Mod 15

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Subsection 1 - Fundamentals Level 2
1. 0°C converted to kelvin is

a) -273 K
b) 273 K
c) 32 K
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - The relationship between force, work, power, energy, velocity, acceleration;
Answer: B
2. A convergent-divergent nozzle is said to be 'choked' when fluid flow

a) in all parts of the nozzle is supersonic
b) at the outlet of the nozzle is sonic (Mach 1)
c) at the throat of the nozzle is sonic (Mach 1)
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - The relationship between force, work, power, energy, velocity, acceleration
Answer: C
3. A high by-pass turbo fan engine is any engine that has a bypass ratio in excess of
a) 15:1
b) 3:1
c) 10:1
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - Constructional arrangement and operation of turbojet, turbofan, turboshaft, turboprop
Answer: B
4. A thermodynamic process cannot do work if it is obeying

a) Boyle's Law
b) Charles' Law
c) Gay Lussac's Law
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - Potential energy, kinetic energy, Newton’s laws of motion, Brayton cycle;
Answer: C
5. According to the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics, the heat of combustion in kerosene

a) cannot be converted into work
b) can never be completely converted into work by burning it
c) can always be completely converted into work by burning it
Answer: B
6. As a gas flows through a convergent duct (subsonic speed), its temperature will
a) not change
b) increase
c) decrease
Answer: C
7. As a gas flows through a convergent duct (subsonic speed), its velocity will
a) decrease
b) not change
c) increase
Answer: C
8. Force = mass x acceleration describes which of Newton's laws?

a) 2nd
b) 3rd
c) 1st
Answer: A
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9. Heat energy cannot be transferred from a cold object to a hot object without doing work on it.
a) This is the Second Law of thermodynamics
b) This is the Third Law of thermodynamics
c) This is the First Law of thermodynamics
Answer: A
10. How can the turbofan engine best be descriped?

a) As a cold air / hot air mixture engine
b) As a closed loop engine
c) As a mixture between a turbojet and a turbo-prop engine
Comment: 15.1 Fundamentals - Constructional arrangement and operation of turbojet, turbofan, turboshaft, turboprop P20
Answer: C
11. How does the Otto Cycle differ from the Brayton cycle?
a) Brayton is an intermittent cycle, Otto is a constant cycle
b) Otto is an intermittent cycle, Brayton is a constant cycle
c) The order of the strokes is different
Answer: B
12. How is the difference in basic configuration between gas turbine engine differentiated?
a) By the numbers of stages in the compressor
b) By the number of spools
c) By the numbers of turbine stages
Comment: 15.1 Fundamentals - Constructional arrangement and operation of turbojet, turbofan, turboshaft, turboprop P12
Answer: B
13. In a thermodynamic process, energy that is unavailable to do work, is known as

a) latent
b) internal
c) entropy
Answer: C
14. In practice, the pressure of the gas inside the combustion section of a gas turbine engine, from front to rear,
a) increases
b) is constant
c) reduces
Comment: 15.1 Fundamentals - Potential energy, kinetic energy, Newton's laws of motion, Brayton cycle P28
Answer: C
15. No heat is lost or gained to or from the surroundings during a thermodynamic process.
a) The process is isothermal
b) The process is adiabatic
c) The process is isochoric
Answer: B
16. The amount of thrust produced by a gas turbine engine can be calculated from a formula derived from which of Newton's
laws?
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - Potential energy, kinetic energy, Newton's laws of motion, Brayton cycle
Answer: B
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17. The Fan of a turbofan engine is usually designated as....

a) N2 and part of the high pressure compressor
b) N2 and part of the low pressure compressor
c) N1 and part of the low pressure compressor
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - Constructional arrangement and operation of turbojet, turbofan, turboshaft, turboprop.
Answer: C
18. The gas turbine engine works on the principle of the

a) Constant Pressure Cycle
b) Constant Volume Cycle
c) Constant Temperature Cycle
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - Potential energy, kinetic energy, Newton's laws of motion, Brayton cycle
Answer: A
19. The power required for lifting 75 kilograms 1 metre in 1 second is the definition of
a) 1 Horsepower
b) 1 Watt
c) 1 Joule
Answer: A
20. Turbo-prop engines are

a) either free-power turbine or direct coupled
b) all direct coupled
c) all free-power turbine
Comment: 15.1 / 2 Fundamentals - Constructional arrangement and operation of turbojet, turbofan, turboshaft, turboprop.
Answer: A
21. 0°C converted to kelvin is

a) 32 K
b) -273 K
c) 273 K
Answer: C
Subsection 2 - Engine Performance Level 2
22. 'Flat Rated Thrust' is usually described as a

a) SHP at a given temperature
b) thrust at a given temperature
c) thrust figure at a given atmospheric pressure (to account for altitude)
Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Engine ratings, static thrust, influence of speed, altitude and hot climate, flat rating,
limitations
Answer: B
23. A TSFC of 0.5, compared to 0.6 is

a) not possible to compare economy
b) more economical
c) less economical
Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Engine ratings, static thrust, influence of speed, altitude and hot climate, flat
rating, limitations.
Answer: B
24. As forward speed increases, the design of the intake can create intake momentum drag.This will
a) cause the thrust of the engine to decrease
b) cause the thrust of the engine to increase
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c) have no affect on the thrust of the engine

Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Engine efficiencies
Answer: A
25. At low airspeeds (less than approximately 350 mph), which type of gas turbine engine has the highest propulsive
efficiency?
a) Turbo-prop engine
b) High By-pass ratio engine
c) Pure turbo-jet
Answer: A
26. Define Specific fuel Consumption

a) Fuel consumed per pound of thrust produced
b) Thrust produced per second per pound of fuel
c) Thrust produced per pound of fuel consumed
Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Gross thrust, net thrust, choked nozzle thrust, thrust distribution, resultant thrust,
thrust horsepower, equivalent shaft horsepower, specific fuel consumption
Answer: C
27. For any given jet engine exhaust velocity (Vj), if the aircraft velocity (Va) increases, the propulsive efficiency will
a) not change
b) decrease
c) increase
Answer: C
28. How does high air humidity affect gas turbine engine performance?
a) It decreases performance a small amount
b) It does not affect performance at-all
c) It increases performance
Answer: A
29. How is Net thrust computed?

a) When an aircraft is in flight.
b) When the airplane is at rest.
c) When the airplane is in an acceleration.
Comment: 15.2 Engine Performance - Gross thrust, net thrust, choked nozzle thrust, thrust distribution, resultant thrust, thrust
horsepower, equivalent shaft horsepower, specific fuel consumption P10
Answer: A
30. In a turbo-prop engine, torque is produced by the

a) turbine section
b) compressor section
c) combustion section
Answer: A
31. On full throttle, with the aircraft held stationary on the ground using the wheel brakes, the propulsive efficiency will be
a) dependent upon the fuel flow
b) 100%
c) 0%
Answer: C
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32. Ram Recovery occurs when the

a) air pressure in the intake is less than ambient
b) momentum drag is equal to the intake ram effect
c) momentum drag is greater than the intake ram effect
Answer: B
33. The efficiency loss in a turbine could be a result of?

a) Minimum air leak around rotating parts.
b) To much tip clearance in the turbine
c) A high high Turbine Inlet Temperature (TIT)
Comment: 15.2 Engine Performance - Engine efficiencies P30
Answer: B
34. The Specific Fuel Consumption of a Twin Spool low bypass engines is
a) worse than a turbo jet
b) the same as a turbo jet
c) better than a turbo jet
Answer: C
35. The velocity of the air, from front to rear, within an axial flow compressor
a) remains fairly constant
b) increases greatly
c) decreases greatly
Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Pressure, temperature and velocity of the gas flow;
Answer: A
36. Total pressure recovery, in an engine inlet, occurs when

a) there is no intake momentum drag
b) air intake velocity is completely converted into ram pressure
c) air enters the compressor at the same speed as the aircraft speed
Comment: 15.2 Engine Performance - Engine efficiencies P11
Answer: B
37. What causes the differences between Gross thrust and Net Thrust?
a) Entropy
b) Ram drag
c) Atmospheric conditions
Answer: B
38. What effect does an increased compressor pressure ratio (CPR) have on SFC?
a) No affect on SFC
b) Decrease SFC
c) Increase SFC
Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - By-pass ratio and engine pressure ratio;
Answer: B
39. What gas turbine engine type has the highest propulsive efficiency below 350 mph?
a) Turbo-prop engine
b) Turbo-shaft engine
c) Turbojet engine
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Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Engine efficiencies;

Answer: A
40. What is effective shaft horsepower?

a) BHP + jet thrust
b) SHP- jet thrust
c) SHP + jet thrust
Comment: 15.2 /2 Engine Performance - Gross thrust, net thrust, choked nozzle thrust, thrust distribution, resultant thrust,
Answer: C
41. What is propulsive efficiency?

a) It is the engine efficiency measured on the ground
b) It concerns the ability of the engine to drive the aircraft in flight
c) It is the engine efficiency measured stationary on the ground
Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Engine efficiencies;
Answer: B
Subsection 3 - Inlet Level 2
42. A piccolo tube is used in

a) fluid anti-icing systems
b) hot air anti-icing systems
c) electrical anti-icing systems
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Ice protection
Answer: B
43. An advantage of electrical anti-icing systems used on engine inlets is

a) more effective at maintaining the inlet free from ice
b) it is failsafe
c) minimal loss of engine power or thrust when switched on
Answer: C
44. An electrical inlet ice protection system provides

a) cyclic heating only, switching between parts of the inlet
b) a combination of continuous heating and cyclic heating
c) continuous heating to all parts of the inlet
Answer: B
45. De-icing of engine inlets is

a) never used due to possibility of shed ice damage
b) always used because it is more efficient than anti-ice
c) sometimes used but only where no damage is guaranteed
Answer: C
46. Electrical heater mats are mainly used on

a) auxiliary power units
b) turbo-prop engine intakes and propellers
c) pure jet engine intakes
Answer: B
47. From front to rear, pitot intakes are

a) convergent
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b) parallel
c) divergent
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Compressor inlet ducts
Answer: C
48. How are icing conditions defined?

a) Ambient temperature of less than +10 degrees Celcius
b) Ambient temperature of less than 0 degrees Celcius
c) Ambient temperature of less than +10 degrees Celcius and visible moisture
Answer: C
49. How does the variable geometry intake slow the speed of the air going into the compressor?
a) by blocking the air in the intake
b) By dumping air overboard
c) By forming shock waves in the intake
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Effects of various inlet configurations
Answer: C
50. Some electrical intake anti-ice systems have a two-speed selection. This is so pilot can select
a) a longer time duration for less severe icing conditions
b) a higher engine RPM when low air temperature
c) a longer time duration for more severe icing conditions
Answer: C
51. This engine (see photo) is probably fitted with what type of ice protection?
a) Electrical ice protection system
b) Hot air ice protection system
c) No ice protection is fitted
Answer: B
52. Variable geometry intakes are used for

a) supersonic aircraft only
b) subsonic aircraft only
c) supersonic and subsonic aircraft
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Effects of various inlet configurations
Answer: C
53. What does Ram Recovery do for an engine inlet?

a) Restores the losses due to intake momentum drag
b) Uses shock waves to decrease the airflow speed in the inlet
c) Makes the inlet inefficient due to momentum drag
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Effects of various inlet configurations;
Answer: A
54. What is optimum speed of airflow in a supersonic intake when it reaches the compressor face?
a) Mach 0.4
b) Mach 2
c) Mach 1
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Effects of various inlet configurations;
Answer: A
55. What is understood by Ram Recovery Speed? (subsonic air intake)

a) The speed where an Air Intake produces the same pressure as the Pam
b) The speed where an Air Intake produces lower pressure than the Pam
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c) The speed where an Air Intake produces higher pressure than the Pam
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Effects of various inlet configurations P10/13
Answer: A
56. Where would you expect to see a bellmouth intake fitted?

a) Only on an engine in a test cell
b) On an engine in a test cell or on a helicopter engine
c) Only on a helicopter engine
Comment: 15.3 / 2 Inlet - Compressor inlet ducts
Answer: B
Subsection 4 - Compressors Level 2
57. A 'blisk'
a) is used as an alternative to a conventional combustion chamber
b) is manufactured from a single disc of metal
c) has blades made separately then fitted permanently to the disc
Comment: 15.4 / 2 Compressors - Constructional features and operating principles and applications
Answer: B
58. A compressor with a parallel rotor drum and tapered case is RPM limited by what?
a) The tip speed of late stages
b) The tip speed of front stages
c) Tip speed of all stages as all tips travel at same speed
Answer: B
59. A single spool axial flow turbo-jet is

a) more efficient than a high bypass engine at all altitudes
b) more efficient at low altitude but this decreases with increasing altitude
c) less efficient than a high bypass engine at all altitudes
Answer: C
60. An axial flow compressor rotor blade has a

a) constant stagger angle from root to tip
b) greater stagger angle at the root than at tip
c) lower stagger angle at the root than at tip
Answer: C
61. By design, how is the axial velocity of airflow through the axial flow compressor maintained?
a) By adjusting the blade angle to maintain angle of attack
b) By a reducing annulus between the rotor drum and the case
c) By gradually increasing the rotor speed from front to rear
Answer: B
62. Compressor ratio is defined as the ratio of

a) idle speed to max power speed of the compressor
b) compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure
c) compressor inlet pressure to compressor outlet pressure
Answer: B
63. delete
a) It reduces risk of surge and stall
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b) It makes the engine easier to start

c) It permits each spool to spin at its optimum speed
Comment: 15.4 / 2 Compressors -
Answer: C
64. High Bypass engines have

a) A single gas generator compressor and a fan
b) 1, 2 or 3 gas generator compressors and a fan
c) 1 or 2 gas generator compressors and a fan
Answer: C
65. How will the relationship between the airflow axial velocity and the RPM change the angle of attack?
a) A decreased RPM will generate a high angle of attack of the rotor blade
b) An increased RPM will generate a high angle of attack of the rotor blade
c) A change in RPM will not have any effect of the angle of attack of the rotor blade
Comment: 15.4 / Compressors - Operation
Answer: B
66. In an axial flow compressor, axial velocity of the gas is maintained from front to rear by
a) providing a gradually reducing air annulus
b) a multi-spool design with varying spool speeds
c) compressing the air as it advances from front to rear
Answer: A
67. On an engine that is FADEC controlled, the VSVs and VIGVs are
a) controlled electrically and operated by fuel pressure
b) controlled electrically and operated electrically
c) controlled by fuel pressure and operated electrically
Comment: 15.4 / 2 Compressors - Methods of air flow control: bleed valves, variable inlet guide vanes, variable stator vanes,
rotating stator blades
Answer: A
68. Snubbers on a fan blade

a) permit an increase in RPM
b) reduce vibration
c) reduce tip clearance
Answer: B
69. The centrifugal compressor is ideally suited to

a) pure jet engines
b) reverse flow turboprop engines
c) bypass engines
Comment: 15.4 / 2 Compressors - Axial and centrifugal types
Answer: B
70. The fan of a high-bypass triple-spool engine is driven by the

a) LP turbine
b) IP turbine
c) HP turbine
Answer: A
71. To maximise efficiency of a centrifugal compressor

a) a large clearance is required between impeller and shroud
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b) the gap between impeller and shroud must be a minimum

c) the impeller must turn as fast as possible
Answer: B
72. Two types of blade root fittings are

a) wedge tail and bulb root
b) fir tree root and dovetail root
c) fir tree root and wedge tail
Answer: B
73. What are the advantages of a centrifugal compressor?

a) Cheap, FOD resistant, high compression ratio (per stage),
b) Maintains a straight airflow and provides high compression
c) Produces high pressure without increase in velocity
Comment: 15.4 / 2 Compressors - Axial and centrifugal types
Answer: A
Subsection 5 - Combustion Section Level 2
74. A coating of magnesium zirconate on the inside of a combustion chamber is to

a) help prevent carbon formation
b) help prevent corrosion
c) protect the combustion liner from excessive heat
Comment: 15.5 / 2 Combustion Section - Constructional features and principles of operation
Answer: A
75. A reverse flow combustion chamber is best suited to a

a) turbo-shaft engine
b) high-bypass engine
c) pure jet engine
Answer: A
76. Combustion chamber liners are normally constructed from

a) nickel based alloy
b) titanium alloy
c) aluminium alloy
Answer: A
77. During engine start-up, how are all the cans ignited on a multiple can combustion system?
a) Via Iterconnector tubes
b) Use of torch igniters between tubes
c) There is one igniter per can
Answer: A
78. Exhaust smoke, and associated carbon particles forming in the combustion chamber, is normally a result of
a) weak air/fuel ratio region in the primary zone of the combustion chamber
b) incorrect fuel being used
c) an over-rich air/fuel ratio region in the primary zone of the combustion chamber
Answer: C
79. How is smoke from a gas turbine engine eliminated?
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a) By filters fitted to the outlet of combustion chambers

b) By careful design of the primary zone in the combustion chamber
c) By under fuelling the engine during maximum power accelerations
Answer: B
80. How much of the total airflow passing through the combustion section is used in the combustion process?
a) 100 %
b) 20 %
c) 75 %
Answer: B
81. One purpose of the diffuser at the front of the combustion section is to
a) increase the velocity of the air
b) decrease the velocity of the air
c) decrease the pressure of the air
Answer: B
82. The approximate proportion of air which cools and dilutes the flame inside a combustion chamber is
a) 60%
b) 20%
c) 40%
Answer: A
83. The melting point of most combustion chamber liners is

a) higher than the combustion temperature
b) lower than the combustion temperature
c) the same as combustion temperature
Answer: B
84. The overall air/fuel ratio entering into the combustion section is approximately
a) 10:1 to 20:1
b) 45:1 to 130:1
c) 12:1 to 17:1
Answer: B
85. The type of combustion chamber cooling method that uses a network of air passages between two laminated skins
forming the flame tube wall is known as
a) splash cooling
b) transpiration cooling
c) gallery cooling
Answer: B
86. What is necessary for stable combustion in the combustion chamber?

a) A low velocity air flow in the flame tube
b) A high velocity air flow in the flame tube
c) A low air pressure in the flame tube
Answer: A
87. What is the main advantage of an annular combustion chamber?
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a) More stable combustion

b) Ease of maintenance and removal/refit
c) Ease of starting
Answer: C
Subsection 6 - Turbine Section Level 2
88. A common material for turbine blade construction is

a) titanium alloy
b) super alloy
c) steel alloy
Comment: 15.6 / 2 Turbine Section - Operation and characteristics of different turbine blade types
Answer: B
89. A radial inflow turbine is sometimes used

a) on air starters
b) on turbo-fan engines
c) on turbo-prop engines
Answer: A
90. An impulse turbine is suitable for a

a) turbo Prop engine
b) large turbo fan engine
c) starter motor
Answer: C
91. delete
a) A combination of both radial-and axial turbine
b) A radial turbine
c) An axial turbine
Answer: C
92. How are turbine blades of a large gas turbine engine normally secured to the disc?
a) They are machined from a solid disc
b) Using a dove tail root with a pin securing device
c) Using a fir tree root with locking plate
Comment: 15.6 / 2 Turbine Section - Blade to disk attachment
Answer: C
93. How does cooling air enter a fir tree root turbine blade?
a) Through the leading edge cooling holes
b) A fir tree root blade is not cooled internally
c) Through the base of the root
Answer: C
94. Modern turbine blades are made from

a) Nickel Alloys
b) Austenitic Steel
c) Titanium
Answer: A
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95. On a reaction turbine, the area between adjacent blades is

a) decreasing (convergent)
b) increasing (divergent)
c) constant
Answer: A
96. On an impulse turbine, the area between adjacent blades is

a) increasing (divergent)
b) constant
c) decreasing (convergent)
Answer: B
97. Overall, the velocity of the gasses passing through the turbine section
a) increases
b) remains the same
c) decreases
Answer: C
98. The most common type of turbine blade root fitting is

a) de laval bulb
b) BMW hollow
c) fir tree
Answer: C
99. Turbine blade creep occurs due to

a) high centrifugal loading only
b) high temperature and high axial loads
c) high temperatures and high centrifugal loads
Comment: 15.6 / 2 Turbine Section - Causes and effects of turbine blade stress and creep
Answer: C
100. Turbine creep is a problem for

a) turbine vanes only
b) turbine blades only
c) turbine blades and vanes
Comment: 15.6 / 2 Turbine Section - Causes and effects of turbine blade stress and creep.
Answer: B
101. What parameter must be limited for a given turbine material to reach a safe life?
a) RPM
b) Thrust
c) TGT
Comment: 15.6 / 2 Turbine Section - Causes and effects of turbine blade stress and creep
Answer: C
102. When a turbine section has more than one turbine wheel, the low pressure turbine is normally
a) larger size than the high pressure turbine
b) smaller size than the high pressure turbine
c) same size as the high pressure turbine
Answer: A
103. Where would the low pressure turbine be located?
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a) At the rear of the turbine section next the exhaust

b) At the front of the turbine section immediately after combustion
c) In the middle of the turbine section
Answer: A
104. Why are impulse / reaction blades twisted from root to tip?
a) To prevent turbine surge
b) To ensure all parts of the blade blade do equal work from root to tip
c) To prevent tip stall
Answer: B
Subsection 7 - Exhaust Level 2
105. A helicopter exhaust is designed to improve hover capability by being

a) divergent in shape
b) convergent in shape
c) as long as possible
Comment: 15.7 / 2 Exhaust - Constructional features and principles of operation
Answer: A
106. An exhaust pressure ratio of 2:1 represents

a) compressor discharge pressure is twice that of the exhaust pressure
b) turbine exit pressure twice that of nozzle exit pressure
c) nozzle exit pressure twice that of the turbine exit pressure
Answer: B
107. Corrugations used on the nozzle of some older types of exhaust systems are designed to
a) increase thrust
b) reduce noise
c) reduce harmful emissions
Comment: 15.7 / 2 Exhaust - Engine noise reduction
Answer: B
108. How does a noise suppressing nozzle work?

a) By bypassing hot air outside the nozzle
b) By inducing cold air to mix with the hot exhaust
c) By using a ceramic honeycomb material
Answer: B
109. How will the exhaust nozzle affect the exhaust gases?
a) It will increase the temperature and pressure of the gases
b) It will decrease the temperature and velocity of the gases
c) It will increase the velocity of the exhaust gases
Answer: C
110. Large eddys from the exhaust are generally associated with
a) low Frequency noise
b) all frequencies of noise
c) high Frequency noise
Answer: A
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111. Overall thrust produced by a turbo-prop engine is derived mostly from the propeller shaft. When exhaust thrust is also
include din the calculation, the power produced is known as
a) Indicated Shaft Horsepower (ISHP)
b) Specific Shaft Horsepower (SSHP)
c) Equivalent Shaft Horsepower (ESHP)
Answer: C
112. What happens to the velocity as the gases passing through the jet pipe?
a) Accelerates
b) No change
c) Slows down
Answer: B
113. What is the function of a Common Nozzle Assy (CNA)?

a) Mixing of the hot and cold stream gasses
b) Standardises the velocity on common engine types
c) A standard common exhaust fitted to different APUs
Answer: A
114. What is the primary purpose of the exhaust system jet pipe?
a) To act as a mixer for the bypass air
b) To clear the exhaust from the airframe
c) To accelerate the airflow to maximise thrust
Answer: B
115. What is the purpose of the eductor exhaust pipe system?

a) It draws ambient air into the exhaust stream to increase air flow
b) It draws ambient air into the exhaust stream for cooling
c) It draws ambient air into the exhaust stream to have a suction effect
Answer: B
116. What is the purpose of the exhaust system inner cone?

a) To shield the turbine disc rear face
b) To shield the turbine disc rear face and to slow the gas velocity
c) To shield the turbine disc rear face and to accelerate the gas velocity
Answer: B
117. What produces the greatest noise signature on a high bypass turbofan engine?
a) The exhaust
b) The fan
c) The compressor
Answer: B
118. Why is a convergent nozzle used in subsonic aircraft?

a) To optimise thrust at the outlet from the engine
b) To ensure that Mach 1 is not exceeded
c) To make maximum use of pressure thrust
Comment: 15.7 / 2 Exhaust - Convergent, divergent and variable area nozzles
Answer: A
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119. Why is the rotorcraft tailpipe normally divergent in shape?

a) To improve thrust
b) For noise suppression
c) To improve hover stability
Answer: C
120. Why is there a minimum speed for use of the thrust reversers?
a) Prevention of FOD and hot gas ingestion
b) They can be structurally damaged
c) The can cause the aircraft to skid
Comment: 15.7 / 2 Exhaust - thrust reversers
Answer: A
121. With reverse thrust selected, pulling the power lever rearwards, the engine RPM will
a) increase
b) be unaffected
c) decrease
Comment: 15.7 / 2 Exhaust - thrust reversers
Answer: A
Subsection 8 - Bearings and Seals Level 2
122. A 'crowned' bearing

a) is slightly spherical for misalignment tolerance
b) has a special surface coating which improves wear resistance
c) has a larger outer ring for increased load resistance
Comment: 15.8 / 2 Bearings and Seals — Constructional features and principles of operation
Answer: A
123. A pressure balance chamber is used on some engines to

a) ensure that lubrication oil remains inside the bearing housing
b) create additional scavenge pressure for the oil system
c) oppose the forward thrust created by the compressor and offload the compressor thrust bearing
Answer: C
124. How are engine main bearings identified?

a) Alphabetically from front to rear
b) Numerically from front to rear
c) Stations measured from front to rear in inches
Answer: B
125. Roller bearings can withstand

a) radial loads only
b) axial loads only
c) both axial and radial loads
Answer: A
126. The main bearings used in gas turbine engines are usually
a) taper roller bearings
b) roller or ball bearings
c) plain bearings
Answer: B
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127. What are some reasons that labyrinth seals are used on a gas turbine engine?
a) They can withstand high temperatures
b) Both other answers are correct
c) They have no friction
Answer: B
128. What is the most common seal in a gas turbine?

a) Labyrinth seal
b) Garlock seal
c) Carbon seal
Answer: A
129. What kind of loads can a Roller Bearing support?

a) Only axial loads
b) Both axial and radial loads
c) Only radial loads
Answer: C
130. Which race of a bearing is normally an interference fit?

a) Outer only
b) Both inner and outer
c) Inner only
Answer: C
131. Which type(s) of bearing can take axial load?

a) Roller and ball bearings
b) Ball bearings only
c) Roller bearings only
Answer: B
Subsection 9 - Lubricants and Fuels Level 2
132. A modern gas turbine engine oil is formulated from a

a) synthetic source
b) mineral source
c) vegetable source
Comment: 15.9 / 2 Lubricants and Fuels - Properties and specifications
Answer: A
133. How do you examine oil for water contamination?

a) By using a water detection kit
b) By pouring into a glass container. The water will separate from the oil and rest on the top of the oil
c) It appears as globules in the oil, or it may be a 'misty' appearance
Comment: 15.9 / 2 Lubricants and Fuels - Safety precautions
Answer: C
134. How do you test for water in Fuel?

a) Heat it to 200°C and listen for 'crackles'
b) Use litmus paper
c) Use a Hydrokit
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Answer: C
135. Jet A and Jet A-1 are the most common turbine engine fuels. They differ mainly in their
a) gasoline content
b) flash point and freezing point
c) heat of combustion (energy content per kg)
Answer: B
136. Synthetic oil

a) can be used with natural and synthetic rubber seals
b) with contact with the skin over a long period of time, can cause dermatitis
c) is not stable over a wide range of temperature
Answer: B
137. What happens to an oil's viscosity with changes in temperature?

a) Viscosity decreases with a increase temperature
b) Viscosity is not effected by a change in temperature
c) Viscosity increases with increase in temperature
Answer: A
138. What is Biopor?

a) An antifungal additive only
b) A fuel system icing Inhibitor and antifungal additive
c) A fuel system icing inhibitor only
Comment: 15.9 / 2 Lubricants and Fuels - Fuel additives
Answer: A
139. What is meant by the 'flashpoint' of an oil?

a) The lowest temperature it can form an ignitable mixture
b) The temperature at which the oil will spontaneously ignite
c) The highest temperature it can form an ignitable mixture
Answer: A
140. What is the most common fuel used in commercial gas turbine engines?
a) Jet B AvTur
b) Jet A1 AvTur
c) Avgas
Answer: B
141. When working in a fuel tank

a) stay in the tank for only 10-minutes at a time
b) use an air-fed vapour mask at all times
c) ensure the fuel is drained to a suitable level
Answer: B
Subsection 10 - Lubrication System Level 2
142. In a cold tank lubrication system, where is the oil cooler located?
a) Before the oil tank in the oil scavenge line
b) Either before or after the tank
c) After the tank in the oil pressure system
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Comment: 15.10 / 2 Lubrication Systems - System operation/lay-out and components

Answer: A
143. Fibre filters are usually fitted in

a) the scavenge filter only
b) either the scavenge or pressure filter
c) the pressure filter only
Answer: A
144. How does pressurised air get into a bearing housings?

a) Heat from the bearings causes the surrounding air to expand, thus increasing pressure
b) Gas path air leakage across bearing chamber labyrinth seals
c) Air released from the pressurised oil jets
Answer: B
145. How many pump elements could there typically be in a large engine oil pump assembly?
a) 7 pressure and 1 scavenge
b) 1 pressure and up to 7 scavenge
c) 2 pressure and 2 scavenge
Answer: B
146. In a full flow oil system

a) the pressure pump always runs at the same speed
b) oil pressure indications will be proportional to the engine speed
c) the pressure pump is larger than in a pressure relief valve system
Answer: B
147. In a pressure relief valve oil system

a) the pump delivers an amount proportional to engine speed
b) the pump runs at the same speed throughout the flight
c) the pump delivers more oil than is needed
Answer: C
148. In a pressure relief valve oil system, the pump

a) delivers more oil than is required by the engine
b) delivers an amount of oil which is proportional to engine speed
c) runs at the same speed regardless of engine speed
Answer: A
149. In large gas turbine engine for a transport aircraft, how is the oil moved from the oil tank to the oil pump?
a) By pressurising the oil tank
b) By gravity
c) By use of a low pressure or backing pump
Answer: B
150. Scavenge pumps have to be larger than pressure pumps

a) because they have to collect oil from many places in the engine
b) to accommodate oil expansion after passing through the bearing chambers
c) to allow debris to be passed back to the filters
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Answer: B
151. What are the types of oil pump used in a gas turbine engine lubrication system?
a) Gerotor, spur gear and piston types
b) Gerotor type only
c) Gerotor and spur gear types
Answer: C
152. What happens to the oil pressure that is above relief valve setting?
a) It is returned to the tank
b) It is dumped overboard
c) It is returned to the pressure pump inlet
Answer: C
153. What is the function of the De-aeration tray inside a turbine engine Oil Tank?
a) It serves as an emergency oil reservoir
b) It ensures that the oil will stay in the tank even if the filler cap is left open
c) It improves the separation of the air contained in the scavenge oil
Answer: C
154. What is the purpose of a float valve in the filler of an oil tank?
a) To prevent oil loss if the filler cap is not fitted
b) To indicate oil quantity in the oil tank
c) To enable rapid replenishment without removing the oil filler cap
Answer: A
155. What is the purpose of an anti-syphon device in an oil system?

a) To prevent oil flow form the gearbox to the oil tank
b) To prevent overfilling when replenishing the oil system
c) To prevent the oil tank draining down to the gearbox on shutdown
Answer: C
156. What type of pump is a gerotor pump?

a) On demand displacement
b) Positive displacement
c) Variable displacement
Answer: B
157. Where does the air pressure in the oil tank come from?
a) Bleed Air
b) Scavenge oil from from Labyrinth seals
c) Fan air
Answer: B
158. Why does the scavenge pump need to be bigger than the oil pressure pump?
a) Scavenge pump turns slower
b) To make sure the oil tank is pressurised
c) Thermal expansion and aeration of oil increases oil volume
Answer: C
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Subsection 11 - Fuel Systems Level 2
159. 115V AC is used by the FADEC EEC for

a) ignition exciters and back-up power
b) all functions except starting
c) starting only
Comment: 15.11 / 2 Fuel Systems - Operation of engine control and fuel metering systems including electronic engine
control (FADEC)
Answer: A
160. A FADEC System consists of

a) an Electronic Engine Control and Hydro Mechanical unit
b) sensors, a Central Processing Unit and a Hydro Mechanical Unit
c) an Electronic Engine Control and Sensors
Comment: 15.11 / 2 Fuel Systems - Systems lay-out and components
Answer: C
161. A power limiter monitors

a) compressor inlet pressure
b) compressor outlet pressure
c) jet pipe temperature
Answer: B
162. delete
a) To modulate the fuel for changes in altitude
b) To modulate the fuel for changes in altitude
c) To modulate the fuel for changes in ram effect
control (FADEC)
Answer: A
163. Each FADEC uses how many Permanent Magnet Generators?

a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
control (FADEC)
Answer: B
164. Gear type fuel pumps are used for systems with
a) Simplex nozzles
b) Duplex nozzles
c) airspray nozzles
control (FADEC)
Answer: C
165. How is a cleanable screen fuel filter most effectively cleaned?

a) In an ultrasonic bath
b) Washed in a kerosene bath
c) Soap and hot water
Answer: A
166. How is an engine shut down?
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a) Pull the power lever back to OFF position

b) Close the HP cock
c) Close the LP fuel cock
control (FADEC)
Answer: B
167. How is thrust regulated on a FADEC controlled engine?

a) By Burner Pressure or RPM (depending on type)
b) By EPR or N1 RPM (depending on engine type)
c) By EPR or N1 or N2 RPM (depending on engine type)
control (FADEC)
Answer: B
168. If a FADEC engine uses EPR as engine thrust indication, loss of EPR data will result in FADEC
a) using N1 as the primary thrust indication
b) using N2 as the primary thrust indication
c) using EGT as the primary thrust indication
control (FADEC)
Answer: A
169. If the metering valve orifice size is increased

a) pump pressure increases and metered fuel pressure decreases
b) metered fuel pressure increases and pump pressure decreases
c) metered fuel pressures remains constant
control (FADEC)
Answer: B
170. In normal operation, the FADEC EEC uses

a) aircraft 28V DC at all times
b) aircraft 28V DC during engine start only
c) PMG at all times
control (FADEC)
Answer: B
171. On a FADEC controlled engine, the EEC active channel will switch
a) automatically according to whichever channel is healthiest
b) only when commanded by the pilot
c) only at engine start
control (FADEC)
Answer: A
172. Spur gear pumps

a) can be used only as booster pumps because they cannot deliver enough fuel required by the engine
b) deliver more fuel than is required by the engine at any time
c) delever exactly teh amount of fuel as is required by the engine at any time
control (FADEC)
Answer: B
173. To increase fuel flow to the burners, either

a) increase the pressure drop across the orifice or increase the size of the orifice
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b) decrease the pressure drop across the orifice or increase the size of the orifice
c) increase the pressure drop across the orifice or decrease the size of the orifice
control (FADEC)
Answer: A
174. To what is the EEC Programming Plug attached?

a) To the Electronic Engine Control (EEC)
b) To the fan case with a lanyard
c) To the engine pylon
control (FADEC)
Answer: B
175. What is a Fuel Nozzle with both Primary and Secondary flow called?
a) Flex type fuel nozzle
b) Simplex type fuel nozzle
c) Duplex type fuel nozzle
control (FADEC)
Answer: C
176. What is the function of the Pressurizing / Flow Divider Valve in the engine fuel system?
a) It controls / selects the fuel to the primary and secondary fuel manifold
b) It drains the fuel manifolds when the fuel is selected off/engine is stopped
c) It regulates the fuel pressure from the engine driven HP pump
control (FADEC)
Answer: A
177. What will happen if a Full Authority Digital Engine Controls has a total failure?
a) The engine stops or will go to a preset power level without control
b) The engine will go to take-off power by default
c) The engine will revert to manual control
control (FADEC) P74
Answer: A
Subsection 12 - Air Systems Level 2
178. Compressor bleed air is commonly distributed around the engine is used for
a) heating only
b) cooling only
c) heating and cooling
Comment: 15.12 / 2 Air Systems - Operation of engine air distribution and anti-ice control systems, including internal
cooling, sealing and external air services
Answer: B
179. Customer bleed air is usually tapped from the

a) LP compressor, then it is cooled and pressure regulated before it passes into the aircraft pneumatic system
b) HP compressor, then it is heated and pressure regulated before it passes into the aircraft pneumatic
c) HP compressor, then it is cooled and pressure regulated before it passes into the aircraft pneumatic system
Answer: C
180. How does the Turbine Tip Clearance Control System control the tip clearance?
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a) By controlled cooling of the turbine blades

b) By controlled cooling of the turbine disk
c) By controlled cooling of the turbine outer casing
Comment: 15.12 / 2 Air Systems - Operation of engine air distribution and anti-ice control systems,including internal
cooling, sealing and external air services P26
Answer: C
181. How is the engine power loss due to high pressure air bleed minimized?
a) By using a lower pressure stage when there is sufficient pressure
b) By using a higher pressure stage when there is sufficient pressure
c) By turning off the bleed air when in cruise
Answer: A
182. What is the cooling method called when the cooling air is passed through small holes in the leading edge of a turbine
blade?
a) Convection cooling
b) Film cooling
c) Impingement cooling
Answer: B
183. What type of seal is commonly used to seal the engine thrust bearing chamber?
a) Labyrinth seals
b) Carbon seals
c) Ring seals
Answer: A
184. Where does the turbine cooling air exit the engine?
a) Into the bypass duct
b) Into the gas stream
c) Through the hole in the tail cone
Answer: B
Subsection 13 - Starting and Ignition Systems Level 2
185. A 'sprag clutch' enables the starter to be engaged

a) when the starter speed is less than the engine speed
b) when the starter speed is more than the engine speed
c) at all times that power is applied to the starter motor
Comment: 15.13 / 2 Starting and Ignition Systems - Operation of engine start systems and components
Answer: B
186. A pneumatic start valve is

a) electrically unlocked and pneumatically opened
b) electrically unlocked and electrically opened
c) pneumatically unlocked and electrically opened
Answer: A
187. A starter-generator is
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a) a DC generator
b) an AC motor
c) a DC motor
Answer: C
188. After disconnecting the input lead to an ignition unit, you should
a) ground the input lead to the engine to discharge it
b) wait at least 1-minute before working on the ignition unit
c) disconnect the high tension lead within a minute
Comment: 15.13 / 2 Starting and Ignition Systems - Maintenance safety requirements
Answer: B
189. An electrical connection to an air starter is for the

a) electric motor
b) flyweight cut-out switch
c) oil temperature sensor
Answer: B
190. An ignition system is operated

a) all the time that the engine is running
b) until the aircraft has reached continuous climb phase
c) for light-up, relight in flight and sometimes in bad weather
Comment: 15.13 / 2 Starting and Ignition Systems - Ignition systems and components
Answer: C
191. How large must the air gap be on a surface discharge igniter plug?
a) See the AMM for settings
b) There is no gap
c) As long as there is a visible gap with no carbon deposits, it is satisfactory
Answer: B
192. If assistance from the starter were cut off below the self-accelerating speed, the engine would
a) overheat. This is known as a hot start ‘hot start’
b) fail to accelerate to idle speed. This is known as a ‘hot start’
c) fail to accelerate to idle speed. This is known as a ‘hung start’
Answer: C
193. In a low voltage starter system, the igniters are powered by the
a) 28V DC Bus
b) 28V AC Bus
c) 115V AC Bus
Answer: A
194. Selecting ‘start’ on the flight deck

a) sets the starter circuit and the ignition circuit to ‘on’
b) sets only the starter circuit to ‘on’
c) sets the starter circuit to ‘on’ and the ignition circuit is armed
Answer: A
195. The purpose of the gearbox inside an air starter is to

a) increase the rotational speed
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b) change the direction of rotation

c) increase the torue
Answer: C
196. The sprag clutch will disconnect the starter from the engine when the
a) starter runs faster than the engine
b) start valve closes
c) engine runs faster than the starter
Answer: C
197. The three most important indications to monitor during engine start are
a) N2, FF, EGT
b) N1, FF, EGT
c) N2, N1, EGT
Answer: A
198. What is a typical idle speed, of the high pressure compressor?

a) 40%
b) 75%
c) 60%
Answer: C
199. When is the starter circuit terminated?

a) When self-sustaining speed is reached
b) When the igniters commence
c) When a rise in TGT shows that light up has occurred
Answer: A
200. When starting a turbofan engine

a) N1 and N2 must be the same speed
b) N1 must lead N2
c) N2 must lead N1
Answer: C
201. Why must igniter plugs be depth checked before fitment?

a) If too deep, they will burn, but if not deep enough, they will not light the engine
b) To ensure satisfactory lighting in all climates
c) To ensure the correct type of igniter is being fitted, as different plugs have different lengths
Answer: A
Subsection 14 - Engine Indicating Systems Level 2
202. "TET" probes are located at the

a) Exhaust pipe
b) Entry to the turbine
c) Exit of the turbine
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Exhaust Gas Temperature/Interstage Turbine Temperature
Answer: B
203. A bourdon tube transducer converts
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a) pressure to electrical signal

b) pressure to change in position
c) temperature to change in resistance
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Engine Thrust Indication: Engine Pressure Ratio, engine turbine discharge
pressure or jet pipe pressure systems
Answer: B
204. A modern FADEC engine will transduce pressures for EPR calculation using
a) pressure bellows
b) vibrating pressure transducers
c) bourdon tubes
Answer: B
205. A torque sensor measures torque by measuring the

a) variable reluctance in a phonic wheel
b) twist in the propeller shaft
c) twist in the gas generator shaft
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Torque
Answer: B
206. An Electronic Pick-up type torque sensor measures

a) twist in the power output shaft
b) vibration of the power output shaft
c) oil pressure in the reduction gearbox
Answer: A
207. delete
a) The engine's ability to raise the pressure
b) The engine's ability to raise the absolute velocity
c) The engine's ability to raise the temperature
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems – Engine Thrust Indication: Engine Pressure Ratio, engine turbine discharge
pressure or jet pipe pressure systems P30
Answer: A
208. EGT thermocouples are usually identified by cable sleeve or insulation which is coloured
a) white for Alumel and blue for Chromel
b) Green for Alumel and white for Chromel
c) Green for Alumel and blue for Chromel
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems – Exhaust Gas Temperature/Interstage Turbine Temperature
Answer: B
209. Evolution of instrument displays, from oldest to newest are

a) Mechanical - CRT- LED - LCD
b) Mechanical - LED - CRT - LCD
c) Mechanical - LCD - CRT - LED
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems
Answer: B
210. For a fixed throttle setting, and fixed N1 speed, when the aircraft is in a dive, the EPR will
a) not change
b) decrease
c) increase
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Answer: B
211. For gauging thrust on a high bypass turbine engine, there are two systems in common use:
a) Fan RPM and core RPM
b) Engine Pressure Ratio and fan RPM
c) Engine Pressure Ratio and core RPM
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems – Engine Thrust Indication: Engine Pressure Ratio, engine turbine discharge
Answer: B
212. From where does the integrated (motorless) fuel flowmeter get its power?
a) From the 28 V DC Bus Bar
b) From the 115 V AC Bus Bar
c) From the fuel flow
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Fuel pressure and flow
Answer: C
213. How is a vibration signal processed so that it indicates the vibration of only one rotating shaft?
a) Only the largest vibration signal is used
b) Only the highest frequency vibration signal is used
c) Passing the signal through filters
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Vibration measurement and indication P93
Answer: C
214. If a negative torque is sensed by a torque meter, this is an indication of

a) engine in start mode, and used to control the ignition
b) engine failure, and could be used to auto-feather the engine
c) propeller in reverse thrust mode, and switch on a BETA light
Answer: B
215. In what units of measurement is EPR displayed?

a) Pascals (Pa)
b) No units are used
c) Pounds per square inch (PSI)
Answer: B
216. Oil pressure transmitters and switches usually detect

a) differential pressure
b) the transmitter detects differential pressure and the switch detects absolute pressure
c) ambient pressure
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Oil pressure and temperature
Answer: A
217. On a strain gauge type torque sensor, to what are the strain gauges attached?
a) Sun gear of the planetary reduction gearbox
b) Outer ring gear of the planetary reduction gearbox
c) Propeller shaft
Answer: B
218. Piezoelectric discs are used in which engine instrument?

a) Torque sensor
b) Temperature sensor
c) Airborne vibration monitor
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Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Vibration measurement and indication

Answer: C
219. The oil pressure method of torque sensing uses a oil piston/cylinder located where?
a) The propeller hub
b) The reduction gearbox
c) The power turbine
Answer: B
220. What is a vibration sensor made of?

a) Mercury switches
b) A spring loaded weight
c) Piezoelectric discs
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Vibration measurement and indication
Answer: C
221. What is the purpose of the compensating resistor in a thermocouple circuit?

a) To compensate for a different maximum allowable EGT
b) To compensate for ambient temperature change
c) To compensate for different length of leads
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Exhaust Gas Temperature/Interstage Turbine Temperature
Answer: B
222. What parameter of the output of a tachogenerator is used to indicate RPM?

a) Voltage
b) Frequency
c) Phase
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Engine speed
Answer: B
223. What precaution must be taken on an uninstalled fuel flowmeter?

a) Wrap in greaseproof paper to prevent moisture ingress
b) Covers must be fitted within 24 hours of removal
c) Fill with engine oil, drain and fit covers
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Fuel pressure and flow
Answer: C
224. Which compressor spool is most likely to use a tacho-generator for speed indication?
a) All spools use tacho-generators
b) The HP spool as the external gearbox is driven by the HP compressor
c) The LP spool via a dedicated shaft on the fan case
Comment: 15.14 / 2 Engine Indication Systems - Engine speed
Answer: B
225. Which manufacturer invented ECAM instrumentation system?

a) Rolls Royce
b) Boeing
c) Airbus
Answer: C
226. Which type of instrument display is most easy to monitor differences between engines?
a) Digital
b) Analogue - vertical tape
c) Analogue - round dials
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Answer: B
Subsection 15 - Power Augmentation Systems Level 1
227. A gas turbine engine ignition system, incorporating a reheat Hot Shot Ignition, consists of
a) two fuel injectors, one spraying fuel into the combustion chamber, the other spraying fuel into the exhaust system
b) one fuel injector only which sprays fuel into the exhaust system
c) one fuel injector only which sprays fuel into the combustion chamber
Comment: 15.15 / 1 Power Augmentation Systems - Afterburner systems
Answer: A
228. How are afterburners activated?

a) By pushing the throttle forward
b) By tuning the afterburner knob to initiate fuel flow
c) By pushing the after burner lever forward
Answer: A
229. If water injection is used to augment power, what is often mixed with the water to act as an additional fuel?
a) Kerosene
b) Ethanol
c) Methanol
Comment: 15.15 / 1 Power Augmentation Systems - Water injection, water methanol
Answer: C
230. In what conditions might power augmentation be used, if available?

a) When taking off from a high altitude airfield, in high ambient temperatures
b) When taking off from a low altitude airfield, in low ambient temperatures
c) When taking off from a high altitude airfield, in low ambient temperatures
Comment: 15.15 / 1 Power Augmentation Systems - Operation and applications
Answer: A
231. Regarding variable area final nozzle, used on a reheat system, the nozzle is normally
a) opened (convergent) when reheat is not operating, and it is closed when reheat is operating
b) closed (convergent) when reheat is not operating, and it is opened when reheat is operating
c) closed (convergent) when reheat is not operating, and it is opened nd it is opened when reheat is operating
Answer: B
232. Take-off thrust can be increased by the use of water injection, by approximately
a) 10 to 30%
b) 50 to 100%
c) 20 to 50%
Answer: A
233. The reheat ignition system that uses a platinum / rhodium element is called a
a) catalytic ignition system
b) hot shot ignition system
c) spark ignition system
Answer: A
234. Water/methanol injection, or reheat, if fitted, may be used when an aircraft takes off from
a) Copenhagen in winter
b) Barbados in summer
c) Mexico city in summer
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Comment: 15.15 / 1 Power Augmentation Systems - Operation and applications

Answer: C
235. What percentage power increase can a water injection system provide?
a) 10-30%
b) 50-70%
c) 100%
Answer: A
236. When reheat is switched on, the engine's propelling nozzle will
a) close to a smaller area
b) open to a larger area
c) not change area
Answer: B
Subsection 16 - Turbo-prop Engines Level 2
237. A coupled turbo-prop engine can be started with the propeller

a) in ground fine position only
b) either in feather or ground fine position
c) in feather position only
Comment: 15.16 / 2 Turbo-prop Engines - Integrated engine and propeller controls
Answer: A
238. An aircraft powered by a turbo-prop engine has cockpit instrumentation which include
a) tachometer, which shows the RPM of the compressor in percentage of its rated speed; torquemeter, which shows the
torque or shaft horsepower being developed, EGT indicator
b) torquemeter, which shows the compressor torque or shaft horsepower being developed in percent; tachometer, which
shows the RPM of the compressor and EGT indicator
c) tachometer, which shows the RPM of the compressor in percentage of its rated speed; torquemeter, which shows the
RPM of the propeller in percentage of its rated speed and EGT indicator
Answer: A
239. An overspeed governor fitted to a free-turbine turbo-prop engine is driven by the

a) gas generator shaft
b) compressor shaft
c) power turbine gear train
Comment: 15.16 / 2 Turbo-prop Engines - Overspeed safety devices
Answer: C
240. In a hydro mechanical Fuel Control system

a) during flight the power lever applies pressure to the PCU spring
b) the constant speed range is controlled by the power lever
c) during flight the condition lever applies pressure to the Propeller Control Unit (PCU) spring
Answer: C
241. On a direct coupled turbo-prop engine, the engine is shut down with the propeller
a) held against the coarse pitch stops
b) held against the low pitch stops
c) in the feather position
Answer: B
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242. On a free turbine engine, during shutdown, the propeller is

a) held in a fine pitch position
b) allowed to stop in any position as it is free to rotate
c) allowed to go to the feather position
Answer: C
243. On a free turbine turbo-prop engine, the accessory gearbox is driven by the
a) gas generator, and so is the reduction gearbox
b) gas generator, and reduction gearbox by the power turbine
c) power turbine, and reduction gearbox by the gas generator
Comment: 15.16 / 2 Turbo-prop Engines - Reduction gears
Answer: B
244. On a hydro mechanical Fuel Control System, the power lever controls
a) power and the condition lever controls RPM
b) the propeller governor spring and the condition lever controls RPM
c) RPM and the condition lever controls Power
Answer: A
245. On a turbo-prop reduction gear, if the planet gears rotate around the sun gear
a) the outer ring is rotating
b) the outer ring is fixed
c) there is no outer ring
Answer: B
246. To feather a turbo-prop engine, you move the

a) condition lever to the feather position
b) feather lever to the ON position
c) power lever to the feather position
Answer: A
247. Which reduction gear system gives maximum reduction with the ability to manage high torque?
a) An Epicyclic System
b) Simple spur gears
c) Parallel spur Gears
Answer: A
Subsection 17 - Turbo-shaft Engines Level 2
248. A modern turbo-shaft engine

a) uses a free turbine
b) is directly coupled
c) delivers all the combustion energy to the free turbine
Comment: 15.17 / 2 Turbo-shaft Engines - Arrangements, drive systems, reduction gearing, couplings, control systems
Answer: A
249. A turbo-shaft engine on a helicopter often use a compound (combination) compressor because it
a) provides for a shorter engine
b) has a higher efficiency than any other type
c) is better at constant speed
Answer: A
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250. delete
a) allows rotation in only one direction
b) allows rotation in both directions by having an inner and outer race
c) prevent rotation in any direction
Answer: A
251. On a turbo-shaft engine, a freewheeling unit’s function during an autorotation is to

a) prevent the engine from being driven by the rotor
b) allow the engine to be driven by the rotor
c) prevent the rotor from being driven by the engine
Answer: A
252. On a turbo-shaft engine, a freewheeling unit’s function during autorotation is to

a) allow the engine to be driven by the rotor
b) prevent the rotor from being driven by the engine
c) prevent the engine from being driven by the rotor
Answer: C
253. Power control of a helicopter engine can be done via a hand throttle (twist grip)
a) combined with the collective lever
b) independent from the collective lever and cyclic stick
c) combined with the cyclic stick
Answer: A
254. Power control of a helicopter engine is done via a hand throttle (twist grip)
a) combined with the cyclic stick
b) independent from the collective lever and cyclic stick
c) combined with the collective lever
Answer: C
255. What component allows a helicopter rotor to freewheel?

a) A Sprag clutch
b) A reduction gear between drive shaft and rotor head
c) A slipping plate clutch, used in the event of engine failure
Answer: A
256. What is the purpose of flexible couplings in helicopter drive shafts?

a) To correct for varying tensile and compressive loadings
b) To correct for drive shaft vibration
c) To correct for drive shaft misalignment
Answer: C
257. What is the purpose of flexible couplings in helicopter drive shafts?

a) To correct for drive shaft misalignment and isolate vibration
b) To correct for varying tensile and compressive loadings
c) To accommodate thermal expansion when it gets hot
Answer: A
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Subsection 18 - Auxiliary Power Units (APUs) Level 2
258. A turbo-prop aircraft in 'hotel mode' runs with

a) one flight engine shut-down and the other engine running
b) the flight engines shut-down and the APU running
c) both flight engines running
Comment: 15.18 / 2 Auxiliary Power Units (APUs) - Purpose, operation, protective systems
Answer: A
259. How is the inlet door opened when starting the APU?
a) A separate APU inlet door switch in the cockpit
b) Manually using a wrench
c) Automatically when the APU start switch is set to 'start'
Answer: C
260. In the event of an APU fire

a) the fire bell starts and the Fire extinguisher discharges
b) the APU shuts down, the fire bell starts and fire warning light appears on the flight deck
c) use a CO2 extinguisher with a long nozzle to reach the unit
Answer: B
261. The APU fire protection system

a) requires selection of fire bottle then selection of discharge
b) has 2 fire bottles, select the appropriate one and then discharge
c) has a single fire bottle that has to be discharged by operating the associated fire handle
Answer: C
262. To start the APU, the APU intake door

a) must be fully closed
b) must be fully open
c) is partially open as required
Answer: B
263. What power supply is used to rotate the APU starter?

a) 14 V DC
b) 115V AC
c) 28V DC
Answer: C
264. When will the APU automatically have a cool down period?
a) At Auto Shutdown due to APU fire
b) At Normal Shutdown using the APU switch
c) At Auto Shutdown due to high oil temperature
Answer: B
265. Where are emergency shutdown switches for the APU fire system normally located?
a) On the nose landing gear leg
b) Adjacent to the APU bay
c) On the flight deck
Answer: A
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266. Where can APU shut-down switches and fire warning horn / bell usually be found?
a) Nose landing gear bay
b) APU bay
c) Aft cabin
Answer: A
267. Why does an APU usually have two compressors?

a) So that shared between them there is enough for service air and the turbine
b) In the event of one failing the other can provide sufficient air for all purposes
c) One to provide service air and one to create the gas pressure for the turbine
Answer: C
Subsection 19 - Powerplant Installation Level 2
268. A 'jury strut' may be required to be fitted to

a) the engine after engine removal
b) both the engine and the aircraft after engine removal
c) the aircraft after engine removal
Comment: 15.19 / 2 Powerplant Installation - Configuration of firewalls, cowlings, acoustic panels, engine mounts, anti-
vibration mounts, hoses, pipes, feeders, connectors, wiring looms, control cables and rods, lifting points and drains
Answer: C
269. A torque compensator is normally required on the mounting system of a

a) turbofan engine
b) turbo-prop engine
c) pure turbojet engine
Answer: B
270. Cooling for an engine nacelle is provided by

a) HP Compressor bleed air
b) LP compressor bleed air
c) Ram Air
Answer: C
271. On a wing-pylon mounted engine, which attachment point usually accommodates the axial thermal expansion of the
engine?
a) Both front and rear
b) Front only
c) Rear only
Answer: C
272. Vibration mounts are used for

a) preventing engine vibration loads being transmitted to the airframe structure
b) stopping vibrations entering the engine through the engine mounts
c) damping out vibration stresses on engine when being transported on an engine stand
Answer: A
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273. What is a dry drain?

a) One that only drains water when it rains
b) One that only leaks at a specific time e.g. on engine shut down
c) One that if leaking may be an indicator of a defective component
Answer: C
274. What is the purpose of a Fuse Pin?

a) Allow a Quick Engine Change (QEC)
b) Allow easy opening of the engine cowling
c) Allow the engine to break from the wing in event of a crash
Answer: C
275. What is the purpose of the compressor casing abradable linings?

a) To minimise casing wear on engine installation
b) To maintain minimum rotor tip clearance
c) To wear down compressor blade tips to ensure minimum blade tip clearance
Answer: B
276. What separates a powerplant wet zone from a dry zone?

a) A cooled airspace
b) A cowling
c) A Firewall
Answer: C
277. ‘Dress items’ of an engine are ancillary items (such as pumps, motors, generators etc.) that are fitted to the engine
a) engine after the engine is fitted to the aircraft
b) before the engine is fitted to the aircraft
c) either before or after the engine is fitted to the aircraft
Answer: B
Subsection 20 - Fire Protection Systems Level 2
278. A Continuous-Loop Detector Systems works on a similar basic principle as the

a) Pneumatic type fire detectors, except that instead of using individual thermal switches the continuous-loop system have
sensors in the form of a long lnconel tube
b) Fenwall-type fire detectors, except that instead of using individual thermal switches the continuous-loop system have
sensors in the form of a long lnconel tube
c) Spot-type fire detectors, except that instead of using individual thermal switches the continuous-loop system have sensors
in the form of a long lnconel tube
Comment: 15.20 / 2 Fire Protection Systems - Operation of detection and extinguishing systems
Answer: C
279. A fire extinguisher system that has a ‘bursting disc’ showing yellow, indicates that the extinguisher has been discharged
a) by normal firing
b) due to over-pressure
c) due to over-temperature
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Answer: A
280. An engine continuous loop firewire is found to have a nick or kink.

a) The damage can be carefully filed out
b) The firewire must be replaced
c) The damage can be cut out and rejoined by soldering
Answer: B
281. Fire detector loops are retained by grommets. The grommets are to
a) electrically insulate the sensor
b) prevent moisture ingress
c) provide vibration protection
Answer: C
282. In the Systron-Donner type firewire responder unit, the 'integrity switch' is operated by
a) high pressure
b) low pressure
c) manual push button
Answer: B
283. On a twin engine turbofan powered aircraft, there is usually

a) two bottles one for each engine
b) one bottle that can be fired into either engine
c) two bottles, one or both can fire into either engine
Comment: 15.20 / 2 Fire Protection Systems - Operation of detection and extinguishing systems P50
Answer: C
284. On what principle does a Systron Donner firewire work?

a) Gas pressure
b) Resistance changes
c) Resistance/Capacitance changes
Answer: A
285. The action of twisting a fire handle closes micro switches that.
a) shuts off the fuel
b) cancels the alarm
c) activate the engine fire extinguisher
Answer: C
286. The Kidde System fire detector works on the principle of

a) capacitance change
b) resistance change
c) thermal expansion
Answer: B
287. To operate an engine fire extinguisher, the fire handle is

a) pulled and then twisted
b) twisted
c) twisted and then pulled
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Answer: A
288. To reduce probability of a false warning, dual-loop fire detector systems only go into alarm if
a) either or both loops sense fire
b) both loops sense fire
c) either loop senses fire
Answer: B
289. When checking the weight and pressure of an engine fire bottle, the ambient temperature should be taken into account
because
a) the pressure increases at higher ambient temperatures
b) the weight and pressure both increase at higher ambient temperatures
c) the weight increases at higher ambient temperatures
Answer: A
290. When eutectic salt melts, the resistance between the center wire and outer sheath
a) drops rapidly and triggers a warning
b) drops rapidly and the control unit resets the warning
c) increases rapidly and triggers a warning
Answer: A
291. When fitting a Continuous-Loop type fire detector, you should ensure that there is a minimum bend radius of
a) 8" and 1" spacing is between supports, as a general standard; the clamps securing the wires to the nacelles or engine are
used purely for support, not insulation
b) 1" and 8" spacing is between supports, as a general standard; the clamps securing the wires to the nacelles or engine are
used purely for support, not insulation
c) 1" and 8" spacing is between supports, as a general standard; the clamps securing the wires to the nacelles or engine are
used purely for insulation, not support
Answer: B
Subsection 21 - Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation Level 3
292. 'Ferrography' is used to examine

a) combustion chambers
b) turbine blades
c) engine oil
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Inspection of engine and components to criteria, tolerances
and data specified by engine manufacturer
Answer: C
293. A major factor determining the amount of thrust balancing required when test running one engine is the
a) weight and balance of the aircraft
b) connection of the nose wheel steering
c) communication between flight deck and ground staff
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Procedures for starting and ground run-up
Answer: A
294. After a reported Engine Temperature exceedance

a) find out how long and by how much the exceedance was.
b) check the serviceability of the EGT indication system
c) ground run to see if it reoccurs
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Interpretation of engine power output and parameters
Answer: A
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295. Before a maintenance ground run

a) check all panels are fitted and all replenishments have been done
b) warn any passengers on the aircraft that the engines are about to start
c) place the aircraft tail into wind and check where the jet efflux will blow away
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Foreign Object Damage
Answer: A
296. Engine running on the ground should be confined only to the following occasions:
a) After engine installation, to confirm a reported engine fault, to check an aircraft system and to prove an adjustment or
component
b) After engine installation, to confirm a reported engine fault, to check an aircraft system, to prove an adjustment or
component change and to prove the engine installation after a period of idleness
c) After engine installation, to check an aircraft system, to prove an adjustment or component change and to prove the
engine installation after a period of idleness
Answer: B
297. How is the HP compressor inspected for damage?

a) Using a boroscope procedure via an access port
b) Using a strong light via the lP compressor inlet
c) The HP compressor module should be removed and the inspection done on a bench
Answer: A
298. On-condition maintenance

a) is used when trend monitoring is inappropriate
b) uses the principle of not replacing a component at a fixed time
c) uses the principle of only inspecting for damage when it is suspected
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Trend (including oil analysis, vibration and boroscope)
monitoring
Answer: B
299. Prior to ground running an engine

a) if you have not ground run an engine before, read the AMM for the Engine Ground run procedure
b) fit chocks or put the parking brake on
c) check the Tech Log for entries that may have an affect on or jeopardise the ground run
Answer: C
300. Prior to ground running an engine

a) check the Tech Log for entries that may have an affect on or jeopardise the ground run
b) fit chocks or put the parking brake on
c) if you have not ground run an engine before, read the AMM for the Engine Ground run procedure
Answer: A
301. The 'safe entry corridor' is the direction which the

a) the aircraft should be taxied into the departure gate
b) maintenance staff should approach the running engine
c) passengers should walk around the aircraft when engines run
Answer: B
302. Water used for compressor wash should be

a) to same purity standard as drinking water
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b) distilled water
c) water with less than 1000 parts per million total solids
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Compressor washing/cleaning
Answer: A
303. What does 'thrust balancing' mean in regards to engine run up?
a) The tested engine must run at a specific power setting
b) Both engines must run at the same power setting within 1% tolerance
c) The untested engine must run at a specific power setting
Answer: C
304. What is the duty of the technician in the left seat during an engine run?
a) The responsible person of the engine run
b) The observing person of the engine run
c) The assisting person of the engine run
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Procedures for starting and ground run-up P30
Answer: A
305. When can you expect the starter valve to be closed during engine start?
a) At approximately 50% N1
b) At approximately 50% N2
c) At approximately 60% N2
Answer: B
306. When positioning an aircraft for ground runs, you should take into consideration
a) local FOD hazards
b) the position and condition of escape slides for rapid exit in the case of fire
c) wind direction and velocity effect on buildings and equipment
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Procedures for starting and ground run-up P20
Answer: C
307. When should you consider being in icing condition during engine run up?
a) When the OAT is above specified temperature
b) When the OAT is within a specified range of the ice melting point temperature
c) When the OAT is within a specified range of the dew point temperature
Answer: C
308. When there is no equipment to find the phase angle of imbalance, what balance method is used?
a) Dynamic trim balancing
b) Three-shot balancing
c) Cold fan trim balancing
Answer: B
309. Where is the most critical area for damage on a Fan Blade?
a) At the blade leading edge
b) At the blade Tip
c) At the blade Root
Answer: C
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310. Which cleaning method is most effective for the turbine section?
a) Abrasive grit
b) Fluid wash
c) Both abrasive grit and fluid wash are eually effective
Comment: 15.21 / 3 Engine Monitoring and Ground Operation - Compressor washing/cleaning
Answer: B
311. Why should you ensure that a pneumatic power source is available before engine shut down?
a) To clear an internal engine fire / tailpipe fire
b) To ventilate the engine in case of a high EGT
c) To clear fuel from the combustion chamber after shutdown
Answer: A
Subsection 22 - Engine Storage and Preservation Level 2
312. 'Inhibiting' of a fuel control unit means to

a) fill with corrosion preventive oil
b) lock the rotating parts to prevent damage during transit
c) dismantle down to its component parts
Comment: 15.22 / 2 Engine Storage and Preservation — Preservation and depreservation for the engine and
accessories/systems
Answer: A
313. A fuel system in long term storage

a) does not need to be inhibited
b) is inhibited with an approved inhibiting oil
c) is inhibited with the normal operating fuel
accessories/systems
Answer: B
314. After putting an engine into a MVP envelope, the humidity indicator should be initially checked after
a) 1-week
b) 24-hours
c) 1-month
accessories/systems
Answer: B
315. Generally up to what period can an installed gas turbine engine be stored without any maintenance action other than
fitting covers and blanks to the intake?
a) 30 days
b) 7 days
c) 12 month
accessories/systems
Answer: B
316. If an engine is in long term storage, but is not protected in a MVP envelope, it should be inspected every
a) 2 months
b) 2 weeks
c) 2 years
accessories/systems
Answer: B
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317. The purpose of inhibiting the fuel system for storage of the engine is to prevent
a) water in the fuel icing
b) fuel evaporating and leaving a sticky deposit
c) water in the fuel causing corrosion
accessories/systems
Answer: C
318. Which parts of a gas turbine engine are most prone to corrosion when in storage?
a) Hot section parts
b) Fuel system parts
c) Cold section parts
Comment: 15.22 / 2 Engine Storage and Preservation - Preservation and depreservation for the engine and
accessories/systems
Answer: A
42 of 42 06/09/2021, 10:16

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QBGenerator - Print Questions http://localhost/qbgenerator/printqs.php?moduleid=15&level=2&showh...

Subsection 1 - Fundamentals Level 2

1. 0°C converted to kelvin is

2. A convergent-divergent nozzle is said to be 'choked' when fluid flow

4. A thermodynamic process cannot do work if it is obeying

5. According to the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics, the heat of combustion in kerosene

8. Force = mass x acceleration describes which of Newton's laws?

10. How can the turbofan engine best be descriped?

13. In a thermodynamic process, energy that is unavailable to do work, is known as

17. The Fan of a turbofan engine is usually designated as....

18. The gas turbine engine works on the principle of the

20. Turbo-prop engines are

21. 0°C converted to kelvin is

Subsection 2 - Engine Performance Level 2

22. 'Flat Rated Thrust' is usually described as a

23. A TSFC of 0.5, compared to 0.6 is

c) have no affect on the thrust of the engine

26. Define Specific fuel Consumption

29. How is Net thrust computed?

30. In a turbo-prop engine, torque is produced by the

32. Ram Recovery occurs when the

33. The efficiency loss in a turbine could be a result of?

36. Total pressure recovery, in an engine inlet, occurs when

Comment: 15.2 / 2 Engine Performance - Engine efficiencies;

40. What is effective shaft horsepower?

41. What is propulsive efficiency?

Subsection 3 - Inlet Level 2

42. A piccolo tube is used in

43. An advantage of electrical anti-icing systems used on engine inlets is

44. An electrical inlet ice protection system provides

45. De-icing of engine inlets is

46. Electrical heater mats are mainly used on

47. From front to rear, pitot intakes are

48. How are icing conditions defined?

52. Variable geometry intakes are used for

53. What does Ram Recovery do for an engine inlet?

55. What is understood by Ram Recovery Speed? (subsonic air intake)

56. Where would you expect to see a bellmouth intake fitted?

Subsection 4 - Compressors Level 2

59. A single spool axial flow turbo-jet is

60. An axial flow compressor rotor blade has a

62. Compressor ratio is defined as the ratio of

b) It makes the engine easier to start

64. High Bypass engines have

68. Snubbers on a fan blade

69. The centrifugal compressor is ideally suited to

70. The fan of a high-bypass triple-spool engine is driven by the

71. To maximise efficiency of a centrifugal compressor

b) the gap between impeller and shroud must be a minimum

72. Two types of blade root fittings are

73. What are the advantages of a centrifugal compressor?

Subsection 5 - Combustion Section Level 2

74. A coating of magnesium zirconate on the inside of a combustion chamber is to

75. A reverse flow combustion chamber is best suited to a

76. Combustion chamber liners are normally constructed from

79. How is smoke from a gas turbine engine eliminated?

a) By filters fitted to the outlet of combustion chambers

83. The melting point of most combustion chamber liners is

86. What is necessary for stable combustion in the combustion chamber?

87. What is the main advantage of an annular combustion chamber?

a) More stable combustion

Subsection 6 - Turbine Section Level 2