Questions for practicing

Chapter 1:

1) ________ get things done through other people. They make decisions, allocate resources, and
direct the activities of others to attain goals.
A) Assistants
B) Managers
C) Secretaries
D) Interns
E) Apprentices
Answer: B

2) Jude Littleford, a manager at an environmental organization, is currently working on a global

warming project. In addition to identifying which tasks related to creating awareness about the
issue need to be done, Jude is also choosing the members of her team to engage with the public
and to lobby the government. She is also assigning people as team members to ensure that tasks
are undertaken on time. Which of the following categories of functions is Mitchell undertaking?
A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Scrutinizing
D) Controlling
E) Envisioning
Answer: B
3) Johanna Reid, a campaign manager at a child rights organization, recently started working on
an illiteracy project. During the project, she needs to motivate team members to attain their
project milestones and direct them through different phases of the project. Which of the
following kinds of functions will these tasks be covered under?
A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Scrutinizing
D) Evaluating
E) Leading
Answer: E

4) In his role as project manager for the "Saving Sicily's Small Farms" campaign, Arthur Swift
ran into problems when the campaign could not be launched publicly according to schedule.
Swift monitored the schedule to find the cause of the delay before speeding up the
implementation process by allocating more members for the implementation phase. By doing
this, which of the following functions is he performing?
A) Controlling
B) Planning
C) Formulating
D) Leading
E) Organizing
Answer: A
5) Which of the following functions do managers undertake as part of planning functions?
A) Defining an organization's goals
B) Implementing strategies for achieving goals
C) Executing plans to integrate activities
D) Accomplishing goals of a project
E) Employing strategies to coordinate tasks
Answer: A

6) According to Henry Mintzberg, a factory supervisor giving a group of high school students a
tour of the plant may be termed as a ________.
A) leader
B) figurehead
C) resource allocator
D) negotiator
E) disturbance handler
Answer: B

7) Linda Mark is a sales manager for Diconex, a company producing commercial and household
heating and cooling equipment. The company has recently launched a new heat pump. Over the
next few weeks, Linda will be sharing knowledge about the product with her team members. She
will also need to inspire them to reach their sales targets and clarify any doubts about the new
product. Which of the following roles is Ortiz playing?
A) Leader
B) Liaison
C) Disseminator
D) Spokesperson
E) Negotiator
Answer: A

8) Regina George works as a campaign manager in a not-for-profit organization in Hampshire.

For the upcoming campaign against genetic engineering, she is networking with managers who
are working on the issue of food safety. Through her network of contacts, she strives to gain
information about the stakeholders in the food industry and other lobby groups. Which of the
following roles is George most likely to be playing according to Mintzberg's classification of
managerial roles?
A) Figurehead
B) Leader
C) Liaison
D) Entrepreneur
E) Resource allocator
Answer: C

9) Annette Simpson works for a fashion house in Paris and is preparing for the company's
upcoming line of winter clothing. She is currently researching online to know what is in vogue
this season. In addition, she is also networking with contacts from the press and fashion
magazine editors to understand the changing tastes of consumers. Which of the following roles is
Simpson playing according to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles?
A) Figurehead
B) Leader
C) Symbol head
D) Monitor
E) Spokesperson
Answer: D
10) According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, the role of a(n) ________ is to
transmit information received from outsiders or from other employees to members of the
organization.
A) entrepreneur
B) resource allocator
C) spokesperson
D) leader
E) disseminator
Answer: E

11) The role of a(n) ________, according to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, is to
transmit information to outsiders about an organization's plans, policies, actions, and results and
to serve as an expert in the organization's industry.
A) spokesperson
B) disturbance handler
C) entrepreneur
D) leader
E) liaison
Answer: A

12) According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, the role of a(n) ________ is to
make or approve significant organizational decisions and assign human, physical, and monetary
assets.
A) disseminator
B) liaison
C) entrepreneur
D) resource allocator
E) disturbance handlers
Answer: D

13) According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, which of the following is a kind
of interpersonal role?
A) Monitor
B) Disseminator
C) Spokesperson
D) Entrepreneur
E) Liaison
Answer: E
14) According to Mintzberg's classification of managerial roles, which of the following is a kind
of decisional role?
A) Negotiator
B) Disseminator
C) Liaison
D) Spokesperson
E) Monitor
Answer: A

15) The role of a(n) ________ is a type of informational role according to Mintzberg's
classification of managerial roles.
A) figurehead
B) disseminator
C) liaison
D) entrepreneur
E) negotiator
Answer: B
16) Which of the following is true regarding technical skills?
A) They can be learned only through formal education.
B) They encompass the ability to apply specialized knowledge.
C) They are not required at all kinds of jobs.
D) They are monopolized by professionals.
E) They comprise the ability to understand and motivate people.
Answer: B

17) The ability to understand, communicate with, motivate, and support other people, both
individually and in groups, may be defined as ________.
A) people skills
B) technical skills
C) conceptual skills
D) cognitive skills
E) analytical skills
Answer: A
18) Anna Eburt has a degree in environmental sustainability and possesses substantial knowledge
about the issue of global warming. Anna was recently hired as the campaign manager at an
environmental firm where she will use her knowledge to lead the public relations team of the
organization. However, a few months later, the board of directors of the organization expressed
dissatisfaction with Anna's performance and asked her to resign. Which of the following, if true,
best explains this situation?
A) Anna had no prior experience in research and development.
B) Anna had weak interpersonal and networking skills to run the project.
C) Anna focused on the results her team achieved rather than how they achieved those results.
D) Anna is not up to date about the feasibility of using different modes of renewable energy.
E) Anna had a diverse network of contacts established from her previous job.
Answer: B
19) Joann Hayes is currently working on a project to tackle climate change. During the project,
she needs to find different options to replace the use of non-renewable energy and check the
feasibility of different renewable energy options before choosing the most practical one. Which
of the following skills does Hayes primarily need to use for these tasks?
A) People skills
B) Interpersonal skills
C) Conceptual skills
D) Communication skills
E) Interactive skills
Answer: C
20) 360.org, an organization working toward curbing climate change, recently conducted an
interview with Jessica for the position of a public relations officer. However, interviewers
Brenda and Laura are divided over whether Jessica should be given the job. Brenda believes that
Jessica does not have in-depth knowledge about the issue of global warming and its impact. On
the other hand, Laura feels that Jessica would be perfect for the job because she has strong
networking and interpersonal skills. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Laura's
argument?
A) Gaining the support of corporate giants would comprise a large part of the job.
B) Jessica will need to prepare extensive reports about the issue of climate change.
C) The role will require Jessica to give presentations to environmental experts on renewable
modes of energy.
D) Jessica had negligible experience in research and development.
E) Jessica has weak analytical skills to solve problems associated with implementing options of
renewable energy.
Answer : A

Chapter 3

1) Which of the following refers to evaluative statements or judgments concerning objects,

people, or events?
A) Attitude
B) Behavior
C) Appearance
D) Demeanor
E) Performance
Answer: A

2) The statement, "A person who eats meat and then fights for animal rights demonstrates double
standards" is an evaluative statement. Such an opinion constitutes the ________ component of an
attitude.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) reflective
D) behavioral
E) reactive
Answer: A
3) Which of the following statements represents the cognitive component of attitude?
A) I have decided to inform my supervisor that I will be quitting my job.
B) I intend to work during the weekend to meet the month's deadline.
C) I feel upset about having to work during Christmas.
D) It is disappointing to know that I did not get a good evaluation.
E) This job is not giving me an opportunity to explore my skills.
Answer: E

4) Abigail Jones is a sales executive at Orbit Bank in Brussels. She is the best performer on her
team and often gets the highest number of corporate accounts for the company. However, she
feels that she does not get sufficient credit for her hard work. During lunch, she says to her
colleague, "I have been getting the largest accounts for the bank for the past eight months. Yet,
my manager never acknowledges the kind of effort I put in to get these accounts." Which
component of attitude is being demonstrated by Jones?
A) Positive component
B) Cognitive component
C) Affective component
D) Behavioral component
E) Reflective component
Answer: B

5) Which of the following is an example of the affective component of an attitude?

A) Believing that one achieved all objectives of a project
B) Relying on the information of a company's annual report
C) Perceiving whistleblowing as the right thing to do
D) Feeling hurt at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing
E) Deciding to fire an employee because of underperformance
Answer: D

6) Christina Johnson is feeling upset that she was not chosen as chairperson for the upcoming
election meeting. Christina's feelings represent the ________ component of an attitude.
A) reactive
B) behavioral
C) cognitive
D) affective
E) reflective
Answer: D

7) Janice Hartley works as a writer at a fashion magazine in New York. She was recently asked
by her editor to write an article on "10 must-haves for the autumn season." Her editor has now
sent back the article saying it is not interesting enough to hold the attention of the reader. Janice
is upset and disappointed about the feedback. Which component of an attitude is represented in
this scenario?
A) Positive component
B) Cognitive component
C) Affective component
D) Behavioral component
E) Evaluative component
Answer: C

8) Kimberley Mayfield recently evaluated her subordinate's progress report. She now plans to
inform her about the objectives she did not achieve and how she can perform better. By doing
this, Mayfield will be demonstrating the ________ component of an attitude.
A) cognitive
B) affective
C) reflective
D) behavioral
E) reactive
Answer: D

9) Which of the following statements is an example of the behavioral component of an attitude?

A) I have decided to apply for the position of a campaigner in the climate department.
B) I am thrilled to know that the human resource department is looking for a climate campaigner.
C) The position of a climate campaigner is challenging and interesting.
D) The position of a climate campaigner will allow me to explore my skills as a campaigner.
E) I think the position of a climate campaigner involves extensive travel.
Answer: A

10) Sarah Mayer works as a security officer and is in charge of keeping track of who is in the
office at any given time. She notices that some employees do not sign out of the office when they
go out for meals, which makes it difficult to keep track of attendance of employees. Even though
Mayer has repeatedly asked the employees to sign out, they have not followed her advice. She
now decides to report the issue to her supervisor. Which of the following components of an
attitude is being demonstrated by Mayer?
A) Affective
B) Behavioral
C) Positive
D) Cognitive
E) Knowledge
Answer: B

11) Which of the following is not one of the powerful characteristics that change the nature of
the attitudes-behavior relationship?
A) The viability of the attitude
B) The importance of the attitude
C) The presence of social pressures
D) Whether a person has direct experience with the attitude
Answer: A

18) Which of the following does cognitive dissonance indicate between two or more attitudes or
between behavior and attitudes?
A) Congruity
B) Tenacity
C) Solidarity
D) Consistency
E) Incompatibility
Answer: E

19) ________ refers to any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior
and attitudes.
A) Organizational dissonance
B) Cognitive dissonance
C) Attitudinal clarification
D) Positivity offset
E) Affective reactance
Answer: B

20) Walter Freeman has dreamed of going to space since he was a small child. Now, as a highly
successful leader of a company that offers clients solutions to reducing their carbon footprints,
Walter finally has the opportunity to realize his dream. Walter has been offered a spot on a space
tourist flight. The flights will last approximately 12 minutes giving its passengers the rare
opportunity to see the earth below. Walter is excited about the chance to go to space but can't
stop thinking about the amount of fuel that will be burned during the 12-minute joy ride. Walter
is likely experiencing ________.
A) cognitive dissonance
B) emotional contagion
C) ethical evasion
D) self-concordance
E) positivity offset
Answer: A

Chapter 4
1) ________ is a generic term covering a broad range of feelings, including emotions and moods.
A) Cognition
B) Affect
C) Knowledge
D) Insight
E) Attention
Answer: B

2) Which of the following is a characteristic of emotions?

A) Emotions are short-lived.
B) Emotions last for a longer time period than moods.
C) Emotions are never action-oriented in nature.
D) Emotions lack a contextual stimulus.
E) Emotions involve less intense feelings than moods.
Answer: A
3) ________ describe an intense, discrete and short-lived feeling experience caused by a specific
event.
A) Perception
B) Cognition
C) Mood
D) Reasoning
E) Emotions
Answer: E

4) Michelle Anouk works at the drive through window of her local coffee house. Michelle
usually enjoys interacting with customers in the morning, but last week, Michelle stormed out of
the coffee house and angerly walked around the back. Michelle's coworker told her boss that the
previous customer had yelled at Michelle for being too slow with his order. Michelle's anger can
best be described as ________.
A) a perception
B) an emotion
C) a recognition
D) an insight
E) a mood
Answer: B

5) Which of the following refers to feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that
lack a contextual stimulus?
A) Affect
B) Cognition
C) Mood
D) Thought
E) Reaction
Answer: C

6) Robert Springer woke up in the morning and felt a sense of joy and peace as he got ready for
work. At work, though challenges came his way, he tackled them without getting stressed about
them. This feeling lasted for several days that week. What is one of the reasons that Springer's
feeling can be categorized as a mood and not as an emotion?
A) It is more intense than emotions.
B) It is brought about by a specific event.
C) It is prolonged in nature.
D) It is a positive feeling.
E) It is indicated by a facial expression.
Answer: C

7) When Ariana Winter is told that her dog has been killed by a car, she feels deeply saddened.
Her feelings are then overcome by a surge of anger at the car driver. However, minutes later, she
is able to laugh and talk about the good memories spent with her pet. What is one of the reasons
that Winter's reaction can be categorized as an emotion?
A) Its cause is general and ambiguous.
B) It lasted for a brief time period.
C) It is not action oriented.
D) It is a negative feeling.
E) It is cognitive in nature.
Answer: B

8) Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding moods?

A) Moods are always brought about by a specific event.
B) Moods last for a very short period of time, such as a few seconds.
C) As compared to emotions, moods are more likely to be clearly revealed by facial expressions.
D) Moods are more fleeting than emotions.
E) Moods are less intense feelings than emotions.
Answer: E

9) Katherine Connor started her day with a cup of coffee while reading the newspaper. However,
something about the day makes her feel low. When she reaches the office, she feels upset and
distracted from work although she cannot pinpoint a reason for feeling this way. She continues to
feel upset and distracted through the rest of the day. Which of the following is she most likely to
be experiencing?
A) A response
B) A reaction
C) A counteraction
D) An attitude
E) A mood
Answer: E

10) Peter Stiles works as a customer care agent for a cellular phone company. One afternoon,
Peter receives a call from an irate customer who is having trouble connecting his mobile device.
Peter provided instructions on how to connect the phone and even offered to ask his supervisor
for additional help, but the customer continued to yell at him and call him names. After the
customer hung up, Peter took a deep breath to try to lower his stress level and then, still angry,
excused himself to get some air. Why is Peter's anger an emotion rather than a mood?
A) The cause of his behavior is unclear.
B) The feeling of being angry is prolonged.
C) The anger has a contextual stimulus.
D) The response is void of action.
E) The response is cognitive in nature.
Answer: C

11) Alana Gore works as a campaign manager at a nonprofit organization in Manhattan. She was
recently asked by her supervisor to give a presentation on the progress of the ongoing climate
campaign. However, throughout the presentation, her colleague Kelly Simmons interrupts her by
asking irrelevant questions. In addition, she tries to insult her by constantly criticizing key
findings and objectives achieved. Though Gore initially tried to be patient, she eventually loses
her cool and retorts back, asking her to keep her questions and clarifications for the end of the
presentation. Which of the following best describes why Gore's reaction can be categorized as an
emotion instead of a mood?
A) Its cause is general and ambiguous.
B) It is not action oriented.
C) It incorporates both positive and negative dimensions of affect.
D) It is less cognitive in nature than moods.
E) It is caused by a specific event.
Answer: E
12) Which of the following have an unclear, general cause, last for several hours or days, and are
generally not indicated by distinct expressions?
A) Emotions
B) Feelings
C) Perceptions
D) Moods
E) Reactions
Answer: D
13) Which of the following are caused by a specific event, are very brief, and are accompanied
by distinct facial expressions?
A) Emotions
B) Perceptions
C) Attitudes
D) Moods
E) Reactions
Answer: A

14) ________ is one of the six universal emotions agreed on by researchers.

A) Anger
B) Shame
C) Apathy
D) Indifference
E) Distress
Answer: A

15) Which of the following directly corresponds with low negative affect?
A) Bored
B) Nervous
C) Content
D) Relaxed
E) Serene
Answer: D

16) Which of the following directly corresponds with high positive affect?
A) Content
B) Excited
C) Fatigued
D) Bored
E) Relaxed
Answer: B

17) Which of the following directly corresponds with low positive affect?
A) Stressed
B) Relaxed
C) Bored
D) Nervous
E) Alert
Answer: C

18) A pure marker of high negative affect is ________.

A) depression
B) relaxation
C) fatigue
D) boredom
E) nervousness
Answer: E

19) Negative affect is a dimension consisting of ________ at the high end.

A) nervousness
B) relaxation
C) contentment
D) serenity
E) depression
Answer: A

20) Emile Suarez is working as an assistant to the governor's press secretary. Emile is usually
responsible for behind-the-scenes activities, but because his boss is on maternity leave, Emile is
now getting ready to hold his first press conference. Emile is experiencing a range of emotions
including tension, nervousness, and stress. Which of the following dimensions is he
experiencing?
A) Low positive affect
B) Neutral affect
C) Low negative affect
D) High positive affect
E) High negative affect
Answer: E

Chapter 5
1) According to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, which job is most suitable for people
belonging to the realistic type?
A) Economist
B) Teacher
C) Mechanic
D) Lawyer
E) Biologist
Answer: C

2) Help Aid, a non-profit organization in Indonesia, works at providing education in

underdeveloped countries. They are now looking to hire a teacher who can educate children in
Namibia and prepare them for jobs which will enable them to sustain themselves. According to
Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to which of the following personality types
will best suit Help Aid's requirement?
A) Conventional
B) Realistic
C) Enterprising
D) Artistic
E) Social
Answer: E

3) According to John Holland's personality-job fit theory, people belonging to the ________ type
prefer verbal activities in which there are opportunities to influence others and attain powers.
A) realistic
B) conventional
C) artistic
D) enterprising
E) investigative
Answer: D

4) Based on the personality-job-fit theory, people belonging to the investigating type prefer
________.
A) activities that involve helping and developing others
B) activities that involve thinking, organizing, and understanding
C) physical activities that require skill, strength, and coordination
D) ambiguous and imaginative activities that allow creative expression
E) activities in which there are opportunities to influence others
Answer: B

5) Which of the following is one of the personality types in John Holland's personality-job fit
theory?
A) Analytic
B) Imaginative
C) Practical
D) Investigative
E) Intuitive
Answer: D

13) Which of the following is true about how we speak of peoples' personalities?
A) We tend to use the same small set of adjectives to describe how people act.
B) A recent survey revealed a succinct set of 112 adjectives to describe people they know.
C) We tend to use many adjectives to describe how people act and seem to think.
D) A recent survey revealed just 211 adjectives to describe people they know.
E) We tend to describe personality traits using approximately 55 adjectives.
Answer: C

14) Which of the following is true about personality assessments used in organizations?
A) Personality assessments are used by approximately 10 percent of all large U.S. companies.
B) Personality assessments have been decreasingly used in diverse organizational settings.
C) Personality assessments have been increasingly used in diverse organizational settings.
D) Personality assessments have become increasingly expensive and thus, have slightly lost
favor.
E) Personality assessments are used by approximately 25 percent of all large U.S. companies.
Answer: C

15) What is the total number of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with the
world around them?
A) Talent
B) Skill
C) Knowledge
D) Heredity
E) Personality
Answer: E
16) Esther Lugo has gone for an interview at an advertising firm in Manhattan and has been
asked to complete a self-report survey to help interviewers understand if she is the right
candidate for the job. From the interview, they have found that she is extroverted, empathic,
scrupulous, and cooperative in nature, which are key characteristics needed for the job. These
characteristics about Lugo indicate her ________.
A) talent
B) skill
C) knowledge
D) genealogy
E) personality
Answer: E

17) The most common means of measuring personality is through ________.

A) in-depth interviews
B) self-report surveys
C) career portfolio
D) reference interviews
E) stress interviews
Answer: B

18) Which of the following is a drawback of self-report surveys?

A) They can hold only a limited number of questions.
B) They involve a large number of people in the evaluation process.
C) They may have biased results if the surveyor's judgment is biased.
D) They comprise a large number of complex statistical data.
E) They may result in the respondent rating themselves better to create a good impression.
Answer: E

19) Which type of survey involves a co-worker or another observer to conduct an independent
assessment of personality?
A) Observer-ratings surveys
B) Paid surveys
C) Knowledge surveys
D) Deviation surveys
E) Cadastral surveys
Answer: A

20) Yolanda Jones has been asked to evaluate the behavior of one her team members, Stephanie
Sloan. Stephanie is being considered for a promotion, and human resources wants to ensure she
will fit in with the new team. Among the questions being asked are whether Stephanie is free
from distractions and whether she pays enough attention to her job. The evaluation Yolanda is
being asked to conduct can best be described as a(n) ________.
A) observer-ratings survey
B) informational interview
C) knowledge survey
D) participant observation
E) focus group survey
Answer: A

Chapter 6
1) The process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to
give meaning to their environment is referred to as ________.
A) sensation
B) impression
C) apprehension
D) attribution
E) perception
Answer: E

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding perception?

A) Perception of reality is independent of one's personality.
B) Our perception of a target is not affected by the context of the situation in which the
perception is made.
C) Our perception of reality can be different from the objective reality.
D) Our perception of reality is independent of our past experiences.
E) We form a perception of a target by looking at it in isolation.
Answer: C

3) When two people witness something at the same time and in the same situation yet interpret it
differently, factors that operate to shape their perceptions reside in the ________.
A) perceiver
B) target
C) timing
D) context
E) situation
Answer: A

4) Stan Humphries believes that anyone who voluntarily works the nightshift at the hospital must
be single. He thinks that anyone who has children would prefer to work the day shift so that they
can keep the same schedule as their children. What personal factor is most likely to be affecting
Stan's perceptions of those who work the nightshift at the hospital?
A) His financial background
B) His expectations
C) His interest
D) His motive
E) His personality
Answer: B
5) Extremely attractive or unattractive individuals are most likely to be noticed in a group.
Which of the following statements best describes the reason behind this?
A) Our perception of reality depends on our past experiences.
B) Our perception of reality depends on our personality.
C) We don't look at targets in isolation.
D) The time at which we see an object can influence our perception of the object.
E) Our motives and expectations affect our perception of a target.
Answer: C

6) During team meetings, Amber Downing always notices that Rhona Law tends to ask many
questions and suggest ideas at each discussion. However, Law stands out in the meetings only
because she is the only one making suggestions. If both of them were part of team meetings
where almost all members made suggestions and asked questions, Law would not have drawn as
much attention from Downing. Which of the following factors has most likely influenced
Downing's perception of Law?
A) Expectation
B) Interest
C) Past experience
D) Context
E) Motive
Answer: D

7) Sandy Alexander thinks that people who use plastic water bottles rather than reusable metal
bottles are wasteful and don't respect the environment. In her opinion, everyone needs to work
together to protect the environment and those who use plastic water bottles are not doing their
share. Which of the following factors has most likely influenced Sandy's perceptions of people
who choose plastic water bottles rather than reusable metal bottles?
A) Location
B) Expectation
C) Characteristic of the target
D) Context
E) Time
Answer: B

8) ________ is a factor present in a target which may affect a person's perception.

A) Attitude
B) Motive
C) Interest
D) Novelty
E) Experience
Answer: D

9) ________ is a factor present in a situation which may affect a person's perception.

A) Similarity
B) Size
C) Expectation
D) Time
E) Experience
Answer: D

10) Factors present in a perceiver which may affect perception are ________.
A) interests
B) similarities
C) sounds
D) proximities
E) backgrounds
Answer: A

11) Reggie Williams works on the set of a leading sitcom. Reggie's booming voice and outgoing
manner always ensure that Reggie stands out in a crowd. Which of the following statements best
explains the reason behind people noticing Reggie?
A) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's past experiences.
B) Perception of reality depends on the perceiver's personality.
C) Characteristics of the target affect people's perception.
D) The time at which we observe behavior affects perception.
E) Motives and interests of the perceiver affects perception of behavior.
Answer: C

17) ________ explains the ways in which we judge people differently, depending on the
meaning we assign to a given behavior.
A) Attribution theory
B) Equity theory
C) Object relations theory
D) Attachment theory
E) Cultural schema theory
Answer: A

18) Attribution theory suggests that when we observe an individual's behavior, we attempt to
determine whether it was internally or externally caused. That determination, however, depends
largely on three factors. Which of the following is one of these three factors?
A) Traceability
B) Consistency
C) Verifiability
D) Relatedness
E) Affect intensity
Answer: B

19) Which of the following is an example of internally caused behavior?

A) An employee was late for a team meeting because of a heavy downpour.
B) An employee was laid off because the company was attempting to cut costs by laying off
employees.
C) An employee was fired from work because he violated a company policy.
D) An employee could not attend an interview because of a delayed flight.
E) An employee could not come to work because he met with an accident.
Answer: C

20) Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior?

A) An employee postpones a meeting because he overslept.
B) An employee is late to work because of a punctured tire.
C) An employee was fired because he violated a company policy.
D) An employee was promoted when he achieved more than the assigned objectives.
E) An employee closed a sale with an important corporate client because of his excellent
negotiation skills.
Answer: B

Chapter 7
1) The processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort
toward attaining a goal are referred to as ________.
A) leadership
B) management
C) learning
D) emotional labor
E) motivation
Answer: E

2) Which dimension of motivation measures how long a person can maintain effort?
A) Direction
B) Persistence
C) Intensity
D) Knowledge
E) Experience
Answer: B

3) Which element of motivation describes how hard a person tries?

A) Intelligence
B) Experience
C) Direction
D) Intensity
E) Persistence
Answer: D

6) The ________ level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs focuses on satisfying one's hunger, thirst,
and other bodily needs.
A) safety-security
B) physiological
C) social
D) esteem
E) psychological
Answer: B
7) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Joanna?
A) Social
B) Esteem
C) Physiological
D) Self-actualization
E) Safety
Answer: C

8) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Josephine?

A) Social-belongingness
B) Esteem
C) Physiological
D) Self-actualization
E) Safety
Answer: A

9) Which of the following needs would most motivate Jonathan?

A) Social-belongingness
B) Esteem
C) Physiological
D) Self-actualization
E) Safety
Answer: D

10) Which of the following is a lower-level need in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A) Social-belongingness
B) Safety
C) Esteem
D) Self-actualization
E) Recognition
Answer: B

11) ________ is the highest-level need in Maslow's theory.

A) Self-actualization
B) Safety
C) Social-belongingness
D) Esteem
E) Physiological
Answer: A

12) ________ in Maslow's hierarchy refers to the drive to become what we can become.
A) Social-belongingness
B) Self-actualization
C) Physiological
D) Esteem
E) Safety
Answer: B

13) Which of the following best explains why Maslow's theory is criticized?
A) The concept of self-actualization was unfounded.
B) There is little evidence that needs are structured or operate in the way it describes.
C) The esteem need is a more powerful motivator than self-actualization.
D) Its terminology tends to alienate those to whom it is applied.
E) It does not adequately describe how an organization can satisfy higher-order needs.
Answer: B

14) Which theory is also referred to as the motivation-hygiene theory?

A) Hierarchy of needs
B) Goal-setting
C) Self-determination
D) Cognitive evaluation
E) Two-factor
Answer: E

15) Which of the following theories proposes the idea of a dual continuum?
A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory
B) Self-determination theory
C) Two-factor theory
D) Cognitive evaluation theory
E) McClelland's theory of needs
Answer: C
16) According to the two-factor theory, ________.
A) there exists a hierarchy of needs within every human being, and as each need is satisfied, the
next one becomes dominant
B) most employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into
performing it
C) employees view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore learn to accept, and
even seek, responsibility
D) the aspects that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job
dissatisfaction
E) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation
Answer: D

17) ________ is a motivational factor according to Herzberg's two-factor theory.

A) Quality of supervision
B) Recognition
C) Pay
D) Relationships with others
E) Company policies
Answer: B

18) ________ is considered a hygiene factor in Hertzberg's two-factor theory.

A) Promotional opportunities
B) Quality of supervision
C) Achievement
D) Recognition
E) Responsibility
Answer: B

19) According to Herzberg, when ________ are adequate, people won't be dissatisfied, but they
will also not be satisfied.
A) achievement needs
B) affiliation needs
C) motivational factors
D) power needs
E) hygiene factors
Answer: E

20) Which of the following needs are reflected in McClelland's theory?

A) Stability, growth, and security
B) Achievement, power, and affiliation
C) Self-actualization, stability, and safety-security
D) Hygiene, control, and security
E) Control, status, and self-actualization
Answer: B

21) Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that
involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?
A) José
B) Mary
C) Tim
D) Sarah
E) Doug
Answer: A

22) ________ would be the best person to handle your responsibilities when you are on
vacation?
A) Joe
B) Mary
C) Tim
D) Sarah
E) Doug
Answer: D
23) Erika wants to become the head of the HR department. Although the role comes with a
generous salary hike and will put her in charge of several subordinates, she is mainly pursuing
this position because she believes she can do the job better than anyone else and wants people to
know this. According to McClelland's theory of needs, which of the following needs is Erika
primarily driven by in this case?
A) The need for stability
B) The need for achievement
C) The need for security
D) The need for affiliation
E) The need for power
Answer: B

Chapter 9

1) Which of the following is true, in general, in regard to groups?

A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members.
B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures.
C) A group influences our emotional reactions.
D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group.
E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.
Answer: C

2) Which of the following is true regarding formal groups?

A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact.
B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members.
C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior.
D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group.
E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.
Answer: E
3) Which of the following is characteristic of an informal group?
A) Stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization
B) Predetermined designation of tasks of members
C) Pursuit of particular organizational goals
D) Fulfillment of the need for social contact
E) Creation of timelines and rationale
Answer: D

4) Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups?

A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups.
B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is less than that of informal
groups.
C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite
organizational goals to attain.
D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups.
E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither
formally structured nor organizationally determined.
Answer: E

5) Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a
part of is the territory of the ________ theory.
A) social exchange
B) expectancy
C) social identity
D) reinforcement
E) equity
Answer: C

6) Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory?
A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the
group in the event of any offenses or failures.
B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group
because their self-esteem is tied into the group's performance.
C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more
defined and concrete in the course of their lives.
D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how
members of an ingroup view members of an out-group.
E) It proposes that members of an ingroup are viewed as being homogeneous, while members of
an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.
Answer: B

7) ________ explains why people categorize others as belonging to different groups.

A) Social categorization
B) Xenocentrism
C) Ingroup favoritism
D) The black sheep effect
E) Hindsight bias
Answer: A

8) At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural
background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal
compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company's day-to-day
functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner's
cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing
from different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________.
A) social loafing
B) ingroup favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange
Answer: B
9) Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an
Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would
witness him stealing. However, one of the customers watched him steal the money and reported
it to the manager the next day, and Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became
extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them by saying,
"You guys are all the same." This scenario depicts ________.
A) social loafing
B) ingroup favoritism
C) groupthink
D) contrast bias
E) social exchange
Answer: B
10) In the context of the social identity theory, people have ________ to the failure or success of
group members.
A) angry reactions
B) lack of empathy or pride
C) emotional withdrawal
D) lack of reaction
E) emotional reactions
Answer: E

11) ________ is when we connect with others because of our roles.

A) Collective identification
B) Schadenfreude
C) Relational identification
D) Informal group identification
E) Formal group dynamics
Answer: C

12) ________ is when we connect with the aggregate characteristics of our groups.
A) Relational identification
B) Collective identification
C) Schadenfreude
D) Informal group identification
E) Formal group dynamics
Answer: B

17) The first action in the group development process of a temporary group involves ________.
A) setting group direction
B) transition after half of time taken up
C) inertia and slow progress
D) the second phase of inertia
E) accelerated activity
Answer: A

18) The second action in the group development process of a temporary group involves
________.
A) setting group direction
B) transition after half of time taken up
C) inertia and slow progress
D) the second phase of inertia
E) accelerated activity
Answer: C

19) The third action in the group development process of a temporary group involves ________.
A) transition after half of time taken up
B) inertia and slow progress
C) the second phase of inertia
D) transition and major changes
E) accelerated activity
Answer: A

20) The final action in the group development process of a temporary group involves ________.
A) transition after half of time taken up
B) accelerated activity
C) inertia and slow progress
D) the second phase of inertia
E) transition and major changes
Answer: B

Chapter 12

1) Which of the following best describes leadership?

A) The ability to merely project one's abilities in the lack of actual accomplishments
B) The ability to reduce the dependence of team members on each other
C) The ability to induce the team members to focus on individual goals rather than collective
goals
D) The ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision or set of goals
E) The ability to use factors like training and experience to reduce dependence on formal
leadership
Answer: D

2) Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true?

A) All managers are leaders.
B) Formal rights ensure good leadership.
C) Formal appointment is essential in creating leaders.
D) All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers.
E) Nonsanctioned leadership is sometimes more important than formal influence.
Answer: E
3) A desirable feature of leadership is ________.
A) one-directional influence from the leader to the follower
B) coercive power and authority
C) lack of freedom
D) passivity of followers
E) coexistence of leaders and managers
Answer: E

4) Trait theories of leadership focus on ________.

A) the special relationship that leaders establish with a small group of their followers
B) the personal qualities and characteristics that differentiate leaders from nonleaders
C) the way the leader makes decisions
D) the extent to which followers are willing and able to accomplish a specific task
E) the match between the leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives the leader
control
Answer: B

5) Researchers have consistently found ________ to be the strongest predictor of motivation to

lead and leader emergence.
A) conscientiousness
B) openness
C) extroversion
D) agreeableness
E) emotional stability
Answer: C

6) Emotional intelligence (EI) is critical to effective leadership because one of its core
components is ________, which reflects the consideration that leaders must be able to express.
A) conscientiousness
B) empathy
C) optimism
D) introversion
E) perfectionism
Answer: B

7) Which of the following do trait theories most accurately predict?

A) Distinguishing features of an effective leader
B) Differences between an effective and an ineffective leader
C) Success of a leader
D) Roles to be played by the leader
E) Emergence of a leader
Answer: E
8) Tim Wrench was leading the client services division of AmWeb for seven years when he was
asked to move to another region where the company was setting up its office. Before moving,
Tim was asked to help in finding a successor for him from his team. Tim's most obvious choice
was Judy Judge, and the management accepted his choice as Judy was a popular person across
the company. Judy was known for her vivacious nature, was often seen speaking to employees
from various divisions, and was always excited to take up a new opportunity. Once she became a
leader, she continued to give employees freedom and flexibility even if it resulted in deficiencies
on the work front like missed deadlines or low quality. Judy's initial weeks as a leader were full
of confusion among her team members, but many felt that the situation would come under
control. When things did not improve in the next two months and many complaints poured in
from clients, the management realized that Judy was not the best candidate to lead the team.
Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?
A) Judy was a high-performing employee and enjoyed good relationships with everyone on the
team.
B) Everyone felt Judy was given insufficient time to prove her worth as a leader.
C) Research has shown that traits can predict the emergence of a leader, but not his or her
efficiency as a leader.
D) The client complaints were a common thing encountered by the company.
E) Judy demonstrated low levels of consideration and high levels of task-orientation.
Answer: C

12) The Ohio State Studies narrowed the independent dimensions of leader behavior to two that
substantially accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees:
consideration and ________.
A) employee-orientation
B) empathy
C) constructing vision
D) initiating structure
E) charisma
Answer: D
13) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies,
initiating structure refers to the extent to which ________.
A) a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas,
and regard for their feelings
B) a leader engages in participative management
C) a leader is accepting of and respects individual differences among various team members
D) a leader is likely to define and organize his or her role and those of employees in the search
for goal attainment
E) a leader initiates efforts to communicate personally with employees
Answer: D

14) Adrian Atwood, a senior manager at MNC, spends a lot of his time assigning group members
to particular tasks and scheduling their work such that deadlines are achievable. Adrian also sets
high expectations for standards of performance and holds regular meetings to ensure that
productivity and quality are up to the mark. In the light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates
that Adrian, as a leader, is ________.
A) low in task orientation
B) high in consideration
C) relationship oriented
D) employee oriented
E) high in initiating structure
Answer: E
15) In the context of behavioral dimensions of leadership identified in the Ohio State Studies,
________ is the extent to which a person's job relationships are characterized by mutual trust,
respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings.
A) consideration
B) transaction
C) authentication
D) task orientation
E) identification
Answer: A

16) Nellie Fritz, the head of client support services at Olson Inc., is very popular among her
subordinates. Many believe that Nellie has a knack for getting the work done without making the
employees feel pushed into a corner. She is often seen speaking to her subordinates and support
staff about their families, helping them with any personal problems they have, and praising
employees for their good work. In light of the Ohio State Studies, this indicates that Nellie, as a
leader, is ________.
A) task oriented
B) high in consideration
C) low in trust propensity
D) low in relationship orientation
E) production oriented
Answer: B

Chapter 13

1) According to the text, the most important aspect of power is probably that it is a function of
________.
A) goal congruency
B) realization
C) inheritance
D) dependence
E) altruism
Answer: D

2) Which of the following statements is true regarding power?

A) A is said to have power over B if B controls something that A desires.
B) The greater A's dependence on B, the greater A's power in the relationship.
C) The more B and C rely on A, the more powerful A becomes.
D) A can have power over B only if A is B's leader.
E) A can have power over B only when A and B have similar goals.
Answer: C

3) ________ is a differentiating factor between power and leadership.

A) Control
B) Influence
C) Ability
D) Goal compatibility
E) Negative affect
Answer: D

4) ________ often differentiates power from leadership.

A) A lack of dependence of followers
B) The use of positive styles over negative tactics
C) Downward influence of leader on followers
D) The lack of goal compatibility between leaders and followers
E) A lack of control on behavior of followers
Answer: D

5) Which of the following is true with regard to leadership?

A) It maximizes the importance of lateral and upward influence patterns.
B) It eliminates the requirement of goal compatibility.
C) It stimulates research in the area of tactics of influence.
D) It often emphasizes style.
E) It encourages dependence of followers on leaders.
Answer: D

6) A powerful person begins to lose power when ________.

A) leadership style changes
B) people begin to rely on themselves
C) tactics for gaining compliance of employees increase
D) employee rewards are encouraged
E) modes of assessing employee performance are reassessed
Answer: B

12) What are the two general groupings of power?

A) Informational and personal
B) Formal and informal
C) Informal and legitimate
D) Formal and personal
E) Direct and indirect
Answer: D

13) Which type of power is based on the fear of the negative results from failing to comply?
A) Legitimate
B) Coercive
C) Punitive
D) Referent
E) Abusive
Answer: B
14) In the last one week, May and Phyllis have been putting in extra hours at work so that the
project assigned to them is completed on time. Though the manager was due to assign two more
people to this project, he had not done so and, instead, was emphasizing to employees the
importance of adhering to the needs of the department in regard to workload. As a result, May
and Phyllis, who had double their routine workload, complained to the division manager. May
was promptly suspended from work for complaining about her immediate supervisor. This
scenario describes ________ power.
A) reward
B) legitimate
C) coercive
D) expert
E) referent
Answer: C

15) Which type of power represents the compliance that is achieved based on the ability to
distribute positive benefits that others view as valuable?
A) Legitimate
B) Coercive
C) Reward
D) Personal
E) Reflective
Answer: C
16) As a regional sales officer, one of Brandon's job responsibilities is to process the yearly
appraisal forms of his subordinates and provide them with increments, bonuses, or benefits based
on their performance that year. This job responsibility directly reflects his ________.
A) active power
B) expert power
C) referent power
D) reward power
E) coercive power
Answer: D

17) Legitimate power is directly based on the ________.

A) charisma of the leader
B) interpersonal trust and commitment of the manager
C) structural position of the manager in the organization
D) personality traits of the manager
E) ability of the manager to serve his or her subordinates
Answer: C

18) Which of the following statements is true regarding legitimate power?

A) Legitimate power develops out of admiration of another and a desire to be like that person.
B) Legitimate power comes from an individual's unique characteristics.
C) Legitimate power can dampen the effects of other forms of power.
D) Celebrities who endorse products in commercials wield legitimate power over people.
E) Legitimate power is a type of personal power.
Answer: C

19) Which of the following types of power can be categorized as personal power?
A) Coercive
B) Legitimate
C) Reward
D) Referent
E) Positional
Answer: D

20) The two bases of personal power are ________ and the respect and admiration of others.
A) legitimate
B) reward
C) emergent
D) expertise
E) coercive
Answer: D

21) At the PR firm where Gerald works, everyone considers him to be very good with his work
and depends heavily on his knowledge to help the organization to solve its problems. Gerald is
often seen teaching interns a simpler way to present an article, helping project managers with
scheduling, and even the CEO often asks him for his opinion on important matters because of his
experience and skill. Gerald's specialized knowledge depicts his ________.
A) expert power
B) coercive power
C) legitimate power
D) referent power
E) reward power
Answer: A

Chapter 16

1) A(n) ________ culture is best aligned with customer-oriented outcomes.

A) adhocracy
B) team
C) clan
D) low outcome orientation
E) innovation
Answer: C

2) The ________ category of the Organizational Culture Inventory groups cultures that value
affiliation, encouragement, and achievement.
A) supportiveness
B) constructive
C) passive-defensive
D) aggressive-defensive
E) team-orientation
Answer: B
3) Which of the following categories in the Organizational Culture Inventory groups cultures that
are competitive, perfectionist, and power-oriented?
A) Accountability
B) Outcome orientation
C) Team orientation
D) Aggressive-defensive
E) Stability
Answer: D

4) Which of the following is not an outcome of a strong organizational culture?

A) Cohesiveness
B) Loyalty
C) Organizational commitment
D) Resistance
E) Meaning
Answer: D

5) A(n) ________ culture is best for innovation.

A) assertiveness
B) market
C) adhocracy
D) hierarchy
E) clan
Answer: E

6) Which of the following best describes how employees view the difference between
organizational culture and job satisfaction?
A) Job satisfaction depends upon the level of "power distance" in the country, but organizational
culture does not.
B) Organizational culture is static, whereas job satisfaction is dynamic.
C) Job satisfaction is immeasurable, whereas organizational culture is measurable.
D) Organizational culture is descriptive, whereas job satisfaction is evaluative.
E) Job satisfaction depends on the structure of the organization, but organizational culture does
not.
Answer: D

7) An aircraft manufacturer with a strong presence in the United States, is looking to expand its
market overseas. The firm currently sells its aircraft to several airlines in the United Kingdom
but now wants to establish manufacturing units there as well in order to acquire a bigger share in
the European market. Hence, it plans to merge with QueenAir, a British aircraft manufacturer.
Which of the following, if true, would weaken the company's decision to merge with QueenAir?
A) Merging with QueenAir would increase its profits considerably.
B) There is increasing economic uncertainty in its U.S. market.
C) The preferences of airline customers in Europe and the U.S. are similar.
D) There is a striking difference in the organizational cultures of the two firms.
E) A competitor in the U.S. market recently went out of business.
Answer: D

8) Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization's culture?

A) Organizational culture is evaluative rather than descriptive.
B) Large organizations rarely have subcultures.
C) A dominant culture expresses the core values shared by a majority of the organization's
members.
D) A strong culture reduces employee satisfaction and increases employee turnover.
E) Subcultures and dominant cultures do not share any common values.
Answer: C

9) Minicultures that tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems or

experiences faced by the members in the same department or location are often called ________.
A) micro-cultures
B) subcultures
C) divisional cultures
D) microcosms
E) countercultures
Answer: B

10) Jean works for Fahrenheit Publishing, which is a publisher of scientific journals. The
company is dominated by low risk taking and high attention to detail. Jean's department is
committed to high team orientation and provides many team-building activities in which Jean
and other department members work together and socialize. Which of the following statements
best describes Jean's department?
A) Jean's department is an example of a primary microcosm.
B) Jean's department's culture is stronger than the dominant culture in the organization.
C) Jean's department has developed a subculture.
D) Jean's department's culture is undefined.
E) Jean's department's culture has low stability.
Answer: C
11) ________ are indicators of a strong organizational culture.
A) High levels of dissension
B) High rates of employee turnover
C) Completely horizontal organizational charts
D) Narrowly defined roles
E) Widely shared values
Answer: E

12) In the ________ employees value growth, variety, attention to detail, stimulation, and
autonomy.
A) market
B) adhocracy
C) clan
D) bureaucracy
E) hierarchy
Answer: B

13) Which of the following is most likely to result from a strong organizational culture?
A) High organizational commitment
B) Low employee satisfaction
C) Low loyalty
D) High absenteeism
E) Low behavioral control resulting from the climate within the organization
Answer: A

14) A strong culture should increase employee loyalty because it results in ________.
A) a highly centralized organization
B) narrow spans of control
C) cohesiveness and organizational commitment
D) a highly formalized organization
E) an outcome-oriented organization
Answer: C

15) A culture that expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization's
members is known as a(n) ________ culture.
A) dominant
B) primary
C) fundamental
D) unique
E) essential
Answer: A
Rogue Vogue Corp. is an apparel company. To keep up with the latest changes in the fashion
industry, the company has to come up with innovative designs and follow strict timelines. The
culture of the company values integrity, high ethical standards, and risk taking. The members of
the organization accept these cultural values. They know exactly what is expected of them, and
these expectations go a long way in shaping their behavior. In addition to this, the culture of the
marketing department is outcome oriented, and the finance department emphasizes attention to
detail.

16) The organizational culture of Rogue Vogue Corp. is an example of a(n) ________.
A) autocratic culture
B) subculture
C) lowly formalized culture
D) reflective culture
E) dominant culture
Answer: E

17) Integrity and high ethical standards are called the ________ of the culture at the Rogue
Vogue Corp.
A) foundational values
B) institutional traits
C) core values
D) significant traits
E) unique values
Answer: C
18) In addition to the organizational culture at Rogue Vogue Corp., the finance department
emphasizes attention to detail. In this example, attention to detail is a part of the ________ of the
organization.
A) core values
B) significant traits
C) dominant culture
D) foundational values
E) subculture
Answer: E

19) Based on the information in the scenario, we can say that Rogue Vogue Corp. ________.
A) is a highly decentralized organization
B) is a virtual organization
C) has a strong culture
D) is a boundary-laden organization
E) is a matrix organization
Answer: C