular velocity of crank ()  10 rad/s
4.3 (D)
Crank angle ()  30 0
Under ideal conditions, torque is given by,
d 2
T I 2
dt
d  T
2

dt 2 I
Integrating, we get
d T
  t  c1
dt I
The unbalanced force normal to the slider axis, Again integrating, we get
T
F  mb r2 sin     t 2  c1t  c2
I
F  6  0.1102  sin 300 So, we see that it is a parabolic equation, but in
F  30 N real conditions it will fluctuate around the
Hence, the unbalanced force normal to the slider parabola curve.
axis is 30 N. Hence, the correct option is (D).

4.2 0.617 4.4 117.6

Given : Length of connecting rod ( L)  240 mm Given :

Length of crank (r )  ( L)  300 mm  0.3m
Crank radius (r )  60 mm
Angular velocity of crank ()  14 rad/s
L 240
 n  4 Acceleration of slider can be calculated by the
r 60
formula given below,
Angular velocity of crank ()  10 rad/s
 cos 2 
a  r2 cos  
 n 
Where,   Crank angle (degree)
l
and, n   1
r
For maximum acceleration slider should be at
Angle  at given instant is given as, dead position, hence   00 will give maximum
 L  240  acceleration a  amax
  tan 1    tan 1    75.96
0

r  60 
 1
Slider velocity is given by, amax  r2 1  
 n

2 Theory of Machines
 amax  2 r 2  2  0.3 142  117.6 m/s2 Torque is given by,
Hence, the maximum acceleration of the slider is T  Ft  r  37.2785  0.030
117.6 m/s 2 . T  1.1183 Nm  1.12 Nm

4.5 1
Hence, the magnitude of the crank shaft torque
needed to keep the mechanism in equilibrium is
According to question, 1.12 Nm.
..Method 2..
Turning moment on crank shaft is given by,
 sin 2 
T  Fr  sin   
Speed of crank ( N )  600 rpm (ccw)  2 n  sin  
2 2

At this configuration, force on point Q would be, Where, F  Force on piston [40 N (given)]
70
Ft  5 kN n  2.333
30
 Turning moment of crank,  T  40  0.030
T  Ft  R  5  0.2  1 kN-m
 sin 900 
Hence, the turning moment on the crank is 1 kNm.   sin 450  
 2 2.3332  sin 2 450 
4.6 1.12
T  1.118 Nm  1.12 Nm
..Method 1..
Hence, the magnitude of the crank shaft torque
According to question,
needed to keep the mechanism in equilibrium is
1.12 Nm.



From triangle AOM and AMB,

30sin 450  70sin 
30sin 450
sin    0.303045
70
   17.64060
and, Fc cos   40
40
Fc cos    41.9737 N
cos 
Let Ft  Tangentialforce
Ft  Fc sin(  )
Ft  41.9737  sin(17.64060  450 )
Ft  37.2785 N

Theory of Machines 3
5 Gear & Gear Trains

5.3 It is desired to avoid interference in a pair of

2013 IIT Bombay
spur gears having a 200 pressure angle. With
5.1 A compound gear train with gears P, Q, R increase in pinion to gear speed ratio, the
and S has number of teeth 20, 40, 15 and 20 minimum number of teeth on the pinion
respectively. Gears Q and R mounted on the [2 Marks]
same shaft as shown in figure below. The (A) Increases
diameter of the gear Q is twice that of the
(B) Decreases
gear R. If the module of the gear R is 2 mm,
(C) First increases and then decreases
the center distance in mm between gears P
(D) Remains unchanged
and S is [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
5.4 A gear train is made up of five spur gears as
shown in the figure. Gear 2 is driver and gear
6 is driven member. N 2 , N3 , N4 , N5 and N 6
(A) 40 (B) 80 represent number of teeth on gears 2, 3, 5 and
(C) 120 (D) 160 6 respectively. The gear (s) which act (s) as
idler (s) is/are [1 Mark]
2014 IIT Kharagpur
5.2 Gear 2 rotates at 1200 rpm is counter
clockwise direction and engages with gear 3
and gear 4 mounted on the same shaft. Gear
5 engages with gear 4. The numbers of teeth
on gear 2, 3, 4 and 5 are 20, 40, 15 and 30
respectively. The angular speed of gear 5 is
[1 Mark] (A) Only 3 (B) Only 4
(C) Only 5 (D) Both 3 and 5

2016 IISc Bangalore

5.5 In the gear train shown, gear 3 is carried on
arm 5. Gear 3 meshes with gear 2 and gear 4.
The number of teeth on gear 2, 3 and 4 are
60, 20 and 100, respectively. If gear 2 is
fixed and gear 4 rotates with an angular
velocity of 100 rpm in the counterclockwise
direction, the angular speed of arm 5 (in rpm)
(A) 300 rpm counter clockwise is [2 Marks]
(B) 300 rpm clockwise
(C) 4800 rpm counter clockwise
(D) 4800 rpm clockwise

Theory of Machines 1
 2018 IIT Guwahati
5.8 A frictionless gear train is shown in the
figure. The left most 12-teeth gear is given a
torque of 100 N-m . The output torque from
the 60-teeth gear on the right in N-m is
[1 Mark]

(A) 166.7 counterclockwise

(B) 166.7 clockwise
(C) 62.5 counterclockwise
(D) 62.5 clockwise

2017 IIT Roorkee

5.6 In an epicyclic gear train, shown in the
figure, the outer ring gear is fixed, while the
sun gear rotates counterclockwise at 100
rpm. Let the number of teeth on the sum,
planet and outer gears to be 50, 25, and 100,
respectively. The ratio of magnitudes of
angular velocity of the planet gear to the
angular velocity of the carrier arm is ______.
[2 Marks]
(A) 5 (B) 20
(C) 500 (D) 2000
5.9 An epicyclic gear train is shown in the figure
below. The number of teeth on the gears A,
B and D are 20, 30 and 20, respectively. Gear
C has 80 teeth on the inner surface and 100
teeth on the outer surface. If the carrier arm
AB is fixed and the sun gear A rotates at 300
rpm in the clockwise direction, then the rpm
of D in the clockwise direction is [2 Marks]

5.7 A gear train shown in the figure consist of

gears P, Q, R and S . Gear Q and gear R are
mounted on the same shaft. All the gears are
mounted on parallel shafts and the number of
teeth of P, Q, R and S are 24, 45, 30 and (A) 240 (B) – 240
80, respectively. Gear P is rotating at 400 (C) 375 (D) – 375
rpm. The speed (in rpm) of the gear S is
_____. [2 Marks] 2019 IIT Madras

5.10 A spur gear with 200 full depth teeth is

transmitting 20 kW at 200 rad/s. The pitch
circle diameter of the gear is 100 mm. The
magnitude of the force applied on the gear in
the radial direction is [1 Mark]

2 Theory of Machines
 (A) 0.73 kN (B) 1.39 kN Diameters of pulleys of belt drive and
(C) 0.36 kN (D) 2.78 kN number of teeth (T) on the gears 2 to 7 are
indicated in the figure. The speed and
5.11 A spur gear has pitch circle diameter D and direction of rotation of gear 7, respectively,
number of teeth T , the circular pitch of the are [2 Marks]
gear is [1 Mark]
(A) 255.68 rpm; anticlockwise
D T (B) 255.68 rpm; clockwise
(A) (B)
T D (C) 575.28 rpm; anticlockwise
2D D (D) 575.28 rpm; clockwise
(C) (D)
T T 2022 IIT Kharagpur
2020 IIT Delhi 5.14 A schematic of an epicyclic gear train is
5.12 The sun (S) and planet (P) of an epicyclic shown in the figure. The sun (gear 1) and
gear train shown in the figure have identical planet (gear 2) are external, and the ring gear
number of teeth. (gear 3) is internal. Gear 1, gear 3 and arm
OP are pivoted to the ground at O. Gear 2 is
carried on the arm OP via the pivot joint at
P, and is in mesh with the other two gears.
Gear 2 has 20 teeth and gear 3 has 80 teeth.
If gear 1 is kept fixed at 0 rpm and gear 3
rotates at 900 rpm counter clockwise (ccw),
the magnitude of angular velocity of arm OP
is __________rpm (in integer). [2 Marks]
If the sun (S) and the outer ring (R) gears are
rotated in the same direction with angular 2023 IIT Kanpur
speed s and R , respectively, then the 5.15 Two meshing spur gears 1 and 2 with
angular speed of the arm AB is [2 Marks] diametral pitch of 8 teeth per mm and an
3 1 1 1  1
(A) S  R (B) R  S angular velocity ratio 2  , have their
4 4 2 2 1 4
3 1 3 1 centres 30 mm apart. The number of teeth on
(C) R  S (D) R  S
4 4 4 4 driver (gear 1) is _________.
2021 IIT Bombay
5.13 A power transmission mechanism consists
1 P
of a belt drive and a gear train as shown in Gear 2
the figure. (20 teeth)
18 T O
2 N = 2500 rpm Gear 1
2
(0 rpm)
250 mm 150 mm
Gear 3
(80 teeth, 900 rpm ccw)
36 T
3
5 6
4 7

15 T 16 T
33 T
44 T

Theory of Machines 3
 5.1 (B)  N3  600 rpm
Given : Diameter of gear Q ( DQ )  2 DR and N3  N4  600 rpm
Module of gear R (mR )  2 mm N4 T5

N5 T4
600 30

N5 15
 N s  300 rpm
Hence, the correct option is (A).

DQ  2DR
mQTQ  2 mRTR
2  2 15 5.3 (B)
mQ   1.5 mm
40 In order to avoid interference, minimum number
Centre distance between gear P and S, of teeth in gear (larger diameter gear) is given by,
C  RP  RQ  RR  RS 2aw
T
But, mR  mS and mP  mQ  11  2 
 1    2  sin    1
mPTP mQTQ mRTR mSTS  GG  
 C   
2 2 2 2 Where, aw is addendum coefficient.
1.5  20 1.5  40 2 15 2  20 R Radius of gear
C    G 
2 2 2 2 r Radius of pinion
C  80 mm 
G  pinion
Hence, the correct option is (B). gear
  Pressure angle
Minimum number of teeth on pinion is,
T
tmin  min
5.2 (A) G
Given : Speed of gear 2 ( N2 )  1200 rpm tmin 
2aw
 11  
Number of teeth on gears (T2 )  20, G  1    2  sin 2  1
 GG  
(T3 )  40, (T4 )  15 and T5  30
As speed ratio increases, G increases and tmin
From the figure in question, gear 2 rotates counter
clockwise, so compound gear 3 and 4 rotates decreases.
clockwise. Again gear 5 rotates counter clockwise. Hence, the correct option is (B).
N2 T3
 
N3 T2
1200 40

N3 20

4 Theory of Machines
 5.4 (C)
A gear which does not affect the overall reduction
ratio between the input and the output shaft is
called an idler gear.
N2 T3 T5 T6 T3 T6
    
N6 T2 T4 T5 T2 T4
Since, gear 5 has no role to play, its a idler gear.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

5.5 (C)
Given : Number of teeth on gears (T2 )  60 ,
(T3 )  20 , (T4 )  100
Speed of gear 2 ( N 2 )  0 rpm ( it is fixed)
Speed of gear 4 ( N4 )  100 rpm (c.c.w.)  x  y  100rpm (given)
 x  100  y
T
and, y  x  s  0
TR
50
 y  (100  y)  0
100
y
y  50   0
2
x y 0 3y
  50
 xy 2
T y   33.33 rpm
and, y  x  2  100rpm
T4  x   66.667
60 T
 y  y  100 rpm Again, y  x  s  NP
100 TP
8
y  100 50
5 N P   33.33  66.667   100 rpm
25
 y   62.5rpm
y  62.5rpm (c.c.w.)  Required ratio,
NP 100
Hence, the correct option is (C).  3
y  33.33
Hence, the ratio of magnitudes of angular velocity
of the planet gear to the angular velocity of the
carrier arm is 3.
5.6 3
Given : Ring gear is fixed (R )  0
Speed of sun gear ( N s )  100 rpm(c.c.w.)
Theory of Machines 5
 5.7 120 5.9 (C)
Given : Number of teeth on gears (TP )  24 , Given : Arm is fixed
Speed of sun gear A ( N A )  300 rpm (c.w.)
(TQ )  45 , (TR )  30 and (Ts )  80
Speed of gear P ( N P )  400rpm
Hear gear R is not meshing at all,
N P NQ TQ TS
  
NQ N s TP TQ
N P TS 80
 
NS TP 24
24
N S   400  120 rpm
80
Hence, the speed of the gear S is 120 rpm.

5.8 (D)
According to question,
y0
and, x  y  300
 x  300
20 100
Again, N D  300    375 rpm (c.w.)
80 20
Hence, the correct option is (C).

N1 N3 Z2 Z4
   5.10 (A)
N2 N4 Z1 Z3
N1 48 60 Given : Power ( P)  20 kW
    20 ( N 2  N3 )
N4 12 12 Pressure angle ()  200
T4 Angular velocity ()  200 rad/s
 20
T1 Pitch circle diameter
T4  20 100  2000 N-m (d )  100 mm  100 10 3 m
Hence, the correct option is (D).  Power is given by,
P  T .
20  T  200
T  0.1 kNm
T 0.1103
 FT    2000 N
d 50 10 3
2

6 Theory of Machines
Radial force, FR  FT tan 
FR  2000  tan 200 Arm S P R
FR  727.94 N  0.73 kN T T
0 x  x  x
T 3T
Hence, the correct option is (A).
yx yx
x
y y
3
y  x  S 

x  Given
5.11 (D) y   R 
3 
Circular pitch is given by, Pc  m
  
x
D 4  S   R
Where, m  Module    3
T 
3(S  R )
D x
 Pc  4
T 3 3 3 1
Hence, the correct option is (D). and y  S  S  R  R  S
4 4 4 4
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.13 (B)

5.12 (C) Given : N0  2500 rpm , T2  18, T3  44, T4  15,

T6  36
Given : TA  2TB  TR …(i)

TA  TB
 3TA  TR
Using equation (i),
mTA mT
 mTB  R
2 2
TA  T , TB  T , TR  3T

150
N1  N0 
250

Theory of Machines 7
 150 N1  Narm T T
N1  2500   1500 rpm  2  3
250 N3  Narm T1 T2
N 2  N1 0  Narm 20 80
 
N2  T2 900  Narm 40 20
N3 
T3  Narm
 2
1500 18 900  Narm
N3   613.63 rpm
44
Narm  600[CCW ]
N 4  N3
Magnitude N arm  600 rpm
N T
N6  4 4 Hence, the correct answer is 600.
T3
613.63 15 5.15 95
N6   255.68 rpm
36
Given : r1  r2  30 mm
N7  N6
2 1
N 7  255.68 rpm clockwise. 
1 4
Hence, the correct option is (B). m
(T1  T2 )  30
5.14 600 2
Given : m(T1  T2 )  60
Teeth on gear 2 (T2 )  20 teeth Pd 
1
3
Teeth on gear 3 (T3 )  80
1 1
m 
N1  0 (Fixed gear) Pd 8
N3  900 rpm [CCW] 1
 (T1  T2 )  60
8
T1  T2  480
2 T1 1
  4T1  T2
1 T2 4
4T1  T1  480
5T1  480
From above diagram
T1  96
R1  2R2  R3
Hence, the correct answer is 95.
TA  2TB  T
T1  2T2  T3 [Because module is same] 
T1  80  40
T1  40 teeth
From the concept of gear ratio :

8 Theory of Machines
6 Flywheel
2013 IIT Bombay
6.1 A flywheel connected to a punching machine
has to supply energy of 400 Nm while
running at a mean angular speed of 20 rad/s.
If the total fluctuation of speed is not to
exceed  2% , the mass moment of inertia of
the flywheel in kg-m2 is [2 Marks]
(A) 25 (B) 50
(C) 100 (D) 125
2014 IIT Kharagpur
6.2 Maximum fluctuation of kinetic energy in an
engine has been calculated to be 2600 J.
Assuming that the engine runs at an average
speed of 200 rpm, the polar mass moment of
inertia (in kg. m2 ) of a flywheel to keep the
speed fluctuation within  0.5% of the
average speed is_______. [2 Marks]
6.3 Torque and angular speed data over one
cycle for a shaft carrying a flywheel are
shown in the figures. The moment of inertia
(in kg.m2 ) of the flywheel is ______.
[2 Marks]
Theory of Machines
6.4 Consider a flywheel whose mass M is
distributed almost equally between a heavy,
ring - like rim of radius R and a concentric
disk - like feature of radius R/2. Other parts
of the flywheel, such as spokes etc., have
negligible mass. The best approximation for
 , if the moment of inertia of the flywheel
about its axis of rotation is expressed as 
MR2 is _______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
6.5 For the same material and the mass, which of
the following configurations of flywheel will
have maximum mass moment of inertia
about the axis of rotation O-O’ passing
through the center of gravity. [1 Mark]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
6.6 The torque (in N-m) exerted on the crank
shaft of a two stroke engine can be described
as
1
 T  10000  1000sin 2 1200 cos 2
where  is the crank angle as measured from
inner dead center position. Assuming the
resisting torque to be constant, the power (in
kW) developed by the engine at 100 rpm is
_______. [2 Marks]
______ kg-m2 (round off to the nearest
integer). [1 Mark]
6.10 The controlling force curves P, Q and R for
a spring controlled governor are shown in the
figure, where r1 and r2 are any two radii of
rotation.

2020 IIT Delhi

6.7 A flywheel is attached to an engine to keep
its rotational speed between 100 rad/s and
110 rad/s. If the energy fluctuation in the
flywheel between these two speeds is 1.05 kJ
then the moment of inertia of the flywheel is
2
________ kg.m (round off to two decimal
places). [1 Mark]
6.8 The turning moment diagram of a flywheel
fitted to a fictitious engine is shown in the
figure.
2022
6.11 The figure shows a schematic of a simple
The mean turning moment is 2000 N-m. The
average engine speed is 1000 rpm. For
fluctuation in speed to be within  2% of
the average speed, the mass moment of
inertia of the flywheel is ______ kg-m 2 .
[2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
6.9 The torque provided by an engine is given by
Controlling force
P
Q
R
r2 r1
Radius or rotation
The characteristics shown by the curves are
[2 Marks]
(A) P-Unstable; Q-Stable; R-Isochronous
(B) P-Stable; Q-Unstable; R-Isochronous
(C) P-Stable; Q-Isochronous; R-Unstable
(D) P-Unstable; Q-Isochronous; R-Stable
IIT Kharagpur
Watt governor mechanism with the spindle
O1O2 rotating at an angular velocity ω about
a vertical axis. The balls at P and S have
equal mass. Assume that there is no friction
anywhere and all other components are
massless and rigid. The vertical distance
between the horizontal plane of rotation of
the balls and the pivot O1 is denoted by h.
The value of h = 400 mm at a certain ω. If ω
is doubled, the value of h will be _________
mm. [1 Mark]

g  9.8m/s2 O1

T    12000  2500Sin(2) N-m, where 

Spindle

is the angle turned by the crank from inner l1 l1 h

dead center. The mean speed of the engine is

200 rpm and it drives a machine that
P S
provides a constant resisting torque. If Cylindrical
variation of the speed from0 the mean speed l2 joint l2
is not to exceed 0.5% , the minimum mass l3 l3
moment of inertia of the flywheel should be Q O2 R
Sleeve (QR)

2 Theory of Machines
 (A) 50 (B) 100
(C) 150 (D) 200

6.1 (A) 10  20
 mean   15rad/s
Given :
2
Coefficient of fluctuation of speed,
Maximum fluctuation of energy (e)  400 Nm
  min
Mean speed ()  20 rad/s K  max  0.67
mean
Coefficient of fluctuation of speed
( K )  0.02  ( 0.02)  0.04
Maximum of fluctuation of energy is given by
relation,
e  I ()2 K
 400  I  (20)2  0.04
400
I  25kg m2
(20)  0.04
2

Hence, the correct option is (A).

6.2 592.952
Given :
Maximum fluctuation of energy (e)  2600 J Maximum fluctuation of energy in T   graph is,
Mean speed ( N )  200rpm  
e  3000      1500 
2N  2
   20.94 rad/s  e  I 2 K
60
Coefficient of fluctuation of speed 1500  I 152  0.67
( K )  0.5  (0.5)  1%  0.01 I  31.25kg-m2
Maximum fluctuation of energy is given relation, Hence, the moment of inertia of the flywheel is
e  I ()2 K 31.25 kgm2 .
2600  I  (20.94)2  0.01
2600
I  592.952 kg m2
(20.94)2  0.01
Hence, the polar mass moment of inertia is
6.4 0.5625
592.952 kgm2.
The flywheel is considered as two parts M / 2 as
rim type with radius R and M / 2 as disk type
with radius R / 2 .
M
6.3 31.25 I Rim   R 2
2
Given : Maximum speed (max )  20 rad/s
Minimum speed (min )  10 rad/s

Theory of Machines 3
 1 M  R  MR2
2 Hence, the power developed by the engine at 100
I Rim       rpm is 104.72 kW.
2 2 2 16
MR 2 MR 2
I 
2 16
9
I  MR 2  0.5625MR 2
16 6.7 1
   0.5625 Given : Minimum speed (min )  100 rad/s
Hence, the best approximation for  is 0.5625.
Maximum speed (max )  110rad/s
6.5 (B)
Fluctuation of energy (e)  1.05kJ  1.05 10 J
3
We know that, mass moment of inertia is given by,
Mean speed is given by,
I  mk 2
max  min 110  100
Where, k is radius of gyration mean =   105
Materials and masses are same for all 2 2
configurations shown above, hence the mass Coefficient of fluctuation of speed,
moment of inertia will depend upon the mass   min 110 100
K  max   0.095
distribution or radius of gyration (k). mean 105
By considering all configurations, we found that Maximum fluctuation of energy is given by,
option (B) has the greater value of mass
e  I 2mean K
distribution or we can say that the value of radius
of gyration is maximum in this case, about the axis e 1.05 103
I 
O-O’. 2meanCs 1052  0.095
Hence, the correct option is (B).
I  1kg m2
6.6 104.72
Hence, the moment of inertia of the flywheel is 1
Given : Speed of engine ( N )  100 rpm kg.m 2 .
We know that power is given by,
6.8 3.58
P  Tmean 
2100 Given :
Where,    10.472 rad/s Mean turning moment (Tmean )  2000 N - m ,
60
Mean torque is given by, Average engine speed ( Nmean )  1000 rpm,
2
1 Fluctuation in speed ( K )  2%
2 0
Tmean  (10000  1000sin 2  1200cos2)d 

1  1000
Tmean  10000[]02  [ cos 2]02 
2  2
1200 
 [sin 2]02 
2 
1
Tmean  [10000(2  0)  500(1  1)
2
600(0  0)] Maximum fluctuation of energy,
10000  2 
Tmean   10000  10KNm e  1000   500 
2 2
 P  10 10.472  104.72kW
Maximum fluctuation of energy is also given by,
4 Theory of Machines
 emax  I (mean )2  K E f  Emax  Emin
2Nmean E f  E ' 2500  E '
Where, mean 
60 E f  2500 Nm
 21000 
2

500  I    0.04 I 2ks  2500

 60 
I (20.944)2  0.01  2500
( K  2% i.e., 0.04)
I  569.98kg-m2
I  3.58 kgm 2
Hence, the minimum mass moment of inertia of
Hence, the mass moment of inertia of the flywheel the flywheel should be 569.98 kg-m2
is 3.58 kgm2.
6.10 (D)
6.9 569.98
P  Unstable
Given : T  12000  2500sin 2 Q  Isochronous
2N R  Stable
N  200 rpm     20.944 rad/s
60 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Tresting  Tr  cos t  Tav
6.11 (B)
K s  0.5%  1%  0.01
g
From turning moment equation, 2  for watt governor ( N )
h
2
Cycle angle ()   g
2 N2 
h
Work done per cycle
Tav  g
 12 
 h
(12000  2500sin 2)d 
Tav    12000 Nm h1  400
0 
Crank angle at which T  Tav g
12 
12000  2500sin 2  12000 h1
Given :
g
2500sin 2  0 22 
h2
2  0, , 2
  0, /2,  2  21
  
a b c
1 g h2
 
Ea  E ' minimum 41 h1 g
400
 h2
b /2
4
Eb  E '  (T1  T2 )d   E '  (2500sin 2) d  h2  100
a 0
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Eb  E ' 2500 maximum
c 
Ec  Eb   (T1  T2 )d   E ' 2500  
b
 (2500sin 2) d 
 /2

Ec  E '

Theory of Machines 5
7 Vibration

2013 IIT Kanpur 7.5 Consider a single degree of freedom system

with viscous damping excited by a harmonic
7.1 If two nodes are observed at a frequency of force. At resonance, the phase angle (in
1800 rpm during whirling of a simply degree) of the displacement with respect to
supported long slender rotating shaft, the the exciting force is [1 Mark]
first critical speed of the shaft in rpm is (A) 0 (B) 45
[1 Mark] (C) 90 (D) 135
(A) 200 (B) 450 7.6 A point mass is executing simple harmonic
(C) 600 (D) 900 motion with an amplitude of 10 mm and
7.2 A single degree of freedom system having frequency of 4Hz. The maximum
mass 1 kg and stiffness 10 kN/m initially at acceleration ( m/s2 ) of the mass is
rest is subjected to an impulse force of _______. [1 Mark]
magnitude of 5 kN for 104 seconds. The 7.7 A rigid uniform rod AB of length L and mass
amplitude in mm of the resulting free m is hinged at C such that
vibration is [2 Marks]
L 2L
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0 AC  , CB  Ends A and B are
3 3
(C) 5.0 (D) 10.0
supported by springs of spring constant k.
2014 IIT Kharagpur The natural frequency of the system is
7.3 Critical damping is the [1 Mark] given by, [2 Marks]
(A) Largest amount of damping for which no
oscillation occurs in free vibration
(B) Smallest amount of damping for which
no oscillation occurs in free vibration
(C) Largest amount of damping for which
the motion is simple harmonic in free
vibration
(D) Smallest amount of damping for which
the motion is simple harmonic in free
vibration k k
(A) (B)
7.4 In vibration isolation, which one of the 2m m
following statements is NOT correct
regarding Transmissibility (T)? 2k 5k
(C) (D)
[1 Mark] m m
(A) T is nearly unity at small excitation 7.8 What is the neutral frequency of the spring
frequencies. mass system shown below? The contact
(B) T can be always reduced by using higher between the block and the inclined plane is
damping at any excitation frequency frictionless. The mass of the block is denoted
(C) T is unity at the frequency ratio of 2 by m and the spring constant are denoted by
(D) T is infinity at resonance for undamped k1 and k2 as shown below, [2 Marks]
systems.

Theory of Machines 1
 2015 IIT Kanpur
7.13 In a spring-mass system, the mass is m and
the spring constant is k. The critical damping
coefficient of the system is 0.1 kg/s. In
another spring-mass system, the mass is 2 m
and the spring constant is 8 k. The critical
damping coefficient (in kg/s) of this system
is_______. [1 Mark]
k1  k2 k1  k2 7.14 Which of the following statements are
(A) (B)
2m 4m TRUE for damped vibrations? [1 Mark]
k1  k2 k1  k2 P. For a system having critical damping, the
(C) (D) value of damping ratio is unity and
m m
system does not undergo a vibratory
7.9 The damping ratio of a single degree of motion.
freedom spring mass damper system with Q. Logarithmic decrement method is used
mass of 1 kg, stiffness 100 N/m and to determine the amount of damping in
viscous damping coefficient of 25 Ns/m is a physical system
_______. [2 Marks] R. In case of damping due to dry friction
7.10 A mass-spring-dashpot system with mass between moving surfaces resisting force
m  10 kg , spring constant k  6250 N/m of constant magnitude acts opposite to
is excited by a harmonic excitation of the relative motion.
10 cos (25t ) N. At the steady state, the S. For the case of viscous damping, drag
vibration amplitude of the mass is 40 mm. force is directly proportional to the
The damping coefficient (C, in Ns/m) of square of relative velocity.
the dashpot is__________. [2 Marks] (A) P and Q only (B) P and S only
(C) P, Q and R only (C) Q and S only
7.15 Considering massless rigid rod small
oscillations, the natural frequency (in rad/s)
of vibration of the system shown in the
figure is [2 Marks]

7.11 A single degree of freedom system has a

mass of 2 kg, stiffness 8 N/m and viscous
damping ratio 0.02. The dynamic
magnification factors at an excitation
frequency of 1.5 rad/s is_______. [2 Marks] 400 400
(A) (B)
7.12 Consider a cantilever beam, having 1 2
negligible mass and uniform flexural rigidity 400 400
with length 0.01 m. The frequency of (C) (D)
3 4
vibration of the beam, with a 0.5 kg mass
attached at the free tip, is 100 Hz. The 7.16 A precision instrument package (m  1kg)
flexural rigidity (in N.m2 ) of the beam is needs to be mounted on a surface vibrating
at 60 Hz. It is desired that only 5% of the
_____. [2 Marks]

2 Theory of Machines
 base surface vibration amplitude be
transmitted to the instrument. Assuming
that the isolation is designed with its
natural frequency significantly lesser than
60 Hz, so that the effect of damping may
be ignored. The stiffness (in N/m) of the
required mounting pad is _________.
[2 Marks]
7.17 A single-degree-freedom spring-mass
system is subjected to a sinusoidal force of
10 N amplitude and frequency  along the
axis of the spring. The stiffness of the spring
is 150 N/m, damping factor is 0.2 and the
undamped natural frequency is 10  . At
steady state, the amplitude of vibration (in
m) is approximately [2 Marks]
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.07
(C) 0.70 (D) 0.90
7.18 Figure shows a single degree of freedom
system. The system consists of a massless
rigid bar OP hinged at O and a mass m at end
P. The natural frequency of vibration of the
system is [2 Marks]
7.20 A single degree of freedom spring mass
system with viscous damping has a spring
constant of 10 kN/m. The system is excited
by a sinusoidal force of amplitude 100 N. If
the damping factor (ratio) is 0.25, the
amplitude of steady state oscillation at
resonance is ______ mm. [1 Mark]
7.21 The static deflection of a spring under
gravity, when a mass of 1 kg is suspended
from it, is 1 mm. Assume the acceleration
due to gravity g  10 m/s2 . The natural
frequency of this spring-mass system (in
rad/s) is ______. [1 Mark]
7.22 A single degree of freedom spring-mass
system is subjected to a harmonic force of
constant amplitude. For an excitation
3k
frequency of , the ratio of the
m
amplitude of steady state response to the
static deflection of the spring is ______.

[2 Marks]
7.23 The system shown in the figure consists of
block A of mass 5 kg connected to a spring
1 k 1 k
(A) f n  (B) f n  through a massless rope passing over pulley
2 4m 2 2m
B of radius r and mass 20 kg. The spring
1 k 1 2k
(C) f n  (D) f n  constant k is 1500 N/m. If there is no slipping
2 m 2 m
of the rope over the pulley, the natural
2016 IISc Bangalore
frequency of the system is ______ rad/s.
7.19 A single degree of freedom mass-spring- [2 Marks]
viscous damper system with mass m, spring
constant k and viscous damping coefficient q
is critically damped. The correct relation
among m, k, and q is [1 Mark]
(A) q  2km (B) q  2 km

2k k
(C) q  (D) q  2
m m

Theory of Machines 3
 7.24 A solid disc with radius a is connected to a 2k k
(A) (B)
spring at a point d above the center of the m m
disc. The other end of the spring is fixed to k 4k
(C) (D)
the vertical wall. The disc is free to roll 2m m
without slipping on the ground. The mass of 7.27 A thin uniform rigid bar of length L and M
the disc is M and the spring constant is K. is hinged at point O, located at a distance
The polar moment of inertia for the disc of L/3 from one of its ends. The bar is
further supported using springs, each of
about its centre is J  Ma 2 / 2 .
stiffness k, located at the two ends. A
particle of mass m  M / 4 is fixed at one
end of the bar, as shown in the figure. For
small rotations of the bar about O, the
natural frequency of the system is
[2 Marks]
The natural frequency of this system in rad/s
is given by [2 Marks]
2 K (a  d ) 2 2K
(A) (B)
3 Ma 2 3M
5k 5k
2 K (a  d ) 2 K (a  d ) 2 (A) (B)
(C) (D) M 2M
Ma 2 Ma 2
3k 3k
2017 IIT Roorkee (C) (D)
2M M
7.25 The damping ratio for a viscously damped 7.28 The radius of gyration of a compound
spring mass system, governed by the pendulum about the point of suspension is
relationship 100 mm. The distance between the point of
d 2x dx suspension and the centre of mass is 250
m 2  c  kx  F (t ) , is given by
dt dt mm. Considering the acceleration due to
[1 Mark] gravity as 9.81 m/s2 , the natural frequency
c c (in radian/s) of the compound pendulum is
(A) (B)
mk 2 km _______. [2 Marks]
c c 2018 IIT Guwahati
(C) (D)
km 2mk 7.29 The equation of motion for a spring mass
7.26 A mass m is attached to two identical springs system exited by a harmonic force is
having spring constant k as shown in the ..
figure. The natural frequency  of this M x Kx  F cos (t ) , where M is the mass
single degree of freedom system is K is the spring stiffness F is the force
[1 Mark] amplitude and  is the angular frequency of
excitation Resonance occurs when  is
equal to [1 Mark]
M 1 K
(A) (B)
K 2 M

4 Theory of Machines
 K K
(C) 2 (D)
M M
7.30 In a single degree of freedom underdamped
spring-mass-damper system shown in the
figure an additional damper is added in
parallel such that the system still remains
underdamped. Which on of the following
statement is ALWAYS true? [1 Mark]
(A) Transmissibility will increase
(B) Transmissibility will decrease
(C) Time period of free oscillations will
increase
(D) Time period of free oscillations will
decrease
7.31 A machine of mass m  200 kg is supported
on two mounts each of stiffness
k  10 kN/m . The machine is subjected to
an external force (in N) F (t )  50cos 5t .
Assuming only vertical translatory motion,
the magnitude of the dynamic force (in N)
transmitted from each mount to the ground
is _______ (correct to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
System 2
1
(A) (B) 4
4
1
(C) (D) 2
2
7.33 A uniform thin disk of mass 1 kg and radius
0.1 m is kept on a surface as shown in the
figure. A spring of stiffness k1  400 N/m is
connected to the disk center A and another
spring of stiffness k2  100 N/m is
connected at point B just above point A on
the circumference of the disk. Initially, both
the springs are unstretched. Assume pure
rolling of the disk. For small disturbance
from the equilibrium, the natural frequency
of vibration of the system is ______ rad/s
(round off to one decimal place) [2 Marks]
7.34 A slender uniform rigid bar of mass m is
hinged at O and supported by two springs
with stiffnesses 3k and k, and a damper with
damping coefficient C as shown in figure.
For the system to be critically damped, the
ratio c / km should be [2 Marks]

2019 IIT Madras

7.32 The natural frequencies corresponding to the
spring-mass systems I and II are 1 and 2 ,
1
respectively. The ratio is [1 Mark]
2 (A) 2 2 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 4 7

System 1

Theory of Machines 5
 2020 IIT Delhi 3 k k
(A) (B) 3
7.35 A single-degree-of-freedom oscillator is 2 m m
subjected to harmonic excitation 3 k k
f (t )  F0 cos(t ) as shown in figure (C) (D)
2 m m
7.37 The equation of motion of a spring - mass-
damper system is given by,
d 2x dx
2
 3  9 x  10sin(5t ) .
dt dt
The damping factor for the system is
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25
The non-zero value of  , for which the
amplitude of the force transmitted to the (C) 3 (D) 2
ground will be F0 , is [1 Mark] 7.38 A hollow spherical ball of radius 20 cm
k k floats in still water, with half of it's volume
(A) 2 (B) submerged. Taking the density of water as
m m
1000 kg/m3 , and the acceleration due to
2k k
(C) (D) gravity as 10 m/s 2 , the natural frequency of
m 2m
small oscillations of the ball, normal to the
7.36 A rigid mass-less rod of length L is water surface is _____ rad/s (round off to 2
connected to a disc (pulley) of mass m and decimal place). [2 Marks]
radius r  L / 4 through a friction-less
revolute joint. The other end of that rod is 2021 IIT Bombay
attached to a wall through a friction-less 7.39 Consider a two degree of freedom system as
hinge. A spring of stiffness 2k is attached to shown in the figure, where PQ is a rigid
the rod at its mid-span. An inextensible rope uniform rod of length, b and mass, m .
passes over half the disc periphery and is x
securely tied to a spring of stiffness k at k
point C as shown in the figure. There is no M P
slip between the rope and the pulley. The g b
system is in static equilibrium in the  m
configuration shown in the figure and the
rope is always taut. F
Q
Assume that the spring deflects only
horizontally and force F is applied
horizontally at Q . For this system, the
Lagrangian, L is
1 1 1 1
(A) Mx2  mbx cos   mb22  kx 2
2 2 6 2
1 2 1 1
(B) Mx  mbx cos   mb22
2 2 6
Neglecting the influence of gravity, the
1 b
natural frequency of the system for small  kx2  mg cos   Fb sin 
amplitude vibration is [2 Marks] 2 2

6 Theory of Machines
 1 1 (A) 4  3  1  2
(C) (M  m) x 2  mbx cos 
2 2 (B) 3  1  2  4
1 1 b
 mb22  kx 2  mg cos 
6 2 2 (C) 1  3  4  2
1 1
(D) (M  m) x 2  mb22 7.42 Consider the system shown in the figure. A
2 6 rope goes over a pulley. A mass, m, is
1 b hanging from the rope. A spring of stiffness,
 kx 2  mg cos 
2 2 k, is attached at one end of rope. Assume
2021 IIT Bombay rope is inextensible, massless and there is no
slip between pulley and rope.
7.40 Consider a single degree of freedom system k
comprising a mass M, supported on a spring
r
and a dashpot as shown in the figure
J

m
Spring
The pulley radius is r and its mass moment
Dashpot of inertia is J. Assume that the mass is
vibrating harmonically about its static
If the amplitude of free vibration response equilibrium position. The natural frequency
reduces from 8 mm to 1.5 mm in 3 cycles, of the system is [1 Mark]
that damping ratio of the system is
kr 2
_________. (round off to three decimal (A) k/m (B)
places). J
7.41 A machine of mass 100 kg is subjected to an kr 2 kr 2
(C) (D)
external harmonic force with a frequency of J  mr 2 J  mr 2
40 rad/s. The designer decides to mount the
2022 IIT Kharagpur
machine on an isolator to reduce the force
transmitted to the foundation. The isolator 7.43 A rigid uniform annular disc is pivoted on a
can be considered as a combination of knife edge A in a uniform gravitational field
stiffness ( K ) and damper (damping factor, as shown, such that it can execute small
amplitude simple harmonic motion in the
 ) in parallel. The designer has the
plane of the figure without slip at the pivot
following four isolators : point. The inner radius r and outer radius R
1. K  640kN/m,   0.70
are such that r 2  R 2 / 2 , and the
2. K  640 kN/m,   0.07 acceleration due to gravity is g. If the time
period of small amplitude simple harmonic
3. K  22.5kN/m,   0.70 motion is given by T   R / g , where 
4. K  22.5kN/m,   0.07 is the ratio of circumference to diameter of a
circle, then  = ________ (round off to 2
Arrange the isolators in the ascending order decimal places). [1 Mark]
of the force transmitted to the foundation.
[1 Mark]

Theory of Machines 7
 different responses of the system (marked as
A g (i) to (iv)) are shown just to the right of the
system figure. In the figures of the responses,
G 𝐴 is the amplitude of response shown in red
r color and the dashed lines indicate its
R
envelope. The responses represent only the
qualitative trend and those are not drawn to
any specific scale.
(i) (ii)
7.44 Consider a forced single degree-of-freedom F (t) A A

system governed by m
t t

x(t )  2n x(t )  n x(t )  n cos(t ) ,

2 2

where  and n are the damping ratio and k C (iii) A (iv)

A

undamped natural frequency of the system,

respectively, while  is the forcing t t

frequency. The amplitude of the forced

steady state response of this system is given Four different parameter and forcing
1/2



by  1  r   2r   , where r   / n .
2 2 2


conditions are mentioned below.
(P) c > 0 and   k / m (Q) c < 0 and
The peak amplitude of this response occurs
0
at a frequency   p . If d denotes the
(R) c = 0 and   k / m (S) c = 0 and
damped natural frequency of this system,
which one of the following options is true?  k /m
[2 Marks] Which one of the following options gives
(A) p  d  n (B) p  d  n correct match (indicated by arrow →) of the
parameter and forcing conditions to the
(C) d  n  p (D) d  n  p responses? [2 Marks]
745 For a dynamical system governed by the (A) (P) → (i), (Q) → (iii), (R) → (iv), (S) →
equation, (ii)
x(t )  2x(t )  2n x(t )  0, (B) (P) → (ii), (Q) → (iii), (R) → (iv), (S) →
(i)
1
the damping ratio  is equal to loge 2 . (C) (P) → (i), (Q) → (iv), (R) → (ii), (S) →
2
(iii)
The displacement x of this system is
measured during a hammer test. A (D) (P) → (iii), (Q) → (iv), (R) → (ii), (S)
displacement peak in the positive → (i)
displacement direction is measured to be 4 2023 IIT Kanpur
mm. Neglecting higher powers (>1) of the
damping ratio, the displacement at the next 7.47 The figure shows a block of mass m = 20 kg
peak in the positive direction will be attached to a pair of identical linear springs
___________ mm (in integer). [1 Mark] each having a spring constant k = 1000 N/m.
7.46 A spring mass damper system (mass m, The block oscillates on a frictionless
stiffness k, and damping coefficient c) horizontal surface. Assuming free
excited by a force (𝑡) = 𝐵 sin 𝜔𝑡, where 𝐵, 𝜔 vibrations, the time taken by the block to
complete ten oscillations is ____________
and 𝑡 are the amplitude, frequency and time,
respectively, is shown in the figure. Four seconds. Take   3.14

8 Theory of Machines
 m

7.1 (A) m 1
x V  0.5  5mm
Given : Frequency of shaft ()  1800 rpm k 104
Hence the correct option is (C).
Two nodes are observed when a simply supported
shaft rotates at 1800 rpm. So the shaft will be like 7.3 (B)
this. Critical damping just prevents vibration or is just
sufficient to allow the object to return to its rest
position in the shortest period of time.
The automobile shock absorber is an example of a
The rotational speed and natural frequency
critically damped device. Additional damping
relationship is
causes the system to be over damped, which may
  n2n be desirable as in some door closers.
Where, n is the number of loops. Hence, the correct option is (B).
1800  32 n 7.4 (B)
n  200 rpm In vibration isolation system, the ratio of the force
Hence, the correct option is (A). transmitted to the force applied is known as the
isolation factor or transmissibility ratio.
 2 
2

1  
 n 
T .R 
7.2 (C) 2
   2   2  2
Given : Mass of the system (m)  1 kg 1      
  n    n 
Initial velocity (V1 )  0
 
Stiffness of the spring (k )  10 kN/m  2 or  0 then T  1 for all values of
n n
Impulse force of the system ( F )  5 kN
damping factor  .
Time of impact (t )  104 sec Hence, the correct option is (B).
Change in momentum at the time of impact,
 Key Point
p   F dt  F t
 m(V2  V1 )  F t
m(V  0)  F t
Where, V is the velocity just after impact.
1(V  0)  5 103 104
 V  0.5 m/s
From conservation of energy,
1 1
mV 2  kx 2
2 2

Theory of Machines 9
   d 2x
  A2 sin(t  )
(i) T.R. is infinity at resonance   1 for
 n
2
 dt
undamped systems. So at resonance, Maximum acceleration,
d 2x
damping is important. a  2  A2  A(2f )2
(ii) T.R. is nearly unity at small excitation dt
frequencies. a  10 103  (2 4)2  6.325m / s2
(iii) Beyond 2 , T increases with increase in ..Method 2..
damping. Angular velocity is given by,
7.5 (C)   2f  2 4  25.12 rad / s
Maximum acceleration is given by,
A viscous damping system which is excited by
a  2 A  25.122  0.01  6.3m/s2
harmonic force is shown in figure,
Hence, the maximum acceleration of the mass is
6.3 m/s 2 .

7.7 (D)
Moment of inertia at C is given by,
IC  IO  m(OC)2
2
 mL2  2L L  mL
2
2   IC   m   
Phase angle relationship, tan    n  12  3 2 9

2
By D-Alembert’s principle :
1  
 n 
At resonance,   n
21
tan   
1 1
  tan 1 ()  900
Hence, the correct option is (C).
7.6 6.3

Given : Amplitude of the system ( A)  10 mm

Frequency of the system ( f )  4 Hz
..Method 1.. 2 2
 L  2L 
By using equation of simple harmonic motion, IC  k     k     0
3  3 
x  A sin( t  )
mL2 1 4
Differentiating with respect to time t,  kL2      0
9 9 9
dx
 A cos(t  ) mL2 5kL2
dt  0
9 9

10 Theory of Machines
 5k Above diagrams (i), (ii) and (iii) are the case of
 0
m natural vibration.
5k 5k Therefore, equation of natural vibration,
 2n   n 
m m x wn2 x  0 …(a)
Hence, the correct option is (D). Here, k1 and k2 are in parallel connection.
7.8 (D) keq  k1  k2
There is no effect of angle, its a simple case of
keq k k
parallel springs, wn   1 2
m m
keq  k1  k2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
..Method 1..
7.9 1.25

Given : Mass of system (m)  1kg

Stiffness of the spring (k )  100 N/m
Damping coefficient (C )  25 Ns/m
Damping ratio,
At equilibrium,
C C
mg sin   keq  
2mn k
2m 
When displaced by x, m
mg sin   keq ( x  )  ma 25 25
   1.25
mg sin   keq x  k  mx 100 20
2 1
1
Using equation,
Hence, the correct answer is 1.25.
keq x  mx
keq
 xx
m
k  7.10 10
 x   eq  x  0
m Given : Mass of the system (m)  10 kg
k k k Amplitude of the system ( A)  40 mm
 2n  eq  1 2 Spring constant (k )  6250 N/m
m m
Harmonic excitation ( f )  10cos (25t ) N …(i)
k1  k2
n  Basic equation of force at spring is
m
f (t )  F0 cos(t ) …(ii)
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Comparing equation (i) and equation (ii),
..Method 2..
F0  10 and   25
F0
A
(k  m2 )2  (C)2
10
0.04 
(6250  10  (25)2 )2  (C  25)2

Theory of Machines 11
 10 10 The deflection of the beam having point load at
0.04  
0  (C  25) 2 C  25 end,
PL3
10 
C  10 Ns/m 3EI
0.04  25 Time period of oscillation,
Hence, the damping coefficient of the dashpot is
 PL3
10 Ns/m. T  2  2
g 3EI  g
mgL3 mL3
T  2  2
3EI  g 3EI
7.11 2.29 Frequency of the system,
Given : Mass of the system (m)  2 kg 1 1 3EI
f  
Spring constant (k )  8 N/m T 2 mL3
Damping ratio ()  0.02 Flexural rigidity,
Excitation frequency () 1.5 rad/s
(2f )2 mL3 (200)2  0.5(0.01)3
EI  
3 3
k 8 EI  0.0658 N-m2
Natural frequency ()    2 rad/s
m 2 Hence, the flexural rigidity of the beam is 0.0658
 1.5 Nm 2 .
   0.75
n 2
Magnification factor is given by,
A 1
M 
F0 2
   2    2 7.13 0.4
1       2 
  n    n  Given :
Case - 1 :
1
M Mass of the system (m)  m
(1  0.752 )2  (2  0.02  0.75)2
Spring constant (k )  k
1
M  2.29 Critical damping coefficient cc  0.1kg/s
0.192
Hence, the dynamic magnification factor at an Case 2 :
excitation frequency of 1.5 rad/s is 2.29. Mass of the system (m)  2 m
Spring constant (k )  8 k
Critical damping coefficient
Cc  2 km
7.12 0.0658
The ratio of critical damping coefficient of two
Given : Length of the beam ( L)  0.01m systems is,
Frequency of vibration of the beam ( f )  100 Hz Cc2 2 8k  2m
Mass at the tip of beam (m)  0.5kg 
Cc1 2 km
Cc2 2 8k  2m
  0.4 kg/s
0.1 2 km
Hence, the critical damping coefficient of this
system is 0.4 kg/s.

12 Theory of Machines
 Moment about point ' O ' (M O )  0 ,
Fs  r  mg  2r ( Fs  Spring force)

7.14 (C) k 1  r  mg  2r
2mg
1. Critical damping brings the system to the 1 
position of rest in the shortest possible time k
without any oscillations. Since, AOB and DOC are similar triangle,
2. Logarithmic decrement is given by  
2 Therefore, 1     2
 It depends only on damping r 2r
1  2 2mg 4mg
ratio   2 
k k
3. Frictional force is in the opposite direction of Also, natural frequency,
the relative motion and is given by
F  R . g k 400
(wn )   
Where, R is the resisting force. n 4m 4
4. In an viscous damping system with laminar Hence, the correct option is (D).
flow, piston rod with small diameter, ..Method 2..
perfect fluid, laminar flow in the clearance By Newton’s 2nd law of motion :
and piston and cylinder being concentric Equating the restoring torque, we have
the damping coefficient, is given by I   k (r)r
12 APl
C . m(2r )2   kr 2
 Dme3
kr 2
Where,   Coefficient of viscosity of the  0
4mr 2
fluid
Hence, natural frequency is given by,
e = Clearance, l  Length of piston
kr 2 400
AP  Area of flat side of the piston n  2

4mr 4
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (D).
7.16 6767.73
Given : Mass of the system (m)  1kg
7.15 (D) Frequency of surface ( f )  60 Hz
   2f  120  rad/s
Given : Stiffness of spring (k )  400 N/m
Transmissibility ratio (T .R)  5%  0.05
Mass of the system (m)  1kg
Transmissibility ratio for no damping is,
..Method 1.. 1
Rayleigh’s method : Transmissibility ratio  2

  1
 n 
2
1 
   1
0.05  n 

Theory of Machines 13
 
  21
n
120
 21
n
n  82.26 rad/s
Taking moment about hinge ( M O )  0 ,
k Fs  a  mg  2a
 n   82.266 rad/s
m
k 1  2 mg
k
 82.26 rad/s 2mg
1  1 
k
 k  6767.73 N/m
Using similarity of triangle, we have
Hence, the stiffness of the required mounting pad
1 
is 6767.73 N/m. 
a 2a
4mg
   2 
k
Natural frequency is given by
7.17 (B)
1 g 1 k
Given : Sinusoidal force ( F )  10 N fn  
2   2  4m
Stiffness of spring (k )  150 N/m
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Damping factor ()  0.2
7.19 (B)
Undamped natural frequency (n )  10 
  Given : Mass of the system  m
   0.1 Spring constant  k
n 10
Critical damping coefficient  q
Amplitude is given by
Damping ratio,
F
  Damping coefficient (C )
A k 
2 Critically damping coefficient (q)
   2    2
1       2  C C
  n    n   
2m n k
2m
10 m
A 150  q  2 km
[1  (0.1) ]  [2  0.2  0.1]2
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
A  0.0673 m 0.07 m
7.20 20
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given :
Spring constant (k )  10 kN/m  104 N/m
Sinusoidal force ( F0 )  100 N
7.18 (A) Damping factor () = 0.25
Rayleigh method :

14 Theory of Machines
  Hence, the ratio of the amplitude of steady state
At resonance, r 1
n response to the static deflection of the spring is
0.5.
Now, amplitude
..Method 2..
 F0 
 
A  k  The equation of motion for the body of figure is
obtained by first drawing its free body diagram.
(1  r 2 )2  (2r )2
Newton’s second law gives
 100 
 4
A  10 
(1  1 )  (2  0.25 1)2
2 2

10 2
A  0.02 m  20 mm
2  0.25
Hence, the amplitude of steady state oscillation at
d 2x
resonance is 20 mm. m  kx  F sin t
dt 2
d 2x k F
or 2
 x  sin t )
dt m m
Substituting excitation frequency,
7.21 100
3k
Given : Mass of the system (m)  1kg 
m
Static deflection ()  1 mm  10 3 m
Amplitude of periodic vibration,
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10 m/s 2 F F
Natural frequency,
A m  m
2
g 10 k k  3k 
n =   2 
 10 3 m 
m  m
n  100 rad/sec
F
Hence, the natural frequency of this spring-mass A  0.5  
 k st
system is 100 rad/s.
A  0.5 X st
7.22 0.5
A
3k  0.5
Given : Excitation frequency ()  Ast
m
Hence, the ratio of the amplitude of steady state
..Method 1.. response to the static deflection of the spring is
Natural frequency, 0.5.
k
n 
m

r  3
n 7.23 10
Asteady state 1 Given : Mass of block A (mA )  5kg
Ratio of amplitude   2
Astatic (r 1) Mass of pulley B (mB )  20kg
Asteady state 1 1 Spring constant (k )  1500 N/m
    0.5
Astatic 3 1 2
Theory of Machines 15
 ..Method 1..  m r2 
k   B 2  mA    0
 2 r 
(10  5)  k   0
15  1500   0
   100   0
Natural frequency,
n  100  10 rad/s
Hence, the natural frequency of the system is 10
2
mB r rad/s.
IB 
2 7.24 (A)
I 
mequivalent   B2  mA  Given : Mass of disc  M
r  Radius of disc  a
I   m r2  Spring constant  K
meq   B2  mA    B 2  mA 
r   2 r  The polar moment of inertia for the disc
meq  (10  5)  15kg ( J )  Ma 2 / 2
k  1500 N/m Polar moment of inertia about C,
Natural frequency, Ma 2 3
Jc   Ma 2  Ma 2
k 1500 2 2
n    10 rad/s
meq 15
Hence, the natural frequency of the system is 10
rad/s.
..Method 2..

By D-Alembert’s principle :
JC  K (a  d )2   0
3 2
 Ma    K (a  d )   0
2
2 
K (a  d ) 2
 0
Law of D-Alembert, 3 2
Ma
 MO  IB   2
Natural frequency,
(kr)  r  mA (r r )  I B  0
K (a  d ) 2 2 K (a  d ) 2
IB n  
k   mA  0 3
Ma2 3Ma2
r2 2
I  Hence, the correct option is (A).
k   B2  mA    0
r 

16 Theory of Machines
 7.25 (B) 3ML2  ML2  4ML2 8ML2
I0  
Governing equation of the system is given by 36 36
d 2x dx 2ML2
m 2  c  kx  F (t ) I0 
dt dt 9
2
d x c dx K
    x0
dt 2 m dt m
c k
x x x 0 …(i)
m m
Also, x  2n x  n2 x  0 …(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
k k
2n   n 
m m
By D-Alembert’s principle :
c
and, 2n   L
2 2
 2L 
m I0  k     k     0
3  3 
k c
 2   2ML2  21 4
m m k   kL      0
c  9  9 9
  5 2
2 km  kL 
Hence, the correct option is (B).   9 2    0
 ML 
7.26 (A) 2 
 9 
Equivalent stiffness is given by,
 5k 
keq  k  k  2k     0
 2M 
Natural frequency is given by, Natural frequency,
keq 2k
n   wn 
5k
m m 2M
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (B).
7.27 (B) 7.28 15.66
Given : Mass of the rod (m1 )  M Given :
Radius of gyration (k )  100 mm  0.1 m
Particle of mass (m2 )  M / 4
Distance between the point of suspension and the
Spring stiffness (k )  k center of mass ( L)  250 mm  0.25 m
Mass moment about hinge, Acceleration due to gravitation ( g )  9.81 m/sec2
ML2  2L L   2L 
2 2 Moment of inertia,
I0  M    m  I  mk 2  m (0.1)2
12  3 2  3 
for bar for particle Natural frequency,
ML2
2
 L   M  4L
2 mgL m  9.81 0.250
I0   M      n  
12 6  4  9 I m  0.12
n  15.66 rad/s
ML2 ML2 ML2
I0   
12 36 9

Theory of Machines 17
 Hence, the natural frequency of the compound Transmissibility,
pendulum is 15.66 rad/s. 2
 2 
7.29 (D) 1  
 n 
Equation of motion is given, T .R 
2
   2   2 2
Mx  Kx  F cos(t ) 1       
K   n    n 
Resonance occurs, when   n 
M FT 1 1
 

2
Hence, the correct option is (D). F0    2 
2
1  
7.30 (C) 1      n 
  n  
On adding damper, damping will increase i.e. (   0)
damping factor () will increase but it is still
FT 1 4
under damped condition.  
50 1  1 3
d  1  2 n 4
Where, FT  Total transmitted force.
k
Where, n  4
m  FT  50   66.667 N
3
As  increases then,  2 will also increase, hence
 Dynamic force Transmitted from each
damped frequency ( d ) will decrease. mount,
2  FT  66.667
 Td  will increase.    33.333 N
d  2  2
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the magnitude of the dynamic force
transmitted from each mount to the ground is
33.333 N.

7.31 33.33
Given : Mass of the machine (m)  200 kg 7.32 (C)
Spring constant (k )  10 kN/m According to question,
Equivalent spring stiffness,
keq  k  k  2k  20kN/m
Fig. (i)
Governing equation of force
f (t )  50cos5t …(i)
Basic equation of force at spring is
f (t )  F0 cos(t ) …(ii)
Fig. (ii)
Comparing both the equations, 1 1 1 2
F0  50 N and   5rad/s From figure (i),   
ke1 k k k
keq 20 103 k
n    10 rad/s ke1 
m 200 2
 5 1 From figure (ii), ke2  k  k  2 k
  
n 10 2 Natural frequency,

18 Theory of Machines
 k Hence, the natural frequency of vibration of the
ke1 1 k system is 23.094 rad/s.
1   2  …(i)
m m 2 m 7.34 (D)
ke2 2k k Let, angular displacement   (clockwise)
and, 2    2 …(ii)
m m m
1 1/ 2 1
 
2 2 2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2
mL2  L  7mL
2
7.33 23.094 I  m  
Given : Mass of disc (m)  1 kg 12 4 48
2 2
Radius of disc ( R)  0.1 m  L  L
I   c      3k    
Stiffness of springs (k1 )  400 N/m and 4 4
2
(k2 )  100 N/m  3L 
k     0
 4 
7mL 2
L2
 3L 9L 
2 2
c k   0
48 16  16 16 
 cL2   k 12L2 
   
   16 2     16 2    0
 7mL   7mL 
 48   48 
3c 36k
Torque equation about point ‘O’,   0
7m 7m
I   (k1  R )R  (k2  2R )2R  0
Also,   2  2   0
mR 2
I about O   mR 2 3c
2 2  (   1)
7m
3
I  mR 2 2 
3c
2 7m
3
 mR 2   [k1R 2  k2 (4R 2 )]  0 36k 3c 3c
2 2   2 6 
7m 7m 7 km
 k R 2  4k2 R 2 
 1   0 c
3 4 7
 mR 2
 km
 2 
Hence, the correct option is (D).
  2n   0
7.35 (C)
k1R2  4k2 R2
n  Transmitted force, FT  FD
3
mR2 FT
2 Transmissibility ratio (T )  1
F0
400  0.12  4 100  0.12
n 
1.5 1 0.12 n 
k
n  23.094 rad/s m

Theory of Machines 19
   1  49ml 2  2 1  9 Kl 2  2
T  1 , if  0 and  2. E     
n n 2  32  2 2 
2k dEtotal
   n  2  0
m dt
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1  49ml 2 9Kl 2 
  2  2  0
7.36 (B) 2  32 2 
According to question, 49ml 2
  9Kl 2  0
16
49m
  9K   0
16
9K 16
 0
49m
12 k
n 
7 m
12
Moment of inertia about point A, The value is 1.7142 which is close to 3.
7
 l
2
mr
I  ml 2 r   Hence, the correct option is (B).
2  4
7.37 (A)
33ml 2
I ..Method 1..
32
Moment of inertia about disc centre, Governing equation of forced damped vibration is,
mx  cx  kx  F0 sin t
mr 2
I disc 
2 d 2 x 3dx
On comparing,   9 x  10sin 5t
By rotating disc with angle  results in rotating dt 2 dt
the rod with angle  , about hinge point With governing equation,
  l  m  1, c  3, k  9
Damping factor is given by,
l
 c c
r  
cc 2 km
Applying energy method,
3 1
1 1 1 l 
2
   0.5
E  l ()2  ldisc ()2  (2K )     2  9 1 2
2 2 2 2  Hence, the correct option is (A).
1
 K (2l)2 ..Method 2..
2 According to question,
1 33ml 2 2 1 mr 2  l 2  2 d 2 x 3dx
E       9 x  10sin(5t )
2 32 2 2  r2  dt 2 dt
1 l2 2 1 and x  2n x  n2 x  10sin(5t )
 2K   K 4l 22
2 4 2 2n  9  n  3
1  33ml 2 ml 2  2 1  Kl 2  2n  3
E       4Kl 2  2
2  32 2  2 2 
2   3  3

20 Theory of Machines
 1
  0.5
2  y
Hence, the correct option is (A).
x
7.38 8.66 dy
y sin 
Given : A radius of spherical ball ( R ) = 20 cm,
Density of water ()  1000 kg/m3
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  10 m/sec2
So, total displacement of rod = x + y sin 
And velocity = x  y cos .
1
 K .E    dm   x  y cos .
2

1
mx  FB'extra  0  K .E    dm  x2  y 2 .2 cos2   2 xy cos 
2
mx  Vextra ..g  0
V ( ⸪  is small so cos2  will become 1)
. s x  (R 2 .x).g  0
1
2  K .E    dm   x2  y 22  2xy cos 
4 R3 2
xˆ  R 2 xg  0 m
3 2 dm   dy
3g b
x x0 On putting value of dm, we get
2R
3g 3 10
n    8.66 rad/sec
2R 2  0.20 1m
Hence, the natural frequency of small oscillations  K .E    dy  x 2  y 2 .2  2 xy cos 
2b
of the ball, normal to the water surface is 8.66
rad/s.
7.39 C
mb 2
Lagrangian, L = Kinetic Energy – Potential  K.E  
2b 0 
 x  y 2 .2  2 xy cos  dy
Energy
1 2 On integrating,
Kinetic Energy of mass M , K .E  Mx
2 1 m  2 2b3 2x cos b2 
 K.E   x b 
Potential Energy of spring =
1 2
kx 2 b  3 2 

2
 mx2 m2b2 mx cos b 
b
Potential Energy of rod = mg cos   K.E rod     
2  2 6 2 
Kinetic Energy for rod: Total Kinetic Energy =
1
In this system,  K .E i  mi vi 2  K.E Total   K.E M   K.E rod
2
Rod travels distance x and also rotated at an
angle  . We will take a small element dy
at distance y of small mass dm (rod).
Theory of Machines 21
 Mx2 mx2 m2b2 mx cos b 7.41 (A)
 K.E total    
2 2 6 2 Given :
m  100 kg ,

  40 rad/s
 M  m x2 mbx cos  mb22
 K.E total   
For k  640000 N/m
2 2 6

k 640000
Total Potential Energy = n    80 rad/s
 P.E Total   P.E Spring   P.E rod m 100

1 2  b   40
 P.E Total 
kx   mg cos   r 
n 80
 0.5
2  2 
1 b
 P.E Total  kx2  mg cos  For k  22500 N/m
2 2
Lagrangian, L = (Kinetic Energy)Total – k 22500
(Potential Energy)Total n    15 rad/s
m 100

1 1 1   40
L    M  m x2  mbx cos   mb22  r   2.667
2 2 6  n 15

Ft
1 b  
  kx2  mg cos  F0
2 2 
1 1 1 Since  Ft . So, if Ft  that means  .
L   M  m  x 2  mbx cos   mb22
2 2 6
1 b
 kx 2  mg cos 
2 2
 0
Hence, the correct option is (C).
  0.07
7.40 0.088
  0.7
Given :
  0.7
x0  8 mm   1 3   0.07
 3 cycle 4
x3  1.5 mm 0

r  0.5 r 2 r  2.667
x0
 e3
x3
8  1
 e3  For, r  2
1.5  , 
  0.558
2  1
 0.558 For, r  2
1  2  , 
From figure :
  0.088
Hence, damping ratio of the system is 0.088. 4 3 1 2

22 Theory of Machines
 4  3 1 2 Acceleration  g
Hence, the correct option is (A). R
Time period of oscillation (T )   … (i)
7.42 (C) g

Mass moment of inertia about centre of gravity

( IG )
 2 R2 
( R2  r 2 ) R  
x  r  x  r  x  r IG  M M  2 
1 1 2 2
K .E.  mx 2  J 2
2 2 3
IG  MR 2
1 1 4
K .E.  m(r)2  J 2
2 2
I A  IG  Mr 2
1
K .E.  ( J  mr 2 )2
2 3 MR 2
 MR 
2
1 1 1 4 2
P.E.  kx 2  k (r)2  kr 22
2 2 2 5
d I A  MR 2 … (ii)
[ K .E  P.E ]  0 4
dt
Disc rotated  angle :
d 1 1 
 ( J  mr 2 )2  kr 22   0
dt  2 2 
1 1
( J  mr 2 )(2)  (kr 2 )(2)  0
2 2
( J  mr 2 )  kr 2  0
kr 2
n 
J  mr 2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
7.43 2.659
Given :
R2
r2 
2
Where,
 T A  IA 

r  Inner radius of disc Where,

R  Outer radius of disc
TA  Torque about A
Motion of disc = Simple harmonic motion (SHM)
  Angular acceleration

Theory of Machines 23
 5 Value of (  1) always
Mg  r sin   MR 2
4 So, d  n
5 R
MgR 2  Mg 0 So, the sequence will be p  d  n
4 2
Hence, the correct option is (A).
5 2R 4 g
 0 7.45 2
Me ke
We know that,
5 2R   4 g   0 …. (iii)
x0
Displacement ratio,  e … (i)
We know, me   ke   0 …. (iv) x1
We also know, Where,  is logarithmic decrement.
2 x
ke 
n  1  2
Me
2 0.1103
4g 
n  1  (0.1103)2
R5 2
 1 
g    2 loge 2,   0.1103 
n  0.752  
R   0.69728
2 By putting in equation (i),
Since, Time period (T )  … (v)
n x0
 e0.69728
From equation (i) and (v) x1
2 4

R

R  e0.69728 ( x0  4 mm)
g 0.752 g x1

  2.659 rad/s x1  2 mm
Hence, the displacement at the next peak in the
Hence, the correct answer is 2.659.
positive direction will be 2 mm.
7.44 (A)
7.46 (C)
Given :
K
 (P) c  0 and  
r m
n
A

 r  1  22
n
t
p  n 1  22 … (i)
(  p ) when peak amplitude is occur.
So from equation (i) we can conclude p  n
(Q) c  0 and   0
And we know that,

Damped frequency, d  1 2n

24 Theory of Machines
 A
7.47 6.283
keq  k1  k2  2000 N/m
t keq 2000
n   rad/s
m 20
n
fn  Hz
2
K 1 1
(R) c  0 and   T sec.Total time  10  sec
m fn fn
2
 10  sec = 6.283 sec.
2000
20
Hence, the correct answer is 6.283.



K
(S) c  0 and  
m
A

Hence, the correct option is (C).

Theory of Machines 25
8 Balancing

2016 IISc Bangalore

8.1 Two masses m are attached to opposite sides
of a rigid rotating shaft in the vertical plane.
Another pair of equal masses m1 is attached
to the opposite sides of the shaft in the
vertical plane as shown in figure. consider
m  1 kg, e  50 mm, e1  20 mm, b  0.3
m, a  2 m and a1  2.5 m. For the system
to be dynamically balanced, m1 should be
_______ kg. [2 Marks]

2019 IIT Madras

8.3 Two masses A and B having mass ma and

2017 IIT Roorkee
8.2 Three masses are connected to a rotating
shaft supported on bearing A and B as shown
in the figure. The system is in a space where
the gravitational effect is absent. Neglect the
mass of shaft and rods connecting the
masses. For m1  10 kg , m2  5 kg and
m3  2.5 kg and for a shaft angular speed of
1000 rad/s, the magnitude of the bearing
reaction (in N) at location B is ______.
[2 Marks]
mb , respectively, lying in the plane of the
figure shown, are rigidly attached to a shaft
which revolves about an axis through O
perpendicular to the plane of the figure. The
radii of rotation of the masses ma and mb are
ra and rb , respectively. The angle between
lines OA and OB is 900 . If ma  10 kg ,
mb  20 kg, ra  200 mm and rb  400 mm,
then the balance mass to be placed at a radius
of 200 mm is ______ kg (round off to two
decimal places). [2 Marks]

Theory of Machines 1
 2022 IIT Kharagpur
8.6 A rigid body in the X-Y plane consists of two
point masses (1 kg each) attached to the ends
of two massless rods, each of 1 cm length, as
shown in the figure. It rotates at 30 RPM
counter-clockwise about the Z-axis passing
through point O. A point mass of 2 kg,
attached to one end of a third massless rod,
2020 IIT Delhi
is used for balancing the body by attaching
8.4 A balanced rigid disc mounted on a rigid the free end of the rod to point O. The length
rotor has four identical point masses, each of of the third rod is ________ cm. [2 Marks]
10 grams, attached to four points on the 100 Y
1 kg
mm radius circle shown in the figure.

30 RPM
1 kg
1cm 90 0

1cm
O X

(A) 1 (B) 2
The rotor is driven by a motor at uniform 1 1
angular speed of 10 rad/sec. If one of the (C) (D)
2 2 2
masses gets detached then, the magnitude of
the resultant unbalance force on the rotor is
_______ N. [1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay

8.5 Consider a reciprocating engine with crank

radius R and connecting rod of length L. The
secondary unbalance force for this case is
equivalent to primary unbalance force due to
a virtual crank of__________. [2 Marks]
L
(A) radius rotating at twice the engine
2
speed
R2
(B) radius rotating at twice the engine
4L
speed
R
(C) radius rotating at half the engine
4
speed
L2
(D) radius rotating at half the engine
4R
speed
2 Theory of Machines
 8.1 2  Fy  (5  0.2 2 sin 600 )

According to question,  (2.5  0.4 2 sin 600 )

 Fy  0
Since, this is a balanced system. So, net force on
bearing is zero.
Hence, the magnitude of the bearing reaction at
location B is 0 N.

8.3 41.23
Balance moment of all forces, Given : Radius of balance mass (r )  200 mm
 (m1  0.02  2.5)  (1 0.05  0.3)
2 2

 (m1  0.02  0)2  (1 0.05  2.3)2

m1  2 kg
Hence, the system to be dynamically balanced m1
should be 2 kg.

Let, Assume balance mass = m

Direction from horizontal  
8.2 0 mr cos   mi ri cos i
According to question, mr cos     mArA cos  A  mB rB cos B 
m 200cos    [10  200  cos 00
 20  400  cos900 ]
2000
m cos     10 …(i)
200
Again, mr sin    [mArA sin B  mB rB sin B ]
mr sin    [10  200  sin 00
 20  400  sin 900 ]
Equating the forces, m 200sin    8000
 Fx   mr cos 
2
m sin    40 …(ii)
 Fx  (10  0.12 )  (5  0.2 2 cos 600 ) Squaring and adding equation (i) and (ii),
 (2.5  0.4 2 cos 600 ) m2 cos2   m2 sin 2   (10)2  ( 40)2
 Fx  0 m2 cos2   m2 sin 2   1700
m  41.23 kg
 Fy   mr2 sin 
Hence, the balance mass to be placed at a radius of
200 mm is 41.23 kg.
Theory of Machines 3
 8.6 (A)
Given :
m1  1 kg
8.4 0.1
m2  1 kg
Given :
Radius of all four points (r )  100 mm  0.1 m r1  1 cm
Mass of all points (m)  10 grams  0.01 kg r2  1 cm
Angular speed of rotor ()  10 rad/sec Y
When one mass gets deflected, (assume A m2  1 kg
removed) m1  1 kg
30 rpm

cm
r2


1
1c
m

r1
0 X

Fx  mr2 cos(90)  cos(180)  cos(270) rb

 0.01 0.1102 cos(90)  cos(180)  cos(270)

Fx   0.1N mb  2 kg
Fy  mr2 sin(90)  sin(180)  sin(270)  0
m2 r2
R  Fx2  Fy2  0.1N
Hence, the magnitude of the resultant unbalance
mb rb
force on the rotor is 0.1 N.
8.5 (B) m1 r1
Primary unbalance = Secondary unbalance
mr2 Balancing resultant force,
mr2 cos   cos 
n (mb rb )2  (m1r1 )2  (m2r2 )2
R  R R2
 
r 2
For secondary, r    2.rb  (11)2  (11)2
4n 4  L 4L
  2 2.rb  1  1
Hence, the correct option is (B). 2
rb 
2
rb  1 cm
Hence, the correct option is (A).



4 Theory of Machines
9 Gyroscope
2016 IISc Bangalore
9.1 A car is moving on a curved horizontal road
of radius 100 m with a speed of 20 m/s. The
rotating masses of the engine have an
angular speed of 100 rad/s in clockwise
direction when viewed from the front of the
car. The combined moment of inertia of the
rotating masses is 10 kg- m2 . The magnitude
of the gyroscopic moment (in Nm) is
_______. [1 Mark]
2019 IIT Madras
9.2 The rotor of a turbojet engine of an aircraft
has a mass 180 kg and polar moment of
inertia 10 kgm2 about the rotor axis. The
rotor rotates at a constant speed of 1100 rad/s
in the clockwise direction when viewed from
the front of the aircraft. The aircraft while
flying at a speed of 800 km per hour takes a
turn with a radius of 1.5 km to the left. The
gyroscopic moment exerted by the rotor on
the aircraft structure and the direction of
motion of the nose when the aircraft turns,
are [2 Marks]
(A) 162.9 Nm, the nose goes up
(B) 1629.6 Nm, the nose goes down
(C) 1629.6 Nm, and the nose goes up
(D) 162.9 Nm, and the nose goes down
9.3 A uniform disc with radius r and a mass of
m kg is mounted centrally on a horizontal
axle of negligible mass and length of 1.5 r .
The disc spins counter-clockwise about the
axle with angular speed  , when viewed
from the right-hand side bearing Q . The axle
 is suspended horizontally in a uniform
processes about a vertical axis at P  in
10
the clockwise direction when viewed from
above. Let RP and RQ (positive upwards) be
Theory of Machines
the resultant reaction forces due to the mass
and the gyroscopic effect, at bearings P and
Q respectively. Assuming 2 r  300 m/s2
and g  10 m/s2 , the ratio of the larger to the
smaller bearing reaction force (considering
appropriate signs) is ______. [2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
9.4 The figure shows an arrangement of a heavy
propeller shaft in a ship. The combined polar
mass moment of inertia of the propeller and
the shaft is 100 kg.m2 . The propeller rotates
at   12 rad/s . The waves acting on the ship
hull induces a rolling motion as shown in the
figure with an angular velocity of 5 rad/s.
The gyroscopic moment generated on the
shaft due to the motion described is
________N.m
(round off to the nearest integer).
y y
Propeller
z Ship hull z
 x
Rolling
Side view End view
2022 IIT Kharagpur
9.5 A massive uniform rigid circular disc is
mounted on a frictionless bearing at the end
E of a massive uniform rigid shaft AE which
gravitational field by two identical light
inextensible strings AB and CD as shown,
where G is the center of mass of the shaft-
disc assembly and g is the acceleration due
1
 to gravity. The disc is then given a rapid spin
 about its axis in the positive x – axis
direction as shown, while the shaft remains
at rest. The direction of rotation is defined by
using the right-hand thumb rule. If the string
AB is suddenly cut, assuming negligible
energy dissipation, the shaft AE will
[1 Mark]
B D
(A) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the
negative z-axis direction
(B) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the
positive z-axis direction
(C) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the
positive y-axis direction
(D) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the
negative y-axis direction

g
L L

z
y A G C
x + E


9.1 200 V
 p   0.14814 rad/s
Given : Velocity of car (V )  20 m/s R
Radius of curvature ( R)  100 m
Angular speed of engine ()  100 rad / s
Moment of inertia ( I )  10 kgm2
V 20 Gyroscopic couple  I p
P    0.2 rad / sec
R 100  10 1100  0.14814
Gyroscopic moment (Nm)  1629.54 Nm
 I P  10 100  0.2  200 Nm Sign convention :
Hence, the magnitude of the gyroscopic moment C.W.  ve , Front  ve
is 200 Nm. Left   ve
Resultant  ( ve)  ( ve)  (ve)   ve
The resultant sign i.e., negative (  ve ) shows the
nose goes down.
9.2 (B)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : Mass of turbojet engine (m)  180 kg
Polar moment of inertia ( I )  10 kg-m2
Angular velocity of rotor ()  1100 rad/s
Radius ( R)  1.5 km  1500 m 9.3 –3
Speed of aircraft (V )  800 km/hr 
Given : Precession velocity ( p ) 
5 20
 800   222.222 m/s
18 and (2 r )  300 m/s 2

2 Theory of Machines
 9.4 0
y y

Propeller
z Ship hull z
 x
Rolling

Side view End view

In case of rolling action, the axis of rotation of

rotor and axis of rolling of ship are same. Hence
there is no gyroscopic effect of ship during
Active gyroscopic couple rolling.

mr 2  m 2 r 2 Hence, the gyroscopic moment generated on the

 I p    shaft due to the motion described is 0 N.m.
2 10 20
Reaction force at bearing P due to gyroscopic 9.5 (A)
couple is,
It is given that when view from rear disc rotates
m 2 r 2 m 2 r clock-wise, when string AB cut the point A goes
RPm    10m N
20 1.5 r 30 down because C.G. of shaft away from C and
(upward) towards A. So gyroscopic effect will be
Reaction force at bearing Q due to gyroscopic B D
couple is,
g
m 2 r 2 m  r
RQm    10m N L L
20 1.5 r 30
z E
(downward) y A C
G
+

Reaction force at bearing P due to gravity x +

mg
  5m N (downward) A
2
Reaction force at bearing Q due to gravity Angular velocity vector :
mg
  5m N (upward)
2
Reaction at bearing P,
RP  10m N  5m N  5m N (upward)
Reaction at bearing Q, Rotate slowly (compared to  ) direction about
the negative z-axis.
RQ  10m N  5m N  15m N
Hence, the correct option is (A).
(upward)
RQ 15 
  3
RP 5
Hence, the ratio of the larger to the smaller bearing
reaction force is – 3.

Theory of Machines 3
Syllabus : Industrial Engineering

Production Planning and Control : Forecasting models, aggregate production planning,

scheduling, materials requirement planning; lean manufacturing.
Inventory Control : Deterministic models; safety stock inventory control systems.
Operations Research : Linear programming, simplex method, transportation, assignment,
network flow models, simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.
Contents : Industrial Engineering

S. No. Topics
1. Inventory Control
2. Linear Programming Problem
3. Transportation & Assignment Model
4. CPM & PERT
5. Queuing Theory
6. Forecasting
7. Break Even Analysis
8. Sequencing
9. Line Balancing or Assembly Line
10. MRP
11. Work Study
12. Miscellaneous
1 Inventory Control/Management
2014 IIT Kharagpur
1.1 Demand during lead time with associated
probabilities is shown below,
Demand 50 70 75 80 85
Probability 0.15 0.14 0.21 0.20 0.30
Expected demand during lead time is 1.6
_______. [1 Mark]
1.2 Consider the following data with reference
to elementary deterministic economic order
quantity model
Annual demand of an item 100000
Unit price of the item (in Rs.) 10
Inventory carrying cost per 1.5 1.7
unit per year (in Rs.)
Unit order cost (in Rs.) 30
The total numbers of economic orders per
year to meet the annual demand is_______.
[2 Marks]
1.3 A manufacturer can produce 12000 bearings
per day. The manufacturer received an order
of 8000 bearings per day from a customer.
The cost of holding a bearing in stock is Rs.
0.20 per month. Setup cost per production
run is Rs. 500. Assuming 300 working days
in a year, the frequency of production run
should be [2 Marks]
(A) 4.5 days (B) 4.5 months
(C) 6.8 days (D) 6.8 months
1.8
2015 IIT Kanpur
1.4 Annual demand of a product is 50000 units
and the ordering cost is Rs.7000 per order.
Considering the basic economic order
quantity model, the economic order quantity
is 10000 unit. When the annual inventory
cost is minimized, the annual inventory
holding cost (in Rs.) is _____. [1 Mark]
1.5 The annual requirement of rivets at a ship 1.9
manufacturing company is 2000 unit/year.
The rivets are supplied in units of 1 kg
Industrial Engineering
costing Rs. 25 each. If the costs Rs. 100 to
place an order and the annual cost of
carrying one unit is 9% of its purchase cost,
the cycle length of the order (in days) will be
______. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
The annual demand for as item is 10000
units. The unit cost is Rs. 100 and inventory
carrying charges are 14.4% of the unit cost
per annum. The cost of one procurement is
Rs. 2000. The time between two consecutive
orders to meet the above demand is _____
month (s). [2 Marks]
A food processing company uses 25000 kg
of corn flour every year. The quantity-
discount price of corn flour is provided in the
table below :
Quantity (kg) Unit price (Rs/kg)
1-749 70
750-1499 65
1500 and above 60
The order processing charges are Rs.
500/order. The handling plus carry-over
charge on an annual basis is 20% of the
purchase price of the corn flour per kg. The
optimal order quantity (in kg) is ________.
[2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
A local tyre distributor expects to sell
approximately 9600 steel belted radial tyres
next year. Annual carrying cost is Rs. 16 per
tyre and ordering cost is Rs. 75. The
economic order quantity of the tyres is
[1 Mark]
(A) 64 (B) 212
(C) 300 (D) 1200
2019 IIT Madras
The annual demand of valves per year in a
company is 10000. The current order
quantity is 400 per order. The holding cost of
1
 valve is Rs.24 per valve per year and the
ordering cost is Rs.400 per order. If the
current order quantity is changed to
Economic order quantity, then the saving in
the total cost of inventory per year will be
Rs.______.
[2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
1.10 In Material Requirement Planning, if the
inventory holding cost is very high and the
setup cost is zero, which one of the
following lot sizing approaches should be
used? [1 Mark]
(A) Economic Order Quantity
(B) Lot-for-Lot
(C) Fixed Period Quantity, for 2 periods
(D) Base Stock Level
1.11 For an assembly line, the production rate was
4 pieces per hour and the average processing
time was 60min . The WIP inventory was
calculated. Now, the production rate is kept
the same and the average processing time is
brought drawn by 30 %. As a result of this
change is processing time, the WIP
inventory [2 Marks]
(A) Increase by 25 %
(B) Increase by 30 %
(C) Decrease by 25%
(D) Decrease by 30%
1.12 Consider two cases as below
Case 1 : A company buys 1000 pieces per
year of a certain part from vendor ‘X’. The
changeover time is 2 hours and the price is
Rs.10 per piece. The holding cost rate per
part is 10 % per year.
Case 2 : For the same part, another vendor
‘Y’ offers a design where the changeover
time is 6 minutes, with a price of Rs. 5 per
piece, and a holding cost rate per part of 100
% per year. The order size is 800 pieces per
year from ‘X’ and 200 pieces per year from
‘Y.’
Assume the cost of downtime as Rs. 200 per
hour. The percentage reduction in the annual
cost for Case 2, as compared to Case 1 is
______ (round off to 2 decimal places).
[2 Marks]
2 Industrial Engineering
1.13 For a single item inventory system, the
demand is continuous, which is 10000 per
year. The replenishment is instantaneous and
backorders (S unit) per cycle are allowed as
shown in figure [2 Marks]
As soon as the quantity (Q units) ordered
from the supplier is received, the
backordered quantity is issued to the
customer. The ordering cost is Rs. 300 per
order. The carrying cost Rs. 4 per unit per
year.
The cost of backordering is Rs. 25 per unit
per year. Based on the total cost
minimization criteria, the maximum
inventory reached in the system is _____
(round off to nearest integer).
2021 IIT Bombay
1.14 Robot Ltd. wishes to maintain enough safety
stock during the lead time period between
starting a new production run and its
completion such that the probability of
satisfying the customer demand during the
lead time period is 95%. The lead time
period is 5 days and daily customer demand
can be assumed to follow the Gaussian
(normal) distribution with mean 50 units and
a standard deviation of 10 units. Using
1 (0.95)  1.64 where  represents the
cumulative distribution function of the
standard normal random variable, the
amount of safety stock that must be
maintained by Robot Ltd. to achieve this
demand fulfillment probability for the lead
time period is _____________ units (round
off to two decimal places).
1.15 Daily production capacity of a bearing 2023 IIT Kanpur
manufacturing company is 30000 bearings.
The daily demand of the bearing is 15000. 1.178 With reference to the EOQ model, which
The holding cost per year of keeping a one of the options given is correct?
bearing in the inventory is Rs 20. The setup
cost for the production of a batch is Rs. 1800. Curve P1
Assuming 300 working days in a year, the

Cost per unit

economic batch quantity in number of
bearings is___________ (in integer).
[2 Marks] Curve P2
Curve P3
2022 IIT Kharagpur
Curve P4
1.16 Which one of the following is NOT a form
of inventory? [1 Mark]
Order quantity
(A) Raw materials (A) Curve P1: Total cost, Curve P2:
(B) Work-in-process materials Holding cost,
(C) Finished goods Curve P3: Setup cost, and Curve P4:
(D) CNC Milling Machines Production cost
1.17 The demand of a certain part is 1000 (B) Curve P1: Holding cost, Curve P2:
parts/year and its cost is Rs. 1000/part. The Setup cost,
orders are placed based on the economic Curve P3: Production cost, and
order quantity (EOQ). The cost of ordering Curve P4: Total cost.
is Rs. 100/order and the lead time for (C) Curve P1: Production cost, Curve P2:
receiving the orders is 5 days. If the Holding cost,
holding cost is Rs. 20/part/year, the Curve P3: Total cost, and Curve P4:
inventory level for placing the orders is Setup cost
_________ parts (round off to the nearest (D) Curve P1: Total cost, Curve P2:
integer). Production cost,
[1 Mark] Curve P3: Holding cost, and Curve
P4: Setup cost.

1.1 74.55 Annual demand of an item ( D )  100000 / year

Ordering cost (Co )  Rs.30/order
Given :
Demand 50 70 75 80 85 Handling cost (Ch )  Rs.1.5/unit/year
Probability 0.15 0.14 0.21 0.20 0.30 Economic order quantity,
Expected demand is given by, 2Co D
 50  0.15  70  0.14  75  0.21 EOQ 
Ch
80  0.20  85  0.3  74.55
2  30 100000
Hence, the expected demand during lead time is EOQ   2000 units
74.55. 1.5
Number of order per year,
1.2 50
D 100000
N   50
Given : EOQ 2000

Industrial Engineering 3
 Hence, the total number of economic orders per Hence, the annual inventory holding cost is Rs.
year to meet the annual demand is 50. 35000.
1.3 (C) : Method 2 :
Given : 2 DC0
EOQ 
Production rate of bearing ( P)  12000/day Ch
Setup cost (Co )  Rs.500/production run 2  50000  7000
10000 
Carrying cost (Ch )  Rs.0.20/unit/month Ch
Consumption rate (r )  8000/day Ch  Rs.7 /unit/year
Number of days in one year  300 days Carrying cost /year,
Annual demand C 7
 h  EOQ  10000  Rs.35000
 r  Number of days in one year 2 2
D  300  8000 Hence, the annual inventory holding cost is Rs.
D  2400000 unit/year 35000.
Economic order quantity, 1.5 77.01
2Co D P Given :
EOQ  
Ch P  r Annual demand of rivets (D) = 2000 unit/year
Unit cost (C )  Rs.25/unit
2  500  2400000 12000
EOQ  Ordering cost (Co )  Rs.100 /order
0.2 12  12000  8000 
EOQ  54772.25 units Annual carrying cost per unit (Ch )  9% of C
Time period, 9
 Ch   25  Rs.2.25 / unit / year
EOQ 54772.25 100
T   6.8 days
r 8000 2 DCo 2  2000 100
EOQ  
Hence, the correct option is (C). Ch 2.25
1.4 35000 EOQ  421.637  422

Given : The cycle length of the order,

EOQ 422
Annual demand of a product ( D ) = 50000 units  T   0.211 year
D 2000
Ordering cost (Co ) = Rs.7000/order
T  0.211 365  77.01 days
Economic order quantity ( EOQ ) = 10000 units
Hence, the cycle length of the order will be 77.01
: Method 1 : days.
Number of order 1.6 2
D 50000
N  5 Given :
EOQ 10000
Annual demand of an item ( D )  10000 units
At EOQ,
Unit cost of item (C )  Rs.100
Carrying cost/year = Ordering cost/year
Carrying cost/year = Number of order  Holding cost (Ch )  0.144 100  Rs.14.4 /year
Ordering cost/order Ordering cost (Co )  Rs.2000 / order
Carrying cost = 5  7000  Rs.35000
Economic order quantity,

4 Industrial Engineering
 2 DCo 2 10000  2000 Case-2 : For 750-1499 quantity,
EOQ  
Ch 14.4 2 DCo 2  25000  500
EOQ  
EOQ  1666.67 units Ch 13
The times between two consecutive orders. EOQ  1386.75 kg
The cycle length of the order, EOQ falls on the range,
EOQ 1666.67 12 Total cost,
 T 12 
D 10000 1386.75
(TC )Q1386.75units  25000  65  13
T  2 months 2
Hence, the time between two consecutive orders to 25000
  500
meet the above demand is 2 months. 1386.75
1.7 1500 (TC )Q 1386.75units  Rs.1.64 106
Given : Annual demand of corn flour Case-3 : For range 1500 and above,
( D)  25000 kg/year 2 DCo 2  25000  500
EOQ  
Ordering cost (Co )  Rs.500/order Ch 12
Carrying cost (Ch )  20% of unit price EOQ  1443.38 kg
20 EOQ does not falls on this range, so minimum lot
Quantity Unit price Ch  C  size = 1500 units
(kg) 100
C = (Rs./kg)
(Rs./unit/year) Total cost at 1500 units,
1-749 70 14 1500
(TC )Q 1500units  25000  60  12
750-1499 65 13 2
1500 and 60 12 25000
above   500
1500
For optimal order quantity we have to check total (TC )Q 1500units  Rs.1.517 106
cost for every price category,
Q D Among these three ranges total cost is minimum at
Total cost  D  unit cost   Ch   Co 1500 units.
2 Q
Hence, the optimal order quantity is 1500 kg.
Case-1 : For 1- 749 quantity,
1.8 (C)
2 DCo 2  25000  500
EOQ  
Ch 0.20  70 Given :
Annual demand of tyre ( D)  9600 units/year
EOQ  1336.30 kg
Holding cost (Ch )  Rs.16/unit/year
Here EOQ is not in range, so in 1st category we can
order to size of 749 units. Ordering cost (Co )  Rs.75/order
Total cost, Economic order quantity,
749 2 DCo
(TC )Q749units  25000  70  14 EOQ 
2 Ch
25000
  500 2  9600  75
749 EOQ   300 units
16
(TC )Q 749units  Rs.1.771106 Hence, the correct option is (C).

Industrial Engineering 5
 1.9 943.6 1.12 5.32
Given : Annual demand ( D )  10000 /year Case 1 :
Ordering cost (C0 )  Rs.400 /order Given :
Demand ( D)  1000 pieces/yr
Holding cost (Ch )  Rs.24 /valve/year
Cycle time (T )  2 hr
Case-1 :
Downtime cost (C0 ) X  200  2  Rs.400
At order quantity (Q)  400 unit/order
Unit price (C ) X  Rs.10/piece
D Q
(TC )1   C0   Ch Holding cost (Ch ) X  10% of unit price
Q 2
10000 400 = 1/unit/year
(TC )1   400   24 Total cost per year,
400 2
(TC )1  Material cost
(TC )1  Rs. 14800
Ordering cost (Downtime cost)
Case-2 :
At EOQ ,  Holding cost
D Q
(TC)2  2DC0Ch (TC )1  DC   C0   Ch
Q 2
(TC ) 2  2  10000  400  24 1000 1000
(TC )1  (1000 10)   400  1
(TC )2  Rs. 13856.4  (TC)min 1000 2
Saving in total cost per year, ( Q  Order quantity)
(TC )1  (TC )2  Rs.943.6 (TC )1  Rs.10,900
Hence, the saving in the total cost of inventory per Case 2 :
year will be Rs.943.6. Given : Order quantity (Qy )  200 units
1.10 (B) and (Qx )  800 units
It is a method for lot sizing, where the net Cycle time for Y (T )  6 min  0.1 hr
requirements occurring for each period are the Downtime cost (Co )Y  0.1 200  Rs.20
quantity of order. This method is often used
Unit price (C )Y  5/piece
mainly for expensive items and the items whose
demand occurs intermittently. Holding cost = 100% of C (Ch )Y  Rs.5
Hence, the correct option is (B). Total cost per year,
(TC ) 2  (TC ) for X  (TC ) forY
1.11 (D)
 800 800 
Given : Earlier processing time (TP1 )  60 min (TC ) 2  (800 10)   400  1
 800 2 
Production rate, ( P1 )  4 pieces per hour  200 
 1 piece takes 15 min for processing.
 (200  5)  20   5
 2 
Now, processing time after 30% (TC )2  Rs.10,320
 0.7  60  42
So, percentage reduction in annual cost,
 Percentage decrease in process time
(TC )1  (TC ) 2
60  42  100
 100  30% (TC )1
60
10,900  10320
i.e., inventory decreases by 30% .  100  5.32%
Hence, the correct option is (D). 10,900
Hence, the percentage reduction in the annual cost
for Case 2, as compared to Case 1 is 5.32%.

6 Industrial Engineering
 Annual demand  300 15000  4500000
1.13 1137.147
Given : Demand ( D)  10000 / year 2 DC0  P 
Economic batch quantity 
Ordering cost (Co )  Rs. 300/order Ch  p  d 
Holding cost (Ch )  Rs. 4/unit/year 2  4500000 1800  30000 
  
Back order cost (Cb )  Rs. 25/unit/year 20  30000  15000 
Maximum inventory in system E.B.Q.  40249.2 bearings  40250 bearings
2 DCo  Cb  Hence, the economic batch quantity in number of
   bearings is 40250 bearings.
Ch  Cb  Ch 
1.16 (D)
2 10, 000  300  25 
  
4  25  4  CNC machines are not a form of inventory
 1137.147 units Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the maximum inventory reached in the
1.17 14
system is 1137.147 units.
Given :
1.14 36.67
Demand of certain part ( D)  1000 parts/year
Given : Cost (C )  Rs. 1000/part
Service level = 95%
For 95% service level Ordering cost (C0 )  Rs. 100 / order
z = 1.64 Lead time ( LT )  5 days
Lead time = 5 days
Holding cost (Ch )  Rs. 20/part/year
Mean, X  50 units
Standard deviation,  = 10 units
Safety stock  z
Recorder level    LT  SS
R.O.L
Where '  ' is average demand during lead time

SS  1.64  10 2  5 5 days
Where, R.O.L = Re-order level
 1.64  500 R.O.L  LT  d … (i)
 36.67 units Where, d  consumption per day
1000
Hence, the probability for the lead time period is d unit/day
365
36.67 units.
From equation (i),
1.15 40250 1000
R.O.L  5 
Given : 365
Production rate  30000 bearings /day R.O.L  13.69 14 parts
Demand rate  15000 bearings /day Hence, the inventory level for placing the orders is
Ch  20/unit/year 14 parts.
C0  1800/order
Working days  300

Industrial Engineering 7
 1.18 (A)

Curve P1
Cost per unit

Curve P2
Curve P3

Curve P4

Order quantity
Where, C1  Total cost, C2  Holding cost, C3  Setup cost,
C4  Production cost
Hence, the correct option is (A).



8 Industrial Engineering
2 Linear Programming Problem

2013 IIT Bombay 12 x1  6 x2  24

2.1 A linear programming problem is shown x1 , x2  0
below, The above linear programming problem has
Maximize Z  3 x  7 y [2 Marks]
Subject to 3 x  7 y  10 (A) Infeasible solution
4 x  6 y  8 , x, y  0 (B) Unbounded solution
It has [2 Marks] (C) Alternative optimum solutions
(A) An unbounded objective function (D) Degenerate solution
(B) Exactly one optimal solution 2.5 A firm uses a turning center, a milling center
(C) Exactly two optimal solution and a grinding machine to produce two parts.
(D) Infinitely many optimal solution The table below provides the machining time
required for each part and the maximum
2014 IIT Kharagpur
machining time available on each machine.
2.2 Consider an objective function The profit per unit on parts I and parts II are
Z ( x1 , x2 )  3x1  9 x2 and the constraints Rs.40 and Rs.100, respectively. The
x1  x2  8 maximum profit per profit per week of the
x1  2 x2  4 firm is Rs. _____.
[2 Marks]
x1  0, x2  0
Machining
The maximum value of the objective time required Maximum
function is ________. [2 Marks] for the machining
Type of machine part time
2015 IIT Kanpur machine (minutes) available per
II week
2.3 For the linear programming problem :
I ( x1 ) (minutes)
Maximize : Z  3x1  2 x2 ( x2 )
Subject to 2 x1  3x2  9 Turning
12 6 6000
center
x1  5x2  20 Milling
4 10 4000
x1 , x2  0 Center
Grinding
The above problem has [2 Marks] 2 3 1800
Machine
(A) Unbounded solution
(B) Infeasible solution 2017 IIT Roorkee
(C) Alternative optimum solution 2.6 Two models P and Q of a product earn
(D) Degenerate solution profits of Rs. 100 and Rs. 80 per piece,
respectively. Production times for P and Q
2016 IIT Kharagpur
are 5 hours and 3 hours, respectively, while
2.4 Maximize Z  15 x1  20 x2 the total production time available is 150
Subject to 12 x1  4 x2  36 hours. For a total batch size of 40, to

Industrial Engineering 1
 maximize profit, the number of units of P to both the states is very high and everything
be produced is ______. produced is sold.
[2 Marks] The absolute value of the difference in daily
2.7 Maximize Z  5 x1  3x2 subjected to (optimal) revenue of Shveta and Ashok is
x1  2 x2  10, x1  x2  8, x1 , x2  0 . In the ________ thousand rupees (round off to 2
decimal places).
starting simplex tableau, x1 and x2 are non
[2 Marks]
basic variables and the value of Z is zero.
2022 IIT Kharagpur
The value of Z in the next simplex table is
______. [2 Marks] 2.11 In a linear programming problem, if a
resource is not fully utilized, the shadow
2018 IIT Guwahati price of that resource is [1 Mark]
2.8 The minimum value of 3 x  5 y such that, (A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Zero (D) Infinity
3 x  5 y  15
2.12 An assignment problem is solved to
4x  9 y  8
minimize the total processing time of four
13 x  2 y  2 jobs (1, 2, 3 and 4) on four different
x  0, y  0 machines such that each job is processed
is _______. [2 Marks] exactly by one machine and each machine
2.9 The problem of maximizing z  x1  x2 processes exactly one job. The minimum
total processing time is found to be 500
subject to constraints x1  x2  10 , x1  0
minutes. Due to a change in design, the
and x2  5 has [2 Marks] processing time of Job 4 on each machine
(A) No solution has increased by 20 minutes. The revised
(B) One solution minimum total processing time will be
(C) Two solution ________ minutes (in integer). [2 Marks]
(D) More than two solution 2.13 A manufacturing unit produces two products
P1 and P2. For each piece of P1 and P2, the
2020 IIT Delhi
table below provides quantities of materials
2.10 Two business owners Shveta and Ashok run M1, M2, and M3 required, and also the profit
their businesses in two different states. Each earned. The maximum quantity available per
of them, independent of the other, produces day for M1, M2 and M3 is also provided.
two products A and B, sells them at Rs.2000 The maximum possible profit per day is Rs.
per kg and Rs.3000 per kg, respectively, and __________. [2 Marks]
uses Linear programming to determine the Profit
optimal quantity of A and B to maximize M1 M2 M3 per piece
their respective daily revenue. Their (Rs.)
constraints are as follows : (i) for each P1 2 2 0 150
business owner, the production process is P2 3 1 2 100
such that the daily production of A has to be Maximum 70 50 40
at least as much as B, and the upper limit for quantity
production of B is 10 kg per day, and (ii) the available
respective state regulations restrict Shveta’s per day
production of A to less than 20 kg per day,
and Ashok’s production of A to less than 15 (A) 5000 (B) 4000
kg per day. The demand of both A and B in (C) 3000 (D) 6000

2 Industrial Engineering
 2023 IIT Kanpur (A) Region P (B) Region Q
(C) Region R (D) Region S
2.14 Which one of the options given represents
the feasible region of the linear
programming model:
Maximize  45x1  60 x2 , x1  45, x2  50 ,
10 x1  10 x2  600, 25x1  5x2  750
x2
Q

P
R

x1

2.1 (B) Hence, exactly one optimal solution of the given

problem which is at the point B (0, 4 / 3).
Given : Max.( Z )  3x  7 y
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Subject to, 3 x  7 y  10 …(i)
..Method 2..
4x  6 y  8 …(ii)
x, y  0 Since, Slope of Z is equal to slope of 1st constraint,
but 1st constraint is not participating in feasible
..Method 1.. region.
Solution by graphical method, So, LPP has unique optimal solution.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.2 18
Given : Z ( x1 , x2 )  3x1  9 x2
x1  x2  8 …(i)
x1  2 x2  4 …(ii)
x1 , x2  0

Feasible region  (O  A  B  O ).
Since, at point A (2, 0),
Z  3 2  7  0  6
At point B (0, 4 / 3),
4 28
Z  3 0  7    9.33
3 3

Industrial Engineering 3
 This is solved using the graphical method. We get
two corner points (4, 0) and (0, 2). The objective
function is given by
At (4, 0),
Z  3 4  9  0  12
At (0, 2),
Z  3 0  9  2  18
Hence, the maximum value of the objective
function is 18.
2.3 (A)
Convert the linear programming problem into
standard form,
Maximum Z  3x1  2 x2
As we can see from the graphical solution we are
Subjected to,  2 x1  3x2  9 …(i)
not able to get bounded region hence, the above
 x1  5x2  20 …(ii) solution can be said as unbounded solution.
x1 , x2  0 Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.5 40,000
Given : Let number of parts I be x1 and number of
parts II be x2 .
Max. Z  40 x1  100 x2 .

As we can see from the graphical solution we are

not able to get bounded region hence, the above
solution can be said as unbounded solution.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
2.4 (B)
Given : Maximize : z  15x1  20 x2
Subjected to : 12 x1  4 x2  36 …(i)
12 x1  6 x2  24 …(ii) Subjected to
x1 , x2  0 12 x1  6 x2  6000 …(i)
4 x1  10 x2  4000 …(ii)
2 x1  3x2  1800 …(iii)
x1 , x2  0
Now, solving equation (i) and equation (ii),
x1  375 and x2  250
Putting the value of x1 and x2 to maximize Z .
Z  40 x1  100 x2

4 Industrial Engineering
Z at A (0, 0), Subjected to x1  2 x2  s1  10
Z 0 x1  x2  s2  8
Z at B (500, 0),
Z  40  500  100  0  20, 000 x1 , x2  0
Z at C (0, 400), ..Method 1..
Z  10  0  100  400  40, 000 Now, making a simplex table which show initial
Z at D (375, 250), basic feasible solution of given problem,
Z  40  375  100  250  40, 000
Optimal solution at C and D. But the firm will go
with point D because zero product cannot be
solution.
Hence, the maximum profit per week of the firm
is Rs. 40,000.
2.6 15
Given : Number of product ( P)  x1
Number of product (Q)  x2
Maximum Z  100 x1  80 x2
Subjected to ; 5 x1  3 x2  150 …(i) On the basis of above table, we make next table
x1  x2  40 …(ii) i.e., 2nd table.
Value of  is minimum positive for s2 , so
x1 , x2  0
s2 will leave in next table and x1 will enter
in place of s2 .
So, c j  Z j value of x1 is most positive and the
new row in new table for x1 is made by dividing
all element of that row by pivot element.

At point (0, 40),

Z  100  0  80  40  3200
At point (30, 0),
Z  100  30  80  0  3000
At point (15, 25), we have
Z  100 15  80  25  3500
Maximum profit is at (15, 25). So, optimal
solution is (15,25). So, optimal number of
P is 15.
Hence, the number of units of P to be produced is
15.
2.7 40
Given : Max. Z  5x1  3x2  0S1  0S2
Industrial Engineering
From this table we can say that value of x1  8
Since, x2 is not in basic, i.e., x2 is non basic.
So, x2  0
So in 2nd table x1  8 and x2  0
Putting this value of x1 and x2 in equation of Z.
So, the value of Z in next table i.e. in 2nd table is,
Z (8,0)  5  8  3  0  40
Hence, the value of Z in the next simplex table is
40.
..Method 2..
5
 By graphical method, Solving equation (ii) and equation (iii) we get
x  0.02 and y  0.88
Now checking at all corner points,
8
Z 8   3(0)  5    4.44
 0, 
 9 9
Z  0.02, 0.88  3(0.02)  5(0.88)  4.44
2
Z 2 
 3    5(0)  0.46
 , 0
 13   13 
Since, we known in simplex 1st table is always
Z  0, 0   3(0)  5(0)  0
origin i.e. (0, 0) and 2nd table will be next corner
point either in clockwise or counter clockwise.  Minimum value Z min is at the point (0, 0) and
Here, Z  5 x1  3x2 Z min  0 .
Coefficient of x1  Coefficient of x2 Hence, the correct answer is 0.
So, next corner point is along axis x1 , ..Method 2..
So, 2nd table will be (8, 0). Since all constraints are of  sign i.e. feasible
So value of Z in 2nd table is, region will contain point (0,0).
Z  5  8  3 0  40 So, minimum value of Z is at (0,0).
Hence, the value of Z in the next simplex table is So, Z min  3  0  5  0  0 .
40.
Hence, the correct answer is 0.
2.8 0
Given : Min. Z  3 x  5 y  Key Point
The minimum value (0, 0) is considered because
Subjected to ;
it is a basic LPP and not associated with
3 x  5 y  15 …(i)
manufacturing based problem.
4x  9 y  8 …(ii)
13 x  2 y  2 …(iii) 2.9 (B)

x  0, y  0 Given : Max. Z  x1  x2
..Method 1.. Subjected to, x1  x2  10 …(i)
Graphical solution,
x2  5
…(ii)
..Method 1..
Graphical solution,

6 Industrial Engineering
 Z 0
(0,0) 2.13 (B)
Z (10,0)  10 (only one optimum solution)
Profit
Z 0 per
(5,5)
M1 M2 M3
piece
Z (0,5)  5 (Rs.)
P1 2 2 0 150
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3 1 2 100
P2
..Method 2.. Maximum 70 50 40
quantity
Since, slope of Z is not equal to slope of any one
available
constraint, so unique optimal solution.
per day
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.10 10 2 x  3 y  70 …(i)
Maximum z  2000 x1  3000 x2 2 x  y  50 …(ii)
2 y  40 …(iii)
A  x1 units x1  x2
Z  150 x  100 y …(iv)
B  x2 units x2  10
From equation (i),
x1  20 70
When x  0, then y   (0,70 / 3)
x1  15 3
Shveta’s Profit = Rs. 70000 at (20, 10) y  0, then x  35  (35, 0)
Ashok’s Profit = Rs. 60000 at (15, 10) From equation (ii),
Difference Rs. 10000 When x  0 then y  50  (0,50)
Hence, the absolute value of the difference in daily y  0, then x  25  (25, 0)
(optimal) revenue of Shveta and Ashok is 10
From equation (iii),
thousand rupees.
y  40
2.11 (C)
In linear programming problem, if a resource is (0,50) 50
not fully utilized, the shadow price of that
resource will be zero. 40

Hence the correct option is (C). 30

(5, 20)
 70 
2.12 520  0, 3  B
  20 y  20 [0, 20]
Given : (20,10)
10
No. of Machine (M )  M1 , M 2 , M 3 , M 4
0
No. of job ( J )  J1 , J 2 , J 3 , J 4 10 20 30 40 50
D
Total minimum processing time  500 min (25, 0) (35, 0)

Processing time increased for each job  20 min 0  70

0  50
Hence the revised total minimum processing time
0  40
 520 min
Point B: Intersection of
Hence, the correct answer is 520. 2 x  3 y  70

Industrial Engineering 7
 2 y  40
2.14 (B)
x  5 and y  20
x2
Point C: Intersection of Q
2 x  3 y  70
2 x  y  50 S
After solving, we get x  20 and y  10 P
R
From equation (iv),
x1
Z  150 x  100 y
Z A  150(0)  100(20)  2000
Maximize z  45x1  60 x2
Z B  150(5)  100(20)  2750
x1  45
ZC  150(20)  100(10)  4000 x2  50
Z D  150(25)  100(0)  3750 10 x1  10 x2  600
Zmax  4000 at x  20 and y  0 25 x1  5 x2  750
Hence, the correct option is (B). Since, there is only Q region is enclosed by all the
equation.
Hence, the correct option is (B).



8 Industrial Engineering
3 Transportation & Assignment Model

optimized (the minimum) total

2014 IIT Kharagpur
transportation cost is Y (in Rupee), then (X –
3.1 The total number of decision variables in the Y), in Rupee, is [2 Marks]
objective function of an assignment problem
(A) 0 (B) 15
of size n  n (n jobs and n machines) is
(C) 35 (D) 105
[1 Mark]
(A) n 2
(B) 2n 2019 IIT Madras
(C) 2n  1 (D) n 3.3 Five jobs (J1, J2, J3, J4 and J5) need to be
processed in a factory. Each job can be
2017 IIT Roorkee assigned to any of the five different
3.2 A product made in two factories, P and Q , machines (M1, M2, M3, M4 and M5). The
time durations taken (in minutes) by the
is transported to two destination R and S .
machines for each of the jobs, are given in
The per unit costs of transportation (in the table. However, each job is assigned to a
Rupees) from factories to destinations are as specific machine in such a way that the total
per the following matrix : processing time is minimum. The total
Destination processing time is _______ minutes.
Factory
R S [2 Marks]
P 10 7 M1 M2 M3 M4 M5
Q 3 4 J1 40 30 50 50 58
Factory P produces 7 units and factory Q J2 26 38 60 26 38
produces 9 units of the product. Each J3 40 34 28 24 30
destination requires 8 units. If the north-west J4 28 40 40 32 48
corner method provides the total J5 28 32 38 22 44
transportation cost X (in Rupee) and the

3.1 (A) P 10 7
Q 3 4
A, n  n assignment problem, if it is solved as a
By North-West corner rule (NWCR).
LPP it will have n 2 variables.
 x11 , x12 , x21 , x22 ..........xnn 
Hence, the correct option is (A).

3.2 28
Given :
Destination
Factory
R S

Industrial Engineering 1
 Number of machine = 5
M1 M2 M3 M4 M5
J1 40 30 50 50 58
J2 26 38 60 26 38
Total cost by NWCR, J3 40 34 28 24 30
(T .C ) NWCR  X  7 10  1 3  8  4 J4 28 40 40 32 48
(T .C ) NWCR  Rs.105 J5 28 32 38 22 44

Now, initial basic feasible solution by least cost By selecting minimum value of each row and then
method, subtracting it from each value,
M1 M2 M3 M4 M5
J1 10 0 20 20 28
J2 0 12 34 0 12
J3 16 10 4 0 6

Now applying u  v method (or) MODI method. J4 0 12 12 4 20

J5 6 10 16 0 22
Now applying same as row operation in column by
taking value of column in which no value is zero.
M1 M2 M3 M4 M5
J1 10 0 16 20 22
Here we have only one non basic (unallocated) J2 0 12 30 0 6
cell i.e., cell C11 in which Cij  10 and for that J3 16 10 0 0 0
cell, J4 0 12 8 4 14
Zij  u1  v1  0  6 J5 6 10 12 0 16
Zij  6 From the above table it is seen that only 4
and, value of Cij  Zij  10  6  ( ) positive assignment is in process which is not applicable.
So, we make a new table for the assignment by
Cij  Z ij value for non-basic is positive.
taking horizontal and vertical line for covering
So, this table is optimal and corresponding total maximum zero.
cost will be minimum.
So, (TC )min  Y  8  3  1 4  7  7
(TC )min  Rs.77
So, X  Y  105  77  Rs.28
Hence, the correct answer is 28 and no option is
correct.
3.3 146
Given : Number of jobs = 5

2 Industrial Engineering
New table is made by taking smallest value from
uncovered value and subtracting from uncovered
value and adding on junction value.
Applying row and column operation,
M1 M2 M3 M4 M5
J1 16 0 16 26 22
J2 0 6 24 0 0
J3 22 10 0 6 0

J4 0 6 2 4 8

J5 6 4 6 0 10
Then, the total job assigned are,
M1 M2 M3 M4 M5
J1 30
J2 38
J3 28
J4 28
J5 22
Hence, the total minimum processing time
 30  38  28  28  22  146
Hence, the total processing time is 146.



Industrial Engineering 3
4 CPM & PERT

e c 2
2014 IIT Kharagpur
f c 4
4.1 A project has four activities P, Q, R and S g d, e 5
as shown below, (A) 0 and 4 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 1

2015 IIT Kanpur

4.4 Following data refers to the activities of a
project, where node 1 refers to the start and
node 5 refers to the end of the project.
[2 Marks]
The normal cost of the project is Rs. 10,000/-
Activity Duration (days)
and the overhead costs Rs. 200/- per day. If
the project duration has to be crashed down 1-2 2
to 9 days, the total cost (in Rupees) of the 2-3 1
project is ______. [2 Marks] 4-3 3
4.2 Consider the given project network, where 1-4 3
numbers along various activities represent 2-5 3
normal time. The free float on activity 4-6 3-5 2
and the project duration, respectively are
4-5 4
[2 Marks]
The critical path (CP) in the network is
(A) 1-2-3-5 (B) 1-4-3-5
(C) 1-2-3-4-5 (D) 1-4-5
4.5 A project consists of 7 activities. The
network along with the time durations (in
days) for various activities is shown in figure
[2 Marks]
(A) 2 and 13 (B) 0 and 13
(C) – 2 and 13 (D) 2 and 12
4.3 The precedence relations and duration (in
days) of activities of a project network are
given in the table. The total float (in days) of
activity e and f , respectively are The minimum time (in days) for completion
of the project is _____.
[2 Marks]
Job Predecessors Duration (days) 2016 IISc Bangalore
a – 2 4.6 In PERT chart, the activity time distribution
b – 4 is [1 Mark]
c a 2 (A) Normal (B) Binomial
d b 3 (C) Poisson (D) Beta

Industrial Engineering 1
 4.7 A project consists of 14 activities, A to N. (in weeks)
The duration of these activities (in days) are P - 5
shown in brackets on the network diagram.
Q - 1
The latest finish time (in days) for node 10 is
_______ . [2 Marks] R Q 2
S P, R 4
T P 6
U S, T 3
If all activities other than S take the
estimated amount of time, the maximum
duration (in weeks) of the activity S without
delaying the completion of the project is
2017 IIT Roorkee ________. [2 Marks]
4.8 A project starts with activity A and ends with 4.11 The activities of a project, their duration and
activity F. The precedence relation and the precedence relationship are given in the
durations of the activities are as per the table. For example in a precedence
following table : relationship " X  Y , Z " means that X is a
Immediate Duration predecessor of activities Y and Z. The time to
Activity
predecessor (days) complete the activities along the critical path
A - 4
is ______ weeks. [2 Marks]
B A 3
C A 7 Duration
Activities Precedence
D B 14 (Week)
E C 4 A 5 A  B.C.D
F D, E 9 B 7 B  E.F.G
The minimum project completion time (in C 10 CI
days) is ________. [2 Marks] D 6 DG
2018 IIT Guwahati E 3 EH
F 9 FI
4.9 The arc lengths of a directed graph of a
G 7 GI
project are as shown in the figure. The
shortest path length from node 1 to node 6 is
H 4 HI
_______. [2 Marks] I 2 _________
(A) 25 (B) 21
(C) 17 (D) 23

2020 IIT Delhi

4.12 In the critical path method (CPM), the cost
time slope of an activity is given by
[1 Mark]
2019 IIT Madras Crash cost
(A)
4.10 A project consists of six activities. The Crash time  Normal time
immediate predecessor of each activity and Crash cost  Normal cost
the estimated duration is also provided in the (B)
Normal time  Crash time
table below,
Normal cost
Activity Precedence Activity time (C)
Crash time  Normal time

2 Industrial Engineering
 Crash cost  Normal cost immediate predecessors of these activities
(D)
Crash time are given in the table. If the project is to be
4.13 Consider the following network of activities, completed in the minimum possible time, the
with each activity named A  L , illustrated latest finish time for the activity G is
in the nodes of the network. ____________ hours. [2 Marks]
Immediate
Activity Time (hours)
predecessors
A 2 -
B 3 -
C 2 -
D 4 A
The number of hours required for each E 5 B
activity is shown alongside the nodes. The F 4 B
slack on the activity L is _______ hours.
G 3 C
[1 Mark]
H 10 D, E
2021 IIT Bombay I 5 F
4.14 Activities A, B, C and D form the critical J 8 G
path for a project with a PERT network. The
K 3 H, I, J
means and variances of the activity duration
for each activity are given below. All activity (A) 5 (B) 10
durations follow the Gaussian (normal) (C) 8 (D) 9
distribution, and are independent of each 4.17 A project consists of five activities (A, B, C,
other. D and E). The duration of each activity
Activity A B C D follows beta distribution. The three time
Mean 6 11 8 15 estimates (in weeks) of each activity and
(days) immediate predecessor(s) are listed in the
Variance 4 9 4 9 table. The expected time of the project
2
(days ) completion is __________ weeks (in
The probability that project will be integer). [2 Marks]
completed within 40 days is_______(round
off to two decimal places). [2 Marks] Time estimates Immediat
(Note : Probability is a number between 0 Activ (in weeks) e
and 1). ity predecess
Optimi Mo Pessimi
4.15 A PERT network has 9 activities on its stic st stic or(s)
critical path. The standard deviation of each time like time
activity on the critical path is 3. The standard ly
deviation of the critical path is. tim
[1 Mark] e
(A) 27 (B) 81 A 4 5 6 None
(C) 3 (D) 9 B 1 3 5 A
C 1 2 3 A
2022 IIT Kharagpur D 2 4 6 C
4.16 Activities A to K are required to complete a E 3 4 5 B, D
project. The time estimates and the

Industrial Engineering 3
 4.1 12500
Given : Normal cost of project (C )  10, 000
Overhead cost of project (Co )  200 / day
Project duration
= Length of longest path ( P  R  S )
 3  4  5  12 days.
Total cost of project
= Normal cost + Overhead cost
 10000  12  200  Rs.12400 .
Now start crashing critical path. ( P  R  S )
Since, activity S has least cost slope.
So, crash activity S by 2 days.
So, new project duration = 10 days.
New project duration
= Previous total cost
+ Extra crashing cost paid
– Overhead cost saving
 12400  2  200  2  200
 Rs.12400
Now we have two parallel critical paths.
i.e., P-R-S and P  Q = 10 days
Now the crashing options available are
(i) P  Cost slope = Rs. 500/day
(ii) (Q  R)  Cost slope
 100  400  Rs.500/day
(iii) (Q  S )  Cost slope
 100  200  Rs.300/day
Minimum cost slope is for (Q  S )
4 Industrial Engineering
So, crash (Q  S ) by one day
So, new project duration = 9 days.
New total cost
= Previous total cost
+ Extra crashing cost paid
– Overhead cost saving
 12400  1 300 1 200  Rs.12500 .
So, to do the project in 9 days. Total cost of the
project will, Rs. 12500.
Hence, the total cost of the project is 12,500.
 Key Point
Q is in parallel with (R and S)
So, for reducing project duration by one day we
need to either crash (Q  R ) or (Q  S ) by one
day.
But in series, crashing of individual activities
can be done.
4.2 (A)
Network flow diagram,
Project duration = Value of E on last note
= 13 days.
Free float ( F .F )i  j  E j  Ei  dij
So, free float for activity 4  6 is,
( F .F )46  ( E6  E4  d46 )
( F .F )46  8  2  4  2 days.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.3 (B)
..Method 2..

(T .F )ij  L j  Ei  dij
So, (T .F )e  (T .F )45  L5  E4  d45
(T .F )e  (T .F )45  7  4  2  1 day
(T .F ) f  (T .F ) 46  L6  E4  d 46
(T .F ) f  (T .F ) 46  12  4  4  4 days.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.4 (B)
Given : So critical path is 1–4–3–5.
Activity Duration (days) Hence, the correct option is (B).
1-2 2 ..Method 3..
2-3 1 Calculating the length of path of all multiple
4-3 3 choice given.
1. 1  2  3  5  2  1  2  5days
1-4 3
2-5 3 2. 1  4  3  5  3  3  2  8days
3-5 2 3. 1  4  5  3  4  7 days
4-5 4 Critical path = Longest path
So, critical path is 1  4  3  5 .
..Method 1..
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Network flow diagram :
4.5 40

..Method 1..
According to question,
Paths Duration
1-3-5-6 12+11+10 = 33
1-2-5-6 14+12+10 = 36
The length of various path of network are, 1-2-4-5-6 14+7+9+10 = 40
1. 1  2  5  2  3  5days So, critical path is 1-2-4-5-6 ,
2. 1  2  3  5  2  1  2  5days Hence, the minimum time for completion of the
3. 1  4  3  5  3  3  2  8days project is 40 days.
4. 1  4  5  3  4  7 days
Critical path = Longest path of network
So, critical path is 1  4  3  5

Industrial Engineering 5
 ..Method 2.. Hence, the latest finish time for node 10 is 14
According to question, days.
4.8 30

..Method 1..
The given project is,

Minimum completion time of project

= Value of E on last node = 40 days
Hence, the minimum time for completion of the Path 1-2-3-5-6 take maximum time to complete,
project is 40 days. i.e., critical path.
 Key Point So, minimum completion time of project
Forward pass method, = Length of longest path
tc  4  3  14  9  30 days.
Hence, the minimum project completion time is 30
days.
..Method 2..

E = Taking maximum of {23, 26,30} i.e., 30.

4.6 (D)
In PERT, activity time are beta distribution and Minimum project completion time
project completion time are normal distribution. = Value of E on last node
Hence, the correct option is (D). = 30 days
4.7 14 Hence, the minimum project completion time is
30 days.
Given : Number of projects (n)  14
Notations have their usual meanings 4.9 7
According to the question first we have to find out
the shortest path,
Path Time
1 2  4  6 242 8
1  2  3  5  6 2  1  3  4  10
1 3  5  6 4  3  4  11
1 2  5  6 224 8
1 2  5  4  6 2  2 1 2  7
For activity M (3),
1  3  5  4  6 4  3  1  2  10
From the above calculation we see that the shortest
path is 1-2-5-4-6 .
LFT(10)  17  3  14days

6 Industrial Engineering
Shortest length  7
It is the problem of shortest path which will be 7.
In this question, we don’t have to confuse with
critical path/minimum project completion time.
Hence, the shortest path length from node 1 to
node 6 is 7.
4.10 6
According to question,
Project duration
= Sum of longest path or critical path
Longest or critical path is 1-2-4-7-8.
 5  7  9  2  23 weeks
Hence, the time to complete the activities along
the critical path is 23 weeks.
4.12 (B)
Critical path of network :
1st longest path of network, According to question,
1  2  5  6  5  6  3  14 weeks
Total project duration is 14 weeks.
2nd longest path of network,
1  2  4  5  6  5  0  4  3  12 weeks
Maximum delay for S will be,
14 12  2 weeks
Hence, maximum duration of S is,
4  2  6 weeks
Hence, the maximum duration of the activity S
without delaying the completion of the project is 6 Where, CC  Crash cost, CN  Normal cost,
weeks.
TN  Normal time, TC  Crash time
4.11 23
Given :
Activity Precedence Duration (weeks)
A – 5
B A 7
C A 10
D A 6
E B 3 CC  C N
F B 9 Cost slope  tan  
TN  TC
G B, D 7
Hence, the correct option is (B).
H E 4
I C , F , G, H 2

Industrial Engineering 7
 4.13 2 2 D
A 4
According to question, B E H (E.T)
3 5 21
F 10 K
4 I
C 3
2 5 J 21
18
8 (L.T)
G (L.T)
3
10
(L.T)

Time along path A-B-C-F -I -J -K  42 hours Hence, the correct option is (B).
Time along path A-B-C-E-H -L  31 hours 4.17 15
Time along path A-B-C -D-G -H -L  40 hours
Time estimates (in
Slack for L  42  40  2 hours weeks)
Hence, the slack on the activity L is 2 hours. Mos
4.14 0.5 t Pess Immediate
Optim
Activity likel imis predecessor
Given : istic
y tic (s)
Activity A B C D time
time time
Mean (days) 6 11 8 15 ( to )
(tm ) ( t p )
Variance (days2) 4 9 4 9
A, B, C, D are critical activities A 4 5 6 None
Project duration : 40 days B 1 3 5 A
Probability that project will be completed in C 1 2 3 A
40 days is D 2 4 6 C
T T 40  40
Z S E  E 3 4 5 B, D
 
TS  40 given  We know that,
Z 0 to  4tm  t p
Expected time, TE 
P  Z  0   50%  0.5 6
Hence, the probability that project will be Therefore,
completed within 40 days is 0.5. Time estimates (in Immed
weeks) iate TE
4.15 (D) Activity
( to ) ( t m ) (t p ) predec
Activities along critical path  9 essor(s)
Standard deviation of each activity is 3 A 4 5 6 None 5
SD along critical path B 1 3 5 A 3
C 1 2 3 A 2
 12  22  32  24  52  62  72  82  92 D 2 4 6 C 4
E 3 4 5 B, D 4
( SD)cp  (3) 2  9
( SD)cp  9
Hence, the correct option is (D).
4.16 (B)
Latest finish time for activity G  10 hours

8 Industrial Engineering
 A B E
5 3 4

2 D
C
4

Projected completion time  5  2  4  4  15

Hence, the expected time of the project completion
is 15 weeks.



Industrial Engineering 9
5 Queuing Theory

situation, the letters ‘b’ and ‘d’ stand

2013 IIT Bombay
respectively for [1 Mark]
5.1 Customers arrive at a ticket counter at a (A) Service time distribution and queue
rate of 50 per hr and tickets are issued in discipline
the order of their arrival. The average time (B) Number of servers and size of calling
taken for issuing a ticket is 1 min. source
assuming that customer arrivals form a (C) Number of servers and queue discipline
Poisson process and service times are
(D) Service time distribution and maximum
exponentially distributed, the average
number allowed in system
waiting time in queue in min is [1 Mark]
(A) 3 (B) 4 2016 IISc Bangalore
(C) 5 (D) 6 5.6 In a single-channel queuing model, the
customer arrival rate is 12 per hour and the
2014 IIT Kharagpur
serving rate is 24 per hour. The expected
5.2 The jobs arrive at a facility, for service, in a time that a customer is in queue is _______
random manner. The probability minutes. [1 Mark]
distribution of number of arrivals of jobs in
a fixed interval is [1 Mark] 2017 IIT Roorkee
(A) Normal (B) Poisson 5.7 For a single server with Poisson arrival and
(C) Erlang (D) Beta exponential service time, the arrival rate is
5.3 Jobs arrive at a facility at an average rate of 12 per hour. Which one of the following
5 in an 8 hour shift. The arrival of the jobs service rates will provide a steady state finite
follows Poisson distribution. The average queue length? [1 Mark]
service time of a job on the facility is 40 (A) 6 per hour (B) 10 per hour
minutes. The service time follows (C) 12 per hour (D) 24 per hour
exponential distribution. Idle time (in hour)
at the facility per shift will be [2 Marks] 2018 IIT Guwahati
5 14 5.8 The arrival of customers over fixed time
(A) (B)
7 3 intervals in a bank follow a Poisson
7 10 distribution with an average of 30
(C) (D)
3 3 customers/hours. The probability that the
5.4 At a work station, 5 jobs arrive every minute. time between successive customer arrival is
The mean time spent on each job in the work between 1 and 3 minutes is _______.
1 (correct to two decimal places). [1 Mark]
station is minute. The mean steady state
8 2021 IIT Bombay
number of jobs in the system is ________.
5.9 Customers arrive at a shop according to the
[2 Marks]
Poisson distribution with a mean of 10
2015 IIT Kanpur customers/hour. The manager notes that no
5.5 In the notation (a/b/c) : (d/e/f) for customer arrives for the first 3 minutes after
summarizing the characteristics of queuing

Industrial ENgineering 1
 the shop opens. The probability that a distribution with a mean arrival rate of 12
customer arrives within the next 3 minutes is jobs/hour. The process time of the work
(A) 0.86 (B) 0.61 station is exponentially distributed with a
(C) 0.50 (D) 0.39 mean of 4 minutes. The expected number of
5.10 Consider a single machine workstation to jobs at the work station at any given point of
which jobs arrive according to a Poisson time is_______ (round off to the nearest
integer). [2 Marks]

5.1 (C) Service rate ()  8 jobs/min

The mean steady state number of jobs in the
Given : Arrival rate ( )  50 customers/hr
system is,
1
Service rate ()   60  60customers/hr  5
1 LS  
 85
Average waiting time in queue,
 5
Wq  LS   1.67
(  ) 3
Hence, the mean steady state number of jobs in the
50
Wq   60  5min system is 1.67.
60   60  50
Hence, the correct option is (C). 5.5 (A)
Kendall’s notation : It is a shorthand notation of
5.2 (B)
the type a / b / c : d / e / f . This notation may be
In queuing model customer’s arrival is in random
easily applied to cover a large number of simple
manner. So, arrival rate follows Poisson’s
queuing scenarios. The various standard meanings
distribution.
associated with each of these letters are
Hence, the correct option is (B).
summarized below, (a / b / c : d / e / f ) .
5.3 (B) Where, a is the inter-arrival time distribution
Given : Arrival rate ()  5 Jobs / shift b is the service time distribution
Average service time = 40 min c gives the number of servers in the queue
Service rate, d is the queuing discipline that is followed.
8  60 The typical ones are First Come First
  12 / shift Served (FCFS), Last Come First Served
40
( 1 shift = 8 hours = 8  60 min) (LCFS), Service in Random Order (SIRO)
etc. If this is not given then the default
Probability that server is idle,
queuing discipline of FCFS is assumed.
 5 7
 1  P0  1   1   e is the no of person allowed in the system.
 12 12
f is the size of calling source (population).
Idle time per shift,
Hence, the correct option is (A).
= Probability of idle  Shift hour
7 14  Key Point
 8  In simple queuing model we deal with model
12 3
M / M /1 : FCFS /  /  .
Hence, the correct option is (B).
5.4 1.67 5.6 2.5

Given : Arrival rate ()  5 jobs/min Given : Arrival rate ()  12 customers / hr

2 Industrial Engineering
Service rate ()  24 / hr P 1,3  0.303
Waiting time in queue, Hence, the nearest option is (D).
 12
Wq   5.10 4
(  ) 24  (24  12)
Given :
1
Wq  hr  2.5min Arrival rate,   12 Jobs/hour
24 Service rate,   4 minutes/Job
Hence, the expected time that a customer is in 60
queue is 2.5 min.   15 Jobs /hour
4
5.7 (D)  12
   0.8
Given : Arrival rate ()  12/hr  15
 0.8 0.8
For infinite queue length allowed,    LS     4 Job
1   1  0.8 0.2
So, out of all four multiple choice given (D) is
Hence, the expected number of jobs at the work
correct i.e.   24 / hour .
station at any given point of time is 4.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
5.8 0.383 
30 1
Given : Arrival rate ()  = /min
60 2
P  1  e  t
1
 1
P(1)  1  e 2
 0.393
1
 3
t
P(3)  1  e  1 e 2
 0.7768
P (between successive customers arrival between
1 and 3 min)
 0.7768  0.393  0.383
Hence, the probability that the time between
successive customer arrival is between 1 and 3
minutes is 0.383.
5.9 D
Given:   10 customers/hour, t = 3 minutes
3
 hour
60
n = 1 (for one customer to arrive)
The probability that a customer arrive within the
next 3 minutes is,
et  t 
n

P  n, t  
n!
1
60 
3 
3
10
e 10  
P 1,3   60 
1!
Industrial ENgineering 3
6 Forecasting

Regarding forecast for the month of June,

2013 IIT Bombay
which one of the following statements is
6.1 In simple exponential smoothing TRUE? [1 Mark]
forecasting, to give higher weightage to (A) Moving average will forecast a higher
recent demand information, the smoothing value compared to regression
constant must be close to [1 Mark] (B) Higher the value of order N, the greater
(A) – 1 (B) Zero will be the forecast value by moving
(C) 0.5 (D) 1.0 average.
2014 IIT Kharagpur (C) Exponential smoothing will forecast a
higher value compared to regression.
6.2 In exponential smoothening method, which (D) Regression will forecast a higher value
one of the following is true? [1 Mark] compared to moving average.
(A) 0    1 and high value of  is used for 6.5 For a canteen the actual demand for
stable demand disposable cups was 500 units in January and
(B) 0    1 and high value of  is used for 600 units in February. The forecast for the
unstable demand month of January was 400 units. The
(C)   1 and high value of  is used for forecast for the month of March considering
stable demand smoothing coeffi-cient as 0.75 is _______.
(D)   0 and high value of  is used for [2 Marks]
unstable demand
6.3 The actual sales of a product in different 2016 IISc Bangalore
months of a particular year are given below, 6.6 The demand for a two-wheeler was 900 units
September 180 and 1030 units in April 2015 and May 2015,
October 280 respectively. The forecast for the month of
November 250 April 2015 was 850 units. Considering a
December 190 smoothing constant of 0.6, the forecast for
January 240 the month of June 2015 is [2 Marks]
February ? (A) 850 units (B) 927 units
The forecast of the sales, using the 4 months (C) 965 units (D) 970 units
moving average method, for the month of
February is _______. [1 Mark] 2018 IIT Guwahati

2015 IIT Kanpur 6.7 The time series forecasting method that
6.4 Sales data of a product is given the following gives equal weightage to each of the m most
table : recent observations is [1 Mark]
Month Number of units (A) Moving average method
January 10 (B) Exponential smoothing with linear trend
February 11 (C) Triple Exponential smoothing
March 16
April 19 (D) Kalman filter
May 25

Industrial Engineering 1
 2019 IIT Madras smoothing coefficient used in forecasting the
demand is [2 Marks]
6.8 The table presents the demand of a product.
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.40
By simple three-months moving average
method, the demand-forecast of the product (C) 0.10 (D) 1.0
for the month of September is [1 Mark] 2021 IIT Bombay
Month Demand 6.10 The demand and forecast of an item for five
January 450 months are given in the table.
February 440 Month Demand Forecast
March 460 April 225 200
April 510 May 220 240
June 285 300
May 520
July 290 270
June 495 August 250 230
July 475
August 560 The Mean Absolute Percent Error (MAPE)
in the forecast is _____________
(A) 536.67 (B) 530 %. [2 Marks]
(C) 490 (D) 510 2022 IIT Kharagpur
2020 IIT Delhi 6.11 An electric car manufacturer underestimated
6.9 The forecast for the monthly demand of a the January sales of car by 20 units, while the
product is given in the table below. actual sales was 120 units. If the
manufacturer uses exponential smoothing
Month Forecast Actual sales method with a smoothing constant of α = 0.2,
1 32.00 30.00 then the sales forecast for the month of
2 31.80 32.00 February of the same year is
3 31.82 30.00 ___________units (in integer). [1 Mark]
The forecast is made by using exponential
smoothing method. The exponential

6.1 (D)  0    1 and, if   1

Ft 1  Dt
In exponential smoothing forecast,
Ft 1  Dt  (1  ) Ft 6.2 (B)
If   1 then Ft 1  Dt . Range of smoothing constant () is 0    1
So, if we want to give more weightage for recent 2
demand then the value of  should higher. and,  
N 1
Hence, the correct option is (D). where, N  1, 2,3,.... number of periods.
 Key Point Case 1 : For stable demand.
For more weightage of previous demand, The fluctuation of demand of product over the
  (1   ) time is less so, we can take more number of
1 periods for forecast of next period.
 N  Large
2
2 Industrial Engineering
So,   Low So, forecast for June month by average method
Case 2 : For unstable demand. (i.e. by exponential smoothing) is in between 10 to
The fluctuation of demand of product is very large 25 units, but for increasing trend, regression will
so, less number of period is used for forecast of forecast a value more than 25 units.
next period. Hence, the correct option is (D).
N  Less
6.5 568.75
So,   High
Hence, the correct option is (B). Given : Smoothing coefficient ()  0.75
6.3 240 Month Demand Forecast
Jan. 500 400
Given :
Feb. 600
Month Sales
Sep. 180 ..Method 1..
Oct. 280 Now, first we calculate the forecast for February
Nov. 250 month on the basis of given data,
Dec. 190 FFeb  DJan  (  1)  FJan
Jan. 240 FFeb  0.75  500  (1  0.75)  400
Forecast for next months by four month moving FFeb  475 units
average,
Forecast for the month of March is,
DJan  DDec  DNov  DOct
FFeb  FMarch  DFeb  (1  )  FFeb
n
240  190  250  280 FMarch  0.75  600  (1  0.75)  475
FFeb   240
4 FMarch  568.75 units
Hence, the forecast of the sales, using the 4 months Hence, the forecast for the month of March
moving average method, for the month of considering smoothing coefficient as 0.75 is
February is 240. 568.75 units.
 Key Point ..Method 2..
In simple moving average most recent data gives
FMarch   DFeb  (1  ) DJan  (1  )2 FJan
current scenario of market so, for taking average
we should use most recent demand data of FMarch  0.75  600  0.75  0.25  500  0.252  400
specified number of periods. FMarch  568.75units
6.4 (D) Hence, the forecast for the month of March
The given demand pattern is of increasing considering smoothing coefficient as 0.75 is
trend. 568.75 units.
6.6 (D)
Given : Smoothing constant ( )  0.6
Month Demand Forecast
April 900 850
May 1030
First we calculate the forecast for May 2015,
And average always lie in between the end points. FMay  DApr  (1  )  FApr

Industrial Engineering 3
 FMay  0.6  900  (1  0.6)  850 31.82  32  (1  )31.8
FMay  880 units  32  31.8  31.8

Now, forecast for the month of June 2015, 31.82  31.8  (32  31.8)
FJune    DMay  (1  )  FMay   0.1
Hence, the correct option is (C).
FJune  0.6 1030  (1  0.6)  880
6.10 8.068
FJune  970 units
Di Error Di  Fi
Hence, the correct option is (D). Month Fi  100
Demand Di  Fi Di
6.7 (A)
April 225 200 25 11.1
Forecast by simple moving average method for a May 220 240 20 9.09
time period t is given by, June 285 300 15 5.26
Dt 1  Dt 2  .....  Dt n July 290 270 20 6.89
Ft 
n August 250 230 20 8.00
Where, n  Number of periods taken for moving 40.34
average. Mean absolute percentage error (MAPE)
Example : Number of periods considered for Di  Fi
taking moving average. n
 100
Di
MAPE  
40.34
Simple moving average of 4 month. 
i 1 n 5
D  D5  D4  D3 MAPE  8.068
F7  6
4 Hence, the Mean Absolute Percent Error (MAPE)
1 1 1 1 in the forecast is 8.068 %.
F7   D6   D5   D4   D3
4 4 4 4 6.11 104
1
So, weightage of all demand is equal i.e., . Forecast of January, FJan  DJan  20
4
Hence, the correct option is (A).  20 units is under estimated in January 

6.8 (D) FJan  120  20  100

In three months moving average method we used Forecast for the month of February,
most recent data for calculating forecast for FFeb  FJan  [ DJan  FJan ]
upcoming period. FFeb  100  0.2[120  100]
F  FJuly  FJune
FSept  Aug FFeb  104
3
Hence, the sales forecast for the month of
560  475  495
FSept   510units February of the same year is 104 units.
3
Hence, the correct option is (D).

6.9 (C)
According to the question, using simple
exponential smooting method,
Ft 1  Dt  (1  ) Ft
31.82  D  (1  ) F

4 Industrial Engineering
7 Break Even Analysis

2014 IIT Kharagpur [1 Mark]

7.1 A component can be produced by any of the (A) I (B) II
four processes I, II, III and IV. The fixed cost (C) III (D) IV
and the variable cost for each of the 2015 IIT Kanpur
processes are listed below. The most
economical process for producing a batch of 7.2 A manufacturer has the following data
100 pieces is regarding a product :
Fixed cost per month = Rs. 50000
Fixed cost Variable cost
Process Variable cost per unit = Rs. 200
(in Rs.) per piece (in Rs.)
Selling price per unit = Rs. 300
I 20 3
Production capacity = 1500 units per month
II 50 1
If the production is carried out at 80% of the
III 40 2 rated the capacity, the monthly profit (in Rs.)
IV 10 4 is ______. [2 Marks]

7.1 (B) 7.2 70,000

Given : Given : Fixed cost per month ( F ) = Rs.50000

Batch size of component ( D)  100 units
Since, total cost is minimum for process II, hence
process II is most economical.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Variable cost per unit (V ) = Rs.200
Selling price per unit ( S ) = Rs.300
Production capacity ( P) = 1500 units/month
Rated capacity of production (r )  80%
Actual production,
n  r  P  0.8 1500  1200 units
Profit = Total selling price – Total cost
 S  (n  V  F )
 (1200  300)  (1200  200  50000)
= Rs.70, 000
Hence, the monthly profit is Rs.70000.



Industrial Engineering 1
8 Sequencing

2017 IIT Roorkee Job A B C D E F G H

Turning 2 4 8 9 7 6 5 10
8.1 Following data refers to the jobs (P, Q, R, S)
(Minutes)
which have arrived at a machine for
Grinding 6 1 3 7 9 5 2 4
scheduling. The shortest possible average
(Minutes)
flow time is ______ days. [2 Marks]
Job Processing time (days) If the makespan is to be minimized, then the
optimal sequence in which these jobs must
P 15
be processed on the turning and grinding
Q 9
machines is [2 Marks]
R 22 (A) A-D-E-F-H-C-G-B
S 12 (B) B-G-C-H-F-D-E-A
(C) G-E-D-F-H-C-A-B
2018 IIT Guwahati (D) A-E-D-F-H-C-G-B
8.2 Processing times (including step times) and 2022 IIT Kharagpur
due dates for six jobs waiting to be processed
at a work center are given in the table. The 8.4 Parts P1-P7 are machined first on a milling
average tardiness (in days) using shortest machine and then polished at a separate
processing time rule is ______ (correct to machine. Using the information in the
two decimal places). [2 Marks] following table, the minimum total
Processing time Due date completion time required for carrying out
Job both the operations for all 7 parts is
(days) (days)
A 3 8 __________ hours. [2 Marks]
B 7 16 Part Milling (hours) Polishing (hours)
P1 8 6
C 4 4
P2 3 2
D 9 18
P3 3 4
E 5 17
P4 4 6
F 13 19
P5 5 7
2021 IIT Bombay P6 6 4
8.3 A set of jobs A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H arrive at P7 2 1
time t = 0 for processing on turning and (A) 31 (B) 33
grinding machines. Each job needs to be (C) 30 (D) 32
processed in sequence-first on the turning
machine and second on the grinding
machine, and the grinding must occur
immediately after turning. The processing
times of the jobs are given below.

Industrial Engineering 1
 8.1 31 Total Tardiness 38
Average tardiness  
No.of jobs 6
For shortest possible average flow time, sequence
will be done by SPT rule,  6.33 days
Hence, the average tardiness using shortest
processing time rule is 6.33 days.

Processing time 8.3 (D)

Job Job flow time
(days) Given :
Q 9 0+9=9 Sequencing
A B C D E F G H
S 12 9+12=21
Turning 2 4 8 9 7 6 5 10
P 15 21+15=36 Grinding 6 1 3 7 9 5 2 4
R 22 36+22=58 Applying Johnson’s rule
Shortest average flow time is Find minimum processing time and if it is from
9  21  36  58 machine 1, sequence it from start side and if it is
  31days from machine 2 sequence from end side.
4
A E D F H C G B
Hence, the shortest possible average flow time is 
Start
 end
31 days. The correct sequence is A - E - D - F - H - C - G –
 Key Point B.
Shortest processing time (SPT) rule : In this Hence, the correct option is (D).
rule, job with shortest processing time is 8.4 (B)
considered as first then next and so on. It simply
means that the arrangement of processing time in Part Milling (hours) Polishing (hours)
ascending order by which the job sequence could P1 8 6
be found. P2 3 2
P3 3 4
8.2 6.33
P4 4 6
By shortest processing time rule, P5 5 7
Job P.T. D.D Flow time Tardiness P6 6 4
A 3 8 0+3=3 0 P7 2 1
According to Johnson’s algorithm, optimum job
C 4 4 3+4=7 3
sequence is,
E 5 17 7+5=12 0 P3  P4  P5  P1  P6  P2  P7
B 7 16 12+7=19 3 Minimum total completion time:-
D 9 18 19+9=28 10 Milling (hours) Polishing (hours)
In Process Ou In Process Ou
F 13 19 28+13=41 22
Part ti ing t tim ing t
Total 38 me time ti e time ti
me me

2 Industrial Engineering
 P3 0 3 3 3 4 7
P4 3 4 7 7 6 13
P5 7 5 12 13 7 20
P1 12 8 20 20 6 26
P6 20 6 26 26 4 30
P2 26 3 29 30 2 32
P7 29 2 31 32 1 33

The minimum total completion time required for

carrying out both the operations for all 7 parts is
33 hours.
Hence, the correct option is (B).



Industrial Engineering 3
9 Line balancing or Assembling Line

2021 IIT Bombay Subject to

Sit  dit  i, t
9.1 A factory produces m(i  1, 2,......, m)
<Capacity constraint>
products, each of which requires processing <Inventory balance constraint>
on n ( j  1, 2,...., n) workstations. Let aij be X it , Sit , I it  0; I io  0
the amount of processing time that one unit The capacity constraints and inventory
of the i th product requires on the j th balance constraints for this formulation
workstation. Let the revenue from selling respectively are [2 Marks]
m
one unit of the i th product be ri and hi be the (A)  aij X it  c jt i, t and
holding cost per unit per time period for the i

i th product. The planning horizon consists of Iit  Iit 1  X it  dit  i, t

T (t  1, 2,....., T ) time periods. The m

minimum demand that must be satisfied in

(B) a
i
ij X it  d it i, t and

time period t is dit , and the capacity of the I it  Ii ,t 1  Sit  X it  i, t

j th workstation in time period t is c jt . m

Consider the aggregate planning formulation

(C) a
i
ij X it  d it i, t and

below, with decision variables Sit (amount I it  I i ,t 1  X it  Sit  i, t

of product i sold in time period t ), X it m
(D)  aij X it  c jt j , t and
(amount of product i manufactured in time i
period t ) and I it (amount of product i held I it  I i ,t 1  X it  Sit  i, t
in inventory at the end of time period t ).
T m
max  (ri Sit  hi I it )
t 1 i 1

9.1 (D) dit  Minimum demand of product in time t

Given : c jt  Capacity of workstation in time t

m  (i  1, 2,...n) products
n  ( j  1, 2,...n) workstation
Let,
aij  Amount of processing time
ri  Revenue from selling price
hi  Revenue from holding cost
T  (t  1, 2,...T ) Time periods
Sit  Number of product sold in time t
X it  Number of product produced in time t
I it  Number of product i hold in inventory
at end of period t
Now, Capacity constraint aij X it  c jt
Inventory constraint
I it  I i ,t 1  X it  Sit

Industrial Engineering 1
 And the capacity constraints and inventory
balance constraints for this formulation
respectively are,
m

a
i
ij X it  c jt j , t and

I it  Ii ,t 1  X it  Sit  i, t

Hence; the correct option is (D).



2 Industrial Engineering
10 MRP

2022 IIT Kharagpur P (1) Level 0

10.1 The product structure diagram shows the

number of different components required at
A (4) B (2) Level 1
each level to produce one unit of the final
product P. If there are 50 units of on-hand
inventory of component A, the number of
C (1) D (3) Level 2
additional units of component A needed to
produce 10 units of product P is _________
(in integer). [2 Marks] A (2) Level 3

10.1 110
Finds unit of A required for production of 10 unit
of P

Total Required number A

 120  40
 160  50 In hand inventory (Instock)
 110 unit of A required
Hence, the correct answer is 110.



Industrial Engineering 1
11 Work Study

2004 IIT Delhi 2005 IIT Bombay

11.1 A soldering operation was work-sampled 11.2 A welding operation is time-studied during
over two days (16 hours) during which an which an operator was pace-rated as 120%.
employee soldered 108 joints, actual The operator took, on an average, 8 minutes
working time was 90% of the total time and for producing the weld-joint. If a total of
the performance rating was estimated to be 10% allowances are allowed for this
120 percent. If the contract provides operation. The expected standard production
allowance of 20 percent of the total time rate of the weld-joint (in units per 8 hour
available, the standard time for the operation day) is [2 Marks]
would be [2 Marks] (A) 45 (B) 50
(A) 8 min. (B) 8.9 min (C) 55 (D) 60
(C) 10 min. (D) 12 min

11.1 (D) Totalstandard time

SOT 
Number of joints soldered
Given :
Total time for soldering operation  16 hrs . 1244.16
SOT   11.52  12min
108
Rating factor of operator ( RF )  1.20
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Number of joints soldered ( N )  108
11.2 (A)
Allowance = 20 %
Actual working time = 90% of total time Given : Performance rating ( RF )  120 %
Tactual  90% of 16 hrs. Actual time (Tactual )  8min
Tactual  0.9 16  14.4 hrs.  864 min Total working time = 8 hrs
Performance rating was 120% then normal time, Allowance = 10%
NT  120 % of actual time Now the normal time and standard time for
operation,
120
NT   864  1036.8 min 120
100 NT  Tactual  RF  8   9.6 min
100
Allowance is 20% of the total available time then
ST
total standard time, NT 
1  Allowance
ST
NT 
(1  Allowance) ST  NT  1  Allowance 
ST  1036.8  1  0.2  1244.16min  10 
ST  9.6  1    10.56 min
Number of joint soldered is 108 then standard  100 
operation time is, Standard production rate of the welded joint is,

Industrial Engineering 1
 Total working time

Standard time
8  60
=  44.45  45units
10.56
Hence, the correct option is (A).



2 Industrial Engineering
12 Miscellaneous

2014 IIT Kharagpur 2017 IIT Roorkee

12.1 A minimal spanning tree in network flow 12.4 Cylindrical pins of diameter 15 0.020 mm are
models involves [1 Mark] being produced on a machine. Statistical
(A) All the nodes with cycle/loop allowed quality control tests show a mean of 14.995
(B) All the nodes with cycle/loop not mm and standard deviation of 0.004 mm.
allowed The process capability index C p is
(C) Shortest path between start and end
[1 Mark]
nodes
(D) All the nodes with directed arcs (A) 0.833 (B) 1.667
(C) 3.333 (D) 3.750
2015 IIT Kanpur
12.5 The standard deviation of linear dimensions
12.2 During the development of a product an P and Q are 3 m and 4 m , respectively.
entirely new process plan is made based on
When assembled, the standard deviation (in
design logic, examination of geometry and
m ) of the resulting linear dimension
tolerance information. This type of process
( P  Q ) is _______. [1 Mark]
planning is known as [1 Mark]
(A) Retrieval 12.6 A sample of 15 data is as follows : 17, 18,
(B) Generative 17, 17, 13, 18, 5, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 20, 17, 3. The
(C) Variant mode of the data is [1 Mark]
(D) Group technology based (A) 4 (B) 13
12.3 Among the four normal distributions with (C) 17 (D) 20
probability density functions as shown
below, which one has the lowest variance?
[1 Mark]

(A) I (B) II
(C) III (D) IV

Industrial Engineering 1
 12.1 (B)
Minimal spanning tree is a path which forms a
loop or cycle if it connected to a node itself. It links
all the node of network when no loop is allowed.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
12.2 (B)
Automated process planning is a key element in
integrating design and manufacturing. The two
traditional types of approach to computer-aided
process planning are the variant approach and
generative approach.
Variant approach : Involves retrieving an
existing plan for a similar part and making the
necessary modifications to the plan for the new
part.
Generative approach : Involves generation of
new process plans by means of decision logics and
process knowledge.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
12.3 (D)
The four normal distributions with probability
density functions as shown in the diagram :
(Lesser variance curve will have lower horizon in
x-axis, i.e. all the data will be accumulated at one
particular position)
The lowest variance of above can be interfere by,
Probability distribution function of normal
distribution,
  x  
2 
1
f ( x)  2
…(i)
2
e
 2
2 Industrial Engineering
Variance ( 2 ) is lowest then σ also lowest, if σ
decreases then f ( x) increases.
(∵ From equation (i), curve IV will have highest
peak)
Hence, the correct option is (D).
12.4 (B)
Given : Diameter of pins (d )  15 0.020 mm
Upper standard limit (U .S .L)  15.02 mm
Lower standard limit ( L.S .L)  14.98 mm
Standard deviation ()  0.004
U .S.L  L.S.L
Cp 
6
15.02  14.98
Cp   1.667
6  0.004
Hence, the correct option is (B).
12.5 5
Given : Standard deviation for P (P )  3μm
Standard deviation for Q (Q )  4μm
Variance of P and Q are
 P  32  9 μm and Q  42  16 μm
Variance can be added,  PQ  9  16  25
Standard deviation is,    PQ  5
Hence, the standard deviation of the resulting
linear dimension ( P  Q ) is 5 μm .
12.6 (C)
Given : Sample of 15 data is 17, 18, 17, 17, 13,
18, 5, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 20, 17, 3
Mode = The data point that appeared maximum
number of times
i.e., Mode =17 which is appeared more in the
sample lot.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Syllabus : Production Engineering

Engineering Materials: Structure and properties of engineering materials, phase diagrams, heat
treatment, stress-strain diagrams for engineering materials. Casting, Forming and Joining Processes:
Different types of castings, design of patterns, moulds and cores; solidification and cooling; riser and
gating design. Plastic deformation and yield criteria; fundamentals of hot and cold working
processes; load estimation for bulk (forging, rolling, extrusion, drawing) and sheet (shearing, deep
drawing, bending) metal forming processes; principles of powder metallurgy. Principles of welding,
brazing, soldering and adhesive bonding. Machining and Machine Tool Operations: Mechanics of
machining; basic machine tools; single and multi-point cutting tools, tool geometry and materials,
tool life and wear; economics of machining; principles of non-traditional machining processes;
principles of work holding, jigs and fixtures; abrasive machining processes; NC/CNC machines and
CNC programming. Metrology and Inspection: Limits, fits and tolerances; linear and angular
measurements; comparators; interferometry; form and finish measurement; alignment and testing
methods; tolerance analysis in manufacturing and assembly; concepts of coordinate-measuring
machine (CMM). Computer Integrated Manufacturing: Basic concepts of CAD/CAM and their
integration tools; additive manufacturing. Production Planning and Control: Forecasting models,
aggregate production planning, scheduling, materials requirement planning; lean manufacturing.
Inventory Control: Deterministic models; safety stock inventory control systems. Operations
Research: Linear programming, simplex method, transportation, assignment, network flow models,
simple queuing models, PERT and CPM.
Contents : Production Engineering

S. No. Topics
1. Casting
2. Welding
3. Machining
4. Forming
5. Sheet Metal Working
6. Metrology & Inspection
7. Computer Integrated Manufacturing
8. Unconventional Machining
9. Material Science
1 Casting

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2013 IIT Bombay cavity of a closed type sand mould as shown

in the figure. If the riser is of constant
1.1 A cube shaped casting solidifies in 5 minute. volume, then the rate of solidification in the
The solidification time in min for a cube of riser is the least when the ratio h : d is
the same material, which is 8 times heavier
than the original casting, will be [1 Mark] [2 Marks]
(A) 10 (B) 20
(C) 24 (D) 40
2014 IIT Kharagpur
1.2 Match the casting defects (Group-A) with
the probable causes (Group-B) :
Group-A Group-B
P. Hot tears 1. Improper fusion (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1
of two streams (C) 1 : 4 (D) 4 : 1
of liquid metal 1.5 A cylindrical riser of 6 cm diameter and 6 cm
Q. Shrinkage 2. Low permea- height has to be designed for a sand casting
bility of the sand mould for producing a steel rectangular plate
mould
of 7 cm 10 cm 2 cm dimensions having
R. Blow holes 3. Volumetric
contraction both the total solidification time of 1.36 minute.
in liquid and The total solidification time (in minute) of
solid stage the riser is ______. [2 Marks]
S. Cold shut 4. Differential 1.6 An aluminium alloy (density 2600 kg/m3 )
cooling rate casting is to be produced. A cylindrical hole
[1 Mark] of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm length is
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 made in the casting using sand core (density
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 1600 kg/m3 ). The net buoyancy force (in
newton) acting on the core is ______.
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
[2 Marks]
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-4, S-3
1.3 The hot tearing in a metal casting is due to 2015 IIT Kanpur
[1 Mark] 1.7 In full mould (cavity-less) casting process,
(A) High fluidity the pattern is made of
(B) High melt temperature (A) Expanded polystyrene
(C) Wide range of solidification temperature (B) Wax
(D) Low coefficient of thermal expansion (C) Epoxy
1.4 A cylindrical blind riser with diameter d and (D) Plaster of Paris [1 Mark]
height h, is placed on the top of the mould

Production Engineering 1
 1.8 The solidification time of a casting is diameter. The size of the moulds are such
proportional to (V /A) 2 , where V is the that the outside temperature of the moulds do
volume of the casting and A is the total not increase appreciably beyond the
casting surface area losing heat. Two cubes atmospheric temperature during
of same material and size are cast using sand solidification. The sequence of solidification
casting process. The top face of one of the in the mould from the fastest to slowest is
cubes is completely insulated. The ratio of (Thermal conductivities of steel, copper and
the solidification time for the cube with top aluminum are 60.5, 401 and 237 W/m-K,
face insulated to that of the other cube is respectively. Specific heats of steel, copper
and aluminum are 434, 385 and 903 J/kg-
[2 Marks]
K, respectively. Densities of steel, copper
25 36
(A) (B) and aluminum are 7854, 8933 and 2700
36 25 kg/m3, respectively.) [1 Mark]
6
(C) 1 (D) (A) Copper - Steel - Aluminum
5
(B) Aluminum - Steel - Copper
1.9 A cube and a sphere made of cast iron (each
(C) Copper - Aluminum - Steel
of volume 1000 cm3 ) were cast under
identical conditions. The time taken for (D) Steel - Copper - Aluminum
solidifying the cube was 4s. The 1.13 The part of a gating system which regulates
solidification time (in s) for the for the the rate of pouring of molten metal is
sphere is ______. [2 Marks] [1 Mark]
1.10 Ratio of Solidification time of a cylindrical (A) Pouring basin (B) Runner
casting (height = radius) to that of a cubic (C) Choke (D) Ingate
casting of side two times the height of
1.14 Gray cast iron blocks of size
cylindrical casting is ______. [2 Marks]
100 mm  50 mm 10 mm with a central
1.11 The dimensions of a cylindrical side riser
(height = diameter) for a spherical cavity of diameter 4 mm are sand
25 cm 15 cm  5 cm steel casting are to be
cast. The shrinkage allowance for the pattern
is 3%. The ratio of the volume of the pattern
determined. For the tabulated shape factor
to volume of the casting is ______.
values given below, diameter of the riser (in
cm) is ______. [2 Marks]
Riser volume/casting 1.15 A cylindrical job with diameter of 200 mm
Shape factor
volume and height of 100 mm is to be cast using
2 1.0 modulus method of riser design. Assume
4 0.70 that the bottom surface of cylindrical riser
6 0.55
8 0.50 does not contribute as cooling surface. If the
10 0.40 diameter of the riser is equal to its height,
12 0.35 then the height of the riser (in mm) is
[2 Marks] [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore (A) 150 (B) 200
1.12 Equal amounts of a liquid metal at the same (C) 100 (D) 125
temperature are poured into three moulds
made of steel, copper and aluminum. The
shape of the cavity is a cylinder with 15 mm

2 Production Engineering
 2017 IIT Roorkee
1.20 The figure shows a pouring arrangement for
1.16 A sprue in a sand mould has a top diameter
of 20 mm and height of 200 mm. The
velocity of the molten metal at the entry of
the sprue is 0.5 m/s. Assume acceleration
due to gravity as 9.8 m/s 2 and neglect all
losses. If the mould is well ventilated, the
velocity (upto 3 decimal points accuracy) of
the molten metal at the bottom of the sprue
is ______ m/s. [2 Marks]
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
casting of a metal block. Frictional losses are
negligible. The acceleration due to gravity is
9.81 m/s2 . The time (in s, round off to two
decimal place) to fill up the mould cavity (of
size 40 cm  30 cm 15 cm ) is ______.
[2 Marks]

2019 IIT Madras

1.17 In a casting process a vertical channel
through which molten metal flows
downward, from pouring basin to runner for
reaching the mould cavity is called 2020 IIT Delhi
[1 Mark] 1.21 A mould cavity of 1200 cm 3 volume has to
(A) Blister (B) Riser be filled through a sprue of 10 cm length
feeding a horizontal runner. Cross-sectional
(C) Sprue (D) Pinhole
area at the base of the sprue is 2 cm 2 .
1.18 The fluidity of molten metal of cast alloys
Consider acceleration due to gravity as
(without any addition of fluxes) increases
9.81 m/s2 . Neglecting frictional losses due
with increase in [1 Mark]
to molten metal flow, the time taken to fill
(A) Freezing range
the mold cavity is _____seconds (round off
(B) Viscosity to 2 decimal places). [2 Marks]
(C) Surface tension 2021 IIT Bombay
(D) Degree of super heat
1.22 A true centrifugal casting operation needs to
1.19 Match the following sand mould casting be performed horizontally to make copper
defects with their respective causes tube section with outer diameter of 250 mm
[2 Marks] and inner diameter of 230 mm. The value of
Defect Cause acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2. If a
P. Blow hole 1. Poor G-factor (ratio of centrifugal force to
collapsibility weight) of 60 is used for casting the tube, the
Q. Misrun 2. Mould erosion rotational speed required is______ rpm
R. Hot tearing 3. Poor (round off to the nearest integer). [2 Marks]
permeability 1.23 A cast product of a particular material has
S. Wash 4. Insufficient dimensions 75 mm  125 mm  20 mm. The
fluidity total solidification time for the cast product
is found to be 2.0 minutes as calculated using
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
Chvorinov's rule having the index, n  2 . If
(B) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
under the identical casting conditions, the
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
cast product shape is changed to a cylinder

Production Engineering 3
 having diameter = 50 mm and height = 50 (A) 400 ºC (B) 250 ºC
mm, the total solidification time will be (C) 800 ºC (D) 150 ºC
___________ minutes (round off to the two 1.25 Consider sand casting of a cube of edge
decimal places). [2 Marks] length a. A cylindrical riser is placed at the
2022 IIT Kharagpur top of the casting. Assume solidification
1.24 Fluidity of a molten alloy during sand time, ts  V / A , where V is the volume and
casting depends on its solidification range. A is the total surface area dissipating heat. If
The phase diagram of a hypothetical binary the top of the riser is insulated, which of the
alloy of components A and B is shown in following radius/radii of riser is/are
the figure with its eutectic composition and acceptable? [1 Mark]
temperature. All the lines in this phase a a
(A) (B)
diagram, including the solidus and liquidus 3 2
lines, are straight lines. If this binary alloy a a
with 15 weight % of B is poured into a (C) (D)
4 6
mould at a pouring temperature of 800 ºC,
then the solidification range is [1 Mark]
L is liquid phase
800  is A-rich solid phase
 is B-rich solid phase

700
Temperature ( C)
0

L
 L
 L
400


Eutectic point

0
0 10 15 30
Composition (weight % of B in A)

Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2014 IIT Kharagpur P. Sprue 1. Regulates

flow of
1.1 For a given volume of a riser, if the molten metal
solidification time of the molten metal in into mould
riser needs to be quadrupled, the surface area cavity
of the riser should be made [2 Marks]
(A) One fourth (B) Half Q. Riser 2. Feeds molten
from pouring
(C) Double (D) Four times
basin to gate
2015 IIT Kanpur R. Gate 3. Acts as a
1.2 Match the items in the first column to their reservoir for
functions in the second column. [1 Mark] molten metal

4 Production Engineering
 S. Pouring 4. Supplies
basin molten metal
to compensate
for liquid
shrinkage.
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 Considering the cross-section of the sprue is
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 circular, the ratio d1 : d2 to avoid aspiration is
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 [2 Marks]
1.3 A mould for injection moulding is designed (A) 3:2 (B) 5:6
for polymer P having shrinkage of 0.010 (C) 15:16 (D) 1:2
mm/mm. The moulded part is 35 mm. If the
2018 IIT Guwahati
same mould is now used to make a similar
part but made of a different polymer Q with 1.7 During solidification of a pure molten metal,
shrinkage of 0.025 mm/mm, then the critical grains in the casting near the mould wall are
dimension in the moulded part made of [1 Mark]
polymer Q, in mm is ______. [2 Marks] (A) Coarse and randomly oriented
(B) Fine and randomly oriented
2017 IIT Roorkee (C) Fine and ordered
1.4 In Glass Fiber Reinforced Plastic (GFRP) (D) Coarse and ordered
composites with long fibers, the role of 1.8 Which one of the following defects is NOT
matrix is to [1 Mark] associated with the casting process?
(P) Support and transfer the stresses to the [1 Mark]
fibers (A) Hot tear (B) Porosity
(Q) Reduce propagation of cracks (C) Blister (D) Central burst
(R) Carry the entire load 1.9 For sand-casting a steel rectangular plate
with dimensions 80 mm 120 mm  20 mm
(S) Protect the fibers against damage
a cylindrical riser has to be designed. The
The correct statements are : height of the riser equal to its diameter. The
(A) P, Q and R (B) Q, R and S total solidification time for the casting is 2
(C) P, Q and S (D) P, R and S minutes. In Chvorinov’s law for the
1.5 In carbon dioxide moulding process, the estimation of the total solidification time,
binder used is [1 Mark] exponent is to be taken as 2. For a
solidification time of 3 minutes in the riser
(A) Sodium bentonite
the diameter (in mm) of the riser is _____
(B) Calcium bentonite
(correct to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
(C) Sodium silicate 1.10 A pressure die casting setup was tested by
(D) Phenol formaldehyde injecting water (density 1000kg/m3 ) at a
1.6 Schematic diagram of pouring basin and pressure of 200 bar. Mould filling time was
sprue of a gating system is shown in the found to be 0.05 sec. afterwards, the actual
figure. Depth of molten metal in the pouring casting is made by injecting the liquid metal
basin is 100 mm and the height of the sprue (density 2000 kg/m3 ) at an injection pressure
is 1500 mm. of 400 bar. Neglect all losses (friction,
viscous effect, etc.). The approximate mould
filling time (in s) is [2 Marks]
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.075

Production Engineering 5
 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.2
2019 IIT Madras
1.11 A sand casting process has a mould constant
of 2s/mm2 and solidification exponent of 2.
If the solidification time is to be doubled for
a given unit volume of material, the
corresponding reduction in the cast surface
area (in %) is______. [2 Marks]
1.12 True centrifugal casting process in
horizontal configuration is to be used for
casting a metallic cylinder with outside
diameter 0.275 m and inside diameter 0.250
m. If G-factor (ratio of centrifugal force
experienced by the rotating cast metal to its
weight) is 65 and acceleration due to gravity
is 9.8m/s2 , the minimum rotational speed
(in rpm) required is closest to [2 Marks]
(A) 325 (B) 650
(C) 975 (D) 1300
2020 IIT Delhi
1.13 To manufacture a product by casting, molten
metal is poured in a cavity of rectangular
across-section in a sand mold with a side
blind riser as shown in the figure. The
dimensions of the mold cavity are
60 cm  40 cm  20 cm .
The riser is cylindrical in shape with
diameter equal to height. It is required that
the solidification time of the rise should be
25% greater than that of the mold. Using
Chvorinov’s rule, the diameter of the riser
(rounded off to one decimal places) in cm
should be ______. [2 Marks]

Explanations Casting (ME)

2 2
5  a1   6   a1   3 
2 2

       
t2  6   a2   6   a1 
5 1
1.1 (B) 
t2 4
According to question, the two masses are given t2  20min
by,
Hence, the correct option is (B).
m1  V1  and m2  V2 
Since, m2  8 m1
V2  8V1
a23  8a13 or a2  2a1 1.2 (B)
Also we know that solidification time is given by, (P  4) : Hot tear : It is casting defect, which
V 
2
V 
2 takes place due to differential cooling rate. Hence,
t  k   so, t    stresses and crack will develop.
 A  A
(Q  3) : Shrinkage : Liquid shrinkage, solid
Taking the ratio of solidification time of both
shrinkage and solidification shrinkage refers to
cubes, we have
reduction in volume.
2 2 2 2
t1  V1   A2   a13   6a22  (R  2) : Blow holes : When the moulding sand is
         
t2  A1   V2   6a12   a23  too much compacted, so that it does not allow the

6 Production Engineering
gases and moisture to be released during 
A  dh  d 2
solidification to pass through the passage, it will 4
get mapped inside the product being cast. This will 
result into a casting defect called ‘blow holes’. Also, V  d 2 h
4
(S  1) : Cold shut : It is a casting defect which
4V
takes place when improper fusion of two metal h 2
stream takes placed. d
Hence, the correct option is (B). 4V  2
A  d
d 4
1.3 (C)
We will differentiate A with respect to d, to find
Hot tear : Hot tears are hot condition for minimum area,
cracks which appear in the form of irregular
dA
cavities with dark oxidized fracture surface. They 0
arise when the solidifying metal does not have dd
sufficient strength to resist tensile forces produce 4V d
 2  0
during the solidification. They are chiefly form an d 2
excessively high temperature of casting metal. d 4V

2 d2
8 8 
d 3  V   d 2h
  4
h 1

Hence, the correct option is (C). d 2
 Key Point Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hot tears : Differential cooling rate, hence
residual stresses and crack will develop (irregular
cavities with dark oxidized fractured surface).
1.5 4.32
Given : Height of riser (h)  6 cm
Diameter of riser (d )  6 cm
Volume of casting (Vc )  7 10  2  140 cm3
Area of casting,
Causes : Non uniform material composition as
Ac  2(7 10  2 10  7  2)  208cm 2
well as intricate shapes.
Volume of riser,
Ocurences : It happens at consequently thinner
 
sections (solidification time will be more) and Vr   d 2 h   62  6  54 cm3
neighboring sections cool down rapidly, tensile 4 4
Area of riser,
stresses are generated.
 
Remedies : Use chills at thin and intricate Ar  dh  d 2   6  6   62
sections. 4 4
Ar  45 cm 2

1.4 (A) Also we know that solidification time is given by,

2 2
For least solidification rate, surface area should be V  V 
minimum, t  k   so, t   
 A  A

Production Engineering 7
 Taking the ratio of solidification time of both riser Pattern material : Plastic, polysterene,
and casting, we have thermocol, PVC.
2 2
tr  Vr   Ac   54   208 
2 2 Moulding material : Plaster of paris +silica flour
          plastic is evaporated and cavity is formed.
tc  Ar   Vc   45   140 
tr
 3.18
1.36
tr  4.32 min
Hence, the total solidification time of the riser is
4.32 minute.

Application : Door component, lock compo-

nent and fittings.
1.6 7.7
1.8 (B)
Given : Density of aluminium alloy (alloy )  2600
Given : Volume of cube one (V1 )  V mm3
3
kg/m
Volume of cube two (V2 )  V mm3
Diameter of the hole (d) = 100 mm
Length of the hole (l) = 100 mm So, V1  V2  V  a1  a2  a
Density of the sand core (core )  1600 kg/m3 Area of cube one ( A1 )  6  a 2 mm 2
The buoyancy force acting on the core, Area of cube two ( A2 )  5  a 2 mm 2
Fb  Weight of molten metal displaced by core
(Since, one surface is insulated)
– Weight of core Also we know that solidification time is given by,
Fb  Vgm  Vgcore 2 2
V  V 
Fb  Vg (m  core ) t  k   so, t   
 A  A

Fb  (d 2 )  l  g (m  core ) Taking the ratio of solidification time of both
4 cubes, we have

Fb  (0.12 )  0.1 9.81 (2600  1600) 2 2
t2  V2   A1   a3   6a 2 
2 2

4          
Fb  7.7 N t1  A2   V1   5a 2   a 3 
Hence, the net buoyancy force acting on the core t2 36

is 7.7 N. t1 25
1.7 (A) Hence, the correct option is (B).
Full mould casting is an evaporative-pattern
casting process which is a combination of sand
casting and lost foam casting. It uses an expanded
polystyrene foam pattern which is then surrounded 1.9 6.16
by sand much like sand casting. The metal is then
poured directly into the mould, which vaporizes Given : Volume of cube (V1 )  1000 cm3
the foam upon contact. Volume of sphere (V2 )  1000 cm3
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Solidification of cube (t1 )  4 sec
 Key Point
Volume of sphere is given by,
Full moulding or cavity-less moulding :

8 Production Engineering
 4 Cubic casting, Vcu  a 3  8H 3
V2  r 3
3 Acu  6a 2  24 H 2 [ a  2 H ]
4
So, 1000  r 3 We have,
3 2 2
r  6.203cm V   8H 3 
tcu   cu    2 
Volume of cube is given by,  Acu   24 H 
V1  a 3 1
tcu  H 2 …(ii)
So, 1000  a3 9
a  10 cm Conclusion, taking the ratio of equation (i) by (ii),
we have
Now, area of cube
tcy 9
A1  6a 2  6 102  600 cm2   0.562
tcu 16
and area of sphere,
Hence, the height of cylindrical casting is 0.562.
A2  4r 2  4 6.2032  483.52 cm2
1.11 10.6
Also we know that solidification time is given by,
2 2 Given : Dimension of cylindrical side riser
V  V 
t  k   so, t     25 cm 15 cm  5 cm
 A  A
Shape factor (Z) is given by,
Taking the ratio of solidification time of both
Lw
cubes, we have Z
2 2 t
t1  V1   A2 
     Where, L  Length = 25, w  Width = 15
t2  A1   V2  t  Thickness = 5
2
t1  1000   483.52 
2
25  15
    Z 8
t2  600   1000  5
4
Corresponding to 8 in the table, we have
 0.649 Riser volume
t2  0.5
Casting volume
t2  6.16sec
Where, casting volume  25 15  5
Hence, the solidification time for the sphere is 6.16
 
sec. Riser volume  d 2 h  d 3
4 4
 3
d
4  0.5
25  15  5
1.10 0.562 Solving, we get d  10.6 cm
Cylindrical casting, Hence, the diameter of the riser is 10.6 cm.
Vcy  R 2 H  H 3 [ R  H ]
Acy  2R 2  2RH  4H 2
2
V 
2
 H 3  1.12 (C)
We have, tcy   cy    2 
A  4H 
 cy  Given :
1 Steel Copper Aluminium
tcy  H 2 …(i)
16 k  60.5 W/mK k  401W/mK k  237 W/mK

Production Engineering 9
 c p  434 J/kgK c p  385 J/kgK c p  903 J/kgK Given :
  7854 kg/m3   8933 kg/m 3   2700 kg/m3 Gray cast iron  100 mm  50 mm 10 mm

Sequence of solidification is based on thermal

diffusivity,
k

c p
60.5 Spherical cavity diameter (d )  4 mm
steel   1.077 105
434  7854 Shrinkage allowance  3%
401 Now, considering shrinkage allowance dimension
copper   1.165 104
385  8933 of pattern is,
237 l  100  (3% of 100) = 97 mm
alum   9.72 105 b  50  (3% of 50) = 48.5 mm
903  2700
 copper   alum   steel h  10  (3% of 10) = 9.7 mm
New size after taking allowance or external
 Solidification time, tcopper  talum  tsteel .
dimension  97  48.5  9.7 mm3
Hence, the correct option is (C). For inside dimension  4  3% of 4
 Key Point  4.12 mm
Thermal diffusivity is a measure that how fast the Volume of casting
heat is defused from specimen. If thermal  4  4 3 
diffusivity increases then thermal conduction will  (50 100 10)      
3  2  
also increase. So, casting will loose more heat to
surrounding.  49966.49mm3
Gray cast iron expands when cooling occure that
1.13 (C) is why we provide negative shrinkage to the
The smallest area in the feeding channels controls pattern outside dimension and positive allowance
the flow rate into the mould cavity and to inside dimensions.
consequently control the pouring time in the So, the volume of pattern
choke. Usually this choke area occurs at the  4  4.12 3 
 (48.5  97  9.7)      
bottom of the sprue to established the metal  3  2  
velocity as soon as possible.
 45597.03mm3
The choke area can be calculated by using the
The ratio of above two volume will be,
following formula.
Volume of pattern 45597.03
W   0.9125
A Volume of casting 49966.49
t f C  2 gH
Hence, the ratio of the volume of the pattern to
Where, A  Choke area volume of the casting is 0.9125.
W  Casting weight
  Density of molten metal
H  Effective high of molten metal
C  Efficiency factor or nozzle coefficient
1.15 (A)
t f  Filling time
Given :
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Diameter of cylindrical job ( D ) = 200 mm,
1.14 0.9125

10 Production Engineering
Height of cylindrical job ( L ) = 100 mm Hence, the correct option is (A).
(i) Modulus of job,
V 
( M ) job   
 As  job
1.16 2.042
 2
D L
4 Given : Sprue height (h1 )  200 mm  0.2 m
( M ) job 
 Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  9.8 m/s2
(DL)  2  D 2
4
Velocity of molten metal at entry (V1 )  0.5 m/s

 D L
( M ) job  4

 L   D
2

Applying Bernoulli’s equation between section (1)

and (2), we have
p1 V12 p V2
  h1  2  2  h2
g 2 g g 2 g
DL 100
200  ( p1  p2  patm  0)
( M ) job  4  4  25
D 200 0.52 V2
L 100   0.2  2  0
2 2 2  9.8 2  9.8
(ii) Modulus of riser, V2  2.042 m/s
V  Hence, the velocity of the molten metal at the
( M )riser   
 As riser bottom of the sprue is 2.042 m/s.
 3
D
( M ) riser  4 ( D  H)

 D 2   D 2
4 1.17 (C)
Sprue is the vertical channel which connects
pouring basin to runner. It is conical in appearance
with less cross-section circular area at bottom.

D3 D3 D
( M )riser   
4D  D
2 2
5D 2
5
From modulus method, Hence, the correct option is (C).
M riser  1.2 M job 1.18 (D)
D When the pouring temperature of molten metal
 1.2  25
5 increases, the viscosity decreases with increasing
D  150 mm fluidity.
So, H  150 mm

Production Engineering 11
 Hence, fluidity of molten metal increases with Vm
TTop 
increase in degree of superheat. Ag 2 ght
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1200
1.19 (B) TTop   4.28 sec
2 2  9.81100 10
Defect Cause
Hence, the time taken to fill the mold cavity is 4.28
P. Blow hole Poor permeability sec.
Q. Misrun Insufficient fluidity
1.22 661.59
R. Hot tearing Poor collapsibility
Given : OD  250 mm , ID  230 mm
S. Wash Mould erosion
g  10 m/s2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
f
1.20 28.92 G.F .  c
fg
Given : Filling height (ht )  20 cm  0.2 m
Diameter ( Dg )  2 cm  0.02 m
mr2
60 
mg
Volume of mould is given by,
Vm  0.4  0.15  0.3  0.018 m3 60  g  125 10 3 2
Now, the time taken to fill the mould is given by, 2  4800
2N
tm 
Vm  4800
Ag 2 ght 60
4800  60
0.018 N  661.59 rpm
tm  2

 0.022  2  9.81 0.2 Hence, the rotational speed required is 661.59
4
rpm.
tm  28.92 s
1.23 2.82
Hence, the time to fill up the mould cavity is 28.92
Given : Slab  75 125  20 mm3
s.
(ts ) slab  2 min
Cylinder :
d  h  50 mm
2
1.21 4.28 d 
 
  2
(ts )cylinder 6
Given : Mould cavity volume (Vm )  1200 cm 3
(ts ) slab V 
 
Sprue length (ht )  10cm,  SA 
2
Cross sectional area of sprue at base ( Ag )  2 cm 2  50 
 
,
(ts )cylinder
  6 
2
(ts ) slab  75 125  20 
Acceleration due to gravity ( g )  9.81m/ s 2  2(75 125  20 125  20  75 
 
2
 50 
 
(ts )cylinder   6  2
2
 75 125  20 
 2(75 125  20 125  20  75 
 
Time for filling by top gate,

12 Production Engineering
(ts )cylinder  2.82 min
Hence, the total solidification time will be 2.82
minutes.
1.24 (D)
Since, MN  300, XY  15, NO  30 and
XN  solidification range = ?
By linear interpolation, Here,
In similar triangles MXY and MNO,
V 
MX MN ts   
  A
XY NO
We know that,
MX 300
 (ts ) riser  (ts )casting
15 30
MX  150 Volume of riser  Volume of casting
 For solidification range, XN  MN  MX  2
d h a
XN  300 150 4 
dh 6
Solidification range, XN  1500 C
2r a
Hence, the correct option is (D). 
4 6
1.25 (A), (B) r a

2 6
a
r
3
Hence, the correct option is (A), (B).
Explanations Casting (PE & IE)

1.1 (B) Ai
Af 
Let, initial and final solidification time be ti and 2
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4ti , initial area and final area be Ai and Af
1.2 (B)
respectively. According to the question.
Final solidification time The function of a sprue is to feed the molten metal
 4  Initial solidification time from pouring basin to gate, riser is used to supply
t f  4ti molten metal to compensate for liquid shrinkage,
2 2
gate regulates the flow of molten metal into mould
V  V 
 A   4 A 
cavity and the pouring basin acts as a reservoir for
 f   i molten metal.
(volume is same for both conditions) Hence, the correct answer is (B).
2 2
V   V  1.3 34.46
 A    2 A 
 f   i  Given : Shrinkage of polymer P (SP )  0.010
1 2
 Dimension of moulded part P (d p )  35 mm
Af Ai
Shrinkage of polymer Q ( SQ )  0.025
Let, size of the mould be x mm
Production Engineering 13
 Now, for polymer P, During solidification of pure metal at the surface
d P  x  [ x  0.010]  35 of the mould due to fast rate of solidification
randomly oriented fine grains are produced.
x  35.35 mm
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Similarly, for polymer Q, 1.8 (D)
dQ  x  [ x  0.025]
All three defects namely hot tear, porosity and
dQ  35.35  [35.35  0.025] blister are associated with the casting process only
central burst is associated with the extrusion
dQ  34.46 mm
process.
Hence, the moulded part made of polymer Q is Hence, the correct option is (D).
34.46 mm.
1.9 51.84
1.4 (D)
Given : Casting size  80 120  20 mm
In GFRP composites with long fibers, the role of
Solidification time for casting (ts )casting  2 min
matrix is to support and transfer the stresses to the
fibers, carry the entire load and protect the fibers Solidification time for riser (ts )riser  3min
against damage. Exponent ( n)  2
Hence, the correct option is (D). 2
V 
1.5 (C) (ts )casting  k  
 A
Sodium silicate is used in carbon dioxide 2
 80 120  20 
moulding process as a binder. 2k 
Hence, the correct option is (C).  2(80 120  120  20  20  80) 
1.6 (D)
k  0.040138min /mm2
2
Given : Depth of pouring basin (hb )  100mm V 
Riser, (ts ) riser k 
 A
Height of sprue (hs )  1500 mm 2
V 
Total height (ht )  hb  hs  1600mm 3  0.040138  
 A
Condition to avoid aspiration effect,
V 
   8.64
0.5
A1  ht  hs   A
 
A2  ht 
 2
d h
2
 d1   1600  1500 
0.5 V 4

    A 2  d 2  dh
 d 2   1600 
4
d1 1
 V d
d2 2 For riser if h  d then 
A 6
Hence, the correct option is (D). d
 8.64
6
h  d  51.84 mm
Hence, the diameter of the riser is 51.84 mm.
1.7 (B)
1.10 (A)
Given : Density of water (w )  1000 kg/m3

14 Production Engineering
Pressure of injecting water ( pw )  200 bar A1  A2 A  1 2 1
  1  2   1 
Time taken in injecting water (tw )  0.05 s A1  A1  2 2
Density of liquid metal (m )  2000 kg/m3  0.2928 or 29.28 %
Hence, the corresponding reduction in the cast
Pressure of injecting liquid metal ( pm )  400 bar surface area is 29.28%.
Let, time taken in injecting liquid metal be tm 1.12 (B)
As the momentum is constant, Given : Outside diameter (2 R)  0.275 m
p w  t w pm  t m
= Inside diameter (2r )  0.25 m
w m
G-factor  65
200  0.05 400  tm g  9.81 m/s 2
=
1000 2000 GF  G-factor
tw  0.05s mV 2
V 2 R  2N 
2
Hence, the correct option is (A). R
GF     
1.11 29.28
mg gR g  60 
30 g (GF ) 30 9.81 65
Given : Mould constant (k )  2 s/mm2 N   
 R   0.275 
Solidification exponent ( n)  2  
 2 
Solidification time is given by,
n 2 N  650.29 rpm  650 rpm
V  V 
ts  k    k   Hence, the correct option is (B).
 A  A
2 2
1.13 36.59
V  V 
ts1  k   and ts2  k   Given :
 A1   A2  Mold cavity dimensions
[ Volume (V) = 1 (unit volume)]  60 cm  40 cm  20 cm
According to question,
Rises solidification time is greater than 25% of the
ts2  2ts1
mould.
2
V  According to Chvorinov’s principle,
2 
ts1  A1  2
 V 
2 Solidification time, ts   
t s2 V   A
2 
 A2  2
V 
2 ts  K  
 1   A
A 
ts1 Where, K  Solidification factor, V  Volume of
  1 2
2ts1  1  the casting and A  Surface area of casting.
A  (ts )riser  1.25(ts )casting …(i)
 2
 2
2 2
1  A2   
  D H 
2  A1 
2
 
V 4
Now, (ts )r      
 A   DH  2   D 2 
A2 1
   4 
A1 2 2
D
Reduction in surface area (ts )r   
6
( Diameter of riser = Height of riser)

Production Engineering 15
 By using equation (i),
0  40  20
2 2
D  
   1.25  
6  2  (60  40  40  20  20  60) 
2
D
   37.19
6
D  36.59 cm
Hence, the diameter of riser should be 36.59 cm.



16 Production Engineering
2 Welding

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2013 IIT Bombay (A) Microstructural changes but does not

melt.
2.1 Match the correct pairs : [1 Mark]
(B) Neither melting nor microstructural
Process Characteristics
changes.
P. Friction 1. Non- consumable
welding electrode (C) Both melting and micro-structural
Q. Gas metal 2. Joining of thick changes after solidification.
arc welding plates (D) Melting and retains the original
R. Electroslag 3. Consumable microstructure after solidification.
welding electrode wire 2.5 For spot welding of two steel sheets (base
S. Tungsten 4. Joining of metal) each of 3 mm thickness, welding
inert gas cylindrical current of 10000 A is applied for 0.2s. The
welding dissimilar
heat dissipated to the base metal is 1000 J.
materials
Assuming that the heat required for melting
5. Gas welding
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 1 mm3 volume of steel is 20 J and interfacial
contact resistance between sheets is
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1
0.0002 , the volume (in mm3 ) of weld
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
nugget is _____. [2 Marks]
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
2.6 A butt weld joint is developed on steel plates
2014 IIT Kharagpur having yield and ultimate tensile strength of
2.2 The major difficulty during welding of 500 MPa and 700 MPa, respectively. The
aluminium is due to its [1 Mark] thickness of the plates is 8 mm and width is
20 mm. Improper selection of welding
(A) High tendency of oxidation.
parameters caused an undercut of 3 mm
(B) High thermal conductivity. depth along the weld. The maximum
(C) Low melting point. transverse tensile load (in kN) carrying
(D) Low density. capacity of the developed weld joint is
2.3 In solid-state welding, the contamina-tion _____.
layers between the surfaces to be welded are [2 Marks]
removed by [1 Mark] 2015 IIT Kanpur
(A) Alcohol.
2.7 In a linear arc welding process, the heat input
(B) Plastic deformation. per unit length is inversely proportional to
(C) Water jet. [1 Mark]
(D) Sand blasting. (A) Welding current.
2.4 Within the heat affected zone (HAZ) in a (B) Welding voltage.
fusion welding process, the work material (C) Welding speed.
undergoes [1 Mark] (D) Duty cycle of the power source.
2.8 Which two of the following joining
processes are autogenous? [1 Mark]
Production Engineering 1
 i. Diffusion welding nugget, the thickness of the nugget is ______
ii. Electroslag welding mm. [2 Marks]
iii. Tungsten inert gas welding Latent heat of fusion
1400 kJ/kg
iv. Friction welding for steel
(A) i and iv (B) ii and iii Effective resistance of 200 
(C) ii and iv (D) i and iii the weld joint
2.9 A DC welding power source has a linear Density of steel 8000 kg/m3
voltage-current (V-I) characteri-stic with 2.14 The voltage-length characteristic of a direct
open circuit voltage of 80 V and a short current arc in an arc welding process is
circuit current of 300 A. For maximum arc V  (100  40 l ) , where l is the length of the
power, the current (in Amperes) should be arc in mm and V is arc voltage in volts.
set as ______. [2 Marks] During a welding operation, the arc length
2.10 During a TIG welding process, the arc varies between 1 and 2 mm and the welding
current and arc voltage were 50 A and 60 V current is in the range 200-250 A. Assuming
respectively, when the welding speed was a linear power source, the short circuit
150 mm/min. In another process, the TIG current is _______ A. [2 Marks]
welding is carried out at a welding speed of 2.15 Heat is removed from a molten metal of
120 mm/min at the same arc voltage and heat mass 2 kg at a constant rate of 10 kW till it
input to the material so that weld quality is completely solidified. The cooling curve is
remains the same. The welding current (in A) shown in the figure.
for this process is [2 Marks]
(A) 40.00 (B) 44.72
(C) 55.90 (D) 62.25
2016 IISc Bangalore
2.11 The welding process which uses a blanked of
fusible granular flux is [1 Mark]
(A) tungsten inert gas welding.
Assuming uniform temperature throughout
(B) submerged arc welding.
the volume of the metal during
(C) electroslag welding.
solidification, the latent heat of fusion of the
(D) thermit welding.
metal (in kJ/kg) is ______. [2 Marks]
2.12 Under optimal conditions of the process the
temperatures experienced by a copper work 2017 IIT Roorkee
piece in fusion welding, brazing and 2.16 In an arc welding process welding speed is
soldering are such that [1 Mark] doubled. Assuming all other process
(A) Twelding  Tsoldering  Tbrazing parameters to be constant the cross sectional
(B) Tsoldering  Twelding  Tbrazing area of the weld bead will [1 Mark]
(A) Increase by 25%
(C) Tbrazing  Twelding  Tsoldering
(B) Increase by 50%
(D) Twelding  Tbrazing  Tsoldering (C) Reduce by 25%
2.13 Spot welding of two steel sheets each 2 mm (D) Reduce by 50%
thick is carried out successfully by passing 4 2018 IIT Guwahati
kA of current for 0.2 seconds through the
electrodes. The resulting weld nugget 2.17 The type of weld represented by the shaded
formed between the sheets is 5 mm in region in the figure is [1 Mark]
diameter. Assuming cylindrical shape for the

2 Production Engineering
 2.22 A resistance spot welding of two 1.55 mm
thick metal sheets is performed using
welding current of 10000 A for 0.25 second.
The contact resistance at the interface of the
metal sheets is 0.0001Ω. The volume of weld
(A) Groove (B) Spot nugget formed after welding is 70 mm3.
(C) Fillet (D) Plug Considering the heat required to melt unit
2.18 A welding operation is being performed with volume of metal is 12 J/mm3, the thermal
voltage = 30 V and current = 100 A. The efficiency of the welding process
cross sectional area of the weld bead is 20 is_________ % (round off to one decimal
mm2 . The work piece and filler are of place). [1 Mark]
titanium for which of the specific energy of 2.23 A hot steel spherical ball is suddenly dipped
melting is 14 J/mm3 . Assuming a thermal into a low temperature oil bath. Which of the
efficiency of the welding process 70%, the following dimensionless parameters are
welding speed (in mm/s) is _____ (correct to required to determine instantaneous center
two decimal places). [2 Marks] temperature of the ball using a Heisler chart?
2019 IIT Madras [1 Mark]
(A) Biot number and Fourier number
2.19 Which one of the following welding
(B) Reynolds number and Prandlt number
methods provides the highest heat flux
(C) Nusselt number and Grashoff number
(W/mm2)? [1 Mark]
(A) Laser beam welding
(D) Biot number and Froude number
(B) Oxy-gas acetylene welding
2.24 A spot welding operation performed on two
(C) Plasma arc welding pieces of steel yielded a nugget with a
(D) Tungsten inert gas welding (TIG) diameter of 5 mm and a thickness of 1 mm.
2.20 A gas tungsten arc welding operation is The welding time was 0.1 s. The melting
performed using a current of 250 A and arc energy for the steel is 20 J/mm3 . Assuming
voltage of 20 V at a welding speed of 5
the heat conversion efficiency as 10%, the
mm/sec. Assuming that the arc efficiency is
power required for performing the spot
70%, the net heat input per unit length of the
welding operation is _________kW (round
weld will be ______ kJ/mm.
off to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
[2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
2022 IIT Kharagpur
2.21 Two plates, each of 6 mm thickness, are to
be butt-welded. Consider the following 2.25 Two mild steel plates of similar thickness, in
processes and select the correct sequence in butt-joint configuration, are welded by gas
increasing order of size of the heat affected tungsten arc welding process using the
zone. [1 Mark] following welding parameters.
1. Arc welding Welding voltage 20 V
2. MIG welding Welding current 150 A
3. Laser beam welding Welding speed 5 mm/s
4. Submerged arc welding A filler wire of the same mild steel material
(A) 4-3-2-1 (B) 3-2-4-1 having 3 mm diameter is used in this welding
(C) 1-4-2-3 (D) 3-4-2-1 process. The filler wire feed rate is selected
2021 IIT Bombay such that the final weld bead is composed of

Production Engineering 3
 60% volume of filler and 40% volume of
plate material. The heat required to melt the
mild steel material is 10 J/mm3. The heat
transfer factor is 0.7 and melting factor is
0.6. The feed rate of the filler wire is
__________ mm/s (round off to one decimal
place). [2 Marks]
2.26 In a direct current arc welding process, the
power source has an open circuit voltage of
Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)
2014 IIT Kharagpur
2.1 Brazing and soldering are [1 Mark]
(A) Plastic joining methods
(B) Homogeneous joining methods
(C) Autogenous joining methods
(D) Heterogeneous joining methods
2.2 In an arc welding operation carried out with
a power source maintained at 40 volts and
400 amperes, the consumable electrode
melts and just fills the gap between the metal
plates to be butt-welded. The heat transfer
efficiency for the process is 0.8, melting
efficiency is 0.3 and the heat required to melt
the electrode is 20 J/mm3 . If the travel speed
of the electrode is 4 mm/s, the cross-
sectional area, in mm2 , of the weld joint is
______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
2.3 Two aluminum alloy plates each 10 mm
thick and 1 m long are welded without
crowning by multipass tungsten inert gas
butt welding. The joint configuration is V-
type with 600 angle and root gap is
maintained at 5 mm. if electrode of 5 mm
diameter with 500 mm length is used for
welding, then the number of electrodes
required is [2 Marks]
(A) 7 (B) 9
(C) 11 (D) 13
2016 IISc Bangalore
4 Production Engineering
100 V and short circuit current of 1000 A.
Assume a linear relationship between
voltage and current. The arc voltage (V)
varies with the arc length (l) as V = 10 + 5l,
where V is in volts and l is in mm. The
maximum available arc power during the
process is _________ kVA (in integer).
[2 Marks]
2.4 Two flat steel sheets, each of 2.5 mm
thickness, are being resistance spot welded
using a current of 6000 A and weld time of
0.2 s. The contact resistance at the interface
between the two sheets is 200  and the
specific energy to melt steel is 10 109 J/m3 .
A spherical melt pool of diameter 4 mm is
formed at the interface due to the current
flow. Consider that electrical energy is
completely converted to thermal energy. The
ratio of the heat used for melting to the total
resistive heat generated _____. [2 Marks]
2.5 In linear gas tungsten arc welding of two
plates of the same material, the peak
cq
temperature T (in K) is given as T  1 ,

where q is the heat input per unit length
(in J/m) of weld,  is the thermal
diffusivity (in m 2 /s ) of the plate materials
and C1 is a constant independent of
process parameters and material types.
Two welding cases are given below,
Case 1 :
V  15 V, I  200 A, v  5 mm/s ,
k  150 W/mK,   3000 kg/m3 ,
C  900 J/kg-K
Case 2 :
V  15 V, I  300 A, v  10 mm/s,
k  50 W/mK,   8000kg/m3 ,
C  450 J/kg-K
 where, V is welding voltage, I is welding
current, v is welding speed, and k ,  and C
refer to the thermal conductivity, the density
and the specific heat of the plate materials,
respectively. Consider that electrical energy
is completely converted to thermal energy.
All other conditions remain same.
The ratio of the peak temperature in Case 1
to that in Case 2 is [2 Marks]
1 1
(A) (B)
3 2
(C) 1 (D) 2
2017 IIT Roorkee
2.6 In gas tungsten arc welding process, the
material coated on pure tungsten electrode to
enhance its current carrying capacity is
[1 Mark]
(A) Titanium (B) Manganese
(C) Radium (D) Thorium
2.7 An electron beam welding process uses 15
mA beam current at an accelerating voltage
of 150 kV. The energy released per second
by the beam (in J) is _______ (up to one
decimal place). (1 Ampere  6.28 1018
electrons per second, 1eV  1.6 1019 J )
[2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
2.8 In a oxy-acetylene gas welding process,
oxygen and acetylene are mixed in a ratio of
1.5 : 1 (by volume). The flame is
[1 Mark]
(A) Neutral (B) Carburizing
(C) Reducing (D) Oxidizing
2.9 Two metallic sheets are spot welded by
passing a current of 8000 A for 0.2 s.
Assume that a cylindrical nugget of 8 mm
diameter and 3 mm depth is formed. The
density of nugget is 7500 kg/m3 , effective
resistance of the total system is 222 micro-
Ohm and heat required to produce 1.0 gram
of nugget is 1400 J. The percentage of heat
Production Engineering
actually utilized in producing the nugget is
_______. [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
2.10 The correct statement pertaining to the
friction welding process is [1 Mark]
(A) Heat affected zone is not formed
(B) Flashes are not produced
(C) Dissimilar materials cannot be joined
(D) Melting of the base material (s) is not
involved
2.11 The heat transfer efficiency in arc welding of
a plate using a using a current of 250 A at
20 V is 90%. The heat required to melt the
material is 10 J/mm3 . If the cross-sectional
area of the weld joint is 30 mm2 and the
travel speed is 5 mm/s , the melting efficiency
(in %) is ____. (round off to 2 decimal
places) [2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
2.12 The heat generated in a resistance spot
welding operation for joining two metal
sheets with a certain set of process
parameters is 2000 J. For a second spot
welding operation on the same sheets
without any change in the overall resistance
of the system, the current
is increased by 25% and the time for which
the current is applied is reduced to half.The
neat generated in the second operation
(rounded off to one decimal place) in J is
_____. [2 Marks]
5
 Explanations Welding (ME)
2.1 (A)
1. Friction welding joins cylindrical dissimilar
materials. In this process joining takes
place by diffusion rather than by actual
melting.
2. Gas metal arc welding uses consumable
electrode wire.
3. Tungsten inert gas welding uses non-
consumable electrode.
4. Electoslag welding joins thick plate.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
2.2 (A)
Aluminium form a very hard oxide layer which
unless removed prevents proper fusion is also
forms vary quickly so you need to weld with
reverse polarity or AC so the current flow strips
off oxide as it forms.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Key Point
Welding of the aluminium is considered to be
slightly difficult than the steel due to high thermal
and electrical conductivity, high thermal
expansion coefficient, refractory aluminium
oxide (Al2O3 ) formation tendency and low
stiffness.
2.3 (B)
In solid-state welding like cold pressure welding
operations, when force of large amount is applied
on the metals, deformations, of metals takes place
of plates move slightly which leads to remove of
contaminated layer.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
 Key Point
Advantages of solid state welding :
6 Production Engineering
(i) Weld (bonding) is free from microstructure
defects (pores, non-metallic inclusions,
segregation of alloying elements).
(ii) Mechanical properties of the weld are
similar to those of the parent metals.
(iii) No consumable materials (filler material,
fluxes, shielding gases) are required.
(iv) Dissimilar metals may be joined (steel -
aluminum alloy steel - copper alloy).
Disadvantages of solid state welding :
(i) Thorough surface preparation is required
(degreasing, oxides removal,
brushing/sanding).
(ii) Expensive equipment.
The following processes are related to Solid
State welding :
(i) Forge Welding (FOW)
(ii) Cold Welding (CW)
(iii) Friction Welding (FRW)
(iv) Explosive Welding (EXW)
(v) Diffusion Welding (DFW)
(vi) Ultrasonic Welding (USW)
2.4 (A)
The area of base metal adjacent to the weld pool is
called heat affected zone. Since, this area is
subjected to a high temperature for considerable
period of time as compare to the rest portion of
base metal, so it’s microstructure changes and
different from base metal or prior to welding.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
2.5 150
Given : Welding current ( I )  10000 A
Time of current flow (T )  0.2sec
Heat dissipated ( H d )  1000 J
Heat required for melting ( H m )  20 J/mm3
Resistance ( R )  0.0002 
Total heat generated in resistance welding given Then as per Europeon standard it is 100% duty
by, cycle and 50% as per American standard.
 I 2 RT  100002  0.0002  0.2  4000 J At 100% duct cycle minimum current is to be
drawn i.e., with the reduction of duty cycle current
Heat required to melt nugget is given by,
drawn can be of higher level.
H a  4000  1000  3000 J  Constant duty cycle  Welding power
Volume of nugget is given by,  Q/L
H a 3000 Also higher the welding speed lesser the heat input
  150 mm 3
Hm 20 per unit length. So it is inversely proportional.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the volume of weld nugget is 150 mm 3 .
2.8 (A)
2.6 70
A fusion welding process using heat without the
Given : Yield strength ( y )  500 MPa addition of filler metal to join two pieces of the
Ultimate tensile strength (ut )  700 MPa same metal is called Autogenous Welding.
Thickness of plate (t )  8 mm
Width of plate (b)  20 mm
Undercut ( x)  3mm
Due to undercut, the load bearing area reduces,
 b  (t  x )  20  (8  3)  100 mm2
Maximum load carrying capacity of the weld Fig. Diffusion welding
 ut 100  700 100  70000  70 kN
Hence, the maximum transverse tensile load
carrying capacity of the developed weld joint is 70
kN.
2.7 (C)
Welding power given the heat input per unit
length.
Q
Welding power  Fig. Friction welding
L Hence, the correct option is (A).
and, IV  Welding power
Q 2.9 150
 IV
L Given : Open circuit voltage (OCV) = 80V
Arcing time Short circuit current (SCC) = 300 A
Again, duty cycle  100
Weld cycle time The linear relation between voltage and circuit is
Where, weld cycle time expressed as,
 5 min [European standard]  OCV   80 
V  (OCV )    I  80   I
 10 min [American standard]  SCC   300 
With the help of this power source are designed.
If, Arcing time  5 min [continuously]

Production Engineering 7
 Hence, we have
V1 I1 V2 I 2

v1 v2
60  50 60  I 2

150 120
I  40 A
Power of arc = Voltage  Current Hence, the correct option is (A).
P  VI
 80  80 2
P   80  I  I
 300  300
dP 2.11 (B)
For the maximum arc power 0
dI Granular flux used in welding is a type of granular
dP 2  80 insulating material that is made up of numerous
 80  I 0 small particles. In submerged arc welding (SAW),
dI 300
the granular flux provides a blanket over the weld
8
I  80 which protects against sparks and spatter. In saw,
15 the granular flux is frequently the means
80 15 for achieving high deposition rates. The flux is
I  150 A
8 also instrumental in producing the type of quality
Hence, the current should be set as 150 Amperes. weld that is common in this particular welding
process.
 Key Point
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Trick to find V and I for maximum arc power is
that there value is half of the OCV and SCC.  Key Point
Hence, V  40 V and I  150 A . The granular flux used in SAW serves several
functions. In additional to providing a protective
cover over the weld, the flux shields and cleans
the molten puddle. The flux also affects the
chemical composition of the weld, the weld bead
2.10 (A) shape, and the mechanical properties of the weld.
Another function of granular flux is act as a
Given : barrier that holds the heat in and concentrates the
Condition 1 : heat into the weld area to promote deep
Voltage (V1 )  60V penetration
Arc current ( Ii )  50 A 2.12 (D)

Welding Speed (v1 )  150mm/min For copper, Twelding  Tbrazing  Tsoldering

Condition 2 :
Welding speed (v2 )  120mm/min
Voltage (V2 )  60 V
Heat input is given by, Q  VI  T
Where, time (T) is inversely proportional to
welding speed (v).
8 Production Engineering
Fusion welding in which the metal parts are heated
until they melt together, can be performed with or
without the addition of filler material.
Brazing, braze welding and soldering are metal
joining processes by atomic bonding in which a
filler material of lower melting point than the
parent metal is used to make the bond.
In these processes the parent metal is not melting 5 V0 5  340
 I0    425A
as in the case of welding. Joint obtained by means 4 4
of diffusion of filter metal into the base metal and Hence, the short circuit current is 425 A.
by surface alloy formation.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
2.13 2.91
Given : Current ( I )  4 kA  4000 A 2.15 50
Time = (T )  0.2sec
Given : Mass  2 kg
Diameter of nugget = (d n )  5mm
Time for phase change = 10 sec
Latent heat of steel ( L)  1400 kJ/kg
Heat rate  10 kJ / sec
Resistance ( R)  200   200 106 
 Heat 
Density of steel ()  8000 kg/m3   ×(Time) fusion
Latent heat   sec 
Heat received by weld nugget mass
= Heat given by source 10 J / sec 10 sec
  50 kJ / kg
Mass  L  I 2 R  T 2 kg
Mass  L  (4000)2  200 10 6  0.2 Hence, the latent heat of fusion of the metal is 50
(Density  Volume) 1400 103  640 kJ/kg.

  2.16 (D)
   d n 2  tn   1400  103  640 J
4  Since, all process parameter are constant
Thickness, tn  2.91mm Material deposition rate = Constant
Hence, the thickness of the nugget is 2.91 mm. MDR  A V  Constant
2.14 425
1
A
V
Given :
A2 V1 V
Voltage-length characteristic, V  100  40 l   
A1 V2 2V
When, l  1mm , I  250 A
A1
 V  100  40  l  140 V A2 
2
V0
and V  V0   250 By doubling welding speed, area reduces by 50%.
I0 Hence, the correct option is (D).
V0
 140  V0   250 …(i)  Key Point
I0
VI
l  2 mm , I  200 A Hs 
When, vAb
 V  100  40  180 V If v is doubled (2v) to make H s constant Ab will
V
and 180  V0  0  200 …(ii) be reduced by 50% .
I0
VI VI
Solving equation (i) & (ii) we get, Hs  
A
2v b vAb
V 4 2
Vo  340 and 0 
I0 5

Production Engineering 9
 concentrate coherent light beam impinging upon
the surfaces to be joined. The focused laser
beam has the highest energy concentration or heat
2.17 (C) flux of any known source of energy.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Symbol for fillet weld (T-joint),
2.20 0.7
Given : Voltage applied (V )  20 Volts
Current ( I )  250 A
Welding speed (v)  5 mm/sec and H  0.70 .
So, net heat supplied is given by,
VI 250  20
Q  H   0.70
v 5
Q  700 J/mm  0.7 kJ/mm
Hence, the net heat input per unit length of the
weld will be 0.7 kJ/mm.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.21 (B)
2.18 7.5
Processes with low rate of heat input (slow
Given : Voltage (V )  30 V heating) tend to produce high total heat constant
Welding current ( I )  100 A within the metal, slow cooling rates, and large heat
Area of weld bead ( A)  20 mm2 affected zones, high heat input process, have low
total heats, fast cooling rates and small heat
Specific energy of melting (C )  14J/mm3 affected zones.
Thermal efficiency ()  70% Hence, the correct option is (B).
Power is given by, 2.22 33.6
P  (VI )  
Given : t  1.55 mm , I  10000 A
P  (30 100)  0.70  2100 J/s
T  0.25 sec , R  0.0001  , V  70 mm3
P
 Specific energy,   Specific heat required for melting  12 J/mm3
A V
Where, A  Area of weld bead 12  70
th  100
V  Welding speed I 2 RT
2100 12  70
14  th  100  33.6%
20 V 10000  0.0001 0.25
2

2100 Hence, the thermal efficiency of the welding

V  7.5 mm/s
20 14 process is 33.6%.
Hence, the welding speed is 7.5 mm/s. 2.23 A
In case of Heisler chart,

2.19 (A)
Laser beam welding (LBW) is a welding process
which produces coalescence of materials with
the heat obtained from the application of a

10 Production Engineering
 Available energy  H .T m  Pin
 0.7  0.6  3000
 1260 J/sec
So, Biot number and Fourier number are required
to determine instantaneous centre temperature of Rate of deposition of filler material  Cross-
the ball. sectional Area of filler  feed rate
Hence, the correct option is (A).  2
d  f
2.24 39.269 4
Given : dn  5 mm , hn  1 mm , t  0.1sec Rate of welding at which bead is forming
 Rate of deposition of filler material
Melting energy  20 J/mm3
 2
 Area of weld  Welding speed  % Volume
 5 1 20 of filler  Rate of deposition of filler
4
material
  0.1  0.1
Power 
 A VS  0.6   d 2  f
Power = 39269.90 Watts 4
Power = 39.269 kW … (i)
Hence, the power required for performing the spot Heat required,
welding operation is 39.269 kW. Available energy
(Q) 
2.25 10.695 Area of weld  Welding speed
Given : 1260
10 
Voltage (V )  20 V A  5
Current ( I )  150 A A  25.2 mm2
Welding speed (Vs )  5 mm/s Putting value of A in equation (i), we get
Diameter of filler wire (d )  3 mm 
25.2  5  0.6   32  f
Heat required to meet m.s material 4
(Q)  10 J/mm 3
Feed rate of wire, ( f )  10.695 mm/sec
Heat transfer efficiency, (HT )  0.7 Hence, the correct answer is 10.695.
Heat melting efficiency (m )  0.6 2.26 25
Given :
Let feed rate of filler wire be f,
Open Circuit Voltage (VOC )  100 V
Input energy ( Pin )  VI
Short Circuit Current ( I SC )  1000 A
 150  20  3000 J/sec
Here,
V  10  5l
For maximum power
Production Engineering 11
 VOC 100 1000
VArc   
2 2 2
I  50  500
I arc  SC
2  25000 VA
So,  25 kVA
Maximum Power P, Hence, the maximum available power during the
P  Varc  I arc process is 25 kVA.
VOC IOC
 
2 2

Explanations Welding (PE & IE)

Hence, the cross-sectional area is 48 mm 2 .

2.1 (D)
Brazing and soldering are the non-fusion welding
operations i.e. parent metal will not be melted,
hence the joint formation is heterogeneous and the
filler material is different with parent metal.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
2.2 48
2.3 (C)
Given : Thickness of plates (t )  10 mm
Length of plates (l )  1m  1000 mm
V-Joint ( PQR)  600
Root gap between plate ( x)  5 mm
Diameter of electrode (de )  5mm

Given : Voltage (V )  40 Volts Length of electrode (le )  500 mm

Welding current ( I )  400 A
Heat transfer efficiency (th )  0.8
Melting efficiency (m )  0.3
Heat required to melt electrode
(Qm )  20 J/mm3
Speed of electrode (v)  4 mm/s
Heat generated is given by, Distance, AF  AB  x  DF
Q  VI  40  400  16000 W  (tan 300 )  t  5  (tan 300 )  t
 Heat utilized, AF  16.55 mm
Qu  Q m th  16000  0.3  0.8 Volume of welded bead,
1
Qu  3870 W Vw  [( AF  CE )  t ]  l
2
Volume filling rate of weld bead,
1
 Area  Velocity  ( A  4) mm3 /s Vw  [(16.55  5) 10] 1000
2
 Rate of heat required, Vw  107750 mm3
QR  4 A  Qm  80 A W
Volume of electrode,
From energy balance,  
Qu  QR Ve   (de )2  le   (5)2  500
4 4
3840  80 A Ve  9817.45 mm 3

A  48mm2 Number of electrodes required

12 Production Engineering
 Vw 107750 T1 q1  2
   10.97  11   
Ve 9817.45 T2 q2 1
Hence, the correct option is (C). T1 6 105 13.88 10 6
2.4 0.2327
 
T2 4.5 105 55.5 10 6
Given : Thickness of sheets (t )  2.5 mm T1 6 13.88 1
  0.333 
Welding current ( I )  6000 A T2 4.5  55.55 3
Welding time (T )  0.2sec Hence, the correct option is (A).
6
Resistance ( R)  200   200 10  2.6 (D)
Specific energy (e)  10 10 J/m
9 3
Thoriated tungsten electrodes contain a minimum
Weld nugget diameter (dn )  4 mm of 97.30% tungsten and 1.70 to 2.20% thorium and
are called 2% thoriated. They are the most
 rn  2 103 m
commonly used electrodes today and are preferred
Heat generated in resistance welding is given by, for their longevity and ease of use.
H g  I 2 RT  (6000)2  200 106  0.2 Thorium increases the electron emission qualities
H g  1440 J of the electrode, which improves arc starts and
allows for a higher current carrying capacity.
Again, heat required,
Hence, the correct option is (D).
4
H R  Volume  e  (rn )3  e 2.7 2260
3
4
H R   (2 103 )3 10 109 Given : Current ( I )  15 mA
3
Voltage (V )  150 103 V
H R  335.103J
1 Ampere  6.28 1018 electrons per second
 Required ratio is given by,
H 335.103 1eV  1.6 1019 J
 R   0.2327
Hg 1440 Now, total energy carrying by electrons is given
by,
Hence, the ratio of the heat used for melting to the
total resistive heat generated 0.2327. Ee  1.6 1019 150 103  2.4 1014 J
2.5 (A) Total no. of electrons in the beam,
Thermal diffusivity is given by, N e  6.28 1018  0.015
k N e  9.42 1016 electrons/sec

C Beam energy per second is is given by,
150 E  Ee  Ne
For case 1, 1   55.5 10 6
3000  900 E  2.4 1014  9.42 1016  2260 J/sec
50 Hence, the energy released per second by the beam
For case 2, 2   13.88 10 6
8000  450 is 2260 J/s.
VI 15  200 2.8 (D)
For case 1, q1   3
 6 105
r 5 10 Oxidizing flame has excess oxygen than required
15  300 for a neutral flame. Oxygen acetylene ratio may be
For case 1, q2  3
 4.5 105
10 10 1.15 to 1.50. To get an oxidizing flame acetylene
supply is reduced in a neutral flame. Inner cone is
slightly shorter and more pointed in this case. An
Production Engineering 13
 oxidizing flame has a harsh sound and envelope is 2.11 33.33
short and narrow.
Given :
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Heat transfer efficiency of arc (h )  0.9
2.9 55.67
Current ( I )  250 A
Given : Welding current ( I )  8000 A
Voltage (V )  20 V
Time of current flow (T )  0.2sec
Heat required to melt the material
Diameter of nugget (d n )  8mm  0.008 m
( H m )  10 J/mm3
Depth of nugget (hn )  3mm  0.003m
Area of weld bead ( A)  30 mm2
Density of nugget (n )  7500 kg/m 3
Welding speed (v)  5 mm/s
Resistance ( R)  222   222 106  m  Melting efficiency
Heat required to produce nugget  1400 J/gram
Hm Hm
Heat generated in resistance welding is given by, m  
H s VI  
H g  I 2 RT  (8000)2  222 106  0.2 Av
h

H g  2841.6 J 10
m   0.3333
250  20
Again mass of nugget is given by,  0.9
  30  5
mn  n Vn  7500    ( d n ) 2  hn  m  33.33%
4 
  Hence, the melting efficiency is 33.33%.
mn  7500   (0.008) 2  0.003
4  2.12 1562.5
mn  1.13 10 kg  1.13gm
3
Given : Heat generated ( H g )1  2000 J
Heat utilized is given by, According to question,
Hu  m 1400 For second spot welding operation,
Hu  1.13 1400  1582 J t1
Current ( I 2 )  1.25  I1 and time (t2 ) 
The % of heat actually utilized 2
H 1582 Now, heat generated in second spot welding,
 u  100  55.67% ( H g ) 2  ( I 2 ) 2 R2t2
H g 2841.6
Hence, the percentage of heat actually utilized in t1
( H g )2  (1.25I 2 )2 R
producing the nugget is 55.67. 2
2.10 (D) ( Resistance  R2  R1  R for same sheet)
Friction welding : In friction welding one piece is (1.25) 2 2
( H g )2   I1 Rt1
rotated and the other is made to rub against it under 2
an axial load resulting in increased friction, heat (1.25)2
generation and joining when the pieces are ( H g )2  ( H g )1
2
brought to rest under enhanced axial load. There is
(1.25)2
no melting material. Narrow HAZ, if any. ( H g )2   2000  1562.5 J
Dissimilar metals can be joined. 2
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the heat generated in the second operation
is 1562.5 J.



14 Production Engineering
3 Machining

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2013 IIT Bombay chip thickness (in mm) is _______.

[1 Mark]
3.1 A steel bar 200 mm in diameter is turned at
3.5 Cutting tool is much harder than the work
a feed of 0.25 mm/rev with a depth of cut of
piece. Yet the tool wears out during the tool-
4 mm. The rotational speed of the workpiece
work interaction, because [1 Mark]
is 160 rpm. The material removal rate in
(A) Extra hardness is imparted to the work
mm 3 /s is [1 Mark]
piece due to coolant used.
(A) 160 (B) 167.6
(B) Oxide layers on the work piece surface
(C) 1600 (D) 1675.5 impart extra hardness to it.
2014 IIT Kharagpur (C) Extra hardness is imparted to the work
3.2 The main cutting force acting on a tool piece due to severe rate of strain.
during the turning (orthogonal cutting) (D) Vibration of induced in the machine tool.
operation of a metal is 400 N. The turning 3.6 Two separate slab milling operations, 1 and
was performed using 2 mm depth of cut and 2, are performed with identical milling
0.1 mm/rev feed rate. The specific cutting cutters. The depth of cut in operation 2 is
pressure (in N/mm 2 ) is [1 Mark] twice that in operation 1. The other cutting
(A) 1000 (B) 2000 parameters are identical. The ratio of
maximum uncut chip thicknesses in
(C) 3000 (D) 4000
operations 1 and 2 is ________. [1 Mark]
3.3 Match the machine tools (Group-A) with
3.7 Better surface finish is obtained with a large
the probable operations (Group-B) :
rake angle because [1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
(A) The area of shear plane decreases
Group-A Group-B resulting in the decrease in shear force
P. Centre lathe 1. Slotting and cutting force.
Q. Milling 2. Counter-boring (B) The tool becomes thinner and the cutting
R. Grinding 3. Knurling force is reduced.
S. Drilling 4. Dressing (C) Less heat is accumulated in the cutting
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 zone.
(D) The friction between the chip and the
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
tool is less.
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 3.8 During pure orthogonal turning operation of
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 a hollow cylindrical pipe, it is found that the
3.4 A straight turning operation is carried out thickness of the chip produced is 0.5 mm.
using a single point cutting tool on an AISI The feed given to the zero degree rake angle
1020 steel rod. The feed is 0.2 mm/rev and tool is 0.2 mm/rev. The shear strain produced
the depth of cut is 0.5 mm. The tool has a during the operation is ________.
side cutting edge angle of 600 . The uncut [2 Marks]

Production Engineering 1
 3.9 If the Taylor's tool life exponent n is 0.2 and
the tool changing time is 1.5 min, then the
tool life (in min) for maximum production
rate is _______. [2 Marks]
3.10 A hole of 20 mm diameter is to be drilled in
a steel block of 40 mm thickness. The
drilling is performed at rotational speed of
400 rpm and feed rate of 0.1 mm/rev. The
required approach and over run of the drill
together is equal to the radius of drill. The
drilling time (in minute) is [2 Marks]
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.25
(C) 1.50 (D) 1.75
3.11 Which pair of following statements is correct
for orthogonal cutting using a single-point
cutting tool? [2 Marks]
P. Reduction in friction angle increases
cutting force.
Q. Reduction in friction angle decreases
cutting force.
R. Reduction in friction angle increases
chip thickness
S. Reduction in friction angle decreases
chip thickness
(A) P and R (B) P and S
(C) Q and R (D) Q and S
3.12 A cast iron block of 200 mm length is being
shaped in a shaping machine with a depth of
cut of 4 mm, feed of 0.25 mm/ stroke and the
tool principal cutting edge angle of 300 .
Number of cutting strokes per minute is 60.
Using specific energy for cutting as 1.49
J/mm3, the average power consumption (in
watt) is_______. [2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
3.13 Under certain cutting conditions, doubling
the cutting speed reduces the tool life to
th
1
  of the original. Taylor’s tool life
 16 
index ( n ) for this tool-work piece
combination will be _____. [1 Mark]
2 Production Engineering
3.14 In a machining operation, if the generatrix
and directrix both are straight lines, the
surface obtained is [1 Mark]
(A) Cylindrical
(B) Helical
(C) Plane
(D) Surface of revolution
3.15 An orthogonal turning operation is carried
out under the following conditions ; rake
angle  50 , spindle rotational speed = 400
rpm; axial feed = 0.4 m/min and radial depth
of cut = 5 mm. The chip thickness tc , is
found to be 3 mm. The shear angle (in
degree) in this turning process is ______.
[2 Marks]
0
3.16 A single point cutting tool with 0 rake angle
is used in an orthogonal machining process.
At a cutting speed of 180 m/min, the thrust
force is 490 N. If the coefficient of friction
between the tool and the chip is 0.7, then the
power consumption (in kW) for the
machining operation is ________.
[2 Marks]
3.17 Orthogonal turning of a mild steel tube with
a tool of rake angle 10 0 carried out at a feed
of 0.14 mm/rev. If the thickness of the chip
produced is 0.28 mm, the values of shear
angle and shear strain will be respectively
[2 Marks]
0
(A) 28 20' and 2.19
(B) 220 20' and 3.53
(C) 24030' and 3.53
(D) 370 20' and 5.19
3.18 A shaft of length 90 mm has a tapered
portion of length 55 mm. The diameter of the
taper is 80 mm at one end and 65 mm at the
other. If the taper is made by tailstock set
over method, the taper angle and the set over
respectively are : [2 Marks]
0
(A) 15 32 ' and 12.16 mm
(B) 15032 ' and 15.66 mm
(C) 110 22' and 10.26 mm
(D) 10032 ' and 14.46 mm
 2016 IISc Bangalore
3.19 The following data is applicable for a turning
operation. The length of job is 900 mm,
diameter of job is 200 mm, feed rate is 0.25
mm/rev and optimum cutting speed is 300
m/min. The machining time (in min) is
______. [1 Mark]
3.20 In an orthogonal cutting process the tool
used has rake angle of zero degree. The
measured cutting force and thrust force are
500 N and 250 N, respectively. The
coefficient of friction between the tool and
the chip is _____. [1 Mark]
3.21 The tool life equation for HSS tool is
VT 0.14 f 0.7 d 0.4  Constant. The tool life (T) of
30 min is obtained using the following
cutting conditions :
V  45 m / min , f  0.35 mm ,
d  2.0 mm
If speed (V ) , feed ( f ) and depth of cut ( d )
are increased individually by 25%, the tool
life (in min) is [2 Marks]
(A) 0.15 (B) 1.06
(C) 22.50 (D) 30.0
3.22 For an orthogonal cutting operation, tool
material is HSS, rake angle is 220 , chip
thickness is 0.8 mm, speed is 48 m/min and
feed is 0.4 mm/rev. The shear plane angle (in
degrees) is [2 Marks]
(A) 19.24 (B) 29.70
(C) 56.00 (D) 68.75
3.23 For a certain job, the cost of metal cutting is
Rs. 18 C/V and the cost of tooling is Rs. 270
C/(TV), where C is a constant, V is cutting
speed in m/min and T is the tool life in
minutes. The Taylor’s tool life equation is
VT 0.25  150 . The cutting speed (in m/min)
for the minimum total cost is ______.
[2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
3.24 Two cutting tools with tool life equations
given below are being compared :
Tool 1 : VT 0.1  150
Production Engineering
Tool 2 : VT 0.3  300
where V is cutting speed in m/minute and T
is tool life in minutes. The breakeven cutting
speed beyond which Tool 2 will have a
higher tool life is ______ m/minute.
[2 Marks]
3.25 A block of length 200 mm is machined by a
slab milling cutter 34 mm in diameter. The
depth of cut and table feed are set at 2 mm
and 18 mm/minute, respectively.
Considering the approach and the over travel
of the cutter to be same, the minimum
estimated machining time per pass is ______
minutes. [2 Marks]
3.26 In an orthogonal machining with a tool of 9 0
orthogonal rake angle, the uncut chip
thickness is 0.2 mm. The chip thickness
fluctuates between 0.25 mm and 0.4 mm.
The ratio of the maximum shear angle to the
minimum shear angle during machining is
______. [2 Marks]
3.27 During the turning of a 20 mm-diameter steel
bar at a spindle speed of 400 rpm, a tool life
of 20 minute is obtained. When the same bar
is turned at 200 rpm, the tool life becomes 60
minute. Assume that Taylor’s tool life
equation is valid. When the bar is turned at
300 rpm, the tool life (in minute) is
approximately [2 Marks]
(A) 25 (B) 32
(C) 40 (D) 50
2018 IIT Guwahati
3.28 Using the Taylor’s tool life equation with
exponent n  0.5 , if the cutting speed is
reduced by 50%, the ratio of new tool life to
original tool life is? [1 Mark]
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 0.5
3.29 A grinding ratio of 200 implies that the
[1 Mark]
(A) Grinding wheel wears 200 times the
volume of the material removed
3
 (B) Grinding wheel wears 0.005 times the
volume of the material removed
(C) Aspect ratio of abrasive particles used in
the grinding wheel is 200
(D) Ratio of volume of abrasive particle to
that of grinding wheel is 200
3.30 The preferred option for holding an odd-
shaped work piece in a centre lathe is
[1 Mark]
(A) Live and dead centres
(B) Three jaw chuck
(C) Lathe dog
(D) Four jaw chuck
3.31 Feed rate in slab milling operation is equal to
[1 Mark]
(A) Rotation per minute (rpm)
(B) Product of rpm and number of teeth in
the cutter
(C) Product of rpm, feed per tooth number of
teeth in the cutter
(D) Product of rpm, feed per tooth and
number of teeth in contact.
3.32 An orthogonal cutting operation is being
carried out in which uncut thickness is 0.010
mm, cutting speed is 130 m/min, rake angle
is 150 and width of cut is 6 mm. It is
observed that the chip thickness is 0.015
mm, the cutting force is 60 N and the thrust
force is 25 N. The ratio of friction energy to
total energy is _______ (correct to two
decimal places). [2 Marks]
3.33 Taylor's tool life equation is used to estimate
the life of a batch of identical HSS twist
drills by drilling through holes at constant
feed in 20 mm thick mild steel plates. In test
1, a drill lasted 300 holes at 150 rpm while
in test 2, another drill lasted 200 holes at 300
rpm. The maximum number of holes that can
be made by another drill from the above
batch at 200 rpm is______ (correct to two
decimal places). [2 Marks]
3.34 Following data correspond to an orthogonal
turning of a 100 mm diameter rod on a lathe.
Rake angle: 150 ; Uncut chip thickness: 0.5
mm: nominal chip thickness after the cut:
4 Production Engineering
1.25 mm. The shear angle (in degrees) for
this process is _____ (correct to two decimal
places). [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
3.35 The length, width and thickness of a steel
sample are 400 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm,
respectively. Its thickness needs to be
uniformly reduced by 2 mm in a single pass
by using horizontal slab milling. The milling
cutter (diameter : 100 mm, width : 50 mm)
has 20 teeth and rotates at 1200 rpm. The
feed per tooth is 0.05 mm. The feed direction
is along the length of the sample. It the over
travel distance is the same as the approach
distance, the approach distance and time
taken to complete the required machining
task are [1 Mark]
(A) 14 mm, 21.4 s
(B) 21 mm, 39.4 s
(C) 14 mm, 18.4 s
(D) 21 mm, 28.9 s
3.36 In an orthogonal machining with a single
point cutting tool of rake angle 100 , the
uncut chip thickness and the chip thickness
are 0.125 mm and 0.22 mm respectively.
Using merchant’s first solution for the
condition of minimum cutting force, the
coefficient of friction at the chip-tool
interface is ______. [2 Marks]
3.37 A through hole is drilled in an aluminium
alloy plate of 15 mm thickness with a drill
bit of diameter 10 mm, at a feed of 0.25
mm/revolution and a spindle speed of 1200
rpm. If the specific energy required for
cutting this material is 0.7 Nm/mm3, the
power required for drilling is ______ W.
(Round off to 2 decimal place) [2 Marks]
3.38 Taylor’s tool life equation is given by
VT n  c , where V is in m/min and T is in
min. In a turning operation two tools X and
Y are used. For X , n  0.3 and c  60 and
for Y , n  0.6 and c  90 . Both the tools
will have same tool life for cutting speed (in
 min, round off to two decimal places) of
______. [2 Marks]
3.39 In ASA system, the side cutting and end
cutting edge angles of a sharp turning tool
are 450 and 10 0 respectively. The feed
during cylindrical turning is 0.1 mm/rev. The
centre line average surface roughness (in
m , round off to two decimal place) of the
generated surface is _______. [2 Marks]
3.40 In orthogonal turning of a cylindrical tube of
wall thickness 5 mm, the axial and tangential
cutting forces were measured as 1259 N and
1601 N, respectively. The measured chip
thickness after machining was found to be
0.3 mm. The rake angle was 10 0 and axial
feed was 100 mm/min. The rotational speed
of the spindle was 1000 rpm. Assuming the
material to be perfectly plastic and
Merchant’s first solution, the shear strength
of the material is closest to [2 Marks]
(A) 875 MPa (B) 920 MPa
(C) 722 MPa (D) 200 MPa
2020 IIT Delhi
3.41 The base of a brass bracket needs rough
grinding. For this purpose, the most suitable
grinding wheel grade specification is
[1 Mark]
(A) C30Q12V (B) A50G8V
(C) A30D12V (D) C90J4B
3.42 The process that uses a tapered horn to
amplify and focus the mechanical energy for
machining of glass, is [1 Mark]
(A) electrical discharge machining
(B) electrochemical machining
(C) abrasive jet machining
(D) ultrasonic machining
3.43 A slot of 25 mm × 25 mm is to be milled in
a work piece of 300 mm length using a side
and face milling cutter of diameter 100 mm,
width 25 mm and having 20 teeth.
For a depth cut of 5 mm, feed per tooth 0.1
mm, cutting speed 35 m/min and approach
and over travel distance of 5 mm each. The
Production Engineering
time required for milling the slot is ______
minutes (round off to 1 decimal place).
[2 Marks]
3.44 In a turning process using orthogonal tool
geometry, a chip length of 100 mm is
obtained for an uncut chip length of 250 mm.
The cutting conditions are : Cutting speed =
30 m/min, rake angle  200 .
The shear plane angle is ______ degree.
(round off to 1 decimal places) [2 Marks]
3.45 There are two identical shaping machines S1
and S 2 . In machine S 2 , the width of the work
piece is increased by 10% and the feed is
decreased by 10%, with respect to that of S1
. If all other conditions remain the same then
the ratio of total time per pass in S1 and S 2
will be ____. (round of to one decimal
place). [2 Marks]
3.46 A cylindrical bar with 200 mm diameter is
being turned with a tool having geometry
00  90  7 0  80 150  300  0.05 inch
(Coordinate system, ASA) in a cutting force
Fc1 . If the tool geometry is changed to
00  90  7 0  80 150  00  0.05 inch
(Coordinate system, ASA) and all other
parameter remain unchanged, the cutting
force changes to Fc2 . Specific cutting energy
in (J/mm3 ) is U C  U 0 (t1 ) 0.4 , where U 0 is
specific energy coefficient, and t1 is the
uncut thickness in mm. The value of
percentage change in cutting force Fc2 , i.e.,
 Fc2  Fc1 
  100 is ______. (round off to
 Fc1 
one decimal place). [2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
3.47 An orthogonal cutting operation is
performed using a single point cutting tool
with a rake angle of 120 on a lathe. During
turning, the cutting force and the friction
force are 1000 N & 600 N, respectively. If
5
 the chip thickness and the uncut chip
thickness during turning are 1.5 mm and 0.75
mm, respectively, then the shear force
is______N (round off to two decimal places)
[2 Marks]
3.48 The correct sequence of machining
operations to be performed to finish a large
diameter through hole is
[1 Mark]
(A) drilling, reaming, boring
(B) drilling, boring, reaming
(C) boring, reaming, drilling
(D) boring, drilling, reaming
3.49 In grinding operation of metal, specific
energy consumption is 15 J/mm3 . If a
grinding wheel with a diameter of 200 mm
is rotating at 3000 rpm to obtain a material
removal rate of 6000 mm3 / min , then the
tangential force on the wheel is
_______N(round off to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
3.50 In a machining operation, if a cutting tool
traces the workpiece such that directrix is
perpendicular to the plane of the generatrix
as shown in figure, the surface generated is
[2 Marks]
(A) spherical
(B) cylindrical
(C) a surface of revolutions
(D) plane
3.51 In a pure orthogonal turning by a zero rake
angle single point carbide cutting tool, the
shear force has been computed to be 400 N.
If the cutting velocity, Vc  100 m/min ,
depth of cut, t  2.0 mm , feed,
S0  0.1mm/revolution and chip velocity,
V f  20 m/min , then the shear strength,  s
of the material will be _____________
6 Production Engineering
MPa.(round off to two decimal places).
[1 Mark]
3.52 A surface grinding operation has been
performed on a Cast Iron plate having
dimensions 300 mm (length)  10 mm
(width)  50 mm (height). The grinding was
performed using an alumina wheel having a
wheel diameter of 150 mm and wheel width
of 12 mm. The grinding velocity used is 40
m/s, table speed is 5 m/min, depth of cut per
pass is 50 μm and the number of grinding
passes is 20. The average tangential and
average normal forces for each pass are
found to be 40 N and 60 N respectively. The
value of the specific grinding energy under
the aforesaid grinding condition is
3
__________ J/mm (round off to one
decimal place). [2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
3.53 Under orthogonal cutting condition, a
turning operation is carried out on a metallic
workpiece at a cutting speed of 4 m/s. The
orthogonal rake angle of the cutting tool is
5 0 . The uncut chip thickness and width of
cut are 0.2 mm and 3 mm, respectively. In
this turning operation, the resulting friction
angle and shear angle are 450 and 250 ,
respectively. If the dynamic yield shear
strength of the workpiece material under this
cutting condition is 1000 MPa, then the
cutting force is ______________ N (round
off to one decimal place). [2 Marks]
3.54 A 1 mm thick cylindrical tube, 100 mm in
diameter, is orthogonally turned such that
the entire wall thickness of the tube is cut in
a single pass. The axial feed of the tool is 1
m/minute and the specific cutting energy (u)
of the tube material is 6 J/mm3. Neglect
contribution of feed force towards power.
The power required to carry out this
operation is ________ kW (round off to one
decimal place). [2 Marks]
3.55 A straight-teeth horizontal slab milling
cutter is shown in the figure. It has 4 teeth
 and diameter (D) of 200 mm. The rotational
speed of the cutter is 100 rpm and the linear
feed given to the workpiece is 1000 D D
d
mm/minute. The width of the workpiece (w) 2
is 100 mm, and the entire width is milled in
a single pass of the cutter. The cutting 3.56 In an orthogonal machining operation, the
force/tooth is given by F  Ktc w , where cutting and thrust forces are equal in
specific cutting force 𝐾 = 10 N/mm2, w is the magnitude. The uncut chip thickness is 0.5
width of cut, and 𝑡c is the uncut chip mm and the shear angle is 15°. The
thickness. orthogonal rake angle of the tool is 0° and
The depth of cut (d) is 𝐷/2, and hence the the width of cut is 2 mm. The workpiece
d material is perfectly plastic and its yield
assumption of  1 is invalid. The shear strength is 500 MPa. The cutting force
D
maximum cutting force required is is _________ N (round off to the nearest
________ kN (round off to one decimal integer). [2 Marks]
place). [2 Marks]
Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2013 IIT Bombay

Common Data for
3.1 A steel bar 200 mm in a diameter is turned at Questions 3.124 & 3.125
a feed of 0.25 mm/rev, with a depth of cut of
4 mm. The rotational speed of the work- A disc of 200 mm outer and 80 mm inner
piece is 160 rpm. The material removal rate diameter is faced at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev
in mm3 / s is [1 Mark] with a depth of cut of 1 mm. The facing
(A) 160 (B) 167.6 operation is undertaken at a constant cutting
speed of 90 m/min in a CNC lathe. The main
(C) 1600 (D) 1675.5
(tangential) cutting force is 200 N.
3.2 In the 3-2-1 principle of fixture design, 3
3.4 Assuming approach and over-travel of the
refers to the number of [1 Mark]
cutting tool to be zero, the machining time in
(A) Clamps required
min is [2 Marks]
(B) Locators on the primary datum face (A) 2.93 (B) 5.86
(C) Degrees of freedom of the workplace (C) 6.66 (D) 13.33
(D) Operations carried out on the primary 3.5 Neglecting the contribution of the feed force
datum face towards cutting power, the specific cutting
3.3 Two cutting tools are being compared for a energy in J/ mm3 is [2 Marks]
machining operation. The tool life equations (A) 0.2 (B) 2
are (C) 200 (D) 2000
Carbide tool VT 1.6  3000
HSS tool VT 0.6  200 Common Data for
Where V is the cutting speed in m/min and T Questions 3.126 & 3.127
is the tool life in min. The carbide tool will
In orthogonal turning of a bar of 100 mm, diameter
provide higher tool life if the cutting speed
in m/min exceeds [2 Marks] with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev, depth of cut of 4 mm
(A) 15.0 (B) 39.4 and cutting velocity of 90 m/min, if is observed
(C) 49.3 (D) 60.0 that the main (tangential) cutting force is

Production Engineering 7
 perpendicular to the friction force acting at the seconds, neglecting the approach and over
chip-tool interface. The main (tangential) cutting travel, is _______. [2 Marks]
force is 1500 N. 2015 IIT Kanpur
3.6 The orthogonal rake angle of the cutting tool
3.12 The angle of a twist drill that determines its
in degree is [2 Marks]
rake angle is [1 Mark]
(A) Zero (B) 3.58 (A) Lip relief angle
(C) 5 (D) 7.16 (B) Chisel edge angle
3.7 The normal force acting at the chip-tool (C) Helix angle
interface in N is [2 Marks] (D) Point angle
(A) 1000 (B) 1500 3.13 During turning of mild steel work material,
(C) 2000 (D) 2500 the maximum temperature is observed at
2014 IIT Kharagpur [1 Mark]
(A) Primary deformation zone
3.8 A spindle speed of 300 rpm and a feed
(B) Tool and chip interface
0.3mm /revolution are chosen for
(C) Tool-flank and work interface
longitudinal turning operation on an engine (D) Machined sub-surface
lathe. In finishing pass, roughness on the 3.14 Built up edge formation decreases under the
work surface can be reduced by [1 Mark] conditions listed below EXCEPT [1 Mark]
(A) Reducing the spindle speed (A) At low cutting speeds
(B) Increasing the spindle speed (B) Using large positive rake angle
(C) Reducing the feed of tool (C) With shaper tool
(D) Increasing the feed of tool (D) Using cutting fluid
3.9 Match the following : [1 Mark] 3.15 Which one of the following statements
Mechanism Machines related to grinding process is INCORRECT?
P. Quick return 1. Lathe [1 Mark]
Q. Apron 2. Shaping (A) Grinding wheels made of fine abrasive
R. Intermittent 3. Gear hobbing grains produce better surface finish.
indexing
(B) Abrasive grains tend to fracture
S. Differential 4. Milling
frequently during the grinding process.
mechanism
(C) Specific energy is higher than that in
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 turning.
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) Cutting speed in grinding process is
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 much lower than that in face milling.
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 3.16 In an orthogonal machining experiment
3.10 Reaming is a process used for [1 Mark] carried out using a cutting tool with zero
(A) Creating a circular hole in metals degree rake angle, the measured cutting
(B) Cutting a slot on the existing hole surface force was 1700 N. If the friction angle at the
(C) Finishing an existing hole surface
rake face chip interface is 260 , then the
(D) Making non-circular holes in metals
thrust force value, in N is ______. [2 Marks]
3.11 A HSS drill of 20 mm diameter with 5 mm
cone height is used to drill a through hole in 3.17 In drilling operation, a twist drill of 30 mm
a steel work-piece of 50 mm thickness. diameter with point angle of 118 degrees is
Cutting speed of 10m/min and feed rate of used. If the CNC command is used to
0.3mm/rev are used. The drilling time, in execute the drilling operation is G90 G01
Z?? F20. The datum is defined on the top
surface of the work material and the

8 Production Engineering
 approach distance is 3mm, then to achieve a (D) Boring only
cylindrical hole depth of 40 mm, the Z 3.22 In a machining operation with turning tool,
coordinate to be provided in the CNC the tool life (T) is related to cutting speed V
command, in mm, is _______. [2 Marks] (m/s), feed f (mm) and depth of cut d (mm)
3.18 In a slab milling operation, a cutter of 75 mm as,
diameter with sufficient width is used to T  CV 2.5 f 0.9 d 0.15
remove 5 mm thick material from a 200 mm
Where, C is a constant. The suggested values
long part in a single pass. The minimum
for the cutting parameters are : V  1.5 m/s ,
length of travel, in mm, for the cutter to
engage and completely cut the part surface is f  0.25 mm and d  3mm for normal
_______. [2 Marks] rough turning. If the operation is performed
at twice the cutting speed and the other
2016 IISc Bangalore
parameters remain unchanged, the
3.19 A cylindrical bar of 100 mm diameter is corresponding percentage change in tool life
orthogonally straight turned with cutting is _______. [2 Marks]
velocity, feed and depth of cut of 120 m/min, 3.23 The merchant circle diagram showing
0.25 mm/rev and 4 mm, respectively. The various forces associated with a cutting
specific cutting energy of the work material process using a wedge shape tool is given in
is 1109 J/m3 . Neglect the contribution of the figure [2 Marks]
feed force towards cutting power. The main
of tangential cutting force (in N) is ______.
[2 Marks]
3.20 A 60 mm wide block of low carbon steel is
face milled at a cutting speed of 120 m/min,
feed of 0.1 mm/tooth and axial depth of cut
of 4 mm. A schematic representation of the
face milling process is shown below. The
diameter of the cutter is 120 mm and it has The coefficient of friction can be estimated
12 cutting edges. The material removal rate from the ratio,
(in mm3 /s) is _______. [2 Marks] f f
(A) 1 (B) 3
f2 f4
f5 f6
(C) (D)
f6 f5
3.24 A schematic diagram of peripheral milling is
shown in the figure.

2017 IIT Roorkee

3.21 Turning, drilling, boring and milling are
commonly used machining operations.
Among these, the operations (s) performed
by a single point cutting tool is (are)
It t is the depth of cut and d is the diameter
[1 Mark]
of the milling cutter, then the length of
(A) Turning only
approach (la ) is expressed as [2 Marks]
(B) Drilling and milling only
(C) Turning and boring only (A) d (t  d ) (B) d (d  t )

Production Engineering 9
 (C) t ( d  t ) (D) t (t  d ) touching the surface of the plate at the start,
the drilling time (in s) is closest to
2018 IIT Guwahati [2 Marks]
3.25 A double start thread with a pitch of 2 mm is (A) 85 (B) 90
to be cut using a lathe machine. The pitch of (C) 96 (D) 100
the leadscrew of the lathe is 6 mm. The job 2020 IIT Delhi
rotates at 60 revolution per minute
3.30 End mill cutters are mounted on the spindle
(RPM).The RPM of the leadscrew is
of a vertical milling machine using
_______. [1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
3.26 During orthogonal machining of a job at a
(A) vice (B) face plate
cutting speed of 90 m/min with a tool of 10 0 (C) driver plate (D) collet
rake angle, the cutting force and thrust force 3.31 In manufacturing of self-lubricating bearings
are 750 N and 390 N, respectively. Assume by powder metallurgy, an important
a shear angle of 350 . The power (in W) secondary operation that is carried out after
expended for shearing along the shear plane sintering is [1 Mark]
is _____. [2 Marks] (A) Infiltration
2019 IIT Madras (B) Hot isostatic pressing
3.27 In a typical turning tool life test, the (C) Impregnation
following data are generated for tools A and (D) Cold isostatic pressing
B: 3.32 For a particular tool-workpiece combination,
Tool Cutting speed Tool life the value of exponent n in the Taylor’s tool
name (m/min) (min) life equation is 0.5. If the cutting speed is
A 200 20 reduced by 50% keeping all the other
B 150 58 machining conditions same, the increase in
Assuming the same tool life exponent for the tool life in % is ______. [2 Marks]
tools, the value of constant in the Taylor’s 3.33 A vertical boring operation is performed in a
tool life equation (with cutting speed in cast iron plate to enlarge a blind hole to a
m/min and tool life in min) is ______(round diameter of 25 mm up to a depth of 100 mm
off to 2 decimal places) [1 Mark] in a single pass. The cutting speed and the
3.28 During a turning operation of a specific work feed used in the process are 100 m/min and
material having shear strength of 220 MPa 0.1 mm/rev, respectively. Considering the
under orthogonal cutting condition, the allowance for tool approach as 2 mm, the
process parameters are actual machining time (rounded off to two
Feed 0.2 mm/rev decimal places) in minutes is ______.
Depth of cut 1mm [2 Marks]
Rake angle 50 3.34 Self-sharpening tendency of a conventional
Given chip thickness ratio as 0.5 , friction grinding wheel depends upon [1 Mark]
angle as 49.2 0 and shear angle as 25.4 0 . The (A) wheel grade
feed force (in N) is _______. [2 Marks] (B) grit hardness
3.29 A 20 mm HSS drill with a point angle of (C) grit size
1180 is used for drilling a through hole on a (D) wheel structure
metallic plate of thickness 100 mm with a
cutting speed 333.33 mm/s and feed of
0.22 mm/rev . Assuming that the drill is

10 Production Engineering
 Explanations Machining (ME)

3.1 (D)  4  200  0.25 160

 100530.9649 mm /min
3
Given : Diameter of steel bar ( D)  200 mm
=1675.5160 mm3 / sec
Feed ( f )  0.25 mm/rev
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Depth of cut (d )  4 mm
3.2 (B)
Speed ( N )  160 rpm
Given : Cutting force ( Fc )  400 N
..Method 1.. Depth of cut (d )  2 mm
Now, material removal rate is given by, Feed ( f )  0.1 mm/rev.
MRR  fd V Specific cutting area is given by
 DN   d  f  0.2mm2 /rev
MRR  fd  
 60  The specific cutting pressure (in N/mm 2 ) is
  200 160  F 400
MRR  0.25  4    c   2000 N/mm2
 d f 0.2
 60 
Hence, the correct option is (B).
MRR  1675.516 mm3 /s
3.3 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (D).
(P  3) : Knurling is one of the operations
..Method 2.. performed on the lathe machine.
(Q  1) : Milling is used for carrying out slotting
called as slot milling or slab milling.
(R  4) : When grinding wheel got glazed then
material removal rate will be reduced so re-
sharpening of grinding wheel is required to
achieve desired performance that process is called
dressing of grinding wheel.
(S  2) : In drilling machine, the counter boring is
done by mounting single point cutting tool in the
drill spindle,
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.4 0.10
If initial and final diameter ' D1 ' and ' D2 ' are
Given : Feed ( f )  0.2 mm/rev.
( D  D2 )
given then depth of cut  1  4 mm Depth of cut (d )  0.5 mm
2
Length of cut  D  ( 200) mm Side cutting edge angle ()  600
Feed = Feed per revolution  rpm Now, the relation between uncut chip thickness
 (0.25 160) mm/min (t1 ) and feed (f ) is given by,
Material removal rate t1  f sin 
 Depth of cut  Length of cut  Feed

Production Engineering 11
 Where,   Approach angle Feed ( f )  Uncut chip thickness
 90    90  60  30 0
(t1 )  0.2 mm/rev.
So, t1  0.2  sin 300 Rake angle ()  00
t1  0.10mm Chip thickness ratio is given by,
t 0.2
Hence, the uncut chip thickness is 0.10 mm. r 1   0.4
t2 0.5
3.5 (C) Shear angle is given by,
It is because of extra hardness is imparted to the r cos 
tan  
workpiece due to severe rate of strain. 1  r sin 
Hence, the correct option is (C).  r cos  
  tan 1  
3.6 0.70  1  r sin  
 0.4 cos 00 
Relation between uncut chip thickness (tmax ) and   tan 1  0 
 21.80
 1  0.4sin 0 
depth of cut (d) in milling operation is given by
So, tan   0.4
tmax  d
Now, shear strain is given by,
So, we have   cot   tan (  ) (   0)
tmax1 d1 d1
   d 2  2d1  
1
 tan  
1
 0.4  2.9
tmax 2 d2 2d1 tan  0.4
tmax1 Hence, the shear strain produced during the
1
  0.70 operation is 2.9.
tmax 2 2
3.9 6
Hence, the ratio of maximum uncut chip
thicknesses in operations 1 and 2 is 0.70. Given : Exponent (n)  0.2

 Key Point Tool changing time (Tc )  1.5minute

Relation for maximum uncut chip thickness (t) is Now, optimum tool life for maximum production
given by, rate is given by,
2 fm d 1   1 
tmax  Topt    1 Tc    1  1.5
ZN D n   0.2 
Where, f m  Table feed, Z=Number of tooth Topt  6 minute
N  Speed, d  Depth of cut
Hence, the tool life for maximum production rate
D  Diameter of milling cutter.
is 6 min.
3.7 (A) 3.10 (B)
It is because the area of shear plane decreases
Given : Diameter of hole (d )  20 mm
resulting in the decrease in shear force and cutting
force. Thickness of steel block (t )  40 mm
Hence, the correct option is (A). Speed ( N )  400 rpm
3.8 2.9
Feed ( f )  0.1 mm/rev.
Given : Thickness of chip (t2 )  0.5 mm

12 Production Engineering
Approach and overrun of drill Now, volume of metal removed by cutting tool in
d 20 one stroke is given by,
( A  O)    10 mm
2 2 v  f  d  L  0.25  4  200  200 mm3
Now, total distance travelled Number of cutting stroke per sec = 1
L  Thickness + Approach + Overrun Metal removing rate  200 mm3 / sec
L  t  ( A  O)  40  10  50 mm So, energy consumption is given by,
E  Es  v
Time taken is given by,
E  200 1.49  298 watt
L 50
TM    1.25 min Hence, the average power consumption is 298
fN 0.1 400 Watt.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3.13 0.25
3.11 (D) Given : Let, initial cutting speed (V1 )  V
The relationship between friction angle ( ) and Final cutting speed (V2 )  2V
friction coefficient () is given by, Initial tool life (T1 )  T
  tan  T 
Final tool life (T2 )   
As  decrease,  also decreases. When friction  16 
coefficient () decreases, the cutting speed (V ) Now, applying Taylor’s tool life equation,
increases. V1T1n  V2T2n
n
T 
VT  2V  
n

 16 
16n  2
Taking log on both side,
n log16  log 2
log 2
n  0.25
log16
From the above figure, it can be seen that when
cutting speed increases then the magnitude of Hence, the Taylor’s tool life index ( n ) for this
cutting force decreases and chip thickness ratio tool-work piece combination will be 0.25.
increases and chip thickness is inversely 3.14 (C)
proportional to chip thickness ratio that is if chip
The surface obtained is plane,
thickness ratio will increases then chip thickness
will decreases.
Hence, reduction in friction angle causes reduction
in cutting force and chip thickness.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
3.12 298
Given : Length of block ( L)  200 mm
Depth of cut (d )  4 mm
Feed ( f )  0.25 mm/stroke
Specific energy for cutting ( Es )  1.49 J/mm3
Hence, the correct option is (C).

Production Engineering 13
 3.15 18.7 Hence, the power consumption for the machining
operation is 2.1 kW.
Given : Rake angle ()  50
3.17 (A)
Speed ( N )  400 rpm
Given : Rake angle ()  100
Table feed ( f m )  0.4 m/min  400 mm/min
Feed ( f )  0.14 mm/rev.
Depth of cut (d )  5 mm
Chip thickness (t2 )  0.28 mm
Chip thickness (t2 )  3 mm
and, in orthogonal turning,
Now, we need to convert axial feed into mm/rev.
Feed = Uncut chip thickness (t1 ) = 0.14 mm
f
f  m Now, chip thickness ratio is given by,
N
t 0.14
400 r 1   0.5
f   1mm/rev. t2 0.28
400
In orthogonal cutting, Shear angle is given by,
 r cos  
Feed ( f ) = Uncut chip thickness (t1 ) = 1mm   tan 1  
Chip thickness ratio is given by,  1  r sin  
t 1  0.5cos10 
r  1   0.33   tan 1  
t2 3  1  0.5sin10 
Shear angle is given by,   28.330  280 20'
 r cos   Shear strain is given by,
  tan 1  
 1  r sin     cot   tan(   )
 0.33cos 50    cot (28.33)  tan (18.33)  2.19
  tan 1  0 
 18.7 0
 1  0.33sin 5  Hence, the correct option is (A).
Hence, the shear angle in this turning process is 3.18 (A)
18.70. According to question,
3.16 2.1
Given : Rake angle ()  00
Cutting speed (V )  180 m/min
Thrust force ( Ft )  490 N
Coefficient of friction ()  0.7
Now, coefficient of friction is given by, Where,   Taper angle.
  tan   0.7 In OAB ,
Ft 80  65
0.7   AB
Fc tan   2  0.135
2 OA 55
490
0.7  Taper angle is given by,
Fc

Fc  700 N tan  0.135
2
Power is given by,   2  tan 1 (0.135)
700 180
P  Fc V   2.1 kW   15.370  150 22 '  15032 '
60 Set over is given by,

14 Production Engineering
  VT 0.14 f 0.7 d 0.4  Constant
 tan  90  0.135  90  12.15 mm
2 From the given relation,
Hence, the correct option is (A).
V1T10.14 f10.7 d10.4
3.19 7.53 T20.14 
V2  f 20.7  d 20.4
Given : Turning operation : V1  300.14  f10.7  d10.4
Length of job ( L)  900 mm T20.14 
1.25V1  (1.25 f1 )0.7  (1.25d1 )0.4
Diameter of job ( d )  200 mm
T20.14  1.008
Feed ( f )  0.25 mm/rev.
T2  1.0081/0.14  1.06 min
Cutting speed (V )  300 m/min
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Now, machining time is given by,
L L 3.22 (B)
TM  
fN f 1000  V Given : Rake angle ()  220
D
Chip thickness (t2 )  0.8 mm
L  D
TM  Cutting speed (V )  48 m/min
f 1000  V
Feed ( f )  0.4 mm/rev.
900   200
TM  In orthogonal cutting,
1000  0.25  300
900  200 Feed ( f )  Uncut chip thickness (t1 )  0.4 mm
TM   7.53
1000  0.25  300 r
t1 0.4
  0.5
Hence, the machining time is 7.53 min. t2 0.8
3.20 0.5 Shear plane angle,
r cos  0.5cos 22
Given : Rake angle ()  00 tan   
1  r sin  1  0.5sin 22
Cutting force ( Fc )  500 N
  29.70
Thrust force ( Ft )  250 N
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Now, coefficient of friction is given by,
3.23 57.9
F 1
  tan(  )  t   0.5
Fc 2 Given : Cost of metal cutting  18 C / V
Hence, the coefficient of friction between the tool Cost of tooling  270 C / TV
and the chip is 0.5. Taylor’s equation,
3.21 (B) VT 0.25  150
Given : Initial tool life (T1 )  30 min VT 1/4  150

Initial cutting speed (V1 )  45 m/min V 4T  1504

1504
Final cutting speed T
V4
(V2 )  1.25V1  56.25m/min
Total cost occurred
Initial feed ( f1 )  0.35 mm  Cost of cutting + Cost of tooling
Final feed ( f 2 )  1.25 f1  0.4375 mm C C
TC  18  270
Initial depth of cut (d1 )  2.0 mm V TV
Final depth of cut (d2 )  1.25d1  2.5 mm

Production Engineering 15
 C V 3C
TC  18  270
V 1504
For cost to be minimum,
d (TC ) d  18C 270 CV 3 
   
dV dV  V 1504 
Approach length (BC),
18C 3  270CV 2
0   ( AC )2  ( AB)2
V2 1504
V  57.9 m/s
2 2
D  D 
    d 
Hence, the cutting speed for the minimum total 2 2 
cost is 57.9 m/min. BC  Dd  d 2
3.24 106.7
3.26 1.49
At breakeven point, we have
T1  T2 Given : Rake angle ()  90
Uncut chip thickness (t1 )  0.2 mm
Tool 1 : VT 0.1  150 …(i)
For t2  0.25mm ,
Tool 2 : VT 0.3
 300 …(ii)
t1 0.2
Equating equation (i) and (ii), we get r   0.8
1 1
t2 0.25
 150  0.1  300  0.3 r cos  0.8cos 90
    tan   
 V   V  1  r sin  1  0.8sin 90
V  106.07 m / min   420
Hence, the breakeven cutting speed beyond which For t2  0.4 mm ,
tool 2 will have a higher tool life is 106.7
t1 0.2
m/minute. r   0.5
t2 0.4
3.25 12
r cos  0.5cos 90
Given : Length of block ( L)  200 mm tan   
1  r sin  1  0.5sin 90
Diameter of cutter ( D)  34 mm   28.180
Depth of cut (d )  2 mm Ratio is given by,
Feed ( f )  18 mm/min max 42
  1.49
Now, approach or over travel length is given by, min 28.18
A  O  d ( D  d )  2(34  2)  8 Hence, the ratio of the maximum shear angle to the
minimum shear angle during machining is 1.49.
Estimated machining time per pass is given by,
3.27 (B)
L  A  O 200  8  8
TM    12 min
f 18 Given : Diameter of bar ( D )  20 mm
Hence, the minimum estimated machining time Initial speed ( N1 )  400 rpm
per pass is 12 minutes.
Initial tool life (T1 )  20 minute
 Key Point
Milling (Slab milling) Final speed ( N2 )  200 rpm
Final tool life (T2 )  60 minute
Now, applying Taylor’s tool life equation,

16 Production Engineering
 V1T1n  V2T2n So, Vw  0.005Vm
n Hence, the correct option is (B).
 T2  V1
   3.30 (D)
 T1  V2
Four jaw chucks are independently adjusted and
 20  400
n
 60 
   ( V  DN ) used to hold and support a more variety of work
 20   20  200 piece even odd-shaped work piece.
n  0.63 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Again, when spindle speed (V3 ) is 300 rpm then 3.31 (C)
tool life is given by,
As the feed rate in slab milling operation ( f m )
0.63
 T3  V1  ft NZ
  
 T1  V3
Where, ft  Feed per tooth,
0.63
 T3  400 Z  Number of teeth in milling cutter,
  
 20  300 N  Revolution per minute (rpm).
T3  32 min Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3.32 0.44

3.28 (A) Given : Uncut thickness (t1 )  0.01 mm

Given : Exponent (n)  0.5 Chip thickness (t2 )  0.015 mm
Let, initial cutting speed (V1 )  V Cutting speed (V )  130 m/min
V Rake angle ()  150
Final cutting speed (V2 ) 
2 Width (b)  6 mm
Now, from Taylor’s tool life equation, Cutting force ( Fc )  60 N
V1T1n  V2T2n Thrust force ( Ft )  25 N
V 0.5
VT10.5  T2 ..Method 1..
2
0.5
 T2 
  2
 T1 
T2
 22  4
T1
Hence, the correct option is (A).
3.29 (B) From diagram,
F   25 
Given : Grinding ratio (GR )  200  '  tan 1  t   tan 1    22.620
 Fc   60 
Grinding ratio is given by,
Volume of work material removed Now,   90   '   90  22.61 15  53.38
GR 
Volume of wheel weared and, R  602  252  3600  625  65
V Again from diagram,
200  m
Vw F  R cos   65cos 52.38  39.68 N
Vm Vm 1000 F Vc
   200 Required ratio 
Vw 0.005Vm 5 FcV

Production Engineering 17
 39.68  t 39.68  0.01 Another test - 3 :
 
60  tc 60  0.015 Let the number of holes is x,
V3  D  200 m/min
 Vc  t2  V  t1 
L
Required ratio  0.44 T3  x  min
f  200
Hence, the ratio of friction energy to total energy
is 0.44. V1T1n  V2T2n
n
..Method 2..  L 
D 150   300  
Ratio of friction energy to total energy  f 150 
FVc sin  t
   1
n
…(i)  L 
FcV cos(  ) t2  D  300   200  
 f  3000 
F 
Friction angle,     tan 1  t  2
n

 Fc  2  2 
n

3
 25 
  15  tan 1    37.619 3 2
n
 60 
n  0.63093
Now, from equation (i),
V1T1n  V3T3n
Friction energy  sin 37.619   0.01 
0
   0.63093
Total energy  cos 22.6190  0.015   L 
D 150   300  
Friction energy  f 150 
 0.44
Total energy 0.63093
 L 
Hence, the ratio of friction energy to total energy  D  200   x  
 f  200 
is 0.44.
0.63093
3.33 253.53  x 
3 2  4
0.63093

Given : Thickness of plate (t )  20 mm  200 
Time required for drilling a hole, x  253.53
L Hence, the maximum number of holes that can be
T minute
fN made by another drill from the above batch at 200
Here, L is constant and N is variable. rpm is 253.53.
Now, time required for drilling n hole, 3.34 23.32
L
T  n minute Given : Rake angle ()  150
fN
and cutting velocity is given by, Uncut chip thickness (t1 )  0.5 mm
V  DN m/min Chip thickness (t2 )  1.25 mm
Test - 1 :
t1 0.5
V1  D 150 m/min r   0.4
t2 1.25
L
T1  300  min Now, shear angle is given by,
f 150
 r cos  
Test - 2 :   tan 1  
V2  D  300 m/min  1  r sin  
L  0.4  cos150 
T2  200  min   tan 1    23.315
0

f  300  1  0.4  sin150 

18 Production Engineering
Hence, the shear angle for this process is 23.3150. 2      900
3.35 (A) 2  31.82    10  900
Given : Cutter diameter ( D)  100 mm   36.360
  tan   0.736
Cutter width  50 mm
Hence, the value of coefficient of friction is 0.736.
Number of teeth ( Z )  20
3.37 274.89
Depth of cut (d )  2 mm
Given : Thickness of sheet (t )  15 mm
Rotational speed ( N )  1200 rpm Diameter of drill bit (d )  10mm
Feed per tooth ( ft )  0.05 mm/tooth Feed ( f )  0.25 mm/rev
Speed ( N )  1200 rpm
Specific energy required for drilling
(U )  0.7 J/mm3 .
Now, material removal rate is given by,

MRR  d 2 f N
Approach distance, 4

MRR  10   0.25 1200
2 2 2
D D 
A       d   d (D  d ) 4
2 2 
MRR  23561.95mm3 /min
A  2 (100  2) mm =14 mm
So, power required for drilling operation,
Time for one pass in slab or slot milling P  U  MRR
L A 0.7  23561.95
 (for rough milling) P  274.89 Watt
ft ZN 60
L  2A Hence, the power required for drilling is 274.89
 (for finish milling)
f t ZN Watt.
As length of approach and over travel are same 3.38 40
L A A 400  14  14 Given : For tool X : n1  0.3, c1  0.60
   21.4s
ft ZN 0.05  20 1200
For tool Y : n2  0.6, c2  90
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Now, apply Taylor’s tool life equation,
3.36 0.736
VT n  c
Given : Rake angle ()  100 For tool X , V1T1n1  c1
Uncut chip thickness (t1 )  0.125mm 1/0.3
 60 
Chip thickness (t2 )  0.22 mm T1    …(i)
 V1 
Chip thickness ratio is given by,
For tool Y , V2T2n2  c2
t 0.125
r 1   0.568 1/0.6
t2 0.22  90 
T2   
And, shear angle is given by,  V2 
r cos  …(ii)
tan  
1  r sin  Now, at breakeven point,
  31.820 T1  T2 and V1  V2  V
Now, applying Merchant’s circle theory, So, from equation (i) and (ii),

Production Engineering 19
  60 
1/0.3
 90 
1/0.6 f m 100
    f    0.1 mm/rev.
V  V  N 1000
1 1 So, uncut chip thickness is,
601/0.3 
 V 0.3 0.6
t1  f sin( ')  0.1sin 900  0.1 mm
901/0.6
V 5/3  467.843 Width and chip thickness ratio is given by,
V  467.8433/5  40 m/min b
d

5
 5 mm
Hence, the tools have same tool life for cutting sin( ') sin 900
speed of 40 m/min. t1 0.1
r   0.33
3.39 3.75 t2 0.3

Given : Side cutting edge angle ( S )  450 Now, the shear angle is given by,
 r cos  
End cutting edge angle ( E )  100   tan 1  
 1  sin  
Feed ( f )  0.1 mm/rev.
 0.33cos100 
Peak to valley height,   tan 1  0 
 19.020
f  1  0.33sin10 
H max 
tan  S  cot  E Hence, shear strength of material is,
0.1 F F sin 
H max   0.015mm s  s  s
tan 45  cot100
0 As bt
The centre line average surface roughness, ( FC cos   FT sin )  sin 
H 0.015 s 
Ra  max  bt
4 4 (1601cos19.02  1259sin19.02)  sin19.02
3 s 
Ra  3.75 10 mm  3.75 m 5  0.1
Hence, the centre line average surface roughness s  719.12 MPa 722 MPa
of the generated surface is 3.75 μm . Hence, the correct option is (C).
3.40 (C) 3.41 (A)
Given : In orthogonal turning : For rough griding of brass material silicon carbide
Principal cutting edge angle ( ')  900 (SiC) is preferresd for grinding of brass material.
Wall thickness  Depth of cut ( d )  5 mm For rough cut, open structure is preferred. Rnage
(assumed) of structure from dense to open variaes from 0 to
Axial force ( Fx )  1259 N 15 i.e., more the number, more the open structure
is.
 Thrust force,
Fx 1259 So, accounding to that the suitable grinding wheel
FT    1259 N is,
sin( ') sin 900
C 30 Q 12 V
Tangential cutting force ( FC )  1601N
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Chip thickness (t2 )  0.3 mm
3.42 (D)
Rake angle ()  100
In ultrasonic machining, the horn or concentrator
Table feed ( f m )  100 mm/min can be of different shape like :
Speed ( N )  1000 rpm (i) Tapered or conical
Now, feed is given by, (ii) Exponential
(iii) Stepped

20 Production Engineering
Hence, the correct option is (D). Given :
3.43 8.07 S1 S2
Given : W1  W  Width of work piece W2  1.1W
Length of work piece ( L)  300 mm
f1  f f 2  0.9 f
Diameter of cutter ( D )  100 mm
Teeth on cutter ( Z )  20 Total machining time for orthogonal shaping
Depth of cut (d )  5 mm operation.
W
Feed ( ft )  0.1 mm Tm  (TC  TR ) 
f
Cutting speed (V )  35 m/min
W
Approach and over travel Tm 
( AP)  (OT )  5 mm f
Width of cutter (b)  25 mm (Tm ) S1 W1 f 2
 
DN (Tm ) S2 W2 f1
V
1000 (Tm ) S1 1 0.9
100  N    0.818  0.82
35  (Tm ) S2 1.1 1
1000
Hence, the ratio of total time per pass in S1 and S 2
N  111.4084 rpm
Time required for milling the slot, will be 0.82.
 D 3.46 – 5.59
 L  AP  OT  2 
T   According to question, Cs1  300
 ft NZ 
 1  90  30  600
 100 
 300  5  5  2  C s2  0 0
T  
 0.1111.4084  20    2  90  0  900
T  1.615 min
We know that specific energy consumption,
Total time  1.615  5  8.075 min
Fc
Hence, the time required for milling the slot is Uc   U 0 (t1 ) 0.4 (given)
8.075 minutes. 1000 fd
3.44 23.6  Fc  U 0 ( f sin ) 0.4 1000 fd
Given : Chip length (lc )  100 mm  Fc  (sin ) 0.4
Uncut chip length (l )  250 mm Fc2  Fc1  sin  0.4 
 100   2
  1 100
Rake angle ()  200 Fc1  sin 1  
lc 100  sin 900 0.4 
 r   0.4 Fc2  Fc1
l 250 100   0 
 1 100
Shear plane angle is given by,
Fc1  sin 60  
r cos  0.4  cos 20 Fc2  Fc1
tan     0.4354  100  5.59
1  r sin  1  0.4sin 20 Fc1
  23.530  23.60 Hence, the value of percentage change in cutting
Hence, the shear plane angle is 23.6 degree.  Fc  Fc1 
force Fc2 , i.e.,  2 100 is – 5.59.
3.45 0.82  Fc 
 1 
Production Engineering 21
 3.47 685.916 F 600
and R 
sin  sin (33.840 )
Given :   12
0
R  1077.43 N
Cutting force, FC  1000 N
So, Fs  1077.43cos (28.62  33.84  12)
Friction force, F  600 N Fs  685.916 N
Chip thickness, tc  1.5 mm Hence, the shear force is 685.916 N.
Uncut chip thickness, t  0.75 mm 3.48 (B)
t 0.75 1
r    0.5 While drilling is performed to create an initial
tc 1.5 2 hole in a workpiece, boring is performed to
r cos  enlarge an existing hole in a workpiece. Also
tan   reaming is a finishing operation done to create
1  r sin 
smooth walls in an existing hole.
 0.5cos(12) 
  tan 1   Drilling  Boring  Reaming
 1  0.5sin(12) 
  28.620 Hence, the correct option is (B).

Method 1 : 3.49 47.74

F  FC sin   FT cos  Given : Specific energy (e) = 15 J/mm

3

600  1000sin (12)  FT cos (12) D  200 mm

FT  400.84 N N  3000 rpm
FS  FC cos   FT sin  MRR  6000 mm3 /min
FS  1000cos (28.62)  400.84sin (28.62) e  15 J/mm3 
Power
MRR
FS  685.81 N
Power  15  6000 J/min
Method 2 :
Also, power = fC V
FC  R cos (  )
DN
1000  R cos (  120 ) … (i) fC   15  6000
1000
and F  600  R sin  … (ii)
15  6000 1000
Divide equation (i) and (ii), fC 
 200  3000
1000 cos (  12)
 fC  47.74 N
600 sin 
Hence, the tangential force on the wheel is
47.74N.
cos  cos (12)  sin (12) sin ()
 3.50 (B)
sin 
1000
 cot  cos (12)  sin (12)
600
  33.840
So, Fs  R cos (    )

22 Production Engineering
 3.52 38.4
Given :
Cast iron plate dimension
l  300 mm, b  10 mm, h  50 mm
Alumina wheel dimension
DW  150 mm ,
bW  12 mm ,
(Grinding velocity) v  12 mm
Cylindrical surface generated.
f n  60 N
Hence, the correct option is (B).
ft  40 N
3.51 391.89
Power
e
Given :   00 MRR
Fs  400 N e
fcV
10  5000  50 103
Cutting velocity (Vc )  100 m/min
40  40  60
e
Depth of cut (d) = 2 mm = width of cut (b) 10  5000  50 103
Chip velocity V f  20 m/min e  38.4 J / mm3

Feed (f)  0.1 mm/rev S 0 = uncut chip thickness Hence, the value of the specific grinding energy
under the aforesaid grinding condition is 38.4
(t)
J/mm3 .
3.53 2573.40
Given :
Rake angle ()  50
Uncut chip thickness (t1 )  0.2 mm

Vc Vf Friction angle ()  450


cos(  ) sin  Shear angle ()  250
sin  V f Shear stress ()  1000 MPa

cos  Vc
Width (b)  3 mm
 20 
  tan 1   Shear force, FS   b 
t1
 100  sin 
  11.30 0.2
 1000  3 
fs 400 sin 250
So, s  sin   sin(11.3) When, bt
bt 2  0.1 FS  1419.72
= fd
s  391.89 MPa From merchant circle :
FS
Hence, the shear strength,  s of the material will cos(    ) 
R
be 391.89 MPa.

Production Engineering 23
 1419.72 P  31.4159 kW
R
cos(25  45  5) Hence, the correct answer is 31.4159.
R  3359.34 N 3.55 2.5
Fcutting Given :
cos(  ) 
R

m
Fcutting  cos(45  5)  3359.34

m
0
20
d  D/2
Fcutting  2573.40 N
Hence, the correct answer is 2573.40.
Number of teeths ( n)  4
3.54 31.4159
Diameter of cutter ( D)  200 mm
Given : Rotational speed ( N )  100 rpm
Thickness (t )  1 mm Width of workpiece ( w)  100 mm
Diameter ( D )  100 mm D
Depth of cut (d ) 
1000 2
Axial feed ( F )  fN  1 m/min  mm/sec
60 1000
Feed ( f )   10 mm/rev
100
Specific cutting energy (G)  6 J/mm
3
Maximum uncut chip thickness is given by,
2f d d
 tc max  1  
n D D
2 10 D/2 D/2
 1  
4 D  D 
1 1
5 1  
2 2
For cylindrical tube,
Area of cut ( A)  Dt 1
 5
2
Now,
 2.5 mm
Specific cutting energy
Maximum force is given by, Fmax  k  tc max w
Power
  10  2.5 100
Material removal rate
 2500 N
P
6  2.5 kN
A  fN
Hence, the maximum cutting force required is 2.5
P kN.
6
 1000 
Dt    3.56 2732.05
 60 
Given :
P
6 Thickness of chip (t )  0.5 mm
1000
100 1
Shear angle ()  15
0
60
Power required, P  31415.9 W rake angle ()  0
0

24 Production Engineering
Width of cut (b)  2 mm bt
FC 
Yield shear strength (s )  500 MPa sin (cos   sin )
Cutting force  thrust force 500  2  0.5
 = 2732.05 N
Then, sin15 (cos150  sin150 )
0

bt Hence, the cutting force is 2732.05 N.

FS   FC cos()  FT sin()
sin 
Explanations Machining (PE & IE)

1 1
3.1 (D)
 3000 1.6  200  0.6
Given : Diameter of bar ( D )  200 mm    
 V   V 
Feed rate ( f )  0.25 mm/rev. 1 1

Depth of cut (d )  4 mm (3000)1.6 (200) 0.6

1
 1
Spindle speed ( N )  160 rpm (V ) 1.6
(V ) 0.6
Material removal rate (M.R.R.) 1
1 1
 (200) 0.6
MRR  f  d  V (V ) 0.6 1.6
 1
DN  200 (3000) 1.6
V  160
60 60 1.0416
(V )  45.903
V  1675.51mm/sec
1
So, M.R.R.  0.25  4 1675.51 V  (45.903) 1.0416
 39.398 m/min
M.R.R.  1675.516 mm3 /sec
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence the correct option is (D).
3.4 (A)
3.2 (B)
Given : Inner diameter of disc ( Di )  80 mm
In the 3-2-1 principle of fixture design, 3 refers to
Outer diameter of disc ( D0 )  200 mm
the number of locators on the primary datum face.
Feed ( f )  0.1mm/rev.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Depth of cut (d )  1mm
3.3 (B) Cutting speed (V )  90 m/min
Given : Tool life equation for carbide tool Cutting force ( Fc )  200 N
(VT 1.6
)  3000 Average or mean diameter of disc
Tool life equation for HSS tool (VT 0.6
)  200 D0  Di 200  80
Dm    140 mm
Now at Breakeven point, 2 2
Vcarbide  VHSS  V Cutting speed,
Tcarbide  THSS Dm N
V
1000
Equating both equations,
Vc 1000 90 1000
1
N 
 3000  1.6
 Dm 140
Tcarbide   
 V  N  204.62 rpm
1
Machining time,
 200  0.6
VHSS  
 V 

Production Engineering 25
 D0  Di It has been observed that during a finishing pass,
L 2 roughness on the work surface can be reduced by
TM   reducing feed of the tool. If the feed is kept slower,
fN fN
resulting in great surface finish with the high
( Approach and over travel is zero)
degree of accuracy.
200  80
Hence, the correct option is (C).
TM  2  2.932 min
0.1 204.62 3.9 (B)
Hence, the correct option is (A). Quick return mechanism is related to shaping
3.5 (D)
(shaper machine), Apron is related to a lathe,
intermittent indexing is related to milling and a
Given : Cutting force ( Fc )  200 N differential mechanism is related to gear hobbing.
Specific cutting energy, Hence, the correct option is (B).
Fc 200 3.10 (C)
U   2000 J/mm3
d  f 1 0.1 Reaming is a process used for finishing an existing
Hence, the correct option is (D). hole surface. The need of reaming is mainly in
areas where it is required the hole to be smooth
3.6 (A)
having maximum possible finished surface like in
As the cutting force is perpendicular to the friction cylinders where pistons are fitted to prevent
force acting at the interface of chip-tool therefore wearing.
rank angle () is always zero. Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 3.11 69
3.7 (B) Given : Diameter of drill (d )  20 mm
Given : Diameter of bar ( D)  100 mm Cone height (h) = 5 mm
Feed ( f )  0.25 mm/rev. Thickness of work piece (t) = 50 mm
Depth of cut (d )  4 mm Cutting speed of (V) = 10 m/min
Feed (f ) = 0.3mm/rev
Cutting velocity (V )  90 m/min
Now, we know that
Cutting force ( Fc )  1500 N Speed of drill,
Cutting force Fc perpendicular to the 1000V 1000 10
N   159.2 rpm
d  20
friction force Ff then by merchant circle,
Distance traveled by drill,
L  t  h  50  5  55 mm
L
Time per hole  
55
fN 0.3 159.2
Time per hole  1.151min  69 sec
The value of rake angle ()  0 Hence, the drilling time neglecting the approach
and over travel is 69 sec.
Normal force is equal to the cutting force in case
of orthogonal turning. 3.12 (C)
Fn  Fc  1500 N The helix angle of the twist determines the rake
Hence, the correct option is (B). angle of the drill. The helix angle serves to reduce
3.8 (C)
axial thrust and torque forces.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

26 Production Engineering
 3.13 (B) Now, we know that
Compulsory approach,
The turning operation is the metal removal by
D 30
shearing of a thick layer from the work piece. The AP1    9.013mm
maximum temperature generation is observed at 2 tan  2 tan 59
tool and chip interface because of the work done Total depth of tool travel,
in shearing and in overcoming friction. L  AP1  t
Hence, the correct option is (B). L  (9.013  40)  49.013 mm
3.14 (A) Hence, the Z coordinate to be provided in the CNC
command is – 49.013 mm.
Built up Edge (BUE) is formed during machining
at low speed and lower metal removal rate (MRR). Note : Since tool is on the top surface, so Z
coordinate will be negative sign.
High temperature high pressure and friction in the
cutting zone causes the adhesion of microchips for 3.18 218.71
formation BUE at a slower machining rate. Other
Given : Diameter of cutter (D) = 75 mm
parameters like increase of rake angle and usage Thickness of material (t) = 5 mm
of cutting fluid decreases the formation of built up Length of the job (l) = 200 mm
edge. Now, we know that
Hence, the correct option is (A). Length of approach,
3.15 (D) la  t ( D  t )  5(75  5)  18.71mm
Grinding is used for surface finishing of work- Minimum length of travel
pieces with high cutting speed as well as high = Length of approach
surface quality and high accuracy of shape and  Length of the job
dimension. Grinding process is having a very high  18.71  200  218.71mm
Material Removal Rate (MRR). Hence, the cutter to engage and completely cut the
Hence, the correct option is (D). part surface is 218.71 mm.
3.16 829.09 3.19 1000

Given : Cutting force ( Fc )  1700 N Given : Diameter of the bar of ( D)  100 mm

Cutting velocity (V )  120 m/min
Friction angle ()  260
Feed ( f )  0.25 mm/rev
Let, thrust force be Ft
Depth of cut (d )  4 mm
Coefficient of friction
Specific cutting energy ( Ec )  10 J/m
9 3
()  tan   tan 26  0.4877
Ft F Now, specific cutting energy is given by,
Also,    t
Fc 1700 Power  Fc  V  Fc
Ec 
Ft  0.4877 1700 MRR f  d V f d
Thrust force, Fc  Ec  f  d
Ft  1700  0.4877  829.09 N Fc  109  0.25 103  4 103 106
Hence, the thrust force value is 829.09 N. Fc  1000 N
3.17 – 49.013 Hence, the main of tangential cutting force is 1000
N.
Given : Diameter of drill ( D)  30 mm
3.20 1527.88
Point angle (2)  1180   590
Depth of hole (t) = 40 mm Given : Width of the block (b)  60 mm
Cutting speed (V )  120 m/min
Production Engineering 27
 Feed ( f )  0.1mm/tooth (1071.66  189.44) C
T %  100
Depth of cut (d ) = 4 mm 1071.66 C
Diameter of cutter ( D)  120 mm T %  82.32%
Cutting edge ( Z )  12 Hence, the corresponding percentage change in
Now, Material removal rate is given by, tool life is 82.32%.
MRR  bdf m …(i) 3.23 (D)
 V  Coefficient of friction can be given by,
Where, f m  ft  Z  N  N 
 D  
F f6

0.110 3 12 120 Fn f5
fm 
120 10 3 Where, f6  Force on longitudinal direction or
f m  0.38197 m/min  381.97 mm/min friction force
Now from equation (i), f 5  Normal force
MRR  bdf m  60  4  381.97 Hence, the correct answer is (D).
MRR  91672.8 mm /min 3
3.24 (C)
MRR  1527.88 mm3 /sec
Length of approach (la ) is the distance to be
Hence, the material removal rate is 1527.88
mm3/sec. travelled by the tool for complete depth of material
removal and is expressed by,
3.21 (C)
la  t ( d  t )
Among all the given operations (i.e., turning,
drilling, milling and boring) turning and boring are Hence, the correct option is (C).
the operations that are performed by a single point 3.25 40
cutting tool. Given : Pitch of thread ( P)  2 mm
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Pitch of the leadscrew ( Pl )  6 mm
3.22 82.32
Rotation of job ( N )  60 rpm
According to question.
The given tool life equation is, Lead of thread (l )  2 P  4 mm
T  CV  2.5 f  0.9
d 0.15 …(i) Now, we know that
Where, V  1.5 m/s , f  0.25 mm l  N  Pl  N l
and d  3 mm lN
Nl 
By putting the values in equation (i), pl
T1  C (1.52.5 1000  0.250.9  30.15 ) 4  60
Nl   40 rpm
T1  1071.66  C …(ii) 6
Hence, the RPM of the lead screw is 40 rpm.
Now, by doubling the cutting speed,
V  2 1.5  3m/s 3.26 636.758
From equation (i), Given : Cutting speed (V )  90 m/min
T2  C (32.5 1000  0.250.9  30.15 ) Rake angle ()  100
T2  189.44  C
Cutting force ( Fc )  750 N
Now, percentage change in time is given by,
Thrust force ( Ft )  390 N
T T
T %  1 2 100
T1 Shear angle ()  350

28 Production Engineering
 3.28 460.88
Given : Shear strength ()  220 MPa
Depth of cut (d )  1 mm  b
Feed ( f )  0.2 mm/rev  t1
Chip thickness ratio (r )  0.5
By applying sin rule in triangle ABC,
Friction angle ()  49.20
Vs V
 Shear angle ()  25.40
cos  cos(  )
Rake angle ()   50
90  cos10
Vs  bt1
cos (35  10)  Shear force, Fs  
sin 
Vs  97.795 m/min
1.0  0.2
Fs  Fc cos   Ft sin  Fs  220   102.58 N
sin 25.40
Fs  750 cos 35  390sin 35 Fs  R cos (    )
Fs  390.669 N 102.58  R cos (25.4  49.2  5)
Power  Fs  Vs R  568.25
 390.669  97.795  38205.5 Nm/min Ft  R sin (  )  568.25sin (49.2  5)

 636.758 Watt.  Feed force, Ft  460.88 N

Hence, the power expended for shearing along the Hence, the feed force is 460.88 N.
shear plane is 636.758 Watt. 3.29 (B)
3.27 449.33 Given : Diameter of drill ( D )  20 mm
Given : Point angle (2)  1180
Cutting speed of tool A, (VA )  200 m/min Plate thickness (t )  100 mm
Cutting speed of tool B, (VB )  150 m/min Feed ( f )  0.22 mm/rev
Tool life of tool A, (TA )  20 min Cutting speed (V )  333.33 mm/sec
Tool life of tool B, (TB )  58 min V
N
D
VATAn  VBTBn  C
333.33
N  5.305rps
200  20n  150  58n  C  20
n
200  58  Compulsory approach,
 
150  20  D 20
AP1    6 mm
4 2 tan   118 
 (2.9)n 2  tan  
3  2 
4 L t  AP1
ln    n ln 2.9 TM  
3 fN fN
ln (4 / 3) 100  6
n  0.2702 TM   90.82s  90s
ln 2.9 0.22  5.305
C  200  200.2702  150  580.2702  449.33 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the value of constant in the Taylor’s tool
3.30 (D)
life equation is 449.33.
Production Engineering 29
 The collet holder is sometimes referred to as a 3.33 0.80
collet chuck. Various forms of chucks can be fitted
to milling machines spindles for holding drills, Given : Hole diameter ( D )  25 mm ,
reamers, and small cutters for special operations. Depth of hole (l )  100 mm ,
Hence, the correct option is (D). Cutting speed (v)  100 m/min ,
3.31 (C) Feed ( f )  0.1 mm/rev ,
In the oil impregnated process, bearings are kept Approach ( A)  2 mm
submerged in an oil both, so that due to the
capillary effect the pores in the balls are filled with Cutting speed, v  DN
1000
the oil, while the bearing is in motion, the oil
 25  N
trapped in the pores of the balls come out and thus 100 
they lubricate the bearings. Hence, they are also 1000
known as self-lubricating bearings. N  1273.24 rpm

Hence, the correct option is (C). lA

Machining time, tm 
3.32 300 fN
Given : The value of exponent (n)  0.5 100  2
tm   0.80 min
0.1  1273.24
Cutting speed (V2 )  50%V1
Hence, the actual machining time is 0.80 minutes.
Taylor’s tool life equation, VT n  C
3.34 (A)
So, VT V T
1 1
n
2 2
n
Wheel grade : Indicates the strength of the
V1T1n  (0.5)V1T2n binding material.
When the work material is hard, the grains wear
T1n  (0.5)T2n out easily and the sharpness of the cutting edges is
0.5 quickly lost. This is known as wheel glazing.
 T1 
T   0.5 To avoid this problem, a soft wheel should be
 2
used,
T1 1
 1. A-H-Soft wheel.
T2 4 2. J-P-Medium wheel.
T  3. Q-Z-Hard wheel.
 %change in tool life   2  1 100
 T1  Hence, the correct option is (A).
 (4  1) 100  300%

Hence, the increase in tool life is 300%.

30 Production Engineering
4 Forming

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2013 IIT Bombay (A) P - 2, Q - 3, R - 6, S - 5

(B) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 6, S - 5
4.1 In a rolling process, the state of stress of the
(C) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 4, S - 6
material undergoing deformation is
(D) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 5, S - 6
[1 Mark]
4.4 A metal rod of initial length L0 is subjected
(A) Pure compression
to a drawing process. The length of the rod
(B) Pure shear
at any instant is given by the expression,
(C) Compression and shear
L(t )  L0 (1  t 2 ), where t is the time in
(D) Tension and shear
minutes. The true strain rate (in min 1 ) at the
2014 IIT Kharagpur end of one minute is ________. [2 Marks]
4.2 The relationship between true strain (T ) 2015 IIT Kanpur
and engineering strain ( E ) in a uniaxial 4.5 Match the following products with preferred
tension test is given as manufacturing processes : [1 Mark]
[1 Mark] Product Process
(A)  E  ln (1  T ) P. Rails 1. Blow molding
Engine
(B)  E  ln (1  T ) Q. 2. Extrusion
crankshaft
(C) T  ln (1   E ) Aluminium
R. 3. Forging
(D) T  ln (1   E ) channels
PET water
4.3 With respect to metal working, match S. 4. Rolling
bottles
Group-A with Group-B : [1 Mark]
(A) P - 4, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 2
Group-A Group-B
(B) P - 4, Q - 3, R - 2, S - 1
P. Defect in 1. Alligatoring
extrusion (C) P - 2, Q - 4, R - 3, S - 1
Q. Defect in 2. Scab (D) P - 3, Q - 4, R - 2, S - 1
rolling
4.6 The strain hardening exponent n of strainless
R. Product of skew 3. Fish tail steel SS 304 with distinct yield and UTS
rolling values undergoing plastic deformation is
S. Product of 4. Seamless tube [1 Mark]
rolling through 5. Thin sheet (A) n  0 (B) n  0
cluster mill with tight
tolerance (C) 0  n  1 (D) n  1
6. Semi-finished 4.7 In a slab rolling operation, the maximum
balls of ball thickness reduction (hmax ) is given by
bearing hmax  2 R, where R is the radius of the

Production Engineering 1
 roll and  is the coefficient of friction
between the roll and the sheet. If   0.1, the
maximum angle substended by the
deformation zone at the centre of the roll
(bite angle in degree) is ______.
[2 Marks]
4.8 In a two stage wire drawing operation, the
fractional reduction (ratio of change in cross
sectional area to initial cross sectional area)
in the first stage is 0.4. The fractional
reduction in the second stage is 0.3. The
overall fractional reduction is [2 Marks]
(A) 0.24 (B) 0.58
(C) 0.60 (D) 1.00
4.9 The flow stress (in MPa) of a material is
given by   500 0.1 , where  is true strain.
The Young’s modulus of elasticity of the
material is 200 GPa. A block of thickness
100 mm made of this material is compressed
to 95 mm thickness and then the load is
remove. The final dimension of the block (in
mm) is ______. [2 Marks]
4.10 In a rolling operation using rolls of diameter
500 mm, if a 25 mm thick plate cannot be
reduced to less than 20 mm in one pass, the
coefficient of friction between the roll and
the plate is _____. [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
4.11 Engineering strain of a mild steel sample is
recorded as 0.100%. The true strain is
[1 Mark]
(A) 0.010% (B) 0.055%
(C) 0.099% (D) 0.101%
2017 IIT Roorkee
4.12 A 10 mm deep cylindrical cup with diameter
of 15 mm is drawn from a circular blank.
Neglecting the variation in the sheet
thickness, the diameter (upto 2 decimal
points accuracy) of the blank is _____ mm.
[2 Marks]
4.13 It is desired to make a product having T-
shaped cross-section from a rectangular
2 Production Engineering
aluminium block. Which one of the
following processes is expected to provide
the highest strength of the product?
[1 Mark]
(A) Welding (B) Casting
(C) Metal forming (D) Machining
4.14 A strip of 120 mm width and 8 mm thickness
is rolled between two 300 mm diameter rolls
to get a strip of 120 mm width and 7.2 mm
thickness. The speed of the strip at the exit is
30 m/min. There is no front or back tension.
Assuming uniform roll pressure of 200 MPa
in the roll bits and 100% mechanical
efficiency, the minimum total power (in kW)
required to drive the two rolls is ______.
[2 Marks]
4.15 A rod of length 20 mm is stretched to make
a rod of length 40 mm. Subsequently, it is
compressed to make a rod of final length 10
mm. Consider the longitudinal tensile strain
as positive and compressive strain as
negative. The total true longitudinal strain in
the rod is [2 Marks]
(A) –0.5 (B) –0.69
(C) –0.75 (D) –1.0
2018 IIT Guwahati
4.16 In a linearly hardening plastic material, the
true stress beyond initial yielding
[1 Mark]
(A) Increases linearly with the true strain.
(B) Decreases linearly with the true strain.
(C) First increases linearly and then
decreases linearly with the true strain.
(D) Remain constant.
4.17 A bar is compressed to half of its original
length. The magnitude of true strain
produced in the deformed bar is _____
(correct to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
4.18 The maximum reduction in cross-sectional
area per pass (R) of a cold wire drawing
process is R  1  e ( n 1) where n represents
the strain hardening coefficient. For the case
of a perfectly plastic material, R is
[2 Marks]
 (A) 0.865 (B) 0.826 drawing stress  f (in MPa) is given as :
(C) 0.777 (D) 0.632 [2 Marks]
4.19 The true stress () , true strain (  ) diagram
1   df  
2  cot 

of a strain hardening material is shown in  f  (Y ) avg 1   1    
figure. First, there is loading up to point A,   cot     di  
i.e. up to stress of 500 MPa and strain of 0.5 The drawing stress in (in MPa) required to
then from point A, there is unloading up to carry out this operation is _____ (correct to
point B , i.e. to stress of 100 MPa , Given two decimal places).
4.22 The true stress (in MPa) versus true strain
that the Young’s modulus E  200 GPa , the
relationship for a metal is given by
natural strain at point B( B ) ______ (correct
  1020 0.4 . The cross-sectional area at the
to two decimal places). [2 Marks]
start of a test (when the stress and strain
values are equal to zero) is 100mm2 . The
cross-sectional area at the time of necking
(in mm2 ) is _____ (correct to two decimal
places). [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras

4.23 The cold forming process in which a

hardened tool is pressed against a work piece
(when there is relative motion between the
4.20 Match the following products with the
tool and the work piece) to produce a
suitable manufacturing process [1 Mark]
roughened surface with a regular pattern is
Manufacturing [1 Mark]
Product
process
P. Toothpaste 1. Centrifugal (A) chamfering (B) strip rolling
tube casting (C) knurling (D) roll forming.
Q. Metallic pipes 2. Blow 4.24 The thickness of a sheet is reduced by rolling
moulding
(Without any change in width) using 600
R. Plastic bottles 3. Rolling mm diameter rolls. Neglect elastic deflection
S. Threaded 4. Impact of the rolls and assume that the coefficient of
bolts extrusion friction at the roll workpiece interface is
(A) P - 4, Q - 3, R - 1, S - 2 0.05. The sheet enters the rotating rolls
(B) P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3, S - 4 unaided. If the initial sheet thickness is 2
(C) P - 4, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 3 mm. The minimum possible final thickness
(D) P - 1, Q - 3, R - 4, S - 2 that can be produced by this process in a
4.21 A steel wire is drawn from an initial diameter single pass is ______ mm. [2 Marks]
(di ) of 10 mm to a final diameter ( d f ) of 4.25 A plane-strain compression (forging) of a
7.5 mm. The half cone angle () of the die block is shown in the figure. The strain in the
z- direction is zero. The yield strength ( S y )
is 5 0 and the coefficient of friction ()
between the die and the wire is 0.1. The in uniaxial tension/ compression of the
average of the initial and final yield stress material of the block is 300 MPa and it
follows the Tresca (Maximum shear stress)
(Y )avg  is 350 MPa . The equation for
criterion. Assume that the entire block has

Production Engineering 3
 started yielding. At a point where
 x  40 MPa (compressive) and  xy  0 the
stress component  y is [2 Marks]
(A) 340 MPa (compressive)
(B) 260 MPa (compressive)
(C) 340 MPa (Tensile)
(D) 260 MPa (Tensile)
2020 IIT Delhi
4.26 The thickness of a steel plate with material
strength coefficient of 210 MPa, has to be
reduced from 20 mm to 15 mm in a single
pass in a two-high rolling mill with a roll
radius of 450 mm and rolling velocity of
28 m/min . If the plate has a width of
200 mm and its strain hardening exponent n
is 0.25, the rolling force required for the
operation is ______ kN . (round off to 2
decimal places) [2 Marks]
Note : Average flow stress
(True strain) n
 Material strength coefficient 
1 n
4.27 A strip of thickness 40 mm is to be rolled to
a thickness of 20 mm using a two-high mill
having rolls of diameter 200 mm.
Coefficient of friction and arc length in mm,
respectively are [2 Marks]
(A) 0.45 and 44.72
(B) 0.39 and 38.84
(C) 0.45 and 38.84
(D) 0.39 and 44.72
4.28 A bolt head has to be made at the end of a
rod of diameter d  12 mm by localized
forging (upsetting) operation. The length of
the unsupported portion of the rod is 40 mm.
To avoid buckling of the rod, a closed
4 Production Engineering
forging operation has to be performed with a
maximum die diameter of ______ mm.
[1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay
4.29 A 200 mm wide plate having a thickness of
20 mm is fed through a rolling mill with two
rolls. The radius of each roll is 300 mm. The
plate thickness is to be reduced to 18 mm in
one pass using a roll speed of 50 rpm. The
strength coefficient (K) of the work material
flow curve is 300 MPa and the strain
hardening exponent, n is 0.2. The coefficient
of friction between the rolls and the plate is
0.1. If the friction is sufficient to permit the
rolling operation then the roll force will
be____________ kN (round off to the
nearest integer). [2 Marks]
2021 IIT Bombay
4.30 The thickness, width and length of a metal
slab are 50 mm, 250 mm and 3600 mm
respectively. A rolling operation on this slab
reduces the thickness by 10% and increases
the width by 3%. The length of the rolled
slab is __________ mm (round off to one
decimal place). [1 Mark]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
4.31 A 4 mm thick aluminum sheet of width w =
100 mm is rolled in a two-roll mill of roll
diameter 200 mm each. The workpiece is
lubricated with a mineral oil, which gives a
coefficient of friction,   0.1 . The flow
stress () of the material in MPa is
  207  414, where  is the true strain.
Assuming rolling to be a plane strain
deformation process, the roll separation
force (F) for maximum permissible draft
(thickness reduction) is _________ kN
(round off to the nearest integer).
Use:
 L 
F  1.15 1   wL, where  is average
 2h 
flow stress, L is roll- workpiece contact
 length, and h is the average sheet thickness. d 0 is the initial diameter of the billet in mm,
[2 Marks] and K s is the die shape factor.
4.32 A cylindrical billet of 100 mm diameter and
If the mean flow strength of the billet
100 mm length is extruded by a direct
material is 50 MPa and the die shape factor
extrusion process to produce a bar of L-
is 1.05, then the maximum force required at
section. The cross sectional dimensions of
the start of extrusion is ________ kN (round
this L-section bar are shown in the figure.
off to one decimal place). [2 Marks]
The total extrusion pressure (𝑝) in MPa for 10 mm
the above process is related to extrusion ratio
(𝑟) as
𝑝
 2l 
 K s  m 0.8  1.5ln(r )   ,
 d0  60 mm

where m is the mean flow strength of the

billet material in MPa, 𝑙 is the portion of the 10 mm
billet length remaining to be extruded in mm,
50 mm

Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2014 IIT Kharagpur the plane-strain deformation, what is the

minimum coefficient of friction required for
4.1 A moving mandrel is used in [1 Mark] unaided rolling to be possible?
(A) Wire drawing [2 Marks]
(B) Forging (A) 0.111 (B) 0.158
(C) Tube drawing (C) 0.223 (D) 0.316
(D) Bending 2015 IIT Kanpur
4.2 In an open die forging, a circular disc is 4.4 In rolling of a flat strip, the relative velocity
gradually compressed between two flat of strip with respect to the roller is
plates. The exponential decay of normal [1 Mark]
stress on the flat face of the disc, from the
(A) Positive at entry plane, negative at exit
center of the disc towards its periphery,
plane.
indicates that [1 Mark]
(B) Negative at entry plane, positive at exit.
(A) There is no sticking friction anywhere on
(C) Positive throughout from entry to exit
the flat face of the disc.
plane.
(B) Sticking friction and sliding friction co- (D) Negative throughout from entry to exit
exist on the flat face of the disc. plane.
(C) The flat face of the disc is frictionless. 4.5 The maximum reduction per pass during
(D) There is only sticking friction on the flat wire drawing of an aluminum alloy ignoring
face of the disc. friction and redundant work is 77%. The
4.3 A 80 mm thick steel plate with 400 mm strain hardening exponent of the material is
width is rolled to 40 mm thickness in 4 _______. [1 Mark]
passes with equal reduction in each pass, by
using rolls of 800 mm diameter. Assuming

Production Engineering 5
 2016 IISc Bangalore
4.6 In powder metallurgy, sintering of the
component [1 Mark]
(A) Increases density and reduces ductility
(B) Increases porosity and reduces density
(C) Increases density and reduces porosity
(D) Increases porosity and reduces
brittleness.
2017 IIT Roorkee
4.7 In powder metallurgy, the process
atomization refers to a method of [1 Mark]
(A) Producing powders
(B) Compaction of powders
(C) Sintering of powder compacts
(D) Blending of metal powders
4.8 In a metal forming operation when the
material has just started yielding, the
principal stresses are 1  180 MPa,
2  100 MPa, 3  0 . Following Von-
Mises criterion, the yield stress is _____
MPa. [1 Mark]
4.9 A steel wire of 2 mm diameter is to be drawn
from a wire of 5 mm diameter. The value of
true strain developed is ______. (up to three
decimal places)
[1 Mark]
4.10 A metallic strip having a thickness of 12 mm
is to be rolled using two steel rolls, each of
800 mm diameter. It is assumed that there is
no change in width of the strip during rolling.
In order to achieve 10% reduction in cross-
sectional area of the strip after rolling, the
angle subtended (in degrees) by the
deformation zone at the center of the roll is
[2 Marks]
(A) 1.84 (B) 3.14
(C) 6.84 (D) 8.23
2018 IIT Guwahati
4.11 Which one of the following processes is
NOT used for producing powders?
[1 Mark]
6 Production Engineering
(A) Atomization (B) Ball milling
(C) Sintering (D) Electrolysis
4.12 In a two- pass wire drawing process, there is
a 40% reduction in wire cross-sectional area
in 1st pass and further 30% reduction in 2nd
pass. The overall reduction (in percentage) is
______. [1 Mark]
4.13 The process in which molten thermoplastic
is forced between rolls to produce thin sheets
is called [1 Mark]
(A) Blow moulding
(B) Compression moulding
(C) Calendering
(D) Extrusion
4.14 A 10 mm thick plate is rolled to 7 mm
thickness in a rolling mill using 1000 mm
diameter rigid rolls. The neutral point is
located at an angle of 0.3 times the bite angle
from the exit. The thickness (in mm, up to
two decimal places) of the plate at the neutral
point is ______. [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
4.15 A metallic rod of diameter d 0 is subjected to
the tensile test. The engineering stress and
the true stress at fracture are 800 MPa and
900 MPa , respectively. The ratio of the rod
diameter at fracture d f to the initial diameter
d 0 is ______. (round off to 2 decimal places)
[1 Mark]
4.16 The process used for producing continuous
insulation coating on an electrical wire is
[1 Mark]
(A) Extrusion
(B) Injection molding
(C) Blow molding
(D) Deep drawing
4.17 A 100 mm long cylindrical work-piece of
diameter 50 mm is reduced to 25 mm
diameter using extrusion process. The flow
curve for the metal has strength coefficient
as K  750 MPa and the strain hardening
co-efficient is 0.15. Assuming no friction
 and no redundant work, the required ram The total extrusion pressure ( pe ) in MPa
pressure (in MPa) is closest to [2 Marks] required for the above process is given by,
(A) 164 (B) 364
 A 
(C) 428 (D) 950 pe  m 0.8  1.2ln  0 
  Af 
2020 IIT Delhi
Where, m is the mean flow stress of the
4.18 The process used for producing long bars of
fiber reinforced plastics (ERP) with uniform material and A0 and Af are the initial and
cross-section is [1 Mark] the final cross-sectional areas, respectively.
(A) Pultrusion If the mean flow stress of the extruded
(B) Extrusion material is 80 MPa, the force required for
the above extrusion (rounded off to one
(C) Thermoforming
decimal place) in kN is ______. [2 Marks]
(D) Injection molding
4.19 A cylindrical billet of 90 mm diameter is
extruded to produce and section as shown in
the figure (all dimension in mm)

Explanations Forming (ME)

4.1 (C)  L 
T  ln 1 
In a rolling process, during travel of material  L0 
through the rollers material will undergo bi-axis L
as,   E (engineering strain)
compression and as well as sliding force (shear L0
force) will act on the grains.
T  ln (1   E )
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.2 (C)
 Key Point
True strain is given by,
Lf True stress and strain :
dL  Lf 
T    ln   F
L  L0  (i) True stress, T 
L0 Al
Where, L f  Final length, L0  Initial length. (ii) Conversion of engineering stress to true
 L  L  stress, T  (1  )
T  ln  0  (L  L f  L0 )
 L0   Lf 
(iii) True strain, T  ln  
 L0 

Production Engineering 7
 (iv) Conversion of engineering strain to true dL  L0 (2t ) dt
strain, T  ln(1  ) . dL
Also, d T 
(v) True stress-strain relationship in the plastic L
region to the point of necking, L 2tdt
d T  0
T  K Tn L0 (1  t 2 )
Now, true strain rate can be written by dividing
4.3 (B) true strain with time, we get
(P  3) : It is piping defect occurs during hot d T 2t

extrusion due to presence of impurities and oxides, dt (1  t 2 )
also known as tail pipe and fish tailing, At time t  1min ,
propogates as funnel shaped void. d T 2
 1
dt 2
Hence, the true strain rate at the end of one minute
is 1 min  1 .
(Q  1) : An interesting defect that can occur in 4.5 (B)
flat rolling is alligatoring, where the work being
(P  4) : Various rails sections are manufactured
rolled actually splits in two during the process.
by the help of rolling process.
The two parts of the work material travel in
opposite direction relative to their respective rolls. (Q  3) : Engine crank shaft is manufactured by
forging process.
(R  2) : Aluminium, copper with their alloys are
successfully used to manufacture products using
hot extrusion process. Electrical wires, bars, tubes
and channels are some of the items produced by
this process.
(S  1) : The most simple products that are made
by blow molding are water bottles, ventilation
(R  6) : Among many methods used for balls ducts, suit cases and fuel tanks for automobiles.
production (machining, casting, die forging and Hence, the correct option is (B).
rolling), skew rolling processes should be taken
into consideration. These processes allow for balls 46 (B)
forming directly from a semi-finished product in Formula,   K n
form of a bar. where,   Applied stress on the material,
(S  5) : Highly automated cluster mill produce   Strain
close-tolerance, high quality plates and thin sheet K = Strength coefficient.
at high production rates and low cost per unit The value of the strain hardening exponent lies
weight. between 0 and 1.
Hence, the correct option is (B). If n = 0 means that a material is a perfectly plastic.
4.4 1 If n  1 means material is 100% is elastic.
For SS 304 steel/ and metal n value between 0.10
According to question, and 0.50.
L(t )  L0 (1  t 2 )  L0  L0t 2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
In the differential form the above equation can be
written as,

8 Production Engineering
 4.7 5.73 Overall fractional reduction is given by,
A  A2 A0  0.42 A0
According to question,  0 
A0 A0
0.58 A0
  0.58
A0
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.9 95.17
Given : Stress ()  500 0.1
Young’s modulus ( E )  200 GPa
Initial thickness of block (h0 )  100 mm

From figure, Final thickness of block (h1 )  95 mm

h True strain is given by,
R
cos   2  h 
 ln 1  
R  h0 
h
cos   1   5 
2R  ln 1    0.05129
 100 
and, (h)max   2 R
Taking just the magnitude, as negative sign only
2 R
cos   1  indicates compression,
2R  0.05129
 0.12  Stress is given by,
  cos 1  1    5.73
0

 2    5000.1  500  0.051290.1

Hence, the maximum angle substended by the   371.514 MPa
deformation zone at the centre of the roll is 5.730. Using Hooks law, we have
4.8 (B)  h1 371.512  95
h    0.176 mm
E 200 103
Let initial area be A0 and subsequent areas be A1
Hence, the final dimension will be
and A2 . h1  95  h  95.17 mm
First fractional reduction is given by, Hence, the final dimension of the block is 95.17
A0  A1
 0.4 mm.
A0
 Key Point
A0  A1  0.4 A0 Few books have given wrong answer as 95.12mm
A1  0.6 A0 …(i) but the official answer is in between 95.14 and
Second fractional reduction is given by, 95.20 and the range is taken with respect to to the
A1  A2 exact answer so if you take average of both these
 0.3 values it comes out to be 95.17 mm, which is the
A1
exact answer.
A1  A2  0.3 A1
A2  0.7 A1 4.10 0.1414

A2  0.7  0.6 A0 [using equation (i)] Given : Diameter of roller ( D)  500 mm

A2  0.42 A0 …(ii)  R  250 mm

Production Engineering 9
 Initial thickness of plate (h0 )  25mm 30
Speed at exit (V )  30m/min  m/s
60
Final thickness of plate (h1 )  20 mm
Roll pressure (0 )  200 MPa
Maximum possible draft is given by,
Change in thickness, h  8  7.2  0.8 mm
(h)max   2 R
Contact length is given by,
(25  20)    250
2
L  Rh  150  0.8  10.954 mm
  0.1414 Force is given by,
Hence, the coefficient of friction between the roll F  0  L  b
and the plate is 0.1414. F  200 10.954 120  262896 N
4.11 (C) F  262.89 kN
Given : Angular velocity is given by,
V 30 / 60
 0.1  3    3.33rad/s
Engineering strain ()  0.1%     10 R 0.150
 100 
Power (for two rollers) is given by,
True strain is given by, P  2  T 
T  ln(1  )  ln(1  103 )  0.099%  L
P  2 F   
Hence, the correct option is (C).  2
4.12 28.72  10.954 
P  2   262.89    3.33
Given : Depth of cut (h)  10 mm  2 
P  9589.39 W  9.58 kW
Diameter of cup (d )  15 mm
Hence, the minimum total power required to drive
So, the diameter of blank ( D ) is given by, the two rolls is 9.58 kW.
D  d 2  4dh  152  4  15  10 4.15 (B)
D  28.72 mm Given : Initial length of the rod ( Li )  20 mm
Hence, the diameter of the blank is 28.72 mm. Length after streching ( L2 )  40 mm
4.13 (C) Final length, ( L f )  10 mm
Highest strength is obtained through metal Now, we know that volume of the rod will remain
forming processes because due to continuous same in all three cases i.e.,
application of force work hardening occurs and Ai Li  A2 L2  Af L f
increase in mechanical property due to change in
Ai L f
grain size. 
Af Li
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 A   Lf 
4.14 9.58 True strain  ln  i   ln  
 Af   Li 
Given : Width of strip (b)  120 mm
 10 
Initial thickness of strip (h1 )  8mm  ln     0.69
 20 
Diameter of roller ( D)  300 mm Negative sign indicates that the rod has been
 R  150 mm compressed.
Final thickness of strip (h2 )  7.2 mm Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.16 (A)

10 Production Engineering
In a linearly hardening plastic material, the true A0  ( Af )min  1
stress beyond initial yielding is increases linearly R  1  
A0  e
with the true strain.
 1 
R  1    0.632
 2.71828 
Hence, the correct option is (D).
4.19 0.498

Given : Stress of point A, ( A )  500 MPa

Hence, the correct option is (A). Strain of point A, ( A )  0.5

4.17 0.693 Stress of point B, (B )  100 MPa

Given : Initial length of bar  L1 Youngs modulus ( E )  200 GPa

Final length of bar  L1 / 2 The slope of AB line is,

AC
 L  1 E
True strain T  ln  1   ln    0.693 BC
 2  L1  2 (  B ) MPa
200 103 MPa  A
In magnitude, T  0.693 BC
Hence, the magnitude of true strain produced in (500  100) MPa

the deformed bar is 0.693. BC
4.18 (D) 400
BC   0.002
..Method 1.. 200 103
 B  0.5  0.002  0.498
Maximum reduction, R  1  e ( n 1)
For perfectly plastic material, n  0 Hence, the natural strain at point B( B ) is 0.498.
 R  1  e ( n1) 4.20 (C)
R  1  e 1  0.632
(P  4) : Collapsible metal tubes includes lead,
Hence, the correct option is (D).
tin and aluminum, made by impact extrusion are
..Method 2.. being used as contains for a wide variety of
Assuming ideal and frictionless condition, domestic materials such as shaving cream, tooth
A  paste, medicines etc.
d  0 ln  0 
A  (Q  1) : Centrifuge casting or rotocasting is a
 f 
casting technique that is typically used to cast thin-
For maximum reduction, walled cylinders.
 d  0
Materials that can be cast are iron, steel, stainless
 A0  steel, glass and alloy of aluminum, copper and
0  0 ln  
 ( Af )min  nickel.
(R  2) : The most simple products that are made
 A0 
 1  ln   by blow molding are water bottles, ventilation
 ( Af )min  ducts, suit cases and fuel tanks for automobile.

A0
 e  2.71828 (S  3) : The steel bolts are rolled through a set
( Af )min of threading dies which displaces the steel and
Maximum reduction in area, forms the threads. The end result is a fastener with

Production Engineering 11
 a full diameter threaded portion but a reduced Knurling is obtained by displacement of the
body diameter. Roll threading is an extremely materials on the surface of the work blank when
efficient process and often results in significant the knurl is pressed against a rotating blank. This
cost savings. operation is carried out on lathes or screw
Hence, the correct option is (C). machines.
4.21 316.25 Hence, the correct option is (C).
4.24 1.25
Given : Initial diameter of wire (di )  10 mm
Given : Diameter of roller ( D)  600 mm
Final diameter of wire (d f )  7.5 mm
 R  300 mm
Half cone angle ()  50
Coefficient of friction ()  0.05
Coefficient of friction ()  0.1
Initial sheet thickness (h1 )  2 mm
Average yield stress ( y ) avg  350 MPa
Now, maximum change in thickness of sheet is
1   df  
2  cot 
 given by,
 f  ( y ) avg  1   1    
  cot     di    h max  2 R
 h1    h2    2 R
   7.5  
20.1cot 5 0

 1
 350  1  1   

 0.1cot 5    10 
0
  h2 min  h1   2 R
(h2 )min  2   0.05  300  1.25 mm
2
 316.2472 MPa  316.25 MPa
4.22 67.03 Hence, the minimum possible final thickness that
can be produced by this process in a single pass is
According to question,   10200.4 1.25 mm.
At UTS, T  n  0.4 4.25 (A)
At UTS, neck formation starts,
Given : Stress (x )   40 MPa
A 
T  0.4  ln  0  ( compressive)
A
 f  Yield strength ( S yt )  300 MPa
 100  According to Tresca’s theory,
0.4  ln 
 A  x   y S yt
 f  
100 0.4 2 2  FOS
e  40   y  300
Af
 y   340 MPa  340 MPa
100
Af  (compressive)
e0.4
Cross-section area at the time of necking, Hence, the correct option is (A).
A f  67.032 mm 2 4.26 1166.44
Hence, the cross-sectional area at the time of Given : Thickness of steel plate (h1 )  20 mm
necking is 67.032mm2 . Thickness of after rolled (h2 )  15 mm
4.23 (C) Radius of roller ( R )  450 mm
Material strength coefficient = 210 MPa
Knurling is a cold forming operation in which
Width of plate (b)  200 mm
surfaces are made rough by passing the surface
Strain hardening exponent (n)  0.25
between sharp serrations on hard steel rollers.
12 Production Engineering
So, roll strip contact length is given by, K  300 MPa , n  0.2 and   0.1
L  RH
K Tn
L  450  (20  15)  47.43 mm 0 
n 1
True strain is given by, 0.2
h 20  18 
T  ln 2  ln  0.287 300  ln  
 20 
h1 15 0 
According to question, average flow stress is given 1.2
by, 0  159.39 MPa
(0.287)0.25
 y  210   122.96 MPa F  0  w  R(h0  h f )
1  0.25
Rolling force is given by,
F  159.39  200  300  (20  18)
F  Lb y
F  780.848 kN
F  47.43 200 122.96
F  1166398.56  1166.398 kN Hence, the roll force will be 780.848 kN.

Hence, the rolling force required for the operation 4.30 3883.49
is 1166.398 kN. Given : h0  50 mm , w0  250 mm
4.27 (A) L0  3600 mm , h f  0.9h0 and w f  1.03w0
Given : Initial thickness of strip (h1 )  40 mm So, h0 w0 L0  h f w f L f
Final thickness of strip (h2 )  20 mm h0 w0 L0  0.9h0 1.03w0  L f
Diameter of roller ( D)  200 mm , R  100 mm 3600
Lf   3883.49 mm
h   R2
0.9 1.03
Hence, the length of the rolled slab is 3883.49 mm.
h 20
   0.4472
R 100 4.31 350.32
and L  R  h  100  20  44.72 mm Given :
Hence, the correct option is (A). Rolling :
4.28 18 h0  4 mm
Given : W  100 mm
Rod diameter of the bolt head (d )  12 mm D  200 mm
Length of the unsupported portion of the rod   207 + 414 
(l )  40 mm (h) max  0.12  100  h0  h f
If l  3d then die dia  1.5d  1.5(12)  18 mm
h f  3 mm
Hence, the closed forging operation has to be
performed with a maximum die diameter of 18
mm.
4.29 780.84
Given : w  200 mm , h0  20 mm
R  300 mm , h f  18 mm

Production Engineering 13
 4 Hence, the correct answer is 35.32.
ln    0.287
3 4.32 2429.201
  207  414  Given :
  325.818 Af  60 10  1000 mm 2
207  325.818  2 
  266.409 MPa AD  D  1002  7853.98 mm2
2 4 4
 uL   L  Rh  r
AO
 7.853
P  1.15  1  
 2h    Af

 0.4 10   100 

P  1.15  266.409  1  p  1.05  50 0.8  1.5  ln(7.853)  2 


2  3.5   100 

L  100 1  10 mm f  p  Ao  309.53  1002
4
 0.4 10   2429201.415 N
F  1.15  266.409  1    100  10
 2  3.5  f  2429.201 kN
 43  Hence, the maximum force required at the start of
 h  2  3.5 mm  extrusion is 2429.201 kN.
F  350.32 kN

Explanations Forming (PE & IE)

4.1 (C) No. of passes ( N )  4

A moving mandrel is used in a tube drawing Diameter of rollers (d )  800 mm, r  400 mm
operation. The purpose of using a moving mandrel Let, coefficient of friction be 
is to maintain the required diametric Total reduction in thickness
specifications. (t )  ti  t f  80  40  40 mm
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Maximum reduction per pass
4.2 (D) t 40
   10 mm
In an open die forging, a circular disc is gradually N 4
compressed between two flat plates. The We know that,
exponential decay of normal stress on the flat face Maximum reduction per pass  2 r
of the disc from the center of the disc towards its
10  2 r
periphery, indicates that there is only sticking
friction on the flat face of the disc. 10
  0.158
Hence, the correct option is (D). 400
4.3 (B)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.4 (B)
Given : Initial thickness of plate (ti )  80 mm
In rolling of a flat strip, the relative velocity of
Width of plate ( w)  400 mm
strip with respect to the roller is negative at entry
Initial thickness (ti )  80 mm plane and positive at exit. More easily the relation
Final thickness (t f )  40 mm between entry, roll and exit velocities can be given
as entry velocity < roll velocity < exit velocity.
14 Production Engineering
Hence, the correct option is (B) process of powder metallurgy, the molten metal is
4.5 0.469 forced to pass through narrow orifice producing
fine powders which can be pressed and sintered to
Given : Maximum reduction per pass form desired shapes.
A  Ai Hence, the correct option is (A).
(A)  f  77%  0.77
Ai
4.8 245.76
Now, for wire drawing in ideal condition,
We know that, von-Mises yield stress
A 
   y ln  0  …(i)  12  22  12
A 
 f 
and   k  n  1802  1002  180  (100)
where, k  Strain hardening coefficient  245.76 MPa
k n
Hence, the yield stress is 245.76 MPa.
y 
n 1
4.9 1.832
So, from equation (i),
k n A Given : Initial diameter of wire (di )  5 mm
k n  ln 0
n  1 Af Final diameter of wire (d f )  2 mm
A   A  d 
2

n  1  ln  0  True strain  ln  i   ln  i 
A A
 f   f   df 
A0 5
  en 1  2 ln    1.832
Af 2
Then, maximum reduction per pass, Hence, the value of true strain developed is 1.832.
A0  Af A
 1  f  1  e ( n1) 4.10 (B)
A0 A0
Given : Thickness of metallic strip (t) = 12 mm
0.77  1  e  ( n 1)
Roller diameter (d) = 800 mm
e ( n 1)  0.23 Reduction in thickness (t )  12  .1  1.2 mm
 (n  1)  ln 0.23   1.469
 t 
0.5
n  1  1.469  n  0.469 Angle of roll tan    
Hence, the strain hardening exponent of the R
material is 0.469.  1.2 
0.5

tan      0.055
4.6 (C)  400 
In powder metallurgy, sintering of the component   tan 1 (0.055)  3.140
increases density and reduces porosity by filling Hence, the correct option is (B).
the pores. Solid mass is heated at the temperature
below liquefaction, this hot material fills the pores 4.11 (C)
and increases the density and decreases the Sintering is an operation in powder metallurgy
porosity. used for bonding as well as for removing pores and
Hence, the correct option is (C). increasing the density of the materials. It is not a
4.7 (A) process of producing powder.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
In powder metallurgy, the process atomization
refers to a method of producing powders. In the
Production Engineering 15
 4.12 58 Now, in triangle OBD
OD
Area after 1st pass, cos (0.3) 
r
A1  (1  0.4) Ai  0.6 Ai
OD  r cos (0.3)
Area after 2nd pass,
OD  500  cos(0.3  4.29)  499.866
A2  (1  0.3) A1
CD  r  OD
A2  0.7  0.6  Ai = 0.42Ai CD  500  499.866  0.134 mm
Overall % reduction  (1  0.42) 100  58% Thickness of neutral point at point B,
Hence, the overall reduction is 58 %.  d f  2  CD  7  2  0.134
4.13 (C)  7.268 mm
The process in which molten thermoplastic is Hence, the thickness of the plate at the neutral
forced between rolls to produce thin sheets is point is 7.268 mm.
called calendaring. The process calendaring is
almost similar to the process of rolling. In case of 4.15 0.94
calendaring, the material is heated to a level so that Given : Engineering stress (e )  800 MPa
thin sheet can be formed easily. True stress (t )  900 MPa
Hence, the correct option is (C).
t  e (1  e )
4.14 7.268
900  800(1  e )
Given : Initial thickness of plate (ti )  10 mm 1  e  1.125
Final thickness (t f )  7 mm A0 d
t  ln (1  e )  ln  2ln 0
Diameter of rolls (d )  1000 mm, (r )  500 mm Af df
Angle of bite  0.3 d 
 ln (1.125)  2 ln  0 
 df 
2
d 
1.125   0 
 df 
df 1
  0.9428 0.94
d0 1.125
Hence, the ratio of the rod diameter at fracture d f
to the initial diameter d 0 is 0.94.

4.16 (A)
Extrusion process is widely used to coat wires and
cables with a polymer-based insulation. The basic
procedure includes pulling of the wire or cable to
be coated at a uniform rate by a crosshead die as
shown in figure, where it is covered with the
t
Angle of bite ()  tan 1 molten plastic or hot rubber compound.
r
 10  7 
  tan 1    4.429
0

 500 

16 Production Engineering
 Hence, the correct option is (D).
4.18 (A)

The pultrusion process is a highly automated

continuous fibre laminating process producing
high fibre volume profiles with a constant cross
section.
Having a high fibre volume fraction makes
pultrusion an ideal process for structural
component production giving a high strength to
weight ratio.
This extrusion process for coating is used in most Hence, the correct option is (A).
wires and cables that find usage in
4.19 1673.29
telecommunication and electrical applications
along with the electronics industry. Given :
Hence, the correct option is (A). Diameter of cylindrical billet (d )  90 mm
4.17 (D) Mean flow stress (m )  80 MPa
Given : Initial length of the work-piece The total extrusion pressure,
( L0 )  100 mm   A 
pe  m 0.8  1.2ln  0  
Initial diameter of work-piece (d0 )  50 mm  Af  

Final diameter of work-piece (d f )  25 mm Initial cross-sectional area,
Strength coefficient ( K )  750 MPa 
A0   902  6361.73 mm2
Strain hardening coefficient (n)  0.15 4
d  Final I-cross-section area,
t  2 ln  0 
Af  50  5  60  5  50  5  800 mm 2
 df 
 50  
A0 6361.73
  7.95
t  2 ln    1.3863
 25  Af 800
K tn  The total extrusion pressure,
0 
1 n pe  80  [0.8  1.2ln(7.95)]
750  (1.3863)0.15 pe  263.024 MPa
0   684.92MPa
1  0.15
Ram pressure, And extrusion force  pe  A0
d   263.024  6361.73
p  20 ln  0   1673.29 kN
 dt 
 50  Hence, the required extrusion force is 1673.29 kN.
p  2  684.92  ln    949.5 MPa
 25 


Production Engineering 17
5 Electronic Devices & Circuits
Mechanical Engineering (ME)
2014 IIT Kharagpur
5.1 In a rolling process, the maximum possible
draft, defined as the difference between the
initial and the final thickness of the metal
sheet, mainly depends on which pair of the
following parameters? [1 Mark]
P. Strain
Q. Strength of the work material
R. Roll diameter
S. Roll velocity
T. Coefficient of friction between roll and
work
(A) Q, S (B) R, T
(C) S, T (D) P, R
5.2 A mild steel plate has to be rolled in one pass
such that the final plate thickness is 2/3rd of
the initial thickness, with the entrance speed
of 10 m/min and roll diameter of 500 mm. If
the plate widens by 2% during rolling, the
exit velocity (in m/min) is_______.
[2 Marks]
5.3 A rectangular hole of size 100 mm  50 mm
is to be made on a 5 mm thick sheet of steel
having ultimate tensile strength and shear
strength of 500 MPa and 300 MPa,
respectively. The hole is made by punching
process. Neglecting the effect of clearance,
the punching force (in kN) is [2 Marks]
(A) 300 (B) 450
(C) 600 (D) 750
2016 IISc Bangalore
5.4 Internal gears are manufactured by
[1 Mark]
(A) Hobbing
(B) Shaping with pinion cutter
(C) Shaping with rack cutter
(D) Milling
Production Engineering
5.5 In a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness, a hole of
10 mm diameter needs to be punched. The
yield strength in tension of the sheet material
is 100 MPa and its ultimate shear strength is
80 MPa. The force required to punch the hole
(in kN) is ______. [2 Marks]
5.6 In a single point turning operation with
cemented carbide tool and steel piece, it is
found that the Taylor’s exponent is 0.25. If
the cutting speed is reduced by 50% then the
tool life changes by______ times. [2 Marks]
5.7 The value of true strain produced in
compressing a cylinder to half its original
length is [1 Mark]
(A) 0.69 (B) − 0.69
(C) 0.5 (D) − 0.5
5.8 A 300 mm thick slab is being cold rolled
using roll of 600 mm diameter. If the
coefficient of friction is 0.08, the maximum
possible reduction (in mm) is ______.
[2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati
5.9 The percentage scrap in a sheet metal
blanking operation of a continuous strip of
sheet metals as shown in the figure is –––––
– (correct to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
2020 IIT Delhi
5.10 A sheet metal with a stock hardness of 250
HRC has to be sheared using a punch and a
die having a clearance of 1 mm between
them. If the stock hardness of the sheet metal
1
 increases to 400 HRC, the clearance between
the punch and the die should be _______
mm. [1 Mark]
Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2013 IIT Bombay [1 Mark]

5.1 Circular blanks of 10 mm diameter are 2019 IIT Madras

punched from an aluminum sheet of 2 mm 5.3 The end product obtained using spinning
thickness. The shear strength of aluminum is process is shown in the figure. The initial
80 MPa. The minimum punching force blank thickness is 2.5 mm. The blank
required in kN is [1 Mark] diameter (in mm) is [1 Mark]
(A) 2.57 (B) 3.29
(C) 5.03 (D) 6.33
2016 IISc Bangalore
5.2 The ratio of press force required to punch a
square hole of 30 mm side in a 1 mm thick
aluminium sheet to that needed to punch a
square hole of 60 mm side in a 2 mm thick (A) 75 (B) 105
aluminium sheet is ______. (C) 150 (D) 210

Explanations Sheet Metal Working (ME)

5.1 (B) 2
wi  ti 10  1.02 wi  ti V f
3
Maximum possible draft is given by,
10  3
(ti  t f ) max   2 R Vf   14.70m/min
1.02  2
where,   Coefficient of friction Hence, the exit velocity is 14.7 m/min.
R = roller radius. 5.3 (B)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : Width of hole (b)  50 mm
5.2 14.7 Length of hole (l )  100 mm
Given : Thickness of sheet (t )  5 mm
2 Shear strength ()  300 MPa
Find thickness of plate (t p )  ti
3 Punching force is given by,
Entrance speed (Vi )  10 m/min F   Pt   2(l  b)  t
Diameter of roller ( D )  500 mm F  300  2(100  50)  5
Final width of plate ( wp )  1.02 wi F  450000 N
Since the volume remains same before and after F  450 kN
rolling, Hence, the correct option is (B).
wi  ti  Vi  w f  t f  V f 5.4 (B)

2 Production Engineering
Internal gear can be manufactured only by shaping 5.7 (B)
with pinion cutter in the given option.
Given : Initial length ( L1 )  L
Internal gear can also be cut by milling and
slotting as well as broaching operation. L
Final length ( L2 ) 
Hence, the correct option is (B). 2
5.5 5.02 L  1
True strain  ln  2   ln     0.69
Given : Thickness of sheet (t )  2 mm  L1  2
Diameter of hole ( D)  10 mm Hence, the correct option is (B).

Yield strength in tension ( yt )  100 MPa 5.8 1.92

Shear yield strength (u )  80 MPa Given : Thickness of slab (h1 )  300 mm
Diameter of roller ( D)  600 mm
Coefficient of friction ()  0.08
Maximum possible reduction
(h)max  2 R  (0.08)2  300  1.92 mm
Hence, the maximum possible reduction is 1.92
Force  u  D  t mm.
F  80 10  2  5.02 kN 5.9 53.25
Hence, the force required to punch the hole is 5.02 According to question,
kN.
5.6 16
Given : Taylor’s exponent (n)  0.25
Assuming V1 , V2 will be initial velocity and final
velocity respectively.
Speed is reduce by 50%,
V
V2  1
2
From Taylor’s equation,
VT n  constant
V1T1n  V2T2n
V1T1n V1T1n The above rectangle (abcd) repeated again and
T2n    2T1n
V2 V1 again.
2 7 6 42 2
1 1
Area of abcd  D  D  D
5 5 25
T2  2 n T1  2 0.25  T1  16T1
D 2
T2 Area of blanking disc 
So,  16 4
T1
 % of scrap
Hence, if cutting speed is reduced by 50% then the  Area (abcd )  Area of blank 
tool life changes by 16 times.   100
 Area (abcd ) 

Production Engineering 3
    (Von mises theory)
  Shear strength  Hardness number
 1  4  100  53.25%

42
 and clearance, C  0.0032t 
 25 
C  Hardness number
Hence, the percentage scrap in area is 53.25%.
C2 (Hardness number) 2
5.10 1.26 
C1 (Hardness number)1
Tensile strength  Hardness number
 Shear strength = 0.5 tensile strength Or C2  1
400
 1.265mm
(Tresca theory) 250
 0.577 tensile strength Hence, the clearance between the punch and the
die should be 1.265 mm.

Explanations Sheet Metal Working (PE & IE)

5.1 (C) 5.3 (C)

Given : Diameter of blank ( D)  10 mm Given : Radius of smaller end of the product
Thickness of sheet (t )  2 mm (r )  15 mm
Shear strength ()  80 MPa Radius of bigger end of the product ( R)  60 mm
The minimum force required,
F  dt 
F  10  2  80  5.03kN
Hence, the correct option is (C).
5.2 0.25
Given :
Condition 1 :
Side of square hole (l )  30 mm
From ABC ,
Thickness of sheet (t )  1 mm
45
Force required is given by,  tan 300
L
F1  4lt  
45
F1  4  30 1   120  L  77.94 mm
tan 300
Condition 2 : If 30 mm diameter is metal part (given in
Side of square hole (l )  60 mm diagram)
Thickness of sheet (t )  2 mm D 2 d 2
 ( R  r ) L 
Force required is given by, 4 4
F2  4lt   D  4( R  r ) L  d
2 2

F2  4  60  2    480 D  4( R  r ) L  d 2
 Required ratio,
F 120 D  4(60  15)  77.94  302
 1   0.25 D  155.83mm 150 mm
F2 480
Hence, the required ratio 0.25. Hence, the closest option is (C).



4 Production Engineering
6 Metrology & Inspection

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2013 IIT Bombay R. IT7 III. Hole tolerance grade

S. g IV. Shaft tolerance grade
6.1 A metric thread of pitch 2 mm and thread
angle 600 is inspected for its pitch diameter (A) P-I, Q-III, R-IV, S-II
using 3-wire method. The diameter of the (B) P-I, Q-IV, R-III, S-II
best size wire in mm is [1 Mark] (C) P-II, Q-III, R-IV, S-I
(A) 0.866 (B) 1.000
(D) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
(C) 1.154 (D) 2.000
0.020 6.6 A GO NO-GO plug gauge is to be designed
6.2 Cylindrical pins of 250.010 mm diameter are for measuring a hole of nominal diameter 25
electroplated in a shop. Thickness of the mm with a hole tolerance of ± 0.015 mm.
2.0
plating is 302.0 micron . Neglecting gauge Considering 10% of work tolerance to be the
tolerance, the size of the GO gauge in mm to gauge tolerance and no wear condition, the
inspect the plated components is [2 Marks] dimension (in mm) of the GO plug gauge as
per the unilateral tolerance system is
(A) 25.042 (B) 25.052
[2 Marks]
(C) 25.074 (D) 25.084 0.003 0.000
(A) 24.985 0.003 (B) 25.015 0.006
2014 IIT Kharagpur  0.03  0.003

6.3 Which one of the following instruments is (C) 24.985 0.03 (D) 24.985 0.000
widely used to check and calibrate geometric 2015 IIT Kanpur
features of machine tools during their
6.7 Holes of diameter 25.00.040
0.020 mm are
assembly? [1 Mark]
assembled interchangeably with the pins of
(A) Ultrasonic probe
diameter 25.0 0.008
0.005
mm. The minimum
(B) Coordinate Measuring Machine (CMM)
clearance in the assembly will be
(C) Laser interferometer
[1 Mark]
(D) Vernier calipers (A) 0.048 (B) 0.015 mm
6.4 The flatness of a machine bed can be (C) 0.005 mm (D) 0.008 mm
measured using [1 Mark] 6.8 Which one of the following statements is
(A) Vernier calipers TRUE? [1 Mark]
(B) Auto collimator (A) The 'GO' guage controls the upper limit of a
(C) Height gauge hole.
(B) The 'NO GO' guage controls the lower limit
(D) Tool maker's microscope
of a shaft.
6.5 For the given assembly : 25 H7/g8, match
(C) The 'Go' guage controls the lower limit
group A with group B [2 Marks]
of a hole.
Group A Group B (D) The 'NO GO' guage control the lower
P. H I. Shaft type limit of a hole.
Q. IT8 II. Hole type

Production Engineering 1
 6.9 In the assembly shown below, the part S. Cylindrical 4. Inside diameter of
dimensions are : plug straight
L1  22.0 0.01 mm, gauge hole
L2  L3  10.0 0.005 mm [1 Mark]
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
Assuming the normal distribution of part
(B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
dimensions, the dimension L4 in mm for
(C) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-2
assembly condition would be : (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
[2 Marks]
2017 IIT Roorkee
6.12 Metric thread of 0.8 mm pitch is to be cut on
a lathe. Pitch of the lead screw is 1.5 mm. If
the spindle rotates at 1500 rpm, the speed of
rotation of the lead screw (rpm) will be
_______. [1 Mark]
6.13 Assume that the surface roughness profile is
triangular as shown schematically in the
figure. If the peak to valley height is 20 m,
(A) 2.0  0.008 (B) 2.0  0.012 the central line average surface roughness R
(C) 2.0  0.016 (D) 2.0  0.020 (in m) is [2 Marks]
2016 IISc Bangalore
6.10 Two optically flat plates of glass are kept at (A) 5 (B) 6.67
a small angle  as shown in the figure. (C) 10 (D) 20
0.020
Monochromatic light is incident vertically. 6.14 A cylindrical pin of 250.010 mm diameter is
electroplated. Plating thickness is 2.0 0.005
mm. Neglecting the gauge tolerance, the
diameter (in mm, up to 3 decimal points
accuracy) of the GO ring gauge to inspect the
plated pin is ______. [2 Marks]
If the wavelength of light used to get a fringe 2019 IIT Madras
spacing of 1 mm is 450 nm, the wavelength
6.15 The most common limit gauge for inspecting
of light (in nm) to get a fringe spacing of 1.5
the hole diameter is
mm is ______.
[1 Mark]
[2 Marks] (A) Snap gauge (B) Plug gauge
6.11 Match the following : (C) Master gauge (D) Ring gauge
P. Feeler gauge 1. Radius of an object 6.16 A circular shaft having diameter 65.00 0.01
0.05
Q. Fillet gauge 2. Diameter within
mm is manufactured by turning process. A
limits by
50 m thick coating TiN is deposited on the
comparison
shaft. Allowed variation in TiN film
R. Snap gauge 3. Clearance or gap
thickness is  5 m. The minimum hole
between
diameter (in mm) just to provide clearance
components
fit as [2 Marks]
(A) 65.12 (B) 65.01
(C) 65.10 (D) 64.95
2 Production Engineering
 2020 IIT Delhi P. Maximum waviness Height (mm)
Q. Maximum Roughness Height (mm)
6.17 The following data applies to basic shaft R. Minimum Roughness Height (mm)
system : S. Maximum waviness Width (mm)
Tolerance for hole = 0.002 mm T. Maximum Roughness Width (mm)
Tolerance for shaft = 0.001 mm U. Roughness width cutoff (mm)
Allowance = 0.003 mm
Basic size = 50 mm
The maximum hole size is _____mm. (round
off to 3 decimal place)
[2 Marks]
6.18 Bars of 250 mm length and 25 mm
diameter are to be turned on a lathe with a The correct match between the
feed of 0.2 mm/rev. Each regrinding of tool specifications and the symbols (I to VI) is
cost Rs. 20. The time required for each tool [1 Mark]
change is 1 min. Tool life equation is given (A) I-U, II-S, III-Q, IV-T, V-R, VI-P
as VT 0.2  24 (where cutting speed V is in (B) I-R, II-P, III-U, IV-S, V-S, VI-Q
m/min and tool life T is in min). The (C) I-Q, II-U, III-R, IV-T, V-S, VI-P
optimum tool cost per piece for maximum (D) I-R, II-Q, III-P, IV-S, V-U, VI-T
production rate is Rs. ______. (round off to 6.21 Two rollers of diameters D1 (in mm) and D2
2 decimal places) (in mm) are used to measure the internal
[2 Marks] taper angle in the V - groove of a machined
6.19 A steel part with surface area of 125 cm2 is component. The heights H1 (in mm) are
to be chrome coated through an measured by using a height gauge after
electroplating process using chromium acid inserting the rollers into the same V – groove
sulphate as an electrolyte. An increasing as shown in the figure.
current is applied to the part according to the
following current time relation :
I  12  0.2t
where, I  Current (A) and t  Time
(minutes). The part is submerged in the
plating solution for a duration of 20 minutes
for plating purpose. Assuming the cathode
efficiency of chromium to be 15% and the
plating constant of chromium acid sulphate
Which one of the following is the correct
to be 2.50 10 2 mm3 /A.s , the resulting
relationship to evaluate the angle  as
coating thickness on the part surface is
shown in the figure?
_______ m (round off to one decimal
[2 Marks]
place). [2 Marks] ( H1  H 2 )
6.20 The figure below shows a symbolic (A) sin  
( D1  D2 )
representation of the surface texture in a
( H1  H 2 )  ( D1  D2 )
perpendicular lay orientation with indicative (B) cosec  
values (I through VI) marking the various 2( D1  D2 )
specifications whose definitions are listed ( D1  D2 )
(C) sin  
below, 2( H1  H 2 )  ( D1  D2 )
Production Engineering 3
 ( D1  D2 ) 0.015
(D) cos   diameter 25.0150.015 mm is __________.
2( H1  H 2 )  2( D1  D2 )
[1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay (A) Clearance
6.22 Consider the surface roughness profile as (B) Transition
shown in the figure. (C) Interference
(D) Linear
Roughness height (m)

Roughness Profile
1 6.26 A shaft of diameter 250.04
0.07 mm is assembled
y1 y3
in a hole of diameter 250.02
0.00 mm. Match the
0
allowance and limit parameter in Column I
y2 y4
with its corresponding quantitative value in
1
Column II for this shaft-hole assembly.
[1 Mark]
L L L L Allowance
4 4 4 4 and limit Quantitative value (Column
The centre line average roughness (Ra, in parameter II)
μm) of the measured length (L) is (Column I)
P Allowance 1 0.09 mm
[1 Mark]
Q Maximum 2 24.96 mm
(A) 2 (B) 0 clearance
(C) 4 (D) 1 R Maximum 3 0.04 mm
6.23 The allowance provided in between a hole material
and a shaft is calculated from the difference limit for
between [1 Mark] hole
4 25.0 mm
(A) Lower limit of the shaft and the upper
limit of the hole
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4
(B) Upper limit of the shaft and the upper
(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2
limit of the hole
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4
(C) Upper limit of the shaft and the lower
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2
limit of the hole
6.27 The best size wire is fitted in a groove of a
D) Lower limit of the shaft and the lower
metric screw such that the wire touches the
limit of the hole
flanks of the thread on the pitch line as
6.24 A 76.2 mm gauge block is used under one
shown in the figure. The pitch (𝑝) and
end of a 254 mm sine bar with roll diameter
included angle of the thread are 4 mm and
of 25.4 mm. The height of gauge blocks
60º, respectively. The diameter of the best
required at the other end of the sine bar to
size wire is ___________ mm (round off to
measure an angle of 300 is ______ mm
2 decimal places). [2 Marks]
(round off to two decimal places).
[2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur
6.25 The type of fit between a mating shaft of
0.010
diameter 25.00.010 mm and a hole of

4 Production Engineering
 Wire
Flank

Pitch line

600 0 .25 p

0.5 p

Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2014 IIT Kharagpur

6.1 The alignment test "Spindle square with base
plate" is applied to the radial drilling
machine. A dial indicator is fixed to the
cylindrical spindle and the spindle is rotated
to make the indicator touch the base plate at 2016 IISc Bangalore
different points. The test inspects whether
6.3 The limits of a shaft designated as 100h5 are
the [2 Marks]
100.000 mm and 100.014 mm. Similarly, the
limits of a shaft designated as 100h8 are
100.000 mm and 100.055 mm. If a shaft is
designated as 100h6, the fundamental
deviation (in  m) for the same is
[1 Mark]
(A)  22 (B) zero
(C) 22 (D) 24
(A) Spindle vertical feed axis is 6.4 The roughness profile of a surface is
perpendicular to the base plate depicted below,
(B) Axis of symmetry of the cylindrical
spindle is perpendicular to the base plate
(C) Axis of symmetry, the rotational axis and
the vertical feed axis of the spindle are
all coincident
(D) Spindle rotational axis is perpendicular
to the base plate The surface roughness parameter
Ra (in m) is [1 Mark]
2015 IIT Kanpur
6.2 During the measurement of internal taper of 2017 IIT Roorkee
a part using standard balls of diameter 15 6.5 Accuracy of a measuring instrument is
mm and 20 mm, the large ball is found to expressed as [1 Mark]
protrude by 5 mm (h1 ) and the top of small (A) True value  Measured value
ball is found to be 35 mm (h2 ) below the top (B) Measured value  True value
 True value  Measured value 
face of the gauge. The taper angle, in degree, (C) 1   
is ______. [2 Marks]  True value
 True value  Measured value 
(D) 1   
 True value
Production Engineering 5
 6.6 A machined surface with standard symbols
indicating the surface texture is shown in the
Figure. (All dimensions in the figure are in
micrometer).
6.10 In a V-thread, a wire is fitted such that it
makes contact with the flank of the thread on
the pitch line as shown in the figure. If the
pitch p of the thread is 3 mm and the
included angle is 600 , the diameter (in mm,
up to one decimal place) of the wire is
_______. [2 Marks]

The waviness height (in micrometer) of the

surface is [1 Mark]
(A) 1 (B) 50
(C) 60 (D) 120
2018 IIT Guwahati 6.11 In a shaft hole system, the dimensions with
6.7 Which one of the following instruments tolerances (in mm) are : Shaft : 20 xx ; Hole
makes use of the principle of interference of
: 200.03
y , Where both x and y are positive
light? [1 Mark]
(A) Optical flat real numbers. Which one of the following
(B) Auto-collimator will provide an interference fit? [2 Marks]
(C) Optical projector (A) x  0.05 , y  0.040
(D) Coordinate measuring machine (B) x  0.04, y  0.035
6.8 Match the geometric tolerances with their (C) x  0.04, y  0.032
correct symbols [1 Mark] (D) x  0.02, y  0.035
P. Flatness 1.
2019 IIT Madras
Q. Perpendicularity 2.
6.12 Considering included angle  of the thread
R. Concentricity 3. to be 600 using the Best-Wire method, the
S. Roundness 4. difference between the effective diameter
(Circularity) ( E ) and the dimension under the wire (T )
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 for M 10  1.0 mm is closest to [2 Marks]
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (A) 0.289 (B) 0.578
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (C) 0.867 (D) 0.982
6.13 In a sine bar, let h denote height of slip
(D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
gauge and l be the distance between the
6.9 In a mass production firm, measurements are rollers. The relationship between error in
carried out on 10000 pairs of shaft and hole. angular measurement ( d) and errors in the
The mean diameters of the shaft and the hole
slip gauge combination ( dh ) and in the
are 37.53 mm and 37.59 mm, respectively.
The corresponding standard deviations are spacing of the rollers ( dl ) is [2 Marks]
0.03 mm and 0.04 mm. The mean clearance  dh dl 
(A) d   sin    
and its standard deviation (both in mm),  h l 
respectively, are [2 Marks]  dh dl 
(A) 0.06 and 0.07 (B) 0.06 and 0.06 (B) d   cos    
 h l 
(C) 0.06 and 0.05 (D) 0.07 and 0.01

6 Production Engineering
  dh dl 
(C) d   tan    
 h l 
 dh dl 
(D) d   cot    
 h l 
2020 IIT Delhi
6.14 The purpose of the ratchet in a micrometer is
to [1 Mark]
6.16 The statement that best describes the
(A) impart smooth movement to the spindle
function of a GO gauge in the context of
(B) maintain sufficient and uniform
Taylor’s principle of gauging is
measuring pressure
[2 Marks]
(C) prevent rotation of the spindle while
(A) GO gauge checks the maximum material
reading the scale
condition and the designed to check only
(D) compensate for the wear of the screw
one dimension.
thread
(B) GO gauge checks the maximum material
6.15 The figure shows drawing of a part with
condition and is designed to check as
dimensions and tolerances, both in mm. The
many dimensions as possible.
permissible tolerance for slot A (rounded off
(C) GO gauge checks the least material
to one decimal place) in mm is  ______.
condition and is designed to check only
[2 Marks]
one dimension.
(D) GO gauge checks that least material
condition and is designed to check as
many dimensions as possible.

Explanations Metrology & Inspection (ME)

6.1 (C) Upper limit of pins or GO ring gauge :

Given : Pitch of thread ( p )  2 mm
Thread angle ()  600
Size of wire is given by,
 p      2   60 
d w    sec      sec  
 2   2  2  2 
d w  1.154mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). Since, upper limit of pins before plating
6.2 (D)  25  0.020  25.020 mm
Given : Dimension of cylindrical pins before Therefore, upper limit of pins after plating (i.e. the
plating  250.020
0.010 mm
size of GO gauge to inspect the plated
components),
Minimum thickness, tmin  30  2  28 μm
 25.020  (tmax )  (tmax )
 0.028 mm
 25.020  0.032  0.032  28.084 mm
Maximum thickness, tmax  30  2  32 μm
Hence, the correct option is (D).
 0.032 mm

Production Engineering 7

6.3 (C)
The instrument widely used to check and calibrate
geometric features of machine tools during their
assembly is laser interferometer.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
6.4 (B)
Flatness of machine bed can be measured from
auto collimator.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.5 (D)
Here, H7 represents the tolerances for hole and
number 7 indicates its grade of tolerance.
g8 represents tolerances for the shaft and number
8 indicates its grade of tolerance.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
6.6 (D)
Given : Basic size  25 mm
Hole dimensions are 24.985 mm and 25.015 mm.
Total tolerance  0.015  0.015  0.03 mm
Work tolerance  0.03  0.1  0.003 mm
6.7 (B)
Given : Lower limit of hole  25.02 mm
Upper limit of shaft  25.005 mm
All dimensions are in mm
 Minimum clearance,
min C  Lower limit of hole
– Upper limit of shaft
min C  25.02  25.005  0.015 mm
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.8 (C)
Go gauge is used to measure the minimum
diameter of the hole that a shaft can be fitted on it
easily and it is possible by considering the lower
limit of the hole.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

6.9 (D)

Given : Dimensions are : L1  22.00.01 mm and

L2  L3  10.00.005 mm
In the given problem, dimensions L1 , L2 and L3
are equally bilateral.
Therefore, basic size of L4 ,
Lower limit of GO gauge,
D  L1  ( L2  L3 )
 24.985  0.000  24.985 mm
D  22  (10  10)  2.0 mm
Upper limit of GO gauge,
 24.985  0.003  24.988 mm and, deviation of L4 ,
Dimension of GO gauge  24.985 0.000
0.003
mm = Cumulative sum all the deviation
x  0.01  0.005  0.005
Hence, the correct option is (D).
x  0.020 mm
Hence, dimension of L4 ,
 D x  2.0 0.020 mm
Hence, the correct option is (D).

8 Production Engineering
 6.12 800
Given : Pitch of thread ( p )  0.8 mm
Pitch of the lead screw ( pl )  1.5 mm
6.10 675
Spindle rotation ( NS )  1500rpm
Given :
Wavelength of Let, Nl be the rotation of lead screw.
Fringe spacing
light Now, we know that
h1  1mm 1  450 nm Nl  pl  N s  p
h2  1.5mm 2 Nl 1.5  1500  0.8
N s  800 rpm
Hence, the speed of rotation of the lead screw will
be 800 rpm.
6.13 (A)
Now, we know that Average surface roughness is given by,
n Peak to valley height 20
Fringe spacing  R   5 m
2 4 4
n  450 Hence, the correct option is (A).
h1 
2
n 450
1
2
2 6.14 29.030
n
450
Given :
Similarly,
Dimension of cylindrical pins  250.020
0.010 mm
n 2
h2  Maximum thickness of plating (tmax )  2  0.005
2
 2  2.005 mm
1.5  2 
2 450 Minimum thickness of plating (tmin )  2  0.005
2  675  1.995 mm
Hence, the wavelength of light to get a fringe GO ring gauge or upper limit of pins :
spacing of 1.5 mm is 675 nm.

6.11 (A)
P. Feeler gauge Clearance or gap
between components
Q. Fillet gauge Radius of an object
R. Snap gauge Diameter within limits by Since, upper limit of pins before plating
comparison  25  0.020  25.020 mm
S. Cylindrical Inside diameter of
Therefore, upper limit of pins after plating (i.e. the
plug gauge straight hole
diameter of GO ring gauge to inspect the plated
Hence, the correct option is (A).
pins),

Production Engineering 9
  25.020  (tmax )  (tmax )
 25.020  2.005  2.005  29.030 mm
Hence, the diameter of GO ring gauge to inspect
the plated pins is 29.030 mm.

UL hole = 0.003  0.002  50  50.005 mm

Hence, the maximum hole size is 50.005 mm.
6.15 (B)
6.18 26.99
The most common limit gauge for inspecting the
hole diameter is plug gauge. It is a cylindrical type Given : Length of bar ( L)  250 mm ,
of gauge, used to check the accuracy of holes. The Diameter of bar ( D)  25 mm  0.025 m ,
plug gauge checks whether the whole diameter is Feed ( f )  0.2 mm/ rev ,
within specified tolerance or not. The ‘Go’ plug
gauge is the size of the low limit of the hole while Tool cost per regrinding = Rs.20 ,
the ‘Not-Go’ plug gauge corresponds to the high Tool change time (Tc )  1min,
limit of the hole.
Tool life equation, VT 0.2  24
Hence, the correct option is (B). Optimum tool life,
6.16 (A) T (1  n) 1(1  0.2)
(T0 )  c   4min
n 0.2
Given : Shaft diameter (d )  65.000.01
0.05 mm
 V0T0n  C
Optimum cutting speed,
C 24
V0  n
 0.2  18.19 m/min
T0 4
V0  DN
18.19   0.025  N
Spindle speed, N  231.6 rpm
Now, the minimum hole diameter just to provide
clearance fit is given by, Machining time per piece,
D  65.01  0.055  0.055  65.12 mm L 250
(Tm )    5.397 min
Hence, the correct option is (A). fN 0.2  231.6
Number of tool needed per piece work
5.397
 piece
4
6.17 50.005  The optimum tool cost per piece
5.397
According to question,   20  26.985  26.99
4
Hence, the optimum tool cost per piece for
maximum production rate is Rs.26.99.
6.19 5.0

10 Production Engineering
I  12  0.2t
After time, ‘t’, Next infinitely small time ' dt ' let
heat deposited ' dQ '
 dQ  2.50 102 12  0.2t  dt
As we have to convert this ‘s’ to ‘min’
 dQ  2.50 102 12  0.2t  dt
 D   D 
Considering cathode efficiency of 15% OB   H1  1    H 2  2 
 2   2 
dQ  250 10 2  60  (12  0.2t )dt  0.15
 D  D2 
OB  ( H1  H 2 )   1 
 In 20 min, Q   dQ  2 
D  D2
20
OA  1
Q   2.50 102  60  ((12  0.2t )dt  0.15 2
0 ( D1  D2 )
Q  0.225[12  0.1t 2 ]020 sin   2
( D  D2 )
Q  0.225[12  20  0.1 202 ]mm3  63mm3 ( H1  H 2 )  1
2
As area is 125cm2 ( D1  D2 )
sin  
Plating thickness, 2( H1  H 2 )  ( D1  D2 )
63 Hence, the correct option is (C).
t  0.00504 mm  5.04μm
125  (100) 6.22 (D)
(As 1cm  100mm )
2 2
Total Area
Hence, the resulting coating thickness on the part Ra 
L
surface is 5.0 μm .
L 
6.20 (D) 4   1
Ra   4   1 m
According to question, L
Hence, the correct option is (D).
6.23 (C)

The allowance provided between a hole and shaft

is calculated from the different between upper
limit of shaft and upper limit of hole.
I-R, II-Q, III-P, IV-S, V-U, VI-T Allowance = UL of shaft and LL of hole.
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (C).
6.21 (C) 6.24 203.2

According to question, Given :

h1  76.2 mm,   300

Production Engineering 11
 It is a transition fit.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.26 (A)

0.02
0.04
0.07
25
h
 sin 300 Shaft
254 Reference
h  254sin 300  127 mm Line
1. Allowance – 0.04 mm (due to minimum
H 2  h  h1 clearance)
So block height, H 2  127  76.2  203.2 mm 2. Maximum clearance 
(0.07  0.02)  0.09 mm
Hence, the height of gauge blocks required at the 3. Maximum material limit for hole  lower
other end of the sine bar to measure an angle of limit g hole  25 mm
300 is 203.2 mm. Hence, the correct option is (A).
6.27 2.31
6.25 (B)
Given :
0.01 Pitch ( P)  4 mm
Shaft  25 mm
0.01
Included angle  (2)  600
0.015 So, the best wire size
Hole  25.015
0.015 P
d  sec 
For shaft, Upper limit  25.01 2
Lower limit  24.99 4
d  sec(30)
For hole 2
d  2.31 mm
Upper limit  25.03
Hence, the diameter of the best size wire is 2.31
Lower limit  25 mm.

Explanations Metrology & Inspection (PE & IE)

dial indicator is fixed to the cylindrical spindle and

the spindle is rotated to make the indicator touch
the base plate at different points. The test inspects
that the drill spindle as well as the rotational axis
6.1 (D)
is perpendicular to the base plate
In alignment test with “spindle square with base Hence, the correct option is (D).
plate" is applied to the radial drilling machine, if a
12 Production Engineering
 6.2 3.82 6.5 (B)
Given : Accuracy is mainly the error free measurement but
Radius of small ball (r )  7.5 mm there may be some error in measurement.
Radius of large ball (R)  10 mm Hence, we can find out the degree of accuracy by
Now, in triangle OAB, subtracting true value with measured value.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.6 (A)
The waviness height of the surface is represented
by the value on sides of the triangular shape on the
nose.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Centre distance between balls is given by,
OA  (r  h2  h1 )  R
OA  (7.5  35  5)  10  37.5 mm
6.7 (A)
AB  R  r  10  7.5  2.5 mm
The instrument makes use of the principle of
   AB 2.5
sin     interference of light is optical flat and is used to
 2  OA 37.5
measure the flatness of any regular surface.
  2.5  Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Taper angle    sin 1    3.82
0

 
2  37.5  6.8 (B)
Hence, the taper angle is 3.820.
P. Flatness
6.3 (B) Q. Perpendicularity
The fundamental deviation for shaft is irrespective R. Concentricity
of grade of tolerance and its value is always a zero.
S. Roundness (Circularity)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
6.4 0
6.9 (C)
Given : No. of roughness profile (n)  16
Given :
Maximum profile height (hmax )  2 m
Mean hole diameter ( DH )mean  37.59mm
Minimum profile height (hmin )  2 m Mean shaft diameter ( DS )mean  37.53mm
Surface roughness parameter is given by, Standard deviation of shaft (S )  0.03
h
Ra  Standard deviation of hole (H )  0.04
n
Now, mean clearance
16  2  16  (2)
Ra   0 μm  ( DH )mean  ( DS )mean
16
 37.59  37.53  0.06
Hence, the surface roughness parameter ( Ra ) is 0
Variance  ( S ) 2  ( H ) 2
μm .

Production Engineering 13
  (0.03)2  (0.04)2 6.13 (C)
 0.0009  0.0016  0.0025 According to question,
Standard deviation,
h
  0.0025  0.05 mm sin  
l
Hence, the correct option is (C). Taking log on both sides,
6.10 1.732 ln (sin )  ln (h)  ln (l )
Given : Pitch of the thread ( p )  3 mm On differentiating both sides,
Included angle of block ()  60 0
cos  dh dl
d  
Wire diameter is given by, sin  h l
 p      3   60   dh dl 
d    sec      sec   d   tan    
 2   2  2  2   h l 
d  1.732 mm Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the diameter of the wire is 1.732 mm. 6.14 (B)
6.11 (D)
Ratchet is a knurled thumb grip to rotate the
x
Given : Dimensions of shaft  20 x
spindle into desired direction for measuring
process, provided with ratchet action to avoid over
Dimensions of hole  20 0.03
y
tightening of micrometer across the measuring
For interference fit, object and also ensures equal pressure force of
d s  DH  0 each measurement.
(20  x)  (20  0.03)  0 Hence, the correct option is (B).

20  x  20  0.03  0 6.15 0.6

x  0.03 As per the given condition,
According to options, only x  0.02 is possible. Total tolerance = Tolerance in slots
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1000.5  400.2  400.1  Slot A  40 0.2
6.12 (A)
Slot A  1000.5  400.1  60 0.5 0.1
Given : Thread angle ()  600 Slot A  600.6
Pitch ( p )  1.0 mm Therefore, the permissible tolerance for slot A is
The difference between the effective diameter ( E ) 0.6 mm.
and the dimension under the wire (T ) is given by, 6.16 (B)
p     The “GO” gauge should always be so designed
E T  cot    d cosec    1
2 2  2  that it will cover as many dimensions as possible
p  1  60  in a single operation, whereas the “No-GO” gauge
d sec    sec    0.57735 will cover only one dimension.
2 2 2  2 
Means a GO plug gauge should have a full circular
1  60   60 
E  T  cot    0.57735  cosec  1 section and be of full length of the hole being
2  2   2 
checked as in shown figure.
E  T  0.288675 mm
Hence, the correct option is (A).

14 Production Engineering
 Fig. GO and No-Go gauges for hole
(Taylor’s principle)
Hence, the correct option is (B).


Production Engineering 15
7 Computer Integrated Manufacturing

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2014 IIT Kharagpur Q. Dwell 2. G03

R. Circular interpolation, 3. G04
7.1 For machining a rectangular island
clockwise
represented by coordinates P(0,0), Q(100,
S. Point to point 4. G00
0), R(100, 50) and S(0, 50) on a casting using
countering
CNC milling machine, an end mill with a
diameter of 16 mm is used. The trajectory of (A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
the cutter centre to machine the island PQRS (B) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
is [1 Mark] (C) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(A) ( 8,  8, ), (108,  8), (108,58), ( 8,58), (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(  8,  8) . 2015 IIT Kanpur
(B) (8,8), (94,8), (94, 44), (8, 44), (8,8) . 7.5 During the development of a product, an
(C) ( 8,8),(94,0),(94, 44),(8, 44), entirely new process plan is made based on
(  8,8) . design logic, examination of geometry and
tolerance information. This type of process
(D) (0, 0), (100, 0), (100,50), (50, 0),
planning is known as [1 Mark]
(0, 0) . (A) Retrieval
7.2 A robot arm PQ with end coordinates P(0, 0) (B) Generative
and Q(2, 5) rotates counter clockwise about (C) Variant
0
P in the XY plane by 90 . The new (D) Group technology based
coordinate pair of the end point Q is 7.6 The function of interpolator in a CNC
[1 Mark] machine controller is to [1 Mark]
(A) (  2,5) (B) (  5, 2) (A) Control spindle speed
(C) ( 5,  2) (D) (2,  5) (B) Coordinate feed rates of axes
7.3 A minimal spanning tree in network flow (C) Control tool rapid approach speed
models involves [1 Mark] (D) Perform miscellaneous (M) functions
(A) All the path with cycle/loop allowed. (tool change, coolant control etc.)
(B) All the nodes with cycle/loop allowed. 7.7 A drill is positioned at point P and it has to
(C) Shortest path between start and end proceed to point Q. The coordinates of point
nodes. Q in the incremental system of defining
(D) All the nodes with directed arcs. position of a point in CNC part program will
7.4 For the CNC programing, match Group-A be [1 Mark]
with Group-B, [2 Marks]
Group-A Group-B
P. Circular interpolation, 1. G02
counter clockwise

Production Engineering 1
 (A) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
(B) P-IV, Q-II, R-II, S-I
(C) P-IV, Q-III, R-II, S-I
(D) P- III, Q-IV, R-II, S-I
7.11 A point P (1, 3,  5) is translated by
2iˆ  3 ˆj  4 kˆ and then rotated counter
0
clockwise by 90 about the z - axis. The new
position of the point is [2 Marks]
(A) (3, 12) (B) (5, 7) (A) ( 6, 3,  9)
(C) (7, 12) (D) (4, 7)
(B) ( 6,  3,  9)
7.8 A triangle facet in a CAD model has vertices
: P1 (0, 0, 0), P2 (1,1,0) and P3 (1,1,1) . The area (C) (6, 3,  9)

of the facet is [2 Marks] (D) (6, 3, 9)

(A) 0.500 (B) 0.707 7.12 For the situation shown in the figure below
(C) 1.414 (D) 1.732 the expression for H in terms of r, R and D is
7.9 In a CNC milling operation, the tool has to [2 Marks]
machine the circular arc from point (20, 20)
to (10, 10) at sequence number 5 of the CNC
part program. If the center of the arc is at (20,
10) and the machine has incremental mode
of defining position coordinates, the correct
tool path command is [2 Marks]
(A) N 05 G90 X–10 Y–10 R10
(A) H  D  r 2  R 2
(B) N 05 G91 G03 X–10 Y–10 R10
(B) H  ( R  r )  ( D  r )
(C) N 05 G90 G03 X20 Y20 R10
(D) N 05 G91 G02 X20 Y20 R10 (C) H  ( R  r )  D2  R2

2016 IISc Bangalore (D) H  ( R  r )  2 D( R  r )  D 2

7.10 Match the following part programming 7.13 The figure below represents a triangle PQR
codes with their respective function with initial coordinates of the vertices as P
Part programming (1, 3), Q (4, 5) and R (5, 3.5). The triangle is
Functions
codes rotated in the X-Y plane about the vertex P
P. G01 1. Spindle stop by angle  in clockwise direction. If
Q. G03 2. Spindle rotation, sin   0.6 and cos   0.8 , the new
clockwise coordinates of the vertex Q are [2 Marks]
R. M03 3. Circular
interpolation,
anticlockwise
S. M05 4. Linear
interpolation
[1 Mark]

2 Production Engineering
 (A) (4.6, 2.8) (B) (3.2, 4.6)
(C) (7.9, 5.5) (D) (5.5, 7.9)
2017 IIT Roorkee
7.14 Circular arc on a part profile is being A pair of stepping motors with maximum
machined on a vertical CNC milling speed of 800 rpm, controlling both the X and
machine. CNC part program using metric Y motion of the stage, are directly coupled to
units with absolute dimensions is listed a pair of lead screws, each with a uniform
below, pitch of 0.5 mm. The time needed to position
--------------------------------- the point ‘P’ to the point ‘Q’ is ______
N60 G01 X30 Y55 Z-5 F50 minutes. (round off to 2 decimal places).
N70 G02 X50 Y35 R20 [2 Marks]
N80 G01 Z5
2021 IIT Bombay
---------------------------------
The coordinates of the center of the circular 7.17 In modern CNC machine tools, the backlash
arc are : [2 Marks] has been eliminated by [2 Marks]
(A) (30, 55) (B) (50, 55) (A) ratchet and pinion
(C) (50, 35) (D) (30, 35) (B) rack and pinion
(C) preloaded ball screws
2018 IIT Guwahati
(D) slider crank mechanism
7.15 Interpolator in CNC machine [1 Mark] 7.18 The XY table of a NC machine tool is to
(A) Control spindle speed move from P (1,1) to Q (51, 1): all
(B) Co-ordinates axes movements coordinates are in mm. The pitch of the NC
(C) Operate tool change drive leadscrew is 1 mm. If the backlash
(D) Common canned cycle 0
between the leadscrew and nut is 1.8 , then
2020 IIT Delhi the total backlash of the table on moving
7.16 A point ‘P’ on a CNC controlled XY-stage is from P to Q is ____mm (round off to two
moved to another point ‘Q’ using the decimal places). [2 Marks]
coordinate system shown in the figure below 7.19 In a CNC machine tool, the function of an
and rapid positioning command (G00). interpolator is to generate [2 Marks]
(A) error signal for tool radius compensation
during machining
(B) reference signal prescribing the shape of
the part to be machined
(C) NC code from the part drawing during
post processing

Production Engineering 3
 (D) signal for the lubrication pump during (A) 20 kHz
machining (B) 10 kHz
2022 IIT Kharagpur (C) 3 kHz
7.20 A CNC worktable is driven in a linear (D) 15 kHz
direction by a lead screw connected directly 7.21 Which one of the following CANNOT
to a stepper motor. The pitch of the lead impart linear motion in a CNC machine?
screw is 5 mm. The stepper motor completes [1 Mark]
one full revolution upon receiving 600
(A) Linear motor
pulses. If the worktable speed is 5 m/minute
(B) Ball screw
and there is no missed pulse, then the pulse
(C) Lead screw
rate being received by the stepper motor is
(D) Chain and sprocket
[1 Mark]

Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2013 IIT Bombay (B) Become half of previous value

(C) Remain the same
7.1 In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D
(D) Become zero
point P(5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
7.3 Each axis of NC machine is driven by a
which passes through the origin and makes
0
stepper motor drive with a lead screw. The
an angel of 45 counterclockwise with the pitch of lead screw is p mm. The step angle
X-axis. Coordinates of the transformed point of stepper motor per pulse input is 
will be [2 Marks] degrees/pulse. The ratio of gear drive in
(A) (7.5, 5) (B) (10, 5) stepper motor drive is g (number of turns of
(C) (7.5, –5) (D) (10, –5) the motor for each single turn of the lead
2014 IIT Kharagpur screw). The number of pulses required to
7.2 In an open loop, point-to-point controlled achieve a linear movement of x mm is
CNC drilling machine, a stepper motor, [2 Marks]
producing 200 angular steps per revolution g 360g
(A) x (B) x
drives the table of a drilling machine by one 360 p p
angular step per each pulse generated by a g 360g
(C) x (D) x
pulse generator (Shown in figure). Each 360 p p
angular step moves the table by one Basic 7.4 A CNC instruction G91G01X30Y40F100
Length Unit (BLU) along X-axis with a lead commands the movement of tool along the
screw having a pitch of 4 mm. If the path at a feed rate of 100 mm/min (G91-
frequency of pulse generator is doubled, the incrememtal format and G01-linear
BLU will [1 Mark] interpolation). The feed rate of the tool (in
mm/min) along the X-axis will be _____.
[2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
7.5 In computer aided process planning,
determination of process sequence for
(A) Become double of previous value

4 Production Engineering
 manufacture of any part design without 7.8 A single axis CNC table is driven by a DC
predefined standard plans is known as servo motor that is directly coupled to a lead
[1 Mark] screw of 5 mm pitch. The circular encoder
(A) Variant type process planning attached to the lead screw generates 1000
(B) Retrieval type process planning voltage pulses per revolution of the lead
(C) Generative type process planning screw. The table moves at a constant speed
(D) Group technology based process of 6 m/min. The corresponding frequency (in
planning kHz) of the voltage pulses generated by the
7. Match the linear transformation matrices circular encoder is _____. [2 Marks]
listed in the first column to their 2017 IIT Roorkee
interpretations in the second column.
7.9 The preparatory and miscellaneous codes
[2 Marks]
used in CNC part programming and the
Transformation functions are given in the table
Interpretations
matrix
Group I Group II
P. 1 0 1. Stretch in the y- P. G01 1. Circular
0 0  axis
 interpolation,
Q. 0 0 2. Uniform stretch counter-clock wise
0 1  in x and y-axis Q. G03 2. End of program

R. M06 3. Tool change
R. 1 0 3. Projection in x-
0 3 axis S. M02 4. Linear interpolation
 The correct combination of code and the
S. 4 0 4. Projection in y- respective function is [2 Marks]
0 4 axis
  (A) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 7.10 In a numerical control (NC) machine
2016 IISc Bangalore positioning system, the measures of
precision are expressed by considering a
7.7 Consider the following statements.
single axis as shown in the figure.
(P) Computer aided process planning
[2 Marks]
(CAPP) takes input from material
requirement plan (MRP).
(Q) Production flow analysis helps in work
cell formation.
(R) Group technology takes input from
choice of machining or cutting
parameters.
Among the above statements, the correct one If  is standard deviation of the error
(s) is/are [1 Mark] distribution, the l, m and n are
(A) P only (B) Q and R only (A) l  Accuracy, m  Repeatability,
(C) P and R only (D) Q only n  Control resolution

Production Engineering 5
 (B) l  Repeatability, m  Accuracy,
n  Control resolution
(C) l  Control resolution,
m  Repeatability, n  Accuracy
(D) l  Accuracy, m  Control resolution,
n  Repeatability
2018 IIT Guwahati
7.11 In a planar 2 degree of freedom, robot link 1
of 30 cm length is connected to base by a
revolute joint and link 2 of length 20 cm is
connected to link 1 with revolute joint as
shown in the figure. The work envelope area
(in cm2 ) , covered by point P, is _______.
[2 Marks]
7.12 The worktable in a CNC machine is driven
by a lead screw with a pitch of 2 mm. The
lead screw is directly coupled to a stepper
0 positive direction by 3 units are [2 Marks]
motor of step angle 1.8 . The number of
pulses required to move the worktable by 50
mm is ______. [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
7.13 In a NC milling operation, the tool path is
generated using absolute programing for the
trajectory shown in the figure,
The corresponding block of the NC program
is [1 Mark]
6 Production Engineering
(A) G02X120.0 Y 60.0 R 60.0
(B) G02X60.0 Y 120.0 R 60.0
(C) G03X60.0Y120.0 R 60.0
(D) G03X120.0 Y 60.0 R 60.0
2020 IIT Delhi
7.14 The movement along the z-axis of a CNC
drilling machine is controlled by using a
servo motor, a lead screw and an increment
encoder. The lead screw has 2 threads/cm
and it is directly coupled to the servo motor.
The incremental encoder attached to the lead
screw emits 100 pulses/revolution. The
control resolution in microns is _______.
[2 Marks]
7.15 The verticies of rectangle PQRS are as
follows in a 2-D CAD system.
P(– 4, – 2), Q(– 2, – 3), R(– 3, – 5),
S(– 5, – 4).
The coordinates of the corresponding new
verticies, P’, Q’, R’, S’ after translation of
the rectangle along x-axis in the positive
direction by 6 units and along y-axis in the
(A) P’(2, 1), Q’(4, 0), R’(3, – 2),
S’(l, – 1)
(B) P’(– 10, – 5), Q’(– 8, –6),
R’(– 9, – 8), S’(– 11, – 7)
(C) P’(2, – 5), Q’(4, – 6), R’(3, – 8),
S’(1, – 7)
(D) P’(– 10, 1), Q’(– 8, 0), R’(– 9. – 2),
S’(– 11, – 1)
 Explanations Computer Integrated Manufacturing (ME)

7.1 (A) 7.3 (B)

Since, the radius of the cutter is 8 mm. A spanning connects all nodes in a network
Hence, the cutter center is shifted 8 mm along the without forming a loop. A minimum spanning
path PQRS. tree (MST) or minimum weight spanning tree is a
subset of the edges of a connected, edge-weighted
undirected graph that connects all
the vertices together, without any cycles and with
the minimum possible total edge weight. That is,
it is a spanning tree whose sum of edge weights is
as small as possible.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Fig. Rectangular island 7.4 (A)
The answer is (-8,-8),(108,-8),(108,58),(-8,58).
Group-A Group-B
Hence, the correct option is (A).
P. Circular interpolation, G03
7.2 (B) counter clockwise
Given : Coordinate of point Q  (2, 5) Q. Dwell G04
R. Circular interpolation, G02
clockwise
S. Point to point countering G00
Hence, the correct option is (A).
7.5 (B)
Entirely new process planning based on design
logic during the development of a product is a type
The rotation matrix for robotic arm is given by, of generative process planning. Generative
 x '  cos   sin   x  process planning is a knowledge based planning
 y '   sin  cos    y  and is independent of existing plans.
    
For point Q , Hence, the correct option is (B).
7.6 (B)
 x '  cos 900  sin 900   2
 y '     An interpolator provides two functions :
   sin 90 cos 900   5 
0

1. It computes individual axis velocities to

 x '  0 1  2
 y '   1 0   5  drive the tool along the programmed path
     at the given feed rate.
 x '  0  2  (1)  5  5 2. It generates intermediate coordinate
 y '   1 2  0  5    2 
      positions along the programmed path.
Therefore, new coordinate pair of the end point of Hence, the correct option is (B).
Q is ( 5, 2) . 7.7 (D)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Production Engineering 7
 In increment system if we go from point P to point G03 Circular interpolation, counter
Q, then P is assumed as the origin or (0,0) clockwise
coordinate and with respect P as (0,0) that you
need to define the coordinate of Q.
Therefore, Q  4, (12  5)  (4, 7)
Hence, the correct option is (D).
7.8 (B)
Given : Co-ordinates points P1 (0, 0, 0), P2 (1,1,0)
and P3 (1,1,1) . Hence, the correct option is (B).
7.10 (C)

Part programming
Functions
codes
P. G01 Linear interpolation
Q. G03 Circular interpolation,
anticlockwise
R. M03 Spindle rotation,
clockwise
S. M05 Spindle stop
Now, distance between P1 to P2 , Hence, the correct option is (C).
S1  ( x2  x1 ) 2  ( y2  y1 ) 2  ( z2  z1 ) 2 7.11 (A)

S1  (1  0)2  (1  0)2  (0  0) 2 Point P (1, 3,  5) after translation (2i  3 j  4k ) ,

new point P ' will be
S1  12  12  02  2
P '  (1  2, 3  3,  5  4)  (3, 6,  9)
and, distance between points P2 to P3
0
Rotation matrix of counter clockwise by 90
S2  ( x2  x1 )  ( y2  y1 )  ( z2  z1 )
2 2 2
about z - axis is given by,
S2  (1  1)2  (1  1)2  (1  0)2  1  1  cos   sin  0 
Where, S1 and S 2 is base and height of facet   sin  cos  0 
 0 0 1 
respectively.
Then, area of facet is given by,  cos 90  sin 90 0  0  1 0 
1   sin 90 cos 90 0   1 0 0 
A   Base  Height
2  0 0 1  0 0 1 
1
A   2 1  0.707 New transferred value of point P " will be
2
0 1 0  3    6
Hence, the correct option is (B).
P "  1 0 0   6    3 
7.9 (B)
 0 0 1    9    9 
Code Meaning
Hence, the correct option is (A).
G91 Incremental programming

8 Production Engineering
 7.12 (D) Here code G01 shows linear interpolation and G02
shows circular interpolation in clockwise
direction.

Now, considering triangle C1C2O ,

C1C2  R  r
Centre of circular arc is (30, 35).
C1O  D  (R  r ) Hence, the correct option is (D).
(C2O)  (C1C2 )  (C1O)
2 2 2
7.15 (B)
(C2O)  ( R  r )  [ D  ( R  r )]
2 2 2
The function of an interpolator is to computes
(C2O ) 2  ( R  r ) 2   D 2  ( R  r ) 2  2( R  r ) D individual axis velocities to drive the tool along
(C2O)2  ( R  r )2  D2  ( R  r )2  2( R  r ) D the programmed path at the given feed rate and to
generate intermediate coordinate positions along
(C2O)2  2D( R  r )  D2 the programmed path.
C2O  2 D( R  r )  D 2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
H  R  C2 O  r 7.16 1.5

H  ( R  r )  2 D( R  r )  D 2 Given : Motor speed ( N )  800 rpm,

Hence, the correct option is (D). Pitch ( P)  0.5 mm/ rev
7.13 (A) V  N  P  rev/min  mm/rev  400 mm/min
According to question, 600
t x   1.5min
400
300
t y   0.75min
400
Hence, the total time will be 1.5 min.
7.17 (C)
When an axis is commanded to move, the drive
From above figure, ( x1'  x1 ) and ( y1'  y1 ) . motor may turn briefly before movement begins.
This delay is backlash.
Best method is option itself, after rotating
clockwise direction, initially x co-ordinate will Preloaded ballscrews are used in CNC machine
increase and y coordinate decrease for point Q and tools to eliminate backlash.
that is only according to option ‘A’. Hence, correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 7.18 0.25
7.14 (D) Given : In one rotation  1 mm

Production Engineering 9
 and backlash for one rotation is 1.80
1.80
So, backlash in mm  1mm  0.005 mm
3600
y
1
 Pitch  BLU
600
P 1,1 Q 51,1 5
mm  BLU
600
x 5
For 50 mm  50 rotation
 mm  1 pulse
600
So in one rotation backlash is 0.005 mm.
1 600
For 50 rotation  50  0.005  0.25 mm Or, 1 mm   pulse
5 / 600 5
Hence, the total backlash of the table on moving
mm 600  5000 Pulse
from P to Q is 0.25 mm. 5000 
min 5 min
7.19 (B)
600  5000 1
In CNC machine tool function of half interpolator   pulse/sec
5 60
is to generate reference signal prescribing the
 10, 000 Hz  10 kHz
shape of the part to be machined.
Hence, the correct option is (B). Hence, the correct option is (B).

7.20 (B) 7.21 (D)

Chain and sprocket cannot impart linear motion
in a CNC machine.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

Explanations Computer Integrated Manufacturing (PE & IE)

7.1 (B) Hence, the correct option is (B).

Transformation matrix for mirror image about 7.2 (C)

y  x line Basic length unit (BLU) is defined as the distance
traveled by the table for one pulse generated by a
pulse generator to the stepper motor.
Since, 200 pulse = 1 revolution of motor
and, 1 revolution of lead screw = 4 mm
 1 pulse = 4/200 = 1/50 = 0.02 mm
One pulse causes the 0.02 mm of BLU. Doubling
the frequency of pulse will result in reducing the
 x '  0 1   x  0 1   5  time to move the table. BLU will be the same.
 y '  1 0  y   1 0 10 Hence, the correct option is (C).
       
 x '  0  10 10 7.3 (D)
 y '   5  0    5 
     

10 Production Engineering
1 rev of the lead screw  p mm  g rev. of the Transformation
Interpretations
motor matrix
p
1 rev. of the motor  mm 1 0 
g P. 0 0  Projection in x-axis
 
g
1 mm distance  rev of the motor 0 0 
p Q. 0 1  Projection in y-axis
g  
  360 degrees
p 1 0 Stretch in the y-
R. 0 3
g 360  axis
  pulses
p  4 0 Uniform stretch in
S. 0 4
For moving x distance 
360 gx
pulses  x and y-axis.
p Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (D). 7.7 (D)
7.4 60
Only statement Q, production flow analysis helps
Given : Feed rate of (f ) = 100 mm/min in work cell formation in all above three
The combine movement  302  402  50 mm statements is true.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
In the combined movement, the tool is moving for
50 mm with a feed rate of 100 mm/min. whereas  Key Point
in the same time tool is traveling X-axis by only 30 Computer aided process planning (CAPP) is
mm. not only responsible for input from material
Hence, for travelling 30 mm distance, requirement plan monitoring but also for all the
100 parts of production process planning.
Feed rate ( f ')   30  60 mm/min Group technology is based on the machining of
50
Hence, the feed rate of the tool along the X-axis various parts based on common steps to reduce the
will be 60 mm/min. time taken as well as the resources requirements.

7.5 (C) 7.8 20

Generative type process planning is used in order Given : Pitch of lead screw ( p )  5 mm
to determine the process sequence for
Table speed (V) = 6 m/min  100 mm/sec
manufacturing any part design without predefined
standard plans in computer aided process Now, according to the question,
planning. Generative process planning is a 1000 pulses causing 1 rev of lead screw or 5 mm
knowledge based planning and is independent of displacement
existing plans. 5
 1 pulse =  0.005mm
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1000
7.6 (C) BLU  0.005mm
Linear transformation matrices and their correct Table speed  BLU  Rate of pulses
match with interpretations are shown in below 100
Rate of pulses 
table, 0.005
 20000 pulses /sec

Production Engineering 11
  20000 Hz  20 kHz 7.12 5000
Hence, the corresponding frequency of the voltage
Given : Step angle  1.8
0

pulses generated by the circular encoder is 20

Pitch of lead screw = 2 mm
kHz.
Now, no. of pulses required for one revolution is
7.9 (A) given by,
The correct combination of code and the 360
n  200pulses
respective function is represented in table, 1.8
Group I Group II 2 mm is covered by 200 pulses
P. G01 Linear interpolation 200  50
 50mm   5000
Q. G03 Circular interpolation, 2
counter-clock wise Hence, the number of pulses required to move the
R. M06 Tool change worktable by 50 mm is 5000.
S. M02 End of program 7.13 (A)
Hence, the correct option is (A). Direction clockwise
7.10 (A) Final position (120, 60)
In a numerical control (NC) machine positioning Radius  60
system, as shown in figure, l represents accuracy,  Code- G02X120 Y60 R60
m repeatability and n represents control Hence, the correct option is (A).
resolution of the system. 7.14 50
Lead screw has 2 threads/cm,
104
Pitch of lead screw  microns/thread
2
P  5 103 microns/thread
 100 pulses/revolution
 5 103 microns/threads
Hence, the correct option is (A).  1 pulse/revolution = 50 microns
7.11 7853.98  Control resolution is 50 microns.
Hence, the control resolution in microns is 50.
Given : Length of link 1 ( L1 )  30cm
7.15 (A)
Length of link 2 ( L2 )  20cm Translation :
The area covered by the robotic links will be X new  X old  dx
circular with radius R.
Ynew  Yold  dy
Where, R  L1  L2  30  20  50cm
P '( 4  6,  2  3)  P '(2, 1)
Now, area covered by the point P is given by,
Q '( 2  6,  3  3)  Q '(4, 0)
A  R   50  7853.98cm
2 2 2
R '( 3  6,  5  3)  R '(3,  2)
Hence, the work envelope area covered by point
S '( 5  6,  4  3)  S '(1, 1)
P is 7853.98 cm2.
Hence, the correct option is (A).


12 Production Engineering
8 Unconventional Machining

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2014 IIT Kharagpur capacitance (in F ) in the circuit is

[2 Marks]
8.1 The following four unconventional
(A) 2.5 (B) 5.0
machining processes are available in a shop
(C) 7.5 (D) 10.0
floor. The most appropriate one to drill a
hole of square cross section of 6 mm  6 mm 2016 IISc Bangalore
and 25 mm deep is
8.6 In an ultrasonic machining (USM) process,
[1 Mark]
the material removal rate (MRR) is plotted
(A) Abrasive jet machining.
as a function of the feed force of the USM
(B) Plasma arc machining. tool. With increasing feed force, the MRR
(C) Laser beam machining. exhibits the following behavior :
(D) Electro discharge machining. [1 Mark]
8.2 The process utilizing mainly thermal energy (A) Increases linearly
for removing material is
(B) Decreases linearly
[1 Mark]
(C) Does not change
(A) Ultrasonic Machining
(D) First increases and then decreases
(B) Electrochemical machining
8.7 The non-traditional machining process that
(C) Abrasive jet machining
essentially requires vacuum is
(D) Laser Beam machining
8.3 The principle of material removal in [1 Mark]
electrochemical machining is [1 Mark] (A) Electron beam machining
(A) Fick’s law (B) Electro chemical machining
(B) Faraday’s law (C) Electro chemical discharge machining
(C) Kirchhoff’s law (D) Electro discharge machining
(D) Ohm’s law 8.8 The surface irregularities of electrodes used
in an electrochemical machining (ECM)
2015 IIT Kanpur
process 3 m and 6 m as shown in the
8.4 The primary mechanism of material removal figure. If the work-piece is of pure iron and
in electrochemical machining (ECM) is 12 volt DC is applied between the electrodes,
[1 Mark] the largest feed rate is _____ mm/min.
(A) Chemical corrosion
[2 Marks]
(B) Etching
(C) Ionic dissolution Conductivity of the 0.02ohm-1mm-1
electrolyte
(D) Spark erosion
Over potential voltage 1.5 V
8.5 A resistance-capacitance relaxation circuit is
Density of iron 7860 kg/m3
used in an electrical discharge machining
process. The discharge voltage is 100 V. At Atomic weight of iron 55.85gm
a spark cycle time of 25 s . The average
Assume the iron to be dissolved as Fe 2 and
power input required is 1 kW. The the Faraday’s constant to be 96500 coulomb.

Production Engineering 1
 8.12 An electrochemical machining (ECM) is to
be used to cut a through hole into a 12 mm
thick aluminium plate. The hole has a
rectangular cross-sectional area 10 mm  30
mm. The ECM operation will be
accomplished in 2 minutes, with efficiency
of 90%. Assuming specific removal rate for
2017 IIT Roorkee
aluminium as 3.44 102 mm3 /(A-s) , the
8.9 Match the processes with their
current (in A) required is _____ (correct to
characteristics. [1 Mark]
two decimal places). [2 Marks]
Process Characteristics
8.13 A circular hole of 25 mm diameter and depth
P. Electrical 1. No residual
of 20 mm is machined by EDM process. The
discharge stress
machining Material removal rate (in mm3 /min) is
Q. Ultrasonic 2. Machining of expressed as 4 104 IT 1.23 where I  300 A
machining electrically and the melting point of the material,
conductive T  16000 C . The time (in minutes) for
materials machining this hole is ___ (correct to two
R. Chemical 3. Machining of decimal places). [2 Marks]
machining glass
2019 IIT Madras
S. Ion Beam 4. Nano-
machining machining 8.14 In an electrical discharge, machining
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 process, the breakdown voltage across inter
(B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 electrode gap (IEG) is 200 V and the
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 capacitance of RC circuit is 50 F . The
(D) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1 energy (in J) released per spark across the
8.10 Which one of the following statements is IEG is ______. [1 Mark]
TRUE for the ultrasonic machining (USM) 2021 IIT Bombay
process? [1 Mark]
8.15 The size distribution of the powder particles
(A) In USM the tool vibrates at subsonic
used in Powder Metallurgy process can be
frequency.
determined by [1 Mark]
(B) USM does not employ magnetostrictive
(A) Laser absorption
transducer.
(B) Laser reflection
(C) USM is an excellent process for
machining ductile materials. (C) Laser penetration
(D) USM often uses a slurry comprising (D) Laser scattering
abrasive particles and water. 8.16 The machining process that involves
ablation is [2 Marks]
2018 IIT Guwahati (A) Abrasive Jet Machining
8.11 Metal removal in electric discharge (B) Chemical Machining
machining takes place through [1 Mark] (C) Laser Beam Machining
(A) Ion displacement (D) Electrochemical Machining
(B) Melting and vaporization
(C) Corrosive reaction
(D) Plastic shear
2 Production Engineering
 2022 IIT Kharagpur 8.19 Match the additive manufacturing technique
in Column I with its corresponding input
8.17 Which of the following additive material in Column II. [1 Mark]
manufacturing technique(s) can use a wire as
Additive
a feedstock material? [1 Mark]
manufacturing Input material
(A) Stereolithography technique (Column II)
(B) Fused deposition modeling (Column I)
(C) Selective laser sintering P Fused deposition 1 Photo sensitive
modelling liquid resin
(D) Directed energy deposition processes
Q Laminated object 2 Heat fusible
8.18 Electrochemical machining operations are manufacturing powder
performed with tungsten as the tool, and R Selective laser 3 Filament of
copper and aluminum as two different sintering polymer
workpiece materials. Properties of copper 4 Sheet of
and aluminum are given in the table below. thermoplastic or
Atomic green compacted
Density
Material mass Valency metal sheet
(g/cm3)
(amu)
Copper 63 2 9 (A) P-3, Q-4, R-2
Aluminum 27 3 2.7 (B) P-1, Q-2, R-4
Ignore overpotentials, and assume that current (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1
efficiency is 100% for both the workpiece (D) P-4, Q-1, R-4
materials. Under identical conditions, if the 8.20 Which of these processes involve(s) melting
material removal rate (MRR) of copper is 100 in metallic workpieces? [1 Mark]
mg/s, the MRR of aluminum will be ___________ (A) Electrochemical machining
mg/s (round-off to two decimal places). (B) Electric discharge machining
[1 Mark] (C) Laser beam machining
(D) Electron beam machining
Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2013 IIT Bombay 2014 IIT Kharagpur

8.1 During the electrochemical machining 8.2 Find the correct combination of
(ECM) of iron (atomic weight = 56, valency manufacturing processes to produce the part,
= 2) at current of 1000 A with 90% current shown in figure, from a blank (holes shown
efficiency, the material removal rate was are with square and circular cross-sections).
observed to be 0.26 gm/s. If titanium (atomic [1 Mark]
weight = 48, valency =3) is machined by the
ECM process at the current of 2000 A with
90% of current efficiency, the expected
material removal rate in gm/s will be
[2 Marks]
(A) 0.11 (B) 0.23
(A) Drilling and milling on column and knee
(C) 0.30 (D) 0.52
type universal milling machine

Production Engineering 3
 (B) Die-sinking and CNC Wire-cut EDM
process
(C) Die-sinking and CNC drilling
(D) CNC wire-cut EDM process only
8.3 A hard ceramic marble, having density ()
of 3000 kg/m3 and diameter (d) of 0.025 m ,
is dropped accidentally from a static weather
balloon at a height of 1 km above the roof of
material () is 2.5 GPa. The marble hits and
creates an indentation on the roof. Assume
that the principle of creation of indentation is
the same as that in case of abrasive jet
machining (AJM). The acceleration due to
gravity ( g ) is 10 m/s2 . If V is the velocity, in
m/s, of the marble at the time it hits the green
house, the indentation depth
  
   1000  d  V  , in mm, is ___.
 6  momentum, the velocity (in m/s) of the
[2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
S. Abrasive-slurry is used in Abrasive jet
machining.
Among the above statements, the correct
ones are
(A) P and R only
(B) Q and S only
(C) Q, R and S only
(D) P and Q only
8.6 In abrasive water jet machining, the velocity
of water at the exit of the orifice, before
mixing with abrasive, is 800 m/s and the
mass flow rate is 3.4 kg/min. The abrasives
are added to the water jet at a rate of 0.6
kg/min with negligible velocity. Assume that
at the end of the focusing tube, abrasive
particles and water come out with equal
velocity. Consider that there is no air in the
abrasive water jet. Assuming conservation of
abrasive water jet at the end of the focusing
tube is ________. [2 Marks]

8.4 Which of the following DO NOT influence 2017 IIT Roorkee

the material removal rate in Electrical 8.7 In chemical machining, the etch factor is
Discharge Machine Process? [1 Mark] expressed as [1 Mark]
(i) Hardness of work piece material Undercut Depth of cut
(ii) Melting temperature of work piece (A) (B)
Depth of cut Undercut
material
Workpiece wear Toolwear
(iii)Hardness of tool material (C) (D)
Tool wear Workpiece
(iv) Discharge current and frequency
(A) (i) and (ii) 8.8 A surface of 30 mm  30 mm of an iron
(B) (i) and (iii) block is machined using electrochemical
machining process. The atomic weight and
(C) (iii) and (iv)
valency of iron is 55.85 and 2, respectively.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
The density of iron is 7860 kg/m3 . If input
2016 IISc Bangalore
current is 1000 A and Faraday’s constant is
8.5 Consider the following statements : 96540 coulombs, then the feed rate (in
[1 Mark] mm/min) is _____ (up to decimal places).
P. Electrolyte is used in Electro-chemical [2 Marks]
machining
2018 IIT Guwahati
Q. Electrolyte is used in Ultrasonic
machining. 8.9 To make holes of 0.5 mm diameter and 30
mm depth in a mild steel component, the most
R. Abrasive-slurry is used in Ultrasonic
machining suitable process is [1 Mark]
(A) Chemical machining
4 Production Engineering
 (B) Electrochemical machining
(C) Abrasive jet machining
(D) plasma arc machining
8.10 In an electrochemical machining of
aluminium with plane parallel electrodes, the
current density is 70 A/cm2 . Cross sectional
area of each electrode is 3cm 2 . The current
efficiency (i.e., the fraction of current used
for dissolution of metal) is 80%. Atomic
weight, valency and density of aluminium
are 27 gram, 3 and 2700 kg/m3 , respectively.
Take Faraday’s constant as 96500 coulomb.
The volumetric material removal rate
(in mm3 / min) is ______. [2 Marks]
2019 IIT Madras
8.11 For the abrasive jet machining process, the
ratio of abrasive volume to carrier gas
volume is 0.25. Further, the ratio of abrasive
density to carrier gas density is 25. The mass
ratio of abrasive to the mixture of abrasive
and carrier gas is _____. (round off to 2
decimal places). [1 Mark]
2020 IIT Delhi
8.12 A non-tradition machining process which
utilizes mechanical energy as the principal
energy source for removing the material is
[1 Mark]
(A) Laser beam machining
(B) Electric discharge machining
(C) Plasma arc machining
(D) Ultrasonic machining

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

8.1 (D) 8.5 (B)

EDM is most suitable process of square holes, Given : Discharge voltage (V )  100 V
intricate triangular holes etc. Spark cycle time (t )  25 s  25 10 6 s
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Average power input ( P)  1 kW  1000 W
8.2 (D)
Now, average power input is given by,
Machining by laser beam is achieved through 1 
thermo-optic interaction between the beam and  CV 2 
Work  2 
work material. Following phases are involved : P 
Time t
1. Interaction of laser beam with work material.
P  2t 1000  2  25 106
2. Heat conduction and temperature rise.  C   5 F
3. Melting, vaporization and ablation. V2 (100)2
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (B).
8.3 (B) 8.6 (D)

In ECM process, material removal rate takes place In an ultrasonic machining (USM) process, the
due to atomic dissolution of work material and is graph between material removal rate (MRR) and
governed by Faraday’s law. feed force of the USM tool is plotted below. With
Hence, the correct option is (B). increasing feed force, the MRR first increases then
decreases it can be seen in figure below,
8.4 (C)
Initial or primary mechanism of material removal
in ECM is ionic dissolution.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

Production Engineering 5
  55.85 
 23.33 Ac
e  I  2 
MRR  
F  96500  7860 10 6
MRR  0.859 Ac mm3 /s
 Atomic weight A 
 e  
 Valency Z
Therefore, electrode feed rate is given by,
Hence, the correct option is (D). MRR
f   0.859 mm/s
8.7 (A) Area ( Ac )
Electron beam machining requires vacuum f  0.859  60 mm/min
chamber and therefore collision of accelerated f  51.54 mm /min
electrons is avoided with the air molecules to
Hence, the largest feed rate is 51.54 mm/min.
obtain fine machining.
Hence, the correct option is (A). 8.9 (A)

8.8 51.54 Process Characteristics

P. Electrical Machining of
Given : Conductivity of the electrode
discharge electrically
(k )  0.02ohmn -1mm-1 machining conductive
Over voltage (V0 )  1.5V materials
Q. Ultrasonic Machining of glass
Density of Iron ()  7860 kg/m3
machining
 7860 106 g/mm3 R. Chemical No residual stress
Atomic weight of iron ( A)  55.85g machining
Faraday’s constant ( F )  96500 coulomb S. Ion Beam Nano - Machining
machining
Theoretical voltage (Vt )  12.0 V
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Valency of iron ( Z )  2
8.10 (D)
Nominal gas ( L)  3  6  9μm =9 10 3 mm
Ultrasonic machining uses an abrasive slurry
Now, supply voltage (Vs ) is given by,
which transfers the impact load provided by the
Theoretical voltage (Vt )  Over voltage (V0 ) vibrating tool to the work piece.
+ Supply voltage (Vs ) Hence, the correct option is (D).
12.0  1.5  Vs 8.11 (B)
 Vs  10.5 Volt In EDM, electric spark is the source due to which
Current density is given by, material undergoes fusion and vaporization.
I Vs 10.5 Hence, the correct option is (B).
J  
Ac  1   1  3 8.12 968.992
  L    9 10
k  0.02  Given : Thickness of aluminium plate
I
 23.333Amp/mm 2 (t ')  12mm
Ac Cross-section area of hole  10 mm  30 mm
 I  23.33 Ac Amp
 300 mm2
Also, material removal rate is given by,
Operation time (t )  2 minutes  120 sec
Operational efficiency ()  90 %

6 Production Engineering
Ideal material removal rate per unit current Hence, the time for machining this hole is 7.1431
(MRR)ideal  3.44 102 mm3 /A-s min.
Therefore, actual material removal rate per unit 8.14 1
current is given by,
Given : Capacitance (C )  50 F  50 10 6 F
(MRR)actal  Operational efficiency
Breakdown voltage (Vd )  200V
 (MRR) Ideal Now, energy released per spark across the IEG is
(MRR)actal  0.9  3.44 10 2 given by,
1 1
(MRR)actal  3.096 102 mm3 /A-s E  CVd2   50 10 6  2002  1.0 J
2 2
…(i) Hence, the energy released per spark across the
Also, actual material removal rate per unit current IEG is 1.0 J.
is given by,
8.15 (D)
(Cross-sectional area)×(Thickness)
(MRR) actual  The size distribution of powder particles used in
(Operational time)×current
powder metallurgy process can be determined by
(10  30)  (12)
(MRR)actual  mm3 /A-s laser scattering.
160  I Hence, the correct option is (D).
…(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii), we get 8.16 (C)
(10  30)  (12) Ablation involves in laser beam machining.
 3.096 102
120  I Hence, the correct option is (C).
 I  968.992 Amp 8.17 (B), (D)
Hence, the current required is 968.992 Amp. Wire is used as feed stock material in two
8.13 7.1431 manufacturing technique which are :
Given :  Fused deposition modelling
Diameter of hole ( D )  25 mm  Directed energy deposition processes.
Depth of hole ( L)  20 mm Hence, the correct option is (B), (D).
Material removal rate (MRR)
8.18 28.5
 4 104 IT 1.23 mm3 /min
Given :
Current ( I )  300 A
Faraday’s constant ( F )  96500
Melting point temperature (T )  16000 C
Volume required to remove, Current efficiency  100%
  Material removal rate of Cu
V  D2 L   252  20
4 4 (MRRCu )  100 mg/s
V  9817.477 mm3
 100 103 g/s
1.23
Now, MRR  4 10  I  T
4

 4 104  300  (1600)1.23

Material Atomic Valency  (g/cm3 )
Mass (z)
 3  4 106  (1600)1.23 (A)
 1374.40 mm3 /min Cu 63 2 9
9817.477 Al 27 3 2.7
Time required   7.1431min
1374.4

Production Engineering 7
 Material removal rate, Hence, the correct option is (A).
AI 8.20 (B, C, D)
MRR 
ZF In, electron beam machining, electrical discharge
 AI  machining and Laser beam machining, involves
For Cu, MRRCu   
 ZF Cu melting in metallic workpiece.
Hence, the correct option is (B), (C), (D).
63  I
100 103 
2  96500
I  306.34 Amp
 AI  27  306.34
For Al, MRRAL    
 ZF  AL 3  96500
MRRAL  0.0285 g/sec  28.5 mg/s
Hence, the correct answer is 28.5.
8.19 (A)
P. Fused deposition modelling – Filament of
polymer
Q. Laminated object manufacturing –Sheet of
thermoplastic or green compacted metal
sheet
R. Selective laser sintering – Heat fusible
powder

Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

8.1 (C)  A I 
(MRR)T  Z T
Given :  
Current efficiency ()  0.9 (MRR) I  A  I 
 
 Z I
Iron (I) Titanium (T)
Atomic weight (A) 56 48  48 1800 
(MRR)T  3
 28800

Valency (Z) 2 3 
1000  0.9 2000  0.9 0.26  56  900  25200
Current ( I )  
 900 A  1800 A  2 
MRR 0.26 gm/s ?  (MRR)T  0.297 gm/s 0.3 gm/s
Material removal rate is given by, Hence, the correct option is (C).
A I 8.2 (B)
MRR  ( F  cosntant)
ZF For producing circular holes, sinking process will
A I be used, and CNC wire cut EDM process for
MRR 
Z converting circular hole into square holes. Direct
drilling, milling or CNC drilling cannot be used as
the holes are small.
Hence, the correct option is (B).

8 Production Engineering
 8.3 1581.12 = Momentum after mixing abrasives
mwvw  ma va  mmvm
Given :
Density of the marble ()  3000kg/m3 By putting the values,
3.4  800  0.6  0  4  vm
Diameter of the marble (d)  0.025 m
Height (h)  1 km  1000 m 3.4  800
Vm   680m/s
4
Roof of material ()  2.5 GPa
Hence, the velocity of the abrasive water jet at the
Velocity of the marble, end of the focusing tube is 680 m/s.
V  2 gh
8.7 (A)
V  2 10 1000  141.42 m/s Etch factor in chemical machining can be defined
Indentation depth, as the ratio of the undercut to the depth of cut. i.e.,

  1000  d V
6 Etch factor 
Under cut
Depth path
3000
  1000  0.025 141.42 Hence, the correct option is (A).
6  2.5 109
  1.581123 m  1581.12 mm 8.8 2.453
Hence, the indentation depth is 1581.12 mm. Given :
8.4 (B) Surface area iron block
( Ac )  30 mm  30 mm  900 mm 2
In Electrical Discharge Machine (EDM) process,
material removal rate depends upon the discharge Atomic weight of iron ( A)  55.85
current, frequency and melting temperature of Valency of iron ( Z )  2
work piece material and independent of hardness Density of iron
of work piece material and tool material.
  7860 kg/m3  7860 10 6 g/mm3
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Flow of current ( I )  1000A
8.5 (A)
Faraday’s constant ( F )  96540
Electrolyte is used in electro-chemical machining
Now, material removal rate is given by,
and abrasive-slurry is used in Ultrasonic
A I
machining. MRR = …(i)
Hence, the correct option is (A).  Z  F
8.6 680
Feed is given by,
 AI 
Given : Exit velocity of water (vw )  800 m/s  
MRR  FZ 
Mass flow rate of water (mw )  3.4 kg/min Feed rate, f  
Ac Ac
Mass flow rate of abrasive (ma )  0.6 kg/min
55.85 1000
Let, velocity of abrasives (va )  0 (negligible f 
7860 106  2  96540  900
velocity) f  0.04089 mm/sec  2.453mm/min
Mass flow rate of mixture
Hence, the feed rate is 2.453 mm/min.
(mm )  3.4  0.6  4.0 kg/min
8.9 (B)
Velocity of mixture  vm
Electrochemical machining is the best suited
Now, by the conservation of momentum,
process for given task.
Momentum before mixing the abrasives
Hence, the correct option is (B).

Production Engineering 9
 8.10 348.18 Ratio of abrasive density to carrier gas density
 a 
Given : Current density ( I d )  70 A/cm 2    25
Cross-sectional area ( A)  3cm2  g 
ma 1
Current efficiency (I )  0.8  
ma  mg m
Atomic weight of aluminium ( A)  27 g 1 g
ma
Valency of aluminium ( Z )  3
ma 1 1
Density of aluminium  
ma  mg V 1
()  2700 kg/m3  2.7 g/cc 1 g g 1
Va a 0.25  25
Faraday’s constant ( F )  96500
 m  V 
Current ( I )  I d AI  70  3  0.8  168 A
ma
Now, material removal rate is given by,  0.862069 0.86
27 168 ma  mg
AI
MRR   Hence, the mass ratio of abrasive to the mixture of
FZ 2.7  96500  3
abrasive and carrier gas is 0.86.
MRR  5.8 103 cm3 /sec
8.12 (D)
MRR  348.18mm3 /min
Hence, the volumetric material removal rate is Ultrasonic machining is a mechanical type non-
348.18 mm3/min. traditional machining process, in which abrasives
contained in a slurry are driven against the work
8.11 0.86
by a tool oscillating at low amplitude (25-100
Given : Ratio of abrasive volume to carrier gas microns) and high frequency (15-30 kHz).
V  Hence, the correct option is (D).
volume  a   0.25
V 
 g


10 Production Engineering
9 Material Science

Mechanical Engineering (ME)

2013 IIT Bombay 2016 IISc Bangalore

9.1 For a ductile material, toughness is a 9.5 Consider the following statements :
measure of [1 Mark] P. Hardness is the resistance of a material to
(A) Resistance to scratching. indentation
(B) Ability to absorb energy up to fracture. Q. Elastic modulus is a measure of ductility
(C) Ability to absorb energy till elastic limit. R. Deflection depends on stiffness.
(D) Resistance to indentation. S. The total area under the stress strain
2014 IIT Kharagpur curve is a measure of resilience.
Among the above statements, the correct
9.2 The process of reheating the martensitic steel
ones are [1 Mark]
to reduce its brittleness without any
significant loss in its hardness is (A) P and Q only (B) Q and S only
[1 Mark] (C) P and R only (D) R and S only
(A) Normalising. (B) Annealing. 9.6 The “Jominy test” is used to find :
(C) Quenching. (D) Tempering. [1 Mark]
9.3 Match the heat treatment processes (Group- (A) Young’s modulus.
A) and their associated effects on properties (B) Hardenability.
(Group-B) of medium carbon steel (C) Yield strength.
[1 Mark] (D) Thermal conductivity.
Group-A Group-B 9.7 In the phase diagram shown in the figure,
P. Tempering 1. Strengthening four samples of the same composition are
and gain heated to temperatures marked by a, b, c and
refinement d.
Q. Quenching 2. Inducing
toughness
R. Annealing 3. Hardening
S. Normalizing 4. Softening
Codes : P Q R S
(A) 3 4 2 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 3 1 4
2015 IIT Kanpur At which temperature will a sample get
9.4 The atomic packing factor for a material with solutionized the fastest? [1 Mark]
body centered cubic structure is ______. (A) a (B) b
[1 Mark] (C) c (D) d
9.8 In a binary system of A and B, a liquid of
20% A (80% B) is coexisting with a solid of
Production Engineering 1
 70% A (30% B). For an overall composition (A) The ability to harden when it is cold
having 40% A, the fraction of solid is worked
[2 Marks] (B) The depth to which required hardening is
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.50 obtained when it is austenitized and then
(C) 0.60 (D) 0.75 quenched
2017 IIT Roorkee (C) The ability to retain its hardness when it
is heated to elevated temperature
9.9 Given the atomic weight of Fe is 56 and that
(D) The maximum hardness that can be
of C is 12, the weight percentage of carbon
obtained when it is austenitized then
in cementite (Fe3C) is _______. quenched
[1 Mark] 9.15 The binary phase diagram of metals P and
9.10 The crystal structure of aluminium is Q is shown in the figure. An alloy X -
[1 Mark] containing 60% P and 40% Q (by weight)
(A) Body centred cubic.
is cooled from liquid to solid state. The
(B) Face centred cubic.
fractions of solid and liquid (in weight
(C) Close packed hexagonal.
percent) at 12500 C , respectively, will be
(D) Body centred tetragonal.
[2 Marks]
9.11 With reference to Iron-Carbon equilibrium
phase diagram, the crystal structure of 0.3%
plain carbon steel at 11000 C is
[1 Mark]
(A) HCP (B) BCT
(C) BCC (D) FCC
2018 IIT Guwahati
9.12 The number of atoms per unit cell and the
number of slip systems, respectively, for a
face-centered cubic (FCC) crystal are
[1 Mark]
(A) 3, 3 (B) 3, 12 (A) 32.0% and 68.0%
(C) 4, 12 (D) 4, 48 (B) 22.2% and 77.8%
9.13 Denoting L as liquid and M as solid in a (C) 68.0% and 32.0%
phase diagram with the subscripts (D) 77.8% and 22.2%
representing different phases, a eutectoid
reaction is described by 2020 IIT Delhi
[1 Mark] 9.16 The crystal structure of  - iron (austenite
(A) M1  M 2  M 3 phase) is [1 Mark]
(B) L1  M1  M 2 (A) FCC (B) HCP
(C) BCC (D) BCT
(C) L1  M1  M 2
9.17 Match the following : [2 Marks]
(D) M1  M 2  M 3 Heat treatment
Effect
process
2019 IIT Madras
P. Tempering 1. Strengthening
9.14 Hardenability of steel is a measure of Q. Quenching 2. Toughening

2 Production Engineering
 R. Annealing 3. Hardening (A) Carburizing
S. Normalizing 4. Softening (B) Cyaniding
(A) P-3, Q-3, R-1, S-3 (C) Annealing
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) Carbonitriding
(C) P-1, Q-1, R-3, S-2 2023 IIT Kanpur
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 9.20 In Fe  Fe3C phase diagram, the eutectoid
2021 IIT Bombay composition is 0.8 weight % of carbon at
9.18 The Cast Iron which possesses all the carbon 7250 C. The maximum solubility of carbon
in combined form as cementite is known as in   ferrite phase is 0.025 weight % of
[1 Mark] carbon. A steel sample, having no other
alloying element except 0.5 weight % of
(A) Malleable Cast Iron
carbon, is slowly cooled from 10000 C to
(B) White Cast Iron
room temperature. The fraction of pro-
(C) Grey Cast Iron eutectoid   ferrite in the above steel
(D) Spheroidal Cast Iron sample at room temperature is [2 Marks]
2022 IIT Kharagpur (A) 0.387 (B) 0.864
9.19 Which of the following heat treatment (C) 0.475 (D) 0.775
processes is/are used for surface hardening
of steels? [1 Mark]
Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

2019 IIT Madras 2020 IIT Delhi

9.1 Match the crystal structure in Column A with 9.2 Group-I lists phases of steel and Group-II
the corresponding packing fractions in lists crystal structures in the table below,
Column B of the table [1 Mark] Group-I Group-II
Column-A Column-B P. Ferrite 1. Hexagonal close
1. Simple cubic P. 0.74 packed
(HCP).
2. Hexagonal close- Q. 0.68
packed Q. Austenite 2. Body Centered
Cubic
3. Body-centered cubic R. 0.52 (BCC).
4. Face- centered cubic R. Martensite 3. Body Centered
(A) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-Q Tetragonal
(BCT).
(B) 1-R, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q
4. Face Centered
(C) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-P Cubic
(D) 1-P, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q (FCC).
Match the phase with the corresponding
crystal structure, [1 Mark]
(A) P-4, 0-2, R-3 (B) P-2, 0-4, R-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-3 (D) P-4. Q-2. R-1

Production Engineering 3
 Mechanical Engineering (ME)
9.1 (B)
In material science and metallurgy toughness is
the ability of a material to absorb energy and
plastic deformation without fracture. One
definition of material toughness is the amount of
energy per unit volume that a material can absorb
before rupturing. It is also defined as material’s
resistance to fracture when stressed. Toughness
can be determined by integrating the stress-strain
curve as shown below,
Hence, the correct option is (B).
9.2 (A)
The process of reheating the martensitic steel to
reduce its brittleness without any significant loss
in its hardness is normalising. The tempering also
reduces brittleness but it also decreases the
hardness.
Annealing : In annealing the component is heated
to above upper critical temperature (high
temperature) followed by furnace cooling
produces largest size of grains. Hence achieves
highest ductility due to significant loss of
hardness.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
 Key Point
Tempering : The martensite which is formed
during quenching is too brittle and hence cannot
be used in many cases. The residual stresses are
also developed during martensite formation hence
hardening should be followed by tempering.
4 Production Engineering
Tempering consist in heating the hardened steel to
a temperature below the lower critical temperature
holding it for some time and then cooling slowly.
It is the final operation in heat treatment.
The higher the tempering temperature, more will
be the recrystallization phenomenon this will
reduce hardness and increase toughness.
Tempering : The purpose of tempering is to,
 Relieve residual stresses.
 Improve ductility.
 Improve toughness.
 Reduce hardness.
 Increase % elongation.
9.3 (B)
( S  1 ) : Normalising refines the grain size of
steel, which may have been unduly coarsened at
the forging or rolling temperature.
( P  2 ) : Tempering induces toughness and
ductility with loss of hardness.
( Q  3 ) : Quenching is a rapid cooling process
produces smallest grains and improve hardness.
( R  4 ) : Annealing reduces the hardness of the
steel completely and improve toughness, it is
complete softening process and increase ductility.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
9.4 0.68
Atomic packing factor is given by,
Volume of the atom per unit
APF 
Volume of the unit cell
Fig. (a) Fig. (b)
Let a is the lattice parameter and r is atomic
radius.
From figure (a), load is applied, whereas hardenability refers to its
AG  r  2r  r  4r …(i) ability to be hardened to a particular depth under a
From figure (b), particular set of conditions.
EG 2  a 2  a 2  2a 2
and, AG 2  AE 2  EG 2  a 2  2a 2  3a 2
…(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii),
( AG)2  (4r )2  3a 2
16r 2  3a 2
4r  3a (Both side square root)
3a Fig. Jominy end quench test
Then, r …(iii)
4 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Now, in BCC structure there are 2 atoms per unit 9.7 (C)
cell
Solution will be solutionized fastest at lighter
4
2  r 3 temperature and at equilibrium condition, here at
Then, APF  3
point d, solution is at phase transition zone where
a3
3
at point c only one phases exist.
4  3a  For aluminium alloy solution hardening process
2    
3  4  3 will be used to increase strength and hardness. In
APF   
a 3
8 this process component will be heated to 5500 C
APF  0.680 above temperature so that solute particles can
Hence, the atomic packing factor for a material penetrate in to the lattice easily.
with body centered cubic structure is 0.68. Hence, the correct option is (C).
9.5 (C)  Key Point
Among all four statements discussed above, only In the phase diagram, the temperature represented
statements P and R are correct. Hardness is by point c is the lowest temperature at which the
resistance of abrasion. Elongation with in the alloy is still completely liquid, also known as
elastic limit is called elastic modulus, ductility is eutectic point. It is the point at which the liquid
independent of elastic limit. The deflection solution decomposes into the components  and
depends on stiffness of the member. Not whole  i.e., sample can be solutionized fastest.
area but the area under the stress strain curve upto
9.8 (A)
elastic limit is resilience.
Hence, the correct option is (C). Given : Binary system of A and B,
9.6 (B) Liquid of 20% A and 80% B
Solid of 70% A and 30% B
The most widely used method of determining
hardenability is the End quench hardenability test
or Jominy test. Hardenability is measure of the
capacity of steel to be hardened in a depth when
quenched from its austenitizing temperature.
Hardenability of a steel should not be confused
with the hardness of a steel. Hardness of a steel
refers to its ability to resists deformation when

Production Engineering 5
 three relatively simple (space lattices) structures,
namely
(i) The body-centered cubic (BCC), (Cr, V, Mo,
Na, Mn,  Fe, etc.)
(ii) The face-centered cubic (FCC) (Al, Cu, Ag,
Pb,  Fe, etc.)
(iii) The close packed hexagonal (CPH or HCP)
(Mg, Zn, Cd, etc.)

9.11 (D)
In Iron-Carbon equilibrium phase diagram, the
The amount of solid phase, crystal structure of 0.3% plain carbon steel at
MP 80  60 1100 0 C is face centered cubic (FCC).
 100   0.40
OP 80  30 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (A). 9.12 (C)
9.9 6.67 A face-centered cube has an atom at each corner
Given : Atomic weight of Fe  56 of the cube and in addition, one atom at the
Atomic weight of C  12 intersection of the diagonals of each of the six
 Total weight of faces of the cube.
Fe3C  (56  3)  12  180
 Weight percentage of carbon
12
 100  6.67%
180
Hence, the weight percentage of carbon in Fig. FCC structure
cementite (Fe3C) is 6.67%. Since, each corner atom is shared by eight
adjoining cubes and each face atom is shared by
9.10 (B) only one adjacent cube, the unit cell contains,
When the liquid aluminum cooled to lower 1
8 atoms at the corner   1 atom
temperature, tiny solid clusters are formed in the 8
liquid. These are the formed such a way that these 1
contain minimum free energy within the solid 6 face-centered atoms   3 atom
2
cluster. For aluminum, FCC crystal structure has a Total = 4 atoms
lowest possible free energy than BCC or HCP so The face-centered cube lattice, however, is unique
these tiny solid clusters will grow and turn into in that it contains as many as four planes of closest
grains. Hence the crystal structure for aluminum is packing (111), each containing three close-packed
FCC. direction  1 10  , thus amounting to 12
Hence, the correct option is (B). physically distinct slip systems.
 Key Point Hence, the correct option is (C).
There are many different types of crystal 9.13 (A)
structures, some of which are quite complicated. Eutectoid reaction is an isothermal reversible
Fortunately, most metals crystallize in one of the reaction in which a solid phase (usually a solid
solution) is converted into two or more intimately

6 Production Engineering
mixed solids on cooling, the number of solids 9.17 (D)
formed being the same as the number of
components in the system. (P  2) : Tempering induces toughness and
Solid1
Cooling
Solid 2  Solid 3 ductility with loss of hardness.
Heating
(Q  3) : Quenching is a rapid cooling process
M1  M 2  M 3
produces smallest grains and improve hardness.
-iron  -ferrite  Cementite(Fe3C) (R  4) : Annealing reduces the hardness of the
A practical example of the eutectoid reaction steel completely and improve toughness, it is
occurs in the Fe-carbon system. In this case, complete softening process and increase ductility.
austenite (a solid solution of carbon in  -iron) (S  1) : Normalizing imparts both hardness and
decomposes to form pearlite (the eutectoid strength to iron and steel components.
structure, an intimate lamellar mixture of  -iron Hence, the correct option is (D).
and iron carbide).
9.18 (B)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
9.14 (B) The cast iron which possesses all the carbon in
combine form as cementite is known as white C.I.
Hardenability is a measure of the capacity of a Hence, the correct option is (B).
steel to be hardened in depth when quenched from
its austenitizing temperature. 9.19 A, B, D
Hence, the correct option is (B). Heat treatment process is/are used for surface
 Key Point hardening of steel-
Hardenability of a steel should not be confused  Cyaniding
with the hardness of a steel. The Hardness of a  Carbonitriding
steel refers to its ability to resist deformation when
 Carburizing
a load is applied, whereas hardenability refers to
its ability to be hardened to a particular depth Note :
under a particular set of conditions. Surface hardening process 
Cyaniding, Carbonitriding, Carburizing.
9.15 (B)
Surface softening process  Annealing.
According to lever rule,
Hence, the correct option is (A), (B), (C).
Amount of solid phase
9.20 (A)
40  32
 100  22.2%
68  32 Given :
Amount of liquid phase The eutectoid composition at
68  40 7250 C  0.8% carbon
 100  77.8%
68  32
  Ferrite phase  0.025% Carbon
Hence, the correct option is (B).
9.16 (A)

The crystal structure of  - iron (austenite phase) is

FCC.
Hence, the correct option is (A).

Production Engineering 7
 0.8  0.5
Fraction of pro – eutectoid (m ) 
0.8  0.25
m  0.387
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Production & Industrial Engineering (PE & IE)

9.1 (C)
Type of cell Packing fraction
Simple cubic 0.52
Hexagonal close- 0.74
packed
Body-centered cubic 0.68
Face- centered cubic 0.74
Hence, the correct option is (C).
9.2 (C)
(P  2) : Ferrite is a body centered cubic (BCC)
form of iron, in which very small amount (a
maximum of 0.02% at 7230 C ) of carbon is
dissolved. This is far less carbon that can be
dissolved in either austenite or martensite, because
the BCC structure has much less interstitial space
than the FCC structure.
(Q  4) : Austenite is a metallic, non-magnetic
solid solution of carbon and iron that exists in steel
above the critical temperature of 7230 C . Its face
centered cubic (FCC) structure allows it to hold a
high proportion of carbon in solution.
(R  2) : Martensite is a supersaturated solid
solution of carbon trapped in a body centered
tetragonal (BCT) structure and is metastable.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

8 Production Engineering
Syllabus : Engineering Mathematics

Linear Algebra : Matrix algebra, systems of linear equations, eigenvalues and eigenvectors.
Calculus : Functions of single variable, limit, continuity and differentiability, mean value
theorems, indeterminate forms; evaluation of definite and improper integrals; double and triple
integrals; partial derivatives, total derivative, Taylor series (in one and two variables), maxima
and minima, Fourier series; gradient, divergence and curl, vector identities, directional
derivatives, line, surface and volume integrals, applications of Gauss, Stokes and Green’s
theorems. Differential Equations : First order equations (linear and nonlinear); higher order
linear differential equations with constant coefficients; Euler-Cauchy equation; initial and
boundary value problems; Laplace transforms; solutions of heat, wave and Laplace's equations.
Complex Variables : Analytic functions; Cauchy-Riemann equations; Cauchy’s integral theorem
and integral formula; Taylor and Laurent series. Probability and Statistics : Definitions of
probability, sampling theorems, conditional probability; mean, median, mode and standard
deviation; random variables, binomial, Poisson and normal distributions. Numerical Methods :
Numerical solutions of linear and non-linear algebraic equations; integration by trapezoidal and
Simpson’s rules; single and multi-step methods for differential equations.
Contents : Engineering Mathematics

S. No. Topics
1. Linear Algebra
2. Differential Equation
3. Integral & Differential Calculus
4. Vector Calculus
5. Maxima & Minima
6. Mean Value Theorem
7. Complex Variables
8. Limit and Series Expansion
9. Probability & Statistics
10. Numerical Methods
11. Transform Theory
1 Linear Algebra

2013 IIT Bombay 1.5 Consider a 3  3 real symmetric matrix S

such that two of its Eigen values are a  0 ,
1.1 The Eigen values of a symmetric matrix are b  0 with respective Eigen vectors
all [1 Mark]
 x1   y1 
(A) complex with non-zero positive x  ,  y 
imaginary part.  2  2 .
(B) complex with non-zero negative  x3   y3 
imaginary part. If a  b then x1 y1  x2 y2  x3 y3 equals
(C) real. [1 Mark]
(D) pure imaginary. (A) a (B) b
1.2 Choose the CORRECT set of functions, (C) ab (D) 0
which are linearly dependent. [1 Mark]
1.6 Which one of the following equations is a
2 2
(A) sin x, sin x and cos x identity for arbitrary 3  3 real matrices P, Q
(B) cos x, sin x and tan x and R? [1 Mark]
(A) P(Q  R)  PQ  RP
(C) cos 2 x, sin 2 x and cos 2 x
(D) cos 2 x, sin x and cos x (B) ( P  Q)2  P 2  2PQ  Q2
(C) det( P  Q)  det P  det Q
2014 IIT Kharagpur
(D) ( P  Q)2  P2  PQ  QP  Q2
1.3 Given that the determinant of the matrix
 1 3 0 2015 IIT Kanpur
 2 6 4  is  12 , the determinant of the
  1.7 If any two columns of a determinant
  1 0 2  4 7 8
 2 6 0 P  3 1 5 are interchanged, which one
matrix  4 12 8  is [1 Mark] 9 6 2
  2 0 4  of the following statements regarding the
value of the determinant is CORRECT?
(A)  96 (B)  24
[1 Mark]
(C) 24 (D) 96
(A) Absolute value remains unchanged but
1.4 One of the Eigen vector of the matrix sign will change.
  5 2 (B) Both absolute value and sign will
  9 6  is [1 Mark]
  change.
 1  2  (C) Absolute value will change but sign will
(A)   (B)   not change.
 1  9
(D) Both absolute value and sign will remain
 2  1 unchanged.
(C)   (D)  
 1  1 1.8 At least one Eigen value of a singular matrix
is [1 Mark]

Engineering Mathematics 1
 (A) Positive (B) Zero (C) AT   A (D) AT  A  A1
(C) Negative (D) Imaginary
1.14 The number of linearly independent Eigen
1.9 The lowest Eigen value of the 2  2 matrix
2 1 0
 4 2
1 3 is ________. [1 Mark] vectors of matrix A   0 2 0  is
 
 0 0 3
 4  3i i 
1.10 For a given matrix P  
4  3i 
, _______. [2 Marks]
 i
where i  1, the inverse of matrix P is 2017 IIT Roorkee
[2 Marks] 1.15 The product of Eigen values of the matrix P
1  4  3i i  is [1 Mark]
(A) 
24  i 4  3i 
2 0 1
1  i 4  3i  P   4 3 3

(B) 
25  4  3i i   0 2 1
1  4  3i i  (A)  6 (B) 2
(C) 
24  i 4  3i 
(C) 6 (D)  2
1  4  3i i 
1.16 Consider the matrix
(D) 
25  i 4  3i 
 1 1 
 2 0
2016 IISc Bangalore 2
 
P 0 1 0 .
1.11 The solution to the system of equations  1 1 
 2 5  x   2   0 
 4 3  y    30 is [1 Mark]  2 2 
     Which one of the following statements about
(A) 6, 2 (B) 6, 2 P is INCORRECT? [2 Marks]
(A) Determinant of P is equal to 1.
(C) 6,  2 (D) 6,  2
(B) P is orthogonal.
1.12 The condition for which the Eigen values of (C) Inverse of P is equal to its transpose.
the matrix [1 Mark] (D) All Eigen values of P are real numbers.
2 1  1.17 The determinant of a 2  2 matrix is 50. If
A  one Eigen value of the matrix is 10, the other
1 k  Eigen value is ______. [1 Mark]
are positive, is 50 70 
1.18 Consider the matrix A    whose
1 70 80 
(A) k  (B) k   2
2 Eigen vectors corresponding to Eigen values
1 1 and  2 are
(C) k  0 (D) k 
2
 70   2  80
1.13 A real square matrix A is called skew- x1    and x2   ,
 1  50   70 
symmetric if [1 Mark]
respectively. The value of x1T x2 is ________.
1
(A) A  A
T
(B) A  AT
[2 Marks]

2 Engineering Mathematics
 2018 IIT Guwahati (C) – 3 (D) – 4

  4 1 1 2020 IIT Delhi

1.19 The rank of the matrix  1 1 1 is 1.24 Multiplication of real valued square matrices
 7  3 1  of same dimension is [1 Mark]
[1 Mark] (A) Not always possible to compute ]
(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) Associative
(C) 3 (D) 4 (C) Commutative
1 2 3 (D) Always positive definite
1.20 If A  0 4 5 then det ( A1 ) is _____ 1.25 Let I be a 100 dimensional identity matrix
0 0 1  and E be the set of its distinct (no value
appears more than once in E) real
(correct to two decimal places).
eigenvalues. The number of elements in E is
[1 Mark] ______. [1 Mark]
2019 IIT Madras 1.26 A matrix P is decomposed into its symmetric
part S and skew symmetric part V.
1 1 0 
[2 Marks]
1.21 Consider the matrix P  0 1 1  . The
 4 4 2 
0 0 1   
If S  4 3 7 / 2 ,
number of distinct eigenvalues of P is  2 7/2
 2 
[1 Mark]
(A) 0 (B) 3 0 2 3 
 
(C) 1 (D) 2 V  2 0 7 / 2
 3 7 / 2 0 
1.22 In matrix equation [ A]{x}  [ R] 
then matrix P is
4 8 4 2
 2 9 / 2 1 
[ A]  8 16  4  , {x}   1 
 
 
(A)  1 81/ 4 11 
 4  4 15   4   2 45 / 2 73 / 4 
 
32 
 4 2 5 
and [ R]  16   
(B)  6 3 7 
64  1 0 2 
 
One of the Eigen values of matrix [ A] is
 4 6 1 
[1 Mark]  
(C)  2 3 0 
(A) 4 (B) 15  5 7 2 
 
(C) 16 (D) 8
  4 6 1 
1.23 The set of equations [2 Marks]  
(D)  2 3 0 
x  y  z 1  5 7 2
 
ax  ay  3z  5
2021 IIT Bombay
5 x  3 y  az  6
1.27 Consider a vector p in 2-dimensional space.
has infinite solution if a =
Let its direction (counter-clockwise angle
(A) 4 (B) 3
Engineering Mathematics 3
 with the positive x -axis) be  . Let p be an 2022 IIT Kharagpur
Eigen vector of a 2  2 matrix A with
 10 2k  5 
corresponding Eigen value  ,   0 . If we 1.31 If A    is a symmetric
denote the magnitude of a vector  by  3k  3 k  5 
matrix, the value of k is ___________.
, identify VALID statement regarding p ' , [1 Mark]
where p '  Ap [1 Mark] (A) 8 (B) 5
(A) Direction of p '  , p '  p 1  1561
(C) -0.4 (D)
(B) Direction of p '  , p '  p /  12
1.32 The system of linear equations in real (x, y)
(C) Direction of p '  , p '   p
 2 5 - 2 
(D) Direction of p '  , p '   p given by ( x y )    (0 0) involves a
 1 
1.28 Let the superscript T represent the transpose real parameter  and has infinitely many
operation. Consider the function non-trivial solutions for special value(s) of
1  . Which one or more among the following
f ( x)  xT Qx  r T x , where x and r are
2 options is/are non-trivial solution(s) of (x, y)
n1 vectors and Q is a symmetric n  n for such special value(s) of  ? [2 Marks]
matrix. The stationary point of f ( x) is (A) x  2, y  2
[1 Mark]
(B) x  1, y  4
r
(A) T (C) x  1, y  1
r r
(B) QT r (D) x  4, y  2
(C) Q 1r 1.33 A is a 3×5 real matrix of rank 2. For the set
of homogeneous equations Ax = 0, where 0
(D) r
is a zero vector and x is a vector of unknown
1.29 Value of 1  i  , where i  1 , is equal to
8
variables, which of the following is/are true?
[2 Marks] [2 Marks]
(A) 16 (A) The given set of equations will have a
unique solution.
(B) 4
(B) The given set of equations will be
(C) 4i
satisfied by a zero vector of appropriate
(D) 16i size.
1.30 Consider an n×n matrix A and a non-zero (C) The given set of equations will have
n×1 vector p. Their product Ap =  2 p, infinitely many solutions.
where α   and α  -1,0,1 . Based on the (D) The given set of equations will have
given information, the Eigen value of A2 is : many but a finite number of solutions.
[2 Marks] 1.34 If the sum and product of eigenvalues of a 2
 3 p
(B) 
2
(A) α ×2 real matrix   are 4 and −1
 p q
 (D) 
4
(C)
respectively, then |𝑝| is ______ (in integer).
[2 Marks]

4 Engineering Mathematics
 1.1 (C) W 0 that means functions are linearly
independent.
Refer Solutions 1.22 From option (C) :
All the Eigen values of a real symmetric matrix are
f1  cos 2 x, f 2  sin 2 x and f3  cos 2 x
real but not necessarily distinct.
Hence, the correct option is (C). cos 2 x sin 2 x cos 2 x
1.2 (C) W   2sin 2 x sin 2 x  sin 2 x
. Method 1 :  4 cos 2 x 2 cos 2 x  2 cos 2 x
For checking linear dependency of functions, the W  cos 2 x( sin 4 x  sin 4 x)
Wronskian matrix is formed as below :  sin 2 x(2sin 4 x  2sin 4 x)
f1 f2 f3  cos 2 x( 2sin 4 x  2sin 4 x)
W  f1' f 2 ' f 3 '
W  0 that means functions are linearly
f1'' f 2 '' f 3 '' dependent
If W  0  Dependent functions This shows that function cos 2 x, sin 2 x and cos 2 x
W  0  Independent functions are linearly dependent functions.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Checking from the options,
. Method 2 :
From option (A) :
A linear relationship is of the following form :
f1  sin x, f 2  sin 2 x and f3  cos 2 x
f1  Af 2  Bf3
sin x sin 2 x cos 2 x
Checking from the options,
W  cos x sin 2 x  sin 2 x From option (A) :
 sin x 2 cos 2 x 2 cos 2 x f1  sin x, f 2  sin 2 x and f3  cos 2 x
W  sin x( sin 4 x  sin 4 x) f 2  f12 and f3  1  f12  1  f 2
 sin 2 x(2 cos x cos 2 x  sin x sin 2 x) This is a non-linear relation.
 cos x(2 cos x cos 2 x  sin x sin 2 x)
2
From option (B) :
W  sin x sin 2 x  2cos x cos 2 x f1  cos x, f 2  sin x and f3  tan x
W  0 that means functions are linearly f2
independent. f3 
f1
From option (B) :
This is a non-linear relation.
f1  cos x, f 2  sin x and f3  tan x
From option (C) :
cos x sin x tan x f1  cos 2 x, f 2  sin 2 x and f3  cos 2 x
W   sin x cos x sec 2 x
f1  f3  f 2
 cos x  sin x 2sec 2 x tan x
This is a linear relation.
W  cos x(2sec x tan x  sin x sec 2 x) From option (D) :
 sin x(2sec x tan 2 x  sec x) f1  cos 2 x, f 2  sin x and f3  cos x
 tan x(sin 2 x  cos 2 x) f1  f32  f 22
W  3 tan x  2 tan 3 x This is a non-linear relation.
Hence, the correct option is (C).

Engineering Mathematics 5
 1.3 (A) AX  X
  5 2   x1   x1 
 1 3 0  9 6  x     x 
Given : A   2 6 4  and A   12    2  2
 1 0 2  Checking from the options,
 1
 2 6 0 From option (A) : X   
 1
B   4 12 8 
  2 0 4    5 2  1  7   1  1
  9 6   1  15  (3)  1  (4)  1
        
Matrix B can be formed by multiplying every row
(or column) of matrix A by 2 as follows :  2
From option (B) : X   
 2 1 2  3 2  0  9

B   2 2 2  6 2  4    5 2   2 28   2   2
 2  ( 1) 2  0 2  2 
  9 6   9   72  ( 3)  9   (4)  9 
        
By the properties of square matrices, the  2
From option (C) : X   
determinant of matrix B is given by,  1
B  23  A   5 2  2   12   2  2
B  8  (  12)   96   9 6   1    24  ( 3)  1  (4)  1
        
Hence, the correct option is (A). 1
From option (D) : X   
 Key Point 1
If a number ' k ' is multiplied to ' n ' rows (or   5 2 1   3 1
columns) of any square matrix M, then the   9 6  1    3   3 1
     
determinant of this new matrix is equal to k n
1
times of the determinant of matrix M . So, X    is an Eigen vector of matrix A
1.4 (D) 1
corresponding to Eigen value 1   3 .
  5 2
Given : A    Hence, the correct option is (D).
  9 6  22 . Method 2 :
The characteristic equation is given by,
 x1 
A  I  0 Eigen vector is given in the form of   .
 x2 
5   2
0 For 1  3
9 6
From equation (i),
( 5  )(6  )  18  0
 2 2   x1   0 
 2    12  0   9 9   x   0 
  2  
1  3,  2  4
2 x1  2 x2  0 …(i)
Therefore, Eigen values are – 3 and 4.
For any Eigen vector [ X ] of a matrix [A] 9 x1  9 x2  0 …(ii)
corresponding to Eigen value  , the following Let x1  k
equation satisfies, From equations (i) and (ii),
[ A  I ][ X ]  0 …(i) x2  k
. Method 1 :

6 Engineering Mathematics
Thus, the Eigen vector corresponding to   3 is ( P  Q)2  ( P  Q)  ( P  Q)
k  1
 k   k 1 . ( P  Q)2  P2  QP  PQ  Q2
  
( P  Q)2  P 2  2PQ  Q2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.4 (D) As PQ  QP

Given : A 3  3 real symmetric matrix S. From option (C) :

Two Eigen values and respective Eigen vector are PQ  P  Q
: det( P  Q)  det P  det Q
 x1  From option (D) :
1  a  0, X 1   x2 
( P  Q)2  ( P  Q)  ( P  Q)
 x3 
( P  Q)2  P2  QP  PQ  Q2
 y1 
 2  b  0, X 2   y2 
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1.7 (A)
 y3 
By the properties of real symmetric matrices, 4 7 8
[ X 1 ]T [ X 2 ]  0 Given : P  3 1 5
9 6 2
 y1 
 x1 x2 x3   y2   0 Taking the determinant,
 y3  P  4(2  30)  7(6  45)  8(18  9)
P  233
x1 y1  x2 y2  x3 y3  0
Now, interchanging columns C1 and C2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
7 4 8
 Key Point
P'  1 3 5
For a real symmetric matrix, Eigen vectors
6 9 2
corresponding to distinct Eigen values are
orthogonal. Taking the determinant,
Consider a matrix A with two Eigen values 1 P '  7(6  45)  4(2  30)  8(9  18)
P '   233
and  2 and corresponding Eigen vectors are [V1 ]
So, it is clear that by interchanging any two
and [V2 ] .
columns (or rows) of a determinant, absolute value
If 1   2 , then, [V1 ]T [V2 ]  0 . remains unchanged but sign will change.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.6 (D)
 Key Point
Given : P, Q and R are three 3  3 real matrices. If any two rows or columns are interchanged, then
Checking from the options, magnitude of determinant remains same but sign
From option (A) : changes.
P(Q  R)  PQ  PR  PQ  RP 1.8 (B)
As PR  RP A singular matrix is a square matrix whose
From option (B) : determinant is zero.
( P  Q)2  ( P  Q)  ( P  Q)

Engineering Mathematics 7
 By the property of square matrix, the determinant is 2 1 
equal to the product of its Eigen values. Given : A   
1 k 
Therefore, atleast one of the Eigen value should be
Let, 1 and  2 are the Eigen values of matrix A.
zero.
Hence, the correct option is (B). By the properties of square matrices,
1   2  A  2k  1 …(i)
1.9 2
and 1   2  (2  k )
 4 2
Given : A    For Eigen value of matrix to be positive the
1 3 product of Eigen value should also be a positive
The characteristic equation is given by, number.
A  I  0 From equation (i),
4 2 (2k  1)  0
0
1 3 1
k
(4  )(3  )  2  0 2
 2  7  10  0 Hence, the correct option is (A).
 1  2,  2  5 1.13 (C)
Hence, the lowest Eigen value is 2. A real square matrix A is called skew-symmetric if,
1.10 (A) AT   A
Hence, the correct option is (C).
 4  3i i 
Given : P  
 i 4  3i  1.14 2

The inverse of a matrix P is given by, 2 1 0

P 1 
Adj [ P]
…(i) Given : A   0 2 0 
P  0 0 3
P  16  9  1  24 In given matrix A all the elements below the main
 4  3i (i)  diagonal are zeros, so this is an upper triangular
Adj[ P]  
4  3i 
matrix.
 i
By the properties of triangular matrices, Eigen
From equation (i),
values of matrix A are,
1  4  3i i 
P 1   1  2  2 and 3  3
24  i 4  3i 
The number of independent Eigen vectors is
Hence, the correct option is (A).
dependent on the number of distinct Eigen values.
1.11 (D) Hence, the number of linearly independent Eigen
 2 5  x   2  vectors of matrix A is 2.
Given :      
 4 3  y   30 1.15 (B)
2x  5 y  2 …(i) 2 0 1
4 x  3 y  30 …(ii) Given : P   4 3 3

Solving equations (i) and (ii),  0 2 1
x  6, y  2
Let, 1 ,  2 and  3 are the Eigen values of matrix
Hence, the correct option is (D).
P.
1.12 (A)

8 Engineering Mathematics
By the properties of square matrices, From option (D) :
1  2   3  P …(i) All Eigen values of P are real numbers.
2 0 1 The characteristic equation is given by,
P  4 3 3 P  I  0
0 2 1 1 1
 0
P  2(3  6)  1(8)  2 2 2
From equation (i), 0 1  0 0
1 2 3  2 
1
0
1

Hence, the correct option is (B). 2 2
1.16 (D)  1  1
2

(1  )      0
 1 1   2  2 
 2 0 2
  (1  )[ 2  2  1]  0
Given : P   0 1 0 
 1 1 
1
  1  1,  2  (1  i)
0 2
 2 2 
1
Checking from the options, and 3  (1  i)
From option (A) : 2
Determinant of P is equal to 1. Here, the Eigen values  2 and  3 are complex
1 1 numbers.
0
2 2 So, option (D) is false.
P  0 1 0 1 Hence, the correct option is (D).
1 1
 0 1.17 5
2 2
Given : For a 2  2 matrix (say ‘A’),
So, option (A) is true.
From option (B) : A  50
P is orthogonal. Let, 1 and  2 are the Eigen values of matrix A.
The given matrix P is a rotation matrix as shown
below, Given one of the Eigen values of the matrix is 10.
 cos  0 sin   Take, 1  10 .
P   0 1 0  By the properties of square matrices,
  sin  0 cos   1  2  A
where,   450 . 10  2  50   2  5
By the properties of rotation matrices, every
Hence, the other Eigen value is 5.
rotation matrix is orthogonal.
So, option (B) is true. 1.18 0
From option (C) : 50 70 
Inverse of P is equal to its transpose. Given : A   
70 80 
P 1  PT Eigen vectors are,
This represent an orthogonal matrix.
So, option (C) is true.
Engineering Mathematics 9
  70    80 Thus, rows R2 and R1 are an independent rows.
x1    and x2   2 
 1  50   70  So, ( A)  2
By the properties of square matrices, Sum of Eigen Hence, the correct option is (B).
values = Sum of leading diagonal elements . Method 3 :
1  2  50  80  130 …(i) By elementary transformation,
The required product is given by, R2  R2  2R1
  80   4 1  1
x1T x2  70 (1  50)  2 
 70  A   7  3 1 
x1T x2  70( 2  80)  (1  50)70  7  3 1 
x1T x2  70(1   2 )  5600  3500 R3  R3  R2
x x2  70(1   2 )  9100
T
1   4 1  1
…(ii) A   7  3 1 
From equation (i),  0 0 0 
x1T x2  (70 130)  9100  0
There exist two non-zero rows.
Hence, the value of x1T x2 is 0. Then, ( A)  2
1.19 (B) Hence, the correct option is (B).
  4 1  1
Given : A    1  1  1
 7  3 1  1.20 0.25
. Method 1 :
 1 2 3
4 1 1
Given : A  0 4 5
A  1 1 1
0 0 1 
7 3 1
det( A)  1(4  0)  0(2  0)
A  4(1  3)  1(1  7)  1(3  7)  0(10  12)  4
A  16  6  10  0 1 1
Thus, det( A1 )    0.25
Therefore, the rank will be  3. det( A) 4
Take any sub-square matrix of order 2 Hence, the det ( A1 ) is 0.25.
4 1
A  4 1  5  Key Point
1 1 1
If A is determinant of A then is determinant
A 22  0 A
The rank will be equal to order of sub-square of A1.
matrix i.e. 2.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 1.21 (C)
. Method 2 : 1 1 0 
In the given matrix, there exist linear relationships Given : A  0 1 1 
as given below, 0 0 1 
R3  R2  2R1

10 Engineering Mathematics
Given matrix is an upper triangular matrix as the  1 1 1 : 1 
elements below the principle diagonal are zero. 
[ A : B]   a a 3 : 5 
The Eigen values of upper triangular or lower 
5  (a  1)  3  (1  a) a  (1  3) : 6  (1  5) 
triangular matrix are the elements of leading
diagonal. For, ( A)  ( A : B)  3 , R3 should be zero.
Hence, the Eigen values for the given matrix are, 5  (a  1)  0
1  1,  2  1, 3  1 .  3  (1  a)  0
As all the three Eigen values are same. So the a  (1  3)  0
number of distinct Eigen values for the given
All satisfies for a  4 .
matrix is 1.
Hence, for a  4 ,
Hence, the correct option is (C).
( A)  ( A : B)  2 and the set of equations will
1.22 (C)
have infinite solutions.
For Eigen value,  A  I   0 Hence, the correct option is (A).

(4  ) 8 4  1.24 (B)

 8 (16   )  4   0 Product of matrices is NOT always commutative

 4 4 (15   )  but is always associative.
i.e. AB  BA
(4  )  240  31   2  16  But A( BC )  ( AB)C
8 120  8  16  4   32  64  4   0 Hence, the correct option is (B).

(4  )( 2  31  224) 1.25 1

8(136  8 )  4(4  96)  0 Since, all the Eigen values of identity matrix is
always equal to 1.
4 2  124  896   3  31 2  224
Hence, the number of elements in E is 1.
1088  64  384  16  0
1.26 (B)
3  35 2  268  576  0
We know that,
On solving above equation,   1.73, 20.73, 16
P  PT
Hence, the correct option is (C). For matrix P, its symmetric part is, S 
2
1.23 (A)
For matrix P, its skew symmetric part is,
Given set of equations in matrix form,
P  PT
 1 1 1   x  1  V
2
 a  a 3   y   5
      4 2 5 
 5  3 a   z   6  
So, P  S V   6 3 7
Forming the augmented matrix [ A : B] ,  1 0 2 
 
1 1 1 : 1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
[ A : B]   a  a 3 : 5 
1.27 (D)
 5  3 a : 6 
For infinite solutions, ( A)  ( A : B)  Number
of variables.
R3  R3  ( R1  R2 ) ,

Engineering Mathematics 11
 1.31 (A)

 10 2 K  5
Given : Matrix A  is
3 K  3 K  5 
symmetric matrix.

p is an Eigen Vector of matrix  A  a11 a12 

A matrix  A  
a22 
is to be symmetric if
AX  X  a21
Ap  p  A   AT  or a12  a21
According to question, p '  Ap
That means, 2K  5  3K  3
Magnitude of p '  p '  p   p
5  3  3K  2K
Direction of p ' is same as p that is ‘θ’. K 8
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence, the correct option is (A).
1.28 (C) 1.32 (A), (B)

Given : T  Transpose Given :

1 The system of linear equations in real (x, y),
f ( x)  xT Qx  r T x
2  2 5  2 
x y    0 0 …(i)
r , x  n 1
 1 
Q  nn As we know that,
Consider, n  1 System of linear equation,
1 AX  0 …(ii)
f ( x)  Qx 2  rx
2
By equation (i) and (ii), we get
f '( x)  0
 2 5  2 
Matrix  A  
1 
1
Q  2x  r  0 
2
r It has infinity many non-trivial solutions for
x special values of  .
Q
x  rQ 1 That means det (A) will be zero.
Hence, the correct option is (C). 2 5  2
det ( A)  0
1.29 (A)  1
2 1  (5  2)    0
(1  i)8  (1  1  2i)4  (2i)4  16
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2  5  2 2  0

1.30 (D) 2 2  5  2  0
1
Given : AP   2 P   2,
2
On comparison with AX  X
For   2,
i.e. Eigen value of A is  2
 2 5  2   2 1
So, Eigen value of A2 is ( 2 )2   4  A   
 1   2 1
Hence, the correct option is (D).
12 Engineering Mathematics
System of linear equation will be, 1.34 2
 2 1
x y 12     0 012  3 p
Given : Matrix of order,  A  
 2 1 22 
 p q  22
2 x  2 y  0 and x  y  0 Sum of eigen values  4
x  y …(iii) Product of eigen values  1
As we know that,
1  2 5  2  (1/2)   2 4
For   ,  A     1/2 1  Sum of eigen values  Trace of matrix
2 1/2 1    and Product of eigen values  Determinant of
System of linear equation will be, matrix
 2 4 1   2  3  q  4
x y 12     0 0 q  43
1/2 1 
y q 1
2x   0 and 4 x  y  0
2 1   2  3q  p 2  1
y 3 1  p 2  1
2x  
2 3  p 2  1
4x   y …(iv) p2  4
For equation (iii) and (iv), only x  1, y  4 and p  2
x  2, y   2 are satisfied.
then, p   2
Hence, the correct option are (A), (B). Hence, the |𝑝| is 2.
1.33 (B), (C)
Given : A is a (3  5) real matrix, 
 A35  ( A)  min (3,5)  ( A)  3
Rank of matrix ( A)  2 , that means there must be
two linearly independent rows, also A 33  0 . It
shows  A33 will have non-trivial solution or
infinitely many solutions. ( AX  0, set of
homogenous equation).
Hence, the correct option are (B) and (C).

Engineering Mathematics 13
2 Differential Equations

2013 IIT Bombay d  x  3 8   x 


dt  y   4  5  y 
(B)
2.1 The partial differential equation
u u  2u d  x   4  5  x 
(C)    
dt
u 
x x 2
is a [1 Mark] dt  y   3 8   y 
(A) Linear equation of order 2 d  x  4 8   x 

dt  y   3  5  y 
(D)
(B) Non-linear equation of order 1
(C) Linear equation of order 1
2.5 Consider two solutions x(t )  x1 (t ) and
(D) Non-linear equation of order 2
x(t )  x2 (t ) of the differential equation
2.2 The solution to the differential equation
d 2u d 2 x(t )
k
du
 0 where k is a constant, subject  x(t )  0, t  0, such that x1 (0)  1,
dx 2
dx dt 2
dx1 (t ) dx (t )
to the boundary conditions u  0   0 and  0, x2 (0)  0, 2  1.
dt t 0 dt t 0
u ( L )  U , is [2 Marks]
x x1 (t ) x2 (t )
(A) u  U The Wronskian W (t )  dx1 (t ) dx2 (t ) at
L
 1  e kx  dt dt
(B) u  U  kL  t   / 2 is [2 Marks]
 1 e 
(A) 1 (B) –1
 1  e  kx  
(C) u  U   kL  (C) 0 (D)
1 e  2
 1  e kx  2.6 The general solution of the differential
(D) u  U  kL 
 1 e  equation
dy
 cos( x  y), with c as a
dx
2014 IIT Kharagpur constant, is [2 Marks]
d2y (A) y  sin( x  y )  x  c
2.3 If y  f ( x ) is the solution of  0 with
dx 2
 x y
the boundary conditions y  5 at x  0, and (B) tan    yc
 2 
dy
 2 at x  10, f (15)  ________.  x y
dx (C) cos    xc
[2 Marks]  2 
2.4 The matrix form of the linear system  x y
dx dy (D) tan    xc
 3x  5 y and  4 x  8 y is,  2 
dt dt
[1 Mark] 2.7 The solution of the initial value problem
dy
d  x   3  5  x   2 xy, y(0)  2 is [1 Mark]
(A)    
dt  y   4 8   y 
dx
(A) 1  e x (B) 2e x
2 2

Engineering Mathematics 1
 (C) 1  e x
2 2
(D) 2e x d2y
2.12 The differential equation  16 y  0 for
dx 2
2015 IIT Kanpur
y ( x ) with the two boundary conditions
2.8 Consider the following differential equation
dy dy
dy  1 and  1 has
  5 y ; initial condition : y  2 at t  0 dx x 0 dx x

dt 2

. The value of y at t  3 is [1 Mark]

[2 Marks] (A) no solution.
10 10
(A)  5e (B) 2e (B) exactly two solutions.
(C) exactly one solution.
(C) 2e 15 (D) 15e2
(D) infinitely many solutions.
d2y
2.9 Find the solution of  y which passes 2.13 Consider the differential equation
dx 2 3 y "( x)  27 y ( x)  0 with initial conditions
 3 y (0)  0 and y '(0)  2000 . The value of y
through the origin and the point  ln 2,  .
 4 at x  1 is _______.
[2 Marks] [2 Marks]
1
(A) y  e x  e x ) 2018 IIT Guwahati
2
2.14 If y is the solution of the differential equation
1 x x
(B) y  (e  e ) dy
2 y3  x3  0, y(0)  1, the value of y (1)
1 x x dx
(C) y  (e  e ) is [1 Mark]
2
(A) –2 (B) –1
1 x x
(D) y  e  e (C) 0 (D) 1
2 2.15 Given the ordinary differential equation
2016 IISc Bangalore d 2 y dy
  6 y  0 with y (0)  0 and
2.10 If y  f ( x ) satisfies the boundary value dx 2 dx
 dy
(0)  1 , the value of y (1) is ______
problem y " 9 y  0 , y (0)  0 , y    2
2 dx
 (correct to two decimal places).
, then y   is ______. [2 Marks]
4
[2 Marks] 2019 IIT Madras
2017 IIT Roorkee dy 3
2.16 For the equation  7 x2 y  0 , if y(0) 
2.11 Consider the following partial differential dx 7
equations for u ( x, y ) with the constant c  1 , then the value of y(1) is
: [1 Mark]
3 7
u u 3 7
c 0 (A) e 7 (B) e 3
y x 7 3
3
Solution of this equation is [1 Mark] 7 7 3 37
(C) e (D) e
(A) u ( x, y )  f ( x  cy ) 3 7
(B) u ( x, y )  f ( x  cy ) dy
2.17 The differential equation  4 y  5 is
(C) u ( x, y )  f (cx  y ) dx
(D) u ( x, y )  f (cx  y ) valid in the domain 0  x  1 with

2 Engineering Mathematics
 y (0)  2.25 . The solution of the differential (A) /2
equation is [1 Mark] (B) 0
(A) y  e4 x  5 (C) /6
(B) y  e 4 x  5 (D) /3
2.21 Consider the following differential equation
(C) y  e4 x  1.25
dy
(D) y  e 4 x  1.25 (1  y)  y.
dx
2.18 A differential equation is given as, The solution of the equation that satisfies the
d2y dy condition y (1)  1 is [1 Mark]
x2  2x  2 y  4 .
dx 2
dx (A) ye y  e x
The solution of the differential equation in (B) y 2e y  e x
terms of arbitrary constants C1 and C2 is
(C) 2 ye y  e x  e
[2 Marks]
(A) y  C1 x  C2 x  2
2 (D) (1  y)e y  2e x

C1 2022 IIT Kharagpur

(B) y   C2 x  2
x2 2.22 Solution of  2T  0 in a square domain
(C) y  C1 x  C2 x  4
2
(0  x  1and 0  y  1) with boundary
C1 conditions.
(D) y   C2 x  4
x2 T ( x, 0)  x; T (0, y )  y; T ( x,1)  1  x; T (1, y )  1  y
is [1 Mark]
2021 IIT Bombay
(A) T ( x, y )  x  xy  y (B)
2.19 The ordinary differential equation
T ( x, y )  x  y
dy
  y subject to an initial condition (C) T ( x, y )   x  y
dt
y (0)  1 is solved numerically using the (D) T ( x, y )  x  xy  y
following scheme: 2.23 For the exact differential equation,
y(tn1 )  y(tn ) du  xu 2
  y(tn )  ,
h dx 2  x 2u
which one of the following is the solution?
Where h is the time step, tn  nh , and n = 0,
[2 Marks]
1, 2, ……. This numerical scheme is stable
(A) u  2 x = constant
2 2
for all values of h in the interval______.
[2 Marks] (B) xu 2  u = constant
(A) For all h  0 1
(C) x 2u 2  2u = constant
(B) 0  h  1 2
1
(C) 0  h  2 /  (D) ux2  2 x = constant
2
(D) 0  h   / 2
2.20 If y(x) satisfies the differential equation
dy
 sin x   y cos x  1 ,
dx
subjected to the condition y ( /2)   /2 ,
then y (  /6) is [2 Marks]

Engineering Mathematics 3
 2.1 (D) U  C1  C2ekL

u u  2u U  C1 (1  e kL )
Given : u 
dt x x 2 C1 
U
Since, the coefficient of derivative of dependent 1  ekL
variable is the dependent variable itself, therefore U
C2   C1  
the given equation is non-linear. In the above 1  ekL
 2u Put the values of C1 and C2 in equation (i),
equation is the highest order derivative of
x 2 U U
u  ekx
order = 2. 1 e kL
1 e kL

So, this is a non-linear partial differential equation  1 e 

kx

of order 2. u U  kL 
 1 e 
Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
2.2 (B)
2.3 35
d 2u du
Given : k 0 d2y
dx 2
dx Given : 0
dx 2
Boundary conditions :
Initial conditions :
u (0)  0 and u ( L )  U
y (0)  5 and y '(10)  2
D 2
 kD  u  0
Integrating on both sides of given differential
This is in the form of a homogenous linear equation,
differential equation. d2y
 f ( D) u  0  dx2   0  C1
The auxiliary equation is given by, dy
 C1
f ( m)  0 dx
m 2  km  0 dy  C1dx
m1  0, m2  k Again integrating both sides,
The roots are real and unequal.  dy   C dx
1
The complementary function is given by,
y  C1 x  C2 …(i)
C.F.  C1em x  C2em x
1 2

Differentiating equation (i) with respect to x,

C.F.  C1  C2ekx y '  C1
Particular integral (P.I.) is 0, since it is a
Using boundary conditions :
homogenous equation.
(i) When x  0, y  5
The complete solution is,
u  C.F.  P.I. 5  0  C2  C2  5
u  C1  C2 e kx …(i) (ii) When x  10, y '  2
Using boundary conditions : C1  2
(i) When x  0, u  0 Put the values of C1 and C2 in equation (i),
0  C1  C2  C2   C1 y  2x  5
(ii) When x  L, u  U At x  15 ,

4 Engineering Mathematics
 y  f (15)  30  5  35 The complete solution is given by,
Hence, the value of y at x  15 is 35. x(t )  C.F.  P.I.
2.4 (A) x(t )  C1 cos t  C2 sin t …(i)
dx Differentiating equation (i) with respect to t,
Given :  3x  5 y x '  C1 sin t  C2 cos t
dt
dy Using boundary conditions :
and  4x  8 y
dt Case 1 :
These set of equations can be represented in matrix (i) When t  0 , x1  1
form as shown below, 1  C1 cos 0  C2 sin 0  C1  1
 dx  (ii) When t  0 , x1'  0
 dt   3  5  x 
  0   C1 sin 0  C2 cos 0  C2  0
 dy   4 8   y 
 dt  Put the value of C1 and C2 in equation (i),
d  x   3  5  x  x1 (t )  cos t …(ii)

dt  y   4 8   y  Differentiating equation (ii) with respect to t,
dx1 (t )
Hence, the correct option is (A).   sin t …(iii)
dt
2.5 (A)
Case 2 :
d 2 x(t ) (i) When t  0 , x2  0
Given :  x(t )  0, t  0,
dt 2 0  C1 cos 0  C2 sin 0  C1  0
Initial conditions,
(ii) When t  0 , x2'  1
dx (t )
x1 (0)  1, 1 0 1   C1 sin 0  C2 cos 0  C2  1
dt t 0
Therefore, the second solution is,
dx (t )
x2 (0)  0, 2 1 x2 (t )  sin t …(iv)
dt t 0
Differentiating equation (iv) with respect to ' t '
( D2  1) x(t )  0 dx2 (t )
This is in the form of a homogeneous linear  cos t …(v)
dt
differential equation. The determinant of required Wronskian matrix is,
[ f ( D)]x(t )  0 x1 (t ) x2 (t )
The auxiliary equation is given by, W (t )  dx1 (t ) dx2 (t )
f ( m)  0
dt dt
m2  1  0 cos t sin t
m1  i, m2   i W t  
 sin t cos t
The roots are a pair of complex number (a  ib) . π
At t  ,
The complementary function is given by, 2
C.F.  eat (C1 cos bt  C2 sin bt )  0 1
W 
C.F.  e0t (C1 cos t  C2 sin t )  2  1 0
C.F.  C1 cos t  C2 sin t 
W    0  (1)  1
Particular integral (P.I.) is 0, since it is a 2
homogeneous equation. Hence, the correct option is (A).

Engineering Mathematics 5
 2.6 (D) Integrating on both sides,
dy
Given :
dy
 cos( x  y) …(i)  y    2 x dx
dx
Put x  y  t log y   x 2  C …(i)
Differentiating both sides with respect to x, Using boundary condition :
dy dt When x  0, y  2
1 
dx dx
log 2  0  C
dy dt
 1 C  log 2
dx dx
From equation (i), Put the value of C in equation (i),
dt log y   x 2  log 2
 1  cos t
dx y
dt log   x2
 cos t  1 2
dx y
 e x
2
By separating variables,
2
dt
 dx y  2e  x
2

cos t  1
dt Hence, the correct option is (B).
 dx
2 t 2.8 (C)
2cos
2
dy
t
sec 2 dt Given :  5y
2  dx dt
2 dy
 5y  0
Integrating both sides, dt
t Initial condition : y (0)  2
sec 2 dt
( D  5) y  0
 22   dx  c
This is in the form of a homogeneous linear
1 t
 2 tan   x  c differential equation.
2 2
[ f ( D )] y  0
t
tan  x  c The auxiliary equation is given by,
2
f ( m)  0
Putting t  x  y,
m5  0
 x y
tan    xc m  5
 2 
The complementary function is given by,
Hence, the correct option is (D).
C.F.= Cemt
2.7 (B)
dy C.F.= Ce 5t
Given :  2 xy Particular integral (P.I.) is 0, since it is a
dx
Initial condition, y (0)  2 homogeneous equation.
The complete solution is given by,
By separating variables,
y (t )  C.F.  P.I.
dy
  2 x dx y(t )  Ce 5t …(i)
y
6 Engineering Mathematics
Using boundary condition : 3
 C1eln 2  C2e ln 2
When t  0, y  2 4
2  Ce0  C  2 3 C
 2C1  1
Put the value of C in equation (i), 4 2
y(t )  2e 5t 3 3
 C1  C1 
1
At t  3 , 4 2 2
y(3)  2e15 1
Therefore, C2  C1 
2
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Put the value of C1 and C2 in equation (i),
2.9 (C)
1
d2y y  (e x  e x )
Given : y 2
dx 2
e x  e x
( D2  1) y  0 y
2
This is in the form of a homogeneous linear
differential equation. Hence, the correct option is (C).
[ f ( D )] y  0 2.10 –1
The auxiliary equation is given by, Given : y " 9 y  0
f ( m)  0

Boundary conditions : y (0)  0, y    2
m 1  0
2
2
m1  1, m2  1 This is in the form of a homogeneous linear
differential equation.
The roots are real and distinct.
[ f ( D )] y  0
The complementary function is given by,
The auxiliary equation is given by,
C.F.  C1em1x  C2em2 x
f ( m)  0
C.F.  C1e x  C2e x m2  9  0
Particular integral (P.I.) is 0, since it is a m  9  3 i
homogeneous equation. The roots are a pair of complex number (a  ib) .
The complete solution is given by, The complementary function is given by,
y  C.F.  P.I. C.F.  eax (C1 cos bx  C2 sin bx)
y  C1e x  C2e  x …(i) C.F.  C1 cos3x  C2 sin 3x
Using boundary conditions : Particular integral (P.I.) is 0, since it is a
(i) The given point passes through origin (0, 0). homogeneous equation.
The complete solution is given by,
When x  0, y  0
y  C.F.  P.I.
0  C1  C2  C2   C1 y  C1 cos3x  C2 sin 3x …(i)
 3 Using boundary conditions :
(ii) Also, point passes through  ln 2,  .
 4 (i) When x  0, y  0
3 0  C1 cos 0  C2 sin 0
When x  ln 2, y 
4 C1  0

Engineering Mathematics 7
  u u
(ii) When x  , y  2 c 0
2 y x
3 3 Hence, option (B) is the solution of the given
2  C1 cos  C2 sin
2 2 differential equation.
C2   2 Hence, the correct option is (B).
Put the value of C1 and C2 in equation (i), 2.12 (A)

y   2 sin 3x d2y
Given :  16 y  0
 dx 2
At x  , Boundary conditions :
4
dy dy
 3  1 and  1
y     2 sin dx x 0 dx 
4 4 x
2

 ( D2  16) y  0
y    1
4 This is in the form of a homogeneous linear
 differential equation.
Hence, the value of y at is – 1.
4 [ f ( D )] y  0
2.11 (B) The auxiliary equation is given by,
f ( m)  0
u u
Given : c 0
y x m 2  16  0
Checking from the options, m   4i
From option (A) : u ( x, y )  f ( x  cy ) The roots are a pair of complex number (a  ib) .
Partially differentiating with respect to x, So, the complementary function is given by,
u
 f '( x  cy) C.F.  eax (C1 cos bx  C2 sin bx)
x
Partially differentiating with respect to y, C.F.  C1 cos 4 x  C2 sin 4 x
u Particular integral (P.I.) is 0, since it is a
 cf '( x  cy )
y homogeneous equation.
u u The complete solution is,
c
y x y  C.F.  P.I.
u u y  C1 cos 4 x  C2 sin 4 x …(i)
c  0
y x Differentiating equation (i) with respect to x,
Hence, option (A) is incorrect.
dy
From option (B) : u ( x, y )  f ( x  cy )   4C1 sin 4 x  4C2 cos 4 x …(ii)
dx
Partially differentiating with respect to x,
Using boundary conditions :
u
 f '( x  cy) dy
x (i) When x  0 , 1
Partially differentiating with respect to y, dx
u 1  4C2  C2 
1
  cf '( x  cy )
y 4
u u  dy
 c (ii) When x  ,  1
y x 2 dx

8 Engineering Mathematics
 1 2000
1  4C2  C2  y sin 3x
4 3
2000
This implies, that the constant values are
At x  1 , y  sin 3 sin 3  0.1411rad 
ambiguous and therefore this differential 3
equation has no solution. y  94.08
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the value of y at x  1 is 94.08.
2.13 94.08 2.14 (C)
Given : 3 y "( x)  27 y ( x)  0 dy
Given : y3  x3  0
Initial conditions : dx
y (0)  0, y '(0)  2000 Initial condition : y (0)  1
By variable separation,
(3D2  27) y  0 dy
This is in the form of a homogeneous linear y3   x3
dx
differential equation given by,
y dy   x3dx
3

[ f ( D )] y  0
Integrating both the sides,
The auxiliary equation is given by,
 y dy   x dx
3 3
f ( m)  0
3m 2  27  0 y 4  x4
 C
m   3i 4 4
The roots are complex conjugate number (a  ib). x4  y 4
C
The complementary function is given by, 4
C.F.  eax (C1 cos bx  C2 sin bx) x4  y 4  4C …(i)
C.F.  C1 cos3x  C2 sin 3x Using boundary condition :
When x  0 , y  1
Particular integral (P.I.) is 0, since it is a
0  1  4C
homogeneous equation.
1
The complete solution is, C
y  C.F.  P.I. 4
Put the value of C in equation (i),
y  C1 cos3x  C2 sin 3x …(i)
x4  y 4  1
Differentiating equation (i) with respect to x,
y 4  1  x4
y '   C1 sin 3x  3C2 cos3x
Using boundary conditions : y  4 1  x4
(i) When x  0 , y  0 At x  1 ,
0  C1  0 y  4 1  14  0
C1  0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
(ii) When x  0 , y '  2000
2000  0  3C2
2000 2.15 1.47
C2 
3
d 2 y dy
Put the values of C1 and C2 in equation (i), Given :   6y  0
dx 2 dx

Engineering Mathematics 9
 dy
Initial conditions, y (0)  0 and (0)  1
dx
( D2  D  6) y  0
2.16 (D)
This is in the form of homogenous linear
differential equation given by, dy
Given :  7 x2 y  0
f ( D) y  0 dx
The auxiliary equation is given by, dy
   7 x2 y
f ( m)  0 dx
m2  m  6  0 Using the method of separation of variables,
(m  3)(m  2)  0 1
 y dy   7 x dx  c
2

m  2,  3
The roots are real and distinct. x3
ln( y)   7  c
The complementary function is given by, 3
C.F.  C1em x  C2em x
1 2 Taking antilog both sides,
 x3  x3
C.F.  C1e2 x  C2e3 x   7  c   7
ye  3 
e 3
ec
Particular integral (P.I.) is zero, since it is a
Let, e c  K
homogenous equation. 7
 x3
The complete solution is, y  Ke 3
…(i)
y  C.F.  P.I. 3 3
Given y(0)  i.e., for x  0 , y  .
y  C1e 2 x  C2e 3 x …(i) 7 7
Differentiating equation (i) with respect to x, Substituting in equation (i),
7
dy 3  0
 2C1e2 x  3C2e3 x  Ke 3
dx 7
Using boundary conditions : 3
 K
(i) When x  0 , y  0 7
0  C1  C2 …(ii)  From equation (i),
dy 3  73 x3
(ii) When x  0 , 1 y e
dx 7
1  2C1  3C2 …(iii) So, the value of y (1) , i.e., value of y at x  1 is,
From equations (ii) and (iii), 3  7 1 3  7
y (1)   e 3   e 3
1 1 7 7
C1  , C2  
5 5 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Put the values of C1 and C2 in equation (i), 2.17 (D)
1 1 dy
y  e2 x  e3 x Given :  4 y  5 , valid for 0  x  1 .
5 5 dx
At x  1 , : Method 1 :
e2  e3 Given equation is first order linear differential
y (1)   1.47
5 equation,
Hence, the value of y (1) is 1.47. dy
 py  Q
dx

10 Engineering Mathematics
 p  4, Q  5 Sub in D.E., we get
  (  1)  2  2 y  4
Integrating factor, I .F.  e  e   e4 x
pdx 4 dx

Solution of the differential equation in given as, (  1) (  2) y  4

It is LDE with constant coefficients
y ( I .F .)   Q.( I .F .)dx  c
 y  yCF  yPI
e4 x
 ye4 x   5e(4 x ) dx  c  5  c yCF  (m  1) (m  2)  0
4
m  1, 2
5
 y   ce 4 x …(i)  yCF  C1 e z  C2 e2 z  C1 x  C2 x 2
4
Given y (0)  2.25 , i.e., at x  0, y  2.25  ( z) 4 e0 z 4
yPI    2
2.25  1.25  c 1 f () (  1) (  2) 2
c 1
Hence, y  C1 x  C2 x 2  2
 From equation (i),
Hence, the correct option is (A).
y  1.25  e 4 x
Hence, the correct option is (D). 2.19 (C)
: Method 2 : yn 1  yn  hf  xn , yn 
Non homogeneous differential equation.
yn 1  yn  h  yn 
Solution, y  C.F .  P.I .
To find C.F., ( D  4) y  0 yn 1  yn  1  h 
Auxiliary equation m  4  0
For stable system: 1  h  1
m  4
C.F .  ce 4 x 1  1  h   1

P.I . 
1
5 
5e0 x 5
  1.25 2   h   0
f ( D) D4 4
2
 y  ce 4 x  1.25 …(i) h0

Given at x  0, y  2.25
Hence, the correct option is (C).
2.25  ce0  1.25
2.20 (D)
 c 1
 y  1.25  e 4 x Given :
Hence, the correct option is (D). dy
(sin x)  y cos x  1
2.18 (A) dx
Given D.E. is Euler-Cauchy differential equation,
 
Let x  e z y  
2 2
z  ln x
d d Dividing the equation by sinx
Let  D and 
dx dz dy
 y cot x  cosec x
d d dx
Then x 
dx dz By integrating factor
d2 d2 d IF  e
cot xdx
and x 2 2  2   elog(sin x )
dx dz dz  sin x
i.e., xD  , x2 D2   (  1)

Engineering Mathematics 11
 Now, y  sin x   1 dx  c From option (A) :
y sin x  x  c T ( x, y )  x  xy  y
y  x.cosec x  c.cosec x …(i) T ( x, 0)  x
By putting value in equation (i) T (0, y )  y
  T ( x, 1)  x  x  1  1
y  
2 2 T (1, y )  1  y  y  1
  But given, T (1, y )  1  y
   1 c
2 2 So, option (A) is not correct.
c0 From option (B) :
 T ( x, y )  x  y
Now, y   is
6 T ( x, 0)  x
    T (0, y )  y
y      cosec   0
6 6  6 T ( x, 1)  x  1
  T (1, y )  1  y
y  =
6 3 Satisfies all the given data.
So, option (B) is correct.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
From option (C) :
2.21 (A) T ( x, y )   x  y
Given : (1  y)
dy
y T ( x, 0)   x
dx But given T ( x, 0)  x
y (1)  1
So, option (C) is not correct.
1  From option (D) :
  y  1 dy   dx  c T ( x, y )  x  xy  y
ln y  y  x  c T ( x, 0)  x
0 1  1 c [ y (1)  1] T (0, y )  y
T ( x, 1)  x  x  1
c0
ln y  y  x But given T ( x, 1)  1  x
So, option (D) is not correct.
ln y  ln e y  ln e x
Hence, the correct option is (B).
ln( ye y )  ln e x 2.23 (C)
ye  e
y x
Given : The exact differential equation,
Hence, the correct option is (A). du  xu 2

2.22 (B) dx 2  x 2u
Given : Laplace equation  2T  0 , (2  x 2u) du   xu 2 dx
(0  x  1, 0  y  1) (2  x 2u) du  xu 2 dx  0
T ( x, 0)  x, T (0, y )  y, T ( x,1)  1  x , We know that,
T (1, y )  1  y A ordinary differential equation
Solution of Laplace equation is given by, M du  N dx  0 is to be exact.
T ( x, y)  (C1 x  C2 ) (C3 y  C4 ) …(i)

12 Engineering Mathematics
 M N
If 
x u
That mean,
M  2  x 2u , N  xu 2
M N
 0  2 xu,  2 xu
x u
M
 2 xu
x
M N
Here,  [Exactness condition]
x u
The given differential equation is exact (already
given in question).
Solution for exact differential equation is given by,
 M du   N dx  Constant
[where, N is not containing x terms]
 (2  x u) du   0 dx  Constant
2

x 2u 2
2u   Constant
2
1 2 2
x u  2u  Constant
2
Hence, the correct option is (C).

Engineering Mathematics 13
3 Integral & Differential Calculus

2013 IIT Bombay 

(C) (D) 2
2
3.1 The value of the definite integral
e
3.5 The value of the following definite integral
1
x ln ( x) dx is [2 Marks] is ______ (round off to three decimal
places). [2 Marks]
4 3 2 2 3 4
e  e  e

(A) (B) x(ln x) dx
9 9 9 9 1
2 3 4 4 3 2
(C) e  (D) e  2020 IIT Delhi
9 9 9 9
1 x2
2014 IIT Kharagpur 3.6 Let I   
x 0 y 0
xy 2 dydx . Then, I may also be
3.2 The value of the integral
expressed as [2 Marks]
2 ( x  1) sin( x  1)
2

0 ( x 1)2  cos( x 1) dx is

1 1
[1 Mark]
(A)  
y 0 x  y
yx 2 dxdy
(A) 3 (B) 0
1 y
(C) – 1 (D) – 2
2 x
(B)   yx 2 dxdy
3.3 The value of the integral  
0 0
e x y dy dx is, y 0 x 0

1 y

 
[2 Marks] (C) xy 2 dxdy
1 1 2 y 0 x 0
(A) (e  1) (B) (e  1)2
2 2 1 1

1 1 1
2 (D)   xy 2 dxdy
(C) (e2  e) (D)  e   y 0 x  y
2 2 e
2021 IIT Bombay
2019 IIT Madras 
2 cos 
3.4 A parabola x  y 2 with 0  x  1 as shown 3.7 The value of 
0 0
r sin  dr d  is
in figure. The volume of the solid of rotation
[2 Marks]
obtained by rotating the shaded area of 360 0
around the x-axis is (A) 0 (B) 
[1 Mark] 1 4
(C) (D)
6 3
2022 IIT Kharagpur
3.8 The value of the integral
 6z 
  2 z 4 32  dz
 3z  7 z  3z  5 

(A)  (B) evaluated over a counter-clockwise circular
4 contour in the complex plane enclosing only

Engineering Mathematics 1
 the pole z = i, where i is the imaginary unit, (A) 2.5
is [2 Marks] (B) 3.5
(A) (1  i ) (B) (1  i )  (C) 1.2
(D) 0
(C) 2(1  i )  (D) (2  i ) 

 e x dx   .
2

3.9 Consider a cube of unit edge length and sides 3.11 Given

parallel to co-ordinate axes, with its centroid If a and b are positive integers, the value of
at the point (1, 2, 3). The surface integral 
 e  a x b  dx is ________.
2
[1 Mark]


F. d A of a vector field

A

F  3xiˆ  5 yjˆ  6 zkˆ over the entire surface A (A) a (B)

a
of the cube is ______. [1 Mark]

(A) 14 (B) 27 (C) b a (D) b
(C) 28 (D) 31 a
3.10 Consider the definite integral 2023 IIT Kanpur

  4x  2 x  6  dx.
2
2 3.12 Consider the second order linear ordinary
1
differential equation
Let I e be the exact value of the integral. If 2
d y dx
x 2 2  x  y  0, x  1 with initial
the same integral is estimated using dx dy
Simpson’s rule with 10 equal subintervals,
dy
the value is I s . The percentage error is condition y  x  1  6,  2 . The
dx x 1
defined as e = 100 × ( I e − I s )/ I e . The value value of y at x = 2 equals __________
of 𝑒 is [1 Mark] (Answer in integer).

e
3.1 (C) 2 3 4 3
I   x 2 ln ( x)  x 2 
Given : 3 9 1
2 3 4 3 
e e
I  x ln ( x) dx   ln ( x) x dx 4
1 1 I   e2  e2    0  
3 9   9
(I) (II)
2 3 4
Integrating by parts, I e 
e 9 9
 1
1
 1
1
 Hence, the correct option is (C).
 x2  1 x2 
I   ln ( x)    dx  3.2 (B)
 1 x 1 1 
1 
 2  2 1 2 ( x  1)2 sin( x  1)
Given : I   dx …(i)
2 3 2 1 
e 0 ( x  1)2  cos( x  1)
I   x 2 ln( x)   x 2 dx  . Method 1 :
3 3 1
e
Let, ( x  1)  t
 1
1
 x  (t  1)
 2 32 2 x 
2
I   x ln( x)   At x  0, t  1
3 3 1  1
 2 1 At x  2, t  1

2 Engineering Mathematics
 1  t sin t 
b
V   y 2 dx
2
I   2  dt a
1 t  cos t
 
Here, y 2  x, a  0, b  1 .
[ (t 2 sin t ) / (t 2  cos t ) is an odd function,
1
therefore integral is 0] 1  x2   
 V   x dx      [1  0] 
2
1 t sin t 0  2 0 2 2
I  2 dt  0
1 t  cos t Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the correct option is (B).
3.5 2.097
. Method 2 :
e
By the properties of definite integrals, e  x2  e1 x2
a a  x(ln x) dx  ln x      dx
 2 1 1 x 2
 f ( x) dx   f (a  x) dx
1
0 0 e
 e2 1  1  x2 
2 (2  x  1) sin(2  x  1) 2
 ln e e   ln e 1    
So, I  dx  2 2  2  2 1
0 (2  x  1)2  cos(2  x  1)
(1  x)2 sin(1  x)
e e2 1 2 e2 e2 1
I 
2

0 (1  x) 2  cos(1  x)
dx …(ii) 1
x(ln x) dx   [e  1]   
2 4 2 4 4
From equations (i) and (ii), e2 1
   2.097
I  I 4 4
I I 0  I 0 Hence, the value of the definite integral is 2.097.
Hence, the correct option is (B). 3.6 (D)
1 x2
Given : I   
x 0 y 0
xy 2 dydx

3.3 (B) Changing the order of integration,

2 x y y
Given : I    e x y dydx
0 0

  e dy  dx
(1, 1) 1 (1, 1)
2 x
I  e x y y  x2 x y
0 0

2 x x
I   e x e y  dx
x
(0, 0) 1 (0, 0) 1
0 0
2 New limits after changing the order of integration
I   e x (e x  1) dx are given by,
0
2 x y to x  1
I   (e2 x  e x ) dx
0
2
and, y  0 to y  1
e 2x
e 1 4
I   e x    e2   1
1 1

 2 0 2 2  I   xy 2 dxdy
y 0 x  y
1 1
I  (e4  2e2  1)  (e2  1)2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
2 2
3.7 (C)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
 /2 cos 
3.4 (C) I   r sin  dr d 
Given : x  y 2 , 0  x  1
0 0

Volume of revolution about x-axis is,

Engineering Mathematics 3
  /2
 cos   6 z 2  6 zi
I 0
  r dr  sin d 
 r 0 
Res ( z  i)  lim
z i 2 z 4  3z 3  7 z 2  3z  5
 /2 cos  0
 r2  By putting the limit, it becomes   form.
I   sin d  0
 0
 2 0
 /2
We can apply L’ hospital rule,
1
I   sin  cos 2 d  12 z  6 i
2 0 Res ( z  i)  lim
z i 8 z  9 z 2  14 z  3
3

Now, using Gamma function with m  1, n  2 . 12 i  6 i 6i

Res ( z  i )  
11 2 1 3 8  i  9  i  14 i  3  8 i  9  14 i  3
3 2
1
1 1
  2 2   2
2 1 2  2 4 5 6i i i 1 i
2 Res ( z  i )    
2 2 6  6i 1 i 1 i 1 i
3
1 i (1  i) i  i 2 i  1 1  i
1 2 1 Res ( z  i)  2 2   
 
4 3 3 6 1 i 11 2 2
2 2 From equation (i),
Hence, the correct option is (C). I  2i  Res ( z  i )
3.8 (A) 1 i
I  2i 
Given : 2
I  i (1  i )
 6z 
Integral I    2 z 4  3z 3  7 z 2  3z  5  dz I   (i  i 2 )
The given integral is evaluated over a counter- I   (i  1)
clockwise circular contour in the complex plane I  (1  i )
enclosing only the pole z  i, where i is the
Hence, the correct option is (A).
imaginary unit.
We know that, 3.9 (A)

I  2i  Res ( z  a) Given : Vector field, F  3x iˆ  5 y ˆj  6 z kˆ

I  2i  Res ( z  i ) …(i) Surface integral, I   F  dA  ?
A
Complex function, where, A is entire surface A of the cube.
6z By divergence theorem,
f ( z)  4
2 z  3z  7 z 2  3z  5
 F nˆ ds     F dv
3

Residue at pole z  i, S V

I     F dv …(i)
Res ( z  a)  lim f ( z ) ( z  a)
z a V

   
Div (F )    F   iˆ  ˆj  kˆ  
Res ( z  i)  lim
6z
( z  i)  x y z 
z i 2 z  3z  7 z 2  3z  5
4 3
(3x iˆ  5 y ˆj  6 z kˆ)
  F  3  5  6  14
By equation (i),

4 Engineering Mathematics
 I   14 dv


e
 a ( x  b )2
V
I dx

I  14  dv Let x b  t
dx  dt
V

I  14V
For x    t  
Volume of cube, V  a 3 (with a  1 unit edge
and xt 
length) 
I  14  a 3
e
 at 2
I dt
I  14 1 3 

I  14 Let at 2  p 2
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2 at dt  2 p dp
3.10 (D) p
dt 
dp
2 at
Given : Definite integral, I   (4 x 2  2 x  6) dx p
dt  dp
1 p
I I a
Percentage error, e  100  e s a
Ie 1
dt  dp
where, I e be the exact value of integral and I s be a
1 For t    p  
the value which is evaluated using Simpson’s
3 and t    p  
rule with 10 equal subintervals. 
1
e
 p2
The given f ( x)  4 x  2 x  6 is a quadratic
2 I dp
 a
equation, for which exact value ( I e ) is always 
1
I  e p dp
2

equal to approximated value ( I s ) .

a 
Therefore, Ie  I s From equation (i),
00 1
e  100  I  
Ie a
e  0% 
Hence, the correct option is (D). I
a
3.11 (B) Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : 3.12 9


 e dx  
x2
…(i)



e
 a ( x  b )2
We need to find the value of dx


where, a and b are positive integers.

x D
2 2
 nD  1 y  0  2
     1 y  0
x  et  2  ln x 2
 1 y  0
 (  1)    1 y  0
Engineering Mathematics 5
 AE is m2  1  0 m  1 CF  c1e2  C2e2
C1
Solution is, y   C2 x …(i)
x
y (1)  6
6  C1  C2 …(ii)
C1
y'   C2 …(iii)
x2
y '(1)  2
2  C1  C2 …(iv)
From equations (ii) and (iv),
C1  2 , C2  4
2
y  4x
x
2
When x  2, y   4(2)  1  8  9
2
y (2)  9
Hence, the correct answer is 9.



6 Engineering Mathematics
4 Vector Calculus

2013 IIT Bombay (D) 2 xz 2iˆ  4 xyzjˆ  6 y 2 z 2 kˆ

4.1 The following surface integral is to be 4.4 Divergence of the vector field
evaluated over a sphere for the given steady x 2 ziˆ  xyjˆ  yz 2 kˆ at (1, –1, 1).
velocity vector field [1 Mark]
F  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ (A) 0 (B) 3
defined with respect
to a Cartesian (C) 5 (D) 6
coordinate system having iˆ, ˆj and k̂ as unit 4.5 Which one of the following described the
relationship among the three vectors,
base vectors.
iˆ  ˆj  kˆ, 2 iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ, and 5 iˆ  6 ˆj  4kˆ ?
1
S 4 ( F  n) dA [1 Mark]
(A) The vectors are mutually perpendicular
Where S is the sphere, x2  y 2  z 2  1 and n (B) The vectors are linearly dependent
is the outward unit normal vector to the (C) The vectors are linearly independent
sphere. The value of the surface integral is (D) The vectors are unit vectors
[2 Marks]
2015 IIT Kanpur
(A)  (B) 2
3 4.6 Let  be an arbitrary smooth real valued
(C) (D) 4
4 scalar function and V be an arbitrary smooth
vector valued function in a three-
2014 IIT Kharagpur
dimensional space. Which one of the
4.2 The integral  ( y dx  x dy ) is evaluated following is an identity? [1 Mark]
c
(A) Curl (V )  (DivV )
1
along the circle x  y  2 2
traversed in (B) DivV  0
4
counter clockwise direction. The integral is (C) Div (Curl V )  0
equal to [2 Marks]
(D) Div (  V )   DivV

(A) 0 (B) 4.7 Consider a spatial curve in three-
4
dimensional space given in parametric form
 
(C) (D) 2
2 4 by x(t )  cos t , y (t )  sin t , z (t )  t ,

4.3 Curl of vector 
0  t  . The length of the curve
F  x 2 z 2iˆ  2 xy 2 zjˆ  2 y 2 z 3kˆ is 2
[1 Mark] is_______. [2 Marks]
(A) (4 yz 3  2 xy 2 )iˆ  2 x 2 zjˆ  2 y 2 zkˆ 4.8 Curl of vector
V ( x, y, z )  2 x 2iˆ  3z 2 ˆj  y 3kˆ
(B) (4 yz 3  2 xy 2 )iˆ  2 x 2 zjˆ  2 y 2 zkˆ
at x  y  z  1 is [1 Mark]
(C) 2 xz 2iˆ  4 xyzjˆ  6 y 2 z 2 kˆ
(A) 3iˆ (B) 3iˆ
Engineering Mathematics 1
 (C) 3iˆ  4 ˆj (D) 3iˆ  6kˆ Cartesian reference. In evaluating the line
integral, the curve has to be traversed in the
4.9 The surface integral
counter-clockwise direction.
1
 s  (9 xiˆ  3 yjˆ) n dS [2 Marks]

over the sphere given by x2  y 2  z 2  9 is 2017 IIT Roorkee

[2 Marks] 4.14 Consider the two-dimensional velocity field
4.10 The value of given by

 [(3x  8 y )dx  (4 y  6xy)dy],

2
c
V  (5  a1 x  b1 y )i  (4  a2 x  b2 y ) j ,
(where c is the region bounded by x  0, where a1 , b1 , a2 and b2 are constants. Which
y  0 and x  y  1 ) is________. one of the following conditions needs to be
[2 Marks] satisfied for the flow to be incompressible?
4.11 The velocity field of an incompressible flow [2 Marks]
is given by, [2 Marks]
(A) a1  b1  0 (B) a1  b2  0
V  (a1 x  a2 y  a3 z )iˆ  (b1 x  b2 y  b3 z ) ˆj
(C) a2  b2  0 (D) a2  b1  0
 (c1 x  c2 y  c3 z )kˆ
also a1  2 and c3   4 . The value of b2 is- 4.15 For the vector V  2 yziˆ  3xzjˆ  4 xykˆ , the
________. value of   (  V ) is _________.
2016 IISc Bangalore [2 Marks]
4.12 A scalar potential  has the following 4.16 A parametric curve defined by
gradient :  u   u 
x  cos   , y  sin   in the range
  yz iˆ  xz ˆj  xy kˆ  2   2 
0  u  1 is rotated about the x-axis by 360
Consider the integral C
 dr on the curve
degrees. Area of the surface generated is
r  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ. [2 Marks]
The curve C is parameterized as follows: 
(A) (B) 
 xt 2

 y  t and 1  t  3
2
(C) 2 (D) 4
 z  3t 2
 4.17 The divergence of the vector  yiˆ  xjˆ is
The value of the integral is ________. __________. [2 Marks]
[2 Marks]
4.13 The value of the line integral  F  r ' ds,
4.18 The surface integral  F  n dS
S
over the
C

4 surface S of the sphere x2  y 2  z 2  9 ,

where C is a circle of radius units is
 where F  ( x  y )iˆ  ( x  z ) ˆj  ( y  z )kˆ and
________. n is the unit outward surface normal, yields
________. [2 Marks]
Here, F ( x, y )  y iˆ  2 x ˆj and r ' is the unit
tangent vector on the curve C at an arc 2018 IIT Guwahati


length s from a reference point on the curve. 4.19 The value of integral r  n ds Over the
iˆ and ĵ are the basis vectors in the x-y
s

closed surface ‘S’ bounding the volume,

2 Engineering Mathematics
 where r  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ is the position vector (0, 0) to (1, 1) at point x  1 and y  1 is
and n is normal to the surface S, is [1 Mark]
[2 Marks] (A) 4 2 (B) 2
(A) V (B) 2V (C) 2 (D) 2 2
(C) 3V (D) 4V 4.24 The transformation matrix for mirroring a
4.20 The divergence of the vector field point in x-y plane about the line y  x is
x

u  e cos yiˆ  sin yjˆ is  [1 Mark] given by [1 Mark]
 0 1 0 1 
(A) 0 (A)   (B)  
 1 0  1 0 
(B) e x cos y  e x sin y
1 0   1 0 
x (C)   (D)  
(C) 2e cos y 0 1   0 1
(D) 2e x sin y 4.25 Given a vector u 
1
3
 
 y3iˆ  x3 ˆj  z 3kˆ and
4.21 For a position vector r  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ the n̂ is the unit normal vector to the surface of
normal of the vector can be defined as the hemisphere ( x 2  y 2  z 2  1, z  0) the
r  x2  y 2  z 2 .
  u   nˆ dS
Given a function value of integral is evaluated
  ln r , its gradient  is [2 Marks] on the curve surface of the hemisphere S is
r [2 Marks]
(A) r (B)
r 
(A) (B) 
2
r r
(C) (D)  
r r r
3 (C) (D)
2 3
2019 IIT Madras 2020 IIT Delhi

4.22 The position vector OP of point P(20, 10) is 4.26 For three vectors A  2 ˆj  3kˆ, B  2iˆ  kˆ
rotated anticlockwise in XY plane by an and C  3iˆ  ˆj , where iˆ, ˆj and k̂ are unit
angle of 300 such that the point P occurs vectors along the axes of the right handed
position Q as shown in the figure. The rectangular/Cartesian coordinate system, the
coordinates (x, y) of Q are [1 Mark] value of ( A.( B  C )  6) is _______.
[1 Mark]
4.27 A vector field is defined as,
x
f ( x, y , z )  2 iˆ
[ x  y  z 2 ]3/2
2

y z
 2 ˆj  kˆ
[x  y  z ]
2 2 3/2
[ x  y  z 2 ]3/2
2 2

(A) (22.32, 8.26) (B) (12.32, 18.66) where, iˆ, ˆj , kˆ are unit vectors along the axes
(C) (13.40, 22.32) (D) (18.66, 12.32) of a right-handed rectangular/Cartesian
coordinate system. The surface integral
4.23 The directional derivative of the function
f ( x, y)  x 2  y 2 along a line directed from  f . dS (where dS is an elemental surface
area vector) evaluated over the inner and
Engineering Mathematics 3
 outer surfaces of a spherical shell formed by (A) 4 (B) 3
two concentric spheres with origin as the (C) 4 / 3 (D) 0
center, and internal and external radii of 1
4.31 Consider two vectors:
and 2, respectively, is [2 Marks]
(A) 8  (B) 2  a  5i  7 j  2k
(C) 4  (D) 0 b  3i  j  6k
4.28 The directional derivative of Magnitude of the component of a
f ( x, y, z )  xyz at point ( 1,1, 3 ) in the
orthogonal to b in the plane containing the
direction of vector iˆ  2 ˆj  2kˆ is
vectors a and b is __________ (round off
[2 Marks] to 2 decimal places). [2 Marks]
7
(A) 3iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ (B) 2023 IIT Kanpur
3
(C)
7
(D) 7 4.32 A vector field B( x, y, z )  xiˆ  yiˆ  2 zkˆ is
3 defined over a conical region having height
2021 IIT Bombay ℎ = 2, base radius 𝑟 = 3 and axis along z, as
4.29 Let f(x)  x 2  2 x  2 be a continuous shown in the figure. The base of the cone
function defined on x [1, 3] . The point x at lies in the x-y plane and is centered at the
which the tangent of f ( x) becomes parallel origin.
to the straight line joining f (1) and f (3) is If 𝒏 denotes the unit outward normal to
[2 Marks] the curved surface 𝑆 of the cone, the
(A) 1 (B)0 value of the integral  B.ndS equals
S
(C) 3 (D) 2 _________ . (Answer in integer)
2022 IIT Kharagpur
Z
1
4.30 Given a function   ( x2  y 2  z 2 ) in S
2
three-dimensional Cartesian space, the value
of the surface integral h

 S
n̂ dS ,
y
where S is the surface of a sphere of unit O
r
radius and n̂ is the outward unit normal
vector on S, is [1 Mark]
x

From equation (i),

4.1 (A)
   
Given : F  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ …(i) divF   iˆ  ˆj  kˆ   ( xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ)
 x y z 
Sphere, x2  y 2  z 2  1 having centre at (0,0,0)
  
and the radius = 1.  ( x)  ( y )  ( z )  3
x y z
By using divergence theorem,
1 1
1 1
S 4 ( F  n) dA  4 v div F dv …(ii) S 4 ( F  n) dA  4 v 3 dv

4 Engineering Mathematics
 
3
 Volume of the iˆ ˆj kˆ
4   
sphere  F 
x y z
 dv  Volume of the sphere
   x2 z 2 2 xy z 2 y 2 z 3
2

4 4
Since, volume of sphere   r 3   (1)3   F  iˆ(4 yz 3  2 xy 2 )  ˆj (0  2 x 2 z )
3 3
1 3 4  kˆ(2 y 2 z  0)
 4 (F  n)dA  4  3       F  (4 yz 3  2 xy 2 )iˆ  2 x 2 zjˆ  2 y 2 zkˆ
Hence, the correct option is (A). Hence, the correct option is (A).
4.2 (C) 4.4 (C)
Given : I   ( y dx  x dy)
c
…(i) Given : F  x 2 ziˆ  xyjˆ  yz 2 kˆ

1 Divergence of vector F is given by,

Circle, x 2  y 2  having centre at (0, 0) and
4    
div F    F   iˆ  ˆj  kˆ   F
the radius 
1
.  x y z 
2
  
By Green’s theorem,   F  ( x 2 z )  ( xy )  ( yz 2 )
x y z
   
  dx   dy     x  y  dx dy
c R
  F  2 xz  x  2 yz

where,   y,    x At P 1, 1,1 ,

    F (1, 1, 1)  2  1  2  5
 1,  1,
x y
Hence, the correct option is (C).
I     1  1 dx dy   2  dx dy
R R 4.5 (B)
 dx dy  Area of the circle
   Given, three vectors are :
1 i  j  k , 2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ, 5iˆ  6 ˆj  4kˆ
I  2  area of circle with radius
2 By option
 1  
2
(A) For vectors to be mutually perpendicular,
I  2      conditions are
2 2
[Area of the circle  r 2 ] (i) a  b  0
Hence, the correct option is (C). and
(ii) b  c  0
(i) (i  j  k )  (2i  3 j  k )  2  3  1  6  0
So option a is not possible.
4.3 (A)
(B) For vectors to be linearly independent
Given : F  x 2 z 2iˆ  2 xy 2 zjˆ  2 y 2 z 3kˆ conditions are
Curl of F is given by, a b c
p q r  0 [Vector triple product]
w x y

Engineering Mathematics 5
 1 1 1   Vz Vy    Vz Vx 
Div(Curl V )       
2 3 1  1(12  6)  1(8  5)  1(12  15) x  y z  y  x z 
5 6 4   Vy Vx 
   
 6 33  0 z  x y 
Hence all vector are dependent
 2Vz  Vy  2Vz  2Vx
2

(C) We have seen above value of determinant is Div(Curl V )    

equal to zero so option C is not possible. x y x z y x y z

(D) A unit vector A is a vector whose magnitude  2Vy  2Vx

 
A  1 and unit vector in the direction of z x z y

vector A is Div(Curl V )  0
A Hence, the correct option is (C).
A
A  Key point
For any vector quantity divergence of curl is zero,
i  j  k  12  12  12  3 so
2i  3 j  k  4  9  1  14   (  A)  0

5i  6 j  4k  25  36  16  77 4.7 1.8620
Hence we can see above that magnitude of each Given : x(t )  cos t , y (t )  sin t ,
vector is not equal to 1. So option (D) is incorrect.
2 
Hence, the correct option is (B). z (t ) 
t and 0  t 
 2
4.6 (B) Length of the curve is given by,
Given :  /2
2 2
 dx   dy   dz 
2

L         dt
V is an arbitrary smooth vector in 3D space. 0
 dt   dt   dt 
Let V  V iˆ  V ˆj  V kˆ 2
x y z  /2 2
L   sin t    cos t     dt
2 2

 is an arbitrary smooth real value scalar 0


function.  /2
 4   4 
Divergence of vector V is given as, L 
0
1   2 dt  1   2 [t ]0/2
   
i j k
 4 
   L  1   2     1.8620
Curl V    2
x y z
Vx Vy Vz Hence, the length of the curve is 1.8620.

4.8 (A)
     
 V  i  Vz  Vy   j  Vz  Vx 
 y z   x z  Given : V ( x, y, z )  2 x 2iˆ  3z 2 ˆj  y 3kˆ
   Curl of vector is,
 k  Vy  Vx 
 x y 
Div(Curl V )    (  V )

6 Engineering Mathematics
 iˆ ˆj kˆ C is boundary of region bounded by x  0, y  0
   and x  y  1 .
 V 
x y z By Green’s theorem,
2x2 3z 2 y3 I  ( P dx  Q dy)
c
…(ii)
  
  V  iˆ  ( y 3 )  (3z 2 )   Q P 
 y z  I    x  y  dx dy
  
c
 ˆj  ( y 3 )  (2 x 2 )  …(iii)
 x z 
Comparing equations (i) and (ii),
  
 kˆ  (3 z 2 )  (2 x 2 )  P  3x  8 y 2
 x y 
Q  4 y  6 xy
  V  iˆ[3 y  6 z ]  ˆj[0]  kˆ[0  0]
2

At x  1, y  1 and z  1, Q
Therefore,  6y ,
x
  V  iˆ(3 12  6 1)  3iˆ
P
Hence, the correct option is (A).   16 y
y
4.9 216
From equation (iii),
1
Given : I    (9 xiˆ  3 yjˆ) n dS I   (6 y  (16 y))dxdy
s

1 1 x
Sphere, x2  y 2  z 2  9 having centre (0,0,0) and I   10 y dxdy
0 0
radius 3. 1 x
1 1
By using Gauss divergence theorem, y2
I  10  dx  5  (1  x) 2 dx
 s
F  n ds   (  F )dv
v
…(i) x 0
2 0 x 0

1 1
1
I   div (9 xiˆ  3 yjˆ) dv …(ii) I  5  (1  x) 2 dx  5  (1  2 x  x 2 )dx
V x 0 x 0

   2 x 2 x3 
1
div (9 xiˆ  3 yjˆ)  (9 x)  (3 y) I  5 x 
 1 5
   5 1  1   
x y  3 3
 2 3 0
div (9 xiˆ  3 yjˆ)  9  3  6
Hence, the value of integral is 1.666.
1
I   6   dv 4.11 2

4
 dv  Volume of the sphere  3 r Given :
3

V  (a1 x  a2 y  a3 z )iˆ  (b1 x  b2 y  b3 z ) ˆj

1 4
I   6   27 [ r  3 given]
 3  (c1 x  c2 y  c3 z )kˆ
I  216 The flow is incompressible.
Hence, the surface integral is 216.
 V  0
4.10 1.666
a1  b2  c3  0
Given : I   [(3x  8 y 2 )dx  (4 y  6 xy )dy ] …(i)
2  b2  ( 4)  0
c

b2  2

Engineering Mathematics 7
 Hence, the value of b2 is 2. Applying Green’s theorem for line integral,

4.12 726
 c
F  r ds   c
M dx  N dy
 N M 
Given : I    dr
C
…(i) c
F  r ds    
 x y 
 dx dy

  yz iˆ  xz j  xyk   2 x y 
r  xi  y j  zkˆ
c F  r ds    x  y  dx dy
The curve C is parameterized as follows :  c
F  r ds   (2  1) dx dy
 xt
  F  r ds   1 dx dy  Area of circle
C :  y  t 2 and 1  t  3
c

 z  3t 2
  c
F  r ds  R 2
2
 4 
d r  dxi  dy j  dzkˆ  c F  r ds       16
From equation (i),
Hence, the value of the line integral is 16.
I     dr
c 4.14 (B)
I   ( yziˆ  xzjˆ  xyk )(dxiˆ  dyjˆ  dzk ) Given : V  (5  a1 x  b1 y )iˆ  (4  a2 x  b2 y ) ˆj
c

I   ( yz dx  xz dy  xy dz ) where a1 , b1 , a2 and b2 are constants.

c
For the flow to be incompressible (solenoidal)
Here, x  t , y  t 2 , z  3t 2
V  0
So, dx  dt , dy  2tdt , dz  6t dt
  ˆ  ˆ  ˆ
Parameterized form of above integral,  i j  k   (5  a1 x  b1 y )iˆ
3
 x y z 
I   (3t 4 dt  3t 3 2tdt  t 3 6t dt )  (4  a2 x  b2 y) ˆj   0
1

 
(5  a1 x  b1 y)  (4  a2 x  b2 y)  0
3
I   (3t 4  6t 4  6t 4 ) dt
1 x y
3
I   15t 4 dt a1  b2  0
1
Hence, the correct option is (B).
3
t5  4.15 0
I  15     3  242  726
 5 1 Given : V  2 yziˆ  3xzjˆ  4 xykˆ
Hence, the value of the integral is 726.
Curl of V is given by,
4.13 16
iˆ ˆj kˆ
Given : I   F  r ' ds …(i)
 V 
  
x y z
C

4
where C is a circle of radius . 2 yz 3xz 4 xy

F ( x, y )  [ y iˆ  2 x ˆj ]
…(ii)
Comparing equation (ii) with below equation,
F ( x, y )  [ M iˆ  N ˆj ]
Here, M  y , N  2x

8 Engineering Mathematics
    
2
 2  u  2  u  
  V  iˆ  (4 xy )  (3 xz )  ds   
 y z  sin  2   cos  2   du
2     
   
 ˆj  (4 xy )  (2 yz )  ds    du
 x z  2
  
 kˆ  (3 xz )  (2 yz )  Therefore surface area,
 x y  1  u  
S   2  sin    du
  V  iˆ(4 x  3x)  ˆj (4 y  2 y ) 0
 2  2
 kˆ(3z  2 z )
1
  u  
  cos  2  
  V  ( xiˆ  2 yjˆ  zkˆ)  
S  2 
  
  ˆ  ˆ
  ( V )   iˆ  j k  2 
 x y z  0

 ( xiˆ  2 yjˆ  zkˆ) 2

S  2  2

  (  V )  1  2  1  0
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Hence, the value of   (  V ) is 0.
: Method 2 :
Direct approach :
For u  0 , x  cos 0  1 ,
Divergence of curl of any vector is always zero.
y  sin 0  0
i.e., (  A)  0 .
For u  0.25 ,
4.16 (C)  
x  cos   0.25   0.923 ,
2 
 u 
Given : x  cos   …(i)  
 2  y  sin   0.25   0.3826
2 
 u 
y  sin   …(ii) For u  0.5 ,
 2 
 
Range 0  u  1 x  cos   0.5   0.707 ,
2 
: Method 1 :
 
Differentiating equations (i) and (ii) with respect y  sin   0.5   0.707
2 
to u,
For u  0.75 ,
dx  u   dy  u  
  sin    ,  cos     
du  2  2 du  2  2 x  cos   0.75   0.3826 ,
Surface area depending on axis of rotation, 2 
S   2 y ds;  
rotation about x-axis y  sin   0.75   0.923
2 
For u  1 ,
  2 x ds; rotation about y-axis
 
x  cos   1   0 ,
2 
2 2
 dx   dy   
where, ds       du y  sin   1  1
 du   du  2 
If x  f (u ), y  g (u ),   u  

Engineering Mathematics 9
 From equation (i),
I   F  n dS   2 dv
s v

I  2v
(where v is volume of the sphere)
4
I   F  n dS  2  (3)3
s
3
4 3
0 (Volume of sphere  r )
The curve is rotating about the X-axis by 360 , 3
therefore, it becomes hemisphere.
 F  n dS  226.19
So, area of the surface = Area of the hemisphere s

A
4r 2 41
  2
Hence, the surface integral  F  n dS
S
is 226.19.
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (C). 4.19 (C)

4.17 0 Given : I   s
r  n ds

Given : A   yiˆ  xjˆ r  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ

By Gauss Divergence theorem,
Divergence of vector A is given by,
  ˆ  ˆ
I  r  nˆ  ds   (  r )dV …(i)
  A   iˆ  j  k  ( yiˆ  xjˆ) S V

  x  y z    ˆ  ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
where,   r   iˆ  j  k   ( xi  yj  zk )
 (  y )  ( x)  x y z 
 A   0
x y  r  1  1  1  3
Hence, the divergence of the vector A is 0. From equation (i),
I   3 dV  3V
4.18 226.19 V

Given : F  ( x  y )iˆ  ( x  z ) ˆj  ( y  z )kˆ Hence, the correct option is (C).

Sphere, x2  y 2  z 2  9 having centre (0, 0, 0) in
the radius 3.
I   F  n dS
s
4.20 (C)
According to divergence theorem, Given : u  e x cos yiˆ  e x sin yjˆ
I   F  n dS   div F dv …(i) Divergence of vector u is given by,
s v
   ˆ  ˆ
Therefore, div F    F   u   iˆ  j k
 x y z 
    
 (e x cos yiˆ  e x sin yjˆ)
.F   iˆ  ˆj  k   ( x  y)iˆ
 x y z 
 x 
 u  (e cos y )  (e x sin y )
( x  z) ˆj  ( y  z)kˆ  x y
( x  y) ( x  z ) ( y  z )  u  e x cos y  e x cos y  2e x cos y
.F   
x y z Hence, the correct option is (C).
.F  1  0  1  2

10 Engineering Mathematics
 After checking, we see that only option (B) have
this ratio.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4.21 (C)
4.23 (D)
Given :   ln r
Let V  f ( x, y)  x 2  y 2 .
r  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ and r  x2  y 2  z 2
1
  ln r  ln( x 2  y 2  z 2 )1/2  ln( x 2  y 2  z 2 )
2
Gradient of a scalar function  is given by,
  ˆ  ˆ 1
   iˆ  j  k   ln ( x 2  y 2  z 2 ) Directional derivative of V along rp is given as,
 x y z  2
Directional derivative  V  aˆrp …(i)
1 1 1
   2  2 xiˆ  2  2 yjˆ V V
2 x  y  z
2 2
x  y2  z2 V  aˆ x  aˆ y  2 xaˆ x  2 yaˆ y
x y
1 
  2 zkˆ  rp  (1  0)aˆ x  (1  0)aˆ y  aˆ x  aˆ y
x y z
2 2 2

aˆ x  aˆ y
1 (2 xiˆ  2 yjˆ  2 zkˆ) xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ
1
r  aˆrp   (aˆ x  aˆ y )
    2  11 2
2 x y z
2 2 2
x y z 2 2
r r
Hence, the correct option is (C).  From equation (i),
4.22 (B) Directional derivative
1
Given : Point P (20, 10)  (2 xaˆ x  2 yaˆ y )  (aˆ x  aˆ y )
2
1
 (2 x  2 y )
2
Directional derivative at point x  1 and y  1 is
1 4
 (2 1  2 1)  2 2
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (D).
10 4.24 (B)
From triangle OPD, tan    0.5
20
To find the transformation matrix for mirroring a
  26.560
point along the line y  x, considering two points,
    300  300  26.560  56.560 first on x-axis point p with coordinates (1, 0) and
Now, from triangle OQC, other on y-axis point q with coordinates (0, 1).
y
tan  
x
y
 tan (56.56)  1.514
x
Now, we go through option and checking the value When we take the mirrors of these base factors
which is exactly equal to the above value. about the line y  x, then we get the coordinates

Engineering Mathematics 11
 of mirror of point P as (0, 1) and the coordinates I  ( x  y )kˆ  kˆ dx dy
2 2

of mirror of point q as (1, 0). Hence, the

transformation matrix is obtained as I   ( x  y ) dx dy
2 2

0 1  2 1
 r4 2 1

T     I    r  r drd      d 
2

1 0  0 0 0
 4 0
Column 1: Coordinates of mirror of p 2
1 1 1 
Column 2 : Coordinates of mirror of q I   1 d   []02    2 
40 4 4 2
when this matrix is multiples with any shape in Hence, the correct option is (A).
XY-plane then it will give the coordinates of mirror
of that shape about the line y  x . 4.26 6

Hence, the correct option is (B). ..Method 1..

4.25 (A) Given : A  2 ˆj  3kˆ , B   2iˆ  kˆ
and C  3iˆ  ˆj .
i j k
B  C  2 0 1
3 1 0
B  C  iˆ(0  1)  ˆj (0  3)  kˆ(2  0)
 iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ
Closed surface :  A.( B  C )  (2 ˆj  3kˆ)(iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ)
 66  0
( A.( B  C )  6)  0  6  6
Hence, the value of ( A.( B  C )  6) is 6.
..Method 2..
 Polar form :  Given : A  2 ˆj  3kˆ , B   2iˆ  kˆ
 x  r cos , y  r sin  
  and C  3iˆ  ˆj .
 ds  dxdy  rdrd  
To evaluate scalar triple product ( A.( B  C )  6)
I   curl (u ) nˆ ds   curl (u ) kˆ dxdy
0 2 3
…(i) ( A.( B  C )  6)  2 0 1  6
iˆ ˆj kˆ 3 1 0
   Since the above matrix is skew symmetric matrix
Again, curl(u )    u 
x y z hence, determinate = 0.
y3 x3 z3 Hence, the value of ( A.( B  C )  6) is 6.

3 3 3
4.27 (D)
3 3 
curl(u )  iˆ(0)  ˆj (0)  kˆ  x 2  y 2  Given :
3 3 
x
curl(u )  kˆ( x 2  y 2 ) f ( x, y , z )  iˆ
[ x  y  z 2 ]3/2
2 2

Putting in equation (i),

12 Engineering Mathematics
 y z
 ˆj  kˆ
[x  y  z ]
2 2 3/2 2
[ x  y  z 2 ]3/2
2 2

B
In spherical co-ordinate system, A
r  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ
1 3
r  ( x2  y 2  z 2 )1/ 2 5 1
2x  2 
r 2
 f (r , , z )  3 2x  2  2
r x2
r Hence, the correct option is (D).
 f   3
0
r 4.30 (A)

Hence, the correct option is (D). Given :

1
4.28 (C) A function ( x, y, z)  ( x 2  y 2  z 2 ) in three
2
Given : f ( x, y, z ) Let a  iˆ  2 ˆj  2kˆ dimensional cartesian space.
Gradient of a scalar function f is given by, Surface integral,
f f f I   nˆ  ds
f  iˆ  ˆj  kˆ
x y z S

f  yziˆ  zxjˆ  xykˆ where, S is the surface of sphere of unit radius and
n̂ is the outward unit normal vector on S.
At P(1,1,3) ,
   
(f )1,1, 3  3iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ   Grad    iˆ  ˆj  kˆ  
 x y z 
Directional derivative in the direction of vector a
is given by,
     1 
a    iˆ  ˆj  kˆ   ( x 2  y 2  z 2 ) 
D  D  (f )1, 1, 3  x y z   2 
a
(iˆ  2 ˆj  2kˆ) 1  
D  D  (3iˆ  3 j  kˆ)   [iˆ ( x 2  y 2  z 2 )  ˆj ( x 2  y 2  z 2 )
12  ( 2) 2  22 2 x y
3 6 2 7
DD  
 2
9 3 kˆ ( x  y2  z2 ) ]
Hence, the correct option is (C). z
  xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ
4.29 (D)
then, surface integral I   nˆ  ( xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ) ds
According to question, f ( x)  x 2  2 x  2 S
f (b)  f (a)
f '( x)  By divergence theorem,
ba
 Anˆ ds   (  A) dv
S V

Engineering Mathematics 13
     4.32 0
  A  Div ( A)   iˆ  ˆj  kˆ  ( xiˆ  yjˆ  zkˆ)
 x y z 
F  xi  yj  2 zE
  A  Div ( A)  1  1  1  3   
.F  ( x)  ( y)  (2 z )  11 2  0
I   3 dv x y x
V
By Gauss divergence theorems,
I  3  dv
V
 F .nds
s
ˆ   .Fdu  0

I  3V Hence, the correct answer is 0.

4
Volume of sphere, V  r 3 (with r  1 )
3 
4
I  3  13
3
3 4
I 
3
I  4
Hence, the correct option is (A).

4.31 8.32

Given : Two vectors,

a  5iˆ  7 ˆj  2kˆ
b  3iˆ  ˆj  6kˆ
Magnitude of a orthogonal to b in plane of a
and b  a sin

a b
cos 
a b

5  3  7 1  2  6 20
 
5  7  2  3  (1)  6
2 2 2 2 2 2
78  46

 70.4950
We know that,
a sin  78 sin(70.4950 )
 8.32
Hence, the correct answer is 8.32.

14 Engineering Mathematics
5 Maxima & Minima

2 y
2015 IIT Kanpur
5.1 At x = 0, the function f ( x)  x has
[1 Mark]
(A) a minimum. 4 2 0 2 4 x
(B) a maximum.
(C) a point of inflexion. (A) 2  x (B) 2  x
(D) neither a maximum nor minimum. (C) 2  x (D) 2  x
2016 IISc Bangalore 5.5 A linear transformation maps a point (x, y)
5.2 Consider the function f ( x)  2 x  3x in3 2
in the plane to the point  xˆ , yˆ  according
the domain [ 1, 2] . The global minimum of to the rule xˆ  3 y, yˆ  2 x ,
f ( x) is _______. [2 Marks]
Then, the disc x2  y 2  1 gets transformed
2022 IIT Kharagpur to a region with an area of equal to
5.3 A polynomial _________. (Rounded off to two decimals)
n 1 [Use π = 3.14]
( s)  an s  an 1s  ...  a1s  a0
n
of
degree 𝑛 > 3 with constant real coefficients
an , an1 ,...a0 has triple roots at s   .
Which one of the following conditions
must be satisfied? [1 Mark]
(A) ( s)  0 at all the three values of s
satisfying s 3  3  0
d ( s) d 2( s)
(B) ( s)  0 ,  0, and 0
ds ds 2
at s  
d 2( s) d 4( s)
(C) ( s)  0 ,  0 , and 0
ds 2 ds 4
at s  
d 3( s)
(D) ( s)  0 , and  0 at s  
ds 3
2023 IIT Kanpur
5.4 The figure shows the plot of a function
over the interval [4, -4] which one of the
options given correctly identify the
function?

Engineering Mathematics 1
 5.1 (A) 5.3 (B)

x ; x0 The given polynomial

Given : f ( x)  x   ( s)  an s n  an 1s n 1  ...  a1s  a0
 x ; x0
d ( s)
For stationary point, 0
ds
Since, ( s ) has triple roots at s   , ( s  )3 will
be one of it factors and ( )  0 .
There will be an inflection point on the curve of
d
At x = 0, it is clear by the above graph that it is ( S ) . Therefore, the first order (s) and
ds
minimum.
d2
Hence, the correct option is (A). second order derivative 2 ( s ) at s   will be
ds
5.2 –5 zero.
Given : f ( x)  2 x3  3x 2 ; x  [1, 2] d d2
 (s)  0, (s)  0 and ( s)  0 at
The value of function f ( x) at boundaries : ds ds 2
s  
f ( 1)  5
Hence, the correct option is (B).
f (2)  4
5.4 (B)
Differentiating f ( x) with respect to x,
At x  4 y  2  4  2
f '( x)  6 x2  6 x
The stationary points are given by, At x  2 y  2  2  0
f '( x)  0
At x  0 y  2  01  2
6x2  6 x  0
x 1 At x  2 y  2 2  0
Differentiating f '( x) with respect to x, At x  4 y  2 4  2
f "( x)  12 x  6
Hence, the correct option is (B).
At point x  1,
5.5 18.84
f "(1)  12  6  6  0 (local minimum)
Given :
Thus, the following values are observed :
xˆ  3 y and yˆ  2 x
x f (x)
xˆ yˆ
–1 –5  y  and x 
1 –1 3 2
2 4 The given region,
So, the minimum value of function f ( x) in x2  y 2  1
interval [ 1, 2] occurs at x  1 . 2 2
 yˆ   xˆ 
f min  f ( x) x  1   5
Or     1
 2 3
Hence, the global minimum of f ( x) is – 5.

2 Engineering Mathematics
  yˆ   xˆ 
2 2


1
4 9
This is equation of an ellipse with semi major axis,
a = 3 and semi-minor axis, b = 2, thus area of
transformed region is
A  ab  6 18.84 units.
Hence, the correct answer is 18.84.



Engineering Mathematics 3
6 Mean Value Theorem

2014 IIT Kharagpur (A) 4 and –1 (B) 4 and 1

(C) – 4 and 1 (D) – 4 and –1
6.1 If a function is continuous at a point,
[1 Mark] 2018 IIT Guwahati
(A) The limit of the function may not exist at 6.4 According to the Mean value theorem, for a
the point. continuous function f ( x) in the interval
(B) The function must be derivable at the [ a, b] , there exists a value  in this interval
point. b
(C) The limit of the function at the point such that 
a
f ( x) dx is [1 Mark]
tends to infinity. (A) f ()(b  a ) (B) f (b)(  a )
(D) The limit must exist at the point and the
(C) f ( a )(b  ) (D) 0
value of limit should be same as the
value of the function at that point. 2019 IIT Madras
6.2 The best approximation of the minimum
6.5 If x is the mean of data 3, x, 2, 4 then the
value attained by e x sin(100 x) for x  0
mode is _______. [1 Mark]
is_______. [1 Mark]
2016 IISc Bangalore
6.3 The values of x for which the function
x 2  3x  4
f ( x)  is NOT continuous are
x 2  3x  4
[1 Mark]

6.1 (D)
Let a function f ( x) is continuous at a point x  a
.
Then, for f ( x) to be continuous,
L.H.L. = R.H.L.
lim f ( x)  lim f ( x) We can clearly observe f ( x) will be minimum
x  a xa
3
So, it is clear that, the limit must exist at the point when sin(100 x)  1 or 100 x  because e  x
and the value of limit should be same as the value 2
of the function at that point. will also be maximum at this value giving
Hence, the correct option is (D). multiplication i.e. f ( x)  e x sin(100 x) is
minimum f ( x)  e3/200  (1)   0.954
6.2 – 0.954
Hence, the best approximation of the function is
Given : Function, f ( x)  e x sin(100 x), x  0
– 0.954.

Engineering Mathematics 1
 6.3 (C) 6.5 3

x 2  3x  4 Given : Mean of the data 3, x, 2, 4 is x.

Given : f ( x) 
x 2  3x  4 3 x  2 4
x
Equating the denominator of function f ( x) to 4
zero, 9  x  4x
x 2  3x  4  0 3x  9  x  3
x1  4, x2  1 Hence, the given data is  3,3, 2, 4  .
So, the function f ( x) is not continuous at x1  4 Arranging the data in proper form data
and x2  1 .  2,3,3, 4 .
Mode of the data is given as the number with
Hence, the correct option is (C).
highest occurrence. As ‘3’ has occurred maximum
 Key Point two times, so the mode of the given data is ‘3’.
For any polynomial which is in the form of a
fraction given as, 
N ( x)
f ( x) 
D( x)
The discontinuity points are given by,
D ( x)  0
These points are also called poles of the function.

6.4 (A)
Given : According to the Mean value theorem, for
a continuous function f ( x) in the interval [ a, b] ,
there exists a value  . For integral, Lagrange’s
mean value theorem is,
f (b)  f (a)
f '() 
ba
Integrating both sides,
b

f () 
 a
f ( x)dx
ba
b
 a
f ( x)dx  f ()(b  a)
Hence, the correct option is (A).

2 Engineering Mathematics
7 Complex Variables

2014 IIT Kharagpur 7.5 f ( z )  u ( x, y )  i v( x, y ) is an analytic

function of complex variable z  x  i y
1 i
7.1 The argument of the complex number , where i  1 . If u ( x, y )  2 xy , then
1 i
v ( x, y ) may be expressed as [1 Mark]
where i   1 is [1 Mark]
(A)  x 2  y 2  constant

(A)  (B) 
2 (B) x 2  y 2  constant
 (C) x 2  y 2  constant
(C) (D) 
2 (D)  ( x2  y 2 )  constant
7.2 An analytic function of a complex variable
z  x  iy is expressed as
7.6 The value of the integral

f ( z )  u ( x, y )  iv( x, y ) sin x
x 2
 2x  2
dx
where i   1 . If u( x, y)  x 2  y 2 , then 

evaluated using contour integration and the

expressed for v ( x, y ) in terms of x, y and a
residue theorem is [2 Marks]
general constant c would be [2 Marks]
  sin (1)   cos (1)
x  y2
2 (A) (B)
(A) xy  c (B) c e e
2 sin (1) cos (1)
( x  y)2 (C) (D)
(C) 2xy  c (D) c e e
2 7.7 A function f of the complex variable
3i

7.3 If z is a complex variable, the vector of 

dz z  x  i y, is given as
5
z f ( x, y )  u ( x, y )  i v ( x, y ), where
is [2 Marks] u ( x, y )  2kxy and v ( x, y)  x 2  y 2 . The
(A)  0.511 1.57i
value of k , for which the function is
(B)  0.511  1.57i analytic, is ______. [1 Mark]
(C) 0.511 1.57i 3z  5
(D) 0.511  1.57i 7.8 The value of  dz along a
 ( z  1) ( z  2)

2015 IIT Kanpur closed path  is equal to (4i), where

7.4 Given two complex numbers z  x  iy and i   1. The correct path 

2 is [2 Marks]
z1  5  (5 3) i and z2   2i,
3
(A)
z
the argument of 1 in degree is [1 Mark]
z2
(A) 0 (B) 30
(C) 60 (D) 90
2016 IISc Bangalore

Engineering Mathematics 1
 f ( z )  u ( x, y )  iv( x, y ) . Then u ( x, y ) and
(B)
v( x, y ) must satisfy [1 Mark]
u v u v
(A)  and 
x y y x
(C) u v u v
(B)  and 
x y y x
u v u v
(C)  and 
(D) x y y x
u v u v
(D)  and 
x y y x
7.13 A harmonic function is analytic if it satisfies
2017 IIT Roorkee Laplace equation, If
7.9 If f ( z )  ( x 2  ay 2 )  i bxy is a complex u( x, y)  2 x  2 y  4 xy is a harmonic
2 2

analytic function of z  x  iy , where function, then its conjugate harmonic

function v ( x, y ) is [2 Marks]
i  1 , then [2 Marks]
(A) 4 y 2  4 xy  constant
(A) a  1, b  1 (B) a  1, b  2
(B) 4 xy  2 x2  2 y 2  constant
(C) a  1, b  2 (D) a  2, b  2
(C) 4 xy  2 y 2  2 x 2  constant
2018 IIT Guwahati
(D) 2 x 2  2 y 2  xy  constant 
7.10 F ( z ) is a function of the complex variable
2020 IIT Delhi
z  x  iy given by
F ( z )  iz  k Re( z )  i Im( z ) 7.14 Which of the following function f ( z ) , of the
For what value of k will F ( z ) satisfy the complex variable z, is NOT analytic at all the
points of the complex plane ? [1 Mark]
Cauchy-Riemann equation? [1 Mark]
(A) f ( z )  e z (B) f ( z )  log z
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) – 1 (D) y (C) f ( z )  z 2 (D) f ( z )  sin z
7.11 Let z be a complex variable. For a counter- 7.15 An analytic function of a complex variable
clockwise integration around a unit circle C z  x  iy (i  1) is defined as
centered at origin. f ( z)  x 2  y 2  i ( x, y) where  ( x, y ) is a
1
5z  4
C
dz  Ai real function. The value of the imaginary
part of f ( z ) at z  (1  i ) is _______. (round
Then the value of A is [2 Marks] off to 2 decimal places) [2 Marks]
2 4 7.16 The function f ( z ) of complex variable
(A) (B)
5 2 z  x  iy , where i  1 , is given as
(C) 2 (D)
4 f ( z)  ( x3  3xy 2 )  iv( x, y) . For this
5 function to be analytic v ( x, y ) should be
2019 IIT Madras [2 Marks]
7.12 An analytic function f ( z ) of complex (A) (3xy  y )  constant
2 3

variable z  x  iy may be written as

2 Engineering Mathematics
 (B) ( x3  3x 2 y) + constant 2022 IIT Kharagpur
(C) (3x 2 y 2  y 3 ) + constant 7.18 Given 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖𝑦, 𝑖 = 1 . C is a circle of
(D) (3x 2 y  y 3 )  constant radius 2 with the centre at the origin. If the
contour C is traversed anticlockwise, then
2021 IIT Bombay
the value of the integral
7.17 Let C represent the unit circle centered at 1 1
origin in the complex plane, and complex 
2 ( z  i )( z  4i )
C
dz is _______ (round
variable, z  x  iy .The value of the
off to one decimal place). [2 Marks]
cosh(3z )
contour integral 
c
2z
dz (where 2023 IIT Kanpur
7.19 The value of k that makes the complex-
integration is taken counter clockwise) is valued function
[2 Marks]
f  2   e  cos 2 y  i sin 2 y 
 kx
analytic,
(A) 2i (B) i
(C) 0 (D) 2 where z  x  iy , is _________.

f ( z ) is an analytic function, so it must satisfy

7.1 (C)
Cauchy-Riemann equations which are given by,
1 i
Given : z  u v
1 i  …(ii)
x y
1 i 1 i
z  v u
1 i 1 i and  …(iii)
x y
1  1  2i 2i
z  From equations (i) and (ii),
11 2
v
z i …(i) 2x 
The argument of any complex number ( z  a  ib) y
is given by, v  2 x y
b Integrating both sides,
arg ( z )    tan 1  
a  v   2 xy
From equation (i), v  2 xy  f ( x) …(iv)
a  0, b  1
Put the values of u and v in equation (iii),
1 1
 
So, arg ( z )    tan  
0  2 xy  f ( x)   ( x 2  y 2 )
x y

 2 y  f '( x)  0  2 y
2
f '( x)  0
Hence, the correct option is (C).
Integrating both the sides,
f ( x)  c …(v)
From equations (iv) and (v),
7.2 (C) v( x, y )  2 xy  c
Given : f ( z )  u ( x, y )  iv( x, y ) Hence, the correct option is (C).
and u( x, y)  x 2  y 2 …(i)

Engineering Mathematics 3
 z 
arg  1   1  2
 z2 
7.3 (B) z 
arg  1   600  60  00
3i dz  z2 
Given : I   5 z Hence, the correct option is (A).
I  ln ( z ) 5
3i
7.5 (D)
I  ln 3i  ln 5 Given : f ( z )  u ( x, y )  iv( x, y )
I  ln 3  ln i  ln 5 and u ( x, y )  2 xy …(i)
3
I  ln    ln(i ) f ( z ) is an analytic function, so it must satisfy
5 Cauchy-Riemann equations which are given by,
 u v
I  ln(0.6)  i  …(ii)
2 x y
I  0.511  1.57i
v u
Hence, the correct option is (B). and  …(iii)
x y
 Key Point
From equations (i) and (ii),
ln(i )  ln e  
 i
 i ln(e)

2
2y 
v
2 y
   v  2 y y
ln(i)  i loge (e)  i (1)  i
2 2 2
Integrating both sides,
7.4 (A)
 v   2 yy
Given : z1  5  5 3 i   v  y 2  f ( x) …(iv)
2 Put the values of u and v in equation (iii),
z2   2i
3  2 
 y  f ( x)    (2 xy)
Argument of z1 is, x y
0  f '( x)   2 x
5 3
1 1
1  tan    tan ( 3) Integrating both the sides,
 5  f ( x)   x 2  constant …(v)
1  60 0
From equations (iv) and (v),
Argument of z 2 is, v  y 2  x2  constant
 2 1 1 v( x, y)  ( x 2  y 2 )  constant
2  tan    tan ( 3)
2/ 3  Hence, the correct option is (D).
2  600 7.6 (A)
By the properties of complex numbers, 
sin x
z 
Given : I   x  2x  2
2
dx
arg  1   arg ( z1 )  arg( z2 ) 

 z2  Assume, x  z (complex plane)

4 Engineering Mathematics
In the order of integration, limit should be taken in R( z1 )  ( z  1  i)  f ( z)z 1i
real plane ( , ) .
 Im[ei ( 1i ) ]   Im(e  i ) 
Also, eiz  cos z  i sin z R( z1 )    
Im[eiz ]  sin z  1  i  ( 1  i )   2i  e 
  Im(cos1  i sin1) 
sin z R( z1 )  
Then, I   z 2  2 z  2 dz  2i  e 
From equation (ii),
 Im(eiz ) 
I   2 dz  …(i)  Im(cos1  i sin1) 
 C z  2z  2   f ( z)dz  2i  
c
2i  e 
Im(eiz )
Take, f ( z )  2 1sin1   sin(1)
z  2z  2  f ( z)dz  2i 
c
2i  e

e
Poles of f ( z ) are given by,
z2  2z  2  0 Hence, the correct option is (A).
2 48 7.7 –1
z
2 Given : f ( x, y )  u ( x, y )  iv( x, y )
z1  1  i, z2  1  i where, u ( x, y )  2kxy
For contour integration, a closed path is needed and v( x, y)  x 2  y 2
which is traversed in anti-clockwise direction.
where, C is the contour consisting of the The function f ( x, y ) is analytic. So, it must
semicircle CR of radius R together with the part of satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equations which is given
by,
the real axis from R to R as shown in figure,
u v

x y
2ky  2 y
k  1
Hence, the value of k is – 1.
7.8 (B)

3z  5
Only the pole z1  1  i lies inside the closed Given : I   ( z  1)( z  2)  4i

…(i)
contour C.
3z  5
By residual theorem, Let f ( z )  ,
( z  1)( z  2)
 f ( z)dz  2i  [R( z )]
c
i …(ii)
Poles of f ( z ) are given by,
Sum of residues
( z  1)( z  2)  0
 sin z  Im(eiz )
I  dz   dz
 z 2  2 z  2  z 2  2 z  2 z1  1, z2  2
 Im(eiz )dz By residue theorem,
I 
 [ z  (1  i )][ z  (1  i )] 3z  5
Im(eiz )/[ z  (1  i)]
 ( z 1) ( z  2) dz  2i  R( zi )
I  dz Sum of residues
 [ z  (1  i)] …(ii)
Residue at z1  1  i is given by, From equations (i) and (ii),

Engineering Mathematics 5
 4i  2i   R ( zi )  2ay   by
2a   2  a  1
R( z1 )  R( z2 )  2 …(iii)
Hence, the correct option is (B).
Residue at z1  1 is given by,
7.10 (B)
 3z  5 
R( z1 )  [( z  1) f ( z )]z 1 R( z1 )   Given : z  x  iy
 z  2  z 1 F ( z )  iz  k Re( z )  i Im( z )
2 F ( z )  i ( x  iy )  kx  iy
 2 …(iv)
1 F ( z )  kx  y  i ( x  y ) …(i)
Residue at z2  2 is given by, Comparing equation (i) with F ( z )  u  iv ,
R( z2 )  [( z  2) f ( z )]z  2 where, u  kx  y
v  x y
 3z  5  1
R ( z2 )     1 …(v) Since, F ( z ) satisfies the Cauchy Riemann
 z 1  z 2 1 equations which are given by,
By observing equations (iii), (iv) and (v), it is clear u v
 …(ii)
that only the pole z  1 lies inside the closed path x y
. u  v
So, only option (B) satisfy the given condition. and  …(iii)
y x
From equation (ii),
 
(kx  y )  ( x  y)
x y
k  0  0 1
Hence, the correct option is (B). k 1
7.9 (B) Hence, the correct option is (B).
Given : f ( z )  ( x 2  ay 2 )  i bxy …(i)
where, u( x, y)  x 2  ay 2
and v( x, y )  bxy 7.11 (A)
The function f ( z ) is analytic. So, it must satisfy 1
Cauchy-Riemann equations which are given by, Given :  5z  4
C
dz  Ai …(i)
u v 1
 …(ii) where, f ( z ) 
x y 5z  4
u  v Pole of f ( z ) is given by,
and  …(iii) 5z  4  0
y x
4
From equation (ii), z
5
 2 
 x  ay 2   bxy  C is a unit circle centered at origin.
x y 4
Therefore, z  lies inside circle z  1 .
2 x  bx  b  2 5
1 1
5 
From equation (iii), dz  Ai
 2  4
 x  ay 2   bxy  z 
 5
y x
By Cauchy’s integral formula,
6 Engineering Mathematics
 f ( z) (C) v  4 xy  2 y 2  2 x 2  c
C z  a  2i  f (a) v u
1  4 x  4 y 
where, f ( z )  y x
5
(D) v  2 x 2  2 y 2  xy  c
1
  v u
5 4  4 y  x 
  4  dz  2i  f  5  y x
z 
 5 Hence, the correct option is (B).
1 1 2 7.14 (B)
 C 5 z  4 dz  2i   5   5 i …(ii)
Since, log z is not defined at z  0
Comparing equations (i) and (ii), So, f ( z )  log z is not analytic.
2
A Hence, the correct option is (B).
5
7.15 2
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Given :
Analysis function, f ( z )  x 2  y 2  i( x, y)
Real part of f ( z ) is, u  x 2  y 2
7.12 (B) The function f ( z ) is analytic. So it must satisfy
For any function to be analytic, it must satisfy Cauchy-Riemann equation.
Cauchy Riemann equation, which is given as, u v
u v u v By Cauchy-Riemann equation, 
 and  x y
x y y x
v
Hence, the correct option is (B). 2x 
y
7.13 (B) Integrating both sides, V  2 xy  f ( x)
Given : u( x, y)  2 x 2  2 y 2  4 xy , v u
By Cauchy-Riemann equation, 
We have to time v ( x, y ) x y
2 y  f '( x )  2 y
As the function is harmonic, so
u v f '( x )  0
 …(i) f ( x)  K
x y
[It must satisfy Cauchy Riemann equation] V  2 xy  K
u Put K  0 , V  2 xy
 4x  4 y
x z  x  iy we have to find f ( z ) at z  1  i
Checking from options,
( x  1 and y  1 )
(A) v  4 y 2  4 xy  c
f ( x, y ) x 1, y 1  2 xy
v u
 4 y  4x 
y x f ( x, y )  2
(B) v  4 xy  2 x 2  2 y 2  c Hence, the value of the imaginary part of f ( z ) at
v u z  1  i is 2.
 4x  4 y 
y x 7.16 (D)
[Satisfies Cauchy Riemann equation] Given : Complex function f ( z )  u  iv

Engineering Mathematics 7
 y
Where, u  x3  3xy 2 and v  ?
(0, 2)
f ( z ) is an analytic function, so it must satisfy CR
equation which are given by, i
u v u v
 and  (–2, 0)
x
x y y x (0, 0) (2, 0)

u
  3x 2  3 y 2
x (–2, 0) Inside the
 4i
v closed contour C
 3x 2  3 y 2
y Outside the
closed contour C
Integrating both sides Complex function,
v  3x y  y  f ( x)
2 3
…(i) 1
f ( z) 
v ( z  i ) ( z  4i )
and  6 xy  f '( x)
x Poles are z  i, z   4i
u We know that,
  6 xy  f '( x)
y I  2i  [Sum of all residues w.r.t all the poles
 ( 6 xy )  6 xy  f '( x) inside or on the closed contour]
Res ( z  a)  lim f ( z ) ( z  a)
f '( x)  0 z a

 f ( x )  Constant Res ( z   4i )  0
1 1
From equation (i), v  3x2 y  y3  Constant . Res ( z  i)  lim  ( z  i)  lim
z i ( z  i ) ( z  4i ) z i z  4i
Hence, the correct option is (D).
1 1
7.17 (B) Res ( z  i)  
i  4i 5i
cosh(3z ) 1 1
Given : I   c
2z
dz I   2i 
2 5i
1
I   0.2
5
Hence, the value of the integral is 0.2.
0
7.19 2
z=0
f ( z )  u  iv
1 cosh(3z ) 1 f ( z )  e kx cos 2 y  ie kx sin 2 y
2  ( z  0)
  2i  f (a)  i  cosh(0)
2
u  e kx cos 2 y, v  e kx sin 2 y
I  i
u v
Hence, the correct option is (B). Cauchy Riemann equation, 
x y
7.18 0.2
  kx 
(e cos 2 y)  ( e kx sin 2 y)
Given : Complex integration, x y
1 1 e kx ( k )cos 2 y   e kx cos 2 y  2
I 
2 ( z  i ) ( z  4i )
C
dz
k 2
where, C is a circle of radius 2 and centre at the Hence, the correct answer is 2.
origin. 

8 Engineering Mathematics
8 Limit & Series Expansion

2014 IIT Kharagpur 2017 IIT Kanpur

x  sin x x3  sin ( x)
8.1 lim is [1 Mark] 8.7 The value of lim is
x 0 1  cos x x 0 x
(A) 0 (B) 1 [1 Mark]
(C) 3 (D) Not defined (A) 0 (B) 3
 e2 x  1  (C) 1 (D) 1
8.2 lim   is equal to [1 Mark]
x 0 sin (4 x )
  2018 IIT Guwahati
(A) 0 (B) 0.5 8.8 The Fourier cosine series for an even
(C) 1 (D) 2 function f ( x) is given by

2015 IIT Kanpur f ( x)  a0   an cos (nx)
n 1
1  cos( x 2 )
8.3 The value of lim is The value of the coefficient a2 for the
x 0 2x4
function f ( x)  cos2 ( x) in [0, ] is
[1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
1
(A) 0 (B) (A)  0.5 (B) 0.0
2
(C) 0.5 (D) 1.0
1
(C) (D) Undefined
4 2020 IIT Delhi
  sin x   1  e  c (1 x ) 
8.4 The value of lim x 0   8.9 The value of lim   is _____.
 2sin x  x cos x  x 1 1  x e  c (1 x )
 
is______ [1 Mark]
[1 Mark]
2016 IISc Bangalore (A) c (B) c  1
log e (1  4 x) c 1 c
8.5 lim is equal to [1 Mark] (C) (D)
x 0 e3 x  1 c c 1

1 2021 IIT Bombay

(A) 0 (B)
12  1  cos x 
8.10 The value of lim   is
4 x 0  x2 
(C) (D) 1
3 [1 Mark]
8.6 lim( x  x 1  x) is
2
[2 Marks] 1 1
x 
(A) (B)
4 2
(A) 0 (B)  1
1 (C) (D) 1
(C) (D)  3
2 8.11 Consider a binomial random variable X. If
X1, X 2 ....., X n are independent and
identically distributed

Engineering Mathematics 1
 samples from the distribution of X with sum  x 2  ax  2 2 
Y  in1 X i , then the distribution of Y as 8.13 The limit  lim   has a
x
 x   2sin x 
n   can be approximated as [2 Marks] finite value for real a. The value of a and the
(A) Normal corresponding limit are [1 Mark]
(B) Bernoulli (A) a  3 and 
(C) Binomial
(B) a   2 and  2
(D) Exponential
8.12 The mean and variance, respectively, of a (C) a  and 
binomial distribution for n independent (D) a  2 and  3
trials with the probability of success as p, 8.14 F(t) is a periodic square wave function as
are [2 Marks] shown. It takes only two values, 4 and 0, and
(A) np , np 1- 2 p  stays at each of these values for 1 second
before changing. What is the constant term
(B) np, np
in the Fourier series expansion of F(t)?
(C) np, np(1- p)
[1 Mark]
(D) np , np 1- p  F(t)
4
2022 IIT Kharagpur
t (seconds)
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 4

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

8.1 (A) 8.2 (B)

x  sin x 0  e2 x  1  0
Given : f ( x)  lim  Given : A  lim 
x 0 1  cos x 0 x  0 sin (4 x )

  0
0 0
This is in form. So, by applying L-Hospital’s This is in form. So, by applying L-Hospital’s
0 0
rule, rule,
d
 x  sin x  1  cos x 0
d 2x
(e  1)
A  lim dx  lim  dx 2e 2 x
x 0 d x 0
A  lim  lim
1  cos x  sin x 0 x 0 d
sin (4 x)
x  0 4 cos 4 x

dx dx
0 2e2 x 1
Again it is in form. So, by applying L- A  lim   0.5
0 x 0 4 cos 4 x 2
Hospital’s rule, Hence, the correct option is (B).
d
(1  cos x) 8.3 (C)
dx sin x 0
A  lim  lim  0 1  cos( x 2 ) 0
x 0 d
sin x
x  0 cos x 1 Given : y  lim 
dx
x 0 2 x4 0
0
Hence, the correct option is (A). This is in form. So, by applying L-Hospital’s
0
rule,

2 Engineering Mathematics
 2 x sin( x 2 ) d 
 dx log e (1  4 x) 
f '( x)
y  lim  lim
x 0 g '( x) x0 8 x3 f ( x)  lim  

d 3x
e  1 
x 0
2sin( x 2 ) 1 sin( x 2 ) 0 
y  lim  lim   dx 
x 0 8x2 4 x 0 x 2 0
4
0
f ( x)  lim 1  43 xx 
This is in form. So, by applying L-Hospital’s 4
0 x 0 3e 3
rule,
Hence, the correct option is (C).
1 2 x cos ( x 2 ) 1
y  lim  8.6 (C)
4 x 0 2x 4
Hence, the correct option is (C). Given : I  lim
x 
 x 2  x 1  x 
8.4 – 0.33
 1 1 
Let the given function be, I  lim x  1   2 1
x  x x
 sin x  
 
f ( x)  lim 
x 0 2sin x  x cos x  1 1
  1  1
Putting the limit, we get I  lim x x2
x  1
  sin 0  0
f ( x)    x
 2sin 0  0 cos 0  0 1
0 Put y  ,
For form, applying L ‘Hospital’s rule, x
0 So, y  0 at x  
d
( sin x) 1  y  y 2 1 0
f ( x)  lim dx I  lim 
x 0 d y 0 y 0
[2sin x  x cos x]
dx 0
This is in form. So, by applying L-Hospital’s
 cos x 0
f ( x)  lim
x 0 2cos x  x(  sin x)  cos x rule,

f ( x) 
 cos 0
2 cos 0  0  ( sin 0)  cos 0
d

 dy 1  y  y  1
2
 
I  lim  
1 1 y 0
 d 
f ( x)     0.33 
( y)

2  0 1 3 dy
Hence, the value of the function is – 0.33. 1 (1  2 y)

8.5 (C) 2 1 y  y2
I  lim
log e (1  4 x) y 0 1
Given : f ( x)  lim
x 0 e3 x  1 (1  2 y ) 1
I  lim 
log e (1  0) 0 y 0
2 1 y  y 2 2
f ( x)  lim 
x 0 1 1 0 Hence, the correct option is (C).
0 8.7 (D)
This is in form. So, by applying L-Hospital’s
0
x3  sin( x) 0
rule, Given : f ( x)  lim 
x 0 x 0

Engineering Mathematics 3
 1  cos x 
Given : lim 
0
This is in form. So, by applying L-Hospital’s 
 x 
2
0
rule, By applying L-H rule
d 3 sin x  0 
 x  sin ( x)   lim  
Hence, f ( x)  lim dx
x 0 2 x
0
x 0 d cos x 1
( x)  lim 
dx x 0 2
2
3x 2  cos( x)
f ( x)  lim Hence, the correct option is (B).
x 0 1
f ( x)  3(0)2  cos(0)  0  1  1 8.11 (A)
Hence, the correct option is (D). Consider a binomial random variable X. If
8.8 (C) X1, X 2 ....., X n are independent and identically
distributed samples from the distribution of X with
Given : f ( x)  cos2 ( x) in [0, ] …(i)

sum Y  in1 X i , then the distribution of Y as
and f ( x)  a0   an cos(nx) n   can be approximated as normal.
n 1
Hence, the correct option is (A).
…(ii)
8.12 (C)
From equation (i),
1  cos 2 x Binomial distribution,
f ( x)  cos2 x  Mean = np
2
1 cos 2 x Variance = npq = np (1 – p)
f ( x)   …(iii)
2 2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
Comparing equations (ii) and (iii), 8.13 (A)
1 1
a0  , a1  0 and a2   x 2  ax  2 2 
2 2 Given : The limit  lim  
x
 x   2sin x 
Hence, the correct option is (C).
It has finite value for real a.
8.9 (D) 2
a 2 2

1  e c (1 x )   2sin
Given : y  lim
x 1 1  xe  c (1 x )
3 2 a

0 0  20
Since, the function is in the of form
0 3 2 a

At x 1 applying L-Hospital’s rule 0
(differentiating numerator and denominator w.r.t. It becomes  but according to question the limit
x), we get has finite value.
0  ce c (1 x ) That means, 3 2  a should be zero to become
y  lim
x 1 0  xce  c (1 x )  e  c (1 x ) 0
  form, so that we can apply L’ hospital rule.
c c 0
y  lim 
x 1  c  1 c 1 32  a  0
Hence, the correct option is (C). a   32
a   3
8.10 (B)
Now, putting the value a   3,

4 Engineering Mathematics
 x 2  ( 3) x  22
  lim
x  x    2sin x
x 2  3x  22  0 
  lim    form
x  x    2sin x
0
We can apply L’ hospital rule,
2 x  3 2 x  3
  lim 
x  1  2cos x 1  2cos x


1  2  (1)


1 2

Hence, the correct option is (A).
8.14 (B)
Given :
F (t ) is a periodic square wave function with time
period T  2 second.
Complete Fourier series is given by,
 
a
F (t )  0   an cos nt   b n sinnt
2 n 1 n 1

a0
Constant term in Fourier is given by
2
1 T
T 0
a0  F (t )dt

1 2
a0   4dt
2 0
1
a0   4  [t ]02
2
1
a0   4  [2  0]
2
a0  4
a0 4
Thus, constant term,  2
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (B).



Engineering Mathematics 5
9 Probability & Statistics

2013 IIT Bombay box. The probability of both the parts being
good is [1 Mark]
9.1 The probability that a student knows the
correct answer to a multiple choice question 7 42
(A) (B)
is 2/3. If the student does not know the 20 125
answer, then the student guesses the answer. 25 5
(C) (D)
The probability of the guessed answer being 29 9
correct is 1/4. Given that the student has
9.5 Consider an unbiased cubic dice with
answered the question correctly, the
opposite faces coloured identically and each
conditional probability that the student
face coloured red, blue or green such that
knows the correct answer is
each colour appears only two times on the
[2 Marks]
dice. If the dice is thrown thrice , the
2 3 probability of obtaining red colour on top
(A) (B)
3 4 face of the dice at least twice is ________.
5 8 [2 Marks]
(C) (D)
6 9 9.6 A group consists of equal number of men
9.2 Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and women. Of this group 20% of the men
and 100, a 2-digit number has to be and 50% of the women are unemployed. If a
selected at random. What is the person is selected at random from this group,
probability that the selected number is not the probability of the selected person being
divisible by 7? [2 Marks] employed is ____. [1 Mark]
13 12
(A) (B) 9.7 A machine produces 0, 1 or 2 defective
90 90 pieces in a day with associated probability of
78 77 1 2 1
(C) (D) , and , respectively. The mean value
90 90 6 3 6
2014 IIT Kharagpur and the variance of the number of defective
pieces produced by the machine in a day
9.3 In the following table, X is a discrete random
respectively, are
variable and P ( x ) is the probability density.
The standard deviation of X is [2 Marks]
[2 Marks] 1 1
(A) 1 and (B) and 1
x 1 2 3 3 3
P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1 4 1 4
(C) 1 and (D) and
(A) 0.18 (B) 0.36 3 3 3
(C) 0.54 (D) 0.6 9.8 A nationalized bank has found that the daily
balance available in its savings accounts
9.4 A box contains 25 parts of which 10 are
follows a normal distribution with a mean of
defective. Two parts are being drawn
Rs. 500 and a standard deviation of Rs. 50.
simultaneously in a random manner from the
The percentage of savings account holders,

Engineering Mathematics 1
 who maintain an average daily balance more probabilities of their meeting the strict
than Rs. 500 is _______. [1 Mark] design specifications are 0.8, 0.7 and 0.5.
9.9 The number of accidents occurring in a plant Each vendor supplies one component. The
in a month follows Poisson distribution with probability that out of total three components
mean as 5.2. The probability of occurrence supplied by the vendors at least one will
of less than 2 accidents in the plant during a meet the design specification is _______.
randomly selected month is [1 Mark]
[2 Marks] 9.14 The probability of obtaining at least two ‘six’
in throwing a fair dice 4 times is
(A) 0.029 (B) 0.034
[2 Marks]
(C) 0.039 (D) 0.044
425 19
9.10 Demand during lead time with associated (A) (B)
432 144
probabilities is shown below
13 125
Demand 50 70 75 80 85 (C) (D)
144 432
Probability 0.15 0.14 0.21 0.20 0.30 9.15 The chance of a student passing an exam is
Expected demand during lead time is 20%. The chance of a student passing the
_______. [1 Mark] exam and getting above 90% in it is 5%.
Given that a student passes the examination,
2015 IIT Kanpur the probability that the student gets above
9.11 Among the four normal distribution with 90% marks is
probability density functions as shown [2 Marks]
below, which one has the lowest variance? 1 1
[1 Mark] (A) (B)
18 4
2 5
(C) (D)
9 18
2016 IISc Bangalore
9.16 Consider a Poisson distribution for the
tossing of a biased coin. The mean for this
distribution is  . The standard deviation for
this distribution is given by
(A) I (B) II [1 Mark]

(C) III (D) IV (A)  (B)  2

1 1 1
9.12 If P( X )  P(Y )  and P( X  Y )  (C)  (D)
4 3 
1 Y  9.17 The probability that a screw manufactured
, the value of P   is [1 Mark] by a company is defective is 0.1. The
12 X
company sells screws in packets containing
1 4 5 screws and gives a guarantee of
(A) (B)
4 25 replacement if one or more screws in the
1 29 packet are found to be defective. The
(C) (D)
3 50 probability that a packet would have to be
9.13 Three vendors were asked to supply a very replaced is ________.
high precision component. The respective [2 Marks]

2 Engineering Mathematics
9.18 The area (in percentage) under standard (A) 33.3 (B) 3.33
normal distribution curve of random variable (C) 0.33 (D) 0.0033
Z within limits from  3 to  3 is 9.26 Let X1 , X 2 be two normal random variable
__________. [1 Mark] with means 1 ,  2 and standard deviation
9.19 Three cards were drawn from a pack of 52
cards. The probability that they are a king, a 1 , 2 respectively. Consider Y  X1  X 2 ;
queen, and a jack is [2 Marks] 1  2  1, 1  1,  2  2 then,
16 64 [2 Marks]
(A) (B)
5525 2197 (A) Y is normal distributed random with
3 8 mean 0 and variance 1.
(C) (D)
13 16575 (B) Y is normal distributed with mean 0 and
variance 5.
2017 IIT Roorkee
(C) Y has mean 0 and variance 5, but is NOT
9.20 A sample of 15 data is as follows: 17, 18, 17, normally distributed.
17, 13, 18, 5, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 20, 17, 3. The mode
(D) Y has mean 0 and variance 1, but is NOT
of the data is [1 Mark]
normally distributed.
(A) 4 (B) 13
9.27 Let X1 and X 2 be two independent
(C) 17 (D) 20
exponentially distributed random variables
9.21 The standard deviation of linear dimensions
with means 0.5 and 0.25 respectively. Then
P and Q are 3 m and 4 m respectively.
Y  min ( X1 , X 2 ) is [2 Marks]
When assembled, the standard deviation (in
m ) of the resulting linear dimension (A) Exponentially distributed with mean 1/6.
( P  Q ) is _______. [1 Mark] (B) Exponentially distributed with mean 2.
(C) Normally distributed with mean 3/4.
9.22 Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The
(D) Normally distributed with mean 1/6.
probability (upto two decimal points
accuracy) of getting at least one head is 2019 IIT Madras
_____. [1 Mark] 9.28 The probability that a part manufactured by
9.23 A six- face fair dice is rolled a large number a company will be deflective is 0.05. If 15
of times. The mean value of the outcomes is such parts are selected randomly and
_______. [1 Mark] inspected, then the probability that at least
2018 IIT Guwahati two parts will be defective is _______.
[2 Marks]
9.24 Four red balls, four green balls and four blue
9.29 The variable X takes a value between 0 and
balls are put in a box. Three balls are pulled
10 with uniform probability distribution. The
out of the box at random one after another
variable Y takes a value between 0 and 20
without replacement. The probability that all
with uniform probability distribution. The
the three balls are red is
probability of the sum of variable (X + Y)
[1 Mark]
being greater than 20 is [2 Marks]
1 1
(A) (B) (A) 0.25 (B) 0.5
72 55
(C) 0 (D) 0.33
1 1
(C) (D) 2020 IIT Delhi
36 27
9.25 A six-faced fair dice is rolled five times. 9.30 Consider two exponentially distributed
Then probability (in %) of obtaining ‘ONE’ random variables X and Y, both having a
at least four times is [1 Mark] mean of 0.50. Let Z  X  Y and r be the

Engineering Mathematics 3
 correlation coefficient between X and Y. If 2022 IIT Kharagpur
the variance of Z equals to 0, then the value
of r is _______ (round off to 2 decimal 9.33 Let a random variable X follow Poisson
places). [2 Marks] distribution such that
Prob( X  1)  Prob( X  2) . The value of
9.31 The sum of two normally distributed random
variables X and Y is [1 Mark] Prob(X  3) is __________ (round off to 2
(A) normally distributed, only if X and Y decimal places). [2 Marks]
have the same mean 2023 IIT Kanpur
(B) normally distributed, only if X and Y
have the same standard deviation 9.34 A machines produces a defective
components with a probability of 0.015.
(C) normally distributed, only if X and Y
The no of defective components in a
are independent
packed box containing 200 components
(D) always normally distributed
produced by the machine follows a poison
9.32 A fair coin is tossed 20 times. The distribution. The mean and the variance of
probability that ‘head’ will appear exactly 4 the distributions are
times in the first ten tosses, and ‘tail’ will (A) 3 and 3 respectively
appear exactly 4 times in the next ten tosses
is _______ (round off to 3 decimal places). (B) 3 and 3 respectively
[2 Marks] (C) 0.015 and 0.015 respectively
(D) 3 and 9 respectively

9.1 (D) 9.2 (D)

Let, event A = student knows the answer and event Total 2-digit numbers between 1 and 100 is 90 (10
C = student answered the question correctly. to 99).
The probability that the student knows the answer i.e. n( S )  90
and answered the question correctly is given by, The numbers between 1 to 100 which are not
2 divisible by 7 are 77.
P(A  C) 
3 i.e. n( E )  77
The student guess the answer if he does not know The required probability is,
the answer. n( E ) 77
Then, the probability of answering correctly by P( E )  
n( S ) 90
1 1 1
guessing    Hence, the correct option is (D).
3 4 12
9.3 (D)
The probability of correct answer is,
2 1 1 3 Given : A table showing random variable and
P( A)     probability distribution is as follows :
3 3 4 4
Hence the required probability is, x 1 2 3
2 P(x) 0.3 0.6 0.1
 C  P( A  C ) 3 8
P    
2
x 1 4 9
 A P ( A) 3 9
The mean of discrete random variable is given by,
4 E ( x)  xP ( x)
Hence, the correct option is (D).
E ( x)  (1 0.3)  (2  0.6)  (3  0.1)

4 Engineering Mathematics
 E ( x)  1.8 2 2 3
1 1 1 1 1
Mean square value of discrete random variable, P  C2      3C2      3C3  
3

 3  3  3  3  3
M.S.V.  x 2 P( x) 1 1 1
P    0.259
M.S.V.  (12  0.3)  (22  0.6)  (32  0.1) 9 9 27
M.S.V.  3.6 Hence, the probability of obtaining red colour on
Variance is given by, top face of the dice at least twice is 0.259.
Var(x)  x 2 P( x)  xP( x)
2
. Method 2 :
Var(x)  3.6  1.82  0.36 The dice is thrown thrice n  3 .
2 1
Standard deviation is given by, Probability of obtaining red colour  
6 3
  Variance
Probability of not obtaining red colour
  0.36  0.6 1 2
Hence, the correct option is (D).  1 
3 3
9.4 (A) The probability of red colour at least twice is
Given : In a box containing 25 parts, the number P  P (r  2)  P (r  3)
2 3 0
of : 1  2 1  2
(i) Defective parts = 10 P  C2      3C3    
3

3  3  3  3
(ii) Good parts = 25 – 10 = 15
2 1 7
If two parts are being drawn simultaneously in a P    0.259
random manner. 9 27 27
The probability of both the parts being good is Hence, the probability of obtaining red colour on
top face of the dice at least twice is 0.259.
given by,
15 9.6 0.65
C 7
P  25 2  Given : In a group of people (with equal number
C2 20
of men and women),
Hence, the correct option is (A).
20% of the men and 50% of the women are
9.5 0.259 unemployed.
Given : An unbiased cubic dice with opposite 1
Let P( M )  Probability of selecting a man 
faces coloured identically. 2
. Method 1 : 1
P (W )  Probability of selecting a woman 
Assume R denotes Red, and similarly B denotes 2
Blue and G for Green. Probability of selecting an employed man is given
The dice is thrown thrice n  3 . by,
 E 80 4
Probability of obtaining red colour  
2 1 P    80%  
6 3 M  100 5
2 1 Similarly, the probability of selecting an
Probability of obtaining blue colour   employed woman is given by,
6 3
2 1 E 50 1
Probability of obtaining green colour   P    50%  
6 3 W  100 2
In 3 trials, the probability for at least 2 Red is given Therefore, the required probability is,
by,  E E
P  P( M ) P    P (W ) P  
P  P(2 R &1B)  P(2 R &1G )  P(3R) M  W 

Engineering Mathematics 5
 1 4 1 1 500  500
P      z 0
2 5 2 2 50
1  4 1  13 So, P( z  0)  50% (lies between 49 to 51)
P     0.65
2  5 2  20 Hence, the percentage of savings account holders
Hence, the probability of the selected person being is 50.
employed is 0.65. 9.9 (B)
9.7 (A) Given : Mean,   5.2
The random variable and probability distribution According to Poisson distribution, the probability
are as follows : is given by,
No. of defective e  r
pieces x
0 1 2 P( X  r ) 
r!
Probability P(x) 1/6 2/3 1/6 P( X  2)  P( X  0)  P( X  1)
x2 0 1 4
P( X  2)  e  e  e (  1)
By the concept of discrete random variables,
Mean of random variable, P( X  2)  e5.2 (5.2  1)
E ( x)   xP ( x) P ( X  2)  0.034
 1  2  1 Hence, the correct option is (B).
E ( x )   0     1    2    1
 6  3  6
Mean square value of random variable,
E  x 2   x 2 P( x) 9.10 74.55
1 2 1
E  x2   0   1  4  Given : In below table random variable and its
6 3 6 probability distribution are shown :
2 4 4 x 50 70 75 80 85
E  x2   0   
3 6 3 P ( x ) 0.15 0.14 0.21 0.20 0.30
Variance of random variable, By the concept of discrete random variable,
4
2  E ( x2 )   E ( x)   (1)2 Expected value is given by,
2

3 E ( x )  x P ( x )
Variance 
1 E ( x)  50  0.15  70  0.14  75  0.21
3  80  0.20  85  0.30
Hence, the correct option is (A).
E ( x)  7.5  9.8  15.75  16  25.5
9.8 50 E ( x)  74.55
Given : Mean   500, Hence, the expected demand during lead time is
Standard deviation   50 74.55.
9.11 (D)
Given : Four normal distribution curves are shown
below,

x 
z


6 Engineering Mathematics
 For vendor C  ( PC )  0.5
Now, probability that out of 3 component atleast
one will meet design specification
 1  (Probability that none of the component meet
design specification)
 1  [ PA  PB  PC ]
 1  [(1  0.8)(1  0.7)(1  0.5)]
The trace of a normal distribution curve is given  0.97
by the following equation, Hence, the required probability is 0.97.
9.14 (B)
2
 x  
 
 
1 
f ( x)  e 2
…(i) Let p be the probability that six occurs on a fair
 2
dice.
where,   Standard deviation,   Mean. 1 1 5
Let the variance be V . So, p  and q  1  p  1  
6 5 6
Then,  V According to binomial distribution, the probability
From equation (i), of r trials is given by,
P(r )  Cr  p r  q nr
n
1 1
f ( x)  
 V Probability of obtaining at least two ‘six’ in
Curve (IV) has maximum peak hence minimum throwing a fair dice 4 times is
variance. P  p (r  2)  p (r  3)  p (r  4)
Hence, the correct option is (D). Hence we know n  4 ,
1 
2 2 3 4
9.12 (C) 1 5 1
P  4C2      4C3      4C4  
1 1 6 6 6 6 6
Given : P( X )  , P(Y )  150 20 1 171 9
4 3 P    
1 1296 1296 1296 1296 144
and P( X  Y )  Hence, the correct option is (B).
12
By the concept of conditional probability, (Bayes' 9.15 (B)
Theorem) Given : P (A : Student passing the exam)
 Y  P (Y  X ) P ( A)  0.02
P  
X P( X ) B : Student getting above 90% marks.
 Y  1/12 1 P (Student passing the exam and getting above
P   
 X  1/ 4 3 90% marks)  P( A  B)  0.05
Hence, the correct option is (C). P (Student gets above 80% marks) is,
We know by the concept of conditional probability
9.13 0.97
:
Let the three street vendors be named as A, B and  B  P ( A  B ) 0.05 1
C respectively. P    
 A P ( A) 0.2 4
The probability of vendors meeting required
Hence, the correct option is (B).
specifications is given as
9.16 (A)
For vendor A  ( PA )  0.8
For vendor B  ( PB )  0.7 Given : The mean for distribution  

Engineering Mathematics 7
 For Poisson distribution, Mean = Variance The number of ways in which three cards can be
Therefore, Variance   picked is,
Standard deviation  Variance n( S )  52C3

So, standard deviation   The number of ways a king, a queen and a jack can
be picked from a pack of cards is given by,
Hence, the correct option is (A).
n( A)  4C1  4C1  4C1
9.17 0.4095
So required probability is given by,
Given : n( A)
The probability of defective screw p  0.1 P( A) 
n( S )
Probability of a screw being not defective is given
C1  4C1  4C1
4
16
by, P( A)  52

C3 5525
q  1  0.1  0.9
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Each packet contains 5 screws and would be
replaced if one or more screws will be defective. 9.20 (C)
So, probability of replacement is given by, Given : An ungrouped data of 15 numbers is as
P  1  (Probability that no screw is defective) follows :
P  1   5 C0 p 0 q 5  P  1   5 C0  (0.1)0  (0.9)5  17, 18, 17, 17, 13, 18, 5, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 20, 17, 3.
Mode refers to value that appears most frequently
P  0.4095 in a set of data.
Hence, the probability that a packet would have to The number 17 has occurred for the maximum
be replaced is 0.4095. (four) number of times.
9.18 99.7 So, the mode of this sample is 17.
By a rule of statistics for normal distribution Hence, the correct option is (C).
curves, the area (in percentage) under the curve 9.21
within :
Given : Standard deviation of P ( p )  3 μm
(i)  1 of the mean is 68.27 % .
Standard deviation of Q (q )  4 μm
(ii)  2 of the mean is 95.45% .
Let the new linear dimension be
(iii)  3 of the mean is 99.73% . Z  PQ
Then variance of z is given as,
 2z   2P  Q2 …(i)
( Variance of linearly independent process can
be added)
Now, variance of P is  p  (3μm)
2 2

2p  9 1012 m 2
This rule is generally referred to as “68-95-99.7” Similarly, variance of Q is
rule.  2q  (4μm) 2
Hence, the area (in percentage) under standard
 2q  16  10 12 m 2
normal distribution curve is 99.7.
Therefore, from equation (i) variance of z is
9.19 (A)
obtained as,
Given : Three cards were drawn from 52 cards. 2z  9 1012  16 1012

8 Engineering Mathematics
 2z  25 1012 m2 1 2  3  4  5  6 7
X   3.5
We know, standard deviation is square root of 6 2
variation. Hence, the mean valve of the outcomes is 3.5.
 Standard deviation of Z  P  Q is 9.24 (B)
6
Standard deviation  z  5 10 μm Given : Four red balls, four green balls and four
Hence, the standard deviation of resulting linear blue balls are put in a box.
dimensions is 5 106 μm. . Method 1 :
9.22 0.75 Total number of balls in a box = 12
The number of ways 3 balls selected from 12 balls
Given : Two coins are tossed simultaneously, then
 12C3
Total possible outcomes   HH , HT , TH , TT 
The number of ways 3 red balls selected from 4
 Sample space  n( s )  4 red balls  4C3
Now, outcomes containing atleast one head
Probability that all the three balls are red is
  HH , HT , TH  4
C3 4 1
 Favourable outcomes  n( p)  3  12  
C3 220 55
Now, probability of atleast one head is given as,
Hence, the correct option is (B).
n( p ) 3
p (at least one head)   . Method 2 :
n( s ) 4
Total number of balls in a box
Hence, the probability of getting atleast one head  4 R  4 G  4 B  12
is 0.75.
Probability that all the 3 balls are red without
9.23 3.5 replacement
Given that a fair dice is rolled large number of 4 3 2 1
   
times. 12 11 10 55
For a fair dice, all the six faces have equal Hence, the correct option is (B).
probability of appearing. Hence, different
outcomes and their probability can be represented
as,
Outcome X 1 2 3 4 5 6 9.25 (C)
Probability 1 1 1 1 1 1
Given : A dice is rolled five times,
P(X) 6 6 6 6 6 6
n5
Now, mean of the outcomes is given as,
A dice has 6 faces therefore probability of getting
E ( X )  m   x  P( X ) 1
1 p  .
where, X  Value of outcome or random variable 6
P ( X )  Probability of corresponding random 1 5
Probability of not getting 1  q  1   .
outcome or variable 6 6
Therefore from above formula, we get According to binomial distribution :
E( X )  X Probability of getting 1 at least four times is
p( x  4)  p( x  4)  p( x  5)
1 1 1 1
E ( X )  1   2    3    4  
6 6 6 6  5C4 p 4 q54  5 C5 p5 q55
5 4 5 5
1 1
4 5
5    6   5!  1   5  5!  1   5 
         
6 6 1!4!  6   6  0!5!  6   6 

Engineering Mathematics 9
 25 1 1 1 1
   0.0033  0.33% . Mean (Y )   
65 65 1   2 2  4 6
Hence, the correct option is (C). Hence, the correct option is (A).
9.28 0.171
Given : Probability of a part to be defective
p  0.05
9.26 (B)
 Probability of the part to be non-defective
Given : 1  1, 2  1, 1  1, 2  2 q  1  p  1  0.05  0.95
If x1 and x2 are two independent random Probability of at least two defective parts
variables.  1  {(Probability of no part defective)
and Y  X1  X 2 + (Probability of one defective part)}
Using binomial distribution, probability of ‘r’
Mean or variance of random variable Y is given
success in ‘n’ trials is given as
by,
P(r )  nCr p r  q n r
(Y )  ( X1  X 2 )
Here, n  15
(Y )  ( X1 )  ( X 2 )
P(0)  15C0 (0.05)0  (0.95)15  0.4633
(Y )  1  2  1  1  0
P(1)  15C1 (0.05)1  (0.95)14  0.3658
Var (Y )  Var ( X1  X 2 )
 P(r  2)  1   P(0)  P(1)   0.171
Var (Y )  Var ( X 1 )  Var ( X 2 )
Hence, the probability that at least two parts will
 Cov ( X 1 , X 2 ) be defective is 0.171.
Let X1 and X 2 are independent variables 9.29 (A)
therefore Cov ( X1 , X 2 )  0 Given : X uniformly distributed between 0 and 10.
Var (Y )  Var ( X1 )  Var ( X 2 )
Var (Y )  12  22  1  4
Var (Y )  5
Hence, the correct option is (B).
9.27 (A) Y uniformly distributed between 0 and 20.
Probability distribution function for exponential
random variable defined as
f ( x)  ex ; x  0
where  is parameter and mean of exponential
random variable.
: Method 1 :
Mean ( X1 )  0.5
Given x  y  20  y  20  x
1 1
 0.5  1  2 10 20
1 0.5 P( x  y  20)    P( x, y ) dy dx
0 20  x
Mean ( X 2 )  0.25
1 1
 0.25   2  4
1 1 
10 20
2  
0.25
   dy dx
0 20  x 
y  Mean ( X 1 , X 2 ) 10 20 

10 Engineering Mathematics
 [As X and Y are independent Mean of exponentially distributed random
P( x, y)  PX ( x) PY ( y) ] variable, Y  0.5
1
10 We know that, for exponential distribution of form
P( x  y  20)    y 2020 x dx X  1e x 1
200 0
1
Mean of X, E ( X ) 
10 1
1
 20  (20  x) dx
200 0

Variance of X, E  ( X   X ) 2    2X 
1
10
12
1
200 0
P( x  y  20)  x dx 1
For X, 1  2
0.5
10
1  x2  2 
1

1
2
  For Y,
200  2  0 E (Y ) 0.5
1 1 Variance of X  2x  (0.5) 2  0.25
P( x  y  20)  [100  0]   0.25
400 4 Variance of Y   y  (0.5)  0.25
2 2

Hence, the correct option is (A).

Now, consider another random variable,
: Method 2 :
Z  X Y
 Var ( Z )  Var ( X  Y )
Var ( Z )  Var ( X )  Var (Y )  2Cov( X , Y )
0  0.25  0.25  2Cov( X , Y )
 Cov( X , Y )  0.25
Also, correlation factor is given by,
CoV ( X , Y )
r
 X Y
0.25
r  1
Let Z  X  Y , then probability distribution 0.25
function of Z is convolution of PDF’s of X and Y. Hence, the value of r is –1.
9.31 (D)
X1 ~ N (1 , 1 ) and X 2 ~ N (2 , 2 )

Then X 1  X 2 ~ N (1  1 , 12   22 )

Always normally distributed.
 Probability of Z  20 is area of PDF
Hence, the correct option is (D).
between 20 and 30,
1 1 1 9.32 0.042
 10    0.25
2 20 4 1 1 1 1
Given : P1  , a1  , P2  , a2 
Hence, the correct option is (A). 2 2 2 2
9.30 –1 Probability
Given : Mean of exponentially distributed random  10C4 ( P1 ) 4 (a1 )(104)  10C4 ( P2 )4 (a2 )(104)
variable, X  0.5

Engineering Mathematics 11
 10 10
1 1
Probability  C4    10C4  
10

2 2

 C4 
2
 210
10 2

Probability    0.042
220 1048576
Hence, the required probability is 0.042.
9.33 0.18
Given : Random variable x follows poisson’s
distribution
prob ( x  1)  prob ( x  2)
Poisson’s distribution,
e m mr
p (r ) 
r!
where m  mean
e m m1 e m m2

1! 2!
m2
m
2
m  2, mean of Poisson’s distribution,

e2 23 8 e2
p( x  3)    0.18
3! 6
Hence, the correct answer is 0.18.
9.34 (A)
p  0.015 (very very small)
n  200 (large)
Mean = Variance =   np  200(0.015)  3
Mean = Variance = 3



12 Engineering Mathematics
10 Numerical Methods

2013 IIT Bombay 2015 IIT Kanpur

10.1 Match the CORRECT pairs [1 Mark] 1
10.7 Simpson’s rule is used to integrate the
Numerical Order of Fitting 3
Integration Polynomial 3 9
Scheme function f ( x)  x 2  between x  0 and
5 5
3
P. Simpson’s Rule 1. First x  1 using the least number of equal sub-
8 intervals. The value of the integral is
Q. Trapezoidal Rule 2. Second _________. [1 Mark]
1 10.8 The values of function f ( x) at 5 discrete
R. Simpson’s Rule 3. Third
3 points are given below,
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-3 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1
x 0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2
f ( x) 0 10 40 90 160
2014 IIT Kharagpur
Using Trapezodial rule with step size of 0.1,
10.2 Using the trapezoidal rule, and dividing the 0.4
interval of integration into three equal sub-
1
the value of  f ( x) dx is _______.
intervals, the definite integral  1
x dx is 0

[2 Marks]
_________. [2 Marks]
10.9 Using a unit step size, the value of integral

4
10.3 The value of ln( x)dx calculated using the 2
2.5

Trapezoidal rule with five sub-intervals is

 x ln x dx by Trapezoidal rule is _________.
1
_________. [2 Marks] [1 Mark]
31
10.4 The definite integral  dx is evaluated 10.10Newton-Raphson method is used to find
1 x
the roots of the equation,
using Trapezoidal rule with a step size of 1.
x  2 x  3x  1  0 . If the initial guess is
3 2
The correct answer is ______.
[1 Mark] x0  1 then the value of x after 2nd iteration
10.5 The real root of the equation is _________. [2 Marks]
5 x  2cos x  1  0 (up to two decimal 2016 IISc Bangalore
accuracy) is _______. [2 Marks]
10.11Solve the equation x  10 cos( x) using the
10.6 Consider an ordinary differential equation
Newton-Raphson method. The initial guess
dx
 4t  4. If x  x0 at t  0 , the increment 
dt is x  . The value of the predicted root
4
in x is calculated using Runge-Kutta fourth
after the first iteration, up to second decimal,
order multistep method with a step size of
is _______. [1 Mark]
h  0.2 is [2 Marks]
10.12Gauss-Seidel method is used to solve the
(A) 0.22 (B) 0.44 following equations (as per the given order)
(C) 0.66 (D) 0.88
Engineering Mathematics 1
 x1  2 x2  3x3  5 computed by this method is _____ (correct
to two decimal places).
2 x1  3x2  x3  19
[1 Mark]
3x1  2 x2  x3  3
2019 IIT Madras
Assuming initial guess as x1  x2  x3  0 ,

4

the value of x3 after the first iteration is 10.18Evaluation of x3dx using a 2 equal
2

______. [2 Marks] segment trapezoidal rule gives a value of

10.13Numerical integration using trapezoidal rule _______. [1 Mark]
gives the best result for a single variable 10.19The derivative of f ( x)  cos( x) can be
function, which is [1 Mark] estimated using the approximation
(A) Linear (B) Parabolic f ( x  h)  f ( x  h)
f '( x)  .
(C) Logarithmic (D) Hyperbolic 2h
10.14The error in numerically computing the The percentage error is calculated as
  Exact value  Approximate value 
integral  0
(sin x  cos x) dx using the 
 Exact value
 100 .

trapezoidal rule with three intervals of equal The percentage error in the derivative of
length between 0 and  is _________. 
[2 Marks]
f ( x) at x  radius, choosing h  0.1
6
10.15The root of the function f ( x)  x3  x 1 radian, is [2 Marks]
obtained after first iteration on application of (A) > 5%
Newton-Raphson scheme using an initial (B) < 0.1%
guess of x0  1 is (C) > 1% and < 5%
[1 Mark] (D) > 0.1% and < 1%
(A) 0.682 (B) 0.686 2020 IIT Delhi
(C) 0.750 (D) 1.000 10.20The evaluation of the definite integral
1.4
2017 IIT Roorkee
 x x dx dy
1
by using Simpson’s 1/3rd (one-
10.16 P(0,3), Q(0.5, 4), and R(1,5) are three
third) rule with step size h  0.6 yields
points on the curve defined by f ( x).
[2 Marks]
Numerical integration is carried out using
(A) 0.581 (B) 1.248
both Trapezoidal rule and Simpson’s rule
within limits x  0 and x  1 for the curve. (C) 0.914 (D) 0.592
 /2
The difference between the two results will
be [2 Marks]
10.21For the integral  (8  4cos x)dx ,
0
the

(A) 0 (B) 0.25 absolute percentage error in numerical

(C) 0.5 (D) 1 evaluation with the Trapezoidal rule, using
2018 IIT Guwahati only the end points, is _______ (round off to
one decimal place).
10.17An explicit forward Euler method is used to
[2 Marks]
numerically integrate the differential
dy 2021 IIT Bombay
equation  y using time step of 0.1. With
dt
initial condition y (0)  1 , the value of y(1)

2 Engineering Mathematics
 5.2
10.23 Find the positive real root of x3  x  3  0
10.22 Value of  ln x dx using Simpson’s one
4
using Newton-Raphson method. If the
starting guess ( x0 ) is 2, the numerical value
third rule with interval size 0.3 is
[1 Mark] of the root after two iterations ( x2 ) is
(A) 1.83 (B) 1.06 __________ (round off to two decimal
(C) 1.60 (D) 1.51 places). [2 Marks]

Given : I   ln( x)dx

4
10.1 (D)
2.5
Numerical Order of Fitting Take, a  2.5 , b  4, n  5
Integration Scheme Polynomial
4  2.5
3 Step size, h   0.3
P Simpson’s rule 3 Third 5
8
Q Trapezoidal rule 1 First x 2.5 2.8 3.1 3.4 3.7 4.0
1 y  ln x 0.916 1.03 1.131 1.224 1.308 1.386
R Simpson’s rule 2 Second y0 y1 y2 y3 y4 y5
3
For trapezoidal rule,
P-3, Q-1, R-2
h
I   ln x dx   y0  y5 
4
Hence, the correct option is (D).
2.5 2
10.2 1.1
 2  y1  y2  y3  y4 
1
Given : I   x dx 0.3
1 I 2.302  2  4.693
Let a  1 , b  1, n  3 , 2 
I  1.7532
ba 2
Step size, h   Hence, the value of integral is 1.7532.
3 3
10.4 1.16
1 1
x 1  1 1
Given : I  
3
3 3 dx
1 1 1 x
y x 1 1
3 3 Step size, h  1
y0 y1 y2 y3 Take, a  1 , b  3
For trapezoidal rule, x 1 2 3
h
I   x dx   y0  y3   2  y1  y2 
1 1 1 1
1
y 1
2 x 2 3
 2 y0 y1 y2
 3 
 1 1 
I    1  1  2    For trapezoidal rule,
2   3 3  31 h
10 I   dx   y0  y2   2 y1 
1 x 2
I   1.1
9 1  1  1
Hence, the value of integral is 1.1. I  1    2    1.16
2  3  2
Hence, the correct answer is 1.16.
10.5 0.54
10.3 1.7532

Engineering Mathematics 3
 Given : 5 x  2cos x  1  0 K3  (0.2)[4(0  0.1)  4]  0.88
Let f ( x)  5 x  2cos x  1, K4  h f (t0  h, x0  K3 )
f (0)   2, f (1)  5  2cos1  1  2.91
K4  (0.2)[4(0  0.2)  4]  0.96
Therefore, root lies between 0 to 1.
1
f '( x)  5  2sin x So, x1  0  [0.8  2(0.88)
6
By Newton-Raphson’s iterative method,
 2(0.88)  0.96]
f ( xn )
xn1  xn  x1  0.88
f '( xn )
Hence, the correct option is (D).
For first iteration, n  0 and x0  1 .
10.7 2
f ( x0 )
x1  x0  3 2 9
f '( x0 ) Given : f ( x) x 
5 5
5 1  2cos (1)  1
x1  1   0.5632 between x  0 and x  1 , h  0.5
5  2sin(1)
x 0 0.5 1
f ( x1 )
x2  x1  f ( x) 1.8 1.95 2.4
f '( x1 )
y0 y1 y2
5  0.5632  2cos (0.5632) 1
x2  0.5632 
5  2sin (0.5632) By Simpson’s
1
rule,
3
x2  0.5426
h
0 f ( x)  3 [ y0  y2  4 y1 ]
1
f ( x2 )
x3  x2 
f '( x2 )
0.5
0 f ( x)  3 [1.8  4(1.95)  2.4]
1
5  0.5426  2cos(0.5426) 1
x3  0.5426 
5  2sin (0.5426)

1

x3  0.5424 f ( x)  2
0

Hence, the real root of the equation is 0.54. Hence, the value of the integral is 2.
10.6 (D) 10.8 22
dx Given : Step size, h  0.1
Given :  (4t  4)
dt By Trapezoidal rule,
At t  0, x  x0  0 0.4
h
h  0.2, f (t , x)  (4t  4) 
0
f ( x)dx  [( y0  y4 )  2( y1  y2  y3 )]
2
By Runge-Kutta fourth order method, 0.4
0.1
1
x1  x0  ( K1  2K2  2K3  K4 )  f ( x)dx 
2
[(0  160)  2(10  40  90)]
6 0

where K1  h f (t0 , x0 )  0.2  4  0.8 0.4

 h K 
 f ( x)dx  22
K2  h f  t0  , x0  1 
0

 2 2  Hence, the value of the integral is 22.

K2  (0.2)[4(0  0.1)  4]  0.88 10.9 0.6931
 h K 
Given : Step size, h  1
K3  h f  t0  , x0  2 
 2 2 

4 Engineering Mathematics
 x 1 2 f ( x0 )
x1  x0 
f ( x) 0 2(ln 2) f '( x0 )
y0 y1  6.285
x1    1.5641
By Trapezoidal rule, 4 8.071
h 1 Hence, the value of x after 1st iteration is 1.56.
I  [ y0  y1 ]  [0  2ln 2]
2 2 10.12 –6
I  ln 2  0.6931 Given : Set of equations
Hence, the value of the integral is 0.6931. x1  2 x2  3x3  5 …(i)
10.10 0.3043 2 x1  3x2  x3  19 …(ii)
Given : f ( x)  x3  2 x 2  3x  1 , 3x1  2 x2  x3  3 …(iii)
By Gauss-Seidel method,
Initial guess, x0  1
From equation (i),
f '( x)  3x 2  4 x  3 x2  x3  0
By Newton-Raphson iterative method, So, x1  5
f ( xn ) From equation (ii),
xn1  xn 
f '( xn ) x1  5, x3  0
For 1st iteration n  0 , So, x2  3
f ( x0 ) 5 From equation (iii),
x1  x0   1   0.5
f '( x0 ) 10 x1  5, x2  3
For 2nd iteration n  1 , So, x3   6

x2  0.5 
[ f (0.5)]
 0.5 
1.125 Hence, the value of x3 after 1st iteration is – 6.
[ f '(0.5)] 5.75
10.13 (A)
x2  0.3043
Trapezoidal rule gives best result for Linear
nd
Hence, the value of x after 2 iteration is 0.3043. equation only. In trapezoidal method, the steps or
10.11 1.56 area is divided like small trapezoids.

Given : f ( x)  x  10cos ( x)

Initial guess, x0 
4
  
f ( x0 )  10cos     6.285
4 4
f '( x)  1  10sin x, Hence, the correct option is (A).
  10.14 0.186
f '( x0 )  1  10sin    8.071 
4
Given : I   (sin x  cos x) dx
By Newton-Raphson iterative method, 0

f ( xn ) Error  Exact value

xn1  xn 
f '( xn ) – Approximate value
...(i)
For 1st iteration n  0 ,

Engineering Mathematics 5
  1
Exact value   (sin x  cos x) dx h
0  f ( x)dx  2 ( y
0
0  yn )  2( y1  y2  )
Exact value    cos x  sin x0  2

1
h
Approximate value by trapezoidal method :  f ( x)dx  2 ( y 0  y2 )  2( y1 )

0

Interval (0  ) , Step size = h  1

0.5
3
 f ( x)dx  2
(3  5)  8
 2 0
x 0  1
3 3 16
f ( x) 1 1.366 0.366 1  f ( x)dx 
0 4
4

y0 y1 y2 y3 Using Simpson’s rule,

Approximate value 1
h

h  f ( x)dx  3 ( y 0  yn )  4( y1  y3  )  2( y2  )
  f ( x)dx  { y0  y3}  2{ y1  y2 } 0

0
2 1
h 0.5
  f ( x)dx  3 ( y  y2 )  4 y1   (3  5)  16
{1  (1)}  2(1.366  0.366)
0
 0 3
3 2 1
24


[2 1.732]  1.8137  f ( x)dx  6
4
3 2 0

From equation (i), Difference (Error)  Trapezoidal’s result

Error  2  1.8137  0.186 – Simpson’s result
Hence, the error is 0.186.  44  0
10.15 (C) Therefore, the difference between two results will
be zero.
Given : f ( x)  x3  x  1
Hence, the correct option is (A).
Initial guess, x0  1
10.17 2.59
f '( x)  3x  12
Given :
f ( x0 )  1 and f '( x0 )  4 dy
Differential equation  f (t , y)  y, h  0.1
Newton-Raphson formula is given by, dt
f ( xn ) Initial condition : y (0)  1
xn1  xn 
f '( xn ) Forward Euler’s method is given by,
Put n  0 , we have yn1  yn  h f (tn , yn )
f ( x0 ) 1
x1  x0   1   0.75 y1  y0  h f (t0 , y0 )  y0  hy0
f '( x0 ) 4
y1  1  0.1(1)  1.1
x1  0.75
y2  y1  h f (t1 , y1 )  y1  hy1
Hence, the correct option is (C).
10.16 (A) y2  1.1  0.1(1.1)  1.21

x 0 0.5 1 y3  y2  h f (t2 , y2 )  y2  hy2

y 3 4 5 y3  1.21  0.11.21  1.331
y0 y1 y2
y4  y3  h f (t3 , y3 )  y3  hy3
Using trapezoidal rule,

6 Engineering Mathematics
 y4  1.331  0.11.331  1.4641 10.19 (D)
y5  y4  h f (t4 , y4 ) Exact value, f '( x)   sin x
y5  1.4641  0.1 (1.4641)  1.61051   1
f '   
y6  y5  h f (t5 , y5 )  y5  hy5 6 2
Approximate value,
y6  1.61051  0.11.61051  1.771561
cos ( x  0.1)  cos ( x  0.1)
y7  y6  h f (t6 , y6 )  y6  hy6 f '( x) 
2(0.1)
y7  1.771561  0.11.771561  1.9487  sin x  sin (0.1)
f '( x) 
y8  y7  h f (t7 , y7 )  y7  hy7 2(0.1)

y8  1.9487  0.1 (1.9487)  2.14357  

f '     0.49916
6
y9  y8  h f (t8 , y8 )  y8  hy8
Error  Exact value – Approximate value
y9  2.14357  0.1 2.14357  2.3579   0.5  0.49916   0.00084
y10  y9  h f (t9 , y9 )  y9  hy9  0.00084
 % Error  100  0.168%
y10  2.3579  0.1 (2.3579)  2.5937 0.5
Hence, the value of y (1) is 2.59.  The value is  0.1% and  1% .
Hence, the correct option is (D).
10.18 63
10.20 (D)
Given : I   x3 dx
4

2 1.4

For two equal segment, n  2

Given : Let f ( x)   x x dx dy
1
a  2, b  4 Step size h  0.6
ba 42 By Simpson’s 1/3rd rule,
Step size, h  1
h 2 b
h  y0  yn   4( y1  y3  ) 
x 2 3 4  f ( x) dx  3 
a  2( y2  y4 

)
y  x3 8 27 64
At, a  1, b  1.4 and h  0.6
From Trapezoidal rule
x –1 –0.4 0.2 0.8 1.4
h
a y.dx  2 ( y0  y2 )  2( y1 )
b
F(x) –1 –0.16 0.04 0.64 1.96
y0 y1 y2 y3 y4
1
 (8  64)  (2  27)
4
x3 .dx 
2 2
b
(1)  (1.96)  4(0.16  0.64)
1
 f ( x) dx  0.2   2(0.04) 
  (72  54) a

2  0.592
126 Hence, the correct option is (D).
  63
2
10.21 5.25

4
3  /2
Hence, the value of x dx by using trapezoidal
rule is 63.
2
Given : I   (8  4cos x) dx
0

Let, f ( x)  8  4cos x

Engineering Mathematics 7
 The table for two point function, Hence, the correct option is (A).
x 0 /2
10.23 1.6739
f(x) 12 8
y0 y1 f ( x)  x3  x  3  0,
x0  nh
f '( x)  3x 2  1
I  f ( x) dx
f ( x0 )
x0
x0  2, x1  x0 
 /2 f '( x0 )
h
 y dx  2  y 0  y1 
3 19
0 x1  2    1.7272
Using trapezoidal rule, 11 11
 /2
 f ( x1 )
h x2  x1 
 (8  4cos x) dx  2 (12  8)  4  20
0
f '( x1 )
 /2 19 0.42606
x2   = 1.6736
 (8  4cos x) dx   5  15.70
0
11 7.94965
Hence, the numerical value of the root after two
 /2
iterations ( x2 ) is 1.6736.
 (8  4cos x) dx  [8x  4sin x]
 /2
Now, 0
0 
 /2
   
 (8  4cos x) dx  8  2  8  0
0

   
 4  sin  sin 0 
  2 
 /2

 (8  4cos x) dx  4  4  16.566
0

Absolute error
 Absolute % error 
exact value
16.57  15.70
Absolute % error  100  5.25%
16.57
Hence, the end points, is 5.25%.
10.22 (A)


5.2
ln( x)dx
4

h  0.3
b  a 5.2  4
n  4
h 0.3
h
a f ( x)dx  3 ( y0  yn )  4  Odd  2  Even 
b

x 4 4.3 4.6 4.9 5.2

y 1.3862 1.4586 1.526 1.589 1.648
y0 y1 y2 y3 y4
0.3
 (1.3862  1.648)  4(1.4586  1.589)  2 1.526
5.2
ln( x)dx 
4 3
 1.8277

8 Engineering Mathematics
11 Transform Theory

2013 IIT Bombay

11.1 The function f (t ) satisfies the differential
d2 f
equation  f  0 and the auxiliary
dt 2
conditions,
df 1  e2 s 1  e s
f  0  0,  0  4 . (A) (B)
dt s 2s
The Laplace transform of f (t ) is given by
2  2e s 1  2e s
[2 Marks] (C) (D)
s s
2 4
(A) (B) 2016 IISc Bangalore
s 1 s 1
4 4 11.5 If f (t ) is a function defined for all t  0, its
(C) 2 (D) 4
s 1 s 1 Laplace transform F (s) is defined as
2014 IIT Kharagpur [1 Mark]
 
s (A)  est f (t )dt (B)  e st f (t ) dt
11.2 Laplace transform of cos(t ) is 2 . 0 0
s  2  
The Laplace transform of e2t cos(4t ) is (C)  0
eist f (t ) dt (D)  eist f (t ) dt
0
[1 Mark] 11.6 Laplace transform of cos(t ) is
s2 s2
(A) (B) [1 Mark]
( s  2)  16
2
( s  2)2  16
s 
s2 s2 (A) (B)
(C) (D) s  2 2
s  2 2

( s  2)2  16 ( s  2)2  16 s 
(C) 2 (D) 2
2015 IIT Kanpur s 2 s 2
11.7 Solution of Laplace’s equation having
11.3 The Laplace transform of ei5t where
continuous second-order partial derivatives
i  1, is [1 Mark]
are called [1 Mark]
s  5i s  5i (A) Bi-harmonic functions
(A) (B) 2
s  25
2
s  25 (B) Harmonic functions
s  5i s  5i (C) Conjugate harmonic functions
(C) 2 (D) 2
s  25 s  25 (D) Error functions
11.4 Laplace transform of the function f (t ) is 2017 IIT Roorkee

given by L{ f (t )}   f (t )e st dt. Laplace 11.8 The Laplace transform of tet is
0 [1 Mark]
transform of the function shown below is s 1
(A) (B)
given by, [2 Marks] ( s  1)2 (s  1)2

Engineering Mathematics 1
 (C)
1
(D)
s (C) esa (D) e sa
( s  1)2 s 1 11.13 If the Laplace transform of a function f (t )
2018 IIT Guwahati s3
is given by , then f (0) is
( s  1)(s  2)
11.9 F(s) is the Laplace transform of the function
[2 Marks]
f (t )  2t 2et .
3
F (1) is _______ (correct to two decimal (A) 1 (B)
2
places). [1 Mark]
1
2020 IIT Delhi (C) (D) 0
2
11.10The Laplace transform of a function f (t ) is 2022 IIT Kharagpur
1
L( f )  2 . Then f (t ) is 11.14 The Fourier series expansion of x 3 in the
(s  2 )
interval 1  x  1 with periodic
[1 Mark]
continuation has [1 Mark]
1
(A) f (t )  sin t (A) Only sine terms

1 (B) Only cosine terms
(B) f (t )  2 (1  cos t )
 (C) Both sine and cosine terms
1 (D) Only sine terms and a non-zero constant
(C) f (t )  cos t

1
(D) f (t )  2 (1  sin t ) 2023 IIT Kanpur

11.15 Which one of the options given is the
d2y
11.11The solution of 2  y  1 , 1
dt inverse Laplace transform of 3 ? u (t)
which additionally satisfies s s
denotes the unit-step function.
dy
y   0 in the Laplace s-domain is  1 1 
t 0 dt t 0 (A)  -1  e-t  et  u(t )
[1 Mark]  2 2 
1 1 1 
(A) (B) (B)  et  et  u(t )
s( s  1) s( s  1) 3 
1 1  1 -(t 1) 1 (t 1) 
(C) (D) (C)  -1  2 e  e  u(t 1)
s 1 s(s  1)(s 1)  2 
2021 IIT Bombay  1 1 
(D)  -1  e-(t 1)  e(t 1)  u(t 1)
 2 2 
11.12The Dirac-delta function ((t  t0 )) for
t , t0  R, has the following property
(t0 ) a  t0  b
a  t   t  t0  dt  
b

 0 otherwise
The Laplace transform of the Dirac-delta
function (t  a ) for a > 0;
L{(t  a)}  F (s) is [1 Mark]
(A) 0 (B) 

2 Engineering Mathematics
 11.1 (C)

d2 f
Given :  f 0 …(i)
dt 2
Auxiliary conditions are :
df
f  0  0,  0  4
dt
. Method 1 :
f "(t )  f (t )  0
2, 0  t 1
Taking Laplace transform of equation (i) on both f (t )  
sides, 0, otherwise

s2 F (s)  sf (0)  f '(0)  F (s)  0
L{ f (t )}   f (t )e st dt
(s 2  1) F (s)  s(0)  4  0 0

4 F (s)   f (t ) e st dt
F ( s)  2
s 1 0
Hence, the correct option is (C). 1 

11.2 (D) F (s)   2e st dt   0  e st dt

0 1
s 1
Given : cos(t )   2
L.T .
 e st  2
s  2 F ( s)  2    e s 1
By frequency shifting property,  s  0 s
e at 
L.T .
 X ( s  a) 2(1  e s ) 2  2e s
F ( s)  
s2 s s
e2t cos (t ) 
L.T .

( s  2)2  2 Hence, the correct option is (C).
s2 . Method 2 :
e2t cos (4t ) 
L.T .

(s  2)2  16 From given diagram,
Hence, the correct option is (D). f (t)  2u(t)  2u(t 1)
11.3 (B) Taking Laplace transform,
2 2
Given : y  ei 5t F ( s )   e s
s s
y  cos5t  i sin5t 2
F (s)  (1  e s )
[since ei  cos  i sin  ] s
s 5i s  5i Hence, the correct option is (C).
L{ y}  2  2  2
s  25 s  25 s  25
Hence, the correct option is (B).

11.5 (B)
From the definition of Laplace transform,
11.4 (C) 
F (s)  L[ f (t )]   e st f (t ) dt
Given : 0

Hence, the correct option is (B).

Engineering Mathematics 3
 11.6 (A)  1  1
Then, f (t )  L1  2  sin t
 s    
2
Given : f (t)  cos(t)
s Hence, the correct option is (A).
L[ f (t )]  L[cos( t)] 
s  2
2 11.11 (D)
Hence, the correct option is (A).
d2y
11.7 (B) Given : Differential equation, 2  y  1
dt
Solution of Laplace equation having continuous dy
Where y  0
second order partial derivatives such as 2  0 is t 0 dt t 0
called Harmonic functions. Since they have Taking Laplace transform on both sides,
unique solution. d 2 y 
Hence, the correct option is (B). L  2  y  1  L 0
 dt 
11.8 (B)
d y 
2
L  2   L  y  L 1  0
Given : f (t )  tet …(i)  dt 
1 1
L(t )  2 s2 f (s)  s1 f (0)  f '(0)  f (s)   0
s s
Applying frequency shifting property, dy 1
f (s)[s 2 1]  s1 y t 0   0
f (t )eat  L.T .
 F ( s  a) dt t 0 s
Taking Laplace transform of equation (i), 1 1
f ( s)  2 
tet  L.T .

1 s(s  1) s( s  1)( s  1)
( s  1)2 Hence, the correct option is (D).
Hence, the correct option is (B). 11.12 (D)
11.9 0.5
(t  t0 )  , t  t0
2 t
Given : f (t )  2t e (t  t0 )  0, t  t0
n! f (t )   F ( s)
t nu(t )  
L.T . Laplace transform

s n1 
1 F (s)   f (t ) est dt
By shifting property et u(t ) 
L.T .

s 1 0

Therefore, For (t  t0 ) , Laplace transform will be,


F (s)  L  f (t )  2L t 2et  Laplace transform,


2! 4 [(t  t0 )]   (t  t0 )e st dt

F ( s)  2  
 s  (1) 21
(s  1)3
0

[(t  t0 )]  esa (for 0  a   )

At s  1 , Hence, the correct option is (D).
4 4 1 11.13 (A)
F (1)     0.5
(1  1) 8 2
3

 s 3 
Hence, the value of F (1) is 0.5. f (t )  L1  
 ( s  1)( s  2) 
11.10 (A)
 2 1 
1 f (t )  L1   
Given : L( f )  2  ( s  1) ( s  2) 
(s  2 )

4 Engineering Mathematics
f (t )  2et  e2t
f (0)  2 1  1
Hence, the correct option is (A).
11.14 (A)
Given :
Function f ( x)  x3 ; 1  x  1
The above function f ( x) is odd.
We know that, odd function contains only odd
terms,
a0   nx nx 
f ( x)    an cos  bn sin
2 n1  T T 
a0 and an will be zero.
Therefore, the given function f ( x) contains only
sine term.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
11.15 (A)
Given :
1 1 1
F ( s)   
s  s s  s 1 s(s 1)(s  1)
3 2

On partial fraction decomposition,

1 1
1
F ( s)    2  2
s s 1 s  1
Thus,
 1   1 
 1     
L1  F (s)   L1     L1  2   L1  2 
 s  s 1   s 1 
   
 1  1  1  1 1  1 
  L1    L1   L  
 s  2  s 1  2  s  1 
1 1
 1  et  et
2 2
Hence, the correct option is (A).


Engineering Mathematics 5