GPSC 12PYQ EN Since2016

Gujarat Public Service
Commission
Gujarat Administrative Service, Class-1, Gujarat
Civil Services, Class-1-2 and
Gujarat Municipal Chief Officer Service, Class-2
4
Previous Year Papers with Final Answer Key
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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Gujarat Administrative Service, Class-1, Gujarat Civil
Services, Class-1-2 and
26/2020-21
Exam Date: 22-03-2021
Questions: 001-200-CSP-1
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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M
001. Match the Column:
Work Author
I. Maksad a. Chandravadan Mehta
II. Biji Sawar no Suraj b. Nagindas Marfatia
III. Gulab c. Hasu Yagnik
IV. Kapoor no Divo d. Labhshankar Thakar
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a
(C) I - d, II - c, III - a, IV - b (D) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c

I. Andrews Library a. Bhavnagar
II. Sayaji Vijay Library b. Navsari
III. Lang Library c. Rajkot
JI
IV. Barton Library d. Surat
H
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - d, II - b, III - c, IV - a
(C) I - d, II - a, III - b, IV - c N (D) I - a, II - d, III - c, IV - b
SI
003. Which of the following terms is used by Bhil tribe for Ghandharva Marriage?
H
DD
(A) Kahotilagna (B) Birhoor

(C) Satalagna (D) Udali Javu
U
004. Which of the following is/are unmatched pair/s?

IR
Fair Month
AN
I. Akha Trij a. March

II. Dusshera b. October
III. Gher no mela c. March
IV. Dang Darba d. February
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) II and IV only
(C) II and III only (D) III only
005. Which of the following was a great saint of Vaishnav tradition of Achintya Bheda-Abheda?
(A) Narsinh Mehta (B) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu
(C) Bhaktivedanta Swami Prabhupada (D) Vallabhacharya
006. The unique museum of various medicinal plants for naturopathy is located at____.
(A) Waghai Botonical Garden, Dang (B) Sardar Sarovar Museum
(C) Junagadh (D) Ahwa
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 3
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007. Which of the following actors, famous for enacting female characters, has written an autobiography
named ‘Abhinaypanthe’?
(A) Amrut Jani (B) Amrut Keshav Nayak
(C) Prabhashankar ‘Ramani’ (D) Jayshankar ‘Sundri’
008. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Kalakacharya was the monk popular in the 14th century for Jain miniature painting.
II. Thanjavur is famous for monolithic ‘vimana’ and ‘ratha’ architecture.
III. Bhimbetka is well known for its rock painting.
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II only
(C) I and III only (D) II and III only
009. Which of the following is described as ‘the pride of Bikaner’ by Aldous Huxley?
(A) Kothari Haveli (B) Rampuria Haveli
(C) Dhadha Haveli (D) Sopani Haveli
JI
H
010. Which of the following is/are seen as seated yogi on the Harrapan seal?
I. Buddha II. Pashupati NIII. Varuna IV. Indra
SI
(A) Only I (B) Only III and IV
(C) Only II (D) Only I and II
H
DD
011. Which of the following are the architectural splendours built by the Pallavas?
I. Kailasanathar Temple, Kanchipuram
U
II. Kotikal Mandapam, Mahabalipuram

IR
III. Airavateswara Temple, Darasuram

AN
(A) Only I and II (B) Only II and III

(C) Only I and III (D) I, II and III
012. Who among the following issued different ‘rashi’ coins of 12 Sun ‘rashis’ in the mint of Gujarat?
(A) Siddaraj (B) Mulraj
(C) Jahangir (D) Vanraj

Pen name Author
I. Mumukshu a. Ramanbhai Mahipatram Nilkhant
II. Vanmali b. Zaverchand Meghani
III. Sukani c. Keshavlal Dhruv
IV. Makrand d. Anandshankar Dhruv
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a
(C) I - a, II - c, III - b, IV - d (D) I - d, II - b, III - c, IV - a
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 5
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014.
Which of the following is the song of the play, ‘Nindhyasrungarnishedhak’, authored by
Ranchodbhai Udayram?
(A) shani dikri padhaar tu sashare, siddh kar subha kaam
(B) na paake vichaare kare kaam jyaare na saara parinaam ni aash
(C) ahithi lidhu, tahithi lidhu, lidhu jahithi ladhayu
(D) gharda var ne jawaan vahu ne javaan ne vahu ghardi
015. Which of the following Gujarati Bhakti poets belong/s to the 15th century?
I. Premanand Bhatt II. Narsinh Mehta III. Dalpatram
(A) I and II only (B) II only
(C) II and III only (D) I only
016. B
y whom was the Raniparaj Conference, which could be properly called the first congress of
tribals, organised at Khata?
(A) Raisinghbhai Chaudhari (B) Kotla Mehta
JI
(C) Govinbhai Desai (D) Amarsinh Gamit
H
017. Music maestro, Tansen, was an expert player of which musical instrument?
(A) Sitar N(B) Mrudang
SI
(C) Santoor (D) Rawab
H

DD
I. Kakhasharo Kabaraji a. Mumbai Gujarati Natak Mandali

U
II. Vaghibhai Aasharam Oza b. Shree Desi Natak Samaj

IR
III. Dahayabhai Dholashaaji c. Victoria Natak Mandali

AN
IV. Jayshankar ‘Sundari’ d. Morbi Arya Subodh Natak Mandali

(A) I - a, II - c, III - d, IV - b (B) I - c, II - b, III - a, IV - d
(C) I - c, II - d, III - b, IV - a (D) I - a, II - c, III - b, IV - d
019. Which of the following is the popular farming method of tribals of Panchmahals?
(A) Kumari (B) Zoom and Daajna
(C) Pan Pavarata (D) Raab
020. Match the Column.

I. Akho Bhagat a. hayhasti rath pala dise, baktariya bihamana
II. Premanand b. gebi nipaj thai pind tani, tyare tu tya nohto dhani
III. Pritam c. Tire ubha juve tamasho te, kodi nav pame jone
IV. Narsinh Mehta d. K
arachata garath bhandhar khute tuo, khutjyo re,
sonu pihirita kaan tute tuo, trutjyo re
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - b, II - a, III - c, IV - d
(C) I - c, II - d, III - a, IV - b (D) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 7
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021. Who is known as ‘taaj vagar na raja’ in tribal songs?
(A) Gandhiji (B) Sardar Patel
(C) Vinoba Bhave (D) Jawaharlal Nehru
022. Which of the following Gujarati poets wrote ‘Chittvichaarsamvaad’?

(A) Narsinh Mehta (B) Akho
(C) Premanand (D) Dayaram

I. From ancient times learned brahmins personally imparted education in stereotyped system
and ran their own schools at the famous study centre of Varanasi.
II. At that time there were no public educational institutes at Varanasi.
III. Education pertaining to theology only was imparted here.
(A) I, II and III (B) I and III only
(C) I and II only (D) II and III only
JI
Play Playwright
H
I. Hu j Ceaser ane hu j Brutus a. Madhu Rye
II. Akhu aikhu farithi Nb. Chinu Modi
SI
III. Kumar ni agashi c. Hasmukh Baradi
H
IV. Raja Midas d. Lavkumar Desai

DD
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c

(C) I - d, II - c, III - a, IV - b (D) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a
U
025. Which of the following actors enacted the character of Raja Barathari in the traditional Gujarati
IR
plays wearing golden chain on legs?

AN
(A) Natwar Mastaan (B) Mohan Lalaji

(C) Pranjivan Joshi (D) Mulji Aasharam Oza

I. Kanada, Kedar and Sarang are included in the ragas which are specifically sung in Krishna
devotion.
II. Kedar raga was dear to Krishna. Narsinh Mehta sang this raga to please Krishna.
III. Sarang is popularly sung in Vraj. Marriage songs, season songs and hori songs are only sung
in Sarang.
(A) I, II and III (B) I only
(C) III only (D) I and II only

I. All the four types of musical instruments known today have its mention in Rigveda.
II. String instrument, membranophone, wind instruments, etc. were popular in Vedic times.
III. The discussion about Indian music is found in the most ancient book, ‘Dholsagar’.
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II only (C) II and III only (D) I and III only
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 9
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028. W
hich of the following Gujarati films have been nominated for Oscar Awards in the category of
Best Foreign Language Film?
I. Reva II. Veer Hamirji III. The Good Road IV. Hellaro
(A) II only (B) II and III
(C) III only (D) I, II and III
029. The Zari gold industry of Surat dates to which of the following periods?
(A) Maurya (B) Gupta
(C) Mughal (D) Sultanate

I. Brihadeshwara Temple a. Mahabalipuram
II. Shore Temple b. Thanjavur
III. Tunganath c. Hampi
IV. Virupaksha d. Rudraprayaag
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d
JI
(B) I - b, II - c, III - d, IV - a
H
(C) I - c, II - d, III - a, IV - b
(D) I - b, II - a, III - d, IV - c N
SI
031. Who among the following donated the first girls’ school in Ahmedabad?
H
(A) Mahipatram Nilkanth (B) Harkor Sethani

DD
(C) Vidhyagori Nilkanth (D) Karshandas Mulji
032. What is “Prajnaparamita”?

U
(A) Hindu text (B) Jain text

IR
(C) Islamic text (D) Buddhist text

AN

I. Azarara Gharana a. Pandit Sudhirkumar Saxena
II. Lucknow Gharana b. Miya Bakshu Khan
III. Farukha Gharana c. Haji Vilayat Alikhan
IV. Punjab Gharana d. Zakir Hussain
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c
(C) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a (D) I - d, II - c, III - a, IV - b
034. The caves with ‘Abhal Mandap’ and ‘Chatyagruh’ are located at __________.
(A) Abhalpuri (B) Talaja
(C) Upleta (D) Jam Kandorana
035. Who among the following got the title of ‘Sir’ from English government and also became the
mayor of Ahmedabad city?
(A) Dalpatram (B) Ramanbhai Joshi
(C) Ramanbhai Nilkanth (D) B. K. Thakor
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 11
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036. Which form of Goddess Parvati is worshipped by the tribes of Gujarat?
(A) Uma Devadi (B) Pandor Devi
(C) Bhumalima (D) Nohor Mata

I. Bhako a. Pattani dialect
II. Ghadu b. Kutchi dialect
III. Haiya Haiya c. Surati dialect
IV. Aalvu d. Charotari dialect
(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - d, II - b, III - c, IV - a
(C) I - c, II - d, III - a, IV - b (D) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a
038. ‘Kakada Dance’ is being performed to please ________.

(A) Vrukhshadev (B) Baliyadev
(C) Nagdevta (D) Jaldevta
JI
039. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the contribution by Adi Marzban to Parsi
H
theatre?
I. N
He added the features of modernism to theatre.
SI
II. He gave more prominence to songs and music in the plays.
H
III. He removed the system of eight to ten scenes in the traditional plays and did planning to
DD
successfully enact the play on just one set.

(A) I and II only (B) I and III only
U
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III

IR
040. What was constructed in memory of Rana Veer Singh of Vaghela dynasty to address the water
AN
shortage problems in the state?

(A) Adalaj Stepwell (B) Shahastraling lake
(C) Lakhota lake (D) Rani ni Vav

I. Tribal marriage system for desired groom a. roabdati
II. Dangi tribal dance b. haalipratha
III. Economic-social system of tribal elite class c. Khandhad
IV. Arrow with bamboo knot d. Bhaaya
(A) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a (B) I - d, II - c, III - a, IV - b
(C) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (D) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c
042. Who designed ‘Kuchh Din to Guzariye Gujarat Main’ and ‘Khusbhu Gujarat Ki’ campaigns for
Gujarat Tourism?
(A) Prashant Kishore (B) Mudra Communications
(C) Amitabh Bachchan (D) Piyush Pandey
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 13
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043. Which of the following temples has two courtyards?
(A) Navlakha temple (B) Gop temple
(C) Ambarnath temple (D) Hathi Singh temple
044. Which of the buildings were not designed by Le Corbusier?

I. Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad
II. Mill Owners' Association, Ahmedabad
III. Gaikwad Palace, Vadodara
IV. Sanskar Kendra Museum, Ahmedabad
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only
(C) I and III only (D) II and IV only
045. Which of the following artists are known for paintings of local folklore of Saurashtra?
I. Vrundavan Solanki II. Khodidas Parmar III. Manhar Makwana IV. Devjibhai Vaja
JI
(A) I and II only (B) I, II and III only
H
(C) II, III and IV only
N(D) I, II, III and IV
SI
046. By which of the following names is Chunilal Bhavsar specifically known?
H
(A) Rang Avadhoot Maharaj (B) Jalaram Bapa

DD
(C) Pujya Mota (D) Muksevak

U
047. Who among the following started the popular magazine, ‘Jankalyan’?
IR
(A) Bhikshu Akhandanand (B) Morari Bapu

AN
(C) Swami Sachidanand (D) Punit Maharaj
048. The famous song, ‘tari aankh no afini, tara bol no bhandani’, is from which of the following films?
(A) Divadandi (B) Jogidas Khuman
(C) Jesal Toral (D) Sheni Vijanand
049. Which of the following are not the lines of Kabir?

(A) Kya Kashi, kya maghar-usar hirday Ram jo pyara
(B) Tu kaheta kagadki lekhi, mei kaheta aankhanki dekhi
(C) Jal me kumbh, kumbh me jal hei, bahar bhitar pani
(D) Krushna-karim, Ram-hir Raghav, jab lag ek na pesha
050. Whose temple was there at the middle portion of Shahastralinga lake of Patan?
(A) Vindhayavashini Devi (B) Harshad Mata
(C) Bahusmarana Devi (D) Ranak Devi
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 15
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051. Kalibangan was situated on the dried bank of the river________.

(A) Tapi
(B) Ghaggar
(C) Narmada
(D) Chenab
052. The upper three varnas, Brahman, Kshatriya and Vaishya were called _______.
(A) Dwija
(B) Rajanya
(C) Upanayan
M (D) Sabhasad
053. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

I. Bindusar – Amitraghata
II. Samudragupta – Parakramank
III. Kumargupta – Mahendraditya
JI
IV. Skandgupta – Kramaditya
H
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) I and III only
(C) II, III and IV only N(D) I, II and IV only
SI
054. ________ invaded Saketa and Madhyamika during the Sunga period.
H
(A) Eucratides (B) Alexander

DD
(C) Antialcidas (D) Menander
055. Which of the following officials does/do not find mention in the Mauryan Administration?
U
IR
I. Samaharta II. Sannidhata III. Kumaramatya IV. Antapala

AN
(A) I and III only (B) I and IV only

(C) II only (D) III only
056. Which of following events is/are associated with the Kushana ruler Kanishka I?
I. Organization of the fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana Vihara.
II. Sending Buddhist Missionaries to Egypt and Greece.
III. Making Purushapura as his capital.
(A) I only (B) II only
(C) I and II (D) I and III
057. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. The battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi fought in 1565 CE brought an abrupt end to the Vijayanagar
Empire.
II. Domingo Paes and Barbosa visited Vijayanagar.
III. Due to his patronage of art and letters king Krishnadevaraya was known as ‘Andhra Bhoja’.
(A) I only (B) III only
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 17
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058. The reign of Harshavardhana was marked by vigorous political activity. Which of the following
statements is/are correct in this reference?
I. Devagupta, the king of Malava, accepted the suzerainty of Harshavardhana.
II.
Bhaskaravarman, the king of Kamarupa, entered into a treaty of friendship with
Harshavardhana.
III. Harshavardhana defeated Sasanka, the king of Gauda.
(A) II only (B) III only
(C) I and III only (D) II and III only

I. Rajaraja Chola I initiated the project of land survey and assessment.
II. Bhaskara Ravivarman of Kerala was a contemporary of Rajaraja Chola I.
III. Rajadhiraja, the eldest son of Rajendra I, was murdered by his younger brother Kulottunga.
JI
(C) II and III only (D) I only
H
N
SI
I. Bhima I of the Chalukya dynasty defeated Mahmud Ghazni in 1025 CE.
II. Mularaja I was the founder of the Chalukya dynasty of Anahilavada.
H
III. Chamundaraja Chalukya defended his kingdom against the incursion of the Paramara
DD
Sindhuraja.
U
IR

AN

I.
Bhatarka, the founder of the Maitraka dynasty of Vallabhi was appointed as
commander-in-chief in Gujarat by the imperial Guptas.
II. The Eran stone pillar inscription mentions ‘famous battle’ between the Guptas and the
Maitrakas.
III. The Vallabhi ruler Dhruvasena II was a contemporary of Budhagupta.
(A) I only (B) III only
(C) I and II only (D) I and III only

I. Mularaja II was defeated by the Turks under Muhammad Ghori.
II. Vaghelas before their rise to power served under the Chalukyas of Anahilavada.
III. Jayasimha Sidharaja came into conflict with the Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI of Kalyana.
(A) II and III only (B) I and II only
(C) I and III only (D) II only
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 19
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I. Major Walker was appointed as Political Resident in Baroda in May 1800.
II. Peshwa Baji Rao II entered subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1802.
III. T
he Arab mercenary force that troubled the Gaikwads was finally defeated by Anand Rao in
December 1801.
(C) I and II only (D) I and III only

I. Dayananda Sarasvati was born at Tankara in Gujarat in 1824.
II. Arya Samaj had a great split in Mumbai in 1887.
III. Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded by Devendranath Tagore.
(A) I only (B) I and III only
(C) II only (D) II and III only
JI
H
I. Maharaja Takhtasinhji of Bhavnagar accorded sanction to Bhavnagar-Wadhwan Railway
line in December 1880.
N
SI
II. Khande Rao Gaekwad established Bank of Baroda in 1908.
III. Sayaji Rao III started Gaekwad Baroda State Railway in 1862.
H

DD

U
066. Which of the following statements about Ghadar Movement are correct?
IR
I. The Ghadar Movement began, in California, as a coalition of expatriate Punjabis dedicated

AN
to raising money and support to overthrow British rule from India.

II. It was organised and headed by Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal.
III. It was organised to print pamphlets and even to send arms and volunteers for a revolution in
India.
IV. In the 1920s, however, the Ghadar party was reorganised and it continued as a focal point for
Punjabi and Sikh identity until the time of Indian independence.
(A) I, II and III only (B) I, II and IV only
(C) I, III and IV only (D) I, II, III and IV
067. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Mahagujarat Movement?
I. The agitation became violent when some college students were killed on 8th August 1957 in
Ahmedabad.
II. K.M. Munshi coined the term Mahagujarat at Karachi in 1937.
III. Indulal Yagnik founded Mahagujarat Janata Parishad.
(A) III only (B) II and III only
(C) I only (D) I and II only
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 21
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068. The bust of bearded man which was found in Mohenjo-Daro is made of _________.
(A) Terracotta (B) Sandstone
(C) Steatite (D) Redstone
069. The surrounding region of Indus river is called “Nakhilistan” which means
(A) Garden of Eden (B) Garden of Dreams
(C) Garden of Sind (D) Garden of Dead
070. Al-Biruni’s ‘Kitab-ul-Hind’ was written in ______ language.
(A) Hindi (B) Arabic (C) Turki (D) Persian
071. The doctrine of Karma, which is fully developed in Upanishads was first mentioned in _______.
(A) Athreya Brahmana (B) Shatapatha Brahmana
(C) Kaushitaki Brahmana (D) Arseya Brahmana
072. The Gayatri Mantra in Rigveda is dedicated to which of the following deities?
(A) Lakshmi (B) Savitri
JI
(C) Agni (D) Maruti
H
073. The followers of Vardhamana Mahavira originally were called ________.
(A) Nirgranthas N
(B) Surgranthas
SI
(C) Adigranthas (D) Mahagranthas
H
074. The first to start a joint stock company to trade with India were the _______.
DD
(A) Portuguese (B) Dutch

(C) French (D) Danish
U
075. A lot of details regarding the village administration under the Cholas is provided by the inscriptions
IR
at ___________.
AN
(A) Thanjavur (B) Uraiyur

(C) Kanchipuram (D) Uttaramerur
076. Where is the Buddhist rock-cut cave which depicts eleven-headed Bodhisattva image?
(A) Ajanta (B) Ellora
(C) Kanheri (D) Karle
077. Which school of art used spotted sandstone as material for sculptures?
(A) Amaravati (B) Gandhara
(C) Mathura (D) Sarnath
078. Who was the ruler of Warangal when it was invaded by Sultanate forces?
(A) Pratap Rudra Deva I (B) Soma Rudra Deva
(C) Shakti Rudra Deva (D) Maharudradeva
079. Which one of the following Vijayanagar rulers was the author of ‘Amuktamalyada’?
(A) Bukka I (B) Bukka II
(C) Krishnadevaraya (D) Harihara
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 23
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080. Which of the following temples were built by Krishnadevaraya?
I. Vithalaswami temple
II. Hazara Ramaswami temple
III. Ranganatha temple
IV. Kailasnath temple
(A) I only (B) I and II only
(C) II and III only (D) I, II, III and IV
I. The Rig Vedic economy was predominantly based on pastoralism.
II. The Rig Vedic farmers used ploughs in cultivation.
III. The Rig Vedic people had good trade relations with West Asia.
JI
H
(A) I and III only (B) II and III only
(C) I and II only N

(D) I, II and III
SI
082. Which among the following statement/s refer/s to the Persian influence on ancient India?
H
DD
I. Introduction of Brahmi script
II. Hair washing ceremony of Chandragupta Maurya.

U
IR
III. Introduction of lion replica on Ashoka pillars

AN
(C) I and III only (D) III only
083. Which among the following is/are not the works of Bhasa, the famous poet of the Gupta period?
I. Charudatta II. Balacharita III. Ravanavadha
084. Hieun Tsang the Chinese traveller in India called Harsha as the “Master of the Five Indies”, which
includes __________.
I. Bengal II. Magadha III. Sindh IV. Kashmir
(C) III and IV only (D) I, II, III and IV
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 25
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I. During the medieval period, Gujarat emerged as a major port of exports to Malacca Straits
and Indonesia.
II. The main exports from Gujarat to Malacca were spices.
III. V
arthema, an Italian traveller mentions that more than 1000 ships from different countries
used to enter the port of Cambay every day.
(C) I and III only (D) III only
086. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Bhalan?

I. He was a Gujarati writer who translated Banabhatt’s ‘Kadambari’.
II. He was a contemporary of Mirabai.
III. He expounded the Advaita philosophy.
JI
(C) I only (D) II only
H
087. Which of the following statements is/are correct?N
SI
I. Charak Samhita deals basically with surgery.
H
II. The palm-leaf manuscript of Sushrut Samhita is preserved at Kaiser library of Nepal.
DD
III. The three ‘doshas’ (humours) central to Ayurveda are ‘vata’ (wind), ‘pitta’ (bile) and ‘kapha/
shlesma’ (phlegm).
U
(A) I, II and III (B) I and II only

IR
(C) II and III only (D) III only

AN
088. Which among the following was/were the consequences of the First Anglo-Maratha War?
I. The English captured Ahmedabad.
II. Mahadaji Scindhia was recognized as the Peshwa.
III. The Scindhia signed the ‘Treaty of Kharda’ to establish peace in the Maratha kingdom.
(C) I only (D) II only
089. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to events of the First Freedom
Struggle 1857 in Gujarat?
I. Nearly 210 rebellious sepoys were executed at the cantonment in Shahibaug.
II. The execution room was known as ‘Fansi Ghar’.
III. Captain Campbell quelled the mutiny in Ahmedabad.
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 27
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090. Which of the following statements regarding Tilak’s Home Rule League are correct?
I. It demanded education in vernacular language.
II. It propagated its ideas in Marathi, Kannada, and Gujarati.
III. It also demanded the formation of linguistic states.
(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III
091. Arrange the following events in sequence of its happening.

I. Muslim League Formation II. Cripps Mission III. Rowlatt Act
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III, I
(C) II, I, III (D) I, III, II
092. Which of the following statements about the Indus Valley Civilization is/are correct?
I. Sites of the Indus Valley Civilization are not confined to the valley of the Indus river.
JI
II. Typical pottery of the Indus Valley Civilization is red, as designs painted on it in black.
H
(C) Both I and II
N
(D) Neither I nor II
SI
093. Which of the following assemblies are mentioned in the Rigveda?
H
DD
I. Sabha II. Samiti III. Vidatha

U
(C) I and III only (D) I, II and III

IR
094. According to Buddhism, origins of rebirth lie in _________.

AN
(A) Ignorance (Avijja) (B) Craving (Tanha)

(C) Attachment (Upadana) (D) Suffering (Dukkha)
095. The correct chronological order of the following foreign invasions in India is ______.
(A) Shakas, Kushanas, Greeks, Parthians (B) Greeks, Shakas, Parthians, Kushanas
(C) Parthians, Greeks, Kushanas, Shakas (D) Shakas, Kushanas, Parthians, Greeks
096. Who among the following started the practice of appointing two Governors simultaneously in the
same province?
(A) Satavahana (B) Gupta
(C) Mauryan (D) Kushana
097. Who among the following founded the Sanskrit college at Banaras in 1791?
(A) Warren Hastings (B) William Johns
(C) Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya (D) Jonathan Duncan
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 29
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098. From which of the following places did Vinoba Bhave start the Bhudan Movement on April 18,
1951?
(A) Udaygiri (B) Venkatgiri
(C) Pochampally (D) Raipur
099. Select the correct sequence of the establishment of the following societies.
I. Theosophical society
II. Brahmo Samaj
III. Ramkrishna Mission
IV. Prarthana Samaj
(A) IV, III, I, II (B) II, IV, III, I
(C) II, IV, I, III (D) IV, III, II, I
100. Who among the following were the members of the Commission of Reorganisation of State, 1953?
JI
I. Sardar Patel
H
II. Pandit Hridaynath Kunzru
III. V. P. Menon N
SI
IV. K. M. Panikkar
H

DD
(C) II and IV only (D) III and IV only

U
101. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Regulating Act of 1773?
IR
1. First time this Act recognized the administrative and political functions of the East India
AN
Company.
2. It made the Governors of Bengal and Madras subordinates to the Governor General of
Bengal.
3. This Act laid the foundation for the central administration in India
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
102. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Government of India Act 1919?
1. This Act was enacted in 1919 and came into existence in 1921.
2. It relaxed the central control over provinces by separating the central and provincial subjects.
3. The Act still authorized the central legislature to formulate laws on provincial list.
4. The Act did not authorize the provincial legislatures to make laws on provincial list.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 31
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103. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Rajaji Formula?
1. According to this formula, Muslim League would join hands with Congress to demand the
independence from British.
2. Muslim League and INC would form a provisional government at the Centre.
3. Gandhi and Jinnah held talks to discuss on Rajaji Formula.
4. This proposal was accepted by Jinnah and rejected by Gandhi.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 3 and 4 only
104. Which of the following statements are correct regarding composition of the Constituent Assembly?
1. Each princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to their population.
2. Seats allotted to each British province were divided between Muslims and Sikhs and other
general population.
3. The seats allotted to other communities (Muslims and Sikhs) were to be elected by the members
of that community in Provincial legislative assembly.
JI
4. In the above process, proportional representation by means of single transferrable vote system
H
was followed.
N
SI
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
H
DD
105. Which of the following community had third highest representation in the constituent assembly?
(A) Muslims (B) Scheduled Castes
U
(C) Indian Christians (D) Sikhs

IR

AN
1. Fourth Schedule - Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha

2. Tenth Schedule - Provisions relating to the Disqualification of members in legislative bodies.
3. Seventh Schedule - Division of powers between Centre and State.
4. Sixth Schedule - Provisions relating to the administration of Tribal areas in some states.
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
107. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the concept of fraternity in Indian
Constitution?
1. The concept of fraternity is promoted by the system of single citizenship
2. Fundamental duties of the Indian Constitution also promotes the concept of fraternity.
3. The fraternity assures the dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.
4. The unity and integrity of the nation denotes territorial dimension only.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 33
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108. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the powers of Indian Parliament in the
context of Article 3?
1. Parliament can introduce a Bill regarding reorganization of the states only with the prior
permission of the President.
2. Before giving permission to the Bill, the President can refer the Bill to the state legislature
concerned.
3. The President can accept or reject the recommendations of the state legislature.
4. In case of Union Territory, President will take special permission of the Rajya Sabha.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
109. Which of the following statements are correct regarding compulsory termination of Indian
Citizenship by the Central Government?
1. The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
JI
2. The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during war.
H
3. he citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalization, been imprisoned in any
T
country for two years. N
SI
4. The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for two years continuously.
H
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

DD
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only

U
110. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Exception to Equality under Indian
IR
context?
AN
(A) No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything
said.
(B) No person shall be liable to any civil or criminal proceedings in any court in respect of the
publication in any newspaper of substantially true report.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
111. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Creamy layer in reservations?
1. Persons who are in the rank of colonel and above in the army and equivalent rank in navy and
air force cannot avail the OBC reservations.
2. The persons holding constitutional positions like President, Vice-President and Judges of HC
are exempted from the Creamy layer, they can avail the OBC reservations.
3. Persons having gross annual income upto Rs. 15 lakhs are eligible to avail OBC reservations.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 only (D) 1 and 2 only
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 35
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112.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Supreme Court’s interpretation
regarding Article 21?
(A) In Gopalan case Supreme Court held that the protection under Article 21 is available only
against arbitrary power of executive not of legislative action.
(B) In Menaka Gandhi case, Supreme Court upheld the judgment of Gopalan case.
113. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding issuing of Writs? CANCELLED
(A) Habeas Corpus cannot be issued in case of the proceeding for contempt of a legislature.
(B) Mandamus cannot be issued when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory.
(C) Prohibition cannot be issued against Quasi judicial authorities.
(D) None of the above.
JI
114. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Right to property?
H
(A) It can be regulated, curtailed or modified without constitutional amendment.
N
(B) It protects private property against executive action but not against legislative action.
SI
(C) In case of its violation, the aggrieved person can directly go to the High Court not to the
H
Supreme Court.
DD
(D) All of the above.

U
115. Which of the following Statement is INCORRECT regarding Directive Principles of State Policy
and Fundamental Duties? CANCELLED
IR
AN
(A) Dr BR Ambedkar opined that Directive Principles of State Policy have great value because
these principles lay down the goal of Indian polity i.e Economic Democracy.
(B) Government of India formulated many laws to ensure better government in line to the Directive
Principles of State Policy.
(C) Unlike some fundamental rights which extends to all citizens and foreigners, Fundamental
duties are confined to Indian Citizen only.
(D) None of the above
116. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Special Majority rules in Parliament?
(A) Special majority is a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of 2/3 of
the members of each House present and voting.
(B)
In above statement Total Membership means the total members comprising the House
irrespective of fact whether there are vacancies and absentees.
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 37
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117. Which of the following elements come under basic structure of the Indian Constitution as declared
by the Supreme Court?
1. Federalism
2. Social Justice
3. Effective Access to justice
4. Freedom and Dignity of the individual
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1 only
118. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Legislative power of the Centre?
(A) The Parliament can make Extra Territorial legislation which is applicable to the Indian
Citizens and their property all over the world.
(B) The Governor is empowered to direct that an Act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled
area in the respective state.
JI
H
119. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding powers of Rajya Sabha in matters
of State List? CANCELLED N
SI
(A) Parliamnent can make laws with respect to the matters in the state list if Rajya Sabha declares
H
that it is necessary for national importance and pass as a resolution.

DD
(B) The resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha must be supported by the two-thirds of the members
present and voting.
U
(C) Such resolution remains in force for 30 days only.

IR

AN
120. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Centre and State relations?
(A) The total omission of Articles 356, 357 and 365 was recommended by the First Administrative
Reforms Commission.
(B) Sarkaria Commission recommended that the residuary powers should be allocated to the
states
(C) Rajmannar Committee recommended that, the Centre’s jurisdiction should be restricted only
to defence, foreign affairs, communication and currency.
(D) Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Centre should have power to deploy its armed
forces even without the consent of the states.
121. Which of the following commissions/committees recommended for the simultaneous elections for
the first time?
(A) P A Sangma Committee
(B) Committee by Election Commission of India headed by JM Lingdo
(C) Nachiyappan Committee
(D) Nara Chandra Babu Naidu Committee
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 39
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122. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A) Single Citizenship – taken from Canada
(B) Preamble of the Constitution – taken from United Kingdom
(C) Concept of Republic – taken from France
(D) Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency – taken from Russia.
123. Which of the following statements is correct regarding effects of National Emergency?
(A) During emergency the Centre becomes entitled to give executive directions to state in any
matters
(B) During emergency the President can issue ordinances on state subjects even if Parliament is
in session.
(C) During the national emergency, the President cannot modify the constitutional distribution of
revenues between the Centre and states.
(D) All of the above
124. Which of the following statements is correct regarding vote value of a Member of Parliament?
JI
(A) Vote value of MP =
H
(B) Vote Value of MP =
N
SI
Total value of votes of all voters of the country
H
(C) Vote Value of MP =

Total members of parliament
DD

U
125. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the voting right of the Non-resident
IR
Indians (NRIs)?
AN
1. NRIs are not eligible to vote if they are staying abroad continuously for more than 5 years.
2. NRIs can only vote in person in the constituency where their residence is located.
3. NRIs can vote from abroad through the Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System
(ETPBS).
4. The option of proxy voting is available only for armed forces, police and government officials
posted outside India.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
126. Which of the following statements are correct regarding legislative powers of the Governor?
1. Governor can reserve Bill for President's consideration when it opposes a Directive Principle
of State Policy.
2. Governor calls for joint sitting of both the Houses of state legislature (in case of bicameral
legislature).
3. He nominates one Anglo-Indian to the state legislative assembly.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 41
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1. Only a Minister can present a Money Bill.
2. All Money Bills are Financial Bills but only some Financial Bills are Money Bills.
3. Finance Bills under Article 117 can only be introduced with prior permission of the President
in Lok Sabha only.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only
128. Which report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission is related with recommendations
on Panchayati Raj?
(A) 3rd Report (B) 4th Report (C) 5th Report (D) 6th Report
129. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Quasi Judicial Bodies?
1. A quasi Judicial body enjoys Powers and Procedures as those of a court.
2. Normally Tribunals enjoy these features.
3. Central Information Commission is a quasi Judicial body.
4. Their powers are limited to a very specific area.
JI
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
H
N
SI
130. Which of the following statements are correct regarding North Eastern Council?
1. Both the Governors and the Chief Ministers of the North Eastern States are the members of
H
the North Eastern Council.

DD
2. It functions as a regional planning body for the North-Eastern area.

3. riority is given to projects and schemes which will benefit two or more states of the North-
P
U
Eastern area.
IR

AN
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
131. Which of the following are provided under the States Reorganization Act, 1956?
1. Inter-State Council
2. Delimitation of constituencies by the Delimitation Commission
3. High Courts for the newly created states
(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
132. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court?
1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the
President.
2. At least Five Judge Bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its
power of Advisory Jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under Advisory Jurisdiction is not
binding on the President.
(A) 3 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 43
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133. System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and voting by
secret ballot is used for the election of which of the following?
1. President
2. Vice President
3. Rajya Sabha
4. Vidhan Parishat
5. Election of Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
134. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the national register for citizens?
(A) The NRC has its roots in the Assam Accord signed between the Assam State Students Union
and the Government of India in 1985.
(B) The National Register of Citizens is a list of all the legal citizens of Assam.
(C) The NRC includes person whose names appear in any of the electoral rolls up to March, 1971
and their descendants.
JI
(D) The NRC is governed by the National Register for Citizens Act, 1971.
H
N
135. Which one of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?
SI
(A) Pardon – Forgiveness only ends the punishment completely.
(B) Commute – Reduction of penalty
H
(C) Remission – Reduction of punishment due to any specific reason.

DD
(D) Reprieve – Temporary suspension of death penalty.

U
136. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India conducts all kinds of Audit except _______.
IR
(A) Proprietary Audit

AN
(B) Audit against provision of funds

(C) Efficiency-cum-performance audit
137. The minimum number of members that must be present to hold the meeting of the Gram
Sabha is _______.
(A) One-fourth of the total membership
(B) One-tenth of the total membership
(C) 50% of the Gram Sabha
(D) At least 100 members
138. The Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes which considers all matters
relating to their welfare consists of _______.
(A) Total 30 members – 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(B) Total 30 members – 15 from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha
(C) Total 25 members – 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(D) Total 20 members – 10 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 45
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139. Which Articles have been inserted to provide reservations for Economically Weaker Sections
(EWS) in 2019?
(A) Articles 15(1) & 16(1) (B) Articles 15(2) & 16(2)
(C) Articles 15(4) & 16(4) (D) Articles 15(6) & 16(6)
140. Which of the following cases/areas will not be entertained as Public Interest Litigation (PIL)?
1. Landlord-Tenant Matters
2. Service Matter and those pertaining to pension and gratuity of an Individual
3. Complaints against central/state government departments and local bodies
4. Petition for early hearing of cases pending in High Courts and Subordinate courts
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
141. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding judicial powers of the Governor
of state?
(A) He can grant reprieves, respites, remissions of punishment of any person convicted of any
JI
offence against law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
H
(B) He makes appointments, posting and promotions of the district judges in consultation with
the state high court. N
SI
H
DD

1. The salaries and allowances of the judges of the high court are charged to the Consolidated
U
Fund of India.
2. he salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff as well as the administrative expenses of
T
IR
High Court are charged to the Consolidated Fund of states.

AN
3. The retired judges of a high court cannot practice in any court except Supreme Court
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
143. Which of the following services is covered under the jurisdiction of Central Administrative
Tribunal (CAT)?
1. Central Civil Services
2. Civil Posts under the Centre and civilian employees of defence services
3. Secretarial staff of the Parliament
4. Officers and servants of the Supreme Court
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
144. Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Legal Services Authority?
1. This authority was established by the Act enacted by the Parliament.
2. In every state, a state legal services authority has been constituted.
3. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India acts as Executive Chairman of this authority.
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 47
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145. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Ashok Mehta Committee recommendations
on panchayat raj system?
1. The nyaya panchayats should be kept as separate bodies from that of development of
panchayats.
2. There should be an official participation of political parties at all levels of panchayat elections.
3. The nyaya panchayats should be presided over by a qualified judge.
146. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Election Commission of India?
(A) The Constitution clearly mentioned the qualifications of the members of the Election Commission.
(B) The Constitution has not specified the term of the members of Election Commission.
(C) The Constitution has debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further
appointment by the government.
147. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Finance Commission of India?
1. The Finance Commission of India consists of a chairman and 5 other members.
JI
2. The constitution authorizes the Parliament to determine the qualification of members of the
H
commission.
N
3. The President can refer any matter to the finance commission in the interest of sound
SI
finance system.
H
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only

DD
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 only

148. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in _______.
U
(A) The Preamble and the Fundamental Rights

IR
(B) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State policy
AN
(C) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

149.
Which of the following statements is part of fundamental duties enshrined in the Indian
Constitution?
1. To promote religious, regional and linguistic harmony and spirit of common brotherhood.
2. To educate children between the age of 6 and 14.
3. To promote secular principles.
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
150. Which of the following Articles provides the right of access to the Internet?
(A) Article 21 (B) Article 17 (C) Article 22 (D) Article 23
151. P speaks truth in 75% cases and Q in 80% of cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to
contradict each other, narrating the same incident?
(A) 5% (B) 15%
(C) 35% (D) None of the above
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 49
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152. T
he three pairs of opposite faces of a cube of edge 8 cm are painted with three different colors
namely green, blue and red, with both the faces in each pair printed with the same colour. Now the
cube is cut into smaller and identical cube of edge 2 cm each. What is the number of smaller cubes
that do not have any of the faces painted?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 8 (D) None of the above
153. Six members of a family of three generations, P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a circular
table for dinner. R, S and T are males whereas P, Q and U are females. In the family, there are two
fathers, 2 mothers and a pair of siblings. The members of each of the couples are sitting opposite
to each other. All the three males are sitting together, the same is true for the females. U is the
daughter-in-law of T and is sitting second to his left. The daughter of U is sitting second to her left.
Who is sitting second to the left of the husband of U?
(A) P (B) Either R or S
(C) Either P or Q (D) None of the above
154. If ‘Q’ denotes ‘×’ ; R denotes ‘–’; T denotes ‘÷’ and W denotes ‘+’, then what will be value of
JI
20R12T4Q6W5 ?
H
(A) – 3 (B) 7
(C) 17 N(D) None of the above
SI
155. A girl was born on September 6, 1970 which happened to be a Sunday. Then in which year her
H
birthday would have fallen again on Sunday ?

DD
(A) 1981 (B) 1986

U
*
IR
(Instructions for Questions 156-160) : Study the table carefully and answer the questions:
AN
156. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period?
(A) Rs. 32.43 lakhs (B) Rs. 33.72 lakhs
(C) Rs. 34.18 lakhs (D) Rs.36.66 lakhs
157. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what
percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
(A) 0.1% (B) 0.5%
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 51
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158. Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure
in 2002?
(A) 62% (B) 66% (C) 69% (D) 71%
159. The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?
(A) Rs. 544.44 lakhs (B) Rs. 501.44 lakhs
(C) Rs. 446.44 lakhs (D) Rs. 478.44 lakhs
160. The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on fuel
and transport for all the years respectively is approximately
(A) 4 : 7 (B) 10 : 13
(C) 15 : 18 (D) 13 : 20
161. Here, a question and 3 statements are given. You have to decide which statement/statements are
JI
sufficient to answer the question:
H
Que : What is the value of x?
N
SI
Statements :
H
I. 2xyz + 6y – 8z + 5 = 0, z = 2
DD
II. y =
III. 4xyz – 6z + 8y – 7 = 0, z = 3
U
(A) Either I alone or III alone is sufficient.

IR
(B) Either I and II or I and III are sufficient.

AN
(C) III alone is sufficient.

162. By dropping a sphere of 30 cm radius into a cylindrical vessel of 80 cm diameter which is partly
filled with water, its water level rises by x cm. Then what would be value of x?
(A) 22.5 cm (B) 25.5 cm
(C) 28.5 cm (D) data inadequate
163. A container has a mixture of two liquids M and N in the ratio 7 : 5. When 9 litres of mixture are
drawn off and the container is filled with N, the ratio of M and N becomes 7 : 9. How many litres
of liquid M was there in the container initially?
(A) 15 (B) 21
(C) 25 (D) None of these
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 53
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* (164-166) 3 balls, colored Yellow, Green and Red each are to be put in one of the three boxes numbered
1, 2 and 3 (not necessarily in the same order). Three friends J, K and L make 2 statements each about
the arrangement of the balls in the boxes, one of which is true and the other is false.
Their statements are as follows:
J : The Yellow Ball is not in Box 2. The Red ball is in Box 1
K : The Yellow Ball is not in Box 3. The Green ball is in Box 2
L : The Green ball is in Box 3. The Red ball is not in Box 1
164. Box 1 contains _______.
(A) Red Ball (B) Yellow Ball
(C) Green Ball (D) Cannot be determined
165. The Yellow Ball is in _______.
(A) Box 1 (B) Box 2
(C) Box 3 (D) Either Box 2 or Box 3
166. I f we ignore the second statement made by K and consider the first statement made by him to be
JI
true, then how many possible arrangements can we have following the remaining conditions?
H
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 N
SI
*
(Instructions for 167-171) The following questions have one/two statements followed by two
H
conclusions. Read and understand them carefully and then select your answer option as given
below.
DD
(A) If only I alone follows the statement(s)

(B) If only II alone follows the statement(s)
U
(C) If both I and II follow the statement(s)

IR
(D) If neither I nor II follows the statement(s)

AN
167. S
tatement: The reformer has enemies in all those who profit by the old order and only lukewarm
defenders in all those who would profit from the new order. (A)
Conclusions:
I. Those benefited by old order are the foes of the reformer.
II. The ones who benefit from new order are not the enemies of the reformer.
168. Statement: There are certain other functions which the President is required to perform under the
Constitution in relation to the Parliament. (D)
Conclusions:
I. The President performs most of the functions of the Parliament.
II. It is only the Parliament in relation to which the President can function.
169. Statements: Antiques are displayed in an exhibition. It costs a common man too much for its
purchase.
(D)
Conclusions:
I. Common man doesn’t purchase antiques.
II. Exhibited products are always costly.
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 55
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170. Statement: The Cricket team’s performance on foreign soil has improved recently.
Conclusions: (B)
I. The previous teams were not very proficient while playing overseas.
II. It’s difficult to win matches overseas.
171. Statement: Farmers throughout India have their hand in increased agricultural production.
Conclusions: (D)
I. 80% of the Indian Farmers has land less than one hectare.
II. There is more productivity in smaller lands than larger lands.
172. The ratio of the ages of X and Y at present is 2 : 3. After 5 years the ratio will become 7 : 10.
Then what will be the ratio after 15 years from now?
(A) 3 : 4 (B) 3 : 5
(C) 4 : 5 (D) None of the above
173. The arithmetic mean of the 5 consecutive integers starting with ‘s’ is ‘a’. What is the arithmetic
JI
mean of 9 consecutive integers that start with s + 2?
H
(A) a + 2 (B) a + 3
(C) a + 4 N(D) None of the above
SI
174. R
amesh analyzed the monthly salary figures of five vice presidents of his company. All the salary
H
figures are in integer lakhs. The mean and the median salary figures are Rs. 5 lakhs, and the only
DD
mode is Rs 8 lakhs. Which of the options below is the sum (in Rs. lakhs) of the highest and the
lowest salaries?
U
(A) 7 lakh (B) 8 lakh

IR
(C) 9 lakh (D) None of the above

AN
175. In triangle ABC, D, E and F are mid points of AB, AC and BC respectively. P, Q and R are mid
points of DE, DF and EF. What is the ratio of area of triangle PQR to that of parallelogram
ADFE?
(A) 1 : 8 (B) 1 : 2
176. I n the given figure, area of isosceles triangle ABE is 72 sq cm, BE = AB and AB = 2 AD, AE || DC,
then what is the area of the trapezium ABCD?
(A) 136 sq cm (B) 144 sq cm

(C) 154 sq cm (D) None of the above
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 57
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* ( Que: 177-180) Seven boxes of different colours - Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Black, Blue and
Indigo are kept one above the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Each box is given a
different number viz. 101,121,151,191,231,221 and 225, but not necessarily in the same order. Only
three boxes are kept between Indigo coloured box and box number 221. Only two boxes are kept
between Indigo coloured box and Orange coloured box. Orange coloured box is kept somewhere
below box number 221. Only one box is kept between Orange coloured box and the box number
121. Black coloured box is kept immediately below the box number 225 and immediately above
box number 221. There is only one box between Black coloured box and the box number 101.
The number given to Black coloured box is neither 191 nor 231. Only two boxes are kept between
box number 151 and Blue coloured box. The difference between Blue coloured box and the box
immediately below it is less than 80. Yellow coloured box is not the topmost box. Yellow coloured
box number is not 121. Only two boxes are kept between Yellow coloured box and Red coloured box.
177. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
(A) Orange coloured box 121 (B) Yellow coloured box 191
(C) Red coloured box 231 (D) Black coloured box 101
JI
178. What is the position of Green colour box in the given stack of boxes?
H
(A) First from Top (B) Second from bottom
(C) Fourth from Top N
SI
179. Which of the following coloured boxes is numbered 231?
H
(A) Blue (B) Orange

DD
(C) Red (D) Indigo

180. How many boxes are kept between Black colour box and Box number 121?
U
(A) one (B) two

IR
(C) three (D) more than three

AN
181. I n the figure, if AB || CD || EF, PQ || RS, ∠RQD = 25° and ∠CQP = 60°, then what is the value of
∠QRS?
(A) 125º (B) 130º

(C) 135º (D) None of the above
182. If for two positive integers p and q, p ≠ q then which of the following statement is true?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) All are true
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 59
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183. For the given pair (x, y) of positive integers, such that 4x – 17y = 1 and x < 1000, how many integer
values of y satisfy the given conditions?
(A) 56 (B) 57
(C) 58 (D) 59
184. x + |y| = 8, |x| + y = 6. How many pairs of x, y satisfy these two equations?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 4
185. What is the least number of digits in the number formed from only digits 0 and 1 such that the
number is divisible by 225?
(A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 11
186. If 32x+3 – 244(3x) = – 9, then which of the following statements is true?
(A) x is a positive number (B) x is a negative number
(C) x can be either positive or negative number (D) None of the above
187. A
bike costs Rs. 96,000. Its value depreciates by 30% in the first year and in each subsequent
JI
year the depreciation is 20% of the value at the beginning of that year. The value of the bike after
H
3 years will be
(A) Rs. 43,008
N
(B) Rs. 48,000
SI
(C) Rs. 52,018 (D) None of the above
H
188. A letter is taken out at random from ‘ASSISTANT’ and another is taken out from ‘STATISTICS’.
The probability that they are the same letters is
DD
(A) 23/90 (B) 7/30

(C) 19/90 (D) None of the above
U
IR
189. The price of tea being increased by 20%, a man reduces his consumption by 20%. By how much
percent will his expenses for tea be decreased?
AN
(A) 2% (B) 4%
190. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minutes past 5?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) None of the above

191. The price of an article is raised by 30% and then two successive discounts of 10% each are allowed.
Ultimately the price of the article is.....
(A) increased by 10% (B) increased by 5%
(C) increased by 3.3% (D) None of the above
192. A bus can travel certain distance without any stoppage at an average speed of 70 km/hr and with
stoppage it covers the same distance at 50 km/hr. What is the stoppage time per hour ?
(A) 16.84 minutes (B) 17.14 minutes
(C) 18.64 minutes (D) 19.14 minutes
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 61
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193. If both 112 and 33 are factors of the number a × 43 × 62 × 1311, then what is the smallest possible
value of ‘a’?
(A) 33 (B) 363
(C) 121 (D) 3267
194. The denominator of a rational number is greater than its numerator by 3. If the numerator is
increased by 7 and the denominator is decreased by 1, the new number becomes 3/2. What is the
original number?
(A) 8/11 (B) 10/13
195. A boat running upstream takes 6 hours 30 minutes to cover a certain distance, while it takes
3 hours to cover the same distance running downstream. What is the ratio between the speed of
the boat and speed of the water current, respectively?
(A) 21 : 5 (B) 19 : 7
JI
196. The cost of a pizza varies directly as the square of its radius. If a pizza with a 6 inch radius costs
Rs. 800, how much should a pizza with an 11 inch radius cost in nearest round figure?
H
(A) Rs. 1,467 N(B) Rs. 2,689
SI
(C) Rs. 3,287 (D) None of the above
H
197. A spherical ball is divided into two equal halves. If the curved surface area of each half is
DD
56.57 cm2, then what is the volume of the spherical ball? [π = 3.14]
(A) 107.04 cm3 (B) 109.04 cm3
U
(C) 113.04 cm3 (D) None of the above

IR
198. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD, AD ⊥ DC, AB = 20 cm, BC = 13 cm and DC = 25 cm.

AN
What is the area of the trapezium?

(A) 232 cm2 (B) 270 cm2
(C) 354 cm2 (D) None of the above
199. The hour-hand of a clock moved 75° just after midday. The time in the clock was :
(A) 14 hours (B) 14:30 hours
(C) 15 hours (D) None of the above
200. Statement: Should children be legally made responsible to take care of their parents during their
old age?
Arguments:
I. Such matter can only be solved by legal means.
II. Yes. Only this will bring some relief to poor parents.
(A) Only argument I is strong (B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Either I or II is strong (D) Neither I nor II is strong
________________________
[CSP-1] [P.T.O. 63
26/2020-21
Exam Date: 22-03-2021
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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M
001. During which of the following Five-Year Plans did the government of India implement the National
Project on organic farming for production, promotion, market development of organic farming in
India?
(A) Ninth Plan (B) Tenth Plan
(C) Eleventh Plan (D) None of the above
002.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Public Sector reforms and
disinvestment?
1. The first method of disinvestment was selling of shares in select PSUs
2. The second method of disinvestment was sale of PSU to a private sector company
3. The first method was used over the period 1991-92 to 1998-99
4. The second method was used over the period 1999-2000 to 2003-04
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
003. In which of the following land tenure systems in pre-independent India the whole village was
treated as a unit for payment of land revenue?
JI
H
(A) Zamindari System (B) Mahalwari System
(C) Ryotwari System N
(D) Security of Tenure System
SI
004. Which of the following is not a concept of unemployment as per definition of NSSO?
H
(A) Usual Status Unemployment

DD
(B) Current Weekly Status of Unemployment

(C) Current Daily Status of Unemployment
U
(D) Current Monthly Status of Unemployment

IR
005. New Economic Reforms initiated in India consisted of _______.

AN
1. Macroeconomic stabilization as supply-side management

2. Structural Reforms as supply-side management
3. Fiscal adjustment as demand-side adjustment
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

1. Repo Rate is less than Reverse Repo Rate in India.
2. Bank Rate is more than Repo Rate in India
3. Cash Reserve Ratio is less than Repo Rate in India
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only
007. The expenditure policy of the government must be _______.

(A) Elastic (B) Inelastic
(C) Rigid (D) Constant
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 3
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008. The term Sterilization by RBI refers to _______.
(A) Operation to neutralize effect of high NPAs in the economy.
(B) Operation to check excess inflow of foreign investment in the economy.
(C) Operation to control high current account deficit.
(D) Operation to control effect of high fiscal deficit in the economy.
009. Ports which are used as collection centres where the goods are brought from different countries
for export are known as _______.
(A) EXIM ports (B) Entrepot ports
(C) Ports of call (D) None of the above
010. A rise in SENSEX means _______.

(A) A rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with Bombay Stock Exchange and its
branches.
(B) A rise in prices of shares of all companies registered with National Stock Exchange.
(C) A rise in prices of shares of all companies belonging to group of companies registered with
JI
Bombay Stock Exchange.
H
N
SI
011. Economic reforms were initiated in 1991 and exports stepped up, at the same time, imports were
also liberalised to _______.
H
(A) Provide lower cost output

DD
(B) Generate competition in domestic market

(C) Bring about technological upgradation
U
IR
(D) Meet shortfall in demand

AN
012. According to Reserve Bank of India, which of the following is/are a part of Capital Account?
1. External commercial borrowings (ECB)
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Foreign portfolio investment
4. Importing Invisible goods and services.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
013. When the ratio of indirect taxes to total taxation revenue is very high it leads to _______.
1. Rise in the price level
2. Higher taxation burden on the rich
3. Higher taxation burden on the poor
4. Fall in tax revenues.
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 5
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014. _______ means the currency of one country would have to be converted into that of another
country to buy the same amount of goods and services in each country.
(A) Balance of Payments (B) Purchasing Power Parity
(C) Currency Equalization (D) None of the above
015. Current Production of Goods and Services × Current Prices = _______, and Current Production
of Goods and Services × Base year Prices = _______.
(A) Real GDP and Nominal GDP (B) Nominal GDP and Real GDP
(C) Real GDP and Gross Value Added (D) Nominal GDP and Gross Value Added
016. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Inclusive Growth?
1. Inclusive Growth includes everyone in growth regardless of their economic class
2. Inclusive growth approach takes on short term perspective
3. Inclusive growth focuses on income distribution rather than productive employment
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
JI
H
017. Match the following List-I with List-II
List-I N List-II
SI
1. Slowdown a. A sudden down in economy
H
2. Recession b. Reduction in growth rate of the economy

DD
3. Boom c. Economy is reducing in size

4. Meltdown d. Increase in the growth rate of the economy
U
(A) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a (B) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
IR
(C) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a (D) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a
AN
018. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?

(A) Excise Duty – is an indirect tax at the time of manufacture of any product
(B) VAT – Sales tax on inter-state sale is called value added tax
019. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Goods and Services Tax in India?
1. Businesses and individuals supplying goods can claim GST exemption if their aggregate
turnover is less than INR 40 lakhs in a financial year.
2.
For hilly and northeastern states, the new GST exemption limit for goods suppliers is
Rs. 20 lakhs.
3. The GST exemption for businesses engaged in supply of services has remained at Rs. 10 lakhs
for hilly and northeastern states
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) None of the above
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 7
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020. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Budget Procedure?
1. The revenue budget consists of transactions that have implications upto 1 year
2. The capital budget consists of transactions that have implications of more than 1 year
3. Revenue budget consists of revenue receipts as well as revenue expenditure, but Capital
budget consists of expenditure only.
021. Which of the following are the effects of Inflation on various classes of persons in the society?
1. Debtors gain and creditors will face loss during inflation
2. Purchasing power of the salaried persons will increase
3. Fixed income persons will face loss during inflation
022. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Antyodaya Anna Yojana?
1. This programme was launched in the year 2000
2. The scale of issue was 35 kg per family per month.
JI
3. Landless agriculture labourers, marginal farmers, rural artisans/craftsmen are the
beneficiaries covered under this scheme
H
4. All primitive tribal households also covered under this scheme
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
N
SI
023. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding The Unique Identification Authority
H
of India (UIDAI)?
DD
(A) This authority was created as statutory authority under the provisions of Aadhar Act 2016.
(B) Before its establishment UIDAI was under the office of Planning Commission.
U
(C) UIDAI is having 8 regional offices and two data centers.

IR

AN

1. Revenue Deficit – Funded either through borrowings from the public or disinvestments
2. Fiscal Deficit – Actual Liability of the Government at certain point of time
3. Monetised Deficit – Borrowings made by the government from the private market.
025. Match the following List-I with List-II:
List-I List-II
Plans/Committees Major Recommendations
1. Visvesvaraya Plan a. Shifting from agriculture to Industrialization
2. Bombay Plan b. Sponsored by top industries of Bombay
3. Gandhian Plan c. Small-scale and cottage industries
4. Economic Programme Committee (1947) d. Recommended for Planning Commission
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - c
(C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 9
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026. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Payments banks?
(A) Accepts demand deposits up to maximum balance of Rs.10,00,000 per individual customer
(B) Can issue ATM/Debit cards, payment and remittance services
(C) No need to maintain Cash Reserve Ratio with RBI
027.
To reduce the Non-Performing Assets, Government of India followed 4R strategy, the 4Rs
Indicate _______.
(A) Recognition, Resolution, Recapitalisation and Reforms
(B) Refinancing, Reforms, Recapitalisation and Redefining
(C) Recognition, Reporting, Restrictions and Reforms
(D) Recognition, Repurchase, Reforms and Rendering
028. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Treasury Bills?
1. The treasury bills are highly liquid
2. These bills are issued by the Central government and State governments
JI
3. Only RBI and Commercial banks can buy these treasury bills
H
N
SI
029. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Shares?
(A) Equity shares give their holder the power to share the earning and profits in the company
H
(B) Preference shares earn their holders only dividends which are fixed
DD

U

IR
030. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana?
AN
1. It provides comprehensive coverage of risks from pre-sowing to post-harvest losses against
natural non-preventable risks.
2. This insurance does not cover Pest Attacks and Diseases
3. This scheme has increased the insurance coverage from 23% to 50% of the gross cropped area
of our country
031. Which of the following actions will lead to increase of money multiplier in an economy?
(A) Increase in the banking habit of population
(B) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(C) Increase in the population of the country
(D) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
032. Which of the following brings out the Consumer Price Index number for the industrial workers?
(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) The Ministry of Finance
(C) Ministry of Social Justice (D) The Labour Bureau
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 11
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033. In the context of India’s Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower
emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure began in the _______ Plan.
(A) Fourth (B) Sixth
(C) Seventh (D) Eighth
034. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Population pyramid?
(A) In a population pyramid males are represented in the left and females in the right.
(B) On the X axis, population size is shown and age group is represented on the Y axis
(C) India’s population dependency ratio is less than world’s population dependency ratio.
035. Which of the following statements are correct regarding International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
(A) After 2019 China has emerged as largest member in terms of quota and vote share.
(B) India is having 2.76% of quota and 2.64% vote share
JI
(C) IMF can provide loans to non-member countries also
H
N
036. External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs) can be raised by _______.
SI
(A) All entities eligible to receive FDI
H
(B) Port Trusts

DD
(C) EXIM Bank of India

U

IR
037. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Foreign Direct Investments (FDI)?
AN
(A) Cash is also permissible mode of payment

(B) Any investment in an unlisted entity also can be treated as FDI

1. National Waterways 4 and 5 are not yet operational
2. Project Unnati is related to 12 major ports of India
3. Under Sagarmala programme 500 projects have been identified for implementation up to
2035.
4. Setu Bharatam was launched in 2016 to develop the national waterways in various river
tributaries.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 13
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039. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana?
1. Under this scheme the head of the rural landless household is insured.
2. The premium will be paid by the Central and State governments equally
3. The member to be covered should be aged between 18 and 59 years
4. On the natural death the family will get INR 30,000
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
040. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Code on Wages 2019 Act?
1. This Act was brought as per the recommendations of 2nd National Commission on Labour.
2. Only MGNREGS workers will not come under it.
3. Unorganized sector workers like agricultural workers, painters, workers of Dhabhas,
restaurants and chowkidars etc are covered under this scheme.
4. Only employees working on monthly basis are covered under this scheme
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
JI
H
041. Current Account under Balance of Payments includes_______.
1. Exports N
2. Imports
SI
3. External assistance 4. Foreign investment
H
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

DD
042. Under India’s direct foreign investment policy, automatic route means_______.
U
(A) Non-resident investor or an Indian company has to seek approval from the Government of
India.
IR
(B) Non-resident investor or an Indian company does not require approval from the Government
AN
of India.
(C) Non-resident investor or an Indian company is not allowed under the automatic route.
043. The approximate percentage of irrigated area to the total agricultural area in Gujarat is _______.
(A) 37% (B) 47% (C) 57% (D) None of the above
044. The Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan focuses on the _______ number of pillars.
(A) Four (B) Five (C) Six (D) Seven
045. Which of the following statements are correct regarding recent revisions pertaining to Consumer
Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW)?
1. Base year has been revised to 2017
2. Dearness Allowance has been increased owing to base year change
3. Aim is to keep revising series every 5 years
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 15
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046. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ‘Kuposhan Mukt Gujarat Abhiyan’?
(A) Under this program screening of children less than 5 years is done by health workers.
(B) Children belonging to age group of 6 months to 6 years, pregnant and lactating mothers are
covered to eliminate malnutrition level.
047. Under Anna Triveni Scheme 60 kgs of foodgrains are given to _______.
(A) Visually impaired students
M (B) Tribal boy students

(C) Parents of tribal girl students
048. Which of the following statements is wrong about Goods and Services Tax?
(A) It is destination-based
JI
(B) It is origin-based
H
(C) It is an indirect tax
(D) It is consumption tax
N
SI
049. Which of the following is not a component of India’s foreign exchange reserves?
H
DD
(A) Foreign currency assets

(B) Gold reserves
U
(C) Special Drawing Rights

IR

AN
050. All the indirect taxes in India have been subsumed under GST except _______.
(A) Value Added Tax
(B) Luxury Tax
(C) Excise Duty
(D) Customs Duty

List-I List-II
1. Siddi a. Highest populated primitive tribe in Gujarat
2. Kolgha b. Lowest populated primitive tribe in Gujarat
3. Padhar c. Located in Ahmedabad and Surendranagar
4. Patelia d. Smallest populated tribe in Gujarat
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (D) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - a
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 17
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052. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Coastlines in India?
1. Indian coastline touches 9 states and 4 union territories
2. The Eastern coastline includes Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal and extends from Ganga
Delta in the North to Kanyakumari in the South.
3. The Western coastline extends from Rann of Kutch to Kanyakumari in the South.
4. The Western coastline is divided into two parts, Konkan coastline, Andhra coastline
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

1. South Gujarat – Surat, Bharuch, Valsad, Tapi, Dangs
2. Central Gujarat – Kheda, Anand, Panchamahal, Dahod, Surendranagar
3. North Gujarat – Sabarkantha, Bansakantha, Mehsana, Patan
4. Saurashtra – Amreli, Bhavnagar, Jamnagar, Junagadh, Porbandar
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
JI
H
054. Match the following List-I with List-II regarding forests in Gujarat
List-I
N
List-II
SI
1. Tropical Most Deciduous Forests a. occur in the regions having an annual rainfall
H
of over 1200 mm
DD
2. The Mangrove Forests b. distributed over 15 districts of the state

3. Northern Tropical Thorn Forests c. occur in the region with less than 600 mm rainfall.
U
4. Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests d. found in Bharuch, Vadodara, Panchamahal

IR
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (D) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c
AN
055. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Gujarat?

(A)
Most of Gujarat falls under mega thermic category with mean soil temperature
exceeding 28°C.
(B) Air temperature in January normally remains over 10°C. Maximum temperature in May
goes over 40°C in North and North-west Gujarat.
056. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mineral Production in Gujarat?
1. Gujarat is the 2nd largest Brown Gold producer state in the country.
2. Devbhumi Dwaraka is the rich source of Bauxite in Gujarat
3. No Manganese mines are found in Gujarat
4. Fluorspar mines can be found at Chhotaudepur
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
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057. Match the Following List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
1. Khari River a. Madhuban Dam
2. Daman Ganga b. Meets in Arabian Sea
3. Banas c. Meets in Bay of Cambay
4. Shetrunji d. Meets Little Rann of Kutch
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a (D) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a
058. Which of the following statements are correct regarding tribes of North East India?
1. North East Indian tribes reside in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur,
Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Assam and Sikkim
2. North East Indian tribes can be largely associated with the ethnic groups of Indo Mongoloids,
Tibeto-Burmese and proto Austrioloids
3. Garos, Khasis and Kuki tribes are the popular group of North East Indian tribes
4. The Garo people are tagged as the second largest tribal community of Manipur
JI
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
H
059. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Physical features of India?
N
1. The mainland comprises four regions, namely, the great mountain zone, plains of the Ganga
SI
and Indus, the desert and the Southern Peninsula
H
2. The plains of the Ganga and the Indus are formed by basins of three distinct river system –
the Indus, the Ganga and the Cauvery
DD
3. The little desert in India extends from the edge of the Rann of Kutch beyond the Luni River
Northwards
U
4. The Southern Peninsula is flanked on the one side by the Eastern Ghats and on the other by
IR
the Western Ghats

AN
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1 and 4 only
060. Which of the following statements are correct regarding rocks?
1. Igneous rocks are solidified from molten material called magma
2. Metamorphic rocks are those that are deposited and lithified at the Earth’s surface, with the
assistance of running water, wind, ice, or living organisms
3. Marble is metamorphosed limestone, quartzite is metamorphosed sandstone
061. The temperature of the Earth’s interior in the beginning increases at the rate of 1°C with
every _____ of depth
(A) 32 meters (B) 65 meters (C) 132 meters (D) 165 meters
062. Which statements are correct regarding Andaman & Nikobar islands?
1. It enjoys equatorial climate.
2. This is the only place in India where volcano is located.
3. This is the only place in India where coral bed is found.
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063. In the temperate cyclones the wind blows _______.
(A) From the periphery towards the centre.
(B) From the centre towards the periphery.
(C) From both sides

1. Most Tropical Forests - Found in Upper Assam, Lower slopes of the Eastern Himalayas
2. Dry Tropical Forests - Found in Northern Hilly regions and some states of South India
3. Montane Temporate Forest - Found in Western Ghats, Assam, Nagaland and Mizoram
4. Montane Sub tropical Forest - Found in Trans Himalayas
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
065. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding lakes in India?
1. In terms of area Sardar Sarovar lake is the third largest lake in India
JI
H
2. Wular lake is the biggest fresh water lake in India
3. N
Hamirsar lake is the one of the natural lakes in Gujarat
SI
4. Vembanad lake of Kerala is the highest lake in India
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only
H
DD
066. Which of the following statements are correct regarding climate conditions of India?
1. Himalayas act as a barrier for bitterly cold and dry winds coming from Central Asia and the
U
Siberian region
IR
2. Himalayas act as a climatic division between Indian subcontinent and Central Asia
AN
3. Winds blow from low pressure to high pressure areas

4. During summers the low pressure belt shifts Southwards over the North Indian Plains

Name of the Biosphere Reserve Type
(A) Manas – East Himalayas
(B) Sundarbans – Gangetic Delta
(C) Simlipal – Deccan Peninsula
(D) Cold Desert – Western Himalayas
068. Which of the following is in the correct order of West flowing rivers in terms of increasing length?
(A) Narmada - Tapi - Sabarmati - Mahi
(B) Tapi - Narmada - Mahi - Sabarmati
(C) Sabarmati - Narmada - Tapi - Mahi
(D) Sabarmati - Mahi - Tapi - Narmada
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Dam River
(A) Hirakud – Mahanadi
(B) Tehri – Bahghirathi
(C) Salal – Chenab
(D) Nagarjuna Sagar – Nagarjuna
070. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Soil types in India?
(A) Peaty soils are found in the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity
(B) Usara soils contain a larger proportion of sodium, potassium and magnesium
071. Which of the following regions is most vulnerable to earthquakes?

(A) Indo Gangetic Basin
(B) Vindhyan Region
JI
(C) North Eastern Region
H
N
SI
072. Which of the following forests is known as the Lungs of the Planet Earth?
(A) Equatorial Forests
H
(B) Taiga Forests

DD
(C) Deciduous Forests

(D) Tundra Forests
U
IR
073. Which of the following statements are correct regarding forest in India?
AN
1. A wildlife sanctuary can be treated for the conservation of a particular species

2. National park is focused on the conservation of whole ecosystem and not just a few species
3. There is no entry for public into the reserved forests for collection of timber and grazing
the cattle
4. The government allows the people into the protected forests to collect the fuel and graze
the cattle.
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
074. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Crops?
1. Bajra requires 30-50 cm of rainfall and it suits the weather conditions of Gujarat
2. Cotton requires 50-75 cm of rainfall and 21-30° C of temperature and this suits to the weather
of Gujarat.
3. Tobacco needs well-drained sandy loam and this also suits weather conditions of Gujarat
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
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075. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Planets?
(A) Mercury is the second largest planet in the solar system
(B) Venus is the second closest planet to the Earth
(C) Phobos and Deimos are the two satellites of Jupiter
(D) Saturn is famous as ringed planet as it possesses seven rings around it
076. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Earth?

(A) The torrid zone is located between the tropic of Cancer and Antarctic circle
(B) Temperate zone is located between the tropic of Cancer and Equator
(C) The Frigid zone is located between the Arctic circle and the North Pole
077. Which of the following has the highest presence in Basalt rock?
(A) Aluminum (B) Silica
(C) Iron (D) None of the above
JI
078. Which of the following statements are correct regarding classification of lakes?
H
1. Fresh water lake consists of Salinity level upto 5 parts per thousand parts
N
2. Brackish Lake consists of salinity level more than 5 parts per thousand parts but less than
SI
35 parts per thousand.
3. Saline Lakes – Salinity level of 35 parts per thousand or more
H
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only

DD

U
079. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the structure of Atmosphere?
IR
(A) The thickness of the troposphere is maximum over the Equator

AN
(B) Temperature increases as the height increase in the Stratosphere

(C) Temperature increases as the height increase in the Mesosphere
080. Which of the following reflects back more sunlight compared to the other three?
(A) Sand Desert
(B) Paddy Crop
(C) Land covered with fresh snow
(D) None of the above reflects the sunlight back

Region Name of the Cyclones
(A) Indian Ocean Tropical Cyclone
(B) China Tornado
(C) Australia Hurricanes
(D) West Africa Willy-Willy
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082. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The sex ratio of population is determined by the number of females for every 1,000 males
(B) Birth Rate : the number of children born per 10,000 people in a year
(C) Death Rate : the number of people living per 10,000 people in a year
083. Which of the following statements is correct regarding cyclones?

(A) Tropical Cyclones develop over a sea
(B) Temperate cyclones develop over both sea and land
(C) Tropical cyclones develop during summer, temperate cyclones develop during winter

(A) High Clouds – Altostratus, Altocumulus, Nimbostratus
(B) Mid-Clouds – Cirrus, Cirrostratus, Cirrocumulus
JI
H
(C) Low Clouds – Cumulus, Stratus, Cumulonimbus
(D) All of the above N
SI
H
(A) Waves move across the ocean surface

DD
(B) Tides are periodic rise and fall of large bodies of water
U

IR
AN
086. Which of the following drainage patterns are correctly matched?

(A) Dendritic Drainage pattern – Godavari, Krishna
(B) Parallel Drainage pattern – Mahanadi, Cauvery
(C) Radial Drainage pattern – Ganga and its tributaries
List-I List-II
1. Amazon River a. Peru and Brazil
2. Patagonia Desert b. Argentina
3. Senai Peninsula c. Egypt
4. Strait of Hormuz d. Separates UAE and Iran
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - a, 4 - b (D) 1 - d, 2 - a, 3 - b, 4 - c
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088. Which of the following irrigation systems/methods is also called as Trickle irrigation?
(A) Basin irrigation (B) Drip irrigation
(C) Sprinkler irrigation (D) Surface Irrigation
089. What is the percentage proportion of area of India which receives annual rainfall less than
750 mm?
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 50% (D) 70%
090. Which of the following rivers of India crosses the Topic of Cancer twice?
(A) Narmada (B) Mahi (C) Sone (D) Damodar
091. Arrange the following Union Territories on the basis of ascending order of their area?
1. Dadar and Nagar Haveli
2. Puduchery
3. Lakshadweep
4. Daman and Diu
(A) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 (B) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 (C) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 (D) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1
JI
092. Which of the following statements are correct regarding census 2011?
H
1. West Bengal is the least urbanized state in India
N
2. The growth of absolute urban population was more than the absolute rural population in
SI
India between 2001-2011
H
3. Sikkim is the lowest population density state

DD
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only

U
093. Which of the following Coalfields is not related with Gondwana system?
IR
(A) Rajmahal (B) Talcher (C) Raniganj (D) Riasi

AN
094. Which one of the following important peninsular rivers does not originate from Western Ghats?
(A) Mahanadi (B) Krishna (C) Godavari (D) Cauvery
095. Which one of the following rocks gets metamorphosed into marble rock?
(A) Sandstone (B) Dolomite (C) Coal (D) Shale
096. The phenomenon of Blue Moon is _______.
(A) If a second full moon appears in a calendar month
(B) If the second full moon appears in two consecutive months in a calendar year
(C) If full moon appears thrice in a calendar month
097. Which one of the following is the cause of air movement in the troposphere of the atmosphere?
(A) Solar wind
(B) Convectional current
(C) Gravitational force of Earth
(D) Difference in air pressure
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098. Which of the following statements about oceans are correct?
1. Oceanic research generally recognizes the existence of five major oceans: the Pacific, Atlantic,
Indian, Arctic and Southern oceans
2. Indian Ocean covers approximately one-fifth of the total ocean area of the world
3. Pacific ocean occupies about a third of the surface of the globe and it is the largest ocean in
both surface area and volume
4. Indian Ocean is the smallest ocean
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
099. Which of the following statements are correct regarding wheat?

1. Wheat is one of the world’s most commonly consumed cereal grains
2. Wheat is best adapted to temperate regions with rainfall between 30 and 90 cm
3. The wheat kernel contains 12 percent water, 70 percent carbohydrates and 12 percent protein
4. India is the largest wheat producing country in the world
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
JI
100. Apart from India and China, which of the following groups of countries has borders with
Myanmar?
H
(A) Bangladesh, Thailand and Vietnam
(B) Cambodia, Laos and Malaysia
N
SI
(C) Thailand, Vietnam and Malaysia
H
(D) Thailand, Laos and Bangladesh

DD
101. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Food Irradiation?
1. This technology of applying ionizing radiation improves the safety of food items and extends
U
its shelf life.

IR
2. Food irradiation is a cold process unlike heating

AN
3. Cobalt-60 is the key element used in food Irradiation

4. This process cannot destroy the already present toxins and pesticides in foods.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
102. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. 1024 Gigabyte – 1 Terabyte
2. 1024 Petabyte – 1 Exabyte
3. 1024 Exabyte – 1 Zettabyte
4. 1024 Zettabyte – 1Geopbyte
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
103. Generally, Cholesterol levels are related with ______.

(A) Arteries becoming hardened (B) Veins becoming hardened
(C) Kidney stones (D) Liver cirrhosis
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104. Lightning can even burn a tree because it contains tremendous amount of _______.
(A) Solar Energy (B) Thunder Energy
(C) Electric Energy (D) None of the above
105. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding satellites?

(A) Geostationary satellites move from West to East
(B) Geostationary satellites’ period of revolution is 24 hours
106. Concave mirror is used in headlights of vehicles because _______.

(A) Focuses light from the bulb onto nearby vehicles
(B) Sends parallel rays
(C) Fits well into the shape of the headlight
JI
H
1. X-rays – Used to scan bags in airports
N
SI
2. Gamma rays – Used in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer and Tumor
H
3. Radio waves – Used in Night vision cameras

DD
4. Visible Waves – We can see around the world

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 only
U
IR

AN
108. The goals of Chandrayaan-1 mission was/were _______.

(A) To make a 3D atlas of near and far side of the moon.
(B) To identify different geological units by chemical mapping
(C) Help in determining the nature of the lunar crust.
109. As huge mass of snow moving slowly down the valley and slopes of mountains till it melts after
passing the snow line is called _______.
(A) Iceberg (B) Glacier
(C) Avalanche (D) Typhoon
110. In terms of categories of satellites defined on the basis of their applications, Astrosat satellite can
be categorised as _______.
(A) Communications (B) Scientific
(C) Remote sensing (D) Meteorological
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111. What is the significance of India having got a waiver from Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?
(A) India can design its own nuclear reactors
(B) India can engage in international nuclear trade
(C) India can supply fuel to other countries
(D) India can supply electricity from nuclear plants
112. India announced to join Nagoya Protocol in 2014. Nagoya Protocol is related to which of the
following?
(A) Climate Change (B) Biodiversity
(C) Nuclear treaty (D) Elimination of Poverty
113. Which of the following space missions confirmed the presence of water on the Moon for the
first time?
(A) Apollo-11, NASA (B) Chandrayaan-1, ISRO
(C) Surveyor 1, NASA (D) Longjiang-1, CNSA
114. ‘Widal test’ is conducted to identify which of the following disease?
JI
(A) Kala Azar (B) Cholera
H
(C) Typhoid N(D) Anthrax
SI
115. The lunar surface area that remains in shadow is larger at _______ of the Moon.
H
(A) North Pole (B) South Pole

DD
(C) Central Region (D) None of the above
116. Parivesh is a single window integrated system for undertaking clearance process of _______.
U
(A) Environment
IR
(B) Forest
AN
(C) Coastal Regulatory Zone (CRZ)

117. The Soil Health Management component under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture,
aims at promoting nutrient management through _______.
(A) Judicious use of chemical fertilizers
(B) Organic manures
118. The objective of Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)
Scheme is to _______.
(A) De-dieselise the farm sector
(B) Supply of high yielding seeds
(C) Supply of fertilizers
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119. Recently, Indian Government launched ______, a web portal to trace lost mobile phones.
(A) https://ceir.gov.in (Central Equipment Identity Register)
(B) https://cair.gov.in (Central Agency Identity Register)
(C) https://cser.gov.in (Central and State Equipment Register)
(D) https://cpir.gov.in (Central Police Identity Register)
120. Under the Motor Vehicles Act, the noise range of horns has been fixed at _______ decibels.
(A) 20-30 dB (B) 100-120 dB
(C) 80-110 dB (D) 93-112 dB
121. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Muntra?

1. This is India’s first unmanned tank developed by DRDO
2. There are three variants in this model, Surveillance, Mine detection and Reconnaissance
3. This tank is developed by DRDO at its Pune factory
JI
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
H
(C) 1 and 2 only N
(D) 1 and 3 only
SI
122. Which one of the following is not a Mission under National Action Plan on Climate Change?
H
(A) National Mission for Sustaining Himalayan Ecosystem

DD
(B) National Mission for a Green India

U
(C) National Mission for Sustainable Urban Ecosystem

IR
(D) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture

AN
123. The State of the World’s Forests report is published by _______.

(A) United Nations Environment Programme
(B) World Forest Organization
(C) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(D) Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations
124. Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Air Quality Index?
1. This Index was launched in the year 2014 under Swatchh Bharat Abhiyan
2. It is outlined as One Number- One Colour- One Description.
3. The current measurement index is based on 12 pollutants
4. Air Quality Range index ranging between 401-500 is considered as severe impact
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
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125. Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Electric Mobility Mission
Plan 2020?
1. This scheme is aimed at development of hybrid/ electric vehicles
2. The scheme has 4 focus areas i.e technology development, demand creation, pilot projects and
charging infrastructure
3. By the year 2030, electric cars shall make 40% of the new car sales
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
126. Which of the following are not a type of E-waste?

1. Lead, Cadmium
2. Mercury, Chromium
3. Barium
4. Beryllium
JI
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
H
N
127. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cloning?
SI
1. Human Cloning is performed by the Somatic cell
H
2. A somatic cell means, any cell of the body except sperm and egg
DD
3. In reproductive cloning, the newly created embryo will be placed in a test tube
U
4. In case of cloning the child is born of a single parent and carries his/her DNA
IR
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only

AN
128. Which of the following statements are correct regarding DNA Vaccines?
1. These vaccines are made up of a small, circular piece of bacterial DNA
2. In these vaccines a piece of bacterial DNA carrying antigen is directly given to human beings.
3. It releases antigen which activates our immune system.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
129. Which of the following statements are correct regarding orbits?

1. In Intermediate Circular Orbit, the satellites move around Earth from pole to pole
2. It takes approximately 99 minutes to complete an Orbit
3. During one half of the Orbit, the satellite views the daytime and night time side of the Earth.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
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1. PSLV- this has four stages that alternate between solid and liquid fuels
2. GSLV- this has three stages, all the three stages use only solid fuels
3. Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) - ISRO successfully launched it for three times.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 only

1. Barak-8 – It is long range surface to air missile attached to frigates
2. K-4 – It is a Ballistic missile which will be fitted to Arihant
3. Akash – It is a group of four medium range surface to air missile along with a radar
4. Nag – It is thermo sensitive missile, it can be used against submarines
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
JI
H
132. Which of the following statements are correct? N
SI
1. Bacteria can live in almost every conceivable environment, including in or on the human body
H
2. Viruses are parasitic. That means they require living cells or tissue to grow.
DD
3. Viral infections are contagious, whereas bacterial infections are not contagious.
U
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only

IR

AN
133. Which of the following organizations allocates the Ecomark label for products?
(A) Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
(B) Bureau of Indian Standards
(C) Geographical Indication Foundation of India
(D) Organic Farming Society of India
134. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Agenda 21?
1. Agenda 21 is an action plan of the United Nations related to sustainable development
2. This Agenda 21 was emerged from Rio de Janeiro conference of United Nations Conference
on Environment and Development.
3. The number 21 refers to the number of countries participated in the above conference.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
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135. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding RDX?
1. RDX stands for Royal Demolition eXplosive and Research Department eXplosive
2. It is also known as cyclonite or hexogen.
3. The chemical name for RDX is 1, 3, 5-trinitro-1, 3, 5-triazine. It is a white powder and is
very explosive.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
136. Which of the following are correct about International Space Station?
1. ISS is a synthesis of several space station projects that includes the American Freedom,
Russian Mir-2, European Columbus and Japanese Kibo.
2. Station is maintained at an orbit between 278km and 460km.
3. ISS serves as a research laboratory with microgravity environment.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
JI
137. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ISRO and its Satellites?
H
1. ISRO built India’s first satellite, Aryabhata.
2.
N
APPLE became the first satellite to be placed in orbit by an Indian-made launch vehicle
SI
3. ISRO is the first Asian space agency to reach Mars orbit.
H

DD
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

U
138. India is set to buy the ‘Sikorsky Romeo’ helicopters from _______ country.
IR
(A) Israel (B) Russia

(C) United States (D) France
AN
139. _______ is an Earth observation satellite launched by ISRO in November 2020 to support
applications in agriculture and forestry and disaster management.
(A) EOS-01 Satellite (B) DMS-01 Satellite
(C) AFDM-01 Satellite (D) None of the above

1. Kudankulam - Water Energetic Reactor
2. Kaiga - Pressurized Heavy Water Reactor
3. Tarapur - Boiling water reactor and Pressurized heavy water reactor
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
141. India is declared free from trachoma which takes place due to infection of _______ in the eye.
(A) Virus (B) Fungi
(C) Bacteria (D) None of the above
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142. The Ramsar Convention Secretariat undertakes a programme, CEPA, which stands for _______.
(A) Communication, Environment, Participation and Awareness
(B) Communication, Education, Participation and Awareness
(C) Communication, Education, Pollution and Awareness
(D) Communication, Environment, Protection and Awareness
143. The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol covered emissions of the _______
main greenhouse gases.
(A) Two (B) One
(C) Six (D) Four
144. One of the objectives of the National Mission for Clean Ganga is to maintain minimum ecological
flows in the river Ganga with the aim to _______.
(A) Ensure water quality
(B) Environmentally sustainable development
JI
H
N
SI
145. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Internet of Things (IoT)?
1. Inter connectivity 2. Undynamic Changes
H
3. Enormous Scale 4. Homogeneity

DD

U
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

IR
146. Which of the following materials is/are not used as Atomic fuel?
AN
1. Uranium 2. Lead
3. Thorium 4. Chromium
(A) 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
147. Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of livestock, has been linked to the cause of the
collapse of vultures population throughout South Asia?
(A) Meloxicam (B) Ibuprofen
(C) Diclofenac (D) Carprofen
148. On which of the following planets Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the main atmospheric component?
1. Mars 2. Venus
3. Jupiter 4. Saturn
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149. Which of the following Viruses causes the Corona disease?
(A) SARS-CoV-1 (B) SARS-CoV-19
(C) SARS-CoV-2 (D) SARS-CoV-C2
150. Alcohol-based hand sanitizers can contain _______.

1. Ethanol 2. Isopropanol
3. n-propanol 4. methanol
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
151. India’s first thunderstorm research testbed will be established in _______ State.
(A) Kutch, Gujarat (B) Vidharbha, Maharashtra
(C) Balasore, Odisha (D) Nizamabad, Telangana
152. The 51st edition of World Economic Forum annual meeting was held at Davos with The Davos
Agenda 2021, the theme of the agenda was _______.
JI
(A) A crucial year to rebuild trust
H
(B) An important year to rebuild growth N
SI
(C) A year for building cooperation among nations
H
DD
153. Shaheed Diwas is observed on 30th January of every year, on the death anniversary of _______.
(A) Bhagat Singh (B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
U
(C) Khudiram Bose (D) None of the above

IR
154. Which of the following statements are correct regarding recently testfired Akash-NG missile?
AN
1. This is a Surface to Air missile

2. The missile is having the strike range of 300KMs
3. The missile is developed for the Indian Navy
4. The missile is developed with approximately 96% of indigenous content
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4 only
155. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the tableau of Gujarat during Republic
Day parade 2021?
1. Sun Temple – Modhera was the theme of the tableau
2. Gujarat tableau bagged the second prize in the parade
3. Garba was performed by the artists along with the tableau
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 49
M
156. According to the report of United Nations University on ‘Ageing Dams in the world’ _______
number of large dams in India would complete 50-year-mark _______ year.
(A) 1115, 2025 (B) 105, 2030
(C) 14, 2025 (D) None of the above
157. International day of Education by United Nations is observed on _______ of every year. (CANCELLED)
(A) 24th January (B) 23rd January
(C) 22nd January (D) None of the above
158. Which of the following statements are correct regarding India’s largest multi-modal logistic park?
1. Gujarat government signed an agreement with Reliance Logistics India Limited.
2. This largest logistics park will be established at Virochan Nagar, Sanand
3. An amount of Rs. 50,000 crores will be invested by 2023
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
JI
159. Pertaining to the Treaty and Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) adopted by the United
Nations, which of the following statements are correct?
H
1.
This N
was adopted by United Nations General Assembly and came into force from
22 January 2021.
nd
SI
2.
The signatories of the agreement are prohibited from Development, Testing, Production,
H
stocking, transferring, using of nuclear weapons

DD
3. USA, Russia, Britain, China and France have signed the agreement
4. India, Pakistan, Israel and North Korea have not signed the agreement
U
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

IR

AN
160. Which of the following statements are correct regarding S-400 missile system which India is going
to purchase from Russia?
1. India signed an agreement to purchase 5 number of S-400 missile systems
2. This S-400 system is an upgraded version of S-300 family of Surface to Air Missile systems
3. Missile systems delivery is expected to be completed by 2022
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
161. Which of the following statements are correct regarding recently testfired indigenously developed
Smart Anti Airfield Weapon (SAAW)?
1. It was testfired from the Hawk-i aircraft
2. SAAW is precision strike weapon of 1000 kg category and has a range of 1000 kms
3. SAAW can be used to attack enemy assets like radars, bunkers and runways etc
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 51
M
162. Which of the following statements are correct regarding NITI Aayog’s 2nd edition of Indian
Innovation Index 2020?
1. Karnataka topped the index in major states category
2. Delhi topped the index in Union Territories category
3. Gujarat is placed at second rank in major states category
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
163. Square Kilometer Array is in news recently, this is a _______.

(A) Telescope which consists of vast number of radio receivers
(B) Number of Covid Patients in a square kilometer
(C) Measurement of snow avalanches in the glacier
JI
164. Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Deworming Day?
H
1. This is a Biannual event celebrated across India to create awareness about worm infections.
N
SI
2. This is also known as Soil Transmitted Helminths
3. The World Health Organization has approved the use of Albendazole Tablet for the treatment.
H
DD
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only

U
165. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Government of India’s new programme
IR
“Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)”?

AN
1. This scheme will develop 10,000 new Farmer Producer Organizations

2. This scheme will integrate Small, Marginal and Landless farmers
3. This scheme will help in doubling the farming exports by 2020
4. The Farmer Producer Organizations will promote Cluster Farming
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 only
166. Which of the following organization bagged the orders to supply Super Rapid Gun Mounts for
Indian Navy Frontline Ships?
(A) Hindustan Shipyards Limited
(B) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
(C) Larsen and Toubro (L&T)
(D) Mazagaon Dock Builders Limited
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 53
M
167. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Vigyan Jyoti Programme?
1.
This programme was launched by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) in
December 2019
2. This programme is currently running successfully in 50 Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNV).
3. This scheme/programme will target all the students of the country through Jawahar Navodaya
Vidyalayas
4. The main aim of this progrmamme is to ensure STEM education.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(A) Central Government approved the increase in the upper ceiling for family pension from
Rs. 45,000 to Rs 1,25,000 per month.
(B) If both wife and husband are Government servants and are governed by the civil service
rules, then, on their death the surviving child will be eligible for two family pensions.
JI
H
N
169. The Mandarin duck which is a colourful duck from Eastern Asia was recently spotted in _______
of the following Indian States.
SI
(A) Assam (B) Andhra Pradesh
H
(C) Gujarat (D) Karnataka

DD
170. Goa has become the sixth state to complete the Urban Local Bodies Reforms which were set
up by Department of Expenditure, Government of India. Which are the other five states?
U
(A) Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Gujarat and Maharashtra

IR
(B) Kerala, West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar and Jharkhand

AN
(C) Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Tripura
171. Which of the following countries launched the Probe called Hope into Mars orbit and became the
fifth country to launch the Probe into Mars Orbit?
(A) Canada (B) France
(C) Japan (D) UAE
172. Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Radio Day?
1. The World Radio Day is celebrated on 13th February
2. New World New Radio was the theme of the World Radio Day
3.
UNESCO marks world Radio Day 2021 with 3 sub themes Evolution, Innovation and
Connection.
4. The celebration of World Radio Day was started from 1948 onwards
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 55
M
173.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Annual Report of the Banking
Ombudsman Schemes for the year 2019-2020?
(A)
RBI has three Ombudsmen i.e Banking Ombudsman, Non Banking Finance Company
Ombudsman and Ombudsman for Digital Transactions
(B) A new Ombudsman for Cooperative Societies was established recently
174. India and _______ signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the construction of Shahtoot
(Lalander) Dam.
(A) Bangladesh (B) Sri Lanka
(C) Afghanistan (D) None of the above
175. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has restricted the permissible amount of
industrial Trans Fatty Acid (TFA) in food products to _______ percent.
JI
(A) 2 (B) 3
H
(C) 4 N(D) 5
SI
176. Okonjo–Iweala has been in news recently, she became the chief of the _______.
H
(A) International Monetary Fund

DD
(B) World Trade Organization

(C) Euro Bank
U
IR

AN
177. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Futuristic High Altitude Pseudo
Satellite?
1. It is a first of its kind project, where a manned aircraft will operate within the boundary and
the unmanned aircraft will enter the enemy zone
2. It can straightway hit the target at a distance of 700 kilometres or can go upto 350 kilometres and
come back
3. This technology has been named Combined Air Teaming System (CATS).
4. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited is a partner in developing this technology
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
178. India ranked at _______ position in European Union’s Democracy Index 2020.
(A) 63rd (B) 60th
(C) 55th (D) 53rd
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 57
M
179. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Myanmar military Coup?
1. Yangoo is the currency of Myanmar
2. Naypyitaw is the capital city of Myanmar
3. Win Myint was the President of Myanmar before the military coup
4. National League for Democracy won the recent general elections in Myanmar
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
180. Indian Navy inducted MQ-9B Sea Guardian equipment on lease from _______ country, these are
_______.
(A) UK, Rocket Launching systems
(B) USA, Drones
(C) France, Radar Systems
(D) Israel, Frigates
JI
181. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited delivered C32-LH2 to ISRO recently, this is _______.
H
(A) Biggest Ever Cryogenic Propellant Tank
(B) Biggest Ever Launch pad for GSLVs N
SI
(C) Nano Radar System which tracks the orbit of Satellites
H

DD
182. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Igla Missile?
(A) It is a Russian Origin Short Range Missile
U
(B) The Igla Missile is a Russian Man Portable infrared homing Surface to Air Missile
IR

AN
183. The Rimona National Park, the reserved forest, is proposed to be set up as the 6th National Park
in the state of _______.
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Assam
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Sikkim
184. _______ is the first private Indian company which successfully testfired a solid propulsion rocket
engine named _______.
(A) Skyroot Aerospace, Kalam-5 (B) Skyspace Aero systems, Vijay-1
(C) SSRY, Vikaram-5 (D) None of the above
185. Tesla Inc, United States based electric car maker has incorporated a fully-owned subsidiary in
_______state of India recently.
(A) Gujarat (B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala (D) None of the above
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 59
M
186. According to the recent report of the Central Pollution Control Board, India collected _______
percent of E-waste generated in 2018-19.
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 52
187. Prime Minister Narendra Modi became the chairman of the Somnath Temple Trust, he is the
second Prime Minister who has been appointed as chairman after _______.
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Indira Gandhi
(C) PV Narasimha Rao (D) Morarji Desai
188. According to United Nations Report, number of people facing food insecurity is set to double to
_______ million in Asia due to pandemic.
(A) 225 (B) 265 (C) 305 (D) 325
189. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mission Indradhanush 3.0 of Government
of India?
1. This programme will be launched in two rounds starting from 21st February 2021, and
22nd March 2021.
2. This programme will be conducted all over India
JI
3. The mission Indradhanush 3.0 initiative was to provide immunization to the pregnant women
H
and children free of cost in India
N
4. As per the guidelines of this schemes the districts have been classified to 250 as Low risk
SI
districts
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
H

DD
190. Which of the following pairs is/are correct regarding awards?

U
(A) Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar awards are instituted by the Ministry of Women and
Child Welfare
IR
(B) Ministry of Culture declares the Civilian awards (Padma Awards)

AN

191. Indian Cricketer Rishab Pant won the ICC’s first Player of the Month award recently, _______
country’s player won this award in women category.
(A) West Indies (B) Australia (C) South Africa (D) New Zealand
192. Around _______ people lost lives in Delhi last year due to PM 2.5 air pollution according to a
recent report of Greenpeace Southeast Asia?
(A) 24,000 (B) 34,000 (C) 44,000 (D) 54,000
193. Which of the following medicines received the certification from Ayush ministry for Corona?
(A) Coronacure (B) Coronaveer
(C) Coronazene (D) None of the above
194.
Israel has announced development of a new Ballistic Missile shield named Arrow-4 in
collaboration with _______.
(A) USA (B) India (C) France (D) Russia
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 61
M
195. The United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the Arbor Day Foundation
have recently recognized _______as 2020 Tree City of World.
(A) Ahmedabad (B) Hyderabad
(C) Kolkata (D) Bengaluru
196. The scientists have recently recovered the oldest DNA on record from the teeth of _______.
(A) African Lions (B) Siberian Mammoths
(C) Indian Tigers (D) Australian Kangaroos
197. Recently the Union Cabinet approved the amendments to the Juvenile Justice, Care and Protection
and Children Act 2015. In this regard which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. After this amendment, the Child Protection Unit of districts will function under the District
Magistrate (DMs).
2. DMs can independently evaluate Child Welfare Committee and the Specialised
Juvenile Police Unit.
3. He can check the capacity and background of the Child Care Institute, following which they
will be recommended for registration.
JI
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
H
198. N
_________ has launched an app called Sandes. This instant messaging platform is similar
SI
to WhatsApp.
(A) Indian Institute of Technology, Madras
H
(B) Indian Institute of Technology, Gandhinagar

DD
(C) Indian Institute of Technology, Kharagpur

U

IR
199. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding third edition of Indian Sign Languages
dictionary?
AN
1. The Ministry of Higher Education will release this third edition

2. The new edition will comprise 10,000 terms of daily use.
3. It will also include the academic, legal, medical, technical, administrative and agricultural
terms in it.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 only (D) 1 and 3 only
200. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding amendments to the public sector
banks?
(A)
Amendments will be made in the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of
Undertakings) Act, 1970.
(B)
Amendments will be made in the Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of
Undertakings) Act, 1980
_______________________
[CSP-2] [P.T.O. 63
10/201920
Exam Date: 13-10-2019
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
Join on Telegram
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M
001. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Indus Valley civilization?
1. The civilization was first identified in 1921 at Harappa and then in 1922 at Mohenjo-Daro.
2. The outstanding magnitude of both the cities suggests political centralization, either in two large
states or in a single empire with alternative capitals.
3. The southern region of the civilization, on the Kathiawar Peninsula and beyond, appears to be of
later origin than the major Indus sites.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
002. Name the English scholar who translated Bhagavad Gita (in) to English.
(A) William James (B) Charles Wilkins
(C) Lord Macaulay (D) William Bentinck
003. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Gandhara School of Art?
1. Gandhara School of Art was one of the major schools of art in the history of ancient India and it is
uniquely associated with the Greco-Roman style of art
JI
2. Gandhara style of art was closely associated with Mahayana Buddhism and hence the main
H
theme of this art was Lord Buddha and Bodhisattvas
N
3. It mostly flourished in the areas of Afghanistan and present North-Western India and the prominent
SI
locations were Taxila (Takshashila), Peshawar, Begram (Bagram) and Bamiyan
H

DD
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
004. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Vijaynagar Empire?
U
1. Vijayanagar empire was established in 1336 and it lasted for more than two centuries as the
IR
dominant power in south India.

AN
2. The kingdom of Vijayanagar was founded by Harihara and Bukka.

3. Bukka created administrative units called stholas, nadus, and simas and appointed officials to
collect revenue and to carry on local administration.
4. The foundation of the Bahmani Sultanate in 1347 created a new and greater danger, and Harihara
was forced to lessen his own expansionist activities to meet the threat posed by Bahmani kings.
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
005. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Ghadar movement?
1. The Ghadar Movement began, in 1913 in California, as a coalition of expatriate Punjabis dedicated
to raising money and support for the overthrow of British rule in India.
2. It was organized and headed by a Punjabi Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal.
3. The Ghadar movement organized to print pamphlets and even to send arms and volunteers for a
revolution in India.
4. In the 1920s, however, the Ghadar Party was reorganized and it continued as a focal point for
Punjabi and Sikh identity until the time of Indian Independence in 1947.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CSP – 1 – M] 3 [P.T.O.
M
006. Which of the following pairs are correct?
1. Parsvanatha - Son of king Asvasena of Banaras.
2. Mallinath - Daughter of the ruler of Mithila.
3. Rishabhanath – symbol Bull.
4. Neminath - cousin of Shri Krishna.
(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 only

1. When Alexander invaded India Ambhi was the ruler of Takshashila.
2. Kingdom of Purus was between the rivers Jhelum and Chenab.
3. Alexander founded a city named Boukephala (Bucephala) on Jhelum.
4. Alexander had sent 2 lakh oxen from India to Macedonia.
JI
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
H
1.
N
Rashtrakut ruler Krishna-I had constructed the famous Kailash Temple of Ellora.
SI
2. During Rashtrakuta Rule Loksen had written ‘Mahapurana’.
H
3. 400 dancers were in Rajrajeshwar temple of Tanjore.

DD
4. Kamban’s ‘Ramavataram’ is considered the great epic of Tamil.

U
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

IR
AN
009. Which of the following statements about Kanishka is/are correct?

1. His capital was Purushpura.
2. He was defeated by Ban-Chao, the famous Chinese general.
3. He had convened the third Buddhist council.
4. In his reign Mathura became a great centre of art.
010. Which of the following statements about Kumarpal Solanki are correct?
1. He was the follower of Vaishnavism.
2. His mahaamatya was Vagbhatt.
3. He had prohibited gambling, violence and use of liquor.
4. He had appointed Bhav Brihaspati as the Mahant of Somnath.
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CSP – 1 – M] 5 [P.T.O.
M
011. Which of the following pairs about Solanki administration of Gujarat are correct?
1. Record Department - Akshapatal 2. Port Department - Velakul
3. Palace Department - Dutak 4. Finance Department – Shri Karan
012. Dadhikara is the name of a _______ mentioned in Rigveda.

(A) Land measurement (B) Divine horse
(C) Vedic rishi (D) Vedic Tribe
013. Mirabai was born a Princess of the _______.

(A) Sisodia dynasty (B) Chauhan dynasty
(C) Rathor dynasty (D) Kachhawaha dynasty
014. The term ‘Blue Mutiny’ is used for _______.

(A) Sanyasi Revolt (B) Santhal Revolt
JI
H
(C) Kol Revolt (D) Indigo Revolt
015. N
The first biography of M. K. Gandhi was written by _______.
SI
(A) Arnold Toynbee (B) Joseph Doke
H
(C) Romain Rolland (D) Louis Fischer

DD
016. Which of the following statements about Nana Sahib are correct?
1. Nana Sahib was the adopted son of Baji Rao II, the last Peshwa.
U
2. The original name of Nana Sahib was Dhondu Pandit.

IR
3. The Baji Rao II committed suicide.

AN
4. Dalhousie refused to recognise Nana Sahib as the Peshwa and suspended his Pension.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 3 and 4
017. Which of the following statements about Indulal Yagnik are correct?
1. He published an English language magazine, Young India, from Bombay.
2. He participated in the Kheda Satyagraha led by Gandhi.
3. He took active initiative in the formation of the All India Kisan Sabha and participated in its first
session.
4. He founded the Nutan Maha Gujarat Janata Parishad.
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
018. The smaller temple of Digambara Jains at Indargarh is dedicated to which Jain Tirthankar?
(A) First Tirthankar (B) Second Tirthankar
(C) Third Tirthankar (D) None of the above
CSP – 1 – M] 7 [P.T.O.
M
019. Government of Independent India formed by Subash Chandra Bose in 1943 A.D. was recognised by
which of the following countries?
1. Japan 2. Ireland 3. Korea 4. Italy
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
020. Which of the following source(s) throw light on Mauryan India?

1. Dipavamsa 2. Mahavamsa
3. Arthasastra 4. Mudrarakshasa
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
021. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Simon Commission?
1. The Commission included seven Indians.
2. Mohammad Ali Jinnah joined hands with the Congress over the protest against the Simon
JI
Commission.
H
3. Lala Lajpat Rai died during the protest against the Simon Commission.
(A) 1 only N
(B) 2 and 3 only
SI
H
022. Which of the following are the contributions of Amir Khusrao to cultural development of India?
DD
1. He introduced many new ragas such as ghora and sanam.

2. He evolved a new style of music known as qawwali.
U
3. He invented sarangi and rabab.

IR
4. He created a new style of Persian poetry called Sabaq-i-hind

AN

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
023. _______ mandal was the Nationalist People’s organization in the Indian Princely States ?
(A) Mufti (B) Kisan
(C) Praja (D) Diwan
024. Which of the following statements are correct regarding excavated sites in Gujarat?
Site On the River/Or Esle
1. Lothal Saraswati
2. Rojadi Bhadar
3. Dholavira In the Desert of Kutch
4. Malvan Tapi
CSP – 1 – M] 9 [P.T.O.
M
025. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Harshavardhana?
1. He had defeated Dhruvsena II the Mitra Ruler of Vallabhi.
2. Bhaskervarman of Mysore was his ally.
3. Every five years he convened Mahamoksha Parishad at Parayag.
4. He himself had written Kadambari.

1. Kalhana’s Rajatarangini is written in Sanskrit.
2. Iban Batuta was kazi of Delhi.
3. Amir Khusro was the inventor of Sitar.
4. Hamidabanu Begum had written Humayunama.
JI
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 only
H
1.
N
Bhakti Movement’s chief feature was loving relationship between the devotees and
SI
the God.
H
2. Gyaneshwari is the basic text of Varkarepanth.

DD
3. Chaitanya of Bengal was the most renowned exponent of Krishna Bhakti.

4. Mirabai worshipped Krishna Girdhar-gopal.
U
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 3 and 4 only

IR

AN
028. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the nature of the event of 1857?
1. Ashok Mehata had called it a planned war.
2. V D Savarkar calls it a war of Independence.
3. P Roberts calls it a Sepoy Mutiny.
4. Dr S N Sen says that it began as a fight for religion and ended as the people’s war.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. Bhavnagar was the first in Gujarat to construct a tank for drinking water.
2. Ranjitsinhji of Jamnagar was a great cricketer.
3. Lakhajiraj had reserved five seats for women in Praja Prathinidhi Sabha of Rajkot.
4. Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad had established a museum at Baroda in 1894.
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 3 and 4 only
CSP – 1 – M] 11 [P.T.O.
M
030. Which of the following statements are correct regarding major dynasties of medieval Gujarat?
1. In the Medieval age, the Chavada, the Solanki and the Vaghela dynasties ruled over Gujarat.
2. Mulraj, Bhimdev, Siddhraj Jaysinh, Kumarpal were among the great rulers of Solanki dynasty.
3. The famous scholar Shri Hemchandracharya was patronized during the rule of Siddhraj Jaysinh.
4. The last emperor of the Vaghela dynasty, Karandev Vaghela, was defeated by Sikandar Lodhi and
it brought to the end of Rajput rule over Anhilwad Patan.
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
031. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Maurya dynasty?
1. Chandra Gupta Maurya, the founder of Mauryan dynasty, was the first emperor to unify most of
India under one administration.
2. Kautilya was instrumental in helping Chandragupta Maurya overthrow the powerful Nanda
dynasty at Pataliputra, in the Magadha region.
3. Bindusara, son of Chandragupta Maurya, extended the empire into central and parts of southern
JI
India.
H
4. The last Mauryan King was killed by his general-in-chief, Pushyamitra, who founded the Shunga
dynasty.
N
SI
H
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

DD
032. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Bhakti movements in India?
U
1. The Bhakti Movement originated in the seventh century in South India (now parts of Tamil Nadu
IR
and Kerala), and spread northwards.

AN
2. It swept over east and north India from the 15th century onwards, reached its peak between
15th and 17th century CE.
3. Surdas, the disciple of Vallabhacharya, popularized Krishna cult in the Northern part of India.
4. Kabir Das was the most famous disciple of Surdas.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
033. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
1. Brahmo Samaj as a reformist movement within Hinduism was founded in Kolkata in 1828 by
Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
2. Brahmo Samaj was founded to reform the Hindu society by eradicating prevailing socio-religious
evils and removal of practices like the ‘Sati’ and caste system.
3. Debendranath Tagore and Keshab Chandra Sen formed two versions of Brahmo Samaj later.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
CSP – 1 – M] 13 [P.T.O.
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034. The highest administrative officer during Ashoka regime was _______.
(A) Pulisas (B) Amatyas
(C) Samharta (D) Rajukas
035. _______ was the Chairman of the Central Election Board in the Central Legislative elections held in
November 1945?
(A) Maulana Azad (B) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(C) Sarat Chandra Bose (D) Baldev Singh
036. Janandev and Namdev are well known leaders of the _______ movement.
(A) Gaudiya (B) Vallabhachari
(C) Lingayat (D) Varkari
037. In Buddhist terminology, the word “Paramachakra Pravartana” indicates_______.
(A) The first Sermon by Buddha (B) The Attainment of Niravana by Buddha
JI
H
(C) The personal religion of Ashoka (D) None of the above
038. Match the following:

N
SI
1. Bilahana a. Vikramarka charitam
H
2. Bharavi b. Kiratarjuniyam
DD
3. Dandin c. Dasakumara Charita

U
4. Mahendravarman-I d. Matta Vialasa Prahasana

IR
(A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d (B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b
AN
(C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (D) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a
039.
Which of the following was the bone of contention between the Bahamanis and the rulers of
Vijayanagara?
(A) Telangana (B) Goa
(C) Raichur Doab (D) Krishan-Godavari Delta
040. Who among the following Bhakti Saints said “I am neither in temple nor in Mosque, I am neither in
Kaaba nor in Kailash, Neither am I in rites and ceremonies, nor in yoga and renunciation”?
(A) Kabir (B) Gurunanak
(C) Namdev (D) Tulsidas
041. Behramji M Malabari carried on social reform campaign against which one of the following evils?
(A) Kulinism (B) Polygamy
(C) Female Infanticide (D) Infant and Child marriage
CSP – 1 – M] 15 [P.T.O.
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042. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Government of India Act of 1858?
1. It transferred the administration from the East India Company to the British Crown.
2. It ended the policy of annexation by the British govt.
3. The Governor General became the viceroy of India.
4. It abolished the Mahalwari System
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. V D Savarkar a. Chittagong Armoury Raid
2. Surya Sen b. Mitra Mela
3. Shayamji Krishna Verma c. Curzon Wyllie
4. Madanlal Dhingra d. The Indian Sociologist
(A) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c (B) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
JI
(C) 1 - c, 2 - d, 3 - b, 4 - a (D) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b
H
N
044. Gandhi took part in second Round Table conference as _______.
SI
(A) Indian government nominee (B) British government nominee
H
(C) Congress representation (D) Individual capacity

DD
045. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding “Mahabhinishkramana”?

1. The renunciation of worldly life by Mahavira
U
2. Rejection of the authority of the Vedas

IR
3. The renunciation of the worldly life by Buddha

AN
4. Eightfold path of Buddha

046. Harsha is said to have held two great religious assemblies. Which of the following places were the
venues for these assemblies?
1. Kannuj 2. Thaneshwar
3. Valabhi 4. Prayag
047. My caste is low, my deeds are low, and lowly is my profession, from this low position God has raised
me high” – Who said this?
(A) Surdas (B) Chaitanya
(C) Namdev (D) Ravidas
CSP – 1 – M] 17 [P.T.O.
M
048. Which of the following statements about the religious ideas of Raja Ram Mohan Roy are correct?
1. He believed in monotheism, the concept of one God
2. He considered the Vedas to be eternal and infallible
3. He laid emphasis on human reason and rationality in all religious matters
4. He opposed idol worship
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
049. Kalkacharya Katha is a _______ text.

(A) Jain (B) Buddhist
(C) Hindu (D) None of the above
050. The architectural splendor Bhima Ratha was built by _______.

(A) Mughals (B) Pallavas
(C) Cholas (D) Solankis
JI
051. Hathigumpha inscription stands as the source for which ruler ?
H
(A) Samudragupta (B) Skandagupta
N
SI
(C) Kharavela (D) Rudradaman-III
H
052. Which of the following places are known for mural paintings ?
DD
1. Ajanta Caves 2. Ellora Caves 3. Lepakshi Temples

(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
U
053. _______ is famous for Manoti Art, which involves decorating articles with camel skin.
IR
(A) Udaipur (B) Jaipur

AN
(C) Bikaner (D) Jodhpur
054. _______ is a type of embroidery which uses white thread to make flowers and other beautiful patterns
and is famous in Lucknow.
(A) Phulkari (B) Kashida
(C) Kalamkari (D) Chikankari
055. Which among the following is not among the nine rasas?
(A) Hashya (B) Rudra (C) Veer (D) Ananda
056. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the famous Sattriya dance ?
1. Sattriya is a classical dance.
2. It is a combination of music, dance and drama.
3. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
CSP – 1 – M] 19 [P.T.O.
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057. Which of the following statement(s) distinguish(es) between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances ?
1. Dancers occasionally speak dialogues in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatanatyam.
2. Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but
Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
058. Jugalbandhi, a competitive play between the dancer and tabla player, is related to which classical
dance form ?
(A) Mohiniattam (B) Kuchipudi
(C) Odissi (D) Kathak
059. Yampuri is _______.

(A) A type of martial art (B) A puppetry form
(C) Folk dance (D) Folk music
JI
H
060. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Charak Samhita – Medicine N
SI
(B) Madhavanidana – Pathology
H
(C) Lagdhacharya – Astrology

DD
(D) Panchasiddhantika – Public Administration

U
061. What is the percentage of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) allowed in Indian Cinema ?
IR
(A) FDI is not allowed (B) 51%

AN
(C) 90% (D) 100%
062. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding to Central Board of Film Certification ?
1. U/A certification relates to parental guidance for children under the age of 14 years.
2. S category certification films are restricted to specialized audiences.
063. Who of the following was an alchemist (chemist) by profession in ancient era ?
(A) Apastamba (B) Varahamihira
(C) Brahmagupta (D) Nagarjuna
064. Which of the following Sikh Guru/Gurus lost his/their life/lives to the Mughals ?
(A) Guru Arjun Dev (B) Guru Tegh Bahadur
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
CSP – 1 – M] 21 [P.T.O.
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065. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Ramananda was the first Bhakti saint to use Hindi for the propagation of his message.
2. Mirabai was a saguna saint.
3. Bhakti movement was contemporary to Sufi movement
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
066. Which of the following Stupas is not of Mauyra era ?

(A) Sarnath (B) Bairat (C) Nandangadh (D) Amaravati
067. Which of the following is included in Vinaya Pitaka ?

(A) It has speeches about the great truth and stories of female monks.
(B) It has discussions of relationships of men-women.
(C) It has description on the duties of monks and rules of the use of clothes, medicines, vehicles, etc.
(D)
There is a dicussion on modesty, burin and observations as well as policy-regulations
JI
in it.
H
068. Digambaras refer Paryushan Parva as _______ .
(A) Das Lakshna N
(B) Panch Lakshana
SI
(C) Pratikraman (D) Apadhyana
H
069. Which of the following ‘Kunds’ at the bottom of Girnar is famous for its connection with Lord
DD
Duttatreya ?
(A) Kamandal Kund (B) Kali Kund (C) Mrugi Kund (D) Trinetra Kund
U
070. Which landmark play based on the famous vesh of Bhavai was directed by Jaishankar Sundari ?
IR
(A) Jasma Odan (B) Paiso Bole Chhe

AN
(C) Mena Gurjari (D) Santu Rangili
071. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tribal kakada dance of Gujarat ?
(A) This dance is performed by the tribals of Dang and Khakhariya Thakores.
(B) This dance is performed at temple for the rituals of horamana when child has smallpox.
(C) This dance is done for the worship of Holikamata.
(D) Tribals perform this dance with musical instruments and yelling.
072. Match the column.

a. Kakasaheb Kalelkar 1. Ansar
b. Bhagwatikumar Sharma 2. Fatfatiyu
c. Varsha Adalja 3. Jivan-Vyavastha
d. Suman Shah 4. Assuryalok
(A) a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2 (B) a - 3, b - 4, c - 2, d - 1
(C) a - 4, b - 3, c - 1, d - 2 (D) a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1
CSP – 1 – M] 23 [P.T.O.
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073. _______ is a known Gujarati writer for travelogues.
(A) Hansa Mehta (B) Nandkuwarba
(C) Priti Sengupta (D) Ashwini Bapat
074. The vesh of Zanda-Zulan gives the message of _______.

(A) Communal harmony (B) Ethical values of a soldier
(C) Women education (D) Abolition of Sati tradition
075. What was the pen name of Parmanand Bhatt, the famous playwright of old Gujarati theatre ?
(A) Ramani (B) Trapajkar
(C) Paagal (D) Raskavi
076. At the time of which festival is the ‘Dang Darbar’ organized ?

(A) Holi (B) Gokul Atham
(C) Diwali (D) Rakshabandhan
JI
077. An extensive belt of tribals passes through many parts of India. The classification of the dances of
H
these tribal groups can be done on the basis of anthropology, race and species. Which of the following
statement(s) is / are correct in this reference ?
N
SI
1. It is an expression which is individually and collectively connected with the daily routines and
experiences of the tribals.
H
2. Geographical attire is considered as its mandatory ingredient.

DD
3. Their dance and music become the illustrations of classical style.

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2
U
IR
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

AN
078. The discovery of Indus Civilization leads the history of art activity of India to the long past. Which of
the following statements are correct in this reference ?
1. The baked clay figures found in Lothal have become the models of sculpture.
2. The models of figures showing similarity with the torso of stone are found from Harappa.
3. The figures scalped from the baked clay is like ‘mummy’ of Egypt.
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
079. The place ‘Dhraniya’ is special in embroidery of house decoration in Gujarat. Which of the following
statements are correct in this reference ?
1. The person learning the embroidery started with the making of ‘Dhraniya’ first.
2. In the days of wedding ‘Dhraniya’ almost became wall painting of folk embroidery.
3. Only Geometric shapes were selected in ‘Dhraniya’.
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
CSP – 1 – M] 25 [P.T.O.
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080. Parsi theatre was in a way an experimental theatre. Which of the following statements are correct in
this reference ?
1. The Urdu song-drama was initiated by Parsi theatre.
2. In addition to the adaptations of the English plays, the Parsi playwrights also gave plays based on
the history of Iran and India’s mythical-historical role.
3. The performance of Gujarati one-act plays changed due to the impact of Parsi theatre.
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
081. The Bengali film ‘Moner Manush’ which got the award of best film at International Film Festival of India,
depicts which of the following Indian cults ?
(A) Baul (B) Alwar (C) Panch-Sakha (D) Sakhi
082. Dhrupad tradition is purely a Hindu music tradition. Which of the following statements are correct in
this reference ?
1. It has a direct relationship with Krishna worship.
JI
2. Due to this tradition music became more people-oriented and entertaining.
H
3. It had a place in Mughal court.
(A) Only 1 and 2 N
(B) Only 2 and 3
SI
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
H
083. In the development of the music of Gujarati theatre the contribution of the Nayaks and Bhojaks is
DD
special. Which of the following statements are correct in this reference ?

1. They had the ancestral tradition of classical method of singing and playing
U
2. They had a complete knowledge of people-entertaining music through Bhavai.

IR
3. Some of these were working as esteemed singer artist in court.

AN
084. The celebration of tribal festival in Assam is done in a special way. Which of the following statements
are correct in this reference ?
1. Three types of Bihu are celebrated in Assam.
2. The arrival of Spring festival and sowing in agriculture is the speciality of Rongali Bihu.
3. Bihu is the festival of celebration of the New Year in Assam.
085. Some of the dialectal features of Pattani dialect with the exception of certain elements are largely
similar to the dialect of central Gujarat. Which of the following statements are correct in this reference?
1. In Pattani, the word ‘dholo’ is pronounced as ‘dhoro’, ‘Utaval’ as ‘Utavar’.
2. In Pattani, the sound ‘h’ is diluted and thus not ‘vahu’ but ‘vau’ is pronounced.
3. In central Gujarat due to the universal use of ‘h’, the pronunciation of ‘dadam’ is in form of
‘dhyadyam’.
CSP – 1 – M] 27 [P.T.O.
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086. Narmad had started his biweekly named ‘Dandiya’ in Gujarati. Which of the following statements are
correct in this reference ?
1. Narmad accelerated the world reformation movement.
2. He imparted literacy through his biweekly.
3. He took up the challenge of bringing out the people from ignorance and crass through it.
087. Who plays the games of ‘Ambali Kadhavi’ on the day of Holi ?
1. Karadiya Rajputs of Saurashtra
2. The tribals of Panchmahal
3. The Mer community of Saurashtra
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
Hindvani tu bhali pichani, shir pani ka bedo bhare kuve me tetar bole, Ram-Sita ka joda, Ta thaiya ka ta
088.
thai.” - The dialogue is of which vesh of Bhavai ?
(A) Zanda Zulan (B) Jasma
JI
H
(C) Miya Juthan (D) None of the above
N
089. Of whose symbol is “Umbar” Threshold, which is worshipped house to house in Indian tradition,
SI
believed to be ?
(A) The throne of Lord Narsimha (B) The trident of Aadhyashakti
H
DD
(C) The seat of Ganapati (D) None of the above
090. What are the goodly sculpted wood sculptures in buildings, temples, chabutaro, by Gurjar artists
U
known as ?
IR
(A) Nejwa (B) Kumbhi

AN
(C) Motiyu (D) None of the above
091. The archeological museum is located at _______.

1. Gujarat Vidhyapith
2. Lothal
3. Vadnagar
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
092. Who added ‘Yaman’ raga to the ragas of the Indian music ?
(A) Gopal Nayak (B) Amir Khushru
(C) Sarang Dev (D) None of the above
093. Who among the following was the education minister of Gujarat as well as the recipient of the
Padmashree award ?
(A) Hansaben Jivraj Mehta (B) Indumati Chimanlal Sheth
(C) Hemaben Acharaya (D) All of the above
CSP – 1 – M] 29 [P.T.O.
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094. Which of the following is/are correct about the fair of Naklang ?
(A) It is held on the New Year Day after Diwali.
(B) It has a mythological connection with Mahabharata story of Pandavas.
(C) This fair is held on the seashore of Dwarka.
(D) All of the above are correct.

1. “Sayaji shashan Sabdakalpataru” was a contribution by Gaikwad reign.
2. “Bhagavadgomandal” was a contribution by King Bhagvatsinh of Gondal
3. The first edition of “Sarth Jodanikosh” was published by Information Department, Government of
Gujarat after the state of Gujarat came into existence.
4. “Narmkosh” was prepared by Dalpatram.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
096. Which of the following statements regarding Umashankar Joshi are correct ?
JI
1. His poetry ‘Vishwa Shanti’ refers to Gandhiji’s message and lifework.
H
2. He was elected to Rajya Sabha.
3. N
He was the first Gujarati writer to receive the Jnanpith Award.
SI
H
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

DD
097. Who among the following were members of the Constituent Assembly ?
U
1. Kanaiyalal Munshi 2. Vallabhbhai Patel

IR
3. Morarji Desai 4. Minoo Masani

AN
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 1, 2 and 4

(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
098. Along with being a spiritualist wise poet, Kabir was also a revolutionary social reformer. Which of his
following lines reflect this fact ?
1. “patthar puje Hari mile tuo mei puju pahad”
“Jal me kumbh, kumbh me jal hei, bahar bhitar pani, tutya kumbh, jal jal hi samana, e tathya kahyo
2.
giyana”
3. “Isak alah ki jati, isak alah ka ang, isak alag oujud hei, isak alah ka rang”
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
099. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution for the first time, made it obligatory for
the President to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers?
(A) 41st Amendment (B) 44th Amendment
(C) 54th Amendment (D) None of the above
CSP – 1 – M] 31 [P.T.O.
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100. A State legislative council in India can be created or abolished by
1. The Parliament by law in pursuance of the State Assembly resolution to that effect
2. The President on the recommendation of the Governor of concerned State
3. The Governor on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers of concerned State
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1 only

1. The Parliament and the state Legislatures make Laws in their respective Jurisdiction.
2. The Legislative Power of Parliament and State Legislatures is not absolute.
3. The Parliament cannot delete or alter the basic structure of the Constitution of India.
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2 only (D) 1 only
JI
102. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding privileges available to the members of
H
Parliament?
N
1. These privileges are of two types available collectively and individually to members of Parliament.
SI
2. No Court has the right to investigate proceedings of the House or any of its Committees.
H
3. Parliament cannot punish its members or outsiders for breach of its privileges.
DD

(C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
U
IR
103. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Ashok Mehta Committee Report (1978)?
AN
1. Committee recommended for two-tier system of Panchayati Raj.

2. A district should be the first point for decentralization below the state-level.
3.
ZilaParishad should be the executive body and should be responsible for planning at the
district level.
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

1. The National Commission for Women was constituted in 1992 for protecting and promoting the
interests and rights of women
2. It was established under a legislation enacted by the Parliament in 1990
3. The Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India, is the nodal Ministry for the
Commission
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2 only
CSP – 1 – M] 33 [P.T.O.
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105. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the evolution of Indian Constitution?
1. The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946
2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
3. C. Rajagopalachari moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ on January 11, 1947
4. The ‘Objective Resolution’ laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional
structure
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 and 4 only
106. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the legislative powers of the President of
India?
1. The President has the power to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Parliament and may
promulgate such Ordinance as the circumstances appear to him to require
2. An Ordinance promulgated by the President shall have the same force and effect as an Act of
Parliament
3. But every such Ordinance shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to
operate at the expiration of three weeks from the reassembly of Parliament.
JI
4. Once promulgated, an ordinance can’t be withdrawn at any time by the President
H
(C) 1 and 3 only
N
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
SI
107. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Fundamental Rights mentioned in the
H
Constitution of India:
DD
1. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws
within the territory of India
U
2. Article 29 of the Constitution enshrined in the Fundamental Rights emphasizes that all citizens of
IR
India shall have the right to freedom of speech and expression

AN
3. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion are included in
the Fundamental rights
108. What is the latest status of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019?
(A) The Bill was presented in Lok Sabha.
(B) The Bill was passed by Lok Sabha and is pending in Rajya Sabha.
(C) The Bill has been passed both by Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
(D) The Bill has become an Act.
109. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Article 35A of Indian Constitution?
1. It was added to the Constitution by a Presidential order
2. The Article was introduced with Article 370
3. It was a special provision under directive Principles of State Policy
4. It deals with right to Constitutional Remedies
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CSP – 1 – M] 35 [P.T.O.
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110. In the case of Government of India Vs LIC of India, 1995 the Supreme Court of India held that
(A) Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution of India
(B) Preamble is not an integral part of the Constitution of India
(C) Preamble cannot be amended
(D) The word ‘non-violence’ should be included in Preamble
111. The Prime Minister’s Secretariat was renamed to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) during the Prime
Minstership of _______ .
(A) Shri Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Shri Morarji Desai (D) Smt. Indira Gandhi
112. Which of the following statements are correct, according to the 2nd Health Index (2017-18) published
by NITI Aayog?
1. Uttar Pradesh ranks lowest in terms of overall health performance
2. For the Second time in row Kerala has become number one in overall Health Index
3. Gujarat stood at the fourth place in the Index
JI
4. Punjab and Himachal Pradesh stood at 7th and 8th spots
H
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
N (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
SI
113. Which one of the following Commissions/Committees recommended that ‘there should be provision
H
for impeachment of the Governor by the State Legislature along the same line as that of President of
DD
India?
(A) Dave Committee
U
(B) G.V. Ramkrishna Committee

IR
(C) M.M. Punchi Commission

AN
(D) K. Santhanam Committee
114. Which of the following is not in the concurrent list?

(A) Criminal Law (B) Marriage
(C) Forest (D) Tolls
115. Which one of the following is not a financial standing Committee of the Parliament of India?
(A) Public Accounts Committee
(B) Committee on Commerce
(C) Estimates Committee
(D) Committee on Public Undertakings
116. Bangladesh and India are common members of which of the following groups?
1. SAARC 2. BIMSTEC 3. IORA 4. Commonwealth
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
CSP – 1 – M] 37 [P.T.O.
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117. The principles agreed at Bandung Conference, 1955 gave birth to which of the following?
(A) NAM (B) ASEAN
(C) SAARC (D) BRICS
1. Article 31 of the Indian Constitution was repealed by 42nd Constitutional Amendment
2. Right to Property was originally guaranteed as Fundamental Right under Article 19(i) (f) and
Article 31 in Indian Constitution.
3. Article 300-A refers to Right to Property
4. 25th Constitutional Amendment led to the insertion of 9th Schedule of the Indian Constitution
JI
H
(A) According to Article 13 of the Indian Constitution, “law” includes any Ordinance, order, byelaw,
N
rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law.
SI
(B) Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971 excluded Constitutional Amendment Acts
from the purview of “law” under Article 13 of the Indian Constitution.
H
DD
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B

U
IR
120. Which of the following recommendations of the Rajamannar committee on Centre-State relation has
been accepted by the then Central Government?
AN
(A) Transfer of certain provisions from Union List and Concurrent list to State List
(B) Omission of Article 356, 357 and 365
(C) Replacement of Planning Commission with a statutory body
1. In general, the Governor of a State appoints the leader of the majority party in the state legislative
assembly as the Chief Minister
2. When no party gets clear majority in assembly, Governor may exercise his personal discretion in
the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
3. A member of legislative assembly of the State is only eligible to become Chief Minister.
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
CSP – 1 – M] 39 [P.T.O.
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122. National Commission for Backward Classes is an outcome of which of the following landmark
judgments of Supreme Court?
(A) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India, 1951
(B) Minerva Mills Ltd and others vs Union of India and others, 1980
(C) Indra Sawhney & Others. Vs. Union of India, 1992
123. Which of the following statements is/are regarding Public Interest Litigation?
(A) The person who is filing the petition must be the affected person/victim in the litigation
(B) The petition is accepted by the court only if there is interest of the affected person/victim involved.
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A Nor B
124. _______ ministry sponsors Goodwill Delegation of Members of Parliament to other countries and
receives similar Government-sponsored delegations of parliamentarians under the exchange
JI
programme from other countries through the Ministry of External Affairs.
H
(A) Ministry of Culture
(B) Ministry of External Affairs
N
SI
(C) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
H
(D) Ministry of Human Resource Development

DD
125. Which of the following may make provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the
U
Municipalities and the auditing of such accounts?

IR
(A) Governor of State (B) CAG

AN
(C) Legislature of a State (D) President of India
126. Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Population Register (NPR)?
1. It is prepared under The Citizenship Act, 1955.
2. NPR comes under the Ministry Of Home Affairs.
3. It includes certain demographic particulars.
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
127. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Tribunals’ in India?
1. Tribunals are administrative bodies established for the purpose of discharging quasi-judicial
duties.
2. Tribunals act on the Principle of Natural Justice.
3. Tribunals were added to the Constitution by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
4. Tribunals in India were created on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CSP – 1 – M] 41 [P.T.O.
M
128. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the U.N. (United Nations) Convention
against Torture (CAT)?
(A) It is an international human rights instrument aimed to prevent inhuman degrading treatment
around the world.
(B) India has recently ratified this Convention.
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B
129. Arrange the following incidents in chronological order:

1. Cripps Mission 2. Mountbatten Plan
3. Quit India Movement 4. Home Rule League
(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 3, 4, 1, 2
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2
130.
When the office of Chief Justice of a High Court is vacant, the duties of the office shall be
performed by
JI
(A) Senior most judge available
H
(B) Such one of the other Judges of the Court as the President may appoint
N
(C) Such one of the other judges of the court as the President may appoint after consultation with
SI
Governor of State
H
(D) Senior most judge available after consultation with council of ministers.
DD
131. How many Asian Countries are members of G-20 ?

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
U
IR
132. What are the criteria for declaring any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the fifth schedule of Indian
Constitution?
AN
1. Preponderance of Tribal Population

2. Compactness and reasonable size of the area
3. A viable administrative entity such as a district, Block or Taluka
4. Economic Backwardness of the area as compared to the neighbouring area
(C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
133. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the making of the Indian Constitution?
1. Some of the Princely states were not represented in the Constituent Assembly.
2. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were direct, but with a limited franchise
3. The Constituent Assembly also functioned as a provisional Parliament
4. Some of the Constitutional provisions came into effect before 26th January 1950
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
CSP – 1 – M] 43 [P.T.O.
M
134. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched as mentioned in the present Preamble?
1. Justice - Social, Economic and Political
2. Liberty of – Thought, Expression, Belief and Faith
3. Equity of – Status and Opportunity
4. Fraternity by - the single citizenship
135. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding to Indian Socialism?
(A) India has adopted a definite economic structure to attain objectives of socialism
(B) India seeks to attain objectives of socialism without adopting a definite economic structuring
for it.
(C) Indian socialism adopts the economic structure of socialist countries without adopting goals of
socialism
136. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Discretionary powers of the President of
JI
India?
H
1. President can call sessions even if Council of Ministers has not advised to do so.
2. N
President can warn and encourage Council of Ministers
SI
3. President has discretionary powers regarding rules for transaction of business of government
H
DD
137. Which of the following Bills do not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha?
1. A Bill that originated in Rajya Sabha and is pending before Rajya Sabha
U
2. A Bill that originated in Lok Sabha and is pending before Lok Sabha
IR
3. A Bill passed by Lok Sabha but is pending before Rajya Sabha

AN
4. A Bill which has been passed by Rajya Sabha but is pending before Lok Sabha
(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 1 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only
138. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

1. A Starred Question - Which a member desires an Oral Answer
2. An unstarred Question - Supplementary questions can be asked subsequently
3. A short Notice Question - Supplementary questions can be asked subsequently
4. A Starred Question - Only 50 questions can be listed for oral answer a day
139. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Censure Motion?
1. The motion should state the reasons for its adoption in Lok Sabah unlike No Confidence Motion.
2. It can be moved against an individual minister, group of ministers or entire council of ministers.
3. If passed the council of ministers must resign from the office.
CSP – 1 – M] 45 [P.T.O.
M
140. Which of the following statements are correct regarding readings of a Bill in the Parliament?
1. First Reading - No Discussion of the Bill takes place at this stage
2. Second Reading - House may refer the Bill to a joint committee consisting of the members from
both the Houses.
3. Third Reading - House may circulate the Bill to gather public opinion
4. Third Reading - The Bill will be transmitted to the presiding officer who authenticates the Bill.
141. Which of the following matters constitute Money Matters under Money Bill according to Article 110 of
the Indian Constitution?
1. Audit and Accounts of Union or a State
2. Custody of Public Account of India
3. Borrowing or Guarantee by Government of India
4. Custody or Payment into Contingency Fund of India
JI
H
142. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Parliamentary Privileges and Immunities?
N
1. The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those person who are entitled
SI
to take part in the proceedings of House of Parliament.
H
2. Privileges are enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively.

DD
3. Privileges are enjoyed by the members individually.

4. No member shall be arrested during the session of Parliament for both civil as well as criminal
U
and prevention of detention cases.

IR
AN
143. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Annual Financial Statement?
1. The Budget consists of three parts namely : Revenue, Expenditure and Deficit.
2. The Budget is presented in two parts, Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill.
3. Finance Bill consists of provisions relating to sources from where revenue would be collected.
4. Appropriation bill contains provisions relating to area in which expenses will be incurred.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 3 and 4 only
144. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ad hoc judges in Supreme Court of India?
1. In the Supreme Court both High Court judge and the retired Supreme Court judge can act as ad
hoc judge.
2. The Chief Justice of India can appoint retired judge as ad hoc judge only with the previous consent
of the Parliament.
3. The Constitutional protection against removal of Judge of the Supreme Court is also applicable
to him.
CSP – 1 – M] 47 [P.T.O.
M
145. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Legislative Council of the State?
1. The strength of the legislative council shall not exceed one-third of the total strength of State
Legislative Assembly.
2. The Strength of Legislative Council shall not be less than 40.
3. The Chief Minister of the state acts as the leader of the State Legislative Council also.
4. One-sixth members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the elected members of the
State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
146. Which of the following statements are correct regarding High Courts in India?
1. Generally there are four categories of Judges in the High Courts.
2. Permanent Judge, Additional Judge, Acting Judge and Ad Hoc Judges are the four types of judges
in High Court.
3. The Gujarat High Court was established in the year 1965 along with Kerala High Court
JI
4. At present there are 25 High Courts in India
H
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
N
(D) 1, 3 and 4 only
SI
147. Who among the following are eligible for free legal services in India?
H
1. Women and Children 2. Persons in Custody

DD
3. Disabled Persons 4. Industrial Workmen

U
IR
148. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Cooperative Societies in India?
AN
1. Right to form cooperative societies is a fundamental right in India

2. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act provided constitutional status to cooperative societies.
3. The annual general meeting of every cooperative society shall be convened within a period of 6
months after the end of the financial year.
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

1. The Zonal Councils are statutory bodies as they were created under parliamentary law
2. In total six Zonal Councils were created under States Reorganization Act 1956
3. Zonal Council consists of Union Finance Minister and Chief Ministers of all States in the zone.
4. A separate North East Zonal Council was created later which made total 6 (six) Zonal councils in
India
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
CSP – 1 – M] 49 [P.T.O.
M
1. The Legislature of a State may adopt any one or more of the languages in use within the state.
2. The State cannot choose official language which is not mentioned in Schedule 8 of the Constitution
3. Until Parliament provides, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court to be in
English language only.
151. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 13380 at the end of 3 years and to Rs. 20070 at the end of 6 years on
compound interest. The sum is _____
(A) Rs. 8820 (B) Rs. 8920 (C) Rs. 8980 (D) Rs. 9920
152. Which of the following statement/statements is/are true?

1. A 350 meters long train running at a speed of 100 kms/hr takes 25 seconds to cross a platform of
length 750 meters.
2. A 750 meters long train running at a speed of 90 kms/hr takes 6 seconds to cross a pole.
3. A 750 meters long train running at a speed of 90 kms/hr takes 40 seconds to cross a platform of
JI
length 350 meters.
H
(A) only 1 and 2 (B) only 1 and 3 (C) only 2 (D) only 3
153. Find out the wrong number in the given series

N
SI
6, 15, 35, 63, 143, 221…
H
(A) 63 (B) 143

DD

U
154. In a family, each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has sisters and each son has twice
IR
as many sisters as he has brothers. How many sons are there in the family?
(A) 4 (B) 6
AN
155. There are 4 prime numbers written in ascending order. The product of first three is 1001 and that of the
last three is 2431. Find the first prime number.
(A) 3 (B) 7
156. A man goes 1 km east, then 5 km south, then 2 km east and then 9 km north. How much far away is he
from his origin?
(A) 3 km (B) 4 km (C) 5 km (D) None of the above
157. Choose the pair of words which have the same relationship as given by Round: Earth
(A) Thin : Paper (B) Height : Mountain (C) Cube : Dice (D) Wood : Table
158. The ratio of the ages of father and the daughter at present is 3 :1, 4 years ago the ratio was 4 : 1. The
average age of the father and daughter 2 year hence will be?
(A) 25 years (B) 26 years (C) 28 years (D) None of the above
CSP – 1 – M] 51 [P.T.O.
M
159. In a certain code language ‘RED’ is coded as ‘2076’, then how would ‘GREEN’ be coded?
(A) 9207716 (B) 9197717
(C) 1677209 (D) 9207616
160. The LCM of two numbers is (x + y) and their HCF is P(x – y). If one of the numbers is P, the another
number is
1 (x + y)
(A) Pxy (B) (C) x² – y² (D)
xy (x – y)
* (Directions to Questions 161 to 164) There are eight members P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W in a family. These
eight persons belong to three different generations, such that there are three married couples, while two
members are unmarried. Each couple has at least a child.
Further it is known that each of these eight persons works with a different company among A, B, C, D, E,
F, G and H (Not necessarily in that order). V and R are the only siblings in the family and U, W, R and S are
of the same gender. W and V do not form a married couple. The person who works with A is the mother
of the female who works with F. V does not work with E and his daughter is S. R works with B. The person
JI
who works with G and the one who works with E belong to the same generation. The person who works
H
with G is female, whereas the person who is working with E is a male. The persons who works with C is the
N
maternal grandfather of Q, who in turn works with D. T works with H.
SI
161. Which company does W work with?
H
(A) H (B) G
DD
(C) F (D) A
U
162. Who among the following is married with the person working with E?
IR
(A) R (B) S
AN
(C) W (D) The person works with E is unmarried.
163. Which of the following pairs of persons form a married couple?

(A) V, U (B) S, T
(C) R, P (D) None of the above
164. Which of the following statements is/are definitely true?

(A) U works with A (B) W is the daughter of P
(C) Q is male (D) None of the above
165. P and Q are two alloys of copper and nickel prepared by mixing metals in the ratio of 2:7 and 7:11
respectively. If equal quantities of these two alloys are melted to form a third alloy Z, then what would
be the ratio of nickel and copper in Z ?
(A) 5:11 (B) 1:2
(C) 11:25 (D) 25:11
CSP – 1 – M] 53 [P.T.O.
M
166. Consider the following statements:
1. If the non-parallel sides of a trapezium are equal, then it is cyclic quadrilateral.
2. Diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
3. Adjacent angles of a trapezium are supplementary.
Which of the above statement/ statements is/are true?
(C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
1 1
167. If 2 x=3 y=12 z then = = _____
z y
(A) 2 (B) 1
x x
(C) – 2 (D) – 1
x x
168. What was the day on 1st July, 1901?
JI
(A) Sunday (B) Monday
H
(C) Tuesday (D) Wednesday
N
SI
169. P, Q and R invested Rs. 40000, Rs. 50000 and Rs. 60000 respectively in a business. P gets 25% of profit
earned for managing the business. The rest of the profit is divided among P, Q and R in proportion to
H
their investments. If in a particular year, P gets Rs. 2000 lesser than the amount received by Q and R
DD
together, then what is the total profit for that year?

U
(A) Rs. 20000 (B) Rs. 25000

IR
(C) Rs. 30000 (D) None of the above

AN
170. Shirin is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a dog. Her parents
have told her that they believe a dog would not be happy in an apartment, but they have given her
permission to have a bird. Shirin has not yet decided what kind of bird she would like to have.
Which statement must be true according to the given information ?
(A) Shirin’s parents like birds more than they like dogs.
(B) Shirin does not like birds
(C) Shirin and her parents live in an apartment.
(D) Shirin and her parents would like to change the home
171. A drawer contains 3 red balls, 4 green balls, and 5 blue balls. One ball is taken from the drawer and is
NOT replaced. Then another ball is taken from the drawer. What is the probability that the first ball is
red and the second ball is blue?
(A) 7/12 (B) 3/44
(C) 5/44 (D) 2/3
CSP – 1 – M] 55 [P.T.O.
M
* (Directions for questions 172 to 174.) In a small company, parking spaces are reserved for the top executives:
CEO, president, vice-president, secretary, and treasurer — with the spaces lined up in that order. The
parking lot guard can tell at a glance if the cars are parked correctly by looking at the color of the cars.
The cars are yellow, green, purple, red, and blue, and the executives’ names are P, Q, R, S, and T (colors
and names are not necessarily in that order).
The car in the first space is red.
A blue car is parked between the red car and the green car.
The car in the last space is purple.
The secretary drives a yellow car.
P’s car is parked next to S’s.
T drives a green car.
Q’s car is parked between R’s and T’s.
S’s car is parked in the last space.
172. What color is the vice-president’s car?

(A) Green (B) Yellow
JI
(C) Blue (D) None of the above
H
173. Who is the CEO?
(A) P (B) Q
N
(C) R (D) S
SI
174. Who is the secretary?
H
(A) P (B) Q (C) T (D) S

DD
175. A shopkeeper gives 12% discount on certain goods on marked price. However he still makes gross
U
profit of 32% on cost price. If Rs. 2500 is cost price of that goods what is the marked price of that
goods?
IR
(A) Rs. 3300 (B) Rs. 3600

AN
176. The difference of the simple interests received for Rs. 4500 from two different banks after 2.5 years is
Rs. 450. The difference between their rates of interest is
(A) 2.5% (B) 4% (C) 4.5% (D) 5%
177. For two linear equations 3x – 4y = 7 and 6y = x + 4, which of the following is/are true ?
1. These linear equations have more than one solution.
2. The solution is : x = 19/14 and y = 25/28
3. These linear equations have unique solution
(C) Only 3 (D) None is true
178. 6 workers start to work in the construction of a wall. They all work together for 1st day. Thereafter, from
second day one worker leaves the work every day. Thus, the total job is completed in 4 days. If none
of the workers would leave the job, how many days they would have taken to complete the work?
(A) 2 days (B) 2.5 days (C) 3 days (D) 3.5 days
CSP – 1 – M] 57 [P.T.O.
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179. If ABCD is parallelogram in the following figure, then find ∠DEB.
(A) 55 (B) 45 (C) 35 (D) 30
180. A cube having a side of 6 cm is painted red on all the faces and then cut into smaller cubes of 1 cm
each. How many smaller cubes will have at least two faces painted?
(A) 4 (B) 16
181. For the following data what are the values of Mean, Median and Mode respectively ?
JI
13, 18, 13, 14, 13, 16, 14, 21, 13.
H
(A) 13, 14, 15 (B) 15, 14, 13
(C) 15, 13, 14
N
(D) 14, 13, 15
SI
182. A father’s age was same as his sons today’s age, when his son was born. After 12 years the ratio of
H
father’s age and son’s age will be 5 : 3. What is father’s present age ?
DD
(A) 44 (B) 48
U
IR
183. In a code language “what was it” is coded as “mi ra de” ; “you go” as “mo nil” ; “you take it” as
“nil pom ra” ; “she was sick” as “tok mi fo”. Then how would “what you take” be written in that code
AN
language?
(A) pom nil ra (B) pom ra mi (C) nil ra mi (D) None of the above
* (Directions for questions 184 to 188): In the following table, number of books sold by 5 types of stores P, Q,
R, S and T in 5 months is given. Study the table and answer the given questions using this data.
Stores →
P Q R S T
Month ↓
March 115 253 187 230 175
April 200 211 234 145 214
May 310 215 188 190 276
June 120 243 300 175 182
July 140 140 180 190 420
184. Number of books sold by store P in May is approximately what per cent less than the number of books
sold by store T in July?
(A) 26 (B) 36
CSP – 1 – M] 59 [P.T.O.
M
185. What is the ratio between the total number of books sold by store P in April and June together and
total number of books sold by store T in May and July together approximately?
(A) 5 : 16 (B) 5 : 13 (C) 5 : 11 (D) 5 : 9
186. If 30% of total number of books sold by store Q, S and T together in April were academic books, how
many non-academic books were sold by the same stores together in same months?
(A) 389 (B) 413
187. What is the average of books sold by store R in April, June and July together?
(A) 238 (B) 241
188. What is the difference between the total number of books sold by store Q in May and July together and
total number of books sold by store S in March and June together?
(A) 60 (B) 85
JI
( )
H
1
189. If x = 3 + 2√2 , then the value of √x – is___
√x N 1
SI
(A) 2√2 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D)
2√2
H

DD
1. 132651 is a perfect cube.

2. A number having 2, 3, 7 or 8 at unit’s place is never a perfect square.
U
3. By multiplying 5808 by 7, it becomes a perfect square

IR
Which of the above statement/statements is/are true?

AN

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None is true
191. If y2 ∝ (x+b) and y = 6 when x = 13, y = 9 when x = 46 3 , what is the value of b?

4
(A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 18 (D) 16 3
4
192. Four cities are connected by a road network as shown in the figure. In how many ways can one start
from any city and come back to it without travelling on the same road more than once?
(A) 8 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) None of the above
CSP – 1 – M] 61 [P.T.O.
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193. What is the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand when the time is 3:40 hours?
(A) 80 (B) 100 (C) 130 (D) 140
* (Directions for questions : 194 to 196) In the following figure, circle shows Literate, triangle shows
Unemployed, square Villagers. Study the diagram carefully and answer the following questions :
194. Total no. of Urban literate unemployed people is –

(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 12 (D) 10
195. Total no. of illiterate villagers who are employed is –

(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 4 (D) 20
JI
196. Total no. of literate villagers is –
H
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 9 (D) 4
N
SI
197. What will be the median for following data?
H
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70

DD
Frequency 07 18 34 50 35 20 06
(A) 34.3 (B) 35.2

U
(C) 36.4 (D) None of the above

IR
198. A trader uses a weighing balance that shows 1250 grams for a Kilogram. He further mark up his cost
AN
price by 20%. What is the profit percentage?

(A) 35% (B) 45%
R
199. In the figure PQ || RS, ∠PQM = 100° and ∠SMQ= 25° what is the value of ∠RSM ?
(A) 115° (B) 120° P
S
(C) 125° (D) None of the above
[ { ( )} ]
Q
200. Simplify : 18 – 6 – 4 – 6 8 – 2 + 12 M
11 3
16
(A) 0 (B) –2 (C) (D) None of the above
33
_____________________
CSP – 1 – M] 63 [P.T.O.
10/201920
Exam Date: 13-10-2019
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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M
1. GST on electric vehicles has been reduced from 12% to 5% in the year 2019.
2. GST has been reduced from 18% to 5% on electric vehicle chargers.
3. The GST rate for these items has been slashed to 0%: sanitary napkins, raw material for broom,
Rakhi, marble deities.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
002. The Economic Survey 2018-19 explains how behavioural change is possible in the Indian Economy
through which of the following schemes?
1. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
2. Swachh Bharat Mission
3. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Process
4. UJALA Scheme
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 4 only
003. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming?
JI
1. Intercropping with leguminous crops is one of the components of ZBNF.
H
2. It improves the crop productivity and soil fertility by way of fixing the atmospheric nitrogen.
N
SI
3. Cow dung, urine based formulations and botanical extracts used in ZBNF help farmers in reducing
the input cost.
H
4. The scheme is applicable only to small landholders.

DD
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

U
IR
004. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding The World happiness Report 2019 that was
released early this year?
AN
1. Social support, trust and income are some of the factors that affect Happiness.
2. India ranked 140th on the World Happiness Index.
3. Finland is the happiest country for the second consecutive year.
005. What was the second largest component of State tax revenue in Gujarat in the financial year 2018-19?
(A) Vehicle Tax (B) Sales Tax & VAT
(C) State GST (D) Registration fees
006. The concept of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) was introduced for promoting education
among the tribals in India. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding this scheme?
1. EMRS are set up to provide quality middle and high-level education to ST students.
2. Establishment of EMRS is demand-driven based on the proposals received from States/Union
Territories.
3. The funding for such schools is from the Central Government.
(A) 1, 2, and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 3 only
CSP – 2 – MASTER] 3 [P.T.O.

M
007. The Pradan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana has been implemented by which of the apex body?
(A) Ministry of Rural Affairs
(B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(C) Ministry of Water Supply and Sanitation
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
008. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)?
1. They are statutory bodies established under Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976
2. The first Regional Rural Bank “Prathama Grameen Bank” was set up on 2nd October, 1975
3. RRBs must follow priority sector lending norms at par with the commercial bank
009. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the provisions made under the National
Food Security Act. 2013?
1. The Act provides for coverage of upto 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban
JI
population for receiving subsidized food grains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)
H
2. Prices were to be fixed by the Central Government from time to time, but not exceeding MSP.
N
3. Children upto 14 years of age will be entitled to nutritious meals or take home rations as per the
SI
prescribed nutritional standards.
H
DD
010. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Investment and Infrastructure
Fund (NIIF)?
U
1. NIIF is an investor-owned fund manager anchored by Government of India (GOI) in collaboration

with leading global and domestic institutional investors.
IR
2. It has been registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India as a Category II Alternate
AN
Investment Fund
3. NIIF is India’s first sovereign wealth fund
011. Recently Niti Aayog cleared six proposals for high-tech public transport. Which of the following
proposals is/are NOT part of it?
1. Hyperloop 2. Metrino 3. Pod taxis 4. Bullet Train
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
012. Which of the following statements are true regarding capital gain tax?
1. Capital gain is the profit realised when an investment is sold for a higher price than original
purchase price.
2. Capital gains taxes are only triggered when an asset is realized. Not while it is held by an investor.
3. Normally if an asset is held for less than 24 months, any gain arising from selling, it is treated as
a short-term capital gain.

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013. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement
(DTAA)?
1. Its key objective is that tax-payers in these countries can avoid being taxed twice for the same
income.
2. A DTAA applies in cases where a tax-payer resides in one country and earns income in another.
3. India has DTAAs with more than 80 countries.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
014. Recently formulated PARIWARTAN plan aims to
(A) Revitalize stressed power sector assets
(B) Transform select Naxal affected districts into hot spot of development
(C) Create awareness among women regarding their legal rights
JI
(D) Create aspirational districts in hill areas
H
015. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the PM Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana?
N
SI
1. The workers whose monthly income is Rs.15,000/- per month or less are eligible beneficiaries
under the scheme.
H
2. It covers both organized and unorganized sector workers.

DD
3. It is an initiative by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

U

IR
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

AN
016.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding GRAMIN AGRICULTURAL MARKETS
(GrAMS)?
1. It aims to develop and upgrade existing 40,000 rural haats into Gramin Agricultural Markets.
2. It will be linked to e-NAMs.
3. It would be outside APMC Act regulation.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
017. Which of the following is incorrect with reference to Logistics Performance Index (LPI) 2018?
(A) LPI ranking of India has decreased from 35th in 2016 to 44th in 2018.
(B) Germany has been ranked first and Sweden stood at second rank under LPI 2018.
(C) It is released by Word Bank bi-annually by comparing 160 countries on logistic sector performance.
(D) The index ranges from 1 to 10 with a higher score representing better performance.

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018.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding “Kisan Urja Suraksha Evem Utthan
Mahabhiyan” (KUSUM) Scheme?
1. This scheme has planned for setting up biogas electricity plants for farmers
2. This scheme will enable farmers to earn extra income and help in their irrigation facility
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
019. Which is correct about the opening of Non Resident External account in India?
1. NRE accounts can be opened by NRIs and OCBs (Overseas Corporate Bodies) with authorized
dealers and banks in all the forms of demand and term deposits.
2. Deposits in this account are allowed in any currency.
JI
020. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
H
1. Angel tax is income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors
2. N
It was introduced in 2012 budget to arrest laundering of funds.
SI
3. However it was scrapped in the recent budget of 2019.
H
4. If the paid-up capital of startup entity is Rs. 25 crores or less the angel tax is not applicable.
DD

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) Only 3
U
IR

AN
1. Poverty can be divided into two parts, Absolute poverty and related poverty.
2. According to 2011 census 52% population was below the poverty line
3. Poverty is defined for an urban poor, who is not able to get 2400 calories per day for a rural poor
who is not able to get 2100 calories per day.
4. Rapidly rising population is the main reason for increasing poverty
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
022. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the economy of Gujarat?
(A) High unemployment in Gujarat is due to closure of many industries during 2018-19
(B) Gujarat state has high unemployment rate in skill/educated class but low unemployment rate in
Agriculture
(C) The unemployment in Gujarat is high due to high migration from other States in India
(D) Gujarat has one of the lowest unemployment rates among the States in India

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023. Which one of the following is not a part of 10-point vision for the decade as per Union Budget 2019-20?
(A) Blue Economy
(B) Water, Water Management, Clean Rivers
(C) Making Digital India reach every sector of the economy
(D) Electronic fund raising platform under the regulatory ambit of SEBI
024. Which of the following is not a measure adopted by government to make India a more attractive FDI
destination?
(A) Insurance intermediate to get 75% FDI
(B) Local Sourcing norms to be eased for FDI in Single Brand Retail Sector
(C) NRI Portfolio Investment Scheme route is proposed to be merged with the foreign portfolio
investment route
(D)
FDI sectors like aviation, media and insurance sectors can be opened further after multi
JI
stakeholder examinations
H
025. Aayakar Setu which is seen in the news is:
N
SI
(A) It is a private limited company floated to aid the rollout of the new indirect tax regime
(B) It allows user or taxpayers to execute the provisions of GST through the online platform
H
DD
(C) App launched by CBDT that allows entities track TD, pay taxes and apply for permanent account
number (PAN)
U
(D) A desk that will explain the benefits of GST to small businessmen and answer their queries
IR
026. Which one of the following is not the objective of the National Manufacturing Policy of India?
AN
(A) To enhance the share of manufacturing in GDP to 25% by 2022
(B) To increase the rate of Job Creation in manufacturing and to create 100 million additional jobs
by 2022
(C) To build national capabilities in roadways
(D) To increase domestic value addition and technological depth in manufacturing
027. The Government of India permitted the department of commerce to give focused attention to 12
identified “ Champion Services” for promoting their development. These include__________.
1. Construction and related engineering services
2. Environmental services
3. Information Technology and Information enabled services
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

M
028. The agricultural credit of the Indian farmers is classified into three categories on the basis of period,
which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. Short Term Credit: up to 12 months period
2. Medium term Credit: between 15 months and 5 years
3. Long term credit: more than 5 years
029. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding UNESCO’s Heritage sites in India?
1. Old Delhi became the 2nd Heritage city in India followed by Jaipur in the year 2019
2. Ahmedabad became the first Heritage City in India in the year 2018
3. With the inclusion of Jaipur, the number of heritage sites across India that are on UNESCO World
heritage list, has grown to 38.
JI
H
030. The difference between the “Total revenue" and "total expenditure plus market borrowings and other
N
liabilities” of Government of India is called as __________.
SI
(A) Fiscal Deficit (B) Revenue Deficit
(C) Budget Deficit (D) Primary Deficit
H
DD
031. According to the Economic Survey 2018-19, “Data” has been presented as _______.
(A) Private Good (B) Public Good
U
(C) Merit Good (D) Public and Merit Good

IR
032. Ministry of Food Processing Industries, New Delhi (MOFPI) has a number of schemes for capital
AN
investment and other subsidies in the food processing sector. Which is the nodal agency in Gujarat to
implement schemes of MOFPI?
(A) Gujarat Agro Industries Corporation Ltd.
(B) Gujarat Industrial Development Corporation
(C) Directorate of Agriculture, Gujarat
(D) Food Corporation of India, Gujarat Regional Office
033. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding "India improved its rank to 77th in the
Ease of Doing Business Index for the year 2018"?
1. The biggest gain was in the indicator of Construction permits
2. India now ranks first among the South Asian countries
3. India now is among top 25 countries on three indicators getting electricity, getting credit and
protecting minority investors.
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None of the above

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034. The Union Government’s mobile application Vidyut PRAVAH aims at __________.
(A) Providing information about power availability in India on real time basis.
(B) Learning about the current and applicable GST rates for themselves.
(C) Providing over 100 services such as payment of utility bills, filing of income tax returns
(D)
Providing an avenue for channelizing the ideas, comments and creative suggestions by
connecting people with Central ministries and related government organizations.
035. Who among the following notable economists estimated India’s per capita income during the Colonial
period?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. William Digby
3. V.K.R.V. Rao 4. R.C. Desai
(C) 1 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
JI
036. Gadgil formula was introduced for devolution of tax revenue from the Centre to the States for the first
H
time in the year________.
(A) 1960-61 N
(B) 1969-70
SI
(C) 1975-76 (D) 1982-83
H
037. Ecological footprints is measured in the unit_______________.

DD
(A) Global Hectares (B) Nanometer

U
(C) Hoppus cubic foot (D) Cubic ton

IR
038. Which of the following is not related to monetary policy of the RBI?
AN
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (B) Repo rate

(C) Direct tax rate (D) None of the above
039. The Idea of Green Finance was first mentioned in the ____________.
(A) UN document at the UN conference on sustainable development (Rio+20)
(B) Paris Agreement of 2015 (Cop21)
(C) UN General Assembly held in September 2015
(D) Conference of parties (Cop24)

(A) People’s plan was formulated by MN Roy.
(B) M. Vishveshwarayya – the Author of the book “The Planned Economy of India”
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B

M
041. Which of the following is not true about Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana
(AB-PMJAY)?
(A) PMJAY provides cashless cover of upto INR 5,00,000 to each eligible family per annum for listed
secondary and tertiary care conditions
(B) There is a cap on family size and age of members
(C) All pre-existing diseases are covered from the very first day
(D) 1393 secondary and tertiary treatment package covering 223 specialties are offered

1. MUDRA stands for Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Limited
2. MUDRA has three schemes Shishu, Kishor and Tarun
3. Mudra Scheme can fund heavy and big industries also
4. MUDRA loans include business installment loan, commercial vehicle loan etc.
JI
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
H
N
SI
1. Agriculture crop year in India is July to June.
2. Kharif season is from July to October.
H
3. Rabi season is October to March.

DD
4. Jowar, Bajra and Maize are main Rabi crops in India.

U

IR
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

AN
044. An upsurge has been seen in the NPAs (non-performing assets) of public sector banks recently. Select
the correct factors responsible for it.
1. Lower economic growth in the country
2. Aggressive lending by banks in the past, especially during good times
3. Lack of right loan recovery legal provisions
4. Banks switching over to a system based identification of NPAs
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
045. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that______________.

(A) Big banks should adopt particular district for intensive development
(B) Individual banks should adopt particular district for intensive development
(C) There should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks
(D) All the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits

M
046. Which of the following come under the classification of small savings schemes in India?
1.
Postal deposits comprising savings account, recurring deposits, time deposits of varying
maturities and monthly income schemes
2. Savings certificates comprising the national small savings certificates and Kisan Vikas Patra
3. Social Security Schemes comprising the public provident fund and senior citizens savings
scheme
047. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Economic Survey 2018-19?
1. The Economic Survey 2018-19 suggest that focus should shift from land productivity to irrigation
water productivity.
2. Almost 89% of the ground water extracted is used for irrigation.
3. Crops such as paddy and sugarcane consume more than 60% of irrigation water.
4. The fertilizer consumption which was stable since 2002 has shown continuously increasing trend
after 2011.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
JI
048. Which of the following is/are the objectives of land reforms in India?
H
1. Abolition of Intermediaries
2. Tenancy Reforms
N
SI
3. Reorganization of Agriculture
H
4. Introduction of High Yielding Varieties

DD
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 2, and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
049. Wages paid under MNREGA scheme has now been linked with _______.
U
(A) WPI (B) CPI for agricultural labour

IR
(C) CPI for industrial workers (D) Food inflation

AN
050. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding e-Shakti which is a pilot project of National
Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) for digitization of Self Help Groups (SHGs)?
(A) It was initiated to improve the quality of bookkeeping of SHGs and to enable banks to take
informed credit decisions about the group through a Management Information System (MIS).
(B) Integrating SHG members with the National Financial Inclusion Agenda
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B
051. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Mission Organic Value Chain Development
for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER)?
1. It is a Sub-Mission under National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)
2. Developing crop specific organic production clusters with necessary infrastructural, technical
and financial support
3. This scheme is implemented in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura

M
052. If a ship sailing from Tokyo (Japan) on Sunday at 8 AM for San Francisco (USA) takes 8 hours to reach
there. On which day it will reach there?
(A) On Sunday (B) On Saturday
(C) On Monday (D) On Sunday midnight
053. Which among the following air pressure belt is called “ Horse Latitude” ?
(A) Equatorial low pressure belt (B) Subtropical high pressure belt
(C) Sub polar low pressure belt (D) None of the above
054. Which of the following statements are correct regarding coral reefs?
1. Corallite is the house of the corals
2. Coral are living organisms
3. Reefs are uncemented and soft structure of calcium carbonate
4. Reefs are cemented and hard structure of calcium carbonate
055. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding landslide vulnerability zones in India?
JI
1. Steep and rainy slopes of Western Ghats and Nilgiris fall in very high landslide vulnerability zone
H
2. States from the north-eastern region except the plains of Assam are covered under moderate to
low landslide vulnerability zone N
SI
3. Coastal regions of the southern states fall under high landslide vulnerability zone
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 only
H
DD
056. Which of the following statements are true with refrence to Economic Survey 2018-19?
1. The annual population growth rate is set to increase from 1.1% in 2011-21 to 1.5% in 2031-41.
U
2. The service sector (excluding construction) has a share of 54.3% to India’s Gross Value Added
IR
(GVA) in 2018-19.
3. Share of employment of service sector is at 34%.
AN
4. India accounts for 18% of the world’s population but uses only 6% of world’s primary energy.
057. The duration of Dawn and Twilight is of maximum period at _______.

(A) The Equator (B) The Arctic/Antarctic circle
(C) The Tropics (D) The Poles
058. Which one of the following water bodies contains highest salinity?
(A) Dead Sea (B) Mono Lake (C) Great Salt Lake (D) Red Sea

1. Rotterdam Convention - Prior consent of trade for hazardous chemicals and pesticides
2. Basel Convention - Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes
3. Minamata convention - control adverse effects of lead on human health
4. Stockholm convention - restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

M
060. Which of the following river does not flow in the Dangs?
(A) Purna (B) Ambica (C) Gira (D) Par
061. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Gujarat Budget 2019-20?
1. Gujarat has allocated 14.4% of its expenditure on Education.
2. Gujarat has allocated 5.8% of its expenditure on Health
3. The state has allocated 4.5% of its total budget towards Agriculture.
062. Which one of the following industrial/economic corridor projects is wholly funded by Government of
India?
(A) Delhi - Mumbai (B) Amritsar - Kolkata
(C) Vizag - Chennai (D) Bengaluru - Mumbai
063. Which of the following pairs of places and products are correctly matched?
1. Coorg - Coffee Plantation
JI
2. Pulwama - Saffron Cultivation
H
3. Chickmagalur - Tea plantation
4. Godavari - Cocoa plantation
N
SI
H
064. What is the notational system of salinity of the oceans?

DD
(A) Parts per hundred (%) (B) Parts per gram (g)
U
(C) Parts per cubic meter (m3) (D) Parts per thousand (%0)
IR
065. Who does tiger census in India?

AN
(A) Ministry of environment, forest and climate change

(B) National Tiger conservation authorities
(C) State Governments
(D) Worldwide Fund for Nature-India
066. World's largest multi-stage, multi-purpose lift irrigation project, ‘Kaleshwaram’, starts at the confluence
point of the rivers _______.
(A) Godavari and Pranahita (B) Godavari and Wardha
(C) Godavari and Penganga (D) Godavari and Wainganga
067. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Black holes ?
1.
A black hole is a region of spacetime having so strong gravitation that no particles or
electromagnatic radiation can escape from it.
2. The first image of black hole was captured by the Event Horizon Telescope.
3. The ideas of black hole was first given by Isaac Newton.

M
068. Which among the following is the longest continuous mountain chain of the world?
(A) The Rockies (B) The Andes
(C) Great Dividing Range (D) The Himalayas
069. Wallace line is a _______

(A) An International divide between India and Nepal
(B) Line separating coastal plains and south plateau
(C) Line separating the distinct flora and fauna of South East Asia and Australia
(D) Line dividing Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
070. Which one of the following ocean currents belongs to the Indian Ocean?
(A) Aleutian current (B) Canaries Current
(C) Agulhas current (D) Benguela current
071. The capital city of Port Blair lies in which islands of Andaman and Nicobar?
JI
(A) North Andaman (B) Middle Andaman
H
(C) South Andaman (D) Little Andaman
072. Match List-I with List-II:

N
SI
List-I List-II
H
a. Blood Rain 1. India

DD
b. Maize Rain 2. Japan

c. Mango Shower 3. Italy
U
IR
d. Plum Rain 4. Africa

AN
(A) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 (B) a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2
(C) a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1 (D) a - 4, b - 3, c - 2, d - 1

(A) The force produced by earth rotation is called Coriolis force
(B) The Coriolis force is absent at the equator but increases progressively pole wards.
(C) Both A and B are correct
(D) Neither A nor B
074. The Chilka Lake lies at _______.

(A) North Circar Coast (B) Coromandal Coast
(C) Malabar Coast (D) None of the above
075. Soils of the Humid Tropical and Equatorial Zones are called as_______.
(A) Chernozem Soil (B) Chestnut Soil
(C) Halomorphic Soil (D) Lateritic Soil

M
(A) India has the highest reserves of Thorium in the world
(B) Thorium is available in huge quantities in monazite sands
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B
077. Among the following which is incorrect about groundnut cultivation?

1. The geographical requirements of raining for groundnut are the same as that of Sugarcane and
Paddy
2. The geographical requirements of raining for groundnut are the same as that of Bajra and Cotton
3. Saurashtra is the groundnut Bowl of India
4. National Research Center for the Groundnut is located at Jagudan.
JI
078. Which one of the following gases is in the lowest percentage of the total gaseous composition of the
atmosphere?
H
(A) Helium N
(B) Hydrogen
SI
(C) Ozone (D) Neon
H
079. The atmospheric water vapour decreases by _______.

DD
(A) Latitude (B) Altitude

(C) Windward side of relief (D) Distance from the sea
U
080. Which one of the following atmospheric disturbances is totally different in terms of origin, development
IR
and characteristics?
AN
(A) Tornado (B) Typhoon (C) Thunderstorm (D) Hurricane
081. Which one of the following natural elements of the earth as whole is found in highest percentage?
(A) Nickel (B) Magnesium (C) Iron (D) Aluminium

Rocks State
a. Marble 1. Himachal Pradesh
b. Rock Salt 2. Rajasthan
c. Basalt 3. Karnataka
d. Limestone 4. Maharashtra
(A) a - 3, b - 2, c - 1, d - 4 (B) a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3
(C) a - 4, b - 2, c - 3, d - 1 (D) a - 2, b - 4, c - 3, d - 1
083. Prairie Region is famous for _______.

(A) Horticulture (B) Dairy Industry
(C) Commercial grain Farming (D) Agro Forestry

M
084. Agro Ecological regions of India have been identified by _______.
(A) Ministry of Agriculture, India (B) CSIR
(C) ICAR (D) The soil and land Use Survey Organization
085. Among the following States which State recorded decrease in population in 2011 census?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Kerala
(C) Nagaland (D) Tripura

1. India’s rich linguistic cultural heritage may be grouped into four linguistic families.
2. Those are Austric, the Dravidians, the Sino-Tibetian and the Indo-Aryan.
3. The languages of South India belong to the Dravidian Family
4. The Languages of Austric family include Kashmiri, Sindhi, Gujarati
JI
087. Africa is called the Dark Continent because_______.
H
1. Its interior has put obstacles to its exploration
N
2. In the north, the Sahara desert is a formidable obstacle to reach the interior
SI
3. The plateau’s rim extended to the coast hindrance to move inside
H
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1 and 3 only
DD
088. Which of the following are true?

1. Epiphytes are plants that derive their water and nutrients from air
U
2. Hydrophytes are flowering plants adapted to living submerged water

IR
3. Xerophytes are plants which are adopted to seasonal or perennial droughts

AN
089. Which of the following is/are true for coniferous forests?

1. Coniferous forests cover a broad belt of land in North America and Eurasia.
2. Coniferous forests have tall, straight, evergreen trees
3. The trees of these forests shed their leaves in autumn
(A) 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 3 only
090. Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT regarding Geography of Gujarat?
1. Gujarat shares boundaries with Pakistan in North West.
2. Rajasthan is in North as well as North East and Maharashtra is in South East
3. The northern portion of Rann is called Greater Rann and eastern portion is referred to as
Little Rann.
4. Madhya Pradesh is in West
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 4 only

M
091. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mahi River?
1. The Mahi river basin is bounded on the north and the north west by Aravalli hills
2. Ukai Dam is located over Mahi river
3. On the South by the Vindhyas and on the West by the Gulf of Khambhat.
4. The Mahi river traverses through the States of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Minerals Exploration sites
a. Brown Gold 1. Mandvi, Surat
b. Manganese 2. Panchamahal
c. Fluorspar 3. Kawant, Chhotaudepur
d. Bauxite 4. Devbhoomi Dwaraka
(A) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4 (B) a - 2, b - 3, c - 1, d - 4
(C) a - 3, b - 4, c - 1, d - 2 (D) a - 4, b - 1, c - 2, d - 3
JI
H
093. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Agriculture in Gujarat ?
1. There are totally 8 agro climatic zones in Gujarat N
SI
2. The North Gujarat Agro Climatic Zone is having Sandy Loam to Sandy soils
3. The South Gujarat Agro Climatic Zone is having Sandy and Saline soils
H
4. There are two agro climatic zones called South Gujarat (heavy rain area) Zone and South
DD
Gujarat Zone.
U
IR

AN
1. Tropical savannah type of climate is found in the north eastern states of India
2. Semi arid steppe climate is found in Central Rajasthan
3. Cold humid winter type of climate is found in Jammu and Kashmir
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 3 only

1. The Himalayan rivers may shift their beds, while the peninsular rivers have little scope for shifting
their beds
2. The Himalayan rivers are examples of antecedent drainages
3. The Peninsular rivers are example of consequent drainage

1. Cardamom Hills - Coromandel Coast 2. Kaimur Hills - Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills - Central India 4. Mikir Hills - North East India
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 4 only

M
097. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where _______.
(A) Warm and Cold atmospheric currents meet
(B) Rivers drain out large amounts of fresh water into the seas
(C) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(D) Continental shelf is undulating
098. Which of the following have volcanic origin?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Lakshadweep
3. Deccan Trap
4. Aravalli Ranges
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
099. For Short-term climate predictions, which one of the following events is associated with weak
monsoon rains in the Indian Subcontinent?
JI
(A) La Nina (B) Movement of Jet Streams
H
(C) El Nino N
(D) Global Warming
SI
100. Software that allows interaction between peripheral device and the operating system of computer
is _______.
H
1. Device Driver
DD
2. OS Driver
U
3. Hardware Driver
IR
AN
101. _______ is a mobile app launched to make India cash-free.

(A) Bharat International for Money (B) Bharat Incentives for Money
(C) Bharat Interface for Money (D) None of the above
102. NPTEL stands for _______.

(A) National Program on Technological Enhanced Learning
(B) National Program on Technical E-connect Learning
(C) National Policy on Technological Enhanced Learning
(D) National Portal on Teaching Enhanced Learning
103. The first frigate naval ship _____ was launched by Indian Navy on November 20, 1956.
(A) INS Khukri (B) INS Shakti (C) INS Ajay (D) INS Vinash
104. Name the Advanced Torpedo Defence System (ATDS) developed by DRDO
(A) Akashdeep (B) Maareech
(C) Rustom (D) Nishad

M
105. The lift-off mass of Chandrayaan-1 was ______ the lift-off mass of Chandrayaan-2.
(A) Higher than (B) Lower than
(C) Equal to (D) No lift of mass was there in Chandrayan-1
106. Monkey fever or Kyasanur disease recently seen in the news is caused by which of the following?
(A) Bacteria (B) Virus
(C) Fungi (D) None of the above
107. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed a drug named, ‘Lukoskin’.
It is being used in the treatment of
(A) Leukorrhea (B) Lung Cancer
(C) Leucoderma (D) Leukemi
108. Which one of the following elements the drum of a Photostat machine is made up of?
(A) Aluminium (B) Selenium
JI
(C) Barium (D) Caesium
H
109.
Highest number of satellites launched under one mission by Indian Space Research
Organization (ISRO) is N
SI
(A) 101 (B) 102
H
(C) 103 (D) 104

DD
110. The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called _______.
U
(A) Liquefaction (B) Carbonation

IR
(C) Catalytic conversion (D) Cracking

AN
111. Which Indian Prime Minister gave go ahead for the Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project (SNEP)?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi (D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
112. India has signed a tripartite inter-governmental agreement with Russia and _______ to help build its
nuclear infrastructure
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Maldives
(C) Bangladesh (D) Myanmar
113. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding VoLTE technology used by mobile network?
1. It allows transmission of data through a 4G network while voice calls are routed through older
2G or 3G networks.
2. It counts voice calls as per data usage rather than minutes of usage.

M
114. What are black smokers?
(A) Hydrothermal vents in the ocean.
(B) Pollutants coming out from chimneys of thermal power plants.
(C) Lung cancer patients.
(D) Volunteers who conduct anti-smoking campaign
115. With regard to convex and concave lenses, which of the following sentences are correct?
1. Convex lenses are used in reading spectacles
2. Concave lenses are used in spectacles to correct the defect of vision called myopia
3. Convex lenses are used in spectacles to correct the defect of vision called myopia
4. Concave lenses are used as magnifying glasses
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1, 2 and 4
JI
H
116. In the context of environmental pollution, what does the term ‘dirty dozen’ refer to?
(A) The twelve ozone depleting substances.

N
SI
(B) The twelve gases emanating from vehicular exhaust.
H
(C) The twelve persistent organic pollutants listed under Stockholm Convention.
DD
(D) The twelve hazardous chemicals listed under the Air Pollution Act, 1981.
U
117. Which of the following statements are correct regarding ‘Lagrange Point’?
IR
1. It is the position in space where combined gravitational force of two large bodies such as Earth
AN
and Sun, equal the centrifugal force felt by much smaller 3rd body.
2. It is a point of equilibrium where a spacecraft may be “parked” to make observations.
3. There are 5 such points between Earth and Sun.
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
118. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Measles and Rubella are highly contagious bacterial diseases that are spread by contact with an
infected person through coughing and sneezing.
2. The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has initiated Measles-Rubella vaccination
campaign in the age group of 9 months to less than 15 years.

M
119. With reference to World Water Development Report, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is published annually by the World Economic Forum.
2. The latest report was released at the 8th World Water Forum in Brasilia.
120. What is the purpose of ‘Ujjwala Plus’?

(A) To provide universal coverage of vaccination by 2020 to BPL households.
(B) To allow people to donate cooking gas connections for the benefit of poor households.
(C) To achieve 100 per cent village electrification.
(D) To achieve universal household electrification.
121. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to blue waves?
1. It is a rare natural phenomenon also referred to as bio-luminescence.
JI
2. It is caused by the light emitted by fluorescent corals present in ocean.
H
N
SI
H
122. With reference to One Planet City Challenge (OPCC), which of the following statements is/are correct?
DD
1. It is an initiative of United Nations Environment Programme.

2. It invites cities from the participating countries to report innovative climate actions.
U

IR

AN
123. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Gene Testing?
(A) Gene testing can be used to determine a person’s ancestry
(B) Gene testing may help in preventing genetic disorders
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B

1. In the reactor core, when uranium-235 is hit by a fast moving neutron, it breaks into lighter
elements.
2. The process of chain reactor depends on the presence of a moderator such as Petrol and Diesel
3. Thousands of small pellets of ceramic uranium oxide fuel make up the core of a reactor.
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2 only

M
125. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding International Space Station?
1. The International Space Station orbits around the Moon
2. The orbit of the Space Station is about 400 kms above the earth
3. The first component of Space Station was launched in the year 1998 and latest module fitted in
the year 2011.
4. The first crew reached the Space Station in the year 2014.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 only
126. Stealth Technology includes_______.

(A) Paint coating to make the surface less visible
(B) Design modification so that rays from radars are reflected away
(C) Special construction material that makes the surface less visible
JI
127. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Wild Elephant Population Census in
H
India in 2017?
1. Approximately 30,000 elephants are there in IndiaN
SI
2. Southern part of the country accounts for more than North East.
H
3. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of elephants

DD
128. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding 4D printing?

U
1. 4D printing is based on multiplicative manufacturing

IR
2. 4D printing uses smart materials to manufacture the desired item

AN
3. Smart materials change in response to environmental health

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

1. Li-Fi is a very advanced version of Wi-Fi
2. It uses Infrared rays to transfer Data
3. Bright Light Emitting Diode forms the core part of Li-Fi technology
4. Li-Fi cannot be used in aircraft
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
130.
Vadrad (Sabarkantha) and Kukma (Kutch) are Center of Excellence for _______ and _______
respectively.
(A) Vegetable and Datepalm (B) Floriculture and Banana
(C) Pomegranate and Mango (D) None of the above

M
131. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Missiles?
1. Ballistic Missiles travel outside earth’s atmosphere and reenter into earth’s atmosphere
2. Cruise Missiles travel parallel to the surface of earth. They are guided throughout their path and
remain in the atmosphere.
3. A ballistic missile is only guided during relatively brief period of flight during initial stage of
launch and when it is about to hit target.
132. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Integrated Electronic Warfare System?
1. Electronic Warfare has the objective to disable enemy’s electronic devices and hack navigation
signals of the enemy.
2. Samyukta is the mobile integrated electronic warfare system of Army.
3. Sangraha has been designed for the Navy, and this is the naval version of Samyukta
4. Garuda is the Air Force version of Samyukta
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
JI
133. Bharat Stage emission standards are applicable to _______.
H
1. Transport Vehicles
N
SI
2. Small Scale Industries
3. Power Plants
H
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1 , 2 and 3
DD
134. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

U
1. LED lamps do not contain mercury

IR
2. LED lights never fail abruptly, but there is a gradual decrease in the output
AN
3. CFL lamps are more energy-efficient as compared to the LED lamps

(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
135. The terms “Event Horizon”, “Singularity” “String Theory” and Standard Model” are seen in the news
sometimes in the context of _______.
(A) Observation and Understanding of the Universe
(B) Missile Technology
(C) Observation of Ocean
(D) Communication
136. Arrange the below given states in descending order according to Tiger population as per latest
census.
(A) Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttrakhand
(C) West Bangal, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh

M
137. The Black Board seems black because it _______.
(A) Reflects every colour (B) Does not reflect any colour
(C) Absorbs black colour (D) Reflects black colour
138. The Brightness of a star depends on _______.
(A) Size and temperature only
(B) Size and distance from the earth
(C) Size, Temperature and mass
(D) Size, temperature and distance from earth
139. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(A) Xenon is also called as Stranger gas
(B) Phosphorus trichloride is used as an explosive
(C) Both A and B
JI
H
(D) Neither A nor B
N
140. The date of manufacture for food items fried in oil should be checked before buying because oils
SI
become rancid due to _______.
H
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction

DD
(C) Hydrogenation (D) Decrease in Viscosity

U
141. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

IR
1. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to decrease in the white blood cells
AN
2. The sex of new born baby is determined by the chromosomes inherited from the mother
3. Haemophilia is low in women due to a dominant gene found on Y chromosome
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 3 only
Vitamin Deficiency of vitamin leads to
a. Vitamin D 1. Osteoporosis
b. Vitamin E 2. Premature ageing
c. Vitamin B2 3. Cracks on Skin
d. Vitamin K 4. Excess loss of blood during injury
(A) a - 1, b - 3, c - 4, d - 2 (B) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4
(C) a - 2, b - 3, c - 4, d - 1 (D) a - 3, b - 2, c - 4, d - 1

M
143. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Pulses are rich in protein
(B) Milk is a rich source of vitamin A
(C) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates
(D) Vegetables are rich source of Minerals
144. In artificial insemination process which of the following is/are introduced into the uterus of the
female?
(A) Egg only (B) Fertilised egg
(C) Sperm only (D) Egg and sperm
145. In the context of environmental agreements, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Doha Amendment is the amendment to Montreal Protocol.
2. Kigali Agreement is an amendment to Kyoto Protocol to limit the carbon emissions.
3. India recently ratified the Doha Amendment.
JI
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
H
146. With reference to the National Biodiversity Authority, which of following statements are true?
1. N
It was formed under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
SI
2. It protects the intellectual property rights of local communities related to biodiversity.
H
3. It is headquartered in Chennai.
DD
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only

U
147. With the help of given statements, identify the animal?

IR
1. It is India’s most critically endangered reptile species

AN
2. Chambal wildlife sanctuary located on river Chambal is the home for them
3. According to IUCN nearly 250 of them are present in the world
(A) Olive Ridley Turtle (B) Gharial Crocodiles
(C) Salt water crocodile (D) Sea Cow (Dugong)
148. Which of the following is not an ozone depleting substance?

(A) Nitrous oxide (B) Bromine oxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide (D) None of the above
149. Which of the following statements are correct regarding “Living Languages in the world”?
1. Pacific island nation Papua New Guinea topped the list with 840 living languages.
2. India ranked 4th position in the list with 453 languages.
3. In Total less than 5,000 living languages are there in the world.
4. There are 42 critically endangered languages in India.

M
150. The National Stock Exchange (NSE) and the _______ received permission from the Securities and
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to operate jointly in Gujarat International Finance Tec (GIFT) City.
(A) Nasdaq, USA
(B) Euronext, Europe
(C) Singapore Exchange (SGX), Singapore
(D) Shanghai Stock Exchange, Shanghai
151. Which of the following pair(s) is/are incorrect with reference to winners of tournaments in the
year 2019?
1. Australian Open - Roger Federer
2. French Open - Rafael Nadal
3. Wimbledon - Novak Djokovic
4. U.S. Open – Rafael Nadal
JI
H
152. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Consumer Protection Bill 2019?
N
1. This Bill replaced the Consumer Protection Act 1986
SI
2. Bill defined 6 consumer rights including the right to be protected against the marketing of goods
H
and services which are hazardous to life and property

DD
3. Under this Bill Central Government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)
4. CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs. 50 lakh and
U
imprisonment of up to 10 years for a false advertisement.

IR

AN
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
153. Who among the following are the members of Cricket Advisory Committee of BCCI to select new
coach for Indian Cricket Team?
1. Kapil Dev 2. Shantha Rangaswamy
3. Anshuman Gaekwad 4. Dilip Vengsarkar
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
154. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Financial Bill and Appropriation Bill 2019?
1. Government imposed 2 rupees cess on petrol and diesel per litre.
2. 2%TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) on cash withdrawal of more than Rs. 1 crore from banks
3. Corporate Tax was brought down from 50% to 35%
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only

M
155. Which of the following statements are correct regarding 7th Economic Census of India?
1. The 7th Economic Census has commenced from Tripura
2. The last Economic Census was conducted in 2010.
3. The results of this Census would be available by March 2020.
4. The data will be collected from commercial establishments only.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
156.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan
Dhan Yojana?
1. This scheme will provide a minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000/month to small shopkeepers,
retail traders and the self-employed people.
2. Pension will be given to the beneficiaries after the attainment of 50 years of age.
3. Self-employed people, small shopkeepers and retail traders aged between 18-40 years and with
Goods and Services Tax (GST) turnover below Rs. 1.5 crore can avail the scheme.
JI
4. The above eligible persons should not be covered under the National Pension Scheme, Employees’
H
State Insurance Scheme.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only N
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3, and 4 only
SI
157. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural
Livelihood Mission?
H
1. It is a poverty alleviation scheme launched in 2011 as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
DD
and was succeeded by Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana in 2016.

2. The aim of the programme is organizing the rural poor women into Self Help Groups (SHGs), and
U
continuously supporting them to take economic activities

IR
3. The mission is supported by World Bank.

AN
158. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Inter-State River Dispute Tribunal Bill 2019?
(A) It proposes the Central Government to set up Disputes Resolution Committee (DRC), for resolving
any inter-state water disputes.
(B) It also proposes to set up single, permanent Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal to adjudicate
on inter-state river water disputes.
(C) This tribunal cannot have other tribunal benches
(D) It will comprise Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and not more than six nominated members.
159. Which of the following statements are correct regarding India’s first Solar Mission Aditya L1?
1. It aims to put Aditya-L1 satellite (800 kg) into a halo orbit around Lagrangian point L1 of Sun
2. The L1 point is situated at a distance of about 1500 km from the Earth
3. The satellite will carry 7 payloads including the main payload Visible Emission Line Coronagraph
(VELC).

M
160. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the new National Human Rights Commission
Bill (Amendment) 2019?
1. As per the Bill a former Supreme Court judge can also be made the chairperson of the National
Human Rights Commission.
2. The Bill provides for five persons having knowledge of human right to be appointed as the
members of the NHRC.
3. It allows 10 members to be appointed of which at least 3 members will be women.
4.
The Bill reduces the office term of chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC to
3 years from the current 5 years.
161. Benjamin Netanyahu has won 5th term as Prime Minister of Israel in 2019, he belongs to _______ party.
(A) Kadima (B) Likud (C) Balad (D) Meretz
162. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

1. National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) of USA made India’s status equal to the US-NATO
partner.
JI
2. The other Nato ally partner countries are Israel and South Korea
H
3.
N
This will result in increased defense and maritime cooperation between India and the US.
SI
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) None of the above
H
DD
163. Which of the following statements are correct according to Economic Survey 2018-19 of Government
of India?
U
1. 93.1% of households have access to toilets.

IR
2. 96.5% of those with access to toilets are using them in rural India.
AN
3. 50 % Individual Household Latrine (IHHL) coverage in 30 states and Union Territories.

164.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Economic Survey of India 2018-19 of
Government of India?
1. 2.5 times increase in per capita energy consumption needed for India to increase its real per
capita GDP by $5000 at 2010 prices.
2. 4 times increase in per capita energy consumption needed for India to achieve 0.8 Human
Development Index score.
3. India now stands at 4th in wind power, 5th in solar power and 5th in renewable power installed
capacity.
4. Thermal power still plays a dominant role at 60% share.
165. Niti Aayog has launched Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index 2019. Maharashtra
achieves first rank, whereas Gujarat secures _______________ .
(A) 3rd rank (B) 2nd rank
(C) 4th rank (D) 1st rank along with Maharashtra

M
166. According to Government of India which of the following states is the best performing state in Beti
Bachao and Beti Padhao scheme?
(A) Haryana (B) Uttarakhand (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Bihar
167. Which of the following trains is the first train to be operated by the Private Players?
(A) Delhi-Kalka Megha Express (B) Delhi-Chandigarh Shatabdi Express
(C) Delhi–Lucknow Tejas Express (D) Delhi-Mumbai Business Express
168. Who among the following actresses won the Best Actress award in recent National Film Awards 2019?
(A) Alia Bhatt (B) Nayantara
(C) Niveditha (D) Keerti Suresh
169. Government of India has announced Bharata Ratna for Shri Nanaji Deshmukh , which of the following
statements is/are incorrect regarding Nanaji Deshmukh?
1. He is credited with bolstering Jana Sangh in Uttar Pradesh
2. He established the first Saraswati Shishu Mandir at Gorakhpur in 1950
3. He has been honoured with Padma Vibhushan earlier
JI
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only
H
(C) 3 only (D) None of the above
N
SI
1. Recently India has signed United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements
H
2. The above convention is also known as New Delhi Convention on Mediation.

DD
3. So far 46 countries have signed this agreement.

4. It provides uniform framework for enforcing international settlement agreements.
U
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 3 and 4 only

IR
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only

AN
171.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding One Nation One Card Scheme of
Government of India?
1. One Nation One Card scheme is related to Public Distribution System of India
2. This scheme is related to National Registration of Citizens Card
3.
On pilot basis, this scheme was implemented in Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Telangana and
Maharashtra
172. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Nagar Kirtan which was in the news
recently?
1. It was a religious procession of Hindu devotees from Pakistan to India
2. The religious procession comprised and led by Sikhs from Punjab province of Pakistan to Punjab
in India.
3.
The procession comprised Hindus from Hinglaj Temple in Pakistan to Vaishnodevi temple
in India.
4. This was a common procession comprising Hindus and Sikhs
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 only (C) 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only

M
173. Which of the following Chinese bank got permission to offer regular services in India from RBI?
(A) Bank of Mandarin (B) Bank of Sichuan
(C) Bank of China (D) We Bank of Schengen
174. According to World Bank, India was the _______ largest economy in the world with _______ trillion
dollars GDP in 2018.
(A) 6th and 3.7 (B) 7th and 2.73
(C) 9th and 4.21 (D) None of the above
175. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Code on Wages Bill, 2019 of Government
of India?
1. Wages include salary, allowance, or any other component expressed in monetary terms.
2. According to Bill, Minimum wages will be notified by the Central or State governments.
3. The minimum wages will be revised and reviewed by the Central or State governments at an
interval of not more than 10 years.
4. The wage period will be fixed by the employees as either daily, weekly, fortnightly, or monthly.
JI
H
N
176. Indian Council of Medical Research recently released two new medicines namely IMMUVAC and
VPM 1002 as first preventive trial to control _______ disease.
SI
(A) HIV/AIDS (B) Polio (C) Malaria (D) Tuberculosis
H
177. The World’s first Ultra Fast Hyperloop project worth 10 billion dollars was granted to _______ state.
DD
(A) Gujarat (B) Telangana (C) New Delhi (D) Maharashtra

U
178. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Vahali Dikri Yojana of Gujarat?
IR
1. This scheme is a Flagship Financial Scheme for Girl Child

AN
2. The scheme is launched in order to improve the child sex ratio in the state, which currently stands
at 890 girl child per 1000 male child.
3. The girl child will get INR 10,000 at the time of admission into 5th class
4. At the time of marriage the girl child will get one lakh rupees from the government.
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
179. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile
(QRSAM)?
1. This missile has a solid fuel propellant technology
2. This missile has a range of 250-300 KMs
3. It is equipped with electronic countermeasures against jamming by aircraft radars.
4. This missile has been developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

M
180. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019?
1. The Bill includes contracting a ‘close relative’ as a surrogate by a heterosexual married couple
who have been childless.
2. The intending couple should have a ‘certificate of essentiality’ and a ‘certificate of eligibility’
issued by the appropriate authority.
3. The couple should be Indian citizens and married for at least 5 years with the age between
23 and 50 years for a woman and between 26 and 55 years for a man.
181. Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched regarding merger of various Public Sector
Banks?
Anchor bank Amalgamation Banks
1. Punjab National Bank — Oriental Bank of Commerce
2. Indian Bank — Corporation Bank and Allahabad Bank
3. Andhra Bank — Syndicate Bank and Canara Bank
4. Union Bank — United Bank of India
JI
H
N
182. Prime Minister Narendra Modi conferred Yoga Awards 2019. _______ won the Individual National
Category.
SI
(A) Swami Satyendra Vyas from Gujarat (B) Swami Rajarshi Muni of Gujarat
H
(C) Swami Murugeshan of Tamil Nadu (D) Swami Sivananda Sharma of Andhra Pradesh
DD
183. The Ministry of Human Resources Development of India has launched world’s largest Integrated
Online Junction “Shagun” for _______.
U
(A) Private Universities (B) Technological Institutes

IR
(C) Schools (D) Research Institutes

AN
184. Who among the following Indian Actor ranked in the top 5 highest paid actors list 2019 by Forbes
Magazine?
(A) Amitabh Bachhan (B) Sharukh Khan
(C) Amir Khan (D) Akshay Kumar
185. Which of the following countries has sent a Humanoid Robot Named “Fedor” into space recently?
(A) Russia (B) USA (C) UK (D) France
186. Which of the following day is observed as “International Day for the Remembrance of the Slave Trade
and its Abolition” by UNESCO?
(A) 2nd August (B) 14th August
(C) 23rd August (D) 31st August
187. “Sabka Vishwas” a scheme launched by the Central Government has been started for _______.
(A) Tax Payers (B) Police Department
(C) Customs Department (D) International Affairs

M
188. World Gold Council released the 2019 list of Gold Reserves in each country. Which of the following
statements are correct?
1. USA topped the list with reserves of nearly 8133 tonnes
2. India has ranked 9th within individual country category excluding the IMF in the list
3. India has ranked 10th within overall country category including the IMF in the list
4. India is having approximately 2000 tonnes of gold reserves (With Government) according to the
Report.
189. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s visit to
Russia?
1. Indian and Russia signed an MoU for the Manufacture and Assembly of Primary Trainer Aircraft,
DAKSH between Yakovlev Design Bureau and Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)
2. India has ordered $14.5 billion worth of weapons from Russia
3. India extended a credit line of $100 billion for the development of Russia’s Far East.
JI
4. PM launched ‘Act Far East’ Policy for Russia
H
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 only (C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
190.
N
Which of the following statements are correct regarding mineral exploration?
SI
1.
The Atomic Minerals Directorate (AMD) for exploration and research explored two atomic
H
minerals in Gujarat.
DD
2. The AMD estimated 19, 546 tons of niobium oxide and 3.46 lakh tons of rare earth elements oxide.
3. These minerals are found in Chhotaudepur District of Gujarat
U
4. The AMD also explored 4.12 lakh tons of thorium from the same place.
IR
AN

1. A sherpa is the personal representative of a head of state or government who prepares an
international summit.
2. Suresh Prabhu has been appointed Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s sherpa for the G20 summit.
3. The Sherpa engages in planning, negotiation and implementation tasks through the Summit.
4. The Sherpa will be selected from the Cabinet only
192. Which of the following statements are correct regarding North Eastern Council?
1. The 68th plenary session of this council was headed by Prime Minister.
2. This council was established by North Eastern Council Act of 1972
3. All Governors and Chief Ministers of all North Eastern States are the members in this council
4. The Council will be chaired by the Union Home Minister.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 3 and 4 only

M
193. The International Literacy Day is observed on 8th September of every year, the theme of this year
is _______.
(A) Literacy and Multilingualism (B) Literacy to Every One
(C) Literacy and Society (D) Literacy, Languages and Learning
194. Which of the following Indian cricketers has started campaign for conservation of Rhinos in India?
(A) Virat Kohli (B) Rohit Sharma (C) Mithali Raj (D) MS Dhoni
195. To which of the following countries, India has announced one million dollars humanitarian aid to
overcome the Dorian hurricane destruction?
(A) Bahamas (B) Brazil (C) Mangolia (D) Costa Rica
196.
The SLINEX-2019, the bilateral maritime exercise between India and Sri Lanka commenced
at _______.
(A) Chennai (B) Mumbai (C) Vizag (D) Tuticorin
197. Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Games of India?
1. The upcoming National games in October will be 36th National Games of India.
JI
2. These games will be held in Amaravati
H
3. Smiling Clouded Leopard is the mascot for 2019 National Games.
4. The 2022 National Games will be held in Meghalaya
N
SI
H
198. Prime Minister of India and PM of Nepal jointly inaugurated a petroleum products pipeline recently.
DD
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding this?

1. It is South Asia's first cross border petro products pipeline.
U
2. It is more than 600 KMs pipeline.

IR
3. The price of petroleum products reduced by Rs. 2 for Nepal

AN
4. The pipeline is between Amlekhagunj, Nepal and Dibrugarh, Assam.

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 2 only
199. Which of the following is/are correct regarding Sample Registration Survey in India?
1. According to this, women are expected to live for 70.4 years
2. Men are expected to live for 67.8 years
3. Highest difference in male and female life expectancy was recorded at 10 years in Uttarakhand.
4. The variance was about 2.6 years in female-male life expectancy at birth at the national level
200. Which of the following organization has decided to publish Guru Nanak Dev's writings in world
languages on the occasion of 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev.
(A) UNESCO
(B) Shiromani Gurdwara Prabandhak Committee
(C) International Sikh Akada
(D) American Sikh Association.
______________________________

40/201819
Exam Date: 23-10-2018
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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1. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the Harappan Civilisation is (are) correct?
1. The Dholavira is the largest Harappan site in Gujarat.
2. The evidence of ‘dual’ interment, the so-called ‘Sati’ burial, are found from Lothal.
3. Lustrous Red Ware is a hallmark of mature phase of Sorath Harappan.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 1 (C) Only 1 and 2 (C)1Only 1 and 3

1. Alexander invaded north-western India in 326-327 BCE.
2. He was accompanied by scholars who wrote about his campaign.
3. Megasthenes’ Indica is a valuable historical source for Mauryan India.
4. Megasthenes’ Indica is survived only in quotations (fragments) by latter writers.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 1, 2 and 4 (C) Only 1, 3 and 4 (D)1Only 1, 2 and 3
3. T he Annirruvar (five hundred swamis of Aihole) were the most celebrated ……………….. of southern India.
(A) Weavers’ group (B) Group of soldiers
(C) Federation of feudal lords (D) Merchant guild
JI
4. T here are similarities as well as differences between the Buddhist and Jain religions. Choose (Identify)
H
the differences between the two religions.
(A) Atheist N (B) Simple Lifestyle | Good Conduct
SI
(C) Work-oriented (D) Non-existence of Atma (Soul)
H
5. hich of the following statements regarding Rajendra Chola-I are correct?

W
DD
1. He extended his sway up to the Ganga in the north and assumed ‘Gangaikonda Cholan’ title.
2. He conquered areas which are now known as Malaysia, Indonesia, Thailand, Sri Lanka and Maldives.
U
3. He built the famous ‘Brihadishvara temple’ dedicated to Lord Shiva.

IR
4. He founded a new city called ‘Gangaikonda Cholapuram.’

AN
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D)1Only 1, 2 and 4
6. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

1. The Gadhaiya coins were in circulation in the last centuries of first and initial centuries of second
millennium CE.
2. They were in circulation mainly in northern and western India.
3. They were bronze coins coated with silver.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D)1Only 2

1. In 1934 Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya constituted a breakaway Congress Nationalist Party.
2. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviaya didn’t appreciate Gandhiji’s movement of Dalitoddhar.
3. Gandhiji accepted the ‘MacDonald Award.’
4. With regard to Poona Pact (1932), the Congress Working Committee adopted ‘neither rejection nor
acceptance’ stand.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 1 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D)1Only 1 and 3

8. Which of the following statements regarding The Charter Act of India (1813) are correct?
1. Made provisions for education in British India.
2. Christian Missionaries were formally permitted to propagate Christianity.
3. ‘Governor General of Bengal’ was redesignated as ‘Governor General of India.’
4. British East India Company became solely an administrative body.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1, 2 and 4 (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
9. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about Ramananda?
1. He welcomed disciples from all walks of life - irrespective of their caste, creed, gender and religion.
2. His verses are integral to Guru Granth Sahib.
3. He was the contemporary of Akbar, the Mughal Emperor.
4. Ramanujacharya who believed in ‘Social Equality’ was his Guru.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3 (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 1 only
10. W
hich inscription of the Kushana period informs about the system of ‘Dual Governorship’ in a province
of Kushanas?
(A) The Panjatar inscription
(B) The Rabatak inscription (Afghanistan) of Kanishka
JI
(C) The Bala Bodhisattva image inscription from Sarnath
H
(D) Mathura pillar inscription
N
11. Who of the following Gupta dynasty issued the Ashvamedha coin?
SI
1. Samudragupta 2. Chandragupta - II (Vikramaditya)
3. Kumaragupta - I 4. Skandagupta
H
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1, 2 and 4
DD
12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the second Karnatic War?
U
1. The siege of Arcot took place in 1751.

2. The war took place between British East India Company led by Robert Clive and Nawab of Arcot.
IR
3. The Nawab was supported by the French East India Company.

AN
4. Arcot is in Tamil Nadu.

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1
13. Which of the following statements regarding the Anglo-Mysore Wars are correct?
1. Hyderali won the first Anglo-Mysore War.
2. Tipu defeated Baillie in the second Anglo-Mysore War.
3. Tipu Sultan was defeated in the third Anglo-Mysore War.
4. Tipu Sultan was killed in the fourth Anglo-Mysore War.
14. With regard to Mahagujarat Andolan which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
1. The Chief Minister of the Bombay State was against the idea of having a separate state.
2. A few students martyred in front of the Congress House near Lal Darwaza, Ahmedabad on August
8, 1956.
3. Rivers like Mahi, Tapi and Narmada were not considered for major projects during the first
five-year Plan was the cause of Mahagujarat Andolan.
4. Indulal Yagnik didn’t contest the election of 1957 out of his protest against Mahagujarat Andolan.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 2 (D)1, 2, 3 and 4

15. W
ho abolished the use of Persian as court language and ordered the use of Vernacular Languages?
(A) William Bentinck (B) Charles Cornwallis
(C) Warren Hastings (D) None of the above
16. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Walker’s Settlement?
1. Walker’s Settlement was carried out between the Gaekwads of Vadodara and the Saurashtra chiefs.
2. The Gaekwads of Vadodara didn’t like it because they felt it as an interference of Britishers in
Saurashtra.
3. The Gaekwads of Vadodara welcomed it as it ensured a regular payment without any military
expeditions.
4. It brought Saurashtra under British control.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 3 (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 1, 3 and 4
17. Where did Sultan Bahadur Shah permit the Portuguese to construct a fort?
(A) Bharuch (B) Diu (C) Surat (D) Jafrabad
18. Who founded the Gaekwads’ Maratha rule in Vadodara?

(A) Damaji Rao - I (B) Damaji Rao - II (C) Sayaji Rao - I (D) Pilaji Rao
JI
H
19. In which of the following princely states Shyamaji Krishna Varma had not served?
(A) Ratlam (B) Udaipur N
(C) Kutch (D) Junagadh
SI
20. Arrange the following in chronological order:
H
1. Establishment of Gujarat Vidyapeeth

2. Home Rule Movement
DD
3. Shifting of Capital from Calcutta to Delhi

4. Swadeshi Movement
U
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 2, 1, 4, 3 (C) 3, 2, 1, 4 (D) 1, 4, 2, 3

IR
AN
21. Film Reva is adapted from a Gujarati novel titled ..........................

(A) Othar (B) Tatvamasi (C) Jai Somnath (D) Amruta
22. Where among the following was the First ‘Praja Mandal’ was set up?
(A) Baroda (B) Bhavnagar (C) Rajkot (D) Wadhwan
23. In 1858, Waghers attacked the Gaekwad army and British troops stationed in the Baroda state and
forced them to retreat. The rebels established their control over Dwaraka and Bet. Who was declared
the leader of the rebels and King of Dwaraka thereafter?
(A) Mukhi Garbaddas (B) Thakore Jiyabhai
(C) Govind Rao (D) Jodha Manek
24. ‘Police Action’ against …………………….. princely state was titled as Operation Polo.
(A) Junagadh (B) Travancore (C) Kashmir (D) Hyderabad
25. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Mahalwari Settlement?
1. It was a modified version of the Permanent Settlement.
2. The land revenue was fixed permanently in this system.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

26. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Theosophical Society?
1. It was founded in 1875 by Madam H. P. Blavatsky and a former English army officer,
Colonel H. S. Olcott.
2. Its aim was to achieve a universal brotherhood of man.
3. It focussed at promoting the study of ancient religion and philosophy.
4. It emphasized on occultism.
(A) Only 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 1, 3 and 4 (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
27. The Travancore Rebellion in 1809 was led by its Diwan ............................
(A) Velu Thampi (B) Kerala Varma
(C) Marudu Pandyan (D) None of the above
28. The Treaty of Amritsar (1809) was an agreement between Ranjit Singh and …………………...
(A) Wellesley (B) Metcalfe (C) Bentinck (D) Mayo
29. …
…………………, a socio-religious organization, was co-founded by Mehtaji Durgaram Manchharam of
Surat.
(A) Manav Dharma Sabha (B) Parmahansa Mandali
JI
(C) Satya Mahima Dharma (D) None of the above
H
30. A
non-Brahmin movement emerged in south India under the leadership of E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker
‘Periyar’ is known as …………………………. N
SI
(A) Self-Respect Movement (B) Justice Movement
H
(C) Dravidian Movement (D) Low-Caste Movement

DD
31. Whose court physician was Charak?

(A) Harsh Vardhana (B) Kanishka
U
(C) Ashoka (D) Chandra Gupta Maurya

IR
32. The Mandsaur Inscription and Indore copper plate of Skanda Gupta suggest that ………………
AN
(A) They were powerful guilds of various craftsmen.

(B) They were economically quite well-off.
(C) They migrated from place to place.
33. Navanitakam of the Gupta period was a book on …………………….
(A) Astronomy (B) Mathematics (C) Medicine (D) Astrology
34. ………………….. is the philosophy of Vallabhacharya.
(A) Advaitavada (B) Vishishta Advaita
(C) Shuddha Advaitavada (D) Duaita Advaitavada
35. ……………………… – an Indian revolutionary couldn’t be imprisoned in the Kakori Robbery Case.
(A) Chandra Shekhar Azad (B) Roshan Singh
(C) Rajendra Lahiri (D) Ashfaqullah Khan
36. …
……………… - a Ghadarite leader referred to the Mexican revolutionaries as the Mexican Ghadarites.
(A) Ajit Singh (B) Barkatullah
(C) Lala Har Dayal (D) Sohan Singh Bhakna

37. What is Kalaripayattu according to India’s culture and tradition?
(A) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of Southern India.
(B) It is an ancient style bronze and brasswork still found in southern part of Coromandel area.
(C) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar.
(D) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of Southern India.
38. W
hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct regarding the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)?
1. It was founded during the Non-Cooperation Movement.
2. Lala Lajpat Rai was its first elected president.
3. Indian National Congress opposed its formation.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 only (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
39. Match the following by selecting the correct option regarding museums in Gujarat.
List 1 List 2
1. Calico Museum a. Gautam Sarabhai
2. Lalbhai Dalpatbhai Museum b. Agamprabhakar Muni Shri Punyavijayji Maharaj
3. Kite Museum c. Bhanu Shah
JI
4. Sardar Patel Museum d. Moti Shahi Mahal
H
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
(C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
N(D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
SI
40. Match the locations of the libraries older than 100 years in Gujarat by selecting the correct option.
H
List 1 List 2
DD
1. Raichand Deepchand Library a. Bharuch

2. Desai Nanji & Sheth Zavershah Harjivan Library b. Porbandar
U
3. Stuart Public Library c. Godhra

IR
4. Lang Library d. Rajkot

AN
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
(C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c (D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
41. Hathee Singh Jain Temple is dedicated to_____________ Tirthankara.

(A) Dharamanath (B) Neminath
(C) Mallinath (D) Adinath
42. P
opularly sung at Navratri festival and weddings in Gujarat, Sanedo has originated from ……………….
(A) Rajkot (B) Patan (C) Dang (D) Limkheda
43. …
……………………. is not a folk dance form of Gujarati Garba.
(A) Palli Jag (B) Kahalya (C) Dumhal (D) Hudo
44. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Hallisaka dance?
1. The dance is very significant in the Harivansha Purana.
2. The dancers form a circle with their hands joined together to form a chain.
3. A young man who acts as Lord Krishna stands in the middle of the ‘Gopis.’
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

45. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Chitra-Vichitra Mela in Gujarat?
1. It is held at the village of Gubhakhari.
2. The name of the fair is derived from Chitravirya and Vichitraviraya, the sons of King Shantanu.
3. Fair is held a day before Holi.
46. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Tangaliya work?
1. It is a famous wood carving and traditional craft of Gujarat.
2. These are puppets vibrantly coloured and beautifully hand-painted.
3. It is usually worn as a wraparound skirt by the women of the Bharwad shepherd community.
47.
Jaykumari-Vijay, a play written by ………………………………… is considered as the first modern love story of
Gujarati Literature.
(A) Ranchhodbhai Udayaram Dave (B) C. C. Mehta
(C) Bapulal Naik (D) Pragji Dosa
JI
48. Which of the following temple(s) is(are) located on Girnar Mountain?
H
1. The Jain temple of Neminath
2. The Jain temple of Mallinath
N
SI
3. The temple of Samprati Raja
H

DD
49.
Natak Bhajavata - A book on theatre criticism is written by …………………………….. .
(A) Dalpatram (B) C. C. Mehta (C) K. M. Munshi (D) Janak Dave
U
IR
50. …
……………………… has translated Uncle Vanya by Anton Chekhov into Gujarati as Vanya Mama.
AN
(A) Hasmukh Baradi (B) Anila Dalal (C) Ranjana Harish (D) Rita Kothari
51. Match the following information by selecting the correct option regarding crafts of Gujarat.
List 1 List 2
1. Sadeli a. Bhujodi
2. Ajrakh block printing b. Dhamadka
3. Colourful shawls and blankets c. Poshina
4. Terracotta horses d. Surat
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (B) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d
(C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c (D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
52. S elect the correct option from the choices given below regarding the examples of Torana architecture
in Gujarat.
1. Sun Temple, Modhera
2. Rudramahalaya, Siddhpur
3. Ranchodji Temple, Valam

53. Which of the following lyric(s) is(are) written by Jhaverchand Meghani?
1. Supdu Savalakhnu…
2. Aaso Maso Sharad Poonam ni Raat Jo….
3. Man Mor Bani Thangat Kare…
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
54. T he local artisans of …………………………… district has mastered the Kamangari Art (A form of Fresco).
(A) Surendranagar (B) Kutch (C) Morbi (D) Panchmahal
55. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct and indicates the existence of Buddhism in Gujarat?
1. Illustrated miniature manuscripts in Vadodara Museum Collection
2. Sculptures in the step well of Adalaj
3. Asokan Rock edict in Junagadh
4. All of the above
(A) Only 1 and 4 (B) Only 1 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) Only 3
56. Ra-Lakha folklore refers to the king of ……………………...
(A) Kutch (B) South Gujarat (C) North Gujarat (D) All of the above
JI
57. Prag-Mahal in Kutch is built in ………………………. architectural style.
(A) Indo-Islamic (B) Indian-ethnic (C) Italian Gothic (D) Mughal Style
H
58. H N
indola Raga miniature painting depicts which of the following God and Goddess?
SI
(A) Shiva and Parvati (B) Krishna and Radha
(C) Indra and Indrani (D) Ganesha and Riddhi
H
59. A
ditya Ram, state musician of princely state .............................. popularised the singing style of
DD
Chaturang a variant of Drupad.

(A) Vadodara (B) Bhavnagar (C) Jamnagar (D) Balasinor
U
60. Who is the artist of Banyan the identity sculpture of Vadodara?

IR
(A) Gulam Mohammad Sheikh (B) Nagji Patel

AN
(C) Bhupen Khakkhar (D) K. G. Subramaniyam

1. Saptamatruka sculptures are popular in Gujarat.
2. Saptamatruka worshipping started in Gujarat during Kshatrap time.
3. Saptamatrukas are generally carved in single panels.
4. Saptamatruka shrines are located at Pacchtar, Adodar and Balej in Gujarat.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
62. …………………… is a famous Jain monk for miniature painiting of 14th century.
(A) Kalakacharya (B) Vikramacharya
(C) Virbhadracharya (D) None of the above
63. Choose the correct combination of information from the following pairs.
(A) Rathwa – Maharashtra (B) Warli – Chhota Udaipur
(C) Garasiya – Madhya Pradesh (D) None of the above
64. Which of the following deity is depicted in Yogasana posture on Indus Seal?
(A) Tirthankara (B) Buddha
(C) Pashupathi (D) None of the above

65. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect about Pichvai?
1. Pichvai is the temple wall hanging used as a backdrop of the God’s idol.
2. Pichvai is cloth painting.
3. Pichvai depicts scenes of Krishna’s life.
4. Pichvai is the popular art form of southern India.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 and 4 (D) Only 4
66. W
hich among the following is the correct description of Nagara, Dravida and Vesara?
(A) The three main racial groups
(B) Three linguistic divisions
(C) Three main styles of Indian temple architecture
(D) Musical gharanas
67. K
ishangarh School of Rajasthan is famous for …………………
(A) Painting (B) Dance (C) Sculpture (D) Architecture
68. P
andavani is a traditional dance|drama|theatre of which one of the following states?
JI
(A) Chhattisgarh (B) Bihar (C) Jharkhand (D) Telangana
H
69.
Dada Hari.ni Wav (Stepwell|Baoli) is located at ………………………….
(A) Bhavnagar (B) Surat N
(C) Junagadh (D) Ahmedabad
SI
70. The walls of Nagara style temples are known as ………………….
H
(A) Mandovar (B) Stambh

DD
(C) Toran (D) Shrunkhala (Chain)

71. The first female graduate of Gujarat is ……………………………
U
(A) Shardagauri Mehta (B) Vinodini Nilkanth (C) Usha Mehata (D) Lilawati Munshi
IR
72. The mansions (Havelis) of Gujarat are influenced by ……………………… style of Architecture.
AN
(A) Chaulakya (B) Maru-Gurjar (C) Nagar (D) Neo-Gothic

List I List II
a. Sankardev 1. Rasik School
b. Chaitanyadev 2. Veershaiva School
c. Basveshwar 3. Gaudiya School
d. Nabhadas 4. Mahapurushiya School
(A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 (B) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 (C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 (D) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
74. Famous Gujarati play Santu Rangili is inspired from an English play …………………………
(A) Antony and Cleopatra (B) Electra
(C) The Chairs (D) Pygmalion
75. The lyricist of a song ‘Dhanvan Jeevan Mane chhe Koi Anubhavine Poochhi Jo Ke Kon Jeevi Jane Chhe…’
of Gujarati Theatre is …………………………………………
(A) Raskavi Raghunath Brahmbhatt (B) Prabhulal Dwivedi
(C) Chandrakant Shah (D) Manasvi Prantijwala

76. Choose the correct option by matching the following texts with their authors:
Works Authors
a. Kahe koyal shor machaye 1. Saumya Joshi
b. Aurangzeb 2. Harish Nagrecha
c. Ek lalni rani 3. Chinu Modi
d. Aathama taranu Aakash 4. Labhshankar Thaker
(A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 (B) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 (D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
77. …………………. is situated at a confluence of rivers - Kapila, Saraswati and Hiranya.
(A) Chanod (B) Dwarka (C) Bhalka (D) Modhera
78. D
oobla people celebrate their festival ……………………… by making big doll (Dhinglo).
(A) Akhatreej (B) Shravani Poonam (C) Divaso (D) Holi
79. …
…………………………… was Indian revolutionary who participated in the Indian independence movement
until she was shot dead by the British Indian police in front of police station on 29th September 1942.
She was affectionately known as ‘Gandhi buri.’
JI
(A) Aruna Asaf Ali (B) Matangini Hazra
(C) Mallu Swarajyam (D) Durgabai Deshmukh
H
N
80. Renowned film musician Jaikishan was born in ……………………………. of Gujarat.
SI
(A) Dabhoi (B) Palitana (C) Vansda (D) Vadnagar
81. W
hich of the following father-son duo was conferred with National Sahitya Academy year’s best book
H
award for their distinctive contributions in the literary field?

DD
(A) Harivallabh Bhayani-Utpal Bhayani

(B) Zhaverchand Meghani-Mahendra Meghani
U
(C) Ramanlal Joshi-Prabodh Joshi

IR
(D) Mahadev Desai-Narayan Desai

AN
82. What is Hridaya Kunj?

(A) A place at Bardoli (B) A place at Gandhi Ashram
(C) A place at Vadodara (D) A place at Laxmivilas Palace
83. Kutchhi language is a mix of which two languages?
(A) Kakri and Sindhi (B) Sindhi and Gujarati
(C) Parsi and Kakri (D) Kakri and Kathiyawadi
84. The first theatre group of Gujarati, Parsee Natak Mandali was founded by ………………………….
(A) Framjee Gustadjee Dalal (B) Vaghji Oza
(C) Ranchhodlal Dave (D) K. M. Munshi
85. S haheed Bhagat Singh was a part of which of the following organization(s)?
(A) Naujavan Bharat Sabha (B) Hindustan Socialist Republic Association
(C) Kirti Kisan Party (D) All of the above
86. Saptayatan style temple is located at ………………………… in Gujarat.
(A) Dhrasanvel (B) Chakrabhrut
(C) Kalvad (D) Sarama

87. Who among the following was awarded Sangeet Natak Akademy Award (New Delhi) for stage direction?
(A) Mohan Lalaji (B) Mulchand Nayak (C) Nayak Keshavlal (D) Kasambhai Mir
88. Swami Haridas is famous for his devotional compositions in ____________ style.
(A) Thumari (B) Charchari (C) Dhrupad (D) Tappa
89. Rural Olympics was organized at …………………………. in India.
(A) Kerala (B) Lucknow (C) Jaisalmer (D) Kila Raypur
90. Sarth Gujarati Jodanikosh is published by ………………………………..
(A) Gujarati Sahitya Parishad (B) Gujarat University
(C) Gujarat Vidyapith (D) Narmad Sahityasabha
1. According to the Representation of People Act (1950), the relevant date for determining the age
qualification of 18 years to enroll as first time voters is described as follows: “Qualifying Date means
the first day of January of the year in which the electoral roll is prepared or revised.”
2. The electoral rolls are prepared Lok Sabha constituency wise.
JI
3. person disqualified due to ‘Corrupt Practices’ or offences relating to elections is not entitled to be
A
H
registered in the electoral rolls.
4. N
young citizen of India completing 18 years on 9th November 2018 will be able to vote for the
A
SI
assembly elections to be held in December 2018.
H
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
DD

1. Sarkaria Commission recommended the establishment of Inter-State Council.
U
2. Inter-State Council was notified and established by the Presidential order.

IR
3. Inter-State Council was the recommendation of the States Committee of Constituent Assembly.
AN
93. Which statement of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552.
(B) O
ut of 552, 530 members represent the States and 20 members represent the Union Territories
through elections.
(C) The Chairman of All Parliamentary committees are nominated by the Speaker.
1. T he judgment in First Judges Case declared that the Primacy of The CJI’s recommendations to the
President can be refused for cogent reasons.
2. T he judgment in Second Judges Case declared that “justiciability” and “primacy” required that the
CJI be given the “primal” role in such appointments.
3. T he judgment in Three Judges Case ruled out the concept of “primacy” of the highest judiciary over
the executive.
(A) Only 2 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1 and 3

1. Government of India Act (1919) provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission
in India.
2. The Public Service Commission was set up in India for the first time In 1926.
3. With the existence of Indian Constitution in 1950 the Federal Public Service Commission came to be
known as the Union Public Service Commission.
4. Chairman and Members of the Federal Public Service Commission became Chairman and Members
of the Union Public Service Commission by Article 378 of Indian Constitution.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 2, 3 and 4
1. Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have a tenure of 06 years, or up to the
age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
2. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India holds office for a term of 06 years or until
attains age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
3. The retirement age for the Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is 65 years and comes with a four-
year fixed term.
4. A person who holds office as a member of a Public Service Commission shall, on the expiration of
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his term of office, be ineligible for reappointment to that office.
H
97. W
N
hich of the following statements are incorrect regarding SAARC Charter?
SI
1. Its objective is to promote the welfare of the people of ASIA and to improve their quality of life.
H
2. The Heads of State or Government shall meet once a year or more often as and when considered
DD
necessary by the Member States.

3. Former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi signed the SAARC Charter on behalf of Republic of India.
4. Total 10 Articles are there in SAARC Charter.
U
IR

AN
1. Erstwhile Ministry of Small Scale Industries and the Ministry of Agro and Rural Industries were
merged to form the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
2. In Service Sector, Micro Enterprise Category investment should not exceed INR 25 lakhs in
Equipments.
3. In Manufacturing Sector, Medium Enterprise Category investment should be more than
INR 5 crores but should not exceed INR 10 crores in plant and machinery.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 3
99.
A Prepared Community is A Safe Community is the slogan of ………………………………………
(A) Community Policing Unit of Gujarat (B) National Disaster Management Authority
(C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (D) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
100. Sikshit Bharat - Swasth Bharat - Swachh Bharat - Swavalambi Bharat - Sampann Bharat is the Tagline of
______________________.
(A) Unnat Bharat Abhiyaan
(B) Skill India Programme
(C) Ayushman Bharat
(D) Atal Mission For Rejuvenation And Urban Transformation

101. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Vice-President of India?
1. When Vice-President of India acts as President of India, he doesn’t perform the duties of the
Chairperson of the Council of States.
2. Vice-President receives salary and other allowances as Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha not
as Vice-President of India.
3. Whenever Vice-President acts as President of India, he will not enjoy the powers, immunities and
privileges of President of India.
4. The Constitution is silent on who performs the duties of Vice-President, when a vacancy occurs in
the office of Vice-President.
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 2 and 4 (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
102. Which of the following statements are correct about Anti Defection Law?
1. A nominated member of a House will be disqualified if he joins any political party within six months
of his/her nomination.
2. If an independent legislator joins a political party he would lose membership.
3. An independent can choose to support any political party but should not attach himself to any
political party.
4. If a sole member of a political party in an Assembly joins another political party, he will be
JI
disqualified.
H
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2, 3 and 4 (C) Only 3 and 4 (D) Only 1 and 4
N
103. There are three categories of Advocates who are entitled to practice law before the Supreme Court of
SI
India. Which of the following category is not in the list?
(A) Constitutional Advocates (B) Senior Advocates
H
(C) Advocates on record (D) Other Advocates

DD
104. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to writs issued by the Supreme Court and
High Courts in India?
U
1. The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against public authorities only.
IR
2. The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body.

AN
3. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
4. The writ of Certiorari is available against legislative bodies and private individuals.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 4 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 3 and 4
105. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect with reference to the fundamental rights as
enshrined in the Indian Constitution?
1. All fundamental rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State only.
2. Some of them are legally enforceable while others are not.
3. Parliament can curtail or repeal them, but only through a constitutional amendment.
106. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct in the case when the Prime Minister of India belongs
to the Upper House of Parliament?
1. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion.
2. He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House.
3. He can make statements only in the Upper House.
4. He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as the
Prime Minister.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

107. W
hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?
1. He cannot preside over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
2. He is a member of the House but cannot vote in the first instance.
3. When a resolution for his removal is under consideration, he can speak and take part in the
proceedings but without right to vote.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 3
108. Which of the following statements regarding sessions of Parliament is incorrect?
(A) Adjourned sine die is done by the President, while Adjournment is done by the Speaker.
(B) Prorogation ends a session of the House, while Adjournment only ends a sitting.
(C) Dissolution of the Lok Sabha happens either automatically or by the President.
(D) Dissolution of the Rajya Sabha can’t take place because it is a permanent body.
109. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to constitutional amendments?
1. Private members can’t introduce Constitutional Amendment Bill in Parliament.
2. President can’t refer back Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by Parliament for reconsideration.
3. Constitutional Amendment Bill requires special majority for its approval.
JI
4. There can’t be a Joint Session of Parliament for passing a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
H
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2, 3 and 4 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1, 2 and 3
N
110. Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference to Indian Parliament?
SI
(A) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted
into law.
H
(B) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation
DD
made by the Appropriation Act.

(C) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making
U
changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.

IR

AN

1. The total strength of a Legislative Council shall not exceed 40 members subject to minimum of one-
third strength of Legislative Assembly.
2. The Legislative Council can have maximum of one-sixth nominated members. These members are
nominated by Governor on the recommendation of President.
112. In which of the following circumstances, courts are debarred to interfere in electoral matters?
1. Delimitation of constituencies
2. Allotment of seats to the constituencies
113. W
hich of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of President’s rule in
a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

114. W hich of the following statements are correct with reference to the status of ‘official language’ in India?
1. Hindi written in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union.
2. The Constitution specifies the official languages of different states.
3. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English only,
until Parliament provides otherwise.
115. Though the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the individual Ministers are
constitutionally responsible to :
(A) The Prime Minister (B) The President
(C) The Speaker (D) None of the above
116. What is the difference between ‘Vote-on-Account’ and ‘Interim Budget’?
1. The provision of a vote-on-account is used by a regular Government, while an interim budget is a
provision used by a care-taker Government.
2. A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an interim
budget includes both expenditure and receipts.
117. Which of the following statements are true about GST Council?
JI
1. The quorum for its meeting is 50% of the total members.
H
2. Central Government shall have weightage of 2/3rd of the votes and State Governments shall have
1/3rd weightage of the votes. N
SI
3. Council’s decisions are taken by the majority of not less than 3/4th of the weightage votes of the
members present and voting.
H
4. Only the finance minister of the States can represent the State in the GST meetings.
DD
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
118. Central Information Commission falls under....................... Ministry of Government of India.
U
(A) Home Affairs (B) Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

IR
(C) Information and Broadcasting (D) Law

AN
119. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding personal immunity from legal action to the
President | Governors?
(A) The court can’t compel the head of the state to perform any duty.
(B) The head of the state is not answerable to any court for the exercise of his duty.
(C) The court is barred from issuing a notice to make the head of the state answerable.
(D) Personal immunity bars a person to challenge the action of the head of the state in the court of law.
120. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the reservation of seats for representation
of certain sections of population in Panchayati Raj Institutions?
1. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes as per the proportion of their population size in the State.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes is linked with their population size.
3. Reservation of seats for Backward Classes is not necessarily linked with their population size.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
121. Union Public Service Commission is not consulted in the matters related to the ………………….
(A) Methods of recruitment to civil services.
(B) Disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under government of India in civil capacity.
(C) Disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under government of a state in a civil capacity.
(D) The manner in which effect may be given to the provisions of Article 335.

122. W
hich of the following sentence is not correct with reference to the National Pension System in India?
(A) It replaced the defined benefit pension system.
(B) It has been offered to all the citizens on voluntary basis.
(C) It is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority.
(D) The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Act was enacted in the year 2003.
123. W
hich of the following statements are correct with reference to the Child Labour (Prohibition and
Regulation) Amendment Act (1986) amended recently?
1. To ban child labour below 14 years.
2. To prohibit employment of adolescent labour aged 14-16 years in all sectors.
3. To prohibit employment of adolescent labour aged 14-18 years in hazardous sector.
4. To regulate their employment in non-hazardous sections.
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 1, 3 and 4 (C) Only 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both follow the method of proportional representation for electing
members.
2. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
JI
3. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha is fixed at 552.
4. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, (1988)
H
N
SI
1. The Governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration
H
of the President.
DD
2. During Financial Emergency the President may direct the State Government to send money bills
and related bills for his consideration.
3. The Governor also enjoys ‘Absolute and Suspensive’ veto like President of India.
U
IR
126. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Financial Bill?
AN
1. All money bills are financial bills but not all financial bills are money bills.
2. Some types of financial bills can be changed or rejected by the Rajya Sabha.
3. Some types of financial bills can be introduced in either of the Houses, Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
4. All types of financial bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
127. Which of the following feature(s) is(are) included in the fundamental structure of the Indian Constitution?
1. Judicial Review 2. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court
3. Federal Character 4. Free and Fair elections
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 and 4 (C) Only 1 and 4 (D) Only 1, 3 and 4
128. Which of the following statements are the provisions of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978)?
1. Restored the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts in respect of Judicial Review and
issues of writs.
2. Replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed rebellion’ with respect of national emergency.
3. The President can declare national emergency only on written recommendation of the Cabinet.
4. Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.

129. A
new Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its term
shall continue ………………………………………
(A) For next 5 years from the date of its first meeting and no longer.
(B) For the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued had it
not been dissolved.
(C) Till it enjoys the pleasure of the Governor.
(D) Till State Legislative Assembly allows it to continue.
130. Which unit of the following units is not functioning under Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)?
(A) Department of Atomic Energy (B) Department of Space
(C) National Security Council (D) National Capital Region Planning Board.
131. Recently constituted National SC/ST Hub (NSSH) is functioning under the ……………………….
(A) Ministry of Social Justice
(B) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
(C) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
JI
132. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect?
H
1. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman of Drafting Committee.
N
2. Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the Union Constitution Committee.
SI
3. Sardar Patel chaired Provincial Constitution Committee.
4. Sardar Patel chaired States Committee. (committee for negotiating with States)
H
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 (C) Only 4 (D) Only 2

DD
133. W
hich of the following statements with reference to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct?
1. The President can refer any matter of public interest to the Supreme Court of India to seek its
U
opinion.
IR
2. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding
AN
on the Government.
3. The Supreme Court under Article 32 can issue Writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights
of the citizens and for any other purpose.
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 2
134. The Indian Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international
treaties ....................................
(A) With the Consent of all States (B) With the Consent of majority of States
(C) With the Consent of States concerned (D) None of the above
135. W
hich of the following statements with reference to the no-confidence motion in Parliament are
correct?
1. There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of one no-confidence motion and
another.
3. At least one hundred members must support a motion of no-confidence motion.
4. A motion of no-confidence motion can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2 and 4 (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 1 and 4

136. A
t the commencement of the Constitution of India, every person shall be a citizen of India who has his
domicile in the territory of India and ……………………….
(A) Who was born in the territory of India.
(B) Either of whose parents was born in the territory of India.
(C) Who has been ordinarily residing in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately
preceding such commencement.
137. W
hich of the following is correct under Article 18 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) No title, not being a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State.
(B) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State.
(C) No person who is not a citizen of India shall, while he holds any office of profit or trust under the
State, accept without the consent of the President any title from any foreign State.
1. The Constitution amending power embodied in Article 368 is subject to the doctrine of ‘Basic
JI
structure’ propounded by the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala.
H
2. For Constitution amendment prior permission of the President of India is required.
N
3. The Constitution amendment Bill should initiate in Lok Sabha.
SI
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 3
H
139. In India, if a religious community is accorded status of national minority, then which are the entitlements?
DD
1. They can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.

2. President automatically nominates a member in Lok Sabha.
U
3. They can derive benefit from PM’s 15-point Programme of 2006.

IR
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 2 (D) Only 1 and 3
AN
140. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Inter-state council?
1. It is established by the order of the President.
2. Its nature of duties is defined by Parliament.
3. Its establishment is meant to serve the public interests.
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
141. W
hich of the following Act is not considered as a part of the Public Policy formulation process?
(A) Identification of public problems
(B) Putting of public problems on policy agenda
(C) Formulation of policy proposal to deal the problems
(D) Evaluation of the policy
1. Digital governance has been legalized by the Information Technology Act (2000) in India.
2. Information Technology Act is a watershed in conceptualizing administrative reforms in India.
3. Digital Governance is an attack on bureaucratic red-tapism.
(A) Only 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D)1, 2 and 3

143. Which of the following is(are) the attribute(s) of Human Rights?
1. Inalienability
2. Divisibility
3. Interdependence
(A) Only 2 and 3 (B) Only 1 and 3 (C) Only 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
144. T he allocation of seats in the council of states from the different states of the Union of India has been
provided in which of the following Schedule of the Constitution?
(A) First Schedule (B) Second Schedule (C) Third Schedule (D) Fourth Schedule
145. Which scheme was launched for the socio-economic empowerment of adolescent girls and young
women (AGYW)?
(A) Kishori (B) Tejaswini (C) Saksham (D) Sashaktikaran
146. Joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament is allowed during which of the following?
1. Ordinary Bill
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
JI
147. T he historic decision of the Supreme Court has accepted the right to Privacy, under the Article 21 of
H
Indian Constitution, which guarantees right to life and personal liberty, as a fundamental right. Which of
N
the following areas will get affected because of this decision?
SI
1. IPC Section 377
2. Euthanasia
H
DD
148. Which sentence of the following sentences is correct with reference to the provisions of the Government
of India Act (1858)?
U
(A) It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Director.
IR
(B) It also catered to the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal.
(C) Both A and B
AN

149. W
hich sentence of the following sentences is correct about the statutory bodies?
(A) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which Parliament and State Legislatures can pass.
(B) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes of the Constitution.
(C) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which Parliament and State Legislatures can’t pass.
150. W
hich of the following statements are correct with reference to the Article 371 of Indian Constitution?
1. Article 371 provides the establishment of separate Development Boards for Vidharbha, Marthwada
and rest of Maharashtra.
2. Article 371 provides the establishment of separate Development Boards for Kutch and rest of
Gujarat.
3. According to Article 371 Prime Minister is authorized to assign Governors of Maharashtra and
Gujarat would have special responsibilities for the above provisions.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
151. If all the numbers from 601 to 800 are written, what is the total number of times the digit 7 appears?
(A) 138 (B) 139 (C) 140 (D) 141

152. The ratio of areas of circumcircle and incircle of an equilateral triangle is?
(A) 2:1 (B) 1:3
(C) 1:4 (D) None of the above
153. Two linear equations: x + y = 3 and -15 – 3y = 3x has
(A) Unique solution (B) No solution
(C) Two solutions (D) Infinite number of solutions
154. In the figure below ∠ p is 135˚ and angle ∠ q is 143˚. If AB is parallel to CD, the value of ∠ x is?
A B
p
x
q
C D
(A) 45˚ (B) 68˚ (C) 78˚ (D) None of the above
irections for (155 to 159) – Read the following information carefully and choose correct option for given
D
questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven professionals who travel in three different vehicles – Maruti, Hyundai and
JI
Toyota. Among travellers in each vehicle, only one person is male. Out of the seven professionals there
H
are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers.
N
1. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with pair of sisters A and F, who always travel together.
SI
2. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in Maruti.
3. D is a male doctor.
H
4. Persons having same profession don’t travel in same vehicle.

DD
5. A is not an engineer and travels in Hyundai.

155. What is F’s profession?
U
(A) Teacher (B) Doctor

IR
(C) Engineer (D) None of the above

AN
156. In which vehicle C travels?

(A) Maruti (B) Hyundai (C) Toyota (D) Data Inadequate
157. Who are three teachers?
(A) FGE (B) EGA (C) BGF (D) None of the above
158. Which of following is correct?
(A) E is a male teacher who travels in Toyota (B) E is a lady teacher who travels in Toyota
(C) G is a male teacher who travels in Maruti (D) A is a male doctor who travels in Hyundai
159. Which of the following is not correct?
(A) E and B are engineers (B) A and E are teachers
(C) C and D are doctors (D) F and B are engineers
1. √51 is a rational number
2. π is an irrational number
3. Every irrational number is a real number
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

161. Rs. 7300 is divided among 4 doctors, 3 teachers and 5 lawyers in such a way that 3 lawyers get as
much amount as 2 teachers and 3 doctors get as much amount as 2 lawyers. How much amount
would each teacher get?
(A) Rs. 500 (B) Rs. 700
162. A
student obtained following marks in an examination: English-55, Gujarati-73, Maths-58, Physics-64
and Chemistry-62. What is the weighted Arithmetic mean if weights 1, 2, 1, 3, 3 are allotted to above
subjects respectively?
(A) 61.5 (B) 62.6 (C) 63.7 (D) 64.9
163. The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays is ……………………..
(A) 1/7 (B) 2/7 (C) 3/7 (D) 4/7
164. If Rs 1000 be invested at an interest rate of 5% and the interest be added to the principal every 10 years,
then the number of years in which it will amount to Rs 2000 is ……………….
(A) 16 years (B) 16¼ year (C) 16⅔ years (D) 16⅗ years
165. If 3x x is ……………………
= 3 , then the value of
1
JI
2+
x
H
1+
1− x
(A) 3/2 (B) 3/4 N
(C) 1/2 (D) 1/4
SI
166. If the sum of two numbers is 48 and the highest common factor (HCF) and lowest common factor (LCM)
H
are 2 and 286 respectively. Then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is …………….
DD
(A) 1/143 (B) 12/143

U
167. A
person travels equal distances with speeds of 1 km/hr, 2 km/hr and 4 km/hr and takes a total time 3
IR
hours and 30 minutes. What is the total distance the person covers?
(A) 3 kms (B) 6 kms
AN
(C) 12 kms (D) None of the above

1 4 5
168. If Rs. 481 is divided among three persons in the ratio of : : , then the least share is ..........
4 6 8
(A) 48 (B) 52
169. For a given circle, the angle of a sector is 60°. If the area of this sector is 132/7 cm², what is the radius
of the circle?
(A) 6 cm (B) 7 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 9 cm
( )
170. If the perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is 6 + 3 2 meter, then the area of the triangle is
(A) 6 m² (B) 36 m²
(C) 48 m² (D) None of the above
171. T he sum of the present age of A, B and C is 180 years. 12 years ago their ages were in the ratio of 1:2:3.
What is the present age of C?
(A) 66 (B) 72

(Directions for 172 to 174)
In the following table, total production figures of 5 types of cars A, B, C, D and E in 5 years are given. Answer
the given questions using this data.
Year A B C D E Total
1995 10500 10000 15600 08450 20500 65050
1996 12240 12570 18750 12975 12385 68920
1997 14650 14230 17460 14300 15440 76080
1998 16800 10500 16320 15500 09570 68690
1999 12400 16600 14300 16430 11110 70840
172. In which year the total production of all cars has seen maximum percentage change from its previous
year?
(A) 1996 (B) 1997 (C) 1998 (D) 1999
173. What is Median of cars produced during year 1997?
174. W
hat is the average production of car D during all years?
JI
175. Which number will come in place of (?) in following series?
H
2, 5, 4, 18, 6, 39, 10, (?)
(A) 65 (B) 82 N(C) 105 (D) 125
SI
176. In a certain code language “CHENNAI” is coded as “EJGPPCK” then how will ‘KOLKATA’ be written?
H
(A) LPMLCUC (B) MQNMCVC (C) MNKJZSZ (D) IMJIYRY

(Directions for 177 to 180)
DD
Each question has a problem and two statements 1 and 2. You have to decide, if the information given
in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Indicate your answer as
U
(A) If statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

IR
(B) If statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

AN
(C) If statements (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.
(D) If statements (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.
177. How is Brijesh related to Vikas?
1. Chetana, wife of Brijesh’s only brother Amit does not have any siblings
2. Vikas’s wife Mitali is Chetana’s friend
(A) Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(B) Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(C) Statements (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.
(D) Statements (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.
178. What day is the fourteenth of given month?
1. The last day of month is Wednesday.
2. The third Saturday of the month was on seventeenth.

179. How is Q related to P?
1. M and Z are brothers of Q and P is son of Z.
2. Q is father of T.
180. H
ow many marks Pooja scored?
1. Pooja’s marks are exactly equal to the value of hypotenuse of a right angle triangle having values of
two sides adjacent to right angle are 7 and 12 respectively.
2. Pooja secured highest marks in class.
JI
181. T he volume of a rectangular box whose area of three adjacent faces are 42 cm2, 30 cm2 and 35 cm2 is
H
…………………
(A) 107 cm³ N
(B) 210 cm³
SI
(C) 214 cm³ (D) None of the above
182. If every side of a triangle is doubled, then percentage increase in the area of the triangle is ........................
H
(A) 200% (B) 275% (C) 300% (D) 333%

DD

1. Let ABCD be a parallelogram, then ∠ ABC and ∠ BCD are complementary angles.
U
2. If ABCD is a rhombus, then diagonals AC and BD are perpendicular bisectors of each other.
IR

AN

184. The electrical resistance of a wire varies directly with its length and inversely with the square of its
diameter. If a wire with a length of 200 cm and a diameter of one-quarter of a centimeter has a resistance
of 20 ohms, find the electrical resistance in a 500 cm wire with the same diameter
(A) 25 ohms (B) 40 ohms
(C) 50 ohms (D) None of the above
185. 1
00 workers can finish a work in 50 days. 100 workers started the work by working for 10 days. To finish
the task as soon as possible 100 more workers are employed. Find the number of days required to finish
the remaining work.
(A) 15 days (B) 20 days (C) 25 days (D) 30 days
186. Calendar for year 2009 will also serve for the year?
(A) 2011 (B) 2014 (C) 2015 (D) 2017
187. The value of (6561)0.16 x (6561)0.09 =?
(A) 9 (B) 27

(Directions for 188 to190)
Choose the correct option showing the details of given questions using following Venn diagrams
A B C D
188. Police, Doctor, Woman C
189. Milky way, Sun, Andromeda Galaxy B
190. Window, Door, House A
191.Two workers M and N are engaged to do a work. M working alone takes 8 hours more to complete the
work than if both worked together. If N worked alone, he would need 4.5 hours more to complete the
task than they both work together. What time will they take to complete the work together?
(A) 3 hours (B) 4 hours (C) 6 hours (D) None of the above
192. Find the value: ¼ {1800 ÷ (11 × 24 – 8 × 3)} + ⅛
(A) 1/4 (B) 1 (C) 5/8 (D) None of the above
JI
193. A
new number is obtained by multiplying an integer by 40. The cube root of this new number is twice as
H
much as the square root of that integer. Find the integer.
(A) 16 (B) 25 N
(C) 36 (D) 50
SI
194. R
ajesh walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while Sumit runs around it at the
rate of six rounds per hour. If they start from the same point at 7.40 a.m. in same direction, they shall
H
first meet each other at:

DD
(A) 7.48 a.m. (B) 7.50 a.m. (C) 7.52 a.m. (D) None of the above
195. T wo trains having equal lengths can cross a pole in 18 seconds and 12 seconds respectively. If they are
U
running towards each other, how much time they will take to cross each other?
IR
(A) 75/8 seconds (B) 72/5 seconds (C) 18 seconds (D) None of the above
AN
196. What is the 6th term of following series:

2, -1, 1/2, …..
(A) 1/32 (B) -1/32 (C) 1/16 (D) None of the above
197. A
BC is a triangle where AN is perpendicular to CB and BM perpendicular to AC. The length of BC is 16,
that of AC is 24 and that of AN is 12. Find the length of BM.
198. S udha walked in the direction of sunrise for 200 meters. Then she turned to her left and walked 150
meters. Then she turned to her right and walked 250 meters. Finally she turned again to her right and
walked 150 meters and stopped. How far is she now from starting point?
(A) 450 meters (B) 550 meters (C) 750 meters (D) None of the above
199. Spider : Insect :: Bat : (?)
(A) Mammal (B) Reptile (C) Amphibian (D) Bird
200. Choose the figure which is different from other three.
A E Z N
(A) A (B) E (C) Z (D) N
____________________

40/201819
Exam Date: 23-10-2018
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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M
1. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the economic growth of Indian
Economy in 2017-18 as compared to 2016-17?
(A) Growth of Indian Economy was accelerating while that of world economy was decelerating.
(B) Growth of Indian economy was decelerating while that of world economy was accelerating.
(C) Growth of both Indian and world economy was accelerating.
(D) Growth of both Indian and world economy was decelerating.
2. F inancial Action Task Force (FATF) has recently decided to put up which of the following countries
under its Grey List?
(A) Pakistan (B) Syria (C) Turkey (D) Russia
3.
India has become a …………………........... as per Central Electricity Authority during the year 2016-17.
(A) Net Exporter of Power
(B) Net Importer of Power
(C) Is neither an exporter nor importer of power
(D) There is no cross border trade of power in the world
4. hich of the following indicators is also used while calculating Multidimensional Poverty Index?
W
JI
(A) Access to Electricity (B) Access to Telephone
H
(C) Maternal Mortality Rate (D) Access to Higher Education
5.
N
Union minister talked about newly revamped department DIPAM in the budget of 2018. It is related
SI
to ………………………………..
H
(A) Investment and Public Asset Management

DD
(B) Industry and Profit Management

(C) Industrial Productivity and Mechanical Development
U
(D) There is no such Department.

IR
6. The Health Dimension in Human Development Index is assessed by ...........................

AN
(A) Infant Mortality Rate (B) Life Expectancy Rate

(C) Death Rate (D) None of the above
7. Which of the following were launched by the Government of India following the advice of the
World Bank?
1. New Agricultural Strategy
2. Food Corporation of India
3. Public Distribution System
4. Agricultural Prices Commission
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2, 3 and 4 (C) Only 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. NHB Residex is India’s first official Housing Price Index launched in 2007.
2. Ahmedabad has shown a consistent rise in its index value since the launch.
3. The calculation is based on four quarter moving average and the index is an initiative of
National Housing Bank.

M
9. hich of the following has/have launched Agricultural Marketing and Farm Friendly Reforms Index?
W
1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare
2. The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog)
3. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
10. Identify recent developments in the area of fiscal prudence and consolidation from the following
options:
1. Devising the twin concepts of ‘Monetized Deficit’ and ‘Primary Deficit’
2. Redefining the Idea of ‘Fiscal Deficit’
3. Abolishing the classification of development and non-development categories of expenditures
11. T he difference between the Gross National Product (GNP) and Net National Product (NNP) is equal to
the ………………….
(A) Consumer Expenditure on Durable Goods
(B) Direct Tax Revenue
(C) Indirect Tax Revenue
JI
(D) Capital Depreciation
H
12. N
hich of the following is (are) covered under non-Plan expenditure with reference to Union Budget?
W
SI
1. Defence Expenditure
2. Interest Payments
H
3. Salaries and Pensions

DD
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 1 and 3
13. It is proposed to impose a Social Welfare Surcharge by abolishing which of the following Cess as per
U
the Union Budget 2018-19?

IR
1. Education Cess 2. Coal Cess

AN
3. Swachh Bharat Cess 4. Secondary and Higher Education Cess

(A) Only 2 and 3 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
14. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to India’s Wholesale Price Index
(WPI)?
1. The base year of WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12.
2. In the revised services, WPI will continue to constitute two major groups namely primary
articles and manufactured products.
3. Prices used for compilation don’t include indirect taxes in order to remove impact of fiscal
policy in the new series of WPI.
15. hich of the following statements are incorrect regarding the estimation of poverty in India?
W
1. The poverty line in India is income based.
2. The poverty line was originally fixed in terms of Income|food requirements in 1978.
3. Food requirements were based on calories standards for individuals in rural and urban areas in 1980
and the cost of procuring the food grains equivalent to calories was fixed as the poverty line.

M
16. According to the Economic Survey 2017-18, which of the following is(are) the vital factor(s) for
economic development of India?
1. Promoting inclusive employment-intensive industry
2. Building resilient infrastructure
3. Promoting sustainable development goals of UNO
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
17.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
1. Under the Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS), farmers can avail of short-term crop loans up to
Rs 3 Lakhs payable within one year at only 7% per annum.
2. The ISS also provides for an additional subvention of 3% for prompt repayment within a year.
3. The ISS is given by Central Government to NABARD for refinance to public sector banks, private
sector banks, cooperative banks and regional rural banks.
1. Universal Basic Income (UBI) is a welfare programme in which all citizens receive an
unconditional sum of money from the government.
JI
2. Financial inclusion is crucial for the success of UBI in India.
H
19.
N
Balanced Budget means a budget with zero ………………………….
SI
1. Monetized Deficit 2. Fiscal Deficit 3. Revenue Deficit 4. Primary Deficit
H
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 1 and 4

DD
20. T he concept of ‘Mahalnobis Distance’ was developed to …………………………..

(A) Guess the production capacity of an area and expected yield
U
(B) Estimate the industrial production

IR
(C) Estimate the five-year Plan target

(D) Estimate the rate of growth of an economy
AN
21. The major driver of the GDP growth between 2012-13 and 2015-16 and again in 2016-17 has been
……………………….
(A) Private Investment Expenditure (B) Consumption Expenditure
(C) Export Growth (D) Tax Revenue
22. hich of the following statement(s) regarding Treasury bill in India is(are) correct?
W
1. It is issued by Government of India.
2. It is issued by Reserve Bank of India.
3. It is issued to raise short-term funds for private sector.
4. It is issued to raise short-term funds for Government of India.
23. T he main aim of National Mission for Green India (GIM) is to -
(A) Protect, restore and enhance India’s diminishing forest cover and responding to climate change
(B) Reduce pollution in 10 most polluted cities of India
(C) Increase the use of non-commercial sources of energy
(D) Encourage the use of alternative sources of energy

M
24. sia’s first EPZ was set up in______________.
A
(A) Shanghai, China (B) Kandla, India
(C) Katunayake, Sri Lanka (D) Karachi, Pakistan
25. According to the quick estimates of 2016-17, the highest share in the State economy of Gujarat is of
………………………...
(A) Primary Sector (B) Tertiary Sector (C) Secondary Sector (D) Export Sector
26. According to which of the following scheme(s) Government of Gujarat will provide interest subvention
upto 6% to train 50,000 skilled and semi-skilled workers in rural areas?
1. Mukhyamantri Gramoday Yojana 2. Mukhyamantri Apprenticeship Yojana
3. The Bajpai Bankable Scheme 4. Manav Kalyan Yojana
(A) Only 1 and 4 (B) Only 1 (C) Only 4 (D) Only 1, 2 and 4
27. hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to free trade agreement (FTA)?
W
1. FTAs are arrangements between two or more countries or trading blocs that primarily agree to
reduce or eliminate customs tariff and no tariff barriers on substantial trade between them.
2. Each member sets its own tariffs on imports from non-member.
JI
H
28. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct with reference to the reason(s) for Cyclical
Unemployment?
1. Cyclical nature of business
N
SI
2. Recession in global market
3. People keep changing from one job to another
H
4. Mismatch between the jobs available and the skill levels of the unemployed
DD
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 3 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1 and 4
U
29.
What is the main theme of Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2019?
(A) Sustainable Economic and Social Development (B) Gujarat Going Global
IR
(C) Gujarat : Global Business Hub (D) Shaping of a new India

AN
30. ecently which of the following sectors has been granted infrastructure status by the Government?
R
(A) Transport (B) Logistics Sector (C) Health (D) None of the above
31. hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Gender Development Index?
W
1. The index measures gender gaps in human development achievements
2. It accounts for disparities between women and men in three basic dimensions of human
development – health, knowledge and living standards
3. It is released by World Economic Forum
32. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the National Population Policy
introduced in India in the year 2000?
1. The immediate objective was to meet needs of contraception, health infrastructure, health
personnel and to provide integrated services for basic reproductive and child health care.
2. The medium term objective was to lower down the total fertility rates to the replacement level
by 2010.
3. The long term objective was to achieve a stable population by 2045.

M
33. hich of the following Vision Documents represents BIG 2020 of Government of Gujarat?
W
(A) Blueprint for incubation in Gujarat 2020 (B) Blueprint for infrastructure in Gujarat 2020
(C) Blueprint for Industries in Gujarat 2020 (D) Blueprint for information in Gujarat 2020
1. Special category States have some common characteristics like having special socio- economic
or geographical problems, high cost of production, etc.
2. The special incentives packages for such States are also implemented by Ministry of Commerce
and Industry.
3. Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, the North Eastern States are included in this category.
35. hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Socio-Economic Survey of
W
Gujarat (2017-18)?
1. Gujarat is the 3rd largest producer of milk in the country.
2. Gujarat is the 2nd largest producer of cotton, groundnut and condiments and spices in India.
3. Gujarat has higher unemployment rate among the States of India.
JI
36. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the certain steps taken by the
H
Government of Gujarat to mitigate different kinds of risks in the state?
1. N
‘Apadamitra’ involves training of community volunteers in conducting basic search and rescue
SI
operations during emergencies.
2. National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project to construct 100 multipurpose cyclone shelters in
H
collaboration with IMF and Japan.

DD
3. Five emergency response centers to be constructed at Rajkot, Surat, Vadodara, Gandhidham

and Gandhinagar.
U
IR
37. What is the Liquidity Adjustment Facility Corridor in India?

(A) The Difference between CRR and SLR
AN
(B) The Difference between Bank rate and Repo rate

(C) The Difference between Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate
(D) The difference between Bank rate and Call Money Market rate
38. Which of the following includes the correct Indicators of the Economic Development?
1. Real Gross Domestic Product
2. Real per Capita Income
3. Unemployment
4. Poverty
5. Human Development Index
(A) Only 1 , 2 and 3 (B) Only 2, 4 and 5
(C) Only 1, 2 and 5 (D) Only 3 and 4
39. A systematic record in the form of double entry book keeping balance sheet comprising all economic
transactions between one country and rest of the world during any given period time is called as
……………………….
(A) Deficit of trade (B) Terms of Trade
(C) Balance of trade (D) Balance of Payments

M
40. The Public Revenue and Public Expenditure, including public debt, are designed to achieve social
economic and sustainable economic development with low inflation and lower unemployment is
denoted by …………………………….
(A) Fiscal Policy (B) Investment Policy
(C) Monetary Policy (D) Taxation Policy
41. Which of the following are the parts of the Social Infrastructure in India?
1. Transport 2. Housing
3. Health, Sanitation 4. Energy
5. Education
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 1, 2, 3 and 5
42. SEZs are not exempted from which of the following taxes?
(A) Stamp Duty (B) Minimum Alternative Tax
(C) Electricity Duty (D) None of the above
43. Which of the following rate of inflation directly affects the end-consumer behavior?
(A) Wholesale price Index (B) Consumer price Index
JI
(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above
H
44. Per Capita income of Gujarat at current prices, in comparison to per capita income of India, at current
prices is …………………………
N
SI
(A) Lower (B) Higher (C) Equal (D) None of the above
H
45. The Indian monetary system is based on which of the following methods?
DD
(A) Fixed Fiduciary System (B) Minimum Reserve System

(C) Proportional Reserve System (D) Maximum Fiduciary System
U
46. The Phrase - ‘Zero Defect and Zero Effect’ is associated with the campaign -
IR
(A) Atal Innovation Mission (B) Startup India

AN
(C) Standup India (D) Make in India

47. To whom of the following does the Aam Admi Yojana provide social security?
(A) All labourers in the rural areas
(B) All labourers in the urban areas
(C) Persons between the age group of 18 years and 59 years under 48 identified vocational/
occupational groups/rural landless households
(D) All labourers living in both urban and rural areas
48. F unds collected through provident fund and small savings are part of which funds of the Government?
(A) Contingency Fund (B) Consolidated Fund
(C) Reserve Fund (D) Public Account Fund
49. F rom the following which of the five States together accounted for 70% exports of India in 2017-18?
(A) Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana and Maharashtra
(C) Gujarat, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Punjab
(D) Gujarat, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Karnataka and Kerala

M
50. In Budget speech of 2018-19, The Finance Minister referred to ‘Operation Green’. This term includes:
(A) Tomato, Onion and Potatoes (B) Tomato, Wheat and Paddy
(C) Coriander, Paddy and Green gram (D) Apples, Papaya and Mangoes
51. Which one of the following planets doesn’t go around Sun from west to east?
(A) Mercury (B) Mars (C) Jupiter (D) Venus
52. Some heat is received by atmosphere even after sunset from ………………………..
(A) Terrestrial radiation (B) Invisible solar radiation
(C) Latent heat (D) Albedo effect
53. mong the following types of forest, which has the highest species diversity?
A
(A) Temperate forests (B) Tropical forests
(C) Temperate deciduous forests (D) Temperate grass lands
54. Maximum number of Indian islands are located in...............
(A) Bay of Bengal (B) Arabian Sea (C) Gulf of Mannar (D) Senthil Sea
55. T he mighty civilizations of Roman and Greek flourished in .................
(A) Savanna Region (B) Temperate Region
JI
(C) Mediterranean Region (D) Equatorial Region
H
56. N
hich of the following statements regarding 2011 census for Gujarat is(are) correct?
W
SI
1. The growth rate of population during the period from 1901 to 2011 is 564%.
2. The lowest sex ratio was observed in Tapi District.
H
3. Anand and Surat were the districts in top five in terms of literacy rate.
DD
57. onsider the following statements related to Lakshadweep islands and choose the correct ones:
C
U
1. The Eleven Degree channel separates the Amindivi Island in the north and Cannannore Islands
IR
in the south.
2. Lakshadweep group of islands are of tectonic origin.
AN
3. Minicoy is the largest island in the Lakshadweep group of islands.

58. hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Marine National Parks?
W
1. Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch is situated on the southern shore of the Gulf in the
Devbhumi Dwaraka District of Gujarat and it is the first National Marine Park of India.
2. Gahirmatha is the first and the only Marine Sanctuary of Orissa, where Olive Ridely sea turtles
migrate in huge numbers.
59. The Himalayan drainage system has evolved through a long geological history. These rivers are
responsible for different erosional as well as depositional structures during their course.
Which of the following are results of depositional activity of the Himalayan Rivers?
1. River Terraces 2. Ox-bow lakes
3. Braided channels 4. Alluvial Fans
5. Natural Levees
(A) Only 1, 4 and 5 (B) Only 1 and 4
(C) Only 2, 3, 4 and 5 (D) Only 2, 3 and 4

M
60. hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct in relation to Western Ghats?
W
1. The Western Ghats are the main reason for the monsoon rain in the western coast of India.
2. Western Ghats are locally known as Sahyadri in Tamil Nadu and Nilgiri hills in Telangana.
3. Heights of the Western Ghats decrease from north to south.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 2
61. ________________ have no natural satellites
1. Mercury and Venus 2. Earth and Mars
3. Jupiter and Saturn 4. Uranus and Neptune
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 2, 3 and 4
62. Out of the five southern States: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana, which
state shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian States?
(A) Telangana only (B) Karnataka only
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (D) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
63. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Net Sown Area (NSA) of
any region?
JI
1. The net sown area and the area sown more than once together are called gross cultivated area.
H
2. The total land area on which crops are grown in a region is called net sown area.
3. N
In India, about 47% of total reporting area is under the net sown area.
SI
64. T here is a place ‘A’ with longitude 45° east. There is another place ‘B’ with longitude 75° east. If local
H
time at place ‘A’ is 1100 Hrs, what would be local time at Place ‘B’?
DD
(A) 1200 Hrs (B) 1300 Hrs (C) 1000 Hrs (D) 1220 Hrs
U
65. The tribal population in Andaman island largely belongs to the ………………………
(A) Australoid race (B) Caucasoid race
IR
(C) Mongoloid race (D) Negrito race

AN
66. hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about the rocks in the Earth?
W
1. Rocks are commonly divided into igneous rocks, sedimentary rocks and metamorphic rocks.
2. Igneous rocks are formed by cooling, solidification and crystallization of hot and molten magma
found below the earth crust.
3. Sedimentary rocks are formed by changes in pre-existing rocks under the influence of high
temperature, pressure and chemically active solutions.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 3 (D) Only 2
67. Which of the following statement(s) (is)are correct about the Forests in India?
1. Major regions of Tropical Evergreen Forests in India are Western Ghats, Plateau of Shillong,
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
2. Major trees in the Tropical Deciduous Forests are Teak, Sal, Mango, Bamboo and Sandal.
3. Tropical Evergreen Forests are also called Monsoon Forest.
4. The National Forest Policy of 1988 proposed 33% of the total geographical area should be
under forest/tree cover.
(C) Only 2, 3 and 4 (D) Only 2 and 3

M
68. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Coral Reefs in India?
1. Coral reefs are the counterpart to the tropical rain forest in terms of species diversity and
biological productivity in the Ocean.
2. The major reef formations in India are restricted to the Gulf of Mannar, Pal bay, Gulf of Kutch,
Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands.
3. All the coral reefs in India are fringing reefs.
4. The coral formations of the Gulf of Kutch represent one of the extreme northern limits of
corals in the Indian Ocean.
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 1, 2 and 4 (C) Only 2, 3 and 4 (D) Only 2 and 3
69. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Biodiversity Hotspot?
1. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeography region with significant levels of biodiversity that is
threatened with destruction.
2. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain
at least 500 species of vascular plants as endemic and it has to have lost at least 50% of its
primary vegetation.
3. Western Ghats is a biodiversity hotspot in India.
JI
70. Which of the following match(es) is(are) incorrect?
H
1. Nathu La pass : Sikkim and Tibet
2. Palakkad gap pass : Kerala and Tamil Nadu
N
SI
3. Shipki La pass : Arunachal Pradesh and China
4. Zoji La pass : Kashmir Valley and Ladak
H
DD
71. Singapore lies in_______________________ zone.

U
(A) Equatorial rain (B) Tropical summer rain

IR
(C) Sub-tropical dry (D) None of the above

AN
72. In India, which among the following decades are referred as the period of population explosion?
(A) 1921-1951 (B) 1901-1921 (C) 1981-2001 (D) 1951-1981
73. Which of the following statements isn’t correct?
(A) Peninsular India is separated part of Australia.
(B) Africa and Latin America are part of Gondwana land.
(C) The disruption of Gondwana land began in Cenozoic Era.
(D) The disruption of Gondwana land began in Mesozoic Era.
(A) Indus river originates from the Tibet Plateau.
(B) Jhelum river originates in Kashmir Valley.
(C) The Ravi rises in the Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh.
(D) Sutlej originates from Rohtang Pass.
75. The soda granite rocks belonging to the Dharwar system in the Subaranrekha river valley of
Chhotanagpur has ______________________ .
(A) Tin (B) Mainly copper and uranium deposits
(C) Bauxite (D) Gold deposits

M
76. Which one of the following pairs of the states of India is associated with the highest and the lowest
sex ratio respectively as per the 2011 Census of India?
(A) Kerala, Jammu and Kashmir (B) Madhya Pradesh and Haryana
(C) Kerala and Haryana (D) Meghalaya and Punjab
77. Which of the following groups of rivers of India originates beyond India?
(A) Bharamputra, Ganga and Sutlej (B) Bharamputra, Kosi and Lohit
(C) Bharamputra, Indus and Yamuna (D) Bharamputra, Sarayu and Lohit
78. T he term Green Bonus is related with ___________________.

(A) Indian space Programme (B) Environment and Forest
(C) Agriculture (D) Indian Military
79. hich of the following statements is correct about the Datum Line?
W
(A) It is a divide between Rann of Kutch & Kathiyawar Plateau.
(B) It is a natural divide between the Himalayas & the great northern plain.
(C) It is an imaginary line which passes through the magnetic poles of the Earth.
(D) It is an imaginary horizontal line used as a reference for measuring heights & depths.
JI
80. Kalol, Singereni, Tehri and Kurnool are serially associated with -
H
(A) Petroleum, Coal, Hydro electricity, Solar Power
(B) Solar Power, Hydro electricity, Petroleum, Coal
N
SI
(C) Petroleum , Hydro electricity, Coal, Solar Power
H
(D) Petroleum, Solar Power, Coal, Hydro electricity

DD
81. Which of the following cities of Gujarat lies in the north of Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Gandinagar (B) Surendranagar
U
(C) Godhara (D) Mehesana

IR
82. Which of the following two are linked by the Sethusamundram Ship Channel?
AN
(A) Gulf of Mannar & Palk Strait (B) Cape Comorin & Colombo
(C) Arabian Sea & Bay of Bengal (D) None of the above
83. hat types of rocks are found in Chhotanagpur plateau?

W
(A) Igneous rocks (B) Sedimentary rocks
(C) Metamorphic rocks (D) Lava rocks
84. The name Hurricane is given to tropical cyclone in __________________ .

(A) The North Pacific Ocean (B) Australia
(C) The North Atlantic Ocean (D) The Bay of Bengal

1. Nainital lake – Tectonic wetland
2. Loktak lake – Oxbow wetland
3. Lonar lake – Crater wetland
4. Chilka lake – Lagoon wetland
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

M
86. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the difference between
Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers?
1. The Himalayan Rivers rise in the snowfields and carry water throughout the year whereas the
Peninsular are rainfed.
2. Due to difference in character of the landforms the rivers of the Himalayan region follow highly
serpentine courses whereas the rivers of the peninsular plateau flow through mostly straight
channels.
87.
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Alluvial Soils?
1. These soils have occupied the whole of the northern Great Plains except the arid tracts of
Rajasthan.
2. These soils are fertile and utilized for growing Wheat and Rice.
3. These soils are called regur.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
88. How Immigration is different from Emigration? Identify the correct option.
1. Migration of people into an area from outside is called immigration, whereas movement out of
an area to other regions is called emigration.
JI
2. People moving from one area to another in search of seasonal employment is immigration
H
while movement of people daily from one area to another area for employment purpose is
emigration. N
SI
(A) Both 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 (C) Only 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
89. How the weather is different from climate? Identify the correct option.
H
1. Weather deals with average occurrence of the various weather elements.

DD
2. Climate deals with the day-to-day regional variations of climatic elements.

U

IR
90. Which of the following continents is known as a hollow continent because its population is very low
AN
in the central areas and concentrated around its margins?

(A) Africa (B) Australia (C) South America (D) Europe
91. Which of the following constituents of salinity of seawater shares the least concentration?
(A) Sulphate (B) Magnesium (C) Potassium (D) Chloride
92. Which of the following statements are correct in context with Himalayan and Peninsular Rivers of
India?
1. The Brahmaputra is an antecedent river.
2. The Himalayan river courses are more or less straight.
3. The peninsular river courses are serpentine.
4. The peninsular river valley courses are not deep.
93. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to 2011 Census of India?
1. Urban population in India was 31.15% to its total population.
2. Rural population in Gujarat State was 57.40% to its total population.
3. Kerala has the highest urban population to its total population.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (C) Only 2 (D) Only 3

M
94. Which of the following statement(s) with reference to Gujarati language is(are) correct?
1. Gujarati language belongs to the family of Indo-Aryan Western.
2. Gujarati language belongs to the family of Indo-Aryan Central.
3. Gujarati language speakers are at the sixth position among major languages spoken in India as
per the 2011 Census of India.
4. Gujarati language speakers are equal to the number of Urdu language speakers in India as per
the 2011 Census of India.
(A) Only 1 and 4 (B) Only 1, 3 and 4 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1 and 3
95. Which of the following statements is(are) correct?

1. Onam shifting cultivation is practised in Kerala.
2. Podu shifting cultivation is practised in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
3. Jhum shifting cultivation is practised in Madhya Pradesh.
4. Penda shifting cultivation is practised in Assam.
96. hich of the following statements are correct with reference to Iron and Steel industry in India?
W
JI
1. Rourkela Steel plant was built by the German technical cooperation.
H
2. The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steeel plant at Bhadravati was set up with the Canadian assistance.
3. N
The Hindustan Steel Limited’s plant at Bhilai was set up under the Russian collaboration.
SI
4. Bokaro Steel plant was built under the British collaboration.
H
(A) Only 1 and 4 (B) Only 1, 3 and 4 (C) Only 1 and 3 (D) Only 1 and 2
DD
97. hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the revised allotment of the
W
identity numbers of the National Highways of India (NHs)?
U
1. All North-South National Highways now have even numbers.

IR
2. All East-West National Highways now have odd numbers.

AN
3. The new number for the longest NH in India is NH 44.

(A) Only 2 (B) Only 1 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 3

1. Cyclones are usually associated with belts of rain, clouds and snow whereas anticyclones are
generally free from precipitation.
2. Cyclones are violent storms characterized by high wind rotating around a calm centre of low
atmospheric pressure.
3. The lifespan of a tropical cyclone may vary from one to three weeks.
99. aves generated by earthquake, volcanic eruptions or underwater landslides reaching 15 meters or
W
more in height devastating coastal communities are called ______________.
(A) Cyclones (B) Tsunamis
(C) Extra Tropical Cyclones (D) Coastal Floods
100. Murray-Darling system, one amongst the greatest rivers in the world, is in which country?
(A) Canada (B) Russia (C) Australia (D) Germany

M
101. T he Multi Application Solar Telescope (MAST) is at ___________ Solar Observatory.
(A) Bengaluru (B) Mount Abu (C) Sriharikota (D) Udaipur
102. A
____________ is intended for natural resources monitoring and management and it operates from
a Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO).
(A) Communication Satellite (B) Navigation Satellite
(C) Remote Sensing Satellite (D) None of the above
1. Computer is capable of processing only Digital signals.
2. Appropriate software is required for processing the data.
3. Computer is capable of processing Digital as well as Analog signals.
4. Computer is capable of analyzing both quantitative and qualitative data.
104. According to the Information Technology Act (2008) CERT-In has been designated to serve as the
national agency to perform which of the following functions in the area of cyber security?
1. Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents
2. Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents
JI
3. Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents
H
4. Coordination of cyber incident response activities
(A) Only 1 and 2 N
(B) Only 1 and 3
SI
(C) Only 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
H
(A) Dissolved Oxygen of a water body is expected to be high when its temperature is low.
DD
(B) Dissolved Oxygen of a water body is expected to be high when its temperature is high.
(C) Dissolved Oxygen of a water body is expected to be low when its temperature is low.
U
(D) Dissolved Oxygen of a water body is independent of its temperature.

IR
106. P
olar Stratospheric Clouds are associated with which of the following?
AN
(A) Ozone layer depletion (B) Greenhouse effect

(C) Acid Rain (D) Artificial Rain
1. Mangalyaan is India’s Mars orbiter Mission, which was launched towards the Red planet in
November 2013.
2. Mangalyaan made India the third Asian Nation to reach Mars Orbit.
3. The total cost of the mission is around INR 450 crore, which is the least expensive Mars Mission
till date.
(A) Increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere will lead to increase in the rate of
photosynthesis.
(B) Increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere will lead to decrease in the rate of
photosynthesis.
(C) Increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere will cause a net transfer of carbon dioxide
from the atmosphere to the oceans.
(D) Increase in the carbon dioxide levels will lead to a rise in the global average temperature of earth.

M
109. The Gujarat Livelihood Promotion Company (GLPC) has joined hands with Central Salt Marine and
Chemical Research Institute (CSMCRI) to encourage seaweed cultivation along the state coast. Which
of the following statements are correct with reference to the same?
1. In Gujarat, Seaweed culture can be best developed along the coast lines of Amreli and Kutch
districts.
2. Seaweeds provide valuable source of raw material for industries like health, food, medicine,
pharmaceuticals, textiles, fertilizers and animal feed.
3. Chemicals from red seaweeds such as alginicacid, mannitol, laminarin, fucoidinand iodine are
extracted on a commercial basis.
4. Seaweeds are rich in minerals, vitamins, trace elements and bioactive substances and called as
medical food of the 21st century.
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3 (C) Only 1, 2 and 4 (D) Only 1, 2, and 3
110. W
ith respect to electricity generation and transmission, Wheeling Charges refers to _____________.
(A) Fixed charges for installation of Solar panel in homes
(B) Charges for transmission of electricity from one place to another through transmission
lines or grid
(C) Penalties for exceeding the allowed amount of electricity usage
(D) Charges for failing to pay the electricity bill
JI
111. W
hich of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Geographical Indication (GI):
H
1. A geographical Indication is primarily an agricultural, natural or a manufactured product
N
originating from a definite geographical territory.
SI
2. As of now Kachchhi Kharek, Gir Kesar Mango and Bhalia Wheat are the only three agricultural
products having geographical indications in Gujarat.
H
DD
112.
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the National Biotechnology
Department Strategy (2015-2020) (Strategy-II)?
U
1. Establish India as a world-class Biomanufacturing hub for developing and developed markets.
IR
2. Empower, scientifically and technologically India’s incomparable human resources.

3. Discourage usage of inspired discovery research.
AN
113. India is not yet a member of which of the following multilateral groups?
1. Nuclear Suppliers group 2. Wassenar Arrangement
3. Australia Group 4. Zanger Group
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 (C) Only 1 and 4 (D) Only 4
114. W
hich of the following challenges are envisaged in the agriculture policy: Vision 2020?
1. Bridging yield crops
2. Emphasis on rain-fed ecosystems
3. Disintegrated nutrient management
115. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Kharai Camel?
1. These camels are well adapted to both Dry Land as well as coastal ecosystem and can thrive on
high saline water and tolerate high TDS (Total Dissolved Salts).
2. They have excellent swimming capacity in sea water.
3. They graze mainly on mangrove and other saline species.

M
116. The Montreux Record is a register of _______________.
1. Wetland sites under threat of anthropogenic activities.
2. Endangered species of tropical and subtropical Fauna.
3. Coastal cities under direct threat of consequences of global warming.
117. Terminator Gene is _____________________.
(A) Help in terminating flowering. (B) Help in terminating seed germination.
(C) Used in hybridization. (D) Help in terminating biopesticide.
118. A
lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in_______________.
(A) Drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom
(B) An increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients
(C) Death of fish due to lack of Oxygen
(D) Increased population of aquatic food with web organisms
119. T he planned Chhaya Mithi Virdi nuclear power project in Gujarat which has been shifted to Kovvada
(Andhra Pradesh) will be constructed in collaboration with which foreign industrial house?
(A) Roasatom (B) Westinghouse Electric
JI
(C) EDF and GE (D) None of the above
H
120. Solar energy in India is more efficient______________.
N
1. If we fix the orientation of the solar panels towards eastern direction
SI
2. If we fix the orientation of the solar panels towards western direction
H
3. If we fix orientation of the solar panels towards southern direction

DD
4. If we fix orientation of the solar panels towards Northern Direction

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
U
121. In our homes, the typical electric power parameters are ______________in India.
IR
(A) 220V AC, 60 Hz frequency (B) 110V AC, 60Hz frequency

(C) 220V AC, 50 Hz frequency (D) 440V AC, 50 Hz frequency
AN
122. W
hich of the following are the main air pollutants from the industry through usage of conventional
energy sources?
(A) Nitrogen and Hydrogen sulphide (B) Nitrogen and sulphur
(C) Nitrogen and Carbon Dioxide (D) Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrous Oxide
123. The main role of Bureau of Energy Efficiency is ______________.
(A) To manufacture energy efficient appliances and inspect accreditation procedure
(B) To prepare standards and labels of appliances and specify accreditation procedure
(C) To advise government to control the low efficient appliance manufacturing industries
(D) To inspect all the industries and advise on energy-efficient equipment to them
124. A
ccording to 2014 estimations, India is _______________________ in the list of countries regarding
the amount of CO2 emissions from fossil fuel combustion.
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
125. W
hat is the name of NASA’s Solar Probe launched recently to explore corona region of the Sun?
(A) Corona Solar Probe (B) Voyager Solar Probe
(C) Atlantis Solar Probe (D) Parker Solar Probe

M
1. A block-chain is a growing list of records, called blocks, which are linked using Cryptography.
2. Block-chains which are readable by the public are widely used by crypto currencies.
(A) Both 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
127. W
hich of the following virus infections during pregnancy can cause infants born with microcephaly?
(A) Rota (B) Zika
(C) Nipah (D) HSV2
128 Under Indian Forest Act (1927) which of the following is the correct classification of forest?
(A) Grasslands, tropical forest, wetlands
(B) Wildlife Sanctuary, national park, Biosphere reserves
(C) Grassland, Wildlife Sanctuary, National Parks
(D) Protected Forests, Reserved Forests, Village Forests
129. Which of the following is(are) not example(s) of Cloud Service?
JI
1. Google Drive 2. MeghRaj
H
3. Dropbox 4. Windows Explorer
(A) Only 2 N
(B) Only 4
SI
H
130. T he phenomenon of exchange of genetic material between two chromosomes during sexual
DD
reproduction is called________________.
(A) Chromosomal recombination (B) Chromosomal crossover
U
(C) Chromosomal translocation (D) Chromosomal rearrangement

IR
131. W
hich of the following types of Laser is used in Laser Printer?
AN
(A) Semiconductor Laser (B) Excimer Laser

(C) Dye Laser (D) Gas Laser
132. Ozone layer prevents entry of which of the following rays in the atmosphere?
(A) UV-B only (B) UV-A only
(C) UV-C only (D) Both UV-B and UV-C
133. Which of the following fuels has minimum Nitrogen content?

(A) Gobar gas (B) CH4
(C) LPG (D) CNG
134. W
hich of the following is an artificial non-saccharide sweetner used as a sugar substitute?
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(C) Galactose (D) Aspartame
135. H
omes in urban areas have satellite TV Dishes. What is the most common frequency band of DTH
signals?
(A) K (B) Ka (C) Kn (D) Ku

M
136. Polar orbits are preferred for remote sensing of Earth due to ____________.
(A) Global Coverage (B) Higher resolution
(C) Snow cover mapping (D) All of the above
137. If we examine a winter night thermal image of an area, water bodies will appear ________________
compared to land.
(A) Brighter (B) Darker
(C) Same (D) Can’t be seen
138. ISRO has retrieved a module in Bay of Bengal under space capsule recovery experiment. This
experiment is going to help ISRO in_______________.
(A) Manned space Mission (B) Chandrayaan-2 mission
(C) Remote sensing of ocean (D) Navigation mission
139. INSAT-3D is a satellite placed in geostationary orbit. It is primarily used for _______________.
(A) Communication (B) Telecommunication
(C) Navigation (D) Weather forecast
JI
140. P
rediction of potential fishing zones in maritime States of India is based on the derivation of which of
H
the following parameters from satellite?
(A) Salinity and wind velocity N
(B) Temperature and ocean color
SI
(C) Cloud height and waves
H

DD
141. S cientists from the Botanical Survey of India have identified new plant species and named it as Drypetes
Kalamii after the name of Dr. A. P. J Abdul Kalam. From which State was this specie discovered?
U
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) West Bengal (C) Mizoram (D) Assam
IR
142. W
hat are the Third Generation Biofuels?
AN
(A) They are produced from vegetation grown in the wastelands.

(B) They are produced using specially engineered energy crops as its energy source.
(C) They are produced from non-food crops.
(D) They are produced using food crops.

1. Nuclear Fusion can provide more energy than Nuclear Fission.
2. The radioactive pollution generated in the Nuclear Fission is harmful for living organisms.
3. Fuels required for Nuclear Fission reaction are difficult to obtain.
(C) Only 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3
144. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

(A) INS Chakra-Nuclear Powered
(B) Sindhughosh Class-Diesel Electric Submarine
(C) INS Kalvari-Scorpene Class

M
145. Which of the following waves can be used to study the universe outside the Earth’s atmosphere?
1. Microwaves 2. Gamma-Rays
3. Sound Waves
(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) Only 3
1. In IVF or test tube baby an egg is fertilized by a sperm and transferred into the uterus.
2. IVF child is genetically identical to his/her parents.
3. In IVF the child carries the DNA of his/her mother only.
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
147. In which of the following ailments is Stem Cell Therapy not useful?
(A) Kidney related ailments (B) Hypertension
(C) Liver damage (D) Vision impairment
1. Lasers can be made from a solid or a liquid medium but not from a gaseous medium.
JI
2. Lasers are highly collimated beams of light.
H
(C) Both 1 and 2 N (D) Neither 1 nor 2
SI
149. In which one of the following categories of protected areas in India local people aren’t allowed to
own private lands?
H
(A) Biosphere Reserves (B) National Parks

DD
(C) World Heritage Sites (D) All of the above

150. Which of the following places has maximum biodiversity and endemic animals?
U
(A) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal

IR
(B) Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas

(C) Thar Desert and Punjab
AN
(D) Nicobar and Kerala

151. Which of the following sentences are correct with reference to Ease of Living Index 2018 by Ministry
of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India?
1. The Survey was carried out in 111 cities of India.
2. Kolkata didn’t participate in the survey.
3. Ease of Living Index framework comprises four pillars, i.e Institutional, Economical, Social and
Physical.
(C) Only 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
152. Which of the following statements regarding Water Aerodromes to improve air connectivity is(are)
correct?
1. Places in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Assam and Maharashtra have been identified for
this scheme.
2. A water Aerodrome licence would be valid for 5 years.
3. Sabarmati River Front and Sardar Sarovar Dam have been identified under this scheme.
(C) Only 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

M
153. T he two new Space Research Technology Centers proposed by the Central Government are at
_____________.
(A) Jammu and Agartala (B) Chandigarh and Gangtok
(C) Delhi and Izwal (D) None of the above
154. According to Quality Council of India (QCI) which of the following railway stations ranked top among
the A1 category Railway stations?
(A) Vijayawada (B) Pune (C) Jodhpur (D) Nagpur
155. Which of the following statement(s) with reference to recently passed Criminal Law Act (Amendment)
2018 are correct?
1. Life imprisonment or Death Sentence has been provided for rapist of girl under 12 years.
2. The minimum punishment in case of rape of women has been increased from seven years to
10 years, extendable to life imprisonment.
3. The punishment for gang rape of a girl below 16 years will be imprisonment for the rest of life
of the convict.
4. In case of rape of a girl under 16 years, the minimum punishment has been increased from 10
years to 20 years, extendable to life imprisonment.
JI
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2, 3 and 4
H
(C) Only 3 and 4 (D) Only 1
156. W N
hich of the following tribal languages of India got its own Wikipedia edition in its own OL Chiki
SI
script?
(A) Gondu (B) Bihu (C) Santhali (Santali) (D) Bhil
H

DD
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes Bill was passed by 123rd Amendment.
2. The Commission would supersede the rights of State Governments related to Backward
U
Classes.
IR
3. The Bill repealed the National Commission for Backward Classes Act(1993).
AN
158. C
entral Government proposed to use hologram-based colored stickers to indicate nature of fuel in
vehicles. In this regard which of the following pairs is(are) incorrectly matched?
1. Light Blue Colour- Petrol and CNG vehicles
2. Orange – Diesel vehicles
3. Green-Electric vehicles
4. Black-Air Fuel
(A) Only 2 and 4 (B) Only 3 and 4 (C) Only 1 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
159. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about Aditya-L1 mission of India?
1. It is ISRO’s first mission to study the solar corona.
2. It is an Intercontinental Ballistic Missile developed by India and Russia.
3. It will be launched by the year 2025.
160. India pitches for declaring 2019 as international year of ______________ with the Food and
Agriculture Organization of UN.
(A) Rice (B) Organic farming (C) Commercial crops (D) Millets

M
161. T o which of the following countries did India provide financial assistance for the construction of
Postal Highway Project?
(A) Sri Lanka (B) Bhutan (C) Nepal (D) Myanmar
162. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect with reference to Missile Helina?
1. It is an indigenously developed guided missile.
2. The missile is guided by an Infrared Imaging Seeker.
3. It is a helicopter-launched version of the Prithvi Missile.
163. R
ecently Bureau of Energy Efficiency and Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy released the State
Energy Efficiency Preparedness Index. Gujarat is _______in this index.
(A) Achiever (B) Front runner (C) Contender (D) Aspirants
164. M
inistry of Culture, Government of India recently launched Seva Bhoj Yojana. Which of the following
agencies|institutions is(are) eligible under this scheme?
(A) Orphanages (B) Religious and Charitable Institutions
(C) Registered Labour Organizations (D) All of the above
JI
165. L ogo and Tagline for Geographical Indications was launched by Government of India. Which of the
H
following is its tagline?
(A) Amulya Bharat N
(B) Amazing India
SI
(C) Eternal Value of Incredible India (D) Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India
H
166. Which of the following Indian State is hosting 2018 Men’s Hockey World Cup?
DD
(A) Gujarat (B) Karnataka (C) Odisha (D) Andhra Pradesh

167. W
hich of the following statements are incorrect with reference to the Outstanding Parliamentarian
U
Award in India?
IR
1. Only Lok Sabha members are eligible to get this award.

2. Members from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to get this award.
AN
3. President of India will select the awardees for this award.

4. The Award committee will be headed by Vice-President of India.
168. W
hich of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect regarding the Government of India Notification
of health warnings on all tobacco product packets?
1. ‘ Tobacco Causes Cancer’ 2. ‘ Tobacco or Your Family-Any one’
3. ‘Tobacco Causes Painful Death’ 4. ‘Quit Today Call 1800-11-2356’
169. F ive thematic reports on Sustainable Development in Indian Himalayas Region were launched by
_________________.
(A) United Nations (B) Ministry of Environment, GOI
(C) NITI Aayog (D) All of the above
170. According to the Public Affairs Index 2018, Gujarat ranked________________ in best governed State
in the Country.
(A) 5th (B) 6th (C) 3rd (D) 1st

M
171. W
hich of the following Indian indigenous sport(s) has(have) received the recognition from Olympic
Council of Asia recently?
(A) Kabaddi (B) Kho Kho (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above
172. Which of the following statements are incorrect about National Register of Citizens?
1. The cut-off date for the membership claim under NRC is midnight of March 24, 1971.
2. Assam and Tripura are the only States in the country that have NRC.
3. Assam Accord was signed between the Centre and the Assam Government that promised
identification and deportation of illegal immigrants.
4. Supreme Court directed the Government to update the NRC in a time-bound manner under
the Citizenship Rules 2003.
(A) Only 2 and 3 (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2, 3, and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
173. W
hich of the following cities of Gujarat is placed in the list of top 10 of Overall Emissions and Energy
Consumption Rankings released by Centre for Science and Environment?
(A) Surat (B) Ahmedabad
(C) Vadodara (D) None of the above
JI
174. Which of the following States has bagged first rank in the assessment by National Level Ranking
H
Framework for implementation of Amrut Scheme?
(A) Odisha (B) Gujarat N
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Telangana
SI
175. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding India Post Payments Bank?
H
1. India Post Payments Bank started under Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications.
2. India Post Payments Bank started with 51% of Government of India equity.
DD
3. India Post Payments Bank can accept up to rupees one lakh per account from Individuals.
4. India Post Payments Bank is not offering any current accounts under this scheme.
U
(A) Only 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2 and 4 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 3 and 4
IR
176. W
hich of the following statements about Arogyamitras under Pradhan Mantri Arogya Yojana is(are)
AN
correct?
1. National Skill Development Corporation will train the Arogyamitras through Skill Development
Centers.
2. The Arogyamitras will act as an interface between the beneficiaries and system.
3. One crore Arogyamitras will be trained under this scheme.
177. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect about India’s first Biofuel flight?
1. It travelled from Shimla to Delhi.
2. The flight was operated by Air India.
3. It used completely Biofuel during its travel.
4. This Biofuel was developed by IIT Delhi
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) Only 2, 3 and 4 (C) Only 3 and 4 (D) Only 4
178. The
1st Edition of BIMSTEC Military Exercise MILEX-18 was inaugurated in Pune (India). Which of the
following two BIMSTEC countries didn’t send their troops?
(A) Bhutan and Myanmar (B) Bhutan and Thailand
(C) Thailand and Nepal (D) Nepal and Sri Lanka

M
179. India signed an MoU with 6 States for Lakhwar Yamuna Basin Project in Uttarakhand for Project
management. Which of the following States isn’t in the list?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Rajasthan (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh
180.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect regarding the recently declared Drone
Regulations 1.0 by Government of India?
1. Air Space has been portioned into 3 zones.
2. Yellow Zone is considered as No Flying Zone.
3. Green Zone is considered as Automatic Permission Zone.
4. Users will be required to do registration every time whenever they use drones.
(A) Only 1 and 4 (B) Only 2 and 4 (C) Only 4 (D) Only 2 and 3
181. Bombay Natural History Society opened its first regional centre at _____________.
(A) Chilka Lake (B) Nal Sarovar (C) Kolleru Lake (D) All of the above
182. Which of the following naval ships of India took part in KAKADU 2018 in Australia?
(A) INS Kalvari (B) INS Sahyadri (C) INS Arihanth (D) INS Kakoon
183. W
ith which of the following countries did India sign an agreement Mobilize Your City for
JI
Urban Planning?
H
(A) France (B) Russia (C) USA (D) Abu Dhabi
N
184. Which of the following countries announced 120 million Euros for Clean Ganga Mission?
SI
(A) France (B) Switzerland (C) Finland (D) Germany
H
185. Which of the following statements are correct about ISRO’s Gaganyaan Mission?
DD
1. The manned mission to space will have 3 crew members.

2. It will be in space for nearly one week and conduct experiments on Micro gravity.
U
3. India will be the 4th country after the USA, Russia and China to send humans to space.
4. India’s Gaganyaan programme for manned space flight will be launched by 2025.
IR

AN

186. India opened Zokhawthar immigration check-post recently along the ___________ border.
(A) Bangladesh (B) China (C) Bhutan (D) Myanmar
187.
Moving On, Moving Forward – A Year in Office book was written by __________.
(A) Ramnath Kovind (B) Venkaiah Naidu
(C) Justice Deepak Mishra (D) None of the above
188. According to the report of UN World Tourism Organization, India stands at ______________ rank in
South Asian Region in number of Tourists in the year 2017.
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth
189. W
hich of the following recent bill(s) of Government of Gujarat was(were) rejected by the President
of India?
(A) The Gujarat Agricultural Lands Ceiling (Amendment) Bill 2015
(B) The Gujarat Agricultural Lands Ceiling (Amendment) Bill 2017
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B

M
190. R
ecently 10 states along the international borders were identified for developing forward areas as a
part of Border Area Development Programme (BADP) for 2018-19. Which of the following States is
not in the list?
(A) West Bengal (B) Gujarat (C) Assam (D) Manipur
191. IOWave18 is a mock drill started under IOC/UNESCO. This mock drill is related to _______________.
(A) Naval Warfare (B) Coast Guard Trials
(C) Tsunami (D) Earthquake in Mountains
192. E very year National Nutrition Week is observed during 1st to 7th September. The theme of year 2018
is ____________________.
(A) Go further with Food
(B) Better Nutrition : Key to Development
(C) Life cycle approach for better Nutrition
(D) Nutrition for Nation
193. U
nion Ministry of Health and Family Welfare released draft charter of Patients’ Rights. In this regard
which of the following statements are correct?
1. This was prepared by National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
JI
2. The patients have 17 rights.
H
3. It was recommended by the National Council of Clinical Establishments.
N
SI
194. Which of the following Indian players is brand ambassador of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)?
(A) Hima Das (B) Mary Kom (C) P. V. Sindhu (D) Kidambi Srikanth
H
195. Which of the following US companies collaborated with TATA to make F-16 jet wings in India by TASL?
DD
(A) Dassault -Falcon (B) Jaguar (C) Lockheed Martin (D) Typhoon
U
196. W
ith which of the following countries has India signed the Communications Compatibility and
IR
Security Agreement (COMCASA) in September this year?

(A) Russia (B) USA (C) Japan (D) Australia
AN
197. W
hat is the name of the 2018 anti-terrorism military exercise of Shanghai Cooperation Organization
(SCO) in which both India and Pakistan took part along with other partners?
(A) Peace Mission (B) Mission Friendship
(C) Mission Cohesion (D) Mission Solidarity
198. T o showcase the innovation and build a platform to shape the future of mobility, NITI Aayog has
hosted the first summit in New Delhi named____________.
(A) Move: Global Mobility Summit 2018 (B) Speed: Global Mobility Summit 2018
(C) Connect: Global Mobility Summit 2018 (D) Net Connect Summit 2018
199. Which of the following districts are covered by Aspirational Districts Programme?
1. Dang 2. Narmada 3. Chhota Udaipur 4. Dahod
200. Which among the following was(were) the mascot of 2018 Asian Games?
(1) Kaka (2) Atung (3) Bhin-Bhin (4) Zhim
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 3 (C) Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
_____________________

121/201617
Exam Date: 04-06-2017
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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001. Which of the following is the largest Harappan site in modern India ?
(A) Sanghol (B) Ropar
(C) Lothal (D) Rakhigarhi
002. In which one of the Indus valley civilization sites is the earliest known evidence of dyeing
and embroidery of cotton textiles found ?
(A) Lothal (B) Chanhudaro (C) Dholavira (D) Mohenjodaro
003. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the list
List I List II
a) Rigveda i) A collection of Hymns
b) Atharvaveda ii) A collection of Holy songs
c) Samaveda iii) A collection of Spells and charms
d) Yajurveda iv) A collection of Sacrificial formulas
JI
Codes :
H
(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (B) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(C) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
N(D) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
SI
004. The important contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy is the doctrine of
H
(A) Rebirth (B) Karma

DD
(C) Existence of Individual souls (D) Syadvada

005. The Four Nobel Truths are propounded by Buddha are centred upon
U
(A) Suffering and its extinction (B) Right Action

IR
(C) Ultimate reality (D) Salvation

AN
006. Who among the following was appointed by Darius to explore the valley of the Indus river
and its tributaries in 517 BC ?
(A) Scylax (B) Xerxes (C) Strabo (D) Herodotus
007. Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prashasti) was composed by
(A) Bhavbhuti (B) Kalidasa (C) Harisena (D) Magh
008. The head of the administration of Bhukti (province) in the Gupta period was called
(A) Paradesika (B) Uparika (C) Rajuka (D) Mahamatra
009. Which of the following were the two important political centres of Kanishkas Empire ?
(A) Purushapura and Mathura (B) Purushapura and Pataliputhra
(C) Sarnath and Shrinagar (D) Mathura and Saranath
010. Vikramankadev-Charitra, a eulogistic text on Vikramaditya VI, the Chalukya king of Kalyani
is written by
(A) Ravi Kirti (B) Bilhana (C) Mangalesa (D) Bhani
CSP-01 A 3 P.T.O.
011. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the
list
List I List II
a) Nicolo Conti i) Moroccon Traveller
b) Domingos Paes ii) Venetian Traveller
c) Ibn Battutah iii) Russian Traveller
d) Athanasius Nikitian iv) Portuguese Traveller
Codes :
(A) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (B) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (C) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
012. The Nagarsheth who intervened to save the city of Ahmedabad from being looted by the
Marathas by paying ransom money from his personnel funds in 1725 was
(A) Sheth Santidas Jawahari (B) Sheth Lakshmichand
(C) Sheth Khushalchand (D) Sheth Shamlaji
JI
013. Where is the Headquarter of the Theosophical Society situated ?
H
(A) Adyar (B) Pondicherry (C) Banglore (D) Pune
N
014. Name the leading Parsi industrialist of Ahmedabad who was awarded the Khan Bahadur
SI
Medal by the English for his services rendered to the Parsi Society
(A) Sheth Naoroji Pestanji Vakil (B) Dadabhai Naoroji
H
(C) Kharshedji Ferdunji Parekh (D) Vakil Bejanji Manekji Ankleshriya

DD
015. The idea of the Indian National Army (INA) was first conceived in Malaya by
(A) Mohan Singh (B) Rasbehari Bose
U
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose (D) Niranjan Singh Gill

IR
016. The Art of temple building and making the idols has been preserved by a community in
Gujarat Known as
AN
(A) Kshtriyas (B) Sompuras (C) Bhils (D) Vaishyas

017. Who founded Bhavnagar Darbar Savings Bank ?
(A) Takhtasinhji (B) Bhavsinhji-I
(C) Bhavsinhji-II (D) Krishna Kumarsinhji
018. Who wrote a book entitled The Problem of the Rupee : Its Origin and Its Solutions ?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) Rajagopalachari Chakravarti (D) I. G. Patel
019. Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization site shows continuous occupation from
the seventh millennium BC ?
(A) Mohenjodaro (B) Harappa (C) Dholavira (D) Mehrgarh
020. According to the Arthashastra udka-bhaga was a tax levied
(A) In situation of fiscal crisis (B) On actors, singers and prostitutes
(C) Cultivation in crown (D) Use of irrigation works
021. The scheme of extending agricultural loans Sondhar was introduced by
(A) Alauddin Khalji (B) Muhammad Tughlaq (C) Firuz Tughlaq (D) Mubarak Khalji
CSP-01 A 5 P.T.O.
022. The Nayankara system was an important feature of
(A) Vijaynagara polity (B) Kakatiya polity
(C) Hoysala polity (D) Bahamani polity
023. Throughout the Indian war of Independence of 1857 the British in Gujarat enjoyed support
from which of the following rulers in Gujarat ?
i) Gaekwads of Baroda
ii) Raja of Idar
iii) Raja of Rajpipla
iv) Jam of Nawanagar
v) Thakore Saheb Lakhaji Rajsinhji-I of Rajkot
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i, iii, iv and v
(C) i, ii, iii and iv (D) i, ii, iii, iv and v
024. Which ruler of Gujarat inflicted a terrible defeat upon Muhammed Ghori who had
attacked Gujarat in 1178 AD ?
(A) Bhima-I (B) Kumarapala
JI
(C) Bhima-II (Bhola -Bhima) (D) Karanadeva
H
025. Gopala Krishna Gokhale was not associated with which of the following
(A) Servants of Indian Society
(B) Royal Commission on Indian Labour
N
SI
(C) Royal Commission on Public Services in India
(D) Deccan Education Society
H
026. The Vedic river Vitasta has been identified with which of the following modern river ?
DD
(A) Jhelum (B) Ravi (C) Ghaggar-Hakra (D) Sutlej

027. Who got constructed the Udaigiri Cave during the Gupta Period in honour of Lord Shiva ?
U
(A) Virsena Saba (B) Harishena

IR
(C) Parnadatta (D) Chakrapalita

AN
028. Which Gupta king used the Ashokan Pillar for executing his own inscription on it ?
(A) Chandragupta-I (B) Chandragupta-II (C) Samudragupta (D) Kumaragupta-I
029. The Buddhist monks of which monastery wrote letters to Hiuen-tsang after he had reached
back to China ?
(A) Mahabodhi Monastery (B) Sarnath Monastery
(C) Sthanavishvara Monastery (D) Jalandhar Monastery
030. Which of the following is not a Jain text ?
(A) Acharanga Sutra (B) Sutrakritanga (C) Kalpasutra (D) Vissudhimagga
031. What is Sayurghal ?
(A) The hereditary land (B) Rent-free land
(C) Land given to the intermediaries (D) Land taken on terms of share-cropping
032. Among the following who said that the Vedanta was the expression of Hindu spiritual
authority ?
(A) Vivekananda (B) Dayanand Saraswati
(C) B. R. Ambedkar (D) Mahatma Hans Raj
033. Where was the Ghadar Party formed ?
(A) London (B) Singapore (C) Paris (D) San Francisco
CSP-01 A 7 P.T.O.
034. The Story of Satyakama Jabala appears in which of the following Upanishads ?
(A) Prashna (B) Isha (C) Chhandogya (D) Katha
035. Who was by the side of the Buddha when he achieved Mahaparinirvana ?
(A) Moggaliputta Tissa (B) Ananda (C) Upali (D) Anthapindada
036. Read the following two statements and select the correct answer from the codes given
below.
1) Alexander died in 323 CE.
2) With his death, the Greek control along the Sindhu river weakened considerably.
Codes :
(A) Both 1 and 2 are correct (B) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
(C) 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect (D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
037. Which of the following texts give a detailed information on Mauryan polity ?
(A) Manusmriti (B) Arthashastra (C) Nitisara (D) Ashtadhyayi
JI
038. The Mauryan architecture is said to have been influenced by that of
H
(A) China (B) Burma (C) Anatolia (D) Persia
039. The Gupta were known adherents of the
(A) Sakya Sampradaya
N(B) Bhagawata Sampradaya
SI
(C) Shaiva Sampradaya (D) Saura Sampradaya
H
040. With which of the following dynasties Harshavardana had matrimonial relations ?
DD
(A) Rashtrakutas (B) Gangas (C) Maitrakas (D) Later Guptas

041. Who among the following sent a naval expedition to the Shailendra empire (now in South
East Asia) ?
U
(A) Rajaraja Chola (B) Rajendra Chola

IR
(C) Rajadhiraja Chola (D) Kulottunga Chola

AN
042. Which of the following temples does not belong to Solanki period ?
(A) Taranga Temple (B) Modhera Sun Temple
(C) Rudra Mahalaya (D) Temple at Gop
043. Arrange the following Solanki kings in chronological order and choose the correct answer
from the codes given below.
1) Bhimdeva I 2) Kumarapala 3) Siddharaja 4) Durlabharaja
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4 (B) 4, 1, 3, 2 (C) 4, 3, 2, 1 (D) 1, 3, 4, 2
044. Which of the following Sultans of Gujarat took Malva ?
(A) Ahmad Shah (B) Mahmud Begda (C) Bahadur Shah (D) Muzzaffar II
045. Which king of Gujarat forbade production or sale of liquor in his Kingdom in 12th century
AD ?
(A) Bhima-I (B) Karna (C) Kumarapala (D) Zafar Khan
046. The earth long harassed by outlanders, now turned for protection and refuge.
Who said it ?
(A) Alexander (B) Kautilya (C) Ashoka (D) Chandragupta Maurya
CSP-01 A 9 P.T.O.
047. Which emperor from Gupta Dynasty conquered Saurashtra ?
(A) Chandragupta I (B) Ghototkacha (C) Chandragupta II (D) Kumargupta I
048. Which of the following pair is not correct ?
(A) Emblem of Pallavas Elephant
(B) Rashtrakuta King Krishna I Kailash Temple of Ellora
(C) Kamban wrote during Chola rule Ramavataram
(D) Tanjaur Brihadeshwara temple
(A) Durgawati Queen of Gondwana (B) Chandbibi Princess of Ahmednagar
(C) Maham Anaga Foster Mother of Akbar (D) Arjumandbanu Nurjehan
050. Join the persons in List I with Organizations given in List II :
List I List II
(a) Devendranath Tagore i) Manav Dharma Sabha
(b) Jyotiba Phule ii) Tatavabodhini Sabha
JI
(c) Durgaram Mehta iii) Dev Samaj
H
(d) Shivnarayan Agnihotri iv) Satyashodhak Sabha
Codes : N
SI
(A) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (B) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (C) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
051. Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer from
H
the codes given below.

DD
1) Second Round Table Conference 2) Event of Chauri Chaura

3) Dandi March 4) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
U
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (B) 4, 2, 3 and 1 (C) 3, 1, 4 and 2 (D) 1, 2, 4 and 3
IR
052. Mahatma Gandhi described the _____________ on Punjab disturbance as page after page
AN
of thinly disguised official whitewash.

(A) Simon Commission (B) Hunter Commission
(C) Aitchison Commission (D) None of the above
053. Select from the following name of the world famous metal sculpture of Tanjavur Tamil Nadu.
(A) Natraj (B) Buddha (C) Tirthankar (D) Mahishasura Mardini
054. Which of the following is the architectural style of Gop temple situated in Jamnagar
district ?
(A) Roman (B) Mughal (C) Chalukya (D) Indo-Aryan
055. Swami Haridas belonged to which Bhakti cult ?
(A) Gaudiya Cult (B) Rasik Cult (C) Varkari Cult (D) Sakhi Cult
056. Which saint tradition put emphasis on the concept of Maner Manush ?
(A) Baul (B) Panchsakha (C) Sahajyan (D) Mahapurushiya
057. In which of the following states are the Pochampally Sarees woven ?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala (C) Karnataka (D) Telangana
058. Litty Chokha is a special food dish of which state ?
(A) Bihar (B) Punjab (C) Karnataka (D) Himachal Pradesh
CSP-01 A 11 P.T.O.
(A) Neminath Krishnas cousin Arishthanemi
(B) Mallinath The only woman Tirthankar
(C) Padma Prabhunath Son of Banaras King Ashvasen
(D) Anojja Daughter of Mahavir Swami
060. Usha, the grand daughter-in-law of Lord Krishna is supposed to have popularized the Lasya
form of dance known as
(A) Mer Rass (B) Garba (C) Tippani (D) Ghummar
061. Mention the Gharana of Pandit Bhimsen Joshi.
(A) Jaipur (B) Gwalior (C) Kirana (D) Agra
062. _________ , a national Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam dancer has received the French Palme
Dár, the highest civilian award of France.
(A) Shovana Narayan (B) Mallika Sarabhai
JI
(C) Rukmani Devi Arundale (D) Sonal Mansingh
H
063. Which of the following organization awards Ranjit Ram Gold Medal ?
(A) Gujarat Vidhyapith (B) Gujarat Sahitya Academy
(C) Gujarat Sahitya Sabha
N
(D) Gujarat Sahitya Parishad
SI
064. Which educational Institution is having Adivasi Museum in Gujarat ?
H
(A) Gujarat University (B) Saurashtra University

DD
(C) Govindguru University (D) Gujarat Vidyapith

065. In old Gujarati Theatre, whose dramas were known as Shikhamanio ?
U
(A) Nrusinh Vibhakar (B) Phoolchand Shah

(C) Manishankar Bhatt (D) Dahyabhai Dholshaji
IR
066. Pithoro is the supreme god of

AN
(A) Mina (B) Garasia (C) Rathwa (D) Dhodia

067. Satipati Sampradaya is a Tribal community of
(A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Gujarat (C) Karnataka (D) Odissa
068. Where is the socio-culturally famous Adivasi GOL-GADHEDA fair celebrated ?
(A) Dang District (B) Dahod District
(C) Valsad District (D) Panchmahal District
069. Give the name of the poet of this line Ya Hom Karine Pado Fateh Chhe Aage.
(A) Nanalal (B) Umashankar Joshi
(C) Zaverchand Meghani (D) Narmad
070. For whom it is said in Medieval Gujarati Literature that nobody can compete with him regarding
the configuration of Rasa ?
(A) Nakar (B) Dayaram (C) Bhalan (D) Premanand
071. Who is known as Dharatina Chitrakar ?
(A) Khodidas Parmar (B) Chhaganbhai Jadhav
(C) Vasudeo Smart (D) Kantibhai Parmar
CSP-01 A 13 P.T.O.
072. Meerabai belongs to which Bhakti Tradition ?
(A) Navadhabhakti (B) Madhurabhakti
(C) Panchasakha (D) Sahaj
073. Who is the author of Sitajini Kanchali ?
(A) Diwalibai (B) Gauribai
(C) Krishnabai (D) Radhabai
074. Who is the dramatist of Pilu Gulab Ane Hun ?
(A) Madhu Ray (B) Chinu Modi
(C) Hasmukh Baradi (D) Labshankar Thakar
(A) Samudragupta Defeated nine Kings of Aryavartha
(B) Chandragupta II Defeated Wahaliks of Balkh
JI
(C) Kumargupta Worshipper of Vishnu
H
(D) Skandagupta Defeated the Hunas
N
076. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the options given below :
SI
List I List II
H
1) Lata Mangeshkar a) Man tadpat Hari Darshanko Aaj

DD
2) Mannade b) Bole re Papihara, Papihara

3) Vani Jayram c) Zanak Zanak Tori Baje Payaliya
U
4) Mohammed Rafi d) Kuhu, Kuhu Bole Koyaliya

IR
Codes :
AN
1 2 3 4
(A) d c a b
(B) d b a c
(C) d a c b
(D) d c b a
List I List II
1) Aparao Bholanath Library a) Rajkot
2) Lang Library b) Bhavnagar
3) Raichand Deepchand Library c) Ahmedabad
4) Barton Library d) Bharuch
Codes :
(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c (B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
(C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d (D) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a
CSP-01 A 15 P.T.O.
List I List II
1) Atane a) Surati Dialect
2) Vakh b) Pattani Dialect
3) Buhalu c) Saurashtri Dialect
4) Poyro d) Charotari Dialect
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) c b d a
(B) c a d b
(C) c d a b
(D) c a b d
JI
H
List I List II
1) Chandravadan Mehta N
a) Abajonan Bandhan
SI
2) Nrusinh Vibhakar b) Aaggadi
3) Ranchhodbhai Udayram c) Mithyabhiman
H
4) Dalpatram d) Lalithadukh Darshak

DD
Codes :
U
1 2 3 4
(A) b d c a
IR
(B) b c d a
AN
(C) b a d c
(D) b d a c
List I List II
1) Mumbai a) Aryasubodhak Natak Mandali
2) Morbi b) Deshi Natak Samaj
3) Ahmedabad c) Laxmi-Vijay Natak Mandali
4) Surat d) Bombay Green Theatre
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) d c a b
(B) d a b c
(C) d b c a
(D) d c b a
CSP-01 A 17 P.T.O.
List I List II
1) Timirpanthi a) Ila Arab Mehata
2) Vaad b) Dhruv Bhatt
3) Vijay Bahubali c) Chinu Modi
4) Badlatan Sarnama d) Raghuvir Chaudhari
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) b c a d
(B) b a d c
(C) b d c a
JI
(D) b d a c
H
N
SI
List I List II
1) Parab a) Gujarat Vidhya Sabha
H
2) Kumar b) Gujarat Sahitya Academy

DD
3) Shabda Shrushti c) Gujarat Sahitya Parishad

4) Buddhiprakash d) Kumar Trust
U
IR
Codes :
1 2 3 4
AN
(A) c a d b
(B) c b a d
(C) c d b a
(D) c a b d
083. Where is Watson Museum situated ?
(A) Rajkot (B) Vadodara
(C) Porbandar (D) Patan
084. Read both sentences and select the correct answer from the options given below :
1) Ranchhodbhai Udayram is known as Ranchhod Amalikhaoo
2) A member of Laxmi Vijay Drama Group Ranchhoddas is famous as the Shakespeare
of Gujarati Drama.
(A) 1 is right and 2 is wrong (B) 1 and 2 are right
(C) 1 and 2 are wrong (D) 1 is wrong and 2 is right
CSP-01 A 19 P.T.O.
List I List II
1) Wall painting a) Natraj
2) Pichhavai b) Vasant Vilas
3) Pothichitra c) Chitra Seva
4) Metal Sculpture d) Padmapani
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) d c b a
(B) d b c a
(C) d a c b
JI
(D) d b a c
H
N
SI
List I List II
1) Nadi Ke Dwip a) Govardhanram Tripathi
H
2) Saraswatichandra b) Agyeya
DD
3) Yayati c) Rabindranath Tagore

4) Geetanjali d) V. S. Khandekar
U
Codes :
IR
1 2 3 4
(A) b d c a
AN
(B) b a c d
(C) b c a d
(D) b a d c
List I List II
1) Kabir a) Puran Brahma Vicharie Jab Sakal Atma ek
2) Guru Nanak b) Mere To Giridhar Gopal, Dusro Naa Koi
3) Dadu Dayal c) Dhai Akshar Premke Padhe So Pandit Hoye
4) Meera d) Avigati Nirmaili Upaje Niragun Te Saragun Thia
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) c b d a
(B) c b a d
(C) c d a b
(D) c a b d
CSP-01 A 21 P.T.O.
List I List II
1) Vishvamohan a) Sarod
2) Zakir Hussain b) Sitar
3) Manju Mehta c) Tabla
4) Aman Ali Khan d) Mohan Veena
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) d b a c
(B) d c b a
(C) d a b c
(D) d b c a
List I List II
JI
1) Parab a) Yogesh Joshi
H
2) Tathapi b) Jayesh Bhoayata
3) Kavilok c) N Dhiru Parikh
SI
4) Navneet-Samarpan d) Dipak Doshi
Codes :
H
1 2 3 4
DD
(A) a d c b
(B) a c b d
(C) a b c d
U
(D) a d b c
IR
090. Who was called Shah Jahan of Kathiavar ?

AN
(A) Bhagvatsinhji of Gondal

(B) Lakhadhiraj of Rajkot
(C) Ranjeetsinhji of Navanagar
(D) Waghji-II of Morbi
List I List II
1) Batik Style a) Orissa
2) Gonda Painting b) Bengal
3) Kalamkari Painting c) Madhya Pradesh
4) Patchitra Painting d) Andhra Pradesh
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) b a c d
(B) b c d a
(C) b d c a
(D) b a d c
CSP-01 A 23 P.T.O.
List I List II
1) Dalpatram a) Krishna Kumari
2) Naginda Marfatiya b) Bhatnu Bhopalu
3) Navalram Pandya c) Gulab
4) Narmad d) Laxmi
Codes :
1 2 3 4
(A) d b a c
(B) d c a b
(C) d a b c
(D) d c b a
List I List II
1) Gulam Mohammad Shaikh a) Banaras dairy
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2) Sitanshu Yashschandra b) Tadako
H
3) Labshankar Thaker c) Jatayu
4) Harish Minashru d) N Pittalani Chamdino Bodo Rankar
SI
Codes :
1 2 3 4
H
(A) d c b a
DD
(B) d a b c
(C) d b c a
(D) d a c b
U
094. Which of the following Manuscript is famous for its miniature paintings ?
IR
(A) Kalpasutra (B) Ramayana (C) Jataka Stories (D) Mahabharata

AN
095. Who wrote Natya Shastra ?

(A) Sarangdev (B) Abobal (C) Bharatmuni (D) Matang
096. Ajarakh block printing belongs to
(A) Textile (B) Ceramic (C) Terracotta (D) Metal Casting
097. Architect of IIM Ahmedabad is
(A) Charles Correa (B) Louis Kahan (Louis Kahn)
(C) Hafiz Contractor (D) Frank Gehry
098. Janata Watch is painted by
(A) Gulam Mohammed Sheikh (B) Bhupen Khakhar
(C) Jeram Patel (D) Naasarin Mohammedi
099. Kutch Mural is known as
(A) Asurnisirpal (B) Kamangari (C) Menes (D) Asurbanipal
100. Vitanchitra means
(A) Cloth painting (B) Silk screen
(C) Ceiling Painting (D) Woodcut
101. Which of the following ragas is sung early in the morning ?
(A) Todi (B) Darbari (C) Malhar (D) Bhopali
CSP-01 A 25 P.T.O.
102. What is the vote value of each Parliament member in the president elections of India ?
(A) 4844 (B) 2414 (C) 908 (D) 708
103. The latest country to quit the Commonwealth is
(A) Gambia (B) Singapore (C) Maldives (D) Belgium
104. Under which of the following ministry does the Central Bureau of Investigation (C.B.I.) functions ?
(A) Home Affairs (B) P.M.O.
(C) Cabinet Secretariat (D) Personnel, Pensions and Public grievances
105. Unless the proclamation of Financial emergency is approved by the houses of
Parliament it ceases to operate at the expiration of
(A) 6 months (B) 1 year (C) 3 months (D) 2 months
106. Who was the Chairman of a government appointed committee which recommended to
shift to a January to December financial year ?
JI
(A) Shankar Acharya (B) Arun Jaitely
H
(C) Hasmukh Adiya (D) P. V. Rajaraman
N
107. Which of the following is introduced by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005 ?
SI
(A) Dual Citizenship (B) Multiple Citizenship
H
(C) Overseas Citizenship (D) None of the above

DD
108. The only instance when the president of India exercised his power of veto related to
(A) The Hindu Code Bill
U
(B) PEPSU Appropriation Bill

IR
(C) The Indian Post Office Bill (Amendment)

AN
(D) The Dowry Prohibition Bill

109. Who among the following declared that The responsibility for the economic and social
welfare policies of the nation should lie with Parliament and not with the courts ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Ambedkar (D) Indira Gandhi
110. According to the Balwantrai Mehata Committee, the district collector should be :
(A) Kept out of District Panchayat
(B) A non voting member of the District Panchayat
(C) A member of District Panchayat with right to vote
(D) The Chairman of District Panchayat
111. The execution of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is the responsibility of
which of the following department of the ministry of Finance ?
(A) Department of Expenditure (B) Department of Revenue
(C) Department of Financial Services (D) Department of Economic affairs
CSP-01 A 27 P.T.O.
112. Which of the following statement is incorrect about National Green Tribunal ?
(A) The tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) In addition to Delhi, Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four places of the
sitting of the tribunal
(C) NGT is Quasi - Judicial body
(D) NGT was established through National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
113. Arrange the following items as per the daily schedule of the Lok Sabha Proceedings ?
1) Zero Hour
2) Question Hour
3) Agenda of the House
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1 (C) 2, 1, 3 (D) 1, 3, 2
114. Which Constitutional amendment Act made it possible to appoint governor for two or
more states ?
(A) 5th Constitutional Amendment Act (B) 6th Constitutional Amendment Act
JI
th
(C) 7 Constitutional Amendment Act (D) 8th Constitutional Amendment Act
H
115. Which of the following is included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India ?
Disputes between
(A) Government of India and one or more states N
SI
(B) Elections to either house of Parliament or legislatures of the state
(C) Government of India and Union territory
H
(D) Two union territories

DD
116. Which schedule of the Constitution deals with special provisions for administration and
control of schedule areas in several states ?
(A) Third Schedule (B) Tenth Schedule (C) Fifth Schedule (D) Ninth Schedule
U
117. Who is not a member of the selection committee for the selection of central vigilance
IR
commission ?
AN
(A) Prime Minister (B) Minister of Home affairs

(C) Chief Justice of India (D) Leader of opposition of Lok Sabah
118. Who was the Chairman of the standing committee of Parliament, which suggested to
hold Parliament and state assemble elections simultaneously ?
(A) Murali Manohar Joshi (B) E. M. S. Natchiappana
(C) P. Chidambaram (D) N. Chandrababu Naidu
119. The separate railway budget practice was prevalent till 2016, since when the practice of
separate railway budget was started ?
(A) 1853 (B) 1909 (C) 1921 (D) 1951
120. Which of the following statement is not correct about Right to Education Act, 2009 ?
(A) Prohibits Physical punishment and mental harassment
(B) Prohibits Capitation fees
(C) Provides establishment of national and state advisory council
121. The word Lokpal was first coined by
(A) Justice Harilala J. Kania (B) Justice P. B. Gajendra Gadkar
(C) Nath Pai (D) L. M. Singhvi
CSP-01 A 29 P.T.O.
122. The Committee to suggest changes Fiscal Responsibilities and Budget Management (F.R.B.M.) is
(A) N. K. Singh Committee (B) Bimal Jalan Committee
(C) Arvind Mayaram Committee (D) P. J. Nayak Committee
123. Article 1(1) of Indian Constitution says
(A) We the people of India having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist,
Secular, Democratic, republic
(B) India, that is Bharat, Shall be a union of states
(C) Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution
(D) The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law
124. Which Ministry is responsible for undertaking census in India every ten years ?
(A) Finance Ministry (B) Statistics and Programme Implementation
(C) Home Affairs (D) Human Resources Development
JI
125. District planning Committees have been constituted as mandated by
H
(A) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (B) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
(C) C. H. Hanumanth Rao Committee
N
(D) Dantewala Committee
SI
126. Who has recommended abolishing the M.P. and M.L.A. local area development programme
in India ?
H
(A) Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament

DD
(B) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam in his presidential address to the Parliament

(C) 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission headed by Veerappa Moily
U
(D) Central Vigilance Commission

IR
127. Who was the Chairman of the committee on Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions
AN
for democracy and Development ?

(A) L. M. Singhvi (B) N. K. P. Salve (C) K. C. Pant (D) G. V. K. Rao
128. The Concept of Mega Policy and Meta Policy was given by
(A) Herald Laswel (B) Yehezkel Dror
(C) Charles Lindblom (D) Christopher Colit
129. The term Public Policy always refers to the actions of government and the intentions that
determine those actions who made this statement ?
(A) Clarke E. Cochran (B) Thomas Dye (C) Guy Peters (D) E. F. Malone
130. Which high court in India has declared the practice of Triple Talaq as unconstitutional ?
(A) Delhi High Court (B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Allahabad High Court (D) Mumbai High Court
131. Which Article of the Constitution directs the state to Endeavour secure uniform Civil Code
throughout the country ?
(A) Article 41 (B) Article 42 (C) Article 43 (D) Article 44
CSP-01 A 31 P.T.O.
132. Which is the headquarters of the registered voluntary association Transparency
International ?
(A) Paris, France (B) Berlin, Germany
(C) Geneva, Switzerland (D) Helsinki, Finland
133. Which of the following NGO had played a major role in persuading government to enact the
RTI Act ?
(A) Lok Satta (B) Peoples union for Civil Liberties
(C) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangthan (MKSS) (D) Association for Democratic Reforms
134. The Secretary General of the United Nations Organization is appointed by the
(A) World Bank (B) Trusteeship Council
(C) Security Council (D) General Assembly
135. Which one of the following pact involves the world bank as a third party ?
(A) Indo-US Nuclear Deal (B) Indo-Sri Lanka Treaty
(C) Indo-Nepal Trade Pact (D) Indo-Pak River water agreement
JI
136. India has kalapani and Susta territorial dispute with
H
(A) Bangladesh (B) Bhutan (C) Nepal (D) Myanmar
N
137. The 1971 Twenty Years Treaty of friendship and corporation was between
SI
(A) India-USA (B) India- Soviet Union
(C) India-China (D) India- Israel
H
138. The Multi Purpose and Multi model platform PRAGATI (Pro Active Governance and Timely
DD
Implementation) launched in March 2015 aims to

(A) Address common mans grievances and simultaneously monitoring and reviewing
U
(B) Provide encouragement and support to girl child for technical education
IR
(C) Coordinate all skill development efforts across the country

(D) All the above
AN
139. What is the tagline of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana ?

(A) Hamara Khatha Hamara Swabhiman (B) Hamara Khatha Bhagya Vidhata
(C) Mera Khata Bhagya Vidhata (D) Sabka Khata Sabka Vikas
140. The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 Census, the
next delimitation of constituencies will be constituted on the basis of ______________
Census.
(A) First Census after 2021 (B) First Census after 2023
(C) First Census after 2025 (D) First Census after 2026
141. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the administrative
relations between the union and states ?
(A) Articles 245-255 (B) Article 256-263
(C) Article 264- 268 A (D) Articles 269-279
142. Grant in Aids are provided every year to the states in need of assistance as recommended
by the
(A) President (B) Parliament
(C) Finance Commission (D) National Development Council
CSP-01 A 33 P.T.O.
143. Which of the following statements are incorrect about International Court of Justice ?
1) There are total 15 number of Judges
2) The chief of Judges is known as Prime Judge
3) The Judges are appointed for the period of six years
4) The distribution of Membership of the court allows the representation of
3 members from Asia
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (D) Only 1 and 4
144. Land mark judgment by Supreme Court of India in the case of Swaraj Abhiyan versus
Union of India was concerned with
(A) Directions to Central Government on Drought Management
(B) Directions to Central Government on Child Labor
(C) Directions to Central Government on Human trafficking
(D) Directions to Central Government on Women Rights
145. Identify the six religious communities as minority communities notified by the National
JI
Commission for Minorities (N.C.M.) set up by the Union Government under the National
H
Commission for Minorities Act, 1992
(A) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians, and Sindhis
N
(B) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Sindhis and Bahais
SI
(C) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Sindhis, Bahais and Jains
(D) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians and Jains
H
146. Which of the following are departments under the ministry of Home Affairs ?
DD
i) Department of Official Language ii) Department of States

iii) Department of J and K Affairs iv) Department of Border Management
U
(A) i ,ii and iii (B) ii, iii, and iv (C) iii and iv (D) i ,ii, iii and iv
IR
147. Under the Indus Water Treaty, The exclusive rights over the _____________ rivers are
AN
governed by India.
1. Chenab 2. Ravi 3. Beas
4. Indus 5. Sutlej 6. Jhelum
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 5 only (D) 1, 2 and 6 only
148. Which of the following are the aims of The Indian Ocean Rim Association (I.O.R.A.) ?
1) Social Development of Indian Ocean Rim Region
2) Enhancing Security and protection from piracy
3) Trade facilitation
4) Trade Deficit
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2 and 3 only
149. Read the following statement and select the correct option :
1) India is due for becoming full member of Shanghai Co-operation Organization (S.C.O.) in
2017
2) India is full member of ASEAN group of nations
3) India is one of the founding members of United Nations Organization which was
formed in 1945
CSP-01 A 35 P.T.O.
150. The International criminal court lacks jurisdiction over which countries ?
(A) USA, Russia, China, Israel (B) USA, UK, Russia, France
(C) UK, France, China, Pakistan (D) France, China, Pakistan, Afghanistan
151. A basket contains 6 white, 7 red and 2 blue balls. If two balls are drawn simultaneously,
what is the probability that both are of different color ?
$ & $ & %
(A) (B) (C) (D)

# # # # #
152. Rs. 1,380 are divided among A, B and C. The shares received by A, B and C were
Rs. 5 less, Rs. 10 less and Rs. 15 less respectively, their shares would be in the ratio of
2 : 3 : 4. What is As Share ?
(A) Rs. 285 (B) Rs. 305 (C) Rs. 315 (D) Rs. 325
153. In 5 tests Shirish and Girish scored as following :
JI
H
N
SI
H
Mode of Girishs score and median of Shirishs score respectively are

DD
(A) 10, 8 (B) 8, 10.2 (C) 8, 8 (D) 8, 8.2

154. In a certain code language FRIEND is coded as KTJMUH. How can CANDLE be written
U
in that code ?
IR
(A) HDOMSI (B) HCOLSI (C) HCOJSJ (D) HBQLSI

155. A train is 200 m long. It is running at a speed of 69 kmph. How long the train will take to pass
AN
a man who is running at 9 kmph in the same direction as the train ?

(A) 9 seconds (B) 10 seconds (C) 11 seconds (D) 12 seconds
156. If 20% of a = b, then b% of 20 is same as
(A) 2% of a (B) 4% of a (C) 20% of a (D) 25% of a
157. If Ramesh walks at 7 kmph, he reaches school 9 minutes late. But if he walks at 8 kmph, he
reaches school 6 minutes early. How far is the school ?
(A) 14 kms (B) 21 kms (C) 16 kms (D) 28 kms
158. If selling price doubles, profit triples. What is original profit percentage ?
(A) $ $
(B) 100 % (C) 125% (D) 200%

!
159. If the numerator and the denominator of a fraction are both increased by 1, the fraction
becomes . If both are decreased by 1, it becomes . Find the fraction.

! #
# '
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of the above

& '

" '
CSP-01 A 37 P.T.O.
Instructions : Read the following information and answer the questions 160 to 162 :
Seven flags of different Colours Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red are placed
in a row from left to right, not necessarily in that order. The Indigo flag and the Yellow flag have
four flags between them. The Orange flag is not between the Indigo flag and the Yellow flag. The
Violet flag and the Red flag cannot be next to the Blue flag.
160. What is the total number of possible arrangements of flags as per given information ?
161. In additions to the seven flags, if the Black flag and the White flag are also to be placed such
that they are adjacent to each other but none of them is next to the Violet flag or to the Red
flag, and also none of them is at any of the extreme ends, then what is the total number of
possible arrangements ?
162. Which of the following statement must be true ?
(A) Yellow flag is at one of the extreme ends
JI
(B) The Indigo flag and the Orange flag are adjacent to each other
H
(C) The Blue flag is adjacent to the Green flag
163. A and B are 2 faulty clocks. A looses 10 minutes for every hour and B gains 10 minutes for
N
SI
every hour. What is the time shown by A when the time shown by B is 7.00 p.m. on the
same day, if both clocks were set correct at 12:00 noon that day.
H
(A) 4.30 p.m. (B) 5.00 p.m. (C) 5.30 p.m. (D) 6.00 p.m.
DD
164. What is the approximate value of ( 1 5 . 0 1 ) 7 3 0

?
U
(A) 6125 (B) 6075 (C) 6025 (D) 5975

IR
165. If the length of a rectangular field is increased by 20% and the breadth is reduced by 20%,
the area of the rectangle will be 192 cm2. What is the area of the original rectangle ?
AN
(A) 180 cm2 (B) 190 cm2 (C) 200 cm2 (D) None of the above
166. A 5 cm cube is cut into as many 1 cm cubes as possible. What is the ratio of the surface
area of the larger cube to that of the sum of surface areas of the smaller cubes ?
(A) 1 : 6 (B) 1 : 5 (C) 1 : 1.25 (D) 1 : 25
167. In ABC, AD = DB; If DE | | BC and area of ABC = 40 then area of ADE is
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 24
168. If , what is the value of a ?

= !
$ "
(A) 72 (B) 75 (C) 78 (D) 81
CSP-01 A 39 P.T.O.
> =
169. In the figure below, what is the value of (a and b are in degrees) ?
> =
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 15

170. In the figure below, k and l are parallel lines, then what is the value of y x ?
JI
(A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 45 (D) 90
H
171. Village X has population of 78000 which is decreasing at the rate of 1200 per year. Village Y
N
has population of 52000 which is increasing at the rate of 800 per year. In how many years
SI
will the population of the villages be equal ?
H
Instructions : Study the following diagram and answer the questions 172 to 175 :
DD
Distribution of income and savings of a family during years 2004 and 2005
U
IR
AN
172. What was the total amount spent on food in 2004 ?

(A) Rs. 9,000 (B) Rs. 9,500 (C) Rs. 10,000 (D) Rs. 10,500
173. For which of the following categories did the family spend more money in 2005 than they
spent in 2004 ?
(I) Auto (II) Clothing (III) Travel
(A) (I) only (B) (II) only (C) (I) and (II) only (D) All (I), (II) and (III)
CSP-01 A 41 P.T.O.
174. What is the percentage increase in the amount of money spent in Auto category from 2004
to 2005 ?
(A) 75% (B) 80% (C) 85% (D) None of the above
175. What is the ratio of total amount spend on Travel by the family in 2004 to that of in 2005 ?
(A) 16:17 (B) 18:17 (C) 17:18 (D) 17:16
176. Find : # $
(A) !
(B) !
(C) !
(D) !
177. The pressure of wind on a sail jointly varies as the area of the sail and square of the velocity
of the wind. The pressure per square meter is 1 unit when velocity is 16 km/hr. What will be
the velocity when pressure is 4 units per square meter ?
(A) km/hr (B) km/hr (C) 32 km/hr (D) 16 km/hr

$ "
178. A tank is filled by a tap in 15 hours. Due to some leakage at the bottom, 5 more hours are
required to fill the tank. Then if the tank is full, in how many hours will it be empty due to
JI
leakage ?
H
(A) 35 (B) 45 (C) 50 (D) 60
179. Using the information given below answer the following : N
SI
A + B means A is mother of B
A B means A is sister of B
H
A B means A is father of B

A B means A is daughter of B
DD
A = B means A is brother of B
Which of the following means P is aunt (Mausi) of Q ?
U
(A) P R + Q (B) P R Q (C) P + R Q

(D) P R = Q

IR
180. The probability of getting an even number on spinning wheel as shown in figure is and

AN
that of a prime is . What could be the missing number on a wheel ?

!
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 9

181. Find the wrong number in the below series :
1, 2, 9, 44, 267, 1854, ........
(A) 2 (B) 9 (C) 44 (D) 267
182. A, B and C together can earn Rs. 3,240/- in 18 days. A and C can earn Rs. 1,200 in 10 days
whereas B and C can earn Rs. 1,820/- in 14 days. What is daily earning of B ?
(A) 70 Rs. (B) 60 Rs. (C) 80 Rs. (D) 50 Rs.
CSP-01 A 43 P.T.O.
183. X, Y and Z are 3 runners with their speeds of 18 km/hr, 27 km/hr and 36 km/hr run along the
circular track of 3600 m long. They start at the same time from same point and run in same
direction. When will they meet for the first time ?
(A) 20 minutes after they start (B) 24 minutes after they start
(C) 30 minutes after they start (D) 36 minutes after they start
184. The monthly expenses of Kiran on his car are partly constant and partly vary with the
number of kilometres he travels in a month. If he travels 100 km in a month his total expenses
will be Rs. 3,500/-. If he travels 200 km in a month, his total expense will be Rs. 4,000/-. If
in a month his total expense is Rs. 4,250/- how many kilometres he has travelled ?
(A) 175 Km (B) 250 Km (C) 275 Km (D) 350 Km
185. The first day of a leap year is Sunday. How many Mondays does the year would have ?
(A) 51 (B) 52 (C) 53 (D) 50
186. In a parallelogram ABCD BD = 2. The angles of BCD are all equal. What is the area of
JI
the parallelogram ?
H
N
SI
H
DD
(A) !
(B) !
(C) " !
(D) ' !
187. In a group of Buffalos and Ducks, the total numbers of legs are 24 more than total number
U
of heads, how many Buffalos are there ?

IR
(A) 17 (B) 18 (C) 19 (D) Data inadequate

188. Simplify b [b (a + b) {b (b a + b)} + 2a]
AN
(A) 0 (B) a (C) 2a (D) a

189. Mean of 100 observation is 45. It was later found that two observations 28 and 43 were
incorrectly recorded as 82 and 34. The correct mean is
(A) 44.45 (B) 44.55 (C) 44.65 (D) 45.55
190. At 2 :15 hours, the minute hand and hour hand of a clock from an angle of

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of the above

% #
191. What is the value of (x y) (x2 y2)1 (x 1 + y 1 ) ?

(A) x2 + 2x1 y1 + y2 (B) x2 y2
(C) x1 y2 + y1 x2 (D) x1 y1
192. The medians of a right angled triangle drawn from vertices of acute angles are 5 and
.
What is the length of hypotenuse ?
(A) " (B) !
(C) !
(D) 10
CSP-01 A 45 P.T.O.
193. If 3x + y = 19 and x + 3y = 1 find value of y.
(A) 7 (B) 7 (C) 2 (D) 2
Instructions : Decide whether the data given in statements I and II are sufficient or not to
answer the given questions (Q. No. 194 195) : Mark the correct answer.
194. What is the area of rectangle PQRS ?

Statement I: the breadth of rectangle is 18 cm
Statement II: The Length of Rectangle is not more than 20 cm
(A) Statement I alone is sufficient
(B) Statement II alone is sufficient
(C) Statements I and II both are together sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Statements I and II both together also are not sufficient.
195. What is average weight of all students in a class ?
JI
Statement I: There are 45 boys and 30 girls in the class
H
Statement II: Average weight of boys is 60 and average weight of girls is 50
(A) Statement I alone is sufficient
(B) Statement II alone is sufficient
N
SI
(C) Statements I and II both are together sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient
(D) Statements I and II both together also are not sufficient.
H
DD
196. If the simple interest on a certain amount for 2 years is Rs. 60 and the compound interest
for the same amount for 2 years is Rs. 63.75. What will be that amount ?
(A) Rs. 180 (B) Rs. 240 (C) Rs. 300 (D) Rs. 360
U
197. The greatest number of 5 digit which is a perfect square is

IR
(A) 99884 (B) 99966 (C) 99856 (D) 99888

AN
198. What is the least multiple of 7 which leaves a remainder of 4 when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 ?
(A) 343 (B) 364 (C) 371 (D) 378
199. What is the area of the rectangle whose length is twice its width and whose perimeter is
equal to that of square whose area is 1 unit ?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) (D)
&
! '
200. In the figure below AD = 4, AB = 3 and CD = 9. What is the area of AEC ?
(A) 4.5 (B) 9 (C) 13.5 (D) 18
CSP-01 A 47 P.T.O.
121/201617
Exam Date: 04-06-2017
ANIRUDDH SINHJI
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001. Which organization formulated and developed Human Development Report ?
(A) IMF (B) UNESCO (C) UNDP (D) UNICEF
002. Which sector contributes highest to the Gujarat economy ?

(A) Primary (B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary (D) All the above contribute equally
003. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists :
List I List II
(Convention/protocol) (Subjects)
a. Ramsar Convention 1. Hazardous chemicals and pesticides
b. Cartagena Protocol 2. Biodiversity
c. Nagoya Protocol 3. Biosafety
d. Rotterdam Convention 4. Wetlands
JI
a b c d
H
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3
(C) 2 3
2 1
1 4
N
SI
(D) 3 4 2 1
H
004. Which of the following institutions regularly conducts the Inflation Expectations Survey of
DD
Households ?
(A) SBI (B) RBI (C) IMF (D) None of the above
U
005. What is the measure of inflation in India ?

IR
(A) Wholesale Price Index (B) Consumer Price Index

AN
(C) Producer Price Index (D) None of the above
006. The Third Five Year Plan is also known as

(A) Sen Yojna (B) Gadgil Yojna
(C) Mahalnobis Yojna (D) None of the above
007. Under the Green Highways (Plantation and Maintenance) Policy, 2015 the percentage of
total civil cost of National Highway Development Projects is to be set aside as plantation of
trees
(A) 1 percent (B) 3 percent (C) 5 percent (D) 10 percent
008. The Water Footprint Network does not classify the water footprints under the category
(A) Blue water footprint (B) Brown water footprint
(C) Green water footprint (D) Grey water footprint
009. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by

(A) Reserve Bank of India (B) Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India
(C) Ministry of Commerce, Govt. of India (D) Ministry of Industries, Govt. of India
CSP-02 A 3 P.T.O.
010. Which of the following Committee examined and suggested tax reform ?
(A) Abid Hussain Committee (B) Bhagwati Committee
(C) Raja Chelliah Committee (D) Narasimham Committee
011. The Foreign Direct Investment in Indias Defence Sector is allowed up to

(A) 26 percent (B) 49 percent (C) 74 percent (D) 100 percent
012. The National Health Policy 2017 aims to increase the life expectancy at birth to
(A) 70 years (B) 72 years (C) 75 years (D) 78 years
013. Indias First Payment Bank that started its operation in November 2016 was
(A) Airtel Payment Bank (B) Aditya Birla Idea Payment Bank
(C) India Post Payment Bank (D) PayTM Payment Bank
014. The Gujarat State Accounts for about ____% share to national GDP (2015 16).
(A) 5.2 (B) 7.3 (C) 14.1 (D) 12.3
JI
015. The central theme of the United Nations Development Programmes Human Development
H
Report 2016 is
(A) Human development for everyone N
(B) Work for human development
SI
(C) Human rights and human development (D) Gender and human development
H
016. The main item of developmental expenditure in Gujarat Budget 2016 17 in descending
order are given as under, which of the following is true ?
DD
(A) Social Services, Irrigation and Flood Control, Rural Development, Transport
(B) Social Services, Transport, Irrigation and Flood Control, Energy
U
(C) Social Services, Transport, Energy, Irrigation and Flood Control

IR
(D) Social Services, Irrigation and Flood Control, Transport, Energy

AN
017. Indias First Five Year Plan was based on economic model of
(A) Ranis Fie (B) Arthur Lewis (C) R.F. Harrod (D) P.C. Mahalnobis
018. How many times in a year Government of India announces Minimum Support Price ?
(A) One time (B) Two times (C) Three times (D) Four times
019. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under Section 88 ?

(A) Chelliah Committee (B) Kelkar Committee
(C) Shome Committee (D) Tendulkar Committee
020. Fiscal deficit in budget means

(A) Revenue deficit plus the net borrowings of the government
(B) Budgetary deficit plus the net borrowings of the government
(C) Capital deficit plus revenue deficit
(D) Primary deficit minus capital deficit
021. State Bank of India was established by which of the following Committees recommendation ?
(A) Narasimham Committee (B) Vidyanathan Committee
(C) M.L. Dantwala Committee (D) A.D. Gorwala Committee
CSP-02 A 5 P.T.O.
022. Which of the following States is planning to set up Asias First Rice Technology Park ?
(A) Odisha (B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
023. Asias First Stock Exchange is

(A) National Stock Exchange (B) Shanghai Stock Exchange
(C) Bombay Stock Exchange (D) Tokyo Stock Exchange
024. Bitcoin was propounded by

(A) T. Williams (B) Satoshi Nakamoto
(C) Bill Gates (D) Mohammad Yunus
025. What is the rate of Swachh Bharat Cess in India ?

(A) 0.25 % (B) 0.5 % (C) 0.75 % (D) 0.45 %
026. What is the rank of India in World Happiness Report 2017 ?
JI
(A) 118 (B) 119 (C) 122 (D) 125
H
N
027. Which of the following is the largest market for Indian exports ?
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(A) OPEC (B) OECD (C) China (D) UAE
028. Which of the following two towns of excellence have been added by Government of India
H
for exports 2016 ?

DD
(A) Madurai and Calicut (B) Bhimvaram and Vishakhapatnam

(C) Ludhiana and Panipat (D) Tripura and Thanjavur
U
029. Union Budget 2017 18 has introduced SANKALP which stands for
IR
(A) Skill Acquisition and knowledge awareness for livelihood promotion programme
AN
(B) Smart city land Acquisition awareness programme

(C) Skill Acquisition and knowledge awareness programme for life
(D) Small scale knowledge promotion
030. Who among the following recommends the minimum support prices for agricultural products ?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices
(D) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
031. As per Micro, Small Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006 (MSME Development
Act, 2006), the investment limit for classifying a Micro Manufacturing Enterprise is
(A) Rs. 25 Lakhs (B) Rs. 10 Lakhs (C) Rs. 2 Crores (D) Rs. 5 Crores
032. In which category India placed in the Human Development Index compiled and computed
from UNDP Human Development Report 2010 for selected countries in the world ?
(A) Low Human Development (B) Medium Human Development
(C) High Human Development (D) Very High Human Development
CSP-02 A 7 P.T.O.
033. Ratan Wattle Committee was formed on which of the following ?
(A) To review FRBM Act (B) To study effects of demonetization
(C) For Digital Payments (D) On giving licenses to payment banks
034. What was Gujarats average annual GSDP growth rate during 2004 05 to 2015 16 ?
(A) 10.02 % (B) 8.02 % (C) 12.02 % (D) 14.02 %
035. As per 2011 census the literacy rate is highest in which of the following Union Territory ?
(A) Chandigarh (B) Daman and Diu (C) Puducherry (D) Lakshadweep
036. As per Economic Survey 2016 17, Indias aggregate inter-state trade is about __________
of GDP.
(A) 28 % (B) 43 % (C) 54 % (D) 61 %
037. Which of the following organization launched the Grand Innovation Challenge ?
(A) PMO (B) Ministry of Science and Technology
JI
(C) NITI Ayog (D) Ministry of Commerce
H
038. In which State of India, index of human development is higher but income is low ?
(A) Punjab (B) Rajasthan N
(C) Kerala (D) Gujarat
SI
039. The Kayakalp Council for Railways set up in 2015 is headed by __________
H
(A) Azim Premji (B) Rahul Bajaj

(C) N. Narayanmurthy (D) Ratan Tata
DD
040. The target of reduction in head-count poverty level by the end of 12th Five Year Plan was
U
(A) 5 % (B) 10 % (C) 15 % (D) 20 %

IR
041. As per the latest guidelines of RBI for Minor persons to open bank accounts
AN
(A) Minor above 10 years can open new bank accounts only with parents as guardian
(B) Minor above 10 years are permitted to open all types of bank accounts that an adult person
can open
(C) Minor above 10 years are permitted to open all type of bank accounts except current account
042. Kharif crops are harvested in

(A) June July (B) October November
(C) May June (D) March April
043. Which of the following states has seen the highest decline in its decadal growth rate in
population during 2001 11 compared to 1991 2001 as per the census 2011 ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) Bihar (D) Andhra Pradesh
044. The UNDP Gender Development Index measures the gender gaps in human development
achievements by accounting for disparities between women and men in which of the following
three dimensions ?
(A) Health, knowledge and living standards (B) Poverty, unemployment and health
(C) Inequality, income and expenditure (D) Health, knowledge and inequality
CSP-02 A 9 P.T.O.
045. Who conducts the periodical sample survey for estimating poverty line in India ?
(A) National Survey Organisation (NSO) (B) National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)
(C) Sample Survey Organisation (D) None of the above
046. Which organization in Gujarat works as the investment promotion agency of the State ?
(A) IMFIG (India Mission Facilitation Initiative Gujarat)
(B) GIDC ( Gujarat Industrial Development Corporation)
(C) GIIC (Gujarat Industrial Investment Corporation)
(D) INDEXT b (Industrial Extension Bureau)
047. Select the Financial Institution / Institutions currently regulated by the RBI from the list
given below.
(A) EXIM Bank (Export Import Bank)
(B) NHB (National Housing Bank)
(C) NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
JI
H
(B) Russia
N
048. India will manufacture Kamov 226 helicopter under Make in India program jointly with
(A) France (C) USA (D) Israel
SI
049. The newly introduced income tax return form Sugam is for
H
(A) Salaried class (B) Senior citizens

DD
(C) Women tax payers (D) Small Businessmen

U
050. Which of the following Committee is associated with the working on future trading effect on
retail and wholesale prices of agricultural products ?
IR
(A) Tendulkar Committee (B) Abhijit Sen Committee

AN
(C) Rakesh Mohan Committee (D) Y.K. Alagh Committee
051. The average height of the Troposphere over the Equator is about
(A) 5 Kms (B) 16 Kms (C) 20 Kms (D) 50 Kms
052. The Most of the hot deserts of the world lie between the latitude of
(A) 0° 5° (B) 5° 15° (C) 15° 30° (D) 30° 50°
053. Gutenberg discontinuity is found between

(A) Crust and Mantle (B) Mantle and Core
(C) Upper Mantle and Lower Mantle (D) Outer Core and Inner Core
054. The Mediterranean type of climate is characterised by

(A) Rainfall throughout the year (B) Wet winter and dry summer
(C) Maximum rain during summer (D) Scanty rainfall throughout the year
055. Which one of the following drainage pattern is found in the Kathiawar region of Gujarat ?
(A) Rectangular (B) Dendritic (C) Trellis (D) Radial
CSP-02 A 11 P.T.O.
056. Which of the following statements is true about Atacama desert ?
i. It is situated in Mongolia
ii. It is the driest non-polar desert on the world
iii. It has a strip of land on the Pacific coast
(A) Only i (B) Only i and ii (C) Only ii and iii (D) Only iii
057. Which one of the following has a potential for harnessing of tidal energy in India ?
(A) Gulf of Mannar (B) Gulf of Cambay
(C) Gulf of Kachchh (D) Chilka Lake
058. Which one of the following states has relatively the lowest percentage of scheduled tribes
as per 2011 census ?
(A) Mizoram (B) Manipur (C) Nagaland (D) Arunachal Pradesh
059. Which one of the following is a correct sequence in descending order of literary rates
according to 2011 census ?
JI
(A) Kerala Mizoram Tripura Goa (B) Kerala Goa Tripura Mizoram
H
(C) Mizoram Kerala Goa Tripura (D) Goa Kerala Mizoram Tripura
060. Match List I and List II

N
and select the correct answer from the codes given below
SI
List I List II
(Rivers) (Tributaries)
H
a. Krishna 1. Chambal
DD
b. Brahmputra 2. Indravati
c. Godavari 3. Lohit
U
d. Yamuna 4. Tungabhadra
IR
a b c d
(A) 4 2 1 3
AN
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1
061. Which one of the following river forms the international boundary between India and Nepal ?
(A) Gandak (B) Kosi (C) Sarada (D) Tista
062. The layer of the atmosphere where temperature decreases to a maximum of about 90° C
is known as ________
(A) Stratosphere (B) Mesosphere (C) Tropo pause (D) Troposphere
063. The part of the frontal contact zone where cold airmass replaces the warm airmass is
known as
(A) Cold Front (B) Occluded front (C) Warm front (D) Stationary front
064. Laterites owe their deep red colour to the presence of

(A) Aluminium Compounds (B) Iron oxides
(C) Zinc compounds (D) Copper oxides
CSP-02 A 13 P.T.O.
065. Strait of Hormuz lies between
(A) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea (B) Arabean Sea and Red Sea
(C) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman (D) Java and Sumatra
066. Among the following statements, identify the correct statements by using the codes given
below
1. Narmada flows in a rift valley
2. Narmada is the longest among the west flowing rivers
3. Tawa reservoir built across Narmada
4. Narmada forms wide estuary
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only (C) 2, 3, and 4 only (D) 1,2, and 4 only
067. Which of the following steel plants gets its crude iron ore from Bababudan hills ?
(A) Vishakapatnam (B) Rourkela (C) Bhadravati (D) Bhilai
JI
068. Which one of the following states of India is most urbanized as per 2011 census ?
H
(A) Gujarat (B) Kerala (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Maharashtra
069. Terrigenous deposits are found mainly in

N
SI
(A) Continental Shelves and slopes (B) Deep sea plain
H
(C) Ocean trenches (D) Oceanic ridges and troughs

DD
070. Mohs Scale is used to determine

(A) Brightness of substance (B) Viscosity of a fluid
U
(C) Hardness of minerals (D) Elasticity of minerals

IR
071. Which one of the following is warm ocean current

AN
(A) Canary (B) Gulf Stream (C) Labrodar (D) Kurile
072. Arrange the following rivers from longest to shortest length.

(A) Mahanadi Narmada Yamuna Kaveri (B) Narmada Mahanadi Kaveri Yamuna
(C) Yamuna Narmada Mahanadi Kaveri (D) Narmada Yamuna Kaveri Mahanadi
073. Rains received in Mahabaleshwar (rainfall of 600 cms) and Pune (rainfall of 70 cms) are
two examples of which type of rainfall?
(A) Cyclonic (B) Orographic (C) Conventional (D) Frontal
074. Arrange the following gases in descending order of percentage in the atmosphere.
1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Carbon Dioxide
4. Argon
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (C) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (D) 2, 1, 3 and 4
CSP-02 A 15 P.T.O.
075. At noon time on shipboard , a chronometer reads the time as 7:00 AM GMT of the same
day. What is the longitudinal location of the ship ?
(A) 75° West longitude (B) 150° East longitude
(C) 75° East longitude (D) 150° West longitude
076. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List I List II
(Oceanic Movement) (Force/Cause)
a. Current 1. Density
b. Water mass 2. Gravitation
c. Wave 3. Temperature
d. Tide 4. Wind
a b c d
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
JI
(C) 2 4 3 1
H
(D) 3 1 4 2
077. Which of the following pairs is mismatched ?

N
SI
(A) Blue Revolution Fish and Sea food
(B) Rainbow Revolution Agriculture and Horticulture
H
(C) White Revolution Milk and Milk production

DD
(D) Yellow Revolution Fruits and Flowers

U
078. Which one of the following districts of Gujarat has recorded the lowest female population as
per 2011 census ?
IR
(A) Ahmedabad (B) Kachchh (C) Surat (D) Dangs

AN
079. Apparent position of the sun over tropic of Cancer and Capricorn is the result of
(A) Rotation (B) Revolution
(C) Inclined axis of the earth (D) Revolution on an inclined axis
080. Despite intense heat in the core of the Earth, how can its central part can stay in solid form ?
(A) Due to the intense pressure on the central part, its boiling point is high
(B) Due to the low pressure on the central part, its boiling point is high
(C) Due to the intense pressure on the central part, its boiling point is low
(D) Due to the low pressure on the central part, its boiling point is low
081. According to the Indian Noise Pollution Regulation and Control Rules, 2000 the Leq levels
should not increase more than _________ at night time in residential area.
(A) 40 dB (A) (B) 45 dB (A) (C) 50 dB (A) (D) 55 dB (A)
082. Which is the longest distance train going from Gujarat to other parts of the country ?
(A) Ahmedabad Howrah (B) Navjeevan
(C) Okha Rameshwaram (D) Tapi Ganga
CSP-02 A 17 P.T.O.
083. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List I List II
(Tribe) (Country)
a. Semang 1. New Zealand
b. Yuroba 2. Brazil
c. Bora 3. Malaysia
d. Maori 4. Nigeria
a b c d
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
084. Which one of the following tribal communities is not inhabiting central India hills and forests ?
(A) Gujjars (B) Bhils (C) Santhals (D) Gonds
JI
H
085. What is the average density of the earth as a whole ?
(A) 2.7 gm/cm3 (B) 3.0 gm/cm3 (C) 5.5 gm/cm3 (D) 16.0 gm/ cm3
N
SI
086. Which one of the following salts is maximum in oceans ?
(A) Magnesium chloride (B) Magnesium sulphate
H
(C) Calcium sulphate (D) Potassium sulphate

DD
087. The Pennines (Europe), Appalachians (America) and Aravallies (India) are examples of
(A) Block Mountains (B) Old Mountains
U
(C) Young Mountains (D) Fold Mountains

IR
088. Among the following rivers which river has maximum catchment area ?
AN
(A) Narmada (B) Tapti (C) Mahanadi (D) Godavari
089. Among the following which group of states are famous for pulses crop production ?
(A) Assam, West Bengal and Sikkim (B) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Rajasthan
(C) Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh (D) Haryana, Jarkhand and Himachal Pradesh
090. Which of the following rocks is not formed by fossils ?

(A) Coal (B) Shale (C) Limestone (D) Chalk
091. Alluvial soils are made by

(A) Volcanoes (B) Weathering
(C) Deposition by running water (D) Plants and Animals
092. Slash and burn agriculture is very significant in

(A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Karnataka
(C) Mizoram (D) Jharkhand
093. Where among these places, the sun will rise the earliest ?
(A) Rajkot (B) Surat (C) Ratlam (D) Solapur
CSP-02 A 19 P.T.O.
094. The intersection point between Prime Meridian and zero degree latitude lies in the
(A) Atlantic ocean (B) Indian ocean
(C) Pacific ocean (D) No where in the above
095. Stalactites and Stalagmites are

(A) Erosional landforms in the Karst region
(B) Depositional landforms in the Karst region
(C) Transpirational landform in the Karst region
096. The Largest percentage of forest area in India is in which of the following regions ?
(A) Peninsular Plateau (B) Western Ghats
(C) Eastern Ghats (D) Himalayan Region
097. Select the correct option showing the following districts in the descending order in reference
to the distribution of forest area.
JI
(A) Kutch, Junagadh, Narmada, Dang (B) Dang, Narmada, Junagadh, Kutch
H
(C) Narmada, Dang, Kutch, Junagadh (D) Junagadh, Dang, Narmada, Kutch
N
098. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has classified the Indian soils into how
SI
many categories ?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
H
DD
099. Which one of the states in India has the broadest continental shelf ?
(A) West Bengal (B) Gujarat (C) Maharashtra (D) Karnataka
U
100. Living Coral reefs occur in sea water with temperature of

IR
(A) 0° 5° C (B) 5° 10° C (C) 10° 20 ° C (D) 20° 30° C

AN
101. The Commander-in-Chief of which organization is entrusted to manage and administer all
strategic forces of India ?
(A) Indian Air Force (B) Indian Navy
(C) Indian Army (D) Strategic Forces Command
102. In India, the authority to release nuclear weapons for use resides in
(A) The President of India, or the designated successor(s)
(B) The Prime Minister of India, or the designated successor(s)
(C) The Commander in Chief of Strategic Forces Command, or the designated successor(s)
(D) Chief of Army Staff, or the designated successor(s)
103. The Kudankulam nuclear power plant in Tamil Nadu is built in collaboration with
(A) ROSATOM (B) Westinghouse (C) Toshiba (D) Areva
104. Which Division in Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) deals with all matters related to
Disarmament, Non-proliferation issues, Confidence & Security Building measures in regional
and multilateral fora ?
(A) D & ISA Division (B) E & SA Division (C) XPD Division (D) UNP Division
CSP-02 A 21 P.T.O.
105. As per the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT), a nuclear weapon
state is one which has manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear
explosive device
(A) Prior to 1 January 1963 (B) Prior to 1 January 1967
(C) Prior to 1 January 1995 (D) Prior to 1 January 1998
106. Captcha is used for

(A) Encrypting passwords (B) Steganography
(C) Checking for bots (D) Captures images
107. Electronic wallets (E-wallets) represent

(A) Wallets made from semiconductor material
(B) Wallets fitted with digital locks
(C) Wallets to put smart/credit/debit cards
(D) Mechanism for secure e-payments
JI
108. Which is/are correct regarding National Digital Library of India ?
(A) Virtual repository of learning resources with a single window search facility developed by
H
IIT Kharagpur
N
(B) Designed to hold content of any language and provide interface support for vernacular
SI
languages like Hindi and Bengali
(C) It is being arranged to provide support for all academic levels
H

DD
109. A digital signature is

(A) a file storing scanned signature
U
(B) a QR code issued for transactions through mobile devices

(C) a virtual payment address used in unified payments interface
IR
(D) a cryptographic method that supports non-repudiation

AN
110. The term NFC used for Smart phone refers to

(A) Network Forwarding Control (B) Near Field Communication
(C) Network Feedback Control (D) Negative Feedback Communication
111. Match the following terms:

A B
i. PKI a. Cyber-physical attack
ii. Bitcoin b. Hash
iii. Stuxnet c. Cryptocurrency
iv. Data Integrity d. Asymmetric Keys
(A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (B) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(C) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b (D) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
112. The Government of India initiative MeghRaj is

(A) an agricultural data analytics software
(B) a set of distributed cloud computing environments following a set of common standards
(C) a set of principles for e-governance implementation
(D) a super computer dedicated for weather forecasting and rain prediction across the country
CSP-02 A 23 P.T.O.
113. In Electronic Voting Machine (EVM), VVPAT is an acronym for
(A) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail
(B) Verification of Voting People And Technology
(C) Volume Voting without Paper And Trail
(D) Very Verifiable People Added with Technology
114. Match the following terms :

A B
i. Payment Gateway a. Digital Literacy
ii. PMGDISHA b. e-Kranti
iii. Digital Signature Certificate c. e-Commerce
iv. Electronic delivery of service d. e-Mudra
(A) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a (B) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
(C) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b (D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
115. Which of the following can be an ethical concern in the area of agriculture ?
JI
(A) Use of terminator seeds
H
(B) Allergic reaction caused by transgenic crops
(C) Creating super weeds N
SI
(D) Introduction of animal genes into plants
H
116. Edible Vaccines contain

(A) Dead microorganisms
DD
(B) Attenuated microorganisms

(C) Antigenic proteins devoid of pathogenic genes
U
(D) Antibodies against antigens of pathogens

IR
117. Which of the following is UN Decade on Biodiversity ?

AN
(A) 2011 2020 (B) 2016 2025 (C) 2014 2024 (D) 2005 2014
118. What is bio-diversity hotspot ?

(A) A biogeographic region characterized both by exceptional level of plant endemism and by
serious levels of habitat loss
(B) A smaller area of forested area with high temperature
(C) An area of volcanic, having few flora and fauna species
119. Which of the following Article in Indian constitution is related to protection and improvement
of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife of the country ?
(A) Article 47 A (B) Article 48 A (C) Article 49 A (D) Article 50 A
120. Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of water with which elements ?
(A) Phosphates (B) Sulphur (C) Arsenic (D) Nitrate
121. GARV, UDAY and TARANG are initiatives of which ministry of the government of India ?
(A) Ministry of Defence (B) Ministry of Information Technology
(C) Ministry of Power (D) Ministry of Agriculture and Framers Welfare
CSP-02 A 25 P.T.O.
122. The C-DAC has developed a comprehensive free and open source suite for setting up a
cloud computing environment named as
(A) Meghraj (B) Meghdoot (C) Barkha (D) Badal
123. Double fortified salt is used to prevent

(A) Goiter and iron-deficiency anemia (B) Goiter and Rickets
(C) Scurvy and Rickets (D) Anemia and Scurvy
124. What is Googol ?

(A) Search engine (B) A type of gum
(C) Ten raised to the power of hundred (D) Exotic subtropical plant
125. Bhoor Singh The Barasingha is the official mascot of

(A) Jim Corbett National Park (B) Kanha Tiger Reserve
(C) Kaziranga National Park (D) Dudhwa Tiger Reserve
JI
126. Which of the following award is given for popularization of science ?
(A) Aga Khan Award (B) Abel Award
H
(C) Man Booker Prize (D) UNESCO Kalinga Prize
N
SI
127. Institute of Nano Science and Technology is located in
(A) New Delhi (B) Mohali (C) Cochin (D) Mumbai
H
128. NIHONIUM, MOSCOVIUM, TENNESSINE and OGANESSON are

DD
(A) New Planets orbiting sun (B) New Plants species

(C) Geological events (D) New Elements in the Periodic Table
U
IR
129. The natural cycle that circulates elements between the earth and the environment (particularly
between living and non-living matter) is called
AN
(A) Biogeochemical cycle (B) Chemical cycle

(C) Biological cycle (D) Bioorganic cycle
130. Osteomalacia disease is due to the deficiency of which vitamin ?

(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin C
131. Which of the following is known as Royal Disease ?

(A) Sickle Cell anaemia (B) Alzheimers disease
(C) Haemophilia (D) Colour blindness
132. Which of the following rocket launchers of ISRO has the heaviest launch capability payload
weight wise ?
(A) PSLV (B) GSLV (C) ASLV (D) GSLV Mark III
133. GLONASS is the space borne navigation constellation system of

(A) Russia (B) Europe (C) China (D) France
134. Indo-US joint collaborative Radar satellite project currently underway is known as
(A) DESDYNI (B) RISAT (C) NISAR (D) RADARSAT
CSP-02 A 27 P.T.O.
135. Which of the following was Indias first multi-wavelength space observatory ?
(A) Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) (B) Chandrayan-1
(C) ASTROSAT (D) Aditya-L1
136. Megha-Tropiques is a collaborative satellite project between which countries ?

(A) India and USA (B) India and Russia (C) India and Japan (D) India and France
137. As per the Ministry of Power, for a village to be considered electrified, what percentage of
its total number of households should be electrified ?
(A) 30 % (B) 25 % (C) 20 % (D) 10 %
138. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) is meant to contribute to which one of the following
tasks ?
(A) Providing LPG connection to poor women in rural area
(B) Electrifying rural households
JI
(C) Distribution of LED bulbs
H
N
139. As per NITI Aayog, which percentage of the total electricity is consumed by residential and
SI
commercial sectors in India ?
H
(A) 29 % (B) 26 % (C) 24 % (D) 22 %

DD
140. Indias first CNG train runs between which two stations ?
(A) Rewari-Rohtak (B) Pune-Mumbai (C) Delhi-Sonepat (D) Chennai-Madurai
U
IR
141. During April 2016 to February 2017 India has exported around 5,798 million units of electricity
to which of the following neighbouring countries ?
AN
(A) Nepal, Pakistan, Bangladesh (B) Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh

(C) Nepal, Sri Lanka, Pakistan (D) Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar
142. Where is the regional station of Central Soil Salinity Research Institute located in Gujarat ?
(A) Bhavnagar (B) Bharuch (C) Verawal (D) Mundra
143. Which is Indias first dedicated defence satellite ?

(A) GSAT-7 (B) GSAT-9 (C) MSAT-1 (D) CARTOSAT
144. Nishant is the name given to which type of aircraft developed by DRDO ?
(A) Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) (B) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)
(C) Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) (D) Surface to Air Missile (SAM)
145. According to the document on National Action Plan on Climate Change, mean surface air
temperature in India at the national level has increased by
(A) 0.4 ° C over the past century (B) 0.4 ° C over the past five decades
(C) 0.8 ° C over the past five decades (D) 0.8 ° C over the past century
CSP-02 A 29 P.T.O.
146. Which Indian scientist successfully took up the crusade against the US patent on turmeric ?
(A) Dr. R.A. Mashelkar (B) Dr. K. Kasturirangan
(C) Dr. B.K. Gairola (D) Dr. Devi Prasad Shetty
147. CSIR has developed BGR-34 herbal formulation that has been approved by AYUSH for
which disease ?
(A) Diabetes (B) Coronary disease (C) Arthritis (D) Anaemia
148. Which programme under the Department of Science and Technology will conduct scientific
research on the effects of yoga and meditation on physical and mental health and on cognitive
functioning in healthy people as well as in patients with disorder ?
(A) SATYAM (B) VYAYAM (C) PRANAYAM (D) None of the above
149. According to Keplars laws of planetary motion, the speed of satellite, when progressively
brought nearer to earth
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Cannot be estimated
150. Shanti Swarup Bhatnaghar Award in the field of Science and Technology is given by
JI
which of the following organization ?
H
(A) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research
(B) Indian Institute of Science
(C) University Grants Commission N
SI
(D) Defence Research and Development Organization
H
151. Which is the first in the series of Exclusive Meteorological Satellites of India ?
(A) INSAT-2 (B) GSAT-18 (C) GSAT-10 (D) KALPANA-1
DD
152. Which of the following sectors received second highest allocation in Gujarat Budget
2017 18 ?
U
(A) Urban Development (B) Education

IR
(C) Tribal Development (D) Health

AN
153. Which of the following is/are the objectives of ATMA (Agriculture Technology Management
Agency) scheme of Gujarat Government ?
1. Broad based extension delivery
2. Gender Concerns
3. Multi Agency Extension Activities
4. Bottom up Planning
(A) Only 2 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1,2,3 and 4
154. Which of the following Gujarati Film won best feature film award in 64th National Film Awards
2017 ?
(A) Thai Jashe (B) Polam Pol
(C) Wrong Side Raju (D) Chhello Divas
155. The Gujarat Maritime Board recently concluded an agreement with __________ to
develop new ports in Gujarat Coastline.
(A) Rotterdom Port (B) Chabrahar Port (C) Montreal Port (D) None of the above
156. Which of the following is not a component of Mamta Abhiyan by Government of Gujarat ?
(A) Mamta Mulakat (B) Mamta Nondh
(C) Mamta Sandarbh (D) Mamta Kalyan
CSP-02 A 31 P.T.O.
157. How many assembly constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled
tribes respectively in Gujarat ?
(A) 13 and 27 (B) 13 and 28 (C) 14 and 25 (D) 15 and 26
158. The Supreme Court of India has constituted a Committee of Administrators (COA) to
run the BCCI. Who among the following is not a member of COA ?
(A) Diana Edulji (B) Vinod Rai
(C) Ramchandra Guha (D) G.R. Vishwanathan
159. Prime Minister recently released a book Matoshree based on life of Martha queen Ahilyabai
Holkar. The book is authored by
(A) Anita Desai (B) Sumitra Mahajan (C) Smriti Irani (D) Jaya Bachhan
160. Which of the following cities has been designated as UNESCO World Book Capital 2018 ?
(A) London (B) Athens (C) Lisbon (D) Madrid
JI
161. Which is the first Indian state to declare access to internet as a basic Human Right ?
H
(A) Punjab (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh
N
162. The three days festival Destination North East 2017 was organized in
SI
(A) Guwahati (B) New Delhi (C) Agartala (D) Chandigarh
H
163. What is the minimum Support Price of Cotton (Long Staple) for the year 2016 17 ?
DD
(A) INR 4160 (B) INR 4900 (C) INR 5160 (D) INR 5900
U
164. The Chenani- Nasri longest road tunnel (Patni top Tunnel) constructed in Jammu and Kashmir
along the National Highway
IR
(A) NH 44 (B) NH 45 (C) NH 46 (D) NH 47

AN
165. Which of the following sections were recommended by Employee Provident Fund
trust to cover under EPF scheme recently ?
1. Anganwadi Workers
2. ASHA workers
3. Mid Day meal workers
4. Postal Department workers
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1,2,3 and 4
166. Central Government decided to revise petrol and diesel prices on daily basis in five
cities, which of the following city is not in the list ?
(A) Pondicherry (B) Udaipur (C) Jamshedpur (D) Pune
167. What is Bharata Mala Project ?

(A) A Floricultural Development Mission
(B) An Umbrella Programme for roads in place of existing highway projects
(C) A river linking programme
(D) none of the above
CSP-02 A 33 P.T.O.
168. The Government of India is to launch SAMPADA scheme, it is concerned with
(A) Mining (B) Food Processing (C) Housing (D) Education
169. The World Health Day is observed every year on 7th April. What was the theme of 2017
World Health Day ?
(A) Cancer: Stop Tobacco (B) Diabetes: Lets walk
(C) Depression: Lets Talk (D) AIDS: Lets AID
170. The newly announced National Health Policy (NHP) proposes to raise public health
expenditure as a percentage of GDP
(A) From the current 1.2% to 2.5% (B) From the current 2% to 3%
(C) From the current 1.8% to 2% (D) From the current 2.2% to 3%
171. Who among the following is appointed as a brand ambassador of MAA (Mother Absolute
Affection) programme ?
(A) Kareena Kapoor (B) Aishwarya Rai (C) Katrina Kaif (D) Madhuri Dixit
172. The Indian navy long range maritime patrol aircraft ___________ has been decommissioned
JI
and handed over to the Chief Minister of ____________ state.
H
(A) TU 142M Andhra Pradesh (B) TU 142M Orissa
(C) MU 142T Telangana (D) MU 142T Gujarat
N
SI
173. The Defence Research Development Organization (DRDO) developed a system called
SWATI consider the following in relation to it
H
1. It is a ballistic defence management system

2. It is a weapon locating radar system
DD
3. It is indigenously developed system

4. It has been handed over to army
U
(A) 1, 3 and 4 only (B) 1 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 2 and 4 only
IR
174. How many countries are members of Nuclear Suppliers Group at present ?
(A) 32 (B) 44 (C) 20 (D) 48
AN
175. Recently USA dropped Mother of All Bombs (GBU-43/B) on __________

province of Afghanistan.
(A) Bamyan (B) Ghor (C) Kapisa (D) Nangarhar
176. India has joined International Energy Agency (IEA) recently. What is the level of I n d i a s
energy consumption in the world for the year 2016 ?
(A) Second largest consumer (B) Third largest consumer
(C) Fourth largest consumer (D) Fifth largest consumer
177. Which of the following countries recently abolished the most controversial labour system
called Kafala ?
(A) United Arab Emirates (B) Saudi Arabia
(C) Qatar (D) Bahrain
178. Which of the following two countries jointly conducted military exercise called
Sagarmata Friendship 2011 ?
(A) India Sri Lanka (B) Nepal China
(C) Nepal India (D) India Bangladesh
CSP-02 A 35 P.T.O.
179. Which of the following Airline Companies joint ventures are incorrectly matched ?
(A) Singapore Airlines Tata Sons (B) Ethihad Jet Airways
(C) Air Asia Indigo (D) Air Asia Tata Sons
180. Which of the following state of Myanmar is considered as native place of Rohinghya Muslims ?
(A) Kachin (B) Kayin (C) Kayah (D) Rakhine
181. Which of the following country is not a member of BIMSTEC ?

(A) Thailand (B) Malaysia (C) Sri Lanka (D) Bhutan
182. Which of the following feature is incorrect about GOI proposed Digishala channel ?
(A) Launched by Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(B) It is another step to push digital transactions
(C) It provides 24 hours online classes for Universities
(D) This channel would be managed by Doordarshan
JI
H
183. Per Drop More Crop is the key goal of
(A) Long Term Irrigation Fund under MNREGA
(B) Micro Irrigation Fund under NABARD
N
SI
(C) Long Term Irrigation Fund under NABARD
H
DD
184. Which Indian personality has been honored with the Olympic Order by the International
Olympic Committee ?
U
(A) Milkha Singh (B) P.T. Usha (C) Abhinav Bindra (D) N. Ramachandran
IR
185. According to Kigali Amendment of 2016, the world can avoid up to ___________ of global
AN
warming by the end of the century.

(A) 0.5° C (B) 0.25° C (C) 1° C (D) 2° C
186. Which is the first country to open an honorary consulate office in Gujarat International
Finance Tec-City (GIFT City), Gandhinagar ?
(A) Tanzania (B) China (C) Belgium (D) USA
187. The dedicated railway safety fund for passenger safety to be created in 5 years is named as
(A) Rail Safety Reserve Fund (B) Railway Accident Mitigation Fund
(C) Rail Suraksha Arth Kosh (D) Rashtriya Rail Sanraksha Kosh
188. The cabinet committee on economic affairs, chaired by the Prime Minister has approved
investment in Arun-3 Hydro Electric Project in which country ?
(A) Bangladesh (B) Bhutan (C) Nepal (D) Maldives
189. Amazon Basin of Brazil has the largest expanse of which forest ?
(A) Tropical Forest (B) Temperate Forest
(C) Monsoon Forest (D) Coniferous Forest
CSP-02 A 37 P.T.O.
190. The World Bank has approved loan for capacity augmentation of National Waterway I (NW-I)
between
(A) Sadiya Dhubri Stretch of Brahmaputra River
(B) Haldia in West Bengal and Varanasi in UP
(C) Kollam Kozikode Stretch of West Coast Canal
191. China has launched a satellite to monitor global carbon emissions, the name of the satellite is
(A) Tan Sat (B) Con Sat (C) CC Sat (D) None of the above
192. Which two Indias rivers were declared as living entities recently ?
(A) Ganga Saraswati (B) Ganga Yamuna
(C) Krishna Godavari (D) Narmada Tapi
193. Meena Hemachandra Committee has been constituted by RBI on

(A) Demonetization (B) Cyber Security
(C) Loan Waiver Policy (D) None of the above
JI
H
194. Which of the following country recently passed Hindu Marriage Bill, 2017 ?
(A) India (B) Nepal
N
(C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh
SI
195. Which of the following lawyer appeared on the behalf of India at the International Court of
Justice in the case of Khulbhushan Jadhav ?
H
(A) Mukul Rohatgi (B) Ram Jethmalani (C) Harish Slave (D) Shashi Tharoor
DD
196. The T.S.R. Subramanian Committee on the draft education policy recommended that the
outlay on education should be raised to at least ________ of GDP.
U
(A) 5% (B) 6% (C) 7 % (D) 8%

IR
197. Under the National Mission for Green India outlined under the National Action Plan on
AN
Climate Change (NAPCC), India aims to increase its forest cover by ______ million hectares.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
198. Indian Fisheries and aquaculture sector contributes __________ of the GDP and ______
of the Agriculture GDP respectively.
(A) 6.5 %, 11.5 % (B) 3.5 %, 7.15 % (C) 2.4 %, 6.5 % (D) 1.1 %, 5.15 %
199. Which of the following statements mention the eligibility for a Central Public Enterprise to be
considered as a Maharatna ?
(A) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crore during the last 3 years
(B) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 10,000 crore during the last 3 years
(C) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crore during the last 5 years
(D) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 10,000 crore during the last 5 years
200. Which of the following statements regarding the Line of Actual Control is/ are true ?
i. It is a line of military control between parts of Kashmir controlled by India and Pakistan.
ii. It is military border separating Indian areas of Jammu and Kashmir from Aksai Chin.
iii. It is nearly 776 kms long.
iv. It is clearly demarcated by the militaries.
(A) Only i (B) Only ii (C) only i, iii, iv (D) Only ii and iii
CSP-02 A 39 P.T.O.
हुतं च दत्तं च तथैव ततष्ठतत।।
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002. Match the Column:

(A) Kahotilagna (B) Birhoor

004. Which of the following is/are unmatched pair/s?

I. Akha Trij a. March

008. Which of the following statements are correct?

II. Kotikal Mandapam, Mahabalipuram

III. Airavateswara Temple, Darasuram

(A) Only I and II (B) Only II and III

013. Match the Column:

018. Match the Column:

I. Kakhasharo Kabaraji a. Mumbai Gujarati Natak Mandali

II. Vaghibhai Aasharam Oza b. Shree Desi Natak Samaj

III. Dahayabhai Dholashaaji c. Victoria Natak Mandali

IV. Jayshankar ‘Sundari’ d. Morbi Arya Subodh Natak Mandali

020. Match the Column.

022. Which of the following Gujarati poets wrote ‘Chittvichaarsamvaad’?

023. Which of the following statements are correct?

024. Match the Column:

IV. Raja Midas d. Lavkumar Desai

(A) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d (B) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c

plays wearing golden chain on legs?

(A) Natwar Mastaan (B) Mohan Lalaji

026. Which of the following statements are correct?

027. Which of the following statements are correct?

030. Match the Column:

(A) Mahipatram Nilkanth (B) Harkor Sethani

(C) Vidhyagori Nilkanth (D) Karshandas Mulji

032. What is “Prajnaparamita”?

(A) Hindu text (B) Jain text

(C) Islamic text (D) Buddhist text

033. Match the Column:

037. Match the Column:

038. ‘Kakada Dance’ is being performed to please ________.

successfully enact the play on just one set.

(C) II and III only (D) I, II and III

shortage problems in the state?

041. Match the Column:

044. Which of the buildings were not designed by Le Corbusier?

(A) Rang Avadhoot Maharaj (B) Jalaram Bapa

(C) Pujya Mota (D) Muksevak

(A) Bhikshu Akhandanand (B) Morari Bapu

(C) Swami Sachidanand (D) Punit Maharaj

049. Which of the following are not the lines of Kabir?

051. Kalibangan was situated on the dried bank of the river________.

053. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

(A) Eucratides (B) Alexander

(C) Antialcidas (D) Menander

I. Samaharta II. Sannidhata III. Kumaramatya IV. Antapala

(A) I and III only (B) I and IV only

057. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

059. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(C) I and II only (D) II and III only

061. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

062. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

064. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) I only (B) II only

(C) I and II only (D) II and III only

I. The Ghadar Movement began, in California, as a coalition of expatriate Punjabis dedicated

to raising money and support to overthrow British rule from India.

(A) Portuguese (B) Dutch

(A) Thanjavur (B) Uraiyur

I. The Ghadar Movement began, in California, as a coalition of expatriate Punjabis dedicated