2024 – 2023 ‫ التصوير بالرنين المغناطيسي‬:‫امتحان مادة‬
‫ حيدر جاسم الشكري‬.‫د‬:‫التدريسي‬
_A__ :‫النموذج‬
1. Which of the following types of magnet does not
require a power supply?
A. Permanent B. Resistive C. Paramagnetic
D. Superconducto E. None of these
2. With a precessional frequency of 63 MHz, what is
the approximate field strength of the magnet?
A. 2.0 Tesla B. 1.5 Tesla C. 0.5 Tesla
D. 0.3 Tesla E. 3 Tesla
3. One Tesla is the equivalent of:
A. 10 gauss B. 1000 gauss C. 10,000 gauss
D. 100,000 gauss E. 1000,000 gauss
4. The precessional frequency of protons in a
magnetic field is determined by:
A. the gyromagnetic ratio B. the magnetic field strength
C. both A & B D. None of these
E. Cannot be determined
5. Which of the following is true of protons aligned
parallel with the magnetic field of the MR system
compared to those aligned against it?
A. There are more of them B. Neither of these
C. They are in a higher energy state D. All of these
E. Cannot be determined
6. The isotope of the hydrogen nucleus called _______
is the MR active nucleus used in clinical MRI.
A. platinum B. palladium C. promethium
D. protium E. Both A and B
7. The frequency of precession of hydrogen proton
at 1.5 T:
A. 21 MHz B. 63 MHz C. 42 MHz
D. 84 MHz E. 128 MHz
8. The process of relaxation begins when:
A. B0 is turned off B. B1 is turned off
C. B1 is turned on D. B0 is turned on E Both A and B
9. After being placed in an external magnetic field, high
energy hydrogen nuclei point in which direction?
A. Parallel B. Anti-paired C. Anti-parallel
D. Perpendicular E. None of these
10. In the main magnetic field, protons that are
oriented parallel and those that are oriented anti-
parallel will have what effect on each other?
A. Add to their magnetic moments
B. Subtract from their magnetic moments
C. Have no effect
D. Cancel their magnetic moments
‫الرابعة‬:‫المرحلة‬
2024/ / :‫التأريخ‬
E. Produce a complex interaction
11. In MRI, for a chemical substance to be affected by the
main magnetic field and the radio wave it must contain an:
A. Odd number of electrons B. Odd number of neutrons
C. Odd number of total protons and neutrons
D. Even number of total electrons and neutrons
E. Even number of protons
12. In the Larmor equation, λ stands for:
A. Static magnetic field B. Frequency
C. Gyromagnetic ratio D. Voltage E. None of these
13. With a precessional frequency of 21.2 MHz, what is
the approximate field strength of the magnet?
A. 2.0 Tesla B. 1 Tesla C 1.5 Tesla
D. 0.5 Tesla E. 0.3 Tesla
14. If the magnetic field to which the patient is exposed is
increased, what happens to the precessional frequency?
A. it decreases B. it increases C. it does not change
D. it would stop E. Cannot be determined
15. In a pulse sequence, the time from the excitation
pulse to the echo is called the:
A. TI B. TE C. TR D. TD E. None of these
16. When the RF Pulse is removed…
A. Resonance occurs B. Protons begin to spin in phase
C. Protons begin to spin out of phase
D. The main magnetic field loses strength
E. Protons begin to rephase
17. The gyro-magnetic ratio of hydrogen at 1 Tesla is…
A. 63.86 B. 42.57 C. 21.28 D. 127.71 E. 29.79
18. The T1 process is also known as:
A. Spin-spin B. Spin density C. Spin-lattice
D. Spin-warp E. None of these
19. T1 relaxation time is defined as:
A. 37% of the longitudinal magnetization has regrown
B. 63% of the transverse magnetization has decayed
C. 37% of the transverse magnetization has decayed
D. 63% of the longitudinal magnetization has regrown
E. None of these
20. Tissues with long T1 times regain their longitudinal
magnetization:
A. Completely B. Partially C. Quickly
D. Slowly E. Highly
21. The rate of regrowth of the net magnetization along 33. In gradient echo pulse sequences, the FID is
the longitudinal direction is known as: rephased by the:
A. T2* B. resonance C. T1 D. repetition time E. PD A. 180 degree rephasing pulse
22. The phenomenon in which the transverse B. phase encoding gradient
magnetization decays is called: C. frequency encoding gradient
A. T1 Relaxation B. precession C. T2 Relaxation D. 90 degree rephasing pulse
D. resonance E. Recovery E. both B and C
23. Which of the following parameters control the 34. Scan time can be determined using which three
amount of contrast seen in an image due to T2 parameters?
relaxation? A. Frequency matrix, TE, NEX B. Phase matrix, TE, NEX
A. TE B. TR C. TI D. T1 E. None of these C. Phase matrix, TR, NEX D. Frequency matrix, TR, NEX
24. What type of contrast would result from combining E. Phase matrix, TE, TR.
a long TR and a long TE? 35. Decreasing the receive bandwidth
A. T1 contrast B. T2 contrast C. Proton Density contrast A. Reduces readout time B. Increases readout time
D. A noisy low contrast image E. None of these C. Does not affect readout time
25. On a T2 weighted image, CSF appears bright since D. Does not affect anything E. None of these
it has a: 36. In most instances, when spatial resolution is
A. short T2 relaxation time B. short T1 relaxation time increased, signal to noise is:
C. long T2 relaxation time D. long T1 relaxation time A. Increased B. Decreased C. Unchanged
E. None of these D. Doubled E. Does not affect.
26. What type of contrast would result from combining 37. Increasing the NEX:
a Short TR and a Short TE? A. has no effect on reducing motion artifacts
A. T1 contrast B. T2 contrast B. increases the SNR
C. Proton Density contrast D. A noisy low contrast image C. motion artefact is averaged out of the image
E. None of these D. Both A and C E. Both B and C
27. What type of contrast would result from combining 38. If the matrix size increases and the FOV remains
a long TR and a Short TE? the same:
A. T1 contrast B. T2 contrast A. Pixel size decreases B. Frequency encoding decreases
C. Proton Density contrast D. A noisy low contrast image C. Slice thickness is changed D. Voxel size increases
E. None of these E. Does not affect
28. ______ contrast parameters are those that cannot 39. Which Parameter(s) effect total scan time?
be changed because they are inherent to the body’s A. Repetition time
tissues. B. Number of phase encoding steps
A. Extrinsic B. TR C. Intrinsic C. TE E. TI C. Number of excitations
29. Images characterized by bright fat and dark water are: D. Both A and B E. All of these
A. T1 weighted B. T2 weighted 40. A long TR ___________ SNR.
C. Proton density weighted D. Nuclear density weighted A. Increases B. Slightly decreases
E. None of these C. Decreases (by a factor of 4) D. Has no effect on
30. An Inversion Recovery pulse sequence can be which E. None of these
of the following: 41. A short TE ___________ SNR.
A. T1 weighted B. water suppressed C. fat suppressed A. Has no effect on B. Slightly decreases
D. all of the above E. None of these C. Decreases (by a factor of 4) D. Increases
31. STIR is an important pulse sequence because it E. None of these
suppresses: 42. Calculate the pixel size for the following sequence:
A. fat B. water C. blood D. CSF E. fluid TR 4000, TE 120, FOV 28cm, 304 x 304 matrix, 2 NEX,
32. In an IR pulse sequence, what TI will produce a ETL 12
STIR fat suppressed pulse sequence? A. 0.76 mm B. 0.85 mm C. 0.92 mm
A. 100 - 175ms B. 300 - 500ms C. 500 - 800ms D. 1.84 mm E. 1.94 mm
D. 1700 - 2200ms E. around 2000ms
43. Which MRI sequence is particularly useful for 54. RF energy can affect the patient by:
Measures biochemical information about brain tissue? A. Decreasing body temperature B. Loss of hair
A. T1- Axial. B. T2- Axial. C. T1-Coronal. C. Increasing body temperature D. Hearing loss
D. FMRI. E.MRS. E. Both B and D
44. When increasing the matrix, the pixel size will: 55. Which of the following cases would be safe to scan?
A. Increase B. Stay the same C. Decrease A. Patient with an intracranial ferromagnetic aneurysm clip
D. Vary E. None of these B. Patient with an abdominal aortic stent
45. Voxel volume is determined by C. Patient with a known nonferrous intracranial aneurysm clip
A. FOV B. Slice Thickness C. Matrix D. Both B. And C. E. Both A. and C.
D. All of the above E. None of these. 56. Why is it recommended that eye makeup be
46. Which MRI sequence is used to map white matter removed prior to MRI?
tracts and assess brain connectivity? A.This is a myth; eye makeup doesn’t have to be removed.
A. DWI. B. DTI. C. SWI. B.It can cause significant image artifacts around the orbit.
D. fMRI. E. MRS. C.Severe burns can occur on the eyelids.
47. Which MRI sequence is used to detects areas of D.Corneal injury and blindness can occur.
valuable for diagnosing acute stroke and evaluating E. All the above.
tissue damage? 57. Which of the following is an advantage of using a
A. DWI. B. DTI. C. SWI. spin echo pulse sequence?
D. fMRI. E. MRS. A. High signal to noise ratio B. Decreased resolution
48. Which MRI sequence is used detects hemorrhages, C. Long scan times D. Both B and C
microbleeds, and venous abnormalities, useful in cases E. None of the above
of head trauma and vascular disorders? 58. Which of the following is an advantage of a fast
A. DWI. B. DTI. C. SWI. spin echo pulse sequence?
D.fMRI. E. MRS. A. Reduced scan times B. Improved quality
49. Which MRI sequence Can be useful in C. Increased T2 weighting D. All the above
differentiating pituitary adenomas from other lesions? E. None of the these
A) T1- post contrast. B) T2- Axial. C) T1-Coronal. 59. The inversion recovery pulse sequence that is used
D) Fat-Suppressed Imaging. E) DWI. to suppress fat in a Tl weighted image is known as __ _
50. Which MRI sequence is Useful for visualizing cystic A.FLAIR B. STIR C.SSFP
or hemorrhagic changes in pituitary lesions? D.FLASH E. Both A and B
A. T1- Axial. B. T2- Axial. C. T1-Coronal. 60. In a gradient echo pulse sequence, which parameter
D. Fat-Suppressed Imaging. E. DWI. directly affects image weighting?
51. Which of the following is NOT a common A.NEX B. Field of view C. Flip angle
indication for brain MRI imaging? D.Matrix E. None of these
A. Multiple sclerosis (MS) B. Hearing loss 61. The condition that occurs in a gradient echo pulse
C. Kidney failure D. Unexplained neurological symptoms sequence when the TR is shorter than the T 1 and T2
E. Preoperative planning relaxation times of tissue is known as ---
52. Which of the following spin-echo parameter A. Chemical shift B. Steady state C. Frequency shift
selections would produce a T2-weighted image? D. Phase shift E. Both A and B.
A.TR = 500, TE = 10 B.TR = 500, TE = 100 62. Which of the following is an advantage of gradient
C. TR = 5000, TE = 10 D.TR = 5000, TE = 100 echo pulse sequences?
E. D.TR = 50, TE = 10 A. Decreased scan time B. Increased sensitivity to flow
53. A spin-echo sequence using a short TR and short C. Volume acquisitions possible D. All the above
TE produces E. None of these
A. A T1-weighted image B. A T2-weigthed image 63. The artifact that is produced when anatomy that is
C. A PD-weighed image D. A noisy low contrast image outside the FOV is mapped within the FOV is known as
E. None of these A. Phase mismapping B. Aliasing
C. Partial volume averaging D. Magnetic susceptibility
E. Both A and B.
64. Another name for aliasing artifact is __ _ 73. The technologist plays a crucial role in patient
A. Foldover artifact B. Ringing artifact preparation by:
C. Wraparound artifact D. Both A and B A. Explaining the procedure in detail
E. Both A and C B.Ensuring patient safety
65. Magnetic susceptibility artifact is most prominent C.Providing emotional support D. Both A and B
in what type of pulse sequence? E. All the above
A. Spin echo B. Inversion recovery C. Gradient echo 74. FOV relates to the region of interest (anatomy)
D. None of the above E. Both A and B covered The field of view ranges from …………
66. An artifact that is caused by an external radio for most of the equipment.
frequency leak is known as __ _ A. 50 to 60 cm B. 50 to 60 mm
A. Shading artifact B. Zipper artifact C. 10 to 50 mm D. 10 to 50 cm
C. Starring artifact D. Wraparound artifact E. 30 to 60 cm
D. Herringbone 75. STIR is an important pulse sequence because it
67. Contrast agents presently used in MRI have what suppresses:
type of effect on tissue? A. Fat B. water C. blood
A. Increase T2 relaxation times D. CSF E. Both B and C
B. Decrease TI relaxation times 76. Gradient echo pulse sequences that preserve
C. Increase TI relaxation times left over transverse magnetization are said to be __
D. Both A and B E. None of these A. Incoherent B. Coherent C. Consistent
68. The effective clinical dosage of gadolinium is how D. Inconsistent E. Both B and C
many millimoles per kilogram of body weight? 77. Bright pixels on an MRI image represent what
A. 1.0 mmol/kg B. 0.1 mmol/kg C.10 mmol/kg type of signal?
D. 2 mmol/kg E. 20 mmol/kg A. Low B. High C. Weak
69. Which of the following is a clinical indication for D. Both A and C E. None of these
the use of MRI contrast agents? 78. Which of the following is a parameter that
A. CNS tumors B. Post surgical lumbar discs directly affects signal to noise ratio?
C. Infection D. Both A and B E.All the above A. Voxel size B. Number of excitations
70. Which of the following is NOT recommended for a C. Repetition time D. Both A and C
patient undergoing an MRI scan? E. All of them.
A. Wearing a hospital gown 79. When bandwidth is increased, signal to noise
B. Removing all metal objects ratio _ _
C. Drinking water beforehand A. Increases B. Decreases
D. Informing them about the procedure C. Stays the same E. Cannot be determined
E. Using makeup with metallic particles E. None of these.
71. What is the purpose of gadolinium-based contrast 80. When slice thickness is increased, signal to noise
agents in MRI? ratio _ _
A. Reducing overall noise levels A. Increases B. Decreases
B. Highlighting abnormalities in tissues C. Stays the same E. Cannot be determined
C. Increasing magnetic field strength E. None of these.
D. Improving image resolution
E. Protecting the patient from radiation

‫مع متنياتي لكم بالنجاح الباهر‬

72. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication
for an MRI scan with gadolinium-based contrast?
A. Severe kidney disease B. Pregnancy
C. History of allergic reactions D. Both A and B
E. Cardiac pacemaker