Mod 5 Combined Pacop

PHARMACEUTICAL DOSAGE FORMS
C 1. Solution which has the same osmotic pressure and pH as human fluid is:
A) Saturated B) Hypertonic C) Isotonic D) Hypotonic
A 2. Acacia reproduces color with some substance due to the presence of:
A) Peroxidase B) Acid C) Impurities D) Any of the above
D 3. Spirit of peppermint is prepared by:

A) Simple solution B) Chemical reaction C) Distillation D) Solution with maceration
D 4. Brandy is made from:

A) Molasses B) Fermented malt juice C) Fermented juice of grapes D) None of the above
E 5. Preservative added to syrup:

A) Glycerin C) Sodium Benzoate E) All of the above
B) Benzoic acid D) Methyl Paraben
C 6. Levigation is often applied in:

A) Syrups B) Solutions C) Ointments D) Tinctures
D 7. General formula for infusions uses a strength of:

A) 10% B) 15% C) 20% D) 5%
B 8. One of the following is not a biological product:

A) Serum B) Antihistamine C) Toxoid D) Anti-toxin
B 9. Concentration of “Diluted Alcohol” by volume is:

A) 10% B) 50% C) 70% D) 20% E) 85%
B 10. Aromatic water may be prepared by triturating the oil with:

A) Acacia B) Talc C) Kaolin D) None of the above
C 11. Phenol produces a clear solution with:

A) Water B) Ammonia C) Glycerin D) Liquid petrolatum
C 12. One of the following is not a process of extraction:

A) Maceration B) Digestion C) Comminution D) Decoction E) Percolation
E 13. Separation of immiscible liquids may be carried out by:

A) Glass syringe B) Pipette C) Separatory funnel E) All of the above D) Florentine receiver
B 14. Liquid preparations that contain one or more chemical substances usually non-volatile dissolved in water is:
A) Emulsions B) Solutions C) Lotions D) Syrups
D 15. Triturations usually have a strength of:

A) 5% B) 1% C) 15% D) 10% E) None of the above
B 16. A small scale comminution is:

A) Maceration B) Levigation C) Digestion D) None of the above
D 17. Process of converting a liquid into vapor and condensing back to liquid is:
A) Sublimation B) Condensation C) Evaporation D) Distillation
A 18. Chemical change caused by heat:

A) Incineration B) Evaporation C) Sublimation D) All of the above
C 19. One of the following has strength of 10% opium:

A) Laudanum B) Paregoric C) Dover’s powder D) All of the above
B 20. Glycerin suppositories are solidified by the use of:

A) Stearic acid B) Sodium stearate C) Glycerol triacetate D) White wax
E 21. Tablet is the preferred form as dosage form because of:

A) Stability B) Economy C) Precision of dosage D) Convenience E) All of the above
D 22. Liquid preparations representing water-soluble principles of animal and plant drugs are:
A) Spirits B) Tincture C) Fluidextracts D) None of the above
A 23. The preservatives for juices:

A) Benzoic acid B) Sodium benzoate C) Alcohol D) Glycerin
C 24. Purity means:

A) Purified coloring substance C) U. S. P. or N. F. statement of required purity
B) Pure food and drugs act D) Substance requires purification
D 25. The HLB system is used to classify:

A) Flavors B) Colors C) Perfumes D) Surfactants
B 26. Most drugs are:

A) Strong electrolytes B) Weak electrolytes C) Non-electrolytes D) Highly ionic
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B 27. The usual purpose of chilling medication prior to administration is to increase:

A) Absorption B) Palatibility C) Stability D) Ionization
C 28. The U. S. P. Pyrogen test is performed on:

A) Dogs B) Guinea pigs C) Rabbits D) Cats
A 29. According to the U. S. P. standard, a refrigerator may be used to store pharmaceutical which specify
storage in a:
A) Cold place B) Controlled room temperature C) Dark place D) None of the above
B 30. The process of grinding substances to a very fine powder is termed:

A) Levigation B) Trituration C) Sublimation D) Percolation E) Maceration
A 31. An aqueous solution which serves as a cleansing or an antiseptic agent directed

against a part or into a cavity of the body is a/an:
A) Douche B) Enema C) Gargle D) Spray
B 32. The official hydrogen peroxide solution U. S. P. is also known as:

A) Diluted peroxide B) 10 volume peroxide C) 15 volume peroxide D) 30 volume peroxide
A 33. A synonym for cold cream, U. S. P. is :

A) Petrolatum rose water ointment C) Wool fat ointment
B) Vanishing cream D) Rose water ointment
B 34. Container impervious to air:

A) Light-resistant Tight container C) Single dose container
B) Hermetic container D) All of the above
B 35. The term “impalpable” refers to s substance that is:

A) Colorless B) Not perceptible to touch C) Greasy D) Tasteless
C 36. Cyanocobalamin is:

A) A steroid B) Hallucinogen C) A vitamin D) An enzyme
C 37. The non-aqueous vehicle used in injection:

A) Alcohol B) Glycerol C) Vegetable oils D) Liquid petrolatum
B 38. Which one of the following solutions should be sterile when dispensed:
A) Tinctures B) Opthalmic solutions C) Spirits D) Syrups E) None of the above
D 39. Bulk powders are:

A) Triturations B) Dentrifices C) Douche powder D) All of the above
D 40. Oleoresins are:

A) Volatile oils B) Waxes and resins C) Fixed oils and resins D) None of the above
A 41. A chromagen is:

A) A colored substance B) Certified dye C) A dye fixative D) A precursor of color
A 42. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with it:

A) Anti-histamine B) Penicillin C) Aspirin D) Sulfonamide
B 43. Rancidity of fats may be due to:

A) Impurities B) Oxidation at double bond C) Reduction to alcohol D) Hydrogenation at double bond
C 44. This is a tool for monitoring drug utilization:

A) A drug receipt B) A drug invoice C) A drug profile D) Prescription
A 45. These are roles of the pharmacists except:

A) Diagnose diseases and prescribe prescription drugs C) Recommend OTC drugs
B) Recognize self-limiting diseases D) Advise patients on expected drug side effect
C 46. These are developing trends in a pharmacist’s function except:

A) Influence the physician in choice of drugs C) Diagnosis of diseases
B) Use of generics D) Advise the physician on dosage regimens
A 47. OTC drugs are:

A) Nonprescription drugs B) Prescription drugs C) Regulated drugs D) Potent drugs
D 48. This represents the quality of the product and the professionalism of the compounding pharmacists:
A) Price of the medicine B) Name of the drug store C) Name of the prescriber D) Label
D 49. Recovery of an ambulatory patient depends upon this factor in this medication:
A) Brand product B) Generic product C) Expenses D) Compliance
D 50. Spans and Tweens are:

A) Phospholipids C) Highly polymerized mannuronic acid anhydrides
B) Glycoside D) Polyoxyalkalene derivatives
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C 51. Which of the following is not a method of splitting emulsions:

A) Centrifuging B) Adding electrolytes C) Filtering D) Heat
B 52. The term PSIG in reference to aerosols means:

A) Per square inch of glass C) Atmospheric pressure
B) Pounds per square inch gauge D) Propellant safety in glass
A 53. A disadvantage of sodium saccharin as a sweetening agent is :

A) Bitter after taste C) Poor strength compared to glucose
B) Solubility in water D) Poor strength compared to gulein
B 54. According to the USP, the instruction protect from light in a monograph indicated storage in a :
A) Dark place B) Light-resistant container C) Amber glass bottle D) Hermetic container
A 55. The pharmacist may suggest Riopan Plus in place of Riopan when the patient desires:
A) Relief from gas B) Greater antacid capacity C) A chewable tablet D) Lower sodium levels
A 56. Solubility of a substance may be expressed in several ways. When a quantitative statement of solubility is
given in the USP, it is a generality expressed as:
A) mL of solvent required to dissolve 1 gram of solute
B) G of solute soluble in 1 mL of solvent
C) G of solute soluble in 100 mL of solvent
D) mL of solvent required to dissolve 100G of solute
B 57. The expiration date on a pharmaceutical container states “Expires on July 1997”. This statement means that
by that expiration date, the product may have lost:
A) 50% of its activity
B) Sufficient activity to be outside USP monograph requirement
C) 5% of its activity
D) All of its activity
D 58. Which of the following agents is/are available in a sublingual dosage form?
A) Isorbide dinitrate (Isordil) C) Hydrogenated argot alkaloids (Hydergine)
B) Glycerin D) All of the above
B 59. Upon exposure to air, Aminophylline solutions may develop:

A) A gas B) Crystals of Theophylline C) A precipitate D) A straw color
A 60. A chelate must always contain a:

A) Multivalent metal B) Triple bond C) Amine group D) Ethyllenediamine group
D 61. Official forms of water include:

A) Water for injection C) Bacteriostatic water for injection
B) Sterile water for injection D) All of the above
C 62. Insulin preparations are usually administered by:

A) Intradermal injection B) Intramuscular injection C) Subcutaneous injection D) Intravenous
B 63. “Winged” needles are most closely associated with which type of injections?
A) Intramuscular C) Subcutaneous
B) Intravenous D) Length of needle
A 64. The term piggyback is most commonly associated with:

A) Intermittent therapy C) Intravenous bolus
B) Total parenteral nutrition D) Flow intravenous infusions
B 65. The designation “minibottles” refers to:

A) 10-30 mL glass vials
B) Partially filled parenteral bottles with 50 to 150 mL volumes
C) Any parenteral bottle with a capacity of less than 1 mL
D) Vials with a capacity of less than 10 mL
A 66. The term venoclysis is most associated with:

Intravenous infusions C) Intravenous injections
Intrathecal injections D) Peritoneal dialysis
B 67. Which of the following commonly available large-volume dextrose solutions for intravenous use is isotonic?
A) 2.5% B) 5.0% C) 10% D) 50%
A 68. The busher injection is:

A) An automatic device for self-injecting C) Wyeth’s cartridge injection unit
B) A pre-filled syringe unit D) A disposable syringe and needle system
D 69. Valium (diazepam) is available in which of the following dosage forms?

A) Elixir B) Tablet C) Injection solution D) B and C only
A/C 70. This antacid containing mixture of aluminum and magnesium hydroxide is marketed under the name of:
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A) Maalox B) Amphojel C) Mylanta D) Titralac
B 71. The shaft portion of the needle is called the :

A) Bevel B) Cannula C) Lumen D) Hub
B 72. Alcoholic and hydroalcoholic solutions prepared from vegetable materials or from chemical substances,
prepared usually by maceration and percolation.
A) Extracts B) Tinctures C) Fluidextracts D) Elixirs
B 73. Concentrated (1g/mL) alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions representing the therapeutically active principles
of vegetable drugs prepared by percolation process:
A) Extracts B) Fluidextracts C) Tinctures D) Elixirs
A 74. Clear, pleasantly flavored, sweetened hydroalcoholic liquids intended for oral use as flavors and vehicles for
substances:
A) Elixirs B) Tinctures C) Fluidextract D) Extracts
B 75. Aqueous solutions used for treating the pharynx and nasopharynx by forcing air from the lungs through the
solution which is held in the throat:
A) Mouthwashes B) Gargles C) All of the above D) None of the above
B 76. A homogenous mixture in which the molecules of the solute are dispersed among hose of the solvent:
A) Suspensions B) Emulsions C) Solutions D) All of the above
D 77. Purified water may be prepared by:

A) Distillation B) Ion-exchange resin C) Reverse osmosis D) All of the above
D 78. Syrups may be prepared by:

A) Solution with heat B) Agitation without heat C) Percolation D) All of the above
D 79. Spirits, popularly known as essences, are alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions of volatile substances
prepared by:
A) Simple solution B) Distillation C) Chemical reaction D) All of the above
C 80. A two-phase system prepared by combining 2 immiscible liquids, one of which is uniformly dispersed
throughout the other:
A) Suspension B) Solution C) Emulsion D) Magma
B 81. Preparations containing finely divided drug particles uniformly distributed throughout a vehicle in which the
drug exhibits a minimum degree of solubility:
A) Emulsion B) Suspension C) Solution D) None of the above
A 82. Lugol’s solution is:

A) Strong iodine solution C) Povidone-iodine solution
B) Potassium iodine oral solution D) None of the above
D 83. The following solvents are used in the preparation of oral solutions, syrups and elixirs except:
A) Alcohol, USP B) Purified water, USP C) Propylene glycol D) Ethylene glycol
B 84. An example of an anionic emulsifying agent is:

A) Benzalkonium chloride C) Polyethylene glycol
B) Sodium lauryl sulfate D) Magnesium trisilicate
C 85. The following substances produce which emulsions, except:

A) Gelatin B) Egg yolk C) Cholesterol D) Casein
D 86. Suppositories are prepared by:

A) Melting from a smelt B) Compression C) Hand rolling D) All of the above
B 87. Bougies is another term for:

A) Vaginal suppositories B) Urethral suppositories C) Rectal suppositories D) None of the above
C 88. Anhydrous lanolin is a /an:

A) Hydrocarbon ointment base C) Absorption ointment base
B) Water-removable ointment base D) Water-soluble ointment base
C 89. Cold cream is a /an:

A) Water in oil (w/o emulsion) C) All of the above
B) Absorption ointment base D) None of the above
B 90. The following are hydrocarbon ointment base except:

A) Petrolatum B) Hydrophilic petrolatum C) White petrolatum D) Mineral oil
A 91. Medicated or non-medicated semisolid preparations intended for external application:

A) Ointments B) Lotions C) Liniments D) All of the above
C 92. Which of the following sterilization methods is (are) used for heat-labile pharmaceutical preparations?
1) Moist-heat sterilization 3) Sterilization by filtration
2) Dry-heat sterilization 4) Gas sterilization
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A) 1, 3 and 4 B) 1 and 3 only C) 3 and 4 only D) 3 only
B 93. Castor oil is a / an:

A) Saline laxative B) Stimulant laxative C) Bulk-forming laxative D) Emollient laxative
A 94. The saline cathartics:

1) Act by increasing the osmotic load of the gastrointestinal tract
2) Act by local irritation on the intestinal tract
3) Are salts of poorly absorbable anions and cations
4) Water soluble and are taken with large amounts of water
A) 1, 3 and 4 B) 2, 3 and 4 C) 1 and 3 D) 1 and 4
B 95. Solid dosage forms in which one or more medicinal and/or inert substances are enclosed within a small shell
or container generally prepared from a suitable form of gelatin:
A) Tablets B) Capsules C) Troches D) Pastilles
C 96. Granules or powders consisting of sodium bicarbonate, a suitable organic or inorganic acid and other
ingredients are known as:
A) Dusting powder B) Dentrifices C) Effervescent salts D) Insufflations
D 97. Which of the following capsule size is the largest?

A) 1 B) 0 C) 00 D) 000
B 98. What substance is/are added to render soft gelatin capsules elastic or plastic like?
A) Mineral oil B) Sorbitol C) Carnuba wax D) All of the above
A 99. Widely used solid dosage forms of medicinal substances usually prepared with the aid of suitable
pharmaceutical adjuncts by compression or molding and contain medicinal substances with or without suitable
pharmaceutical adjuncts:
A) Tablets B) Bulk powders C) Capsules D) Divided powders
C 100. Which of following is / are true of buccal tablets?

1) Intended to be dissolved beneath the tongue
2) Provide absorption of drugs that are destroyed by the gastric juice
3) Dissolved very promptly to give rapid drug effects
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 only D) 1, 2 and 3
B 101. The method for the preparation of compressed tablets wherein the granulation is formed by compacting
large masses of the mixture and subsequently crushing and sizing these pieces into smaller granules:
A) Wet granulation method C) Direct compression method
B) Dry granulation method D)All of the above
D 102. The ideal excipient for the preparation of chewable tablets containing moisture sensitive drugs:
A) Lactose B) Saccharin sodium C) Dextrose D) Mannitol
C 103. Which of the following is / are used in tablet formulation to reduce friction during tablet compression?
1) Calcium stearate 2) Magnesium stearate 3) stearate acid
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 1, 2 and 3 D) None of the above
D 104. Lubricants contribute to the preparation of compressed tablets by:

1) Improving the flow of the granulation
2) Prevent adhesion of the tablet formulation to the punches and dies during compression
3) Reduces friction
4) Give a sheen to the finished products
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A 105. Advantages of controlled-release drug dosage forms are:

1) Extended daytime and nighttime activity of the drug 3) Increased dosage frequency
2) Reduced incidence of side effects 4) Decreased patient compliance
A) 1 and 2 B) 1 and 3 C) 2 and 3 D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
D 106. Method(s) utilized to achieve controlled drug release from solid dosage forms:
A) Coated heads as granules B) Complex formation C) Non-exchange resin D) All of the above
B 107. Percent weight-in-volume:

A) # of grams of a constituent in 100g of preparation
B) # of grams of a constituent in 100mL of preparation
C) # of grams of a constituent in 1000g of preparation
D) # of grams of a constituent in 1000mL of preparation
D 108. Simple syrup is:

A) Supersaturated solution of sucrose in purified water C) Highly unstable
B) Prone to microbial growth D) None of the above
B 109. The following are toxicity contributors except:

A) Dextrose B) Sodium acetate C) Sodium chloride D) Boric acid
D 110. Methods of detecting the type of emulsion:
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1) Drop dilution test 2) Dye or indicator test 3) Electric conductance test

A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1and 2 D) 1, 2 and 3
A 111. Agents used in tablet and capsule formulation to improve flow properties of powder mixtures except:
A) Lactose B) Colloidal silica C) Cornstarch D) Talc
C 112. The following are used as colorants in pharmaceutical preparations except:

A) Erythrosin B) Caramel C) Yellow mercuric oxide D) Red ferric oxide
B 113. Type 1 glass is:

1) Treated soda-lime glass 2) Intended for parenteral products 3) Resistant to leaching alkali
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3 C) 2 only D) 1, 2 and 3
C 114. The following are colloidal emulsions except:

A) Mild silver protein solution C) Calamine solution
B) Tragacanth solution D) Bentonite magma
D 115. Ringer’s injection, USP contains:

1) Sodium chloride 2) Sodium lactate 3) Calcium chloride 4) Potassium chloride
A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 and 4 only C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 1, 3 and 4
A 116. The process of depriving a drug of its soluble constituent by passage of a solvent through the powder
contained in a suitable vessel:
A) Percolation B) Filtration C) Decantation D) Sublimation
B 117. Wet masses of solid matter applied to the skin for the purpose of reducing inflammation:
A) Pills B) Poultice C) Ointment D) Lotion
A 118. Solution of arsenic and mercuric iodide is also known as:

A) Donovan’s solution B) Lugol’s solution C) Burow’s solution D) Dobell’s solution
A 119. They are mixtures or solutions of medicinal substances with glycerin:

A) Glycerites B) Emulsion C) Suspension D) Elixir
C 120. If a 3-year old child has fever and is vomiting, what dosage form for fever is appropriate for him?
A) Suspension B) Syrup C) Suppository D) Injection
A 121. They are solid or semisolid preparations of the soluble and active principles of drugs prepared by
percolation of the drug with appropriate menstruum and evaporation of the percolate:
A) Extracts B) Fluidextracts C) Percolate D) Ointment
C 122. They are solutions or mixtures of various substances in external application and are applied with rubbing
and friction to the affected area:
A) Lotion B) Glycerites C) Embrocations D) Mucilage
B 123. Solvent used in extracting active constituents from plants and animals is termed as:
A) Vehicle B) Menstruum C) Base D) Water
B 124. Class of preparations in which medicinal substance is combined with saccharine substances like jellies or
pulp of fruits are called:
A) Syrup B) Confections C) Glycerites D) Tinctures
A 125. What dosage form of Magnesium Sulfate solution is used as treatment for eclampsia?
A) Injection B) Tablet C) Capsules D) Solutions
C 126. A product designed for administration to the body in the diagnosis or treatment of disease is called:
A) Drugs B) Injection C) Dosage forms D) Resins
A 127. It is a condition of emulsion wherein the dispersed phase floats out and concentrates on top:
A) Creaming B) Oil in water emulsion C) Cracked or broken emulsion D) Water in oil emulsion
B 128. A kind of emulsifier which stabilizes the emulsion by forming a protective film around the globules of a
dispersed phase preventing their coalescence:
A) Quasi emulsifier B) True emulsifier C) Oil D) Water
A 129. Any substance combined with an active drug to make the latter agreeable to convenient dosage is called:
A) Excipient B) Diluent C) Lubricant D) Disintegrator
A 130. Substances added in a suspension to overcome agglomeration of the dispersed particles and to increase
the viscosity of the medium so that the particles settle down slowly is called:
A) Suspending agents B) Glycerites C) Inert substance D) Water
B 131. A method of preparing emulsion wherein the gum is mixed first with the oil, then the water is added last is:
A) English method B) Continental method C) Percolation D) None of the above
A 132. A colloidal system consisting of very finely subdivided liquid or solid particles dispersed and surrounded by
a gas called:
A) Aerosols B) Inhalers C) Vaporizer D) All of the above
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C 133. Sterile pharmaceutical preparations that are to be administered through one for more layers of the skin:
A) Enema B) Suppository C) Injections D) Troches
B 134. Which one if the following is for external use?

A) Lugol’s solution B) Boric acid C) Cod liver oil emulsion D) Milk of magnesia
A 135. Which one of the following preparations is a saturated solution?

A) Aromatic water B) Elixirs C) Emulsion D) Solutions
C 136. The following dosage forms possess shake well label except:
A) Magmas B) Lotion C) Syrups D) Suspension
D 137. Oil vehicle for injections must be from plant origin for the reason that:
A) They are liquid at room temperature C) They will not become rancid rapidly
B) They may be metabolized D) All of the above
A 138. Dosage forms which do not contain any medication is known as:
A) Placebo B) Film coated C) Sugar coated D) Powders
D 139. The following preparations are injectables except:

A) Syntocinon B) Vincristin C) Insulin D) Nitroglycerine
D 140. Which of the following statements is not true for aromatic waters?
A) It is a saturated aqueous solution C) It is often used as flavoring vehicle
B) It can be prepared by steam distillation D) It is a preparation of volatile oil in alcohol
C 141. Boric acid solution used for eye wash:

A) Boric acid solution 4% C) Boric acid solution 2%
B) Boric acid solution 5% D) Boric acid solution 10%
D 142. All of the following helps to impart satisfactory compression characteristics to the formulation of tablet
except:
A) Diluents B) Binders C) Lubricants D) Sweetening agents
D 143. Which one is not a disintegrator?

A) Starch B) Cellulose C) Gums D) Calcium stearate
C 144. One of the following preparations is an antidiarrheal:

A) Dulcolax tablet B) Cellulose C) Diatabs D) Diamox
B 145. Used for treatment of gout:

A) Ridamol B) Purinase C) Diatabs D) Inderal
D 146. It is not a part of a primary emulsion:

A) Dispersed phase B) Dispersion medium C) Emulsifying agent D) Alcohol
C 147. An example of a true emulsifier:

A) Chondrous B) Dextrin C) Acacia D) Agar
A 148. Aqueous preparation made by extracting vegetable or animal drugs by maceration or percolation with hot
and cold water:
A) Infusions B) Decoctions C) Tinctures D) None of the above
B 149. Solutions representing the water-soluble constituents of plant drugs prepared by boiling the drugs in water:
A) Infusions B) Decoctions C) Tinctures D) None of the above
C 150. The method for extemporaneous preparation for emulsion from volatile oils or oleaginous substances of low
viscosities:
A) Dry gum method B) Wet gum method C) Bottle method D) None of the above
A 151. The following are fatty or oleaginous suppository bases except:

A) Glycerinated gelatin B) Theobroma oil C) Glyceryl monostearate D) Glyceryl monopalmitate
C 152. Which of the following is (are) true on parenteral products?

1) Makes use of purified water, USP as solvent 3) For I. V. purposes only
2) Sterile, pyrogen-free preparation
A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 2 only D) 1, 2 and 3
A 153. The following are fungal preservative used in pharmaceutical preparations except:
A) Sodium bisulfate B) Sodium benzoate C) Sodium propionate D) Benzoic acid
D 154. Which statement is not true with suspending agents?

A) It keeps the insoluble ingredients in suspension long enough for a uniform dose.
B) It keeps the insoluble ingredients --- finely divided state.
C) It improves the palatability of the mixture.
D) It serves as a preservative.
B 155. Dose of Magnesia magma USP as laxative:
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A) 4cc B) 15cc C) 30cc D) 5cc
A 156. Official name fro Amphojel:

A) Aluminum hydroxide gel USP C) Aluminum Phosphate gel USP
B) Magnesia Magma USP D) Bentonite Magma USP
A 157. Products considered as sterile:

A) Eye Mo C) Drixine nasal drops
B) Dequadin throat lozenges D) Aspilet chewable tablets
C 158. HCL or NaOH are added in parenteral solution as:

A) Isotonic adjustor B) Antimicrobial preservative C) pH adjunct D) Diluent
A 159. Trade name for attapulgite:

A) Polymagma B) Diatabs C) Asmasolon D) Inderal
D 160. The following criteria are required for a good suppository base except:
A) Should dissolve rapidly in the body cavity C) Inert
B) Non-irritating D) Should be white
D 161. Which of the following statements is not true with vanishing cream?
A) They are immediately absorbed and therefore will disappear on the surface.
B) It is also used as ointment.
C) Incompatible with acids and acidic substances.
D) It is a water ion oil emulsion.
D 162. Which of the following is not true with plasters?

A) It is free from fats. C)Supper in the immobilization area
B) Chiefly used for their adhesiveness.. D) It must be white.
C 163. It is not a natural source of drug

A) Mineral source B) Plant source C) Synthetic source D) Animal source
A 164. Drug constituents which come from animal source:

A) Insulin B) Tannins C) Alkaloids D) Volatile oils
A 165. Which is not true with volatile oils?

A) Can be saponified B) Aromatic odor C) Generally liquids D) Insoluble in water
A 166. Dosage form of insulin:

A) Injection B) Tablet C) Capsules D) Pills
D 167. An “ultra” short-acting barbiturate (Sodium Thiopenthal) is used primarily as a/an:

A) Sedative B) Hypnotic C) Anticonvulsant D) Anesthetic
D 168. The following route of administration will provide the highest bioavailability of drug:
A) Oral B) Rectal C) Intramuscular D) Intravenous
C 169. The following are diuretics except:

A) Chlorothiazide B) Aminophyllin C) Tolbutamide D) Diamox
B 170. Titanium dioxide is used as a solar ray protectant --- in the preparation of:
A) Burn lotion B) White capsules C) Topical anesthetic D) Antiseptics
B 171. Cimetidine (Tagamet) is used in the treatment of:

A) Congestive heart failure B) Ulcers C) Hypertension D) Edema
C 172. The greatest threat from morphine overdose is:

A) Spinal cord paralysis B) Renal failure C) Respiratory depression D) Cardiovascular collapse
B 173. 100% proof alcohol is:

A) Absolute alcohol B) 50% Ethyl alcohol C) 100% Ethyl alcohol D) 95% Ethyl alcohol
C 174. Vitamin B6 is:

A) Thiamine B) Riboflavin C) Pyridoxine D) Nicotinic acid
C 175. Magnesium stearate is used in tablet manufacturing as:

A) Disintegrant B) Binder C) Lubricant D) Source of Mg
C 176. Flourocarbons are preferred to other hydrocarbons as propellants because of this decided advantage:
A) They require lower pressures. C) They are not inflammable
B) They are less expensive. D) All of the above.
D 177. One of the following is an oil-soluble vitamin:

A) Ascorbic acid B) Thiamine C) Riboflavin D) Vitamin D
B 178. The most popular and acceptable commercial dosage forms are:
A) Hard gelatin capsules C) Soft elastic capsules
B) Tablet D) Divided powders
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A 179. “Selsun Blue” is used mainly as a/an:

A) Anti-dandruff shampoo B) Bath additive C) Antiseptic lotion D) Topical anesthetic
B 180. The chemical substances used as radiopaque in x-ray examination of the GIT:
A) NaHCO3 B) BaSO4 C) Flourescein dye D) Radioactive iodine
B 181. Polyethylene Glycol polymers used as ointment vehicles are called:

A) Sodium alginate B) Carbowax C) Silicones D) Veegum
D 182. Vitamin K is associated with:

A) Hemoglobin concentration B) Bone formation C) Cardiac function D) Blood coagulation
C 183. A plant source of antineoplastic drug is:

A) Nux vomica B) Digitals C) Vinca rosa D) Belladonna
D 184. Bioavailability of drugs may be adversely affected by:

A) Solubility B) Wettability C) Particle size of drug D) All of the above
B 185. The following products are intended for topical administration except:
A) Benzelkonium chloride solution C) Aluminum chloride solution
B) Lugol’s solution D) Golden gargle
B 186. Solid extractives consisting chiefly of principles of vegetable substances that are soluble in alcohol but
insoluble in water:
A) Abstracts B) Resins C) Oleoresins D) Extracts
D 187. White capsules are those treated with:

A) Silicon dioxide B) Calcium oxide C) Salad D) Titanium dioxide
D 188. Ideal containers for dispensing dusting powders:

A) Wide-mouth bottles B) Pasteboard boxes C) Amber-colored bottles D) Sifter-top container
C 189. The diluent used in triturations is:

A) Starch B) Talc C) Lactose D) Cellulose
D 190. Combinations or mixtures of drugs which liquefy due to a lowering of their melting point:
A) Diquescent B) Efflorescent C) Hygroscopic D) Eutectic mixture
B 191. “Bullet-shaped” capsules are known as:

A) Pearls B) Pulvules C) Cluteid D) Pastilles
A 192. An example of a “non-medicated, ready-to-apply” plaster:

A) Adhesive tape B) Salonpas C) Belladonna plaster D) Corn plaster
B 193. Special highly absorptive cataplasms are called:

A) Poultices B) Epispastics C) Siloxanes D) Veegums
A 194. Rectal suppositories are:

A) Cone-shaped B) Globular C) Ovoid D) Bowel-shaped
C 195. External applications resembling ointments and generally employed for protection or covering especially
for burns:
A) Plasters B) Pastes C) Dressings D) Plasters
D 196. Semi-solid, very stiff, very absorptive, non-greasy and highly concentrated applications:
A) Chrisma B) Epispastics C) Salves D) Pastes
C 197. Ointments containing wax, spermacettic or any hard fusible material are prepared by:
A) Incorporation by levigation C) Fusion
B) Compression D) Hand-rolling
B 198. Method of preparation employed for spirits when it is desired to introduce the coloring matter of the drugs
into the preparation:
A) Simple solution B) Chemical reaction C) Solution with maceration D) Distillation
MATCH THE FOLLOWING:

C 199. Clyster A. Vaginal or urethral douches
A 200. Irrigations B. Non-prescription medication
B 201. O.T.C. medications C. Enema
D 202. “Empyrheumatic” D. “smoke-like”
C 203. Castellani’s paint A. Limonada Purgante

A 204. Magnesium citrate soln B. Cherry juice
D 205. Merbromin solution C. Carbol-Fuchsin solution
B 206. Succus carasi D. Mercurochrome
C 207. Lysol A. Povidone-iodine solution

A 208. Betadine solution B. Dimenhydrinate syrup
D 209. Corn solvent C. Saponated oresol solution
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B 210. Dramamine syrup D. Salicylic acid collodion
C 211. Chor-trimeton elixir A. Irish moss mucilage

D 212. Dexedrein syrup B. Zinc oxide paste
A 213. Carageenan C. Chlorpheniramine elixir
B 214. Lassar’s zinc paste D. Dextro-amphetamine syrup
D 215. Vioform inserts A. Kaolin cataplasm

A 216. Antiphlogistine B. Acetylsalicylic acid suppositories
B 217. Supirin C. Whitfield ointment
C 218. Benzoic-salicylic acid ointment D. Iodochlorhydroxyquin suppositories
C 219. Slugging method A. Rod-shaped or cylindrical troches

D 220. Lubricants B. Wafers
A 221. Bacillus C. Dry granulation or precompression
B 222. Cachets D “Flow-regulators”
C 223. Pastilles A. Granulators

D 224. Bolus B. Layered pills
B 225. Concentric pills C. Soft, felatin-containing lozenges
A 226. Binders D. Pills for veterinary use
D 227. P.A.S. tablets A. Antinauseant

C 228. Nitroglycerine tablets B. Anti-arrhythmic
A 229. Dramamine syrup C. Sublingual coronary vasodilator
B 230. Quinidine tablets D Anti-tubercular
C 231. Leukeran A. Thyroid inhibitor

D 232. Aralen B. Antihypertensive
A 233. Tapazole C. Antihypertensive
B 234. Serpasil D. Antimalarial
C 235. Parabens are used in syrups as:

A) Buffer B) Thickener C) Preservative D) Sweetener
A 236. Water can be purified by:

A) Distillation B) Solution C) Chemical reaction D) None of the above
B 237. A form of resin except:

A) Natural B) Distilled C) Prepared D) Synthetic
C 238. Science that affect bioavailability considerations is/are except:

A) Physical B) Chemical C) Commercial D) Biological
B 239. Non-toxic powders for local application without systemic effect:

A) Dentrifices B) Dusting C) Insufflation D) Douche powders
D 240. Type of lotion according to use is :

A) Cosmetic B) Medicinal C) Sunscreen D) All of the above
B 241. Type of coating for tablets consisting of a thin layer of a water insoluble polymeric substance is:
A) Sugar coating B) Film coating C) Chocolate coating D) Enteric coating
B 242. A type of solid preparation prepared by compression, small, cylindrical in shape, and administered by
implantation is:
A) Lozenges B) Pellets C) Chewable D) None of the above
D 243. Characteristics of pills except:

A) Adhesive B) Firm C) Plasticity property D) Chewable
A 244. A rectal injection employed to visualize the gastrointestinal tract for diagnosis purposes is:
A) Enemas B) Douche C) Washes D) Suppository
C 245. Solutions of various drugs in aqueous vehicle applied to the mucous membrane of the nose and throat by
means of a nebulizer is:
A) Emulsions B) Suspensions C) Sprays D) Insufflations
A 246. A form of extract depending upon the extent of removing the solvent except:
A) Liquid extract B) Semiliquid C) Pilular D) Powdered
C 247 Viscous preparations intended for warm, external application to a body surface is:
A) Glycerites B) Ointments C) Poultices D) Glycerogelatins
A 248. A solution containing the maximum amount of solute in a certain quantity of solvent is termed:
A) Saturated B) Supersaturated C) Pure D) Colloidal solution
C 249. Thixotropic emulsions or suspensions intended for external application to the body:
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A) Ointment B) Cream C) Lotion D) Magma
C 250. Tablets that release carbon dioxide when dissolved in water:

A) Sublingual B) Buccal C) Effercescent D) Pellet
D 251. Tablets for subcutaneous implantation into body tissues:

A) Buccal B) Enteric coated C) Sublingual D) Pellets
C 252. Hygroscopic and deliquescent substances may be incorporated into powders by:
A) Addition of diluent B) Double wrapping C) A and B D) Addition of volatile solvent
D 253. Suppositories are administered when:

A) A local effect is desired. C)A drug cannot be tolerated orally
B) A systemic effect is desired. D) All of the above.
B 254. This improves the rate of flow and prevents adhesion of tablet granulations to dies and punches of tablet
machine:
A) Starch B) Magnesium stearate C) Mannitol D) Kaolin
C 255. This is used as a binder, diluent and disintegrator in tablets:

A) Talc B) Magnesium stearate C) Starch D) Kaolin
A 256. The ideal container for ointment:

A) Collapsible tin tubes B) Glass jars C) Porcelain jars D) Plastic jars
B 257. These equipments are used in the preparation of ointment except:

A) Steam bath B) Mold C) Mortar and pestle D) Mechanical mixer`
D 258. This is classified as a topical suspension:

A) Calamine lotion B) Selenium sulfide C) Retin-A D) All of the above
A 259. The following are natural emulsifying agents except:

A) Tween 80 B) Acacia C) Agar D) Gelatin
C 260. The following statements are true for the HLB system of surfactants except:
A) Hydrophilic surfactants have high HLB (8-18). C) Hydrophilic surfactants form w/o emulsions
B) Lipophilic surfactants have low HLB (3-6). D) Lipophilic surfactants form w/o emulsions.
A 261. The following preparations are classified as antacids except:

A) Kaopectate B) Creamalin C) Magnesia magma D) Phosphagel
D 262. Instability of emulsions is caused by:

A) Flocculation B) Creaming C) Inversion D) All of the above
D 263. This is the common ingredients of antidiarrheal suspensions:

A) Kaolin B) Pectin C) Calamine D) A and B
C 264. These are methods of determining emulsion type except:

A) Drop dilution B) Dye Solubility C) Solubility test D) Conductivity test
D 265. This preparation contains magnesium hydroxide as the active ingredient:

A) Gelusil B) Kremil-S C) Milk of magnesia D) All of the above
D 266. The stability of a drug dosage form is influenced by:

A) Temperature B) Light C) Humidity D) All of the above
A 267. Clear, colorless, odorless, liquid sterilized and suitably packaged contains no bacteriostatic agent:
A) Sterile water for injection C) Water for injection
B) Bacteriostatic water for injection D) Distilled water
A 268. A 36.8% w/w solution of HCl contains:

A) 36.8 gm. HCl in 100gm solution. C) 36.8 gm. HCl in 100 ml of solution
B) 36.8 gm. HCl in 100 gm solvent
C 269. Which statement is not true about syrup USP?

A) Contains 85% w/v sucrose. C) Has a low solvent capacity for water-soluble drug
B) Has a specific gravity of 1.3. D) It is self-preserved.
B 270. The following syrups: phenergan, tacaryl, cohistan are classified as:
A) Antitussive B) Antihistamine C) Tranquilizer D) Antihelmintic
B 271. Which of the following active ingredients is not a component of cough and cold preparations?
A) Dextromethorphen HBr B) Dicyclomine HCl C) Guaifenesin D) Acetaminophen
A 272. The following syrups contain dextromethorphan HBr except:

A) Ferro-mar B) Mucotrol C) Coderex D) Cosyr
B 273. The following preparation: privine, visine and eye are classified as:
A) Mouthwash B) Ocular decongestant C) Antibacterial D) Antitussive
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A 274. The generic name of the preparations in ? is:

A) Tetrahydrozoline hydrochloride C) Dextromethorphan HBr
B) Tomolol Maleate D) Phenylephrine HCl
D 275. Complete fusion of droplets in an emulsion followed by ultimate separation of 2 immiscible phases is a
condition called:
A) Inversion B) Creaming C) Hydrolysis D) Breaking
C 276. Means of identifying water in oil emulsion:

A) Identifying emulsifier C) Oil miscibility
B) Measurement of viscosity D) Water miscibility
A 277. These are characteristics or water in oil emulsion except:

A) Good conductor of electricity C) Immiscible with water
B) Miscible with oil D) Poor conductor of electricity
C 278. These are equipment for homogenization except:

A) Colloid mill B) Homogenizer C) Sieve D) Mortar and pestle
A 279. Water impurities like calcium and magnesium salts can be removed by:
A) Ion-exchange B) Adsorption C) Evaporation D) Sublimation
A 280. Fusing together of droplets into larger globules:

A) Coalescence B) Aggregation C) Creaming D) Sedimentation
B 281. Ointments that demonstrate some systemic effect are:

A) Epidermic B) Diadermic C) Endodermic D) All of the above
B 282. Substance added to tablets to impart cohesiveness:

A) Diluent B) Binder C) Lubricant D) Flavoring agent
D 283. Flavoring agents are added to:

A) Compressed tablets B) Chewable tablets C) Lozenge D) B and C
B 284. Trituration in a mortar or on an ointment slab to prepare ointments:

A) Fusion B) Mechanical incorporation C) Comminution D) A and B
A 285. Ointments containing hard fusible bodies are prepared by:

A) Fusion B) Mechanical incorporation C) Levigation D) Trituration
B 286. Colligative properties are useful in determining:

A) pH B) 0.9% C) 0.8% D) 9%
C 287. The following ingredients can be used in the formulation of analgesics except:
A) Acetaminophen B) Mefenamic acid C) Theophylline D) Aspirin
A 288. These solvents are used to affect the solubility of certain drugs and to reduce hydrolysis except:
A) Water B) Prophylene glycol C) Ethyl alcohol D) Polyenthylene glycol
A 289. The following anti-infective agents are used in the formulation of mouthwashes except:
A) Sodium chloride B) Sodium borate C) Hexetidine D) Detylpyridinum chloride
D 290. This is used as a clarifying agent in liquid preparations:

A) Magnesium stearate B) Talc C) Infurorial earth D) B and C
D 291. Suspensions can be used for this type of injectable product:

A) Intravenous B) Intramuscular C) Intradermal D) B and C
D 292. The pH of an ophthalmic solution has a considerable effect on:

A) Therapeutic action of the drug C) Comfort of the patient
B) Stability D) All of the above
C 293. Isotonicity is critical for this injectable product:
A) Intravenous B) Intradermal C) Subcutaneous D) Mineral oil
A 294. The most hyroscopic of the following liquids is:

A) Glycerin B) Acetone C) Alcohol D) Mineral oil
B 295. The release of an ingredient from packaging components into the actual product is described by the term:
A) Adsorption B) Leaching C) Permeation D) Diffusion
C 296. Add the necessary bulk to a formulation to prepare tablets of the desired size:
A) Binders B) Lubricants C) Diluents D) Disintegrator
A 297. Component in parenteral preparations present in the largest quantity:

A) Vehicle B) Solute C) Anti-oxidant D) Buffers
D 298. Properties of ideal ointment base except:

A) Washability B) Non-dehydrating C) Ease of compounding D) Greasy
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C 299. Less irritating solution can be obtained by producing an:

A) Hypertonic solution B) Hypotonic solution C) Isotonic solution D) All of the above
A 300. Kills all living organism including spores and viruses:

A) Steam under pressure B) Bacterial filtration C) Chemical sterilization D) None of the above
D 301. Used to stabilize a solution against the chemical degradation that would occur if there is a marked changed
in pH:
A) Anti-oxidants B) Anti-microbials C) Preservatives D) Buffers
C 302. Physiological salt solution:

A) 9% NaCl solution B) 0.09% NaCl solution C) 0.9% NaCl solution D) 74% NaCl solution
C 303. The most frequently used base in the preparation of vaginal suppositories where the prolonged localized
action of the medicinal agent is usually desired:
A) Polyethylene glycols B) Cacao butter C) Glycerinated gelatin D) Beeswax
D 304. Any temperature not exceeding 8 C:

A) Warm B) Cool C) Room temperature D) Cold
B 305. Emulsions having an oleaginous internal phase and an aqueous external phase are referred as:
A) W/O B) O/W C) W/O/W D) O/W/O
C 306. The process of grinding a drug in a mortar to reduce its particle size is termed:
A) Levigation B) Spatulation C) Trituration D) Bumbling
A 307. Gelatin is a:
A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Lipid D) Fat
B 308. A semi-solid emulsions of either the o/w or w/o type:

A) Lotion B) Creams C) Paste D) None of the above
B 309. Enhance the flow of the tableting material into the tablet dies and punches:
A) Disintegrator B) Lubricant C) Adhesive D) Fillers
B 310. Characteristically, chewable tablets are, except:

A) Pleasant tasting B) Leave bitter aftertaste C) Cool taste D) None of the above
C 311. A mixture of semi-solid hydrocarbons obtained from petroleum:

A) Mineral oil B) Paraffin C) Petrolatum D) White ointment
C 312. The following are non-medicated syrups except:

A) Tolu balsam syrup B) Orange syrup C) Ipecac syrup D) Cherry syrup
B 313. Ferrous sulfate syrup, NF is a :

A) Non-medicated syrup B) Medicated syrup C) Simple syrup D) None of the above
B 314. Desirable qualities of pharmaceutical suspension except:

A) Should pour readily and evenly from its container.
B) Particles should settle rapidly.
C) Particles should be readily redispensed upon gentle shaking.
D) Should be such that the particle size of the suspension remains fairly constant throughout long
periods of undisturbed standing.
A 315. Dry gum method of preparing emulsions is also known as:

A) 4:2:1 method B) English method C) Forbes bottle method D) Wet gum method
D 316. An emulsion is considered to be physically unstable if:

A) Dispersed phase upon standing tends to form aggregates of globules.
B) “Creaming” of the emulsion.
C) “Breaking” of the emulsion.
D) All of the above.
A 317. If the powders of vegetable and animal drugs pass through a no. 60 sieve and not more than 40% through
a no. 100 sieve, the drug is officially:
A) Fine B) Coarse C) Very coarse D) Moderately coarse
C 318. Powders commonly dispensed in a bulk container except:

A) Dentrifices B) Douche powders C) Potent drug D) Denture powders
B 319. The following are true about granules except:

A) More stable physically and chemically than are the corresponding powders from which they were
prepared.
B) More likely to cake or harden upon standing than are powders.
C) Their surface area is less than that of powders.
D) More easily “wetted” by a solvent that a certain powder.
D 320. A process in which the properly comminuted drug is permitted to soak in the menstruum until the cellular
structure is softened and penetrated by the menstruum and the soluble constituents are dissolved:
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A) Percolation B) Digestion C) Decoction D) Maceration
C 321. Used for the sterilization of heat-sensitive solutions:

A) Dry-heat sterilization C) Sterilization by filtration
B) Steam sterilization D) Autoclave
D 322. Drugs could possibly penetrate intact skin after topical application through except:
A) Walls of hair follicles B) Sweat glands C) Sebaceous glands D) Veins
A 323. Mineral oil is the synonym of :

A) Liquid petrolatum B) Paraffin C) Petrolatum jelly D) White ointment
C 324. These are necessary characteristics of ophthalmic except:

A) Clarity B) Sterility C) High viscosity D) Isotonicity
C 325. These products need to be pyrogen-free:

A) Syrup B) Tablets C) Parenterals D) Elixirs
D 326. USP specifies this volume as the upper limit for single-dose parenterals:
A) 30ml B) 20ml C) 500ml D) 1000ml
A 327. USP specifies this volume as the upper limit for multiple-dose parenterals:
A) 30ml B) 20ml C) 50ml D) 100mnl
B 328. Douches are liquid preparations intended for:

A) Topical use B) Body cavities C) Systemic use D) Compresses
B 329. Problem often encountered with suspensions:

A) Rough B) Caking C) Creaming D) Dispersability
D 330. This is an oil-in-water emulsion:

A) Cold cream B) Butter C) Dairy cream D) Vanishing cream
A 331. These are reasons for enteric coating except:

A) For rapid onset of action. C) Active constituent is unstable in acid medium.
B) Prevent gastric irritation. D) Active constituent is optimally absorbed in alkaline medium.
D 332. Tablet dosage form not requiring disintegration:

A) Film-coated B) Enteric coated C) Sustained release D) Chewable
C 333. The most common disintegration in tablet products:

A) Velgum B) Talc C) Corn starch D) Magnesium stearate
B 334. The use of too much binder in tableting can affect:

A) Bioavailability B) Moisture content C) Dissolution rate D) Disintegration
A 335. Calamine powder is a mixture of zinc oxide and :

A) Ferric oxide B) Aluminum oxide C) Caramel D) Amaranth
D 336. Which of the following is not a function of the lubricant in a tablet formulation:
A) Improving flow properties of granules
B) Reducing powder adhesion into the dies and punches
C) Reducing punch and die wear
D) Improving tablet wetting in the stomach
B 337. The capping of a tablet may be the result of any of the following except:
A) Excessive pressure of compression C) Excessive fine powder
B) Excessive lubricant D) Insufficient binder
C 338. Recommended ratio of oil to water to acacia in the preparation of an extemporaneous emulsion:
A) 2:4:1 B) 1:2:4 C) 4:2:1 D) 2:4:1
C 339. Glycerogelatins contain:

A) Glucose B) Agar C) Glycerin D) All of the above
D 340. FD and C dyes may be used for:

A) Food B) Cosmetic C) Drugs D) Any of the above
B 341. GMP is enforced by the :

A) USAN B) BFAD C) NBI D) None of the above
A 342. Washes are used to treat the:

A) Buccal cavity B) Vagina C) Rectum D) Nasal cavity
C 343. A douche is used to remove foreign particles form the eyes is:
A) Nasal B) Pharyngeal C) Eye D) All of the above
D 344. Coloring agents added to pharmaceuticals are used for:
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A) Product identification C) Sensory adjunct to palatability

B) Aesthetic value D) All of the above
D 345. To increase rate of solution of a solute is to increase:

A) Agitation B) Temperature C) Surface area of solute D) All of the above
A 346. Artificial sweeteners are added to syrup preparations to:

A) Prevent hyperglycemia C) Act as preservative
B) Aid acidic syrup D) Serve as aesthetic agent
A 347. A very soluble solute is an expression of one gram dissolved in:

A) Less than one part of solvent./ C) From 1 to 10 parts of solvent
B) From 10 to 30 parts of solvent D) 30 to 100 parts of solvent.
D 348. Sodium lauryl sulfate is:

A) Alcohol B) Ketone C) Lotion D) Wetting agent
C 349. Collodions are made flexible by the addition of:

A) Olive oil B) Gelatin C) Castor oil D) Camphor
B 350. The type of extract used for ointment or pastes is:

A) Semiliquid B) Pilular C) Powdered D Any of the above
C 351. Water used as a vehicle for pharmaceutical preparations is:

A) Sterile water for injection C) Aromatic water
B) Bacteriostatic water for injection D) Any of the above
A 352. A type of liniment applied by massage:

A) Oily B) Alcoholic C) Dental D) A and B
B 353. Glycerites contain high percentage of glycerine which is about:

A) 60% B) 50% C) 65% D) 100%
A 354. Naming of a proprietary drug is a responsibility of :

A) Manufacturer B) USAN council C) BFAD D) All of the above
C 355. The term “drug labeling” includes the following except:

A) Labels B) Company literature C) Containers D) Inserts
C 356. An amount of drug administered to a person after contraction of an illness is:

A) Prophylactic dose B) Usual dose C) Therapeutic dose D) Dosage regimen
B 357. The official room temperature is:

0 0 0 0
A) 30 C B) 25 C C) 30 C – 40 C D) Temperature of the working area
D 358. Reaction kinetics study can predict:

A) Shelf-life of the product B) Expiry date C) Therapeutic use D) A and B
D 359. Community Considered a practice of pharmacy except:

A) pharmacy C)Hospital pharmacy
B) Pharmaceutical manufacturing D) Wholesaler of RTW clothes
B 360. To remedy the problem of volatile liquid substance is to:

A) Coating the substance C)Make into a tablet
B) Place in a soft gelatin capsule D) Any of the above
C 361. Cation in hard water is:

A) Potassium B) Sodium C) Calcium D) Manganese
A 362. Over the counter drugs are:

A) Used for simple conditions C) Too dangerous to use in self-medication
B) Need a prescription D) With Rx symbol on the label
C 363. Container where its contents are protected from loss of the drug by effervescence, deliquescence and
evaporation is :
A) Hermetic container B) Well-closed container C) Tight container D) All of the above
B 364. To improve taste of drugs is to add:

A) Coloring matter B) Flavoring agent C) Alcohol D) Sodium chloride
D 365. Stability of drugs may be:

A) Physical B) Chemical C) Toxicological D) All of the above
C 366. Pharmacokinetics involve the following processes except:

A) Absorption B) Metabolism C) Circulation D) Elimination of drugs
A 367. Aqueous solutions use a major ingredient as:

A) Water C) Hydroalcohol
B) Alcohol D) Benzene
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B 368. Non-toxic powders for local application without systemic effect is:
A) Dentrifices B) Dusting C) Insufflations D) Douche powders
D 369. A non-medicated ointment except:

A) Hydrocarbon base B) Absorption base C) Water-soluble base D) Zinc oxide ointment
A 370. Iodine tincture differs from iodine solution in that the tincture contains:
A) Alcohol as vehicle B) Water as vehicle C) Acetone as vehicle D) Chloroform as vehicle
B 371. A powder preparation used with a toothbrush to clean the teeth is:
A) Insufflation B) Dentrifices C) Trituration D) Dusting powder
D 372. A method of preparing effervescent salt is by:

A) Fusion B) Wet method C) Molding D) A and B
D 373. A way to prepare ointment except:

A) Trituration B) Spatulation C) Fusion D) Levigation
A 374. Fluid extract is also called:

A) 100% tincture B) 10% tincture C) 36% tincture D) 50% tincture
B 375. To mask bitter tasting drugs in formulations, the flavoring vehicles used is:
A) Orange flavor B) Cocoa flavor C) Cherry flavor D) Any of the above
C 376. Excessive heat has a temperature of:

0 0 0 0 0
A) 30 C – 40 C B) 25 C – 35 C C) Above 40 C D) None of the above
D 377. Mucilages are used primarily to aid in suspending insoluble substances in liquids due to their:
A) Colloidal character B) Base of preparation C) Viscosity D) A and C
B 378. Liniments are applied by rubbing so they are also called:

A) Ointments B) Embrocations C) Rubefacient D) Creams
C 379. Preparation used to relieve temporarily the toothache is:

A) Liniment B) Jelly C) Toothache drops D) Chlorobutenol
D 380. Theory of emulsification is:

A) Surface Tension Theory B) Oriented-Wedge Theory C) Plastic ? Theory D) All of the above
A 381. HLB value needed for oil in water type of emulsion is:
A) 8 – 18 B) 3 – 6 C) 1 – 5 D) 5 – 6
C 382. Suspensions are prepared by, except:

A) Dispersion B) Precipitation C) Solution D) Double decomposition
A 383. Gels belong to:

A) Suspensions B) Emulsions C) Solution D) Ointments
C 384. In colloidal dispersions, if the dispersed phase interacts appreciably with the dispersion medium, it is:
A) Lyophobic B) Amphilic C) ? D) Any of the above
A 385. Aqueous liquid preparations which contain suspended insoluble solid substances intended for internal
use is:
A) Mixtures B) Magmas C) Milks D) Lotions
A 386. Finely divided powders introduced into body cavities such as the ears, nose, throat and vagina are:
A) Insufflations B) Triturations C) Dusting D) Douche powders
A 387. Capsules prepared from shells of gelatin to which glycerin or a polyhydric alcohol has been added is:
A) Soft Gelatin Capsules B) Hard Gelatin C) Cachets D) Troches
B 388. Table triturates for use by the physicians in his extemporaneous preparation of parenteral solutions are:
A) Pastilles B) Hypodermic Tablets C) Sublingual D) Pellets
D 389. Solid dosage forms designed to release the drug slowly for more sustained action are:
A) Timed-release tablets B) Pills C) Extended-action tablets D) A and B
A 390. Capsule size for human use, except:

A) 000 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1
C 391. A method of extraction applicable to drugs whose desired constituents are both water soluble and heat
stable is:
A) Maceration B) Infusion C) Decoction D) Percolation
B 392. When tinctures are prepared from single vegetable drugs, the amount of crude drug is:
A) 20 g B) 10 g C) 50 g D) 100 g
C 393. Piperazine citrate syrup belongs to a class of:
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A) Flavoring syrup B) Non-medicated syrup C) Medicated syrup D) Syrup used as vehicle
B 394. In labels of OTC drugs, one important data placed in the principal display panel is:
A) Storage condition B) Pharmacologic category C) Rx symbol D) Control number
B 395. A practice of pharmacy except:

A) Pharmaceutical research C) Community dispensing
B) Diagnosing an illness D) Engaged in teaching students in allied professions
B 396. Sterile water for irrigation requires the solvent as:

A) Purified water B) Water for injection C) Bacteriostatic water D) Water, USP
C 397. The process of obtaining aromatic water by redistillation one or more times from the fresh delicate drugs is:
A) Practical distillation B) By solution C) Cohobation D) Exhaustive solution
A 398. A rectal injection employed to visualize the gastrointestinal tract for diagnostic purposes is:
A) Enemas B) Douches C) Washes D) Suppositories
A 399. One disadvantage of sucrose as a sweetener in formulation of syrups upon storage in a bottle is:
A) Cap-locking B) Viscosity C) Molds growth D) Expensive
B 400. In percolation, the rate of flow described as “percolate slowly” is:

A) 1-3 ml/minute B) Not exceeding 1 ml/minute C) 3-5 ml/minute D) 5-10 ml/minute
A 401. The process of preparing fluidextracts by percolation where the first 85% of the percolate is reserved then
continued until exhaustion is:
A) Process A B) Process B C) Process C D) Process D
B 402. Dental preparations employed primarily as temporary covering for exposed pulps are:
A) Cataplasms B) Cements C) Pellets D) Creams
C 403. External applications resembling ointments in consistency but remaining semisolid at body temperature,
0 0
liquefy at 50 C and remain pliable in thin film below 28 C are called:
A) Contraceptives B) Ointments C) Dressings D) Pastes
B 404. Plastic masses composed of gelatin, glycerin, water and a medicament applied by first melting are:
A) Pastes B) Glycerogelatins C) Dressings D) Ointments
D 405. Method of mixing powders as dosage forms is by:

A) Sifting B) Tumbling C) Spatulation D) Any of the above
B 406. The “block and divide” method of packaging powders after mixing is employed for:
A) Potent drugs B) Non-potent C) Raw materials D) Extractives
B 407. Pairs of liquids when mixed results as a homogenous system such as alcohol and water are:
A) Immiscible B) Miscible C) Insolution D) Repel each other
C 408. A form of extraordinary maceration which consists of the application of gentle heat:
A) Infusion B) Percolation C) Digestion D) Decoction
D 409. Tinctures of potent drugs usually have a strength of:

A) 5% by vol. B) 5% by wt C) 10% by vol. D) 10% by wt.
A 410. One of the following is not employed as a suppository base:

A) Paraffin B) Glycerinated gelatin C) Hydrogenated vegetable oil D) Cacao butter
D 411. The process of mixing powders together by shaking or rotating them in a closed container is:
A) Spatulation B) Trituration C) Sifting D) Tumbling
B 412. Solutions representing water-soluble plant principles prepared by boiling the drug in water:
A) Infusion B) Decoction C) Extracts D) Fluidextracts
B 413. Hydroalcoholic preparations which are sweetened and flavored:

A) Spirits B) Elixirs C) Syrups D) Tinctures
D 414. Magmas are:

A) Aqueous solutions B) Alcoholic solutions C) Emulsions D) Suspensions
A 415. A eutectic mixture in powders occurs when:

A) There is lowering in melting point. C) Hygroscopic mixture
B) Lowering in boiling point D) Efflorescence
C 416. Potassium iodine is used in Lugol’s solution as:

A) Preservative B) Reducing agent C) Aid in the solubility of iodine D) All
C 417. White lotion is prepared by:

A) Hydration B) Trituration C) Precipitation D) None
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D 418 The capacity of a teaspoon is :

A) 10 ml B) 15 ml C) 1 ml D) 5 ml
B 419. Sulfurated potash is used in the preparation of:

A) Calamine lotion B) White lotion C) Yellow lotion D) Black lotion
A 420. Penicillin-calcium is the salt of choice for topical use of penicillin because:
A) It is more irritating and less hygroscopic C) More stable
B) More soluble D) All
B 421. Sodium borate in Cold Cream acts:

A) Preservative B) Forms scar C) Vehicle D) Solubilizing agent
B 422. Liquid preparation that contains one or more chemical substances usually non-volatile, dissolved in water:
A) Emulsions B) Solutions C) Lotions D) Elixirs
D 423. Water is used in place of alcohol in Iodine tincture because:

A) Iodine is more soluble in water than in alcohol
B) Alcoholic solutions have been too strong for general purposes
C) Free iodine is not liberated ion aqueous solutions
D) None of the above
B 424. Glycerine suppositories are solidified by the use of:

A) Stearic acid B) Sodium stearate C) Glycerol triacetate D) White wax
D 425. Another name for polyethylene glycol polymers is:

A) Silica gel B) Sodium alginate C) Friar’s paste D) Carbowax
D 426. USP liniment containing camphor:

A) Camphor and soap liniment B) Chloroform liniment C) Camphor liniment D) All of the above
E 427. Liquid preparations representing the water-soluble principles of plant drugs are:
A) Spirits B) Fluidextracts C) Tinctures D) All E) None
A 428. Colloidions are liquid preparations containing pyroxylin in a mixture of:

A) Ethyl ether & ethanol C) Ethanol and glycerin
B) Ethanol and propanol D) Mathanol and Propanol
C 429. Imparts pink color to calamine:

A) Silicon dioxide B) Titanium dioxide C) Ferric oxide D) Carmine
D 430. Cacao butter used as suppository base is also known as:

A) Linseed oil B) Cottonseed oil C) Lanolin D) Theobroma oil
C 431. Surfactants tends to enhance absorption due to:

A) Effects on biological membrane C) Reduction of interfacial tension
B) Effects on dissolution rate D)Increase in interfacial tension
A 432. Glycerin has a specific gravity of 1.15; one liter of it weighs:

A) 1250g B) 473g C) 550g D) 4800g
B 433. The form of water most commonly used for production of parenterals is:
A) Deionized B) Water for injection C) Sterile water for injection D) Purified water
A 434. Iodine tincture differs from iodine solution in that the tincture contains:
A) Alcohol as vehicle B) Water as solvent C) Acetone as vehicle D) Alcohol-acetone as solvent
D 435. Percolation may be used to classify:

A) Solutions B) Ointments C) Suspensions D) Syrups
D 436. A class of bulk powders:

A) Triturations B) Douche powders C) Divided powders D) A and B
D 437. Water can be purified by:

A) Distillation B) Solution C) Reverse osmosis D) A and C
B 438. A type of suppository that relieves constipation is:

A) Vaginal B) Rectal C) Urethral D) Aural
A 439. Levigation is a process of reducing particle size in preparation of:

A) Ointments B) Emulsions C) Solutions D) A and B
B 440. A powder preparation used with a toothbrush to clean the teeth is:
A) Insufflation B) Dentrifices C) Dusting D) Douche
D 441. A way to prepare an ointment by incorporation is by:

A) Spatulation B) Fusion C) Trituration D) A and C
B 442. The classification of drugs as legally obtained are the following except:
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A) Over the counter B) Cosmetics C) Legend D) Prescription
A 443. These are non-medicated ointments except:

A) Non-water removable base B) Absorption base C) Greaseless bases D) Hydrocarbon bases
A 444. The type of liniment applied by massage is:

A) Oily B) Alcoholic C) Aqueous D) A and B
B 445. Ingredients of salicylic acid collodion except:

A) Camphor B) Menthol C) Castor oil D) Ether
B 446. An example of distilled spirit is:

A) Peppermint spirit B) Whisky C) Rum D) Camphor spirit
D 447. The dry-gum method of preparing emulsions is also called:

A) English method B) Continental method C) 4:2:1 method D) B and C
A 448. Pleasantly flavored, sweetened, hydroalcoholic preparation is:

A) Elixir B) Spirit C) Syrup D) Glycerites
A 449. Spirits are similar to elixirs as to:

A) Solvent mixture B) Solute C) Sweetness D) A and B
B 450. Kaolin mixture is used as:

A) Anti-infective B) Adsorbent C) Cure for diarrhea D) Suspending agent
A 451. Oleovitamins generally consist of:

A) Vitamins A & D B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin A & B D) Vitamin A
C 452. The method of preparing emulsions containing volatile oils is by:

A) Dry gum B) Wet gum C) Bottle D) Continental
B 453. An example of an animal-source emulsifier is:

A) Acacia B) Gelatin C) Bentonite D) Agar
C 454. A method of preparing solutions, except:

A) Extraction B) Simple solution process C) Dispersion D) Chemical reaction
B 455. An aqueous solution used to evacuate the bowel is:

A) Suppository B) Enemas C) Infusion solution D) Decoction
B 456. Waters having the odor and taste similar to the drug from which they are prepared are called:
A) Purified water B) Deionized water C) Water for inhalation D) Aromatic waters
D 457. One way to improve the appearance of a dosage form is to add:

A) Colorant B) Flavorant C) Preservative D) A and C
D 458. The term “labeling” includes:

A) Labels B) Company literature C) Containers D) A and B
B 459. A container that is impervious to air and gas under the usual conditions of handling is considered to be
A) Well-closed B) Hermetically closed C) Tightly closed D) B and C
B 460. Drug interaction with water forming breakdown products is:

A) Oxidation B) Hydrolysis C) Neutralization D) A and B
C 461. The temperature of a cold place is:

A) 8 – 15 C B) 15 – 30 C C) Not exceeding 8 C D) 25 C
C 462. Certified dyes and colorants used for drugs and cosmetics but not for food are:
A) FD and C dyes B) D and C dyes C) D and C dyes external D) B and C
A 463. Reaction kinetics study can help predict the:

A) Shelf-life B) Potency C) Toxicity D) Effectivity of a formulation
C 464. Water used as a vehicle in pharmaceutical preparations is:

A) Sterile water for injection B) Water, USP C) Aromatic water D) Deionized water
A 465. Gargles are used to treat the :

A) Pharynx B) Lungs C) Oral cavity D) A and B
B 466. The term “sparingly soluble” refers to parts of solvent that can dissolve one part of solute is:
A) 10 – 100 B) 30 – 100 C) Less than 1 D) 1 – 10
D 467. Gels under suspension system consist of:

A) Small inorganic particles C) Large organic particles
B) Small organic particles D) A and C
B 468. Toothache drops are used to:
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A) Cure toothache C) Cure gingivitis

B) Remedy pain due to toothache D) B and C
B 469. Type of resins that is used to deionized water is:

A) Natural resins B) Synthetic resins C) Prepared resins D) Resins
A 470. The committee that approves naming of nonproprietary drugs is:

A) US Adopted Names Council C) USP/NF Committee
B) Manufacturer of the specific drug D) A or B
B 471. Solubility of a drug increases in:

A) Exothermal reaction B) Endothermal condition C) Cold condition D) A or B
C 472. Characteristic of water for inhalation except:

A) Sterile B) No added substance C) Purified by boiling D) Purified by distillation
D 473. The major impurity of hard waters is:

A) Calcium ion B) Sodium ion C) Magnesium ion D) A and C
B 474. Main component of all types of collodion:

A) Acetone B) Pyroxylin C) Camphor D) Castor oil
D 475. The dry method of preparing granulations for tablets is adopted for:
A) Heat sensitive drugs C) Tablets with potent drugs
B) Moisture sensitive drugs D) A and B
B 476. Characteristic of salicylic acid collodion:

A) Used as corn solvent C) Used to dissolve skin blemishes
B) Used as keratolytic D) A and B
B 477. In packaging of powders, the “block and divide” process is applied to:
A) Potent drugs B) Non-potent drugs C) Inactive components D) A and C
B 478. Mixture of two liquids forming a homogenous system is termed:

A) Insoluble B) Miscible C) Immiscible D) A and B
C 479. Method of preparing suppositories:

A) Molding from a melt C) A and B
B) Hand rolling and shaping D) Trituration
B 480. Type of tablet coating where the first coat is s? is:

A) Enteric B) Sugar coating C) Film coating D) Micro coating
D 481. Components of effervescent granules, except:

A) Sodium bicarbonate B) Tartaric acid C) Citric acid D) Sodium Carbonate
B 482. Benzoic acid as a preservative should be used in a concentration of:

A) 1.0% B) 0.1 – 0.2% C) 0.01 – 0.02% D) 0.5%
B 483. An official water containing one or more bacteriostatic agents is:

A) Sterile water for injection C) Purified water
B) Bacteriostatic water for injection D) Aromatic water
D 484. A viscosity builder in syrup preparations is:

A) Sorbitol B) Glycerin C) Mucilage D) A and B
A 485. The length of time that a drug substance maintains its original qualities is:
A) Shelf-life B) Expiration date C) Stability D) A and C
D 486. Alcoholic liniments are used for:

A) Penetrating effect B) Rubefacient C) Massage D) A and B
B 487. A sugar that does not contribute to dental caries is:

A) Sorbitol B) Mannitol C) Dextrose D) Sucrose
A 488. The chief constituent of honey is:

A) Invert sugar B) Sucrose C) Pentose D) Evulose
B 489. The continental method of preparing emulsions has its first step the combination of:
A) Gum and water B) Gum and oil C) Oil and water D) Gum and active ingredient
D 490. Pyroxylin is also called:

A) Nitrocellulose B) Collodion C) Gun cotton D) A and C
A 491. Glycerites are stable to microorganisms due to:

A) High glycerin content B) Powdered ingredients C) Sugar content D) Alcohol content
B 492. HLB value suitable for W/O type of emulsion is:

A) 8 – 18 B) 3 – 6 C) 6 – 8 D) 4 – 6
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C 493. An ointment base called greaseless is:

A) Hydrocarbon base B) Absorption base C) Water-soluble base D) Water removable base
D 494. Caramelization of sucrose is due to its:

A) Fructose content B) Glucose content C) Evulose content D) A and C
D 495. A preparation made to administer medications in measured or prescribed amount is :

A) Dosage form B) Pharmaceutical C) Extract D) A and B
C 496. The type of stability where resistance to microbial growth is maintained until its expiry date is:
A) Chemical B) Toxicological C) Microbiological D) Physical
A 497. Controlled room temperature means that the temperature is maintained thermostatically between:
0 0 0 0 0 0
A) 15 – 30 C B) 25 C C) 8 -15 C D) 30 C
D 498. Jellies are used by physicians as lubricants for:

A) Rectal thermometer B) Gloves for surgical use C) Stoppers D) A and B
B 499. Type of liniment according to solvent is:

A) Aqueous B) Oily C) Ethereal D) Acetone
A 500. Purpose of pharyngeal douche is:

A) Cleans throat in supportive condition C)Treatment for lung disease
B) Antiseptic for aural cavity D) A and C
C 501. An artificial sweetener used for preparing syrups is:

A) Sucrose B) Liquid glucose C) Saccharin D) Lactose
C 502. The finely divided particles of a suspension, except:

A) Suspensoids B) Dispersed particles C) Lipid D) A and B
B 503. A container which protects its contents from extraneous solids under normal conditions of handling and
shipment is:
A) Hermetic container B) Well-closed container C) Tight container D) Well-sealed container
A 504. A new drug has to be approved by the______ before distribution to the public.
A) BFAD B) BIR C) DOH D) Narcotics Division
C 505. The third component of an emulsion is:

A) Suspending agent B) Active ingredient C) Emulsifier D) B and C
B 506. Exothermic substances tend to:

A) Increase B) Decrease C) No effect D) Explosive effect on solubility
B 507. Collodions evaporates fast due to the presence of a volatile solvent as:
A) Chloroform B) Ether C) Carbon tetrachloride D) Hexane
D 508. A way to prepare gel is :

A) Hydration of chemical substances C) Chemical reaction of inorganic substances
B) Mixing organic substances D) A and C
A 509. An aqueous preparation used as suspending agent due to its colloidal property is:
A) Mucilages B) Mixtures C) Paste D) Jellies
D 510. Characteristic of oil prepared by Forbes Bottle Method for emulsions is:
A) Volatile B) Fixed oil C) Low viscosity oil D) A and C
C 511. Substances that give bulk or body to aqueous and viscoid solutions, except:
A) Sugars B) Polyols C) Lactose D) Polysaccharides
A 512. A percolation process which sets aside the first 85% of the percolate then collects the weak percolate until
exhaustion is:
A) Process A B) Process B C) Process C D) Process D
C 513. Suppositories when inserted into body cavities change, except:

A) Melt B) Soften C) Harden D) Dissolves
A 514. A small round dosage form for oral administration is:

A) Pills B) Pellet C) Tablet D) Sachet
B 515. Water soluble base for suppository is:

A) Petrolatum B) Polyethyene glycols C) Theobroma oil D) Cocoa butter
A 516. A semisolid preparation that is stiffer and less greasy than ointments is:
A) Pastes B) Dressing C) Cerates D) Creams
C 517. A process of preparing effervescent salt is by:

A) Slugging B) Mix with kaolin C) Fusion D) Trituratrion
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B 518. A method of preparing ointments except:

A) Fusion B) Infusion C) Spatulation D) Trituration
B 519. Juices have the advantage over artificial flavor in that it is:
A) Sweeter B) Still with its natural flavor C) More stable D) Cheaper
B 520. Tablets that are used by a few physicians in his extemporaneous preparation of parenteral solutions are:
A) Tablet triturates B) Hypodermic tablets C) Implantation tablets D) Cachets
B 521. To insure the stability of a dosage form for its intended shelf-life, what is placed or stated in the label?
A) Proper dosage B) Proper storage C) Proper net contents D) Proper name of the product
A 522. The similarity of gargles with mouthwashes is:

A) Antiseptic use B) Site of action C) Constituents D) Formula
B 523. An amount of drug administered to protect the person form contracting the disease is:
A) Therapeutic dose B) Prophylactic dose C) Pharmacologic dose D) A and C
A 524. The term “irrigations” also refer to:

A) Vaginal douche B) Rectal douche C) Eye douche D) Pessaries
A 525. Any substance of a drug product intended to furnish pharmacologic effect is:
A) Excipient B) Active ingredients C) Drug substance D) B and C
B 526. Insoluble powders for opthalamic use must be:

A) Less than 200 microns in size C) Pyrogen-free
B) Impalpable to the touch D) Gives preservative action
C 527. The most used diluent for tablets is:

A) Sucrose B) Talc C) Lactose D) Calcium stearate
C 528. Emulsifiers are added to formulations of emulsions for the following purposes except:
A) Increase viscosity C) Promotes separation of layers
B) Prevents coalescence D) Stabilize the emulsion
B 529. Aspilets for children are:

A) Sublingual B) Chewable C) Buccal D) Soluble tablets
D 530. This is a common lubricant for tablets:

A) Starch B) Acacia C) Mannitol D) Magnesium stearate
C 531. Simultaneous processes that occur when a tablet or other form is introduced into the gastrointestinal tract
except:
A) Disintegration B) Deaggregation C) Precipitation D) Dissolution
C 532. Class of colloidal system except:

A) Lyophilic B) Lyophobic C) Fine dispersions D) Amphiphilic
A 533. Pulverization accomplished with another substance is:

A) By intervention B) Chemical reaction C) By spray drying D) By trituration
C 534. OTC labels of products or dosage forms indicate in front the:

A) Expiry date B) Storage C) Pharmacologic category D) Formula
C 535. The characteristic ingredient in poultices:

A) Kaolin B) Water C) Oil D) Calcium carbonate
B 536. A term derived from the Latin words which means “through to strain” is:
A) Maceration B) Percolation C) Infusion D) Decoction
B 537. A plant exudate containing benzoic and dinnamic acids is:

A) Resins B) Balsams C) Oleoresins D) Resins
A 538. The extract with a plastic consistency is known as:

A) Pilular B) Powdered C) Semiliquid D) A and B
C 539. A type of coating that disintegrates in the intestines and not in the stomach is:
A) Sugar B) Chocolate C) Enteri D) Film
B 540. Disk-shaped solid dosage form with hard candy base is:
A) Troches B) Lozenges C) Pellet D) Pills
B 541. A material derived from the honeycomb of the bees is:

A) Honey B) Beeswax C) Sugars D) A and C
D 542. Decoction is a method of extraction from drugs which is:

A) Water soluble B) Alcohol soluble C) Heat stable D) A and C
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D 543. Component of white ointment is:

A) 95% petrolatum B) 5% wax C) 2% lanolin D) A and B
A 544. Type of oleoresin obtained by incising the trunk of a tree is:

A) Natural oleoresin B) Prepared oleoresin C) Synthetic oleoresin D) B and C
B 545. Process “P” of extraction refers to:

A) Maceration B) Percolation C) Infusion D) Decoction
A 546. An ointment base used to prepare epidermic ointment is:

A) Hydrocarbon base B) Greaseless base C) Absorption base D) Cream base
B 547. Products prepared from fresh ripe fruits used as vehicle in liquid dosage forms:
A) Exudates B) Juices C) Jellies D) Synthetic flavors
C 548. Preparation used for its deodorant and refreshing effect:

A) Buccal tablets B) Elixirs C) Mouthwash D) Lozenges
B 549. Another term for vaginal suppositories is:

A) Bougies B) Pessaries C) Enema D) Vaginitis
C 550. A product of extraction using the proportion of one gram of the crude drug to one gram of the
extractive is:
A) Tincture B) Spirit C) Fluidextract D) Extract
A 551. An agent used in the diagnosis, prevention, treatment and cure of disease in man or animal is:
A) Drug B) Excipient C) Additive D) Inactive agent
A 552. Extraction process where boiling water is added to the mixture of crude drug with water, the proportion is
about 90% and then cooled is:
A) Infusion process B) Percolation C) Decoction process D) Maceration process
A 553. Water can be purified by the following processes, except:

A) Solution B) Reverse osmosis C) Distillation D) Demineralization
B 554. Glycerites contain high percentage of glycerin which is about:

A) 60% B) 50% C) 85% D) 65%
B 555. An alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of a volatile substance is:

A) Elixir B) Spirits C) Fluidextract D) Collodions
B 556. A product of extraction of crude drugs which is 2 to 6 times as potent is:

A) Fluidextract B) Extract C) Semiliquid extract D) Tincture
D 557. Mucilages may be obtained by:

A) Dispersing gum in water C) Extraction of glycosides from plants
B) Extracting the mucilaginous principles from plants D)A and B
D 558. Sucrose as a sugar for syrups is subject to degradative actions:

A) Oxidation B) Hydrolysis C) Fermentation D) B and C
B 559. Broad groups of emulsifying agents, except:

A) Natural B) Organic material C) Finely divided solids D) Synthetic
D 560. A way to choose the specific emulsifiers for emulsions is:

A) Based on the hydrophilic-lipophilic balance value (HLB)
B) Based on the number of unsaturated portions of the molecule of the emulsifier
C) Based on the number of ethylene oxide units in the molecule of the emulsifier
D) A and C
A 561. A dental preparation containing phenol dissolved in paraffin then molded into sticks is:
A) Dental wax B) Dentrifice C) Cement D) A and C
D 562. Type of lotion according to use is:

A) Cosmetic B) Medicated C) Skin lotion D) A and B
B 563. Type of distilled spirit derived from cereal grains is:

A) Wine B) Whisky C) Brandy D) A and B
D 564. Non-nutritive syrups are those which contain:

A) Artificial sweetener B) Viscosity builder C) Simple syrup D) A and B
D 565. The preparation of oleovitamins may be by:

A) Combining vitamin concentrate with fish liver oil
B) Combining fish liver oil with a bland vegetable oil
C) Combining vitamin concentrate with olive oil
D) A and B
B 566. Ingredients in toothache drops except:
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A) Oil of cloves B) Ether C) Benzocaine D) Alcohol
C 567. The mixing of powders may be the following except:

A) Sifting B) Tumbling C) Sieving D) Trituration
A 568. To prepare opaque capsules for distinction, the insoluble substance added to gelatin is:”
A) Titanium dioxide B) Calcium carbonate C) Aluminum hydroxide D) A and B
B 569. Characteristic of tablet triturates are, except:

A) Soluble in water C) Small usually cylindrical
B) Insoluble in water D) Prepared by molding or compression
D 570. Methods of preparing tablet granulations for heat sensitive and moisture sensitive drugs may be by:
A) Slugging B) Wet method C) Dry method D) A and C
B 571. Characteristics of chemicals suitable for direct compression process except:

A) Free-flowing C) With cohesive properties
B) Eutectic when combined with other excipients D) Easily compressible
C 572. Sterilization method for injectables that are sensitive to heat is by:
A) Moist heat B) Dry heat C) Membrane filtration D) A and C
C 573. Packaging of suspensions require:

A) Wide mouth containers C) A and B
B) Containers having adequate airspace above the liquid D) Narrow mouth bottles
D 574. Non-medicated elixirs are used:

A) As vehicle for a therapeutic agent C) As a diluent for existing medicated elixir
B) As a therapeutic agent D) A and C
C 575. Reasons for preparing oral suspensions except:

A) Some drugs are more stable in suspension than in solution
B) Ease of swallowing liquid preparations
C) Disagreeable taste of some drugs in suspension
D) Flexibility of administration of doses
A 576. The powder paper used for packaging divided powders which are hygroscopic or deliquescent may be:
A) Waxed paper B) Clean coupon bond C) Parchment paper D) Glassine paper
C 577. When no specific storage are provided in the label, it is understood that the product should be protected as
follows except:
A) From moisture B) From freezing C) From cool place D) From excessive heat
D 578. Practice of pharmacy may be chosen from the following except:

A) Pharmaceutical research C) Pharmacist in the government service
B) Teaching in a college of pharmacy D) Manager of a pharmaceutical company
A 579. Qualities required for sterile water for injection except:

A) With added substance B) Sterile C) Pyrogen-free D) Meet standards for dissolved solids.
C 580. Use of sterile water in formulations:

A) Water for inhalation B) Water for irrigation C) A and B D) For topical solution
D 581. The therapeutic factor considered in designing a dosage form is:

A) Environment B) Age of the patient C) Nature of the illness D) B and C
C 582. The Rx symbol is required to be indicated in labels of the following except:

A) Legend drugs B) Dangerous drugs C) OTC drugs D) Prescription drugs
B 583. The study about the relationship between physical, chemical and biological sciences as they apply to drug
action is:
A) Biology B) Biopharmaceutics C) Pharmacokinetics D) A and C
B 584. A term derived from the Latin word “macerare” means:

A) Digestion B) Maceration C) Percolation D) Infusion
D 585. Plasters when applied to the body produce:

A) Occlusive action B) Macerating action C) Rubefacient D) A and B
B 586. A type of extract that can be used for semisolid preparation is:
A) Powdered B) Pilular C) Semiliquid D) A and C
A 587. Percolation process using boiling water as the menstruum is :

A) Process B B) Process A C) Process D D) Process C
C 588. A suppository base that is water-soluble is:

A) Cocoa butter B) Theobroma oil C) Polyethylene glycols D) Glycerinated gelatin
B 589. An example of plant exudates except:
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A) Resins B) Tannins C) Resins D) Balsams
B 590. Percolation process using pressure and suitable for commercial purposes is:
A) Process A B) Process C C) Process D D) Process B
C 591. An ointment base used for diadermic ointment preparation is:

A) Hydrocarbon base B) Absorption base C) Greaseless ointment base D) Cream base
A 592. Powders which at one time was official as 1:1 dilution is called:
A) Triturations B) Insufflations C) Bulk powders D) Divided powders
C 593. Characteristics of poultices when applied to the skin, except:

A) Apply while warm C) Relieves gastric pain
B) Spread over muslin cloth before application D) Relieves muscle pain and inflammation
B 594. Example of hydrocarbon obtained from petroleum and used as ointment bases are:
A) Petrolatum B) Propylene glycols C) Paraffin D) Mineral oil
C 595. Tinctures may be prepared from the following sources except:

A) Animal source B) Plant source C) Soil D) Chemical source
B 596. Refined wool fat used as base for semisolid is also called:
A) Lanolin B) Anhydrous lanolin C) Beeswax D) Petrolatum
D 597. Characteristics of topical aerosols:

A) Applied without using the fingertips C) Requires an applicator in the spread of the aerosol
B) Expensive packaging D) A and B
B 598. Film-coating consist of the following ingredients except:

A) Cellulose acetate phthalate B) Shellac C) Beeswax D) Vanillin
C 599. Colorants are added to pharmaceutical preparations for following purposes except:
A) For aesthetic value C) For higher price of the product
B) To distinguish one product from another D) For elegance
D 600. Syrups may be prepared by:

A) Solution of ingredients with heat C) By maceration
B) Percolation D) A and B
A 601. When a solvent at a given temperature has dissolved all of the solute it can, it is:
A) Saturated B) Supersaturated C) Solution D) Suspension
B 602. Magnesium citrate solution resulting from mixing citric acid with magnesium carbonate is prepared by:
A) Simple solution B) Chemical reaction C) Dispersion D) Extraction
B 603. A type of tablet for delayed release of medication is:

A) Chewable B) Sustained release C) Compressed D) Effervescent
D 604. Solid dosage forms administered other than oral route:

A) Pellets B) Vaginal tablets C) Troches D) A and B
A 605. Type of sterilization using steam under pressure is:

A) Moist heat B) Dry heat C) Microfiltration D) Inspissation
A 606. Examples of sterile products:

A) Dialysis solutions B) Pellets C) Cough syrups D) A and B
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PHARMACEUTICAL MANUFACTURING
D 1. A means of administering drugs as formulated preparations is called:

a. pharmaceutical c. dosage forms
b. drug delivery system d. any of the above
D 2. A manufacturer who produces the products of a company without manufacturing facilities is a/ an:
a. ethical manufacturer c. biological manufacturer
b. proprietary manufacturer d. toll manufacturer
C 3. Primary package system as differentiated from secondary package systems:

a. are in direct contact with the product
b. have a direct effect on product shelf life
c. AOTA
d. None
A 4. The only true tamper resistant packaging:

a. aerosol containers c. breakable caps
b. sealed tubes d. shrink seals
B 5. Purified water that is free from pyrogen

a. purified water c. Any of the choices
b. water for injection d. NOTA
C 6. Viscosity enhancers are added to liquid preparations to:

a. improve pourability of products from container
b. improve palatability
c. both
d. none
B 7. The most inert grade of stainless steel used for high grade products
a. SS 304 c. SS 3004
b. SS 316 d. SS 3016
C 8. Filtration system which is recommended for handling large quantities is

a. gravimetric filtration c. pressure
b. vacuum d. cartridge filtration
A 9. Filling method which is advisable for highly viscous products

a. gravimetric filling c. any of the above
b. volumetric filling d. none
D 10. The advantages of emulsion over other dosage forms include:

a. increased therapeutic effects c. ability to mask unpleasant odors
b. increased spreading ability d. AOTA
D 11. Aggregates of powders which adhere or bond to each other to form larger particles
a. powders c. pellets
b. microcapsules d. granules
C 12. Storage conditions for capsules

a. 35-50% RH c. AOTA
b. 21-25ºC d. NOTA
B 13. Substance that “glue” powder together causing them to form granules
a. diluent c. lubricant
b. binder d. disintegrant
C 14. An agent that acts between surfaces in relative motion to prevent friction and wear
C 15. In film coating, when additives migrate to the surface, the problem is called:
a. blistering c. sweating
b. wrinkling d. bloom
B 16. An anteroom which separates the sterile from non sterile is a/an:
a. LAF c. HEPA
b. airlock d. AOTA
C 17. Area with no more than 100 particles of 0.5 micron size per cubic foot of environment:
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a. Class 0.5 c. Class 100

b. Class 500 d. Class 1000
B 18. A very simple, sensitive and fast test for pyrogens using the amoebocyte of the horse shoe crab.
a. Pyrogen Test c. Rabbit Test
b. LAL Test d. Crab Test
C 19. Ampules are sealed by:

a. Pull sealing c. any of the above
b. Tip sealing d. NOTA
B 20. The period in which the product remain acceptable for use:
a. Stability c. Accelerated Stability Studies
b. Shelf life d. any of the above
A 21. Flow property of liquid is related to:

a. Viscosity c. Optical Property
b. Volatility d. Miscibility
D 22. Solubility may be enhanced through the use of:

a. Application of heat c. Reduction of particle size
b. Agitation d. any of the above
D 23. Dispensing equipment in the name of suspension includes:

a. Blenders c. Colloid mill
b. Impellers d. all of the above
D 24. A suspension may be stabilized through the use of:

a. Suspending agents c. Viscosity enhancing agents
b. Hydrocolloids d. AOTA
D 25. Suspensions are evaluated by:

a. Sedimentation c. Measuring of Particle size
b. Ease of redispersability d. Any of the above
A 26. The ff are natural emulsifying agent, except:

a. Tween 80 c Agar
b. Acacia d. gelatin
A 27. Water soluble abases are prepared from

a. PEG c. Petrolatum
b. sorbitol d. mineral oil
A 28. Polyols may be used as:

a. humectant in creams c. prevent cap locking
b. viscosity contribution d. AOTA
B 29. Preservatives are added to semisolid preparations to be prevent the ff except

a. decomposition c. deterioration
b. container d. spoilage by bacteria and molds
A 30. Mixing equipment for acid materials

a. Sigma blade mixer c. Twin shell bed dryer
b. Ribbon blender d. AOTA
D 31. An ideal drug delivery system (DDS) is

a. capable of controlled delivery rates
b. not highly sensitive to physiological variables
c. based on physicochemical principles
d. Any of the above
D 32. Formulation methods of achieving sustained drug release including

a. use of coating c. microencapsulation
b. embedding the drug in a matrix d. AOTA
D 33. Gradual sedimentation in liquid products is due to:

a. chemical reaction c. bacterial growth
b. decomposition d. any of the above
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A 34. Filtration process wherein the liquid passes through one filter pad or disk
a. parallel c. both a and b
b. series d. none
A 35. A gravity operated filling set up is used for liquids which are
a. free flowing c. viscous
b. foaming d. either a or b
D 36. Solubility may be enhanced through

a. application of heat c. reduction of particle size
b. agitation d. AOTA
B 37. Suspension adjunct used to prevent the product from drying at topical application
a. sweetening agent c. preservative
b. humectant d. emollient
D 38. The aggregation of the dispersed globules into loose clusters within the emulsion
a. creaming c. phase inversion
b. cracking d. flocculation
D 39. The attire or uniform used in parenteral production include

a. cover all c. boots and gloves
b. face mask and head covers d. AOTA
A 40. CGMP means

a. Current Good Manufacturing Practice
b. Current General Manufacturing Program
c. Current General Manufacturing Practice
D 41. The quality of a medicinal and a related product is the sum of all factors which will contribute directly or
indirectly to the products
a. safety c. acceptability
b. effectiveness d. AOTA
B 42. Group which is responsible for auditing the control system for evaluating product quality
a. Quality Control c. Production
b. Quality assurance d. Medical
C 43. The disintegration medium of plain uncoated tablet is

a. simulated gastric fluid TS c. Distilled water
b. simulated intestinal fluid TS d. potable water
C 44. Quality control test that are performed on granules before compression into tablets are except:
a. sieve analysis c. angle of repose
b. bulk density d. AOTA
D 45. The most common method of tableting active ingredients which are chemically incompatible
a. microencapsulation c. add stabilizers
b. film coating d. use double layer tableting
D 46. Sealing of ampule is done by

a. Pull sealing c. Tip sealing
b. softening the neck of ampule d. a and c
C 47. Bullet shaped capsules are called

a. spansules c. pulbules
b. bougies d. NOTA
A 48. This is used to increase the resistance of gas

a. Sulfur dioxide c. Ethylene oxide
b. Titanium Oxide d. acid
A 49. The animal of choice for in vitro rectal absorption studies

a. dog c. rabbit
b. pig d. mouse
B 50. Method that will produce tablets of best quality

a. direct compression c. dry granulation
b. wet granulation d. any of the above
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C 51. Bubble test measure the efficiency of:

a. glass c. membrane filter
b. plastics d. air filter
A 52. A processing problem encountered only in the manufacture of tablets:

a. double impression c. molding
b. weight variation d. chipping
A 53. The coalescence of oil globules in a o/w emulsion is called:

a. cracking c. creaming
b. inversion d. sedimentation
C 54. The ff. are true for Spans, except:

a. they are resistant to addition of acids and electrolytes
b. they are hydrophobic
c. they have high HLB values
d. they from w/o emulsions
D 55. A variation of dry gum method of preparing emulsions using volatile oil is added to acacia in a bottle:
a. Oil method c. Emulsifier in oil method
b. English method d. Bottle method
A 56. Antioxidants which block an oxidative chain reaction in which they are not usually consumed:
a. BHT c. thiourea
b. EDTA d. tartaric acid
A 57. These are gas sterilants, except:

a. carbon dioxide c. beta propiolactone
b. formaldehyde d. sulfur dioxide
A 58. A sterilization method which destroys microorganism b y cellular protein coagulation:

a. autoclaving c. gas sterilization
b. dry heat sterilization d. none of the above
D 59. The usual contaminants of ophthalmic preparations are the ff., except:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Bacillus subtilis d. Staphylococcus aureus
A 60. A commonly used capsule diluent:

a. lactose c. Calcium Phosphate
b. starch d. any of the above
C 61. An opacifying agent for capsules:

a. sulfur oxide c. titanium oxide
b. lactose d talc
B 62. A common levigating agent:

a. glycerin c. alcohol
b. mineral oil d. ether
C 63. Method used for the incorporation of small amounts of potent drugs with a large amount of diluent:
a. spatulation c. geometric dilution
b. sifting d. levigation
B 64. The ff. excipients impart satisfactory compression characteristics to the tablet formulation except:
a. glidant c. lubricant
b. disintegrant d. antiadhesive
A 65. Tablet weight is determined by:

a. volumetric fill of the disc c. amount and nature of bunder
b. pressure during compression d. all
C 66. One part of a slightly soluble material will dissolve in ________ part of solvent
a. 10-30 c. 100-1000
b. 30-100 d. 1000-10000
B 67. Brandy and whiskey are classified as:

a. elixirs c. aromatic waters
b. spirits d. juice
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B 68. The reduction of camphor with the aid of alcohol is called:

a. trituration c. levigation
b. pulverization by intervention d. any of the above
D 69. The prominently printed element on the label:

a. brand name c. pharmacologic category
b. Rx symbol d. generic name
C 70. A 600L paracetamol drops was manufactured. If it is packed in 60-mL bottle, the theoretical yield is:
a. 100 c. 10000
b. 1000 d. 5000
A 71. Invert sugar has the tendency to darken in color due to:
a. levulose c. glucose
b. sucrose d. lactose
A 72. A near saturated solution of sucrose in water:

a. simple syrup c. sucrose solution
b. syrup d. all
B 73. Acacia mucilage is x% dispersion in water:

a. 42 c. 5
b. 35 d. 25
C 74. Thixotropy is a characteristic demonstrated by:

a. jellies c. gels
b. magmas d. suppositories
C 75. Galenicals are also called:

a. extracts c. extractives
b. fluidextracts d. marc
A 76. The injection of large of volumes of a solution into substances tissue to provide a continuous, abundant
drug supply is called:
a. hypodermicyclics c. IM administration
b. IV administration d. intradermal administration
D 77. Excessive use of binders in tablet affectd:

a. bioavailability c. dissolution
b. disintegration d. all
C 78. Impart cohesive qualities to the tablet granulation:

a. diluent c. binder
b. lubricant d. disintegrant
A 79. Buccal tablets are intended to be dissolved:

a. swallow c. beneath the tongue
b. rapidly d. chewed
A 80. These are necessary components of a stable emulsion, except:

a. electrolyte c. dispersed phase
b. dispersion medium d. emulsifier
A 81. Problem often encountered in suspensions:

a. caking c. slow settling
b. smooth texture d. dispersatility
A 82. The different methods of determining the emulsion type are the ff., except:
a. Dry Gum c. Electrical conductivity
b. Drop dilution d. Dye
B 83. The container of choice for parenteral:

a. plastic c. metals
b. glass d tubes
C 84. The container of choice for ointments:

a. jars c. collapsible tubes
b. cans d. widemouth bottle
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A 85. Which of the ff. is not classified as a lubricant?

a. lactose c. Ca Stearate
b. Stearic acid d. talc
D 86. Spans & Tweens are:

a. binders c. preservatives
b. diluents d. surfactants
A 87. Filtration of a solution to a high degree of clarity:

a. polishing c. clarification
b. dialysis d. dissolution
D 88. Plastic containers are not recommended for pharmaceuticals because:

a. vapors permeate through the walls of the container
b. leeching of constituents from the plastic to the product
c. absorption of the drug molecules to the surface of the plastic
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
D 89. These are advantages of tablets, except:

a. economy c. blandness of taste
b. accuracy d. prolonged dissolution
C 90. HEPA filters are used for filtration of:

a. parenterals c. air
b. ophthalmics d. solvents
D 91. For compacting the materials in the tablet machine:

a. hopper c. dies
b. feedframe d punches
C 92. Tablet granulations can be dried faster using:

a. granulator c. fluid bed dryer
b. oven d. solar dryer
B 93. The partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of a tablet from the main body:
a. chipping c. lamination
b. capping d. picking
B 94. Used for mixing powder mixtures in large volume quantity:

a. drum roller c. planetary mixer
b. V-blender d. compactor mills
A 95. A roller mill is used to reduce the particle size of powders in:
a. ointment c. capsules
b. tablet d. emulsion
B 96. This is not part of the master formula record:

a. complete batch formula
b. price per dosage unit
c. weight of each
d. description of container & closure
B 97. This part of the sugar coating process is to round off tablet contours rapidly:
a. sealing d. finishing
b. subcoating e. polishing
c. syruping
Problems: Primaquine Phosphate tablets, 30mg/tab

Formula mg/tab batch of 600,000 tabs
a. Primaquine PO4 30 98. 18kg
b. Lactose 56.6 99. 33.96kg
c. Starch 16.6 100. 9.96kg
d. PVP 0.57 101. 0.342kg
e. Stearic acid 0.23 102. 0.138kg
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103. Tablet weight = 104 mg
For nos. 104-108 Match by writing the equivalent capital letter of each ingredient corresponding to the role of each
C 104. Disintegrant
B 105. Filler
A 106. Active Ingredient
D 107. Binder
E 108. Lubricant
For nos. 108-111: After tablet compression, the 3 drums collected were weighed
Data Gross Tare Net

Drum 1 20kg 0.05kg 108. 19.95kg
Drum 2 21kg 0.06kg 109. 20.94kg
Drum 3 20.3kg 0.04kg 110. 20.26kg
111. 61.15kg
112. Compute for the actual number of tablets. Answer: 587,980 tablets
113. Determine the %wastage. Answer: 2.0%
B 114. Which of the ff additives in parenterals reduces the f\pain of injection in areas with nerve endings?
a. buffers c. synergist
b. tonicity adjusters d. chelating agents
B 115. Weight variation test is carried out iin:

a. 10 tabs c. 30 tabs
b. 20 tabs d. 40 tabs
A 116. The component present in the largest quantity in parenterals

a. vehicle c. buffers
c. solutes d. antimicrobials
A 117. The water resistance of glass containers is tested by

a. amount of alkali released into water c. changes in pH
b. amount of acid released into water d. none
D 118. The buffers commonly used in parenterals

a. citrates d. any of the choice
b. acetates e. none
c. phosphates
D 119. Granulation by compression is also known as

a. dry granulation c. double compression method
b. precompression method d. all of the above
A 120. Primary packaging components except

a. labels d. caps
b. bottles e. stoppers
c. tubes
C 121. The degree of freedom is used in calculation of

a. average c. standard deviation
b. mean d. range
A 122. To control microorganisms in the air is to

a. install UV lamps in several areas c. install IR bulbs in several areas
b. provide ETO gas around the room d. any of the above
D 123. The work “quality” SQC refers to characteristic of a product from:

a. quantitative c. identification
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b. qualitative d. a & b
C 124. The measure of the variation of individual observations around the average is:
a. range c. standard deviation
b. average d. any of the choices
B 125. Advantages of plastic containers over glass, except:

a. lightness in weight c. lower transportation
b. permeability d. resistance to impact
D 126. Indicator employed in sterilization process is

a. chemical wax or pellet c. biological suspension
b. colored paper strips d. any
B 127. In labeling of a product, an unlabeled portion is provided for

a. elegance c. save cost of labels
b. viewing the contents d. all of the above
D 128. Property of IV solutions

a. with aqueous vehicle c. hypotonic
b. isotonic d. a & b
C 129. The material present in both enteric and film coating

a. wax c. cellulose acetate phthalate
b. parafilm wax d. a &c
B 130. A lyophobic substance is easily wet by

a. polar solvents c. water
b. nonpolar solvents d. hydroalcohols
D 131. Characteristics of iirigation solutions to wash wounds and body cavitites may be
a. sterile c. with additives
b. pyrogen free d. a & b
B 132. Plastic material used for ophthalmic solutions as package and applicator is
a. polypropylene c.polystyrene
b. polyethylene d. PVC
C 133. A colloid mill is used for the ff, except:

a. reduce particle size of solids c. granulation
b. homogenize viscous emulsion d. produce finely divided solids
D 134. Use of buffers in parenterals

a. pH stabilizer c. tonicity contributor
b. sterilizer d. a and c
D 135. Foam in emulsion is prevented

a. apply compressed air c. add polyethylene
b. add antifoaming agent d. a and b
A 136. the dispensing division of the warehouse requires

a. licensed pharmacist c. experienced scientist
b. licensed chemist d. a & b
D 137. Room temperature recognized by USP is

a. 25ºC c. 20ºC
b. 10-30ºC d. temp at the working area
B 138. Uneven distribution of colors on the surface of tablets is

a. peeling c. capping
b. mottling d. lamination
D 139. The Board of Trustees of a company functions as the

a. protector of the company’s asset
b. prepare policies
c. active planning
d. a&b
D 140. To remedy the irritating effects of UV radiation is to
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a. wear UV goggles for eyes c. put off the UV light during operation
b. covers skin with clothing d. AOTA
A 141. The inspection and checking section of QC is responsible for

a. sampling of raw materials c. chemical assaying
b. testing sterility of products d. doing pyrogen test
A 142. The part of the transdermal drug delivery system patch where the drug is stored
a. reservoir c. back strips
b. peel strips d. membrane
B 143. Practical method of determining method of hardness is

a. Eureka Tester c. Pfizer Tester
b. Rule of Thumb d. Rosche Tester
A 144. Method of tablet manufacture for easily compressible or adhesive ing is

a. direct compression c. wet method
b. slugging d. a&b
B 145. Limulus amoebocyte lysate is obtained from

a. rabbits c. white mice
b. king crab d. microorganisms
D 146. The building used for manufacturing of pharmaceutical shall be of adequate space for
a. orderly placement of materials
b. prevent mix up of drugs and packaging matls
c. avoid risk of cross contamination of raw materials and label
d. AOTA
C 147. Stoke’s Monsanto tester is used to measure

a. thickness c. hardness
b. friability d. disintegration of tablets
D 148. Pharmaceutical aerosols may be in the form of

a. solutions c. emulsions
b. powders d. AOTA
A 149. Hemodialysis is employed to remove toxins from the

a. blood c. kidney
b. peritoneal cavity
B 150. Implantation pellets are those which contain

b. active ing d. disintegrant in their formation
D 151. Property of tablet granulations to obtain good tablets:

a. compressibility c. noramal distribution of fines
b. fluidity d. AOTA
B 152. In the manufacture of semisolid emulsions, the mixing of the oil and aqueous phases is done at the
temperature of:
a. 30-40ºC c. 80ºC
b. 70-72ºC d. NOTA
A 153. Hard gelatin capsules are also referred to as:

a. dry-filled capsules c. soft elastic
b. pork skin capsule d. SEC type
C 154. To identify pharm. Products that are registered in BFAD, the label consists of:
a. expiry date c. DR number
b. Bar marks d. category
D 155. Packaging and labeling operations are controlled to:

a. prevent mix ups b/w drugs and labels
b. assure that only those products that meet the standards are distributed
c. identify the finished products with a control number
d. AOTA
A 156. Quarantined materials delivered in the warehouse are:

a. subject to test and assay c. rejectable
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b. releasable to production dept. d. in-process products
B 157. Advantage of liquid medicines:

a. special techniques required for poorly soluble drugs
b. rapidly absorbed in the body
c. easy to manufacture
d. requires pharmaceutical elegance
D 158. Instability of drug substances in liquid form may be caused by:

a. variation in pH c. light of radiation
b. reduced temperature d. a&c
A 159. Disadvantage of glass material used in packaging of liquids is:

a. releases insoluble flakes upon storage
b. resistance to decomposition
c. oxide contents may be reduced
d. b & c
C 160. To increase viscosity of the aqueous phase of an emulsion is to:

a. add more emulsifier c. add dissolved macromolecules
b. active ing d. antibiotics
A 161. In suspension formulation, the suspension adjuvants may be

a. buffers c. drug substance
b. actives d. antibiotics
C 162. Suspending agents added to suspension formulations, except:

a. gelatin c. parabens
b. veegum d. methocel
A 163. In semisolid preparations, petrolatum is a common hydrocarbon base due to its:

a. consistency c. easily washed with water
b. hydrophilic character d a&b
D 164. Large volume parenterals are employed for:

a. maintenance therapy c. prophylactic therapy
b. replacement therapy d. a & b
B 165. Insoluble powders for ophthalmic preparations must be:

a. less than 200 microns in particle size
b. impalpable to the touch
c. pyrogen free
d. give preservative action
D 166. Dialysis solutions as life-saving preparations has the ff characteristics, except:

a. requires a semipermeable membrane to separate one substance from another
b. contains dextrose for supplies of calories
c. used for individuals with kidney failure
d. used to separate RBC from WBC
A 167. CGMP standards and regulations are enforced by BFAD for the purpose of:
a. assuring quality
b. assuring the protection from moisture
c. developing new product
d. assuring sales
B 168. The president of a company has the function of:

a. protecting the assets of the company
b. active planning and control of business
c. management of the major department
d. a and c
D 169. The phenomenon applied to adsorption at solid surfaces is:

a. wetting property c. flocculation
b. detergency d. a & b
D 170. Plastic containers are of advantage to manufacturers for us ein:

a. packaging of IV infusion
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b. ophthalmic solutions
c. place of Al metal to hold rubber stoppers in vials and bottles
d. a & b
D 171. A colloid is employed to:

a. reduce solid particle size of suspensions
b. homogenize viscous emulsions
c. produce finely divided solids
d. any of the above
A 172. Polyols may be added to cream formulation as:

a. humectant c. active ingredient
b. viscosity contributor d. a & b
C 173. Aspilet tablets for children are:

a. sublingual c. chewable
b. buccal d. soluble
C 174. An aerosol is a dispersion of:

a. solid in alcohol c. solid in gas
b. solid in water d. liquid in liquid
D 175. What is measured in dissolution test of a tablet?

a. extent of drug absorbed
b. rate of absorption of the drug substance
c. rate of drug eliminated
d. a & b
B 177. A type of ointment base known as creams is:

a. water soluble base c. hydrocarbon base
b. water removable base d. a & b
D 178. Complaint about a product may be:

a. adulteration c. high price
b. decomposition d. a & b
B 179. Pfizer tester that determines force to break a tablet is used to measure:
a. thickness c. friability
b. hardness d. disintegration
B 180. Transdermal delivery system is a sophisticated patch that delivers the drug from the skin:
a. GIT c. liver
b. bloodstream d. dermis
C 181. Implantation tablets are those which are administered:

a. orally c. insertion into body tissues
b. through vagina d. rectally
C 182. Accdg. to Stoke’s law, the sedimentation rate of suspension is directly proportional to:
a. viscosity c. particle size
b. density d. specific gravity
B 183. Improperly sealed ampules should be tested for:

a. particulate matter c. bacteria
b. leak d. pyrogen
TRUE OR FALSE. Write/ Mark A if the statement is correct and B if not.
A 184. Single containers may be in ampules, vials, or in large 250mL- 1000mL.
B 185. Tamper-proof seals are popular nowadays to allow easy pilferage of the contents.
B 186. Biologic products are stored at room temperature.
A 187. Buccal tablets are those which contain drugs to be absorbed thru the oral mucosa.
B 188. The 2 acids contained in effervescent tablets are citric acid and acetic acid.
B 189. LAL Test for pyrogens is interpreted by rise in temperature of rabbits.
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A 190. In ampule sealing, a tip sealing is characterized by a bead at the tip of the ampule.
A 191. One great advantage of pharmaceutical aerosols is that medication is dispensed in a ready-to-use form at
the push of a button.
A 192. For semisolid aerosol, the formulation is similar to other semisolid preparation but depends on nitrogen
gas to the contents from package.
B 193. Homogenization of an emulsion is done to uniformly disperse the insoluble solid drug in the vehicle.
B 194. In the manufacture of emulsified semisolid, the mixing of the phases is done at a temperature of 43-45ºC
for intimate blending.
A 195. Hydrocarbon waxes are added to semisolid formulations to increase the viscosity of mineral oil and
prevents separation.
B 196. The natural emulsifiers like acacia form a colloidal layer to prevent coalescence of droplets.
B 197. Creaming in emulsions is the separation of emulsified droplets which are denser that settle at the
container.
B 198. The DDB is under the jurisdiction of the BFAD.
A 199. Spray drying technique can produce finely divided particles for suspension formulation.
B 200. Flint glass refers to the amber colored glasses used to protect from light.
A 201. The production control department of the plant division is in charge of inventory.
B 202. The approved for use materials are labeled with red color.
B 203. The medical department of a manufacturing establishment is in charge of:

a. plant & employee safety c. both a & b
b. house organ publication d. none
D 204. Facilities needed for pharmaceutical research:

a. library c. animal house
b. pilot plant d. all
A 205. The production department of a pharmaceutical manufacturing establishment is in charge of, except:
a. production personnel control
b. labeling & other packaging materials
c. inventory control
d. in-process analysis
C 206. One of the ff. is not a QC function:

a. inspection of container
b. labeling & other packaging material
c. inventory control
d. in process analysis
A 207. Documentation is the main responsibility of:

a. central release office
b. checking & investigation section
c. purchasing department
d. sales, promotion and merchandising department
C 208. It means any establishment engaged in operations involved in the production of drugs including
propagation, processing, compounding, finishing, filling, packing, repacking, and labeling in view of
storage distribution or sale of the product:
a. drug distributor c. drug manufacturer
b. drug trader d. none of the above
C 209. Statement of expiration date assure of:

a. absence of interaction c. full therapeutic efficacy
b. absence of toxicity d. recovers from ailment
B 210. The expiration date of paracetamol tablet states “January 1999”. This statement means that, by January
1999, the product will have lost its activity:
a. less than 90%
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b. sufficient activity to be outside the USP monograph requirement

c. meet BFAD requirement
d. comply with DOH requirement
A 211. The barcodes imprinted in labels of products serve to:

a. distinguish one product from another
b. impart elegance
c. meet BFAD requirement
d. comply with DOH requirement
A 212. These are quality assurance functions, except:

a. product forecasting
b. auditing, and control of all manufacturing documents before and after production
c. CGMP monitoring
d. environmental control
A 213. One of the ff. situations can avoid cross contamination and mix-ups:
a. components are tightly sealed
b. improper partitioning of working areas
c. components are improperly dispersed
d. wrong label
B 214. The manufacturing batch record should contain the ff. information, except:
a. in-process test, finished product QC test results
b. general manager’s signature
c. manufacturing procedures
d. dispensing batch number quantitative and qualitative formula
B 215. The QA inspectors usually inspect and audit warehouse CGMP’s :

a. stock rotation (FIFO)
b. all of these answers
c. separation of materials, quarantine, approved, rejected
d. protection of material from cross contamination
B 216. If a bottle of tablets has an expiration date of January 1999, the pharmacist may,
a. dispense the tablets only until January 1, 1999
b. dispense the tablets only until January 31, 1999
c. dispense the tablets only until January 15, 1999
d. continue to dispense the product if he has already opened the container
A 217. Reaction kinetics study can help predict the:

a. shelf life c. toxicity
b. effectivity of a formulation d. potency
D 218. In the CGMP, we usually consider the:

a. building c. equipment
b. personnel d. all
C 219. Any substance of a drug product intended to furnish pharmacologic effect is:
a. excipient c. actives
b. drug substance d. b & c
C 220. The concept where raw materials are purchased only at a time when it is needed and at a quantity
enough to carry out a single production
a. FIFO c. cost cutting
b. preformulation purchasing d. just-in-time
D 221. Soda Lime glass is also known as:

a. Type I c Type III
b. NP d. b &c
B 222. Container impervious to air:

a. tight container c. closed container
b. hermetic container d. single dose container
B 223. If you are QC inspector, what critical defect if found should stop the packaging operation and could be
processed if results of investigation are satisfactory:
a. inverted label c. smeared label
b. wrong label d. misaligned label
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A 224. Highly resistant borosilicate glass is also known as:

a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. NP
A 225. It refers to the statement regarding the conditions, wherein the use of the product may cause harm to the
patient:
a. contraindication c. precaution
b. caution d. all of the above
C 226. Type of container that protects the content from extraneous solids, liquids, or vapors from loss of the
drug:
a. hermetic c. tight
b. well-closed d. light resistant
B 227. Single unit container include the ff., except:

a. sachets c. strip packages
b. collapsible tubes d. blister packs
C 228. It refers to the instruction and special care required in the use of the product to avoid undesired effects
and to ensure the safe and effective use of the drug:
a. caution c. precaution
b. contraindication d. all of the above
B 229. Component of closure that inserted in a cap to effect a hermetic seal between the closure and the
container
a. cap c. inner seal
b. liner d stopper
D 230. Common component of cap liners, stoppers and parts of dropper assembles:
a. metal c. plastic
c. glass d. rubber
D 231. One of the ff. is not an advantage of plastic over glass containers:
a. lightness in weight c. lower transportation cost
b. resistance to impact d. permeability
C 232. The all glass container for small volume parenterals:

a. vacoliter c. ampule
b. vials d. b & c
B 234. Tamper-resistant package except:

a. breakable caps c. bubble packs
b. liner d film wrappers
B 235. Material of plastic containers that can be remelted and reprocessed, except:
a. polystyrene c. polypropylene
b. melamine formaldehyde d acrylics
B 236. The product inserts fro many drug products contain statements. Which of the ff. sequences lists the 3 type
of caution in the order of least to most serious?
a. contraindication, precaution, warning
b. precaution, warning, contraindication
c. warning, contraindication, precaution
d. contraindication, warning, precaution
C 237. Advantages of glass containers, except:

a. inertness c. resistance to impact
b. rigidity d visibility
B 238. Package component used to prevent during shipping including cotton, rayon and polyester
a. inner weal c. liner
b. coil d. dessicant
C 239. Primary packaging materials, except:

a. bottles c. labels
b. capsules d. caps
C 240. Release or movement of the components of the container into the contents:
a. sorption c. leaching
b. breathing d. porosity
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D 241. Function of a package include:

a. for convenience c. for protection of content
b. for legal compliance d. all of the answers
A 242. Multiple dose containers include:

a. vials c. ampules
b. cartridges d pre-filled syringe
D 243. Functions of a package include:

a. to provide presentation c. for communication
b. to provide containment d. all of the above
B 244. Accdg. to USP standard, freezer or refrigerator can be used to store pharmaceuticals that specify storage
in a :
a. cool place c. dark place
b. cold place d controlled room temperature
C 245. Accdg. to the USP monograph instruction, protect from light indicates storage in:
a. dark place c. light resistant container
b. flint glass d. tight glass container
A 246. To assign in assuring the stability of a dosage form during transport and storage, the label shall indicate:
a. storage condition c. concentration of the drug
b. expiry date d. any of the above
C 247. The term soluble refers to part s of solvent that can dissolve 1 part of solute is:
a. 1-10 c. 10-30
b. 30-100 d. less than 1
B 248. The temperature of a cool place is:

a. not more than 8ºC c. 15-30ºC
b. 8-15ºC d. 25ºC
C 249. When 1 part of the solute dissolves in 1-10 parts of solvent, it is:
a. very soluble c. freely soluble
b. soluble d. sparingly soluble
C 250. The usual storage condition specified for biologicals is:

a. room temperature c. 2-8ºC
b. below 2ºC d. a cool place
A 251. Type of mill which makes use of compressed gas to cause turbulence inside the chamber.
a. fluid energy mill c. colloid mill
b. ball mill d. hammer mill
A 252. The ff. are preservatives used in dosage forms, except:

a. PG c. methylparaben
b. propylparaben d. Na benzoate
A 253. Filtration process wherein the liquid passes thru one filter pad or disc:
a. parallel c. a & b
b. series d none of the above
D 254. Factors that accelerate instability include:

a. temperature c. moisture
b. light d. all of the above
C 255. The composition of oral rehydration are:

a. amino acid, glucose, water
b. glucose, Na, K, HCO3, water
c. glucose, Na, K, Cl
d. citric acid, glucose, Ca, water
C 256. The generally accepted liquid product artificial sweetener:

a. cyclamate c. saccharin
b. glutamate d. glucose
C 257. Veegum is a/an:

a. organic gum c. clay
b. synthetic gum d. nonionic surfactant
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A 258. Type of resin that is used to deionize water:

a. synthetic c. prepared
b. resins d. natural
B 259. Buffers are used:

a. to bring about the solubility of insoluble substance
b. to maintain pH pf solution thus attaining maximum stability
c. as preservative
d. none of the answers
B 260. A finished product where sterility is not at its maximum observance:

a. ophthalmic c. theobroma oil
b. otic d. emulsified theobroma oil
B 261. 28% of an anti-pruritic preparation is composed of 3 active ingredients in ratio of 7:5:4. If marketing
requires 190kg batch size, determine the required amount of active ingredients:
a. 61.3kg c. 98.5kg
b. 53.2 kg d. 11.9kg
A 262. An eardrop preparation requires 0.017g of the active per 15 ml bottle presentation. If production calls for
1500 L batch size, determine the theoretical amount of the active needed.
a. 10.70 kg c. 23.70 kg
b. 16.05 kg d. 160.5 kg
C 263. Pressure operated filling set up is used for liquid which are
a. free flowing c. viscous
b. all of these d. foaming
D 264. A typical erythema score of 2 in the irritation test for ointment means
a. no visible reaction
b. intense erythema with edema
c. mild erythema
d. intense erythema
e. intense erythema with edema and vesicular erosion
B 265. Anhydrous lanolin has the ff property

a. water absorbing ability is less c. pleasant odor
b. more stable and free from rancidity d. non sticky consistency
A 266. Penetrometers are used to measure consistency and viscosity of

a. ointments c. micelles
b. suspensions d. thixotropic materials
C 267. Mixing equipment for solid materials except

a. sigma blade mixer c. Fitz Patrick Chilsonator
b. Ribbon blender d. Twin shell V blender
D 268. Solid dosage forms are more advantageous than liquid forms because of the ff reasons, except:
a. can be easily dispensed c. not prone to bacterial contamination
b. stability d. method of manufacture is easier
B/C 269. Granular forms are important because they

a. prevent segregation of powders c. are easier to wet
b. are more stable d. all of the above
C 270. A parvule is
a. bolus c. granule
b. wafer d. large pill
B 271. Materials added to provide cohesion in components for compression

a. lubricant c. fillers
B 272. Molded lozenges are referred to as:

a. Troches c. Extracts
b. Pastilles d. Film tab
B 273. Content uniformity tests is to be performed for all tablet products whose active ingredient is:
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a. 130 mg or less c. 324 mg

b. 50 mg or less d. 50 mg or more
D 274. Starch, povidone, Mg Stearate, and lactose added to Aspirin tablets are
a. actives c. vehicles
b. Inerts d. additives
A 275. For the disintegration test for enteric coated tablets, the immersion fluid is:
a. Simulated Gastric fluid TS c. water
b. oil d. PO4 buffer
A 276. The method for the preparation of compressed tablets wherein the granulation is formed by compacting
large masses of the mixture and subsequently crushing and sizing these pieces into smaller granules
a. dry granulation method c. direct compression method
b. wet granulation method d. all of the above
C 277. Aside from fluidity, powders for compression must possess

a. flowability c. compressibility
b. adhesiveness d. all of the above
B 278. Drugs that are available as sustained release dosage forms utilizing ion exchange resins include:
a. spansule c. gradumet
b. ionamine d. all of the above
A 279. Film coating problem due to internal stress

a. cracking c. mottling
b. lamination d. orange peel or roughness
C 280. The disintegration medium for plain uncoated tablet is:

a. Simulated Gastric Fluid TS c.DistilledWater
b. Simulated Intestinal Fluid TS d. a & c
B 281. The most commonly used of determining the particle size of powders and granules is:
a. coulter counter c. microscopy
b. sieve method d. none
D 282. The ff are binders, except

a. starch c. bentonite
b. acacia d. Cab-O-sil
B 283. Content uniformity is used to ensure which of the ff qualities in tablet products
a. disintegration c. purity
b. potency d. toxicity
B 284. For rapid disintegration of compressed tablet, this range of concentration of starch is recommended:
a. 5% c. 15-20%
b. 10-15% d. 20-25%
C 285. Rule of thumb is used for testing

a. ampules c. compressed tablets
b. hypodermic tablets d. vials
C 286. A tablet formulation calls for 2 active ingredients which are chemically incompatible. The best method to
be used is:
a. dry granulation c. double layered tablets
b. wet granulation d. spray drying
B 287. Poorly manufactured tablets may have small pinholes on the surface, this defect is called:
a. mottling c. capping
b. picking d. compacting
D 288. In the preparation of effervescent tablet, the most important ingredients necessary to give the
effervescent effects are:
a. NaHCO3 and Citric acid c. Na2CO3 and Tartaric acid
b. Citric acid and Tartaric acid d. a & c
A 289. Common binder used in tablets

a. gelatin solution c. liquid petrolatum
b. lycopodium powder d. lactose
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C 290. The theoretical weight of ten 10 tabs is 9.35 grams. Each tablet contains 425 mg of the active. Using this
data, determine the amount of additive needed to prepare 160,000 tablets.
a. 51.0 kg c. 81.6 kg
b. 102.5 kg d. 149.6 kg
D 291. Separation of a tablet into 2 or more distinct layers

a. mottling c. speculation
b. granulation d. lamination
C 292.Part of a tablet machine which controls the size and shape of the tablet is
a. punches c. die
b. hopper d. cam
C 293. Formulation methods of achieving sustained drug release include

a. use of coating c. all of these answers
b. microencapsulation d. embedding the drug in matrix
B 294. The method of tablet manufacture for easily compressible or adhesive ingredient is:
a. dry granulation c. slugging
b. direct compression d. wet method
B 295. One of the ff does not apply to uses of colloid mills

a. homogenize viscous emulsions c. produce finely divided solids
b. granulate d. reduce particle size of solids
A 296. One of the ff substances is not used as lubricant in tablet manufacture

a. starch c. Mg stearate
b. talc d. Ca Stearate
C 297. One of the ff is not an advantage of multi layered tablets

a. maybe coated tablet
b 2 incompatible drugs may be kept separated
c. accurate control of the delayed action part
d. each layer has a separate color for identity
D 298. The ability of the tablet to withstand abrasion in packaging, handling and shipping is evaluated by its:
a. content uniformity c. hardness
b. dissolution test d. friability
D 299. This is a common lubricant for tablets:

a. mannitol c. starch
b. acacia d. Mg stearate
D 300. Which of the ff is/ are used in tablet formulation to reduce friction during tablet compression?
(1) Calcium stearate

(2) Mg stearate
(3) Stearic acid
a. none of these answers c. 1 and 2

b. 1 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
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PHARMACEUTICAL JURISPRUDENCE
C 1. __________ denotes the date after which the product is not expected to retain its claim safety, efficacy and quality.
a. lot number c. expiration date
b. batch number d. control number
D 2. Equipment used for manufacture, processing, testing or control must meet the ff. criteria, except;
a. non reactive c. non absorptive
b. non additive d. non operational
B 3. Required tests for new drugs, except;

a. Phase IV Clinical Trial c. Phase III
b. Bioavailability d. Phase I
C 4. ________ determine the therapeutic index of drugs

a. pharmacodynamics c. clinical pharmacology
b. pharmacokinetics d. toxicity test
C 5. Government agency who issued national identification card and purchase slip booklet to senior citizen
a. BFAD c. OSCA
b. DILG d. DOLE
D 6. ____________ requires the representation of yellow prescription from a licensed doctor with S2 license number
a. List B c. OTC
b. Rx d. List A
A 7. __________ is a list of drug which cure the vast majority of illness, affordable and available to all persons
a. EDL c. USP/NF
b. NDF
A 8. __________ is the accredited professional pharmacy organization in the Philippines accepted by PRC
a. PPhA c. PAPPI
b. PSHP
B 9. Refers to the moral principles of practice in Pharmacy

a. Jurisprudence c. Law
b. Ethics d. NOTA
B 10. It is defined as a system of Laws or the Science or Philosophy of Laws

a. Pharmacy Law c. RA 5921
b. Jurisprudence d. Ethics
B 11. RA 3720 is the

a. Pharmacy Law c. Dangerous Drug Act
b. Food, Drug, Devices and Cosmetic Act d. Senior Citizen Act
D 12. RA 6425 is the

a. Narcotic Drugs Law c. Revenue Regulation
b. Pharmacy Law d. Dangerous Drug Act of 1972
C 13. This term refers to any person who sells, administers, delivers or gives away to another any dangerous drug without
any proper authority.
a. Pharmacist c. Pusher
b. Nurse d. Drug Agent
B 14. Includes opium and its active components and derivatives such as heroin and morphine,
coca leaf and its derivatives
a. Regulated Drugs c. Both a and b
b. Prohibited Drugs d. List B
B 15. Refers to any drug which produces insensibility, stupor, melancholy or dullness of mind with delusion
a. dangerous drug c. synthetic drug
b. narcotic drug d. regulated drugs
D 16. The only person/s authorized to issue a prescription

a. physician c. veterinarian
b. dentist d. AOTA
C 17. An act to promote, require and ensure the production of an adequate supply, distribution, use and acceptance of drug
and medicines identified by their Generic Names
a. RA 5921 c. RA 6625
b. RA 6425 d. PD 881
B 18. It is the chemical component responsible for the claimed therapeutic effect of the pharmaceutical product:
a. chemical name c. binder
b. active ingredient d. disintegrant
C 19. It is the identification of drugs and medicines by their scientifically and internationally recognized active ingredient as
determined by the Bureau of Food and Drugs
a. Brand name c. Generic name
b. label claim d. Both a and c
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A 20. Drug establishments is defined as:

a. any organization or company involved in the manufacture, importation, repacking, and or distribution of
drugs or medicines
b. drugstores, pharmacists and stores that sell drugs of medicines
c. both a and c
d. NOTA
B 21. It is the proprietary name given by the manufacturer to distinguish its product from those of their competitors
a. generic name c. common name
b. brand name d. AOTA
D 22. The objectives of RA 5921

a. The standardization and regulation of pharmaceutical education
b. The examination for registration and graduation of schools of pharmacy in the Philippines
c. The supervision, control and regulation of the practice of pharmacy in the Philippines
d. AOTA
D 23. This is/ These are created for the purpose of implementing Republic Act 5921
a. Council of Pharmaceutical Education c. Phil Pharmaceutical Association
b. Board of Pharmacy d. both a and b
A 24. The appointment of the Board of Pharmacy shall be approved by the:

a. President of the Philippines c. Commissioner of the PRC
b. Food and Drug Administrator d. AOTA
D 25. To be appointed member of the Board of Pharmacy, a person must be:

a. a natural born citizen of the Philippines
b. a duly registered pharmacist and has been in the practice of pharmacy for at least 10 years
c. a member of good standing of bonafide national pharmaceutical association in the Philippines
A 26. A complete pharmacy internship program based on RA 5921 Article III sec 18 shall consist of at least:
a. 960 hours c. 480 hours
b. 160 hours d. 980 hours
B 27. In order to pass the board examination, a candidate must obtain a general average of
a. 100% c. 50%
b. 75% d. 80%
C 28. Examination for registration to practice pharmacy in the Philippines shall be given:
a. once a year c. twice a year
b. thrice a year d. 5x a year
D 29. In order for somebody to practice pharmacy in the Philippines, he must be:
a. at least 21 years old
b. has satisfactorily passed the examination given by the board of pharmacy
c. holder of a valid certificate of registration duly issued to him by the Board of Pharmacy
d. AOTA
A 30. A food shall be deemed adulterated if:

a. it bears or contains any poisonous substance which may render it injurious to health
b. its labeling is false or misleading
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
B 31. A food shall be deemed misbranded:

a. it bears or contains any poisonous substance which may render it injurious to health
b. its labeling is false or misleading
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
D 32. In R.A. no. 3720 Section 10, food means:

a. articles used for food or drink for man
b. chewing gum
c. articles used for components of any such article
d. all of the above
D 33. In R.A. no. 3720 Section 10, drug means:

a. any article recognized in the official Pharmacopeia and National Formulary
b. articles intended for use in the diagnosis, cure and mitigation, treatment or prevention of diseases
in man and other animals
c. articles intended for any function of the body of man
d. all of the above
A 34. It is the concentration of known active drug substance in the formulation:
a. strength c. batch size
b. percentage d. AOTA
C 35. In tablets, this/these test/s is/are usually performed:

a. weight variation, content uniformity, hardness
b. disintegration and dissolution for the active ingredients
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c. both a and b
d. NOTA
A 36. In the preparation of liquid or suspension one of the choices below is necessary:
a. viscometer c. particle counter
b. moisture balance d. leaker test
A 37. It is a drug which has been used for at least five years, involving at least 5,000 patients
a. tried and tested c. drug for general
b. established drug d. investigational drug
B 38. It is a drug the safety and efficacy of which has been demonstrated through long years of general use and can be
found in current USP-NF and other internationally recognized Pharmacopeia:
a. tried and tested c. drug for general use
b. established drug d. investigational drug
D 39. The source or circumstances of drug production is/are:

a. imported as finished
b. locally manufactured from imported materials
c. locally manufactured from local materials
d. AOTA
A 40. Products for external use bears:

a. red colored label
b. white colored label
c. any color as long as the statement “for external use only” is indicated
d. green colored label
A 41. Test for alcohol content should not be more than

a. 10% c. 75%
b. 20% d. 40%
D 42. All information required to appear on the label must be:

a. written in English or Filipino
b. clearly and prominently displayed
c. readable with normal vision without straining, the color contrast, the position and sparing of the information
must be taken into consideration in complying with labeling requirements.
d. AOTA
D 43. In the current good manufacturing practice, we usually consider the;

a. building c. equipment
b. personnel d. AOTA
C 44. A senior citizen who purchase his medicine for his personal needs is entitled to a minimum discount of:
a. 10% c. 20%
b. 30% d. 15%
C 45. The following statements are true, except;

a. Prescriber of Dangerous Drugs should have S2 license issued by the Dangerous Drug Board
b. Dangerous Drug prescriptions are accomplished in triplicate
c. Dangerous Drug prescriptions are issued by the Board of Pharmacy
d. The original copy of the Dangerous Drug Prescription should be kept by the pharmacist
D 46. License to operate (LTO)of a drugstore can be suspended except

a. Refusal to allow entry of BFAD inspector during business hours
b. Failure to properly record and keep of all prescriptions received in the last two years
c. Failure to produce invoices and receipts together with lot numbers, expiration dates for the drug on stocks
d. Absence of pharmacist on three (3) inspections by BFAD inspector
D 47. The ff. statements are incorrect, except;

a. Erroneous prescriptions should not be filled by pharmacist, Rx kept and reported to DOH
b. Violative Rx could be filled, Rx kept and reported to DOH
c. Impossible Rx could be filled, Rx kept and reported to DOH
d. Violative Rx should not be filled by pharmacist, Rx kept by pharmacist and reported to DOH
D 48. The ff. are violations under the Generic Act which a pharmacist may commit except:
a. imposing a particular brand on the buyer
b. failure to make accessible the required up-to-date information on drug products to the buying public
c. failure to report to the nearest DOH
d. failure to return the Rx to the patient
A 49. Requirement for drug store except:

a. minimum of 50 sq. m. floor area with concrete, tile of wooden flooring
b. adequate water supply
c. reference books and documents such as USP
d. prescription book
A 50. Product standardization is the responsibility of:

a. drug manufacturers c. whole
b. retailers d. importers
B 51. An act to ensure the safety and purity of foods, drugs, devices and cosmetics in the country
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a. RA 5921 c. RA 6425
b. RA 3720 d. RA 953
B 52. Drug product registration is regulated by:

a. Secretary of Health c. Multinational Companies
b. Bureau of Food and Drugs d. Local companies
D 53. Principal display label must contain the following, except:

a. pharmacologic category c. net content
b. dosage form and strength d. indications
C 54. Refusal to allow entry of BFAD inspectors is penalized by:

a. revocation of certificate of registration
b. temporary closure
c. suspension of license to operate
d. revocation of license to operate
B 55. That division in BFAD which is in charge of the inspection of manufacturers of foods, drugs and cosmetics
a. Regulation Division I c. Product Services
b. Regulation Division II d. Legal Division
A 56. BFAD is a regulatory agency of the national government under

a. DOH c. Office of the President
b. DDB d. Professional Regulation Commission
C 57. The presence of foreign matter inside the contents of a bottled syrup is a case of
a. misbranding c. adulteration
b. adultery d. mislabeling
B 58. All prescriptions dispensed in the drugstores shall be kept on file for:
a. one year c. three years
b. two years d. five years
C 59. When only the generic name is written but is not legible is a case of;
a. violative prescription c. impossible prescription
b. erroneous prescription d. NOTA
B 60. Where the brand name is not in parenthesis is a case of;

a. violative prescription c. impossible prescription
D 61. One of these is not a requirement for opening a drugstore

a. full time registered pharmacist
b. keeping of record books duly registered with BFAD
c. keeping of invoice indicating lot number or batch number of the manufacturer’s stock
d. keeping of list of patients who purchase drug in the drugstore
B 62. Prescription forms for dangerous drugs are issued by:

a. BFAD c. BIR
b. DDB d. PRC
B 63. Prescription for dangerous drugs are written in:

a. duplicate c. one copy
b. triplicate d. any of the above
A 64. The Board of Pharmacy is under the supervision of:

a. PRC c. CHED
b. Civil Service Commission d. DOH
A 65. The pharmacist should keep the copy of the original narcotic prescription for the period of
a. one year c. five years
b. two years d. four years
D 66. A permit to operate a retail drugstore is issued by;

a. DDB c. Board of Pharmacy
b. BIR d. BFAD
C 67. Government office where the professional register and where license is issued:
a. Bureau of Domestic Trade c. PRC
b. Bureau of Food and Drug d. BIR
D 68. A candidate for Board of Examination:

a. shall be a Filipino citizen of the Philippines
b. must be of good moral character
c. must have completed 960 hours of internship
d. AOTA
C 69. Grounds for reprimand, suspension or revocation of registration certificate, except:

a. insanity c. honesty
b. immorality
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B 70. Drugs which require batch certification before it can be released to the market:
a. anesthetics c. antineoplastics
b. antibiotics
B 71. The expiration date of the drug shall be expressed in terms of

a. day and year c. month and day
b. month and year
B 72. Poisonous preparation must bear

a. Rx symbol c. external use only
b. Vignette representing skull and bones
E 73. Counterfeit drugs refers to:

a. product with correct ingredients but not in the amount provided
b. product with wrong ingredients
c. product with insufficient quantity of active ingredients
d. drugs which is fraudently mislabeled
e. AOTA
D 74. Parties liable for violation of RA 8203 are, except:

a. manufacturer d. drugs which is fraudently mislabeled
b. pharmacist e. AOTA
c. processor of counterfeit drugs
B 75. Monitors the presence of counterfeit drugs

a. DOH c. CHED
b. FDRO’s d. DDB
D 76. Pharmacists are required to report record of sales of dangerous drugs twice a year to the
a. BFAD c. Municipal Health Officer
b. DOH d. DDB
D 77. Which of the violative acts will warrant closure of establishment

a. failure to record sales and purchases for dangerous drug
b. loss of Rx form for dangerous drug
c. failure to comply with filling of prescription for dangerous drug
d. illegal importation, distribution, manufacture
B 78. Which of the following drug preparation cannot be distributed as samples

a. OTC c. Rx Drug
b. Dangerous Drug d. AOTA
B 79. Supplies/medicines to be given to senior citizen should not exceed;

a. one day supply c. one month supply
b. one week supply d. one year supply
D 80. The following must be presented by senior citizens when buying drugs;
a. prescription c. OSCA identification card
b. Purchase slip booklet d. AOTA
C 81. BFAD requires all manufacturing company to designate a person who will transact officially with BFAD
a. medical director c. liaison officer
b. product manager d. quality control manager
C 82. Pharmacists are requested by law to be in drugstore

a. for 8 hours c. while the outlet is open for business
b. in the morning only d. when there is BFAD inspector
A 83. The following are record book except;

a. Republic Act Book c. Poison Book
b. Dangerous Drug Book d. Prescription Book
B 84. The minimum requirement necessary for the opening of retail drugstore must be in accordance with the rules and
regulations of:
a. DDB c. Board of Pharmacy
b. BFAD d. DOH
A 85 Sale of physician sample is a prohibited act under the:

a. Pharmacy Law c. Foods, Drugs, Devices, and Cosmetics law
b. Generics law d. Dangerous Drug Act
B 86. The latest amendments to RA 5921 is

a. EO 175 c. RA 3720
b. EO 174 d. PD L916
B 87. Drugstore, Pharmacy and other business establishment which sell drug or medicine is known as:
a. Drug Establishment c. Drug Trader
b. Drug Outlet d. Drug Manufacturers
C 88. Who has sole authority to remove a member of the Board of Pharmacy,, for cause provided in the laws?
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a. Chairman, PRC c. President of the Phil

b. Chairman, BOP d. President of Prof. Org.
A 89. The decision of the Board of Pharmacy in administrative cases involving a pharmacist becomes final and executory
after the lapse of:
a. 30 days c. 60 days
b. 15 days d. 90 days from notice to respondent
A 90 The Board of Pharmacy is under the supervision of:

a. PRC c. CHED
b. Civil Service Commission d. DOH
B 91. To be appointed as member of the Board of Pharmacy, a pharmacist must have practiced for at least;
a. 5 years c. 15 years
b. 10 years d. 2 years
C 92. Detailmen are requested to register with the:

a. Board of Medicine c. Board of Pharmacy
b.BFAD d. PRC
A 93. One of the functions of the Board of Pharmacy

a. examine applicants for the practice of pharmacy
b. to authorize opening of drugstore
c. to collect samples of drugs, medicines and cosmetics
d. to accredit colleges of pharmacy
D 94. RA 5921 was approved in:

a. 1965 c. 1960
b. 1970 d. 1969
B 95. Refers to the moral principles of the practice of pharmacy:

a. Jurisprudence c. Law
b. Ethics d. both a and c
B 96. How many years shall the chairman of the Board of Pharmacy hold office after appointment?
a. 2 yrs c. 4 yrs
b. 3 yrs. d. 1 yr
D 97. License to operate (LTO) a drugstore can be suspended EXCEPT

a. Refusal to allow entry of BFAD inspector during business hours
b. Failure to properly record and keep file of all prescriptions received in the last two years
c. Failure to produce invoices and receipts together with lot numbers, expiration dates for the drug stocks
d. Absence of pharmacist on three(3) inspections by BFAD inspector
C 98. The penalty for any person who falsely display within the establishment the certificate of registration of a pharmacist
not actually or regularly employed is:
a. a fine of more than P1000 or imprisonment of 6 mos
b. a fine of not less than P1000 but not exceeding P4000 or an imprisonment of not less than 4 yrs
c. a fine of not less than P1000 but not exceeding P4000 or an imprisonment of not less than 6 mos and one
day but not more than 4 yrs.
B 99. It is the proprietary name given by the manufacturer to distinguish its product from those of their competitors
a. generic name c. common name
b. brand name d. AOTA
C 100. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit drugs are not life saving drugs and the volume of the drug involved is not more
than one million
a. maximum penalty c. minimum penalty
b. medium penalty d. revocation of LTO
D 101. Penalty imposed when the counterfeit drugs are life saving and the volume of the drug involved is more than one
million
a. revocation of LTO c. minimum penalty
b. medium penalty d. maximum penalty
B 102 Products containing two or more active ingredients shall have a generic name/s as determined by the:
a. manufacturer c. DOH
b. BFAD d. drugstore owner
D 103. Major offenses under the Dangerous Drug Act warrant a penalty of:
a. reclusion perpetua to death
b. a fine ranging from 100,000 to 500,000
c. a fine ranging from 500,000 to 1,000,000
d. both a and b
d. both a and c
Administrative Sanctions. Shade A for closure; B for suspension of LTO; C revocation of LTO
B 104. Minor deficiencies in GMP such as inadequate storage facilities
C 105. For manufacturers: Lack of key technical and professional personnel

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C 106. Selling misbranded drugs.
B 107. Refusal to allow entry of BFAD inspector
A 108. Absence of pharmacist on three inspection of BFAD inspector
C 109 Inadequate or improper documentation of the production process
C 110. Lack of Pharmacist
B 111 Failure to properly record and keep a file of all prescriptions filed in the last two years
C 112. Sale of distribution of antibiotic products without batch certification by BFAD
B 113. Failure to produce invoices and receipts together with lot numbers, expiry dates for drugs in stock
C 114. Failure to properly record dangerous drugs as determined by DDB
C 115. Failure to take necessary remedial or corrective measures within the prescribed period as directed by BFAD
C 116. Violation by BFAD standards of quality, efficacy, purity, and safety of drug products
B 117. Lack of minor equipment in production or quality control
B 118. For manufacturers: Poor housekeeping
A 119. Applicable S-tax for dealers of exempt dangerous drugs preparation

a. S-1 d. S-4
b. S-2 e. S-5-C
c. S-3
B 120. Applicable S-tax for prescribers of dangerous drugs

a. S-1 d. S-4
b. S-2 e. S-5-C
c. S-3
C 121. Applicable S-tax for retailer of dangerous drugs

a. S-1 d. S-4
b. S-2 e. S-5-C
c. S-3
E 122. Applicable S-tax for producer/compounder of dangerous drugs

a. S-1 d. S-4
b. S-2 e. S-5-C
c. S-3
E 123. Prescriptions for poisons shall be retained by the pharmacist for:

a. 1 year d. 4 years
b. 2 years e. 5 years
c. 3 years
C 124. The registration of pharmacist shall be renewed every

a. 1 year d. 4 years
b. 2 years e. 5 years
c. 3 years
C 125. Demerol is classified as:

a. regulated drug c. prohibited drug
b. OTC drug d. exempt drug
A 126. Phenobarbital sodium is classified as:

b. OTC drug d. exempt drug
C 127. R.A. no. 5921 was first amended by:

a. P.D. no. 281 c. P.D. 1363
b. P.D. 223 d. P.D. 1926
B 128. The following are prohibited drugs, except:

a. LSD c. morphine
b. amphetamine d. cocaine
D 129. Lomotil is classified as:

b. OTC drug d. exempt DDP
D 130. The following is considered practice of pharmacy:

a. manufacture of pharmaceuticals
b. undertaking pharmaceutical research
c. teaching professional pharmacy subjects
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d. all of the above

e. none of the above
B 131. Drugs are considered adulterated if:

a. label is misleading c. differs from USP standards
b. it is an imitation
C 132. Establishments not requiring supervision of registered pharmacist:
a. drug importer c. plant management of laboratories
b. drug departments d. selling and distribution of drugs
A 133. The Pharmacy Law:

a. R.A. 5921 c. R.A. 6675
b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203
c. R.A. 6425
B 134. Food Drug Devices and Cosmetics Act:

a. R.A. 5921 c. R.A. 6675
b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203
c. R.A. 6425
C 135. Dangerous Drug Act:

a. R.A. 5921 c. R.A. 6675
b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203
c. R.A. 6425
D 136. Generics Act:

a. R.A. 5921 c. R.A. 6675
b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203
c. R.A. 6425
E 137. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs:

a. R.A. 5921 c. R.A. 6675
b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203
c. R.A. 6425
A 138. Senior Citizens Act:

a. R.A. 7432 c. R.A. 6675
b. R.A. 3720 e. R.A. 8203
c. R.A. 6425
A 139. Consumer Act of the Philippines:

a. R.A. 7394 c. R.A. 7432
b. R.A. 7581 d. R.A. 5921
A 140. P.D. shortening the pharmacy course from 5 years to 4 years:

a. 1926 c. 223
b. 1363 d. 881
A 141. Executive Order amending R.A. 5921:

a. 174 c. 851
b. 175 d. 881
B 142. Executive Order amending R.A. 3720:

a. 174 c. 851
b. 175 d. 881
C 143. The Food and Drug Administration was abolished by this E.O. and created BFAD instead
a. 174 c. 851
b. 175 d. 881
B 144. Food Drug Devices and Cosmetics Act:

a. June 20, 1953 c. March 30, 1972
b. June 22, 1963 d. June 23, 1969
D 145. Pharmacy Law

a. June 20, 1953 c. March 30, 1972
b. June 22, 1963 d. June 23, 1969
B 146. Dangerous Drug Act:

a. June 20, 1953 c. June 22, 1963
b. March 30, 1972 d. June 23, 1969
B 147. Generics Act:

a. June 20, 1953 c. June 22, 1963
b. Sept. 13, 1988 d. June 23, 1969
B 148. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs:

a. May 27, 1992 c. Sept. 13, 1988
b. Sept. 4, 1996 d. June 23, 1969
B 149. The permanent consultant of the DDB:

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a. Secretary of Justice c. BFAD Director

b. NBI Director d. Health Secretary
A 150. The product of diseased animal is considered as:

a. adulterated c. deteriorated
b. misbranded d. abuse
A 151. Where generic name is not written

a. violative Rx c. impossible Rx
b. erroneous Rx
B 152. Where the generic name is the one in parenthesis

b. erroneous Rx
C 153. When the generic name does not correspond to the brand name
b. erroneous Rx
B 154. Shall be filled:

b. erroneous Rx
D 155. Shall not be filled:

b. erroneous Rx d. a & c
A 156. Revised rules and regulations to implement prescribing requirements under the Generics Act:
a. AO no. 62 c. AO no. 64
b. AO no. 63 d. AO no.65
D 157. The following are classified as major offense, except:

a. possession of dangerous drugs c. manufacture of dangerous drugs
b. sale of dangerous drugs d. possession of opium pipe
B 158. Special forms of prescription of dangerous drugs are obtained from:

a. BFAD c. Board of Pharmacy
b. DDB d. BIR
D 159. The penalty for violation of R.A. no. 8203 about counterfeit drugs is:
a. permanent closure of the establishment
b. revocation of its license to operate
c. fine not less than P100,000 but not more than P500,000
d. all of the above
C 160. The street name for marijuana:

a. ice c. grass
b. honey d. moth
A 161. The following are regulated drugs, except:

a. elixir paregoric c. diazepam injection
b. valium tablet
A 162. These are classified as adulterated drugs, except:

a. label is smeared and dirty
b. potency of drug is below label claim
c. other components added are not stated on the label
d. substandard materials have been added
B 163. Retail establishments shall record all transaction of exempt preparations in the:
a. Dangerous Drug Book c. Prescription Book
b. Additional Opium book
B 164. Brand Name means:

a. description of the chemical structure of the drug or medicine
b. proprietary name given by the manufacturer
c. description of internationally recognized active ingredient
d. name of the manufacturer
A 165. Refer to the statement regarding the condition wherein the use of the product may cause harm to the patient:
a. contraindication c. warning
b. precaution d. indication
D 166. Government office where the professional register and where license is issued:
a. Bureau of Food & Drugs c. Bureau of Internal Revenue
b. Bureau of Domestic Trade d. Professional Regulation Commission
D 167. Government office where you obtain a business permit to open a drugstore, drug department as sole proprietor.
a. Bureau of Domestic Trade c. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Securities and Exchange Comm. d. Bureau of Food and Drugs
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B 168. Aspirin tablet with a brand name of Amopen:

a. erroneous prescription c. violative prescription
b. impossible prescription d. all of the above
A 169. BFAD is a regulatory agency of the national government under:

a. DOH c. PRC
b. Office of the President d. DDB
B 170. Selling of OTC drug is considered practice of pharmacy

a. False c. neither true nor false
b. True d. all of the above
B 171. The street name for LSD is:

a. Bottom c. Cactus
b. Acid d. Mushroom
B 172. Accreditation of colleges of pharmacy is a function of:

a. PRC c. Board of Pharmacy
b. Council of Pharmaceutical Education d. All of the above
D 173. Considered as Drug Establishment:

a. Department Store c. Supermarket
b. Botica sa Baryo d. Drug Manufacturer
A 174. Sale of physician sample is a prohibited act under the:

a. Pharmacy Law
b. Food, Drugs and Devices, and Cosmetics Act
c. Dangerous Drug Act
d. All of the above
B 175. Persons who are not practicing pharmacy:

a. teacher of the college of pharmacy
b. pharmacist-manager of a manufacturing company
c. pharmacist in a hospital
d. a & b
C 176. Order forms and yellow pad for prescriptions are secured from:
a. BFAD c. Dangerous Drug Board
b. Commissioner of Internal Revenue d. Bureau of Health
B 177. If a package does not bear the name and address of the manufacturer, the product is,
a. adulterated c. counterfeit
b. misbranded d. a & c
A 178. To implement the provisions of R.A. 3720, the agency created was,
a. BFAD c. Bureau of Customs
b. BIR d. DDB
D 179. R.A. 3720 was promulgated to:

a. ensure safety of foods, drugs and cosmetics
b. adopt measures to guarantee the purity and quality of food and drugs
c. allow BIR to set standards for food and drug
d. a & b
A 180. The laboratory division of the BFAD has the duty of:
a. testing, analyzing and doing trials on products submitted
b. inspection of manufacturing laboratories
c. taking samples from drug outlets
d. all of the above
B 181. A candidate for the board of pharmacy examination is required to be:

a. natural born citizen of the Philippines
b. completed an internship program of 960 hours
c. at least the age of 18 years old
d. a graduate of a pharmacy course of at least 3 years
D 182. A prerequisite for the practice of pharmacy is:

a. at least 21 years of age
b. holder of a valid certificate of registration from the board pf pharmacy
c. experienced in the practice of pharmacy for at least 2 years
d. a & b
D 183. Opium and its active components are included under:

a. dangerous drugs c. regulated drugs
b. prohibited drugs d. a & b
A 184. The act of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any person refers to the term:
a. administer c. user
b. pusher d. deliver
B 185. Heroin is described as:

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a. regulated drug c. derivative of amphetamine

b. derivative of opium d. hypnotic drug
A 186. A pusher of dangerous drugs is one who:

a. sells or delivers dangerous drugs c. plants the source of the drug
b. smokes the drug d. importer
A 187. The ultimate objective of the PNDF is to provide:

a. low-cost drugs c. high quality but expensive drugs
b. free consultation from physicians d. a &b
D 188. In A.O. no.64 s. 1989 of the Generics Act of 1988, the caution “Food, Drugs, Devices and Cosmetics Act prohibits
dispensing without a prescription” should be indicated in the label of:
a. prescription drugs c. prohibited drugs
b. regulated drugs d. all of the above
D 189. The duties of a pharmacist towards the public under the Code of Ethics is:
a. to maintain USP/NF standards c. sell physicians’ sample at a low price
b. not to use inferior quality drugs d. a & b
C 190. Nitrobenzene as a poison is classified as:

a. prescription drug c. violent
b. dangerous drug d. a & c
C 191. The duty of a pharmacist towards a physician:

a. not to make a prescription or diagnose a disease
b. to substitute one article with another
c. not to discuss with the patient any error committed by the physician
d. all of the above
B 192. If a lipstick as a cosmetic contains a substance that caused the swelling of the lips of the user, it is considered:
a. misbranded c. formulated correctly
b. adulterated d. a & b
D 193. The Rx symbol is required in the label of:

a. prescription drugs c. dangerous drugs
b. over the counter drugs d. a & c
C 194. The maximum volume of a cough syrup to be sold:

a. 60 mL c. 120 mL
b. 240 mL d. 250 mL
C 195. A wholesaler of narcotics must obtain:

a. S-5 c. S-4
b. S-1 d. S-2
B 196. Hospital pharmacies should be accredited by:

a. Board of Pharmacy c. Council of Pharmaceutical Education
b. BFAD d. DOH
C 197. A pharmacy intern is required to practice in:

a. BFAD c. hospital pharmacy
b. college teaching d. none of the above
C 198. A drug or medicine containing correct ingredients but not in the amount provided is:
b. misbranded d. b & c
A 199. The administrative designation assigned as S-3 is applicable to:

a. practicing professionals in narcotics c. sell physicians’ sample at low prices
b. not to use inferior quality drugs d. a & b
D 200. Administrative designation assigned to persons using narcotics in research, analysis and instruction is:
a. S-1 c. S-6
b. S-5 d. S-7
D 201. The regulation of the labeling, sale and distribution of hazardous substances is:
a. RA 953 c. Regulation Revenue 16-67
b. PD 881 d. PD 280
D 202. In the application for a new drug, the ff are the requirements:
a. components list c. investigation about its safety
b. specimens of the labeling d. AOTA
D 203. An adulterated cosmetic is:

a. contains filthy substance c. if the labeling is false
b. packed under unsanitary conditions d. a and b
A 204. Heroin is described as:

a. derivative of opium c. derivative of amphetamine
b. regulated drug d. hypnotic drug
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B 205. The original copy of the records of prescription of drugs is retained by:
a. physician c. buyer of the drug
b. pharmacist who filled it d. a&b
C 206. The certification of batches of antibiotics is a specific function of the:

a. Board of Pharmacy c. BFAD
b. Bureau of Health d. NOTA
D 207. According to the international code of ethics, a pharmacist has the responsibility to:
a. show the same dedication to all
b. to promote the individual’s right to access to safe and effective treatment
c. to be sure the buyer-customer can pay for the medicine purchased
d. a&b
B 208. The duty of fixing the date of the Board of Examination for all professions is done by:
a. Board Examiner c. BIR
b. PRC Commissioner d. Any of the above
C 209. Prohibited Acts under Ra 3720:

a. manufacture of adulterated drugs
b. sale or offering of any drug beyond its expiry date
c. selling of OTC drugs in a drugstore
d. Forging or counterfeiting
A 210. If a device like a contraceptive contains a substance that reduces its safety and quality, it is considered to be:
a. adulterated c. not adulterated
b. misbranded d. not misbranded
D 211. Example of outlets under the responsibility of the Regulation Division I is:
a. Hospital Pharmacy c. Manufacturing Drug Laboratory
b. retail drugstores d. a&b
C 212. The meaning of the term “food” includes the ff, except:
a. chewing gum c. lozenges like Strepsils
b. candies d. a&b
B 213. Can a member of the pharmacy board teach in a school where a pharmacy course is offered?
a. Yes c. doubtful
b. No d. if permitted by the school
C/A 214. These sections are under the Product Services Division
a. Food Product Section
b. Physicochemical Section
c. Household hazardous substances
d. Research Section
D 215. These are sections under the Laboratory Services Division, except
a. Microbiology Section c. Toxicology Section
b. Research section d. Inspection Section
B 216. Under CGMP, buildings should provide adequate space for:

a. Storage of equipment c. packing operations
b. The holdings of rejected components d. Administrative offices
D 217. Sections under the Legal, Information and Compliance Division

a. Advertising and Promotion Section
b. Public Assistance Information and Compliance Section
c. Legal Research and Investigation Section
d. Licensing section
A 218. Batch record should include

a. all lot or control# appearing on the labeling of drugs from batch
b. label of component used
c. report of mix up errors
d. endorsement of the Administrative Officer
C 219. Prohibited acts on the labeling include

a. the manufacture of misbranded products
b. the use of any reference to any BFAD product
c. mutilation of the whole or any part of the labeling of the product while held for sale
d. using marks required by the regulation
C 220. Additional labeling requirements for biological products, except;

a. name of the species of animal or organism on where the product is tested
b. name and proportion of antibiotics in the preparation
c. name and quantity of all excipients
d. the potency of the product
E 221. Exemptions in labeling requirements include

a. Investigation Drugs d. Donated Drugs
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b. Extemporaneous Preparation e. AOTA

c. Drugs with transparent covering
C 222. It plans, directs, and supervises the implementation of rules and regulations and SOP in inspection and licensing of
establishment
a. Regulation Division I c. Regulation Division II
b. Administrative Division d. Legal, Info and Compliance Div
A 223. Product container should

a. be unadsorptive c. suitable for intended use
b. should provide adequate protection d. store in a common area
D 224. Functions of the Laboratory Services Division, except:

a. Conducts all test analysis and trials of products under jurisdiction
b. Appears in investigational hearings as may be necessary
c. Certifies batches of antibiotics and antibiotic preparation
d. Obtain data on ADR from different resources
A 225. It is an example of a regulated drug:

a. Amytal Na c. Sublimate injection
b. Brown mixture d. Valium
C 226. The one responsible for the quality and purity of drugs sold in their original packaging is:
a. retailer c. manufacturer
b. wholesaler d. all
D 227. Counterfeit drugs refer to

a. medicinal products with correct ingredient but not in amount
b. medicinal products with insufficient quantity
c. drug deliberately and fraudulently mislabeled
d. all of the choices
C 228. Grounds for revocation of license to operate in a drugstore or pharmacy

a. the owner is not a pharmacist
b. pharmacist is absent during the time of inspection
c. no pharmacists
d. AOTA
C 229. The ff statements are true, EXCEPT

a. prescriber of Dangerous Drugs should have S-2 license issued by DDB
b. Dangerous drug prescriptions are accomplished in triplicate
c. Dangerous drug prescriptions are issued by the Board of Pharmacy
d. The original copy of Dangerous drug prescriptions should be kept by the Pharmacist
B 230. The product of diseased animal or animal which has died otherwise then by slaughter is considered as:
a. misbranded c. deteriorated
b. adulterated d. abused
C 231. The office which supervises the Board of Pharmacy is:

a. Civil Service Commission c. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Office of the President
B 232. Under BFAD regulation, minor deficiencies in GMP is a ground for:

a. revocation of LTO c. reprimand
b. suspension of LTO d. AOTA
B 233. Drug product marketed “sample”, “not for sale” may be sold to the public provided the price is lower than the
commercial ones:
a. Yes c. depends on the discretion of the pharmacist
b. No d. NOTA
C 234 Filling and refilling of a prescription should be done by:

a. registered nurse c. registered pharmacist
b. pharmacy aide d. pharmacy intern
B 235 If a package does not bear the name and address of the manufacturer, the product is:
b. misbranded d. a&c
C 236. Who can suspend or revoke the certificate of registration of an erring pharmacist?
a. DECS c. Board of Pharmacy
b. BFAD d. DOH
A 237. The function of providing consultative, training and advisory services to all agencies involved in food and drug
manufacturing is the function of:
a. BFAD c. BIR
b. DOH d. Bureau of Customs
A 238. Poison book is maintained after the last entry it has been made:
a. 5 yrs c. 3 yrs
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b. 2 yrs d. 1 yr
B 239. The BFAD Division that certifies batches of antibiotics is:

a. Inspection and Licensing c. Licensing Of New Products
b. Laboratory d. Regulation Division
A 240. The term “secretary” under RA 3720 means:

a. Secretary of Health c. Sec of Customs
b. Sec. of BFAD d. AOTA
D 241. The term “new drug” refers to:

a. not yet recognized by the expert c. containing discovered drug
b. intended for new disease d. AOTA
C 242. Prescription without specification on the Generic Name of the prescribed product is a violation of RA:
a. 5921 c. 6675
b. 3720 d. 6425
C 243. An amendment to the pharmacy Law which gives all Filipinos, regardless how his citizenship was acquired, the
opportunity to take the board examination:
a. PD No. 1926 c. PD No. 1363
b. EO 174 d. Board Resolution No. 112
D 244. If a face powder caused redness and itchiness in a person, it is deemed to be:
a. misbranded c. imitation
b. still be allowed to be used d. adulterated
B 245. The power to submit and recommend to the President the nominees for the members of the various boards is given to:
a. President of the Phil. Pharmaceutical Association
b. PRC Commissioner
c. PACOP President
d. Secretary of Health
A 246. Where more than one drug product is prescribed in one prescription is a case of:
a. violative prescription c. impossible
C 247. Indian hemp is known as:

a.. Papaver somniforum L. c. Cannabis sativa L.
b. Opium poppy d. amphetamine
D 248. Section under Regulation Division II (Manufacturers) is:

a. Inspection c. Licensing
b. Analysis d. a&c
B 249. RA 5921 requires all detailmen to be preferably:

a. physicians c. dentists
b. pharmacists d. nurses
A 250. The books kept for the purpose of recording the sale of poisons should be preserved for a period of:
a. 2 yrs c. 3 yrs
b. 5 yrs d. 1 yr
B 251. A registered pharmacist is one who:

a. graduated from the college of pharmacy
b. Passed the Pharmacy Board Exam
c. reached the age of 18
d. Experienced in the practice of pharmacy
B 252. A practicing physician can be allowed to open a retail drugstore:

a. Yes c. depends on the discretion of the PPhA
b. No
A 253. An application to open a retail drugstore must be signed by

a. Filipino registered pharmacist c. Chinese druggist
b. American registered Pharmacist d. a&b
A 254. A rating below 50% in three sets of subjects:

a. disqualify the candidate from passing the Pharmacy Board Examination
b. pass the Board Examination if the average is 75%
c. conditional situation
d. NOTA
B 255. A drug trader is considered under:

a. drug outlet c. retailer
b. drug establishment d. b&c
C 256. Mandatory info. that shall be included in the labeling materials on pharmaceutical products as specified by RA 3720,
except;
a. name of the product c. assay procedure

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b. storage condition d. generic form and strength
B 257. The incoming shipment of food, drugs and cosmetics which are being imported are sampled and submitted for the
examination to the Bureau of:
a. Customs c. Health
b. Food and Drugs d. Internal Revenue
B 258 List of core and complementary drugs officially recognized by the DOH:
a. Drug Reference Manual c. PIMS
b. NDF d. AOTA
B 259. The size of the Rx symbol in a prescription label should be what proportion of the label:
a. ½ c. ¼
b. 1/5 d. 1/3
B 260. If a label for drugs has no Net Content that makes it misleading, it is considered:
a. adulterated c. poisonous
b. misbranded d. a&b
B 261. The principal display panel of the label of a dosage form is:
a. the side part c. back portion
b. most shown in front part d. any of the above
D 262. Requirement for approval of License to Operate (LTO) of an establishment

a. attendance to a BFAD seminar
b. certificate of registration of a Filipino Pharmacist
c. attendance to a CPE seminar
d. a&b
C 263. After the date, drug is not permissible to be sold refers to:
a. stability studies c. expiry date
b. shelf life d. a&b
C 264. A system of words or other system arbitrarily used to represent words:

a. secret key c. code
b. cipher d. NOTA
C 265. A pharmacist after filling a prescription containing a poison shall record the ff. except:
a. date of sale c. contraindication
b. name and quantity of poison sold d. purpose of the purchase
A 266. Poisons classified as violent

a. atropine c. Na hypochlorite
b. Aspirin d. Na phosphate
C 267. One of the ff. is not an objective of RA 5921

a. standardization of pharmaceutical education
b. control practice of pharmacy
c. adopt measures to ensure safe supply of foods and drugs
d. examination of graduate pharmacists
B 268. An act which provides for the registration and imposition of fixed and special taxes on all habit-forming drugs:
a. Dangerous Drugs Act c. Opium Law
b. Narcotic Drug Law d. Pharmacy Law
D 269. Member dean of the Council of Pharmaceutical Education

a. Dean of UP College of Pharmacy c. of a private college of pharmacy
b. of College of Medicine d. a & c
B 270. The Council of Pharmaceutical Education was created by:

a. PD 223 c. RA 3720
b. RA 5921 d. PD 1363
D 271. Required in labels for injection

a. statement of route of administration c. toxic dose
b. strength in units of potency d. a&b
B 272. The pharmacist may allow his certificate of registration rented provided he visits drugstores frequently?
a. Yes c. Doubtful
b. No d. depends on the discretion of the school
D 273. An adulterated food:

a. contains poisonous or deleterious substance
b. if packed under unsanitary conditions
c. without a DR number
d. a & b
C 274. If the standard of fill amount of container for food has not been complied with the manufacturer, the violation is:
a. adulteration c. misbranding
b. imitation d. a&c
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D 275. Barbiturates are considered

a. dangerous c. prohibited
b. regulated d. a&b
B 276. In the label of a dosage form, the brand name is on top of the generic name:
a. correct c. allowed in emergency cases
b. wrong d. a&c
D 277. The price of medicines allowed for Senior citizens with a discount can be granted upon presentation of:
a. OSCA approved ID card c. Prescription of a physician
b. any ID card d. a&c
B 278. Drug samples for manufacturer should be:

a. sold to the patients c. given free to anyone
b. given to the patients by the physician d. a and b
B 279. Who prepares the question for licensure examination

a. PRC Commissioner c. BFAD Officer
b. Board of Pharmacy member d. CHED representatives
D 280. One of this is not a pharmaceutical legislation

a. RA 6675 c. RA 6425 as amended
b. RA 5921 as amended d. RA 593
D 281. An additional requirement for approval of an LTO for an outlet s:

a. drug steal containing the name and address
b. rubber stamp with the name and address with name and address
c. accounting record book
d. a&b
A 282. Display of certificate of registration of pharmacist is done where:

a. place in conspicuous area in the drug outlet
b. inside the prescription room
c. at home
d. AOTA
C 283. In the case of drug recall, the responsibility for the quality of drug in original sealed container rests with the:
a. Pharmacists in-charge of the drugstore or hospital
b. drug distributor
c. drug manufacturer
d. delivery man
B 284. The Pharmaceutical manufacturer can sell their products directly to the:
a. public c. physician
b. wholesaler d. NOTA
C 285. Which RA prohibits the refusal of a drugstore owner to allow samples of his drugs to be collected by an authorized?
a. RA 953 c. RA 3720
b. RA 6425 d. RA 5921
A 286. Persons who are not considered to be practicing pharmacy:

a. detailmen c. faculty of a college of pharmacy
b. drugstore pharmacist d. b&c
A 287. The inspection of the food, drug and cosmetics establishments for compliance with Current Good Manufacturing
Practices is the duty of:
a. BFAD c. BIR
b. Board of Pharmacy d. CHED
A 288. Selling OTC drugs is a practice of pharmacy:

a. True c. doubtful
b. False d. depends on the location of the store
C 289. The Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceutical Education is:

a. PACOP President c. Secretary of Education
b. Dean of UP College of Pharmacy d. Any of the above
A 290. All prescriptions should have on the label “Warning: may be habit-forming”
a. False c. Sometimes
b. true d. Depending on the kind of prescription
A 291. DOH administrative order no. 56, 1989 regarding regulations, for licensing of establishments and outlets, the reference
books required for submission to the BFAD is:
a. USP/NF, Remington’s Pharmaceutical Science
b. PIMS
c. MERCK
d. All of the above
B 292. Pharmacist who substituted drugs called for in a prescription, without prior consultation with the prescriber violates:
a. RA 6675 c. PD 881
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b. RA 88, 3720 d. PD 1363
B 293. Right of the respondents means:

a. to inform the public c. to have a slow trial
b. to be represented by counsel d. none of the above
D 294. Mandatory information that shall be included in the front display panel of labels:
a. precautions c. warning
b. contraindications d. name of product in generics
C 295. Pharmacy means:

a. any drug preparation or mixtures of drugs
b. article intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigations, treatment or prevention of disease in man or
animals
c. place of establishment where drugs, chemical products, active principles of drugs, pharmaceutical
proprietary medicine and poisons are sold at retail and where medical, dental , veterinary prescriptions are
compounded and dispense.
e. AOTA
C 296. All of these are true for yellow prescription forms, except;
a. they shall be used exclusively by the physician and other practitioner
b. it is not transferable
c. it is transferable
d. none of these
D 297. Which agency answers the functions of the former Food and Drug Administration?
a. Food and Drug Office
b. Bureau of Foods
c. Drug Administration of the Philippines
d. Bureau of Food and Drugs
C 298. All of these are correct for NDP, except;

a. NDP is enunciated on April 30, 1987
b. it ensure the safe and effective drugs are made available to all Filipinos
c. it is composed of core lists of drugs only
d. it is formulated through local research
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Physical Pharmacy Page 1 of 14
D 1. The buffer equation is also known as:

a. Noyes-Whitney c. Arrhenius
b. Van’t Hoff d. Henderson-Hasselbalch
B 2. The dissolution of a drug is calculated using:
a. Henderson-Hasselbalch c. Arrhenius
b. Noyes-Whitney d. Stokes
A 3. The vapor pressure of a solution _________ by the presence of a solute.
a. lowered c. unaltered
b. raised d. developed
A 4. To increase the miscibility of partially miscible liquids, add a substance,
a. miscible with both liquids c. immiscible with both liquids
b. miscible with one of the liquids d. immiscible with one of the liquids
B 5. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution:
a. normality c. molality
b. molarity d. none of the above
A 6. The number of gram equivalents of solute per liter of solution:
C 7. The number of moles of solute per 1000g of solvent:
B 8. Crystalline form of NaCl:
a. tetragonal c. hexagonal
b. cubic d. monoclinic
A 9. A type of solution where the dispersed phase is uniform throughout the solution:
a. true solution c. coarse dispersion
b. suspension d. colloidal dispersion
B 10. Diffusion mechanism whereby drugs are transported from a region of high to low concentration:
a. active c. facilitated
b. passive d. all of the above
A 11. Diffusion mechanism whereby drugs are transported from a region of low to high concentration:
a. active c. facilitated
b. passive d. all of the above
C 12. An equation which reveals the rate of diffusion of a drug:
a. Noyes-Whitney c. Fick’s First Law
b. Nernst Film Theory d. Fick’s Second Law
D 13. The following statements are true for dustibility are true, except
a. it signifies the opposite of stickness
b. it characterizes the free-flowing powders
c. it has some relation to the uniform spreading of dusting powders when applied
to skin
d. it is a measure of the cohesiveness of particles of a compacted powder
A 14. Complete wetting of a surface occurs when the contact angle between a liquid droplet and the surface is:
a. 0º c. 180º
b. 160º d. 90º
D 15. Gels and magmas when standing form semisolids and on shaking become fluid are said to be:
a. Plastic c. Dilatant
b. Newtonian d. Thixotropic
A 16. The attractive forces between polar molecules, that is, between molecules that possess dipole movement:
a. Keesom Forces c. Van der Waals Forces
b. Dispersion Forces d. Ion-Dipole Forces
C 17. The existence of elemental substances such as carbon and sulfur, in more than one crystalline form:
a. Polymerism c. Polymorphism
b. Isomerism d. Polymorphs
B 18. A method of measuring tonicity which is based on the effect of various solutions of the drug observed on the
appearance of of red blood cells suspending in the solutions:
a. Cryoscopic Method c. Freezing Point Depression Method
b. Hemolytic Method d. NaCl Method
D 19. The effect of pressure on the solubility of a gas is expressed by _______, which states that in every dilute at constant
temperature, the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the solution at
equilibrium:
a. Stoke’s Law c. Newton’s Law
b. Raoult’s Law d. Henry’s Law
B 20. The attractive interaction between a polar molecule and the induces dipole;
a. Ion-Induced Dipole Interaction c. Induced Dipole
b. Dipole-Induced Dipole Interaction d. Ion-Dipole Forces
B 21. The following are not cationic surfactants, except:
a. Potassium Laureate c. Na Lauryl Sulfate
b. Quaternary NH4 compounds d. Triethanolamine Stearate
B 22. The bulk density of a powder depends primarily on the following, except:
a. particle size distribution c. particle shape
b. particle sedimentation d. tendency of the particles to adhere to one another
B 23. When the stressed is removed, a ____ system returns to its original state of fluidity.
a. Plastic c. Pseudoplastic
b. Dilatant d. Newtonian
A 24. An example of liquid-liquid interface.
a. Emulsion c. Mixture
b. Suspension d. Gels
D 25. The degree of adsorption of a gas by a solid depends on the chemical nature of the:
a. adsorbent c. temperature
b. surface area of then adsorbent d. all of the above
C 26. The ff are methods of determining particle size, except;
a. sedimentation c. density
b. optical microscopy d. particle volume measurement
A 27. The ratio of the void volume to the bulk volume of the packing
a. porosity c. bulkiness
b. packing arrangement d. flow properties
C 28. Type of particle density which is determined by the displacement of mercury
a. true density c. granule density
b. bulk density d. void volume
B 29. Kinematic viscosity is also known as:
a. relative viscosity c. fluidity
b. absolute viscosity d. stress
D 30. Viscosity of a pseudoplastic substance decreases with increasing _____________.
a. shearing stress c. pressure
b. temperature d. rate of shear
A 31. As the temperature increases, the solubility of most gases decreases, owing to the greater tendency of the gas
to________.
a. expand c. bind
b. diffuse d. scatter
B 32. The following are not organic molecular complexes, except;
a. Clathtrates c. Channel Lattice Type
b. Picric acid type d. Olefin Type
C 33. The following are methods of determining the type of emulsions, except;
a. dye method c. cryoscopic method
b. conductivity test method d. dilution test method
D 34. The change of emulsion type from O/W to W/O or vice versa is known as:
a. coalescence c. creaming
b. breaking d. phase inversion
C 35. Relatively insoluble
a. less than 1 part solute
b. 100-1000 parts solvent
c. more than 10,000 parts of the solvent
d. less than 10,000 parts of the solvent
A 36. The ff are hydrophilic substituents, except:
a. alkyl groups c. hydroxyl group
b. amino group d. carbonyl group
B 37. Molecular weight and mass are examples of _________ property
a. colligative d. none of the above
b. additive e. all of the choices
c. constitutive
A 38. Water is a __________ liquid
a. Newtonian d. dilatant
b. Plastic e. thixotropic
c. Pseudoplastic
B 39. Proposed Law of heat summation
a. Boyle’s Law c. Charles’ Law
b. Hess Law d. Gay Lussac’s Law
B 40. As the length of a non-polar chain of an aliphatic alcohol increases, the solubility of the compoundd in water;
a. increases c. no effect
b. decreases d. all
A 41. Type of reaction wherein the rate is independent of the concentration of reactant or reactants is termed as;
a. zero order reaction c. second order reaction
b. first order reaction d. third order reaction
A 42. The fastest order of reaction to decompose, since according to its differential rate expression, it is independent of the
remaining concentration of the drug after decomposition:
a. zero c. first
b. pseudo-first d. second
B 43. This type of solution has a solute concentration equivalent to its limit of solubility. This would mean that if the same
solute is added to this solution, even in minute amounts, will lead to crystallization, precipitation, or insolubility of
that solute:
a. unsaturated solution c. supersaturated solution
b. saturated solution d. none of the above
C 44. Example of constitutive property:

a. mass c. optical activity
b. molecular weight d. temperature
D 45. The increase in mutual solubility of 2 partially miscible solvent by another agent is referred to as:
a. salvation c. miscellar solubilization
b.salting out d. blending
C 46. Number of moles per kilogram solvent:
a. molarity c. molality
b. normality d. percentage expression
C 47. One of these exhibit dilatant flow:
a. cream c. paint
b. ointment d. acacia mucilage
B 48. Which of the following statements is true?
a. solubility increases with increased particle size
b. solubility increases with decreased particle size
c. solubility decreases with increased particle size
d. solubility decreases with decreased particle size
D 49. Ascorbic acid is the least stable of all vitamins. Its instability is via this reaction:
a. photolysis c. none of the choices
b. hydrolysis d. oxidation
D 50. This method of determining the overall order of reaction involves the use of different plots. The plot will form a straight
line that will determine the order:
a. half-life method c. integrated rate method
b. substitution method d. graphical method
C 51. If 1 gram of solute dissolves in 30-100 parts of solvent, the solute is said to be _________ in that solvent:
a. freely soluble d. slightly soluble
b. soluble e. very slightly soluble
c. sparingly soluble
C 52. Method of adjusting the tonicity of a solution to conform that of the blood and lacrimal fluid based on the adjustment of
the freezing point of the solution to –0.52ºC.
a. Sodium chloride equivalent method c. Cryoscopic method
b. White Vincent method d. Sprowls method
C 53. Method of adjusting the tonicity of a solution to conform that of the blood and lacrimal fluid based on the adjustment of
the freezing point of the solution to 0.9% NaCl.
B 54. Method of adjusting the tonicity of a solution to conform that of the blood and lacrimal fluid based on the use of
calculated volume V values when the weight of the drug is 0.3 g, followed by the dilution of this solution with an
already isotonic, usually buffered solution to the appropriate volume.
C 55. Equation showing the buffer capacity of a solution
a. Raoult’s Law c. Van Slyke Equation
b. Stoke’s Law equation d. Vant Hoff’s equation
A 56. Using White-Vincent Method, compute for the required volume to make 0.3 g of Atropine sulfate (E=0.13) isotonic.
a. 4.3 ml c. 25.6 ml
b. 3.9 ml d. 33.3 ml
C 57. Maximum buffer capacity can be observed in a buffer solution with
a. pH lesser than pKa c. pH equals pKa
b. pH greayer than pKa d. pKa greater than pH
A 58. Complexation which involves entrapment of one compound in the molecular framework of another
a. inclusion c. true bond complexation
b. chelation d. charge transfer complexation
B 59. Group which donate electron pair to a central atom to form the coordinate complex
a. metal substrate c. chromophore
b. ligand d. tautomer
C 60. Maximum number of atoms or groups that can combine in the coordination sphere with the central atom
a. Ionization number c. Coordination number
b. Central atom number d. Valence number
D 61. The suppression of a property or reaction of a metal without the removal of that metal from the system
a. coordination c. sensitization
b. stabilization d. sequestration
C 62. Type of complexation involved in Warfarin sodium USP
a. chelation c. Clathrate formation
b. Channel lattice type d. Monomolecular inclusion
B 63. Type of complexation involved in Starch-Iodine Complex
A 64. Type of complexation involved in Calcium-EDTA Complex
A 65. 0.75% Sodium chloride aqueous solution is

a. hypotonic c. hypertonic
b. isotonic d. isoosmotic
A 66. When the rate of the reaction is proportional to the first power of the concentration of one reactant, the reaction order is:
a. zero order c. second order
b. first order d. third order
B 67. The force of attraction between molecules of different phases is referred to as:
a. electrostatic force c. cohesive force
b. adhesive force d. van der waal’s force
C 68. The force of attraction between molecules of same phases is referred to as:
a. electrostatic force c. cohesive force
b. adhesive force d. van der waal’s force
A 69. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for anti-foaming agents
a. 1-3 c. 8-16
b. 3-8 d. 16-18
D 70. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for solubilizing agents
a. 1-3 c. 8-16
b. 3-8 d. 16-18
B 71. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for W/O emulsifying agents
a. 1-3 c. 8-16
b. 3-8 d. 16-18
B 72. A colloidal system in which the colloidal particles shows little attraction for the dispersion medium
a. Lyophilic c. Hydrophilic
b. Lyophobic d. Association
C 73. The breaking up of aggregates brought about by the addition of deflocculating agents
a. condensation c. peptization
b. lyophilic dispersion d. association
C 74. Which of the following is an example of an association colloid?
a. Carboxymethylcellulose c. anionic surfactant
b. Bentonite d. acacia
B 75. Colloidal dispersion which is unstable, irreversible and forms nonspontaneously
a. lyophilic dispersion c. Association colloid
b. lyophobic dispersion d. lipophilic dispersion
A 76. The concentration of surfactant’s monomer to bring about micelle formation
a. Critical Micellar Concentration c. Critical Monomer Concentration
b. Aggregation number d. monomer number
C 77. The ability of surfactants to enhance the solubility of insoluble compounds in the dispersion medium
a. Micallization c. Solubilization
b. Flocculation d. Stabilization
B 78. The protective effect of a colloid is expressed in terms of:
a. Schulze-Hardy Rule c. Lyotropic series
b. Gold number d. sedimentation volume
A 79. The upward movement of dispersed droplets relative to the continuous phase
a. creaming c. aggregation
b. sedimentation d. coalescence
A 80. The natural shrinking of gel caused by coarsening of the matrix
a. syneresis c. swelling
b. bleeding d. imbibition
D 81. The taking up of liquid by a gel without the significant change in its volume
B 82. The liberation of oil or water from ointment base resulting from a deficient gel structure
C 83. The significant increase in the volume of a gel caused by the addition of interpenetrating liquid
B 84. An expression of the resistance of a fluid flow
a. fluidity c. stiffness
b. viscosity d. elasticity
B 85. Unit used to express absolute viscosity
a. no unit c. stokes
b. poise d. dynes/cm
A 86. Unit used to express relative viscosity
C 87. Unit used to express kinematic viscosity
A 88. Which of the ff. flow system shows a yield value?
a. plastic c. Newtonian
b. Pseudoplastic d. Dilatant
A 89. In which of the ff. systems does the rheogram plot does not pass through the origin?
B 90. Which of the ff. systems is referred to as “shear thickening”?
D 91. Which of the ff. systems is referred to as “shera thinning”?
C 92. The comparatively slow recovery of the consistency of a material lost through shearing defines
a. Rheopexy c. Thixotropy
b. Dilatancy d. Negative thixotropy
A 93. Cup and Bob Viscometer type where the bob is rotated
a. Searle type c. Cone and Plate type
b. Couette Type d. Oswald type
C 94. Flow of a liquid out from a capillary obeys
a. Stoke’s Law c. Poiseulle’s Law
b. Hooke’s Law d. Graham’s Law
C 95. Which of the ff. forms of radiation is the most penetrating?
a. alpha radiation c. Gamma radiation
b. beta radiation d. electron radiation
A 96. Atoms of different elements having the same number of neutrons
a. isotones c. isomers
b. isobars d. isotopes
B 97. Equation that gives the relationship between the vapor pressure and the absolute temperature of a liquid
a. Raoult’s Law c. Van Slyke equation
b. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation d. vant Hoff’s equation
D 98. Surfactants are
a. lipophiles c. hyophiles
b. hydrophiles d. ampiphiles
D 99. The concentration of a gas, liquid or solid on the surface of a liquid or solid is;
a. solubility c. absorption
b. diffusion d. adsorption
C 100. An isotonic solution has the same;
a. pH as the blood c. salt content as the blood
b. fluid pressure as the blood d. salt content as the blood
D 101. Colligative property/ies;
a. osmotic pressure c. elevation of boiling point
b. lowering of vapor pressure d. all of the above
A 102. This is adjusted to assure stability of liquid pharmaceuticals
a. pH c. Osmolarity
b. lowering of vapor pressure d. all of the above
D 103. Solution in which the solute is in equilibrium with the solid phase
a. unsaturated c. supersaturated
b. subsaturated d. saturated
C 104. This is not true about physical adsorption;
a. reversible
b. adsorbate can be removed from the adsorbent
c. irreversible
d. recognized as Van der Waal’s adsorption
A 105. Two liquids which dissolved in each other in all proportions are said to be:
a. completely miscible c. partially miscible liquids
b. immiscible d. slightly miscible
C 106. States that under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, the spread of diffusion of two different gases are
inversely proportional to the square roots of their densities.
a. Charles’ Law c. Graham’s Law
b. Boyle’s Law d. Ideal Gas Law
A 107. The Avogadro’s number is equal to:
a. 6.02 x 1023 c. 9.6 x 1022
23
b. 1.802 x 10 d. 6.0 x 1023
A 108. Osmotic pressure is:
a. colligative c. additive property of solution
b. constitutive d. accumulative
C 109. The law that governs all reversible reaction is:
a. Boyle’s Law c. Law of Chemical Equilibrium
b. Dalton’s Law d. Law of Conservation of Mass
B 110. Logarithm of the reciprocals of the hydrogen ion concentration:
a. mole c. millimole
b. pH d. pKa
B 111. Two liquids which are completely insoluble with each other are:
a. soluble liquids c. partially miscible liquids
b. immiscible liquids d. NOTA
D 112. The law that gives the relation of volume and temperature at constant pressure:
a. Boyle’s Law c. Dalton’s Law
b. Gay-Lussac’s Law d. Charles’ Law
A 113. Gases are composed of discrete particles called:
a. molecules c. protons
b. electrons d. atom
A 114. The number of grams of solute in 100 gram of solution:
a. percent by weight c. molarity
b. molality d. gram weight
C 115. The decomposition of a solute by electricity is known as:
a. hydrolysis c. electrolysis
b. crystallization d. synthesis
C 116. A colligative property:
a. molality c. freezing point depression
b. molecular weight d. boiling point depression
A 117. Amount whose mass in gram is equal to the atomic weight of the element:
a. gram-atom c. molecular weight
b. mole d. milliequivalent
A 118. the type of chemical bond where atoms share electrons is called:
a. covalence c. electo-valence
b. electrovalent d. electrovalence
C 119. A polar molecule, one region of which is positive and the other negative is called:
a. covalent c. dipole
b. electrovalent d. ionic
C 120. the pressure required to liquefy a gas at its critical temperature:
a. vapor pressure c. critical pressure
b. osmotic pressure d. critical temperature
C 121. For gases the reference substance used to determine the specific gravity is:
a. water c. air
b. carbon dioxide d. oxygen
B 122. The law that governs the relationship between pressure, volume and temperature of gases which is expressed in the
following questions, PV=nRT
a. Boyle’s Law c. Charles’ Law
b. Ideal Gas Law d. Gay-Lussac’s Law
B 123. The above law can be used to determine the ______ of gas
a. atomic weight c. avogadro’s number
b. molecular weight d. mass number
D 124. According to Poiseville equation, the factor that has relatively greatest influence on the rate of flow of liquid through a
capillary tube is the:
a. length of tube c. temperature of liquid
b. viscosity of liquid d. radius of the tube
B 125. The vapor pressure of a liquid
a. decreases with an increase in temperature
b. equals atmospheric pressure at liquid’s boiling point
c. is independent of temperature
d. increases when a solute is added to the liquid
B 126. Sublimation is transformation of matter from;
a. solid to liquid state c. liquid to vapor state
b. solid directly to vapor d. vapor to liquid state
B 127. That portion of energy of a system which cannot be converted to work:
a. enthalpy c. heat potential
b. entropy d. convertibility
B 128. The normal body temperature is 37ºC. What is 37ºC in degrees Fahrenheit?
a. 96.8ºF c. 28.3ºF
b. 98.6ºF d. 199ºF
A 129. The presence of this substance in a formulation enhances the absorption of the active drug
a. surface active agents c. protein
b. fat d. carbohydrate
D 130. The ff. statements are true for HLB system, except;
a. more hydrophilic surfactants have high HLB numbers
b. more lipophilic surfactants have low HLB numbers
c. hydrophilic surfactants from o/w emulsions
d. lipophilic surfactants (Spans) are hydrophobic, emulsion is w/o
A 131. Benzalkonium chloride is a/an;
a. cationic surfactant c. non-ionic surfactant
b. anionic surfactant d. chelating agent
D 132. The ff. are emulsifying agent, except;
a. benzalkonium chloride c. Na Lauryl sulfate
b. cholesterol d. Na sulfate
C 133. This statement is not true:
a. o/w emulsion is miscible with water c. w/o emulsion is miscible with water
b. o/w emulsion conducts electricity d. o/w emulsion is miscible with water
C 134. This is not a surfactant;

a. Mr. Clean c. NaOH
b. Breeze d. Tween 80
A 135. Solutions which have the same freezing point depression and the same vapor pressure are:
a. isotonic c. hypertonic
b. hypotonic d. NOTA
A 136. Lacrimal Fluid has an isotonicity values corresponding to that of NaCl solution with the strength of:
a. 0.9% c. 0%
b. 1.0% d. 0.1%
A 137. Sodium chloride equivalents are used to estimate the amount of NaCl needed to render a solution isotonic. The E may
be defined as:
a. amount of NaCl that is theoretically equivalent to one gram of specified chemical
b. equivalent to salt to make it isotonic
c. equivalent to NaCl which is enough to make it a normal saline
d. equivalent to NaCl is enough to make an ophthalmic solution
C 138. How many mg of NaCl should be present in the following formula to obtain an isotonic solution? (E cocaine HCl is
0.16)
Cocaine HCl 2.0%
NaCl q.s.
a. 48 mg c. 174 mg
b. 96 mg d. 222 mg
A 139. How much NaCl is needed to adjust the following Rx to isotonicity? (E ZnSO4=0.15)
Rx ZnSO4 1%
NaCl q.s.
Purified H2O qs 60 ml
a. 0.45 g c. 0.60 g
b. 0.54 g d. 0.75 g
B 140. In a first order reaction t ½ (half life)
a. is a constant independent of dose
b. can be calculated from the formula 0.693/k
c. changes, depending upon initial concentration
d. is a constant increasing rate
C 141. The biological half-life of a drug that is eliminated by 1 st order is mathematically represented by ______, whose k is the
1st order for elimination.
a. 1/k c. 0.693/k
b. log k d. 2.303/k
C 142. Solubility of a substance in a solvent may be expressed in several ways. When a quantitative statements of solubility is
given in the USP, it is generally expressed as:
a. g of solute soluble in 1 ml of solvent
b. g of solute soluble in 100 ml of solvent
c. ml of solvent required to dissolve 1 g solute
d. ml of solvent required to dissolve 100 g of solute
B 143. Reaction rate is increased most readily by
a. humidity c. freezing
b. high temperature d. photolysis
D 144. Dissolution rate is increased by;
a. formation of molecular aggregates c. a decrease in partial size
b. an increase in surface area d. b and c only
A 145. If a buffer solution is prepared using equal concentration of acetic acid and sodium acetate, the pH would then be;
a. equal to pKa c. 14
b. equal to ½ of the pKa d. equal to double the pKa
B 146. Mixing a hypertonic solution with red blood cells will cause _______ of the red blood cells
a. bursting c. chelation
b. crenation d. hemolysis
A 147. A second method for adjusting solution to isotonicity is based upon
a. freezing point depression c. milliequivalent calculation
b. blood coagulation time d. boiling point elevation
B 148. Gases may be liquefied through the following, except:
a. lowering the temperature c. applying pressure
b. increasing the temperature d. condensation
A 149. The sum of the atomic group and bond refractions in a molecule
a. molar refraction c. refractive index
b. specific rotation d. none of the above
C 150. Required temperature for the specific gravity determination
a. 15.56º c. 25º
b. 30º d. 20º
B 151. An increase in temperature ________ the surface tension of a liquid
a. increases c. enhances
b. decreases d. doesn’t change
D 152. Optically active substances are
a. capable of turning the plane of polarized light c. with a unit of mL/n
b. either dextrorotatory or levorotatory d. none of the above
A 153. This is used to measure optical activity specifically the angle of rotation
a. polarimeter c. viscometer
b. refractometer d. hydrometer
A 154. The reciprocal of specific volume
a. specific gravity c. specific rotation
b. specific refraction d. any of the above
B 155. A liquid with relative viscosity value of more than one is:
a. less viscous than water c. as viscous as water
b. more viscous than water d. NOTA
A 156. This is the surface tension between two liquids
a. interfacial tension c. adhesional force of attraction
b. cohesional force of attraction d. AOTA
D 157. The most stable surface active agents
a. anionics c. amphoterics
b. cationics d. nonionics
B 158. Surfactants with high HLB numbers are
a. lipophilic c. either a or b
b. hydrophilic d. neither a nor b
B 159. Hydrophilic surfactants can form
a. w/o emulsions c. either a or b
b. o/w emulsions d. neither a nor b
C 160. These are substances whose molecules and ions move of their own accord to the interface to low surface tension
a. surfactants c. either a or b
b. surface active agents d. neither a nor b
A 161. Surfactants that are used as w/o emulsifying agents have
a. low HLB values c. either a or b
b. high HLB values d. none of the above
D 162. Methods of determining surface tensions, except;
a. ring method c. drop weight method
b. capillary rise method d. none of the above
D 163. Give/s the temperature-volume relationship of gases at constant pressure
a. Combined Gas Law c. Boyle’s Law
b. Avogadro’s Law d. Charles’ Law
A 164. Law of stress and strain
a. Le Chatelier’s Principle c. Law of Conservation of Energy
b. Law of Mass Action d. NOTA
D 165. The ff. are true of electrolytes
a. colligative properties are higher than non electrolytes
b. conduct electricity
c. dissociate to form ions
d. AOTA
D 166. The ff. can decrease the rate of chemical reaction, except;
a. high energy of activation c. high temperature
b. presence of negative catalyst d. any of the above
D 167. Concentration versus time is linear
a. First Order reaction c. Third Order reaction
b. Second Order reaction d. Zero Order reaction
D 168. The ff. statements are true of first order reaction
a. the rate of the reaction depends on the concentration of the reactant raised to the first power
b. half life = 0.693/k
c. Drug ========= product
d. AOTA
C 169. Emulsions made with Spans are usually
a. unstable c. w/o
b. o/w d. reversible
B 170. This method makes use of the tonicity equivalent
a. “D” method c. White-Vincent Method
b. E method d. Sprowl’s Method
A 171. With RBC, a hypotonic solution will
a. cause hemolysis c. cause hemolysis and crenation
b. cause crenation d. neither cause hemolysis nor crenation
C 172. With the lacrimal fluid, a hypertonic solution will
a. cause hemolysis c. cause crenation
b. cause hemolysis and crenation d. neither caus ehemolysis nor crenation
D 173. With the physiologic fluid, an isotonic solution will
a. cause hemolysis c. cause crenation
b. cai=use hemolysis and crenation d. neither cause hemolysis nor crenation
A 174. Solutions of lower osmotic pressure than that of the body fluid are;
a. hypotonic c. isotonic
b. hypertonic d. NOTA
B 175. This is the accepted freezing point of the blood serum and the lachrymal fluid
a. 0.52ºC c. 0ºC
b. -0.52ºC d. NOTA
C 176. This is force per unit area

a. velocity c. pressure
b. acceleration d. work
A 177. Raoult’s Law is encountered in the determination of:
a. Vapor pressure c. Freezing Point
b. Boiling Point d. Osmotic Pressure
D 178. The temperature at which the vapor pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure
a. freezing point c. critical point
b. melting point d. boiling point
D 179. Sublimation is transformation of matter from
a. solid to liquid state c. vapor to liquid state
b. liquid to vapor state d. solid directly to vapor state
A 180. The anode is the
a. + electrode c. neutral electrode
b. – electrode d. NOTA
C 181. Dispersed systems possess this property
a. optical activity c. thixotropy
b. solubility d. tonicity
A 182. Yield value is the term used to denote
a. the force at which the flow begins c. the behavior of Newtonian fluid
b. the thixotropic nature of a substance d. AOTA
D 183. Most stable and most compatible surfactants in pharmaceutical preparations
a. anionics c. amphoterics
b. cationics d. non ioniocs
B 184. A physician needs 60 ml of an isotonic solution of 2% Tetracaine HCl. How many mg of NaCl should be included in
the formula? E Tetracaine HCL is 0.18
a. 160 mg c. 270 mg
b. 324 mg d. 540 mg
C 185. The ultimate separation of the two phases in an emulsion system is;
a. coalescence c. cracking
b. aggregation d. creaming
D 186. Factors that influence the rate of reaction include:
a. presence of catalysts c. concentration
b. temperature d. AOTA
C 187. Density is derived quantity that combines
a. volume and length c. mass and volume
b. mass and weight d. mass and pressure
B 188. The statement of expiration date assures the patient
a. Absence of toxicity c. complete absorption of drug
b. full therapeutic efficacy d. absence of interaction
A 189. An ideal gas is characterized by the complete ________ of attractive forces between molecules
a. absence c. uniformity
b. homogeneity d. diffusion
C 190. Tweens are surfactants derived from the esters of
a. polyvinyl alcohol c. sorbitant
b. methyl cellulose d. propylene glycol
B 191. A proton accepting solvent is
a. aprotic c. amphiprotic
b. protophilic d. protogenic
D 192. A proton donating solvent is
a. aprotic c. amphiprotic
b. protophilic d. protogenic
D 193. One of the ff. is a synthetic surfactant
a. acacia c. gelatin
b. bentonite d. sorbitan
C 194. A Swedish scientist who formulated the first theory of Ionization
a. Van’t Hoff c. Arrhenius
b. Raoult d. Newton
C 195. This gives the direct opportunity between shear stress and rate of shear
a. Raoult’s Law c. Amagat’s Law
b. Newton’s Law d. Dalton’s Law
B 196. This is shelf-life plus date of manufacture
a. half life c. quarantine time
b. expiration time d. NOTA
B 197. Given identical concentrations, this solution will show the greatest osmotic pressure
a. magnesium sulfate c. Potassium chloride
b. Ferric chloride d. Sodium chloride
B 198. The amount of the substance whose mass in grams is numerically equal to the molecular weight of the substance is
called
a. gram atom c. mass number
b. mole d. molecule
A 199. P1V1=P2V2 is the algebraic representation of

a. Boyle’s Law c. Dalton’s Law
b. Charles’ Law d. Amagat’s Law
A 200. This law states that under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, the speed of diffusion of two different
gases are inversely proportional to the square roots of their densities
a. Graham’s Law c. Dalton’s Law
b. Charles’ Law d. Amagat’s Law
A 201. The simplest of solutions
a. gas in gas b. liquid in liquid
b. solid in liquid d. gas in liquid
D 202. Colligative properties depend upon the
a. size of the particles in solution c. type of particle in solution
b. pH of the solution d. number of particles in solution
D 203. Of the colligative properties, this has the greatest importance in pharmaceutical practice
a. boiling point c. vapor pressure
b. freezing point d. osmotic pressure
A 204. This is the number of solute in 100 grams of the solution
a. percent by weight c. molarity
b. molality d. normality
A 205. A 20% solution by weight has
a. 20 g of solute and 80 g of solvent
b. 20 g solute and 100 g of solvent
c. 20 g of solute and 100 ml of solvent
d. NOTA
A 206. The other term for boiling
a. ebullition c. distillation
b. evaporation d. sublimation
B 207. Amount of heat needed at the boiling point to cause the vaporization of 1 g of substance
a. molar heat of vaporization c. molal heat of vaporization
b. specific heat of vaporization d. any of the above
C 208. One part of the solute dissolving in 1-10 parts of solvent is
a. soluble c. freely soluble
b. very soluble d. insoluble
A 209. This is used in separating highly viscous mixtures.
a. centrifugation c. distillation
b. filtration d. NOTA
A 210. The process by which finely divided solids and colloidal materials are separated from liquids without the use of filter is
a. clarification c. centrifugation
b. sedimentation d. NOTA
C 211. In colloidal dispersion, the dispersed system is called
a. dispersion medium c. internal phase
b. vehicle d. external phase
C 212. Freeze drying is called
a. stabilization c. lyophilization
b. vacuum freezing d. solubilization
B 213. The degradation reaction of aspirin involves:
a. epimerization c. isomerization
b. hydrolysis d. oxidation
B 214. It refers to the time required for 50% of the drug to be decomposed
a. expiration date c. shelf life
b. half life d. N OTA
A 215. A naturally occurring chelate involved in life processes:
a. chlorophyll c. Polymer
b. Carboxymethylcellulose d. Povidone
C 216. The half life equation for a first order reaction is
a. a/2k c. 0.693/k
b. 1/ak d. a/ak
A 217. The boundary between two phases is termed as:
a. interface c. both a and b
b. surface d. NOTA
B 218. The principles of solid-liquid adsorption are utilized in the ff. processes. Except;
a. adsorption chromatography c. detergency
b. foaming d. wetting
B 219. Compounds/mixtures of compounds that by their presence in solution, resist changes in pH;
a. organic compounds c. inorganic compound
b. buffers d. NOTA
A 220. An example of buffer pair:
a. Boric acid- sodium borate c. Hydrochloric acid-sodium chloride
b. Na hydroxide- Ammonium chloride d. any of the above
A 221. Atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but different mass number;
a. isotope c. protons
b. molecules d. electrons
C 222. The unit of surface tension is

a. poise c. dyne/cm
b. calorie d. joule
D 223. PV=nRT is the mathematical expression for:
a. Boyles Law c. Claussius Clapeyron equation
b. Charles’ Law d. Ideal Gas Law
C 224. The gram-molecular volume of a gas at STP is equal to:
a. 1.0 L c. 22.4 L
b. 2.24 L d. 22.4 ml
C 225. The properties of matter are usually expressed by the use of the ff quantities, except;
a. length c. density
b. mass d. time
A 226. The standard of mass is;
\ a. kilogram c. density
b. pounds d. specific
C 227. When a gas is cooled, it loses some of its kinetic energy in the form of heat, the velocity of the molecules;
\ a. increases c. decreases
b. not changed d. a and c
C 228. Specific gravity is the ratio of the;
a. density of the substance to that of alcohol
b. density of an oil to that of a substance
c. density of a substance to that of water
d. a and b
B 229. As to phase equilibrium, a system containing water and its vapor is considered as:
a. one phase system, c. three phase system
b. two phase system d. a and c
D 230. The physical properties of a solution/substance may be classified
a. colligative c. constitutive
b. additive d. compositive
A 231. A mixture of two or more components that form a homogeneous molecular dispersion forming a one phase system is:
a. true solution c. colloidal dispersion
b. coarse dispersion d. a and c
C 232. Substances that do not yield ions when dissolved in water and not conduct electric current through the solutions are;
a. electrolytes c. non electrolytes
b. solutes d. solvents
D 233. The temperature at which a pure liquid and solid exist in equilibrium is:
a. freezing point c. melting point
b. boiling point d. a and c
C 234. Interfacial phenomena in pharmacy and medicine are significant factors that affect the ff processes, except:
a. adsorption of drugs onto solid adjuncts
b. penetration of molecules through biologic medium
c. penetration of aqueous solution
d. emulsion formulation and formulation stability
C 235. Common method of determining particle size is, except
a. microscopy c. precipitation
b. sieving d. sedimentation
C 236. Rheology involves the study of:
a. description of the flow of liquids c. a and b
b. deformation of solids d. description of physical property of a substance
D 237. Body Fluid/s with freezing point of -0.52ºC is:
a. human blood c. saliva
b. lachrymal fluid d. a and b
D 238. Phenomenon applied to adsorption at solid surfaces is;
a. wetting property c. foaming property
b. detergency d. a and b
A 239. Resistance of a liquid to flow is:
a. viscosity c. suspendability
b. fluidity d. b and c
A 240. The science and technology of small particles
a. micromeritics c. microbiology
b. micronization d. microfiltration
B 241. Most effective means of sterilization at low temperature is;
a. dry heat c. tyndallization
b. moist heat d. inspissation
B 242. Volume occupied by the powder itself using a cylinder is;
a. void volume c. powder density
b. bulk volume d. true volume
A 243. Science which deals with the study of the relationship between heat and energy is;
a. thermodynamics c. thermophilic
b. thermokinetics d. thermal energy
B 245. Volume of the spaces between the particles of a powder is called;
a. bulk c. density
b. void d. a and b
A 246. Property of liquid systems that gels in the container but becomes fluid upon shaking is;
a. thixotropy c. diffusibility
b. dispersibility d. a and b
A 247. The following rheologic systems show a change in viscosity with a change in shear rate, except;
\ a. Newtonian c. dilatant
b. Plastic d. Pseudoplastic
D 248. Matter has a definite shape when it is:
a. liquid c. gas
b. mixture d. solid
B 249. Relationship between the buffer capacity of the buffer with the molar concentration of the components is;
a. inversely proportional c. not related
b. directly proportional d. equal
A 250. Size of colloidal dispersions compared to the size of molecules of solute in true solutions are;
a. larger c. smaller
b. same d. a and c
A 251. The ff. combinations are completely miscible, except;
a. water and ether c. alcohol and acetone
b. water and alcohol d. glycerin and refined alcohol
D 252. These substances form colloidal solutions, except;
a. albumin c. acacia
b. polyvinyl pyrrolidone (PVP) d. Na Lauryl Sulfate
A 253. The zigzag movement of colloidal particles
a. Brownian movement c. diffusion
b. tyndallization d. light scattering
B 254. One method used to adjust tonicity of a solution is by;
a. dilution c. adding a minimum amount of salt
b. cryoscopic d. a or b
D 255. The freezing point of a human blood is the same as:
a. tears c. gastric fluid
b. 0.9% NaCl d. a and b
B 256. Polymorphism is the presence of a drug in the ff number of crystalline forms;
a. one c. less than one
b. two d a and b
A 257. Bodies that exhibit plastic flow in non-Newtonian system is known as:
a. Bingham bodies c. coarse particles
b. Newton bodies d. b and c
A 258. The Liso of a drug is its molar concentration that will attain isotonicity based on;
a. freezing point depression of -0.52ºC
b. boiling point of 100ºC
c. melting point of 0ºC
d. any of the above
D 259. Ultrafiltration is similar to:
a. press filtration c. filtration using an ashless filter paper
b. asbestos pad filtration d. reverse osmosis
A 260. Most drugs are:
a. weak electrolytes c. non electrolytes
b. strong electrolytes d. highly ionic
B 261. For some drugs, the rate of solution is increased by:
a. freezing c. humidity
b. high temperature d. photolysis
C 263. Raoult’s Law is applied to the determination of:
a. boiling point c. vapor pressure
b. osmotic pressure d. freezing point
D 264. Powder fineness may be measured by:
a. spectroscopy c. sieve analysis
b. microscopy d. b and c
A 265. Decrease in viscosity is caused by:
a. increase in temperature c. increase in tonicity
b. decrease in temperature d. increase in pH
C 266. The process which involves vaporization and then condensation is
a. crystallization c. fusion
b. sublimation d. freezing
C 267. To increase solubility of endothermic substance
a. dissolve with the aid of ice c. apply heat during the process of dissolving
b. dissolve at room temperature d. NOTA
A 268. The dissolution rate apparatus consist of the following parts except;
a. basket rack assembly c. with a sampling tube
b. paddle as stirring device d. constant temperature bath
A 269. Example of additive property;
a. molecular weight c. electrolyte example
b. atomic weight d. ions present
C 270. Characteristics of an ideal solution:

a. reaction between substances present during storage
b. heat is evolved upon mixing the ingredients
c. no heat is evolved or absorbed during mixing
d. evaporation takes place upon storage.
B 271. Characteristics of a lyophobic substance;
a. easily wet by water c. easily wet by hydroalcohol
b. easily wet by a non polar solvent d. a and c
A 272. Dilatant flow is applicable to systems which;
a. increase in volume when stress is applied
b. decrease in volume when stress is applied
c. no change in volume when stress is applied
d. a and b
B 273. Thixotropy is a characteristic of gels which is:
a. hardens upon standing and after agitation
b. hardens upon standing but liquefies upon agitation
c. liquefies upon standing and after agitation
d. a and b
C 274. A system having a particle size that is intermediate between a true solution and a coarse dispersion, roughly 10-5000
angstrom is:
a. system c. colloidal dispersion
b. phase d. solution
B 275. The passage of a solvent into a solution through a semipermeable membrane is:
a. diffusion c. fractional distillation
b. osmosis d. microfiltration
A 276. Chelates belong to the same class of complexes known as:
a. metal complexes c. molecular complexes
b. ion-exchange compounds d. no bond complexes
C 277. This Law stresses that the higher the viscosity of a liquid, the greater the force per unit area (shearing stress) required
to produce a certain rate of shear:
a. rheology c. Newtonian Law of Flow
b. viscosity d. Non-Newtonian system
B 278. Plastic flow is associated with the presence of:
a. plastic materials c. deflocculated particles
b. flocculated particles d. a and c
D 279. What is the law which states that an acid is a substance that is capable of donating a proton, while a base is a substance
that is capable of accepting proton from an acid?
a. Faraday’s Law c. Debye and Huckle theory
b. Henry’s Law d. Bronsted-Lowry theory
A 280. He established the term “pH” and formulated the pH scale
a. Sorensen c. Henry
b. Debye d. Faraday
A 281. A solution in which there is no change in the property of components other than dilution when they are mixed:
a. ideal solution c. relative solution
b. true solution d. suspension
A 282. The first theory of ionic solution was prepared by _______ in 1887. He was also the one who formulated the theory of
electrolytic dissociation:
a. Arrhenius c. Raoult
b. Henry d. Morse
A 283. The total number of atoms in the molecule or the sum of the constituents in the solution is known as:
a. additive c. colligative
b. constitutive d. a and b
B 284. A property that depends on the arrangement to a lesser extent on the number and kinds pf atoms within the molecule:
a. additive c. colligative
b. constitutive d. summative
B 285. The migration of colloidal particles between the electrodes is:
a. dialysis c. tyndall effect
b. electrophoresis d. a and b
B 286. Decrease in solubility of non electrolyte by the addition of an electrolyte results in
a. separation c. hydrolysis
b. salting out d. reduction
A 287. The frictional forces in a loose powder can be measured by the:
a. angle of repose c. Hausner’s ratio
b. Carr’s compressibility index d. Any of the above
B 288. “Solvent-hating” colloidal system
a. lyophilic c. ampiphilic
b. lyophobi d. NOTA
A 289. Mayonnaise is an example of:
a. emulsion d. gel
b. suspension e. None of the choices
c. sol
B 290. Type of solution (based on forces of attraction) where there is complete uniformity of attractive forces:
a. real d. electrolyte
b. ideal e. non electrolyte
c. colligative
C 291. Migration of solute from a greater concentration to a lower concentration:
a. disintegration d. active transport
b. dissolution e. none of the choices
c. diffusion
A 292. This type of emulsion is transparent in character:
a. microemulsion c. simple emulsion
b. multiple emulsion d. AOTA
B 293. Spans are used for what type of emulsion?
a. simple o/w c. multiple
b. simple w/o d. microemulsion
C 294. Dipole-dipole interaction
a. ionic d. debye forces
b. covalent e. London forces
c. keesom forces
B 295. Ionization of a salt or formation of charged ions:
a. ion-induced dipole c. hydrogen bonding
b. ion dipole d. AOTA
B 296. The NaCl equivalent of ZnSO4 is 0.1. This means that
a. 1.0 g of NaCl represents 0.16 g ZnSO4
b. 0.16 g Na Cl is equivalent to 1 g ZnSO4
c. 0.16 g NaCl is equivalent to 0.16 g ZnSO4
d. NOTA
B 297. Hydrogen forms a bridge with the following, except;
a. Fluorine c. oxygen
b. Magnesium d. Polypeptides
B 298. The ff. are drug/pharmaceutical agents that exhibit polymorphism, except;
a. theobroma oil c. chloramphenicol
b. penicillin d. carbamazepine
A 299. Supercooled liquids in which molecules are arranged in a random manner
a. amorphous solids c. crystalline solids
b. liquid crystals d. powders
Philippine Association of Colleges of Pharmacy
PHARMACEUTICAL DOSAGE FORMS QUESTION
1. It is the process of comminution in which a paste is formed by combining the powder

material and a small amount of liquid in which the powder is insoluble.
I. levigation III. Spatulation
II. Pulverization by intervention
A. I only D. II and III
B. III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II
2. Powders containing deliquescent and hygroscopic materials should be wrapped in
what kind of paper?
I.Vegetable parchment III.Waxed paper
II.Glassine paper
B. III only E. I,II and III
C. I and II
3. This method is used when a small amount of potent substances is to be mixed
with a large amount of diluents.
A. Block and divide method C. geometric dilution E. trituration
B. Spatulation D. sifting
4. In preparing effervescent granulated salts, which of the following statement/s hold/s
true?
I. Effervescent granules can be prepared using two methods, the dry and
wet methods.
II. The effervcence from the released CO2 serves to mask the bitter or salty
taste of drugs.
III. Using tartaric acid as the sole acid would result in a sticky mixture which is
difficult to granulate.
A. I only C. I and II E. I, II and III
B. III only D. II and III
5. Which of the following powders can be classified as bulk powders?

I. Douche III. Insufflation
II. Dusting powder

C. I and II E. I, II and III
B. III only
6. The following statement/s hold/s true for capsules:

I. They are solid dosage forms in which material agents &/ or inert
substance are enclosed within a small shell of gelatin.
II. Gelatin capsules may be hard or soft depending on their composition.
III. Soft gelatin capsules are used by community pharmacist in the
extemporaneous compounding of prescriptions.
7. Normally how many % of water is contained in a hard gelatin capsule?
A. 8-10 C. 20-25 E.5-10
B. 12-16 D. 2-5
8. The largest size of hard, empty capsule that can be swallowed is :
A. 00 C. 00 E. 0
B. 000 D. 5
9. The following statement/s is/are true:
I. Gelatin is obtained by the partial hydrolysis of collagen obtained from the
skin, white connective tissue and bones of animals.
II. Although gelatin is insoluble in cold water, it does soften through the
absorption of up to ten times the weight of the water.
III. Gelatin is soluble in hot water and in warm gastric fluid; a gelatin capsule
rapidly dissolves and exposes its contents.
B. III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II
10. Prolonged exposure to high humidity can affect in vitro dissolution of capsules
containing:
I. tetracycline
II. Chloramphenicol
III. Nitrofurantoin
11. This chemical agent is used to render the capsule opaque:
A. titanium dioxide C. Magnesium oxide E. lactose
B. Sorbitol D. Silica
12. The following statement/s is/are true for soft gelatin capsules (SGC):
I. SGC is made of gelatin to which glycerin or a polyhydric alcohol has been
added.
II. Methyl parabens can be used as preservatives to retard microbial growth.
III.SCGs can be prepared using the “punch” method and also require opaquants
to reduce transparency and render characteristics feature to the capsule shell.
13. Types of liquids that may be encapsulated into soft gelatin capsules include the
following:
I. Vegetable and aromatic oils
II. Propylene glycol
III. Polyethylene glycols
14. Substances added to capsules must possess the following characteristic/s:
I. Are harmless in the quantities used
II. Do not exceed the minimum amounts required to provide their intended effect
III. Do not impair the product’s bioavailability, therapeutic efficacy or safety
15. These are compressed tablets coated with substances that resist dissolution in
gastric fluid but integrate in the intestine.
I. Film-coated tablets III. Enteric-coated tablets
II. Sugar-coated tablets
16. This type of coating imparts the same general characteristics as sugar coating with
the added advantage of greatly reduced time period required for the coating operation.
I. Enteric coating III. Film coating
II. Single-layer coating
17. These tablets were originally used by physicians in the extemporaneous preparation
of parenteral solutions.
I. Chewable tablets III. Hypodermic tablets
II. Dispensing tablets
18. Enteric-coated tablets have the following characteristic/s:
I. Have delayed-release features
II. The containing system used should only be aqueous-based and not organic-
solvent based to resist the breakdown in gastric fluids
III. Are intended to pass through the stomach intact to disintegrate and release their
drug-content for absorption along the intestines
A. I only C. I and III E. I, II and III
B. II & III D. III only
19. Example of materials used in enteric coating includes:
I. Shellac III. Polyvinyl acetate phthalate
II. Cellulose acetate phthalate
A. I only C. II only E. I, II and III
B. I and II D. II and III
20. The following statement/s is/are true for compressed tablets:

I. These are tablets formed by compression and may contain other special coating
if desired.
II. Tablet diameters and shapes are determined by the die and punches used in the
compression of the tablet.
III. They are made from powdered, crystalline or granular materials, alone or in
combination with binders, disintegrants, controlled-release polymers, lubricants,
diluents and colorants.
A. I only C. II only E. I, II and III
B. I and II D. II and III
21. This is a method of preparing tablets in which the powder mixture is compacted in
large pieces and subsequently broken down or sized into granules.
A. Wet granulation C. Direct compression
B. Dry granulation
22. For some granular chemicals like potassium chloride, this method of preparation is
of an advantage to use.
A. Wet granulation
B. Dry granulation
C. Direct compression
23. The problems most commonly encountered during direct compression include:
I. Capping III. Lamination
II. Splitting
A. I only D. III only
B. II and III E. I, II and III
C. I and III
24. For chemicals which do not possess cohesive and free-following properties, the
following excipients could be used to impart necessary qualities for the production of
tablets b direct compression.
I. Spray-dried lactose III. Fume silicon dioxide
II. Magnesium stearate
A. I only D. II only
B. I and II E. I, II and III
C. II and III
25. The following statement/s is/are true for wet granulation method:
I. Liquid binder is added to the powder mixture to facilitate the adhesion of the
powder particles
II. Over-wetting of the powder can result in granules that are too soft for proper
tableting and under-wetting can result in tablets that are too hard
III. Granules may be dried in thermostatically controlled ovens which constantly
record the time, temperature and humidity.
A. I only C. I & III E. I, II, III
B. I & II D. II & III
26. Lubricants contribute to the preparation of compressed tablets by:
I. Improving the flow of granulation in the hopper to die cavity
II. Preventing the adhesion of the tablet formulation to the punches and dies during
compression
III. Reducing friction between the tablet and die wall during the tablet’s ejection from
the tablet machine
A. I only B. I & II C. I & III
D. II & III E. I, II, III
27. A fluid-bed granulator performs which of the following steps?
I. Preblends the formulation powder, including active ingredients, fillers,

disintegrants, in a bed by fluidized air.
II. Granulates the mixture by spraying onto the fluidized powder bed, suitable liquid
binder, as an aqueous solution of acacia, hydroxypropyl cellulose or povidone
III. Drying the granulated product to the desired moisture content

28. Dry granulation:
Used for tablet
I. Ingredients that is sensitive to moisture or unable to withstand elevated
temperature during drying
II. One of the constituents, either the active ingredient or the diluents, must
have cohesive properties
III. Includes more number of steps than wet granulation

29. Aspirin, which is hydrolyzed on exposure to moisture, is prepared into tablet using
the dry granulation method. Other drugs which should be prepared using this process
include:
I. Ascorbic acid II. Methenamine III. Thiamine HCl
30. This process is a form of pelletization, which refers to the formation of spherical
particles from wet granulations.
A. Spheronization C. Compaction E. Double
B. Slugging D. Precompression compression
31. This method consists of bringing together a highly dispersed liquid and a sufficient
volume of hot air to produce evaporation and drying of the liquid droplets.
A. Spray drying C. Spray chilling E. Dry heating
B. Spray congealing D. Moist heating
32. Spray-dried powder particles possess the following characteristic/s:
I. They are homogenous, approximately spherical in shape and nearly uniform in
size.
II. Have low bulk density with rapid rate of solution
III. Preparation is less economical than other processes
A. I only B. III only C. I & II
33. This the only carbohydrate used in the preparation of compressed tablet which
possesses high heat stability.
A. lactose C. sucrose E. fructose
B. mannitol D. starch
34. The following statement/s is/are true used in the preparation of sugar-free chewable
tablets?
I. Mannitol is used as the excipient in most chewable tablets.
II. These tablets are formulated to disintegrate smoothly in the mouth with or
without active chewing.
III. These tablets are particularly useful for children and adults who have difficulty
swallowing other solid dosage forms
35. Which excipient/s is/are used in the preparation of sugar-free chewable tablets?
I. Lactose
II. Dextrose
III. Xylitol
A. I only C. I & II E. I, II, III
B. III only D. II & III
36. Tablet coating has the following advantage/s:
I. Protect the medicinal agent destructive exposure to air and/or humidity
II. Mask the unpleasant taste of the drug
III. Provide special characteristics of drug release
A. I only C. II & III E. I, II, III
B. I & II D. I & III
37. Film coated tablets possess the following characteristic/s:
I. Less resistant to destruction by abrasion than are sugar coated tablets
II. Coating may be colored to make tablets attractive and distinctive
III. Film-coating solutions may be non-aqueous or aqueous
A. I only C. II only E. III only
38. This substance provides water solubility or permeability to the film to ensure
penetration by body fluids and therapeutic availability of the drug.
A. alloying substance C. film former E. glossant
B. Plasticizer D. surfactant
39. Problems encountered on the use of aqueous based film coating solution include:
I. Slow evaporation of the solvent-based solutions
II. Expensive as compared to volatile solvents
III. Increased likelihood of water interference with the tablet formulation
A.I only C. I & III E. I, II, III
40. AQUACOAT is a commercially available water-based colloidal coating dispersion
which contains 30% ethyl cellulose pseudolatex. Pseudolatex dispersion has:
I. A high solid content for greater coating activity
II. Low viscosity which allows less water to be used in the coating dispersion
III. Low viscosity which permits greater coat penetration into the crevices of
monogrammed or scored tablets

41. This is a problem often encountered in film coating process characterized by
roughness of the tablet surface due to failure of spray droplets to coalesce.
A. peeling C. orange-peel effect E. bridging
B. picking D. mottling
42. This problem corresponds to the filling-in of the score line or indented logo on the
tablet by the film.
43. This problem is characterized by the appearance of small amounts of film fragments
flaking from the tablet surface.
44. The following statement/s is/are true for pills:
I. Are small, round, solid dosage form containing a medicinal agents and intended
to be administered orally
II. Have been replaced today by compressed tablets and capsules
III. Are placed in the mouth, where they dissolve slowly, liberating the active
ingredient
45. These are forms of oral medication which are discoid-shaped solids containing the
medicinal agent in a suitably flavored base.
I. Troches
II. Pastilles
III. Lozenges
46. The following drug is/are available in pellet forms:
I. Testosterone III. Desoxycorticoster
II. Estradiol one
47. This type of dosage form allows a reduction in dosing frequency to that presented
by a conventional dosage form.
A. Extended-release C. Repeat action E. Targeted release
B. Delayed-release D. Modified-release
48. This type dosage form is designed to release the drug form at a time other than
promptly after administration.
49. The following statement/s hold/s true for extended-release dosage forms:
I. There is reduction in drug blood level fluctuations.
II. There is frequency reduction in dosing
III. There is reduction in terms of adverse side effects.
A. I only C. II only E. I, II, III
50. In general, the drugs best suited for incorporation into an extended-release product
have the following characteristic/s:
I. Exhibit either very slow or very fast rates of absorption and excretion
II. Are uniformly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract
III. Used in the treatment of acute rather than chronic conditions
A. I only C. II only E. III only
51. This is process by which solids, liquids or even gases may be encapsulated into
miscroscopic size particles through the formation of thin coating of “wall” material
around the substance being encapsulated.
I. Microencapsulation
II. Microscoencapsulation
III. Micromeritics

52. The following statement/s is/are true when embedding drug in inert plastic matrix:
I. The drug is granulated with an inert plastic material such as polyethylene and the
granulation is compressed into tablets
II. The drug is rapidly released from the inert plastic matrix by diffusion.
III. The compression of the tablet creates the matrix or plastic form that retains its
shape during the leaching of the drug and through its passage through the
alimentary tract.
53. The effectiveness of the hydrophilic matrix systems is based on the successive
processes of:
I. Hydration of the cellulose polymer
II. Gel formation on the polymer’s surface
III. Tablet erosion and subsequent and continuous release of the drug
54. Which of the following statement/s on drug release form the dosage form is correct:
I. The release of the drug in a drug-resin complex is dependent upon the pH of the
GIT only.
II. The release of the drug in a drug-resin complex is dependent upon the pH and
the electrolyte concentration in the GIT.
III. Release is less in the acidity of the stomach than in the less acidic environment
of the small intestines.
A. Only the first statement is true
B. Only the second statement is true
C. The first two statements are true
D. The last two statement are true
E. All the true
55. These tablets are prepared so that an initial dose of drug is released immediately
followed later by a second dose.
56. The following statement/s is/are true for ophthalmic inserts:
I. Eliminates the problem of rapid loss of administered drug due to the blinking of
the eye and flushing of lacrimal fluids
II. The rate of drug diffusions is controlled by the polymer composition, membrane
thickness, and solubility of the drug.
III. Ocusert and lacrisert are example of ophthalmic inserts
57. These are solid dosage forms which are designed to be inserted under the skin by
special injectors or by surgical incision.
A. Implants C. Plasters E. Troches
B. Cachets D. Pills
58. The following should be observed in the use of oral modified-release dosage forms:
I. These products should not be crushed or chewed.
II. Nonerodible plastic matrix shells and osmotic tablets remain intact throughout GI
transmit and empty shell or “ghost” from osmotic tablets may be seen in stool
III. Patients being fed by enteral nutrition through a nasogastric feeding tube should
not receive this type of drug.
59. The release of a drug from an oral dosage form may be intentionally delayed until it
reaches the intestines for several reasons. The purpose may be:
A. to protect the drug destroyed by gastric fluids
B. to reduce gastric distress caused by drugs particularly irritating to the stomach
C. to facilitate GI transit for drugs which are better absorbed from the intestines
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
60. It is the most common “wall” forming material used in microencapsulation.
A. lactose C. dextrose E. starch
B. gelatin D. sorbitol
61. The following statement/s is/are true for ointments:
I. These are semi-solid preparations intended for external application to the skin or
mucous membranes.
II. They may be medicated or nonmedicated
III. Nonmedicated ointments are used as protectants, emollients or lubricants.
B. I & II D. III only
62. The following statement/s is/are true for hydrocarbon bases:
I. Also termed as oleaginous bases
II. Have an emollient effect and are effective as occlusive dressing
III. Permit the incorporation of powdered substances with the use of a levigating
agent
63. Yellow ointment is an example of
A. Hydrocarbon base D. Water-removable
B. Oleaginous base base
C. Absorption base E. A& B
64. The following ointment base/s is/are classified as hydrocarbon base/s:
I. Petrolatum
II. White ointment
III. Polyethylene Glycol Ointment
65. Petrolatum, USP is:
A. A purified mixture of semi-solid hydrocarbons from petroleum that has been
wholly or nearly decolorized
B. Also known as Yellow ointment
C. Is also known as white Vaseline
D. Water-soluble
E. Water-washable
66. Yellow ointment USP is:
I. Also called as “Simple Ointment”
II. Has Yellow wax and petrolatum as the main ingredients
III. Bleached and purified wax obtained from the honeycomb of the bee, Apis
mellifera
67. The following statement/s is/are true for absorption bases:
These bases permit the incorporation of aqueous solution resulting in the formation of
water-in-oil emulsions
These bases are not easily removed from the skin with water
These bases may be used as emollient although they do not provide the degree of
occlusions afforded by hydrocarbon bases.
68. Hydrophilic petrolatum is:
A. Hydrocarbon base
B. Oleaginous base
C. Absorption base
D. Water-removable base
E. Water-soluble
69. Lanolin USP:
I. Is classified as hydrocarbon ointment base
II. Contains not more than 2% of water
III. Is a purified, wax-like substance that has been cleaned, deodorized and
decolorized
70. These are ointment bases which resemble creams in appearance.
A. Hydrocarbon base
B. Water-soluble base
C. Absorption base
E. Oleaginous base
71. The following statement/s is/are true for Hydrophilic Ointment USP:
I. When preparing, stearyl alcohol and white petrolatum are melted together at 90
degrees
II. Stearyl alcohol and white petrolatum comprise the oleaginous phase of the
emulsion
III. Sodium lauryl sulfate acts as the emulsifying agent
A. I only D. II & III
B. III only E. I, II, III
C. I & II
72. These ointment bases are referred to as “greaseless” bases.
A. Hydrocarbon base
C. Absorption base
E. Oleaginous base
73. Polyethylene glycol Ointment, NF is:
A. Hydrocarbon base
C. Absorption base
E. Oleaginous base
74. The following statement/s is/are true for ointment base:
I. Water-soluble bases have the ability to absorb serous discharges
II. Hydrocarbon bases can remain on the skin for prolonged periods of time without
drying out
III. Water-removable bases can also be called as water-soluble bases.
B. I & II D. II only
75. The following statement/s is/are true for the preparation of ointment using the
incorporation method
I. By this method, the components are mixed until a uniform preparation is attained
II. This method does not involved the process of levigating
III. Mortar and pestle or spatula may be used to rub the ingredients together on an
ointment slab
76. The following statement/s is/are true about levigation:
I. Levigation allows both reduction of particle size and the dispersion of the
substance in the vehicle.
II. Glycerin is the levigating agent used for bases where water is the external phase
III. The amount of levigating agent used should be about equal in volume to the solid
maerial.
77. The following statement/s is/are true for the preparation of ointments by fusion:
I. All or some of the components of an ointment are combined by being melted
together and cooled with constant stirring until congealed.
II. Heat-labile substances are added last when the temperature of the mixture is low
enough.
III. Medicated ointments containing beeswax, paraffin, stearyl alcohol are prepared
using this method.
78. These are semi-solid preparation containing one or more medicinal agents
dissolved or dispersed in either an oil-in-water emulsions or in another type of water-
washable base.
A. Creams C. paste E. lotion
B. gel D. ointments
79. The following statement/s is/are true:
I. Vanishing creams are water-in-oil emulsions containing small amounts of water.
II. Creams find primary application in topical skin products and in products used rectally
and vaginally
III.Ointments are preferred more by patients due to ease of spreadability
80. These are semi-solid systems consisting of dispersion of small or large molecules in
an aqueous liquid vehicle rendered jelly-like through the addition of a gelling agent.
A. Creams C. Gelatin E. Pastes
B. Gel D. Ointments
81. The following statement/s is/are true regarding gels:
I. Gels may thicken on standing, forming a thixotrope and must be shaken before
use.
II. Milk of magnesia is an example of a single-phase gel
III. Gels and jellies are two different terms
82. The following statement/s is/are true for pastes:
I. They generally contain a smaller proportion of solid material than ointments.
II. They are less greasy and less stiffer than their counterpart ointments due to
reduced amount of based used.
III. They remain in place after application and are effectively employed to absorb
serous secretions.
A. I only C. I&III E. I, II, III
B. I&II D. III only
83. Zinc oxide paste:
I. Can be applied to hairy parts of the body
II. Prepared by levigating and mixing 25% each of zinc oxide and starch with white
petrolatum
III. Also known as Lassar’s Plain Zinc Paste
A. I only C. I&III E. I, II
B. III only D. II&III
84. These are solid or semi-solid adhesive masses spread upon a backing material of
Paper, fabric, moleskin or plastic
A. Creams
B. Plasters
C. Paste
D. Ointments
E. Lotion
85. How many % of glycerin is contained in a glycerogelatin preparation?
A. 15% C. 40% E. 10%
B. 35% D. 5%
86. The following statement/s is/are true for glycerogelatins:
I. They are applied to the skin for long term residence
II. They are intended to be swallowed just like gelatin capsules
III. They are applied to the affected area with affine brush
87. Zinc Gelatin:
I. Jelly
II. Used to treat varicose ulcers
III. Glycerogelatin
88. The following statement/s is/are true for topical agents:
I. Pastes offer even greater occlusion and more effective than ointment at
absorbing serous discharge
II. Ointment spread more easily than creams.
III. These agents also include ophthalmic solutions, suspensions, and inserts.
A. I only B. III only C. I&III
D. II&III E. I, II, III
89. The ointment base selected for an ophthalmic ointment must possess the following
characteristic/s:
I. Non-irritating to the eye
II. Permits the diffusion of the medicinal substance throughout the secretions
bathing the eye
III. Have a softening point close to the body temperature
90. The use of ophthalmic ointments and gels offers the following advantage/s:
Provides extended residence time on the surface of the eye
Blurring of vision can be encountered
Increase the bioavailability for absorption into ocular tissues
91. The factor/s which play/s a part in percutaneous absorption is/are:
I. Molecular weight III. solubility
II. Partitioning coefficient
A.I only C. I&II E. I, II, III
B. II only D. II&III
92. The following statement/s is/are true about percutaneous absorption:
I. The amount of drug percutaneously absorbed per unit of surface area per time
interval increase as the concentration of the drug substance in the transdermal
drug delivery system is increased.
II. The hydration of the skin hinders percutaneous absorption
III. The longer the period of time the medicated application is permitted to remain in
contact with the skin, the greater will be the total drug absorption.
93. The following statement/s is/are true about percutaneous absorption:
I. Drugs penetrate through the skin better in their unionized form.
II. Non-polar drugs tend to cross the cell barrier through the lipid-rich regions
(transcellular route) whereas the polar drugs favor transport between cells
(intracellular)
III. More drugs are absorbed when the drug substance is applied and concentrated
on a smaller surface area.
94. The selection of a permeation enhancer in developing a TDDS should be based on:
I. Efficacy in enhancing skin permeation
II. Biocompatibility with other components
III. Physicochemical compatibility with other components
95. The design objectives of TDDS include:
I. To deliver the drug at an optimal rate of the skin for percutaneous absorption at
the therapeutic levels
II. To adhere well to the patient’s skin and have a patch-size, appearance and site-
placement that encourage patient acceptance
III. To occlude the skin to ensure the one-way flux of the drug into the stratum
corneum
96. Transdermal Drug Delivery System:
I. Avoids gastrointestinal drug absorption difficulties
II. Avoids the occurrence of contact dermatitis
III. Drug therapy cannot be terminated rapidly.
97. The following can be formulated as TDDS
I. Scopolamine
II. Nicotine
III. Clonidine
98. Which of the following statement should be considered in the use of TDDS?
I. Rotating locations within the recommended site should be avoided in the
application of replacement patches.
II. Wet or moist skin can hinder drug permeation beyond that which is intended
III. Use of skin lotions should be avoided at the application site because they affect
skin hydration and can also alter the partition coefficient between the drug in the
TDDS and the skin.
99. This layer functions to store and release the drug at the skin-site.
A. occlusive backing membrane
B. release-liner
C. matrix system
D. hydrophilic layer
E. Adhesive layer
100. TDDS offers the following advantage/s:
I. Avoid first-pass effect
II. Provide extended therapy with a single application
III. Non-invasive
101. The following statement/s hold/s true for suppositories:
I. They are solid dosage forms of various weights and shapes, usually medicated,
for insertion into the rectum, vagina, or urethra.
II. After insertion, they soften, melt, disperse or dissolve in the cavity fluids.
III. They are intended to exert local effects only.
102. Pessaries:
I. Usually globular or oviform and weighs 2g each when cocoa butter is the base
II. Employed principally to combat infections occurring in the female genitourinary
area
III. The most commonly used base consist of combination of the various molecular
weight PEG

103. Rectal suppositories:
I. Pediatric suppositories are more narrow and pencil-shaped than the typical
bullet-shaped adult suppository
II. Suppositories intended for female are about half the length and weight of the
male counterpart.
III. Have both local and systemic effects
A. I only C. I&II E. I, II, III
B. III only D. I&III
104. The following statement is/are true:
I. The dose of the drug administered rectally may be greater than or less than the
dose of the same drug given orally.
II. A rectum that is void offers greater absorption than a rectum distended with fecal
matter.
III. Lymphatic circulation is not involved in the absorption of rectally administered
drugs.

105. Rectal absorption is affected by both physiologic and physicochemical factors.
Physiologic factors would include:
I. pH
II. colonic contents
III. lack of buffering capacity
106. In choosing a suppository base, one needs to assess if:
I. The base remains solid at room temperature but softens, melts or dissolves
readily at body temperature
II. The active ingredient would be released more readily from the base
III. The base is compatible with the other components in all aspects

107. Glyceryl monopalmitate is an example of this type of suppository base.
A. Fatty base C. Water-soluble base E. Absorption base
B. Water-miscible base D. Miscellaneous base
108. This type of suppository base includes mixtures of fatty and water-soluble bases.
A. Fatty base
B. Water-miscible base D. Miscellaneous base
C. Water-soluble base E. Absorption base
109. Cocoa butter:
I. Because of triglyceride content, it exhibits marked polymorphism
II. Phenol and chloral hydrate can increase its melting point when incorporated with
it.
III. The β form has a greater stability and melting point.

110. This suppository base is the most frequently used for vaginal suppositories.
A. glycerinated glycerin
B. PEG
C. cocoa butter
D. polyoxyl 40
E. Wecobee base
111. the most frequently employed method in the preparation of suppositories both on
small scale and on industrial scale is:
A. molding C. hand rolling E. melting
B. compression D. hand shaping
112. Suppositories of which ointment bases are suitable for preparation by molding?
I. Cocoa butter
II. Glycerinated gelatin
III. PEG
113. In the preparation for compression into molds, the suppository base and other
formulative ingredients are combined by thorough mixing. Which of the following
statement/s hold/s true for this method?
I. Friction causes the base to soften into a paste like consistency.
II. Compression is suited for making suppositories containing medicinal substances
that are heat stable
III. Mortar and pestle can be used for small scale preparations.
114. The pharmacist should inform the patient about the proper use of suppositories.
This should include:
I. Suppositories should be allowed to warm to room temperature before insertion if
they are to be stored in a refrigerator.
II. Glycerinated gelatin or PEG suppositories should not be allowed to come in
contact with moisture in any case.
III. Bullet-shaped rectal suppositories should be inserted point-end first.

115. The packaging and storage of the suppositories is very important to prevent the
environment and moisture induced deterioration or loss of activity. The guidelines for
packing and storage should include:
I. Suppositories from cocoa butter base are usually individually wrapped or
otherwise separated in compartmentalized boxes.
II. Suppositories from cocoa butter base must be stored below 30◦C preferably in a
refrigerator.
III. Suppositories from PEG bases may be stored at usual room temperature without
the requirement for refrigeration.
116. Solutions are liquid preparations that contain one or more chemical substances
dissolved in a suitable solvent or mixture of mutually miscible solvents. Which of the
following solvents may be used in the preparation of solutions?
I. Alcohol USP III. Glycerin, USP
II. Propylene Glycol, USP
117. Next to water, alcohol is the most useful solvent in pharmacy. The following
statement/s is/are true for alcohol:
I. It is preferred often because of its miscibility with water and its ability to dissolve
many water-insoluble ingredients.
II. When alcohol is already used, propylene glycol should not be added anymore
because the two solvents are immiscible
III. Alcohol USP contains not less than 99.5% C2H5OH by volume.
118. Glycerin is a clear syrupy liquid with a sweet taste and may be used as a solvent
for the preparation of solutions. Other feature/s of this solvent is/are:
I. Miscible with water but not with alcohol
II. Has preservative qualities and is used as stabilizer
III. Solutes are slowly soluble in it unless rendered less viscous by heating
119. Ordinary drinking water obtained from tap is not generally acceptable for the
manufacture of most aqueous pharmaceutical preparations or for the extemporaneous
compounding of prescription mainly because of:
I. The chemical incompatibilities that may result from the combination of dissolved
solids present and the medicinal agent being added
II. Precipitation, discoloration and occasional effervescence
III. The difference between the use of purified and ordinary tap water is of no
consequence.
120. Purified water, USP:
I. Obtained by distillation, ion-exchange treatment, reverse osmosis or other
suitable process
II. Intended for use in the preparation of aqueous dosage forms other than
parenterals
III. 1000 times more free of dissolved solids than is water
121. The main methods used in the preparation of purified water are distillation and ion-
exchange. In distillation:
I. The first 5% of the aqueous distillate must be discarded
II. The last portion of the water about 100% of original volume, remaining in the
distillation apparatus must be discarded
III. Water purified in this manner is referred to as demineralized water
B. II only D. II & III
122. The ion-exchanged process involves the passage of water through a column of
cation and anion exchangers. As compared to the distillation process, this method:
I. Has simpler equipment and thus, permits case of operation
II. Eliminates the use of heat
III. Has costly and troublesome maintenance of equipment
A. I only D. II & III
B. I & II E. I, II, III
C. I & III
123. Water impurities like calcium and magnesium can be removed by:
A. ion-exchange
B. absorption
C. filtration
D. distillation
E. reverse osmosis
124. This method of preparing purified water removes virtually all virus, bacteria,
pyrogens, organic molecules and 90-99% of all ions.
I. Distillation
II. Ion-exchange
III. Reverse osmosis
A. I only C. III only E. I, II, III
125. Some chemicals are only slowly soluble and require an extended time for
dissolving. In this case, the pharmacist should employ:
I. Application of heat
II. Reduction of the particle of the solute
III. Rigorous agitation during the preparation
126. The following statement/s is/are true for the application of heat in the dissolution of
some chemicals in a particular solvent:
I. Many medicinal agents are destroyed at elevated temperature and the
advantage of rapid solution may be completely offset by deterioration.
II. Elevated temperatures cannot be maintained for pharmaceuticals and the net
effect of heat is simply an increase in solubility
III. Application of heat for calcium salts is highly recommendable.
127. Certain antibiotics which have insufficient stability in aqueous solutions are
available in dry powder mixtures ready for reconstitution. Example of these mixtures
would include:
I. Cloxacillin Na for oral solution
II. Oxacillin Na for oral solution
III. Penicillin V Potassium for oral solution
128. Magnesium Citrate Oral Solution is a colorless to slightly yellow, clear, effervescent
liquid having a sweet, acidulous taste and lemon flavor. Which of the following
statement is/are correct regarding its preparation?
I. In carbonating the solution the bicarbonate may be added in tablet form rather
than as a powder.
II. Magnesium carbonate is reacted with excess citric acid.
III. It is required to contain an amount of magnesium citrate equivalent to
between 1.55 and 1.9 g MgO in each 100 mL
129. These are concentrated, aqueous preparations of a sugar or a sugar-substitute
with or without added flavoring agents and medicinal substances.
I. Syrups
II. Honeys
III. Juice
130. Most syrup contains the following component/s.
I. Flavorants
II. Colorants
III. Antimicrobial preservatives
131. Syrups are useful as diluting agents for water-soluble drugs and act as both
solvent and flavoring agents. Which medicated syrup can be used to disguise the taste
of urea?
I. Acacia syrup
II. Glycyrrhiza Syrup
III. Aromatic Eriodyctyon Syrup
B. II only D. I & III
132. Most syrup contains a high proportion of sucrose, usually 60-80%. Which of the
following statement/s hold/d true?
I. Sucrose is used because of its desirable sweetness and viscosity of such
solutions
II. The aqueous sugar medium of dilute sucrose solution is an efficient nutrient
medium for the growth of microorganisms.
III. Concentrated sugar solutions may no longer require addition of preservatives.
133. Syrup, NF:
I. Simple syrup
II. Prepared by dissolving 85g of sucrose in enough purified water to make 100 ml
III. Has a specific gravity of 1.313
134. The amount of preservative required to protect syrup against microbial growth
varies with the proportion of water available for growth. What is the usual effective
concentration of benzoic acid as a preservative?
A. 1% C. 0.1-0.2% E. 10%
B. 1-2% D. 0.01-0.02%
135. Example of preservatives used in the preparation of syrups would include:
I. Sodium benzoate
II. Glycerin
III. benzoic acid

136. Syrups are most frequently prepared depending on the physical and chemical
characteristic of the ingredients. This method would include:
I. Solution with the aid of heat
II. Solution by agitation without the aid of heat
III. Addition of sucrose to a Medicated Liquid or flavored liquid

137. Syrups prepared using solution with the aid of heat method applies when it is
desired to prepare the syrup as quickly as possible. However, there are limitations
on using this method and these limitations include:
I. Can be used only when the components are not damaged or volatilized by
heat
II. Inversion of sucrose might occur
III. Caramelization might occur
138. Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I. Syrups prepared by solution by agitation without the aid of heat method is
more stable than syrups prepared with the aid of heat.
II. Syrups can be sterilized by autoclaving.
III. The viscous nature of syrups permits easy dissolution of the solids to be
added.
139. Which method is used in the preparation of ipecac syrup?
I. Solution with the aid of heat
II. Solution by agitation without the aid of heat
III. Percolation
140. Elixirs:
I. Are clear, sweetened, hydroalcoholic solutions intended for oral use
II. Can be medicted or nonmedicated like syrups
III. Those containing 2-5% alcohol are usually self preserving
141. The relative sweetness of aspartame when compared to sucrose is
A. 1:1 C. 180:1 E. 550:1
B. 30:1 D. 300:1
142. Compared with syrups, elixirs are:
I. Less sweet but more viscous
II. Less effective in masking the taste of medicinal substance
III. Sweeter but less viscous
143. Elixirs can be prepared by which method/s?
I. Solution by agitation
II. Admixture of Two or more liquid ingredients
III. Percolation
144. Tinctures are alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solutions prepared from vegetable
materials or from chemical substances.
The following statement/s is/are true about tinctures:
I. The alcoholic content protects against microbial growth and keeps the alcohol-
soluble extractives in solution.
II. They must be tightly stoppered and not exposed to excessive temperatures.
III. They contain high alcoholic content.
145. Tinctures of potent drugs for which no proportion of active principles has been
fixed, shall have the strength of:
A. 10% by weight
B. 20% by weight
C. 40% by weight
D. 50% by weight
146. These are aqueous or oleaginous solutions in the form of coarse droplets or as
finely divided solids to be applied topically, most usually to the nasal-pharyngeal tract or
skin.
A. Sprays C. lotions E. AOTA
B. inhalants D. tinctures
147. These are clear, saturated, aqueous solutions of volatile oil or other aromatic or
volatile substances.
A. medicated water
B. spirits
C. aromatic waters
D. A & C
E. AOTA
148. Aromatic waters may be prepared by distillation or solution of the aromatic
substance with or without the use of a dispersing agent. Example of these preparation
include:
I. Stronger rose water
II. Peppermint water
III. Peppermint spirit
149. Peppermint Spirit USP is prepared by:
A. Solution with maceration
B. Chemical reaction
C. Distillation
D. Fermentation
E. Simple solution
150. This preparation is an aqueous solution directed against a part or into a cavity of
the body.
A. douche C. enema E. insufflations
B. irrigation D. gargle
151. The following statement/s hold/s true for douches:
They function as cleansing or antiseptic agent
They are most frequently dispensed in the form of a powder with directions for
dissolving in a specified quantity of water
They are usually directed to the appropriate body part by using bulb syringes.
152. Enemas are employed to evacuate the bowel, influence the general system by
absorption or to affect a local disease.
Which of the following statement/s hold/s true for enemas?
I. They may possess anthelmintic, nutritive, sedative, or stimulating
properties
II. They may contain radiopaque substances for roentgenographic
examination of the lower bowel.
III. Evacuation enemas are to be retained in the intestine and should not be
used in larger quantities than 150 ml for an adult.
153. In using evacuation enemas, the pharmacist should advise the patient to:
I. Squeeze all of the contents out of the disposable plastic bottle
II. Gently insert the rectal tip with steady pressure
III. Take note that the product will most probably work within 5 to 10 minutes.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & II
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
154. Because irrigation solutions come in contact with exposed tissues, they must meet
stringent requirements of the USP such as:
I. Sterility
II. Total solids
III. Bacterial endotoxins
155. Mucilages:
I. Are thick, viscid, adhesive liquids produced by dispersing gum in water
II. Are resistant to decomposition
III. Used primarily to aid in suspending insoluble substances in liquid
156. Acacia mucilage NF XII differs from Tragacanth Mucilage BPC in that:
I. Acacia mucilage contains alcohol and chloroform water while Tragacanth Mucilage
does not
II. Acacia mucilage contains benzoic acid as a preservative while Tragacanth Mucilage
does not
III. Acacia mucilage show maximum viscosity at pH 5.
A. I only B. II only C. I & II
157. Jellies are a class of gels in which the structural coherent matrix contains a high
portion of liquid usually water. They are used as lubricants for:
I. Surgical gloves
II. Catheters
III. Rectal thermometers
158. Pyroxylin is obtained by the action of which acid/s on cotton?
I. Nitric acid
II. Hydrochloric acid
III. Sulfuric acid
159. Pyroxylin consists chiefly of cellulose tetranitrate and has the appearance of raw
cotton when dry but is harsh to the touch. Other features of pyroxylin include:
I. Exceedingly flammable
II. Soluble in acetone but not in glacial acetic acid
III. One part is slowly but completely soluble in 25 parts of a mixture of 1 volume of
ether and 3 volume of alcohol.
160. Flexible collodion is prepared by adding castor oil and camphor to collodion. How
many percent of castor oil required in this preparation?
A. 3% C. 2% E. 1%
B. 5% D. 0.5%
161. Salicylic acid collodion contains how many percentage of salicylic acid in flexible
collodion?
A. 3% C. 10% E. 1%
B. 5% D. 15%
162. Salicylic acid collodion finds its use as:
I. Keratolytic agent III. Corn remover
II. Wart remover
163. Liniments are alcoholic or oleaginous solutions or emulsions of various medicinal
substances intended for external application to the skin with rubbing. They may be used
as:
I. Counterirritant II. Astringent III. rubefacient
164. The following statement/s is/are true for liniments:
I. They are not applied to broken skin because excessive irritation might result.
II. Oleaginous liniments are more irritating to the skin than alcoholic liniments
III. Oleaginous liniments are employed primarily when massage is desired.
B. II only D. I & II
165. Glycerin or glycerites contain ______of glycerin.
A. 50% C. 10% E. 0.5%
B. 25% D. 1%
166. These are concentrated preparations of vegetable or animal drugs obtained by the
removal of the active constituents of the respective drugs with the suitable menstrual
and evaporation of all or nearly all of the solvent.
A. fluid extract C. extractive E. macerate
B. distillate D. extraction
167. This is a method of extraction in which the properly comminuted drug is permitted
to soak in the menstruum until the cellular structure is softened and penetrated by the
menstruum and the soluble constituents is dissolved.
A. percolation C. decoction E. evaporation
B. infusion D. maceration
168. This method of extraction is a process in which the soluble constituent of a
comminuted drug is extracted by the slow passage of a suitable solvent through a
column of the drug.
A. percolation C. decoction E. evaporation
B. infusion D. maceration
169.These preparation are made so that each mL contains the therapeutic constituents
of 1g of the standard drug that it represents.
A. fluid extract C. extractive E. distillate
B. macerate D. infusate
170. This is a form of extract which is of a plastic consistency, prepared with nearly all
of the menstruum removed.
I. Pilular II. Solid III. Semiliquid
171. The particles of the dispersed phase vary widely in size, from large particles visible
to the naked eye down to the particles of colloidal dimensions, falling between 1.0nm
and 0.5 um in size. Dispersions containing particles of 10-50um in size are referred as:
A. coarse dispersions C. fine dispersions E. soluble dispersions
B. colloidal dispersions D. ultra-fine dispersions
172. Fine dispersion includes:
I. Emulsions II. Gels III. Magmas
173. Coarse dispersion includes:
I. Emulsions II. Gels III. Magmas
174. Suspensions are prepared because some drugs are chemically unstable when in
solution but stable when suspended. Other reason/s for preparing suspensions
include/s:
I. flexibility in the administration of certain doses
II. Ease of swallowing especially for children as compared to solids
III. The undesirable taste of the drugs can be masked.
175. Therapeutic efficacy, chemical stability of components and permanency of
preparation should all be considered in the preparation of suspensions. Other desirable
qualities of suspensions should include:
I. Settle slowly and be easily redispersed upon gentle shaking of container
II. The particle size if the suspensoid remains fairly constant throughout long periods of
undisturbed standing
III. The contents should pour easily and readily from its container.
176. Viscosity agent decreases the rate of settling of deffloculated particles or provides
the stability in flocculated suspensions. Other desirable qualities of suspension should
include/s:
I. Acacia gum III. Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose
II. PVP

177. This is a process of particle size reduction in which the shearing action of high
velocity compressed air stream on the particles in a confined space produces the
desired ultrafine or micronized particles.
I. micropulverization III. Fluid energy grinding
II. jet-milling
178. The following statement/s is/are true of flocs or floccules:
I. It is measures which avoid the formation of a cake in suspensions.
II. It has a less rigid or loose aggregation of particles held by weak particle-to-particle
bonding forces.
III. It settles more rapidly than fine particles
A. I only B. II only C. II & III
D. I & II E. I, II, III
179. Which of the following can function as flocculating agents?
I. Bentonite Magma III. Benzalkonium chloride
II. KCl
180. Wetting agents are used to make the powder more penetrable by the dispersion
medium. These agents include;
I. Glycerin II. PVP III. Alcohol
A. I only C. I & III
E. I, II, III
181. The following should be observed during packaging and storage of suspensions:
I. All suspensions should
II. They should be stored in tight containers protected from freezing, excessive heat and
light
III. Extemporaneously prepared suspensions should be placed in light resistant
containers.
182. In emulsion terminology, the dispersed phase is referred to as:
I. internal phase III. Continuous phase
II. External phase
183. If the oleaginous phase is the internal phase, then the emulsion is referred to as:
A. o/w emulsion C. w/o emulsion
B. o/w/o emulsion D. w/o/w emulsion
184. The absorption of which drugs can be enhanced when prepared n the form of oil-
in-water emulsion?
I. Griseofulvin II. Sulfonamides III. Vitamin A
185. Emulsions offer a number of advantages over other liquid dosage forms.These
include:
I. The therapeutic properties and the spreading ability of the constituents are increased
II. Taste or odor of oil can be masked partially or wholly
III. The absorption and the penetration of medicaments are controlled more easily
186. In preparation an emulsion, a third phase called the emulsifying agent is
necessary. Which of the following are classified as natural emulsifying agent/s?
I. Acacia
II. bentonite
III. lecithin
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & III
D. I & II
E. I, II, III
187. Synthetic emulsifying agents are most effective at lowering the interfacial tension
between the oil and water phases.
Examples of these agents include:
I. Veegum
II. Benzalkonium chloride
III. cholesterol
188. This theory of emulsification assumes monomolecular layers of emulsifying agent
curved around a droplet of the internal phase of the emulsion.
A. surface tension theory
B. plastic-film theory
C. oriented wedge theory
D. interfacial film theory
E. molecular layer theory
189. This theory places the emulsifying agent at the interface between the oil and water,
surrounding the droplets of the internal phase as thin layer of film adsorbed on the
surface of drops.
I. interfacial film theory III. molecular layer theory
II. interfacial film theory
190. This emulsifying agent has a disadvantage of producing emulsions that are too
fluid and which becomes more fluid upon standing.
A. gelatin C. egg yolk E. bentonite
B. casein D. lecithin
191. The following agent/s can be used as thickening agent/s:
I. agar
II. stearyl alcohol
III.cetylalcohol

192. In small scale extemporaneous preparation of emulsion, these methods may apply:
I. Dry gum method III. Forbes method
II. Wet gum method
193. In this method, the emulsifying agent is mixed with the oil before the addition of
water.
I. Dry gum method III. Forbes method
II. Wet gum method
194. Which of the following statement/s hold/s true for emulsion:
I. In its preparation, if alcohol is needed, add it directly to the primary emulsion to avoid
its volatilization.
II. Bottle method is suited for viscous oils
III. A mortar with a rough rather than smooth inner surface must be used in triturating
the emulsifier with oil in dry method preparation.
B. III only D. I & II
195. These are thermodynamically stable, optically transparent, isotropic mixtures of a
biphasic oil-water system stabilized with surfactant.
A. microemulsion C. W/O/W emulsion E. W/O emulsion
B. auxillary emulsion D. O/W emulsion
196. An emulsion is considered to be physically unstable if:
I. The internal or dispersed phase upon standing tends to form aggregates of globules
II. Large globules rise to the top or fall to the bottom of the emulsion to form a
concentrated layer of internal phase
III. All or part of the liquid of internal phase
197. Which of the following statement/s is/are true:
I. Creaming is a reversible process
II. Breaking is a reversible process
III. Sedimentation is an irreversible process
198. Mineral oil emulsion is a/an:
A. o/w emulsion C. w/o emulsion E. microemulsion
B. o/w/o D. w/o/w emulsion
199. This is used for preparing fluidextracts with boiling water as the menstruum,
alcohol being added as a preservative to a concentrated percolate.
A. Process A B. Process B C. Process D
D. Process E E. Process C
200. This is an alternative for process A in which percolation is conducted on a column
of drug much greater in length than in diameter.
A. Process A C. Process D E. Process C
B. Process B D. Process E
201. This is a percolation method that can be modified for fluidextracts that must be
assayed.
A. Process A C. Process D E. Process C
B. Process B D. Process E
202. It is the taking up of a certain amount of liquid without a measurable increase in
size.
A. Syneresis C. imbibition E.Xerogelation
B. Swelling D.Thixotrophy
203. Xerogels are formed when the liquid is removed from a gel and only the framework
remains. Examples of these are:
I. gelatin sheets III. Acacia tears
II. tragacanth ribbons
204. A classification of gels which would include ingredients that are dispersible as
colloidal or soluble in water is called hydrogels. Example of hydrogels includes:
I. Carbowax bases II. Bentonite III. Silica
205. Magnesium aluminum silicate, also known as Veegum, in concentrations of
_______, form firm, thixotropic gels.
A. 10% C. 2% E. 0.5%
B. 5% D. 1%
206. In the preparation of gels, the following statement/s hold/s true:
I. Inorganic salts would cause gelation to occur at higher concentrations.
II. Alcohol may cause precipitation or gelation
III. Higher concentration and higher molecular weights of polymers would produce
stronger gels.
207. Bentonite magma is a preparation of ____ bentonite, a native, colloidal hydrated
aluminum silicate, in purified water.
A. 10% C. 5% E. 0.5%
B. 2% D. 1%
208. Aluminum hydroxide gel is an aqueous suspension of a gelatinous precipitate
composed of insoluble aluminum hydroxide and the hydrated aluminum oxide,
equivalent to about ____of aluminum oxide.
A. 1% C. 5% E. 3%
B. 2% D. 4%
209. Milk of Magnesia, USP is a preparation containing between 7 and 8.5 % of
magnesium hydroxide. The following statement/s hold/s true regarding its preparation:
I. 0.1% citric acid may be added
II. Flavoring oils should exceed 0.05% concentration but not more than 2% to enhance
the palatability of the preparation.
III. The preparation should be stored in tight containers preferably at temperature above
and freezing and below 35◦C
210. Gels are defined as semi-solid systems consisting of dispersions made up of either
small inorganic particles or large organic molecules enclosing and interpenetrated by a
liquid. Other feature/s of these preparations include/s:
I. Some gels are clear as water in appearance while others are turbid.
II. Gels are considered as colloidal dispersions
III. Carbowaxes are gels
211. These are pressurized dosage forms containing one or more active ingredients
which upon actuation emit a fine dispersion of liquid and/or solid materials in gaseous
medium.
A. aerosols C. inhalations E. nebulizers
B. inhalers D. insufflators
212. Aerosols intended to carry the active ingredient to a surface are termed:
I. space spray II. Surface spray III. Surface coatings

213. Aerosols offer the advantages of:
I. portion of medication may be easily drawn from the package without contamination or
exposure to the remaining material
II. Topical medication may be applied in a uniform, thin layer to the skin without touching
the affected area
III. Protection of medicinal agents adversely affected by atmospheric oxygen and
moisture
214. Fluorinated hydrocarbon gases:
I. may be liquefied b cooling below their boiling point
II. May be liquefied by compressing the gas at room temperature
III. are liquid at room temp.
215. The usual aerosol valve assembly is composed of the following parts:
I. actuator II. Housing III. Gasket
216. Compressed gases may be used to prepare aerosols. The use of nitrogen:
I. will result in the emission of the product in essentially the same form as it was placed
in the container
II. Contributes adversely to the odor and taste of product
III. Offers protection on products subject to oxidation
217. These materials may be used in the manufacture of aerosol containers:
I. glass II. Metals III. Plastics
218. In compressed gas filled aerosols:
I. there is no reservoir of propellant
II. Lower gas pressures are required as compared to liquefied gas filled aerosols
III. Gases like carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide may be used
219. The use of topical aerosols:
I. can be used easily in applying medication to small area
II. The procedure of applying the preparation to desired surface area is less messy than
with most other types of topical preparations.
III. Provides a means of applying the drug in a convenient way
220. In the filling of aerosol containers with propellant, which of the following is/are
observed to be true?
I. In the cold method, both the product concentrate and the propellant must be cooled to
temperature of 30◦F to -40◦F
II. There is less danger of moisture contamination of the product in cold filling over the
pressure filling
III. Less propellant is lost in the process of pressure filling.
221. Sterile water for injection:
I. must be pyrogen-free
II. May not contain an antimicrobial agent
III. May contain a slightly greater amount of total solids than Water for Injection
222. Sterilization by filtration depends upon the removal of microorganisms by
adsorption on the filter medium or by sieving mechanism. Major advantages of this
method include:
I. speed in the filtration of small quantities of solution
II. Ability to sterilize effectively thermo labile materials
III. Inexpensive
223. Ethylene oxide:
I. may be used to sterilized heat-sensitive and moisture-sensitive materials
II. May be substituted by propylene oxide gas
III. exerts its action by denaturation and precipitation
224. This process means the complete destruction of all living organism and their
spores or their complete removal from the prepration.
A. Sterilization C. disinfection E. decontamination
B. asepsis D. antisepsis
225. USP specifies restrictions on the fixed vegetable oils which may be employed in
parenteral products. These include:
I. they must remain clear when cooled to 10◦C
II. They must not contain mineral oil or paraffin
III. They must contain no polyunsaturated fatty acids
226. Ringer’s Injection USP contains:
A. Sodium chloride only
B. Sodium chloride and potassium chloride
C. Sodium chloride and calcium chloride
D. Sodium chloride, potassium chloride and calcium chloride
E. Sodium chloride and sodium lactate
227. Bacteriostatic water for injection:
I. One or more antimicrobial agents
II. Packaged in pre-filled syringes or in vials containing not more than 100 ml
III. Only to be used in parenterals that are administered in small volumes
228. Single dose container:
I. Hermetic container
II. Example is ampul
III. Permits withdrawal of successive portions of the contents
229. In most heat sterilization, spores of which microorganism are most commonly
employed?
A. Bacillus stearothermophilus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Bacillus pumilus
D. Clostridium botulinum
E. Clostridium perfringens
230. Dry heat sterilization is usually carried out in sterilizing ovens specifically designed
for this purpose. Which of the following characterize/s this method?
I. Higher temperature and prolonged exposure are required
II. Works by denaturation and coagulation of some of the organism’s essential protein
III. May be used for fixed oils, mineral oil and petroleum products
A. I only
B. II only
C. I & III
D. II & III
E. I, II, III
231. It is an electrochemical method that enhances the transport of some solute
molecules by creating a potential gradient through the skin tissue with an applied
electrical current or voltage.
A. iontophoresis C. ultrasonophoresis E. electrophoresis
B. sonophoresis D. phonophoresis
232. Iontophoresis induces an increased migration of ionic drugs into the skin by
electrostatic repulsion at the active electrode: negative ions are delivered by the
cathode and positive ions by anode. The advantages of this process include:
I. Eliminates gastrointestinal incompatibility, erratic absorption and first pass metabolism
II. Reduces side effects and interpatient variability
III. Avoids the risks of infection, inflammation
233. Rapidly –dissolving drugs:
I. designed as orally administered drugs for patients that have difficulty swallowing
standard tablets/ capsules
II. disintegrate and dissolves within 30-60 seconds in the mouth
III. Friability is an inherent problem
234. The following statement/s is/are true for radiopharmaceuticals:
I. It is a radioactive pharmaceutical agent or drug that is used for diagnostic or
therapeutic procedures.
II. They are used as tracers of physiological processes.
III. Incidence of adverse effect is very low
235. This container protects the contents from extraneous solids and from loss of the
article under ordinary conditions of handling, shipment, storage and distribution.
A. well-closed container D. light-resistant container
B. tight container E. amber-colored bottle
C. hermetic container
236. A freezer is:
A. cold place C. excessively cold place
B. cool place D. refrigerator temperature
237. These injections are administered into the corium of the skin, usually in volumes of
about a tenth of a milliter.
A. intravenous C. intramuscular
B. intradermal D. epicutaneous
E. subcutaneous
238. Some drugs are administered rectally for their local effects and others for their
systemic effects. Which of the following are true regarding the rectal administration of
drugs?
I. Rectal administration may be preferred for those drugs destroyed or inactivated by the
environment of stomach and intestine
II. Approximately 505 of a dose of drug absorbed from rectal
III. Absorption of drugs from the rectum is frequently irregular and difficult to predict.
239. Subcutaneous administration of drugs involves their injection through the layers of
the skin into the loose subcutaneous tissue. Which of the following statement/s is/are
true about this kind of administration?
I. vasodilator may be used to enhance subcutaneous absorption of drugs
II. All substances, weather lipid soluble or not, cross the capillary membrane at rates
that are much more rapid than the rates of their transfer across other body membranes.
III. After injection, the drug comes into the immediate vicinity of blood capillaries and
permeates them by diffusion or filtration.
240.These substance are used to prevent the dying out of preparations due to the
agent’s ability to retain moisture.
A. levigating agent C. plasticizer E. occluding agents
B. humectant D. antioxidant
241. Glidants are agents used in tablet and capsule formulations to improve the flow
properties of the powder mixture. Examples of these are:
I. Talc III. magnesium stearate
II. colloidal silica
242. This is an agent used to dissolve another pharmaceutic substance or a drug in the
preparation of solution.
A. solvent C. chelating agent E. solubilizer
B. vehicle D. co-solvent
243. Butylated hydroxyanisole and butylated hydroxytoluene are examples of:
A. antioxidants C. clarifying agents E. co-solvents
B. humectants D. buffering agents
244. Cinnamon, orange and raspberry flavors may be used to make ____drugs more
palatable.
A. salty C. sour E. rancid
B. bitter D. pungent
245. Benzalkonium chloride, cresols, and phenylmercuric nitrates are examples of:
A. stiffening agent C. coloring agents E. ranti-oxidants
B. preservatives D. buffering agents
246. The term “soluble” refers to parts of solvent hat can dissolve one part of solute is:
A. 10-100 C. 10-30 E. 1-10
B. 30-100 D. less than 1
247. The similarity of gargles with mouthwashes is:
I. antiseptic use III.Formula
II. Site of action
248. It is a process of strongly heating organic substances with access to air.

A. Carbonization C. Ignition E. Drying
B. Calcinations D. Incineration
249. When tinctures are prepared from single vegetable drugs, the amounts of crude
drugs used to prepare 100 ml of the tincture generally for potent drug is:
A. 10g C. 50g E. 100g
B. 20g D. 75g
250. The following substances may be used as colorants:
I. caramel II. red ferric oxide III. yellow mercuric oxide
251. The release of an ingredient from the packaging component into the contents is
best described by the term:
A. sorption C. permeation E. dissolution
B. leaching D. diffusion
252. The disadvantages of using sodium saccharin as a sweetening agent is/are:
I. less sweet than sucrose
II. has a cariogenic potential and is contraindicated to phenylketonurics
III. has bitter after taste
253. The following method/s is/are considered as comminution technique/s:
I. Spatulation III. Pulverization by intervention
II. Trituration
254. Brandy and whisky are prepared by means of:
I. Distillation III. Chemical reaction
II. Solution with maceration
255. These are very fine powders intended for the different body cavities like ears,
nose, etc.
I. dusting powder II. douche powder III. insufflations
256. Vanishing creams are the most common creams available in the market due to
large amount of water contained and an acid called:
A. salicylic acid C. stearic acid E. undecylenic acid
B. benzoic acid D. acetic acid
257. Juices have the advantage over artificial flavor in that these are:
I. sweeter II. More stable III. Natural
258. Oleovitamins generally consist of:
I. Vitamin A II. Vitamin D III. Vitamin B
259. Spiritus frumentis is also called
A. brandy C. Whisky E. AOTA
B. rum D. A & C
260. This type of water is specific for multidose parenteral products.
A. water for injection
B. Sterile Water for injection
C. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection
D. Sterile Water for Inhalation
E. Purified Water
261. This is a process of redistilling one or more fresh delicate drugs with small
quantities of volatile products.
A. steam distillation C. maceration E. reverse osmosis
B. cohobation D. reflux distillation
262. Which of the following substances is/are needed when compounding Magnesium
Citrate solution?
I. sodium bicarbonate
II. magnesium citrate
III. magnesium carbonate
A. I only B. II only C. I & III

D. I & II E. I, II, III
263. Main constituent/s present in toothache drops:
I. menthol II. eugenol III. benzoate
264. Most widely used container for aerosols:
A. glass C. tin-plated steel E. glassine paper
B. plastic D. aluminum
265. Lanolin differs from wool fat in that lanolin:
A. contains less water
B. has been further purified
C. contains more water
D. is obtained from natural sources
E. contains a greater quantity of cholesterol
266. This substance is used to replace part of cocoa butter to obtain the proper melting
point.
A. vegetable oil
B. petrolatum
C. glycerin
D. gelatin
E. white wax
267. Rose water ointment differs from Petrolatum rose water ointment because the
former contains:
A. mineral oil C. sodium borate E.cetyl ester wax
B. white wax D. almond oil
268. Petrolatum USP is not soluble in
A. chloroform C. ether E. petroleum ether
B. ethyl alcohol D. benzene
269. A very fine powdered chemical is defined as one that will
A. completely pass through a # 80 sieve
B. completely pass through a # 120 sieve
C. completely pass through a # 20 sieve
D. completely pass through a # 60 sieve and not more than 40% through a #100 sieve
E. completely pass through a # 80 sieve and not more than 60% through a #60 sieve
270. Camphor is usually milled by which of the following techniques?
A. trituration
B. levigation
C. geometric dilution
D. attrition
E. pulverization by intervention
271. Unit dose packaging for tablets or capsules is exemplified by
I. strip packaging III. wide mouth bottles
II. blister pack
272. Ingredients in toothache drops:
I. oil of cloves II. alcohol III. benzocaine
273. Controlled room temperature means that the temperature is maintained
thermostatically between:
A. 15-30 ◦C C. 8-15 ◦C E. -4-8 ◦C
B. 25 ◦C D. 30 ◦C
274. Gels belong to:
A. dispersion C. solution E. creams
B. emulsion D. ointments
275. HLB value needed for an oil-in-water type of emulsion:
A. 8-18 C. 1-5 E. 1-12
B. 3-6 D. 6-12
276. Which of the following preparations is a saturated solution?
A. aromatic water C. emulsion E. extract
B. elixir D. solution
277. Magnesium stearate is used in tablet manufacturing as:
A. lubricant C. binder E. diluent
B. source of Magnesium D. disintegrant
278. Instability of emulsion is caused by:
I. creaming II. sedimentation III. electrolytes
279. A eutectic mixture in powders occurs when:

I. there is lowering in melting point III. Efflorescence
II. Hygroscopic mixture
280. Bulk powders are:
A. insufflations C. dentrifices E. AOTA
B. douche powders D. A & B
281. In the infusion method of making cocoa butter suppositories, which substance is
most likely to be used to lubricate the mold?
A. mineral oil C. cetyl alcohol E. magnesium silicate
B. propylene glycol D. stearic acid
282. A very fine powdered chemical is defined as one that:
A. completely pass through a # 80 sieve
B. completely pass through a # 120 sieve
C. completely pass through a # 20 sieve
D. completely pass through a # 60 sieve and not more than 40% through a #100 sieve
E. completely pass through a # 80 sieve and not more than 60% through a #60 sieve
283. Which solution is used as an astringent?
A. Strong Iodine Solution USP
B. Aluminum Acetate Topical Solution USP
C. Acetic Acid NF
D. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit USP
E. Benzalkonium Chloride Solution USP
284. The particles in an ideal suspension should satisfy which of the following criteria?
I. Their size should be uniform
II. They should be stationary or move randomly
III. They should remain discrete
285. Mechanisms that are thought to provide stable emulsification include the:
I. formation of interfacial film
II. Lowering of interfacial tension
III. Presence of charge on the ion
286. Ceramic mortar may be preferable to a glass mortar when:
I. volatile oil is added to a powder mixture
II. colored substances are mixed into the powder
III. Comminution is desired in addition to mixing
287. The particle size of the dispersed solid in a suspension is usually greater than
A. 0.5 mm C. 0.3 mm E. 0.1 mm
B. 0.4 mm D. 0.2 mm
288. Forms of water that is suitable for use in parenteral preparations:

I. Purified water, USP
II. for injection, USP
III. Sterile Water for Injection, USP
289. The sedimentation of particles in a suspension can be minimized by:
I. adding sodium benzoate
II. Increasing the viscosity of the suspension
III. Reducing the particle size of the active ingredient
290. Substances used to insulate powder components that liquefy when mixed include:
I. talc
II. Kaolin
III. Light magnesium oxide
291. The following statement/s is/are true for Cold Cream:

I. It is oil-in-water emulsion
II. The use of almond oil rather than mineral oil makes a more stable cream.
III. Cold cream prepared with almond oil makes a better emollient base.
292. Which type of soaps form an o/w emulsion?
I. alkali soap
II. Metallic soap
III. Polyvalent soap
293. The USP permits ___% of sulfur dioxide to prevent decomposition of gelatin during
manufacture of hard gelatin capsules.
A. 5%
B. 0.5%
C. 1%
D. 0.15%
E. 10%
294. Colors and dyes disguise off-color drugs, provide product identification and product
identification and produce a more aesthetically appealing product. Which type of dye is
typically used as dry powder?
A. Lakes
B. F & D
C. D & C
D. F D & C
E. AOTA
295. Adsorbents are inert substances which hold quantities of fluid in an apparently dry
state. Examples of adsorbents include:
I. MgO
II. Mg carbonate
III. Bentonite
296. Witepsol bases contain natural saturated fatty acid chains between C12 and C18.
Which of the following fatty acids is its major component?
A. Lauric acid
B. Myristic acid
C. Stearic acid
D. Palmitic acid
E. Oleic acid
297. Witepsol bases offer the following characteristic:
I. They exhibit polymorphism like cocoa bases
II. They solidify rapidly in the mold
III. The interval between softening and melting temperature is very small
298. Wecobee bases have an action similar to that of Witepsol bases. Wecobee bases
are derived from:
A. mineral oil
B. coconut oil
C. almond oil
D. olive oil
E. cocoa butter
299. Acacia is classified as a natural emulsifying agent. It is usually as a___%
dispersion in water.
A. 35
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50
E 30
300. Unlike acacia, tragacanth does not contain the enzyme oxidase which catalyzes
the decomposition of organic chemicals. Tragacanth is usually used as a ____%
dispersion in water.
A. 10%
B. 6%
C. 20%
D. 30%
E. 15%
MANUFACTURING PHARMACY
1. A class of raw materials, which are to be subjected to tests and assays by the Quality Control
department, and are not yet to be use in the production of pharmaceuticals;
A. Approved for use materials C. Quarantined materials
B. Rejected materials
2. A standard document, which give instructions to the Production Department to produce a pharmaceutical
product for distribution/sale in the market;
A. Batch Production Record C. Master Formula
B. Finishing Order D. Manufacturing Order
3. A section of the warehouse which houses products which have been bottled, stripped or blister-packed,
but not yet labelled or packed into boxes/cartons. And are still awaiting the final disposition of the Quality
Control Department;
A. Finished Goods Section C. Returned Goods Section
B. In-Process Section D. Raw Materials Section
4. The Planning and Scheduling Division coordinates with this department on what products are required for
supply and market distribution, then plans and schedules the manufacture of the product;
A. Marketing C. Inventory Control
B. Purchasing D. Production Control
5. A method of filling liquids wherein the product is pumped, at constant pressure, through an orifice of
constant diameter and size. The fill amount is measured by the stroke of the piston;
A. Volumetric
B. C. Gravimetric
C. Constant level
6. An important parameter in the quality control of tablets, shown to be related to the tablet’s solubility
properties;
A. Tablet Thickness C. Filter cloth, non-woven
B. Tablet Disintegration D. All of the above
7. A special technique for poorly-soluble drugs, in which it is improved by the addition of a water-miscible
solvent, in which the drug will have increased water solubility;
A. Solubilization C. Complexation
B. Chemical modification D. Co-solvency
8. A class of preservative, which are often used for ophthalmic, nasal and parenteral products, but in oral
liquid preparations;
A. Mercurials C. Aldehydes
B. Quaternary ammonium compounds D. All of the above
9. A filter media composed of nylon, Teflon, PVC and silver. It is employed fo the micro-filtration of
parenteral solution;
A. Membrane Filter Media C. Filter cloth, non-woven
B. Filter cloth, woven D. All of the above
10. The following are the effects of Product Recalls to a drug-manufacturing firm;
A. Financial Loses C. Harmful and Bad Publicity
B. Mix-ups and Errors D. All of the above
11. Overages in the manufacture of pharmaceuticals are justified on the ff. conditions;
A. Clinical studies show that the average is therapeutically safe
B. The labile/unstable active cannot be possibly standardized
C. The overage allows for the equilibrium of the active within acceptable limits
D. All of the above
12. It refers to the addition of an active in an unstable pharmaceutical preparation, to compensate for the loss
during manufacture;
A. Chemical modification of the drug C. Manufacturing allowances
B. Manufacturing Overages D. All of the above
13. It refers to the rapid formation of emulsion droplets or aggregates due to the absence of a protective
barrier at the oil-water interface and the insufficient emulsifier surface overage;
A. Creaming C. Flocculation
B. Sedimentation D. Coalescence
14. For the pharmaceutical emulsions, the oil phase is restricted to this oil, unless otherwise, it is the specified
active of the product;
A. Olive oil C. Cottonseed oil
B. Corn oil D. Mineral oil
15. A class of finely divided solids that influence emulsification of polar solids by its tendency to be wetted by
water, and to be wetted by the oil phase of non-polar solids;
A. Eggyolk, cholesterol, gelatine C. TWEENS, SPANS, Carbowax
B. Bentonite, veegum, magnesium trisilicate D. All of the above
16. Examples of antioxidants incorporated into cosmetic type of emulsion;
A. Butylatedhydroxyanisole C. Butylatedhydroxytoluene
B. Tocopherol D. All of the above
17. An equipment thet mixes the components of emulsions by means of various impellers on shafts, which
are placed directly into the system to be emulsified;
A. Rotor stator C. Mechanical stirrers
B. Colloid mill D. ultrasonifiers
18. Raw materials of hydrocarbon nature, which are widely used in the manufacture of semi-solids, next to
water;
A. Petroleum jelly C. White wax
B. Mineral oil D. Paraffin
19. Raw materials which are widely used as humectants in semi-solids to prevent “crusting” in ointment and
creams contained in jars;
A. Glycerin C. Sorbitol, 70%
B. Propylene Glycol (low MW) D. All of the above
20. An absorption type of an ointment used for ophthalmic preparations;
A. Soft petroleum, sterile C. Lanolin, anhydrous
B. White wax D. Ozokerite
21. A method of manufacture of anhydrous ointments wherein the active/s are dissolved in the previously
melted mixtures of fats and waxes, at controlled temperatures;
A. Fusion method C. Levigation
B. Trituration/incorporation D. All of the above
22. A type of stability test, which involves temperatures in 10-degree increments. This test is performed to
identify the products of degradation of a product;
A. Real time stability test C. Stress test
B. Accelerated stability test D. All of the above
23. A method of preparation of suspensions, wherein finely divided powders are dispersed in an appropriate
liquid vehicle, with the aid of a surfactant, to ensure uniform wetting of hydrophobic surfaces;
A. Precipitation method C. Double decomposition
B. Dispersion method D. All of the above
24. The cause of capping, chipping and lamination of compressed tablets;
A. Wear and tear punches and die cavities
B. Difficulty in cleaning monograms which enclosed areas
C. Poor flow rate of granulations
D. Unequal lengths of the lower punches
25. In precipitation method of preparing suspensions, particle size control is important. For suspensions
intended for parenteral and inhalation us, the ideal particle size range is;
A. 1 micron and below C. 1 to 5 microns
B. 5 to 8 microns D. 8 to 10 microns
26. This equipment produces finely divided particles by spraying a mist of liquid through a heated chamber,
drying immediately and collecting the dried powders in a clean receptacle;
A. Micronization C. Freeze-drying
B. Homogenization D. Spray-drying
27. A parenteral route of administration in which an aqueous solution is preferred for optimum absorption. It
produces instantaneous pharmacological effect, since the drug is directly introduced into the bloodstream;
A. Intraspinal C. Intramuscular
B. Intravenous D. Subcutaneous
28. The potential sources of pyrogens in the manufacture of parenterals;
A. Contaminated water and solutes C. Contaminated equipments
B. Manufacturing methods D. All of the above
29. Air sampling techniques used for the environmental control test in the parenteral work area;
A. Collection of particulate matter, by drawing a sample through a clean sterile membrane filter
B. Collection of air sample into a measured volume of nutrient broth agar in an impinge
C. Drawing measured volume of air through a slit sampler
D. All of the above
30. An equipment, which allows for the draft-free flow of air cover over the parenteral work area, by providing
a total sweep of the confined area;
A. HEPA filter C. Membrane filter media
B. Laminar flow enclosure D. All of the above
31. When filling sterile powders into vials, the filling equipment employs a/an____in the sem of the funnel at
the bottom of the hopper. It regulates the volume of granular material into the vial to avoid clogging;
A. Indexing stars C. Filling wheel
B. Augers D. both B and C
32. Process/es that give/s rubber closure less friction, to enable easier mechanical insertion onto vials;
A. Halogenization C. Carbonization
B. Siliconization D. Both A and B
33. A more effective method of sterilization. Killing microorganisms through coagulation of its cell protein. It
also destroys vegetative forms of bacteria and spores at 121 C for 20 minutes at 20 psi;
A. Dry heat method C. Fractional method
B. Moist heat method D. Gas sterilization method
34. A non- thermal form of sterilization, which is used in the reduction of air-borne microbes, roduced by
mercury vapour lamps. This method has poor penetration capability;
A. Ultraviolet radiation C. Inspissation
B. Ionization method D. Tyndallization
35. An in-vitro method of pyrogen test based on the gelling or color development of pyrogenic preparation in
the presence of lysate on the amoebecytes of the horseshoe crab;
A. Qualitative fever response in rabbits C. Qualitative fever response in mice
B. Limulus method D. All of the above
36. Most biological are store at this temperature;
A. 2 – 8 °F C. 2 – 8 °C
B. 12 – 8 °F D. 12 – 8 °C
37. Parenteral products, which should be packed as single-dose medication;
A. Intraspinal C. Epidural
B. Intracisternal D. All of the above
38. Examples of primary packaging components;
A. Rubber stoppers C. Blister/strip packs
B. Cotton fillers D. Both A and B
39. A mechanism involved in the preparation of sustained release tablets, wherein the drug material is
applied with relatively thin coating material, ranging from several tenths of micron to 5000 microns in size;
A. Use of ion-exchange resins
B. Embedding the drug in a slowly eroding matrix
C. Embedding the drug in a plastic matrix, from which it is leached
D. Microencapsulation
40. A part of tablet press, which distributes the granulation material into the die cavities;
A. Hopper C. Upper and lower punches
B. Feed shoe/frame D. Auger
41. An ideal property of tablet granulations in which the material forms a stable, compact mass when
pressure is applied;
A. Compressibility C. Flow rate
B. Fluidity D. All of the above
42. The preferred bulking agent for chewable tablets, which provides an excellent mouth-feel, due to its
pleasant, cooling effect;
A. Sucrose C. Mannitol
B. Microcrystalline cellulose D. Lactose
43. This raw material can be used as a tablet diluents, disintegrant and binder;
A. Avicel C. Celutab
B. Lactose D. Cornstarch
44. The ff. statements are true for glidants/lubricants in tablet granulation;
A. Oppose the efficiency of the binder and the physical forces that act under compression
B. Cause the adhesion of powder to form granules
C. Causes a compressed tablet to break apart when placed in an aqueous medium
D. Reduce interparticulate friction, thereby improving the rate of flow of granulation
45. Carbowax 400, leucine, talc and colloidal silicon dioxide are employed as____.
A. Diluents C. Granulating agent
B. Lubricant D. Disintegrant
46. A method of preparation of tablets whose components are sensitive to moisture and elevated
temperatures, during drying, yet possess inherent cohesive properties;
A. Dry granulation method C. Pre-compression method
B. Direct compression D. All of the above
47. A method of preparing tablet granulations, wherein the powders are de-aerated and passes between two
rollers, forming a thin cake, which is screened to form granules;
A. Use of chilsonator C. Spheronization
B. Slugging D. Pelletization
48. An equipment, which alternatelycombine and draw apart the tablet material, as this equipment revolves.
Ideal for precise blending of dry-to-dry or dry-to-liquid materials, with short processing times;
A. Twin or V Shell Blender C. Conical Blender
B. Planetary Blade Mixer D. Horizontal Ribbon Mixer
49. An equipment, which delivers a reliable and uniformly mixed dried product, without the necessity for pre-
mixing. It produces a dry granulation from a wet powder mix;
A. Tray Dry Oven C. Granulator/Fluid Bed Dryer
B. Tablet Deduster D. All of the above
50. The critical operation in sugar coating process of tablets leading to a 50% to 100% increase in tablet
weight. This is the basis of an elegant tablet profile;
A. Sealing C. Subcoating
B. Smoothing D. Color coating
51. An enteric film-former material, which is not soluble in a slightly acid pH media;
A. Shellac flakes C. Cellulose acetate phthalate
B. Povidone D. Carboxymethylcellulose
52. It refers to the separation of the concentrated emulsified droplets from the discontinuous phase;
A. Flocculation C. Creaming
B. Coalescence D. Sedimentation
53. A type of gelatine blend, which contributes to plasticity and clarity to the blend, thus reducing haze or
cloudiness of the finished capsules;
A. Calf skin gelatine C. Pork skin gelatin
B. Calf bone gelatine D. Hydroxypropylmethylcellulose
54. The most common method of manufacture of hard gelatine capsules that uses completely automatic
machine, consisting of mechanisms for dipping, spinning, drying, stripping and joining the capsules;
A. Plate process C. Rotary Die method
B. Pin method D. Reciprocating Die method
55. The temperature at which empty hard gelatine capsules should be stored;
A. 100 °F C. 100 °C
B. 70 °C D. 70 °F
56. Aside from the property of fluidity, tablet granulations should also possess;
A. Flowability C. Solubility
B. Cohesiveness D. Compressibility
57. Pharmaceutical suspensions are evaluated by;
A. Particle size measurement C. Sedimentation volume
B. Viscosity D. Colloidal power
58. The coalescence of globules in an oil-in-water emulsion is an indication of;
A. Cracking C. Creaming
B. Flocculation D. Phase intervention
59. An adjunct used to prevent topical preparations from drying out of forming a “cruct” of the surface;
A. Sweetening agent C. Emollient
B. Preservative D. Humectant
60. Anteroom, which separates the sterile areas from non-sterile areas;
A. Laminar Flow enclosure C. Air curtain
B. Air lock D. HEPA filter
61. CGMP means;
A. Current Good Manufacturing Practice C. Current General Manufacturing Practice
B. Current General Manufacturing Program D. Current Good Manufacturing Program
62. Suppositories are made by;
A. Fusion or melt molding C. Cold compression
B. Rolling or hand-shaping D. Any of the above
63. USP requires that Dissolution Test should be carried out at;
A. 36.5 to 37.5 C C. 25 – 30 C
B. 39 C D. Any of the above
64. LAL stands for;
A. Limulus Antibiotic Lysate C. Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate
B. Lyophilized Antibiotic Lysate D. Lyophilized Amoebocyte Lysate
65. In real Time stability studies, the climatic conditions of the Philippines is classified as;
A. Mediterranean C. Hot and Dry
B. Temperate D. Hot and Humid
66. Long term stability studies, is also known as;
A. Accelerated stability studies C. Stress Tests
B. Real Time stability studies D. Validity studies
67. Directly Compressible grades of Lactose include;
A. Spray-Dried Lactose C. Anhydrous Lactose
B. Dehydrated Lactose D. All of the above
68. Sterilization technique. Which makes use of ethylene oxide-beta propiolactone or propylene oxide,
usually for plastic containers;
A. Steam sterilization C. Gas sterilization
B. Dry heat sterilization D. Surface Disinfection
69. Diluents of choice or chewable tablets;
A. Mannitol C. Lactose
B. Sorbitol D. Dextrose
70. Strip-sealed tablets are evaluated for;
A. Clarity C. Hardness
B. Thickness D. Leakers
71. An equipment associated with the maintenance of dust-free;
A. Laminar Flow Hood C. Ultra Violet Lamp
B. Autoclave D. Magnetic Resonance
72. Binder of choice for moisture-sensitive materials;
A. Ethylcellulose C. Gelatin solution
B. Starch paste D. Glucose solution
73. An adjunct necessity for oral liquids to prevent bacterial contamination;
A. Antioxidants C. Preservatives
B. pH stabilizers D. Buffers
74. “Rule of Thumb” is the principle applied for testing;
A. Ampules C. Vials
B. Implantations D. Compressed Tablets
75. Thermolabile products in solution is sterilized by;
A. Membrane filtration C. Autoclaving
B. Gas sterilization D. Gamma radition
76. A tablet formulation contains 2 actives, which are chemically incompatible. The best method to be used
is;
A. Dry granulation C. Wet granulation
B. Slugging D. Multiple-Layered compression
77. Freeze-drying is also known as;
A. Dessication C. Evaporation
B. Exsiccation D. Lyophilization
78. According to the USP, single dose containers of parenterals are limited to fill volume of;
A. 1000 ml C. 250 ml
B. 500 ml D. 1500 ml
79. For rapid disintegration of compressed tablets, the concentration starch to used is;
A. 1 to 5% C. 10 to 20%
B. 10 to 15% D. 20 to 25%
80. In the preparation of effervescent tablets, the component/s necessary for the effervescent effect is/are;
A. Sodium bicarbonate C. Tartaric acid
B. Citric acid D. All of the above
81. Manufacturing tanks of oral liquids are usually constructed of;
A. Glass C. Galvanized Iron
B. Aluminium D. Stainless Steel
82. Eggyolk, an emulsifier belongs to;
A. Synthetic group C. Finely Divided solid group
B. Natural group D. Non-ionic group
83. Uneven distribution of color on the surface of compressed tablets is called;
A. Peeling C. Mottling
B. Capping D. Lamination
84. Parenteral solutions intended to be freeze-dried should be;
A. Alcoholic C. Oleaginous
B. Aqueous D. Any of the above
85. A common lubricant added to tablet granulation;
A. Starch C. Magnesium stearate
B. Mannitol D. Acacia
86. Limulus amoebocyte lysate is obtained from;
A. Rabbits C. Albino mice
B. King crab D. Microorganism
87. A broad-spectrum preservative effective against bacteria and molds;
A. Parabens C. Sodium benzoate
B. Alcohol D. Glycerin
88. Inconsistent thickness of tablets could result to problems regarding;
A. Packaging C. Disintegration
B. Dissolution D. Hardness
89. Stoke’s Monsanto tester is used to measure___of tablets;
A. Friability C. Disintegration
B. Thickness D. Hardness
90. In the manufacture of emulsified semi-solids, the mixing of the oil aqueous phases should be at this
temperature to avoid breaking;
A. 30 to 40 °C C. 80 °C
B. 70 to 72 °C D. 40 to 43 °C
91. The bioavailabilty of a compressed tablet is dependent upon its;
A. Weight variation C. Content unifomity
B. Disintegration time D. Dissolution
92. An inert gas usually incorporated in filling ampoules;
A. Hydrogen C. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen D. Ethylene oxide
93. The normal moisture content of hard gelatine capsules;
A. 2 to 5% C. 20 to 24%
B. 12 to 16% D. 25 to 30%
94. This statement is tru of the FIFO Policy;
A. Contains information regarding the activity of the component
B. Prevents contamination and mix-ups
C. Assure that the oldest stock of material is used first
D. All of the above
95. Which of these is the adverse effect of a product recall?
A. A function of biological testing in a laboratory
B. Should be filed by a dissatisfied customer
C. Inflicts damage on the reputation and good standing of the company
96. Which of the ff. Is the function of Research and Product Development Department?
A. Pilot Batch production C. Manufacture and packaging
B. In-process quality testing D. Clinical testing
97. Pyrogens contaminating glasswares can be destroyed at this setting;
A. 121 C for 20 minutes C. 200 C for 1 minute
B. 180 C for 1 hour D. 650 C for 1 minute
98. Water soluble bases for medicated application are prepared from;
A. Polyethylene glycol C. Petroleum jelly
B. Sorbitol D. Mineral oil
99. A solid dosage form, which does not need to conform to USP disintegration time;
A. Film-coated tablets C. Enteric-coated tablets
B. Sugar-coated tablets D. Chewable tablets
100. An instrument used to check the tightness of the caps/closure;
A. pH meter C. Crimper
B. Torque tester D. Implinger
101. A type of compressed tablet which produce equilibrium blood levels of the drug without the need for
repeated administration of dosage units;
A. Chewable tablet C. Sublingual tablet
B. Sustained-release tablet D. Lozenges
102. The most widely used method of tablet granulation preparation, due to the greater probability that the
granulation will meet all the physical requirements for the compression of good tablets;
A. Wet Granulation method C. Dry Granulation method
B. Slugging D. Direct compression
103. A tablet hardness tester containing a compressible spring held between two plungers. The lower plunger
is in contact with the tablet, while the upper plunger is forced against the spring by a threaded bolt and
the breaking force is transmitted against a tablet;
A. Pfizer C. Strong-Cobb
B. Stokes-Monsanto D. Eureka
104. An equipments used to produce fine emulsion droplets, by first compressing the liquid with a high
pressure and then allowing the liquid to escape radically past a flat disc, held by strong spring
mechanism;
A. Rotor-Stator C. Ultrasonifier
B. Mechanical Stirrer D. Homogenizer
105. A unit operation in which a mixture of liquids and solids,slurry or feed is forced through a porous medium,
in which the solids form a cake on the surface and the clear liquid is collected;
A. Decantation C. Filtration
B. Extraction D. Separation
106. High resistant borosilicate glass is also referred to as;
A. Type NP C. Type II
B. Type III D. Type I
107. Parenteral adjuvant which contribute to the isotonicity of the product, as well as reduce the pain of
injection in areas with sensitive nerve ending;
A. Antioxidants C. Buffers
B. Tonicity contributors D. pH stabilizers
108. The USP states that this adjuvant must be added to parenteral preparation contained in multiple dose
containers;
A. Antimicrobial agents C. Antioxidants
B. Coloring agents D. Buffers
109. A glass type, which is treated with sulphur dioxide and is suitable for buffered parenteral solutions, has a
pH of below 7, and is not reactive with glass;
A. Type 1 C. Type 3
B. Type 2 D. NP
110. The officially recognized filter media for parenteral solutions, since it provides the best flow rate. It also
retains microorganisms on the surface of the filter;
A. Asbestos Pad C. Unglazed porcelain candles
B. Diatomaceous earth candles D. Cellulose Ester Membrane
111. A method wherein ampoules are sealed by heating the neck of the ampoules, below the tip, leaving just
enough of the tip from grasping with forceps or other mechanical device;
A. Pull seal Method C. Tip seal method
B. Grasp seal method D. Both A and C
112. A finishing procedure for gelatine capsules wherein the bulf-filled capsules are rubbed with an oil-
impregnated cloth. It imparts gloss to the capsules as it removes resistant materials;
A. Pan polishing C. Salt polishing
B. Brushing D. Cloth dusting
113. A system for ensuring that products are consistently produced and controlled according to quality
standards. It is designed to minimize the risks of errors involved in any pharmaceutical production, which
cannot be eliminated through the final testing of the products;
A. First in-First out Policy C. Current Good Manufacturing Practice
B. Quality Control D. Safety First Policy
114. An ointment base prepared from mixtures of high and low molecular weight polyethylene glycol. It is
greaseless by nature and no additional water is required in its preparation;
A. Water-Removable base C. Hydrocarbon base
B. Water-soluble base D. Absorbable base
115. An ointment base, which act as occlusive dressings. Producing a warm sensation and insensible
perspiration is inhibited;
A. Lanolin C. White petroleum
B. Polyethylene glycol D. Cold cream
116. A tablet compressing machine, which contains a head that carries a number of sets of dies and
upper/lower punches, which revolve continuously;
A. Single punch machine C. High Speed Rotary tablet machine
B. Multi layer tablet machine D. Multi Station Rotary tablet machine
117. Substances of varying densities, which make up the major portionof the tablet, making the compression
cycle possible;
A. Disintegrants C. Glidants
B. Bulking agents D. Granulating agents
118. A tablet processing problem characterized by the separation of the tablet into several distinct layers;
A. Lamination C. Capping
B. Chipping D. Mottling
119. The most commonly used class of aerosol propellant which is composed of butane, iso-butane and
propane gasses. It has excellent solvent powers;
A. Hydrocarbon propellants C. Hydrofluroalkanes
B. Chlorofluorocarbons D. Compressed Gas propellants
120. A class of aerosol propellants, which require the use of a non-volatile co solvent. It produces only coarse
droplets and is applicable only to surface and topical sprays;
A. Hydrofluroalkanes C. Hydrocarbon propellants
B. Compressed Gas propellants D. Chlorofluorocarbons
121. It is a Zwitterionic type of an aerosol propellants;
A. Oleic acid C. Cetyl pyridinium chloride
B. Phosphatidylcholine D. Sorbitan trioleate
122. An aerosol container material, which is lightweight and seamless. And is mostly used for inhalation and
topical aerosols;
A. Three-piece tin plate C. Plastic coated glass
B. Plastic D. Plastic
123. An aerosol container material, which can be pressurized from the base with compressd gasses. Visible
seams make this container visually less appealing;
A. Aluminium glass C. Plastic coated glass
B. Three-piece tin plate D. Plastic
124. A special technique for hard gelatine capsules which provides a tamper-proof feature to filled capsules, to
prevent its unjoining;
A. Imprinting C. Sealing/Banding
B. Locking D. Special purpose
125. A finishing method for hard gelatine capsules, wherein a polyurethane or cheese cloth material lines the
polishing pan. The liner is used to trap removed dust, imparting gloss to capsules;
A. Salt polishing C. Brushing
B. Pan polishing D. Cloth dusting
126. It measures the time it takes for a tablet to reach a state wherein any tablet residue remains on the
screen, resulting to a mass with no palpably visible core;
A. Dissolution test C. Content Uniformity
B. Disintegration test D. Abrasion test
127. It determines the homogeneity of distribution of the active/s in the batch of finish tablets;
A. Content uniformity C. Stability test
B. Weight variation D. Quantitative assay
128. Tablet adjuvants with cohesive properties, capable of gluing powders together, causing the formation of
granules;
A. Binder C. Disintegrant
B. Diluents D. Lubricant
129. A part of tablet compressing machine which control the sizes and shapes of the finished tablets;
A. Hopper C. Auger
B. Feed shoe D. Die cavities
130. The reverse of creaming, wherein less concentrated emulsified droplets separate from the internal phase;
A. Coalescence C. Sedimentation
B. Creaming D. Flocculation
131. A biological product obtained from poisonous bacterial products that act as antigens and causes the
human body to produce specific antibodies to combat its presence;
A. Toxins C. Toxoids
B. Antitoxins D. Vaccines
132. Fever-producing organic substances arising from microbial contamination and mostly occur in patients
following intravenous injection;
A. Microorganisms C. Foreign bodies
B. Pyrogens D. Antigens
133. Impalpable powders have a particle size of less than;
A. 74 microns C. Less than 1 microns
B. 1 microns D. 50 microns
135. Non-ionic surfactants composed of higher molecular weight PEG compound are referred to as;
A. Tweens C. Spans
B. Carbowax D. All of the above
136. A suspension that appear as masses of gels, consisting of floccules of small distinct particles;
A. Lotions C. Mixtures
B. Magmas and Milk D. Gels
137. A filter aid which forms a fine surface deposit to screen out all solid, preventing the clogging of the
supporting filter media;
A. Infusorial earth C. Membrane filter
B. Kraft paper D. Nylon
138. A filter aid which is used for straining syrupy liquids, and is unaffected by molds and fungus;
A. Bonded fabrics C. Nylon
B. Talc D. Activated charcoal
139. It refers to the binding of drug molecules to the polymer material of the plastic container;
A. Sorption C. Adsorption
B. Absorption D. Leaching
140. Type III glass is referred to as;
A. General purpose soda lime glass C. Treated soda lime glass
B. Soda lime glass D. Borosilicate glass
141. It refers to any distinctive combination of letters and/or numbers or both, by which the complete history of
the manufacture, control, packaging and distribution of a batch or lot of drug is determined;
A. Drug Registration Number C. Manufacturing Order Number
B. Lot number D. Finishing Order Number
142. Any substance of a drug, which is intended to furnish pharmacological activity or other effect in the
diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of a disease or to affect any structure of function of
the body;
A. Inactive ingredient C. Active ingredient
B. Drug excipient D. Drug adjuvant
143. It refers to the release or movement of the components of the plastic container into the contents;
A. Sorption C. Adsorption
B. Absorption D. Leaching
144. A section of the plant department consist of products which have been stripped, bottled or packed, but not
yet labelled nor packed into boxes and cartons. As it waits the results of quality control test and assays;
A. Finished Good Section C. Raw Materials Section
B. In-Process Section D. Returned Goods Section
145. The most useful preservatives in the manufacture of oral liquids, because of its neutral pH and it possess
both antifungal and antibacterial properties;
A. Parabens C. Sodium benzoate
B. Cetyl Pyridinium Chloride D. Ethyl alcohol
146. A method of filling viscous liquid preparations in a very large containers;
A. Volumetric C. Gravimetric
B. Constant Level D. All of the above
147. A class of suspensions which contain finely powdered substances that are insoluble in the dispersion
medium, are intended for external applications;
A. Lotions C. Creams
B. Ointments D. Gels
148. Which of the following statements is true for protective colloids?
A. Protective colloids do not form a mechanical sheath around each particle of suspensions
B. Protective colloids differ in viscosity and are used in lower concentrations to produce an increase in
the viscosity of suspensions
C. Protective colloids do not reduce interfacial tension
D. All of the above
149. A method of particle size reduction in suspensions, wherein the particles are subjected in a turbulent air
chamber, thus colloiding with each other to fracture and produce particles with sizes 5 microns and
below;
A. Micronization C. Spray-drying
B. Freeze-drying D. Homogenization
150. It is the reverse of creaming, wherein less concentrated emulsified droplets separates from the internal
phase. It usually settles at the bottom of the external phase of the container;
A. Coalescence C. Sedimentation
B. Flocculation D. Separation
151. Which of the following is/are official sources of Starch USP?
I. Zea mays
II. Triticum aestivum
III. Manihot esculenta
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
152. Which of the following is/are uses of starch in pharmaceutical formulation?
I. Lubricant
II. Diluent
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
153. What is the allowable limit of silicon dioxide in gelatin?
A. 2%
B. 1%
C. 0.5%
D. 0.25%
E. 0.15%
154. What is a pharmaceutical glaze?
A. Denatured alcoholic solution of PVP
B. Denatured alcoholic solution of Shellac
C. Hydroalcoholic solution of NaCMC
D. Hydroalcoholic solution of starch
E. Aqueous solution of glucose
155. Which of the following can be considered as use/s of Directly Compressible Strach?
I. Binder
II. Diluents
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
156. Which of the following is obtained by incomplete partial hydrolysis of starch and consists mainly of
dextrin, maltose and water?
I. Binder
II. Diluents
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
157. Lactose is relatively inexpensive tablet bulking agent. Which of the following types of drug or excipients
is/are incompatible with lactose?
I. Amine drugs
II. Water-based binding solutions
III. Alcohol-based binding solutions
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
158. Maillard Reactions is a documented incompatibility of certain excipients with acetates, phosphates and
lactates. Which of the following excipients can manifest such reaction?
I. Anhydrous lactose
II. Pregelatinized starch
III. Spray-dried lactose
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
159. Moisture content of excipients and active drug can affect the properties and production of compressed
tablet. Which of the following excipients has the smallest moisture content?
A. Dicalcium phosphate
B. Monocalcium phosphate
C. Sorbitol
D. Mannitol
E. Sucrose
160. Sodium starch glycollate and croscarmelose are primarily used in tablet formulation as;
A. Lubricants
B. Disintegrants
C. Diluents
D. Binders
E. Glidants
161. Which of the following excipients is expected to possess the greatest adhesive property?
A. Acacia C. Starch E. Simple syrup
B. Gelatine D. Glucose
162. Which of the following excipients can be used for direct compression?
I. Pregelatinized starch
II. Anhydrous lactose
III. Mannitol
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
163. Which of the following is/are sucrose based tablet diluents-binder?
I. Nutab
II. Avicel
III. Cab-o-sil
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
164. What is the concentration of Starch in Starch paste used as a binder solution?
A. 0.5 – 1%
B. 1 – 5%
C. 5 – 10%
D. 10 – 15%
E. 15 – 25%
165. Which of the following principled is/are employed in the use of lubricants in tablet formulation?
I. Higher concentrations of lubricants are employed when active drugs and other excipients use
have bigger particle sizes
II. Lubricants are added together with the rest of the excipients in the initial steps in production
III. Lubricants generally increase the disintegration time and reduce dissolution rate
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
166. Double compression method of tablet manufacture is the preferred method in which of the following
conditions?
I. When the initial powder blend has a significant quantity of fine powders
II. When the active ingredients are sensitive to moisture or elevated temperature
III. When the active ingredients and the excipients are free-flowing
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
167. Which of the following mechanisms explain the use of glidants in tablet formulations?
A. Reduce interparticulate tension leading to improved flow of particles
B. Surface active agents that reduce friction between the inner die walls and the tablet
C. Reduce sticking of particles to the wall of the die and the contact surface of the punches
D. By capillary action, improve uptake of water into the interior of the tablet
E. Increase interparticulate attraction achieved during the process of
168. Which of the following precautions are observed during addition of tablet lubricants in formulations
I. Add lubricants rprior to wetting of powder blends or slugging, as applicable
II. Add lubricants at concentrations consisiting of about 20-25% of final tablet weight
III. Mix lubricants with the rest of the granules for about 2-5 minutes only
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
169. Sterotex, Magnseium stearate, and the high melting point waxes can be categorized as
I. Water-soluble lubricants
II. Glidants
III. Water-insoluble lubricants
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
170. Talc in tablet formulations is generally used as
I. Glidant
II. Lubricant
III. Anti-adherent
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
171. An internal disintegrant is used in which of the following methods of manufacture?
I. Wet granulation
II. Dry granulation
III. Direct compression
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
172. What is a “Running powder”?
A. Powder blend with improved lubrication
B. Combination of a disintegrant and a lubricant
C. Combination of a disintegrant and binder
D. Powder combination to improve flow
E. Combination of a glidant and a binder
173. What are referred to “lakes” in pharmaceutical manufacturing?
A. Binder solutions
B. Wetted powder blends in wet granulation
C. Magmas and suspensions
D. Flavours in hydroalcoholic mixtures
E. Dyes absorbed on aluminium hydroxide
174. Flavours for pharmaceutical oral liquids or chewable tablets are chosen based on the baseline taste of
the active ingredient. Which of the following flavours are recommended for drugs with a sour baseline
taste?
I. Cherry
II. Citrus
III. Strawberry
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
175. Which of the following is/are disadvantage of wet granulation method of tablet manufacture?
I. Good color distribution
II. Uniform composition of granules during processing, transport and handling
III. Useful for heat-sensitive materials
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
176. A method of tablet production wherein a granulation solution is sprayed onto the suspended particles
which would then be dried rapidly in the suspending air
A. Wet granulation
B. Fluid bed granulation
C. Dry granulation
D. Direct compression
E. Double compression
177. This granulation process involves the direct formation of granules from a wet granulation using a machine
where initially extruded rod-shaped cylindrical particles with size range of 0.5-12mm are passed through
appropriate an extruder screen. The extruded segments are then shaped into idealized granules by
centrifugal and frictional forces.
A. Spray-drying
B. Spray congealing
C. Precompression
D. Spheronization
E. Fluid granulation
178. Which of the following sequence in tablet manufacture correctly illustrates wet granulation method of
manufacturing tablets?
A. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Dry screening → Final dry mixing →
Compression
B. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Final dry mixing → Compression
C. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Slugging → Granulation → Final dry
mixing → Compression
D. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Wet screening → Drying → Dry screening → Final dry mixing →
Compression
E. Initial dry mixing → Wet mixing → Drying → Dry screening → Final dry mixing → Compression
179. Which of the following diluents is/are appropriate choices when producing tablets that are dissolved in
solution prior to oral administration?
I. Mannitol
II. Lactose
III. Microcrystalline cellulose
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
180. Consider the following formulation:
Ingredients Amount/Tablet
Aluminium OH & Carbonate CO-dried gel 325.0 mg
Mannitol USP Granular 675.0 mg
Microcrystalline cellulose 75.0 mg
Starch 30.0 mg
Calcium Stearate 22.0 mg
Flavor qs
This tablet formulation is most likely manufactured by what method?
A. Wet granulation C. Direct compression
B. Fluid bed granulation D. Dry granulation
181. A tablet formulation contains the following: aspirin, sodium carbonate, fumaric acid and citric acid. What
is/are the use/s of sodium carbonate, fumaric acid, and citric acid in the formulation?
I. Diluents
II. Binder
III. Disintegrant
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
182. Capping and splitting of tablets can be caused by which of the following conditions?
I. When there is an excessive quantity of water in the formulation
II. When there is an excessive quantity of fines or powder
III. When the dies are worn and the punches are imperfect
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
183. When the capping and splitting are encountered during tablet compression, which of the following may be
employed as remedy/remedies?
I. Slowing the rate of tablet compression
II. Use of tapered dies
III. Increasing the quantity of fines or powder
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
184. Which statement is/are correct regarding film tablet coating?
I. The Wurster spray coating method provides uniform coating coverage while preventing adjacent
tablets from adhering together
II. Cellulose acetate phthalate, hydroxypropylmethyl cellulose, and PVP are pH dependent enteric
coats
III. Nonaqueous film coating solutions consist of a film former, an alloying substance, opaquants,
colorants, a glossant and a volatile solvent
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
185. What is the correct order of the steps involved in Sugar-coating?
A. (1) Subcoating, (2) Waterproofing and Sealing, (3) Smoothing and Final rounding, (4) Finish and
coloring coats, (5) Imprinting, and (6) Polishing
B. (1) Subcoating, (2) Smoothing and Sealing, (3) Final rounding, (4) Finish and Coloring coats, (5)
Polishing, and (6) Imprinting
C. (1) Waterproofing and Sealing, (2) Subcoating, (3) Smoothing and Final rounding, (4) Finish and
Coloring coats, (5) Imprinting, and (6) Polishing
D. (1) Waterproofing and Sealing, (2) Smoothing and Sealing, (3) Subcoating, (4) Polishing, (5) Finish
and coloring coats, and (6) Imprinting
186. Uneven distribution of color in tablet coating is due to
A. Bridging C. Orange Peel Affect
B. Erosion D. Mottling
187. What problem in film coating arises when the fluid delivery rate exceeds the drying capacity of the
process?
A. Bridging C. Picking E. Mottling
B. Erosion D. Orange Peel Affect
188. An assay of the active ingredient revealed a concentration of 98.5% nitrofurantoin raw material. The USP
monograph specifies limit of 90-110%. What is the maximum amount of nitrofurantoin raw material to be
used in preparing a 34.2 kilo batch size to accommodate a 5% production overage if a 342 mg tablet
contains 100 mg of the drug?
A. 11.675 kilos C. 11.168 kilos E. 10.000 kilos
B. 11.500 kilos D. 11.000 kilos
189. In sugar coating of tablets, the greatest increase in the size of the tablet occurs at what stage of the
process?
A. Sealing C. Color coating E. Polishing
B. Smoothing D. Subcoating
190. Which of the following materials is/are suitable for producing sustained-release film coating?
I. Acrylic resins
II. Cellulose elastomers
III. Silicone elastomers
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
191. Which of the following mechanisms can explain the effects of controlled drug delivery system?
I. Achievement of sustained drug action at a predetermined rate
II. Spatial placement of a controlled release system adjacent t or in the diseased tissue or organ to
achieve a systemic drug action
III. Rate and amount of drug release being determined by the physiologic and therapeutic need of
the patient
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
192. It is defined as the load in grams required to push a standard a set distance into a prepared gelatine gel
(6.66% solution at 10 degree Celsius)
A. Bloom strength C. Viscosity E. Recovery rate
B. Tensile strength D. Compressibility index
193. Which of the following is the source of gelatine?
A. Carageenan C. Starch E. Glucose
B. Galageenan D. Collagen
194. Given the following formulation:
Nitrofurantoin 100 mg
Lactose 152 mg
PVP 15 mg
Microcrystalline cellulose I 15 mg
Syloid 2 mg
Sterotex 1 mg
Which of the given ingredients is the disintegrant?
A. Nitrofurantoin C. PVP E. Syloid
B. Lactose D. Microcrystalline cellulose
195. Given the following formulation:
Nitrofurantoin 100 mg
Lactose 152 mg
PVP 15 mg
Microcrystalline cellulose I 15 mg
Syloid 2 mg
Sterotex 1 mg
Which of the given ingredients is the binder?
A. Nitrofurantoin C. PVP E. Syloid
B. Lactose D. Microcrystalline cellulose
196. Plasticizers are useful in which of the following?
I. Film coating
II. Manufacture of soft-gel capsules
III. Manufactured of hard-gelatin capsules
A. I only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II, III
197. What is the amount of moisture present in soft gelatine capsules?
A. 1-5% C. 10-15% E. 12-20%
B. 6-10% D. 15-18%
198. What is the maximum particle size that can be found in True solutions
A. 10 um C. 1 um E. 1 millimicrometer
B. 5 um D. 0.1 um
199. Protective colloids classified as clays include which of the following:
A. Casein C. Gum E. Attapulgite
B. Acacia D. CMC
200. Ionamin capsules which contain Phentermine utilize which of the following controlled release systems?
A. Osmotic system C. Prodrugs E. Dissolution system
B. Ion exchange D. Diffusion system
201. A batch or any portion of a batch of drug produced by a continuous process is:
A. Lot C. Inert substances E. Product
B. Component D. Active ingredient
202. The records to be controlled by Quality Control should be:
A. Master formula C. Returned goods E. In-process records
B. Inventory records D. Production records
203. A semisolid vehicle recognized by the USP/NF is:
A. Glycerogelatin base C. Alcohol soluble fats E. Fats and oils
B. Water-soluble base D. Non-absorption base
204. Fever producing substances arising from microbial contamination are:
A. Bacteria C. Pyrogens E. Coliform organisms
B. Fungi D. Yeast
205. Classified as sterile product although not injected into the body is:
A. Ophthalmic preparation C. Ointment E. Dextrose injection solution
B. Biological product D. Gargle
206. Sealing of ampoules is done by:
A. Heating the neck of the ampoules
B. Pull sealing
C. Pressing the ampoule tip
D. Gas sealing
E. Alcohol-flame seal
207. A tablet processing problem where a partial or complete separation of the top or bottom of the table is
termed:
A. Elimination C. Picking E. Breaking
B. Capping D. Sticking
208. To control microorganisms in the air is to:
A. Install UV lamps in several areas
B. Install IR lamps in the areas
C. Provide ETO gas around the room
D. Close the door tightly
E. Spray insecticide inside the room
209. Products which have been bottled or stripped-packed but not yer labelled or packed into boxes or
barbons are termed:
A. Finished products
B. Releasable for sale
C. In-process
D. Rejected products
E. For processing
210. Advantage of plastic containers over glass is:
A. Permeability
B. Susceptible to microorganisms growth
C. High transportation cost
D. Lightness in weight
E. Light can penetrate easily
211. Egg yolk is an example of an emulsifier belonging to:
A. Non-ionic type C. Synthetic group E. Natural group
B. Finely divided liquid D. Ionic type
212. Lyophilized products are manufacture by series of processes as:
A. Freezing C. Cooking E. Mixing
B. Melting D. Compression
213. A HEPA filter is used to filter air entering a:
A. Gas chamber C. Fume hood E. Clean room
B. Laminar flow hood D. Sterile room
214. The size of a single-dose container for injection is limited to:
A. 30 ml C. 1000 ml E. 60 ml
B. 50 ml D. 20 ml
215. An indicator employed in sterilization process is:
A. Methyl red TS C. Phenolphthalein TS E. Colored paper strips
B. Litmus paper D. Colored cloth
216. Coating of tablets that allow disintegration in the intestines is:
A. Sugar C. Film E. Gelatine
B. Enteric D. Chocolate
217. To protect the contents of a bottle from the action of light id to use:
A. Flint glass C. Colorless glass E. Plastic coated glass
B. Green colored glass D. Amber colored glass
218. A lyophobic substance is easily wet by:
A. Polar solvents C. Non-polar solvents E. Alcohol-water mixture
B. Water D. Hydroalcohol
219. In tablet compression, the large, poorly formed, compacted mass of powder is referred to as:
A. Slugs C. Vaginal tablets E. Lozenges
B. Buccal tablets D. Compressed tablets
220. Content uniformity test for tablets, USP/NF limit is:
A. 90-110% C. 90-100% E. 85-115%
B. 95-105% D. 85-105%
221. The best choice of disintegrant by the formulators is:
A. Lactose C. Stearic acid E. Sucrose
B. Starch D. Talc
222. The dispensing division of the warehouse requires a:
A. Licensed chemist C. Licensed pharmacist E. Male engineer
B. Experienced scientist D. Any skilled technician
223. Room temperature recognized by USP/NF is:
A. 20 °C C. Temp. Of the working area E. 30 °C
B. 15-20 °C D. 25 °C
224. A protective colloid added to a suspension formulation is to:
A. Allow for fast sedimentation
B. Allow active constituent to easily separate
C. Allow solution of the sediment
D. For easy measurement of final volume of the preparation
225. Effervescent tablets when added to water releases:
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Gas
E. Carbon dioxide
226. In labelling of a product, an unlabelled portion is provided for:
A. Viewing the contents
B. Elegance
C. Save cost of label
D. Art design
E. Saving of glue applied
227. Property of IV solutions:
A. Hypotonic
B. Isotonic
C. Non-aqueous vehicle
D. Hypertonic
E. Hydroalcoholic vehicle
228. The material present in both enteric and film coating is:
A. Wax C. Cellulose acetate phthalate E. Sugar
B. Paraffin wax D. Vaseline
229. A process of placing a thin coatings to small particles of solids or to droplets of liquids is:
A. Film coating C. Microencapsulation E. Lactose coating
B. Sugar coating D. Chocolate coating
230. The bar marks found in labels of products serve to:
A. Impart elegance
B. Meet BFAD requirement
C. Increase marking in labels
D. Distinguish one product from the other
231. The Inspection and Checking section of Quality Control is responsible for:
A. Checking sterility of materials
B. Doing pyrogen testing
C. Chemical assaying
D. Analyzing finished products sampled
E. Sampling of raw materials delivered by suppliers
232. To determine whether the product has undergone stability studies, the label indicates the:
A. Expiry date C. DR. No. E. Lot number
B. Bar marks D. Control number
233. Required characteristic of surfaces of equipments used in production:
A. Reactive with substances of the formulation
B. Non-absorptive
C. Absorbs the excipients of the formulation
D. Turns dark with some constituents
E. Made of plastic covering
234. The water used to prepare parenteral products must be:
A. Water, USP
B. Distilled water
C. Water for injection
D. Demineralised water
E. Purified water
235. To control raw materials and finished products in the warehouse, the practice of:
A. First in-last out
B. Last in-last out
C. Last in-first out
D. First in-first out
E. As decided by the supervisor
236. Uneven distribution of color on the surface of tablets:
A. Peeling
B. Mottling
C. Capping
D. Lamination
E. Picking
237. To remedy the irritating effects of UV radiation is to:
A. Wear UV goggles
B. Wear mask
C. Wear any type of eyeglass to cover the eyes
D. Wear head cap
E. Wear contact glasses
238. Part of a tablet machine which controls the size and shape of a tablet is:
A. Hopper
B. Punches
C. Cam
D. Die
E. Upper punch
239. Moist heat sterilization is more effective than dry heat oven at a lower temperature due to:
A. Weakening of organisms by moist heat
B. Non-oxidation of organisms heat
C. Destruction of the carbohydrates of the cell wall of the organisms
D. Dissolution of the organisms in liquid form
E. Non-precipitation of the proteins
240. The more preferred type of suspension is the flocculated one due to:
A. Elegant in appearance
B. Forms a hard cake upon standing
C. No need of shaking before use
D. Not easy to resuspend
E. Easy resuspendability
241. A 50-kg ointment may be manufactured by:
A. Spatulation
B. Trituration
C. Fusion
D. Use of mixer
E. Use of big mortar and pestle
242. Strength of a product is expressed in terms of:
A. Potency
B. Activity
C. Toxicity
D. Therapeutic use
E. Lethal dose
243. The non-proprietary name of a drug product also refers to:
A. Common name
B. Official name
C. Brand name
D. Local name
E. Herbal name
244. Certified colorants used for drugs and cosmetics but not food is:
A. FD & C dyes
B. Internally D & C dyes
C. Eosin Y
D. D&C dyes
E. Fluorescin dyes
245. The part of the transdermal drug delivery system patch where the drug is stored:
A. Back strip
B. Membrane part
C. Peel strip
D. Gauze part
E. Reservoir
246. OTC labels of products indicate in front of the:
A. Expiry date
B. Formula
C. Pharmacologic category
D. Storage
E. Manufacturing date
247. Part of the tablet machine which holds the granules:
A. Punch
B. Cam
C. Die
D. Vessel
E. Hopper
248. The most useful preservative that is effective against bacteria and molds is:
A. Parabens
B. Sodium benzoate
C. Glycerine
D. Alcohol
E. Propanol
249. Solutions which are intended to be freeze-dried must be:
A. Hydroalcoholic
B. Oily
C. Aqueous
D. Combination of oil and alcohol
E. Ether-chloroform mixture
250. The building used for manufacturing of pharmaceuticals shall be of adequate space for:
A. Orderly placement of materials
B. Allowance of mix-ups of drugs
C. Allow-for cross-contamination of raw materials ad labels
D. Allowance of big quantities of products to mix raw materials
E. Use as rest area of some personnel
251. A biological indicator used during sterilization process consist of:
A. Killed microorganisms
B. Attenuated microorganisms
C. Inactivated microorganisms
D. Live microorganisms
E. Mixed live inactivated microorganisms
252. A characteristics of indicator paper strips used during sterilization process is:
A. Destroyed at 121.0 °C
B. Melts at 121.0 °C
C. Turns at 121.0 °C
D. Does not change color at high temperature
E. Changes color at 121.0 °C
253. Pharmaceutical aerosols may be in the form of:
A. Solutions in oil
B. Emulsions
C. Deffloculated suspensions
D. Granules
E. Small tablets
254. Hemodialysis is employed to remove toxins from the:
A. Peritoneal cavity
B. Kidney
C. Blood
D. Stomach
E. Intestines
255. Petroleum jelly is a semisolid belonging to the class:
A. Water soluble base
B. Absorption base
C. Water removable base
D. Hydrocarbon base
E. Alcohol soluble base
256. Antibiotics and insulin products can be released for distribution by:
A. BFAD
B. Q.C of the company
C. Production head
D. Marketing head
E. Plant manager
257. The Board of Trustees of a company functions as a:
A. Active planning
B. Preparer of policies
C. Owns the company
D. Stockholder’s money keepers
E. Helps in the marketing of products
258. Control records required in the manufacture of drugs:
A. Distribution records
B. Sales records
C. Master formula
D. Assay procedures
E. BFAD records
259. A product that is rubbed or sprayed on the body for cleansing and beautifying is:
A. Liniments
B. Poultices
C. Ointments
D. Therapeutic emulsions
E. Cosmetics
260. Method of tablet manufacture for easily compressible or adhesive ingredients is:
A. Direct compression
B. Slugging
C. Wet method
D. Dry method
E. Manual process
261. Gas used to sterilize plastic materials is:
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Ethane
D. Ethylene oxide
E. Carbon monoxide
262. Colorants are added to formulation for:
A. Meeting BFAD requirements
B. Trying which of them is suitable for the product
C. Satisfying the request of marketing department
D. Research during manufacturing
E. Aesthetic purpose
263. Practical methods of determining hardness of tablets is:
A. Eureka tester
B. Rule of the thumb
C. Pfizer tester
D. Roche tester
E. Pound with a pestle
264. Use of buffers in parenterals:
A. Tonicity contributor
B. To determine pH of the solution
C. Sterilizer
D. As diluents
E. To make hypotonic solution
265. The capsule shell is a basically composed of:
A. Gelatin
B. Wax
C. Plasticizer with alcohol
D. Water
E. Petrolatum
266. Humectant for creams is:
A. Distilled water
B. Oil
C. Sorbitol
D. Chloroform
E. Petroleum jelly
267. Characteristic of irrigation solutions to wash wounds and surgical opening may be:
A. Boiled for 30 minutes
B. With additives
C. Mixed with antibiotics
D. Pyrogen-free
E. With suspended fine particles
268. Plastic material used ophthalmic solutions as package and applicator is:
A. Polypropylene
B. Polyethylene
C. Polystyrene
D. PVC
E. Any fine plastic material
269. A colloid mill is used for:
A. Granulation
B. Tablet compressor
C. Produce fine granules
D. Microencapsulation
E. Homogenization of viscous emulsions
270. To control foam in emulsions is to:
A. Add polyethylene glycol
B. Add foaming agent
C. Apply compressed air
D. Mix or agitate rapidly
E. Add sorbitol
271. Thickness of tablets is controlled to avoid the problem in:
A. Packaging
B. Dissolution
C. Disintegration
D. Compression
E. Hardness
272. Tablets placed beneath the tongue in administration is:
A. Buccal
B. Troches
C. Chewable
D. Sublingual
E. Oral
273. Caps used to hold rubber closure in place for vials are made of:
A. Tin
B. Aluminium
C. Copper
D. Tin coated metal
E. Plastic coated tin
274. Quarantined materials delivered in the warehouse are:
A. Subject to test and assays
B. Releasable to production department
C. Rejectable
D. In-process products
E. For approval by the BFAD
275. Hard gelatin capsules are also referred to as:
A. Elastic capsule
B. Pork skin capsule
C. Dry-filled capsule
D. SEC type capsule
E. Soft capsule
276. Implantation pellets are those which contains:
A. Diluents
B. Base
C. Disintegrant
D. Active constituent
E. Lubricant
277. In the manufacture of semisolid emulsions, the mixing of the oil and the aqueous phases is done at a
temperature of:
A. 30-40°C
B. 80°C
C. 90-100°C
D. Just to melt
E. 70-72°C
278. Water can be purified by:
A. Chemical reaction
B. Distillation
C. Solution by boiling
D. By freezing
E. By adding preservative
279. An emulsifier suitable for water in oil emulsion should have an HLB value of:
A. 8-18
B. 3-6
C. 5-6
D. 10-20
E. 9-10
280. Property of a tablet granulations to obtain good tablets:
A. Fine granules
B. Well-mixed with lubricant
C. Contain large quantities of fines compressibility
D. Compressibility
E. Uneven sized particles
281. Stokes Monsanto tester of tablets is to measure:
A. Thickness
B. Friability
C. Hardness
D. Disintegration
E. Dissolution
282. In ampul sealing, excessive heating of the ampul after it is closed will result to:
A. Fragile bubble
B. Fracture at the neck
C. Leaker
D. Deposit of carbon
E. Ampul-break up
283. Substances that prevent bacterial and fungal growth are:
A. Coloring agents
B. Flavorants
C. Sweeteners
D. Antioxidants
E. Preservative
284. To assist in assuring the stability of the dosage forms during transport and storage, the label shall
indicate:
A. Expiry date
B. Storage caution
C. Concentration of drug substance
D. Bar marks
E. Transport caution
285. Pyrogens may come from:
A. Water
B. Pure solute
C. Sterile container
D. Gowns which has been sterilized
E. Air
286. Temperature that can destroy pyrogens is:
A. 180°C
B. 250°C
C. 650°C for 60 seconds
D. 150°C for 1 hour
E. 500°C for one minute
287. Insoluble powders for ophthalmic preparations must be:
A. Less than 20 microns in particle size
B. Pyrogen-free
C. Give preservative action
D. Impalpable to the touch
E. Less than 100 microns size
288. Dialysis solutions as life-saving preparations had the following characterisitics:
A. Requires semi permeable membrane to separate one substance to one another
B. Contains several active ingredients
C. Used to separate red blood cell from white corpuscles
D. Used to individuals with lung diseases
E. Used for any other ailments
289. Large volume parenterals are employed for:
A. Prophylactic therapy
B. Nutritional use
C. Heart diseased patients
D. For children’s needs
E. Replacement therapy
290. In semisolid preparations, petrolatum is a common hydrocarbon base due to its:
A. Property of being easily washed by water
B. Consistency
C. Low cost
D. Can be used for other purposes
E. Easily available
291. To increase viscosity of the aqueous phase of an emulsion is to:
A. Add more oil
B. Add more water
C. Add more emulsifier
D. Stir vigorously
E. Use mixer to stir well
292. LAL method of test is specified for:
A. Bacteria
B. Molds
C. Virus
D. Yeast
E. Pyrogens
293. Sterilization process for heat sensitive parenterals is by:
A. Dry heat
B. Membrane filtration
C. Tyndallisation
D. Inspissations
E. Add preservatives
294. Advantage of multilayered tablets:
A. High cost but effective
B. May be coated
C. 2 incompatibe drugs may keptseparate
D. May separate in 2 layers
E. Lamination may occur
295. This is a common lubricant for tablets:
A. Magnesium stearate
B. Acacia
C. Talc
D. Starch
E. Mannitol
296. A container which holds the drug and is in direct contact with the preparation is:
A. Secondary container component
B. Packaging container
C. Tertiary container component
D. Primary container
E. Plastic container
297. Uniformity of dosage units of suspensions is determined by performing the:
A. Weight variation test
B. Fill volume
C. Content uniformity
D. Viscosity determination
E. Assay process
298. Filter aids for clarification of liquids include:
A. Starch
B. Fuller’s earth
C. Aorbitol
D. Sugar
E. Lactose
299. Synthetic drug carrier system include:
A. Injectable particulate
B. Ophthalmic ointment
C. Transdermal delivery systems
D. Lozenges
E. Poultices
300. Implantation tablets which are administered:
A. Orally
B. Rectally
C. Insertion into body tissues
D. Through the vagina
E. Under the tongue
PHYSICAL PHARMACY
1. A data set in which there is a considerable closeness among the values

A. Accurate
B. Approximate
C. Estimate
D. Precise
2. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction resulting from the tendency of molecules to align themselves
with oppositely charged ends of their neighbour
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
3. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction which involves permanent dipoles inducing polarity in non-polar
molecules
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
4. A type of Van der Waals forces of attraction which involves the dispersion of charges to induce polarity
between non-polar molecules
A. Debye
B. London
C. Keesom
D. H-bond
5. The intermolecular forces of attraction responsible for the solubility of non-polar molecules such as Iodine in
solution by the addition of salts
A. Debye
B. Ion-dipole interaction
C. Ion-induced dipole interaction
D. H-bonds
6. This is responsible for the solubility of ionic crystalline substance in polar solvents like water
A. Debye
B. Ion-dipole interaction
C. Ion-induced dipole interaction
D. H-bonds
7. H-bond is the interaction between a molecule containing a hydrogen atom and a strongly electronegative
atom such as fluorine, oxygen and nitrogen. This is/are true statements regarding H-bonds
I. Stronger than ionic bonds
II. Responsible for the formation of water molecules
III. Can be both occurring as an intramoleecular and intermolecular force of attraction
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I, II and III
8. This law relates the volume and pressure of given mass of gas at constant temperature
A. Boyles
B. Charles
C. Gay-Lussac
D. Ideal Gas Law
9. The equation B α T or V=kT, was explained by which gas law?
I. Boyle
II. Charles
III. Gay-Lussac
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
E. I, II and III
10. Gas X is an ideal gas occupying a volume of 15ml at a temperature of 55°F and a pressure of 700mmHg.
What is the volume of a gas at 0° and 800mmHg?
A. 12ml
B. 8ml
C. 20ml
D. 25ml
11. At constant pressure a gas occupies volume of 50ml at a temperature of 40°C. What will be the volume
occupied by the gas at 90°C
A. 43ml
B. 58ml
C. 112.5ml
D. 22ml
12. A gas law which states that gases of equal volumes at the same temperature and pressure contain the
same number of molecules
A. Boyles
B. Charles
C. Gay-Lussac
D. Avogadro
13. This is/are true values of the molar gas constants
I. 0.08205 L-atm / mole-degree
II. 8.314 cal / mole-degree
III. 1.987 joules / mole-degree
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
14. Assuming that a 1.5g gas occupying a volume of 500ml at a pressure of 175 atm and a temperature of 75°C
is behaving like an ideal gas. What is the molecular weight of the gas?
A. 0.05g
B. 49g
C. 5g
D. 30g
15. A method used to determine the molecular weight of easily vaporized liquids
I. Regnault
II. Victor-Meyer
III. Gieger-Muller
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
16. A given quantity of gas at a pressure of 750mmHg and a temperature of -25°C occupies 25L. What is its
volume at STP?
A. 269L
B. 150L
C. 27.1L
D. 100L
17. How many moles of gas are present in a 25L chamber containing a pressure of 750mmHg at -25°C
A. 1.21
B. 9.21
C. 2.51
D. 0.42
18. The following is/are true statements regarding the kinetic molecular theory
I. Volume of gas is negligible in relation to the volume of the space in which the gas is confined
II. Particles exhibit continuous random motion owing to their kinetic energy
III. Speed is lost every time particles go into collision with each other or with the walls of the vessels
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
19. This equation is used for real gases, where it accounts for the interactions of gas molecules hence affecting
the pressure and volume of an ideal gas
A. Ideal Gas Equation
B. Van der Waals Equation
C. Noyes-Whitney Equation
D. Freundlich Equation
20. This states that the rate of diffusion of the gas and the speed of the gas molecules are inversely proportional
to the square root of their density
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Raoult’s Law
C. Graham’s Law
D. Dalton’s Law
21. This law gives the relationship between the total pressure in a mixture of gases and the partial pressure of
the individual gases
A. Ideal Gas Law
B. Raoult’s Law
C. Graham’s Law
D. Dalton’s Law
22. This is the point above which it is impossible to liquefy a gas irrespective of the pressure applied
A. Critical temperature
B. Critical pressure
C. Eutectic point
D. Triple point
23. This is the highest vapour pressure that the liquid can have which is also the force er unit are required to
liquefy a gas at critical temperature
A. Critical temperature
B. Critical pressure
C. Eutectic point
D. Triple point
24. This is/are true statements regarding the comparison of the critical temperature and critical pressure of
H2Oand helium gas
I. The critical temperature and critical pressure of water is much higher than that of helium
II. The critical temperature and critical pressure of helium is much higher than that of water
III. Water and Helium have similar critical temperature and critical pressure
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. III only
25. This is used as local anaesthetic agent for minor surgical operations administered as an aerosol. This
substance cools sufficiently on expansion when sprayed on the skin and freezes the tissue to provide
anaesthesia
A. Ethylene dioxide
B. Ethyl chloride
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Lidocaine
26. This equation shows the relationship between the vapour pressure and the absolute temperature of a liquid
A. Ideal Gas Equation
B. Van der Waals Equation
C. Noyes-Whitney Equation
D. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation
27. This is the heat absorbed by 1 mole of liquid when it passes into the vapour state
A. Molar Heat of Fusion
B. Molar Heat of Vaporization
C. Boiling point
D. Entropy
28. Determine the vapour pressure of water at 150°C. The vapour pressure of water at 110°C is 1.5atm and
molar heat of vaporization of 9500cal/mole
A. 2.73atm
B. 4.88atm
C. 7.5atm
D. 5.9atm
29. The vapour pressure of acetone at 100°C is 1.5atm and a molar heat of vaporization of 9750cal/mole.
Determine the temperature at which its pressure will drop at sea level
A. 362°C
B. 80°C
C. 89°C
D. 120°C
30. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid equals the external or atmospheric
A. Melting point
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Sublimation
31. Which of the following is/are true statement(s) about boiling point
I. At higher elevations the atmospheric pressure decreases, hence the boiling point increases
II. All the heat absorbed is used to change the liquid to vapour and the temperature does not
rise until the liquid is completely vaporized
III. Boiling point of hydrocarbons, simple alcohols and carboxylic acids increase with an increase
in molecular weight
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
32. This is the heat lost when the vapours condense to liquids
A. Heat of Condensation
B. Heat of Fusion
C. Heat of Vaporization
D. Heat of Fission
33. Which of the following is/are statement(s) that describes crystalline solids
I. They are made of structural units arranged in a loose geometric patterns or lattices
II. Crystalline solids are compressible unlike gases and liquids
III. Show definite and sharp melting points
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
34. An example of a tetragonal crystal system is
A. Urea
B. Iodoform
C. Iodine
D. Sodium Chloride
35. Boric acid is an example of a __________ crystal system
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
36. This is the crystal lattice formation of NaCl
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
37. Sucrose possess this type of crystal formation
A. Cubic
B. Hexagonal
C. Monoclinic
D. Triclinic
38. The units that constitute the crystal structure can be atoms, molecules or ions. Which of the following
substance(s) is/are crystal formation made of atoms
I. Diamonds and Graphite
II. NaCl
III. Solid CO2 and Naphthalene
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
39. This is/are statement(s0 which characterized different crystal formation
I. Atomic and ionic crystals are generally soft and have low melting points
II. Molecular crystals are hard, brittle and have high melting points
III. Metallic crystals may be soft or hard
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
40. The hardness and strength of metals are dependent on
A. Lattice defects
B. Electron gas
C. Attractive forces
D. Proton content
41. This is the temperature at which the liquid state is at equilibrium with the solid state of a pure crystalline
compound
I. Freezing point
II. Melting point
III. Boiling point
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
42. This is the heat lost when the liquid freezes into solid
B. Heat of Fusion
D. Heat of Combustion
43. This is/are true statement(s) about melting point
I. This is higher for alkanes with an even number of carbon atoms than those with odd number of carbons
II. This is generally high for crystals held together by Van der Waals forces than crystals held together by
covalent bonds
III. This is the heat required to increase the intermolecular and intramolecular distances in crystals
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
44. This is the lowest possible temperature in melting cacao butter so as not to destroy the crystal nuclei of the
stable beta form
A. 37°C
B. 35°C
C. 33°C
D. 30°C
45. This is/are true statement(s) about the effect of polymorphism in a drug
I. One polymorph is chemically different from another polymorph
II. One polymorph may be biologically active than the other polymorph
III. Polymorphism may affect the dissolution rate of drugs
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
46. These are compounds which are also known as pseudopolymorphs
A. Solvates
B. Amorphous solid
C. Liquid crystals
D. Isomers
47. This is the reversible change from one polymorphic form to another
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
48. If the direction of change from one polymorphic form to another involves one direction, this is said to be a
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
49. Crystals showing different characteristics in various directions along the crystal are
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
50. Crystalline substances that exhibit similar properties and characteristics in all directions are
A. Monotropic
B. Isotropic
C. Anisotropic
D. Enantiotropic
51. Which of the following statement(s) describe/s an amorphous solid
I. These are supercooled liquids
II. They don’t have a definite melting point
III. Have faster rate of dissolution than crystalline solids
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
52. Which of the following describe(s) the fourth state of matter
I. Properties of which are intermediate between the liquid and solid states
II. Will flow if sufficient pressure is applied
III. They are also known as the mesophase
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
53. This is are types of liquid crystals which are also known as the soap-like or grease-like crystals
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
54. This is also known as the thread-like crystals
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
55. This is the third type of liquid crystals, which may be considered as a special case of the nematic type
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Cholesteric
D. Thermotropic
56. This is/are statements which describe(s) the smectic crystals
I. The molecules of this crystals are mobile in two directions and can rotate in one axis
II. Considered as the mesophase of the most pharmaceutical significance
III. This phase easily forms binary systems or simple mixtures with other additives
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
57. This is/are characteristics of molecules that forms the mesophase
I. Are inorganic in nature
II. Possess strong dipoles and easily polarizable groups
III. Are elongated, rectilinear in shape and rigid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
58. These are liquid crystsals obtained from the action of certain solvents on solids
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Lyotropic
D. Thermotropic
59. These are forms of liquid crystals obtained from the application of sufficient heat on solids sto form the
mesophase
A. Smectic
B. Nematic
C. Lyotropic
D. Thermotropic
60. This was the first recorded type of liquid crystals that was derived through the application of heat
A. Cholesteryl benzoate
B. Calcium sterate
C. Sodium benzoate
D. Potassium acetate
61. This is the property of crystals which the mesophase also possess characterized as the ability to let light
pass through and divide into two components with different velocities and refractive index
A. Refraction
B. Polymorphism
C. Birefringence
D. Isomerism
62. This is used for relating the effect of the least number of independent variables (e.g. temperature, pressure
and concentration) upon the various phases that can exist in an equilibrium system containing a given of
components
A. Le Chatelier’s Principle
B. Gibb’s Phase Rule
C. Triangular Planar
D. Phase Diagram
63. This represents the number of homogenous, physically distinct portion of a system that is separated from
other portions of the system by bounding surfaces
A. Number of phases
B. Number of components
C. Degrees of freedom
D. Number of intermediates
64. This is the least number of intensive variables that must be fixed to describe the system completely
A. Number of phases
65. This is the smallest number of constituents by which the composition of each phase in the system at
equilibrium can be expressed in the form of a chemical formula or equation
A. Number of phases
66. This is/are true generalization(s) in the Gibbs’ phase rule for a single-component system
I. The number of the degrees of freedom increases with the increase in the number of components
II. The number of the degrees of freedom decreases with the increase in the number of phases
III. It is necessary to fix mor variable as the system becomes more complex
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
67. Determine the degrees of freedom of a system containing either ice, water or water vapour
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
68. What is the degree of freedom for a system containing a water in equilibrium with its vapour
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
69. Assuming that we have system wherein ice-water-water vapour are in equilibrium. What will be the degrees
of freedom of the system
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
70. Determine the degrees of freedom for a system containing liquid water, liquid ethanol in equilibrium with
their vapours
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
For nos. 71 – 74, use the diagram below to answer the question
W Z
Va Liquid
po
ur
Pr
es Solid
sur X
Gas
e
Y
Temperature
71. Which of the following represents the vapour pressure curve

A. Curve WX
B. Curve UX
C. Curve ZX
72. Which of the following is the deposition curve
A. Curve WX
B. Curve YX
C. Curve ZX
73. Which of the following represents the condensation curve
A. Curve WX
B. Curve YX
C. Curve ZX
74. This is the point at which variables are unnecessary to define the system
A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z
75. These are systems where in only the solid and liquid states are considered and the vapour state is ignored
A. Condensed System
B. Solid-Liquid Equilibrium System
C. Bivariant System
D. Conservative System
76. In the phase diagram of a two-component system containing two liquid phases, the maximum temperature
at which the two-phase region exist is called the
I. Upper Consolute Temperature
II. Critical Solution Temperature
III. Upper Miscibility Temperature
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
For nos. 77 – 79 use the following diagram
I
Data:
A = 18%
B = 28%
B C C = 53%
Te A D
mp D = 68%
era
II
tur
e
(°C
)
0 20 40 60 80 100
77. Determine the amount of component X (water) and component Y(Phenol) needed in preparing 50g of a
system that would contain 28% by weight phenol and 72% by weight water
A. 4 g water and 1 g phenol
B. 28 g phenol and 72 g water
C. 40 g water and 10 g phenol
D. 72 g phenol and 28 g water
78. What will be the weight of phenol and water to be used in a 75g system containing 53% by weight of phenol
and 47% by weight of water
B. 22.5 g water and 52.5 g phenol
C. 53 g phenol and 47 g water
79. In preparing a 100g system containing equal portions of water and phenol, how much will be the required
amount of each component?
B. 50 g water and 50 g phenol
C. 64 g phenol and 36 g water
For nos. 80 – 87 use the following diagram
Te
m I R
p Data:
er R = 75%
at A = 60%
ur B = 100%
e C = 50%
II III
(° 35
D = 100%
A B E = 40%
C)
F = 100%
27
C D
E
20 F
G
IV
15 H
20 40 60 80 100
Thymol in Salol (% by weight)
80. In the diagram which region represents the region where both components are present as pure solid phases
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
81. Which region is composed of solid salol and its conjugate liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
82. This is the region which represents the solid thymol and its conjugate liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
83. This is the region in which both thymol and salol will be present as a single liquid phase
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
84. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 35°C to be sued in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
phenol and 25% by weight of salol?
A. 50 g salol and 25 g thymol
B. 25 g salol and 50 g thymol
C. 47 g salol and 28 g thymol
D. 28 g salol and 47 g thymol
85. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 27°C to be used in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
86. What will be the weight of thymol and salol at 20°C to be used in a 75g system containing 75% by weight of
A. 50.5 g salol and 24.5 g thymol
B. 24.5 g salol and 50.5 g thymol
C. 31.25 g salol and 43.75 g thymol
D. 43.75 g salol and 31.25 g thymol
87. What will be the weights of thymol and salol required to prepare a 75g system at eutectic point
88. The heat involved in the complete oxidation of 1 mole of a compound at 1 atm pressure is known as
B. Heat of Fusion
D. Heat of Combustion
89. This is a condition where in heat is neither lost nor gained during a reaction
A. Adiabetic
B. Isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. Reversible
90. A reaction where in temperature is held constant
A. Adiabetic
B. Isothermal
C. Isobaric
D. Reversible
91. Which law of thermodynamics states that the total energy of a system and its immediate surroundings
remain constant during any operation
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
92. Which law of thermodynamics states that the entropy of a pure crystalline substance is zero at absolute zero
because the crystal arrangement mush show the greatest orderliness at this temperature
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
93. This law of thermodynamics is concerned about the entropy and spontaneity of a system
A. 1st Law
B. 2nd Law
C. 3rd Law
94. This is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 mole of a substance by 1 degree
A. Enthalpy
B. Molar Heat of Fission
C. Molar Heat Capacity
D. Molar Heat of Combustion
95. The heat required to increase the internal energy and to perform work of expansion
A. Enthalpy
B. Molar Heat of Fision
C. Molar Heat Capacity
D. Molar Heat of Combustion
96. These are any molecules which are associated with the absorption of ultraviolet or visible light
A. Phosphorescence
B. Chromophore
C. Photoluminescence
D. Fluorescence
97. A molecule that initially absorbs ultraviolet light to reach an excited state and then emits ultraviolet or visible
light in returning to ground state is generally manifesting the process known as
A. Phosphorescence
B. Chromophore
C. Photoluminescence
D. Fluorescence
98. This is defined as a mixture of two or more components that form a homogenous molecular dispersion
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Mixture
D. Colloidal Dispersion
99. This is defined as a bounded space or a definite quantity of substance that is under observation and
experimentation
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Phase
100. This is a distinct homogenous part of a system separated by definite boundaries from other parts of the
system
A. System
B. True Solution
C. Phase
101. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about colloidal dispersions
I. The dispersed particle are having size intermediate to that of a true solution and coarse dispersion
II. May be considered as a two-phase system in certain conditions
III. May be considered as a one-phase system in certain conditions
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
102. This are properties which are dependent on the total contribution of each component in a system
A. Additive
B. Colligative
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
103. This are properties which are dependent on the arrangement and to a lesser extent on the number and kind
of atoms within a molecule
A. Additive
B. Colligative
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
104. This is a property of a system which depends on the quantity of the matter present in a system
A. Additive
B. Intensive
C. Constitutive
D. Extensive
105. This is/are example(s) of intensive properties
I. Temperature
II. Volume
III. Density
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III
E. I, II and III
106. Which of the following is/are example of colligative properties of substances
I. Osmotic Pressure Elevation
II. Vapor Pressure Lowering
III. Freezing Point Elevation
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
107. Which of the following is/are example(s) of an additive property of a system
I. Refractive Index
II. Solubility
III. Mass of a solution
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
108. Which of the following is an example of an extensive property of a system
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. Volume
109. This concentration expression gives the measure of the relative proportion of moles of each constituent in a
solution
A. Molarity
B. Molality
C. Normality
D. Mole Fraction
For nos. 110 – 112
Given a 0.2 M solution of NaCl (MW = 58.5) in water (MW = 18) with a specific gravity of 1.45
110. How many grams of NaCl are present in 750ml solution

A. 3.7 g
B. 8.8 g
C. 10.5 g
D. 2.5 g
111. What is the molality of the solution
A. 0.2 m
B. 1.5 m
C. 0.14 m
D. 0.5 m
112. Determine the mole fraction of NaCl in solution
A. 4.6 x 10-3
B. 5.3 x 10-3
C. 3.7 x 10-3
D. 2.5 x 10-3
113. The heat absorbed when a solid melts
A. Heat of Fusion
B. Heat of Vaporization
C. Condensation
D. Sublimation
114. The human plasma contains 7.5 mEq/liter of calcium ions. How many milligrams of calcium chloride (MW =
147) are required to prepare a 750 ml solution having the same calcium plasma concentration?
A. 826.8 mg
B. 413.4 mg
C. 206.7 mg
D. 103.3 mg
115. Calculate the number of milliequivalents/liter of Al2O3 (MW = 324) present in a 2.5% (w/v) solution of Al2O3
A. 231 meq
B. 463 meq
C. 526 meq
D. 173 meq
116. Determine the vapor pressure of pure chloroform in a chloroform-water system, where water has a mole
fraction of 0.25 and the vapor pressure of pure water at 75°C is 450 mmHg. The total vapor pressure of the
mixture is 255 mmHg
A. 190 mmHg
B. 142.5 mmHg
C. 210 mmHg
D. 135 mmHg
For nos. 117 – 119 refer to the problem below
The vapor pressure of pure ethanol (MW = 72.5) at 25°C is 17.5 pounds/square inch (psi). Acetone (MW = 65.5) on
the other hand has a vapor pressure of 20.25 psi. In preparing a kilo of a 1:1 solution of Ethanol and Acetone
117. What is the partial pressure of ethanol in the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
118. What is the partial pressure of acetone in the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
119. What is the total vapor pressure of the mixture
A. 10.63 psi
B. 8.31 psi
C. 18.94 psi
D. 13.5 psi
120. Using Van’t Hoff equation for osmotic pressure. What is the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by
dissolving 2.5g of urea (MW = 155) in 500 ml of water at 30°C
A. 8 atm
B. 0.8 atm
C. 0.0008 atm
D. 0.08 atm
121. This is/are true statement(s) about a cathode
I. This is the positively charged electrode
II. The electrode where reduction occurs
III. The electrode here positively charged ions are attracted to
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
122. This is/are true statement(s) about an anode
I. This is the positively charged electrode
II. The electrode where oxidation occurs
III. The electrode where positively charged ions are attracted to
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
123. These are solvents which are capable of accepting protons from the solute
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
124. There are solvents which are capable of acting both as proton acceptor and proton donor
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
125. These are solvents that neither accepts nor donate a proton
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
126. A solvent characterized to be proton-donating compound
A. Protophilic
B. Protogenic
C. Amphiprotic
D. Aprotic
For nos. 127 – 130
A buffer solution was prepared by mixing 0.25M CHOONa and 0.125 HCOOH (pKa=3.75)
127. Determine the pH of the buffer solution

A. 3.95
B. 4.25
C. 4.05
D. 3.99
128. If the same composition is to be used in preparing a buffer solution with a pH of 4. What will be the molar
ration of the salt to acid?
A. 2.5:1
B. 1:2.5
C. 5.6:1
D. 1:5.6
129. What is the percentage of the ionized species in the buffer system
A. 84.8%
B. 15.15%
C. 45.2%
D. 3.99%
130. What is the percentage of the unionized species in the buffer system
A. 84.8%
B. 15.1%
C. 45.2%
D. 3.99%
131. pH is defined as
I. Negative log of hydrogen ion concentration
II. Sum of the hydrogen ion concentration and the hydroxyl ion concentration
III. Log of the hydrogen ion concentration
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
132. Sodium bicarbonate has a molecular weight of 84. If the 210mg is dissolved in 1L, what would be the
normality of the solution?
A. 0.25 N
B. 0.050 N
C. 2.5 N
D. 0.50 N
133. The water-ion theory of acids and bases is attributed to
A. Lewis
B. Pearson
C. Bronsted-Lowry
D. Arrhenius
134. What is the pH of a solution containing 0.5 mole of ephedrine and 0.02 mole of ephedrine HCl per liter of
solution? The Kb of ephedrine is given as 3.16 x 10-6
A. 8.35
B. 9.90
C. 10.89
D. 11.20
135. This is also known as the magnitude of the resistance of a buffer to resist pH changes
I. Buffer capacity
II. Buffer efficiency
III. Buffer index
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
For nos. 136 – 138
The Kb of pilocarpine is found to be 6.34 x 10-7 at 25°C
136. Determine the mole ration (salt/base) present at pH of 8.5

A. 5:1
B. 1:5
C. 8:1
D. 1:8
137. Determine the mole percent of the base
A. 83.3%
B. 16.7%
C. 20%
D. 39.5%
138. Determine the mole percent of the salt
A. 83.3%
B. 16.7%
C. 20%
D. 39.5%
139. A buffer was prepared containing 5 x 10-2 M sodium borate with 5 x 10-7 M boric acid. Determine the Ka of
the acid if the solution have a pH of 1.0
A. 1 x 106
B. 1 x 10-6
C. 1 x 10-9
D. 1 x 10-10
140. This is/are correct statement(s) about the effects of buffer capacity and pH in pharmaceutical products
I. They influence tissue irritation
II. These two also affects the therapeutic response of a drug
III. These will also impart solubility to the drug product
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
141. This is/are methods of isotonicity adjusting involving the addition of tonicity adjusting agent such as NaCl to
prepare the isotonic solution
I. NaCL equivalent method
II. Cryoscopic or freezing point depression method
III. Sprowls method
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
142. Calculate the osmolarity of a solution (mOsm/L) which contains 6 grams of sodium chloride in a liter (MW:
Na = 23 ; Cl = 35.5)
A. 51.3
B. 205
C. 102.5
D. 307
143. A solution contains 1% (w/v) Al2(SO4)3 ● 14 H2O (MW = 600). Assuming complete ionization and assuming
the MW to be correct, what will be the calculated osmolarity of the solution?
A. 20.8 mOsm/L
B. 41.6 mOsm/L
C. 83.3 mOsm/L
D. 166.6 mOsm/L
E. None of the above
144. A compound A*B* is 25% ionized has a molecular weight of 275. Wat is the osmolarity of a 0.3% solution?
A. 13.5 mOsm/L
B. 11.6 mOsm/L
C. 16.7 mOsm/L
D. 10.5 mOsm/L
145. Mannitol injection is used as a diuretic. The molecular weight of mannitol is 182. What is the osmolarity of a
0.2% solution? Mannitol is an ideal non-electrolyte
A. 18 mOsm/L
B. 20 mOsm/L
C. 11 mOsm/L
D. 4 mOsm/L
146. The term which expresses osmotic pressure effect of a solution as osmols per kg of solvent is
A. Osmolarity
B. Osmolality
C. Osmoticity
D. Isotonicity
E. Molarity
147. The compound shown below is calcium biphosphate and has a MW of 234. What is its gram equivalent
weight? Ca(H2PO4)2
A. 29.3
B. 58.5
C. 117
D. None of the above
148. An IV solution contains 300mg of potassium chloride (MW: K = 39; Cl = 35.5) in a liter of a 5 percent
dextrose solution (MW of dextrose is 200). What will be the osmolarity of the solution?
A. 258 mOsm/L
B. 8 mOsm/L
C. 28 mOsm/L
D. 254 mOsm/L
149. Al2(SO4)3 has a MW of 342. What is its gram equivalent weight?
A. 35 g/GEW
B. 171 g/GEW
C. 342 g/GEW
D. 57 g/GEW
Prepare the following:
Rx
Apomorphine HCl 2.5%
Ephedrine SO4 4.0%
NaCl q.s
Water q.s
Signa: Make a 200ml isotonic solution
1% solution of Fp (°C)
Apomorphine HCl 0.03
Ephedrine SO4 0.05
150. Determine how much NaCl should be used to prepare the prescription
A. 0.56 g
B. 0.85 g
C. 0.20 g
D. 0.37 g
151. Compute for the amount of dextrose (E=0.21) that would be necessary to make a gallon of a 5% solution of
ephedrine sulfate (E=0.13) isotonic
A. 9.5 g
B. 25 g
C. 45 g
D. None of the above
For nos. 152 – 153
Rx
ZnSO4 1%
NaCl q.s
Purified H2O q.s 60 ml
152. How much NaCl is needed to make an isotonic solution? (E value for ZnSO4 = 0.15)
A. 0.45 g
B. 0.54 g
C. 0.60 g
D. 0.75 g
153. If boric acid is to be used to adjust the tonicity of the solution, how much of this should be used (E value of
boric acid = 0.20)
A. 0.45 g
B. 1.54 g
C. 2.25 g
D. 0.75 g
For nos. 152 – 153
Rx
Ingredient X 0.5 (Ingredient X)
NaCl q.s MW 300
Purified H2O ad 60 ml i Factor 1.4
154. Determine the E value of ingredient X

A. 0.45
B. 0.15
C. 0.25
D. 0.75
155. Determine how many grams of NaCl should be required in compounding the following prescription
A. 0.375 g
B. 0.425 g
C. 1.25 g
D. 0.75 g
156. What if apomorphine HCl (E = 0.12) is used in making the solution isotonic rather than NaCl, how much of
apomorphine should be used?
A. 5.37 g
B. 3.12 g
C. 4.25 g
D. 2.75 g
157. Using the White-Vincent method for adjusting isotonicity, compute for the amount of diluting isotonic
solution needed to bring a 75 ml of 5% KCl solution (E = 0.21) to the desired volume
A. 52.5 ml
B. 32.3 ml
C. 97.5 ml
D. 27.5 g
158. This is/are factors that affects the solubility of gas in liquids
I. Pressure
II. Presence of salts
III. Chemical reactions between the gas and the solvent
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
159. This is a type of system in which the solute is in equilibrium with the solid phase
A. Saturated
B. Unsaturated
C. Subsaturated
D. Supersaturated
160. If a substance dissolves in a hundred to a thousand parts of solvent such substance is characterized to be
A. Soluble
B. Sparingly soluble
C. Slightly soluble
D. Very slightly soluble
161. Defined as the spontaneous interaction of two or more substances to form a homogenous molecular
dispersion
A. Distribution
B. Solubility
C. Diffusion
D. Stability
162. The law that states in a very dilute solution at constant temperature, the concentration of dissolved gas is
proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the solution in equilibrium
A. Raoult’s Law
B. Henry’s Law
C. Dalton’s Law
D. Graham’s Law
163. Salting out is a process that may take place in
I. Gas in Liquid System
II. Liquid in Liquid System
III. Solid in Liquid System
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
164. In the determination of molecular weight, the freezing point method is the preferred method when
I. The solute is alcohol
II. The solute is nonvolatile
III. The substance is not decomposed at boiling temperature
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
165. The addition of electrons to a chemical species is called
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Electrolysis
D. Conduction
166. The man who stated that the passage of 96,500 coulombs of electricity through a conductivity cell produces
a chemical change of 1 gram equivalent weight of any substance
A. Van’t Hoff
B. Arrhenius
C. Debye
D. Faraday
167. The scientist who developed the principle that strong electrolytes are completely dissociated into ions in
solutions of moderate concentration and that any deviation from complete dissociation is due to interionic
attractions
A. Mason and Gardner
B. Van’t Hoff and Morse
C. Debye and Huckel
D. Bronsted and Lowry
168. Which of the following is an example of protogenic solvent
A. Formic acid
B. Acetone
C. Ether
D. Liquid Ammonia
169. A substance containing two or more donor groups may combine with a metal to form a special type of
complex known as
A. Colloid
B. Chelate
C. Ligands
D. Clathrates
170. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a zero-order rate constant
A. Time-1
B. Concentration-1 time-1
C. Concentration / time
D. Concentration / time-1
171. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a first-order rate constant
A. Time-1
172. Which of the following is the correct unit of expression for a second-order rate constant
A. Time-1
173. This is the equation for determining the half-life of a first-order reaction. Where a = concentration
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2k
174. Which of the following is the half-life equation for the second-order kinetics
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2k
175. Which of the following is the half-life equation for the zero-order kinetics
A. a / 2k
B. 1 / ak
C. 0.693 / k
D. 3 / 2 a2K
For nos. 176 – 179
The concentration of formaldehyde remaining after 180 min., expressed as the volume of the gas, was 5 ml
from an initial volume of 60 ml
176. Compute for the first-order rate constant

A. 0.0035 / min
B. 0.0138 / min
C. 0.693 / min
D. 0.012 / min
177. Compute for the half-life of formaldehyde
A. 45.2 min
B. 80.4 min
C. 50.2 min
D. 28.7 min
178. How much of formaldehyde have decomposed after 30 min?
A. 20.33 ml
B. 30.25 ml
C. 39.67 ml
D. 28.75 ml
179. What is the shelf-life of formaldehyde
A. 4.2 min
B. 8.4 min
C. 5.2 min
D. 7.6 min
For nos. 180 – 184
A suspension is to contain 3.5g per two tablespoon full of a drug. The solubility of the drug is 250mg/100ml.
The 1st order rate constant for the drug degradation was given as 3.5 x 10-4 per hour
180. Compute for the zero-order rate constant
A. 8.75 x 10-5 or 8.75 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-
B. 7.35 x 10-5 or 7.35 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-
C. 5.48 x 10-5 or 5.48 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-
D. 6.75 x 10-5 or 6.75 x 10-5 g/100ml.hr-

181. Determine the shelf-life of the product
A. 3 years
B. 2.5 years
C. 2 years
D. 1.5 years
182. Determine its half-life
A. 3.7 years
B. 5.5 years
C. 7.7 years
D. 2.6 years
183. A type of reaction-order where the amount of drug A is decreasing at a rate proportional to the square of
the amount of drug A remaining
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
184. A type of reaction-order where the rate is independent of the concentration of the reactant/s
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
185. A type of reaction where the rate of reaction is dependent of the concentration of the drug remaining
A. 1st order
B. 2nd order
C. 3rd order
D. 0th order
186. A separation process based on unequal rates of passage of solutes and solvent through a microporous
membranes, carried out in a batch in a continuous mode
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
187. It is used to separate colloidal particles and macromolecules by the use of a membrane
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
188. This is a process of mass transfer of individual molecules of a substance, brought about by random
molecular motion and associated with a concentration gradient
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
189. This is referred to as the transfer of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a region
of low solute to high solute concentration
A. Diffusion
B. Dialysis
C. Osmosis
D. Ultrafiltration
190. This is a process almost similar to ultrafiltration, which differs only in that it requires higher pressure
A. Diffusion
B. Reverse osmosis
C. Hemodialysis
D. Microfiltration
191. This law explains the phenomenon of diffusion
A. Newton’s Law
B. Henry’s Law
C. Dalton’s Law
D. Fick’s Law
192. This equation refers to the dissolution rate of drugs in solution
A. Fick’s equation
B. Noyes-Whitney equation
C. Michaelis-Menten equation
D. Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
193. This is/are example(s) of systems where in a liquid interface is present
I. Gas in Liquid System
II. Liquid in Liquid System
III. Solid in Liquid System
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
194. The force of attraction between molecules of different phases is referred to as
A. Electrostatic force
B. Adhesive force
C. Van der Waal’s force
D. Cohesive
195. This is/are the force per unit length existing at the interface between two immiscible liquid phases
I. Interfacial tension
II. Surface tension
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
196. This is/are true statement(s) about surface and interfacial tensions
I. Surface tension is reserved only for liquid-gas and solid-gas systems
II. Generally surface tension is stronger than interfacial tension
III. Interfacial tension includes the force acting in between a solid-solid system
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
197. This is/are method used for measuring surface and interfacial tension
I. Capillary rise method
II. DuNouy ring method
III. Drop weight method
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
198. Proposed the monolayer theory of gas adsorption on solid surface
A. Langmuir
B. Freundlich
C. Noyes-Whitney
D. Brunauer, Emmet and Teller
199. This is a surfactant that wen dissolved in water lowers the advancing contact angle and aids in displacing
an air phase at the surface and replacing it with a liquid phase
A. Detergent
B. Wetting agent
C. Solubilizing agent
D. Antifoaming agent
200. This is characterized as a stable structure consisting of air pockets enclosed within thin film of liquid
A. Aerosol
B. Foam
C. Detergent
D. Antifoaming agent
201. Which of the following statement is true?
I. When the contact angle is 180°, wetting is complete
II. When a liquid has a high contact angle on a solid surface, it is said to have a high spreading coefficient
III. Wetting agents are surfactants having an HLB of 7 to 9
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
202. A liquid will rise in a capillary tube when the contact angle is
I. Greater than 0° but less than 90°
II. Greater than 90° but less than 135°
III. Greater than 90° but less than 180°
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
203. The degree of adsorption of a gas by a solid depends on which of the following
I. Chemical nature of the adsorbent
II. Surface area of the adsorbent
III. Partial pressure of the gas
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
204. Desorption the reverse process of adsorption and which is possible only in physical adsorption may take
place in a gas-solid system when
I. Temperature is increased and pressure lowered
II. Temperature is lowered and pressure increased
III. Both temperature and pressure were lowered
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
205. In adsorption at solid interface the material which is adsorbed is referred to as the
A. Adsorbate
B. Adsorbent
C. Absorbent
D. Eluate
206. This is defined as the difference in potential between the actual surface and the electroneutral region of the
solution
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
D. Langmuir potential
207. Defined as the difference in potential between the surface of the tightly bound layers and the electroneutral
region of the solution
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
208. Which of the following has a practical application in the stability of systems containing dispersed particles
affecting the degree of repulsion between adjacent, similarity charged, dispersed particles
A. Zeta potential
B. Nernst potential
C. Newton potential
209. When the electrokinetic potential is lowered to a certain value, which of the following will take place
I. Repulsive forces exceeds the attractive forces resulting to a well dispersed system
II. Attractive forces exceeds the repulsive forces resulting to the flocculation of particles in solution
III. There will be an equilibrium between the attractive and repulsive forces of the system
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
210. This is/are characteristics of colloidal dispersions
I. Particle size less than 1nm (mµ)
II. Particles not seen by ordinary microscope, but can be visible in electron microscope
III. Can pass through a filter paper but do not pass through semipermeable membrane
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
211. This is a dispersion characterized to have a particle size of less than 1 nm, invisible to electron microscope
and would pass through a semipermeable membrane
A. Lyophilic dispersion
B. Molecular dispersion
C. Coarse dispersion
D. Colloidal dispersion
212. This is/are true statements about lyophilic colloids
I. It is a system containing particles that interact to an appreciable extent with the dispersion medium
II. Most of the dispersed particles are organic in nature
III. A material that forms a lyophilic colloidal system in one liquid may not do so in another
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
213. This is/are properties associated with lyophobic colloids
I. It is a system containing particles that have negligible attraction with the dispersion medium
II. Most of the dispersed particles are organic in nature
III. A material that forms a lyophilic colloidal system in one liquid may not do so in another liquid
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
214. This is a type of colloidal system which is unstable to the addition of small amounts of electrolytes
A. Lyophilic colloids
B. Lyophobic colloids
C. Association colloids
D. Amphiphilic colloids
215. This is an example of an optical property of colloid
A. Brownian movement
B. Faraday-Tyndall effect
C. Sedimentation
D. Zeta potential
216. This is/are example(s) of kinetic properties of colloids
I. Diffusion
II. Brownian motion
III. Sedimentation
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
217. This involves the movement of charged particle through a liquid under the influence of an applied potential
difference
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
C. Sedimentation potential
D. Streaming potential
218. This involves the movement of liquid through a plug or membrane across which a potential is applied
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
219. This involves the forcing of liquid to flow through a plug or bed of particles which results in the formation of
a potential
A. Electrophoresis
B. Electroosmosis
220. This is the measure of the protective property of colloids which stabilizes a hydrophobic colloid
A. Schulze-Hardy number
B. Gold number
D. Zeta potential
221. Particle size may be measured using an arbitrarily chosen fixed line. Which of the following is a measure of
the distance between two tangents parallel to some fixed direction
A. Feret diameter
B. Martin diameter
C. Projected area diameter
222. It is the diameter of a circle with the same areas as that of the particle observed perpendicular to the
surface on which the particle rests
A. Feret diameter
B. Martin diameter
C. Projected area diameter
223. This is taken as the length of a line that bisects a particle
A. Optical microscopy
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
D. HIAC/Royco counter
224. This is a method of particle size determination using the principle of light blockage
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
225. This is a method of particle size determination using the principle of electrical resistance
B. Sieving
C. Coulter counter
226. The ration of the void volume to the bulk volume is
A. Liquidity
B. Bulkiness
C. Porosity
D. Viscosity
227. This is known as the volume of the spaces between particles
A. Void volume
B. Bulk volume
C. True volume
For nos. 228 - 229
A powder was determined to have a density of 4.57g/cm 3, weighing 125g it was found to have a bulk volume of
78 cm3 when placed in a 100ml graduated cylinder
228. Calculate the porosity of the powder

A. 65% C. 35%
B. 50% D. 75%
229. Compute for the void volume of the powder
A. 40.84 cm3
B. 50.65 cm3
C. 35.75 cm3
D. 75.42 cm3
For nos. 230 – 235
The following data apply to a 1g sample of granular powder

Volume of the solid alone = 0.5 cm3/g
Volume of intraparticle pores = 0.1 cm3/g
Volume of spaces between particles = 1.6 cm3/g
230. What is the specific true volume
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
231. What is the specific granule volume (Vg)
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
232. What is the specific bulk volume (Vb)
A. 0.5 cm3/g
B. 2.2 cm3/g
C. 1.6 cm3/g
D. 0.6 cm3/g
233. Determine the total porosity of the particles
A. 55.37%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
234. Determine the interspace porosity of the particles
A. 72.72%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
235. Determine the intraparticle porosity
A. 72.72%
B. 16.67%
C. 77.27%
D. 91.52%
236. This is a measure of the frictional forces in a loose powder
A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
C. Angle of Repose
D. Hauser Ratio
237. This is the reciprocal of bulk density
A. Porosity
B. Bulkiness
C. Angle of Repose
D. Hauser Ratio
For nos. 238 – 241
I II III IV
G G G G
F F F F
238. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a pseudoplastic system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
239. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a plastic system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
240. Which of the following diagram shows the rheogram of a dilatant system
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
241. Which rheogram represents the Newtonian system of flow
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
242. The resistance of fluid to flow is called
A. Liquidity
B. Bulkiness
C. Porosity
D. Viscosity
243. This are substances which requires the application of stress which must overcome the yield value in order
for flow to occur
I. Plastic
II. Bingham Bodies
III. Gels
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
244. A type of flow in which the bulk of the system expands in response to an increase in shear stress
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Rheopectic
245. Viscosity of a pseudoplastic substance decreases with
A. Increasing shear rate
B. Decreasing shear rate
C. Increasing time
D. Decreasing time
246. This is also known as the “shear thinning system”
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Rheopectic
247. An isothermal and comparatively slow recovery of a consistency lost through shearing
A. Elasticity
B. Thixotropy
C. Plasticity
D. Viscosity
248. This is a type of flow system in which the rheogram presents with a hysteresis loop
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Dilatant
C. Thixotropic
D. Plastic
249. Gels and magmas when standing form semisolids and on shaking become fluid are said to be
A. Pseudoplastic
B. Thixotropic
C. Plastic
D. Rheopectic
250. The following statement(s) is/are true for an emulsion
I. Thermodynamically stable system
II. Consists of at least two immiscible liquid phases
III. The dispersed phase is stabilized by a surfactant
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
251. Generally, medicinal emulsions for oral administration are usually of what type
A. w/o emulsion
B. o/w emulsion
C. w/o/w emulsion
D. Microemulsion
252. This explains the separation of layers in an emulsion
A. Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces
B. Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces
C. Cohesive and adhesive forces are in equilibrium
D. Cohesive forces is equal to zero
253. Complete miscibility is achieved when
A. Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces
B. Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces
C. Adhesive forces is equal to zero
D. Cohesive forces is equal to zero
254. This type of emulsion represents a state intermediate between thermodynamically stable solubilized
solutions and a thermodynamically unstable form
A. w/o emulsion
B. o/w emulsion
C. w/o/w emulsion
D. Microemulsion
255. This is/are example(s) of methods for determining types of emulsions
I. UV Fluorescence Test
II. Dye Solubility Test
III. Sedimentation Test
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
256. This is a method of preparing emulsion which utilizes the concept of phase inversion from w/o to o/w
emulsion
A. English method
B. Continental method
C. Forbes bottle method
D. In situ soap method
257. Which of the following is an example of a water in oil emulsion
A. Butter
B. Tragacanth
C. Gelatin
D. Acacia
258. Which of the following describes an oil in water emulsion
I. HLB 9 – 12
II. Span 60
III. Tween 20
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I and III
259. This is a gel in which the liquid is removed and only the framework remains
A. Hydrogels
B. Organogels
C. Jellies
D. Xerogels
260. A gel may be classified as organic or inorganic. Which of the following statements is/are true for organic
gels
I. Characterized as a two-phase system
II. Characterized as a single-phase system
III. Forms a homogenous gelatinous mixture
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
261. A phenomenon in which the liquid portion of a gel is pressed out
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Inhibition
262. This is a process which involves the taking up of liquid by a gel with an observable increase in its volume
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Imbibition
263. A phenomenon where in a gel takes up liquid without an observable increase in volume
A. Sweating
B. Syneresis
C. Swelling
D. Imbibition
264. This also known as the water washable form of emulsion base
A. o/w bases
B. w/o bases
C. emulsifiable bases
D. emulsified bases
265. This is also known as the absorption base
A. o/w bases
B. w/o bases
C. Emulsifiable bases
D. Emulsified bases
266. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution
A. Normality
B. Molality
C. Molarity
D. Formality
267. The following statement(s) is/are true for dustibility
I. It is a measure of the cohesiveness of particles of a compacted powder
II. It characterizes free-flowing powders
III. It is related to the uniform spreading of dusting powders when applied to skin
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
268. This is the approximate angle formed when the particles are floating well out of the liquid
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
269. This is the angle formed when the particles sink into the liquid
A. 0°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
270. This is/are true statements regarding electrolytes in solution
I. Will act as deflocculating agents
II. Will cause a reduction of the zeta potential
III. Will form a bridge between adjacent particles so as to produce a closely packed structure
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. II and III
271. A method of measuring tonicity which is based on the effect of various solutions of the drug observed on
the appearance of red blood cells suspended in the solution
A. Cryoscopic method
B. NaCl equivalent method
C. Freezing point depression method
D. Hemolytic method
272. When the stress is removed, a _____ system returns to its original state of fluidity
A. Dilatant
B. Plastic
C. Pseudoplastic
D. Newtonian
273. The following is/are method(s) of determining particle size
I. Optical Microscopy
II. Particle Volume Counter
III. Sedimentation
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
274. Generally there are three types of densities of particles. Which of the following densities is defined as the
density exclusive of the voids and intraparticle pores larger than molecular or atomic dimensions in the
crystal lattic
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
275. This is a type of density determined from the bulk volume and the weight of the dry powder in a graduated
cylinder
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
276. This is the density determined by the displacement of mercury, which does not penetrate at ordinary
pressures into pores smaller than 10µm
A. True density
B. Granule density
C. Bulk density
277. Molecular weight is an example of what property
A. Colligative
B. Constitutive
C. Additive
D. Extensive
278. Which of the following is/are classified as an example(s) of constitutive property
I. Optical rotation
II. Density
III. Mass
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and II
279. Law of Heat Summation
A. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
B. 1st Fick’s Law
C. Hess’ Law
D. Dalton’s Law
280. The fastest order of reaction to decompose, since according to its differential rate of expression, it is
independent of the remaining concentration of the drug after decomposition
A. Zero
B. Pseudo-First
C. First
D. Second
281. This type of solution has a solute concentration equivalent to its limit of solubility
A. Unsaturated
B. Saturated
C. Supersaturated
282. Ascorbic acid is the least stable of all vitamins. Its instability is via this reaction
A. Photolysis
B. Hydrolysis
C. Oxidation
D. Reduction
283. Method of adjusting the tonicity of a solution to conform that of the blood and lacrimal fluid based on the
use of calculated volume V values when the weight of the drug is 0.3g followed by the dilution of this solution
with an already isotonic usually buffered solution to the appropriate volume
A. Cryoscopic
B. Sprowls
C. White-Vincent
D. NaCl equivalent
284. Equation used for the determination of the buffer capacity of solution
A. Van Slyke equation
B. Vant Hoff’s equation
C. Freundlich equation
D. Langmuir equation
285. Maximum buffer capacity can be observed in a buffer solution when
I. pH equals pKa
II. pH lesser than pKa
III. pKa greater than pH
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II
E. I, II and III
286. A group which donates a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent link between itself and the central
ion having an incomplete electron shell
A. Metal substrate
B. Chromophore
C. Ligand
D. Chelate
287. The suppression of a property or reaction of a metal without the removal of that metal from the system
A. Stabilization
B. Sequestration
C. Coordination
D. Sensitization
288. Type of complexation involved in the formulation of Warfarin sodium USP
A. Clathrate formation
B. Monomolecular inclusion
C. Channel lattice type
D. Chelation
289. Type of complexation involved in Starch-Iodine Complex
D. Chelation
289. A group which donates a pair of electrons to form a coordinate covalent link between itself and the central
having an incomplete electron shell
A. Metal substrate
B. Chromophore
C. Ligand
D. Chelate
290. The suppression of a property or reaction of a metal without the removal of that metal from the system
A. Stabilization
B. Sequestration
C. Coordination
D. Sensitization
291. Type of complexation involved in the formulation of Warfarin sodium USP
D. Chelation
292. Type of complexation involved in Starch-Iodine Complex
D. Chelation
293. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for anti-foaming agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
294. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for W/O emulsifying agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
295. The upward movement of dispersed droplets relative to the continuous phase
A. Sedimentation
B. Coalescence
C. Creaming
D. Aggregation
296. Range of HLB value in the Griffin Scale for O/W emulsifying agents
A. 1 – 3
B. 3 – 8
C. 8 – 16
D. 16 – 18
297. The force on the solution side of the membrane which prevents the movement of solvent molecules on the
opposite side of the membrane
A. Cohesive forces
B. Adhesive forces
C. Osmotic pressure
D. Interfacial forces
298. The electrode from which the anions are repelled
A. Cathode
B. Anode
299. These is/are true statements of the Kinetic Theory of Gas
I. Gases are in rapid, random motion, moving at high velocities in curved lines
II. Collisions of gas molecules are completely elastic
III. Molecules are far apart with negligible volume even at high pressure
A. I only
B. II only
C. II, III only
D. I, II, III
300. The expression of the relation between the volume of gas and the absolute temperature is known as
A. Charles’ Law
B. Boyle’s Law
C. Gay-Lussac’s Law
D. Henry’s Law
JURISPRUDENCE
1. The special law on counterfeit drug is known as RA__________

A.7394
B.3720
C.8203
D.5921
E.NOTA ( none of the above )
2. Counterfeit drug refer to the mdicinal products.
A. recognized in USP/NF
B. article intended for use in diagnosis, cure, mitigation and treatment of disease.
C. without active ingredient results in the reduction of drugs safety, efficacy, quality or strength
D. A & C only
E. AOTA ( all of the above )
3. Which of the following is a prohibited act under the special law on counterfeit drugs?
A. possession of the drug
B. manufacture, sale, offer for sale, donation, trafficking or importation of drug
C. unregistered imported drug products
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
4. The parties liable in RA 8203 include:
A. the pharmacist
B. inspector
C. manufacturer
D. customer
E. A & C
5. If the seized drug was found to counterfeit, the business establishment must be directed for preventive
closure for a period of :
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 30 days
D. 20 days
E. 60 days
6. Administrative sanctions for any violators of special law on counterfeit drugs:
A. fine NLT 100,000 pesos and NMT 500,000 pesos
B. permanent closure of establishment and revocation of its license to do business
C. forfeiture, confiscation and destruction of products found to be counterfeit
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
7. RA 8203 was signed into law on:
A. Sept. 4, 1996
B. Sept. 13, 1988
C. Oct. 4, 1996
D. Sept. 13, 1986
E. Sept. 4, 1992
8. Drugs, as defined in RA 8203, refer to:
A. any article recognized in the official USP/NF
B. any article intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man
or animals
C. herbal and/ or in traditional drugs which are articles of plant or animal origin used in folk medicine
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
9. A certain drug is considered counterfeit if it contains less than how many percent of the active ingredient it
purports to possess?
A.80
B. 75
C. 60
D. 85
E. 90
10. As defined in RA 8203, this refers to any entity, whether a single proprietorship, partnership or
corporation engaged in or doing business in Philippines.
A. brokering
B. business establishment
C. residency
D. ownership
E. NOTA
11. Any person in possession of counterfeit drugs shall be exempted from liability after:
A. presentation of sales invoices, official receipts or legally acceptable document evidencing his
purchase from a drugstore an indicating therein the batch and lot numbers and expiry dates of such drugs
B. presentation of certificates evidencing the importation and exportation of drugs
C. presentation of duplicates legally acceptable documents evidencing the purchase and importation or
exportation of the drugs
D.A & B only
E. AOTA
12. Upon finding that the drugs examined are counterfeit, the Bureau shall file an appropriate proceeding
against the registered pharmacist with the PRC for the___________ of professional license.
A. revocation
B. suspension
C. cancellation
D. A or B
E. NOTA
13. The commission of the acts prohibited in RA 8203 shall be punished by:
A. imprisonment of NLT 6 months and one day but NMT 1 year if the counterfeit drug is intended for
animals
B. imprisonment of 6 years and one day but NMT 10 years
C. fine of NLT 100,000 pesos but NMT 500,000 pesos
D. B or C
E.AOTA
14. If the counterfeit drug is proximate cause of death of victim who unknowingly purchased and took the
counterfeit drug, the penalty to be imposed shall be:
A. life imprisonment
B. fine of 500,000 pesos to 5M pesos
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 10M pesos
D. A & B only
E. A & C only
15. If the illness sought to be cured is aggravated by the use of the counterfeit drug, the punishment to be
imposed shall be:
A. imprisonment from 12 years to 15 years
B. life imprisonment
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 500,000 pesos
D. A & C only
E. B & C only
fine of 100,000 pesos to 500,000 pesos
A. June 23, 1969
B. June 23, 1963
C. June 22, 1969
D. June 22, 1963
E NOTA
17. A complete pharmacy internship are based on RA 5921 article III section 18c shall consist of at least:
A. 480 hours
B. 960 hours
C.160 hours
D. 980 hours
E. 940 hours
18. RA 5921 provides for and shall govern:
A. standardization and regulation of pharmaceutical education
B. examination and registration of graduates of schools of pharmacy
C. supervision, control and regulation of the practice of pharmacy in Philippines
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
19. For the purpose of implementing RA 5921, this/these was/were created:
A. Board of Pharmacy
B. Council of Pharmaceutical Education
C.PRC
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
20. The Council of Pharmaceutical Education was created for the implementation of RA 5921. This council is
composed of:
A. Secretary of Education
B. BFAD administrator
C. Chairman of Board of Pharmacy
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
22. The Board of Pharmacy was created for the implementation of RA 5921. This Board is composed of a
chairman and _______ members.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
23. Who shall appoint the chairman and the members of the Board of Pharmacy?
A. BFAD director
C. President of the Philippines
D. Sec. of Department of Education
E. Commissioner of Civil Service
24. To be appointed member of the Board of Pharmacy, a person shall be a duly registered pharmacist and
has been in the practice of Pharmacy for at least _________ years.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 8
D. 10
E. 12
25. According to RA 5921, the qualifications of members of the Board of Pharmacy include:
A. natural born citizen in Philippines
B. of good moral character and of recognized standing in the pharmaceutical profession
C. a member of good standing of any bona fide national pharmaceutical association of the Philippines
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
26. For how many years shall the chairman and members of the Board of Pharmacy hold office after appointment?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 2
27. Which of the following statement is/are correct about the tenure of office and fees of board members?
A. The chairman or member may be reappointed for another term of 3 years but in no case shall he serve
continuously for more than 6 years
B. The most senior of the Board shall automatically be the chairman
C. The chairman and members shall receive the sum of 60 pesos for each applicant examined
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
28. If found guilty and neglect duty, incompetence, malpractice, unprofessional or dishonorable conduct, after
having been given the opportunity to defined himself in an administrative investigation, the Chairman or Members of
the Board may be removed by:
A. President of the Philippines
B. Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceutical Education
C. BFAD administrator
D. PRC Commissioner
E. Civil Service Commissioner
29. According to RA 5921, who shall be the Executive Officer of the Board?
A. President of the Philippines
B. Chairman of the Council of Pharmaceutical Education
C. BFAD Administrator
D. PRC Commissioner
E. Civil Service Commissioner
30. The Board of Pharmacy is vested with the authority to:
A. examine applicants for the practice of pharmacy
B. issue certificates of registration of pharmacists
C. study the conditions affecting the practice of pharmacy in the Philippines
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
31. Any person who shall be employed as detailman by any pharmaceutical establishment shall be required to
register with the:
A. PRC
B. BFAD
C. Board of Pharmacy
D. DOH
E. Council of Pharmaceutical Education
32. As defined in RA 5921, he is the one who represents any duly authorized manufacturer, dealer, distributor,
representative or wholesaler of drugs, pharmaceutical and biologic products whose primary duty is to introduce the
product made by the manufacturer.
A. broker
B. owner
C. detailman
D. retailer
E. wholesaler
33. Which of the following statement is/are true for detailman?
A. he shall be, preferably, a graduate of a college of Pharmacy
B. an initial fee of 20 pesos is needed upon registration
C. to be employed, he needs to possess the necessary credentials issued by the PRC
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
34. Any of the following shall be sufficient ground for reprimanding a pharmacist, or for suspending or revoking his
certificate of registration:
A. immoral or dishonorable conduct which includes conviction by a competent court of any criminal offense
B. fraud or deceit in the acquisition of the certificate of registration
C. insanity
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
35. Any of the following shall be sufficient ground for reprimanding a pharmacist, or for suspending or revoking his
certificate of registration:
A. acting as dummy of an alien or a person who is not a qualified to establish or operate a retail drugstore
B. gross negligence, or ignorance or incompetence in the practice of his profession resulting in the injury or
death of another
C. violations of any provisions of the code of ethics
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
36. Under RA 5921, administrative investigation shall be conducted by all members of the Board of Pharmacy. In
case of suspension, it shall be for a period of not more than:
A. 60 days
B. 6 months
C. 30 days
D. 3 months
E. 1 year
37. The Board of Pharmacy, upon receipt of a formal complaint under oath against a pharmacist, shall furnish the
latter a copy of the complaint which he shall answer within _______ days from receipt.
A. 15
B. 5
C. 10
D. 30
E. 60
38. A candidate for Board examination in pharmacy shall have the following qualification/s:
A. shall be a citizen of the Philippines
B. shall be of good moral character
C. shall have graduated with the degree of Bachelor of Science in Pharmacy or with an equivalent degree from a
school, college or university duly accredited by the Council of Pharmaceutical Education, completing a standard
pharmacy course of not less than 4 academic years.
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
39. The Pharmacist Examination shall consist of theoretical examination on the subjects in:
A. Chemistry
B. Biological science
C. Pharmacy
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
40. A person is deemed to be practicing pharmacy within the meaning of Article IV of RA 5921, if he:
A. prepares or manufactures, analyzes, assays, preserves, stores, distributes, or sells any medicine, drug,
chemicals, cosmetics and pharmaceuticals
B. renders pharmaceutical service in any office or drug and cosmetic establishment where scientific,
technological or professional knowledge of pharmacy is applied
C. engages in teaching scientific, technological or professional pharmacy subject in the college of pharmacy
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
41. Filling and refilling of prescription shall be done by:
A. registered pharmacist
B. intern with the supervision of a registered pharmacist
C. nurse
D. pharmacy aide
E. A & B only
42. Every prescription for external use filled in the drugstore shall bear what label?
A. red label
B. white label
C. red label showing in blank ink the components and the word “For external use only”
D. white label showing in red ink the word “For external use only”
E. NOTA
43. All prescription dispensed in the drugstore shall be recorded in the books kept for the purpose indicating:
A. name of the manufacturer
B. address of the manufacturer
C. lot and control numbers of the main ingredients of the prescription
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
44. The following substances are included in the list of violent poisons stated in RA 5921:
A. atropine
B. nitrobenzene
C. strychnine
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
45. If a pharmacists dispenses or sells any of the violent poisons intended for medicinal use, he shall enter into a
separate book detail such as:
A. name and address of purchaser
B. date of sale
C. purpose of purchase
D. name and quantity of poison
E. AOTA
46. The pharmacist shall affix to every box, bottle or other package containing any dangerous or poisonous drug the
following:
A. a label of white paper with the word POISON in red ink
B. a label of red paper
C. the word ‘Poison’ in large letters
D. a vignette representing skull and bones
E. B, C and D only
47. The book kept for the purpose of recording the sale of poisons shall be open at all times for inspection and shall
be preserved for a period of at least________ years after the last entry.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. 7
48. The pharmacist in charge of a drugstore after filling a prescription containing abortive or anti- conception
substances or devices shall record in a separate register book for abortive and anti- conception the following data:
A. number and date of prescription
B. name and address of physician
C. date of filling a prescription
D. name, quantity and manufacturer of drug
E. AOTA
49. Any person who shall make false representation to procure a registration certificate as pharmacist for himself or
for another shall be sentenced to:
A. A fine of NLT 1000 pesos but not exceeding 4000 pesos
B. An imprisonment of NLT 6 months and one day but NMT 4 years
C. An imprisonment of NLT 4 months and one day but NMT 4 years
D. A & B only
E. A & C only
50. This means a method of secret writing that substitutes other or characters for the letter intended, or transposes
the letter after arranging them in blocks or squares.
A. code
B. cipher
C. secret keys
D. substitution
E. NOTA
51. This means a system of words or others system arbitrarily used to present words.
A. Code
B. Cipher
C. Secret keys
D. Substitution
E. NOTA
52. This means characteristic styles or symbols kept from the knowledge of others or disclosed confidentially to only
one or few.
A. Code
B. Cipher
C. Secret keys
D. Substitution
E. NOTA
53. It is any drug, active principle or preparation of the same, capable of destroying life or seriously endangering
health when applied externally to the body or introduced internally in moderate doses.
A. Adulterated drug
B. Misbranded drug
C. Counterfeit drug
D. Poison
E. AOTA
54. This term means any drug, preparation or mixture of drugs marked under a trade name and intended for the
cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in man or animals.
A. Pharmaceuticals
B. Proprietary medicines
C. Pharmaceuticals specialties
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
55. Under Ra 5921, Drug means:
A. article in the current official USP/NF
B. articles other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man and animals
C. herbal and/or traditional drugs which are articles of plant or animal origin used in folk medicine
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
56. RA 3720 is also known as:
A. Pharmacy Law
B. Consumer Act of the Philippines
C. Food, Drugs and Cosmetics and Devices Act
D. Senior Citizens Act
E. Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs
A. June 22, 1963
B. June 22, 1969
C. June 23, 1969
D. July 22, 1969
E. July 22, 1963
58. In accordance with the provision of RA 3720, the Government through the DOH shall:
A. establish standards and quality measures for foods, drugs and devices and cosmetics
B. adopt measures to ensure pure and safe supply of foods and cosmetics
C. strengthen the BFAD
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
59. This division shall take charge of the inspection of food, drug and cosmetic establishment engaged in their
manufacture and sale.
A. Licensing Division
B. Inspection Division
C. Inspection and Licensing Division
D. Laboratory Division
E. C & D
60. Under RA 3720, The Board of Food Inspection is converted into the Board of Food and Drug Inspection which
shall consist of:
A. Representative of DOH
B. Representative of Dept. of Agriculture and Natural Resources
C. Representative of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
61. Under RA 3720, the Board of Food Inspection is converted into the Board of Drug Inspection which shall consist
of:
A. An authorized designate of the Commission of Custom
B. Pres. of the Phil. Medical Association
C. Pres. of the Phil. Pharmaceutical Association
D. Representative of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
E. AOTA
62. Who shall be designated by the Sec. of Health to be the Chairman of the Board of Food and Drug Inspection?
A. Representative of the DOH
B. Pres. of the Phil. Medical Association
C. Pres. of the Phil. Pharmaceutical Association
D. Representative of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
E. NOTA
63. Which Executive order abolished the Food and Drug Administration and created the BFAD?
A. EO 137
B. EO 851
C. EO 951
D. EO 147
E. EO 150
64. The term Secretary, in RA 3720, means:
A. Secretary of DOH
B. Secretary of Dept. of Commerce and Industry
C. Secretary of Education
D. Secretary of Dept. Agriculture and Natural Resources
E. AOTA
65. This means a quantity of any drug device produced during a given cycle of manufacture.
A. Batch number
B. Lot number
C. Batch
D. Control number
E. NOTA
66.’New Drugs’ means any drug, the component of which is such that said drug is not generally recognized among
experts qualified by scientific training and experience to evaluate the safety, efficacy and quality of drugs as safe,
efficacious and good quality for use. New drugs shall include drugs:
A. containing a newly discovered active ingredient
B. containing a new fixed combination of drugs
C. in an additional dosage of strength of the dosage form
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
67. Among the prohibited acts under RA 3720 are:
A. manufacture for sales, offer for sale, distribute in commerce or import into the Philippines any consumer
product which has been declared as banned consumer product
B. adulteration or misbranding of any food, drug, device or cosmetic
C. manufacture, importation, exportation, sale, offering for sale, distribution or transfer of any drug or device
which is not registered to BFAD
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
68. As stated in RA 3720, any person who commits the following shall subject to imprisonment of NLT 1 year but
NMT 5 years or a fine NLT 5000 pesos but NMT 10000 pesos or both:
A. sale or offering for sale of any drug or device beyond its expiration date
B. release for sale or distribution of a batch of a drug without batch certification when required
C. forging, counterfeiting, stimulating or falsely representing without proper authority using any mark, stamp, tag
authorized by regulations
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
69. The manufacturer, importation, exportation, sale, offering for sale, distribution or transfer of any food, drug,
device, or cosmetic that is adulterated or misbranded is a prohibited act under:
A. RA 3720
B. RA 5921
C. RA 8203
D. RA 9165
E. RA 7432
70. Under RA 3720, if a food bears or contains any poisonous or deleterious substance which may render it
injurious to health, it is deemed to be:
A. poison
B. adulterated
C. misbranded
D. counterfeit
E. hazardous
71. Under RA 3720, if a food’s container is composed, in whole or in part of any poisonous or deleterious substance
which may render the contents injurious to health, the food is deemed to be:
A. poison
B. adulterated
C. misbranded
D. counterfeit
E. hazardous
72. A food shall be deemed to be adulterated if:
A. it has been prepared, packed or held under unsanitary conditions
B. damage or inferiority has been concealed in any manner
C. it is offered for sale under the name of other food
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
73. A food shall be deemed to be adulterated if:
A. it is, in whole or in part, the product of a diseased animal or an animal which has died otherwise than by
slaughter
B. any substance injurious to health has been added or substituted
C. it bears or contain a coal tar color other one which is permissible
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
74. Under RA 3720, if the food is an imitation of other food, then the food is deemed to be:
A. fake
B. misbranded
C. misleading
D. adulterated
E. counterfeit
75. Under RA 3720, if the food labeling is false or misleading in any particular, then the product is deemed to be;
A. an imitation
B. misbranded
C. misleading
D. counterfeit
E. B & C
76. Who is authorized to suspend immediately upon notice any permit issued under authority if it found that any of
the conditions of the permit have been violated?
A. Secretary of health
C. Pres. of the Philippines
D. BFAD inspector
E. PRC Commissioner
77. Under RA 3720, if a drug’s strength differs from or its safety, efficacy, quality or purity falls below the standards
set forth in the compendium, then the drug is deemed to be:
A. mislabeled
B. adulterated
C. counterfeit
D. under quality
E. ineffective
78. A drug or device shall be deemed to be misbranded if it is for use by mans and contains any quantity of _______
which is/are not specified in the label.
A. barbituric acid
B. codeine
C. heroin
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
79. To whom shall any person submit an application for Licensing and Registration of any drug or device?
A. Secretary of Health
B. BFAD Director
C. PRC Commissioner
D. Licensing Officer
E. Commissioner of Customs
80. Any person who wish to file an application shall submit the following:
A. full list of articles used as components of such drug or device
B. full statement of the composition of such drug or device
C. full description of the methods used in and the facilities and control used for the manufacture of such drug or
device
D. specimen of the labeling proposed to be used for such drug or device
E. AOTA
81. Within how many days after filling of an application for Licensing registration of drugs or devices shall the
secretary approve or give the applicant notice of an opportunity for a hearing?
A. 150
B. 180
C. 200
D. 120
E. 60
82. In order to manufacture, sell, offer for sale, import or distribute any drug or device, a license to operate should
be first secured from:
A. BFAD
B. PRC
C. Dept. of Trade and Industry
D. Dept. of Commerce
E. DOJ
83. The RA provide for certification of batches of drugs composed wholly or partially of any kind of antibiotic.
A. RA 7432
B. RA 8203
C. RA 3720
D. RA 9165
E. RA 5921
85. These drug are promulgated by the Secretary to be exempted from any requirements under Section 22c Article
IX of RA 3720:
A. intended for investigational use
B. which are to be stored, processed, labeled or repacked at establishments other than where manufactured
C. Which conform to applicable standards of identity, strength, quality and purity
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
86. If a certain brand of face powder which claimed to be hypoallergenic causes itchiness and redness on the skin of
the user, the product is considered to be:
A. of high quality
B. misbranded
C. has acceptable side effects
D. adulterated
E. counterfeit
87. Drugs are considered to be adulterated if:
A. the label is misleading
B. it is an imitation of the product
C. it differs from USP standard
D. A & B
E. NOTA
88. The division in BFAD that certifies batches of antibiotics:
A. Product services
B. Laboratory services
C. Legal, Information and Compliance
D. Administrative
E. Inspection services
89. It means to bring into the Philippines by sea, land or air.
A. import
B. export
C. distribute
D. manufacture
E. NOTA
90. Who shall prescribe regulations for the efficient enforcement of the provisions of Section 30 of RA 3720, which is
about the Importation and Exportation of food, drugs, devices and cosmetics?
B. BFAD director
C. Commissioner of customs
D. A & B
E. A & C
91. According to RA 3720, these shall be published by the Bureau to serve as reference by manufacturers,
distributors, physicians, and consumers.
A. Drug reference manual
B. Drug bulletin
C. Drug information newsletter
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
92. In addition to the Administrative sanctions provided for under Letter of Instruction no. 1223, the Secretary is
authorized to impose __________ for any violation of RA 3720.
B. imprisonment of NLT 5 months but NMT 5 years
C. administrative fine NLT 1000 pesos and NMT 5000 pesos
D. fine of NLT 2000 pesos and NMT 5000 pesos
E. any of the above
93. Who shall take care and deliver to the Bureau the samples taken at random from every incoming shipment of
food, drugs, devices and cosmetics which are being imported or offered for import into the Philippines?
A. BFAD director
B. Civil service commissioner
C. Commissioner of customs
D. Secretary of health
E. NOTA
94. A food, drug, device or cosmetic intended for export shall not be deemed to be adulterated or misbranded under
RA 3720 if:
A. it conforms with the specification of the foreign purchaser
B. it is not in conflict with the laws of the country to which it is intended for export
C. it is labeled on the outside of the shipping package to show that it is intended for export
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
95. RA 3720 was amended by EO NO.________:
A. 881
B. 851
C. 175
D. 170
E. 54
96. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is:
A. RA 6425
B. RA 9165
C. RA 6675
D. RA 9465
E. RA 5921
97. A certified true copy of the record of dangerous drugs must be submitted to:
A. PDEA
B. BFAD
C. DDB
D. DOH
E. PRC
98. Amount of morphine subject to life imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500,000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 500g
B. 50g
C. 10g
D. 1g
E. 20g
99. Substances covered by RA 9165
A. prescription drugs
B. dangerous drugs
C. controlled precursors and essential chemicals
D. B & C only
E. AOTA
100. Prescription for dangerous drug are written in:
A. duplicate
B. triplicate
C. one copy
D. four copies
E. NOTA
101. Pharmacists are required to maintain and keep an original record of dangerous drugs.
A. sales
B. purchases
C. acquisition
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
102. The original copy of the prescription of dangerous drug is retained by the pharmacist for a period of ________
years from the date of sale or delivery of such drug.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
103. Regular member of the DDB:
B. Director of NBI
C. Secretary of Justice
D. President of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
E. AOTA
104. Head of the PDEA:
B. Director General
C. NBI Chief
D. PNP Chief
E. BFAD Director
105. Permanent consultant of the DDB:
A. Secretary of the Health & Director of BFAD
B. NBI Director & PNP Chief
C. NBI Chief & BFAD Director
D. President of the Philippines
E. AOTA
107. This refers to any facility for the illegal manufacture of any dangerous drug/or controlled precursors and
essential chemical.
A. Clandestine laboratory
B. Laboratory equipment
C. Instrument
D. Den, Dive or Resort
E. NOTA
108. ________ is a place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is
administered, delivered or stored for illegal purposes, distributed or sold in any form.
A. Clandestine laboratory
B. Den, Dive or Resort
C. Centers
D. School
E. NOTA
109. This is an act of knowingly planting, growing, raising or permitting the planning, growing or raising of any plant
which is the source of the dangerous drug.
A. Cultivate
B. Culture
C. Illegal trafficking
D. Planting of evidence
E. A & B only
110. Illegal trafficking means the illegal __________ of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and
essential chemical.
A. Cultivation and Culture
B. Delivery
C. Administration
D. Possession
E. AOTA
111. This refers to act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug to another, personally or otherwise and by any
means, with or without consideration.
A. dispense
B. deliver
C. administer
D. manufacture
E. NOTA
112. Chemical diversion refers to the __________ of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured
controlled precursors and essential element in diluted, mixtures or in concentrated form to any person engaged in
the manufacture of dangerous drugs.
A. sale
B. distribution
C. supply & transport
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
113. A practitioner is any person who is a licensed:
A. Physician
B. dentist
C. chemist
D. A & B
E. AOTA
114. __________ is any act of giving away any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
Whether for money or other consideration
A. Deliver
B. Dispense
C. Sell
D. Administer
E. NOTA
115. This refers to any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the illegal activities
prescribed under RA 9165.
A. financier
B. drug syndicate
C. pusher
D. B or C
E. NOTA
116. Methylenedioxymethampethamine ( MDMA ) is:
A. shabu
B. marijuana
C. ecstasy
D. opium poppy
E. NOTA
117. Cannabis is also known as:
A. shabu
B. marijuana
C. ecstasy
D. indian hemp
E. B & D only
118. Any person who shall import or bring into the Philippines any dangerous drug, regardless of the quantity and
purity shall have the penalty of:
A. life imprisonment to death
B. Fine of 500,000 pesos to 10M pesos
C. fine of 500, 000 pesos to 5M pesos
D. A & B
E. A & C
119. Any person who shall import ________ unless authorized by law, shall be punished by imprisonment from 12
years and one day to 20 years and a fine of 100, 000 pesos.
A. opium poppy
B. controlled precursor
C. essential chemical
D. B & C
E. AOTA
120 _________ shall be imposed on anyone who shall import into the Philippines any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential through the use of diplomatic passport.
A. Life imprisonment
B. Maximum penalty
C. Minimum penalty
D. Fine of 500, 000 pesos
E. Death
121. Under RA 9165, the penalty of 12 years and one day to 20 years of imprisonment and a fine of 100, 000 pesos
to 500, 000 pesos shall be imposed upon any person who acts as a:
A. financier
B. protector
C. coddler
D. B & C
E. AOTA
122. Maximum penalty shall be imposed if the sale, trading, administration, delivery or distribution of dangerous
drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical transpires within ________ meters from school
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 125
E. 150
123. The presence of any_________ in the clandestine laboratory is a prima facie proof of manufacture of any
dangerous drug.
A. controlled precursor
B. essential chemical
C. laboratory equipment
D. A & B
E. AOTA
124. Amount of shabu subject to imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 10g
B. 20g
C. 50g
D. 100g
E. 500g
125. Amount of marijuana subject to life imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 10g
B. 20g
C. 50g
D. 100g
E. 500g
126. Amount of heroin subject to life imprisonment to death penalty and a fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos:
A. 10g
B. 20g
C. 50g
D. 100g
E. 500g
127. Methampethamine HCL:
A. shabu
B. marijuana
C. ecstasy
D. opium poppy
E. LSD
128. These are dangerous drugs:
A. MDMA
B. PMA
C. TMA
D. GHB
E. AOTA
129. Penalty for unlawful prescription of drugs:
A. life imprisonment to death
B. fine of 500, 000 pesos to 10M pesos
C. fine of 100, 000 pesos to 500, 000 pesos
D. A & B
E. A & C
130. Who shall take charge and have the custody of all dangerous drugs, plant sources, controlled precursor and
essential chemicals that are confiscated, seized or surrendered.
A. DDB
B. BFAD
C. PDEA
D. DOJ
E. A & C
131. The confiscated or seized dangerous drugs, plant sources, controlled precursor and essential chemicals shall
be submitted to the PDEA Forensic Laboratory for a quantitative examination within:
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 2 days
D. 72 hours
E. 3 days
132. The following are unlawful acts under RA 9165 and any attempt to commit them shall be penalized:
A. importation of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
B. maintenance of den, dive or resort where any dangerous drug is used in any form
C. manufacture of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
133. Any person who is found guilty of planting any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential
chemical shall suffer the penalty of:
B. death
C. fine of 100,000 pesos to 500,000 pesos
D. A & C only
E. AOTA
134. If the government officials and employees are found guilty of the unlawful acts under RA 9165, they shall be
penalized by:
A. maximum penalty
B. disqualification from any public office
C. life imprisonment
D. A & B only
E. minimum penalty
135. Who shall accredit and monitor drug testing laboratories to safeguard the quality of results?
A. DOH
B. DOJ
C. BFAD
D. NBI
E. PDEA
136. Every pharmacist shall maintain and keep an original record of sales, purchases, acquisitions and deliveries of
dangerous drugs indicating the following information:
A. License number and address of pharmacist
B. Quantity and name of dangerous drug purchased
C. Date of purchase
D. Name, address and community tax certificate number of buyer
E. AOTA
137. To prescribe and promulgate rules and regulations governing the establishment of centers as described in RA
9165 is a duty of:
A. DOJ
B. DDB
C. DOH
D. BFAD
E. Pres. of Philippines
138. _________shall be the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and formulation of policies
and programs on drug prevention and control
A. BOP
B. DDB
C. PDEA
D. BFAD
E. NBI
139. The other members of DDB who shall be ex officio members are:
A. Sec. of DOJ or his representative
B. Sec. of DOH or his representative
C. Sec. of DND or his representative
D. A & B only
E. AOTA
140. The presence of ____members shall constitute a quorum whenever DDB calls a meeting.
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 10
141. The appointed Executive Director of DDB shall act as the:
A. Secretary of the Board
B. Assistant Secretary of the Board
C. Auditor
D. Vice Chairman
E. Moderator
142. To initiate, conduct and support scientific, clinical, social, psychological, physical and biological researches on
dangerous drugs prevention and control measures is a function of:
A. BFAD
B. DDB
C. NBI
D. PDEA
E. DOH
143. PDEA stands for:
A. Philippine Drug Empowerment Agency
B. Philippine Drug Enforcement Affiliation
C. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
D. Philippine Drug Establishment Agency
E. NOTA
144. Responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of all the provisions on any dangerous drug and/or
controlled precursor and essential chemical:
A. DDB
B. PDEA
C. NBI
D. BFAD
E. DOH
145. Has the power to reclassify, add or remove, from the list of dangerous drugs:
A. DDB
B. PDEA
C. NBI
D. BFAD
E. DOH
146. To set the guidelines and overall framework to monitor and ensure the proper implementation of RA 9165 is a
function of:
A. Congressional Oversight Committee
B. PDEA
C. BFAD
D. DDB
E. NBI
147. ________ means any substance which will cause on normal living tissue, allergy or photodynamic quality of
hypersensitivity which becomes evident on reapplication of the substance.
A. strong sensitizer
B. corrosive
C. irritant
D. toxic
E. radioactive
148. Any substance or mixture of substances which is toxic, corrosive, irritant, is a strong sensitizer, is flammable or
generates pressure through decomposition heat or other means:
A. counterfeit substance
B. hazardous substance
C. poisonous substance
D. radioactive substance
E. adulterated substance
149. Revised regulations for the Licensing of Drug establishments and outlets:
A. AO 56
B. AO 52
C. AO 53
D. AO 61
E. AO 62
150. Labeling, sale and distribution of Hazardous Substances
A. PD 881
B. PD 781
C. PD 551
D. EO 175
E. AO 56
151. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002” is also known as _________
A. RA 9165
B. RA 6675
C. RA 9257
D. RA 7394
152. RA 9165was approved on __________
A. March 13, 1972
B. March 3, 1972
C. June 7, 2002
D. April 30, 1972
153. Opium is an example of a/an __________drug.
A. prohibited drug
B. regulated drug
C. exempt dangerous drug
D. none of the above
154. Which of the following is/are example of prohibited drug?
A. heroin
B. morphine
C. phenobarbital
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
155. Which of the following is/are example of regulated drug?
A. morphine
B. heroin
C. secobarbital
D. opium
156. RA 5921 is more commonly known as__________.
A. Senior Citizen’s Act
B. Pharmacy Law
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
D. Special Law on Counterfeit Drug
157. The pharmacy law was signed by former Pres. Ferdinand E. Marcos last________
A. June 23, 1966
B. June 29, 1969
C. June 26, 1969
D. June 23, 1969
158. This is a “place of establishment where drugs, chemical products, active principles of drugs, pharmaceuticals,
proprietary medicines or pharmaceutical specialties, devices and poisons are sold at retail and where medical,
dental, and veterinary prescriptions are compounded and dispensed.”
A. pharmacy
B. drugstore
C. pharmaceutical laboratory
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
159. This term “includes every person who acts as a merchant, broker, or agent, who sells, or distributes for resale
pharmaceuticals, proprietary medicines or pharmaceutical specialties.”
A. wholesaler
B. person
C. dealer
D. NOTA
160. The definition of drugs, as amended by EO NO.174 include/s
1. article in current official USP/NF, official Homeopathic Pharmacopeia of the US., official Drug Formulary, or
any supplement
2. articles intended for use in the prevention of diseases in man or animals; and
3. articles ( other than food ) intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of man or animals
4. refers to viruses, sera, toxins, and analogous products used for the prevention or cure of human diseases.
A. AOTA
B. 1 & 2
C. 1, 2, & 3
D. NOTA
161. This is a method of secret writing, substitutes other letters or characters for the letter intended, or transposes
the letter after arranging them in blocks or squares.
A. cipher
B. code
C. secret keys
D. Any of the above
162. This means “a system of words or other systems arbitrarily used to present words”
A. Cipher
B. Code
C. Secret keys
D. Any of the above
163. This means “characteristic styles or symbols kept from the knowledge of others or disclosed confidentially to
only one or a few”
A. Cipher
B. Code
C. Secret keys
D. Any of the above
164. This is the requirement for the opening of drugstore
A. Filipino registered pharmacist
B. 7×5 drugstore space
C. Drugstore label
D. record books
165. An ordinary prescription shall be preserved for a period of ___________
A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
166. The records for the sale of poisons must be kept for a period of __________
A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 2 years
167. Who can issue prescriptions for the dispensing of violent poisons?
A. physician
B. dentist
C. veterinarian
D. AOTA
168. What is the color of the label for prescriptions used externally?
A. white
B. red
C. green
D. blue
169. The age requirement in order to practice pharmacy in the Philippines
A. 18
B. 25
C. 21
D. 20
170. This a proof that a person is a licensed pharmacist
A. transcript of record
B. diploma
C. certificate of registration
D. certificate of internship
171. Which of the following is a practice of Pharmacy?
I. teaching pharmacy subjects
II. analyzing drug
III. conducting research
IV. manager of a chain drugstore
A. 3 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1, 2 & 3 only
D. AOTA
172. Basis for non renewal of LTO
A. failure to comply with PRC standards and requirements
B. persistent performance that assures safety, efficacy, and quality of drugs products
C. serious repeated, rampant violation of existing laws, rules, and regulations
D. poor housekeeping
173. This is the “act of introducing any dangerous drug into the body of any person, with or without his knowledge by
injection, ingestion or other means or of commiting any act of indispensable assistance to a person in administering
a dangerous drug to himself’.
A. administer
B. cultivate
C. deliver
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
174. This is the act of knowingly planting, growing, raising of any of plant which is the source of a prohibited drug.
A. administer
B. cultivate
C. culture
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
175.”Employee” of a prohibited drug den, dive, or resort include/s____________
A. caretaker
B. lookout
C. watchman
D. AOTA
E. A & B only
176. Indian hemp is also known as
I. bhang
II. churrus
III. hashish
IV. she-bang
A. I only
B. I & II
C. I, II & III
D. I-IV
177. It refers to a state of psychic or physical dependence, or both on any dangerous drug, arising in a person
following administration or use of that drug on a periodic or continuous basis
A. druggist
B. drug dependence
C. pusher
D. coddler
178. What penalty shall be imposed upon any person who imports prohibited drugs?
A. reclusion perpetua to death
B. fine ranging from 500,000 pesos to 10M pesos
C. fine ranging from 100,000 pesos to 1M pesos
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
179. What penalty shall be imposed upon a person who, unless authorized by law, shall sell, administer, deliver,
give away to another, distribute, dispatch in transit or transport any prohibited drug, or act as a broker in such
transactions,
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
180. What penalty shall be imposed upon any person or group of persons who shall maintain a den, dive or resort
where any prohibited drug is found.
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
181.”The Expanded Senior Citizens Act” is also known as_________
A. RA 9265
B. RA 9165
C. RA 9275
D. RA 9257
182. This is the S- license for physicians, dentist, or veterinarian, who prescribes dangerous drugs
A. S-1
B. S-2
C. S-3
D. S-4
183. This is a policy and program of the National government to ensure that the safe and effective drugs are made
available to all Filipinos at any time and place and at reasonable and affordable cost.
A. National Drug Policy
B. National Formulary
C. Dangerous Drugs Board Policy
D. NOTA
184. What are the pillars of the National Drug policy?
I. Quality Assurance of Drug
II. Quality Control
III. Rational Use of Drug
IV. National Self-sufficiency in Pharmaceuticals
A. 1 & 2
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2 & 4
185. The former president of the Philippines who enunciated the National Drug Policy
A. Fidel V. Ramos
B. Corazon C. Aquino
C. Ferdinand E. Marcos
D. Ramon Magsaysay
186. This refers to the practice of using only the necessary and effective drugs in treating an illness
A. cost- effectiveness
B. quality assurance
C. rational use of drugs
D. rational procurement
187. This is a simpler term for the scientifically recognized active ingredient of a drug.
A. generic name
B. brand name
C. chemical name
D. street name
188. This list refers to those drugs, which cure the vast majority of illnesses and should be affordable and available
to all persons. It is prepared and periodically updated by the DOH on the basis of health conditions in the
Philippines.
A. Essential Drug list
B. Core list
C. Complimentary list
189. RA 6675 is more commonly known as__________
A. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
B. Pharmacy Law
C. Food, Drug and Device and Cosmetic Act
D. Generics Act of 1988
190. This refers to the prohibited and regulated drugs
A. List A
B. List B
C. Rx
D. OTC
191. Betamethasone tablet and Methotrexate tablet belong to
A. List A
B. List B
C. Rx
D. OTC drugs
192. For drugs in list A containing the list of prohibited drugs and regulated drugs, which of the following is/are
required?
A. The S-2 license of a prescriber
B. The use of special DDB form
C. The observance of a recording system following pertinent DDB regulation
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
193. This is the act by a validly registered pharmacist of filling a prescription or doctor’s order on the patient’s chart.
A. dispensing
B. generic dispensing
C. any of the above
D. NOTA
194. This means dispensing the patient’s or buyer’s choice from among the generic equivalent.
A. dispensing
B. generic dispensing
C. AOTA
D. NOTA
195. This are pharmaceutical products of a or drug preparations that are to be dispensed only upon written order of
a validly registered physician, dentist or veterinarian for the management or treatment of a condition or disease.
A. prescription drugs
B. ethical drugs
C. OTC drugs
D. AOTA
E. both A & B
196. When the generic name is not written in a prescription, this is a case of
A. violative prescription
B. erroneous prescriptions
C. impossible prescriptions
D. NOTA
197. The generic name must be
A. enclosed by an outline circle
B. smaller font size than the trade name
C. printed in full and not abbreviated
D. written after the trade name
198. Generic prescribing is also known as
A. AO 61
B. AO 62
C. AO 63
D. AO 64
199. What is to be done with violative prescriptions?
A. shall be filled and kept
B. shall not be filled and kept for reporting to the nearest DOH office
C. shall be marked with red ink
D. shall be torn
200. Which of the following is an example of an erroneous prescription?
A. generic name is not legible and brand name is legible
B. brand name is not in parenthesis
C. only generic name is written but it is not legible
D. AOTA
201. When the generic name and brand name are not legible, this is a/an __________prescription.
A. violative
B. erroneous
C. impossible
D. NOTA
202. Sanctions for violation of the labeling requirement
A. confiscation of the LTO
B. cancellation of the certificate of registration of the pharmacist
C. recall of misbranded products
D. administrative fine of Php 6,000
203. This administrative order is about labeling requirements for pharmaceutical products
A. AO no. 67
B. AO no. 55
C. AO no. 65
D. AO no. 57
204. The generic name of the drug must be in accordance with
A. INN
B. USP/NF
C. BFAD
D. DOH
205. For products containing 3 or more ingredients, the official name for the combination shall be determined by
A. DOH
B. PRC
C. BFAD
D. DDB
206. In prescribing list B drugs, which needs strict precautions in their use, the prescriber must comply with a set of
guidelines. One guideline requires the prescriber to write the strength or dose level using units in the
________system
A. metric
B. apothecary
C. international unit
D. avoirdupois
207. According to AO NO.56,s. 1989, grounds for the revocation of LTO
A. lapses in record keeping of invoices and receipts of distribution records
B. violation of BFAD standards on quality, efficacy, purity and safety of drugs
C. sale or distribution of antibiotic products with batch certification by BFAD
D. absence of pharmacist on first inspection
208. This is all about the revised rules and regulation of registration of pharmaceutical products
A. AO no. 57
B. AO no. 55
C. AO no. 65
D. AO no. 67
209. RA 7432 is more commonly known as the__________
A. Expanded Senior Citizens Act
B. Generics Act of 1988
C. Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
D. Consumer’s Act
210. The term “senior citizen” shall mean any resident citizen of the Philippines at least _____years old.
A. 50
B. 60
C. 55
D. 65
211. The senior citizens shall be entitled the grant of ________ of discount from all establishments relative to the
utilization of transportation services, restaurants and purchase of medicine anywhere in the country.
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 10%
D. 15%
212. The government agency which issues national ID card and purchase slip booklet
A. DSWD
B. GSIS
C. OSCA
D. BFAD
213. The discount privileges of the senior citizen shall be
A. non-transferable
B. transferable but limited use only for the senior citizen
C. limited and exclusive for the benefit of the senior citizen
D. both A & C
214. Which of the following must be presented by a senior citizen when buying prescription drugs?
I. purchase slip booklet
II. prescription
III. birth certificate
IV. national identification card
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 4
D. 1, 2 & 4
215. __________shall mean any person whether related to the senior citizen or not who takes careof him/her as a
dependent.
A. head of the family
B. relative
C. benefactor
D. care-giver
216. Supplies or medicines to be given to senior citizens should not exceed
A. one day supply
B. one week supply
C. one month supply
D. one year supply
217. Violation of any provision of Senior Citizen’s Act is punishable by
A. a fine not exceeding 2,000 pesos
B. imprisonment not exceeding one month and a fine not exceeding 1,000 pesos
C. imprisonment not exceeding 2 months
D. both A & C
218. OSCA refers to
A. Office of the Senior Citizen’s Affiliate
B. Office of the Senior Citizen’s Affairs
C. Office of the Senior Citizen’s Academy
D. NOTA
219. It is written order and instruction of a validly registered physician, dentist, or veterinarian for the use of specific
drug product for a specific patient
A. prescription
B. medical certificate
C. medical chart
D. drug chart
220. It is the act of a validly registered pharmacist of filling a prescription or doctor’s order on the patient’s chart
A. dispenser
B. dispensing
C. selling
D. dispensary
221. When the drug product prescribed is not registered in BFAD, this is a case of
A. violative prescription
B. impossible prescription
C. erroneous prescription
D. coded prescription
222. If the brand name precedes the generic name, prescription is considered
A. violative
B. impossible
C. erroneous
D. coded
223. When a pharmacist receive a prescription wherin the generic does not correspond to the brand name, the
pharmacist
A. shall advice the prescriber
B. May dispense or fill the said prescription
C. instruct the customer the proper prescription
D. both A & B
224. Quantities less than 1 milligram shall be written in
A. gram
B. microliter
C. micrograms
D. kilogram
225. Quantities less than 1 gram shall be written in
A. milligram
B. microliter
C. micrograms
D. kilogram
226. The following are the violations of Generics act on the part of dispensers and outlets
A. failure to record and keep prescription filled
B. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
C. failure to report to the nearest DOH office prescription which complied to the said law
D. both A & B
227. Under the Generics Law, Which of these prescriptions shall be filled?
A. violative
B. impossible
C. erroneous
D. none of these
228. The term “drug outlet” pertain/s to
I. drugstore
II. drug trader
III. pharmacy
IV. botica
A. 1 & 2
B. 3 & 4
C. 1, 2 & 3
D. 1, 3 & 4
229. These are pharmaceutical products or drug preparations that can be dispensed even without a prescription for
the use of consumers for the prevention or symptomatic relief of minor or self-limiting ailments
A. OTC drugs
B. ethical drugs
C. non-prescription drugs
D. both A & C
230. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
A. Erroneous prescription should not be filled by the pharmacist, prescription kept and reported to the DOH
B. violative prescription should be filled, prescription kept and reported to the DOH
C. impossible prescription could be filled, prescription kept and reported to the DOH
D. violative prescription should not be filled, prescription kept by the pharmacist, and reported to the DOH
231. ____________has the power to reclassify, add to, or remove from the list of dangerous drugs.
A. PDEA
B. BFAD
C. DDB
D. NBI
232. Permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drugs Board
B. secretary of justice
C. President of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
D. Director of the NBI
233. Rules and regulations to Implement Dispensing Requirements
A. AO. 63
B. AO. 62
C. AO. 67
D. AO. 64
234. Revised Rules and Regulations for the Licensing of Drug Establishment
A. AO. 55
B. AO. 56
C. AO. 42
D. AO. 62
235. Revised Rules and Regulations of Registration of Pharmaceutical Products
A. AO. 63
B. AO. 62
C. AO. 67
D. AO. 42
236. Drug registration of herbal and/or traditional drugs both local and imported
A. AO. 62
B. AO. 63
C. AO. 42
D. AO. 67
237. Re-application for LTO after revocation may be done within ________ year(s).
A. 3
B. 5
C. 2
D. 1
238. What physico-chemical assay is required for vitamin preparations?
A. pH meter
B. oven drying
C. TLC
D. Fluorophotometer
239. Prescription without specification of the generic name of the prescribed product is a violation of RA _________.
A. 5921
B. 6675
C. 6425
D. 3720
240. The ultimate objective of PNDP is/are to provide
A. low-cost high quality drugs
B. free consultation from the physician
C. high quality but expensive drug
D. both A & B
241. __________ means any substance which has a flash point at or below negative six and six-tenths degrees
centigrade as determined by the Tagliabue Open Club tester
A. extremely flammable
B. combustible
C. both A & B
D. neither A & B
242. ___________ contains the rules and regulations to implement dispensing requirements under the Generics Act
of 1988.
A. AO. No. 63
B. AO. No. 64
C. AO. No. 65
D. AO. No. 66
243. Which of the following is the Dangerous Drugs?
A. LSD
B. MDMA
C. both A & B
D. NOTA
244. This means any substance which on contact with living tissue will cause destruction of tissue by chemical
action.
A. corrosive
B. bleaching agent
C. disinfectant
D. irritant
245. This a substance which on immediate, prolonged or repeated contact with normal living tissue will induce local
inflammatory action.
A. corrosive
B. irritant
C. disinfectant
D. bleaching agent
246. RA. 7394 was signed into a law on
A. April 13, 1992
B. Feb. 7, 1992
C. Sept. 13, 1992
D. April 7, 1992
A. Sept. 23, 1998
B. Sept. 13, 1998
C. Sept. 4, 1998
D. Sept. 30, 1998
A. Feb.7, 1992
B. April 7, 1992
C. Feb. 13, 1998
D. April 13, 1992
249. Which of the following does not required a prescription?
A. finasteride
B. ibuprofen 200mg
C. zafirlukast
D. esomeprazole
250. EO. No.______ institutionalizes the Continuing Professional Education ( CPE ) Programs of the various
Professional regulatory Boards ( PRBs ) under the supervision of the Philippine Regulatory Commission.
A. 851
B. 265
C. 266
D. 267
251. Inspection Section and Licensing Section are under what organizational unit of BFAD?
A. Regulation Division I
B. Regulation Division II
C. Product Services Division
D. Laboratory Services Division
252. Cash collection and Disbursement Section, and Personnel Section are under what organizational unit of
BFAD?
A. Product Services Division
B. Laboratory Services Division
C. Legal, Information and Compliance Division
D. Administrative Division
253. This BFAD organizational unit plans, directs, organizes, and controls the activities of the Bureau with the
assistance of the Divisions and Units under it.
A. Office of the Director
B. Regulation Division I
C. Regulation Division II
D. Product Services Division
254. The Laboratory Services Division Of BFAD includes
A. food
B. toxicology
C. cosmetic
D. household hazardous substance
255. The Division in BFAD that certifies batches of antibiotics
A. Product Services
B. Laboratory services
C. Legal, Information, and Compliance
D. Administrative
256. This is the Division of the BFAD that provides assistance to person/establishment in complying with BFAD legal
requirements.
A. Laboratory Services
B. Legal, Information, and Compliance
C. Product Services
D. Regulation Division I
257. The Laboratory Division of BFAD has the duty of
A. testing, analyzing, and doing trials on submitted products
B. inspection of drug outlets
C. taking samples from different drug establishment
D. assist in the of factual evidences
258. This order prescribes the conditions and requirements for good manufacturing practice applied to premises,
equipment, personnel, product and warehouse.
A. AO. No. 202
B. AO. No. 220
C. AO. No. 221
D. AO. No. 223
259. CGMP means
A. current general manufacturing process
B. current good manufacturing procedure
C. current good manufacturing practice
D. current good manufacture practice
260. CGMP assures drug meets the requirements of the act as to
A. safety
B. identity
C. strength
D. purity
E. AOTA
261. Equipment used for manufacturing, processing, packing, labeling, testing and control of drugs must be
A. of suitable size
B. absorptive
C. non-reactive
D. both A & C
262. Test for components
A. Microbiological test
B. Test for heavy metals
C. Microscopic examination
D. all of the above
263. The amount of reserve sample of all active ingredients to be kept for all required test in the laboratory to be
performed are
A. 5×
B. 2x
C. 3x
D. 4x
264. Approved records of components which must be maintained for future reference
A. name of customer
B. lot component
C. date and amount received
D. batch uniformity
265. Production record must be kept for
A. 2 years after expiration of the product
B. 2 years after batch distribution is completed
C. 1 year after batch distribution is complied
D. 2 years before expiration date
266. Each critical step in production process must be performed and checked by _________ competent and
responsible individual
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2
267. Laboratory controls are required for
A. finished products
B. in process drug
C. components
D. all of the above
268. This mean any ingredient intended for use in the manufacturing of drugs, including those that may not appear
in the finished product.
A. component
B. raw material
C. inactive ingredient
D. both A & B
E. both A & C
269. This means a batch or any portion of a batch of a drug produced by continuous process, an amount of drug
produced in a unit time or quantity in a manner that assures its uniformity and either case which is identified by a
distinctive lot number and has uniform character and quality within specified limits.
A. lot
B. lot number
C. control number
270. This means any distinctive combination of letters or numbers, or both by which the complete history of the
manufacture, control, packaging, and distribution of a batch or lot of a drug is determined.
A. lot
B. lot number
C. control number
D. A & B
E. B & C
271. According to AO. No. 42, the test for alcohol content in quality control requirements should not more than ___
A. 15%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 30%
272. This is the required test for suppositories and pessaries
A. weight variation
B. dissolution
C. melting point
D. boiling point
273. Ointments, creams, and other semi-solid preparations are tested for
A. impalpability
B. homogeneity
C. melting point
D. all of the above
274. Validity of the initial registration for herbal and traditional drugs
A. 5 years
B. 2 years
C. 1 years
D. 3 years
275. Herbal and Traditional drugs must be registered with the
A. DOH
B. DTI
C. BFAD
D. DDB
276. This means any drugs Establishment that procures raw materials, active ingredients and/or finished products
from local establishments for local distribution on wholesale basis.
A. importer
B. exporter
C. wholesaler
D. drug trader
277. This means any organization or company involved in the manufacture, importation, repacking, and/or
distribution of drugs or medicines.
A. drug establishment
B. drug outlet
C. drug manufacturer
D. drug trader
278. This a drug which has been used for at least 5 years and involving at least 5,000 patients.
A. investigational drugs
B. tried and tested drugs
C. established drugs
279. This a drug whose safety and efficacy has been demonstrated through long years of general use and can be
found in current official USP-NF, and other internationally recognized pharmacopeias.
A. investigational drugs
B. new drug
C. established drugs
280. This refers to a new chemical or structural modification of tried and tested or established drug proposed to be
used for a specific therapeutic indication.
A. investigational drug
B. new drug
C. both A & B
D. neither A or nor B
281. This refers to a new chemical or structural modification of tried and tested or established drug proposed to be
used for a specific therapeutic indication, which has undergone adequate clinical pharmacology Phase I, II, III
studies but which needs further Phase IV Clinical Pharmacology Studies before it can be given regular registration
A. investigational drug
B. new drug
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
282. This is also refer to as the Price Act
A. RA. 7581
B. RA. 8203
C. RA. 7432
D. RA. 6425
283. The requirements for labeling materials is under what Administrative Order?
A. AO. No. 51
B. AO. No. 52
C. AO. No. 54
D. AO. No. 55
284. __________ refers to the instructions and special care required in the use of product to avoid undesired effects
and to ensure the safe and effective use of the drug.
A. Precautions
B. Contraindications
C. Warning
285. This refers to statements regarding the occurrence of potential hazards and side effects associated with the
use of the product and limitation of its use.
A. Precautions
C. Warning
286. This refers to a statement regarding the conditions wherein the use of the product may cause harm to the
patient.
A. Precautions
C. Warning
287. __________ refers to the classification of the product based on its therapeutic action.
A. dosage form
B. mode of action
C. formulation
D. pharmacologic category
288. Pursuant to AO. No. 55, s. 1988, the alcohol content in the formulation shall be expressed in _______
A. mg%
B. %
C. ml
D. v/v
289. The net content shall indicate the total amount/quantity/number of dosage form in a given container of the
product expressed in _______
A. Arabic numeral
B. avoirdupois
C. metric system
D. roman numeral
290. What type of font was specified for printing the Generic name if the name of the product is presented using a
special typeface exclusively designed for it?
A. Arial
B. Helvetica medium
C. universe medium
D. both A & B
E. both B & C
291. Expiry date expressed in terms of
A. month and day
B. month and year
C. day and year
D. year, day and month
292. If the expiry date of the product is indicated as “January 2005”, the expiry date of the product is assumed to be
A. January 1, 2005
B. January 15, 2005
C. January 20, 2005
D. January 31, 2005
293. __________ indicates the number given by BFAD for the product code.
A. manufacture date
B. expiry date
C. registration number
D. lot number
294. Drugs with multiple components must be arranged in order of _________
A. decreasing pharmacologic activity
B. increasing pharmacologic activity
C. alphabetically
D. according to the amount of use
295. _________ contains the active ingredient and quantity of drug per dosage unit.
A. dosage form
B. mode of administration
C. formulation
D, pharmacologic category
296. Additional information for injections
A. recommended routes of administration
B. ”use only one” or “discard the remaining portion” if an anti-microbial agent is not included in the product
C. both A & B
D. Neither A nor B
297. Which of the following is exempted in the labeling requirement?
A. product for external use
B. product placed in small container
C. drugs for investigational purposes
D. large volume injections
298. The word “single use” must be included in the label for
A. biological products
B. individually wrapped products
C. large volume injections
D. small containers
299. In accordance to Administrative order No. 56, s. 1989, the initial License to Operate has a ______ years.
A. 5
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3
300. Under Administrative Order No. 56, s. 1989, the renewal of the License to Operate has a ______years
A. 5
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

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PHARMACEUTICAL DOSAGE FORMS

D 3. Spirit of peppermint is prepared by:

D 4. Brandy is made from:

E 5. Preservative added to syrup:

C 6. Levigation is often applied in:

D 7. General formula for infusions uses a strength of:

B 8. One of the following is not a biological product:

B 9. Concentration of “Diluted Alcohol” by volume is:

B 10. Aromatic water may be prepared by triturating the oil with:

C 11. Phenol produces a clear solution with:

C 12. One of the following is not a process of extraction:

E 13. Separation of immiscible liquids may be carried out by:

D 15. Triturations usually have a strength of:

B 16. A small scale comminution is:

A 18. Chemical change caused by heat:

C 19. One of the following has strength of 10% opium:

B 20. Glycerin suppositories are solidified by the use of:

E 21. Tablet is the preferred form as dosage form because of:

A 23. The preservatives for juices:

C 24. Purity means:

D 25. The HLB system is used to classify:

B 26. Most drugs are:

B 27. The usual purpose of chilling medication prior to administration is to increase:

C 28. The U. S. P. Pyrogen test is performed on:

B 30. The process of grinding substances to a very fine powder is termed:

A 31. An aqueous solution which serves as a cleansing or an antiseptic agent directed

B 32. The official hydrogen peroxide solution U. S. P. is also known as:

A 33. A synonym for cold cream, U. S. P. is :

B 34. Container impervious to air:

B 35. The term “impalpable” refers to s substance that is:

C 36. Cyanocobalamin is:

C 37. The non-aqueous vehicle used in injection:

D 39. Bulk powders are:

D 40. Oleoresins are:

A 41. A chromagen is:

A 42. Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with it:

B 43. Rancidity of fats may be due to:

C 44. This is a tool for monitoring drug utilization:

A 45. These are roles of the pharmacists except:

C 46. These are developing trends in a pharmacist’s function except:

A 47. OTC drugs are:

D 50. Spans and Tweens are:

C 51. Which of the following is not a method of splitting emulsions:

B 52. The term PSIG in reference to aerosols means:

A 53. A disadvantage of sodium saccharin as a sweetening agent is :

B 59. Upon exposure to air, Aminophylline solutions may develop:

A 60. A chelate must always contain a:

D 61. Official forms of water include:

C 62. Insulin preparations are usually administered by:

A 64. The term piggyback is most commonly associated with:

B 65. The designation “minibottles” refers to:

A 66. The term venoclysis is most associated with:

A 68. The busher injection is:

D 69. Valium (diazepam) is available in which of the following dosage forms?

A) Maalox B) Amphojel C) Mylanta D) Titralac

B 71. The shaft portion of the needle is called the :

D 77. Purified water may be prepared by:

D 78. Syrups may be prepared by:

A 82. Lugol’s solution is:

B 84. An example of an anionic emulsifying agent is:

C 85. The following substances produce which emulsions, except:

D 86. Suppositories are prepared by:

B 87. Bougies is another term for:

C 88. Anhydrous lanolin is a /an: