Vision IAS Prelims Test 33 Solutions 2022

VISIONIAS
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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3502 (2022)
Q 1.B
• The French attempted to establish a trade link with India as early as 1527. Taking a cue from the
Portuguese and the Dutch, the French commenced their commercial operations through the French East
India Company, established in 1664.
• Unlike other European powers which appeared in India through private trading companies, the French
commercial enterprise was a project of King Louis XIV. His minister of finance, Colbert, was
instrumental in establishing the French East India Company. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o As the French effort was a government initiative, it did not attract the general public of France who
viewed it as yet another way to tax people.
• Berber, a French agent in India obtained a firman [a royal command or authorization] on
September 4, 1666, from Aurangzeb and the first French factory was established at Surat in
December 1668, much against the opposition of the Dutch. Within a year the French established
another factory at Masulipatnam.
• Realizing the need for a stronger foothold in India, Colbert sent a fleet to India, led by Haye (Jacob
Blanquet de la Haye). The French were able to remove the Dutch from San Thome in Mylapore in 1672.
The French sought the support of Sher Khan Lodi, the local Governor, who represented the Sultan of
Bijapur, against the Dutch. The Dutch befriended the King of Golkonda who was a traditional foe of
Bijapur. It was Sher Khan Lodi who offered Pondicherry (Puducherry) as a suitable site for their
settlement. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• French attempts to capture Pondicherry were not easy. They had to deal with their main rivals, the Dutch.
o From 1672 France and Holland were continuously at war. In India, the French lacked men, money,
and arms, as they had diverted them to Chandranagore, another French settlement in
Bengal. Therefore the Dutch could capture Pondicherry easily in 1693. It remained with the Dutch
for six years. In 1697, according to the treaty of Ryswick, Pondicherry was once again restored to
the French. However, it was handed over to the French only in 1699. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 2.A
• The 74th amendment act provides for the constitution of the following three types of municipalities in
every state.
o A Nagar Panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area.
o A municipal council for a smaller urban area. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o A municipal corporation for a larger urban area.
• But, there is one exception. If there is an urban area where municipal services are being provided by an
industrial establishment, then the governor may specify that area to be an industrial township. In such a
case, a municipality may not be constituted. According to Article 243 P (d), the territorial area of a
Municipality in the state refers to the Municipal area as notified by the governor. Hence statement 1
is correct.
• The governor has to specify a transitional area, a smaller urban area, or a larger urban area, keeping in
view the following factors:
o The population of the area.
o The density of the population therein.
o Revenue generated for local administration.
o Percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities.
o Economic importance.
o Such other factors as he may deem fit.
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Q 3.B
• Zeugen - a tablet-shaped area of rock found in arid and semi-arid areas formed when more resistant rock
is reduced at a slower rate than softer rocks around it under the effects of wind erosion.
• Yardangs form in environments where water is scarce and the prevailing winds are strong, uni-
directional, and carry an abrasive sediment load. The wind cuts down low-lying areas into parallel
ridges which gradually erode into separate hills that take on the unique shape of a yardang.
• A mushroom rock also called a rock pedestal, or a pedestal rock is a naturally occurring rock whose
shape, as its name implies, resembles a mushroom. The rocks are deformed in a number of different ways:
by erosion and weathering, glacial action, or a sudden disturbance.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 4.D
• Crime and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) is a mission mode project under the
National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) initiated in 2009. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Home
Affairs that aims at creating a comprehensive and integrated system for enhancing the efficiency and
effectiveness of policing at the Police Station level. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• CCTNS leads to the development of a national database of crimes and criminals as it creates facilities and
mechanisms to provide public services like registration of online complaints, etc along with automating
Police functions at Police stations and higher levels. It will interconnect more than 15000 Police Stations
and other offices of supervisory police officers across the country and digitize data related to FIR,
registration of complaints, and many other facilities. It is National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) and
not CCTNS that aims to strengthen India's counter-terrorism capabilities by combining sensitive
databases into a single database for access by central investigative agencies. Hence statement 1 is
not correct.
• About National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID): NATGRID is conceptualized as a seamless and secure
database for information on terrorists, economic crimes, and similar incidents to help bolster India's
capabilities.
o The NATGRID has been envisaged as a robust mechanism to track suspects and prevent terrorist
attacks with real-time data and access to classified information like immigration, banking, individual
taxpayers, and air and train travel.
Q 5.C
• India’s thrust on expanding port handling infrastructure, developing of value chain involving key
stakeholders along with efforts to explore new opportunities in countries or markets for rice exports in the
last couple of years have led to a huge spike in rice exports.
• According to APEDA, India exported 4.63 Q/MT ($ 4018 million in value terms) of Basmati rice in
2020-21, whereas exports of non-Basmati rice were 13.09 Q/MT ($ 4800 million in value terms).
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• According to the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCIS): In terms
of volume of Basmati rice imports from India in 2020-21, the top countries are Saudi Arabia, Iran,
Iraq, Yemen, and United Arab Emirates, whereas Nepal, Benin, Bangladesh, Senegal, and Togo were top
importers of non-Basmati rice from India in volume terms. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The top importing countries for Indian wheat in 2020-21 are Bangladesh (54 percent in both volume
and value terms), Nepal, and United Arab Emirates, according to data by the Directorate General of
Commercial Intelligence and Statistics (DGCIS). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 6.B
• We eat various types of food which have to pass through the same digestive tract. When we eat something
we like, our mouth ‘waters’. This is actually not only water, but a fluid called saliva secreted by the
salivary glands.
• Another aspect of the food we ingest is its complex nature. If it is to be absorbed from the alimentary
canal, it has to be broken into smaller molecules. This is done with the help of biological catalysts called
enzymes. The saliva contains an enzyme called salivary amylase that breaks down starch which is a
complex molecule to give simple sugar.
• From the mouth, the food is taken to the stomach through the food pipe or esophagus. The digestion in the
stomach is taken care of by the gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach. These release
hydrochloric acid, a protein-digesting enzyme called pepsin and mucus. Hydrochloric acid creates an
acidic medium that facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin.

• The exit of food from the stomach is regulated by a sphincter muscle which releases it in small
amounts into the small intestine. From the stomach, the food now enters the small intestine. The length
of the small intestine differs in various animals depending on the food they eat. The small intestine is the
site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins, and fats. The food coming from the stomach is
acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act.
• Bile juice from the liver accomplishes this in addition to acting on fats. Fats are present in the intestine in
the form of large globules which makes it difficult for enzymes to act on them. Bile salts break them down
into smaller globules increasing the efficiency of enzyme action.
• Digested food is taken up by the walls of the intestine. The inner lining of the small intestine has
numerous finger-like projections called villi which increase the surface area for absorption. The villi
are richly supplied with blood vessels that take the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body,
where it is utilized for obtaining energy, building up new tissues, and the repair of old tissues.
• The unabsorbed food is sent into the large intestine where its wall absorbs more water from this material.
The rest of the material is removed from the body via the anus. The exit of this waste material is regulated
by the anal sphincter.
Q 7.B
• Recent Context: India’s Constitution has been translated into Ol Chiki script for the first time.
o The Ol Chiki script, also known as Ol Chemetʼ, Ol Ciki, Ol, and sometimes as the Santali
alphabet, is the official writing system for Santhali, an Austroasiatic language recognized as an
official regional language in India.
o In 2003, the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act added Santhali to Schedule VIII to the
Constitution of India, which lists the official languages of India, along with the Bodo, Dogri, and
Maithili languages.
o Santhals are the largest scheduled tribe in the Jharkhand state of India in terms of population and are
also found in the states of Assam, Tripura, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and West Bengal.
o Santhals mainly celebrate the Karam festival which falls in the month of September and October.
They celebrate this festival to please their God.
Q 8.B
• The government of India may issue from time to time the following types of Government Securities:
o Securities with fixed coupon rates.
o Securities with variable coupon rates, viz, Floating Rate Bonds.
o Zero-Coupon Bonds
• Features of different types of Government Securities:

o Securities with fixed coupon rates: The securities will carry a specific coupon rate remaining fixed
during the term of the security and payable periodically. Issue of security may be at a discount, at par,
or at a premium to the face value.
o Securities with variable coupon rates, viz, Floating Rate Bonds, etc: The Security will carry a
coupon rate which will vary according to the change in the Base Rate to which it is related. The
description of the Base Rate and the manner in which the coupon rate is linked to the Base Rate will
be announced in the Specific Notification. The coupon rate may be subject to a floor or cap if any, as
the case may be. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o Zero-Coupon Bonds: Zero-Coupon Bonds are issued at a discount and redeemed at par. No interest
payment is made on such bonds at periodic intervals before maturity. On the basis of the bids
received through tenders, the Reserve Bank of India will determine the cut-off price at which tenders
for the purchase of Zero Coupon Bonds will be accepted at the auction. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
o Inflation-Indexed Bond (IIB) is a bond issued by the Sovereign (government), which provides the
investor with a constant return irrespective of the level of inflation in the economy. Thus, Inflation-
linked bonds are designed to protect investors from the adverse impact of inflation by linking the
principal and interest payments of bonds to an inflation index such as the Wholesale Price Index
(WPI) and the Consumer Price Index (CPI). The main objective of Inflation-Indexed Bonds is to
provide a hedge and to safeguard the investor against macroeconomic risks in an economy. Hence
statement 3 is correct.
Q 9.A
• The concept of Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) is distinct from and more
complex than, a conventional heritage site or protected area/landscape.
• A GIAHS is a living, evolving system of human communities in an intricate relationship with their
territory, cultural or agricultural landscape, or biophysical and wider social environment. Hence
• The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) leads the program Globally
Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS), which helps identify ways to mitigate threats faced by
these systems and their people and enhance the benefits derived from these dynamic systems. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
• There are three regions of India, which have been recognized as the Global Agricultural Heritage
Systems (GIAHS) cities in India: Koraput, Odisha State; Kashmir Valley, Pampore region; and
Kuttanad. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 10.B
• The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) is a
multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals. It was drafted as a result of a resolution
adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature.
• Appendices I, II, and III to the Convention are lists of species afforded different levels or types of
protection from over-exploitation.
• Appendix I lists species that are the most endangered among CITES-listed animals and plants. They
are threatened with extinction and CITES prohibits international trade in specimens of these species
except when the purpose of the import is not commercial, for instance for scientific research. In these
exceptional cases, trade may take place provided it is authorized by the granting of both an import permit
and an export permit (or re-export certificate). Article VII of the Convention provides for a number of
exemptions to this general prohibition. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Appendix II lists species that are not necessarily now threatened with extinction but that may become so
unless trade is closely controlled. International trade in specimens of Appendix-II species may be
authorized by the granting of an export permit or re-export certificate. No import permit is necessary
for these species under CITES (although a permit is needed in some countries that have taken stricter
measures than CITES requires). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Appendix III is a list of species included at the request of a Party that already regulates trade in the
species and that needs the cooperation of other countries to prevent unsustainable or illegal
exploitation. International trade in specimens of species listed in this Appendix is allowed only on
presentation of the appropriate permits or certificates. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 11.C
• Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the house before it can
transact any business. It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each housing including the
presiding officer i.e. 55 in Lok Sabha and 25 in Rajya Sabha.
• Also, it is the duty of the Presiding Officer either to adjourn the house or to suspend the meeting if there is
no quorum. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Recently, contradicting the Opposition parties’ argument for virtual meetings of standing
committees to ensure quorum during deliberations, the officials at the Rajya Sabha secretariat have
said that quorum was essential only when the committees are making decisions or adopting reports and
not during routine deliberations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 12.B
• Kangra painting is the pictorial art of Kangra, named after Kangra, Himachal Pradesh, a former
princely state, which patronized the art. It became prevalent with the fading of the Basohli school of
painting in the mid-18th century, and soon produced such a magnitude in paintings both in content as well
as volume, that the Pahari painting school, came to be known as Kangra paintings.
• In the middle of the 18th century A.D. when the plains of Northern India were convulsed by the invasion
of Nadir Shah (1739), followed by the incursions of Ahmad Shah Abdah, a strange event took place in the
Punjab hills viz. the birth of the Kangra School of Painting at Haripur-Guler under the patronage of
Raja Govardhan Chand (1744-1773), a prince with a refined taste and passion for painting. Hence
• The Kangra painters made use of pure colors like yellow, red, and blue, and these have retained their
brilliance, even after two hundred years. The source of inspiration for Kangra paintings was the
Vaishnavite tradition. The central theme of Kangra painting is life and its sentiments are expressed in a
lyrical style full of rhythm, grace, and beauty. The recurring theme of Kangra painting whether it portrays
one of the six seasons or modes of music, Radha and Krishana or Siva and Parvati is the love of man
for woman and of woman for man. Hence statement 1 is correct
• Bani Thani is an Indian painting in the Kishangarh school of paintings, painted by Nihal Chand. It
has been labeled as India's "Mona Lisa". Hence statement 3 is not correct
Q 13.B
• There has been a global rise of shadow entrepreneurship, in various sectors such as education
(certificates), finance (for easy loans), the betting economy (online games), and healthcare (e-
pharmacies). Shadow entrepreneurs are individuals who manage a business that sells legitimate
goods and services but they do not register their businesses. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• This means that they do not pay tax, operating in a shadow economy where business activities are
performed outside the reach of government authorities. Types of businesses include unlicensed taxicab
services, roadside food stalls, and small landscaping operations.
Q 14.B
• PGS-India (Participatory Guarantee System of India) under the Department of Agriculture,
Cooperation & Farmers Welfare, Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is basically a
farmer group-centric organic guarantee system.
• The Farmers also integrate all producers, processors, handlers, and traders to complete the value chain
from farm to fork. It is based on a shared vision, participatory approach, transparency, and trust.
• The system's strength lies in its capability of linking all the stakeholders through uniform national
standards and uniform implementation strategies across the country.
• It is achieved through various facilitating agencies, regional councils, zonal councils, PGS-India
secretariat at the National Centre of Organic Farming, and the National Advisory Committee as apex
implementation and controlling authority common authority.
Q 15.B
• The Manav Dharma Sabha was a major socio-cultural reform established by Mehtaji Durgaram
Manchharam on 22nd June 1844.
o It proved to be a roadmap for all other reforms in Surat and especially in the state of Gujarat.
Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Since the second decade of the seventeenth century, Surat was under British Governance and
witnessed a row of tensions, especially after the start of western education and missionaries in the
state.
o Mehtaji was appointed as the headmaster of the Government School in Surat in 1830 and he took the
position of headmaster in the Surat English School when it was opened four years later. Thus, the
small educated class in Gujarat became an iconic figure and the group as a whole started to condemn
the trend of contemporary society in Gujarat.
o Other prominent members of the group were Dadoba Panderung Tarkhad, Dinmani Shankar,
Dalpatram Bhagubai, and Damodar Das.
o The main cause behind the foundation of the Sabha was the fire against the conversion of a
Parsi student to Christianity.
• The Social Service League established in 1911 in Bombay has completed 108 years of noble service
to the working-class people of Mumbai on 19th March, 2019. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.
o The establishment of the League was the culmination of a thought process among intellectuals of
those times coming from various strata of society, overwhelmed by extreme poverty and ignorance
among the working-class people of Mumbai at the beginning of the 20th century.
o It was founded by N.M. Joshi
• Women’s India Association (WIA) was founded in Madras on May 7, 1917, by women's rights
activists such as Annie Besant, Margaret Cousins, Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy, Sister Subbalaskmi, and
Sarojini Naidu, who referred to themselves as the "daughters of India", the mission of the association to
empower women hasn't changed over the years. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o In the early 20th century, WIA battled against social evils - which ranged from a lack of education for
girls, child marriage, and the denial of voting rights.
o The WIA took an active part in the political movements of the time. In 1917, for instance, when
Besant was arrested and interned, branches of the WIA took an active part in obtaining her release.
o The WIA also published a monthly journal in English named 'Stri-Dharma', which was edited by
freedom fighter Muthulakshmi Reddy from 1931 to 1940.
o WIA was the first women's association in India to present a memorandum to the Round Table
Conference on Women's Franchise and her Constitutional rights as well as the initiator of the
first All Asian Women's Conference.
o From a single branch that fought to make its voice heard, the WIA today has more than 40 branches
and affiliations, 9000 members, and looks after the welfare of more than 5000 women.
Q 16.D
• Statement 1 is not correct: It is hosted by the COP26 Presidency and supported by the Tropical Forest
Alliance (TFA), to accelerate the transition towards more sustainable land-use practices in a way that
opens up new opportunities for investment, jobs, and livelihoods in forests, land use, and agriculture, and
to ensure that the economies which have a sustainable relationship with forests are the ones that thrive and
grow.
• Statement 2 is not correct: It is supported by 28 countries (including forest-rich tropical countries like
Brazil and Indonesia), that seek to encourage “sustainable development and trade of agricultural
commodities while protecting and managing sustainably forests and other critical ecosystems. However,
India is not part of the dialogue on Forests, Agriculture, and Commodity Trade (FACT).
Q 17.B
• What is the LHC?
o The LHC is a particle accelerator that pushes protons or ions to near the speed of light. It
consists of a 27-kilometer ring of superconducting magnets with a number of accelerating structures
that boost the energy of the particles along the way. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement
2 is correct.
o The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) is the most powerful particle accelerator ever built. The accelerator
sits in a tunnel 100 meters underground at CERN, the European Organization for Nuclear Research,
on the Franco-Swiss border near Geneva, Switzerland
• How does the LHC work?
o The CERN accelerator complex is a succession of machines with increasingly higher energies.
Each machine accelerates a beam of particles to give energy before injecting the beam into the
next machine in the chain. This next machine brings the beam to even higher energy and so on. The
LHC is the last element of this chain, in which the beams reach their highest energies.
• What are the detectors at the LHC?
o There are seven experiments installed at the LHC: ALICE, ATLAS, CMS, LHCb, LHCf,
TOTEM, and MoEDAL. They use detectors to analyze the myriad of particles produced by
collisions in the accelerator. These experiments are run by collaborations of scientists from institutes
all over the world. Each experiment is distinct and characterized by its detectors.
Q 18.A
• Goods are classifiable in various ways. There are goods that we must consume even if our income is zero
and there are goods that would consume only if we are sufficiently rich. The former is known as
necessaries or necessities and the latter ones, are luxuries. They are generally not substitutes for each
other. Of the necessities, some are normal while others are ‘inferior’. With improvement in income,
consumption of certain goods is substituted by that of others. As we move higher on the income ladder,
we substitute local fruits with exotic ones and local flowers with imported ones. This classification is
based on income.
• The Law of demand holds that the relationship between change in price and change in quantity is
inverse. This holds true for normal goods. Sometimes, it is found that both price and quantity change is
in the same direction. Actually, people consuming such goods are not rich. These goods are called Giffen
goods. Similarly, Thorstein Veblen observed that high prices attract certain rich people to demand
those goods as their possession gives them distinction or exclusivity. He called such consumption
‘conspicuous consumption. Such goods are referred to as Veblen goods. This classification is based
on prices.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 19.A
• Co-location facilities are certain dedicated spaces in the NSE building and are extremely close to the
dedicated exchange servers where algo and high-frequency traders can deploy their programs or systems.
o Because the co-location facilities are so close to the stock exchange computers, traders who use them
have an advantage over other traders because of the reduced time taken for order execution. However,
institutional investors and brokers mostly employ co-location for their proprietary traders.
• Co-location allows brokers to operate closer to their servers upon payment of additional fees. A co-
location facility provides infrastructure such as power supply, bandwidth, and cooling for setting up
servers and storage of data. It helps brokers secure an advantage over others due to proximity to exchange
servers as data transmission takes less time. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The co-location is mainly used only by institutional investors and brokers for their proprietary
traders. Retail investors have a negligible presence here. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 20.A
• State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market
borrowings requirements. The SDLs are similar to the dated securities issued by the central government.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The SDL securities issued by states are credible collateral for meeting the SLR requirements of banks as
well as collateral for availing liquidity under the RBI’s LAF including the repo. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• One remarkable feature of SDL is that it is a market-oriented instrument for states to mobilize funds from
the open market. The higher the fiscal strength of a state, the lower will be the interest rate (yield) it has to
pay for the SDL borrowings.
• The rate of interest or yield of SDL securities is determined through auction. Still, the interest rate
will be slightly higher than that of Central Government securities (G-secs) of matching tenure. Hence,
• RBI facilitates the issue of State Development Loans securities in the market. SDL securities are
considered superior to loans mobilized or bonds issued by state government entities. The RBI as the
facilitator of the issue of SDLs has the power to make repayments to SDLs out of the central government
allocation to states.
• SDLs are basically securities and they are auctioned by the RBI through e-Kuber which is a dedicated
electronic auction system for government securities and other instruments. RBI holds SDL auctions once
a fortnight.
Q 21.C
• Sambar deer:
o With the grandest of antlers, the Sambar deer is India’s largest forest ruminant, with a dark brown
coat. They are found throughout India, except in the high Himalayas, deserts, kutch, and the coast.
Their habitat ranges from dry to moist deciduous forests, scrublands to wetlands, tropical evergreen
forests, to pine and oak forests. Sambar deer prefer moist habitats but are easily adaptable to dry
areas. This mighty creature is highly territorial and is often seen fighting for its land.
o Both males and females have a sore spot on the neck which is a gland that is associated with
communication during the rut/mating. Males live a solitary life and are occasionally spotted
associating with each other, mostly in the rutting season.
o Best seen: Since they are shy, they often run when they are near human-dominated areas, but
few places like Satpura National Park, Kanha National Park, and Kaziranga National Park give
a good chance to spot this big species.
• Hangul:
o One of the iconic species, Hangul is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir and is now classified as
a critically endangered species by IUCN. A shabby-looking deer with a brown coat and orange-
white patch at the rump, Kashmir Red Deer is considered as important as the tiger, in the mountains.
They blend very well with the surroundings, as their color varies from season to season, and their
movement becomes migratory with the change in season.
o These grimy-looking deer have fine-tuned antlers and are known to roar during the rutting season.
Hangul is territorial and likes to move around and guard its territory. As the population of the hinds is
more as compared to stags, the rutting takes place rarely.
o Best Seen: Their habitat differs from the moist, broadleaved, and coniferous forest and is
restricted to Dachigam National Park, Waraghat-Narang, and Chandaji Nullah in Jammu-
Kashmir.
• Brow-antlered deer:
o Also known as the Dancing Deer, this comely looking deer has a very delicate walking pattern, as it
hops on the carpet of the grass. Having 2 to 10 tined antlers makes this deer the most extravagant
species in the Indian forest. This graceful creature is reddish-brown in color and becomes paler with
the onset of winters.
o Often leaving the herd behind, the stags live a solitary life and only appear during the rutting
season. Locally known as Thamin, it inhabits open flat grasslands, and floating vegetation, and
avoids forests.
o Best Seen: In India, their population is restricted to Keibul National Park and Loktak late of
Manipur.
• Swamp deer or Barasinga:
o Swamp Deers have a proud story to tell of the Indian forests, as these magnificent species were
brought back from the brink of extinction.
o There are three different species of Barasingha found in the Indian Subcontinent. One is the Wetland
Barasingha, the largest of all the subspecies and is found in Nepal and Terai region. Then comes
the Hard-ground Barasingha which is restricted to Central India and the third one is the Eastern
Barasingha or the Soft-ground Barasingha, the smallest of all the Barasingha which are only found in
the northeast region of Assam.
o They inhabit tall grasslands, reed beds of the large river, and alluvial grasslands with swamps, and dry
grasslands, bordered by sal forest.
o Best Seen: Quite vulnerable to poaching, as their area is restricted to grasslands, but few places
like Kanha National Park, Satpura National Park, Dudhwa National Park, Kaziranga National
Park, and Manas National Park give a good chance to spot these incredible species.
• Hog Deer
o A medium-sized grassland ruminant species that is widely distributed through the plains of Indus
River, Ganga, and a few of its tributaries, from Punjab to Assam and Arunachal Pradesh in the
North-East.
o Indian hog deer inhabits wet, tall grassland with alluvial soil on the edges of the forest, swamp, or
riverine areas and avoids dense forest. This solitary creature is always resting and foraging mostly at
night.
o Best Seen: The best places to spot these elusive species are Keibul Lamjao National Park,
Kaziranga National Park, and Manas National Park.
o Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 22.C
• The Shola forests of South India derive their name from the Tamil word solai, which means a ‘tropical
rain forest’. But these forests are Classified as ‘Montane Wet Temperate Forest’ because of the role of
frost in this type of vegetation. The Sholas are found in the upper reaches of the Nilgiris, Anamalais,
Palni hills, Kalakadu, Mundanthurai, and Kanyakumari in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
• These forests are found sheltered in valleys with sufficient moisture and proper drainage, at an
altitude of more than 1,500 meters. The upper reaches are covered with grasslands, known as Shola
grasslands.
• The occurrence of Himalayan plants like rhododendron in these Shola forests is a mystery. Sholas
play a major role in conserving the water supply of the Nilgiris’ streams. The Sholas of the plateau
are not of any great importance from a commercial point of view, as the trees are slow-growing varieties
that produce timber of little or no value and probably take at least a century to mature. But they add
greatly to the beauty of the country and are of immense use in protecting the source of water
supply. Sholas thus act as ‘overhead water tanks.
• The rain received from the Southwest and Northeast monsoons is harvested by the Shola forest-
grassland ecosystem, leading to the formation of the Bhavani river that finally drains into the
Cauvery. Thus, the Shola forest-grassland ecosystem of the Nilgiris also supports the prosperity of
Cauvery delta farmers.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 23.B
• Fold mountains are formed due to convergence between two continental plates (Himalayas) or between an
oceanic and a continental plate (Rockies).
• In Continent – Continent (C-C) convergence, oceanic sediments are squeezed and upthrust between the
plates, and these squeezed sediments appear as fold mountains along the plate margins. Examples: The
Himalayas, Alps, Urals, Appalachians, Rockies, and the Atlas mountains.
• In Continent– Ocean (C-O) convergence, the continental volcanic arc formed along the continental plate
margin is compressed and is uplifted by the colliding oceanic plate giving rise to fold mountains along the
continental plate margin.
Q 24.B
• In nature 'an aggregation of populations of different species (plant and/or animals) in an area, living
together with mutual tolerance and beneficial interactions amongst themselves and with their
environment, form a biotic community. Communities in most instances are named after the dominant
plant form species. A grassland, for example, is dominated by grasses, though it may contain herbs,
shrubs, and trees, along with associated animals of different species.
• On the basis of size and degree of relative independence communities may be divided into two types:
• Major Community: These are large-sized, well organized, and relatively independent. They depend only
on the sun's energy from outside and are independent of the inputs and outputs from adjacent
communities. Tropical evergreen forest in the North-East of India is a good example of a major
community. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Minor Communities: These are dependent on neighboring communities and are often called
societies. They are secondary aggregations within a major community and are not therefore completely
independent units as far as energy and nutrient dynamics are concerned. A cow dung pad would be a good
example of such a community. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Climax Communities: An ecological community in which populations of plants or animals remain stable
and exist in balance with each other and their environment. A climax community is the final stage of
succession, remaining relatively unchanged until destroyed by an event such as fire or human interference.
• Pioneer Communities: It is the first biotic community that develops in a bare area.
consists of fewer small-sized organisms. The area is hostile to this type of community. It develops soil.
The life span of organisms is small and growth is fast.
Q 25.B
• Buffer stock refers to a reserve of a commodity that is used to offset price fluctuations and unforeseen
emergencies. Buffer stock is generally maintained for essential commodities and necessities like
foodgrains, pulses, etc. For creating the buffer stock, the domestic procurement operations will be
undertaken by the Central Agencies namely:
o Food Corporation of India (FCI)
o National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED)
o Small Farmers’ Agribusiness Consortium (SFAC)
o Any other agency as decided by PSFMC.
• Hence only options 1 and 3 are correct.
• Stocks are procured at the prevailing market prices if the market prices are above Minimum Support
Prices (MSP), and at MSP, if otherwise. In addition, State Governments may also be authorized, wherever

possible, to undertake the procurement in a manner similar to a decentralized procurement of food grains.
Price Stabilization Fund Management Committee (PSFMC) is headed by the Secretary, of Consumer
Affairs. It manages the Price Stabilization Fund.
• Farmers Producers Organisations and APEDA are not involved in buffer stocking.
Q 26.D
• An adaptation in nature is acquired through evolution and conveys some type of advantage that help a
species to pass its genetic material along to another generation. It typically takes one of three forms:
structural, physiological, or behavioral.
• Structural Adaptations: A structural adaptation is a change involving a physical aspect of an organism.
The physical change is often related to a change in the organism's physical environment. For example, an
ecosystem suddenly becoming forested might cause the animals living there to develop suction pads or
climbing claws, which would convey a distinct advantage over species that did not change. Other
examples of structural changes include developing wings for flight, fins for swimming, or powerful
legs for jumping.
• Behavioral Adaptations: A behavioral adaptation is a change affecting the way an organism naturally
acts. This type of adaption could be caused by a change in the surrounding environment or the actions of
another species. For example, predatory animals might start hunting in packs, giving them an evolutionary
advantage over solo hunters. In addition to changes in a predatory strategy, examples of behavioral
adaptations include changes in social patterns, communication methods, feeding habits, and
reproductive strategy.
• Physiological Adaptation: Physiological adaptations are similar to structural adaptations in the sense that
they involve a physical change to the species. However, physiological adaptations aren't always seen in an
organism's appearance. This type of adaptation may be driven by either a change in the environment or
the behavior of another species. For example, a species living in water that suddenly becomes more acidic
might adapt by slowly shifting its own body chemistry. Other examples of physiological adaptations
include developing greater intelligence and improving the senses.
• When where two or more species are symbiotically bound to each other for survival, it is a case of co-
adaptions.
• Hence all pairs are correctly matched.
Q 27.C
• The concept of a special category status was first introduced in 1969 when the fifth Finance Commission
sought to provide certain disadvantaged states with preferential treatment in the form of central assistance
and tax breaks, establishing special development boards, reservations in local government jobs, and
educational institutions, etc.
• Benefits states confer with special category status:
o The central government bears 90 percent of the state expenditure on all centrally-sponsored
schemes and external aid while the rest 10 percent is given as a loan to the state at a zero
percent rate of interest. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Preferential treatment in getting central funds.
o Concession on excise duty to attract industries to the state.
o 30 percent of the Centre's gross budget also goes to special category states.
o These states can avail the benefit of debt-swapping and debt relief schemes.
o States with special category status are exempted from customs duty, corporate tax, income tax
and other taxes to attract investment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Special category states have the facility that if they have unspent money in a financial year; it does not
lapse and gets carry forward for the next financial year.
• The special category status to the states in the past was granted by the National Development
Council. Since the coming up of NITI Aayog (2015) the special category status has not been given to
any states.
Q 28.A
• Mangroves are salt-tolerant (halophytes) shrubs or small trees (vary in height from 8 to 20 m) that
represent a characteristic littoral (near the seashore) forest ecosystem.
• These are mostly evergreen forests that grow in brackish waters of sheltered low-lying coasts,
estuaries, mudflats, tidal creeks, and backwaters (coastal waters held back on land), marshes, and
lagoons of tropical and subtropical regions.

• Mangroves exhibit varied morphological (shape & structure) and physiological (functions)
evolutionary adaptations to survive the limiting factors — lack of oxygen, high salinity, and diurnal
tidal inundation.
• Mangroves are confined to tropics and subtropics, occurring mainly in the intertidal regions between
latitudes 24° N and 38° S (ISFR 2019).This is because the mangroves vegetation contains a complex salt
filtration system that facilitates high water loss at the root level itself to cope with the brackish
conditions. These adaptive mechanisms are energy-intensive and require high solar radiation. This
explains why mangroves are confined to only tropical and subtropical coastal waters. Hence option (a) is
the correct answer.
• A major restriction for where mangroves can live is temperature. The cooler temperatures of northern
temperate regions prove too much for the mangroves. A fluctuation of ten degrees in a short period is
enough stress to damage the plant and freezing temperatures for even a few hours can kill some mangrove
species. However, rising temperatures and sea levels due to climate change are allowing mangroves
to expand their ranges farther away from the equator and encroach on temperate wetlands, like salt
marshes.
Q 29.D
• Mercury is a toxic heavy metal that cycles through the atmosphere, water, and soil in various forms to
different parts of the world.
• Its sources include coal-fired power plants, coal-fired industrial boilers, certain non-ferrous metals
production operations, waste incineration, and cement production.
• Mercury is used in mercury use in certain products such as batteries, switches, lights, cosmetics,
pesticides and measuring devices, and dental amalgam.
• It is used in the manufacturing processes such as Chlor-alkali production, vinyl chloride monomer
production, and acetaldehyde production.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 30.D
• A central bank balance sheet is a reflection of its various functions, particularly its role as a monetary
authority and as a banker to the Government and banks. The structure of assets and liabilities of the
Reserve Bank is, more or less, in line with the balance sheet followed by most central banks.
• Liabilities of Reserve Bank include:
o Notes Issued: The currency notes issued by the Reserve Bank are the Reserve Bank’s liability and
this constitutes the liabilities of the Issue Department. Total notes issued are the sum of Notes in
circulation and Notes held in the Banking Department of the Bank.
o Deposits: These represent the cash balances maintained with the Reserve Bank by the Central
and State Governments, banks, all Indian financial institutions, such as Export-Import Bank (EXIM
Bank) and NABARD, foreign central banks, international financial institutions, and the balance in
different accounts relating to the Employees’ Provident Fund, Gratuity and Superannuation Funds.
▪ Market Stabilisation Scheme: Under the Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS), the Government
issues securities specifically for the purpose of sterilization operations. The issuances of
Government paper under the MSS are undertaken to absorb rupee liquidity created by capital
flows of an enduring nature. In order to neutralize the monetary and budgetary impact of this
particular instrument, the proceeds under the MSS were parked in a separate deposit account
maintained by the Government with the Reserve Bank which was used only for the purpose
of redemption and/or buyback of paper issued under the MSS.
o Other Liabilities: Other liabilities of the Reserve Bank include internal reserves and provisions of the
Reserve Bank such as Currency and Gold Revaluation Account (CGRA), Exchange Equalisation
Account (EEA), Contingency Reserve, and Asset Development Reserve. Contingency Reserve
represents the amount set aside on a year-to-year basis for meeting unexpected and unforeseen
contingencies including depreciation in value of securities, exchange guarantees, and risks arising out
of monetary/exchange rate policy compulsions. These liabilities are also called non-monetary
liabilities of the Reserve Bank.
• Assets of Reserve Bank include:
o Foreign Currency Assets: India's Foreign Exchange Reserves comprise Foreign Currency Assets,
Gold, SDR, and Reserve Bank position with International Monetary Fund (IMF). Foreign currency
assets include investments in US Treasury bonds, Bonds/Treasury Bills of other selected
governments, deposits with foreign central banks, foreign commercial banks, etc.

o Gold Coin Bullion: Gold coin bullion represents the gold coin bullion of the Issue Department and
Banking Department. The gold reserves of the Issue Department and Banking Department are valued
at a value close to international market prices on a monthly basis.
o Rupee Securities: Rupee securities (including treasury bills) include the government securities
held by the Issue and Banking departments. In Issue Department, rupee securities along with rupee
securities include government securities of that 'foreign country maturing within ten years of Issue
Department plus investment in government securities of Banking Department. Hence, option (d) is
the correct answer.
o Loans and Advances: The Reserve Bank gives loans and advances to the Central & State
Governments, commercial and co-operative banks, and others in terms of Sections 17 and 18 of the
Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Q 31.A
• Recent Context: The Kadavur hills in central Tamil Nadu’s Karur district are home to the Kadavur
Reserve Forest. The forest was in news as the district forest officer (DFO) of Karur district has recently
submitted a proposal for implementing a species recovery program to protect and improve the population
of the endangered slender loris.
• Slender loris (Loris tardigradus) is a nocturnal primate species. It usually travels from the canopy of
one tree to another. Sometimes they come down to bushes at the ground level to feed. The species is
omnivorous. The geographical distribution of Slender loris in India is limited to southern parts of
the peninsula.
• The slender loris has been listed as ‘Endangered’ by the International Union for the Conservation of
Nature. It has been brought under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 to provide the
highest level of legal protection.
• Since there is great demand for keeping these animals as pets, they are illegally smuggled. Habitat loss,
electrocution of live wires, and road accidents are other threats that have caused its populations to
dwindle.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 32.B
• Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt or ‘Doldrums’ Lies between 10°N and 10°S latitudes with width may
vary between 5°N and 5°S and 20°N and 20°S.This belt happens to be the zone of convergence of
trade winds from two hemispheres from subtropical high-pressure belts. This belt is also called
the Doldrums, because of the extremely calm air movements.
• The position of the belt varies with the apparent movement of the Sun. The belt is characterized by
extremely low pressure with calm conditions. This is because of the absence of Surface winds since
winds approaching this belt to begin to rise near its margin. Thus, only vertical currents are found.
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• As the larger part of the low-pressure belt passes along the oceans, the winds obtain a huge amount of
moisture. Vertical winds (convection) carrying moisture form cumulonimbus clouds and lead to
thunderstorms (convectional rainfall).
• Sub-Tropical High-Pressure Belt (Horse Latitudes) is frequently invaded by tropical and extra-
tropical disturbances.
Q 33.D
• National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) is a not-for-profit public limited company incorporated
on July 31, 2008, under section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956 (corresponding to section 8 of the
Companies Act, 2013). NSDC was set up by the Ministry of Finance as Public-Private Partnership (PPP)
model. The Government of India through the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE)
holds 49% of the share capital of NSDC, while the private sector has a balance of 51% of the share
capital. Hence statements 1 and 3 are not correct.
• NSDC aims to promote skill development by catalyzing the creation of large, quality, and for-profit
vocational institutions. Further, the organization provides funding to build scalable and profitable
vocational training initiatives. Its mandate is also to enable a support system that focuses on quality
assurance, and information systems and train the trainer academies either directly or through partnerships.
• NSDC acts as a catalyst in skill development by providing funding to enterprises, companies, and
organizations that provide skill training. It also develops appropriate models to enhance, support, and
coordinate private sector initiatives. The differentiated focus on 37 sectors under NSDC’s purview and

its understanding of their viability will make every sector attractive to private investment. Hence
Q 34.B
• Ibrahim Adil Shah II, who ruled the central Indian kingdom of Bijapur in modern Karnataka, was an
erudite scholar, lute player, poet, singer, calligrapher, chess master, and aesthete. Since he came to the
throne in 1580, he oversaw a remarkable explosion of artistic activity, attracting to his court the greatest
painters and poets of his day, from as far afield as Abyssinia, Turkey, and Central Asia. These included
Zuhuri, the Persian poet-laureate, who he lured all the way from Isfahan, and one of the most celebrated
artists of the Mughal court, Farrukh Husain, who traveled to Bijapur from Shiraz, via the courts of Kabul
and Agra. But an itinerant Dutch Mannerist painter named Cornelis Claesz de Heda who arrived at
his court in 1608 was certainly Ibrahim’s most exotic catch. As soon as word reached court that a
European painter had crossed the border from Goa, Ibrahim summoned him straight to his
capital. He gave Cornelis the title Nadir-uz-Zaman (the Most Excellent of the Age), which made him ‘the
Third Counsel of the King’.
• In his book of songs and poems, called the Kitab-i-Nauras, Ibrahim wrote the book in Dakhani
Urdu, which is a form of Hindustani language used in the era, to shower equal praise upon
Sarasvati, the Hindu Goddess of learning, the Prophet Muhammed, and the Sufi saint Gesudaraz of
Gulbarga. Hence option (b) is the correct answer
Q 35.B
• In south India, the Nagaswaram is regarded as exceedingly auspicious. It is accompanied by the
percussion instrument thavil and, on occasion, a wind instrument called ottu, which creates the
background tone. It is used extensively in many Hindu weddings and even temples and is said to be one of
the loudest non-brass acoustic instruments in the world.
• The Seven finger holes and five holes at the bottom of the nadaswaram can be plugged to change the
tone. It has a two-and-a-half-octave range comparable to that of the Bansuri of North India. The
nadaswaram, on the other hand, is thought to be more suited for outdoor concerts due to its great volume.
• The Narasingapettai Nagaswaram has earned the Geographical indication (GI) tag, the unique feature of
these nagaswarams is their production process and they are handmade.
Q 36.D
• According to Article 89(2), the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) shall choose a member of the Council to
be the Deputy Chairman. Therefore, the office of the deputy chairman is provided by the Constitution.
• According to Article 93 of the Constitution, the House of the People (Lok Sabha) shall choose two
members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker. Therefore, the office of the
deputy speaker is also a constitutional office. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• As per Article 90(c), the deputy chairman may be removed from his office by a resolution of the
Council passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council. Such a resolution shall not be
moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Therefore, a simple majority is required to pass the resolution in the Lok Sabha. Hence statement 2 is not
correct.
• Also, Article 94(c) states that the deputy speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from his office by a
resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House. Such a
resolution shall not be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move
the resolution.
Q 37.C
• The ExoMars program comprises two missions: the first – the Trace Gas Orbiter – launched in 2016 while
the second, comprising a rover and surface platform, is awaiting confirmation for launch. Together they
will address the question of whether life ever existed on Mars and will demonstrate key technologies for
entry, descent, landing, drilling, and roving on the Martian surface.
• A European rover, Rosalind Franklin, is part of the ExoMars program that will explore the surface of
Mars. ExoMars is a joint program of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Russian space agency
Roscosmos. The rover will be the first mission to combine the capability to move across the surface
and to study Mars at depth. Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
• The ExoMars Program's scientific objectives are to:
o Search for signs of past and present life on Mars
o Investigate the water/geochemical environment as a function of depth in the shallow
subsurface.
o Investigate Martian atmospheric trace gases and their sources
o Investigate and solve scientific problems within the composition of Mars Surface's long-living
stationary platform.
Q 38.C
• The Rand Murder at Poona, 1897:
o It is considered the first political murder of Europeans that was committed at Poona on 22 June
1897 by the Chapekar brothers (Chitpavan Brahmins) Damodar and Balkrishna. The target of
the attack was Mr. Rand, President of the Plague Committee at Poona, but Lt. Ayerst was shot
accidentally.
o The provocation was the tyranny of the Plague Committee on sending soldiers to inspect houses of
civilians for plaque-afflicted persons.
o Tilak in his newspaper Mahratta had written "Plague is more merciful to us than its human prototypes
now reigning in the city". The Chapekar brothers were caught, convicted, and hanged. The authorities
also implicated Tilak and prosecuted him for seditious writings against the British Government;
• Krishnavarma, a native of Kathiawar in Western India, had studied at Cambridge University and
qualified for the Bar. In 1905 Krishnavarma set up the India Home Rule Society popularly known as
the India House. He also published a monthly journal, The Indian Sociologist to espouse Indian causes.
He also instituted six fellowships of Rs. 1,000 each for qualified Indians visiting foreign countries.
o Very soon the India House became a center of Indian activities in London. A group of Indian
revolutionaries including V.D. Savarkar, Hardayal, and Madan Lal Dhingra became members of
the India House.
o In 1909 Madan Lal Dhingra shot dead Col. William Curzon Wyllie, political A.D.C. to the India
office.
o The British authorities were swung into action. Madan Lal was hanged. Savarkar was arrested and
deported to India where he was sentenced to transportation for life. Shyamji left London and settled in
Paris. Thus the activities of the India House in London had to be wound up.
• Lala Hardayal, an intellectual giant and a fire-brand revolutionary from the Panjab, was the moving
spirit behind the organization of the Ghadr Party in November 1913 in San Francisco in the U.S.A. He
was actively assisted by Ram Chandra and Barkatulla. The party also published a weekly paper, the
Ghadr (Rebellion) in commemoration of the Mutiny of 1857.
• The Komagata Maru case created an explosive situation in Punjab. Baba Gurdit Singh chartered a
Japanese ship Komagata Mar for Vancouver and sought to carry 351 Sikhs and 21 Panjabi Muslims to
that town. The Canadian authorities refused permission for the ship to land and the ship returned to Budge
Budge, Calcutta on 27 September 1914.
• The Prevention of Seditious Meetings Act of 1907 and 1911 were enacted before the Ghadar
Movement and the Komagata Maru incident. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• Known as the ‘Grand Old Man of India’, Dadabhai Naoroji became a well-known public figure, gaining
the support of Florence Nightingale and suffrage campaigners. In 1892 he was eventually elected as the
Liberal candidate for the strongly working-class marginal seat of Central Finsbury in the Clerkenwell and
joined Gladstone’s government. Naoroji was the first Asian to be a British MP.
Q 39.C
• The Global Resilience Index Initiative (GRII) was formed in late 2020 at the request of Mark
Carney, UN Special Envoy on Climate Action and Finance to the Insurance Development Forum
(IDF) to step forward and help enable open access to reference information for climate risk measurement
and disclosure and to support the growth of resilient economies and societies.
• GRII preparation was led by a task force of six organizations convened by the IDF under the Special
Envoy’s mandate: the Coalition for Climate Resilient Investment; Coalition for Disaster Resilient
Infrastructure; GEM Foundation; UK Centre for Greening Finance and Investment and the United Nations
Office for Disaster Risk Reduction. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The GRII now embraces a growing coalition of supporting organizations.
• It was launched during the UNFCCC Conference of Parties (CoP) 26, it will be the world’s first
curated, open-source reference index. It has been launched to build a universal model for assessing
resilience to climate risks. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
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• It will provide reference data on climate and natural hazard risks to inform and protect populations
and economies, particularly in emerging and developing countries, form a basis for mobilizing the
trillions of investments needed to meet the Paris goals on climate-resilient development.
• It can be used in aggregated risk management across sectors and geographies.
• The coalition wants to achieve two immediate goals:
o First, they want to provide global open reference risk data developed using insurance risk modeling
principles.
o Second, they want to provide shared standards and facilities applicable to a wide range of uses:
▪ Corporate climate risk disclosure.
▪ National adaptation planning and reporting.
▪ Planning of pre-arranged humanitarian finance.
Q 40.D
• Indian grey mongooses are opportunistic hunters feeding mainly on mice, rats, lizards, snakes, and
beetles. Ground birds, their eggs, and parts of plants: fruits, berries, and roots have become a part
of their omnivore diet. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• It occupies the coastal areas from Arabia to Nepal and downward through Pakistan, India, and Srilanka. It
lives in crevices in rocks or burrows dug by other animals. It is extremely beneficial to farmers because it
helps in weeding out the pest population in fields and saves crops. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is listed as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List.
• All mongoose species found in India are protected under Schedule II (Part II) of the Indian Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, which prohibits all trade of animals listed in it. Violation may lead to
imprisonment of up to seven years and/or a hefty fine. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The species are also covered under the CITES Appendix iii, to prevent unsustainable and illegal
exploitation.
• Brushes made of mongoose hair are in great demand in several countries and are often smuggled to the
US, the Middle East, and European countries which threaten their population according to reports by
TRAFFIC.
Q 41.C
• Primary and secondary succession both create a continually changing mix of species within communities
as disturbances of different intensities, sizes, and frequencies alter the landscape. The sequential
progression of species during succession, however, is not random. At every stage, certain species have
evolved life histories to exploit the particular conditions of the community. Initially, only a small number
of species from surrounding habitats are capable of thriving in a disturbed habitat.
• Statement 1 is correct: Gradations in environmental factors such as light, temperature, or water are
responsible for this fractionation. As new plant species take hold, they modify the habitat by altering such
things as the amount of shade on the ground or the mineral composition of the soil.
• Statement 2 is correct: Community structure can become stratified both vertically and horizontally
during the process of succession as species become adapted to their habitat.
o The vertical stratification that occurs within forests results from the varying degrees of light that the
different strata receive: the taller the plant and the more foliage it produces, the more light it can
intercept. Three or more vertical strata of plants—an herb layer, a shrub layer, a small tree layer, and a
canopy tree layer—often are found in a forest.
o Horizontal patterns among species also can emerge from gradients in the physical environment.
Differences in the amount of water or nutrients over a region can affect the distribution of animal and
plant species. On a mountain, plant and animal species vary at different elevations as well as among
the north, south, east, and west slopes.
Q 42.A
• Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the average change in the price of goods and services either as they
leave the place of production, called output PPI or as they enter the production process, called input
PPI. PPI estimates the change in average prices that a producer receives. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• Producer Price Index (PPI)Vs Wholesale Price Index (WPI). PPI is different from WPI on the following
grounds:
o WPI captures the price changes at the point of bulk transactions and may include some taxes levied
and distribution costs up to the stage of wholesale transactions. PPI measures the average change in
prices received by the producer and excludes indirect taxes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
o The weight of an item in WPI is based on net traded value whereas in PPI weights are derived from
the Supply Use Table.
o PPI removes the multiple counting bias inherent in WPI.
o WPI does not cover services and whereas PPI includes services.
• PPI is different from CPI on the following grounds:
o PPI estimates the change in average prices that a producer receives while CPI measures the change in
average prices that a consumer pays. The prices received by the producers differ from the prices paid
by the consumers on account of various factors such as taxes, trade, transport margin, distribution
cost, etc.
o Weights of items in CPI are derived from Consumer Expenditure Surveys whereas for PPI it is
calculated based on Supply Use tables.
Q 43.C
• United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has released its Annual Frontiers Report named
Noise, Blazes, and Mismatches. The document has been released 10 days ahead of the UN Environment
Assembly. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• The Frontiers report identifies and offers solutions to three environmental issues:
o urban noise pollution
o wildfires and phenological shifts that merit attention and
o action from governments and the public at large to address the triple planetary crisis of climate
change, pollution and biodiversity loss.
• Major Reports of UNEP:
o Emission Gap Report
o Adaptation Gap Report
o Global Environment Outlook
o Invest into Healthy Planet
Q 44.B
• Recent Context: The Home Ministry has constituted a panel to suggest reforms on “offenses relating to
speech and expression”.
• As there is no clear definition of what constitutes “hate speech” in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), the
Committee for Reforms in Criminal Laws is attempting for the first time to define such speech. Hence
• Earlier, the Bureau of Police Research and Development had defined hate speech as “language that
denigrates insults, threatens or targets an individual based on their identity and other traits (such
as sexual orientation or disability or religion, etc.).”
• Legal Provisions of Hate Speech in India:
o Restrictions are imposed by Article 19(2) of the Constitution. But the term hate speech is not
explicitly mentioned under the constitution of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o Section 124A IPC penalizes sedition.
o Sections 153A and 153B of the IPC punish acts that cause enmity and hatred between two groups.
o Section 505(1) and (2) IPC penalize publication or circulation of any statement, rumor, or report
causing public mischief and enmity, hatred, or ill-will between classes.
o 267th Report of the Law Commission of India defines hate speech as an incitement to hatred
primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender, sexual orientation,
religious belief, and the like.
Q 45.C
• As warm tropical currents journey north, pushed by prevailing winds, they cool, become denser, and sink
in a process known as overturning.
• Statement 1 is correct: Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is related to the deep-
ocean mixing of warm, salty waters with colder, fresher waters in the eastern North Atlantic. AMOC
carries warm surface waters from the tropics towards the Northern Hemisphere, where it cools and sinks.
• Statement 2 is correct: As the climate is warming leading to warming of surface waters and melting of
sea ice more and more freshwater is being added to the oceans, and significant changes are being observed
in the AMOC. AMOC is especially influenced by the changes in the characteristics of waters east of
Greenland in the Irminger and Iceland Basins. Changes in wind circulation patterns above the Atlantic
have a lesser influence on AMOC. New concerns are arising that If the overturning slows down, the
ocean will take up less anthropogenic carbon, which would leave more anthropogenic carbon in the
atmosphere, which could trigger rapid warming.

Q 46.D
• Representation of People Act, 1950: The Representation of People Act 1950, provides for the allocation
of seats and delimitation of constituencies of the Parliament and state legislature, officers related to
conducting of elections, preparation of electoral rolls, and manner of filling seats in the Council of States
allotted to Union Territories. The details of the sections in the Representation of People Act 1950 are
as below:
o Section 3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People
o Section 4. Filling of seats in the House of the People and parliamentary constituencies
o Section 5. Parliamentary constituencies
o Section 6. Delimitation of parliamentary constituencies
o Section 7. Total number of seats in Legislative Assemblies and Assembly constituencies
o Section 7 A. Total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim and Assembly
constituencies
o Section 8. Consolidation of delimitation orders
o Section 10. Allocation of seats in the Legislative Councils
o Section 11. Delimitation of Council constituencies
o Section 13 A. Chief electoral officers
o Section 13 AA. District election officers
o Section 13 B. Electoral registration officers
o Section 13 C. Assistant electoral registration officers
o Section 13 D. Electoral rolls for parliamentary constituencies
o Section 15. The electoral roll for every constituency
o Section 16. Disqualifications for registration in an electoral roll
o Section 17. No person to be registered in more than one constituency
o Section 18. No person to be registered more than once in any constituency
o Section 20 A. Special provisions for citizens of India residing outside India
o Section 21. Preparation and revision of electoral rolls
o Section 26. Preparation of electoral rolls for Assembly constituencies
o Section 27 A. Constitution of electoral colleges for the filling of seats in the Council of States allotted
to Union territories
o Section 27 F. Electoral rolls for Council of States constituencies
o Section 27 G. Termination of membership for Electoral College for certain disqualifications
o Section 27 H. Manner of filling of seats in the Council of States allotted to Union territories
o Section 27 J. Powers of electoral colleges to elect notwithstanding vacancies therein
o Section 31. Making false declarations
o Section 32. Breach of official duty in connection with the preparation, etc., of electoral rolls.
• The Representation of People Act, 1951:It is an act enacted by the Indian provincial parliament before
the first general elections. The People’s Representation act provides for the actual conduct of elections in
India. The act also deals with details like qualification and disqualification of members of both houses of
Parliament (ie Loksabha and Rajyasabha) and the state legislatures (ie. State Legislative Assembly and
State Legislative Council). Rules for the mode of conduct of elections. It provides for the conduct of
elections of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State, the
qualifications and disqualifications for membership of those Houses, the corrupt practices and other
offenses at or in connection with such elections, and the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or
in connection with such elections. The details of the parts in the Representation of People Act 1951
are as below:
o PART I: PRELIMINARY.
o PART II: QUALIFICATIONS AND DISQUALIFICATIONS.
o PART III: NOTIFICATION OF GENERAL ELECTIONS.
o PART IV: ADMINISTRATIVE MACHINERY FOR THE CONDUCT OF ELECTIONS.
o PART IV A: REGISTRATION OF POLITICAL PARTIES.
o PART V: CONDUCT OF ELECTIONS.
o PART VA: FREE SUPPLY OF CERTAIN MATERIAL TO CANDIDATES OF RECOGNISED
POLITICAL PARTIES.
o PART VI: DISPUTES REGARDING ELECTIONS.
o PART VII: CORRUPT PRACTICES AND ELECTORAL OFFENCES. Hence only option 3 is
not correct.
o PART VIII : DISQUALIFICATIONS.
o PART IX: BYE-ELECTIONS.
o PART X: MISCELLANEOUS.
o PART XI: GENERAL.
Q 47.D
• Nirankaris:
o Baba Dayal Das (1783-1855) was the founder of this movement of purification and return. In the
1840s, he called for the return of Sikhism to its origins and emphasized the worship of God as
Nirankari (formless). Such an approach meant a rejection of idols, rituals associated with idolatry, and
the priests who conducted these rituals. Stressing the importance and authority of Guru Nanak and the
Adi Granth, he prohibited eating meat, drinking liquor, lying, cheating, using false weights,
etc. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Before his death, Dayal Das named his son, Baba Darbara Singh (1814-70), as his successor.
Determined to cut all ties with Hinduism, Darbara Singh began to issue hukamnamas (statements
describing both doctrines and approved rituals). Under him, the Nirankaris had their most rapid period
of expansion; for in fifteen years he opened forty new subcentres.
o Rattan Chand, younger brother, and successor of Darbara Singh, also established new centers
and appointed biredars (leaders) for each congregation or sangat.
o The biredars oversaw these groups and were charged with reciting the hukamnamas every fifteen
days. Thus they provided a tie between the head of the Nirankari movement and its members.
o Between 1909 and 1947, Baba Gurdit Singh, son and successor of Rattan Chand, headed the
movement.
o The Nirankaris emphasized Guru Nanak and Sikhism before the establishment of the Khalsa by
Guru Gobind Singh at Anandpur. In this, they pursued a path open to both orthodox Sikhs,
kesadharis, and the non-baptized ranks of the sahajdharis, but drew members mainly from the urban
non-Jat section of the Sikh community. Their dependence on Gum Nanak and early Sikhism for their
model of 'pure' religion separated them from another movement, the Namdharis. Hence statement 3
is not correct.
• Namdharis:
o Baba Ram Singh (1816-85) was the founder of this movement. In 1841, he became a discipline of
Balak Singh of the. Those who accepted Balak Singh's leadership saw him as a reincarnation of Guru
Gobind Singh. Before his death, Balak Singh chose Ram Singh as his successor.
o In 1857, Ram Singh formally inaugurated the Namdhari movement with a set of rituals
modeled after Guru Gobind Singh founded the Khalsa.
o To initiate followers into the new community, Ram Singh used a recitation of gurbani (hymns from
the Granth Sahib), ardas (the Sikh prayer), a flag, and baptism.
o Every baptized Sikh was required to wear the five symbols. Instead of the sword, Ram Singh
required them to keep a lathi. In addition, the Namdharis wore white clothes with a white turban and
carried a rosary to further set them apart from all others. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The Namdharis were to abandon the worship of gods, goddesses, idols, graves, tombs, trees, and
snakes. They were also told to abstain from drinking, stealing, adultery, falsehood, slandering,
backbiting and cheating. Further, the consumption of beef was strictly forbidden, since the protection
of cattle remained one of the Namdharis' most ardently held values.
Q 48.C
• An Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) study has revealed that during El Nino years,
pollutants from south Asian countries can amplify the effect of the climate cycle on the monsoon,
worsening an ongoing drought situation.
• Asian Tropopause Aerosol Layer (ATAL) covers South Asia during the monsoon season & has been
suspected to have a role in controlling the monsoon precipitation. It is formed because of the convective
transport of aerosols from the lower atmosphere to the upper troposphere & lower stratosphere
(UTLS — 12–18 km range).
• It is made up of sulfates along with black carbon, organic aerosols, nitrates & dust particles. Black
carbon aerosols in ATAL are transported from North India & East China during El Niño. Sulfate aerosols
are transported from East Asia. The increase of these pollutants in the UTLS leads to the thickening &
widening of the ATAL. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• The higher amounts of sulfate aerosols in the UTLS lead to a cooling effect over north India and the
Tibetan plateau by scattering incoming solar radiation & negatively affecting the monsoon. While the El
Niño leads to a decrease in rainfall over India, the inclusion of aerosols amplifies the decrease in rainfall
by 17% over central India.

Q 49.B
• India has a 3-stage nuclear energy program that is based on a closed nuclear fuel cycle.
o Stage-I: Natural uranium fuelled Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs).
o Stage-II: Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) utilizing plutonium-based fuel. Hence Statement 3 is not
correct.
o Stage-III: Advanced nuclear power systems for utilization of thorium.
• Stage II – Fast Breeder Reactor
o It produces more fissionable material than it consumes to generate energy. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
o In the second stage, fast breeder reactors (FBRs) would use plutonium-239, recovered by reprocessing
spent fuel from the first stage, and natural uranium.
o In FBRs, plutonium-239 undergoes fission to produce energy, while the uranium-238 present in
the fuel transmutes to additional plutonium-239. So, statement 2 is correct.
o Natural uranium contains only 0.7% of the fissile isotope uranium-235. Most of the remaining 99.3%
is uranium-238. Thus, the Stage II FBRs are designed to “breed” more fuel than they consume.
o The surplus plutonium bred in each fast reactor can be used to set up more such reactors, and might
thus grow the Indian civil nuclear power capacity till the point where the third stage reactors using
thorium as fuel can be brought online
Q 50.C
• How does a thermobaric bomb work?
o A thermobaric bomb (also called a vacuum or aerosol bomb - or fuel air explosive) consists of a
fuel container with two separate explosive charges.
o These devastating devices, which create an oxygen-eating fireball followed by a deadly
shockwave, are far more powerful than most other conventional weapons. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
o Thermobaric weapons are controversial because they are much more devastating than
conventional explosives of similar size, and have a terrible impact on anyone caught in their
blast radius. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o This can be launched like a rocket or dropped like a bomb from aircraft. When it hits its target, the
first explosive charge opens the container and widely scatters the fuel mixture as a cloud.
o This cloud can penetrate any building openings or defenses that are not totally sealed. A second
charge then detonates the cloud, resulting in a huge fireball, a massive blast wave, and a vacuum that
sucks up all surrounding oxygen. The weapon can destroy reinforced buildings, and equipment and
kill or injure people.
o They are used for a variety of purposes and come in a range of sizes - including weapons for use by
individual soldiers such as grenades and hand-held rocket launchers. Huge air-launched versions have
also been designed, specifically to kill defenders in caves and tunnel complexes - the effects of this
weapon are at their most severe in enclosed spaces.
o Thermobaric weapons are generally deployed as rockets or bombs, and they work by releasing fuel
and explosive charges. Different fuels can be used, including toxic powdered metals and organic
matter containing oxidants.
• What are the rules of war for thermobaric bombs?
o There are no international laws specifically banning their use, but if a country uses them to target
civilian populations in built-up areas, schools or hospitals, then it could be convicted of a war crime
under the Hague Conventions of 1899 and 1907. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 51.A
• The process of land revenue collection during the Mughal period has two stages: (a) assessment (tashkhis/
jama), and (b) actual collection (Hasil). The Persian term for land revenue during the period was mal and
mal wajib. An assessment was made to fix the state demand and based on this demand, actual collection
was done separately for both Kharif and rabi crops. Galla Bakhshi (crop-sharing), Kankut or Danabandi,
Zabti or Bandobast system were some of the systems prevailing for the method of calculation of land
revenue.
• Zabti or Bandobast system was the most important method of calculation of revenue that was based on a
fixed cash rate (known as dastur-ul Amal or dastur) for each crop. However, it was adopted only in
the core regions of the Empire. The main provinces covered under zabti were Delhi, Allahabad, Awadh,
Agra, Lahore, and Multan. Even in these zabti provinces, other methods of assessment were also
practised, depending on the circumstances of the area. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The origin of this practice is traced to Sher Shah. He had established a rai‘ or per bigha yield for lands
that were under continuous cultivation (polaj), or those land which very rarely allowed to lie fallow
(parauti). The rai‘ was based on three rates, representing good, middling and low yields and one-third of
the sum of these was appropriated as land revenue. Akbar introduced his so-called Karori experiment and
appointed karoris all over North India in 1574-75 by adopting Sher Shah's method. During Akbar’s reign,
the system was revised several times before it took its final shape. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• From an administrative point of view, zabti system had some merits:
o Measurement could always be rechecked.
o Due to fixed dasturs, local officials could not use their discretion.
o With fixing the permanent dasturs, the uncertainties and fluctuation in levying the land revenue
demand were greatly reduced.
• There were some limitations of this system also:
o It could not be applied if the quality of the soil was not uniform. Hence statement 3 is not
correct.
o If the yield was uncertain, this method was disadvantageous to peasants because risks were borne by
them alone. Abul Fazl says, “if the peasant does not have the strength to bear zabt, the practice of
taking a third of the crop as revenue is followed’’.
o This was an expensive method as a cess of one dam per bigha known as zabitana was given to meet
the costs towards the maintenance of the measuring party.
Q 52.B
• A niche is the unique functional role or place of a species in an ecosystem. It is a description of all the
biological, physical and chemical factors that a species needs to survive, stay healthy, and reproduce. A
niche is unique for a species, which means no two species have exact identical niches. It plays an
important role in the conservation of organisms.
• If anyone has to conserve species in its native habitat one should have knowledge about the niche
requirements of the species and should ensure that all requirements of its niche are fulfilled. There are
different types of Niches such as:
o Habitat niche – where it lives
o Food niche – what it eats or decomposes & what species it competes with
o Reproductive niche – how and when it reproduces
o Physical & chemical niche – temperature, land shape, land slope, humidity & other requirements.
Q 53.A
• C. Rajagopalachari (CR), the veteran Congress leader, prepared a formula for Congress-League
cooperation in 1944. It was a tacit acceptance of the League’s demand for Pakistan. Gandhi supported the
formula. The main points in the CR Plan were:
o Muslim League to endorse the Congress demand for independence.
o League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at the centre. Hence
o After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in North-West and North-
East India decided by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state. Hence statement
2 is not correct.
▪ Jinnah wanted Congress to accept the two-nation theory. He wanted only the Muslims of the
North-West and North-East to vote in the plebiscite and not the entire population. He also
opposed the idea of a common centre.
o In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defense, commerce,
communications, etc
o The above terms are to be operative only if England transferred full powers to India.
• While Congress was ready to cooperate with the League for the independence of the Indian Union, the
League did not care for the independence of the Union. It was only interested in a separate nation.
• Hindu leaders led by Vir Savarkar condemned the CR Plan.
Q 54.C
• Subhas Chandra Bose:
o He was born on 23rd January 1897, in Cuttack, Orissa Division, Bengal Province, to Prabhavati Dutt
Bose and Janakinath Bose.
▪ His Jayanti is celebrated as ‘Parakram Diwas’ on 23rd January.
o Education and Early Life:
▪ In 1919, he had cleared the Indian Civil Services (ICS) examination. Bose, however, resigned
later.
▪ He was highly influenced by Vivekanand’s teachings and considered him his spiritual Guru.
▪ His political Guru was Deshbandhu Chittaranjan Das.
▪ He worked as the editor for Das’s newspaper–Forward and later started his own
newspaper, Swaraj.
o Association with Congress:
▪ He stood for unqualified Swaraj (independence) and opposed the Motilal Nehru Report which
spoke for dominion status for India.
▪ He actively participated in the Salt Satyagrah of 1930 and vehemently opposed the
suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement especially when Bhagat Singh and his
associates were hanged and also opposed the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in 1931.
▪ In the 1930s, he was closely associated with left politics in Congress along with Jawaharlal
Nehru and M.N. Roy.
▪ Bose won the congress presidential elections at Haripura in 1938.
▪ Again in 1939 at Tripuri, he won the presidential elections against Gandhi's candidate Pattabhi
Sitarammayya. Due to ideological differences with Gandhi, Bose resigned and left congress.
Rajendra Prasad was appointed in his place.
▪ He founded a new party, 'the Forward Bloc'. The purpose was to consolidate the political left
and major support base in his home state Bengal.
▪ In Germany, he raised an army called Free Indian Legion. This army was comprised of the
Indian prisoners of the war detained by Germany.
o Indian National Army:
▪ He reached Japanese-controlled Singapore from Germany in July 1943, issued from there his
famous call, ‘Delhi Chalo’, and announced the formation of the Azad Hind Government and the
Indian National Army on 21st October 1943.
▪ The INA was first formed under Mohan Singh and Japanese Major Iwaichi Fujiwara and
comprised Indian prisoners of war of the British-Indian Army captured by Japan in the Malayan
(present-day Malaysia) campaign and at Singapore.
▪ The INA included both the Indian prisoners of war from Singapore and Indian civilians in South-
East Asia. It's strength grew to 50,000.
▪ The INA fought allied forces in 1944 inside the borders of India in Imphal and in Burma.
▪ In November 1945, a British move to put the INA men on trial immediately sparked massive
demonstrations all over the country.
o Death:
▪ He is said to have died in 1945 when his plane crashed in Taiwan. However, there are still many
conspiracy theories regarding his death.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 55.B
• Supervision and conduct of elections are entrusted to two constitutional authorities — the Election
Commission (EC) of India and the State Election Commissions (SECs).
• Set up in 1950, the EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the offices of the President
and Vice President of India, Parliament, and to the state Assemblies and Legislative Councils.
• The SECs, which were appointed in each state more than four decades after the EC was set up, supervise
municipal and panchayat elections. Although the two authorities have a similar mandate, they are
independent of each other and draw powers from different laws.
o SECs have nothing to do with the Representation of the People Act, which lays down the EC’s
powers. Each SEC is governed by a separate state Act. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o The provisions of Article 243K of the Constitution, which provides for the setting up of SECs,
are almost identical to those of Article 324 related to the EC. In other words, the SECs enjoy the
same status as the EC. For example, like the removal of a Chief Election Commissioner, the State
Election Commissioner can only be removed via impeachment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In 2006, the Supreme Court emphasized these two constitutional authorities enjoy the same
powers. In Kishan Singh Tomar vs Municipal Corporation of the City of Ahmedabad, the Supreme
Court directed that state governments should abide by orders of the SECs during the conduct of the
panchayat and municipal elections, just like they follow the instructions of the EC during Assembly
and Parliament polls.
• They operate independently. In fact, in a letter to all states in 1996, the EC had clarified that its chief
electoral officers, who represent the EC in each state, should not be entrusted with any work related to
the preparation of electoral rolls for municipal or panchayat polls. The EC, however, has shared its
electoral rolls with the SECs in the past. Initially, it would also lend its electronic voting machines to
SECs for municipal polls, until the latter bought their own. But this is where the cooperation ends. The
EC has no role in the actual conduct of local body elections. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 56.C
• The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent
organic pollutants (POPs).
• POPs are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for long periods, become widely distributed
geographically, accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms, and are toxic to humans and wildlife.
• The Stockholm Convention focuses on eliminating or reducing releases of POPs.
• It sets up a system for tackling additional chemicals identified as unacceptably hazardous.
• The Global Environmental Facility (GEF) is the designated interim financial mechanism for the
Stockholm Convention. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) is also responsible for supporting
developing countries and countries with economies in transition to implement the Stockholm
Convention. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It has played a leading role in the implementation of the Convention since it opened for signature in 2001.
• UNIDO’s strategic programs focus on its mandate on Inclusive and Sustainable Industrial Development,
ISID, as guided by the Sustainable Development Goal 9 on Infrastructure, Industry, and Innovation.
Q 57.B
• Kerala government has recently issued ‘dies-non’ order. As per Rule 14 (A) of Part, I of Kerala
Service Rules, the period of unauthorized absence of an officer on account of participation in a
strike shall be treated as dies-non (no work, no pay). Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
o The order said no leave of any kind will be granted to government employees unless there is a
sickness of the individual or relatives like wife, children, father, and mother.
o The order also said the district collectors, heads of departments, district police chiefs, etc. will take
action to "give protection to those not on strike and to ensure unhindered access to government offices
and institutions" and to avoid overcrowding in front of the gates of the offices.
o The government order noted that the High Court has declared the ongoing strike illegal and directed
the government to prevent employees from engaging in strikes.
• NOTE: The right to strike is a statutory right in India guaranteed under Section 22(1)(a) of the Industrial
Disputes Act, 1957.
Q 58.A
• The Charter Act of 1853 renewed the powers of the Company and allowed it to retain possession of Indian
territories “in trust for Her Majesty, her heirs and successors” not for any specified period as the
preceding Charter Acts had done but only ‘until Parliament should otherwise provide.’ Hence statement
1 is not correct.
• The Act provided that the salaries of the members of the Board of Control, its Secretary, and other officers
would be fixed by the British Government but would be paid by the Company.
• The number of the members of the Court of Directors was reduced from 24 to 18 out of which 6 were to
be nominated by the Crown.
• The Court of Directors was dispossessed of its power of patronage as services were thrown open to
competitive examinations, in which no discrimination of any kind was to be made. A committee with
Macaulay as its President was appointed in 1854 to enforce this scheme.
• The Court of Directors was empowered to constitute a new Presidency or to alter the boundaries of
the existing ones to incorporate the newly-acquired territories. This provision was made use of to create a
separate Lieutenant-Governor-ship for Punjab in 1859. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Act also empowered the Crown to appoint a Law Commission in England to examine the
reports and the drafts of the Indian Law Commission which had by then ceased to exist and
recommended legislative measures. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 59.A
• During the ancient times apart from Vedic and Dharmasastric teaching, subjects like grammar, rhetoric,
prose and verse compositions, logic, mathematics, astronomy, medicine, and astrology were taught to the
students. Ancient India has achieved phenomenal heights in the fields of metallurgy, architectural
engineering, hydraulic engineering, astronomy, mathematics, astrology, medicine, etc. in the period
between 200 BCE-1200 CE.
• Sulba/Shulva means measurement. Sulbasutras or Shulvasutras deal with geometrical constructions, a
large majority of them for the purpose of carrying out Vedic rituals at precisely constructed altars. It is
appendices to the Vedas performing the role of manuals enunciating rules for the construction of Vedic
altars, preparation of the site where Vedic sacrifices were to be carried out, etc.
o The sulbasutras also suggest how to square a circle i.e. how to construct, using only a ruler and
compass, a square the area of which is equal to that of a given circle.
• Baudhayana (500 CE) is credited with the writing of the earliest Sulbasutra or Shulvasutras. It is also
known as the Baudhayana Sulbasutra. It specifically deals with the dimensions of Vedic brick fire
altars. The rules of construction are noteworthy from the viewpoint of mathematics. They throw light on
various significant mathematical formulae, including the value of pi to a considerable degree of precision
and giving a version of the Pythagoras theorem. The sequences associated with primitive Pythagorean
triples were named Baudhayana sequences.
o Later, other authors including Apastamba, Manava, Katyayana, Satyasadha Hiranyakesin, Vadhula,
Varaha and Kathaka composed sulbasutras as well.
• Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 60.A
• Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for the Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial
body. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Its recommendations are advisory in nature and hence, not binding on the government
• According to The Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, the members of the
Commission shall render whole-time or part-time service to the Commission as the President may in each
case specify, and shall be paid such fees or salaries and such allowances as the Central Government
may determine. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 61.B
• The Rig Vedic concept of Rita refers to the order of the universe, the order of the sacrifice, and the
moral order that human beings should adhere to. Some hymns in the Rig Veda refer to Varuna and
Mitra as the guardians or furtherers of Rita.
• The Veda identifies cosmic order as Rita. Deviation from Rita in personal life and social relations
engenders the tendency toward getting more of the worldly objects than one needs or deserves. It signifies
a disjunction of man from the light that illumines his inner being and specifies the pattern of his right
relationship with a well-ordered universe. This universe represents a crucial aspect of man’s mode of
living, his being-in-the-world, as a unified plan of (The Earth), Dyau (Heaven), Amartyas (immortals),
and martyas (mortals). These four constitute a primordial community and man is an integral part of it.
This primordial community is sustained through a continuous process of exchange among them. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 62.C
• Flowers are the reproductive parts of a plant. The stamens are the male reproductive part and the pistil is
the female reproductive part.
• The flowers which contain either only the pistil or only the stamens are called unisexual flowers. The
flowers which contain both stamens and pistil are called bisexual flowers. Both the male and the female
unisexual flowers may be present in the same plant or in different plants.
• Unisexual flowers
o Coconut flowers, Papaya, Watermelon, Cucumber, Maize, Musk melon, Snake gourd, Bitter gourd.
• Bisexual flowers
o Lily, Rose, Sunflower, Tulip, Daffodil, Mustard, Brinjal, Hibiscus, Tomato, Long bean, Chille,
Country bean, Mango.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 63.D
• Joint sitting is an extraordinary mechanism provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between
the two Houses over the passage of a bill.
• A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has
been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:
o if the bill is rejected by the other House
o if the Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the bill; or
o if more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the bill by the other House
without the bill being passed by it.
• However, the provision of a joint sitting is provided only for the houses of Parliament (Article 108)
and not for state legislatures.
• President can summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting for the purpose of deliberating and voting
on the bill.
• Provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bills
or Constitutional amendment bills.
• In the case of a money bill, the Lok Sabha has overriding powers, while a Constitutional amendment bill
must be passed by each House separately.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 64.C
• In-situ bioremediation:
o It relies on microorganisms to biologically degrade groundwater contaminants through a process
called biodegradation. This process can occur naturally (Natural Attenuation) or can be enhanced
through various methods (Enhanced Natural Attenuation or Enhanced Bioremediation).
o In situ bioremediation is the application of a biological treatment to clean up hazardous compounds
present in the environment. The bioremediation technology of contaminated sites depends on the type
of contaminant. Since chlorinated solvents are one of the most common groundwater contaminants,
numerous laboratory studies as well as pilot and field applications have been or are being conducted
with chlorinated solvents, such as chlorinated ethylenes and ethanes.
• Different types of In-situ bioremediation techniques are:
o Biosparging: This involves the injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase
groundwater oxygen concentrations and to enhance the rate of biological degradation of
contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria. Biosparging increases the mixing in the saturated
zone and thereby increases the contact between soil and groundwater. The ease and low cost of
installing small-diameter air injection points allow considerable flexibility in the design and
construction of the system. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Bioventing: Bioventing is a promising new technology that stimulates the natural in situ
biodegradation of any aerobically degradable compounds by providing oxygen to the existing soil
microorganisms. It uses low airflow rates to provide only enough oxygen to sustain microbial
activity. Oxygen is most commonly supplied through direct air injection into residual contamination
in soil by means of wells. Henceforth, the adsorbed fuel residuals are biodegraded and volatile
compounds are also biodegraded as vapors move slowly through biologically active soil. Hence pair
2 is not correctly matched.
o Bioaugmentation: Bioaugmentation is the introduction of a group of natural microbial strains or
a genetically engineered strain to treat contaminated soil or water. Most commonly, it is used in
municipal wastewater treatment to restart activated sludge bioreactors. At sites where soil and
groundwater are contaminated with chlorinated ethanes, such as tetrachloroethylene and
trichloroethylene, bioaugmentation is used to ensure that the in situ microorganisms can completely
degrade these contaminants to ethylene and chloride, which are non-toxic in nature. Hence pair 3 is
not correctly matched.
o Biopiling: This is a full-scale technology in which excavated soils are mixed with soil
amendments, placed on a treatment area, and further bioremediation using forced aeration. The
contaminants are reduced to carbon dioxide and water. A basic pile system includes a treatment bed,
an aeration system, an irrigation/nutrient system, and a leachate collection system. Moisture, heat,
nutrients, oxygen, and pH are also controlled to enhance biodegradation. The irrigation/nutrient
system is buried under the soil to pass air and nutrients either by vacuum or positive pressure.

Q 65.A
• Bhitargaon Temple: The Bhitargaon Temple is a terraced brick building fronted with a terracotta panel.
Built in the 6th century during the Gupta Empire, it is the oldest remaining terracotta Hindu
shrine with a roof and a high Sikhara, though its upper chamber did sustain some damage in the 18th
century. The temple is built on a square plan with double-recessed corners and faces east. There tall
pyramidal spire over the garbhagriha. The walls are decorated with terracotta panels depicting aquatic
monsters, Shiva and Vishnu, etc. When Cunningham first visited the site, the remains of the porch and of
the ardhamandapa were still visible, which later collapsed. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Sun Temple of Modhera is a Hindu temple dedicated to the solar deity Surya located at Modhera village
of Mehsana district, Gujarat. It is situated on the bank of the river Pushpavati. It was built during the
reign of Bhima I of the Chalukyas dynasty. The temple complex has three components: Gudhamandapa,
the shrine hall; Sabhamandapa, the assembly hall and Kunda, the reservoir. The halls have intricately
carved exteriors and pillars. The reservoir has steps to reach the bottom and numerous small shrines.
• Kandariya Mahadeva Temple: Largest of all the temples in Khajuraho, it dates back to the 10th
century CE. Most Khajuraho temples were built by the Chandela dynasty. The interior arrangement of
the temple differs from the usual construction of a Hindu temple as it has an open passage around the
sanctum, thus forming a high altar at the inner portion of the temple. The walls of the Kandariya temple
carry nearly nine hundred images. The entrance of the temple is in the shape of an arch and is decorated
with figures of deities and musicians. Also, the entrance of the sanctum has elaborate floral carvings
interspersed with figures of ascetics engaged in penance. The female figures at the base of the jambs are
identified to be Goddess Ganga (River Ganga) and Goddess Jumna (River Yamuna). Inside the sanctum
stands a marble linga, the symbol of Lord Shiva. There are also numerous figures of apsaras or nymphs
in all sorts of delicate postures.
Q 66.B
• Article 148 of the Constitution provides for the independence office of the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG).
• The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independence of CAG:
o He is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the president only in accordance
with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of
the president, though he is appointed by him.
o He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he
ceases to hold his office.
o His salary and other service conditions are determined by the Parliament. His salary is equal to
that of a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Neither his salary nor his rights in respect of leave of absence, pension, or age of retirement can be
altered to his disadvantage after his appointment.
o The conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and the
administrative powers of the CAG are prescribed by the president after consultation with the CAG.
o The administrative expenses of the office of the CAG, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions
of persons serving in that office are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are not
subject to the vote of Parliament.
o Further, no minister can represent the CAG in Parliament (both Houses) and no minister can
be called upon to take any responsibility for any actions done by him. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
Q 67.B
• The Autonomous District Council is a corporate body representing the district within a state to which the
Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature. The body administers the
land, forest rights, agriculture, planning, the appointment of chief/headman, social customs, etc. of the
region.
o The Sixth Schedule gives Autonomous District Councils (ADC) in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura,
and Mizoram the freedom to protect their language and culture by exercising legislative and
executive power to govern themselves differently than the rest of India. Hence statement 1 is not
correct and statement 2 is correct.
o It allows for the constitution of autonomous districts and councils with higher autonomy to
frame provisions to safeguard the land, employment, and cultural identity of the local
population.
• Laws of parliament may be applied in an autonomous district with specific adaptation assented by the
Governor. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 68.A
• The term “nutraceutical” combines two words – “nutrient” (a nourishing food component) and
“pharmaceutical” (a medical drug).
• Nutraceuticals is a broad umbrella term that is used to describe any product derived from food sources
with extra health benefits in addition to the basic nutritional value found in foods.
• They can be considered non-specific biological therapies used to promote general well-being, control
symptoms, and prevent malignant processes
• Examples of nutraceuticals:
o A nutraceutical can be a nutrient-rich food, medicinally active food, or a specific component of a
particular food, according to the medicine net. Examples include garlic, omega 3 (found in fish),
soybeans, ginger, minerals, vitamins, dietary fiber, hydrolyzed proteins, fortified foods, etc.
o Other examples include protein supplements, malt-based nutrition drinks, and immunity booster
bars among others for improving the overall health and nutritional requirements of the people. Hence
option (a) is the correct answer.
• Difference between nutraceuticals and dietary supplements:
o Dietary supplements are a category of nutraceuticals. This means that all dietary supplements are
nutraceuticals but not all nutraceuticals are dietary supplements.
o Some nutraceuticals are foods, while others are components of food. A dietary supplement is not
represented for use as a conventional food; rather it is meant to supplement the diet by increasing the
total daily intake.
Q 69.C
• The Gini index or Gini coefficient is a statistical measure of distribution developed by the Italian
statistician Corrado Gini in 1912. It is often used as a gauge of economic inequality, measuring income
distribution or, less commonly, wealth distribution among a population. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The coefficient ranges from 0 (or 0%) to 1 (or 100%), with 0 representing perfect equality and 1
representing perfect inequality. A country in which every resident has the same income would have an
income Gini coefficient of 0. A country in which one resident earned all the income, while everyone else
earned nothing, would have an income Gini coefficient of 1. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Gini index is often represented graphically through the Lorenz curve, which shows income (or
wealth) distribution by plotting the population percentile by income on the horizontal axis and cumulative
income on the vertical axis.
• India's Gini Coefficient is roughly equal to 35.7. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 70.A
• Recent Context: Kashmiri Pandit organizations have proposed a 'floating' constituency that would be
reserved for contesting and voting only for Kashmiri Pandit migrants from J&K on similar lines as in
Sikkim.
• The only 'floating' constituency of India- Sangha model for Lama Sanghas in Sikkim is backed in
the Constitution of India under Article 371(F). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• It is a constituency without any geographical boundaries and one for which only Buddhist monks
registered with 51 monasteries within the state can contest and vote. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The 32- Sangha assembly constituency in Sikkim was created in 1958 for the Sikkim state council at the
request of monastery associations and was retained its special character even after 1975 when Sikkim
became a state of India. Article 371 (F) of the Constitution of India protects the special character of
Sikkim and various laws of the then kingdom.
• The same was also upheld by the Supreme Court in 1993. The apex court recognized that Sanghas were
culturally a part of Sikkim’s council decision-making for the last 300 years and since the time of Chogyal
kings of the state and hence ruled that this reservation was not purely religion-based and therefore not
unconstitutional.
Q 71.D
• Recent context: Recently, the Ministry of Commerce & Industry has notified Copyright (Amendment)
Rules, 2021.
• A Copyright is a form of intellectual property protection granted under Indian law to the creators of
original works of authorship such as
o Literary works include computer programs, tables, and compilations including computer
databases which may be expressed in words, codes, schemes, or in any other form, including a
machine-readable medium.
o Dramatic, musical, and artistic works.
o Cinematographic films and sound recordings.
• These rights include the right of adaptation, right of reproduction, right of publication, right to make
translations, communication to the public, etc.
• In India, the copyright regime is governed by the Copyright Act, 1957, and the Copyright Rules, 2013.
• The Copyright Rules, 2013 was last amended in 2016 through the Copyright Amendment Rules, 2016.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 72.C
• Satavahana dynasty was founded by King Simuka as per the Purana tradition. Gautamiputra
Satakarni is one of the greatest rulers of this dynasty. Administration under the Satavahanas was much
simpler than under the Mauryas as evident from various inscriptions. The official records along with a few
Buddhist records afford an interesting glimpse of Satvahana's socio-political situation.
• Statement 1 is not correct: Though Satavahanas refer to themselves as unique Brahmanas who crushed
the pride of the Kshatriyas the social structure of the Deccan under the Satavahanas had many
features which are different from those prescribed in the Sanskrit texts such as the Manusmriti or
Dharmasastras. For example; according to the Brahmanical texts it was only the Kshatriyas who had the
right to rule. Further, many inscriptions of the Satavahana rulers mention the names of their mothers
rather than those of their fathers, such as Gautamiputra Satakarni or Satakarni, son of Gautami. This is
not in keeping with the Dharmasastras which state that in the approved forms of marriage the bride
acquires the gotra of her husband and loses that of the father.
• Statement 2 is correct: On the west coast, there were a series of ports at Bharuch or Broach, Kalyan,
Sopara, and Chaul.To these ports, commodities were brought from the inland centers through passes
along the Western Ghats.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Satvahans patronized Buddhism and Brahmanism. From various
Buddhist texts, it can be interpreted that Satavahana kings donated large sums of money and land to the
Buddhist monasteries. Several Satvahana era inscriptions such as the Nasik inscription records the land
grants given to various religious monasteries.
o One of the practices started by Satavahana rulers in the first century A.D. was that of donating
the revenue of a village to either a Brahmana or the Buddhist Sangha. This practice became much
more widespread under the Gupta rulers.
Q 73.A
• An Inner Line Permit is a document that allows an Indian citizen to visit or stay in a state that is protected
under the ILP system.
• It is used in India to protect the indigenous communities in the Northeast and for the government to
regulate and monitor the movement to certain areas near the international border of India. Hence
• An ILP is issued by the state government concerned. It can be obtained after applying either online or
physically. It states the dates of travel and also specifies the particular areas in the state to which the ILP
holder can travel to. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The system is in force today in four Northeastern states — Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and
Manipur, Mizoram. Apart from these states the system also exists in Lakshadweep. Hence, statement 3
is not correct.
• Recently, the Ladakh administration has scrapped the ILP system for all Indian nationals to visit the
protected areas of the union territory to boost rural tourism and underline India’s sovereignty.
Q 74.A
• Syllipsimopodi bideni: Encouraged by his plans to address climate change and to mark the beginning of
his presidency, researchers have named a newly discovered fossilized vampire squid after Joe Biden.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• Syllipsimopodi bideni, has been described as an exceptionally well-preserved
• The fossil was discovered from the Mississippian Bear Gulch Lagerstätte of Montana.
• The species possesses a gladius and ten robust arms, bearing biserial rows of suckers.
Q 75.D
• Several foreign travelers from Persia and Europe visited the city of Vijayanagara in the 15th and 16th
centuries. They were impressed with the city and their accounts of administration, layout, bazaars,
temples, palaces, local historical traditions, etc. have been useful for historians and archaeologists to
construct the picture of Vijayanagara. Their accounts of the spectacular ceremonies of the nine-day
festival of Mahanavami to which the rulers invited them are particularly vivid. Their reports on the
precious stones, including diamonds, textiles, and other luxury goods on sale in the markets testify to the
role of the capital as one of the greatest emporia in South India.
• Abdur Razzaq, a Persian traveler visited Vijaynagar Kingdom during the reign of Devaraya II in
1443. He was very impressed by Vijayanagar’s ‘enormous magnitude and population’ and its seven
concentric walled fortifications of stone. He has written that the outermost had ‘strong gates, and the
guards stand to watch with the eye of caution for the slightest thing’. Inside are orchards, gardens,
buildings, shops, and bazaars.
• Nicolo Conti, an Italian, was at Vijayanagara in about 1420, just after the accession of Devaraya
I. The first known foreign traveler, he mentions the fortifications of the city and the thousands of men
employed in the army of the rulers. The next visitor in about 1443 was Abdul Razzaq, an envoy of Shah
Rukh, the Timurid sultan of Herat. Abdul Razzaq noticed seven rings of ramparts protecting the city, but
not all these can be traced today. He also gives details about the ceremonies of the rulers, and the
processions of the Mahanavami festival.
• Domingo Paes was at Vijayanagara in about 1520-22, during the reign of Krishnadevaraya. He
gives invaluable information on the walls, gates, streets, and markets of the city, as well as the major
temples of the city, including the Virupaksha at Hampi, together with its colonnaded bazaar. He also
describes the Mahanavami festival at some length, according to him, the festival included numerous
processions of animals, warriors, and courtly women, as well as wrestling matches, fireworks, and other
entertainments. He also provides the description of the king’s palace which seems to apply to
Krishnadevaraya’s new residence in what is now Hospet.
• Fernao Nuniz, a Portuguese horse-trader, composed his account around 1536-37. He was in the
capital during the reign of Achyutaraya and may have been present at earlier battles fought by
Krishnadevaraya. This visitor was particularly interested in the history of Vijayanagara, especially the
foundation of the city, the subsequent careers of three dynasties of rulers, and the battles that they fought
with the Deccan sultans and Odishan Rayas.
• Hence, all the options are matched correctly and option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 76.C
• An Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvITs) is a Collective Investment Scheme similar to a mutual
fund, which enables direct investment of money from individual and institutional investors in
infrastructure projects to earn a small portion of the income as a return.
• The InvIT is designed as a tiered structure with the Sponsor setting up the InvIT which in turn invests into
the eligible infrastructure projects either directly or via special purpose vehicles (SPVs).
• InvITs are regulated by the securities market regulator in India- the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI). SEBI has to vide its circular in 2016 providing the detailed guidelines for the
public issue of units of InvITs. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
• InvITs are very much similar to Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) in structure and operations. InvITs
are modified REITs designed to suit the specific circumstances in India.
• InvIT has to be listed on a stock exchange. Listing is mandatory for both publicly offered and
privately placed InvITs.
• InvITs may help in attracting international finance into the Indian infrastructure sector. nvITs are also
proposed to bring higher standards of governance into infrastructure development and management and
distribution of income from assets so as to attract investor interest.
Q 77.D
• A recent report by BOFA Global Research has underlined the fact that Indian industrial companies are
increasingly relying on other sources for funding their balance sheet and less on commercial banks.
• Domestic banks' share in the overall commercial credit plunged to a low of 34% in FY2021 from
56% in FY2011 partly due to the pandemic and more because companies were moving away from banks
for funds. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• That is partly because lenders are getting wary and partly because even the borrowers are preferring other
sources of funding. Between 2011 and 2021, the share of non-bank credit sources for industrial companies
has doubled from 22% to 44% taking total non-bank credit flow to two-thirds of the total.
• The share of non-banks in commercial credit has more than doubled to 44% while that of foreign banks
rose to 22% in FY21, taking total non-bank credit flow to two-thirds of the total commercial credit
flow. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The other source of funding for banks that have grown has been foreign credit and foreign investments at
22%. This includes foreign direct investment (FDI), bank credit, and IPO investments as part of foreign
credit to the industry.
• In the aftermath of the pandemic in FY21, bank credit flow tapered but non-bank credit accelerated. Most
of the bank credit is going to the priority sector, to the agri-related sectors, and towards giving home loans
and personal loans. It is the industrial credit side of banking that is actually suffering.
Q 78.C
• India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions
a year. The gap between the two sessions of the Parliament cannot exceed six months. Therefore, the
parliament must have at least two sessions within a year. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Over the years, governments have shuffled around the dates of sessions to accommodate political and
legislative exigencies. In 2017, the Winter Session was delayed on account of the Gujarat Assembly
elections.
• Sessions have been stretched — in 2008, the two-day Monsoon Session was extended until December.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 79.C
• The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India and enjoys the following legislative powers.
o He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can also summon a joint
sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
o He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general
election and the first session of each year. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill pending in
Parliament or otherwise.
o He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the offices of both
the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly, he can also appoint any member of the
Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman fall vacant.
o He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having special knowledge or
practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.
o He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian Community.
o He decides on questions as to disqualifications of members of the Parliament, in consultation
with the Election Commission. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o He lays the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General, Union Public Service Commission,
Finance Commission, and others, before the Parliament.
o He can make regulations for the peace, progress, and good government of the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu.
Q 80.A
• The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is a scheme launched by the Union Government in 2015
for providing loans up to Rs. 10 lakh (around US$15,000) to non-corporate, non-farm small/micro-
enterprises. Under PMMY, all banks viz. Public Sector Banks, Private Sector Banks, Regional Rural
Banks (RRBs), State Co-operative Banks, Urban Co-operative Banks, Foreign Banks, and Non-Banking
Finance Companies (NBFCs)/Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs) - are required to lend to non-farm sector
income generating activities below Rs.10 lakh. These loans are classified as MUDRA loans under
PMMY.
• A new institution named, MUDRA (Micro Units Development & Refinance Agency Ltd.) has been set up
for implementing the scheme. MUDRA is entrusted with the responsibility for development and
refinancing activities relating to micro units, in addition to acting as a regulator for the micro-finance
sector.
• MUDRA has created three products, i.e. 'Shishu', 'Kishore', and ‘Tarun’, as per the growth and funding
needs of the beneficiary micro-units.
o Shishu: covering loans up to Rs. 50,000.
o Kishore: Covering loans above Rs. 50,000 and up to Rs. 5 lakh.
o Tarun: covering loans above Rs. 5 lakh and up to Rs. 10 lakh.
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 81.D
• The Jainas believe that the natural and supernatural things of the universe can be traced back to
seven fundamental elements. They are jiva, ajivaa, astikaya, bandha, samvara, nirjana, and moksa.
The Jain theory of relativity is manifested in the process of Saptabhangi (seven-fold predication). This
process ensures that each statement is expressed from seven different conditional and relative viewpoints
or propositions, and thus it is also known as the theory of conditioned predication.
• The Jains came out with three doctrines of relativity used for logic and reasoning
o Syadvada—The theory of conditioned predication.
o Nayavada—The theory of partial standpoints.
o Anekantavada—The theory of relative pluralism or manifoldness.
• These Jain philosophical concepts made very significant contributions to ancient Indian philosophy,
especially in the areas of skepticism and relativity.
• Yogacara or Vijnanavadin School is one of the chief philosophical schools of the Great Vehicle i.e.
Mahayana Buddhism. Hence only option 4 is not correct.
o It is an influential tradition of Buddhist philosophy emphasizing the study of cognition, perception,
and consciousness through the interior lens of meditative and yogic practices.
o Yogacara is the school that follows idealism and rejects realism or qualified realism. The world
according to them is built by consciousness and is no more than a dream. The only reality is
“Suchness”.
Q 82.C
• Externalities are those benefits or harms accruing to another person, firm, or any other entity which occur
because some person, firm, or any other entity may be involved in economic activities. Externalities can
be considered as unpriced goods involved in either consumer or producer market transactions. Hence
option (c) is the correct answer.
• If someone is causing benefits or good externality to another, the latter does not pay the former. For
example, the development of roadways and railways generates additional income opportunities for the
people living in such areas. They are called positive externalities.
• If someone is inflicting harm or bad externality to another, the former does not compensate the latter. For
example, pollution caused by the power plants. They are called negative externalities.
Q 83.C
• The development of Indian railways may, broadly, be divided into five different stages or phases:
o the ‘old guarantee system', 1849-69;
o state construction and ownership, 1869-82;
o the ‘modified guarantee system' 1882-1924;
o nationalization, 1924-48; and
o integration and regrouping, 1948-52.
• In 1853, Lord Dalhousie penned his Railway Minute formulating the future policy of railways in
India. He started the “guarantee system” by which the railway companies were guaranteed a
minimum interest of five percent on their investment. The government retained the right of buying the
railway at the end of the period of the contract. The first railway line connecting Bombay with Thane was
opened in 1853. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• In 1901, Thomas Robertson was appointed special commissioner to examine the entire system of the
organization and working of the Indian railways. He proposed drastic changes and recommended the
constitution of a Railway Board with a chairman, two members, and a secretary. The Board was
formally set up in March 1905 and made subordinate to the government. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
• In 1920 the Secretary of State announced the appointment of the East India Railways
Committee under the chairmanship of Sir William Acworth to go into the whole question of railway
policy, finances, and administration Also known as the Acworth Committee consisted of 10 members,
among whom 3 were Indians- V. S. Srinivas Sastri (a member of the Council of States), Sir Rajendranath
Mookerjee (an industrialist of Calcutta) and Purshottamdas Thakurdas (a Bombay industrial magnate).
o The committee ruled in favor of state management and its recommendations were to form the basis of
much of the later development of the Indian railways.
o The question of separating general finances from railway finances was also debated by the
Acworth Committee which recommended that it be examined in the first instance by the

railway finance committee and the Central Legislative Assembly. Subsequently, both decided in
favor of separation, and from 1924-25 the railway budget was separated from the general
budget. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
▪ K.C. Neogy committee was appointed in 1947 as Railway Enquiry Committee.
• Prior to 1944, Indian railways fell into the following broad categories:
o state-owned lines managed by the state;
o state-owned lines managed by private companies;
o company-owned lines managed by the companies;
o lines belonging to the Indian government; and
o miscellaneous lines, company lines, or district board lines
▪ By 1944, second and third categories had been completely nationalized; almost all, barring
some 533 miles, were either directly with the government or with its agencies. Hence
Q 84.C
• Samvatsari Festival:
o Samvatsari: It is the last day of Paryushana Shwetambar sect of Jainism. It falls on Shukla
Panchami each year in the Jain calendar month of Bhadrapada, somewhere between the middle of
August and September in the Gregorian calendar. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o On this day Jains forgive and seek forgiveness for their mistakes committed knowingly or
unknowingly by all the living beings.
o Pratikramana: A yearly, elaborate penitential retreat called "samvatsari pratikramana" is performed
on this day. After the pratikramana, Jains seek forgiveness from all the creatures of the world.
o Significance: Jain strongly believes in forgiving. The forgiving plead is not limited to present life but
also includes there all previous lives, Jains beg forgiveness from all living beings for faults they
have made, whether deliberately or unknowingly. The believers undertake a communal confession,
and letters are sent asking for forgiveness. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Samvatsari and Kshamavaani: While Samvatsari and shamavaani are typically associated with
Shwetambar sect and Digambara respectively, there is no major difference between the two days, and
both are observed as Forgiveness Days. Rather, the two are usually used interchangeably.
Q 85.C
• The Coastal Surveillance Radar is the primary sensor for Integrated Coastal Surveillance System
(ICSS). It is capable of detecting subs 20-meter boats such as county boats, dinghies, and fishing
vessels in heavy sea clutter environments in all weather conditions. The radar is capable of operating
24x7. It has a networking facility to operate either remotely or locally. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is a modern generation of coastal surveillance radar with high duty solid-state power amplifier (SSPA),
sophisticated signal processing, and sea clutter mitigation techniques. High resolution, both in azimuth
and range, enables the radar to track dense fishing vessels in the vicinity of the coastal area.
• Application Areas
o The primary aim of CSR design is to detect and track small fishing vessels for Coastal
surveillance applications. However, the radar can also be directly used for VTS (Vessel Traffic
management Services) application, harbor surveillance, and navigational purposes. Hence statement
1 is correct.
o By mounting on ship, it can also be tuned to the role of the Sea Surface Target Surveillance Radar. It
can be used for Airport Surface Target Surveillance as it is solid-state coherent radar with Doppler
processing.
Q 86.B
• Recent Context: The National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) has recognized the
Manda buffalo, found in the Eastern Ghats and plateau of the Koraput region of Odisha, as the
19th unique breed of buffaloes found in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Characteristics:
o These buffaloes have ash grey and grey coats with copper-colored hair. Some animals are silver-white
in color.
o The small, sturdy buffaloes are used for plowing in their native habitat.
o The specialty of the Breed: The Manda are resistant to parasitic infections, less prone to
diseases and can live, produce and reproduce at low or nil input systems. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
• Significance of Recognition:
o The state and the Centre will make efforts to conserve this unique buffalo genetic resource of Odisha
and enhance their productivity through breeding strategy.
o The governments will help in marketing the produce- milk, curd, and ghee at a premium price
resulting in the improvement of the livelihood of the stakeholders in the native tract.
• National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR):
o Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)-National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources,
Karnal (ICAR-NBAGR) is the nodal agency for the registration of newly identified germplasm of
livestock and poultry in the country.
o Its mandate includes Identification, Evaluation, Characterization, Conservation, and Sustainable
Utilization of Livestock and Poultry Genetic Resources.
Q 87.C
• The Malwa Plateau roughly forms a triangle based on the Vindhyan Hills, bounded by the Aravali
Range in the west and Madhya Bharat Pathar to the north and Bundelkhand to the east. This
plateau has two systems of drainage; one towards the Arabian sea (The Narmada, the Tapi, and the
Mahi), and the other towards the Bay of Bengal (Chambal and Betwa, joining the Yamuna).In the north, it
is drained by the Chambal and many of its right bank tributaries like the Kali, the Sindh, and the Parbati.
It also includes the upper courses of the Sindh, the Ken, and the Betwa. Hence option (c) is the correct
answer.
• The volcanic, clay-like soil of the plateau region owes its black color to the high iron content of the
basalt from which it formed.
• The general slope is towards the north [decreases from 600 m in the south to less than 500 m in the
north]. This is a rolling plateau dissected by rivers. In the north, the plateau is marked by the
Chambal ravines.
Q 88.A
• The Foreign Trade (Development And Regulation) Act, 1992, provides legal backing for Minimum
Export Price (MEP). As per section 5 of this act, the Central Government may, from time to time,
formulate and announce by notification in the Official Gazette, the export, and import policy and may
also, in the like manner, amend that policy. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Minimum Export Price (MEP) is the price below which an exporter is not allowed to export the
commodity from India. MEP is imposed because of the rising domestic retail / wholesale price or
production disruptions in the country. MEP is a kind of quantitative restriction to trade. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
• The government fixes MEP for the selected commodities to arrest domestic price rise and augment
domestic supply. This is intended to be imposed for short durations and is removed when situations
change. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The removal of MEP helps farmers/exporters in realizing better and remunerative prices and would also
help in earning valuable foreign exchange for the country.
• MEP decisions are generally taken at the Cabinet-level. The requests for changes in MEP are brought to
the Cabinet by the line ministries, such as the Agriculture Ministry, who request changes generally on an
ad-hoc basis. It is not a formula-based imposition.
Q 89.B
• Ahar Pynes are traditional floodwater harvesting systems indigenous to South Bihar. Ahars are
reservoirs with embankments on three sides that are built at the end of diversion channels like
pynes. Pynes are artificial rivulets led off from rivers to collect water in the ahars for irrigation in the dry
month. Paddy cultivation in this relatively low rainfall area depends mostly on ahar pynes. Hence pair 1
is not correctly matched.
• Johads, one of the oldest systems practiced in Alwar district, Rajasthan. It is used to conserve and
recharge groundwater, are small earthen check dams that capture and store rainwater. several
johads are interconnected through deep channels, with a single outlet opening into a river or stream
nearby. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
• The Zabo (meaning ‘impounding run-off’) system combines water conservation with forestry,
agriculture, and animal care. Practiced in Nagaland, Zabo is also known as the Ruza
system. Rainwater that falls on forested hilltops is collected by channels that deposit the run-off water in
pond-like structures created on the terraced hillsides. The channels also pass through cattle yards,
collecting the dung and urine of animals, before ultimately meandering into paddy fields at the foot of the
hill. Ponds created in the paddy field are then used to rear fish and foster the growth of medicinal
plants. Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q 90.D
• Internationally, the potential and performance of the insurance sector are generally assessed based on two
parameters, that is insurance penetration and insurance density.
• Insurance penetration is measured as the percentage of insurance premium to GDP and insurance
density is calculated as the ratio of premium to population (measured in US$ for convenience of
international comparison).
• Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Q 91.B
• Recently, the Indigenously built Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) Sarthak was dedicated to the
nation.
• ICGS Sarthak will be based at Porbandar (Gujarat) and operate on India’s Western Seaboard.
• ICGS Sarthak is 4th in the series of five offshore patrol vessels (OPVs) being built by Goa Shipyard
Limited. These OPVs are multi-mission platforms capable of undertaking concurrent operations.
Q 92.C
• The conquest of Northern India by the Ghorids and the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate not only
changed the existing political structure but also brought economic and technological changes. There were
radical changes in the system of agricultural production to the construction of buildings. The coming of
new technologies helps in the spread of irrigation, the spread of some market crops, etc. Technology is an
inseparable part of the material culture of a society and during the Sultanate period, different tools were
used by craftsmen such as hammers, saws, basola (adze), randa (plane), etc.
• Statement 1 is correct: The most important technological revolution in the textile sector was the
introduction of the spinning wheel (charkha) through the agency of the Muslims during the 13th-14th
centuries. Charkha did not exist in Ancient India. The first literary reference to charkha comes from
Isami's Futuh-us Salatin (A.D. 1350). This new contribution accelerates the earlier production of cotton
from the spindle. The spindle was attached to the wooden frame of the charkha at its one end to be set in
motion by the "belt" which was wrapped over the wheel at the other end of the frame connecting it to the
spindle.
• Statement 2 is correct: The traditional basic units of construction in Ancient India consisted of clay,
stones, wood, and occasionally bricks. The lime mortar was brought by the immigrant Muslims during the
Delhi Sultanate. The basic ingredients in lime-mortar were lime (chuna) and surkhi (pounded bricks).
Lime was of various kinds, according to the material from which it was extracted. The two major sources
of lime were gypsum and gravel (kankar).
o One result of lime mortar was the extensive use of bricks as it made the brick buildings more durable.
Another important consequence was that lime mortar paved the way for the construction of a true arch
(mihrab).
Q 93.C
• Anasuya Sarabhai completed her higher education at the London School of Economics. She could
have settled in any foreign country and led a life of comfort. But she chose India where she helped women
by advocating for labor rights.
o She founded the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association, India's oldest union of textile workers, in
1920, becoming the first female leader of a trade union in India. On her 132nd birthday, Google
India celebrated with a doodle remembering her achievements. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Cornelia Sorabji was admitted to Oxford in 1892, a milestone that predates the women’s suffrage
movement in Britain. While women in Britain were campaigning for the right to vote, Cornelia
Sorabji became the first woman to practice law in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o After she received a first-class degree from Bombay University in 1888, British supporters helped to
send her to Oxford University. Here, Sorabji became the first woman to sit the Civil Law exams but
was not able to graduate as women could not be awarded degrees until 1920.
o She returned to India in 1894. After a long struggle with the authorities, she became a legal advocate
for women in purdah, whose religious and cultural beliefs prevented them from speaking to men
outside their family.

Q 94.D
• Curzon had a clear-cut conception of the task before him. He was convinced of the necessity and urgency
of a thorough reform of the entire administrative machinery. Curzon's method was to appoint an expert
commission to probe into the working of a department and then enact the necessary legislation.
o In 1902 a Police Commission was appointed under the presidentship of Sir Andrew Frazer to
enquire into the police administration of every province.
o Curzon found fault with the existing system of education and lamented the deterioration of standards
and growth of indiscipline. He believed that educational institutions had become factories for the
production of political revolutionaries.
o In 1902 a Universities Commission was appointed to enquire into the condition of universities in
India and to recommend proposals for improving their constitution and working.
o The famine and drought of 1899-1900 had affected wide areas in the south, central and western
India. More than 10 lakh persons died in British India alone. A Famine Commission was appointed
under the presidency of Sir Anthony Macdonnell to enquire into the results of famine operations.
o In 1901 a Commission was appointed under the chairmanship of Sir Colin Scott Moncrieff to
investigate the whole question of Irrigation. The Commission recommended an additional
expenditure of 4.5 crores of rupees on irrigation spread over 20 years.
o Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 95.C
• Redshift and blueshift describe the change in the frequency of a light wave depending on whether
an object is moving towards or away from us. When an object is moving away from us, the light
from the object is known as redshift, and when an object is moving towards us, the light from the
object is known as blueshift.
• For example, a galaxy is blueshifted with respect to the Milky Way means that the galaxy is moving
toward our point in space.
• Both redshift and blueshift are determined by studying the spectrum of light radiated from the object.
• Astronomers use redshift and blueshift to deduce how far an object is away from Earth, the concept
is key to charting the universe's expansion.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 96.B
• Bioenergy Crops
o Bioenergy is “energy extracted from recent living materials such as wood, crops or animal waste.”
Bioenergy crops are classified as any plant material used for bioenergy production. These crops
are capable of producing large quantities of biomass, high energy efficiency, and can be grown in
fertile soil. Plants with bioenergy raise the carbon in the soil and remove the atmospheric carbon.
o The bioenergy crops are categorized into five groups, namely bioenergy crops of the first, second, and
third generations, dedicated energy crops, and halophytes.
o First-generation bioenergy crops include corn, sorghum, rapeseed, and sugarcane, while second-
generation bioenergy crops include switchgrass, Miscanthus, Alfalfa, canary reed grass, Napier
grass, and other crops. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o Bioenergy crops of the third generation include boreal trees, trees with Crassulacean acid
metabolism (CAM), Eucalyptus, and microalgae.
o Halophytes for bioenergy consist of the genera Acacia, Eucalyptus, Casuarina, Melaleuca,
Prosopis, Rhizophora and Tamarix. In this context, we are addressing the characteristics and
benefits of using bioenergy crops of different generations as an alternative source of energy for the
near future.

o They have a number of advantages over fossil fuels, including the ability to burn cleaner and emit
fewer pollutants and greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, into the sky. They're also
environmentally friendly, and energy corporations frequently mix Biofuels with gasoline.
o Converting annual crops to perennial bioenergy crops can induce a cooling effect on the areas where
they are cultivated. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o The biophysical cooling or warming effects of bioenergy crop cultivation can significantly strengthen
or weaken the effectiveness of bioenergy crop cultivation with carbon capture and storage (BECCS)
in limiting the temperature increments, depending on the cultivation map and the bioenergy crop type.
o Compared to the herbaceous crops, changes in the energy fluxes induced by woody crops in the
cultivation regions are larger, and the cooling effect is stronger and healthier across different
cultivation maps.
o Cultivating eucalypt shows generally cooling effects that are more robust than if switchgrass is used
as the main bioenergy crop, implying that eucalypt is superior to switchgrass in cooling the lands
biophysically. Cooling effects are more for eucalypt and the greatest warming effects are seen for
switchgrass.
Q 97.D
• The Food and Agriculture Organization is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads
international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security. Its Latin motto, fiat panis,
translates to "let there be bread". Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The FAO Food Price Index (FFPI) is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a
basket of food commodities. It consists of the average of five commodities (cereals, oilseeds, dairy
products, meat, and sugar) group price indices weighted by the average export shares of each of the
groups over 2014-2016. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• FAO's Desert Locust Information Service (DLIS) produces monthly Desert Locust Bulletins that are
distributed by email to affected countries, donors, and other relevant agencies and individuals. During
periods of increased locust activity, bulletins are supplemented with alerts and updates. The FAO also
brings out a number of publications/reports, some of which are,
o the State of the World,
o the Global Report on Food Crises,
o the State of Food and Agriculture,
o the State of the World's Forests. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 98.A
• Recent Context: Africa’s Boma technique was undertaken at Keoladeo National Park in
Rajasthan’s Bharatpur district recently for capturing and translocating spotted deer.
o The aim is to improve the prey base in Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve, situated 450 km away.
o The move will lead to herbivores populating the forests ahead of the proposed shifting of two tigers to
Mukundara.
o The Boma capturing technique, which is popular in Africa, involves luring animals into an
enclosure by chasing them through funnel-like fencing. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

o The funnel tapers into an animal selection-cum-loading chute, supported with grass mats and a green
net to make it opaque for animals, which are herded into a large vehicle for their transport to another
location.
Q 99.C
• Cool Coalition: The Cool Coalition is a global effort led by UN Environment, the Climate and Clean Air
Coalition, the Kigali Cooling Efficiency Program, and Sustainable Energy for All (SEforALL).
o It is a global multi-stakeholder network that connects a wide range of key actors from government,
cities, international organizations, businesses, finance, academia, and civil society groups to facilitate
knowledge exchange, advocacy, and joint action towards a rapid global transition to efficient and
climate-friendly cooling.
o The Cool Coalition promotes a ‘reduce-shift-improve-protect’ holistic and cross-sectoral approach to
meet the cooling needs of both industrialized and developing countries through urban form, better
building design, energy efficiency, renewables, and thermal storage while phasing down HFCs.
o Cool Coalition members are collaborating on science, policy, finance, and technology to meet
growing demands for cooling in a comprehensive manner, all aimed at raising climate ambition in
the context of the Sustainable Development Goals while complimenting the goals of the Kigali
Amendment to the Montreal Protocol and Paris Climate Agreement. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• The overall approach is to:
o REDUCE where possible the need for mechanical cooling through better urban planning and building
design, and the use of nature-based solutions such as green public spaces and green roofs and walls.
SHIFT cooling to renewables, district cooling approaches, solar-powered cold chains, etc.
o IMPROVE conventional cooling by increasing the efficiency of air conditioning and refrigeration
equipment and demand response measures.
o PROTECT vulnerable people from the effects of extreme heat and the consequences of unreliable
medical and agricultural cold chains.
o LEVERAGE cooperation between different actors active in cooling to achieve a greater collective
impact.
• “COOL CHAMPIONS”: Cool Champions are thought leaders from government, private sector, and
civil society who will amplify the messages of the Cool Coalition, raise awareness about the need for
efficient and climate-friendly cooling and mobilize their peers to join this effort.
• Beating the Heat: A Sustainable Cooling Handbook for Cities:
o It was launched on November 3rd, 2021 at COP26 by the Cool Coalition, UNEP, RMI, Global
Covenant of Mayors for Climate & Energy (GCoM), Mission Innovation, and Clean Cooling
Collaborative.
o The new guide offers planners an encyclopedia of proven options to help cool cities. It states that by
the end of this century, many cities could warm as much as 4°C if GHG emissions continue at high
levels. Even at 1.5°C of warming, 2.3 billion people could be vulnerable to severe heat waves.
• How hot are cities: Depending on the climate zone, the urban heat island effect can raise urban
temperatures by as much as 5 degrees Celsius, compared with surrounding rural areas.
• Cooling trap: The space cooling practices of today are generally very energy-intensive and largely reliant
on fossil fuel-generated electricity and refrigerants that are harmful to the climate. Thus, rather than
holistically addressing the systemic issue of rising emissions and urban heat islands in cities, the current
practices are increasing the proliferation of inefficient cooling appliances.
o This, in turn, further exacerbates the issue of waste heat and emissions in the urban environment.
Space cooling is one of the fastest-growing causes of greenhouse gas emissions, further intensifying
urban heat.
o The rising use of air conditioners results in additions to grid infrastructure as well as increased
greenhouse gas emissions and waste heat expelled into the environment. Hence, statement 2 is
correct.
o This further exacerbates the urban heat island effect, perpetuating a vicious cycle where mechanical
cooling is further warming our cities — necessitating even more cooling — and disproportionately
impacting those who lack adequate financial resources to procure mechanical cooling solutions.

Q 100.D
• As per Agriculture Census data 2015-16, about 11.72% of the total operated area in the country
was operated by female operational holders. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Recently, Bihar has become the first state in the country to introduce the concept of a dynamic map for
villages which will get updated every time land ownership changes hands. Earlier, only textual records
were mutated. The move is aimed at reducing legal disputes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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