AILET Mock 13 Question Paper5267727

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the Most Comprehensive & Consistently Successful Study Material & Test Series Module, spanning across
both Offline and Online Programs in the entire Country. As a result LegalEdge was able to engineer Clean-Sweep-
Landslide figures of a handsome 64 Selections & 65 Selections in Top 100 (including AIR 1, 2 & 3 from Classroom
Contact Programs in 2023, 2022 & 2021) & a whopping 273 selections & 327 selections in Top 500, in CLAT 2021 &
CLAT 2022, respectively. With AILET being no different, a total of 34 of our students found their way into NLU,
Delhi in 2021 & 35 in 2022. In a nutshell, every second admit in a Top National Law School in 2021 & 2022 came
from the LegalEdge Preparation Ecosystem.
ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024

ALL INDIA OPEN MOCK AILET 01 (AILET-13)
c o m
Duration : 120 Minutes
Max. Marks : 150
rs .
Candidate Name : _____________
Batch : _____________
Centre Name : __________ Contact No.
k e : _____________
r an
o p
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
2P7Ptr-5I2G6H
7F7C2C7A
T
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
4. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer.
5. Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct
tr-5P 2O6Q7Sanswer
7M2P7P is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and
no marks will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces,
provided for.
9. After the test is over, the candidate should keep the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper and can carry it back with
themselves
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
Directions (Q.1-Q.120): Each set of questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be
answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. Choose the most appropriate response that
accurately and completely answer the question.
Passage (Q.1-Q.12): The spirit of self-help is the root of all genuine growth in the individual; and, exhibited in
the lives of many, it constitutes the true source of national vigour and strength. Help from without is often
enfeebling in its effects, but help from within invariably invigorates. Whatever is done for men or classes, to a
certain extent takes away the stimulus and necessity of doing for themselves; and where men are subjected to
over-guidance and over-government, the inevitable tendency is to render them comparatively helpless.
Even the best institutions can give a man no active help. Perhaps the most they can do is, to leave him free to
develop himself and improve his individual condition. But in all times men have been prone to believe that their
m
happiness and well-being were to be secured by means of institutions rather than by their own conduct. Hence,
o
the value of legislation as an agent in human advancement has usually been much over-estimated. To constitute
c
the millionth part of a Legislature, by voting for one or two men once in three or five years, however
rs .
conscientiously this duty may be performed, can exercise but little active influence upon any man's life and
character. Moreover, it is every day becoming more clearly understood, that the function of Government is
negative and restrictive, rather than positive and active; being resolvable principally into protection—protection
of life, liberty, and property.
k e
Laws, wisely administered, will secure men in the enjoyment of the fruits of their labour, whether of mind or
n
body, at a comparatively small personal sacrifice; but no laws, however stringent, can make the idle industrious,
a
the thriftless provident, or the drunken sober. Such reforms can only be effected by means of individual action,
r
economy, and self-denial; by better habits, rather than by greater rights.
The Government of a
o
tr-5P 2O
p
6Q7S7M2P7P
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A
nation itself is usually found to be
but the reflex of the individuals composing it. The
Government that is ahead of the people will inevitably be dragged down to their level, as the Government that
T
is behind them will in the long run be dragged up. In the order of nature, the collective character of a nation will
as surely find its befitting results in its law and government, as water finds its own level. The noble people will
be nobly ruled, and the ignorant and corrupt ignobly. Indeed all experience serves to prove that the worth and
strength of a State depend far less upon the form of its institutions than upon the character of its men. For the
nation is only an aggregate of individual conditions, and civilization itself is but a question of the personal
improvement of the men, women, and children of whom society is composed.
Extracted from the Book "Self-Help" by Samuel Smiles 2P7P

tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

The writer suggests that help from within is ________.
(a) Often enfeebling in its effects.
(b) The root of all genuine growth in the individual.
(c) The untrue source of national vigour and strength.
(d) Likely to render individuals helpless.
2. Select the option that correctly reflects the writer's view on government and legislation.
(a) They are crucial for individual growth and national strength.
(b) They actively contribute to making idle individuals industrious.
(c) They are usually overestimated in their role in human advancement.
(d) They should be the primary source of protection for individual rights.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 32
3. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the relationship between a nation's government and its people?
(a) A noble government will always elevate the character of its people.
(b) The character of the government reflects the character of the people.
(c) A government behind its people in character will remain so indefinitely.
(d) The people have no influence on the character of their government.
4. According to the passage, what should be the primary function of government?

(a) To actively contribute to individual growth and prosperity.
(b) To protect life, liberty, and property.
(c) To make the idle industrious and the thriftless provident.
(d) To be the primary source of national strength and vigour.
5.
(a) They are less important than the form of the nation's institutions.
(b) They are the determinant of the nation's laws and government.
c o m
Select the option that best reflects the writer's view on the importance of individual conditions in a nation.
(c) They have no significant impact on the nation's laws and government.
(d) They are only important in so far as they reflect the nation's institutions.
rs .
6.
SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
k e
The passage suggests that the function of Government is primarily negative and restrictive. It implies that:
n
(a) Government plays an active role in making the idle industrious.
a
(b) Laws ensure that individuals are industrious and provident, actively influencing an individual’s development.
r
(c) The function of Government involves protection of life, liberty, and property, not actively influencing
(d) Government institutions

property.
2O6Q7S7M
tr-5Pactively
o p
individual’s life and character. 2P7Ptr-5I2G6H7F7C2C7A
contribute to individual growth, but provide little protection to life and
7.
T
The passage discusses that the character of a nation finds its results in its law and government. This suggests:
(a) Governments shape the character of a nation.
(b) The character of a nation influences its government and laws.
(c) Laws are the primary determinants of a nation's character.
(d) Governments and laws are unrelated to a nation's character.
8. The passage implies that reforms such as making the idle industrious can only be achieved through:
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
(a) Stricter laws and government interventions.
(b) Individual action and better habits.
(c) More rights and privileges.
(d) External help and support.
9. The author's view on the relationship between government institutions and individual progress suggests that:
(a) Government institutions actively facilitate individual progress.
(b) The character of individuals is shaped by government institutions.
(c) Individual progress depends solely on government policies and laws.
(d) The character and condition of individuals collectively determine the state of the nation.
10. A country has four classes of citizens: A, B, C, and D, which represent individuals who mostly rely on self-help,
institutions, government, and a mix of all, respectively. According to the passage, which of these classes is most
likely to experience genuine growth and national strength?
(a) A and B, as they are proactive in their approach.
(b) B and C, as they rely on established systems.
(c) A, because self-help is the root of all genuine growth.
(d) D, as they benefit from a balance of all factors.
11. Four countries - M, N, O, and P - adopt different governance models. M believes in over-guidance and over-
government, N gives maximum freedom to its citizens and only provides protection, O relies heavily on
legislation for advancement, and P believes in self-help and minimal interference from the government. Based
on the passage, which country is most likely to have its citizens rendered comparatively helpless?
12.
(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) P
c o m
Pointing to a photograph Ritesh said, "He is the son of the only daughter of my father". If Ritesh is a
boy. How is Ritesh related to the man in the photograph?
(a) Nephew (b) Niece (c) Paternal uncle (d) Maternal uncle
rs .
e
Passage (Q.13-Q.24): In the gradual processes of Nature, we find provisions for mitigating, repairing, or
compensating most of the disturbances incident to the ordinary operations of the physical agencies which she
k
employs; but many of the derangements occasioned by human action are beyond the reach of such remedies.
n
Forests, and the woods and shrubs which cover the parks and the rough pastures of the more thickly settled
a
countries, are essential to the health of our globe. Yet man, reckless of the consequences of his acts, sets himself
r
to the task of stripping the earth of those 'leafy shades,' without reflecting on the improvidence of destroying
elements so important to the well-being of
by the art of man.
o
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
p
the organic2Cworld,
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
7A or considering how difficult they are of restoration
T
The earth is fast becoming an unfit home for its noblest inhabitant, and another era of equal human crime and
human improvidence, and of like duration with that through which traces of that crime and that improvidence
extend, would reduce it to such a condition of impoverished productiveness, of shattered surface, of climatic
excess, as to threaten the depravation, barbarism, and perhaps even extinction of the species.
The wanton destruction of the forest is, then, a crime against nature, and in its consequences, a wrong done to
human society, which the civilization and refinement of modern ages should no longer tolerate. The action of
man, in some respects beneficial, has in others a long series of injurious 2P7P
and often fatal results. His efforts,
5P2O6Q7S7M
combined with natural causes, are exhausting the fertility of the soil, and, by his destruction of the balance which
tr-
nature had established between the organic and inorganic worlds, he threatens changes in the material globe, of
which the mind hardly dares to prefigure the ultimate results.
In the history of the world, so far as we know it from human annals and infer it from physical monuments, we
discern series of actions and reactions in the relations of man and nature which may, not unaptly, be compared
to the systole and diastole of the great central organ of circulation in the animal body. The action of man upon
the organic world tends to subvert the original balance of its species, and while it reduces the numbers of some
of them, or even exterminates them altogether, it multiplies other forms of animal and vegetable life. One of the
consequences of the greater prevalence of the vegetable over the animal life is an increased production of the
compounds of carbon and hydrogen, which, when not consumed by animal respiration or by combustion, escape
into the atmosphere, and, by their powerful obstructive action to the passage of radiant heat, tend to raise the
temperature of the earth. Thus, while man is indirectly contributing to produce one of the agencies most directly
tending to prevent the very refrigeration which the loss of his woods has brought on, he is at the same time
diminishing the capacity of the earth to produce that vegetation, which, as we have seen, is one of the chief
means of counteracting the tendencies to excessive cold.
Extracted from the book "Man and Nature, or Physical Geography as Modified by Human Action" by George
Perkins Marsh.
13. How does the writer use the term "leafy shades" in the context of the passage?
(a) As a symbol of nature’s resilience.
(b) To highlight the beauty of forests.
(c) As a representation of essential environmental elements.
(d) To emphasize the artistic aspect of nature.
14. What does the writer imply about the future, if human actions continue as they are?
(a) The earth will become a more suitable home for its inhabitants.
c o m
(b) The earth will experience an era of prosperity and abundance.
(c) The earth will become an unfit home, threatening the survival of the species.
(d) The earth will undergo necessary changes for the betterment of the environment.
rs .
15.
k e
According to the writer, how do human actions contribute to changes in the earth’s temperature?
(a) By directly raising the earth’s temperature.
n
(b) By increasing the prevalence of animal life over vegetable life.
a
(c) By improving the balance between the organic and inorganic worlds.
r
(d) By contributing to one of the agencies tending to prevent refrigeration.
16. What is the writer's

p
2O6Q7S7M2P
7Ptr-5I2G6H7F
7C2C7A
perspective on the restoration of forests?
o
tr-5P
(a) Forests are easily restored by human effort.
17.
T
(b) Forests are not essential and do not need restoration.
(c) Forests are difficult to restore, and their loss has significant consequences.
(d) Forests restoration is not a priority in the context of other environmental issues.
What does the writer suggest about the relationship between human actions and soil fertility?
(a) Human actions have no impact on soil fertility.
(b) Human actions are improving soil fertility.
(c) Human actions, combined with natural causes, are exhausting soil fertility.
6Q7S7M2P7P
(d) Human actions are necessary to maintain soil fertility. tr-5P2O
18. Which of the following assumptions is/are necessary to conclude that the destruction of forests leads directly to
an unfit habitat for its inhabitants?
(a) The loss of forests has a direct relation to the health of our globe.
(b) Forests are the primary factor in determining the fitness of habitat for its inhabitants.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
19. The author suggests that proactive measures, such as reforestation and reduced human interference, would
theoretically:
(a) Reverse all damages and restore the balance of nature completely.
(b) Halt the accelerated deterioration of the earth over a long period.
(c) Slow down the rate of damage but not necessarily halt it.
(d) All the above.
20. The author's view on human actions leading to climatic changes can be best illustrated by which of the following
scenarios?
(a) A machine emitting smoke continuously, leading to a localized increase in temperature.
(b) Overfilling a vessel with water, causing it to spill and create a mess.
(c) A car's exhaust contributing to the greenhouse effect, thereby influencing global warming.
21.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
c o m
From the passage, it is evident that both the destruction of forests and human actions are contributing to Earth's
to Earth's unfit conditions. The details of the study and their results are below:
rs .
degradation. As an environmental researcher, you conduct a study to determine the extent of their contribution
i. Evaluate the impact of forest destruction in isolated regions with no direct human interference. The study
e
finds that the health of these regions declines significantly. The measurement of the effect is Y units.
ii. Separately, assess regions with human activities but no deforestation. It turns out that the health of these
regions is not affected significantly.
k
n
iii. Separately, assess regions affected by both human actions and forest destruction. The study finds that the
a
health of these regions declines dramatically. The measurement of the effect is 3Y units.
What, if anything, can be concluded from the study?
r
(a) Human activities are always harmful7Pto
6Q7S7M2P
pthe environment.
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A
(b) Human activities are detrimental to the environment only in areas where forests have been destroyed.
o
tr-5P 2O
(c) Forest destruction poses no threat in regions without human interference.
T
(d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn.
Directions (Q.22-Q.24): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Jack starts from point A, walks 14 m towards the East. Takes a left turn and walks 4 m. He then takes right turn,
walks 2 m and stops. Sam starts from the same point A, walks 14 m towards the South, takes a left turn and walks
20 m before stopping.
22. Jack walks 4 m from the point where he stopped in a straight line in the same
2P7P
direction which he faced when he
5P2O6Q7S7M
stopped and reaches point B. How far would Sam have to travel from the point where he stopped and in which
tr-
direction if he must meet Jack at point B?

(a) 12 m towards South (b) 14 m towards South
(c) 18 m towards South (d) 18 m towards North
23. If Jack takes a right turn from the point where he stops walks 18 m and stops, how far would he be from the
position where Sam stopped?
(a) 4 m (b) 2 m (c) 12 m (d) 18 m
24. If the uncle of the father of Rani is the grandson of the father of Anup and Anup is the only son of his father, then
how Anup is related to Rani?
(a) Grandfather (b) Uncle (c) Maternal Uncle (d) Great grandfather
Passage (Q.25-Q.36): In primitive society, where the family is the social unit and descent is reckoned through
the mother alone, a man looks on his mother's brother as his natural protector and guardian; hence the uncle
occupies a higher place in the affections of his sister's son than the father does, and the duty of avenging the
uncle's death is more sacred than that of avenging the father's. In Samoa, for example, the office of avenger of
blood was discharged by a man's own family and kindred, but the family most bound to take up the cause was
that of the mother's brother. In the western district of Victoria, Australia, a native was bound to avenge the death
of a member of the group within which he might marry, and which commonly included his mother's brother. On
the other hand, he was under no obligation to avenge the death of a member of the group from which he himself
sprang, and which commonly included his father. The distinction is instructive, for it shows how, in such a
society, a man's duties to his kindred on the mother's side may be recognized and enforced, while his duties to
his kindred on the father's side are ignored, because the former count for more in his life than the latter.
m
In this connection an ancient Hindu custom deserves to be noted. It was the duty of every Brahman in due time
o
to marry, to beget a son, and when he was dead and gone, to be burned on the pyre by that son as a pious and
c
indispensable service to the father's spirit. But it was equally his duty to kindle the pyre of his maternal uncle;
rs .
and if the uncle died before the Brahman's son was old enough to perform the office, the Brahman himself
discharged it. Thus among the Hindus, as among the Australian aborigines, a man's obligations to his maternal
uncle were of a most sacred and stringent character, comparable to or even surpassing the duties which he owed
to his own father.
k e
The explanation of these customs is probably to be found in the system of kinship through the mother alone,
n
which ignores the father's relation to his children and treats the maternal uncle as the true male parent, on whom
a
consequently, in the absence of grown-up sons, the duty of funeral rites naturally devolves. The rule that a
r
Brahman must be burnt by his son has its exact parallel in the rule observed by the Bangala, a negro tribe of the
Upper Congo. Among them a man's eldest
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
p
son lights 2C
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
on the deceased's younger brother or on his sister's son.
o
the7Afuneral pyre; but if the son is not at hand, the duty falls
25.
T
Extracted from the book "The Golden Bough: A Study in Magic and Religion" by Sir James George Frazer
The passage primarily explores

(a) The evolution of family structures
(b) The role of the maternal uncle in primitive societies

(c) Funeral rites across different cultures 2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
(d) The system of kinship through the father
26. In the text, the term "office of avenger of blood" refers to

(a) a legal position within the community (b) a family obligation to seek revenge for a death
(c) a spiritual ritual (d) a governmental role
27. The word “kindred” in the passage most closely means

(a) enemies (b) friends (c) relatives (d) allies
28. Which of the following best describes the Brahman’s duty in the event of his maternal uncle’s death, according
to the text?
(a) He must wait for his son to be old enough to perform the funeral rites.
(b) He is not obligated to perform any funeral rites.
(c) He must perform the funeral rites himself if his son is not old enough.
(d) He must avenge his maternal uncle’s death.
29. Based on the passage, which of the following statements is true?
(a) A man’s duties to his father’s kin are more important than his duties to his mother’s kin.
(b) A man’s duties to his mother’s kin are more important than his duties to his father’s kin.
(c) A man has equal obligations to both his mother’s and father’s kin.
(d) A man has no obligations to his father’s kin.
Direction(Q.30-Q.32): Aman has to distribute three important responsibilities among five of his family
members - P, Q, R, S, and T - in accordance with the following conditions:
(i) If P takes on a responsibility, Q or S must also take on responsibilities.
(ii) If T takes on a responsibility, R cannot take on a responsibility.
(iii) At least one of Q or R must take on a responsibility.
(iv) Each responsibility can only go to one person.
c o m
30. If R takes on a responsibility, the other two responsibilities can go to:
(a) Only P and Q (b) Only T and S (c) Only Q and T
rs .
(d) None of the above
31. If T takes on a responsibility, the other two responsibilities can go to:

(a) Only P and Q (b) Only P and S (c) Only Q and S
k e
(d) All of the above
32.
(a) P cannot take on a responsibility.
(b) T must take on a responsibility.
r an
If S does not take on a responsibility, which of the following must be true?
(c) R and Q both take on responsibilities.

(d) None of the above.
o
tr-5P 2O6Q7S7M2P
p
7Ptr-5I2G6H7F
7C2C7A
33.
the father does.
T
Issue: In primitive societies, the maternal uncle holds a higher position in the affections of his sister's son than
Person A: The ancient system of kinship through the mother alone is responsible for the uncle's higher status, as
it places more emphasis on maternal relations.
Person B: While kinship through the mother may play a role, cultural practices and traditions also contribute to
the maternal uncle's elevated status.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Person A and Person B both believe that maternal kinship is the sole reason for the uncle's higher status.
2P7P
5P2O6Q7S7M
(b) Person B believes that cultural practices do not influencetr-the uncle's higher status.
(c) Person A and Person B agree that the system of kinship through the mother play a role in the uncle's elevated
status.
34. The system of kinship through the mother alone treats the maternal uncle as the true male parent.
Which one of the following statements can be properly inferred from the passage?
(a) The father has no significant role in societies that follow kinship through the mother alone.
(b) Maternal uncles are always more respected than fathers across all societies.
(c) In societies following kinship through the mother alone, the maternal uncle has more significant
responsibilities than the father.
(d) The father's relation to his children is always ignored in all societies.
35. The Bangala tribe of the Upper Congo has a practice where the eldest son lights the funeral pyre. If he is not
present, the deceased's younger brother or sister's son does it.
Based on the information above, which conclusion necessarily follows?
(a) The Bangala tribe never allows daughters to light the funeral pyre.
(b) The younger brother is always the first choice if the eldest son is unavailable.
(c) The Bangala tribe values the eldest son's role in funeral rites above others.
36. If in a certain language, GRASP is coded as BMVNK, which of the following word would be coded as CRANE?
(a) FUDQH (b) HWFSJ (c) GVERI (d) XMVIZ
Passage (Q.37-Q.48): The stream of thought flows on; but most of its segments fall into the bottomless abyss
m
of oblivion. Of some, no memory survives the instant of their passage. Of others, it is confined to a few moments,
o
hours or days. Others, again, leave vestiges which are indestructible, and by means of which they may be recalled
c
as long as life endures. Can we explain these differences? Why should one experience be obliterable and another
indelible from our mind?
rs .
If we could find an answer to this question, we should have the key to our problem. The only certain thing is that
can explain the laws of oblivion or of recall.
k e
the phenomenon is complex, and that neither attention received, nor importance of content, nor logical necessity
n
The principle of association, is a general name for all the influences which an experience may receive from other
a
experiences, which make it more likely to recur. The more often any particular process of adjustment is realized,
r
the more often the inward current has to touch a particular cell so as to arouse a particular memory-image, the
more liable is that cell to be easily affected
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
pso again, the

tr-5I2G6H7F7C
more potent and fertile for the future is that image likely
2C7A
to become. Habit diminishes the conscious attention with which our acts are performed. One may state this
o
abstractly thus: If an incoming current, once in the brain, will now follow a path of least resistance, then if it has
T
once traversed a path before, it will traverse the same path more readily still a second time. Every repetition of
the act will increase the facility; and a tendency to such repetition is set up, which grows irresistibly. The most
confirmed habits have begun as single impulses, and what is given in impulse is given also in lower forms of
mere unaided tendency.
Every impression which the outer world has made upon the cortex leaves, it is said, some trace in the latter's
substance; even if it determine no immediate reaction. These traces, 'association-fibers,' or secondary paths of
discharge, as they are indifferently termed, constitute, together with the primary
2P7P
paths, the entire material of the
5P2O6Q7S7M
cortex. The primary paths are supposed to subserve the immediate adjustments; the secondary ones to store up
tr-
a material which the first impulse received may work upon by way of ideation, before any definite motor
response is decided on. The same quality of the nervous elements, whatever it be, which enables them to conduct
the primary impulses, probably serves to keep up the secondary currents also; so that for all that appears, the
same nerve-cells and fibers might subserve an indefinite number of secondary paths, in addition to the primary
one for which they were especially organized. Such considerations as these make all talk about 'the material
substrate of habit' in the nerve-centers mere wordy vaporing. The only thing that psychology requires and
assumes is that, in the present dynamic condition of the brain, a tendency should exist to renew again and again
any specific process of discharge which on its last occurrence was followed by the minimal resistance, here
interpreted by the law of habit. This is what we do assume, whether we talk of 'paths of least resistance,' or of
'persistence of outgoing currents,' or of 'ionization,' or of 'dissociation among the molecules,' or of 'brain tracts
organized by their last employment.'
Extracted from the book "The Principles of Psychology" by William James.
37. The stream of thought and memory processes can be influenced by

(a) The frequency of particular adjustments
(b) The complexity of the content
(c) The age of the individual
(d) The time of day
38. In the context of the passage, the term “association-fibers” refers to

(a) Primary paths of neural discharge
(b) Traces left by outer world impressions on the cortex
(c) Immediate motor responses
(d) The minimal resistance for neural discharge
39. According to the passage, the principle of association

(a) Only applies to experiences that are consciously attended to
c o m
(b) Is a specific neural mechanism
(c) Encompasses all influences that make an experience more likely to recur
(d) Is directly linked to the importance of the content of an experience
rs .
40. The passage suggests that habits are formed through
(a) A single impulse (b) Repeated impulses
k e
41.
(c) Conscious attention
r an
(d) The importance of content
According to the passage, the “material of the cortex” consists of

(a) association-fibers only
(b) Primary paths only
o
tr-5P 2O6Q7S7M2P
(c) Both association-fibers and primary paths

p
7Ptr-5I2G6H7F
7C2C7A
42.
T
(d) Neither association-fibers nor primary paths
Person A: Memory is a complex phenomenon that cannot be solely attributed to the level of attention or the
importance of an experience.
Person B in response to Person A: The principle of association plays a vital role in determining which experiences
are more likely to recur in our memory. 2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
Which of the following is correct? (Please refer to the information provided in the passage to reach the correct
answer)
(a) Person A and Person B agree that memory is a multifaceted phenomenon.
(b) Person B believes that only the principle of association determines memory retention.
(c) Both 'a' and 'b'
(d) Neither 'a' nor 'b'
43. The principle of association involves the influences that an experience may receive from other experiences,
making it more likely to recur. One of the manifestations of this principle is the tendency of repeated acts to
become habitual. (please refer to the information provided in the passage to reach the correct answer)
Which of the following, if true, strengthens the explanation above?
(a) Habits formed over years are harder to break due to the principle of association.
(b) New experiences that do not relate to any past experiences are easily forgotten.
(c) The principle of association only applies to negative or traumatic experiences.
44. Researcher: Our study on the brain's memory functions revealed that the principle of association plays a crucial
role in determining which experiences are more likely to be recalled. However, we couldn't derive any conclusive
evidence from examining the primary paths in the cortex.
The Researcher's reasoning does which of the following? (Please refer to the information provided in the passage
to reach the correct answer)
(a) Compares the results from two different studies to reach a conclusion.
(b) Uses evidence from the principle of association to make claims about the cortex's primary paths.
(c) Relies on evidence about memory recall to discuss the brain's entire functioning.
(d) Uses evidence where direct evidence is available to make a conclusion about a case where direct evidence is
not available.
45. Researcher A: The principle of association plays a significant role in our memory recall, but it doesn't solely
determine which experiences we remember.
o m
Researcher B in response to Researcher A: While that's true, the frequency of an experience and its subsequent
repetition can make it more potent in our memory, as per the same principle.
c
answer)
rs .
Which of the following is correct? (Please refer to the information provided in the passage to reach the correct
(a) Both Researcher A and Researcher B agree that the principle of association is crucial in memory recall.
e
(b) Researcher B denies the importance of the principle of association in memory recall.
(c) Researcher A believes that the frequency of experiences doesn't influence memory recall.
(d) Neither 'a' nor 'b'
k
46.
r an
Every impression made on the cortex leads to the formation of 'association-fibers' or secondary paths of
discharge. These, combined with primary paths, form the substance of the cortex.
Based on the above, which of the following,
6Q7S7M2P7P
pif true, would

tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A weaken the explanation?
(a) Only traumatic experiences lead to the formation of 'association-fibers'.
tr-
o
5P 2O
(b) Secondary paths of discharge play no role in the overall function of the cortex.
T
(c) The primary paths are more significant than the secondary paths in terms of number.
(d) The cortex's functions are influenced by both internal and external stimuli.
Directions (Q.47 and Q.48): Each of these questions consists of three statements followed by three conclusions
numbered I, II and III. Consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with the commonly
known facts and find out which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the given statements, disregarding
the commonly known facts.
2P7P
47. Statements : tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
All services are jobs.

Some jobs are tasks.
No task is a condition.
Conclusions:
I. Some services are conditions.
II. At least some conditions are not jobs.
III. All tasks being jobs is a possibility.
(a) Only II and III follow (b) Only III follows
(c) All follow (d) None follows
48. Statements:
Some items are things.
Some things are not articles.
Some articles are instruments.
Conclusions:
I. Some items are instruments.
II. Some articles can be items.
III. No item is an instrument.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only III follows
(c) Either I or III follows (d) Only II and either I or III follow
Passage (Q.49-Q.60): India has explained its decision to abstain at last week’s vote at the UN General Assembly
m
(UNGA) for a ceasefire in the Israel-Palestine conflict as its way of protesting the omission of any “explicit
o
condemnation” of the heinous October 7 terror attack by Hamas militants on Israel. India’s principled stand on
c
terrorism, which the Deputy Permanent Representative to the UN articulated, cannot be questioned. However,
rs .
the death toll is rising and the need for global solidarity to stop the violence is imperative, a task that New Delhi,
with its traditionally balanced position on the issue, and its recent G-20 role in bridging global divides, would
have been well suited to play. Every other country in the neighbourhood, in the extended BRICS grouping and
e
much of the developing world, was part of the 120 countries that voted for the UNGA resolution on Friday.
Regardless of its reasoning, New Delhi had other options which it overlooked or ignored. The resolution at the
k
emergency special session entitled “Protection of civilians and upholding legal and humanitarian obligations”
n
does include a paragraph “condemning all acts of violence aimed at Palestinian and Israeli civilians, including
a
all acts of terrorism and indiscriminate attacks”. India could have played a prominent diplomatic role with
r
countries proposing the resolution to ensure clearer mention of the October 7 attacks, including during Prime
Minister Narendra Modi’s recent conversation
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
p with Jordan’s
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A King Abdullah bin Al Hussein about the conflict.
India’s leadership of such an amendment may have fared better than the Canadian proposal that failed to secure
o
two-thirds of the UNGA membership present. Alternatively, India could have voted for the motion, while
T
recording in its Explanation of Vote (EoV) that it regretted the omissions of the specific references to the October
7 attacks, which is what France did. In its EoV, India did not itself name Hamas for the terror attacks, nor has it
so far designated Hamas as a terror group, leaving some doubt about the explicit mentions that New Delhi had
wanted. On the other hand, if India wanted to convey a strong line on fighting terrorism, it could have voted
against the resolution, along with the U.S., the U.K. and Israel.
India’s abstention indicates a shift in the Modi government’s stand, seeking a ‘safe’ position, rather than taking
a stand on the violence in Israel and Palestine. This is a departure from 2P India’s
7P
UNGA vote in 2018 that called
5P2O6Q7S7M
for Israel to cease “excessive force” in retaliatory strikes on Gaza at the time, and is more in line with its decision
tr-
to abstain on votes at the UN in 2021 on resolutions critical of Russia’s war in Ukraine. The government lost an
opportunity to make India’s voice heard in the growing geopolitical conflict. Abstaining on a matter of global
importance without making efforts to forge a consensus is out of sync with a desire to be the voice of the Global
South, or for a seat at the global high table.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/lost-voice-on-indias-abstention-on-the-gaza-vote-at-the-
un/article67477119.ece
49. Select the option that correctly completes the following.

India's vote at the UNGA in 2018 : cease “excessive force” :: India’s vote at the UN in 2021 : ___________
(a) Support of Russia’s war in Ukraine
(b) Condemn Russia’s war in Ukraine
(c) Abstain on resolutions critical of Russia’s war in Ukraine
(d) No vote

India's abstention at the UNGA vote indicates a shift towards a __________.
(a) Stronger position against terrorism
(b) Neutral stance in global matters
(c) Support for Hamas
(d) Support for Israel
c o m
India's decision to abstain was influenced by the omission of _______________.
(a) Israel's retaliation (b) Hamas's October 7 terror attack
rs .
52.
(c) ceasefire call by the UNGA (d) Canada's proposal
What could India have done differently regarding the UNGA resolution?
k e
(a) Support the Canadian proposal
an
(b) Vote for the resolution with the U.S., the U.K., and Israel
r
(c) Record an Explanation of Vote regretting the omissions
53.
o p
(d) Abstain without any explanations 2P7Ptr-5I2G6H7F7C2C7A
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
Replace the underlined word with its correct meaning from the given options.
(a) Unchanging
T
‘India’s principled stand on terrorism.’
(b) Moral (c) Biased (d) Aggressive
Directions (Q.54-Q.56): Five countries debated a resolution at the UN General Assembly regarding the Israel-
Palestine conflict. These countries are named India, Israel, France, the U.S., and the U.K. The seating
arrangement of these countries is in the shape of a pentagon. Based 7Son the
2P7Pinformation provided in the passage
tr-5P2O6Q 7M
and the following clues, determine the order in which the countries are seated:
i. India and the U.S. are adjacent, but they are not seated next to Israel.
ii. France is seated two places to the left of the U.K. and Israel is one place left of the U.K.
iv. If one looks directly to the right from the U.S., France is visible.
v. India is seated immediately to the right of the U.K.
54. If Israel and the U.S. switched places, and you looked directly to the right from France, which country would
you see?
(a) U.S. (b) U.K. (c) India (d) Israel
55. If the seating arrangement was mirrored (reversed), which country would be seated between the U.K. and the
U.S.?
(a) France (b) India (c) Israel (d) None of the above
56. Based on the current seating arrangement, if the U.K. and France decide to exchange their positions, which of
the following statements would be true?
(a) Israel would be seated to the immediate left of the U.S.
(b) Israel would be seated between the U.S. and France.
(c) The U.S. would have Israel to its immediate right.
(d) France would be to the immediate left of India.
57. Pointing to a man in a party, Aakash said, "He is the son of my husband's mother's only son". How is Aakash
related to the man?
(a) Sister (b) Mother (c) Grandmother (d) Aunt
58. The Indian government's decision to abstain at the UN General Assembly (UNGA) vote was to protest the
m
omission of any “explicit condemnation” of the terror attack by Hamas militants on Israel. The growing death
o
toll and the rising need for global solidarity to halt the violence were evident, and India, with its traditionally
balanced stance on the issue and its G-20 role, could have played a significant role.
c
Which one of the following statements can be properly inferred from the passage?
(a) India fully supports all decisions taken by the UN General Assembly.
(b) India's abstention was purely a diplomatic move without any specific reasons.
rs .
(c) India's position on the Israel-Palestine issue has been consistently one-sided.
e
(d) The omission of an "explicit condemnation" of the Hamas attack influenced India's decision to abstain.
k
59.
r an
The resolution titled “Protection of civilians and upholding legal and humanitarian obligations” included a
paragraph condemning all acts of violence towards Palestinian and Israeli civilians. India did not name Hamas
in its Explanation of Vote (EoV) and hasn't so far designated Hamas as a terror group.
Which one of the following statements can
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
p
be inferred
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2Cfrom
7A the passage?
(a) India's abstention was solely based on the absence of Hamas's name in the resolution.
o
(b) The resolution fully supported the actions of Hamas.
60.
T
(c) India's Explanation of Vote (EoV) specifically targeted Hamas for all terror activities.
(d) There is ambiguity about the specific mentions that New Delhi had wanted in the resolution.
India's recent abstention at the UNGA indicates a change in the Modi government's stance, moving towards a
safer position rather than taking a clear stand on the Israel-Palestine violence. This is different from India's
previous votes at the UNGA.
Which one of the following statements can be inferred from the passage? 2P7P
(please refer to the information
5P2O6Q7S7M
provided in the passage to reach the correct answer) tr-
(a) The Modi government has always been consistent in its stance on the Israel-Palestine conflict.
(b) India's decision to abstain reflects a desire to voice the concerns of the Global South.
(c) The government's abstention aligns with its recent decisions on other global issues, such as the situation in
Ukraine.
(d) India always voted against resolutions concerning the Israel-Palestine conflict in the past.
Passage (Q.61-Q.72): A parliamentary committee appears to be quite close to finalising its report on the three
Bills seeking to replace the existing criminal laws. The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Home Affairs has
postponed the adoption of the draft report, following demands from Opposition members that they be given more
time to study it. The report is said to have at least three dissenting notes, mainly pertaining to the text of the
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which will replace the Indian Penal Code and the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita,
which will come in the place of the Code of Criminal Procedure. There appears to be unanimity on the third Bill,
the Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, the one in lieu of the Indian Evidence Act. Having begun its deliberations only on
August 24, and having held only 12 sittings, there may be questions about the adequacy of the scrutiny. The
whole point of introducing these new criminal codes was to bring about a major overhaul of a body of law
deemed to be too colonial in orientation. Any meaningful study of these Bills ought to have involved wide
consultations among stakeholders across the country. Ideally, the panel should hold sittings across the country
and listen to lawyers and activists on the details of the various sections, besides members of the subordinate
judiciary who actually work the law and procedure laid down in the codes.
c o m
The demand for more time to examine the report has emerged because the draft report was said to have been
rs .
circulated in English only days before it was scheduled to be adopted, and that the Hindi version was made
available only on the eve of the sitting. The panel’s next meeting is scheduled for November 6. It would be
imprudent to treat the current deferment as nothing more than a brief interlude to give more time to panel
e
members to study the draft report. Rather, it should be seen as an opportunity to extend the time given to the
committee by a few more months. The government seems to be keen on getting the Bills introduced in Parliament
k
and passed during the winter session. There is no reason for such haste. It might be argued that considerable
n
sections of the new laws are mere reproductions of the old Codes and that one study by the Standing Committee
a
may be enough before they are introduced in the legislature. However, there are areas that may require deeper
r
scrutiny: for instance, the scope for misuse, if any, in the new definitions, the desirability of introducing new
offences such as ‘hate speech’ and whether
system.
o
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
pthere is further
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A scope for procedural reform in the criminal justice
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/time-and-change-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-parliamentary-
61.
(a) Indiscreet.
T
standing-committee-on-home-affairs-and-new-criminal-laws/article67473537.ece
(b) Wary.
What does the word “imprudent” mean in the context of the passage?
(c) Vigilant (d) Heedful.
62. Based on the passage, why was there a demand for more time to examine the report?
6Q7S7M2P7P
(a) The panel members wanted a deeper scrutiny of the laws.tr-5P2O
(b) The Hindi version of the draft was made available only on the eve of the sitting.
(c) The English version was circulated too early.
(d) The government wanted to introduce the bills earlier.
63. What type of text could the given piece, best be categorised under?
(a) Analytical (b) Expository (c) Descriptive (d) Narrative
64. Which among the following Bills appears to have unanimous agreement, as per the passage?
(a) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
(b) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
(c) Bharatiya Sakshya Bill
(d) Indian Evidence Act
65. According to the passage, what should ideally be done for a meaningful study of the Bills?
(a) The government should introduce the bills quickly.
(b) The panel should only consult lawyers.
(c) The panel should hold sittings across the country and consult various stakeholders.
(d) The panel should rely on previous laws for guidance.
66. What is the relationship between the demand for more time to study the draft report and the availability of the
report in different languages?
(a) Late availability in Hindi may have contributed to the demand for more time.
(b) Availability in Hindi necessarily led to the demand for more time.
(c) Availability in English only necessarily led to the demand for more time.
c o m
67.
following statements is true?
(a) The new laws will lead to identical legal interpretations as the old Codes.
rs .
Assuming that the new criminal laws and the old Codes are aimed at the same legal outcomes, which of the
(b) The new laws will lead to radically different legal interpretations.
(c) The new laws could lead to different interpretations in certain areas.
k e
68.
r
colonial orientation of the laws, this would lead to:
an
The parliamentary committee is deliberating on the three Bills. Assuming that the intention is to overhaul the
i. Comprehensive changes in the text2Pof

ii. Unanimity on all three Bills
o
tr-5P 2O6Q7S7M
iii. Replacement of old Codes with new ones

p
the laws 7C2C7A
7Ptr-5I2G6H7F
69.
(a) i, iii, iv
T
iv. Quick adoption of the draft report
(b) i, ii
Nyaya Sanhita, then it follows that:

(c) i, iii (d) i only
If the total time taken to deliberate the Bharatiya Sakshya Bill was shorter than the time taken for the Bharatiya
(a) The Bharatiya Sakshya Bill is less comprehensive than the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
(b) The Bharatiya Sakshya Bill received more unanimous support than the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
(c) The Bharatiya Sakshya Bill has fewer sections than the Bharatiya 7M Nyaya
2P7P
Sanhita.
tr-5P2O6Q7S
(d) Cannot be determined.
Directions (Q.70-Q.72): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:
(i) There is a family of six members A, B, C, D, E and F.
(ii) There are two married couples in the family and the family members represent three generations.
(iii) Each member has a distinct choice of colour amongst green, yellow, black, red, white and pink.
(iv) No lady member likes either green or white.
(v) C, who likes black colour, is the daughter-in-law of E.
(vi) B is brother of F and son of D and likes pink.
(vii) A is grandmother of F and F does not like red.
(viii) The husband has a choice of green colour, his wife likes yellow.
70. Which of the following is the colour preference of A?

(a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) Either Red or Yellow (d) Cannot be determined
71. How many male members are there in the family?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Cannot be determined
72. Which of the following is true about F?

(a) Brother of B (b) Sister of B
(c) Daughter of C (d) Either sister or brother of B
Passage (Q.73-Q.84): On October 6, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) stuck to its 6.5% GDP growth projection
for the year, with risks from geopolitical tensions, economic fragmentation, volatile financial markets and an
uneven monsoon, evenly balanced out by strengthening domestic demand. There was a belief that a period of
heightened uncertainties was ebbing but as the central bank Governor signalled last Friday, new uncertainties
m
have emerged over the fortnight since. The Israel-Hamas conflict that erupted a day after the monetary policy
o
review has widened, and Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman has flagged worries about implications on global
c
food, fuel and fertilizer supplies. Given India’s dependence on fuel and fertilizer imports, disruptions or price
rs .
spikes could hurt the macro-economic framework, even if the government refrains from passing on higher prices
to consumers and farmers in the election season. The RBI chief also pointed to rising U.S. bond yields, which
hit a 16-year high of 5% this week, mixed data points and signals from central banks around the world, as the
e
new unknowns — even as known unknowns such as financial market turmoil — have got more pronounced. A
glimpse of this anxiety was visible this week, with the sharpest sell-off on Indian bourses since July.
k
n
There is no certainty that the RBI would still uphold its ‘evenly balanced’ outlook towards the risks to growth.
a
However, the Finance Ministry, while acknowledging that global uncertainties have compounded, seems largely
r
sanguine for now in its outlook for the economy. Its monthly economic review released on Monday asserts that
growth “remains on track”, inflation is easing
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
p after a2C“temporary”
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
7A seasonal surge in July-August, consumption
demand is strengthening and investment demand is “also firming up”. On the “imminent fears” of rising crude
o
oil prices, it noted that July-September quarter prices were still “way lower” than the $109.5 and $97.9 averages
T
in the first and second quarter of 2022-23. The weak foreign trade picture is expected to recover and industrial
job creation prospects are high for the next two quarters, while higher demand for housing and vehicle loans
reflects bolstered confidence levels in households, it added. India’s macro fundamentals may well hold up
through the latest global storm, but the government would do well to drill a little deeper into consumption and
hiring trends. The last quarter has seen a sharp slump in small car sales, consumer non-durables producers
reporting weak rural demand and IT firms scaling down growth and hiring hopes. There is still much to be done
to correct an uneven recovery, which would eventually hamper a broader investment revival.
tr-5P2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/renewed-risks-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-rbi-and-how-global-
uncertainties-have-compounded/article67461085.ece

The Reserve Bank of India maintained its 6.5% GDP growth projection for the year due to ________.
(a) The current geopolitical tensions and volatile markets
(b) The balance between risks and strengthening domestic demand
(c) The Israel-Hamas conflict and implications on global supplies
(d) Rising U.S. bond yields and financial market turmoil
74. Select the option that correctly reflects what the expression ‘known unknowns’ in the given sentence means.
"RBI chief also pointed to rising U.S. bond yields, which hit a 16-year high of 5% this week, mixed data points
and signals from central banks around the world, as the new unknowns — even as known unknowns such as
financial market turmoil — have got more pronounced."
(a) An uncertainty of recognised challenges.
(b) Well-understood problems
(c) Known solutions to existing problems
(d) Predicted market scenarios
75. Select the option that displays what aspect the text titled ‘RBI's GDP growth projection’ DOES NOT present.
i. information
ii. Prediction
iii. Suggestion
iv. Precaution
v. introduction
c o m
76.
(a) i & ii (b) Only iv (c) Only iii (d) I, ii and v
rs .
What is the writer’s most likely intent of mentioning the Israel-Hamas conflict in the context of the RBI's GDP
growth projection?
(a) Highlight the major reason behind the projection.
(b) Draw attention to global events affecting India's economy.
k e
(c) Criticize the RBI's stance on global issues.
(d) Show RBI's bias towards global political issues.
r an
77. Select the option that displays words similar
(a) Certain, cheerful, optimistic
o
tr-5P 2O
(c) Neutral, indifferent, apathetic

6Q7S7M2P7P
p in meaning
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7Ato ‘sanguine’, from the text.
(b) worried, concerned, anxious
(d) Doubtful, unsure, skeptical
78.
T SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING
Based on the RBI's decision on October 6 to retain its 6.5% GDP growth projection, if global uncertainties are
resolved and domestic demand remains strong, it can be inferred that:
(a) The GDP projection will be revised downwards.
(b) The GDP projection will remain the same.
(c) The GDP projection will be revised upwards. 2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
(d) Cannot be determined from the passage.
79. Considering the various uncertainties and economic challenges, what can be deduced about the RBI's approach
to GDP growth projection?
(a) The RBI is entirely driven by external geopolitical events.
(b) The RBI is solely influenced by domestic demand factors.
(c) The RBI is ignoring the implications of global events on India's economy.
(d) The RBI is considering a balance of both domestic and global factors.
80. What can be inferred about the Finance Ministry's perspective on the economy's outlook, given global
uncertainties?
(a) The Finance Ministry is entirely pessimistic about the future.
(b) The Finance Ministry believes growth remains on track despite global challenges.
(c) The Finance Ministry disregards the implications of rising crude oil prices.
(d) The Finance Ministry is entirely reliant on the RBI's projections.
81. If only the consonants in the word MEAT are changed in such a way that each of them becomes the next letter
in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged, then how many meaningful words can be
formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in a word?
(a) None (b) Two (c) Three (d) One
82. As 'COUNSEE is to 'BITIRAK' so also 'GUIDANCE' is to

(a) FOHYZJBB (b) HOHYBJBA (c) FPHZZKAB (d) FORHYZJBB
83. If EFGHIJK is the coded letter representing VUTSRQP, then choose the right code for the words given in the
capital letters from the answer choices (a), (b), (c) and (d).
HIGH
(a) STRS (b) SRTS (c) RSTR (d) RJHR
84.
c o
Maths to History, and Social science to Maths, which is Vaishnavi’s least preferred subject? m
Vaishnavi prefers Economics to Maths, English to Social science, and Political Science to History. If she prefers
(a) History (b) Social science (c) Maths (d) Economics
rs .
Passage (Q.85-Q.96): The Supreme Court’s Constitution Bench, led by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud, is set
e
to hear petitions challenging the Electoral Bonds Scheme, 2018. This scheme, enabling anonymous political
donations, has facilitated the transfer of approximately Rs 13,000 crore from its inception in March 2018 to July
k
2023, with the State Bank of India (SBI) being the sole authorized bond seller. Initially proposed by the late Arun
concerns about the scheme.
r an
Jaitley in 2017, both the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Election Commission of India (ECI) raised
The government has consistently argued 7P

tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P
that
pthe scheme
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7Aaims to cleanse political funding, ensuring transparency
as transactions are conducted by KYC-compliant individuals and companies. Political parties are required to
o
open special SBI accounts to receive the bonds, with donor anonymity being a crucial aspect of the scheme.
T
In contrast, the RBI highlighted potential misuse risks, particularly through shell companies, suggesting the
bonds be issued in digital form rather than as bearer bonds. Despite these concerns, the government proceeded
with bearer bonds, amending the RBI Act to permit other authorities to issue them. The RBI emphasized the
importance of maintaining its monopoly on currency issuance, expressing concern over the dilution of its powers.
The ECI also expressed reservations, with concerns about the bonds’ availability only to established political
parties and inconsistencies between the Income Tax Act and the Representation
2P7P
of the People Act. The ECI
5P2O6Q7S7M
advocated for transparency in the reporting of bond denominations received by political parties.
tr-
Ultimately, the scheme was opened to any political party registered with the ECI that secured at least 1% of votes
in the previous election. To date, 25 parties have opened accounts to cash electoral bonds, with annual donation
summaries submitted to the ECI.
The government’s stance has been that the scheme enhances political funding transparency and accountability,
while the RBI and ECI have underscored the potential for misuse and the need for greater transparency in
political donations. The upcoming Supreme Court hearings will play a crucial role in addressing these concerns
and determining the future of the Electoral Bonds Scheme.
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/electoral-bonds-rbi-eci-supreme-court-explained-
9006086/
85. What does the writer convey via the mention of the "State Bank of India (SBI) being the sole authorized bond
seller" in the context of the Electoral Bonds Scheme?
(a) Monopoly (b) Exclusivity (c) Transparency (d) Reliability
86. Which aspect of the text indicates that the writer is presenting differing viewpoints?
(a) The juxtaposition of the RBI and ECI's concerns with the government's stance.
(b) The chronological detailing of the Electoral Bonds Scheme.
(c) The introduction of the Supreme Court's involvement.
(d) The mention of the late Arun Jaitley's proposal.
87. In the text, what does the term "bearer bonds" imply?
(a) Bonds or debt security held by the unregistered owner.
(b) Bonds issued in digital form by registered owner.
c o m
(c) Bonds with maximum interest levied on the parties.
(d) Bonds with a long maturity period
rs .
88. The Electoral Bonds Scheme can be best applied to _________.
(a) Improving political funding transparency
(b) Enhancing SBI's monopoly in banking
k e
(c) Promoting digital transactions in politics
(d) Curbing the power of the RBI
r an
89. Select the appropriate option to fill the2Pblank.
tr-5P 2O6Q7S7M
p
7Ptr-5I2G6H7F
7C2C7A
The Electoral Bonds Scheme has been contentious because its aim to ensure transparency in political donations
o
may be _____________ by potential misuse.
(a) Overlooked
T
(b) Reinforced (c) Validated (d) Overshadowed
Directions (Q.90 and Q.91): The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has developed a software to monitor the flow
and donation amounts of the Electoral Bonds Scheme. The method employed by the software is to convert bond
denominations and transactions into a code. This coded data is then scrutinized to see if it aligns with the
stipulated conditions. If the converted code satisfies any of the mentioned criteria, the transaction is flagged for
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
further review, suspecting potential misuse or anomaly.
i. The code should not have any symbols representing transactions above Rs 10,000.
ii. The code should not display any denomination figure appearing twice consecutively.
iii. The code should not show any denomination amount appearing thrice consecutively.
90. Based on the coding conditions set by the RBI's software, which of the following bond denominations (converted
to code) would be flagged for potential misuse?
(a) 12000#BJP (b) 9000AAP
(c) 5000CONGCONG (d) 8000DMK8TMC
91. Which of the following statements is correct about the coding conditions used by the RBI's software?
(a) Condition (ii) is redundant in light of Condition (iii)
(b) Condition (iii) is redundant in light of Condition (ii)
(c) Condition (i) is redundant because no codes have symbols representing transactions above Rs 10,000
(d) Both (a) and (b)
92. The Electoral Bonds Scheme, introduced in 2018, facilitates anonymous political donations. Both the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) and the Election Commission of India (ECI) have voiced concerns about the scheme. Despite
the government's arguments about enhancing transparency, there are potential misuse risks, especially through
shell companies. Given this context, to ensure transparency and reduce potential misuse, the government should
mandate a system where the identity of all donors is disclosed to the public.
The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which of the following is assumed?
(a) The public has a right to know the identity of political donors.
(b) Anonymous political donations lead to an increased risk of misuse.
(c) The RBI and ECI's concerns are always valid and should be addressed.
(d) Shell companies primarily function to make anonymous donations.
93. The RBI has emphasized the importance of maintaining its monopoly on currency issuance. Given this context,
Which of the following is an assumption required by the above passage?

(a) Monopolies ensure better control and regulation.
c m
it can be inferred that the central bank believes any dilution of its powers could lead to potential economic risks.
o
(b) The RBI always acts in the best interests of the Indian economy.
(c) Dilution of powers of a central bank can lead to economic instability.
rs .
94.
k e
The Election Commission of India (ECI) has advocated for transparency in the reporting of bond denominations
received by political parties. Considering this, one can infer that providing details of these denominations will
n
ensure better accountability in the political funding process.
a
(a) Transparency leads to increased accountability.
r
6Q7S7M2P
p
(b) Political parties often misreport their7Pfunding details.
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A
(c) The ECI's recommendations are always implemented by political parties.
o
tr-5P 2O
95.
T
The government believes the Electoral Bonds Scheme enhances political funding transparency and
accountability. However, both the RBI and ECI have underscored the potential for misuse and the need for greater
transparency. Given this, it can be inferred that while the scheme has its merits, there are significant areas of
concern that need to be addressed to ensure it functions as intended.
(a) The government and institutions like RBI and ECI can have differing viewpoints on the same issue.
(b) Greater transparency in political donations will directly reduce potential
2P7P
misuse.
5P2O6Q7S7M
(c) The Electoral Bonds Scheme is the only way to enhance political funding transparency.
tr-
(d) The RBI and ECI's concerns are more valid than the government's stance on the issue.
96. Raja is the son of Varan's father's sister. Sameer is the son of Ganga, who is the mother of Jai and the grandmother
of Varan. Nitin is the father of Varsha and the grandfather of Raja. Ganga is the wife of Nitin. How is Raja related
to Ganga?
(a) Nephew (b) Son (c) Grandson (d) Data inadequate
Passage (Q.97-Q.108): I phoned Mrs. Kallir—this seemed to be the thing to do, although I normally would
have written back—because although she apparently had no difficulty writing a letter, she had said that she could
not read at all. I spoke to her and arranged to see her at the neurology clinic where I worked. Mrs. Kallir came
to the clinic soon afterward—a cultivated, vivacious sixty-seven-year-old woman with a strong Prague accent—
and related her story to me in much more detail. She was a pianist, she said; indeed, I knew her by name, as a
brilliant interpreter of Chopin and Mozart (she had given her first public concert at the age of four, and Gary
Graman, the celebrated pianist, called her “one of the most naturally musical people I’ve ever known”). The first
intimation of anything wrong, she said, had come during a concert in 1991. She was performing Mozart piano
concertos, and there was a last-minute change in the program, from the Nineteenth Piano Concerto to the Twenty-
first. But when she flipped open the score of the Twenty-first, she found it, to her bewilderment, completely
unintelligible. Although she saw the staves, the lines, the individual notes sharp and clear, none of it seemed to
hang together, to make sense. She thought the difficulty must have something to do with her eyes. But she went
m
on to perform the concerto flawlessly from memory, and dismissed the strange incident as “one of those things.”
o
Several months later, the problem recurred, and her ability to read musical scores began to fluctuate. If she was
c
tired or ill, she could hardly read them at all, though when she was fresh, her sight-reading was as swift and easy
rs .
as ever. But in general the problem worsened, and though she continued to teach, to record, and to give concerts
around the world, she depended increasingly on her musical memory and her extensive repertoire, since it was
now becoming impossible for her to learn new music by sight. “I used to be a fantastic sight reader,” she said,
k e
“easily able to play a Mozart concerto by sight, and now I can’t.” Occasionally at concerts she experienced lapses
of memory, though Lilian (as she asked me to call her) was adept at improvising and could usually cover these.
When she was at ease, with friends or students, her playing seemed as good as ever. So, through inertia, or fear,
n
or a sort of adjustment, it was possible for her to overlook her peculiar problems in reading music, for she had
a
no other visual problems, and her memory and ingenuity still allowed her a full musical life.
r
Extracted from the book, The Mind’s Eye by Oliver Sacks.
o p
6Q7S7M2P7P
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
SECTION-A : ENGLISH
tr-5P2O
2C7A
LANGUAGE
97.
T
What inference can be made about Mrs. Kallir’s reaction after her first experience of being unable to read a
musical score during a concert?
(a) She believed it was a temporary issue related to her eyes.
(b) She immediately sought medical attention for her condition.
(c) She decided to retire from performing publicly.
(d) She doubted her musical abilities.
98. Mrs. Kallir’s approach to dealing with her inability to read music scores is best described as:
2P7P
5P2O6Q7S7M
(a) Proactive and urgent. (b) Avoidanttr-and fearful.
(c) Resilient and adaptive. (d) Indifferent and nonchalant.
99. Mrs. Kallir’s experience at concerts after her ability to read musical scores began to fluctuate can be best
described as:
(a) Consistently flawless.
(b) Regularly filled with memory lapses.
(c) Occasionally challenging but manageable.
(d) Completely hindered by her condition.
100. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about Mrs. Kallir’s ability to read music when she was tired or ill?
(a) It was moderately affected.
(b) It fluctuated based on her physical state.
(c) It was slightly hindered.
(d) It was severely hindered.
101. What does the passage imply about the nature of Mrs. Kallir’s condition over time?
(a) It remained constant and unchanged.
(b) It improved with proper rest and care.
(c) It worsened despite her adaptation strategies.
(d) It had no impact on her musical activities.
102. In a recital, Mrs. Kallir says, "The pianist who taught my mother's only child is one of the best in the world."
Who is Mrs. Kallir referring to? (A hypothetical situation)
(a) Her teacher (b) Her mother (c) Herself (d) Her child
adept at the violin." Who is she referring to? (A hypothetical situation)

(a) Her son (b) Her brother (c) Her nephew (d) Her father
c o m
103. Mrs. Kallir, during a conversation with a student, mentions, "The only brother of my father's daughter is quite
104. Issue: Was Mrs. Kallir's inability to read music a result of visual impairment?
rs
Argument 1: Yes. Mrs. Kallir herself believed that the problem had something to do with her eyes. .
Argument 2: No. She had no other visual problems apart from reading music.
k e
Argument 3: Maybe. Her ability to read fluctuated, especially when she was tired or ill.
Choose the most appropriate answer. (Refer to the information given in the passage)
(a) Only Argument 1 is strong
(b) Only Argument 2 is strong
(c) Both Arguments 1 and 3 are strong
r an
(d) All three arguments are strong
o p
2P7Ptr-5I2G6H
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
7F7C2C7A
105. Person 1: Mrs. Kallir's memory compensates for her reading difficulties.
T
Person 2 in response to Person 1: Yes, she even played the Twenty-first concerto flawlessly from memory.
Which of the following is correct? (Refer to the information given in the passage)
I) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that Mrs. Kallir has a good memory.
II) Person 2 believes Mrs. Kallir's reading difficulties are permanent.
(a) Statement I is correct
(b) Statement II is correct
(c) Both statements I and II are correct.
(d) Neither statement I nor statement II is correct. 7M2P7P tr-5P2O6Q7S
106. Gary Graman, the celebrated pianist, acknowledges Mrs. Kallir's musical prowess. (A hypothetical situation)
(a) Gary Graman attended several of Mrs. Kallir's concerts.
(b) Mrs. Kallir was invited to play at several international music festivals.
(c) Gary Graman and Mrs. Kallir collaborated on a musical project.
107. AI in the musical world can be trained to recognize patterns in music and aid musicians. (A hypothetical
situation)
Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?
(a) Mrs. Kallir's reading difficulties could be mitigated with the help of AI.
(b) AI can be programmed to understand complex musical structures.
(c) Musicians are generally open to using AI in their work.
(d) All musicians face reading difficulties similar to Mrs. Kallir.
108. Mrs. Kallir performed flawlessly during her concerts. (Based on the information given in the passage)
(a) Mrs. Kallir practiced extensively before each concert.
(b) Memory plays a crucial role in musical performances.
(c) The audience couldn't discern between a read and memorized performance.
(d) Mrs. Kallir's inability to read did not affect her ability to play.
Passage (Q.109-Q.120): It is a welcome sign of judicial assertion that the Supreme Court of India has fixed a
deadline for the Maharashtra Assembly Speaker to adjudicate on petitions seeking the disqualification of
members who had broken away from the leadership of the Shiv Sena and the Nationalist Congress Party (NCP).
Long experience shows that Speakers tend to treat disqualification issues with great alacrity or supine
indifference, depending on their political affiliations. Despite being reminded from time to time of their duty to
m
remain neutral and demonstrate a sense of urgency in dealing with questions arising out of the Tenth Schedule
o
of the Constitution, the anti-defection law, presiding officers appear to place political loyalties above their
c
constitutional duty. It is quite fitting, therefore, that the apex court has asked Speaker Rahul Narwekar to decide
rs .
the disqualification petitions against Chief Minister Eknath Shinde’s camp by December 31 and those concerning
the NCP’s breakaway group headed by Deputy Chief Minister Ajit Pawar by January 31, 2024. The directions
are a natural follow-up to the outcome of a Constitution Bench decision on May 11, 2023, in which the Speaker
e
was asked to decide the disqualification issue “within a reasonable period”. The verdict came in a case that arose
out of a split in the Shiv Sena, leading to a change of regime, with Uddhav Thackeray being succeeded by Mr.
Shinde as Chief Minister.
k
an
None can dispute that the Speaker has had enough time to decide the matter, even though a few procedural
r
aspects and the clubbing of petitions may account for some delay. In an earlier order in September, the Court had
observed that it expected the Speaker to show
tr-5P 2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
p deference
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
to its directions, especially when he is acting as a tribunal
2C7A
under the Tenth Schedule. Even without judicial orders, the issue of whether a member has incurred
o
disqualification is not a matter which can be dealt with in a leisurely or partisan manner. Recent political history
T
is rife with instances of ruling parties casually recruiting members of the Opposition in several States without
any fear of disqualification, as they know that friendly Speakers will not disqualify them. At the end of its
judgment in the Karnataka disqualification case, the Court observed that “there is a growing trend of Speakers
acting against the constitutional duty of being neutral”. In Manipur, the Court went so far as to remove a Minister
from office after the Speaker failed to decide, even long after the expiry of a judicial deadline, whether the
Minister had incurred disqualification for defection. So long as the Speaker is vested with the authority to
adjudicate disqualification issues, it will be difficult to free matters of defection from the thicket of politics.
https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/welcome-assertion-the-hindu-editorial-on-the-defection-issue-and-
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
the-supreme-courts-deadline-for-the-maharashtra-speaker/article67481001.ece

The phrase 'judicial assertion' in the passage underscores the _____________.
(a) Authority of the judiciary (b) Biasness of the judiciary
(c) Reluctance of the judiciary (d) Neutrality of the judiciary
110. Which is the contextual clue that best helps us understand the meaning of 'deference'?
(a) Acting with respect
(b) Acting against instructions
(c) Acting with indifference
(d) Acting quickly
111. Select the appropriate option to fill the blank.
The 'anti-' in anti-defection law implies the law's intent to ___________ defection.
(a) Oppose (b) Support
(c) Remain neutral about (d) Accelerate
112. Which of the given literary devices does the writer use in the line, 'Speakers acting against the constitutional
duty of being neutral'?
(a) Pun (b) Symbolism (c) Irony (d) Imagery
113. Select the option that displays a title likely to belong to an article discussing the concerns raised in the passage.
(a) Politics and the Role of the Speaker: An Insight
(b) The Rise of the Supreme Court: A Modern Tale
(c) Defection in Politics: A Solution in Sight?
(d) Judicial Deadlines: The Way Forward
c o m
rs .
114. The Maharashtra Assembly Speaker's role in adjudicating petitions seeking disqualification of members has been
under scrutiny.
k e
(a) Several members have publicly expressed dissatisfaction with the Speaker's decisions.
n
(b) There are documented instances where Speakers have shown bias based on their political affiliations.
a
(c) The Supreme Court has often refrained from intervening in the matters of Assembly Speakers.
(d) None of the above
r
115. The Supreme Court
o p
2O6Q7S7M2P
7Ptr-5I2G6H7F
7C2C7A
expects the Speaker to act neutrally and
tr-5P without bias.
T
(a) The role of the Speaker is crucial in maintaining the sanctity of the Assembly.
(b) All political decisions made by the Speaker are biased.
(c) The Supreme Court's intervention is always in the best interest of democracy.
(d) The Tenth Schedule is seldom referred to in making decisions.
116. Recent political history has shown ruling parties recruiting opposition members without fearing disqualification.
Which one of the following explanations, if valid, most helps to justify the above reasoning?
(a) Opposition members often switch parties for better political opportunities.
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
(b) Speakers in many cases are known to delay decisions on disqualification because of their political affiliations.
(c) Political defections have no significant impact on the overall governance of the state.
(d) The process of disqualification is long and tedious.
117. Statement: The Supreme Court has fixed deadlines for the Speaker to adjudicate on petitions regarding
disqualifications.
Person 1: Such intervention is necessary to uphold the democratic values of the nation.
Person 2: This sets a precedent where the judiciary actively intervenes in legislative affairs.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that judicial intervention is essential for democracy.
(b) Person 1 and Person 2 agree that the Supreme Court's actions are a form of interference.
(c) According to Person 2, the Supreme Court's actions are unwarranted and unnecessary.
(d) According to person 1, person 2 needs to be explained the role of the Supreme Court.
118. Which of the following assumptions is/are necessary to conclude that the Maharashtra Assembly Speaker's
decisions might be influenced by political affiliations?
(a) The Speaker's decisions are based solely on the merits of the case.
(b) Political affiliations can sometimes cloud impartial judgement.
(c) All Speakers are inherently biased.
(d) The Supreme Court's involvement ensures impartiality.
119. The Supreme Court's intervention in setting deadlines for the Maharashtra Assembly Speaker is analogically
equivalent to _______. (Refer to the information given in the passage)
(a) A school principal setting a deadline for a teacher to submit grades.
(b) A coach demanding an athlete to achieve a certain performance by a set date.
(c) A parent asking a child to finish their homework before playtime.
(d) All of the above.
o m
120. A, B, C, D, E and F are friends. They went on a school trip and discussed their likings about food. The food
c
items discussed were - Dossa, Burger, Pao Bhaji, Chapatti, Pizza, Noodles. B likes Pizza. Neither E nor F likes
Pao Bhaji. Who among the following likes eating Chapatti?

(a) B (b) C (c) A (d) F
rs .
eating Chapatti and Dossa. C likes eating Dossa at Sagar Ratna. D neither eat Chapatti nor Burger. E likes eating
k e
r an
o p
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
2P7Ptr-5I2G6H
7F7C2C7A
T
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
SECTION B: CURRENT AFFAIRS & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
121. The largest number of sites found in post-independence India in _______.

(a) Kerala (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Himachal Pradesh
122. Which of the following countries is actively involved in the proposed Bullet Train Project in India?
(a) Singapore (b) France (c) Japan (d) Russia
123. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is built on which of the following rivers?
(a) Son (b) Betwa (c) Narmada (d) Chambal
124. Who was the Chairman of the Committee which proposed Democratic Decentralisation and Panchayat Raj?
(a) Ashok Mehra (b) H. N. Tendulkar (c) Virendra Saklecha (d) Balwant Rai Mehta
c o
125. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? State Allocation of Seats in the Rajya Sabha.m
(a) Andhra Pradesh 18
(c) Tamil Nadu 18
(b) Odisha 10
(d) Maharashtra 19
rs .
(c) Bank of Baroda
(b) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(d) Syndicate Bank
k e
126. Ashok Vaswani was appointed as the new Managing Director and chief executive officer of which bank?
(a) IDFC FIRST Bank
(a) October 29 (b) October 24 (c) October 28

an
127. When does the World Development Information Day celebrated?
r (d) October 1
128. Which company has

(a) ExxonMobil
o
tr-5P
(b) Shell
2O
p
6Q7S7M2P7P
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A
initiated the production of ‘Reference’ petrol
(c) IOC
and diesel?
(d) ConocoPhilips
T
129. Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body under which Union Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Minority Affairs
(b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(d) Ministry of Education Affairs
130. What is the name of the National Hackathon focused on the use of 5G technology for police applications?
(a) Vimarsh 2023 (b) Vijay 2023 (c) Viraan 2023 (d) Vishesh 2023
2O 6Q7S7M2P7P
131. Indian Army’s first Vertical Wind Tunnel has been constructed
tr-5Pin which state/UT?
(a) Kerala (b) Karnataka (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Maharashtra
132. Which country is the host of the ‘Three Basins Summit’?

(a) South Africa (b) Singapore (c) Bangladesh (d) Republic of Congo
133. Prime Minister Narendra Modi flagged off the country’s first Regional Rapid Transit System. What is the name
of the first Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS) of India?
(a) Safal Bharat (b) NaMo Bharat (c) Amar Bharat (d) Vijay Bharat
134. “Exercise Harimau Shakti 2023” was organised between the armies of which countries?
(a) India and Malaysia (b) India and Nepal
(c) India and Thailand (d) India and Singapore
135. Which institution hosted the Bharat National Cyber Security Exercise (NCX) 2023?
(a) NABARD
(b) National Security Council Secretariat
(c) FICCI
(d) SIDBI
136. Union Minister of Commerce and Industry Piyush Goyal attended the 7th Edition of Future Investment Initiative,
which country hosted the 7th Edition of Future Investment Initiative (FII) in 2023?
(a) Bangladesh (b) Singapore (c) Saudi Arabia (d) China
137. Namdapha, Pakke and Kamlang are the tiger reserves of which state/UT?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttarakhand
c o m
138. All reported births and deaths in the country will be digitally registered on the Centre’s portal from which date?
(a) October 1, 2023 (b) December 1, 2024 (c) January 1, 2025 (d) April 1, 2026
rs .
139. Which state launched a subsidy scheme to attract investment and boost the state’s stainless-steel production?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Odisha (c) Rajasthan (d) Madhya Pradesh
k e
140. Which space agency released its findings after a yearlong study into unidentified flying object (UFOs)?
(a) CNES
(c) State Space Corporation
(b) NASA
an
(d) Norwegian Space Agency
r
141. Where is the Buddh International Circuit7P(BIC)
(a) Hyderabad (b) Chennai
tr-5P
o
2O 6Q7S7M2P
p
racetrack
tr-5I2G6H7F7C
2C7A located in India?
(c) Greater Noida (d) Jaipur
T
142. The foundation stone of Downstream Petrochemical Complex and Refinery Expansion Project has been laid in
which state?
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka
143. Which Union Ministry recently launched the Swachhata Special Campaign 3.0 Portal?
(a) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Home 2P7P
(d) Ministry of Minority tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
144. Which Ministry is associated with OIML (International Organization of Legal Metrology) Certificates?
(a) Ministry of Consumer Affairs and Food Distribution
(b) Ministry of External Affairs
(c) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(d) Ministry of Jal Shakti Affairs
145. Which city is the host of ‘4th G20 Sustainable Finance Working Group Meeting’?
(a) Shimla (b) Varanasi (c) Chennai (d) Hyderabad
146. What is the name of the festival organised by the Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR)?
(a) Bihu (b) Sattriya (c) Vaishali (d) None of these
147. What is the name of the campaign launched by Union Health Ministry, to mark Prime Minister’s birthday?
(a) Ayushman Bhav campaign (b) Bharath Nirmaan campaign
(c) Bharat Darshan campaign (d) Bharat vidhata campaign
148. Which city is the host of ‘Workshop on Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR)’?
(a) Mumbai (b) Jaipur (c) Hyderabad (d) Bangalore
149. Araku coffee, which was one of the gifts presented to leaders at G-20 summit, is from which state?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh
150. Which institution has developed a new Approach for Early Detection and Treatment of Lung and Cervical
Cancer?
(a) IIT- Kanpur (b) IISc- Bengaluru (c) IIT- Lucknow (d) IIT- Indore
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
2P7Ptr-5I2G6H
7F7C2C7A
T
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
Notes:
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
2P7Ptr-5I2G6H
7F7C2C7A
T
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
Notes:
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
2P7Ptr-5I2G6H
7F7C2C7A
T
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
Notes:
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M
2P7Ptr-5I2G6H
7F7C2C7A
T
2P7P
tr-5P2O6Q7S7M

AILET Mock 13 Question Paper5267727

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

AILET Mock 13 Question Paper5267727

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024

Extracted from the Book "Self-Help" by Samuel Smiles 2P7P

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

1. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

4. According to the passage, what should be the primary function of government?

(d) Government institutions

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

16. What is the writer's

(a) Forests are easily restored by human effort.

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

(c) Forest destruction poses no threat in regions without human interference.

direction if he must meet Jack at point B?

The passage primarily explores

(b) The role of the maternal uncle in primitive societies

26. In the text, the term "office of avenger of blood" refers to

27. The word “kindred” in the passage most closely means

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

31. If T takes on a responsibility, the other two responsibilities can go to:

(c) R and Q both take on responsibilities.

can explain the laws of oblivion or of recall.

pso again, the

Extracted from the book "The Principles of Psychology" by William James.

37. The stream of thought and memory processes can be influenced by

38. In the context of the passage, the term “association-fibers” refers to

39. According to the passage, the principle of association

According to the passage, the “material of the cortex” consists of

(c) Both association-fibers and primary paths

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

pif true, would

All services are jobs.

49. Select the option that correctly completes the following.

50. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

i. Comprehensive changes in the text2Pof

iii. Replacement of old Codes with new ones

Nyaya Sanhita, then it follows that:

70. Which of the following is the colour preference of A?

72. Which of the following is true about F?

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

73. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

(c) Neutral, indifferent, apathetic

82. As 'COUNSEE is to 'BITIRAK' so also 'GUIDANCE' is to

(a) History (b) Social science (c) Maths (d) Economics

concerns about the scheme.

The government has consistently argued 7P

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

Which of the following is an assumption required by the above passage?

SECTION-B : LOGICAL REASONING

adept at the violin." Who is she referring to? (A hypothetical situation)

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE

109. Select the appropriate option to complete the sentence.

Pao Bhaji. Who among the following likes eating Chapatti?

121. The largest number of sites found in post-independence India in _______.

(a) October 29 (b) October 24 (c) October 28

128. Which company has

132. Which country is the host of the ‘Three Basins Summit’?

You might also like