LAST DRILL #1 D) cross-break.

1. A sampling distribution is a distribution of

A) study participants. 9. What is the term that describes the difference between a sample
B) a statistic. and its population?
C) a parameter. A) sampling error
D) raw scores. B) the chi-square test
C) descriptive statistics
2. In a normal distribution, 95% of the scores are within + or - D) inferential statistics
A) one standard deviation of the mean.
B) two standard deviations of the mean. Note:
C) three standard deviations of the mean. Descriptive statistics = describe information contained in many, many
D) four standard deviations of the mean. scores with indices such as the mean or median
Inferential statistics = allow researchers to make inferences about a
Note: In a normal distribution population based on findings from a sample.
✓ 68% = one standard deviation of the mean
✓ 95% = two standard deviations of the mean 10. Which type of hypothesis specifies that there is no relationship in
✓ 99.7% = three standard deviations of the mean the population?
A) research hypothesis
3. The standard deviation of a statistic is called B) descriptive hypothesis
A) the standard error C) null hypothesis
B) the sampling error D) inferential hypothesis
C) a quartile
D) a confidence interval 11. When researchers make various assumptions about the nature of
the population from which the sample involved is drawn, this is a
4. Which of the following is an example of a null hypothesis? requirement of
A) Motivation is not related to achievement. A) nonparametric techniques.
B) Highly motivated people are more likely to be B) the null hypothesis.
successful than those with low motivation. C) sampling error.
C) Highly motivated people are less likely to be D) parametric techniques.
successful than those with low motivation.
D) Motivation is related to achievement. 12. When researchers make few, if any, assumptions about the nature
of the population from which the sample involved in the survey is
5. When researchers state that a finding is statistically significant, drawn, this refers to
they are stating that A) sampling error.
A) the results are important. B) parametric techniques.
B) the outcomes of the study could be due to C) nonparametric techniques.
chance only 5 times in 100. D) null hypothesis.
C) the sample statistics in the study are equal to the
population parameters. 13. T-test for means is
D) the researchers rejected the null hypothesis. A) used when comparing two sets of rankings.
B) used when comparing several sets of scores.
If a researcher rejects a null hypothesis, the researcher either C) used when comparing two sets of scores.
A) is incorrect, or made a Type I error. D) used with categorical data.
B) is correct, or made a Type I error.
C) is incorrect, or made a Type II error. 14. Mann-Whitney U test is
D) is correct, or made a Type II error. A) used when comparing two sets of rankings.
Note: If a researcher rejects the null hypothesis, this may be a correct B) used when comparing several sets of scores.
rejection. That is, the research hypothesis may be true, so the null C) used when comparing two sets of scores.
hypothesis should be rejected. WHILE, researcher rejected a true null D) used with categorical data.
hypothesis. When a true null hypothesis is incorrectly rejected, this is
known as a Type I error. 15. Chi-Square is
A) used when comparing two sets of rankings.
7. An inferential technique for analyzing the relationship between two B) used when comparing several sets of scores.
categorical variables is C) used when comparing two sets of scores.
A) analysis of variance. D) used with categorical data.
B) analysis of covariance.
C) the Mann-Whitney U test. 16. Analysis of Variance is
D) the chi-square test. A) used when comparing two sets of rankings.
B) used when comparing several sets of scores.
8. Certain types of procedures that allow researchers to make C) used when comparing two sets of scores.
inferences about a population based on findings from a sample best D) used with categorical data.
describes
A) descriptive statistics.
B) inferential statistics.
C) correlational statistics.
1. The ethical standards of the APA's ethics code B) confidentiality.
A) provide principles for conducting research that C) minimal risk.
are never contradictory. D) debriefing.
B) are general ethical principles that researchers
apply to their own research situation. 8. Which of the following is a justification for using deception in
C) include clear rules for how research should be research?
conducted in specific situations. A) when the deception would not influence
D) provide specific rules for how to solve ethical participants' willingness to participate
dilemmas. B) when no other methods for answering the
research question are available
2. Researchers must make use of special safeguards to protect human C) when the research study is very important
participants when D) all of these
A) behavior is observed in the public domain.
B) informed consent is not required. 9. An overriding principle of the APA Ethical Standards for the care
C) more than minimal risk is present. and use of animals in research is that the care of the animals by
D) anonymous questionnaires are used. psychologists be as
A) inexpensive as possible.
3. Which of the following is not one of the types of risk in B) humane as possible.
psychological research? C) efficient as possible.
A) economic D) convenient as possible.
B) physical
C) social 10. Which of the following is not a goal of debriefing?
D) psychological A) to learn how participants interpreted the study's
procedures
4. Whenever deception is used, the researcher has the responsibility B) explain the need for any deception
to C) get individuals to participate in a research study
A) inform the participant of the deception before they normally wouldn't agree to do
the experiment begins. D) remove any harmful effects or misconceptions
B) avoid telling the participant about the deception about the research
before, during, and after the experiment.
C) debrief the participant.
D) withhold information from the participant 11. Which of the following ethical issues is considered important
concerning the reasons for having used when researchers conduct research on the Internet?
deception. A) secondary sources
B) providing assent to participate
5. Which of the following statements concerning the use of animals in C) privacy and confidentiality
research is true? D) all of these
A) Animals may never be subjected to pain or
discomfort in research. 12. Researchers can avoid the potential of social injury or risk for the
B) Animals may be subjected to pain or discomfort participants in their research project if the researchers
only when no alternative procedure is available. A) ensure the internal consistency of their study.
C) Animals may be subjected to pain or discomfort B) protect the confidentiality of participants'
when the researcher's goals justify such responses.
procedures. C) obtain informed consent from each participant.
D) Both (B) and (C) are required. D) avoid using deception in their research.

13. Which of the following is no tone of the major dimensions that

researchers need to consider when deciding what information is
6. Making an ethical decision involves private?
A) maintaining the anonymity of the researchers A) the amount of information the researcher is
who are conducting the research. seeking
B) determining that an ethical decision is good B) the setting in which the researcher is seeking the
because it makes the researcher happy. information
C) applying a clear and definitive set of guidelines C) the manner in which the information will be
for ethical research. disseminated to others
D) identifying the ethical guidelines that are relevant D) the sensitivity of the information the researcher
in a situation and what is at stake for all parties is seeking
involved.
14. Under what conditions is it always unethical to deceive research
7. According to the APA Ethical Standards, psychologists must participants?
describe to participants the nature of the research, that they are free A) withholding information might lead participants
to participate or to decline to participate, and that they can withdraw to act according to the instructions provided by
from the research at any time. These requirements (among others) the experimenter
are necessary to ensure the participants'
A) informed consent.
 B) deceiving participants to get them to participate
in research in which they would not normally take
part or in research that involves serious risk
C) when deceiving participants places them at
minimal risk by participating in the research
D) when concealing the true nature of the
experiment might lead participants to behave as
they normally would

15. Animal review boards (IACUCs) are responsible for ensuring the
welfare and humane treatment of animals used in research. Which of
the following is not one of the issues that animal review boards
decide?
A) adequacy of the experimental design for gaining
important new information
B) adequacy of the budget for carrying out the
proposed research
C) adequacy of the procedures for controlling pain
D) adequacy of the training of personnel who will be
doing the testing and care of the animals

16. According to the APA Ethical Standards, who is ultimately

responsible for the ethical conduct of research done in psychology?
A) the Institutional Review Board (IRB)
B) the sponsoring institution (e.g., the university)
C) the American Psychological Association (APA)
D) the individual researcher doing the research

17. Which of the following statements represents the policy regarding

the termination of an animal's life according to the APA Ethical
Standards for the care and use of animals?
A) An animal's life may never be terminated before
the time when death by natural causes would
occur.
B) When it is considered appropriate that an
animal's life be terminated, the researcher must
follow precise methods specified by the APA.
C) When it is appropriate that an animal's life be
terminated, it is done rapidly, with an effort to
minimize pain, and in accordance with accepted
procedures.
D) An animal's life may be terminated in whatever
way best facilitates the successful completion of
the research.

18. When using a direct quote (exact words) from a source, it is

appropriate to
A) cite the source with the quote.
B) use quotation marks around the quoted material.
C) cite the source at the end of the paragraph.
D) (A) and (B)

19. In addition to providing benefits to the research participants,

debriefing provides potential benefits to
A) the researcher.
B) society.
C) the Institutional Review Board.
D) the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee.

20. An assessment of risk must consider

A) risks associated with everyday life.
B) characteristics of the participants.
C) participants' possible misconceptions about the
research.
D) all of these
1. Psychologists seek to improve people's lives by B) an explanation for why a particular behavior is
A) using their personal insights to identify the best under investigation.
methods and practices for other people. C) an overview of previous research findings
B) gaining insight into their own behavior through regarding the topic.
intensive psychoanalysis. D) all of these
C) shifting from behaviorism to a cognitive
approach. 9. The strongest scientific evidence for a claim about behavior
D) developing theories and conducting research. A) comes from definitive findings from a single, large
study.
2. At the end of the 19th century, the young field of psychology was a B) occurs when many different media outlets (TV,
subdiscipline of newspapers, magazines) report research findings
A) philosophy. regarding the behavior.
B) neuroscience. C) is based on converging evidence from many
C) theology. studies.
D) medicine. D) is associated with research conducted primarily
with "WEIRDOs."
3. An empirical approach to understanding human behavior
emphasizes 10. A research question may be considered important when
A) the "black box" between a stimulus and a A) the findings from the study are likely to be
response. completely unique.
B) direct observation and experimentation. B) a review of research literature reveals that no one
C) topics of interest to people, such as clairvoyance has investigated the question.
and telepathy. C) the findings from the study will likely advance the
D) questionnaires as a means toward understanding science of psychology.
people's behavior and mental processes. D) all of these

4. A very important factor in the advancement of cognitive 11. Which of the following statements about the historical context of
psychology during the 20th century was the psychology is true?
A) work of Sigmund Freud. A) Topics and theoretical perspectives have changed
B) award of the Nobel Prize to several important very little in more than 100 years of psychological
psychologists. research.
C) formation of the American Psychological B) The theoretical perspective of behaviorism has
Association. dominated the science of psychology since its
D) computer revolution. inception.
C) By investigating a wide array of topics over time,
5. The first psychologist to win the Nobel Prize was psychologists have demonstrated the complexity
A) William James. of human behavior.
B) Sigmund Freud. D) Only a few key scientists have contributed
C) Daniel Kahneman. important findings to the science of psychology.
D) Ulric Neisser.
12. In a recent criticism of the practice of clinical psychologists, all of
6. One aspect of the social and cultural context in which scientists the following suggestions were made except
work is that A) make some clinical psychology training programs
A) research findings are implemented in society non-scientific to keep psychology balanced.
without people's awareness. B) reform clinical psychology training programs.
B) scientists have full control over how society's C) make science-centered education a central
resources are used to advance science. feature of clinical training programs.
C) society has little to say about the topics D) stigmatize the practice of clinical psychology that
investigated by scientists. is not science-based.
D) society's acceptance of research findings can
influence how research findings are applied. 13. Before beginning a research project, researchers should search
the psychological literature about their topic
7. Ethnocentric bias occurs when A) in order to develop research hypotheses.
A) researchers report only the findings that benefit a B) to stop the research if the study or a similar one
particular cultural group. has already been done.
B) researchers attempt to understand a different C) to demonstrate that no one has had a similar
culture using the framework of their own culture. idea.
C) psychological research occurs in a historical D) all of these
context.
D) reports of psychological research are reported 14. One aspect of the moral context of scientific activity concerns the
incorrectly in the media. fact that
A) science is flawed because it is a human activity.
8. The statement of a research hypothesis includes B) pressures to produce research reports may lead
A) a predicted outcome and an explanation for the to scientific misconduct.
outcome.
 C) scientists who employ humans and animals as
subjects frequently face ethical dilemmas.
D) all of these

15. The ethical principles for research developed by the American

Psychological Association
A) guide researchers regarding the ethical dilemmas
that occur with human and animal research
subjects.
B) state that researchers may never deceive
research participants about the nature of the
investigation.
C) forbid the use of animals in research
investigations.
D) (B) and (C)

16. A multimethod approach to the science of psychology means that

A) there is one method for answering the multiple
questions within psychology.
B) any single research question is best answered
using multiple methods.
C) a more complete understanding of multiple
behaviors is best accomplished using one large
study.
D) none of these

17. Scientific skepticism refers to the idea that

A) scientists automatically assume that
unconventional interpretations of phenomena
could not be true.
B) scientists do not trust anything or anyone.
C) claims about phenomena should be tested and
untestable claims should be rejected.
D) it's permissible to accept explanations for
phenomena as true until testing is completed.

18. Reasons for why researchers in psychology use different methods

to answer a research question include each of the following except
A) Psychology is discipline with diverse areas of
study and many questions.
B) Multiple methods "fill in the gaps" left by any one
particular method.
C) Any one particular method has flaws or is
incomplete.
D) Using different methods is more economical.

19. Which path best describes the historical development of

psychology?
A) behaviorism → spiritualism → socio-cultural
perspective → computer technology
B) sensation/perception → behaviorism → cognitive
perspective → cognitive neuroscience
C) introspection → black box → paper-and-pencil
measures → brain imaging
D) philosophy → medical perspective → cognitive
perspective → clinical psychology

20. The social and cultural context of psychological research affects

each of the following except
A) the areas researchers choose to study.
B) the ethical integrity of researchers.
C) the resources available to support research.
D) society's acceptance of research findings.
1. As an approach to knowledge, the scientific method relies on 10. When scientists report their findings they strive to describe
A) intuitive procedures. A) only what they have observed.
B) empirical procedures. B) only their personal interpretations.
C) subjective procedures. C) what they have observed along with their
D) deductive procedures. personal interpretations.
D) only the aspects of their observations that differ
2. Our natural tendency to seek evidence consistent with our from what they expected to observe.
intuitions and to ignore contradictory evidence is called
A) a reliability heuristic. 11. The essential ingredient of scientific observation is
B) the scientific method. A) precise instrumentation.
C) the confirmation bias. B) description.
D) an operational definition. C) control.
D) application.
3. The testable, tentative explanations scientists use to explain events
are called 12. A researcher tests whether students learn better with "clickers" in
A) hypotheses. the classroom or with a traditional teaching method (no clickers). In
B) constructs. this example, the teaching method is a(n)
C) heuristics. A) dependent variable.
D) causal inferences. B) independent variable.
C) intervening variable.
4. Using the nomothetic approach, psychologists seek to D) control variable.
A) establish general laws of behavior that apply to a
diverse population. 13. What characteristic distinguishes scientific hypotheses from
B) create change in an individual's life. casual, everyday hypotheses?
C) eliminate confoundings in their experiments. A) testability
D) describe one individual's behavior in relation to B) intuitive prediction
his or her environment. C) circularity
D) certainty
5. A correlational study is uniquely useful for meeting which of the
following goals of the scientific method? 14. Which of the following characterizes the majority of the research
A) description conducted in psychology?
B) prediction A) qualitative research using the nomothetic
C) explanation approach
D) application B) qualitative research using the idiographic
approach
6. A correlation exists when C) quantitative research using the nomothetic
A) two hypotheses are shown to support the same approach
theory. D) quantitative research using the idiographic
B) two independent variables are confounded. approach
C) a measurement is both reliable and valid.
D) two measures of the same people, events, or 15. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship
things vary together. between correlation and causation?
A) Correlation does not imply causation.
7. Psychologists use _______ to identify the causes of a B) Correlation directly implies a causal inference.
phenomenon. C) Correlation and causation are synonymous.
A) intervening variables D) Correlation is confounded with causation.
B) qualitative research
C) controlled experiments 16. Which of the following statements about research in psychology is
D) operational definitions true?
A) All research in psychology involves experiments.
8. A(n) ____________ is a statement about the cause of an event or B) Psychologists view basic research and applied
behavior. research as complementary.
A) construct C) Researchers observe correlations between
B) experiment variables to make causal inferences about
C) correlation behavior.
D) causal inference D) All of these

9. Which is the primary goal of research that psychologists strive to 17. Measures of behavior used by researchers to assess the effect of
achieve when they conduct controlled experiments? an experimental manipulation are called
A) application A) reliable variables.
B) prediction B) independent variables.
C) explanation C) empirical variables.
D) description D) dependent variables.
18. An operational definition of a construct is
A) reliable, because it is consistent.
B) a specific procedure for producing or measuring
the construct.
C) valid, because it is truthful.
D) an intervening variable that connects
independent and dependent variables.

19. An example of an intervening variable that might link the

independent variable of "insult" (present/absent) and the dependent
variable of "aggression" is
A) thirst.
B) exercise.
C) memory.
D) anger.

20. Constructing a psychological theory based on the simplest of

several available explanations for a phenomenon illustrates the use of
the scientific principle of
A) confirmation.
B) precision of prediction.
C) rigorous testing.
D) parsimony.
1. Whether or not a person uses a self-referent ("I," "me," "we," or C) Interval
"us") in a 10-minute conversation. D) Ratio
A) Nominal E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval
B) Ordinal
C) Interval 10. Observers' judgments regarding the aggressiveness of children's
D) Ratio playground behavior on a 1 – 10 scale.
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
2. Number of wrong turns made by rat in a maze. C) Interval
A) Nominal D) Ratio
B) Ordinal E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval
C) Interval
D) Ratio 11. When observers classify events according to mutually exclusive
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval categories, interobserver reliability is usually assessed using a
A) Spearman correlation coefficient.
3. Self-reported level of frustration using a 7-point scale (1 = not at all B) percent reliability measure.
frustrated; 7 = extremely frustrated). C) percentage agreement measure.
A) Nominal D) Pearson correlation coefficient.
B) Ordinal
C) Interval 12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the naturalistic
D) Ratio observation method?
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval A) manipulation of events by an experimenter
B) observation in a natural setting
4. Time it takes a car to leave an intersection when the light changes. C) major goal is description of behavior
A) Nominal D) systematic observation of behavior
B) Ordinal
C) Interval 13. When the presence of an observer influences the behavior under
D) Ratio observation, researchers should be cautious about interpreting the
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval observations because of
A) demand characteristics.
5. Student's ranking of 5 topics in terms of his/her relative knowledge B) reactivity.
of the topics (ranked from "most" to "least" knowledge). C) observer bias.
A) Nominal D) expectancy effects.
B) Ordinal
C) Interval 14. Which of the following characteristics of observers would most
D) Ratio likely be associated with high interobserver reliability?
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval A) operational definitions developed independently
by each observer
6. Scores on a paper-and-pencil test measuring depression (responses B) observers make observations without feedback
for each item are made on a 0-4 scale and then all responses are C) observers are well trained
totaled; maximum score is 100). D) observers differ in expectations for the outcome
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal 15. The person who assists the experimenter by carrying out a role
C) Interval essential to implementing a structured observation or experimental
D) Ratio treatment is called a(n)
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval A) experimenter.
B) pedestrian.
7. Toddlers' choice of blanket, pink or blue. C) accomplice.
A) Nominal D) confederate.
B) Ordinal
C) Interval 16. An investigator who writes a complete description of the situation
D) Ratio surrounding a child's temper tantrum, as well as characteristics of the
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval event itself, is implementing the technique of a
A) checklist.
8. The number of times a person looks away from a book he or she is B) field experiment.
reading. C) participant observation.
A) Nominal D) narrative record.
B) Ordinal
C) Interval 17. Which of the following procedures would be an example of using
D) Ratio coding in the process of data reduction?
E) Ordinal, but often treated as Interval A) classifying observational records using specific
criteria
9. Students' class rank as a function of Grade Point Average. B) calculating an arithmetic mean for a time
A) Nominal measure
B) Ordinal
 C) computing proportions of respondents in various 25. In order to avoid the problem of _____, it is sometimes necessary
groups to use ________.
D) measuring interobserver reliability A) observer bias; "blind" observers
B) reactivity; unobtrusive observation
18. When people know they are participants in a research study, they C) demand characteristics: "blind" participants
often try to figure out what the researcher expects them to do. The D) all of these
cues participants use to help guide their behavior in a research
situation are referred to as 26. In order to minimize observer bias, researcher should
A) content analysis. A) fully explain the research hypothesis to
B) reactive cues. observers.
C) demand characteristics. B) limit the amount of information observers have
D) physical traces. about the hypothesis.
C) ask observers to code which of their observations
19. Researchers who conduct observational studies typically use a are biased.
combination of time sampling and situation sampling to achieve D) make sure observers read all available published
A) nominal scales of measurement. research on the behavior they're observing.
B) representative samples of behavior.
C) maximum interobserver reliability. 27. In a field experiment, the investigator
D) internally valid samples of behavior. A) never manipulates an independent variable, but
observes behavior in a natural setting.
20. Which of the following observational methods represents a B) always uses narrative records for recording
middle ground between passive nonintervention and the systematic behavior.
control and manipulation of independent variables? C) always manipulates an independent variable in a
A) structured observation natural setting.
B) naturalistic observation D) always uses qualitative data analysis.
C) participant observation
D) a field experiment 28. A researcher measures participants' speed to push a button on
the computer when a stimulus is presented on the computer screen.
21. Which of the following scales of measurement is a researcher Which of the following measurement scales describes this reaction
using when he or she measures whether or not an individual makes time measure?
eye contact with another person? A) nominal scale
A) nominal scale B) ordinal scale
B) ordinal scale C) interval scale
C) interval scale D) ratio scale
D) ratio scale
29. Which of the following statements about interobserver reliability
22. Researchers who use narrative records seek to provide a verbal is true?
summary of observations and to develop a theory that explains A) High interobserver reliability insures that the
behavior in the narrative records. This approach to data analysis observations are valid.
represents B) Interobserver reliability is generally increased by
A) quantitative data analysis with selective recording clearly defining the events to be observed.
of behavior. C) Interobserver reliability is best when only a few
B) quantitative data analysis with comprehensive observations are made.
recording of behavior. D) High interobserver reliability is best obtained by
C) qualitative data analysis with selective recording using physical traces.
of behavior.
D) qualitative data analysis with comprehensive 30. A researcher compared the amount of charitable contributions at
recording of behavior. a grocery store for two different collection buckets, one with an
image of an eye and one with an image of a star. This is an example of
23. The selection of different circumstances, locations, and conditions A) structured observation.
of observations with the goal of obtaining a representative sample of B) a field experiment.
behavior is called C) naturalistic observation.
A) external validity. D) physical traces.
B) structured observation.
C) situation sampling. 31. Suppose a researcher asks observers to rate children's
D) event sampling. aggressiveness on a 7-point scale (1 = not at all aggressive, 7 = very
aggressive). Researchers typically treat this as an interval scale even
24. A researcher hides in bushes near an intersection to observe and though
record whether cars come to a full stop at the stop sign. This A) there is no zero in the scale.
researcher is conducting B) the ratings are made on a checklist.
A) unobtrusive (nonreactive) observation. C) observers typically use only the endpoints of the
B) undisguised participant observation. scale.
C) disguised participant observation. D) the distances between points on the scale are not
D) a field experiment. likely to be equal.
32. A researcher went to a card/gift shop and classified the types of
messages found in greeting cards to characterize relationships in our 40. In general, unobtrusive research techniques have _______ ethical
modern culture. This type of measure is referred to as a(n) problems compared to research methods that rely on direct
A) comprehensive record. observation, surveys, and experimentation.
B) product trace. A) more
C) use trace. B) about the same
D) running record. C) fewer
D) no
33. The distinction between "observation without intervention" and
"observation with intervention" is similar to the distinction between
A) correlations and spurious relationships.
B) physical traces and archival records.
C) natural use traces and controlled use traces.
D) quantitative and qualitative data analysis.

34. A researcher examined how many potato chips people would eat
while watching a movie. To test the hypothesis that people's
automatic eating would decrease when stacks of potato chips had
some chips of different colors, the researcher inserted colored chips
into a tube of potato chips at every seventh chip. This is an example
of
A) selective deposit.
B) selective survival.
C) a natural-use trace.
D) a controlled-use trace.

35. An important step when interpreting findings using a physical

trace measure is to seek converging evidence for the finding. This
reflects concern for the _________ of the finding.
A) validity
B) reliability
C) causal inference
D) rationale

36. Data found in records and documents that recount the activities
of individuals, institutions, governments, and other groups are called
A) natural treatments.
B) physical traces.
C) archival records.
D) comprehensive records.

37. Which of the following characteristics of a laboratory

experiment's results increases when findings from archival data are
similar to the results found in the lab?
A) internal validity
B) external validity
C) selective survival
D) reactivity

38. The first step in conducting a content analysis is to

A) identify a relevant source that allows the
researcher to answer the questions of the study.
B) code data from an archival record into categories.
C) select samples to analyze from the archival
source.
D) make inferences based on content coding of
archival records.

39. When bias exists when determining what information is included

in an archival record, such as a high school yearbook, the problem of
_____________ is likely.
A) selective deposit
B) selective survival
C) spurious relationship
D) running records
1. Responses from a sample can be generalized to the population of 9. Which problem occurs when respondents react to measurement
interest when which of the following characteristics of the sample is by reporting what they think they should say, rather than what they
present? actually believe?
A) efficiency A) a spurious relationship
B) representativeness B) an incorrect causal inference based on
C) stratification correlational data
D) social desirability C) socially desirable responding
D) response rate bias
2. When not everyone answers a mail survey it is reasonable to
assume that those who do respond are different in important ways 10. Which of the following factors does not influence the reliability
from those who do not respond. The term used to describe this for a measure of students' understanding of course material?
problem in survey research is A) the number of items used to measure students'
A) nonprobability sampling. understanding of the material
B) selection bias. B) how much the students differ in their
C) response rate bias. understanding of the material
D) spurious relationship. C) the correspondence between their actual
behavior and their self-reported behavior
3. Which of the following survey research designs focuses on D) the way in which the measure is administered
describing the characteristics of a population or the differences (e.g., whether the instructions are clear and the
between two or more populations at a certain point in time? testing situation is free of distractions)
A) cross-sectional design
B) selected samples design 11. A sample is considered biased when the characteristics of the
C) successive independent samples design sample
D) longitudinal design A) differ randomly from those of the target
population.
4. A major threat to the validity of results obtained from a successive B) correspond well to those of the target
independent samples design is population.
A) respondent mortality. C) differ in unknown ways from those of the target
B) noncomparable successive samples. population.
C) interviewer bias. D) differ systematically from those of the target
D) bi-longitudinal samples. population.

5. Which of the following is a major threat to the validity of results 12. Path analysis allows researchers to identify variables that may be
obtained from a longitudinal survey design? used to explain the correlation between two variables, and to identify
A) nonprobability sampling variables that affect the direction or strength of a correlation
B) interviewer bias between two variables. These variables are called ________ and
C) selection bias ________, respectively.
D) attrition A) causal variables; spurious variables
B) mediators; moderators
6. A survey using the Internet to contact people about attitudes C) independent variables; dependent variables
toward mental health services would most likely be criticized for D) convergent; divergent
A) response rate bias.
B) interviewer bias. 13. Which of the following problems in survey research is peculiar to
C) social desirability bias. longitudinal survey research designs?
D) selection bias. A) attrition
B) selection bias
7. Surveys play an important role in a type of research used to assess C) response rate bias
the covariation of naturally occurring variables. This general type of D) reactive measurement
research is called
A) correlational research. 14. Which of the following statements could you make if you knew
B) analytical research. that the correlation between the time high school students spend
C) experimental research. watching TV and their scores on a school achievement test was -.64?
D) qualitative research. A) The more time students spend watching TV, the
higher their scores on a school achievement test
8. Test-retest reliability refers to the will be.
A) average of all correlations among items on a B) The more time students spend watching TV, the
measure. lower their scores on a school achievement test
B) low correlation between scores on two measures will be.
designed to assess different constructs. C) The amount of time students spend watching TV
C) high correlation between scores on two measures and their scores on a school achievement test are
designed to assess the same construct. unrelated to each other.
D) correlation between scores on two D) Spending more time watching TV causes students
administrations of a measure. to do more poorly on a school achievement test.
15. A sampling frame, the actual list of the elements in a population,
can be considered a(n) ________ of the population.
A) biased sample
B) dependent variable
C) operational definition
D) element

16. Which of the following survey methods is best suited for the study
of personal or embarrassing topics?
A) mail survey
B) telephone interview
C) personal interview
D) convenience sample

17. A possible questionnaire item that reads, "Do you agree or

disagree with laws concerning abortion and capital punishment,"
could be criticized because it is a
A) filter question.
B) funnel question.
C) double-barreled question.
D) leading question.

18. A new questionnaire to assess individuals' self-esteem was shown

to correlate highly with a well-established measure of self-esteem
and to have a low correlation with a measure of social desirability.
Based on this we can say that the new measure of self-esteem
demonstrates good
A) construct validity.
B) discriminant validity.
C) convergent validity.
D) all of these

19. In order to obtain data for a research project, a student asks

classmates to complete a survey before class starts. The resulting
sample of respondents can best be characterized as a
A) convenience sample.
B) random sample.
C) stratified random sample.
D) probability sample.

20. Suppose a population is 60% women and 40% men. A

representative sample of 200 people from this population would
consist of
A) 80 women and 120 men.
B) 120 women and 80 men.
C) 100 women and 100 men.
D) 160 women and 40 men.
1. In the independent groups design, the only factor that should D) The effects of both the independent variable and
differentiate the separate groups at the start of the experiment is the the confounding variable can be unambiguously
A) characteristics of the participants. interpreted.
B) independent variable.
C) dependent variable. 9. When a study is free of confoundings it is said to have
D) environmental conditions under which all A) internal validity.
subjects are tested. B) external validity.
C) reliability.
2. Which of the following terms describes the characteristic of an D) confidence intervals.
experiment that ensures an unambiguous interpretation for the
outcome of the experiment? 10. The results of an externally valid study are ones that
A) sensitivity A) are not likely to replicate if the study is repeated.
B) reliability B) are likely to be difficult to interpret
C) internal validity unambiguously.
D) external validity C) apply only to the subjects, conditions, and
settings tested in the original study.
3. The matched groups design is used when separate groups are D) apply to a wider range of subjects, conditions,
needed for the levels of the independent variable, when a good and settings than those tested in the original
matching variable is available, and when study.
A) a relatively small number of participants is
available. 11. Which of the following is the factor researchers manipulate so it is
B) a relatively large number of participants is the only factor allowed to vary systematically in an experiment?
available. A) confounding variable
C) extreme groups need to be tested. B) subject variable
D) an adjustment needs to be made for C) dependent variable
nonequivalent groups. D) independent variable

4. The matched groups design ensures that the groups in the 12. Which of the following is not one of the conditions that must be
experiment are equivalent met in order to state confidently that the independent variable
A) on context variables but not on extraneous caused differences between groups on the dependent variable
variables. measure?
B) on subject variables but not on context variables. A) establishing that the independent variable is the
C) on all subject variables. only factor that could ever cause a change in the
D) only on the matching variable. dependent variable
B) establishing a time-order relationship such that
5. Which of the following types of variables is most likely to be an the change in the independent variable preceded
independent variable in a natural groups design? the change in the dependent variable
A) matching variables C) eliminating plausible alternative explanations for
B) environmental variables the differences in the dependent variable
C) extraneous variables D) establishing a covariation between the
D) individual differences (subject) variables independent and dependent variables

6. The cues and other information participants may use to guide their 13. When the confidence intervals for two means obtained in an
behavior in an experiment are called experiment overlap, the researcher can conclude that
A) experimenter effects. A) the independent variable had an effect in the
B) unobtrusive cues. experiment.
C) demand characteristics. B) the independent variable did not have an effect in
D) bias cues. the experiment.
C) the results for the effect of the independent
7. When a researcher is studying an individual difference variable, the variable are inconclusive.
levels of the independent variable are D) the results for the effect of the independent
A) held constant. variable will likely be replicated.
B) selected.
C) balanced. 14. One approach for the use of inferential statistics to decide
D) manipulated. whether an independent variable has a reliable effect on the
dependent variable begins by assuming that the independent variable
8. Which of the following conclusions is possible when a study had no effect. This approach is called
contains a confounding? A) confidence interval testing.
A) The effect of the independent variable can be B) overlapping error testing.
unambiguously interpreted. C) null hypothesis significance testing.
B) The effect of the confounding variable can be D) significance level (alpha) testing.
unambiguously interpreted.
C) The effect of neither the independent variable 15. The goal of random assignment to experimental conditions is to
nor of the confounding variable can be A) select different levels of a natural groups variable.
unambiguously interpreted.
 B) balance individual differences variables across
conditions.
C) hold conditions constant across conditions.
D) make sure the dependent variable does not differ
across conditions.

16. One of the advantages of the measure of effect size is that it

A) requires no calculations.
B) is independent of sample size.
C) relies on confidence intervals to determine
significance.
D) indicates statistical significance.

17. Which of the following provides a quantitative summary of the

results of more than one experiment on an important research
problem?
A) null hypothesis significance testing
B) confidence intervals
C) external validity analysis
D) meta-analysis

18. When a researcher claims that an independent variable has a

statistically significant effect when the null hypothesis is really true, a
_________ has occurred.
A) Type I error
B) Type II error
C) demand characteristic
D) confounding

19. When using a natural groups design, researchers must

A) avoid making a causal inference about the effect
of the variable.
B) not compute an effect size of the independent
variable.
C) use block randomization to the conditions of the
individual differences variable.
D) use an appropriate matching variable for
assigning subjects to different groups.

20. The best way to demonstrate that an effect of an independent

variable is reliable is through
A) computing an effect size.
B) replication.
C) random assignment to conditions.
D) statistical significance testing.
1. Which of the following must be balanced in order to have an C) the same number of times as the number of
interpretable repeated measures design experiment? conditions in the experiment (e.g., if there are
A) individual differences four conditions, then subjects are tested in each
B) differential transfer condition four times)
C) practice effects D) by a factor of two times the number of conditions
D) task variability in the experiment.

2. A potential problem in a repeated measures design experiment is 9. Practice effects are described as nonlinear when participants
A) random assignment. experience
B) differential transfer. A) lingering effects of one condition when they
C) intact groups. participate in subsequent conditions.
D) individual differences. B) abrupt changes in a condition and little or no
change in subsequent conditions.
3. Relative to an independent groups design, a repeated measures C) C. individual differences in the conditions of the
design is generally ______ sensitive in its ability to detect an effect of experiment.
the independent variable. D) relatively constant change across the conditions
A) less of the experiment.
B) equally
C) more 10. The systematic error variation due to individual differences among
D) always participants is _______ in the statistical analysis of repeated
measures designs.
4. What is the general rule for balancing practice effects in an A) balanced
incomplete repeated measures design experiment? B) corrected
A) Each condition of the experiment must appear in C) increased
each ordinal position (first, second, third, etc.) D) eliminated
equally often.
B) Each condition must appear only in the first 11. In an independent groups design, a separate group of people
ordinal position. serves as the control group. In the repeated measures design,
C) Each condition must appear in each ordinal A) there is no control.
position exactly once. B) participants serve as their own controls.
D) Each condition of the experiment must appear in C) all participants participate in one condition of the
only one ordinal position. experiment.
D) test-retest reliability is the main goal of the
5. Which of the following statements best describes the research.
characteristics of the complete repeated measures design?
A) Subjects are tested in one condition only once. 12. Researchers may choose to use a repeated measures design when
B) Subjects are tested in each condition only once. A) the experimental conditions take a long time to
C) Subjects are tested in one condition more than implement.
once. B) they wish to examine participants' behavior at
D) Subjects are tested in each condition more than one point in time.
once. C) they expect the effect of the independent
variable to be small.
6. Which of the following is a balancing technique used in the D) they have too many participants who want to
incomplete repeated measures design? participate in the research.
A) all possible orders
B) block randomization 13. A sensitive experiment is one that
C) ABBA counterbalancing A) can detect even a small effect of an independent
D) ABAB counterbalancing variable.
B) examines individual differences variables.
7. Under which of the following conditions should ABBA C) has a great deal of error variation.
counterbalancing not be used? D) has several conditions of the independent
A) practice effects linear and anticipation effects variable.
unlikely
B) practice effects linear and anticipation effects 14. The critical difference between a repeated measures design
likely experiment and a longitudinal survey design is that
C) practice effects nonlinear and anticipation effects A) an independent variable is manipulated in the
unlikely repeated measures design.
D) practice effects nonlinear and anticipation effects B) an independent variable is manipulated in the
likely longitudinal survey design.
C) the research goal of the repeated measures
8. In an incomplete repeated measures design experiment, each design is to establish test-retest reliability.
subject is tested in each condition D) a correlation coefficient is the main statistical test
A) once. in the repeated measures design.
B) twice.
15. The general term to describe changes people undergo with
repeated testing in the repeated measures designs is
A) anticipation effects.
B) counterbalancing.
C) differential transfer.
D) practice effects.

16. A researcher compares students' performance using a new

learning strategy to their performance using the old strategy.
Students' performance is first tested with the old strategy, followed
by the new strategy. The results indicate that students perform better
with the new strategy. These results
A) indicate that teachers should use the new
strategy.
B) are uninterpretable due to the confounding with
practice effects.
C) the order of the two learning strategies does not
matter.
D) all of these

17. In the complete repeated measures design individuals participate

in each condition of the experiment _________ once, and in the
incomplete repeated measures design individuals participate in each
condition _________ once.
A) only; only
B) only; more than
C) more than; only
D) more than; more than

18. Which of the following counterbalancing techniques should be

used when participants experience all eight, brief conditions of an
independent variable 20 times each?
A) selected orders (e.g., Latin Square)
B) ABBA counterbalancing
C) all possible orders
D) block randomization

19. Suppose a researcher uses the following selected orders in an

incomplete repeated measures design with four experimental
conditions (A, B, C, D). Which counterbalancing strategy has the
researcher selected?

A) random starting order with rotation

B) Latin Square
C) all possible orders
D) block randomization

20. The most serious problem in any repeated measures design is

A) nonlinear practice effects.
B) error variation.
C) differential transfer.
D) individual differences among participants.
1. A complex design always involves D) mediating effect of suspect status with
A) only one independent variable. interrogator expectation
B) two or more different research designs.
C) two or more dependent variables. 9. What follow-up analyses are researchers likely to use to identify the
D) two or more independent variables. source of an interaction effect after an analysis of variance indicates
that the interaction effect is statistically significant?
2. Which of the following occurs when the effect of one independent A) analysis of the medians for each condition of the
variable differs depending on the level of a second independent experiment
variable? B) main effects for each independent variable
A) main effect C) simple main effects
B) simple main effect D) comparisons of two means involving each
C) interaction effect independent variable
D) ceiling or floor effect
10. Using the data in the following table, what two values would be
3. When each level of one independent variable is combined with used to represent the main effect of the Test Anxiety independent
each level of a second independent variable, the combination of variable?
these two variables is called
A) factorial combination. A) 80 and 65
B) complete complex design. B) 75 and 70
C) an interaction effect. C) 80 and 70
D) relevant independent variables. D) 80 and 60

4. An interaction effect in a complex design can be seen in a graph 11. A researcher examines whether there are differences between
when the lines in the graph are musicians and non-musicians in their ability to remember simple and
A) parallel. complex music passages. The design of this experiment is a
B) not parallel. A) mixed natural groups design.
C) overlapping. B) correlational design.
D) dashed. C) 2 x 2 complex design.
D) 2 x 2 x 2 complex design.
5. An experiment that is described as a 3 x 3 x 2 is one that has
A) two independent variables with a total of 18 12. The overall effect of one independent variable in a complex
conditions. design is called a(n)
B) two independent variables, each with three levels A) simple main effect.
and two dependent variables. B) main effect.
C) three independent variables, two with three C) relevant variable.
levels and one with two levels. D) interaction effect.
D) three independent variables with three levels and
two dependent variables. 13. In a line graph of a complex design, the dependent variable is
typically represented
6. When an independent variable such as task difficulty is shown to A) on the y-axis (vertical).
interact with a second independent variable such as age, the B) on the x-axis (horizontal).
generality (external validity) of the effect of the task difficulty variable C) by multiple lines within the space of the graph.
is D) using multiple graphs.
A) unaffected.
B) decreased. 14. Which of the following patterns indicates that there has been no
C) increased. interaction effect in a complex design experiment when the results
D) irrelevant. are plotted in a line graph?
A) when the lines are parallel
7. In a 2 x 2 design with the independent variables, Anxiety Level B) when the lines intersect forming a crossing
(Low, High) and Type of Test (Easy, Hard), which of the following pattern
would be one of the four conditions created using factorial C) when the lines start out apart and converge to
combination? the same point
A) low anxietyBeasy test D) when the lines start out at the same point and
B) easy testBhard test diverge from each other
C) hard test
D) low anxietyBhigh anxiety 15. An interaction effect may be uninterpretable when this problem
in measurement occurs:
8. Which of the following is not one of the effects that can occur in a A) nonparallel lines.
complex design experiment involving the two independent variables, B) highly reliable measurement of the dependent
suspect status and interrogator expectation? variable.
A) interaction effect of suspect status and C) simple main effect.
interrogator expectation D) ceiling or floor effect.
B) main effect of suspect status
C) main effect of interrogator expectation
16. A researcher tests two types of study methods (A and B) with D) a main effect of Suspect Status
students who are high or low in test anxiety. The results indicate that E) a main effect of Interrogator Expectation
performance for the two groups of students is the same when study
method A is used, and that low test-anxious students perform better
with study method B than high test-anxious students. These results
indicate
A) a main effect of study method.
B) a main effect of test anxiety.
C) an interaction effect between study method and
test anxiety.
D) all of these

17. When no interaction effect occurs in a complex design

experiment involving two independent variables, the
A) effects of each independent variable must be
interpreted differently because of the absence of
an interaction effect.
B) effects of each independent variable can be
generalized across the levels of the other
independent variable.
C) internal validity of each independent variable is
questionable.
D) sensitivity of the overall experiment is decreased.

18. Which of the following is one of the critical steps researchers

should follow when they want to draw causal inferences based on the
natural groups design?
A) Develop a theory explaining why a difference in
performance should occur between groups based
on the individual differences variable of interest.
B) Identify a second individual differences variable
that is correlated with the individual differences
variable of interest to the researcher.
C) Demonstrate in a complex design experiment an
interaction effect involving the individual
differences variable of interest and a second
individual differences variable.
D) Demonstrate in a complex design experiment a
main effect of the individual differences variable
of interest and a main effect of a manipulated
independent variable.

19. In a 2 x 2 complex design, one independent variable was shown

not to have a statistically significant main effect on the dependent
variable. Based on this, we can state that
A) the variable will definitely interact with the
second independent variable in this experiment.
B) the independent variable has external validity
over the levels of the second independent
variable.
C) it is not a relevant independent variable.
D) for the variable to be considered relevant in this
experiment, it must interact with the second
independent variable.

20. Which statistical effects are present in the following complex

design involving a hypothetical experimental situation involving a
suspect interviewed about a crime? The dependent variable is the
number of questions the interviewer asks that assume the suspect is
guilty. [Assume all nonzero differences are statistically significant.]

A) Interrogator Expectation
B) an interaction effect between Interrogator
Expectation and Suspect Status
C) both main effects but not the interaction effect
1. Which of the following is one of the advantages of the case study
method? 9. In addressing the problem of the limited external validity of single-
A) it is nomothetic research case research, it's safe to assume that
B) provides definitive support for a theory A) single-case research designs always have poor
C) rich source of ideas for developing hypotheses external validity.
D) permits intensive study of common, everyday B) treatment effects in single-case research tend to
phenomena be small and poor in generality.
C) the ability to generalize from a single case
2. All of the following are disadvantages of the case study method depends on the degree of variability in the
except population from which the case was selected.
A) poor source of hypotheses about behavior D) we can never generalize the results for a single
B) bias can arise due to distortions in patient's self- individual or small group of individuals to a larger
reports population.
C) difficult to generalize from a single case
D) difficulty in drawing cause-and-effect conclusions 10. Which of the following is not a source of bias in case studies?
A) socially desirable responses in a client's report of
3. Which of the following designs is used when the researcher his or her behaviors
focuses on the way behavior changes with the systematic B) the study of individuals with rare disorders
introduction and withdrawal of the treatment? C) distortions in the client's memory for past events
A) successive treatment design D) inaccuracies in the therapist's observations of the
B) ABAB design client's behavior
C) multiple baseline design
D) case study 11. When presented by the media, positive results for the effects of
treatment observed in a case study
4. Which of the following raises ethical concerns peculiar to the ABAB A) may lead people to think the beneficial effects
design? will occur for them.
A) the use of aversive stimuli in treatment B) may lead scientists to reconsider their theories.
B) the withdrawal of a beneficial treatment C) may prevent researchers from investigating the
C) the deception required to establish a control treatment further.
group D) are typically presented in conjunction with the
D) the excessive length of time it takes to complete a limitations of the study.
study
12. Which of the following is not an advantage of the case study
5. In a multiple-baseline design, the target behavior should change method?
A) long before the onset of the treatment. A) Case studies can provide useful evidence to
B) just before the onset of the treatment. support or challenge psychological theories.
C) just after the onset of the treatment. B) Case studies are especially useful for studying
D) long after the onset of the treatment. events that occur frequently.
C) Case studies provide an opportunity to "try out"
6. In the multiple-baseline design across individuals, the treatment is new therapeutic techniques.
administered D) Case studies provide a rich source of insights into
A) to all individuals in the study at the same time. possible causes of people's behavior.
B) many times to each individual.
C) during the common baseline period for all 13. Researchers are often unable to control extraneous variables
individuals. when they use the case study method. This poor degree of control
D) successively to one individual at a time. makes it difficult to use the case study method to
A) develop predictions of behavior.
7. Which of the following patterns represents an ideal baseline in a B) develop descriptions of behavior.
single-case experimental design? C) consider alternative theoretical explanations of
A) line with zero slope (horizontal line) behavior.
B) line with a positive slope (diagonal from lower D) draw cause-effect conclusions about behavior.
left to upper right)
C) line with a negative slope (diagonal from upper 14. The baseline stage of a single-case experimental design is useful
left to lower right) to researchers because behavior during the baseline stage allows the
D) jagged line with several peaks and valleys researcher to
A) describe behavior before administering the
8. Which of the following is not an acceptable approach to dealing treatment and predict what behavior will be like
with the problem of excessive baseline variability? in the future without treatment.
A) seeking out and removing sources of variability B) determine the best way to administer the
B) extending the time during which baseline treatment in light of the individual's behavior
observations are made during the baseline.
C) increasing the number of observations made C) get an initial idea of whether the treatment will
during the baseline period be effective.
D) selecting the last data point in the baseline for D) all of these
analysis
15. Which of the following patterns provides considerable evidence in
an ABAB design that the treatment caused the behavior change?
A) when the behavior remains the same across both
of the baseline and treatment stages
B) when the behavior remains constant when the
treatment is introduced but changes when the
treatment is withdrawn
C) when the behavior changes both when the
treatment is introduced and when the treatment
is withdrawn
D) when the behavior changes when the treatment
is introduced and when the behavior stays
constant when the treatment is withdrawn

16. Which of the following issues deserves special consideration

when researchers choose to use the ABAB design?
A) change in behavior prior to the end of the
baseline stage
B) excessive variability of the baseline in single-case
experimental designs
C) justification for withdrawing a potentially
beneficial treatment
D) limited external validity of single-case
experimental designs

17. What do each of the multiple baselines in the multiple-baseline

design represent?
A) individual case studies
B) redundant sources of evidence
C) inevitable sources of confounding
D) replications built into the design

18. A baseline in a single-case experimental design will be most

effective in detecting a change due to the treatment if the baseline
has
A) a stable pattern.
B) a decreasing trend.
C) an increasing trend.
D) a highly variable pattern.

19. A researcher who wishes to determine whether a treatment

increases the frequency of a behavior will have the most difficulty
interpreting the outcome of a single-case experiment if the baseline
stage demonstrates
A) a stable pattern for the behavior.
B) an increasing trend for the behavior.
C) a decreasing trend for the behavior.
D) all of these

20. Which of the following statements concerning the external

validity of single-case experiments is false?
A) Evidence for the external validity treatment
effects can be established when researchers use
the procedures of single-case designs with a small
group of individuals.
B) Evidence for the external validity of treatment
effects can be established from the use of
multiple-baseline designs.
C) The external validity of single-case experiments is
likely enhanced because the types of
interventions in these experiments frequently
produce sizable changes in behavior.
D) The external validity of single-case experiments
can be established because the single-case design
1. Compared to experiments done in psychological laboratories, D) whether a program is cost-effective
experiments done in natural settings are likely to have
A) no need for establishing experimental control. 9. Which type of program evaluation is most likely to make use of
B) fewer problems establishing experimental survey methods?
control. A) assessment of needs
C) about the same number of problems establishing B) process evaluation
experimental control. C) outcome evaluation
D) more problems establishing experimental control. D) program contingencies

2. Research done in natural settings is 10. In order to make decisions about whether to continue a program,
A) creates a typical context to conduct basic administrators need information about the program's
research. A) needs and process.
B) more likely to involve basic research than applied B) process and outcome.
research. C) outcome and efficiency.
C) equally likely to involve applied research or basic D) needs and outcome.
research.
D) more likely to involve applied research than basic 11. Which of the following characteristics of true experiments is most
research. often lacking in quasi-experiments?
A) potential for contamination due to diffusion of
3. Which of the following threats to internal validity can occur when treatments
an event other than the treatment causes a change in participants' B) high degree of control, especially the ability to
behavior? assign participants randomly to conditions
A) maturation C) appropriate comparison or "control" condition
B) history D) implementation of some type of intervention or
C) testing treatment
D) coincidence
12. Which of the following represents a threat to the internal validity
4. Which of the following threats to internal validity can occur when of a study because differences exist between individuals in the
participants are selected for treatment because they score treatment and control groups at the start of the study?
particularly high or low on a test? A) selection
A) maturation B) regression
B) testing C) maturation
C) regression D) subject attrition
D) instrumentation
13. While examining the effectiveness of a new police program to
5. Which of the following threats to internal validity can occur when decrease street crime, laws are changed regarding the definition of
participants in one group develop at a faster rate in one group than in different crimes. The change in law affects how crimes are recorded.
another group? Which threat to internal validity is a probable concern in this
A) selection research?
B) maturation A) selection
C) additive effect of selection and maturation B) testing
D) additive effect of selection and history C) instrumentation
D) history
6. When there is communication between the groups in a true
experiment or in a quasi-experiment, which of the following threats 14. Which of the following is not a possible threat to internal validity
to internal validity could occur? due to contamination?
A) demand characteristics A) resentment
B) contamination effects B) experimenter effects
C) regression effects C) rivalry
D) novelty effects D) diffusion of treatments

7. Which of the following quasi-experimental designs involves the 15. What is the primary evidence for the effectiveness of a treatment
comparison of a control and a treatment group that have been that is tested using an interrupted time series design?
established on some basis other than random assignment, with both A) strong decreasing trend in the time graph that
groups given only a pretest and a posttest? continues through the point of intervention
A) nonequivalent control group design B) alternating decreasing and increasing trends in
B) simple time-series design the time graph around the point of intervention
C) time-series design with a nonequivalent control C) highly variable responses in the time graph
group surrounding the point of intervention
D) pre-post nonmatched groups design D) clear discontinuity in the time graph after the
point of intervention
8. Program evaluation is used to assess all but which of the following?
A) needs of administrators 16. Which of the following threats to interval validity is not controlled
B) how a program is implemented when a nonequivalent control group is added to the one-group
C) whether a program meets its stated goals pretest-posttest design?
 A) history
B) maturation
C) additive effects of selection and history
D) all of these threats are controlled

17. The best method for establishing the external validity of research
findings is to
A) add a nonequivalent control group to the design.
B) pretest participants before the intervention.
C) use random assignment to conditions.
D) replicate the findings under different conditions.

18. When researchers conduct a program evaluation to determine

whether a program is being implemented the way it was planned,
they are addressing the program evaluation question of
A) needs
B) process
C) outcome
D) efficiency

19. What is the greatest difference between basic research and

program evaluation (perhaps the most extreme case of applied
research)?
A) the quality of the research that can be done using
these two approaches
B) the importance of the goals that can be achieved
using these two approaches
C) the internal validity of the findings obtained using
these two approaches
D) the political and social realities surrounding these
two approaches

20. Which of the following research designs has the most threats to
internal validity?
A) O1 X O2
B)
C) O1 O2 O3 O4 X O5 O6 O7 O8
D)
1. When data analysis is completed, the researcher should A) our ability to make predictions for the variables is
A) draw figures of the data. poor.
B) prepare a coherent analysis story. B) the scatterplot shows a curvilinear relationship.
C) compute summary statistics. C) there is no difference between population
D) check the data for errors. means.
D) the scatterplot resembles a straight line.
2. When constructing a stem-and-leaf display, the leading digits of
each number in a data set become 11. Perhaps the best way to get a feel for a data set is to
A) stems. A) calculate the range.
B) branches. B) compute a confidence interval.
C) leaves. C) draw a graph of the data.
D) frequencies. D) calculate the mean.

3. If one score in a distribution changes in value then we can be 12. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?
confident that the ________ also changes. A) range
A) mean B) mode
B) median C) median
C) mode D) mean
D) range
13. The score appearing most frequently in a distribution is called the
4. The _____ tells us approximately how far scores vary from the A) mean.
mean on the average. B) median.
A) standard error of the mean C) mode.
B) range D) standard deviation.
C) standard deviation
D) sum of squared deviations 14. A measure of effect size that is appropriate when we are
comparing two means is
5. Dividing the population standard deviation by the square root of A) the variance squared.
the sample size yields the B) the standard error of the mean.
A) point estimate of the variance. C) a confidence interval for the difference between
B) confidence interval. two means.
C) effect size. D) Cohen's d.
D) standard error of the mean.
15. The smaller the range of values defining a confidence interval, the
6. Effect size measures are generally independent of A) greater the error in estimation.
A) the effect of the independent variable. B) better our estimate of the population value.
B) sample size. C) more likely the population means differ.
C) sample variability. D) smaller the estimate of the population value.
D) the sample standard deviation.
16. When interpreting confidence intervals when there are three or
7. To help interpret the effect size measure, d, the statistician J. more means, if two or more intervals do not overlap, we may
Cohen classified effect sizes as small, medium, and large. According to conclude that
Cohen, a medium effect size corresponds to a d ratio of A) the true population mean difference is zero.
A) .20. B) the population standard deviations differ.
B) .50. C) the population means differ.
C) .80. D) the population means do not differ.
D) 1.00.
17. A correlation exists when two different measures of the sample
8. The confidence interval for a population mean is centered around people, events, or things
A) the true population mean. A) are unrelated.
B) the standard error of the mean. B) are in a scatterplot.
C) the sample mean. C) are the same.
D) the estimated standard error. D) vary together.

9. When interpreting confidence intervals for a difference between 18. The magnitude or degree of a correlation will increase as points in
two means, if zero is in the interval we should conclude that a scatterplot
A) the population means are different. A) first increase, then decrease.
B) the confidence interval is incorrectly calculated. B) are spread out.
C) there is definitely no difference between the C) correspond to a straight line.
population means. D) correspond to the x- and y-axis.
D) we are uncertain about whether the population
means differ. 19. A scatterplot that appears to have no shape or reveals no trend
whatsoever is associated with a correlation coefficient of
10. If a correlation coefficient is close to 0.0, we know that A) .50.
B) either -.50 or +.50.
 C) + 1.00.
D) 0.0.

20. A major reason why we may not make causal conclusions based
only on correlational evidence is that a correlation between two
variables
A) may be due to a third variable.
B) is never about variables that are causally related.
C) cannot be calculated for causally related
variables.
D) is likely to be in error.
1. Null hypothesis significance testing begins with the assumption 10. A simple main effects analysis examines the effect of one
that the performance of two or more groups independent variable
A) does not differ. A) across all levels of another independent variable.
B) differs only slightly. B) in a single factor design.
C) differs at a value of p < .05 C) at one level of a second independent variable.
D) differs significantly. D) for all other independent variables.

2. A statistically significant outcome is one that has a small likelihood 11. A statistically significant outcome is one that has ________
of occurring if the null hypothesis is likelihood of occurring if the null hypothesis is true.
A) wrong. A) zero
B) accepted. B) a significant
C) false. C) a small
D) true. D) a large

3. A Type I error arises when we 12. A research outcome that leads us to reject the null hypothesis is
A) fail to reject a true null hypothesis. said to be
B) fail to reject a false null hypothesis. A) statistically likely.
C) reject a true null hypothesis. B) statistically significant.
D) reject a false null hypothesis. C) statistically nonsignificant.
D) statistically inconsequential.
4. The level of significance in psychological research is equivalent to
A) .50 13. A Type II error arises when we
B) power. A) accept a true null hypothesis.
C) a Type I error. B) reject a true null hypothesis.
D) a Type II error. C) fail to accept a true null hypothesis.
D) fail to reject a false null hypothesis.
5. The likelihood that an experiment will reveal the effect of an
independent variable when the independent variable really had an 14. The probability of a Type I error can be reduced by
effect refers to an experiment's A) changing alpha from .05 to .01.
A) level of significance. B) accepting the null hypothesis.
B) sensitivity. C) changing alpha from .05 to .10.
C) alpha level. D) decreasing the probability of a Type II error.
D) significance.
15. The likelihood that a statistical test will permit researchers to
6. The smaller the exact probability associated with results of NHST, correctly reject a false null hypothesis is called the __________ of a
the greater is the probability that test.
A) the decision about the findings will result in a A) significance
Type I error. B) power
B) the decision about the findings will result in a C) criterion
Type II error. D) alpha level
C) the results will have practical significance.
D) an exact replication will produce a statistically 16. When conducting an analysis of variance, we assume that any
significant finding at p < .05. systematic variation due to the effect of the independent variable is
added to
7. Results that are "statistically significant" A) between-group variation.
A) do not prove that the research hypothesis is true. B) within-group variation.
B) prove that the research hypothesis is true. C) the denominator of the F ratio.
C) indicate that the research hypothesis is false. D) the null hypothesis.
D) indicate the null hypothesis is true.
17. In an analysis of variance for repeated measures, the systematic
8. An effect size measure for an independent groups design with variation due to participants is
more than two means is A) added to the denominator of the F ratio.
A) F squared. B) combined with between-group variation.
B) eta squared. C) combined with residual variation.
C) Cohen's d. D) eliminated from the analysis.
D) Cohen's r.
18. If the omnibus analysis of variance for a complex design does not
9. In an analysis of variance, the estimate of variation within groups reveal a statistically significant interaction effect, the next step is to
(the denominator in the F ratio) is called determine if the
A) residual variation. A) simple main effects are statistically significant.
B) mean square error. B) comparisons of two means are statistically
C) between group variation. significant.
D) estimated variation. C) overall main effects are statistically significant
D) simple interaction effect is statistically significant
19. When an analysis of variance reveals a statistically significant 7. Which of the following is not usually found in psychology journal
interaction effect between two independent variables in an articles?
experiment, the researcher knows A) References
A) the systematic variation between groups for the B) Author notes
interaction effect is reliably greater than the C) Figures
within group error variation. D) Appendixes
B) the pattern of means supports the research
hypothesis. 8. The main sections of the Method section include the following
C) the effect size for the finding will be at least except
medium. A) Materials.
D) all of these B) Author Notes.
C) Procedures.
20. A mixed design is a complex design where one independent D) Participants.
variable represents an independent groups design (random groups or
natural groups) and another independent variable represents 9. The correct order for listing work cited in the References section of
A) a variable with only two levels. an APA-format manuscript is
B) the correlational design. A) according to the order in which the works were
C) a variable with more than three levels. cited in the manuscript.
D) the repeated measures design. B) alphabetically according to the last name of the
first author.
C) based on the relevance of the work to the
manuscript (i.e., most relevant first, and so on).
1. A researcher who submits a report of a research finding to a D) according to the year the work was published,
journal of the American Psychological Association has about one with the most recent works listed first.
chance in _____ of seeing it published.
A) 2 10. A written research proposal generally will include the following
B) 4 except
C) 10 A) an Introduction section.
D) 20 B) information for Institutional Review Board.
C) results of statistical tests.
2. The second page of a formal, written research report is the D) an Appendix.
A) Title page.
B) Author Notes.
C) Abstract.
D) Introduction.

3. The Internet is used by researchers in psychology to

A) publish their research findings.
B) collect data.
C) search databases.
D) all of these

4. When an author submits a research manuscript for publication, a

number of experts in the field of the research evaluate the
manuscript. This process is known as
A) APA format.
B) editorial evaluation.
C) peer review.
D) discussion group.

5. The main purpose of the Abstract in a research report is to

A) summarize the purpose and content of the
research report.
B) identify the authors of the research and their
affiliations.
C) provide a logical development of the study's
hypotheses.
D) provide a concise description of the study's
procedures so the study can be replicated.

6. Which is not one of the four major sections of a research report?

A) Footnotes
B) Introduction
C) Results
D) Discussion
1. Which of the following sequences for analyzing data is in the best 10. If inferential statistics are obtained, it should be
order? A) to determine importance.
A) calculate descriptive statistics, construct graphs, B) before assessing importance.
calculate inferential statistics C) after assessing importance.
B) calculate inferential statistics, construct graphs, D) to determine randomness of sample.
calculate descriptive statistics
C) construct graphs, calculate descriptive statistics, 11. Confidence intervals are preferred to significance tests because
calculate inferential statistics they
D) calculate descriptive statistics, calculate A) describe sample variability.
inferential statistics, construct graphs B) do not require a random sample.
C) provide more information.
2. The probabilities used for hypothesis testing are accurate for D) assess importance.
making generalizations to a population when
A) the sample size is large. 12. If Eta is larger than r,
B) confidence intervals cannot be constructed. A) neither should be used.
C) the significance level is small. B) a mistake in calculation has been made.
D) samples are random. C) r overstates the relationship.
D) r understates the relationship.
3. If there is a strong curvilinear relationship between two
quantitative variables, Pearson's correlation coefficient will 13. A distortion in using proportions and percentages can result from
A) estimate this relationship accurately. A) unequal base groups.
B) underestimate this relationship. B) difficulty in computation.
C) slightly overestimate this relationship. C) overlapping categories.
D) grossly overestimate this relationship. D) lack of an interval scale.

4. The magnitude of relationships can be best evaluated using 14. Which statement is true for "outliers"?
A) tests for statistical significance. A) they should be deleted from analysis.
B) effect size indices. B) they can distort summary statistics.
C) parametric techniques. C) they are mistakes made in analysis.
D) nonparametric techniques. D) they are of little importance.

5. The importance of a relationship is best evaluated using 15. The authors suggest that researcher use both parametric and
A) the judgment of experts. nonparametric techniques to analyze data because
B) the level of significance used by the researcher. A) it takes more time and is important.
C) the correlation coefficient. B) it will make you a better researcher.
D) established guidelines published by statisticians. C) when the results are consistent, interpretation
will be strengthened. When the results are not
6. The best display for showing the relationship between two consistent, you can discuss the possible reasons.
categorical variables is the D) all of these
A) frequency polygon.
B) boxplot.
C) scatterplot.
D) crossbreak table.

7. When news magazines publish average SAT scores for all of the
states in the United States, an individual unit is a
A) student who took the SAT.
B) school district.
C) state.
D) country.

8. When a relationship between quantitative variables within a single

group is described, the appropriate technique is
A) the scatterplot.
B) crossbreak table.
C) frequency polygon.
D) the boxplot.

9. Name one technique for describing groups on a quantitative

variable.
A) chi square
B) t-test for proportions
C) percentage
D) frequency polygon
1. Experimental research differs from other types of research because C) implementation
in experimental research D) maturation
A) the dependent variable must be measured
precisely. 10. Using the static-group comparison design, which of the following
B) the independent variable must be manipulated. threats to internal validity is most likely to occur?
C) groups are compared. A) history
D) there are no extraneous variables. B) maturation
C) instrument decay
2. A characteristic that distinguishes true experiments from weaker D) subject characteristics
experimental designs is that true experiments include
A) random assignment. 11. Using the matching-only pre-posttest control group design, which
B) matching. of the following threats to internal validity is most likely to occur?
C) repeated measurements of the dependent A) testing
variable. B) maturation
D) random sampling. C) history
D) location
3. A researcher would be most likely to use a static group design
when 12. Using the counterbalanced design, which of the following threats
A) there is only one new intervention of interest. to internal validity is most likely to occur?
B) it is difficult to manipulate the independent A) implementation
variable. B) history
C) use of a pretest would be a threat to internal C) subject characteristics
validity. D) testing
D) participants cannot be randomized to conditions.
13. Using the time-series design, which of the following threats to
4. The biggest threat to internal validity when a counterbalanced internal validity is least likely to occur?
design is used is A) subject characteristics
A) statistical regression. B) testing
B) subject characteristics. C) history
C) multiple-treatment interference. D) attitudinal
D) testing.
14. Using the one-group pre-posttest design, which of the following
5. A researcher who chooses to control an attitudinal threat by threats to internal validity is best controlled?
building it into the design would most likely use a A) attitudinal
A) randomized Solomon four-group design. B) subject characteristics
B) factorial design. C) history
C) counterbalanced design. D) data collector bias
D) time-series design.
15. Using the factorial without randomization design, which of the
6. In matching designs, participants in two or more groups are following threats to internal validity is least likely to occur?
matched using A) subject characteristics
A) an extraneous variable. B) attitudinal
B) the dependent measure. C) data collector bias
C) the independent variable. D) instrument decay
D) the researcher's expertise.

7. Experimental research is the only type of research that enables

researchers to make conclusions about
A) group differences.
B) the change of variables over time.
C) relationships among variables.
D) cause and effect.

8. The major characteristic of experimental research, which

distinguishes it from all other types of research, is that researchers
A) spend money and time in their research.
B) manipulate the dependent variable.
C) manipulate the independent variable.
D) there is no major characteristic that distinguishes
it from all other types of research.

9. Using the randomized Solomon four-group design, which of the

following threats to internal validity is most likely to occur?
A) subject characteristics
B) testing
1. Single-subject designs are adaptations of 10. Which design involves a baseline followed by a treatment?
A) true experimental designs. A) B-A-B
B) counterbalanced designs. B) A-B-A-B
C) time-series designs. C) A-B
D) static group designs. D) A-B-C-B-C

2. The "A" in the A-B design usually refers to 11. Which design combines two baseline periods with two treatment
A) the baseline condition. periods?
B) the first of two treatment conditions. A) A-B-A-B
C) the first of two study participants. B) B-A-B
D) the pretest. C) A-B-C-B-C
D) A-B
3. Which of the following designs would usually be used only when an
individual's behavior is very severe before the study begins? 12. Single-subject study designs are most effective in controlling for
A) A-B which of the following threats?
B) A-B-A A) instrument decay
C) B-A-B B) testing
D) multiple-baseline C) implementation
D) attitudinal
4. Suppose that a researcher employs the A-B-A design to determine
the effect of monetary rewards on the behavior of a child. Which of 13. Single-subject study designs are least effective in controlling for
the following would most threaten the internal validity of the study? which of the following threats?
A) increasing the length of the baseline A) data collector characteristics
B) including verbal praise for good behavior during B B) mortality
C) leaving the child in a base line condition C) history
D) increasing the length of the intervention phase D) subject characteristics

5. If a multiple-baseline design is used to study the effects of a 14. An advantage of single-subject designs is
treatment on the academic achievement of four students, the A) it is a convenient design.
researcher should B) there are no threats.
A) begin the intervention at a different time for each C) they are easy to generalize from.
student. D) that they can be applied in settings where group
B) slightly alter the treatment provided to each designs are difficult to put into play.
student.
C) verify that the students have the same aptitude. 15. In the A-B-C-B, design the "C" refers to
D) implement the intervention for two of the four A) an intervention.
students. B) a variation of the intervention.
C) a baseline.
6. The primary mode for establishing external validity with single- D) the variation of the baseline.
subject studies is with
A) replication.
B) a lengthy baseline phase.
C) a lengthy intervention phase.
D) a return to baseline after the intervention.

7. Which of the following designs qualifies as an alternating

treatment design?
A) B-A-B
B) A-B-A-B
C) A-B-A-C-A
D) A-B-C-B-C

8. One of the threats that an A-B-A-B design suffers from is

A) data collector bias.
B) history.
C) maturation.
D) subject characteristics.

9. Which design involves a treatment, followed by a baseline,

followed by a return to the treatment?
A) A-B-C-B-C
B) B-A-B
C) A-B-A-B
D) A-B
1. If the variable "hours spent in study" is positively correlated with 8. One major purpose of correlational research is
the variable "score on the test," we can be certain that A) to study the changes in behavior an individual
A) spending more time studying will result in a exhibits after exposure to an intervention or
higher test score. treatment of some sort.
B) the score on the test can be perfectly predicted B) to clarify our understanding of important
from the hours spent in study. phenomena through the identification of
C) the students that study the most typically get the relationships.
highest test scores. C) to make people aware of what has happened
D) the points on a graph of these variables will be on from past failures or accomplishments.
a straight line. D) to assess attitudes and opinions.

2. The variable that is predicted in a prediction study is the 9. Which of the following is not a purpose of correlational research?
A) criterion variable. A) to explore causation
B) predictor variable. B) to predict likely outcomes
C) effect variable. C) to clarify our understanding of important
D) regression variable. phenomena through the identification of
relationships
3. For which of the following correlations is the standard error of D) to identify cultural values
estimate the largest?
A) .20 10. The variable that is used to make the prediction is called
B) .40 A) correlational variable
C) .60 B) criterion variable
D) .80 C) predictor variable
D) none of these
4. The method of analysis that uses several variables to predict the
category a participant belongs in is called 11. The variable about which the prediction is made is called a
A) prediction analysis. A) criterion variable
B) multiple regression. B) predictor variable
C) discriminant function analysis. C) correlational variable
D) factor analysis. D) none of these

5. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead the
researcher to calculate a partial correlation?
A) One variable is weakly correlated with another
variable.
B) Two variables are correlated with each other and
with a third variable.
C) Several participants leave the study before the
correlation is calculated.
D) The sample in a correlational study does not
represent the population.
6. Which of the following statements about structural modeling with
correlational research is true?
A) Correlational research should not be used for
structural modeling.
B) Structural modeling is appropriate only when
correlational research is combined with an
experiment.
C) Partial correlation is used to generate structural
models.
D) Structural modeling uses the correlation
technique known as path analysis.
7. When mortality is a threat to correlational research it threatens
A) internal validity because the estimate of the
correlation is inaccurate.
B) external validity because the estimate of the
correlation is inaccurate.
C) internal validity because one variable is measured
more precisely than the other.
D) external validity because one variable is
measured more precisely than the other.
12. Multiple regression is a technique that
A) indicates the strength of the correlation between
the combination of the predictor variables and
the criterion variable.
B) enables researchers to predict a criterion variable
by using the best combination of two or more
predictor variables.
C) indicates the percentage of the variability among
the criterion scores that can be attributed to
differences in the scores on the predictor
variables.
D) is a technique used to test the causal connection
among three or more variables.
13. The coefficient of determination
A) enables researchers to determine a correlation
between a criterion variable and the best
combination of two or more predictor variables.
B) is a technique used to test the causal connection
among three or more variables.
C) describes the extent to which the criterion is
caused by the predictors.
D) indicates the percentage of the variability among
the criterion scores that can be attributed to
differences in the scores on the predictor
variables.
14. Almost all correlational studies revolve around three types of
questions. Which of the following is not one of these types of
questions?
A) How were things done in the past, and how might
they be applicable to present-day problems or
concerns?
B) Is variable X related to variable Y?
 C) What is the relationship among a large number of
variables and what predictions can be made on
them?
D) How well does variable P predict variable C?

15. Which of the following threats applies to internal validity in

correlational research?
A) history
B) location threat
C) maturation
D) regression
1. A characteristic of causal-comparative research that distinguishes it C) the causes or consequences of differences that
from experimental research is that in causal-comparative research already exist between or among groups of
A) there are fewer threats to internal validity. individuals.
B) one variable can be isolated as the cause for D) prediction equations.
changes in other variables.
C) extraneous variables are statistically controlled. 9. Which threat to internal validity is less in causal comparative than
D) the researcher does not manipulate the in experimental research?
independent variable. A) location
B) attitudinal
2. Which of the following research questions would almost certainly C) data collector bias
be studied with causal-comparative research? D) subject characteristics
A) Do instructor-provided notes lead to higher
achievement than student-constructed notes? 10. Which of the following is not a similarity between causal-
B) Are three-year-old boys more likely to exhibit comparative and correlational research?
aggressive behaviors than three-year-old girls? A) They are examples of associational research.
C) Is mathematics achievement related to spatial B) They provide guidance for subsequent
reasoning aptitude? experimental studies.
D) What proportion of school district C) They permit the manipulation of variables by the
superintendents support school choice? researcher.
D) They attempt to explain phenomena.
3. Which of the following is a method for controlling the subject
characteristics threat in causal-comparative research? 11. Which of the following is a step in causal-comparative research?
A) matching subjects in the groups A) formulating the problem by identifying and
B) randomizing subjects to conditions defining the particular phenomena of interest,
C) varying the baseline interval for each group and then considering possible causes for or
D) counterbalancing the groups consequences of these phenomena
B) providing guidance for subsequent experimental
4. Which of the following is not a type of causal-comparative studies
research? C) identifying the changes in behavior an individual
A) exploration of effects caused by group exhibits after exposure to an intervention or
membership treatment of some sort
B) exploration of causes of group membership D) exploring of our understanding of important
C) exploration of the consequences of an phenomena through use of Factor Analysis.
intervention
D) exploration of factors underlying a set of 12. What is one weakness of causal-comparative research?
variables A) It cannot provide guidance for subsequent
experimental studies.
5. Causal-comparative research is a type of B) It allows for the exploration of effects caused by
A) intervention research. membership in a given group.
B) associational research. C) It allows for exploration of causes of group
C) descriptive research. membership.
D) historical research. D) Its inability to manipulate the independent
variable.
6. The most commonly used method of statistical inference in causal-
comparative studies is 13. Which of the following is not one of the ways that researchers can
A) the t-test. control for an extraneous variable in causal comparative research?
B) discriminant analysis. A) mechanical matching of subjects
C) multiple regression. B) finding or creating homogeneous subgroups
D) factor analysis. C) use a counterbalanced design
D) statistical matching
7. The primary threat to internal validity in causal-comparative
studies is 14. One strategy that can greatly reduce the threat to external validity
A) subject characteristics. in causal comparative research is
B) implementation. A) statistical matching.
C) testing. B) replicating the causal-comparative study.
D) mortality. C) matching subjects.
D) finding or creating homogeneous subgroups.
8. In causal-comparative research, investigators attempt to determine
A) the changes in behavior an individual exhibits 15. Which technique is not appropriate to analyze data in a causal-
after exposure to an intervention or treatment of comparative study?
some sort. A) analysis of covariance
B) our understanding of important phenomena B) discriminant function analysis
through large scale surveys. C) t test for means
D) Pearson r
1. Which of the following surveys is a cross-sectional survey? 8. This survey collects information from a sample that has been
A) a survey given to elementary school faculty in five drawn from a predetermined population, and the information is
school districts collected at just one point in time.
B) a survey of a 1980 high school graduating class A) trend study
given in 1985, 1990, and 1995 B) cohort study
C) a survey of ACLU lawyers given before and one C) panel study
year after a publicized civil rights case D) cross-sectional survey
D) a monthly survey about shopping tendencies
given to ten shoppers over a one-year span 9. When different samples are obtained at different times from a
population whose members may change, this is called a
2. A researcher who uses follow-up surveys of a sample from a A) census
graduating class at 10 year intervals is conducting a B) panel study
A) trend study. C) trend study
B) cohort study. D) cross-sectional survey
C) panel study.
D) census. 10. When the researcher surveys the same sample of individuals at
different times during the course of the survey, it is called a
3. Suppose that a researcher obtains teacher and student attendance A) trend study.
rates from every middle school in a state. The unit of analysis is in this B) cross-sectional survey.
study is a C) panel studies.
A) record of attendance. D) cohort study.
B) student.
C) teacher and student. 11. This study selects different samples from the same population
D) school. whose members do not change over the course of the study.
A) panel study
4. Which of the following survey questions is an example of a closed- B) cohort study
ended question? C) trend study
A) What resources do you most need in your foreign D) census
language laboratory?
B) Do you characterize the foreign language 12. Is it important to follow up non-responders in mail, telephone and
resources as inadequate, adequate, or excellent? web-based surveys?
C) What is the primary funding source for major A) No. Delayed returns would be less valid.
purchases in the foreign language laboratory? B) No. This will not result in more responses.
D) Who are the two most knowledgeable people C) Yes. Lack of response is likely to bias results.
about foreign language curricula in the district? D) Yes. A large sample is required.

5. Which of the following items is least likely to result in item 13. Which of the following is not one of the four practical standards
nonresponse? that Floyd Fowler points out?
A) What is your occupation? A) Is this a question that can be asked exactly the
B) What is your weekly income? way it is written?
C) How many movies have you seen in the past five B) If this is a question that people refuse to answer,
years? how will you influence them to answer it anyway?
D) Have you ever smoked marijuana? C) Is this a question that people can answer?
D) Is this a question that will mean the same thing to
6. Which of the following is not one of the three major characteristics everyone?
that most surveys possess?
A) Information is collected from a group of people in 14. Which of the following is not an advantage of closed-ended
order to describe some aspect or characteristic of questions?
the population of which that group is a part. A) they enhance the consistency of response across
B) The main way in which the information is respondents
collected is through asking questions; the B) they are easier and faster to tabulate
answers to these questions by the members of C) they are more popular with respondents
the group constitute the data of the study. D) they allow more freedom in response
C) The questions on the surveys must be very
complex in order to get accurate data. 15. Which of the following is a disadvantage of open-ended
D) Information is collected from a sample, rather questions?
than from every member of the population. A) they may limit breadth of responses
B) they take more time to construct
7. Which of the following is not a longitudinal survey design? C) they are harder to tabulate and synthesize
A) trend study D) they require more questions to cover the
B) census research topic
C) cohort study
D) panel study