Evolve Q’s 9-

Ch. 9 Questions
1.
The sample includes adults over the age of 18, able to read and speak English, and hospitalized for their first
abdominal surgery. What is this an example of?
A.  Exclusion sampling criteria
B.  Inclusion sampling criteria
C.  Population statistics
D.  Sample characteristics
2.
A nurse researcher conducted a grounded theory study of the self-care behavior of patients diagnosed with type
2 diabetes. Ten subjects were selected because they were judged to have strong self-care behavior, and 10
subjects were selected because of their poor self-care behavior. What sampling method was used in this study?
A. Cluster
B.  Convenience
C.  Network
D.  Purposive
3.
The sample for a study was randomly selected from a list of registered nurses (RNs) obtained from the Board
of Nurse Examiners (BNE) for Texas. The study had a cultural focus, so the final sample included 100
Caucasian, 100 Hispanic, and 100 African American RNs. What type of sampling method was used in this
study?
A. Convenience
B. Simple random
C. Stratified random
D. Systematic
4.
A research article states that “participants were recommended by others already in the study.” What is this an
example of?
A. Convenience sampling
B. Quota sampling
C. Random sampling
D. Snowball sampling
5.
Which of the following methods provides a sample that is most likely to be representative of the target
population?
A. Convenience sampling
B. Purposive sampling
C. Quota sampling
D. Simple random sampling
2. 6.
 A researcher selected only people with a high intelligence quotient (IQ) to be in her study so that they would
perform well on the multiple-choice tests administered to measure the subjects’ knowledge in the study. This
study demonstrates which of the following?
A.  Cluster sample
B.  Representative sample
C.  Stratified random sample
D.  Systematic variation in the sample
3. 7.
A researcher asked nurses in a hospital to participate in a study that examined the leadership of the hospital. A
total of 500 subjects were asked to participate, and 200 consented to be in the study. What is the refusal rate for
this study?
A.  20%
B.  40%
C.  60%
D.  80%
4. 8.
A researcher asked nurses in a hospital to participate in a study that examined the leadership of the hospital. A
total of 500 subjects were asked to participate, and 200 consented to be in the study. What does the sample in
this study demonstrate?
A.  A probability sampling method
B.  Quota sampling
C.  Representativeness
D.  Systematic variation
5. 9.
Which of the following is a type of nonprobability sampling?
A.  Purposive
B.  Simple random
C.  Stratified
D.  Systematic
6. 10.
According to sampling theory, findings can be generalized to the
A.  individuals in the same social class as the sample.
B.  individuals receiving care in the same type of setting.
C.  sample under study.
D.  target population.
7. 11.
How can the adequacy of a quantitative study’s sample size best be evaluated?
A.  Analyzing the samples of previous studies
B.  Conducting a power analysis
C.  Determining the number of subjects in the target population
D.  Examining the design validity
8. 12.
 A researcher was conducting a phenomenological study of the lived experience of losing a limb. A
convenience sampling method was used to obtain subjects. Subjects were recruited for the study until an equal
number of males and females were obtained. The total sample was 14 (7 males and 7 females). What is the
sampling method used in this study?
A.  Purposive
B.  Quota
C.  Stratified random
D.  Systematic
9. 13.
Nurse researchers wanted to study the characteristics of parents who have abused their children. They initially
identified parents who consented to participate in the study. Next, they asked these subjects to identify other
individuals who might participate in the study. What sampling method was used in this study?
A.  Convenience
B.  Network
C.  Purposive
D.  Systematic
10. 14.
The number of participants or sample size in a qualitative study is adequate when which of the following
occurs?
A.  A power analysis indicates the power of 0.8 is achieved.
B.  Saturation of data is achieved, and additional subjects provide no new information.
C.  The sample size is large enough to identify differences between groups in the study.
D.  The statistical analysis techniques identify significant findings.
11. 15.
Which of the following would the nurse would not consider when critiquing the adequacy of a sample?
A.  Possibility of a type I error
B.  Potential biases in the sample
C.  Sample size
D.  Sampling criteria
12. 16.
Match the definition with the types of sampling. Obtaining a population where composing a sampling frame is
severely inhibited:
A.  Convenience sampling
B.  Probability sampling
C.  Cluster sampling
D.  Quota sampling
E.  Purposive sampling
F.  Network sampling
13. 17.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. Subjects are not selected with probability sampling methods:
A.  Convenience sampling
B.  Probability sampling
C.  Cluster sampling
 D.  Quota sampling
E.  Purposive sampling
F.  Network sampling
14. 18.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. Securing individuals through social contacts for the study:
A.  Convenience sampling
B.  Probability sampling
C.  Cluster sampling
D.  Quota sampling
E.  Purposive sampling
F.  Network sampling
15. 19.
Match the definition with the types of sampling. Sample selection ensures that each element has a chance to be
selected for the study.
A.  Convenience sampling
B.  Probability sampling
C.  Cluster sampling
D.  Quota sampling
E.  Purposive sampling
F.  Network sampling
16. 20.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. Specific selection of subjects with certain characteristics by
the investigator to be in the study:
A.  Convenience sampling
B.  Probability sampling
C.  Cluster sampling
D.  Quota sampling
E.  Purposive sampling
F.  Network sampling
17. 21.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. Technique used to select underrepresented groups in the
population:
A.  Convenience sampling
B.  Probability sampling
C.  Cluster sampling
D.  Quota sampling
E.  Purposive sampling
F.  Network sampling
18. 22.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. Expected difference in values that occurs when examining
different subjects from the same sample:
A.  Random variation
B.  Systemic variation
 C.  Target population
D.  Sampling frame
19. 23.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. List of every potential subject in the population:
A.  Random variation
B.  Systemic variation
C.  Target population
D.  Sampling frame
20. 24.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. Phenomenon that occurs when the selected subjects—
measurement values vary in some way from those of the population:
A.  Random variation
B.  Systemic variation
C.  Target Population
D.  Sampling frame
21. 25.
Match the definitions with the types of sampling. The number of subjects who meet the criteria of the study:
A.  Random variation
B.  Systemic variation
C.  Target population
D.  Sampling frame

Ch.10 Questions
1. 1.
Which of the following is an example of random measurement error?
A.  Actual measures smaller than the true measure
B.  Including elements of hope in our measure of self-concept
C.  Measuring blood sugar immediately after breakfast
D.  Punching the wrong key when entering data into the computer
2. 2.
Grades on a multiple choice final examination are an example of which level of measurement?
A.  Ordinal
B.  Interval
C.  Nominal
D.  Ratio
3. 3.
Evidence of validity of measurement can be obtained from examining which of the following?
A.  Contrasting groups
B.  Dependability
C.  Equivalence
D.  Stability
4. 4.
 Which of the following best describes physiological measures?
A.  They are described in detail in well-written research reports.
B.  They are easier to obtain than psychosocial measures.
C.  They are more valid than psychosocial measures.
D.  They are reliable when obtained from the patient’s record.
5. 5.
Which of the following is not an example of a scale?
A.  Likert
B.  Questionnaire
C.  Rating
D.  Visual analog
6. 6.
Which of the following scales measures pain with facial expressions instead of numbers?
A.  Likert scale
B.  Rating scale
C.  Semantic differential scale
D.  Visual analog scale
7. 7.
The researcher would like to produce trustworthy data from measurements used in a study. Which of the
following would the researcher ensure?
A.  Measurement error is reduced.
B.  Rules are provided to guide measurement.
C.  Values are assigned consistently from one subject to another.
D.  All the above are correct.
8. 8.
Which of the following should the researcher do when recruiting subjects for a study?
A.  Avoid difficult or unpleasant individuals.
B.  Follow the sampling criteria.
C.  Obtain large groups rather than individual contacts if direct contact is necessary.
D.  Use the telephone or mail whenever possible rather than direct contact.
9. 9.
The researcher understands that which of the following would be an example of systematic error?
A.  A thermometer that indicates the body temperature as 0.1°F higher than the accurate
temperature.
B.  The rapport of the subject with the data collector.
C.  The playfulness or seriousness of the situation during data collection.
D.  Variations in fatigue in subjects when measures are taken.
10. 10.
Which statement accurately describes control in the study design?
A.  Researchers build controls into their study plan to maximize the influence of intervening
forces on the findings.
B.  Control is very important in observational studies to ensure that the intervention is
consistently implemented.
 C.  The research report needs to reflect the controls implemented in a study and any problems
that needed to be managed during the study.
D.  Researchers continually look for previously unidentified, dependent variables that might
have an impact on the data being collected.
11. 11.
The nurse understands that measurement errors can be related to which of the following?
A.  A theoretical framework
B.  Survey tools
C.  The difference between the true score and what is measured
D.  All the above
12. 12.
The nurse understands that reliability includes which of the following?
A.  Can be generalizable
B.  Is concerned with the consistency of measurement
C.  Measures the amount of systematic error
D.  All the above
13. 13.
The nurse understands that test-retest reliability includes which of the following?
A.  Assesses the consistency of repeated measures
B.  Assumes that the variable to be measured will remain the same at two testing times
C.  Assumes that variability in values is a result of measurement error
D.  All the above
14. 14.
The nurse understands that homogeneity includes which of the following?
A.  Examines the correlation of various items within a scale
B.  Is measured by Cronbach’s â-coefficient
C.  Splits the items in a scale and examines only the first half of items
D.  All the above
15. 15.
The reliability and validity of physiological measures
A.  are acceptable in data obtained from the patient record.
B.  should not be included in research reports.
C.  can be assumed to be accurate.
D.  None of the above
16. 16.
The researcher understands the precision of physiological measures is related to which of the following?
A.  Maintained by recalibration of instruments
B.  Part of quality control testing
C.  The degree of reproducibility of measurements
D.  All the above
17. 17.
The researcher understands that sensitivity of physiological measures is related to which of the following?
A.  Ability to distinguish the measure from other signals
 B.  Amount of change that can be measured precisely
C.  Amount of variation in the equipment
D.  Evaluation of the adequacy of the operational definition
18. 18.
Observational measures are used most commonly in _______________ research.
A.  correlational
B.  intervention
C.  qualitative
D.  outcomes
19. 19.
The researcher understands which of the following pertains to using focus groups?
A.  Larger groups are desirable.
B.  People feel free to express their views.
C.  Recruitment of subjects is easily obtained.
D.  Segmentation is undesirable.
20. 20.
Which of the following is a serious threat to the validity of mailed questionnaires?
A.  Quantitative statistics cannot be generated.
B.  Questionnaires present a greater opportunity for bias than interviews do.
C.  A slim spectrum of information can be obtained.
D.  Thirty percent of potential subjects return them.
21. 21.
The researcher understands the following to be true when data collection forms are used to record
A.  data from the patient record.
B.  demographic data.
C.  information provided orally by subject or family.
D.  All the above
22. 22.
In a published study, which of the following information should be provided about the data collection process?
A.  Number of potential subjects who declined to participate
B.  Strategies used to approach potential subjects
C.  The timing and settings in which measurements were taken
D.  All the above
23. 23.
Which of the following recruitment strategies would be the most effective in obtaining the desired number of
subjects?
A.  Direct contact
B.  Mail contact
C.  Small groups
D.  Telephone contact
24. 24.
Data collected from previous research and stored in a database are considered ____________ data.
A.  primary
 B.  secondary
C.  administrative
D.  tertiary
25. 25.
Which of the following concern measurement reliability? Select all that apply.
A.  Accuracy
B.  Consistency of measurement
C.  Homogeneity
D.  Systematic error
E.  Heterogeneity

Ch. 11 Questions
1. 1.
The researcher understands that exploratory analysis is used for all except which of the following?
A.  Become familiar with the data
B.  Examine measures of central tendency and dispersion for each variable
C.  Identify outliers
D.  Generalize to a larger population
2. 2.
Using decision theory, if the level of significance was set at 0.05, which of the following probability levels
from statistical analyses would indicate the greatest significant difference?
A.  0.04
B.  0.01
C.  0.001
D.  None of the above
3. 3.
Which of the following leads to a type I error?
A.  When data are not measured at the interval level
B.  When results are not significant
C.  When results indicate a significant difference when there is no difference
D.  When wrong statistical procedures are used
4. 4.
Which of the following best explains power?
A.  It is the amount of variance allowed in the measured scores.
B.  It is the capacity of the computer to run complex statistical analyses.
C.  It is the degree to which the null hypothesis is false.
D.  It is the probability that a statistical test will detect a significant difference that
exists.
5. 5.
Which of the following is not a descriptive statistic?
A.  Correlational analysis
B.  Frequency distribution
 C.  Mean
D.  Standard deviation
6. 6.
For what purpose is the t-test used?
A.  To describe relationships between two variables
B.  To examine differences among three or more groups
C.  To test for a significant difference between the means of two samples
D.  To test the power of a statistical procedure
7. 7.
The most common purpose of a Pearson’s correlation is to examine which of the following?
A.  Differences between groups
B.  Differences between variables
C.  Relationships among groups
D.  Relationships among variables
8. 8.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ANOVA?
A.  Can be used only with two groups
B.  Often requires post hoc tests to identify locations of differences
C.  Tests for differences between means
D.  F statistic used to report results
9. 9.
To judge statistical suitability while critiquing a study, the nurse researcher needs to know all except which of
the following?
A.  Level of measurement
B.  Number of groups
C.  Reliability of the measures
D.  Whether the groups are dependent or independent
10. 10.
Types of results from inferential statistical analyses include all except which of the following?
A.  Findings
B.  Not significant
C.  Significant
D.  Unpredicted
11. 11.
For what reason is it important to describe the sample?
A.  Allow readers to determine if the sample is similar to persons in their clinical setting
B.  Determine if groups being compared are equivalent
C.  Determine if the sample is representative of the target population
D.  All the above
12. 12.
A researcher wanted to study the elements or variables associated with fear. Which of the following would be
an appropriate statistical measure?
A.  Chi-square
 B.  Factor analysis
C.  Pearson’s r
D.  t-test
13. 13.
When interpreting research outcomes, the type of results that agree with those predicted by the researcher and
support the logical links developed by the researcher among the framework, purpose, study questions,
hypotheses, variables, and measurement tools is known as?
A.  Nonsignificant results
B.  Significant and unpredicted results
C.  Unexpected results
D.  Significant results
14. 14.
Which of the following is related to inference?
A.  Conclusion or judgment based on evidence
B.  Logical movement from a general truth to a specific instance
C.  Researcher’s guess about the outcomes of the study
D.  Theoretical application of study findings
15. 15.
Which of the following does the normal curve indicate?
A.  Distribution of the values of a single sample
B.  Illustration of scores from several samples
C.  Real distribution of the values of a population
D.  Theoretical frequency distribution of all possible values in a population
16. 16.
Which of the following describes the tails of the normal curve?
A.  They are defined by the level of significance selected by the researcher.
B.  They are representative samples that may not belong to the same population.
C.  They are the extreme statistical values on the peripheral ends of the normal curve.
D.  All the above
17. 17.
Which of the following is true of a one-tailed test of significance?
A.  Increases the risk of a type II error
B.  Indicates that extreme scores on only one tail are considered significant
C.  Is referred to as no directional
D.  Is weaker than two-tailed tests
18. 18.
In any study in which the data are numerical, data analysis begins with which of the following?
A.  Correlational statistics
B.  Descriptive statistics
C.  Hypothesis-testing statistics
D.  Predictive statistics
19. 19.
What do measures of dispersion indicate?
 A.  Differences among samples
B.  Homogeneity, which indicates wider dispersion
C.  Individual differences of the members of the sample
D.  The central tendency of the sample
20. 20.
Which of the following describes the purpose of the Chi-square test of independence?
A.  Determines whether two variables are independent or related
B.  Has a high risk of a type II error
C.  Is a very weak statistical test
D.  All the above
21. 21.
A researcher wants to conduct a study examining the relationship between gender and heart disease. Which of
the following methods would be most appropriate?
A.  Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
B.  Chi-square
C.  Pearson’s r
D.  Regression analysis
22. 22.
A researcher wants to compare the results of two tests completed on the same group. Which of the following
methods would be most appropriate?
A.  Analysis of variance (ANOVA)
B.  Chi-square
C.  t-test
D.  Z-score
23. 23.
During data cleaning, the researcher will perform which of the following? Select all that apply.
A.  Check the data for accuracy
B.  Correct all errors
C.  Identify missing data points and supply the data
D.  Organize according to responses
E.  Sort according to demographics
24. 24.
Which of the following is the purpose of exploratory data analysis? Select all that apply.
A.  Check the data for accuracy
B.  Correct all errors
C.  Determine the nature of variation in the data
D.  Identify outliers
E.  Obtain a better understanding of the data
25. 25.
The risk of a type II error increases with which of the following? Select all that apply.
A.  Low levels of power
B.  Small effect sizes
C.  Type I error
D.  Small samples