. '....

-or
Select the one lette~d answer or completion that is best in each case.

C 1. Chemicals.should be stored: ..
A. Alpllabetically, for easy accessibility g.
According to their chemical properties and classification
B. Inside a safety cabinet with pibper ventilation D: Inside fume hood, if toxiC vapors can be released when opened
~ 2. A ch~lesterol quality control chait has the following data for the nonnal control:
. Mean Qfthe data (x)
2 Standard deviation
= 150'ihgldL
= 4
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m
l:X = 1,372 mg/dL
N = 10
Detennine the coefficient of variation for this control:
A. 1.33% B.2.67% C. 15.0 % D. 7.06%
;
o 3. All of the following conversion factors from conventional unit to SI are correct match, except:
A. Urea nitrogen, 0.357 B. Triglycerides, 0.01129 C. Cholesterol, 0.02586 Q. BHirubin 88.4
I
i D 4. The ability of an analytical method to measure only the analyte of interest;
I G A. Accuracy ~. Precision C. Sensitivity D. Sped!idty
5. The ability of the test to detect the proportion of IndividlJals with disease who test positively with the test:
.
I A. Reliability B. Practicability ~ Diagnostic sensitivity D. Diagnostic specificity
The ability of the test to detect the proportion of individuals without the disease who test negatively for the disease:
A. Reliability B. Practicability C. Diagnostic sensitivity Q. Diagnostic specificity
The middle value of a set of numbers that are arranged according to their magnitude is known as:
..A, Arit~metic mean B. Geometric mean ft. Median D. Mode
:! n 8. It is the most frequent observation.
;1- o
" . A. Arithmetic mean' B. Geometric mean C. Median
9. It is important in maintaining long-tenn accuracy of the analytical methods:
Q. Mode

I! A. Quality assurance B. Chain of evidence 9, Intralab QC (Internal QC) D. Interlab ac cci

(External
C10. It is important for the daily monitoring of accuracy and preciSion of analytical methodS:
I' A. Quality_assurance B. Chain of evidence C. Intralab QC '(Intemal QC) D. Jnterlab ac (External QC)
d
!.
C 11. All ofthefolfowing are possible causes of a random error, EXCEPT:
'I 6.. Plpe'tting errorS' B'IMislabeling of samples C. Deterioration of reagents D. Temperature f1uduation
I D12. All of the following are possible causes of a systematic error, EXCEPT:
I A. Contaminated SOlutiO~S I C. Unstable reagent blanks
i B. Leaky ion-selective erectrode (ISE) Q. Improper mixing of sample and reagent
(3,13. When data fluctuations are to chance and results are seen to vary in either direction, the problem is referred to
"
I as:
A. Coefficient of variation
Q,14. It refers to the difference
B. Random error C. Experimental error D. Systematic error
- n the target value and the assay value. It exists when there is a constant differegce
!I betWee~.tlle comparative m~od and the test method regardleSs of the concentration.
A. Random error B. constant systematic error C..Proportional systematic error D. Clerical error
_I! C 15. It resultS in greater deviation from' the target value due to higher sample concentration. It exists when the difference
between the test method values arp proportional to the analyte concentration.
A. Random error . B. Constant systematic error C. Proportional systematic error D. Clerical error
C 16. Examples of pre-analytical errors:· - ...
-1. Improper patient preparation 3. Incorred order of draw
2. Wrong specimen container 4. Unavailable or delayed laboratory results
. A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
~ 17. It is used to detennine whether there is a statistically significant difference between the standard devJ~o~s of two
groups of data. ..;;
. A. ftest I B. t test C.' Variance D. Standard devi$iot!tindex
~ 18. It 15 used to detennine whether there is statistically significant diff,rence between the means of two groups of data.
A, ftest B. t test C. Variance ': D. Standard deviation index
C. 19. 1n a Gaussian curve distribUtion, the ±2 SO.range includ~s thtHoliowing percentage of values:
A. 31.6% B. 68,3% • C. 95.5% D. 99.7% .
o 20. It most Widely used QC chart in the clinica1laboratory":"lt allows laboratorians to apply multiple rules without the aid
of a computer.
A. Gaussian curve (bell-shaped curve) C. Cumulative sum graph (CUSUM)
. B. YoudenfTwin plot . D. Shewhart Levey-Jennings chart
-021. It is used ~o compare results obtaine~ on high and IoWcontrol serum from different laboratories.
A. Gau~an curve (bell-shaped curve) C. Cumulative sum graph (CUSUM)
B. YoudenfTwin plot . _ D. Shewhart Levey-Jennings chart
~ 22. It ISfonned by control values that either increase or decrease for six consecutive days. The main cause is
deterioration of reagents.
~ Trend B. Shift C. Outlier . D. KurtosiS
@J 23. It is fonned by control values that distribute themselves on one side or either side of the mean for six consecutive
days. The main cause is tmproper calibration of instruments.
A. Trend . B. Shifl C. Outlier D. KurtOSiS
~ 24. ~jch Westgard rule detenmnes random error?
A. 135 . . B. 41. C. 228 D. 100 .
(/25. T"m control obserVations Consecutively exceeding thT same + 2s ~r - 2s. AllowS high sensitivity to systematic
e~~ .
. A. 13s B. 4'5 <; 22s D. 100
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(; 26. One control exceeding the + 2s and another exceeding the - 2s. Allows detection of random error.
~. 125 B. 13s C. R4s . D. 225
~ 27. The difference between two consecutive measurements of the same analytes on the same individual.
A. Analytical run B. DeHacheck C. Physiologic limit D. Recovery experiment
D 28. Porn of care testing (Pocij
1. Near-patient testing 2. AHemate site testing 3. Decentralized testing 4. Bedside testing
A. 2 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D 29. To derive reliable estimates of reference interval, at least _ individuals should be tested in each age and gender
categories.
A. 50 B. 70 C.100 120
However, only 20 reference individuals need to be sampled for analysis on the test instrument if the laboratorian determines that
the test instrument and the test subject population are similar to those described in the manufacture's package insert.
(., 30. The visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum lies between:
A. 200 and 700 nm B. 340 and 850 nm C. 400 and 700 nm D. 500 and 900 nm
031. A spectrophotometer that uses 2 photodetectors, for Thesample beam and reference beam.
A. Single beam spectrophotometer C. Double beam in time spectrop.iotometer LEMAR """
. 6. Simplest absorption spectrometer D. Double beam in space spectrophotometer I;J491ata:IIJ:' ~
~ 32. It is the most commonly used light source in the visibie and near-infrared region:
A. Tungsten light bulb B. Deuterium lamp C. Xenon discharge lamp D. Mercury lamp
(? 33. A monochromator isolates specific wavelength of light. Which of the following is the most commonly used type of
monochromator?
A. Prisms B. Diffraction gratings C. Filters D. Holographic gratings
'?34. This type of detector has eXCellent sensitivity and has a rapid response; it detects very low levels of light:
~ Barrier layer cell B. Photomultiplier (PM) tube C. Photodiode D. Phototube
~ 35. Which of the following light sources is used in atomic absorption spectrophotometry?
.f;; Hollow cathode lamp B. Xenon arc lamp C. Tungsten light D. Laser
o 36. Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the exciting light is at right angle to the path of the emitted light.
What is the purpose of this design?
A. Prevent loss of emitted light Q, Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector
B. Prevent loss of the excitation light D. Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector
~ 37. A fluorescent substance absorbs light of one wavelength and emits light of: "l(')lO"
A. Longer wavelength and lower energy. C. Longer wavelength and higher energy
B. Shorter wavelength and lower energy D. Shorter wavelength and higher energy
(b 38. The process by which f1uo~scence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy
by interacting with other substances in a solution is known as:
& Ionization . B. Quenching C. Phosphorescence D. Self-absorption
V 39. Which of the following instruments is used in the clinical laboratory or in reference laboratories to detect beta and
gamma emissions? .
A. Fluorometer B. Nephelometer C. Scintillation counter D. Spectrophotometer
D 40. When measuring K+ with an ion-selective electrode bymeans of liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will
be incorporated into the membrane?
~ Monactin B. Nonactin C. Streptomycin D. Valinomycin
G.41. It is useful for compounds that are naturally volatile or can be easily converted into a volatile fonn.
A. Paper chromatography B. Thin layer chromatography C. Gas chromatography D. HPLC
C-42. All of the following are correct. m~tch, EXCEPT: "O,J .., ....-- PO 1ttJt1oMv-my
A. Polarography: p<n determination C. Amperometry: E!:I and p.Q_Q2 tests .'
B. Coulometry: Chloride tests in CSF, serum and sweat D. Voitammetry: lead and iron testing
~ 43. Which of the following approaches of automated analyzers uses a rotor to mix reagents?
A. Centrifugal analysis B. Continuous flow ~ Discrete analysis D. Dry chemistry slide analysis
O 44. The process used in continuous-flow analysis to separate out protein from the specimen is?
A. Chemical precipitation B. Column chromatography C. Ion-exchange chromatography D. DialysiS
tot 45. All samples are loaded at the same time and a single test is conducted on each sample:
6. Batch testing B. Parallel testing C. Sequential testing D. Random access testing
(b 46. More than one test is anaJyzed concurrently on a given clinical specimen:
A. Batch testing ~. Parallel testing C. Sequential testing D. Random access testing
D 47. Any test can be perform~ on any sample in any sequence:
. A. Batch testing B. Parallel testing C. Sequential testing D. Random access testing
V 48. Multiple tests analyzed one after another on a given specimen:
A. Batch testing B. Parallel testing C. Sequential te$ting D. Random access testinq
k 49. Which of the following chemistry analyzers uses "slides" to contain the entire reagent system?
~. Vitros© analyzers B. ACA© analyzers C. Paramax© analyzer'S D. None of the above
(., 50. The pH value at which the serum of the electric charges on a protein equals zero is referred to as the:
A. Balanced point B. Equalization point C.lsoelectric point D. Zwitterion point
r; 51. Transfer pipet for viscous fluids; it characterized withan etched ring:
A. Volumetrfc pipet B. Ostwald-Folin C. Serological pipet D. Mohr pipet
o 52. A graduated or measuring ptpet without graduations to the tip. It is calibrated between 2 marks and self-draining
pipet.
A. Volumetric pipet B. Ostwald-Folin C. Serologicaf pipet D. Mohr pipet
..() 53~ Exercise: -
1. Increased lactate 2. Increased ammonia 3: Increased ALT, AST 4. Increased CK
A. 1 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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054• Which of the following will increase the urinary excretion of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)?
1. Banana 2. Pineapple 3. Tomato ' 4. Avocado
. A. 1 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 2 3 and 4
D 55. Analytes that exhibits diurnal variation: - ' ,
1. Iron 2. Cortisol 3. ACTH 4. Growth honnone
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3 C. 1. 2 and 3 g, 1. 2. 3 and 4
~ 56. Order of draw in evacuated tubes and syringe:
.A. Sterile - light blue - serum tube - green -lavender - gray stopper
B. Sterile -light blue - serum tube -lavender - green - gray stopper
C. Sterile - serum tube - light blue - green -lavender - gray stopper
D. Sterile - serum tube - green -light blue -lavender - gray stopper
C 57. The _ gauge needle is considered the standard for most routine adult antecubital venipunctures.
A. 19 gauge B. 20 gauge ;; 21 gauge , D. 22 gauge
058. As little as 10% contamination with 5% dextrose will Increase glucose in a blood sample by _ mg/dL or more.
A. 100 mg/dL or more B. 200 mg/dL or mOI~ C. 300 mg/dL or more .£ 500 mg/dL or more
Vb 59. Order of draw from catheter lines: ~\,02>~ I<
A. Blood for blood culture 3. Blood for JlDticoagulatedtubes
B. Discard tUbe. 3 to 5 mL 4. Blood for .sot tubes
A. 1.
2. 3 then 4 B. 2. 1. 3 then 4 C. 2, 1. 4 then 3 O. 2. 3. 1 then 4
-.Q) 60. Low temperature storage prior to testing:
A. Decreased LD4. L05 and ALP C. Increased L04, LOSand ALP
B. Decreased LD4 and LOS. increased ALP 0". Increased L04 and L05. decreased ALP
o 61. Specimens that require chilling (44C):
1. Ammonia 2. Blood gases 3. Gastrin 4. Lactic acid
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1. 2 and 3 O. 1. 2. 3 and 4
~ 62. Analyte used to assess the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection:
A. Glucose B. Urea £,. Creatinine D. Chloride
(/63. Hormones that tend to increase glucose concentration:
1. Cortisol 2. Catecholamines 3. ACTH 4. Insulin
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1. 2 and 3 D. 1. 2. 3 and 4
(... 64. Laboratory findings in hyperglycemia:
A. Increased glucose in plasma and urine 3. Increased urine specific gravity
B. Presence of ketones in serum and urine 4. Increased blood pH and urine pH
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1. 2 and 3 D. 1. 2. 3 and 4
o 65. Observable symptoms of hypoglycemia occur at this glucose concentration:
A. 100 to 120 mg/dL B. 90 to 110 mg/dL C. 70 to 80 mg/dL E. 50 to 55 mg/dL
~ 66. Type 10M:
A. Insulin-dependent OM 2. Maturity onset OM 3. Ketosis-prone OM 4. Receptor-deficient OM
.& 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1. 2 and 3 D. 1. 2. 3 and 4
~ 67. Decreased or undetectable C-peptide level:
A. Type 1 OM B. Type 2 OM C. Types 1 and 2 OM D. None of these
o 68. Venous blood is __ than capillary blood due to tissue metabolism.
A. 4 mg/dL higher B. 4 mg/dL lower C. 7 mgldL higher 0.7 mgldL lower
C/ 69. Aikiilne copper reduction method for glucose: ,. ",Loll Fr~ql<' (?fOJCrlDH

A. FOlinWu method 2. Nelson Somogyi method 3. Neocuproine method 4. Hagedorn Jensen method ~1b
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1. 2 and 3 0.1.2.3 and 4
tno. Select the coupling enzyme used in the hexoldnase method for glucose:
A. Glucose dehydrogenase .s;. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
B. Glucose-6-phosphatase O. Peroxidase
e> 71. Fasting plasma glucose of 110 mg/dL:

I. Ii c..
A. Non-dlabetic .§. Impaired plasma glucose C. Diabetes mellitus
72. Diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus:
A. RBS i!:200 mgldL 2. FBS i!:126 mgldL
O. Hypoglycemia

3. z-hour post glucose load i!:200 mgldL

A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1. 2 and 3 D. 1. 2. 3 and 4
o 73. Glycosylated hemoglobin value ~ _'10 on two occasions can be used to diagnose diabetes.
c
A. i!:4.5% B.i!:5.7% C.i!:6% O. i!:6.5%
9 74• Methods for measurement of glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c):
1. Electrophoresis 2. HPLC 3. Affinity chromatography 4. Immunoassay
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 O. 1. 2. 3 and 4
.0 75. Most common glycogen storage disease (GSD): _,
A. Pompe B. Andersen C. Mc Ardle D. von Gierke
G 76. Conditions characterized by increased cholesterol:
A. Biliary cirrhosis 2. NephrotiCsyndrome 3. Alcoholism 4. Hyperthyroidism
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1.2 and 3 Q. 1. 2. 3 and 4
.e> 77. Tnglyceride value of 150 mg/dL:
.b Nonnal B. Borderline high C. High TAG D. Very high TAG
b 78. Condition characterized by increased triglycerides:
A. Alcoholism 2. Nephrotic syndrome 3. Pancreatitis 4. Hypothyroidism
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1. 2 and 3 0.1.2.3 and 4
...D 79. The largest and least dense of the lipoprotein particles:
A. VLDL B. LOL· C. HOL ..Q; Chylomicrons
080. Low density lipoprotein:
A. 90% TAG + 1-2% protein C. 30% phospholipid. 20% chole ester + 45-50% protein
B. 65% TAG. 16% chole ester + 6-10% protein 'D. 50% chole ester + 18% protein and phOspholipid
o_;OtR Ol m~l\w l1l~ MICl"lb~OLLtC'{1QN 1tt(;ts. ,
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81. The reference ~ethod for quantification of lipoproteins:
~ ~ Ultracen~nfuQation B. Electrophoresis C. Chemical precipitation D. Immunoassays
~ 82. MIgration of lipoproteins from the origin to the anode'
A. Chylomicrons - lDl- VlDL - HDl C. HDL - VLDL - LDL - chylomicrons
~ .§.. Chylomicrons - VLDL - LDL - HDL D. HDL - LDl- VLDL - chylomicrons
~3. A rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by complete absence of HDL:
A Bassen-Komzweig syndrome C. Niemann-Pick disease
.h B. Tangier's disease D. Anderson's disease
84. An abnormallipoprotetn found in patients with obstrudive biliary disease:
A. B-VlDL J!. LpX C. Lp(a) D. LDL
~85. A patient's total cholesterol is 300 mg/dL, his HDL cholesterol is 50 mg/dL, and his triglyceride Is 200 mg/dL. What
is this patient's calculated LDL?
A. 200 .It 210 C. 290 D. 350
.8 86. Sl1mdard reference method for total protein detennination based on the measurement of nitrogen content.
A. Biuret method B. Kjeldahl method C. Folin-Cocalteu D. UV absorption method
n 87. ~ plasma protein mainly responsible for maintaining colloidal osmotic pressure in vivo is:
A. Hemoglobin B. Fibrinogen £ Alpha2-macroglobulin D. Albumin
(...88. In what condition would an increased serum albumin be expected?
A. Malnutrition B. Acute inflammation £, Dehydration D. Renal disease
(fil9. poor proteln-caloric nutrition status is associated with: .
A. A low level of gamma-globulins C A decreased level of prealburrun
B. An elevated haptoglobin concentration 6.' An increased level of alpha1-fetoprotein
~ 90. Deficiency is associated with emphysematous pulmonary disease and juvenile hepatic cirrhosis:
A. Alpha1-antitrypsin B.Orosomucoud C. Prealbumin D. Hemopexin
..D 91. 11Us protein appears in the urine when reabsorption is incomplete because of proximal tubular damage as In acute
kidney injury:
A. Ceruloplasmin B. A1pha2-macroglobulin C. Siderophilin .Q.. Beta2-microglobulin
II
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'I
c_ 92. Serum electrophoretic pattern associated with alpha2 globulin band spike:
A. Multiple myeloma B. Hepatic cirrhosis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Juvenile cirrhosis
III b 93. Bence Jones proteinuria is a condition characterized by the urinary excretion of what type of light chain?
A. Kappa light chains C. Both kappa and lambda light chains
B. Lambda light chains D. Either kappa or lambda light chains
I'b
94. ceruloplasmin and haptoglobin migrate electrophoretically as:
A. Alpha, globulins B. Alpha2 globulins C. Beta globulins D. Gamma globutins
D 95. Which of the proteins listed migrates in the beta region at pH S.6?
A. Haptoglobin B. Orosomucoprotein S. Ceruloplasmin D. Transferrin
b 96. Acute phase reactants:
1. CRP 2. a1 antitrypsin 3. a1-acid glycoprotein
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 B. 1,2 and 3
E> 97. The following pattern of serum protein electrophoresis is obtained:
Albumin: decreased or normal
Alphal and alpha2 globulins:~eased
Beta and gamma globulins: normal ~
LEMAR
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This pattem is characteristiC of which of the following conditions:
A. Cirrhosis B. Acute inflammation C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Gammopathy
Os. A congenital disorder characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is s..Jbjected to electrophoresis is
known as:
A. Analbuminemla B. Anodic albuminemia £, Bisalbuminemia D. Prealbuminemia
C 99. COnditions associated with Increased total protein concentration:
1. Malignancy 2. Waldenstrom's macrogobulinemia 3. Multiple myeloma 4. Glomerulonephritis
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
~ 100. First metabolite to elevate in kidney diseases:
A. BUN B. Creatinine C. Cystatin C D. Uric acid
e 101• Index of overall renal funClion:
A. BUN B. Creatinine C. Cystatin C D. Uric acid
A t,102. Conditions with increased BUN:
1. Chronic renal disease 2. Poor nutrition 3. High protein diet 4. Hepatic disease
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c'103. Conditions with increased creatinine clearance:
A. Impaired kidney function 2. Shock, dehydration 3. Hemorrhage 4. High cardiac output
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. Only 4
(..,104. Azotemia is characteri~ed by elevated levels of: Rodriguez
A. Urea B. Creatinine C. Urea and creatinine
- D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. None of these
V 105. It is usually the result of urinary tract obstruction: -
A. Pre-renal azotemia !1 Renal azotemia C. Post-renal azotemia D. Pre-renal and renal azotemia
CD 106. Simplest and the most specific method for uric acid detennination:
A. Chemical method B. Enzymatic method C. Isotope dilution mass spectrometry D. None of these
~ 107. During chemotherapy for leukemic, which of the follOwing analytes would most likely be elevated In the blood?
A. Uric acid B. Urea C. Creatinine D. Ammonia
b 108• ~culate the creatinine clearance based on the following infonnation: urine concentration = 120 mg/dL; plasma
concentration = 1.5 mgldL; urine volume for 24 hours = 1520 mL; body surface = 1.60 m2• •
A. 78 mUmin B. 82 mUmin C. 84 mUmin D. 91 mUmin
~ 109. Tests for measuring the hepatic synthetic (synthesis) ability:
A. Serum albumin 2. Ammonia 3. Coagulation factors 4. Bilirubin
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1. 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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D110. Jaundice is often initially seen as scleral Icterus when the patient has total serum bilirubin concentrations above
_ mg/dL Henry
A. 0.5 mg/dL B. 1 mg/dL £.1.5 mg/dL D.2mg/dL
Which of the follOwing statements refer to B1 :
A. Conjugated bilirubin 2. Indirect reacting 3. Water soluble 4. Unconjugated bilirubin
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 ~ Only 4 0.1,2,3 and 4
~112. Gilbert's syndrome:
A. Conjugation deficit B. Bilirubin transport deficit C. Bilirubin excretion deficit Q. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Jb 113. Biliary obstruction (gallstones) is characterized by:
A. Increased B1 B. Increased B2 C. Increased B1 and B2 D. Decreased B1 and B2
1\~14. The following results are obtained, what is the mostiikely condition of the patient?
High AST, ALT, LO, bilirubin; but nonnal total protein, albumin, ammonia:
A. Hepatitis B. Cirrhosis ..£. Biliary obstruction D. Hemolytic anemia
t.?115. The following results are obtained, what is the most likely condition of the patient?
Low: Total protein, albumin Nonnal: AST, ALT and LO
High: Bilirubin, ammonia Nonnal to slightly high: ALP
b. Hepatitis B. Cirrhosis C. Biliary obstruction D. Hemolytic anemia
C116. The following results are obtained, what is the most likely condition of the patient?
High: ALP, bilirubin Nonnal: Total protein, albumin Nonnal: AST, ALT, LO
A. Hepatitis .!!: Cirrhosis C. Biliary obstruction D. Hemolytic anemia
~ 117. Serum and other body fluids for ammonia detennination:
A. Chilled, fresh specimen B. Chilled within 4 hours C. Chilled within 8 hours I). Chilled within 12 hours

V118. Blood ammonia levels are uSUally measured in order to evaluate:

A. Renal failure B. Acid-base status C. Hepatic coma D. Gastrointestinal malabsorption
19 119. Which of the following enzymes does not belong tothe class of enzymes known as the hydro lases?
A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Aldolase C. Amylase D. Lipase
(1120. To what class of enzymes does lactate dehydrogenase belong?
A. Isomerases B. Ligases £. Oxidoreductases D. transferases
C 121. Transferases:
1. ALT 2. AST 3. CK 4. LD
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 .£:. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1,2,3 and 4
C122. Order of ALP heat stability: from most heat stable to most heat labile.
A. Bone, intestinal, liver and placental .9,. Placental, intestinal, liver and bone
B. Bone, liver, intestinal and placental D. Intestinal, liver, placental and bone
b 123. Major LD isoenzyme in the sera of healthy persons:
A. LD 1 ~t')t B. LD 2 C. LD 3 D. LOS
C 124. LO is elevated in all patients with:
A. Aplastic anemia . B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Megaloblastic anemia D. All of these
c..125. Serum levels of total CK are elevated after an acute myocarttial infarction and in\vhich of the following
conditions?
A. Diabetes mellitus .s Duchenne type muscular dystrophy
B. Chronic renal failure D. Early pregnancy
~ 126. The isoenzymes LO-4 and LOoSare elevated in:
~- A. Pulmol)ary embolism B. Liver disease C. Renal disease B.- Myocardial infarction
b 127. Highest level of ALP:
A. Hepatitis B. Hepatobiliary disease C. Obstructive disease D. Paget disease
~ 128. In an adult, a nonnal GGT level with an elevated serum ALP level may be suggestive of:
h,. Bone disease B. Heart disease C. Liver disease D. Skeletal muscle disease
(.,129. Which of the follOwing enzymes exhibit a decreased serum level in liver disease?
A. Alanine aminotransferase C.CiiOiinesterase
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_§. Gamma glutamyltransferase D. Lactate dehydrogenase
t!)130. The relative concentration of LO isoenzymes In nonnal serum:
.fl. LD 1>2>3>4>5 B. LD 2>1>3>4>5 C. LD 2>1>4>3>5 D. LD 5>4>3>2>1
.to 131. A substrate exhibiting high specificity for prostatiC acid phosphatase:
A. Beta-glycerophosphate (Bodansky) C. Phenylphosphate (Gutman, King-Armstrong)
_!!. Thymolphthalein phosphate (Roy) D. A1pha-naphthylphosphate (Babson and Reed)
-../b132. Time course of CK activity in myocardial infarction:
ONSET OF ELEVATION PEAK ACTIVITY DURATION OF ELEVATION
A 1-3 h 5-12 h 18-30 h
® . 4-8h 12 h 3-4d
C' 8-12 h 24 h Sd
.
0 12-24 h 72h 10d

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 "~IUIII CIlLyIllC~ LytJ.lOallyelevated due to skeletal muscle disease:
t: Aspartate aminotransferase, creatine kinase, lactatedehydrogenase
B. Aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase,alkaline phosphatase
C. Aldolase, pseudocholinesterase,trypsin
D. S'·Nucleotidase, alkaline phosphatase,gamma-glutamyltransferase
C 134. Most sensitive enzyme index of primary musde Involvement:
A. Aldolase B. AST ~. CK D. LD
t> 135. In pesticide pOisoning, cholinesterase activity is:
A. Normal B. Decreased C. Increased D. Variable
~ 136. It is considered as the most common electrolyte disorder:
A. Hypematremia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia
.D 137. Functions of potassium:
A. Heart contraction 2. Neuromuscularexcitability 3. ICF volume regulation 4. Enzymeactivator
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 ,9. 1, 2, 3 and 4
l\ 138. Hyperkalemia is almost always due to: Rodriguez
A. Impaired renal excretion B. Acidosis C. Muscleinjury D. Oral or IV Infusion
J) 139. Most common cause of hyperkalemia among hospitalized patients:
A. Renal failure B. Severe dehydration C. Vigorousexercise D. TherapeuticK+ administration
~ 140. Most common cause of hypokalemia:
. A. Renal loss of potassium B. Diarrhea C. AlkalosiS D. Intestinaltumor
D141. Which ofthe follOwing affects serum calcium levels?
A. Vitamin D B. Parathyroidhormone C. Calcitonin D. All of these
~ 142. Which protein is produced in decreased amount in Wilson's disease?
A. Albumin It Ceruloplasmin C. Haptoglobin D. Hemopexin
C 143. Menkes' syndrome is caused by accumulation of the following metal in the intestinal mucosal cell and associated
low plasma concentrations:
A. Iron B. Zinc C. Copper D. Manganese
\,)144. Buffer system/s in the body:
1. Bicarbonate/carbonicacid B. Hemoglobin 3. Plasmaproteins 4. Plasma phosphates
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 .Q. 1, 2, 3 and 4
(; 145. In health, when the kidneys and lungs are functioning properly, a 20:1 ratio of HC03 to H~OJ will be maintained,
res.ulting inapH of: LEMAR ~
A. 7.10 B. 7.30 £. 7.40 D. 1.50 REVIEW HUB ~
f?146. The normal ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonatein arterial blood is:
A. 7.4:6.1 B. 1:20 C. 0.003:1.39 D. 20:1
~ 147. Which of the following isthe primary mechanism causing respiratory alkalosis?
~ Hyperventilation C. Deficientalveolardiffusion
B. Deficient pulmonary perfusion D. Parasympatheticinhibition
~ 148. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of compensation for metabolic acidosis?
A. Hyperventilation B. Hypoventilation C. Aldosteronerelease D. Bicarbonate excretion
c. 149. Conditions associated with respiratory acidosis:
1. Chronic obstructive pulmonarydisease (COPD) 3. Pneumonia
2. Mya~enia gravis 4. Anxiety
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2 and 3 .Q. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C 150. Conditions associated with metabolic acidosis:
1. Diabeticketoacidosis 2. Lactic acidosis (alcoholism) 3. Renal failure, diarrhea 4. Vomiting
A. 1 and 3 8. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 _Q. 1. 2, 3 and 4
C 151. Electrodes for pCOz. POzand pH:
A. Glass electrode. Clarke, Severinghauselectrode .£ Severinghaus.Clarke, glass electrode
B. Clarke,glass electrode, Severinghauseelectrode D. Clarke electrode,Severinghaus,glass electrode
~ 152. Which element is reduced at the cathode of a Clark polarographic electrode?
A. Silver B. Oxygen C. Chloride D. Potassium
(:;153. 111 the patient's circulatory system, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an
exchange mechanlsm with:
.I::.. Carbonic acid B. Lactate C. Chloride D. Sodium
~54. All of the following are correct match, EXCEPT: HORMONE CLASSIFICATION BY STRUCTURE
~ Peptide: Insulin, TSH, FSH C. Amino acids: Nor/Epinephrine,
B. Steroid: T4, T3 D. Fatty acids: Prostaglandins
0155. All ofthe following are correct match, EXCEPT: TISSUES AND THE HORMONES THEY PRODUCE

V
A. Pancreas: Insulin, Glucagon
B. Adrenal cortex: Cortisol
156. Tissues/organs capable of producing 'hormones:
-
C. Adrenal medulla: Epinephrine
D. Thyroid: TSH

A. Thyroid gland 2. Adrenal gland 3. Anterior pituitary gland 4. Posterior pituitary gland
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C.1, 2 and a D.1,2,3and4
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 ..
. L.EMA~ REVIEW HUB +639479560660 Paqel7
.['1,i.nie major carrier protein of T3 and T4 in the circulation is:
VIA.
5
Albumin B. Thyroglobulin C. TBG
158. T3 uptake test is Used to quantify the concentration of:
A. Free T3 B. Protein-bound T3 C. Total T3
-D. Thyroxine-binding prealbumin

D. TBG
) 159. Thyroid function test in primary hypothyroidism:
T 3 T 4 T S H
A Decreased Decreased Decreased
(B) Decreased Decreased Increased
C Normal Increased Decreased
D Normal Nonnal Normal

~ 160. Plummer's disease:

A. Low TSH, normal FT4, increased FT3 C. Increased TSH, normal FT4, increased FT3
!!. Low TSH, normal FT4 and FT3 D. Increased TSH, increased FT4 and FT3
D 161. TSH level is low, normal FT3 and FT4:
A. Primary hypothyroidism C. Subclinical hypothyroidism
B. Secondary hypothyroidism D. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Th
162. The most important thyroid function test and the best screening test for thyroid disorders:
A. TRH stimulation test B. TSH test C. Radioactive iodine uptake D. Thyroglobulin assay
k 163. The adrenal cortex consists Of 3 layers from outermost to innermost: zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and
zona reticularis. What is the site of aldosterone production?
A. Zona gl6merulosa B. Zona fasciculata C. Zona reticularis ,. D. All of these
G 164. Screening tests for Cushing's syndrome:
.....
1. 24 hour urinary free cortisol test 3. Ovemight dexamethasone suppression test
2. Salivary cortisol test 4. Midnight plasma cortisol test
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 ~ 1, 2, 3 and 4
0165. Confirmatory tests for Cushing's syndrome:
1. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test 3. CRH stimulation test
2. Midnight plasma cortisol test 4. Urinary free cortisol test
A. 1 and 3" B. 2 and 4 C.1, 2 and 3 D.1, 2, 3 and 4
C 166. Conn's disease: . - l' PL"'S~A N.tJOsrffi>ol../{
A. Primary hypoaldosteronis~ £:. Primary hyperaldosteronis~ ~ ~ PLf'(S M" YletU/1-l
B. Secondary hypoaldosteronlsm . D. secondary hyperaldosteronism ~ l' Pl~f.f /" ""OOS.
U~ 67. The adrenal medulla secretes which the following in the greatest quantity? l' ~L 1'\ S M f't.. fl f I #oJ
A. Metanephrine B. norepinephrine C. Epinephrine D. Dopamine IJ
~168. Diabetes insipidus is aSsociated with depressed secretion of which of the following hormones?
A. Prolactin §.. ADH C. growth hormone D. oxytocin
.0169. The principal estrogen produced during pregnancy is:
A. Progesterone B. Estrone C. Estradiol D. Estriol
k170. The Kober reaction is used in the assay of:
A. Urinary estrogen B. Glucocorticoids C. Testosterone D. Epinephrine
~ 171. Confirmatory test for acromegaly:
A. Glucose suppression test - OGTT C. Dexamethasone suppression test LE MA R ~
B. Midnight plasma cortisol is. 24 hour urinary free cortisol test 1;I=V:U:::wJ:111=-"
~ 172. Primary male hypogonadism: TESTICULAR INFERTILITY
.A Decreased testosterone, increased FSH and LH C. Decreased testosterone, decreased FSH and LH
B. Decreased estrogen, increased FSH and lH D. Decreased estrogen, decreessed FSH and LH
~73. Secondary male hypogonadism: DUE TO HYPOTHALAMIC OR PITUITARY LESIONS
A. Decreased testosterone, increased FSH and LH C. Decreased testosterone, decreased FSH and LH
B. Decreased estrogen, increased FSH and LH D. Decreased estrogen, decreased FSH and LH
G 174. A process in which secondary male characteristic are acquired by a female usually as a result of adrenal
dysfunction or hormonal medication:
~. Amenorrhea B. Gynecomastia C. Virilization D. Hirsutism
D175. Excessive growth of hair with a male distribution pattern in females; most common endocrine disorder in female:
A. Amenorrhea B. Gynecomastia C. Virilization D. Hirsutism
19176. In which of the following would gastrin levels be increased:
A. Peptic ulceration B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome C. Achlorhydria D. Amyloidosis
~ 177. "llomovanillic acid is the principal metabolite of:
A. Dopamine B-,Epinephrine C. Metanephrine E,. Vanillylmandelic acid
..0178. The process of chemical modification of the drug by the cells:
A. Liberation B. Absorption C. Distribution g. Metabolism E. Excretion
(.,179. A cardiac glycoside for treating congestive heart failure:
A. Aminoglycosdie B. Theophylline C. Digoxin D. Valproic acid
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_.:.:_ '.;' . '.'. LEMAR REVIEW HUB +639479560660 Pagel8
~,~. A beta-receptor blockmg drug used in the treatment of angina pectoris, hypertension and coronary artery
J) disease:
A. Acetaminophen B. Theophylline C. Ethoswdmide D. Propanolol
~ 181. Red man syndrome, nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity ':ire associated with whichdrug?
A Chloramphenicol B. Vancomycin C. Phenobarbital D. PhenytOin
::::.182. The drug of choice for cOntrolling petit mal:
A Acetaminophen B. Theophylline C. Ethoswdmide D. Propanolol
:: 183. Immunosuppressive drugs:
1. Cyclosporine 2. Tacrolimus 3. Rapamycin 4. Theophylline
A. 1 and 3 , B. 2 and 4 ~ 1, 2 and 3 D. 1. 2. 3 and 4
~ 84. Uses of salicylates/aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid):
1. Analgesic 2. Anti-pyretic 3. Anti-inflammatory 4. Anti-neoplastic

-
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2 and 3 Q. 1,2,3 and 4
.. 185. Caffeine is an important metabolite of this drug:
A Acetaminophen B. Digoxin C. Theophylline D. Phenobarbital
0186. Acetaminophen is particularly toxic to what organ?
A. Heart B. Kidney £: Spleen D. Liver
c.. 187. Which of the following drugs may be quantitated colorimetrically using Trinder's reagent (mercuric chloride,
ferric nitrate and hydrochloric acid)?
A. Acetaminophen B. Phenobarbital £: Salicylate D. Theophylline
.p 188. Specimen of choice for THERAPEUTIC DRDG MON:I'l'ORJ:NG (TOM):

L
A Urine B. Saliva
189. Best specimen for ALOKOL DETERMINATION:
A Urine B. Saliva
C. Whole blood

~. Whole blood
- D. Serum or plasma

D. Serum or plasma
~ 190. AnalysiS for the presence of ABUSED SUBSTANCES has focused primarily on the use of _ as the test sample of
choice. The specimen represents the net load of the drug over a long period.

o A. Urine B. Saliva C. Whole blood D. Serum or plasma

191. Four children are admitted with malaise, anorexia, and abdominal pain. Furii"er evaluations reveal mild anemia,
erythrocyte basophilic stippling, and profound pica habits. Poisoning by which heavy metal is most likely
responsible?

G
A Arsenic B. Iron C, Mercury
192. Odor of garlic on breath, and a metallic taste in the patient's mouth:
A. Cyanide poisoning B. Ethanol poisoning C: Arsenic poisoning
- D. Lead

D. CO poisoning
(..193. The system of choice for drug analysis because of its specificity and sensitivity is:
A. HPLC B. TLC ~ GClmass spectrometry D. None of these
0 194- The formation of this crystal in urine, although not a constant finding is an important diagnostic clue of ethylene
glycol poisoning:
A. Uric acid
-
B.. Ammonium biurate
~ 195. Blood alcohol concentration of 50 mg/dL:
A. Legally intoxicated
C. Dihydrate CaoOx

C. Cannot be determined
D. Monohydrate CaOx

.!l Not legally intoxicated D. Varies

C 196. Blood alcohol concentration of 0.27 to 0.400/.
A. Decreased inhibitions, loss of crttical judgement, memory impairment, diminished reaction time
B. Mental contusion, dizziness, strongly impaired motor skills, staggering slurred speech
.£:
Unable to stand or walk, vomiting, impaired consciousness
D. Coma and possible death
~ 197. All of the following are correct match, EXCEPT: LEMAR ~
.~EVIl!:W Hun
A. Vitamin A: Retinol C. Vitamin C: Ascorbic acid
...§.. Vitamin B2: Cyanocobalamin D. Vitamin K: Menaquinone
{9198. The term "lipid" encompasses a wide variety of compounds characterized as being insoluble in water but soluble
in nonpolar solvents. Which of the following vitamins is NOT classified as fat soluble? "- ",tJ ~ 1<"
. A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E
D 199. A
defici~ncy in which 0( the following leads to increased clotting time and may result in hemorrhagic disease of
infancy?
A. Riboflavin B. Pyridoxine C. Tocopherols D. Menaquinone
o 200. ~ich type of extinguisher should put out a fire caused by electrical equipment?
l' Y P E o F EXTINGUISHER
A Pressun zed wat er:ID ry chermca
B Dry chemicaVCarbon dioxide

{9 Carbon dioxidelHalonlDry chemical

D Metal XlSpecial dry chemical

END OF THE EXAM

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