PAFP National Examination part 2

1. A diabetic patient consulted due to painful burning sensation in the

mouth. Upon inspection you noted whitish plaques within the oral
cavity that can be wiped off, leaving behind red areas that bled
slightly. What would be the best management for this diagnosis?

A. Fluconazole 100-200 mg PO OD
B. Fluconazole 200mg PO BID
C. Nystatin oral suspension 200,000 U/ml, 4ml QID
D. Miconazole oral gel 2% apply to affected area OD
2. What is the best therapeutic regimen for an adult patient presenting
with nasal congestion, fever, cough, purulent anterior and posterior
nasal discharge, facial pain and facial congestion for more than 3
days?

A. Co-amoxiclav 875mg/125mg PO q12hrs 5-7 days

B. Cefuroxime 250mg PO BID for 7 days
C. Co- amoxiclav 625mg PO BID for 7 days
D. Doxycycline 100mg PO BID for 3 days
3. A 40 year old patient came in to the clinic due to left ear pain and
ear discharge. What medication will you prescribe?

A. Flouroquinolone otic drops

B. Co-amoxiclav 1 gm BID
C. Steroid drops
D. All of the above
4. A 1 year-old patient was referred to you with a history of 4 days
cough, fever and tachypnea. On examination you noticed some signs
of dehydration, circumoral cyanosis and chest indrawing. RR was
noted to be at 60 cpm. There were no grunting or apnea noted. The
vaccination history was unrecalled by the mother. What would be the
best treatment for this case?

A. Ampicillin-sulbactam 50mg/kg/d IV div q6h

B. Cefuroxime 50 mg/kg/d IV div q8h
C. Ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg/d IV div q12h
D. Ceftriaxone 100 mg/kg/d IV div q12h
5. A 30 year old patient with no known comorbidities presented at the
ER due to fever, cough and shortness of breath. Upon assessment, BP
was 100/60 mmHg, RR of 31 cpm, HR 128 bpm and T: 38.5C. C/L
findings: (+) bibasal rales. What would be the best antibiotic regimen
for this case?

A. Co-amoxiclav 1gm tablet BID + Azithromycin 500 mg tab

B. Cefuroxime 750 IV +/- Azithromycin 500 mg tab
C. Ampicillin-Sulbactam 3gm IV q6H + Clarithromycin 500mg tab BID
D. Meropenem IV q8H
6. A 3/M cancer patient was brought to the OPD due to tenderness,
swelling, and redness of his left hand up to to the wrist area. The
mother noticed this after several IV insertions around the site for his
chemo sessions. What will be your antibiotic of choice?

A. Cloxacillin 50-100 mg/kg/d PO in 4 doses

B. Oxacillin 50mg/kg/d IV in 4 doses
C. Cefazolin 20 mg/kg/d in 3 doses
D. Cephalexin 50 mg/kg/d in 4 doses
7. A 34/F postpartum patient consulted at the OPD due to left breast
tenderness, swelling, and foul smelling discharge. You were
considering Mastitis and ordered a culture and sensitivity test using
the patient's breast discharge and the result was MRSA. What
medication will you give?
*
1 point
A. Oxacillin 2g IV q4hrs
B. Clindamycin 300mg PO qid
C. Cloxacillin 500mg PO qid
D. Vancomycin 30mg/kg/d IV iin 3 divided doses
8. Which of the following conditions is NOT an expected serious
adverse reaction due to the drug-to-drug interaction among patients
taking Antiretrovirals (ARV) and Cotrimoxazole/Sulfamethoxazole at
the same time?
*
1 point
A.Bone Marrow Suppression
B.Cardiotoxicity
C. Interstitial nephritis
D. Pancreatitis
9. A 21 y/o patient is about to be started on Antiretroviral therapy
(ARV). While reviewing his chart, you noted his latest GFR is 56
ml/min/m2. Which of the following ARVs should be avoided for this
patient?
*
1 point
A.Atazanavir
B.Etavirenz
C.Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate
D.Zidovudine
10. Which of the following Antiretroviral drugs can cause elevation of
cholesterol levels?
*
1 point
A. Atazanavir
B. Efavirenz
C. Raltegravir
D. Stavudine
11. Which of the following criteria is highly suggestive of sepsis in a 3
y/o old child with 5 days fever and cough?
*
1 point
A. Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
B. Cold hands or feet
C. Heart rate of 135 beats per minute
D. Mottled appearance
12. Which of the following is TRUE about Post-exposure Prophylaxis
(PEP) for a pregnant patient who was bitten by a stray dog a few hours
prior to consultation?
*
1 point
A. Initiation of PEP should be delayed for pregnant patients.
B. Pregnancy is an absolute contraindication to PEP.
C. Only active immunization can be given for pregnant patients.
D. There is no absolute contraindication for PEP for pregnant patients.
13. A 50/M patient was admitted from the ER with an impression of
Enteric Fever. As the ward rotator monitoring his progress, you noted
he is now suddenly exhibiting signs of hydrophobia and aerophobia.
Review of his general data revealed that he works as a caretaker of a
dog impounding facility. What would be the next best step you should
do?
*
1 point
A. Administer diazepam IM immediately
B. Provide pre-exposure prophylaxis to exposed family members and staff
C. Transfer the patient immediately to a dimly-lit isolation room
D. Administer PEP to this patient immediately
14. Which of the following is INCORRECT about passive immunization?
*
1 point
A. Rabies Immune Globulin (RIG) provides immediate but short-lived protection against rabies.
B. Given only to all Category III exposures as a single dose, not affected by status of biting animal before
and during PEP
C. Can be given multiple times during the same course of PEP
D. RIG should not be given alone but always in combination with anti-rabies vaccine
15. How much Equine Rabies Immunoglobulin (ERIG) should you
administer to a 12 y/o child weighing 32 kg who was bitten by a stray
cat around the facial area?
*
1 point
A. 1000 IU
B. 1280 IU
C. 640 IU
D.1360 IU
16. A patient confirmed with Rabies infection was admitted in your
institution for specialized care. His pregnant wife accompanied him at
the ER and asked you if she and her unborn baby is at risk of being
infected as well. What is her category due to her exposure from the
patient?
*
1 point
A. Category III
B. Category II
C. Category I
D. Both category I and II
17. Which type of rabies infection would show signs of hyperactivity,
hallucinations, agitation, confusion, muscle spasms, hydrophobia, and
aerophobia?
*
1 point
A. Paralytic rabies
B. Furious rabies
C. Dumb rabies
D. Myelitic rabies
18. An adult male is being treated at the ER due to a deep and non-
coaptated facial wound secondary to a dog bite. He was referred to
you for further evaluation and management. Based on his condition
and exposure category, which would be the best management for this
case?
*
1 point
A. Leave the wound open and let it heal on itself
B. Administer IV antibiotic for wound management
C. Infiltrate the wound area with RIG and leave it open
D. Infiltrate the wound area with RIG and suture the wound 2 hours post infiltration.
19. A 2 y/o child was brought to your clinic due to generalized fine
rashes for 1 day. According to the mother, the patient had a history of
high-grade fever 5 days ago which then spontaneously resolved 2 days
prior to this consultation. Afterwards, the rashes appeared and worried
the mother, which prompted this consultation. What would be your
initial impression for the case?
*
1 point
A.Rubeola
B.Roseola infantum
C.Scarlet Fever
D. Pityriasis rosea
20. Which among these common childhood rashes is NOT diagnosed
through clinical signs alone and is usually a diagnosis of exclusion
after negative laboratory tests?
*
1 point
A. Atopic Dermatitis
B. Roseola Infantum
C. Molloscum Contagiosum
D. Pityriasis Rosea
21. During your Dermatology OPD rotation, you have examined a 5 y/o
child who presented with dome-shaped, pearl-like lesions that are
pinkish to purplish in color. What would be your impression for this
case?
*
1 point
A. Varicella Infection
B. Tinea
C. Molluscum contagiosum
D. Erythema infectiosum
22. A 6 y/o child presented with undocumented fever and sore throat
for 2 days. A rash developed on his upper trunk sparing the palms and
soles, with noted circumoral pallor and erythematous swollen papillae
with white coating on his tongue. What is the best medication to start
with this patient?
*
1 point
A. Clindamycin
B. Arithromycin
C. Penicillin V
D. Erythromycin
23. A 3 y/o was admitted due to high grade fever. On the 2nd hospital
day, the fever lysed and the patient appeared to be well, but you noted
erythematous maculopapular rashes present on the trunk spreading
towards the hands upon examination. What would be your diagnosis
and choice of treatment?
*
1 point
A. Scarlet Fever: Penicillin
B. Roseola Infantum: No treatment
C. Rubeola: Supportive
D.Erythema Infectiosum: Symptomatic and with NSAIDs
24. Which among the choices below is a clinical feature of measles?
*
1 point
A. Rashes appear 2-4 days after prodrome
B. Rashes begin on the feet
C. Rashes persists for 14 days
D. Rashes are vesicular
25. Maculopapular rashes appeared on the face and trunk of a 1 y/o
child after the lysis of fever, which then disappeared after 1-2 days.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
*
1 point
A.6th disease
B. Rubella infection
C. Rubeola infection
D. Erythema Infectiosum
26. Ceramide is under what classification of moisturizer?
*
1 point
A. Humectants
B. Occlusives
C. Emolients
D. Steroids
27. A rescue volunteer came at the ER requesting for prophylaxis as
she has been wading in floodwater almost daily for 2 weeks now. Upon
examination, there were no noted gross or open wounds, cuts or open
lesions in her lower extremities. Based on her history and PE, what
would be her post-exposure risk category for Leptospirosis?
*
1 point
A. Low-Risk Exposure
B. Moderate-Risk Exposure
C. High-Risk Exposure
D. No Risk of Exposure
28. A 25/F was brought to the ER due to abdominal pain, fever, and
muscle pains for 3 days. History revealed that she had previously
ingested floodwater after a typhoon hit their area and caused water
shortage. What would be the BEST management for this case?
*
1 point
A. Manage her under non-urgent care
B. Admit the patient
C. Get samples for PCR testing
D. Prescribe post-exposure prophylaxis
29. A 19/M who waded a flooded area in the metro 1 day ago consulted
at your clinic. He claimed to be wearing his usual sneakers and did not
notice any wounds, cuts or open lesions around his lower extremities
after that incident. What post-exposure regimen for leptospirosis
would you prescribe?
*
1 point
A. Doxycycline 200 mg single dose within 24 to 72 hours from exposure
B. Doxycycline 200 mg once daily for 3-5 days to be started immediately within 24 to 72 hours from
exposure
C. Doxycycline 200 mg once weekly until the end of exposure
D. Doxycycline 100 mg, every 12 hours for 7 days
30. What is the most effective preventive measure against
leptospirosis infection?
*
1 point
A. Appropriate personal protective measures including wearing boots, goggles, overalls, and rubber
gloves.
B. Avoidance of high-risk exposure.
C. The use of pre-exposure antibiotic prophylaxis.
D. The use of post-exposure antibiotic prophylaxis.
31. Which of the following samples is NOT accepted for detecting
Leptospirosis using the PCR assay?
*
1 point
A. Blood in EDTA
B. Citrated Blood
C. CSF
D. Urine
32. In the recent GINA guidelines, which of the following statements is
INCORRECT about parental advise given to parents regarding the
primary prevention of asthma in children less than 5 y/o?
*
1 point
A. Vaginal delivery should be encouraged for pregnant patients if possible
B. Vitamin D supplementation for children
C. Promotion of Breastfeeding
D. Avoidance of antibiotics in the first 5 years of life
33. A 28/M asthmatic patient came in to your clinic due to cough and
wheezes for 2 days. He denies night awakenings, had no trouble with
daily activities, and seems to be able to speak in sentences. He has
not taken any medication since the onset of his symptoms. Your
management for him should include:
*
1 point
A. SABA only
B. SABA prn + Low-dose ICS-Formoterol
C. Medium-dose ICS-Formoterol Maintenance and Reliever
D. SABA prn + Medium-dose ICS-LABA
34. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the
management of asthma exacerbations in primary care?
*
1 point
A. Delivery of SABA via pMDI and a spacer or a DPI leads to a similar improvement in lung function as
delivery via nebulizer
B. Any combination ICS-LABA is now widely used as an anti-inflammatory reliever
C. 100% Oxygen therapy to be given at 5-10 LPM via a face mask
D. Routine use of antibiotics in the treatment of acute asthma exacerbations
35. A COPD patient that registers FEV1 of 40% predicted has a GOLD
classification of:
*
1 point
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
36. The diagnosis of COPD is confirmed if the spirometry result of
FEV1/FVC ratio is:
*
1 point
A. <0.70 after bronchodilator administration
B. >0.80 before bronchodilator administration
C. <0.80 before bronchodilator administration
D. >1/0 after bronchodilator
37. An adult male asthmatic patient with no known allergies came into
the ER due to shortness of breath. He is awake, alert, talks in words,
hunched forward, with obvious use of accessory muscles.
Management in the ER would include:
*
1 point
A. Intramuscular injection of epinephrine
B. Oral or IV Corticosteroids
C. Aminophylline given via IV route
D. Leukotriene Receptor Antagonist
38. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the use of
pharmacotherapy among stable COPD patients?
*
1 point
A.Regular ICS treatment increases the risk of pneumonia
B. Simvastatin prevents exacerbations in COPD patients
C. Regular treatment with mucolytics such as NAC does not affect the risk of exacerbations
D. Antitussives have been shown to be beneficial in patients with COPD
39. What is the recommended initial therapy for a COPD patient who
has a history of 1 exacerbation or less that does not warrant
hospitalization and has a CAT score <10?
*
1 point
A.Long-acting bronchodilator
B.Inhaled Corticosteroids
C.Pulmonary Rehabilitation
D. Oxygen Therapy
40. Which among the following is considered a stable co-morbid
condition for Community Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)?
*
1 point
A. Uncontrolled diabetes
B. Malignancy
C. CHF NYHA I
D. Altered mental state of acute onset
41. What are indications for de-escalation or switch therapy for
patients diagnosed with Community Acquired Pneumonia?
*
1 point
A. Non-resolution of fever
B. Increasing WBC count
C. Normalization of RR
D. Organ dysfunction
42. Which among the following DOES NOT belong to the group of
empiric antibiotic treatment for CAP-LR?
*
1 point
A. Amoxicillin 1g TID
B. Clarithromycin 500mg BID
C. Azithromycin OD
D. Cefuroxime 500mg BID
43. What is the recommended time interval for requesting chest xray
from baseline to post-treatment among patients diagnosed with CAP?
*
1 point
A. 0-1 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 4-5 weeks
D. 6-8 weeks
44. Patients diagnosed with PCAP with suspected atypical pathogen
should be treated with which of the following?
*
1 point
A. Amoxicillin
B. Clindamycin
C. Levofloxacin
D. Clarithromycin
45. Which among the following is a recommended adjunctive treatment
for patients with PCAP?
*
1 point
A. Zinc
B. Vitamin D
C. Mucolytic agent
D. Bronchodilators
46. A 4 month old was diagnosed to have PCAP. PE findings showed no
cyanosis, no chest indrawing, and with good perfusion. What
classification of PCAP is this?
*
1 point
A. Non-Severe PCAP
B. Moderately Severe PCAP
C. Severe PCAP
D. Highly Severe PCAP
47. A 3 y/o child was brought for consultation due to cough and fever.
On PE, RR is 42 cpm, has no cyanosis, no chest indrawing, and with
good oral intake. What routine diagnostic procedure will you request
for this patient?
*
1 point
A. Chest x-ray
B. Complete Blood Count
C. Chest Ultrasound
D. None
48. A 7 y/o child was diagnosed with Pediatric Community Acquired
Pneumonia (PCAP). PE findings: RR 32 cpm, no chest retractions, no
pallor, with good air entry. His initial chest xray revealed alveolar
infiltrates. This patient should be admitted if:
*
1 point
A. Patient showed no signs of deterioration within 48 hours
B. There is presence of a reliable caregiver
C. Unable to do follow up for close monitoring
D. There is an open bed in the medical facility
49. Which of the following would be considered as a parameter of good
clinical response in a 7 y/o child diagnosed with non-severe PCAP after
24-72 hours of treatment initiation?
*
1 point
A. Improvement of cough for the last 24 hours
B. Absence of tachycardia
C. Normal or decreasing CRP
D. Absence or resolution of tachypnea
50. A 6 y/o child had episodes of wheezing 2 days after being admitted
with Severe PCAP. The following are adjunctive treatment in his case:
*
1 point
A. Zinc
B. Vitamin D
C. Salbutamol
D. Carbocisteine
51. A 56/F hypertensive patient was brought to the ER due to diarrhea
and vomiting for the last 5 hours. While being examined, the patient
suddenly exhibited seizures. Because of her clinical presentation, you
were considering electrolyte imbalance, probably hyponatremia. At
what serum Sodium level would seizures start to appear?
*
1 point
A. =/< 110 mEq/L
B. =/< 120 mEq/L
C. =/<130 mEq/L
D. =/<140 mEq/L
52. A 65/M who is hypertensive, with CKD 5, and CHF III was brought
to the ER due to palpitations. Initial serum potassium level is at 6.1
mEq/L and ECG done showed Peaked T waves. You admitted the
patient to the Coronary Care Unit because Hyperkalemia-induced
arrythmias include:
*
1 point
A. Ventricular Tachycardia
B. Ventricular Fibrillation
C. Asystole
D. All of the Above
53. Most patients with hyponatremia are asymptomatic and is usually
noted incidentally. Volume status should be assessed to help
determine the underlying cause prior to correction. To calculate the
serum osmolality, you need the following laboratory results: Serum
Sodium, Blood Glucose, and:
*
1 point
A. Blood Uric Acid
B. Blood Urea Nitrogen
C. Serum Creatinine
D. ALT
54. A 55/F came in for her annual physical exam. Upon review of her
chart, you noted previous history of hypokalemia. Aside from her usual
laboratory examinations, which additional electrolyte test should you
include because a low level of this can exacerbate hypokalemia-
induced rhythm disturbances?
*
1 point
A. Calcium
B. Phosphate
C. Magnesium
D. Bicarbonates
55. A 49/F has congestive heart failure and diabetes. After hospital
confinement, she came for follow up with repeat laboratory results.
For her, the ideal potassium level would be:
*
1 point
A. 3.5 mmol per L
B. 4.0 mmol per L
C. 4.5 mmol per L
D. 5.0 mmol per L
56. In patients with rapid development of hypernatremia, sodium can
be corrected quickly with isotonic saline or water without increasing
the risk of cerebral edema. This is the recommended rate of infusion
for these cases:
*
1 point
A. A correction rate of 1 mEq per L per hour is considered safe in these patients.
B. The sodium level should be corrected at a rate of 0.5 mEq per L per hour, with no more than an 8 to 10
mEq per L decrease over 24 hours.
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
57. A 25y/o 8 weeks AOG pregnant patient presented with palpitation
and tremors. Upon testing, both FT3 and FT4 are elevated and TSH is
depressed, with no nodular lesions seen on thyroid ultrasound. Initial
therapeutic management recommended for this patient would be:
*
1 point
A.Methimazole
B.Radioactive Iodine
C.Propylthiouracil
D.Total Thyroidectomy
58. A hyperthyroid patient comes in at the ER with atrial fibrillation,
severe congestive heart failure, jaundice and fever. Recommended
multi-modality drug therapy in these cases include:
*
1 point
A. Propylthiouracil 500-1000mg loading dose
B. Methimazole 15-30 mg/day
C. Propranolol 10mg TID
D. Potassium Iodide solution 1-2 drops per day
59. A patient who is a known case of hyperthyroidism came to the ER
appearing to be agitated with a temperature of 38C and HR 115. The
patient admitted to having abruptly stopped her thyroid medications.
Upon assessment, she has a Burch-Wartofsky Score of 30, which
means the patient may be classified as having:
*
1 point
A. Euthyroid State
B. Storm Unlikely
C. Impending Storm
D. Thyroid Storm
60. A 4/F patient is diagnosed with Grave’s Disease. Preferred initial
management for this patient would include:
*
1 point
A. Propylthiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Thyroidectomy
D. RAI
61. When is the best time to take levothyroxin?
*
1 point
A. 30-60 mins before breakfast
B. 1 hour before dinner
C. Lunctime, with meals
D. Anytime of the day, with or without meals
62. A patient diagnosed with Grave’s disease managed with
Methimazole came to the emergency room because of abdominal pain,
nausea, jaundice, and vomiting. These symptoms could be due to
complications of taking methimazole, except:
*
1 point
A. Agranulocytosis
B. Hepatitis
C. Acute hepatic failure
D. Anemia
63. Aside from childbirth, drugs may also cause post-partum
thyroiditis. Which of the following medications could be responsible?
*
1 point
A. Amiodarone
B. Amlodipine
C. Atenolol
D. Magnesium sulfate
64. A 29/F G1P0 on her 1st trimester came in due to prolonged
vomiting. Along with other laboratory exams, you requested a thyroid
function test (TFT). The other lab results were unremarkable, while the
TFT showed normal TSH and free T4, and elevated total T3 and total
T4. What would be your diagnosis?
*
1 point
A. de Quervain thyroiditis
B. Estrogen excess
C. Gestational hyperthyroidism
D. Overt hyperthyroidism
65. A 39/F at the ER is diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke. Random
blood glucose showed 280mg/dL, hence blood sugar control is
necessary. What would be the target glucose level appropriate for this
case?
*
1 point
A. 220-250mg/dL
B. 190-210mg/dL
C. 140-180mg/dL
D. 100-130mg/dL
66. Which of the following prophylaxis for deep vein thrombosis in
patients with acute ischemic stroke is recommended?
*
1 point
A. Intermittent pneumatic compression
B. Unfractionated heparin
C. Elastic compression stockings
D. Low molecular weight heparin
67. Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) is NOT recommended for patients with
acute ischemic stroke due to the following EXCEPT:
*
1 point
A. Hypertension
B. Claustrophobia
C. Middle ear barotrauma
D. Seizures
68. How long is the optimal window period of administration of IV
alteplase from diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke via telestroke
consultation?
*
1 point
A. 1-hour time window
B. 2-hour time window
C. 3-hour time window
D. 4-hour time window
69. You are asked to use the Braden scale on a 43/M stroke patient
admitted at the ward. Upon examination, findings are the following:
has a sensory impairment which limits the ability to feel pain or
discomfort over ½ of body; skin is often but not always moist; cannot
bear own weight and must be assisted into chair or wheelchair; makes
occasional slight changes in body or extremity position but unable to
make frequent or significant changes independently; eats over half of
most meals; maintains good position in bed or chair at all times. What
is the pressure sore risk?
*
1 point
A. Mild risk
B. Moderate risk
C. High risk
D. Severe risk
70. A 25 year old patient presents with unilateral pulsative headache
with associated nausea, vomiting and photophobia. Which would be
the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient?
*
1 point
A. Cluster headache
B. Migraine headache
C. Tension type headache
D. Catamenial headache
71. An adult patient presented with severe unilateral orbital pain with
associated nasal congestion and lacrimation on the same site. Which
of the following regimen is best given to this patient?
*
1 point
A. NSAIDs
B. Sumatriptan
C. Muscle relaxants
D. Paracetamol
72. An 8 month old baby girl was rushed by her agitated parents to the
ER. As the attending physician, which of the following physical
findings should be given more attention?
*
1 point
A. Bulging fontanelles
B. Meningeal signs
C. Petechiae
D. Vomiting
73. An 11-month old female with fever was rushed to the ER because
of seizure. History revealed that the child had only 2 doses of
pentavalent vaccine and her immunization status was not yet updated.
The patient was then admitted with plans for Lumbar Puncture (LP) for
CSF sampling. Which of the following is TRUE regarding LP?
*
1 point
A. Is suggested in any child whose history or examination suggests the presence of meningitis or
intracranial infection.
B. It is not recommended in a child who presents with seizure and fever.
C. Optional when evaluating children 6-12 months of age whose immunization status for H. influenzae
type b and S. pneumonia is incomplete or unknown.
D. This should be done to all children younger than 12 months with fever and seizure.
74. A child was brought to the ER due to febrile seizure. As the ER
Resident on duty, which of the following would you administer for
acute tonic-clonic pediatric seizures?
*
1 point
A. Buccal Midazolam
B. Intravenous Diazepam 0.1 mg/kg
C. Oral Diazepam 0.55 mg/kg every 8 hours for the first 24-48 hrs of fever
D. Rectal Diazepam
75. Which among the following is NOT considered an aura for
migraine?
*
1 point
A. Ringing sounds
B. Reversible Loss of vision
C. Flickering Lights
D. Motor weakness
76. During the process of counseling, this is the part when hidden
emotions surface that require ventilation so that they do not disturb
the analytical functions of the mind as it tries to articulate the
problem.
*
1 point
A. Catharsis
B. Insight
C. Education
D. Action
77. What attending skill is employed when the attending physician sets
aside his thoughts and feelings temporarily to hear what the patient is
feeling or saying?
*
1 point
A.Attending
B.Bracketing
C.Leading
D.Reflecting
78. This is the attending skill used when the physician tries to convey
back to patients what they have said in a more concise message:
*
1 point
A. Reflecting feeling
B. Reflecting content
C. Paraphrasing
D. Catharsis
79. A 60/M, single, no co-morbidities, came in due to 3 days cough. It
was characterized as on and off, with whitish phlegm in the morning.
No associated signs and symptoms of weight loss, hemoptysis, fever,
pleuritic chest pain, and abdominal pain. Upon taking the personal and
social history, patient was a 20 pack year smoker and chronic alcohol
beverage drinker. Physical examination is normal. Identify which of the
following gaps in primary health affects the health of your patient.
*
1 point
A. Personal
B. Environmental
C. Mental
D. Behavioral
80. During one of your Family Health Care visits, you utilized the
APGAR tool on one of your enrolled families because of concerns
about drug abuse. Your index patient answered the following: A-some
of the time; P-almost always; G-hardly ever; A-Hardly ever; R-almost
always. What is your interpretation?
*
1 point
A. Severely dysfunctional
B. Moderately dysfunctional
C. Moderately functional
D. Highly functional
81. This tool provides clues on the significant psychological issues
within the family system and interpretation is made by a psychologist.
*
1 point
A. DRAFT
B. APGAR
C. SCREEM
D. Family circle
82. "Thick file syndrome" equates to which of the following family
assessment tools?
*
1 point
A. Family genogram
B. Family APGAR
C. Family circle
D. Family map
83. The COPC Approach involves a sequence of related activities that
include the following, EXCEPT:
*
1 point
A.Defining a community by geographical, demographic, or other characteristics
B.Determining the health needs of the community in a systematic manner
C.Identifying and prioritizing specific projects for implementation
Developing programs to address priorities within the context of primary health care
84. The following statements are true of COPC, EXCEPT:
*
1 point
A. A systematic approach to improving primary health care services through integrating clinical science
with public health at the community level.
B. Integrates individual- and population-based care, blending the clinical skills with epidemiology,
preventive medicine, and health promotion
C. It is primary care practice which provides accessible, comprehensive, coordinated, continuous, and
reliable health service.
D. Other countries have recognized the value of specialist physicians who have deliberately trained to
provide specialized care for the entire population.
85. The ecological model used in community medicine in the analysis
and intervention phases of health promotions include these levels,
EXCEPT:
*
1 point
A.Individual
B.Interpersonal
C.Organizational
D. Regional
86. By rule of thumb, what is the cutoff number for significant
heterogeneity in Meta-analysis?
*
1 point
A. 0 %
B. 25 %
C. 50 %
D. 100 %
87. Which among the following is the formula for specificity?
*
1 point
A.TN / (TN + FP)
B. FN / (TP + FN)
C. TP / (TN + FP)
D. FP / (FP + TN)
88. The PICO framework is essential in asking clinical questions.
Which of the following correctly matches the abbreviation?
*
1 point
A. P - Pharmacologic
B. I - Intervention
C. C - Composition
D. O - Outlier
89. Which of the following statements on NUMBER NEEDED TO HARM
(NNH) is FALSE?
*
1 point
A. The NNH refers to the number of patients who would need to be treated, on average, for one of them
to experience the adverse effects of a particular type of treatment.
B. The NNH is based on the absolute risk increase (ARI) and is calculated as the inverse of ARI (i.e.,
NNH = 1 / ARI).
C. The NNH is usually determined in intervention trials, often comparing two therapeutic agents.
D. A beneficial intervention often has a very small NNH.
90. You visited the Pubmed website to search for articles on the effect
of smoking on academic performance. In the search box, you typed
smok*. What will the asterisk do to your search?
*
1 point
A. Expand the search to include articles on e-cigarette smokers
B. Include articles with alternative terms for smoking
C. Limit the search to articles with the letters smok in the title
D. Pick up articles with multiple endings after the term 'smok'
91. As a family and community medicine resident, you are tasked to
appraise a journal. In using the medical literature to prove optimal
patient care which of the following steps would ask for the "risk of
bias"?
*
1 point
A. Ask
B. Acquire
C. Appraise
D. Apply
92. While reading an article on prognosis, you scrutinized the
methodology to check for possible systematic errors in the way the
study was conducted. To guide you, you will use questions in which
part of critical appraisal?
*
1 point
A. Applicability
B. Directness
C. Relevance
D. Validity
93. This law promotes and advocates the use of traditional,
alternative, preventive and curative health care modalities that have
been proven safe, effective, cost effective and consistent with
government standards on medical practice.
*
1 point
A. Republic Act No. 1136
B. Rebuplic Act No. 7876
C. Republic Act No. 8423
D.Republic Act No. 9288
94. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to E.O. No. 51 The
Milk Code of the Philippines?
*
1 point
A. Health workers shall encourage and promote breastfeeding and shall make themselves familiar with
objectives and consistent information on maternal and infant nutrition, and with their responsibilities
under this Code.
B. In health education classes for mothers and the general public, health workers and community workers
shall emphasize the hazards and risks of the improper use of breastmilk substitutes particularly infant
formula.
C. Manufacturers and distributors is allowed to distribute to pregnant women or mothers of infants any
gifts or articles or utensils which may promote the use of breastmilk substitutes
D. No facility of the health care system shall be used for the purpose of promoting infant formula or other
products within the scope of this Code.
95. According to Republic Act 10173 or the Data Privacy Act of 2012,
the following are RIGHTS of STUDY SUBJECTS, EXCEPT:
*
1 point
A. Right to proportionate remuneration and financial incentives for participation in a research study or
undertaking
B. Right to erasure / blocking / removal / destruction of his or her personal data from the personal
information’ controller’s filing system
C. Right to dispute the inaccuracy or error in the personal data and have the personal information
controller correct it immediately and accordingly
D. Right to be informed of what personal data will be used in the research system prior to participation in
any given research study or undertaking
96. Which of the following provisions is TRUE of the GRAPHIC HEALTH
WARNINGS LAW?
*
1 point
A. Products for sale in local Duty Free shops are exempt from the provisions of this law.
B. Expenses incurred by manufacturers, suppliers, and importers, in compliance with this law, shall be
reimbursed by the government.
C. Products for export are also required to strictly comply with the set specifications of the graphic
template, i.e., picture size, font of texts, etc.
D. Apparently deceiving descriptors (e.g., “Lights,” “Low-Tar,” “Ultra-Filter,” etc.), which convey a
sense of added “protection” are strictly prohibited from being printed on packaging material.
97. Primary health care as the key to the attainment of the “health for
all” goals have the following built-in principle. What principle states
that health services are delivered to where the people are, using
available and indigenous resources?
*
1 point
A. Provision of high quality, basic and essential health services
B. Community participation
C. Social mobilization
D. Accessibility, availability, and acceptability of health services
98. The philosophy that underlies primary health care is:
*
1 point
A. Equality and social justice
B. Equity and social justice
C. Impartiality and social Justice
D. Equal rights and social justice
99. This model is described to be democratic, signifying “healing WITH
the people.”
*
1 point
A. Community-managed Pimary Health Care (PHC) model
B. Community-Oriented PHC model
C. Community-based PHC model
D. Clinic-Based PHC model
100. Among the four-fold objectives of the primary health care
approach, which statements below is not a part of it?
*
1 point
A. To enable to exercise their right and responsibility in shaping the environment and brining about
conditions that make it possible and easier, to live a healthy life
B. To enable people to participate and exercise control in managing health and related systems
C. To enable people to rely on doctors to cure illnesses.
D. To enable people to seek better health in factories.