1- Which of the follwing is Gamaherpesvirinae:

a) Human papilloma virus.

b) Epistein – Barr virus.*
c) Herpes simples type 2.
d) Cytomegalovirus.
e) Human herpesvirus -7.

2- Regarding epidemiology of herpes simplex infection, which of the following

statments is false:
a) Over ⅓ of worlds populations heve the ability to transmit the virus during viral
shedding peroid.
b) In children the infection is often asymptomatic.
c) HSV-2 is the etiology of most genital herpes infection.
d) 90% of HSV -1 antibodies are demonstrated in individuals < 20 years.*
e) HSV-2 antibodies are rarely found prior to adolescnce.

3- "dew drop on a rose petal" are seen in:

a) Pityrisis resea.
b) PLEVA.
c) Insect bite.
d) Folliculitis.
e) Chicken pox.*

4- Herpes zoster vesicles at the little finger of the hand indicating involvement of
dermatome at:
a) C2.
b) C8.*
c) C6
d) C5
e) T1.

5- Viral capsid antigen (VCA) IgG is positive in acute infection with:

a) Herpes simplex.
b) Condyloma acuminata.
c) Infectoius mononucleosis.*
d) Reseola infantum.
e) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

6- Blueberry muffin lesions are seen in:

a) TORCH syndrome.*
b) Toxoplasmosis.
c) Kaposi sarcoma.
d) Varicella.
e) Fifth disease.

1
7- Scybala is of diagnostic importance in:
a) Scrub typhus.
b) Pthyrus pubis .
c) Scabies.*
d) Tungiasis.
e) Cutaneous myiasis.

8- Risk factor for using permethrin in treating patient with pediclosis is:
a) Pregnancy.
b) Age < 2 years.
c) Breast feeding.
d) Wieght < 15 Kgs.
e) None. *

9- Fruncular cutaneous myiasis differential diagnosis is:

a) Abscess.
b) Onchocercariasis.
c) Tungiasis.
d) Lymphadenopathy.
e) All of the above.*

10- Mebendazole is not used in the treatment of :

a) Ascariasis.
b) Toxocariasis.
c) Loiasis.*
d) Ankylostomiasis.
e) Enterobiasis.

11- Among the selective role at puberty, DHT is associated with:

a) Increase muscle mass.
b) Voice change.
c) Growth of scrotum.
d) Growth of prostate.*
e) Presence of pubic and axillary hairs.

12- Which of the following is not a histologic feature of telogen effluvium :

a) Normal total number of hairs.
b) Increase in telogen count to a greater 20%.
c) Increased dermal mucin is often present.*
d) Abscence of inflammation.
e) Normal number of terminal (large) hairs.

2
13- The initial response to diphencepron(DPCP) is usually seen after:
a) 12 weeks.*
b) 2 weeks.
c) 24 weeks.
d) 6 weeks.
e) 4 weeks.

14- Which of the following hair abnormalities is seen in Netherton syndrome:

a) Monilethrix.
b) Pilli torti.
c) Trichorrhexis nodosa.
d) Trichonodosis.
e) Trichorrhexis invaginata.*

15- Which of the following is not true about infantile hemangioma:

a) It is the most common tumor in infancy.
b) Majority of lesions are seen within the first weeks of life.
c) Its more common in males.*
d) It appears more often in premature infants.
e) Sever complicated hemangiomas have been observed more frequently in girls.

16- Which of the following features is not found in arterial ulcer:

a) Located at pressure site.
b) Punched out ulcer.
c) Weak or absent peripheral pulses.
d) Surounding skin is pigmented secondary to hemosidrin.*
e) Paller on leg elevation.

17- Livido racemosa is generally indicative of:

a) Polycythemia vera.
b) Sneddon's syndrome.*
c) Cutaneous polarthritis nodosa.
d) Raynaud's disease.
e) Cryoglobulinemia.

18- Which of the following drugs does not cause flushing:

a) Calcitonin.
b) Hydralazine.
c) Methotrexate.*
d) Seldinafil.
e) Opiates.

3
19- Telengiectasia is not seen in the following condition:
a) Klippel –Trenaunay syndrome.
b) Dyskeratosis congenita.
c) Rothmund –Thomson syndrome.
d) Xeroderma pimentosum.
e) Neurofibromatosis type II. *

20- Which of the following has the longest plasma half-life:

a) Hydrocortisone.
b) Prednisolone.
c) Betamethasone.
d) Triamcinalone. *
e) Methylprednisolone.

21- Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH) syndrome is implicated in use

of the following:
a) Tetracycline.
b) Etretinate.*
c) Cyclosporine.
d) Mycophenolate mofetil.
e) Cyclophosphamide.

22- Which of the following may increase intracranial pressure with the concurrent
use of retinoids:
a) Minocycline.*
b) Alcohol.
c) Methtrexate.
d) PUVA.
e) Infliximab.

23- Which of the following is bacteriostatic:

a) Sulfonamides. *
b) Penicillins.
c) Aminoglycosides.
d) Quinolones.
e) Vancomycin.

4
24- In osteoporesis due to steroid therapy, which bone is much more prone to
demineralization:
a) Humerus.
b) Verebrae.
c) Phalanges.
d) Femur
e) Vertebrae.*

25- Which of the following is not risk factor for osteoporosis in glucocorticoid
therapy:
a) Alcohol.
b) Low sodium diet.*
c) Tobacco.
d) Hyperthyroidism.
e) Immobilization.

26- Discontinuation of isotretinoin is suggeted if fasting serum triglycerids

reaches:
a) 250 mg/dl.
b) 300 mg/dl.
c) 500 mg/dl.
d) 800 mg/dl.*
e) 400 mgdl.

27- Which of the following is FDA category C in pregnancy:

a) Metronidazole.
b) Cephalexin.
c) Teracycline.
d) Ceprofloaxin.*
e) Azithromycin.

28- Which of the following antifungals, the site of action is 14α demethylase:
a) Itraconazole.*
b) Griseofulvin.
c) Terbinafine.
d) Flucytosine.
e) Amphotericin B.

29- Blue-gray discoloration of the skin is a side effect of:

a) Azathioprine.
b) Hydroxychlorquine.*
c) Mycophenolate mofetil.
d) Cyclosporine.
e) Hyroxyuria.

5
30- Hypertension and gingivil hyperplasia is seen in patients receiving :
a) Methotrexate.
b) Dapsone.
c) Cyclosprorine.*
d) Cyclophosphamide.
e) Thalidomide.

31- Percutaneous absorption of topically applied drug is highest in:

a) Jaw.
b) Scrotum.*
c) Forehead.
d) Scalp.
e) Axillae.

32- For topical treatment (cream), how much is needed to cover the entire body of
adult man:
a) 7 grams.
b) 10 grams.
c) 15 grams.
d) 20 grams.*
e) 40 grams.

33- Which of the following side effects may be associated with malathion:
a) Hyperglycemia.*
b) Cardiac toxicity.
c) Ototoxicity.
d) Hypercacemia.
e) Leukopenia.

34- Azathioprine is contraindicted if the level of thiopurine methyltransferase

(TPMT) is:
a) < 5 U.*
b) 5-13.7 U.
c) 13.7-19 U.
d) > 19 U.
e) 50 U.

35- Which of the following is not true about methotrexate use in dermatology:
a) It is used once weeky dose of upto 30 grams.
b) It can be used orally in 3 doses over 36 hours.
c) The dose can be gradully increased by 2.5 mg every 2-4 weeks.
d) The usual weekly dose in psoriasis is 10-15mg.
e) Parentral adminstration is not recommended in erythrodermic psoriasis.*

6
36- Which of the following is not risk factor for development of BCC:
a) Intermittent sun exposure.
b) Arsenic.*
c) Fair skin.
d) Ferguson-Smith syndrome.
e) Ionizing radiation.

37- A rough erythematous papule with white to yellow scale is characteristic for:
a) BCC.
b) Bowen disease.
c) Actinic keratosis.*
d) Melanoma in situ.
e) Skin tag.

38- Which of the following histologically have volcano architecture:

a) Basal cell carcinoma.
b) Dermatofibroma.
c) B cell lymphoma.
d) Invasive SCC.
e) Keratoacanthoma.*

39- The site that has highest risk for recurrence of non-melanoma skin
cancer(NMSC) is:
a) genitalia.*
b) Scalp.
c) Neck.
d) Trunk.
e) Forehead.

40- The most common melanoma type in patient with darker skin types in:
a) Superficial spreading melanoma.
b) Lentigo maligna melanoma.
c) Acral lintiginous melanoma.*
d) Nodular melanoma.
e) Melanoma in situ.

41- Which of the following is not a minor criteria of atopic dermatitis:

a) Orbital darkening.
b) Dennie-Morgan infraorbital fold.
c) Retinal detachement.*
d) Recurrent conjuctivitis.
e) Anterior subcapsular cataract.

7
42- SLE rate is highest in patient deficient with:
a) C3.
b) C1q.*
c) C5.
d) C2.
e) C9.

43- The most common organ associated with acanthosis nigricans is:
a) Liver.
b) Breast.
c) Prostate.
d) Stomach.*
e) Lung.

44- Collagen type X is distributed in:

a) Cartilage.*
b) Skin.
c) Blood vessel wall.
d) Placenta.
e) Anagen hair follicle.

45- "Botton hole" sign is seen in:

a) Cutis laxa.
b) Striae distensae
c) Anetoderma.*
d) Pseudoxanthoma elasticum.
e) Porphyria cutanea tarda.

46- Β2 microglobulin amyloidosis is:

a) Myeloma - associated.
b) Tumor - associated.
c) Nodular amyloidosis.
d) Dialysis – associated.*
e) Lichen amyloidosis.

47- The treatment of choice of porphyria cutanea tarda is:

a) Erythropiotin.
b) Titanium dioxide.
c) Phlebotomy.*
d) Antimalarial.
e) Warfarin.

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48- Which of the following does not cause pseudoporhyria:
a) Ibuprofen.*
b) Naproxen.
c) Tetracycline.
d) Variconazole.
e) None of the above.

49- In necrolytic migratory erythema the following are true except :

a) Caused by a pancreatic tumour .
b) Affect females more than males .
c) Typically affects upper back and arms . #
d) Glucose intolerance is present in most patients .
e) Hyperglucagonaemia is reported .

50- In cutaneous signs of renal failure the following are true except :
a) Perforating dermatoses common on extensor surface of the limbs .
b) Distal nail pigmentation give rise to (half and half nails) .
c) Purpura fulminans is a serious complication . #
d) Calcifying panniculitis caused by calciphylaxis .
e) Generalized pruritus may occur after dialysis.

51- Which of the following is not true regarding lentigines:

a) May involve any part of the body .
b) Lesions become darker on exposure to sunlight . #
c) May occur as part of cronkhite – Canada syndrome .
d) Due to increase in number of melanocytes .
e) May affect any type of skin colour .

52- Which of following is not true regarding dercum’s disease :

a) Characterized by asymptomatic subcutaneous lumps . #
b) Commonly affects menopausal women .
c) Occur mainly in obese persons .
d) Juxta – articular areas are most commonly involved .
e) Psychic disturbances are frequently observed .

53- Mixed panniculitis is not a manifestation of :

a) Weber – Christian syndrome . #
b) Lupus erythematosus profundus .
c) Necrobiosis lipoidica .
d) Lipodermatosclerosis .
e) Morphoea profunda .

9
 54- Lymphadenopathy is not a manifestation of :
a) Syphilis .
b) Chancroid .
c) Lymphogranuloma venereum .
d) Granuloma inguinale . #
e) Herpes genitalis.

55- Chancroid may be complicated by the following except :

a) Phimosis .
b) Bubo formation .
c) Esthiomene . #
d) Phagedenic ulcer .
e) Destruction of genitalia .

56- Characteristics of granuloma inguinale ulcer include the following except :

a) Beefy red ulcer .
b) Painful ulcer . #
c) Easily bleeds .
d) Non healing ulcer .
e) Maligmant transformation .

57- The following are true regarding lymphogranuloma venereum except:

a) Lymphadenopathy involve inguinal and femoral lymph nodes .
b) Saxophone penis is a recognized complication.
c) Bubo formation demonstrated sign of groove .
d) The primary genital lesion is transient .
e) Lymphadenopathy when ruptures forming single sinus . #

58- The following are true in malakoplakia except :

a) Macrophages fail to phagocytose and digest bacteria .
b) The skin is rarely involved .
c) Histologically michaelis – Gutmann bodies are pathognomonic .
d) Abscesses, sinuses and ulcers are reported cutaneous manifestations
e) Streptococcal infection is the commonest . #

59- Necrobiotic xanthogranuloma :

a) May be associated with multiple myeloma .
b) Periorbital yellowish nodular and ulcerated lesions are characteristics .
c) Eye involvement may be complicated by blindness.
d) Angio – oedema with decreased levels of c1 inhibitor are reported in some
cases .
e) Xanthogranulomatous panniculitis is a common histopathological feature . #

10
 60- Cutaneous manifestations of urticaria pigmentosa include the following except
:
a) Skin weal on rubbing .
b) Pigmented eruption on trunk is the commonest .
c) Blistering is reported .
d) Some cases may resemble multiple xanthomas .
e) Telangiectasia is not a feature . #

61- Which of the following is untrue regarding Incontinentia pigmenti :

a) More than 95% of the reported cases are females.
b) Bizarre splashed pigmentation are characteristic finding .
c) Delayed dentition and partial anodontia are frequent dental defects.
d) Inflammatory lesions commonly appear after the first year of life. #
e) Eosinophilia up to 50% in the peripheral blood is usual.

62- The following are true regarding Albright’s syndrome except :

a) Asymmetrical cutaneous pigmentation may be present at birth .
b) Bone deformities and pathological fractures may occur during first decade of
life .
c) Serum calcium and phosphorus are normal.
d) Giant pigment granules are commonly seen in malpighian cells and
melanocytes . #
e) The full syndrome with precocious puberty occur only in girls .

63- In waardenburg’s syndrome the following are true except :

a) The incidence is 1-2% among the congenitally deaf .
b) May show a white forelock .
c) Dystopia canthorum is a feature .
d) Depigmented patches are present from birth .
e) Melanocytes produce abnormal melanosomes in affected sites . #

64- Which of the following is untrue regarding polymorphic light eruption :

a) Affect 10-20 % of the population particularly women .
b) Commonest in tropical regions. #
c) Black skin do not confer protection .
d) Attacks of the eruption occur commonly in spring and summer .
e) The eruption is vesiculopapular and pruritic.

11
 65- In hydroa vacciniforme the following are true except :
a) Usually begins in childhood .
b) Symmetrical itchy and tender maculopapular and vesicular rash .
c) Usually occur in summer .
d) Umbilicated and crusted lesion heal without scarring . #
e) Histological appearances are characteristic .

66- In chronic actinic dermatitis the following are true except :

a) Not uncommon in temperate climates .
b) Common in elderly men .
c) May develop in patients with longstanding endogenous or exogenous eczema .
d) Appear as pruritic lichenified eczema or pseudolymphomatous plaques in
severe cases .
e) Malignant lymphomatous transformation often reported . #

67- In disseminated gonococcal infection the following are true except :

a) Fever is intermittent and may be high .
b) Pain and swelling affecting one or several joints .
c) Pustules and haemorrhagic blisters are characteristic (Septic gonococcal
dermatitis) .
d) Confirmed by culture of gonococci from the skin lesions. #
e) Meningitis or endocarditis may occur in severe cases .

68- All the following histological features of pretibial myxedema are seen except:
a) Epidermis is usually affected.
b) Wide separation of collagen bundles by acid mucopolysaccharides .
c) Mast cells markedly increased in mucinous areas .
d) Hair follicles not destroyed .
e) Perivascular inflammatory infiltrate a round dilated blood vessels.*

69- All the following are false about the histopathological feature of polymorphus
light eruption except:
a) Compact orthokeratosis of epidermis .
b) Dense perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate but no plasma cells.*
c) Spongiosis is common.
d) Basement membrane is not thickened .
e) No edema in the papillary dermis .

12
 70- Which of the following is not correct about histopathology of leukoplakia :
a) Parakeratosis with few orthokeratotic cells .
b) Hypergranulosis .*
c) Many deskeratotic cells .
d) No granular layer usually .
e) No atypical keratinocytes .

71- The most specific antinuclear pattern for SLE is:

a) Speckled patter .
b) Homogendus pattern .
c) Rim pattern .*
d) Nucleolar pattern .
e) Fine speckled pattern .

72- Which of the following is true regarding medications cause increase

myelosuppresion when given with azathioprine:
a) Folate antagonist .
b) Beta blockers .*
c) ACE inhibitors .
d) Allopurinol.
e) None of the above.

73- When staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome occurs in adults , it is often

associated with pre-existing:
a) Complement deficiencies .
b) Liver failure .
c) Renal insufficiency .*
d) Scarlet fever.
e) Rheumatic fever.

74- Upon histologic examination of vascular neoplasma , capillaries throughout

dermis in cannon-ball pattern seen in following
a) Kaposi sarcoma .
b) Pyogenic granuloma .
c) Tufted angioma .*
d) Infantile hemangioma .
e) Kimura's disease .

75- Histologic examination of nevus anemicus shows

a) Presence of melanocytes around blood vessels .
b) Absence of melanocytes .
c) Smooth muscle hamartoma .
d) Normal skin.*
e) Collections of mast cells .

13
 76- A patient with multiple sebaceous adenomas should be screened and his first -
degree relatives with the following examination:
a) CT scan of the chest .
b) Colonoscopy .*
c) Retinal examination .
d) Mammogram .
e) Renal ultrasound .

77- A gluten - free diet , used to manage dermatitis herpetiforms can safely
include cereal or grain products derived from:
a) Barley .
b) Rice .*
c) Rye .
d) Triticale .
e) Wheat .

78- The following is not true regarding paraneoplastic pemphigus

a) May associated with Castleman disease .
b) Most often related to a leukemia or non - Hodgkin lymphoma
c) Cutaneous lesions highly variable .
d) 25% have mucosal and lingual ulceration.*
e) Positive IIF testing with monkey esophagus does not distinguish it from
pemphigus vulgaris .

79- The Brunsting - Perry variant of cicatricial pemphigoid involves:

a) Acral skin .
b) Cornea .
c) Oral mucosa .
d) Scalp .*
e) All of the above .

80- The most common skin rash of pregnancy is/ are

a) Pemphigoid gestations .
b) Impetigo herpetiformis .
c) PUPPP.*
d) Papular dermatitis of pregnancy .
e) Autolmmune progressive dermatitis.

14
 81- Hypocalcemia , hyposphosatemia , decreased vitamin D levels , elevated ESR
, Leucocytosis are characteristic features of :
a) Pemphigus gestations .
b) Impetigo herpetiformis .*
c) Papular dermatitis of pregnancy .
d) Pruritus gravidarum .
e) PUPPP.

82- The lmmunoprofile most characteristically found in pemphigoid gestations is :

a) Circulating lgG 1 autoarrtibodies, domin of 180 KD ,BP Ag 2.*
b) Circulating lgG 4 auto antibodies , target 180 KD , BP Ag 2
c) Circulating mixed lgG , target 180 KD, BP Ag 2
d) Circulating lgG autoantibodies , target BP Ag 1 .
e) Circulating lgG1 autoantibodies , target BP Ag 1.

83- The diagnostic techniques useful for heritable blistering skin diseases
including :
a) Immunomapping .*
b) Immunoprecipitation .
c) ELISA.
d) Immunoblotting .
e) Fluorescent-DT-PCR.

84- Vasospasam of dermal arterioles with hyperfusion of unaffected vessels, give

rise to:
a) Palpable purpura .
b) Livedo reticularis . *
c) Telangeactasia .
d) Erythema .
e) Small hemorrhages .

85- In patients with Raynaud`s disease the pattern of colour changes in the fingers
after exposure to cold will be as following
a) Cyanosis →pallor →erythema .
b) Erythema →cyanosis →pallor .
c) Pallor →cyanosis →erythema .*
d) Cyanosis →erythema →pallor.
e) Pallor →erythema →cyanosis .

15
 86- The clinical features of Reiter`s syndrome including
a) Self limiting , intermittent lower limbs arthritis
b) Keratoderma blenorrhagicum .
c) Circinate balanitis .
d) Recurrent oral ulcérations .
e) All of the above .*

87- All the following causes of macular petechial rash except:

a) Pigmented purpuric eruption ( schamberg`s ) .
b) Thrompocytopenia .
c) Scurvy .
d) Erythema ab igne .*
e) Immune complex related vasculitis .

88- Which of the following is true regarding subacute cutaneous lupus

erythematosus:
a) The Ro/ SS-A autoantibodies is the characteristic marker .*
b) Patients can have both psoriasiform and atrophic plaques .
c) The face is commonly affected .
d) Imunoglobulins and complement deposition in papillary dermis .
e) Corticosteroids represent first –line systemic therapy .

89- Which of the following is false regarding Sjogren`s syndrome

a) Xerophalmia and xeroderma are clinical features of the disease .*
b) Keratonjuctivitis sicca is a feature of the disease .
c) Hypergammaglobulemic purpura is relatively common .
d) The association of the disease and RNP antibodies has always been puzzling .
e) Lymphocytic infiltrates of lacrimal and salivary glands.

90- The most common form of psoriatic arthritis is which of the following?
a) Distal interphalangeal arthritis.
b) Arthritis mutilans.
c) Spondylitis.
d) Arthritis indistinguishable from rheumatoid arthritis.
e) Asymmetric oligoarthritis.*

91- All of the following statements are true of prurigo EXCEPT:

a) The lesions are itchy.
b) The lesions are grouped. *.
c) The lesions are traumatized.
d) Hypopigmentation and brown hyperpigmentation are commonly present.
e) The "tent" sign is negative.

16
92- All of the following statements are true of post-herpetic neuralgia EXCEPT:
a) Amitriptyline can be used for control of pain.

b) Capsaicin is very frequently effective. *

c) The older the patient, the more likely the neuralgia.

d) If the fifth cranial nerve root is involved, neuralgia is more common.

e) The neuralgia tends to decrease with the passage of time.

93- Systemic effects from erythroderma include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Gynecomastia.
b) Disturbances in thermoregulation.
c) Impaired renal function.*
d) Increased cardiac output.
e) Ankle edema.

94- When treating a male patient with methotrexate, current recommendations are
to avoid conception:
a) During therapy only.
b) During therapy and 3 months after discontinuation.*
c) During therapy and 6 months after discontinuation.
d) During therapy and 1 year after discontinuation.
e) During therapy and 2 years after discontinuation.

95- The following drugs increase cyclosporine blood levels and can thus
predispose to cyclosporine nephrotoxicty EXCEPT:
a) Ranitidine.
b) Macrolide antibiotics.
c) Phenytoin.*
d) Calcium antagonists.
e) Ketoconazole.

96- Cutaneous findings in pityriasis rubra pilaris include which of the following?
a) Keratoderma.
b) Islands of normal skin.
c) Follicular keratoses on fingers.
d) Ectropion.
e) All of the above.*

17
 97- Which of the following is the most common cause of death in malignant
atrophic papulosis (Degos disease):
a) Cerebral infarction.
b) Renal insufficiency.
c) Myocardial disease.
d) Peritonitis.*
e) Cutaneous ulcers with sepsis.

98- Which of the following medications has been associated with the development
of livedo reticularis:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide.
b) Amantadine.*
c) Metoprolol.
d) Aspirin.
e) Colchicine.

99- The sensitivity of c-ANCA testing in Wegener's granulomatosis is

approximately:
a) 80%.*
b) 60%.
c) 40%.
d) 20%.
e) Less than 20%.

100- Which of the following is most true concerning the epidemiology of

Kawasaki disease:
a) It occurs more often in girls.
b) Recurrences are common.
c) Eighty percent of cases occur in patients before the age of 5 years.*
d) It is rare before the age of 2 years.
e) There is no racial predilection.

GOOD LUCK

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