Using and Interpreting Statistics 3rd

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1. It is appropriate to use a single-sample t test when:
A) the means of a single sample are being compared over time (i.e., pre-test, post-test).
B) the means of two samples are being compared to each other.
C) a sample mean is being compared to a population mean with a known standard
deviation.
D) a sample mean is being compared to a population mean with an unknown standard
deviation.

2. Four researchers want statistical advice on how to analyze their data. Who can conduct a
single-sample t test?
A) Dennis, who is comparing males and females on levels of academic motivation
B) Mr. White, a principal who is comparing SAT performance of students at his
school to the national average
C) Jennifer, who is comparing how many cigarettes people smoke a day before and
after an intervention
D) All of the researchers could conduct a single-sample t test.

3. What is the difference between a single-sample z test and a single-sample t test?

A) A single-sample z test requires that the population standard deviation be known.
B) A single-sample t test requires that the population standard deviation be known.
C) A single-sample t test determines whether a sample mean differs from a population
mean.
D) A single-sample z test and a single-sample t test can be used interchangeably.

4. In which of these scenarios would a researcher use a single-sample t test?

A) A social psychologist wants to test the difference between males and females and
the amount of sexual harassment they have experienced.
B) A positive psychologist compares whether levels of gratitude in a random sample
of college students at her college differ from the mean of a normative sample of
college students (SD unknown).
C) A clinician is interested in comparing average levels of depressive symptoms of a
single sample of his patients before and after receiving a new psychotherapy.
D) A developmental psychologist tests whether children in the local nursery school
display more secure attachment than children in general (SD known).

5. Which of these is not included in the steps of hypothesis testing for the single-sample t
test?
A) picking a test
B) checking the assumptions
C) listing the hypothesis
D) calculating the confidence interval

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 6. When conducting a single-sample t test, the assumption that is least robust to violation
is that the:
A) data are collected from a random sample.
B) collected data are independent of each other.
C) data are normally distributed.
D) collected data are dependent of each other.

7. A researcher is interested to determine the levels of openness of students at his school.

He collects data from 30 of his friends and classmates. The assumption that he most
likely has violated is that:
A) the data must come from a random sample
B) all data must be independent
C) the dependent variable is normally distributed
D) the independent variable is normally distributed

8. Destiny wants to know whether gender predicts depressive symptoms in patients with
heart disease. She assesses the number of depressive symptoms experienced by a large
sample of patients and finds that the data on depressive symptoms are positively
skewed. Which assumption of a single-sample t test has Destiny most likely violated?
A) the assumption that the data must come from a random sample
B) the assumption that all data must be independent
C) the assumption that the dependent variable is normally distributed
D) the assumption that all data must be dependent

9. A single-sample t test is least robust to violation of the assumption that:

A) the data must come from a random sample.
B) all data must be independent.
C) the dependent variable is normally distributed.
D) all data must be dependent.

10. Bryce wants to know whether the intelligence of children in his school is higher than the
national average. To test this, Bryce administers a childhood intelligence test to 50
children at the local elementary school. During data collection, Bryce accidentally tests
one of the students twice. Which of these assumptions of a single-sample t test did
Bryce violate?
A) the assumption that the data must come from a random sample
B) the assumption that all data must be independent
C) the assumption that the dependent variable (intelligence) is normally distributed
D) the assumption that the independent variable (intelligence) is normally distributed

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11. Which statement is false about the use of a single-sample t test?
A) Data must come from a random sample.
B) Data must be independent.
C) The dependent variable is normally distributed.
D) The independent variable is normally distributed.

12. Liz believes that maximizers (people who feel pressured to make the best possible
decision) experience higher levels of depressive symptoms than do people in general.
This is an example of a(n) _____ hypothesis.
A) null
B) alternative
C) one-tailed
D) two-tailed

13. If a researcher expects his sample to differ from a population but is not sure if the
population will exhibit more or less of a characteristic, the researcher should make a(n):
A) null hypothesis.
B) one-tailed hypothesis.
C) two-tailed hypothesis.
D) alternative hypothesis.

14. _____ hypotheses are more conservative than _____ hypotheses.

A) One-tailed; two-tailed
B) Two-tailed; one-tailed
C) One-tailed; null
D) Null; two-tailed

15. The decision to test a one-tailed versus two-tailed hypothesis should be made:
A) before data collection.
B) during data collection.
C) after data collection.
D) after data analyses.

16. The null hypothesis for a single-sample t test examining a two-tailed test predicts that a
sample mean is:
A) not different from a specified population mean.
B) smaller than a specified population mean.
C) larger than a specified population mean.
D) different from a specified population mean.

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17. Assuming a two-tailed test, a researcher compares her sample to a population with a
mean of 50. Which of these is a null hypothesis?
A)
B)
C)
D)

18. Lonieka is interested in studying gender differences in sexual and emotional jealousy.
She expects males and females to differ on both measures, but she is not sure how males
and females will differ. One should advise her to choose a(n):
A) one-tailed test.
B) two-tailed test.
C) null hypothesis.
D) alternative hypothesis.

19. The alternative hypothesis for a single-sample t test predicts that a sample mean is:
A) not different from a specified population mean.
B) smaller than a specified population mean.
C) larger than a specified population mean.
D) different from a specified population mean.

20. The value of the t statistic becomes _____ as the difference between the sample mean
and specified value becomes _____.
A) smaller; larger
B) larger; smaller
C) smaller; smaller
D) larger; larger

21. If the null hypothesis is true and no difference exists between the mean of a sample and
a specified value, the value of the t statistic will:
A) be 0.00.
B) depend on the effect size.
C) be 1.96.
D) depend on the sample size.

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22. Which of these statements most accurately describes the relationship between the value
of t and decisions about the null hypothesis?
A) The value of t is not used in making decisions about the null hypothesis.
B) Small values of t are used to accept the null hypothesis.
C) Large values of t are used to reject the null hypothesis.
D) The value of t is the value to which researchers compare their sample mean.

23. Marcus conducts a study on whether patients at his clinic experience higher amounts of
psychological distress than do patients in general. If there is no difference in the distress
levels and Marcus concludes that his sample differs from the population, he has
committed:
A) a Type I error.
B) a Type II error.
C) a Type III error.
D) no error.

24. The critical value of t is best defined as the:

A) number of scores free to vary within a given sample.
B) cut-off for determining whether or not to reject H0.
C) range of scores likely to include the true difference between populations.
D) strength of the relationship between an independent and dependent variable.

25. Which of these factors does not influence the size of the critical value of t?
A) testing a one-tailed or two-tailed hypothesis
B) the size of the sample
C) the probability of making a Type I error
D) the effect size

26. What happens to the tails of a t distribution as sample size increases?

A) The frequency of t values in the tails remains unchanged.
B) The frequency of t values in the tails increases.
C) The frequency of t values in the tails decreases.
D) The frequency of t values depends on a one-tailed or two-tailed hypothesis.

27. Which best describes the relationship between sample size and tcv when conducting a
single-sample t test?
A) As the sample size increases, tcv increases.
B) As the sample size increases, tcv decreases until it becomes equivalent to zcv.
C) Sample size does not affect tcv.
D) Sample size only affects tcv if one is using a two-tailed test.

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28. Tyler, Ashley, Austin, and Emily want to compare the number of hours that children in
their local elementary school engage in physical activity with that of elementary school
students in general. All things being equal, which researcher will have more difficulty
rejecting H0?
A) Tyler, who collects data from 10 participants
B) Ashley, who collects data from 20 participants
C) Austin, who collects data from 30 participants
D) Emily, who collects data from 40 participants

29. When establishing the critical value of t, what is the acceptable rate (expressed as a
probability) of committing a Type I error?
A) .00
B) .05
C) .50
D) 1.00

30. The probability of committing a Type I error is also known as:

A) alpha ().
B) beta ().
C) delta ().
D) eta ().

31. Kenzie is conducting a study and plans to use a single-sample t test. If she increases her
sample size from 30 to 100 participants, the critical value of t will:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) remain constant.
D) depend on any changes made to the original unit of measurement.

32. Stephanie wants to compare the severity of autistic behaviors of children attending her
clinic to the national average. She collects data from 25 children at her clinic and
decides to conduct a single-sample t test. If Stephanie decides to use a two-tailed test
and sets alpha at .05, what is the critical value of t?
A) 1.708
B) 1.711
C) 2.060
D) 2.064

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33. What is the critical value of t if a researcher uses a one-tailed test (sample mean
expected to be greater than the population) with alpha = .01 and df = 50?
A) 1.676
B) 2.010
C) 2.403
D) 2.405

34. If a researcher collects data from 68 people, what would the critical value of t be if he
conducted a one-tailed test with alpha equal to .05?
A) 1.667
B) 1.669
C) 1.671
D) 1.665

35. If a researcher conducts a two-tailed test and df = 449 and alpha is set at .01, what is the
critical value of t?
A) 1.965
B) 1.966
C) 2.587
D) 2.588

36. What would tcv be if one is conducting a two-tailed test and alpha is set at .05?
A) 6.314
B) tcv cannot be determined without knowing the effect size.
C) 31.821
D) tcv cannot be determined without knowing the sample size.

37. Patricia is studying whether a parenting intervention reduces the stress levels of new
parents compared with parents in general. If Patricia collects data from 30 new parents
who completed an intervention, what would the critical value of t be if alpha is set at
.05?
A) –1.699
B) 2.045
C) –2.462
D) 2.678

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38. The degrees of freedom (df) for a single-sample t test is equal to:
A) N.
B) N – 1.
C) the standard deviation divided by N.
D) the standard deviation divided by N – 1.

39. If Selma collects data from 10 people, how many degrees of freedom does she have in
her study if she plans to conduct a single-sample t test?
A) eight
B) nine
C) ten
D) seven

40. If researchers plan to conduct a single-sample t test, how many degrees of freedom do
they have if they collect data from 99 people?
A) 97
B) 98
C) 99
D) 96

41. Stan records the blood pressures of 47 adults who regularly meditate and compares them
with the blood pressure readings of adults in general. Assuming that Stan uses a
single-sample t test, how many degrees of freedom does he have in his study?
A) 45
B) 46
C) 47
D) 48

42. Kamal is in the process of collecting data for which he will need to use a single-sample t
test, but he is unsure what sample size to use. You should advise Kamal to use:
A) a large sample, because larger samples are associated with greater degrees of
freedom.
B) a small sample, because smaller samples are more representative of the population.
C) a large sample, because larger samples are associated with smaller degrees of
freedom.
D) a small sample, because smaller samples are associated with greater degrees of
freedom.

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43. Kai is studying reaction time in young children. He is not sure whether to test a
one-tailed or two-tailed hypothesis and asks for help. What can one tell him?
A) It makes no difference whether he tests a one-tailed or two-tailed hypothesis.
B) If there is a reason to believe one group will perform better, then using a one-tailed
test will make it easier to reject the null hypothesis.
C) Two-tailed tests are associated with a larger rare zone, making it easier to reject the
null hypothesis.
D) The degrees of freedom will affect the rare zone when testing a one-tailed test but
not a two-tailed test.

44. What decision should a researcher make about H0 if a t value falls within the rare zone?
A) The researcher should fail to reject H0.
B) The researcher should reject H0.
C) The decision depends on the size of the obtained t value.
D) Decisions about rejecting H0 should be made based on effect sizes.

45. Which of these is an advantage of using a one-tailed test rather than a two-tailed test
when calculating a single-sample t test?
A) A one-tailed test will always allow one to reject the null hypothesis.
B) A one-tailed test is the default hypothesis that researchers conduct.
C) A one-tailed test will allow one to more easily reject the null hypothesis when the
sample is extremely different from a specified value.
D) A one-tailed test offers no advantages over using a two-tailed test.

46. Carmen compared the test performances of the students in her school to the average of
schools in her state. Based on the data she collected, Carmen calculated t = 1.981. If
alpha was set at .05 and she conducted a two-tailed test, what was Carmen's decision
regarding the hypothesis?
A) Carmen failed to reject the null hypothesis.
B) Carmen rejected the alternative hypothesis.
C) Carmen rejected the null hypothesis.
D) Not enough information is provided to make a decision.

47. When identifying the degrees of freedom in a study, what should a researcher do if the
exact df is not listed in a table?
A) The researcher should assume an infinitely large sample.
B) The researcher should use the next highest number.
C) The researcher should use the next lowest number.
D) The researcher should use N as a substitute for df.

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48. Which of these describes how the t statistic is calculated?
A) First, the sample mean is subtracted from the population mean and then divided by
the population standard deviation.
B) First, the population mean is subtracted from the sample mean and then divided by
the population standard deviation.
C) First, the population mean is subtracted from the sample mean and then divided by
the estimated standard error of the mean.
D) First, the sample mean is subtracted from the population mean and then divided by
the estimated standard error of the mean.

49. What happens to the t statistic as the difference between the sample mean and the
population mean increases?
A) The value of t increases.
B) The value of t decreases.
C) The value of t remains the same.
D) The value of t depends on df.

50. What happens to the t statistic as the estimated standard error of the mean becomes
larger?
A) The value of t increases.
B) The value of t decreases.
C) The value of t remains the same.
D) The value of t depends on df.

51. If s = 15 and N = 9, what is sM?

A) 1.67
B) 5.00
C) 6.00
D) 0.60.

52. Sasha assesses the levels of gratitude of 25 people. If she calculates s = 5.50, what is sM?
A) 0.22
B) 10.66
C) 1.10
D) 4.55

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53. Jim runs 100 rats through a maze and records their time in seconds. If s = 50 for the
sample, what is sM?
A) 0.50
B) 2.00
C) 5.00
D) 0.20

54. Rich measures how far 78 patients with congestive heart failure can walk in six minutes.
If the average distance is 1,073.33 feet (s = 232.85), what is sM?
A) 2.99
B) 5.11
C) 0.33
D) 26.37

55. If M = 23.75,  = 20.00, and sM = 1.50, what is the value of t?

A) –2.50
B) 2.50
C) 3.07
D) 1.10

56. If M = 100.00,  = 115.00, and sM = 13.25, what is the value of t?

A) –1.13
B) 0.75
C) 1.13
D) –0.75

57. If M = 875.00,  = 900.00, and sM = 69.00, what is the value of t?

A) 0.36
B) –0.36
C) 13.04
D) 12.68

58. Adam assessed the number of negative interactions experienced by college students in
the past month. If the mean of his sample is 15.81 (sM = 0.463), what is t if he compares
his sample mean to a population mean of 17.00?
A) –2.16
B) –2.57
C) 2.16
D) 2.57

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59. Gary administers a depressive symptom questionnaire to 100 people and finds that the
average number of depressive symptoms in his sample is 11.75. He wants to determine
whether that number is significantly more than 10, the cutoff for depression. If sM =
0.89, what is the value for t?
A) 0.18
B) 0.51
C) 1.75
D) 1.97

60. Given the following information, t = 1.70, df = 19,  = .05, one-tailed hypothesis, what
decision should be made regarding the hypothesis?
A) The null hypothesis should not be rejected.
B) The null hypothesis should be rejected.
C) The alternative hypothesis should not be rejected.
D) The alternative hypothesis should be rejected.

61. Which of these is not to be considered when interpreting the results of a single-sample t
test?
A) whether the obtained t value falls in the rare zone
B) the effect size
C) the width of the confidence interval
D) the sample size

62. Which of these is reported accurately in APA style for a study with 37 people and a
statistically significant result with an obtained t value of 3.22?
A) t = 3.22, p > .05
B) t(3.22) = 37, p > .05
C) t(37) = 3.22, p < .05
D) t(36) = 3.22, p < .05

63. Which piece of information is not needed to calculate Cohen's d?

A) the sample mean
B) the hypothesized population mean
C) the sample standard deviation
D) the standard error of the mean

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64. An effect size:
A) determines whether H0 should be rejected.
B) is equal to the sample size minus 1.
C) is equal to the sample size.
D) indicates the strength of the relationship.

65. If M = 20.00,  = 22.00, and s = 1.45, what is d?

A) –1.38
B) 0.84
C) 1.38
D) 28.97

66. If an average student from a high school scored a 550 on the SAT and the national
average is 500, what is d if s = 95?
A) 0.53
B) 0.91
C) –0.53
D) 11.05

67. Dave collects data on the number of days people exercise each month. If the average of
his sample is 15.13 days (s = 5.33), what is the effect size if Dave compares his sample
with a population mean of 14 days?
A) 0.21
B) –0.21
C) 0.70
D) 5.47

68. An effect size of d = 0.65 is classified as :

A) a small effect.
B) a medium effect.
C) a large effect.
D) no effect.

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69. Shannon conducts a study and tells that when she calculated Cohen's d it was 0.00.
What can be concluded about the effects of her independent variable?
A) The effect of the independent variable was statistically significant because d was
less than .05.
B) The independent variable had no effect in her study, and the null hypothesis should
not be rejected.
C) The independent variable and the dependent variable were perfectly correlated with
one another.
D) No conclusion can be reached because Shannon did not tell anything about t.

70. Which of these statements is true about the distributions of two populations and the
effect size?
A) As effect size increases, the amount of overlap between two populations increases.
B) As effect size increases, the amount of overlap between two populations decreases.
C) As effect size decreases, the amount of overlap between two populations decreases.
D) Effect size is not related to the overlap of distributions from different populations.

71. When interpreting the size of Cohen's d, which statement is true about negative signs?
A) Negative signs mean that the effect size is smaller.
B) Negative signs mean that the effect size is larger.
C) Negative signs are ignored when determining the size of the effect.
D) Cohen's d can never be a negative number.

72. The percentage of variability in the outcome variable accounted for by the explanatory
variable:
A) ranges from 1 percent to 50 percent.
B) is 0 percent.
C) ranges from 0 percent to 100 percent.
D) is 100 percent.

73. According to Cohen's standards, if the percentage of variability in the outcome variable
accounted for by the explanatory variable is 25 percent, then there is _____ effect.
A) a small
B) a large
C) a medium
D) no

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74. The most commonly reported CI is the:
A) 90% CI.
B) 95% CI.
C) 99% CI.
D) 100% CI.

75. What does sM represent, in the formula 95%CI = (M – ) ± (tcv ̠× sM)?

A) estimated standard error of the mean
B) standard error of the mean
C) standard deviation of the mean
D) sample standard deviation

76. If M = 27,  = 24, tcv = 1.977, and sM = .94, what is the 95% confidence interval?
A) [1.14, 4.86]
B) [0.08, 5.92]
C) [49.96, 52.04]
D) [0.90, 5.10]

77. Rebecca assesses the number of text messages that students at her school send in a given
day. On average, students in her sample sent 55 messages a day (sM = 6.81). If  = 50
and tcv = 2.021, what is the 95% CI?
A) [109.79, 118.76]
B) [–3.83, 13.83]
C) [–8.76, 18.76]
D) [4.70, 5.30]

78. If M = 103,  = 115, tcv = 2.228, and sM = 3.12, what is the 95% confidence interval?
A) [–18.95, –5.05]
B) [–17.35, –6.65]
C) [218.89, 224.95]
D) [–12.71, –11.29]

79. If M = 78,  = 75, tcv = 2.086, and sM = 2.63, what is the 95% confidence interval?
A) [–2.49, 8.49]
B) [153.54, 158.49]
C) [–1.72, 7.72]
D) [2.21, 3.79]

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80. If M = 5,  = 2, tcv = 2.017, and sM = 1.88, what is the 95% confidence interval?
A) [1.93, 4.07]
B) [–0.90, 6.90]
C) [6.86, 10.79]
D) [–0.79, 6.79]

81. When one rejects the null hypothesis using a single-sample t test, the confidence interval
indicates the range of scores likely containing:
A) the true population mean of the dependent variable.
B) an estimate of the difference between the means of two populations.
C) the true population mean of the independent variable.
D) an estimate of the difference between the means of two samples.

82. What information does a 95% CI provide?

A) A researcher can be 95 percent confident that the population value falls within the
interval.
B) A 95% CI indicates that 95 percent of researchers would get the same sample
statistic as an estimate of the population mean.
C) A 95% CI indicates that researchers fail to reject the null hypothesis because p >
.05.
D) A researcher can be 95 percent confident that the population value falls outside the
interval.

83. Hunter has conducted a study that looked at the health of employees at her business
compared to people in general. She says that her confidence interval is wide and
captures zero. Hunter should conclude that:
A) the means of health did not differ significantly.
B) a strong effect is likely, and her sample differed greatly from people in general.
C) a difference likely exists between populations, but the effect is weak.
D) a moderate difference exists between the two populations.

84. If a confidence interval is narrow but falls close to zero, what is the appropriate
conclusion?
A) The means of the populations do not differ significantly.
B) The means differ significantly and the effect size is large.
C) The means differ significantly and the effect size is small.
D) No conclusions can be reached regarding this information.

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85. If a confidence interval captures zero, what does that mean in terms of the conclusion
regarding the null hypothesis?
A) The null hypothesis is retained.
B) The null hypothesis is rejected and the effect size is small.
C) The null hypothesis is rejected and the effect size is large.
D) No decisions can be reached regarding the null hypothesis.

86. If a confidence interval captures zero, what does that mean in terms of the differences
between two populations?
A) The difference between means of the populations is equal to 0.
B) The difference between means of the populations may be equal to 0.
C) The standard error of the mean for both populations is equal to 0.
D) The difference between means of the populations is significant, but the effect size
is small.

87. Madison tested whether college students slept significantly less than 8 hours a night.
She collected data from 100 college students and found that they slept an average of 6
hours each night. Madison calculated a 95% CI and found that her confidence interval
was narrow and far from zero. What conclusion should Madison make regarding the
sleep patterns of college students?
A) It is unlikely that college students slept less than 8 hours a night.
B) It is possible that college students slept less than 8 hours a night, but the effect is
likely a small one.
C) There is likely a strong effect, suggesting that college students sleep less than 8
hours each night.
D) No decision can be made based solely on the 95% CI. Madison will also need to
know the critical value of t.

88. Imagine that one has just read a journal article on whether a smoking cessation
intervention was effective at reducing the number of cigarettes people smoked in a day.
The available statistical result is the 95% confidence interval of [5.34, 17.13]. Based
solely on this result, what conclusion should one reach about H0?
A) A decision cannot be reached because t was not reported.
B) A decision cannot be reached because alpha was not reported.
C) H0 should not be rejected.
D) H0 should be rejected.

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89. A confidence interval does not give information about:
A) whether zero falls within the CI.
B) how far away the CI is from zero.
C) the width of the CI.
D) how far away the CI is from one.

90. Nikki tells that the 95% CI for her study is [0.10, 4.34] and she rejected the null
hypothesis. What conclusion would one reach about the effect size?
A) The effect size is large because Nikki rejected the null hypothesis.
B) The effect size is moderate because the width of the CI is moderate.
C) The effect size is small because the lower limit is close to zero.
D) The effect size is large because the lower limit is close to zero.

91. Which provides a more precise estimate of the population value?

A) narrower confidence intervals
B) wider confidence intervals
C) smaller sample size
D) effect size

92. When evaluating the width of a confidence interval (i.e., wide versus narrow), which of
these should be considered?
A) the degrees of freedom in a study
B) the possible range of scores on the raw variable
C) the null hypothesis
D) the alternative hypothesis

93. To calculate the width of a confidence interval, a researcher would:

A) subtract the lower limit from the upper limit.
B) subtract the upper limit from the lower limit.
C) divide the upper limit by the lower limit.
D) divide the lower limit by the upper limit.

94. If a 95% CI was [3.29, 10.23], the width of the confidence interval would be:
A) 3.11.
B) 6.94.
C) 7.00.
D) -6.94.

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 95. If a 95% CI was [6.18, 15.23], the width of the confidence interval would be:
A) –9.05.
B) 2.46.
C) 9.05.
D) 9.00.

96. Anna conducted a study on pet ownership and failed to reject the null hypothesis. When
asked to produce her results, she gives just the 95% CI of [–1.38, 12.58]. What is the
width of Anna's confidence interval?
A) –13.96
B) –9.12
C) 11.20
D) 13.96

97. Replication refers to:

A) the invalidation of a study based on the violation of statistical assumptions.
B) repeating a study, usually with a few changes to the procedure.
C) the calculation of an effect size.
D) rejecting the null hypothesis when p < .05.

98. Why do researchers calculate an effect size for null hypothesis results?
A) Calculating an effect size could alert the researcher to a Type I error.
B) Calculating an effect size could alert the researcher to a Type II error.
C) Calculating an effect size could alert the researcher to a Type III error.
D) There is no need to calculate an effect size when the null hypothesis is not rejected.

99. Mary conducts a study on the effects of a smoking cessation program and six smokers
complete her program. After analyzing her data, Mary fails to reject the null hypothesis.
Which of these statements is true?
A) The study was likely underpowered.
B) The smoking cessation program definitely had no effect.
C) Mary committed a Type I error.
D) The smoking cessation program definitely had a large effect.

100. When a study is underpowered, it means that:

A) researchers have conducted the study again with modifications.
B) the sample size is too small to reject the null hypothesis.
C) the null hypothesis is rejected.
D) the difference between two population means is large.

Page 19
Answer Key
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. B
5. D
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. D
12. C
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. A
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. A
29. B
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. B
35. D
36. D
37. A
38. B
39. B
40. B
41. B
42. A
43. B
44. B

Page 20
45. C
46. C
47. C
48. C
49. A
50. B
51. B
52. C
53. C
54. D
55. B
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. D
60. A
61. D
62. D
63. D
64. D
65. A
66. A
67. A
68. B
69. B
70. B
71. C
72. C
73. B
74. B
75. A
76. A
77. C
78. A
79. A
80. D
81. B
82. A
83. A
84. C
85. A
86. B
87. C
88. D
89. D
90. C

Page 21
 91. A
92. B
93. A
94. B
95. C
96. D
97. B
98. B
99. A
100. B

Page 22
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