Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
DIVISION OF LEYTE
Region VIII (Eastern Visayas)
Palompon National High School
Oval East, Central II
Palompon, Leyte

SECOND QUARTERLY EXAM in EARTH and LIFE SCIENCE – 11

Multiple Choice

Instructions: Read the questions and statements carefully, and choose the BEST ANSWER for each
number. Write the letter of your choice on a separate sheet of paper.

1. What is the prevailing scientific hypothesis regarding the origin of life on Earth?
a. Panspermia
b. Divine creation
c. Spontaneous generation
d. Abiogenesis

2. Which organic molecule is considered crucial for the origin of life due to its ability to store
genetic information?
a. Proteins
b. Carbohydrates
c. Lipids
d. Nucleic acids

3. Which early Earth conditions are thought to have played a significant role in the origin of life?
a. Oxygen-rich atmosphere
b. Extremely cold temperatures
c. Reducing atmosphere
d. High radiation levels

4. The Miller-Urey experiment aimed to simulate early Earth conditions and demonstrated the
synthesis of:
a. Amino acids
b. DNA
c. Lipids
d. Sugars

5. What is the "RNA world" hypothesis?

a. The first life forms were composed of RNA.
b. RNA is a precursor to DNA.
c. RNA played no role in the origin of life.
d. RNA is a product of abiogenesis.

6. Which of the following is a potential source of organic molecules crucial for the origin of life?
a. Comets
b. Rocks
c. Volcanic vents
d. All of the above

7. What role do hydrothermal vents play in the origin of life hypotheses?

a. They provide a source of heat for organic synthesis.
b. They release oxygen necessary for life.
c. They act as a barrier preventing the formation of life.
d. They have no relevance to the origin of life.
8. The theory of panspermia suggests that:
a. Life originated independently on Earth.
b. Life was brought to Earth from extraterrestrial sources.
c. Life spontaneously generated on other planets.
d. Life has always existed on Earth.

9. What is a fundamental characteristic of living organisms that is central to the unifying themes
in the study of life?
a. Inorganic composition
b. Reproduction
c. Stability
d. Uniformity

10. The concept that living organisms exhibit adaptations over time in response to their
environment is a key aspect of which unifying theme?
a. Evolution
b. Homeostasis
c. Emergent properties
d. Unity of life

11. Which type of cell would typically contain a large central vacuole and chloroplasts?
a. Animal cell
b. Plant cell
c. Bacterial cell
d. Fungal cell

12. Which cellular structure is involved in the synthesis of proteins using genetic information from
the nucleus?
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Ribosome
c. Lysosome
d. Vacuole

13. In which domain of life are prokaryotic cells found?

a. Eukarya
b. Archaea
c. Bacteria
d. Protista

14. What is the term for cells that lack a membrane-bound nucleus and organelles?
a. Eukaryotic cells
b. Prokaryotic cells
c. Plant cells
d. Animal cells

15. Thinking about photosynthesis and respiration in plants, which statement is correct.
a. Photosynthesis is the opposite of respiration
b. Photosynthesis and respiration both occur in plants
c. Only photosynthesis occurs in plants
d. Respiration for maintenance and growth only occurs in the dark

16. During the Calvin cycle, which molecule is used to fix carbon dioxide and initiate the synthesis
of glucose?
a. Ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
b. Phosphoglycerate (PGA)
c. Rubisco
d. NADPH
17. Which wavelengths of light are most effective in driving photosynthesis?
a. Red and blue
b. Green and yellow
c. Ultraviolet
d. Infrared

18. The source of the necessary elements of life is:

a. an inorganic environmental reservoir
b. the sun
c. rocks
d. the air

19. Which of the following statements is true for all organisms?

a. they require organic nutrients
b. they require inorganic nutrients
c. they require growth factors
d. they require oxygen gas

20. Catabolism is a form of metabolism in which _____molecules are converted into

________molecules.
a. large, small
b. small, large
c. amino acid, protein
d. food, storage

21. Why must the lagging strand of DNA be replicated in short pieces?
a. because of limited space
b. otherwise, the helix will become distorted
c. the DNA polymerase can synthesize in only one direction
d. to make proofreading of code easier

22. The oldest mineral discovered so far was __________, which dates back to 4.4 billion years.
a. Iron
b. Zircon
c. Cadmium
d. Silicon

23. How does genetic drift differ from natural selection in influencing allele frequencies in a
population?
a. Genetic drift is always directional, while natural selection can be stabilizing or disruptive.
b. Genetic drift is driven by environmental factors, while natural selection is random.
c. Genetic drift is a result of random chance, while natural selection is based on fitness.
d. Genetic drift occurs only in large populations, while natural selection is more prominent in small
populations.

24. How does the concept of punctuated equilibrium differ from gradualism in the theory of
evolution?
a. Punctuated equilibrium suggests that evolution occurs in rapid bursts, while gradualism proposes
a slow, continuous process.
b. Punctuated equilibrium emphasizes the role of environmental stability, while gradualism focuses
on environmental change.
c. Punctuated equilibrium occurs only in small populations, while gradualism occurs in large
populations.
d. Punctuated equilibrium involves the evolution of simple traits, while gradualism leads to complex
traits.
25. What role does the fossil record play in providing evidence for evolution?
a. It shows that all organisms that ever existed are still alive today.
b. It demonstrates that species have remained unchanged over time.
c. It provides a chronological record of the appearance and disappearance of species, showing
transitional forms.
d. It supports the idea that evolution is a linear, predetermined process.

26. The wing of the bat and the fore-limb of the dog are said to be homologous structures. This
indicates that:
a. They have the same function
b. Bats evolved from a lineage of dogs
c. They are structures which are similar due to common ancestry
d. The limb bones of each are anatomically identical
e. They have a different ancestry but a common function

27. Two islands are found in the middle of the Pacific Ocean, isolated from any other land mass.
These two islands were at one time connected by a land bridge and are of recent origin. They
have identical plant and animal life and are separated by 50 miles of ocean. Assuming different
selection pressures, which of these island populations would be most likely to be reproductively
isolated, possibly allowing for species divergence?
a. Dandelions, with airborne seeds
b. Coconuts with floating seeds
c. Birds
d. Butterflies
e. Mice

28. Which of the following is not a part of Darwin's theory of natural selection?
a. Individuals of a population vary
b. Organisms tend to over-reproduce themselves
c. There are limited resources for which individuals compete
d. Modifications an organism acquires during its lifetime can be passed to its offspring
e. Variations possessed by individuals of a population are heritable

29. The life histories of five birds of the same species are listed below. The most evolutionally
successful bird is the one that:
a. Lives 5 years, lays 12 eggs in a lifetime, 4 hatch
b. Lives 2 years, lays 8 eggs in a lifetime, 5 hatch
c. Lives 6 years, lays 2 eggs in a lifetime, 2 hatch
d. Lives 4 years, lays 7 eggs in a lifetime, 6 hatch
e. Lives 5 years, lays 4 eggs in a lifetime, 3 hatch

30. Which of the following parts of a plant take part in sexual reproduction?
I. Flower
II. Seed
III. Fruit
IV. Branch
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. III and IV
d. II, III and IV

31. Lila observed that a pond with clear water was covered up with a green algae within a week.
By which method of reproduction did the algae spread so rapidly?
a. Budding
b. Sexual reproduction
c. Fragmentation
d. Pollination

32. Which of the following statements is/are true for sexual reproduction in plants?
I. Plants are obtained from seeds.
II. Two plants are always essential.
III. Fertilisation can occur only after pollination.
IV. Only insects are agents of pollination.

a. I and III b. I only c. II and III d. I and IV

33. Why is broadcast spawning considered advantageous?

a. Production of many eggs increases the chance of fertilization.
b. Production of many sperm increases the chance of fertilization.
c. It results in mixing of genes and greater genetic diversity.
d. Animals that are motile carry out this process.

34. How are the offspring of viviparous animals different from the offspring of oviparous animals?
a. They are protected from the external environment.
b. They are produced in higher numbers.
c. They can live longer.
d. They can utilize nutrients better.

35. The spermatheca, which is found in many insects, worms, and mollusks, is useful for _____.
a. spermatogenesis
b. sperm motility
c. growth of embryos
d. storing sperm and as a site for fertilization

36. How is an oocyte released from a human ovary so it can enter the oviduct?
a. the beating action of the flagellum on the oocyte
b. the force of the follicular ejection directing the oocyte into the oviduct
c. the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct
d. muscular contraction of the ovaries

37. What are the three phases of embryonic development in chronological order?
a. blastula → gastrula → cleavage
b. blastula → cleavage → gastrula
c. cleavage → gastrula → blastula
d. cleavage → blastula → gastrula

38. What is alternative splicing, and how does it contribute to genetic diversity?
a. It is the process of removing introns from mRNA, increasing the stability of the transcript
b. It is the rearrangement of exons in mRNA, resulting in different protein isoforms
c. It is a mechanism of DNA replication that introduces variability in the genome
d. It is the formation of a new gene through mutation

39. How do mutations contribute to genetic diversity in a population?

a. Mutations always result in increased genetic diversity
b. Mutations introduce new alleles into a population
c. Mutations only occur in non-coding regions of DNA
d. Mutations decrease genetic diversity by disrupting existing gene sequences

40. How do homeotic genes contribute to embryonic development and pattern formation?
a. They are responsible for encoding structural proteins in the developing embryo
b. They regulate the timing of cell division during development
c. They control the spatial organization of body parts by specifying the identity of segments
d. They play a role only in adult organisms, not during embryonic development
41. Which of the following types of genetic manipulations allow a researcher to experimentally
increase gene expression in a mouse model?
a. Knockin
b. Conditional knockout
c. Transgenic
d. Knockout

42. In what situation might genetic engineering be used to create genetically modified organisms
(GMOs) for agriculture?
a. Promoting organic farming practices
b. Reducing the use of pesticides on crops
c. Enhancing soil fertility naturally
d. Eliminating the need for irrigation in crops

43. A scientist is using CRISPR-Cas9 technology to edit the genes of mosquitoes with the aim of
reducing the transmission of a specific disease. What is the potential advantage of this approach?
a. Increased resistance to insecticides
b. Enhanced biodiversity in the ecosystem
c. Reduced incidence of the targeted disease
d. Accelerated climate change adaptation

44. In a forest ecosystem, a sudden increase in atmospheric nitrogen deposition is observed.

Evaluate the potential effects on nutrient cycling, soil composition, and the overall health of the
ecosystem.
a. Enhanced nitrogen-fixing capabilities of plants leading to increased growth
b. Altered soil pH, negatively impacting microbial communities
c. Decreased carbon sequestration due to increased nitrogen availability
d. Improved resilience of the ecosystem to external disturbances

45. A biotechnology company is developing genetically modified salmon that grow faster than
wild salmon. What is a potential concern associated with the release of these genetically modified
salmon into the wild?
a. Enhanced biodiversity
b. Competition with wild salmon for resources
c. Improved fishery management
d. Increased resilience to climate change

46. An organism is exposed to extreme environmental conditions, leading to a decrease in the

efficiency of its electron transport chain. What impact would this have on ATP synthesis?
a. Increased ATP production
b. No change in ATP production
c. Decreased ATP production
d. Shift to anaerobic respiration

47. A gene has a total of 800 nucleotides. If the coding region is 600 nucleotides long, how many
amino acids are encoded by this gene?
a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 600

48. Given a DNA sequence of 120 base pairs, how many nucleotides would be involved in coding
for a protein, assuming each codon codes for one amino acid?
a. 30
b. 40
c. 60
d. 120

49. In a DNA double helix, if one strand has the sequence 5'-ATCG-3', what is the complementary
sequence of the other strand?
a. 3'-TAGC-5'
b. 5'-TAGC-3'
c. 3'-ATCG-5'
d. 5'-GCTA-3'

50.

What are the possible genotypes for this cross?

a. TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b. all tall
c. TT= 75% tt = 25%
d. Tt = 100%
 “Keep your dreams alive. Understand to achieve anything requires faith and belief in
yourself, vision, hard work, determination, and dedication. Remember all things are
possible for those who believe.”
― Gail Devers, American Olympic champion in track and field

Prepared by: Approved by: Noted by:

HYACINTH RAE ARANAS –LIPAT MARIA ESTELITA S. CABAHUG NOEMI S. CARLOBOS

Subject Teacher SHS – Coordinator Principal