April 6 1

JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 06 April, 2023 (SHIFT-1) | TIME : (9.00 a.m. to 12.00 p.m)
w
Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
PART : MATHEMATICS
   3 
x 3 
 3 x 
1. Let A  {x  R : x  3  x  4  3}, B  x  R : 3

x


r 
r 1 10 
 3  , where [t] denotes greatest

  
integer functions. Then
(1) A = B (2) A  B, , A B (3) B  C, , A B (4) A  B   ,
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. A= x  R : x  3  x  4  3
x  3  x  4  3
x  2  x   ,1
   3 
x 3 
 3 x 
B= x  R : 3 x 

 
r


3 

  r 1 10  
x 3
  1 1 
3 x  3  2  ....   3 3 x
  10 10 
x 3
  1 
  
 3 10    3 4x
  1 
  1 
  10 
33  x  34x
3–x < -4x
3x < – 3  x< –1
A=B
x 2 ( x sec 2 x  tan x ) 

2. ( x )   dx . If I(0)=, then   is equal to
( x tan x  1)2 4
(1) loge
  42  2
(2) loge
  42  2
32 4(   4) 16 4(   4)
(3) loge
  4 2

 2
(4) loge
  42 –
2
32 4(   4) 16 4(   4)
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)

x 2 x sec 2 x  tan x dx
Sol. I(x)=  x tan x  1 2

d
dx

x tan x  1  x sec 2 x  tan x 
 1  x
 I(x)= x 2 
 x tan x  1
  2
 x tan x 1
dx 

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 x2 x cos x
=
x tan x  1
2  x sin x  cos x dx
 x2
=  2 ln x sin x  cos x   c
x tan x  1
I(0) =0  C=0
   42 
 
2
I(/4) = ln 
 32  4  4
 
Correct option –(I)
3. The mean and variance of a set of 15 numbers are 12 and 14 respectively. The mean and variance of
another set of 15 numbers are 14 and respectively. If the variance of all the 30 numbers in the two
sets is 13, then is equal to
(1) 11 (2)12 (3) 10 (4) 9
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso. Ans. (3)
Sol. x1  12 x 2  14 12  14 22  2
n1=15, n2=15
n112  n2  22 n1n2 x1  x 2 
2
variance of 30 number= 
n1  n2 n1  n2 2
14   2 12  14
2
13= 
2 4
24=14 +  2   2 =10
4. Let a1, a2, a3,……… an, be n positive consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression If d > 0 is its
d  1 1 
is
common difference, then lim  ....... 
n  n  a1  a2 an1  an 
1
(1) (2) d (3) 0 (4) 1
d
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso. Ans. (4)
 1 1 1 
Sol.    
 a  a a 2  a3 an1  an 
 1 2 
 a 2  a1 a3  a 2 a 4  a3 an  an1 
=    
 a 2  a1 a3  a 2 a 4  a3 an  an1 
 
=
1
d

an  a1 
Lt d  1 1 1 

  

n   n a1  a 2 a 2  a3 an1  an 
 

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Ltd  an  a1 
=
n n  d 
 
 a1  n  1d  a1   a 
=
Lt   = Lt  1  1  1   a1 
n  n d  n  nd  n 

nd 

 
=1
5. From the top A of a vertical wall AB of height 30m, the angles of depression of the top P and bottom Q
of a vertical tower PQ are 15° and 60°respectively, B and Q are on the same horizontal level. If C is a
point on AB such that CB = PQ, then the are (in m 2) of the quadrilateral BCPQ is equal to

(1) 300 3  1  
(2) 200 3  3  
(3) 600 3  1  
(4) 300 3  1 
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso. Ans. (3)
Sol.
60°
30  h
tan 15° =
x
30 30
tan 60° =  x
x 3
2 3 30  h 2 3
  30  = 30 – h
30  
3  3 
2 60
h = 30 – 30 × + 30 = 60 –
3 3
30(60)( 3  1)
Area = = 600 ( 3  1)
3
6. Statement (P Q) (R Q) is logically equivalent to :

(1) (P R) QR) (2) (P R)  QR)
(3) (P R) Q (4) (P  R) Q
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso. Ans. (4)
Sol. (~P Q) (~R Q)
(~P ~R) Q
~ (P R) Q
 (P R) Q

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7. Sum of the first 20 terms of the series : 5 + 11 + 19 + 29 + 41+...........is
(1) 3520 (2) 3420 (3) 3450 (4) 3250
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)
Sol. 5, 11, 19, 29, 41
6 8 10 12
2 2 2
Tn = an2 + bn + c
T1= a +b +c = 5 …… (1)
T2= 4a+2b+c=11 …… (2)
T3 = 9a +3b+c=19 …. (3)
eq. (2) –eq. (1)
3a + b =6 …..(4)
eq. (3) –eq. (2)
5a +b=8 …..(5)
eq (5) – eq(4)
2a =2  a=1, b=3, c=1
Tn=n2+ 3n +1
 n 
20
20.21.41 20.21
S20= 2
 3n  1   3.  20 =3520
n1
6 2
8. The sum of all the roots of the equation | x2 – 8x  15 | 2x  7  0 is :

(1) 11 3 (2) 9  3 (3) 9  3 (4) 11 3
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso. Ans. (2)
Sol. x 2  8x  15  2x  7  0
x  3x  5  2x  7  0
Case-I : If x  (,3]  [5, )
x  8x  15  2x  7  0
2
x 2  10x  22  0
10  12
x= 5 3
2
 x=5 + 3 is accepted
Case-II : If x  (3,5)
–x2 +8x –15 –2x +7=0
x2 –6x+8=0
x=2, 4  x=4 is only accepted
 Sum of roots 5 + 3 +4 = 9 + 3

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9. Let A = [aij]22 , where aij 0 for all I, j and A2 = I. Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A and
b = |A|. Then 3a2 + 4b2 is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 14 (3) 7 (4) 3
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)
a a12 
Sol. Let A=  11  & A = I |A| = 1 b = 1
2 2 2
 a 21 a 22 
a a12  a11 a12 

A2=  11
a 21 a 22  a 21 a 22 
 a 2  a12a 21 a11a12  a12a 22  1 0
=  11 
a 21a11  a 22a 21 a 21a12  a 222  0 1
a12 (a11 + a22)=0  a11  a22  a  0
 3a2+4b2 =4
10. One vertex of a rectangular parallelepiped is at the origin O and the lengths of its edges along x, y and z
axes are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. . Let P be the vertex (3, 4, 5) . Then the shortest distance between
the diagonal OP and an edge parallel to z axis, not passing through O or P is :
12 12 12
(1) 12 5 (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso. Ans. (3)
Sol. Eq. of line CD is

r  4 ĵ   5 k̂
Eq of line OP is


r   3 î  4 ĵ  5 k̂ 
0 4 0
 
    0 0 5
S.D.=
a1  a 2 . b1  b 2
  =
3 4 5
b1  b 2 î ĵ k̂
0 0 5
3 4 5
E(0, 0, 5)
D (0, 4, 5)
(3, 0, 5)
F
P (3, 4, 5)
o Y
C
A (0, 4, 0)
(3, 0, 0) B (3, 4, 0)
X
12
S.D. =
5

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11. If the system of equations
x + y + az = b
2x + 5y + 2z = 6
X + 2y + 3z = 3
Has infinitely many solutions, then 2a + 3b is equal to
(1) 25 (2) 28 (3) 23 (4) 20
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso. Ans. (3)
1 1 a
Sol. = 2 5 2 =1(15 –4) +1 (2– 6) +a(4 – 5) =7–a
1 2 3
For Infinite solution =0  a=7
b 1 7
x = 6 5 2 =b(15–4) + 1(6–18) + 7(12–15) =11b–12–21=11b–33=0
3 2 3
 b=3
1 b 7
y = 2 6 2 =1(18–6) +b(2–6)+7(6–6)
1 3 3
=12–4b=0 b=3
1 1 b
z = 2 5 6 =1(15–12)+1(6–6) +b(4–5)
1 2 3
=3–b=0  b=3
 2a+3b=14+9 =23
12. If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes
x 1 y  3 z  2
2x – y + z = 3, 4x – 3y + 5z + 9 = 0 and parallel to the line   is ax + by + cz + 6 = 0,
2 4 5
then a + b + c is equal to
(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 13 (4) 12
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)
Sol. Equation of family of plane passing through the line of intersection of given planes is
(2x – y + z – 3) + (4x – 3y + 5z + 9) = 0
(2 + 4)x – (1 + 3)y + (1 + 5) z + (9 – 3) = 0
x 1 y  3 z – 2
parallel to = =
–2 4 5
 –2 (2 + 4) + 4 (– 1 – 3) + 5 (1 + 5) = 0

– 4 – 8x – 4 – 12 + 5 + 25 = 0
3
5 – 3 = 0   
5
So, plane is

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5(2x – y + z – 3) + 3 (4x – 3y + 5z + 9) = 0
22x – 14y + 20z + 12 = 0
11x – 7y + 10z + 6 = 0
a = 11. b = – 7, c = 10
a + b + c = 11 – 7 + 10 =14
correct option (1)
13. The straight lines I1 and I2 pass through the origin and trisect the line segment of the line L : 9x + 5y = 45
between the axes. If m 1 and m2 are the slopes of the lines I1 and I2 then the point of intersection of the
line y = (m1 + m2)x with L lies on
(1) y–2x = 15 (2) 6x–y = 15 (3) 6x+y = 10 (4) y – x = 5
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso. Ans. (4)
Sol.
B(0, 9)
Q  5 ,6 
3 
P  10 ,3 
 3 
A(5, 0)
L
3 9
m1 = =
10 / 3 10
6 18
m2 = =
5 / 3 5
9  36 45 9
m1 + m2 =  =
10 10 2
9
So, y = (m1 + m2) x is y = x
2
9
Now solving y = x and 9x + 5y = 45
2
45 10
 2y + 5y = 45  y = ,x=
7 7
35
y–x= 5
7
 correct option (4)

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3 = 10 : 1, then the ratio (n + 3n) : (n – 3n + 4) is

14. If 2nC nC 2 2
3 :
(1) 2:1 (2) 35:16 (3) 27:11 (4) 65: 37
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)
2n2n  12n  2 10
Sol. = `
nn  1n  2 1
42n  1 10
=
n2 1
8n – 4 = 10n – 20  n = 8
n2  3n 64  24 88
= = = 2 :1
2
n  3n  4 64  24  4 44
     
15. Let a  2î  3 ĵ  4k̂,b  î  2 ĵ  2k̂ and c   î  4 ĵ  3k̂ if d is a vector perpendicular to both b and c and
  
a.d = 18, then | a  d |2 is equal to
(1) 720 (2) 680 (3) 760 (4) 640
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)
Sol. As d is perpendicular to both b and c  d =  b  c ,   R  
î ĵ k̂

d =  1  2  2 =  î 2  ĵ1  k̂2 
1 4 3

=  2 î  ĵ  2k̂ 
a.d = 18  || = 2
î ĵ k̂
a  d 2

= 2 2 3 4 = 4 10î  4 ĵ  8k̂ 2
2 1 2
= 4 (100 + 16 + 64) = 4 (180) = 720
16. A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each throw, a total of 5 is considered a success. If the probability of
k
at least 4 successes is 11 , then k is equal to
3
(1) 123 (2) 164 (3) 82 (4) 75
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)
4 1
Sol. Let P = probability of getting sum ‘5’ in single throw = =
36 9
8
q= .
9
P(x ≥ 4) = P(x = 4) + P(x = 5)
= 5C4P4 q + 5C5 P5
 8 1
= P4   5   
 9 9

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4
 1  41 41 123
=    = 10 = 11
9 9 3 3
 Correct option (1)
17. Let the position vectors of the points A, B , C and D be 5 î  5 ĵ  2k̂, î  2 ĵ  3k̂,  2î  ĵ  4k̂ and
 î  5 ĵ  6k̂ . Let the set S = {R : the points A, B, C and D are coplanar } . Then    22 is equal to
x
37
(1) 41 (2) (3) 13 (4) 25
2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso. Ans. (1)

Sol a  5 î  5 ĵ  2k̂
b̂  î  2 ĵ  3k̂

c  –2î  ĵ  4k̂
d̂  – î  5 ĵ  6k̂
BA  (BC  BD)  0
4 3 2 – 3
–3 –2 1 = 0   = 2, 3
–2 3 3
( + 2)2 = 16 + 25 = 41
Correct option (1)
2
 1 1
18. Let 5f ( x )  4f     3, x  0. Then 18 f ( x )dx is equal to :
x x 1
(1) 5 loge 2 – 3 (2) 5 loge 2 + 3 (3) 10 loge 2 +6 (4) 10 loge 2 – 6
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso. Ans. (4)
 1 1
Sol. 5f(x) + 4f    + 3
x x
 1
5f   +4f(x) = x + 3
x
5
9f(x) = + 15 – 4x – 12
x
10
18f(x) = – 8x + 6
x
 18f (x)dx  10lnx  4x 

2
2
2
 6x 1
1
= 10 ln2 –16 +12 + 4 – 6
= 10 ln2 – 6

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dy
19. If 2xy + 3yx = 20, then at (2, 2) is equal to :
dx
 3  loge 16   2  loge 8   3  loge 4   3  loge 8 
(1)   
 (2)   
 (3)   
 (4)   

 4  loge 8   3  loge 4   2  loge 8   2  loge 4 
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso. Ans. (2)
 y' 
Differentiating 2 xy  ln x  y  + 3 yx
dy 1
Sol. 1. ln y  x  = 0
 dx x  y
Put x = 2, y = 2
2 4   
dy dy 
ln2  1 + 3 4  ln2   =0
 dx   dx 
dy
2  ln2  3 + (2 + 3 ln2) = 0
dx
dy
=–
2  3 ln2 =   2  loge 8 
dx 3  2 ln2  3  loge 4 
20. If the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term form the end in the expansion of
n
4 1 
 2  is 6 : 1 , then the third term from the beginning is :
 4 
 3
(1) 30 2 (2) 60 3 (3) 60 2 (4) 30 3
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso. Ans. (2)
n 4 4
 1  1 
n
C4  2 4   3 4 
   
Sol. given     = 6
n 4 4
 1   1
n
C4  3 4   24 
   
   
n 8 n 8
 2 4 3 4 = 6
6n – 8= 62
 n = 10
8 2
 1   1  15  3  4
So T3 = C2  2 4    3 4  =
10  60 3
    3
   
21. Let aZ and [t] be the greatest integer t. Then the number of points, where the function
f(x) = [a+13sinx] , x(0, ) is not differentiable, is _________.
NTA Ans. (25)
Reso. Ans. (25)
Sol. f(x) = a + [13 sinx]  a   and x  (0, )
 total number of points of non-differentiability of [p sinx] = 2p – 1 here p = 13
 total number of points of non-differentiability of [13 sinx] = 25

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22. A circle passing through the point P(,) in the first quadrant touches the two coordinate axes at the
points A and B. The point P is above the line AB. The point Q on the line segment AB is the foot of
perpendicular from P on AB. If PQ is equal to 11 units, then the value of  is ___________.
NTA Ans. (121)
Reso. Ans. (121)
Sol.
Equation of line AB
x+y=a ………..(i)
 +  – 2a– 2a + a = 0
2 2 2 ………..(i)
–a
PQ = = 11
2
2 + 2 + 2– 2ax – 2+ a2 = 121 × 2
0 + 2= 2 × 121
 = 121
23. Let A = {1,2,3, 4,…….10} and B = {0, 1,2,3,4} . The number of elements in the relation R = {(a,b) A A
: 2(a–b)2 + 3(a–b) B} is ________.
NTA Ans. (18)
Reso. Ans. (18)
Sol (a–b) (2(a – b) + 3)B
If a – b = 0 0 B
Number of order pair (a, b) = 10
If a – b = – 2  2B
Number of order pair (a – b) = 8
Number of elements = 18
24. Let the image of the point P(1,2,3) in the plane 2x – y + z = 9 be Q. If the coordinates of the point R are
(6, 10, 7) , then the square of the area of the triangle PQR is _______.
NTA Ans. (594)
Reso. Ans. (594)
Sol. Image of P(1, 2, 3)
x –1 y–2 z–3 –2(2 – 2  3 – 9)
= = =
2 –1 1 4  1 1
Q  (5, 0, 5)
and  (6, 10, 7)
PQ = 4 î – 2 ĵ  2k̂
PR = 5 î – 8 ĵ  4k̂

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î ĵ k̂
1
= 4 – 2 2
2
5 8 4
= 3 4 î  ĵ – 7k̂ = 3 66
2 = 594
25. Let the point (p, p + 1) lie inside the region  
E  x, y : 3  x  y  9  x ,0  x  3 . If the set of sall
2
 
values of p is the interval (a, b), then b + b – a is equal to _______.
2 2
NTA Ans. (3)

Reso. Ans. (3)
Sol. 3 – x ≤ y x + y – 3 ≥ 0..….. (i)
y≤ 9 – x2
x2 + y2 ≤ 9
(o, 3)
(–3, 0) (3, 0)
P+P+1–3≥0
 P≥1
and P2 + (P + 1)2 ≤ 9
2P2 + 2P – 8 ≤ 0
P2 + P – 4 ≤ 0
 P –

 1  17 17 – 1
, 

 2 2 
 17 – 1
 P 1, 
 2 
17 1
a = 1, b = –
2 2
b2 + b – a2 = 3
26.  
If the area of the region S  ( x, y) : 2y  y 2  x 2  2y, x  y is equal to
n2


n 1 n 1
then the natural
number n is equal to _________.

NTA Ans. (5)
Reso. Ans. (5)
Sol. 2y – y2 ≤ x2  x2 + (y – 1)2 ≥ 1 ………..(i)
x2 ≤ 2y ………..(ii)
x ≥ y ………..(iii)
Solving (i) and (ii)
2y + y2 – 2y + 1 = 1
y=0

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y=x
(2, 2)
(1,1)
2 2
 x – x dx –   – 1 
 A=  2   4 2 
0 
2
 x2 x3 
=  –  –   – 2 
 2 
 6 0  4 
4  1 7 
=2– – + = –
3 4 2 6 4
n=5
15
 1 
27. The coefficient of x18 in the expansion of  x 4  3  is _________.
 x 
NTA Ans. (5005)
Reso. Ans. (5005)
1
Sol. Tr 1 =
15
c r ( x 4 )15r (  3
)r
x
60  4r  3r  18
7r =42
r=6
Coff.= 15 c 6 = 5005

28. Let y = y(x) be a solution of the differential equation (xcosx)dy + (xysinx+ycosx–1)dx = 0, 0<x< . If
2
    
y   3, then y' '    2y'   is equal to __________.
3 3 6 6 6
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso. Ans. (2)
Sol. xcosx dy + [xysinx + ycosx – 1]dx = 0
cos x (xdy + ydx) + (xy) sinxdx – dx = 0
dxy 
+ (tanx)  xy = sec x
dx
I.F = e  tan x dx = en sec x = sec x
complete solution
(xy) secx =  sec2 xdx
(xy) secx = tan x + c
 3 
x= ,y=
3 
3 2= 3 +C
C= 3

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xy = sin x  3 cos x
xy' + y = cosx – 3 sinx
xy' ' + 2 y' = – sinx – 3 cos x
   1 3
 y"    2 y '   = – – = 2
6 6 6 2 2
29. Let the tangent to curve x2 + 2x – 4y + 9x = 0 at the point P(1,3) on it meet the y-axis at A. Let the line
passing through P and parallel to the line x – 3y = 6 meet the parabola y2 = 4x at B. If B lies on the line
2x – 3y = 8, then (AB)2 is equal to _______________.
NTA Ans. (292)
Reso. Ans. (292)
Sol. Equation of tangent at P(1, 3)
x + (x + 1) – 2(y + 3) = 9 = 0
2x – 2y + 4 = 0
A  (0, 2)
Equation of line through P(1, 3) parallel to
x – 3y = 6 is
x – 3y + 8 = 0…….(i)
B  (16, 8)
(AB)2 = 162 + 36 = 292
30 The number of ways of giving 20 distinct oranges to 3 children such that each child gets at least one
orange is _________
NTA Ans. (171)
Reso. Ans. (171)
Sol. x1 + x2 + x3 = 20
let x1 = 1 + t1, x2 = 1 + t2, x3 = 1 + t3
when t1, t2, t3  {0, 1, 2, …….17}
t1 + t2 + t3 = 17--------(1)
So number of such distribution is equal to number of non-negative integral solutions of equation (1)
So required solution = 17 + 3 – 1C3–1 = 19C2

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JEE (Main)
2023
w
SUBJECT: PHYSICS

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| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
PART : PHYSICS
31. The number of air molecules per cm 3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision frequency
of air molecule before and after the increase in number respectively is:
(1) 0.75 (2) 1.25 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.50
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. f 
f1 N 3  1019 1
= 1 = = = 0.25
f2 N2 12  1019 4
32. The resistivity () of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the following curve represents the
correct behaviour
(1) (2) (3) (4)

NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
33. For the plane electromagnetic wave given by E = Eo sin (t – kx) and B = Bo sin (t – kx), the ratio of
average electric energy density to average magnetic energy density is
1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 2
2
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
34. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown below. The transition corresponding to emission of
shortest wavelength is
(1) D (2) A (3) C (4) B

NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)

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35. Two resistance are given as R1 = (10 ± 0.5) and R2 = (15 ± 0.5) . The percentage error in the
measurement of equivalent resistance when they are connected in parallel is :
(1) 6.33 (2) 5.33 (3) 2.33 (4) 4.33
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
1 1 1
Sol.  
R R1 R 2
1 1 1
 
R 15 10
R = 6
R  R R 
  21  22 
2
R  R1 R 2 
 R R   0.5 0.5  975
 R = R2  21  22  = 6 2  2  2  = 36 [0.0022 + 0.005] =  4.33 
 R1 R2  15 10  225
36. By what percentage will the transmission range of a TV tower be affected when the height of the tower is
increased by 21%?
(1) 10% (2) 12% (3) 15% (4) 14%
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. d= 2R H
d' = 2 R 1.21H
d'd
 100  10 %
d
37. A small ball of mass M and density is dropped in a viscous liquid of density o. After some time, the ball
falls with a constant velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball?
        
(1) F = Mg 1  o  (2) F = Mg  1   (3) F = Mg 1  o  (4) F = Mg (1 ± o)
     o    
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. F = mg – B
m  0 
= mg – ×g = mg 1  
   
F B
V mg

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38. A small block of mass 100g is tied to a spring of spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm. The other
end of spring is fixed at a particular point A. If the block moves in a circular path on a smooth horizontal
surface with constant angular velocity 5 rad/s about point A, then tension in the spring is –
(1) 1.5 N (2) 0.75 N (3) 0.50 N (4) 0.25 N
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. T = m2( + x) = kx
m 2 
=x
k  m 2
T = kx
m 2   k
T=
k  m 2
0.1(5)2 (.20)  7.5 25  7.5  2  102
= = = .75
7 .5  0 .1 ( 5 2 ) 5
39. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 200
W. The rate at which internal energy of the system increases is.
(1) 500 W (2) 1200 W (3) 800 W (4) 600 W
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. 1000 = 200 + U
 U = 800 W
40. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached
(1) AND (2) NAND (3) NOR (4) OR

NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. NOR
A B Output
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0

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41. For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the electric potential (V) radially away from the centre (O) of
shell can be graphically represented as–
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
42. A mass m is attached to two strings as shown in figure. The spring constant of two springs are K 1 and K2.
For the frictionless surface, the time period of oscillation of mass m is.
m m 1 K1  K 2 1 K1  K 2
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) (4)
K1  K 2 K1  K 2 2 m 2 m
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
43. A particle is moving with constant speed in a circular path. When the particle turns by an angle 90, the
ratio of instantaneous velocity to its average velocity is : x 2 .The value of x will be–
(1) 1 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 2
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol.
B
A
R
displaceme nt R 24 R 24 V 2R 

vav = = ; v av  ;  = ; x=2
time T 2R Vav R 2  4 2 2
V

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44. The Kinetic energy of an electron, –particle and a proton are given as 4 K, 2 K and K respectively. The
de–Broglie wavelength associated with electron (e), –particle ) and the proton (p) are as follows:
(1)  = p < e (2)  > p > e (3)  = p > e (4)  < p < e
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
h h h p
Sol. e = ; p = < e ;   = 
2me 4K 2m p K 2( 4mp )2K 2 2
45. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its average density is equal to that of the earth. An object
weighing W on earth will weigh on that planet:
(1) W (2) 2 W (3) 2 2 3 W (4) 2 1 3 W
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
mGM
Sol. Weight W e = mg =
R2
M 2M
=
4 3 4 3
Re Rp
3 3
1
Rp = R e 2 3
2
We Me  Rp 
Ratio of weight  = ×  

Wp Mp  Re 
2 1
W M W 1
= × (21/3)2  = 23  Wp = W × 2 3
Wp 2M Wp
46. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Earth has atmosphere whereas moon doesn't have any atmosphere.
Reason R: The escape velocity on moon is very small as compared to that on earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is false but R is true
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
47. A long straight wire of circular cross-section (radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I is
uniformly distributed across this cross-section. The magnetic field is
(1) directly proportional to r in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(2) inversely proportional to r in the region r < a and uniform throughout in the region r > a
(3) uniform in the region r < a and inversely proportional to distance r from the axis, in the region r > a
(4) zero in the region r < a <a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > r > a
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)

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Sol. For r < a
 0 r
B=
2a2
  B  r for r > a
0 1
B=  B  
2r r
48. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength 1 and frequency v1 in air enters another medium. If the
angle of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45 ° and 30° respectively, then the
wavelength 2 and frequency v2 of the refracted wave are:
1
(1)  2  21, v1  v1 (2)  2  1, v 2  v1
2
(3)  2   1, v 2  v 1 (4)  2  1, v 2  2v1
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. n1sin45° = n2sin30°
C 1 C 1
    V1 = 2V2 , 1 = 2 2
V1 2 V2 2
49. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: When a body is projected at an angle 45°, it's range is maximum.
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of sin 20 should be equal to one.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.  = 45º
  Rmax
(R) Sin2 = 1
Sin2 = sin2(45) = 1
50. The induced emf can be produced in a coil by

A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field
B. moving the coil with non-uniform speed inside uniform magnetic field
C. rotating the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
D. changing the area of the coil inside the uniform magnetic field
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C only (2) A and C only (3) C and D only (4) B and D only
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)

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51. A steel rod has a radius of 20 mm and a length of 2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along its length.
Young's modulus of steel is 2.0 ×1011 N/m2. The longitudinal strain produced in the wire is _____×10–5
NTA Ans. 25
Reso Ans. 25
Sol. F = kx
yA
x

x F F 62.8  103
strain =   = = 25 × 10–5
 yA y  r 2 2  1011    (20  103 )2
52. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies electrical
energy to a number of nearby houses at 120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in the houses
served by the transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive load (Rs) required in the secondary circuit will
be ____________ Μ.
NTA Ans. 240
Reso Ans. 240
Sol. V1 = 12 KV
V2 = 120V
P2 = 60W
R2 = ?
V2
P=
R
V22 1202
R2    240
P2 60
53. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20% and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%. The
percentage change in resistance of the metallic wire is _____________.
NTA Ans. 25
Reso Ans. 25
Sol. Suppose initial length of wire = l
cross area sectional = A
And resistivity of material = 
  Initial resistance R =  × /A
  [1  0.20]
Now Resistance of change R' =
A[1  0.04]
 R
R' = 1.25  1.25R  % change  100  25 %
A R
54. A parallel plate capacitor with plate are A and plate separation d is filled with a dielectric material of
dielectric constant K = 4. The thickness of the dielectric material is x, where x < d.
1 2d
Let C1 and C2 be the capacitance of the system for X = d and X = , respectively. If C1 = 2F the
3 3
value of C2 is ___________ F.

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NTA Ans. 3
Reso Ans. 3
0 A 0 A 0 A 12 0 A 4 0 A
Sol. C1 = =   =
d 2d d 2d d 9d 3d
  (1  8)
3k 3 12 3 12
0A 0A 0 A 6 0 A 2 0 A
C2 = =   =
2d d 2d d d 3d d
  (1  2)
3k 3 12 3 6
C1 4 / 3 C1 4 2 3
 ;   ; C2 = C 1
C2 2 /1 C2 2  3 3 2
C2 = 3F
55. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is _____________ × 10–12m.

Take: radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51 Å.
NTA Ans. 425
Reso Ans. 425
n2 52
Sol. r= a0   5.3  1011 m 4.4Å
Z 3
56. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool, such that it gives a length of shadow 2.15 m within water
when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30° with the surface of water. If swimming pool is filled to a height
of 1.5 m, then the height of the pole above the water surface in centimetres is (nw = 4/3) .
NTA Ans. 50
Reso Ans. 50
Sol.
60° 60°
A 30°
r
Water 1.5
x1
x2
x
x = 2.15
x1 + x2 = 2.15 …..(1)
x
tan60° = 1  3
h
x1  h 3
Snell's law
1 × sin60° = 4/3 × sin r

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3 3
  sinr ……(2)
2 4
x
tan r  2
1 .5
3 3  1.5
x2  …..(3)
37
from equation (1) & (3)
3 3  1.5
h 3  2.15
37
h = 0.5 m = 50 cm
57. Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm and carrying current 2 A are placed in perpendicular planes
as shown in figure. The net magnetic field at the centre of the circular wires is _________ × 10–8 T.
(Take  = 3.14)
NTA Ans. 628
Reso Ans. 628
 0Ni
Sol. =
2R
 4  107  2 
=   2
 2  0.2 
 
= 2 × 10–6 = 6.28 × 10–6 = 628 × 10–8 T
58. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The
separation between the centres of the spheres is 40 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about an
axis perpendicular to the rod passing through its middle point ___________ is × 10–3 kg-m2
NTA Ans. 176
Reso Ans. 176
2 
Sol.   2 mR2  md2 
5 
d = 20 cm = 2R
2  44
  2 mR2  4mR2  = MR 2 = 176 × 10–3 kg.m2
5  5

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59. A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in SI
n
 10 
units. Its loss of kinetic energy for above displacement is   J. The value of n will be ________.
 x 
NTA Ans. 2
Reso Ans. 2
Sol. W = KE
10
W
 Fdx   madx = –  1000  2xdx
1 x2
 KE = – ×2×
100 2
2 2 n
 x   10   10 
–KE =   =   =  
10
   x   x 
n=2
60. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m/s is approaching a vertical wall. The person notices a
change of 40Hz in the frequency of his car's horn upon reflection from the wall. The frequency of horn is
________Hz. (Given: Speed of sound : 330 m/s)
NTA Ans. 420
Reso Ans. 420
Sol.
v u
fapp. = f0 ×  
 v u
 f = fapp – f0
2u
 f = f0
v u
 2  15 
40  f0  
 330  15 
f0 = 420

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2023
w
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY

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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 06-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
PART : CHEMISTRY
61. Match List I with List II :
List I List II
(A) Hell-Volhard-Zelinksly reaction NaOH + 2
(I)
(B) Iodoform reaction (II) (i) CrO2Cl2 , CS2
(ii) H2O
(C) Etard reaction (III) (i) Br2/red phosphorus
(ii) H2O
(D) Gatterman-Koch reaction (IV) CO, HCl, anhyd. AlCl3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A – III, B – I, C – II , D – IV (1) A – I, B – II, C – III , D – IV
(3) A – III, B – I, C – IV , D – II (4) A – III, B – II, C – I , D – IV
Ans. NTA - (1)
Reso – (1)
CH3 CHO
Sol. (A) CrO2Cl2

CS2
Etard
CHO
CO + HCl
(B)
Gattermann-Koch
reaction
X2 +
(C) CH3–COOH Red P
CH2–COOH
X
H.V.Z. Reaction
I2/NaOH
(D) CH3–C–R CHI3+ R–C–O–Na+
O O
Haloform reaction
62. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : The spin only magnetic moment value for [Fe(CN)6]3– is 1.74 BM, whereas for [Fe(H2O)6]3+
is 5.92 BM.
Reason R : In both complexes, Fe is present in +3 oxidation state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA - (2)
Reso – (2)

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Sol. In [Fe(H2O)6]+3 , H2O is a weak field ligand so configuration of Fe+3 is t12,1g,1 , e1g,1
so number of unpaired electron are 5 and magenetic momentum is 5.92 BM
In [Fe(CN)6]–3 , CN– is a strong field ligand so configuration of Fe+3 is t 22,g2,1 , e 0g, 0
so number of unpaired electron are 1 and magenetic momentum is 1.73 BM
63. Polymer used in orlon is :

(1) Polycarbonate (2) Polyacrylonitrile (3) Polyethene (4) Polyamide
Ans. NTA - (2)
Reso – (2)
CN CN
Sol. CH2=CH –CH2–CH–
n
Polyacrylonitrile (PAN = orlon)
64. The setting time of Cement is increased by adding

(1) Gypsum (2) Silica (3) Clay (4) Limestone
Ans. NTA - (1)
Reso – (1)
Sol. The purpose of adding gypsum is only to slow down the process of setting of the cement so that it gets
sufficiently hardened.

List I (Vitamin) List II (Deficiency disease)
(A) Vitamin A (I) Beri-Beri
(B) Thiamine (II) Cheilosis
(C) Ascorbic acid (III) Xeropthalmia
(D) Riboflavin (IV) Scury
(1) A – IV, B – II, C – III , D – I (1) A – III, B – II, C – IV , D – I
(3) A – IV, B – I, C – III , D – II (4) A – III, B – I, C – IV , D – II
Ans. NTA - (4)
Reso – (4)
Sol. Vitamin A Xeropthalmia
Thiamine Beri-Beri
Ascorbic acid  Scurvy
Riboflavin  Cheilosis

List I List II
(Element detected) (Reagent used/Product formed )
(A) Nitrogen (I) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
(B) Sulphur (II) AgNO3
(C) Phosphorous (III) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(D) Halogen (IV) (NH4)2 MoO4
(1) A – IV, B – II, C – I , D – III (1) A – II, B – IV, C – I , D – III
(3) A – II, B – I, C – IV , D – III (4) A – III, B – I, C – IV , D – II
Ans. NTA - (4)
Reso – (4)

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Sol. (1) Halogen + AgNO3  AgX ppt

(2) 'S' + Sodium nitro prusside  Violet colour
–
(3) 'N' + [Fe(CN)6 ] 4  Blue colour
(4) 'P' + (NH4)2 MoO4 (NH4)3 PO4.12MoO3 Yellow colour
67. A compound is formed by two elements X and Y. The element Y forms cubic close packed arrangement
and those of element X occupy one third of the tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound ?
(1) X2Y3 (2) X3Y2 (3) X3Y (4) XY3
Ans. NTA - (1)
Reso – (1)
Sol. Effective number of Y atom = 4 (Y forms cubic close packed arrangement)
1 8
Effective number of X atom =  8 = (X occupy one third of the tetrahedral voids)
3 3
  3
so formula of compound =  X 8 Y4   = X2Y3
 
 3  4
68. For a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte (K eq = equilibrium constant) A2B3 of concentration 'c',
the degree of dissociation '' is
1/ 5 1/ 5 1/ 5 1/ 5
 K eq   K eq   K eq   K eq 
(1)  5  (2)  4  (3)  4

 (4)  
2 
 6c   5c   108c   25c 
Ans. NTA - (3)
Reso – (3)
Sol. A2B3 2A + 3B
Initial conc. C 0 0
C – C 2C 3C
(2C)2 (3C)3
K=
(C  C)
108C5  5
K= = 108C45
C
1/ 5
 K 
=  
108C 4 
69. The major product formed in the following reaction is
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. NTA - (4)

Reso – (4)

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CONH2 Br2/NaOH
Sol. NH2
COOCH3 Hoffmann C–O–CH3
Bromide
reaction O
SN2Th
NH
C
O
70. The standard electrode potential of M+/M in aqueous solution does not depend on
(1) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom (2) Ionisation of a solid metal atom
(3) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion (4) Sublimation of a solid metal
Ans. NTA - (2)
Reso - (2)
Sol. The standard electrode potential of M+/M in aqueous solution depend on
* Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom
* Hydration of a gaseous metal ion
* Sublimation of a solid metal
0
EM 
/M
depends on
M(s)  M(g) ; Hsub
M(g)  M+(g) ; HI.E.
M+(g) + aq  M+(aq) ; HHydration.
71. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Loss of electron from hydrogen atom results in nucleus of ~1.5 × 10 –3 pm size.
Reason R : Proton (H+) always exists in combined form.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) A is correct but R is not correct
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
Ans. NTA - (4)
Reso - (4)
Sol. Theory based

List I List II
(Oxide) (Type of bond)
(A) N2O4 (I) 1 N = O bond
(B) NO2 (II) 1 N–O–N bond
(C) N2O5 (III) 1 N–N bond
(D) N2O (IV) 1 N=N/NN bond
(1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV (2) A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II
(3) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV (4) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
Ans. NTA - (1)
Reso – (1)

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Sol.
73. The major products A and B from the following reactions are :
Ans. NTA - (4)

Reso – (4)
O
O
NH–C–CH3 NH–CH2–CH3
Br2 LiAlH4
NH–C–CH3
ACOH
Sol. Br

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74. Strong reducing and oxidizing agents among the following, respectively, are :
(1) Ce4+ and Tb4+ (2) Ce4+ and Eu2+
(3) Eu2+ and Ce4+ (4) Ce3+ and Ce4+
Ans. NTA - (3)
Reso – (3)
Sol. (E0Ce4 / Ce3 )RP = 1.74 V
Eu+2 is a strong reducing agent changing to common oxidation state + 3.
Most common oxidation no. of Eu & Ce are + 3

List I List II
(Enzymatic reaction) (Enzyme)
(A) Sucrose  Glucose and Fructose (I) Zymase
(B) Glucose  ethyl alcohol and CO2 (II) Pepsin
(C) Starch  Maltose (III) Invertase
(D) Proteins  Amino acids (IV) Diastase
(1) A – III, B – I, C – IV , D – II (2) A – III, B – I, C – II , D – IV
(3) A – I, B – IV, C – III , D – II (4) A – I, B – II, C – IV , D – III
Ans. NTA - (1)
Reso – (1)
Cane sugar (sucrose) 
 Glucose + Fructose
Invertase
Sol.
Glucose  ethyl alcohol
Zymase
Starch  Maltose

Diastase
Protein 
 Amino acid
Pep sin
76. The possibility of photochemical smog formation is more at

(1) The places with healty vegetation (2) Marshy lands
(3) Industrial areas (4) Himalayan villages in winter
Ans. NTA - (3)
Reso – (3)
Sol. Fact based
77. The difference between electron gain enthalpies will be maximum between :
(1) Ne and F (2) Ar and F (3) Ne and Cl (4) Ar and Cl
Ans. NTA - (3)
Reso – (3)
Sol. Cl has maximum –ve Heg and Ne has most +ive Heg hence difference will be maximum for
Ne and Cl.
Element Heg (KJ/mole)
F –333
Cl –349
Ne +48
Ar +116

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78.
Compound P is neutral, Q gives effervescence with NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs reagent to
give solid soluble in NaOH, compound P is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. NTA - (1)

Reso - (1)
P
H3O+
Sol. C14H13ON Q + R
Du = 9
Give React
CO2 gas with
with Hinsberg
NaHCO3 reagent
O O
CH3 C–NH H3O+
CH3 C–OH(Q) + NH2
P R
79. Which of the following options are correct for the reaction
2[Au(CN)2–(aq) + Zn(s)  2Au(s) + [Zn(CN)4]2– (aq)
(A) Redox reaction (B) Displacement reaction
(C) Decompositon reaction (D) Combination reaction
(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A) only
(3) (C) and (D) only (4) (A) and (D) only
Ans. NTA - (1)
Reso – (1)
Sol. 2[Au(CN)2–(aq) + Zn(s)  2Au(s) + [Zn(CN)4]2– (aq)
Above reaction is type of Redox reaction as well as Displacement reaction.

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80. For the reaction

RCH2Br + I–   RCH2I + Br–
Acetone
major
The correct statement is
(1) The solvent used in the reaction solvates the ions formed in rate determining step.
(2) Br– can act as competing nucleophile.
(3) The transition state formed in the above reaction is less polar than the localised anion.
(4) The reaction can occur in acetic acid also.
Ans. NTA - (3)
Reso – (3)
Sol. This is a SN2 reaction complete by transition state which requires strong nucleophile in nonpolar/polar
aprotic solvent.
81. Consider the graph of Gibbs free energy G vs Extent of reaction. The number of statement/s from the
following which are true with respect to points (a), (b) and (c) is_______
(1) Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and (b)
(2) Reaction is at equilibrium at point (b) and non-spontaneous at point (c)
(3) Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and non-spontaneous at (c)
(4) Reaction is non-spontaneous at (a) and (b)
Ans. NTA - (2)

Reso – (2)
Sol. Reaction is epontaneous in a direction in which Gibb's free energy decreases.
Hence 2 statements i.e. B & C are correct.
82. In ammonium – phosphomolybdate, the oxidation state of Mo is + __________

Ans. NTA - (6)
Reso - (6)
Sol. The Oxidation state of Mo in ammonium phosphomolybdate = + 6
(NH4)3PO4.12MoO3
83. Number of ambidentate ligands in a representative metal complex [M(en)(SCN) 4] is______.

[en = ethylenediamine]
Ans. NTA - (4)
Reso - (4)
Sol. SCN– is an ambidentate ligand.

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84. Number of bromo derivatives obtained on treating ethane with excess of Br 2 in diffused sunlight
is_______
Ans. NTA - (9)
Reso - (9)
Br Br
CH3–CH3 Br 2/HCl CH –CH CH –CH CH –C Br
Sol. (1) CH3–CH2–Br (2) 3 (3) 2 2 (4) 3
Br Br
Br Br
Br Br Br Br
(5) CH2–CH (6) Br–CH–CH–Br (7) Br C–CH2–Br (8) Br C–CH
Br Br
Br Br
Br Br Br
Br Br
(9) Br C–CH Br
Br Br
85. Mass of Urea (NH2CONH2) required to be dissolved in 1000 g of water in order to reduce the vapour
pressure of water by 25% is______ g. (Nearest integer)
Given : Molar mass of N, C, O and H are 14, 12, 16 and 1 g mol–1 respectively.
Ans. NTA - (1111)
Reso - (1111)
Sol. For a solution
P0  PS n
=
PS N
100  75 w  18
= urea
75 60  1000
wurea = 1111.1 gm
86. If 5 moles of BaCl2 is mixed with 2 moles of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 formed
is_______ (Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA - (1)
Reso - (1)
Sol. 3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4  Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl
Initial mole 5 2
5 2
L.R.  1.67  1 (L.R. = Na3PO4)
3 2
mole Na 3PO4 mole Ba3 (PO4 )2
=
2 1
2
maximum number of mole of Ba3(PO4)2 = = 1 mole
2
87. The wavelength of an electron of kinetic energy 4.50 × 10–29 J is_____×10–5 m. (Nearest integer)
Given : mass of electron is 9 × 10–31 kg, h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s
Ans. NTA - (7)
Reso - (7)
h 6.6  1034
Sol. = =
2m K.E. 2  9.1 1031  4.5  1029

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88. For the adsorption of hydrogen on platinum, the activation energy is 30 kJ mol –1 and for the adsorption
of hydrogen on nickel, the activation energy is 41.4 kJ mol –1. The logarithm of the ratio of the rates of
chemisorption on equal areas of the metals at 300 K is______ (Nearest integer)
R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1
Ans. NTA - (2)
Reso - (2)
K1 E a1  E a1
Sol. ln =
K2 R.T.
K1
ln = 2.
K2
89. The number of species from the following which have square pyramidal structure is_____
PF5, BrF4–, IF5 , BrF5 , XeOF4, ICl4–
Ans. NTA - (3)
Reso - (3)
F
F
Sol. PF5 P F Triangular bipyramidal
F
F
F F
BrF4– Square planar
Br
F F
F F F
F5 Square pyramidal

F F
F
F F
BrF5 Square pyramidal
Br
F F
F O F
XeOF4 Square pyramidal
Xe
F F
Cl Cl
 Cl4– Square planar

Cl Cl

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90. The value of log K for the reaction A B at 298 K is_______. (Nearest integer)
Given : Hº = –54.07 kJ mol–1
Sº = 10 J K–1 mol–1
(Take 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705)
Ans. NTA - (10)
Reso – (10)
Sol. Go = Ho – TSo
Go = – 54070 – 293 x 10 = – 57000 J
Go = –2.303 RT log Keq
– 57000 J = – 5705 log Keq
log Keq = 9.99 = 10

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JEE (Main)

PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

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number n is equal to _________.

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(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) D (2) A (3) C (4) B

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(1) AND (2) NAND (3) NOR (4) OR

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55. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is _____________ × 10–12m.

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Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

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Sol. (A) CrO2Cl2

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63. Polymer used in orlon is :

64. The setting time of Cement is increased by adding

65. Match List I with List II :

66. Match List I with List II :

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Sol. (1) Halogen + AgNO3  AgX ppt

69. The major product formed in the following reaction is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Ans. NTA - (4)

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72. Match List I with List II :

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