TEST

Time : 2 hrs. Max. Marks: 800

Topics covered in various subjects :

Physics : Complete XII syllabus

Chemistry : Hydrogen, s-block elements, p-block elements, Principles process involving extraction of
elements, d&f block elements, Coordination compounds, Some basic principles of organic
chemistry, Hydrocarbon Environmental Chemistry, Alkyl and arylhalide, Alcohols, Phenols and
Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketons and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Polymers, Biomolecules, Chemistry
in every day life

gkbMªkstu] s-CykWd rRo, p-CykWd rRo ds fu"d"kZ.k ds fl¼kUr o izØe] d o f CykWd rRo] milgla;ksth ;kSfxd]
dkcZfud jklk;u ds dqN vk/kjHkwr fl¼kUr] gkbMªksdkcZu] i;kZoj.kh; jklk;u] ,fYdy o ,fjy gSykbM] ,Ydksgy]
iQhukWy o bZFkj] ,fYMgkbM] dhVksu rFkk dkcksZfDlfyd vEy] ,ehu] tSo v.kq] cgqyd] jklk;uksa dh nSfud thou
esa mi;ksfxrk
Botany : Complete XII syllabus

Zoology : Complete XII syllabus

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on Answer
Sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. There will be no negative marking.

1
 [ PART - A : PHYSICS ]

1. Maximum charge due to induction in the medium of 1. fdlh ekè;e ds fy;s vf/dre izfs jr vkos'k gS (ekè;e dk
dielectric constant K is
ijkoS|qrkad K)
⎛ 1⎞ q ⎛ 1⎞ q
(1) –q ⎜ 1– ⎟ (2) (1) –q ⎜ 1– ⎟ (2)
⎝ K⎠ K ⎝ K⎠ K

q q q q
(3) (4) – (3) (4) –
2 4 2 4
2. Vector form of Coulomb's law is 2. dwykWe ds fu;e dk lfn'k :i gS
G 1 q1q2 G 1 q1q2 G 1 q1q2 G 1 q1q2
(1) F = · (2) F = · rˆ (1) F = · (2) F = · rˆ
4π ∈0 r3 4π ∈0 r 2 4 π∈0 r 3 4 π ∈0 r 2

G G G 1 q1q2 G G 1 q1q2
1 q1q2 G 1 q1q2 (3) F = · r (4) F = · rˆ
(3) F = · r (4) F = · rˆ 4π ∈0 r 2 4 π ∈0 r 2
4π ∈0 r 2 4π ∈0 r 2

3. When a dipole is placed in nonuniform electric field, 3. tc fdlh oS|rq f}/qoz dks vleku oS|rq {ks=k esa j[kk tkrk
then gS rc ml ij
(1) Force is zero, torque is zero (1) cy 'kwU;] cyk?kw.kZ 'kwU;
(2) Force is non zero, Torque is zero (2) cy v'kwU;] cyk?kw.kZ 'kwU;
(3) Force is non zero, torque may be zero (3) cy v'kwU;] cyk?kw.kZ 'kwU; gks ldrk gS
(4) Force is non zero, Torque is non zero (4) cy v'kwU;] cy vk?kw.kZ v'kwU;
4. Electric field at point P due to charged sheets is 4. nh xbZ vkosf'kr IysVksa ds dkj.k P fcUnq ij oS|rq {ks=k gS
+2σ –σ +2σ –σ
++ –– ++ ––
++ –– + ––
+ –– +
+
––
+
+ –– +
+
––
++ –– P ++ –– P
++ –– ++ ––
++ –– ++ ––
σ 3σ σ 3σ
(1) 2 ∈ (2) ∈ (1) 2 ∈ (2) ∈
0 0 0 0

3σ 2σ
(3) 2 ∈ (4) ∈ 3σ 2σ
0 0 (3) 2∈ (4) ∈
0 0
5. Net flux of cube given in figure is 5. fn;s x;s ?ku dk ÝyDl gksxk
q q

q 2q q 2q
(1) ∈ (2) ∈ (1) ∈ (2) ∈
0 0 0 0

3q q 3q q
(3) 2 ∈ (4) 2 ∈ (3) 2 ∈ (4) 2 ∈
0 0 0 0

2
6. In uniform electric field a charge particle q is moving 6. ,d leku oS|qr {ks=k esa ,d vkos'k q fcUnq A ls B xfr
from point A to B, then the work done by external
force in moving a charge from A to B
djrk gS tc vkos'k dks xfreku djkus ds fy;s vko';d
dk;Z gS

+q(m)AV B
1 V2 +q(m)AV B
V2
1

(1) q(V1 – V2 ) (2) q(V2 – V1 ) (1) q(V1 – V2 ) (2) q(V2 – V1 )

(3) qV1 (4) qV2 (3) qV1 (4) qV2
7. Surface charge density of a charged sphere is σ. 7. fdlh xksys dk lrgh vkos'k ?kuRo σ gS rc bldh lrg
The potential on its surface is given by ij foHko gksxk
σ σR σ σR
(1) ∈ (2) 2 ∈ (1) ∈ (2) 2∈
0 0 0 0

σR σR
(3) ∈ (4) Zero (3) ∈ (4) 'kwU;
0 0

8. Energy stored in the capacitor is 8. la/kfj=k esa lafpr ÅtkZ gksxh

1 1
(1) CV2 in the form of electric field (1) CV 2 , oS|rq {ks=k ds :i esa
2 2

1 1
(2) CV 2 in the form of magnetic field (2) CV 2 , pqEcdh; {ks=k ds :i esa
2 2
(3) CV 2 in the form of both electric field and (3) CV2] nksuksa oS|rq {ks=k vkSj pqEcdh; {ks=k ds :i esa
magnetic field
(4) CV2] oS|rq {ks=k ds :i esa
(4) CV2 in the form of electric field
9. The capacity between the points a and b (plate area 9. fp=k esa IysVksa ls cus la/kfj=k dh /kfjrk gksxh (IysV dk
is A) {ks=kiQy A)

a b a b

d d

3 ∈0 A 3 ∈0 A 3∈0 A 3∈0 A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
d 2d d 2d

4 ∈0 A ∈0 A 4∈0 A ∈0 A
(3) (4) (3) (4)
d 3d d 3d

10. Plate separation of air capacitor is 3 mm. If dielectric 10. fdlh la/kfj=k dh IysVksa ds chp dh nwjh 3 mm gSA ;fn
strength of air is 3 × 106 V/m, then maximum voltage ok;q dk ijkoS|rq lkeF;Z 3 × 106 V/m gS] rc la/kfj=k dks
given to the capacitor is vf/dre fdruk foHko fn;k tk ldrk gS
(1) 3 × 106 V (2) 9 × 106 V (1) 3 × 106 V (2) 9 × 106 V
(3) 9 × 103 V (4) 3 × 103 V (3) 9 × 103 V (4) 3 × 103 V

3
11. When copper and germenium are heated then their 11. tc rk¡cs vkSj tjesfu;e nksuksa dks xeZ fd;k tkrk gS rc
resistances are respectively
mudk izfrjks/ Øe'k%
(1) Increase and decrease
(1) c<sx+ k] ?kVsxk
(2) Increase, increase (2) c<+x
s k] c<sx+ k
(3) decrease and decrease (3) ?kVsxk] ?kVsxk
(4) decrease, increase (4) ?kVsxk] c<+x s k
12. Equivalent resistance of given set of resistances 12. fn;s x;s usVodZ dk a rFkk b ds chp dk izfrjks/ gS
between the points a and b is

3Ω 3Ω 3Ω 3Ω
3Ω 3Ω

a b a 3Ω 3Ω b
3Ω 3Ω
(1) 6Ω (2) 3Ω (1) 6Ω (2) 3Ω
(3) 7.5Ω (4) 15Ω (3) 7.5Ω (4) 15Ω
13. The potential defference between the plates of 13. ifjiFk esa la/kfj=k ds fljksa dk foHko gksxk
capacitor is
2Ω 4V 2Ω 4V

3µF 3µF
a b a b
3Ω 3Ω

3V 3V
(1) 18V (2) 12V (1) 18V (2) 12V

6 18 6 18
(3) V (4) V (3) V (4) V
5 5 5 5
14. When n bulbs, each of power P, are connected in 14. tc P 'kfDr okys n cYcksa dks Js.khØe esa tksM+us ij O;;
series and the combination is connected to the 'kfDr P1 gSA ;fn lHkh cYcksa dks lekUrj Øe esa tksM+ nsa
source, then power of combination is P1. If all the
bulbs are connected in parallel to the same source, rc O;; 'kfDr P2 gS rc P2/P1 dk vuqikr gksxk
then power is P2. The value of P2/P1 is
1
1 (1) n (2)
(1) n (2) n
n
1
1 (3) n2 (4)
(3) n2 (4) n2
n2
15. Which of the following is immaterial for fuse wire? 15. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk Ý;wt rkj ds fy;s dksbZ izHkko ugha Mkysxk\
(1) Length (1) yEckbZ

(2) Area of cross section (2) vuqikr dkV dk {ks=kiQy

(3) Mass (3) nzO;eku

(4) Specific resistance (4) fof'k"V izfrjks/
16. When a charge particle q(m) is projected in uniform 16. tc fdlh vkosf'kd d.k (q, m) dks ,d leku pqEcdh;
magnetic field normally with kinetic energy K, then {ks=k esa K xfrt ÅtkZ ls pqEcdh; {ks=k ds yEcor~ iQsadk
the radius of path is proportional to
tkrk gS rc blds iFk dh f=kT;k lekuqikrh gksxh
1
(1) (2) m 1
q (1) (2) m
q
(3) K (4) All of these (3) (4) buesa ls lHkh
K
4
17. When a charge particle is moving in uniform 17. tc dksbZ vkosf'kr d.k ,d leku pqEcdh; {ks=k esa xfr
G G
magnetic field (v ⊥ B) , then which of the following G G
(v ⊥ B) djrk gS rc fuEu esa ls dkSu lk fu;r jgsxk
remains constant?
(1) Speed (2) Angular momentum (1) pky (2) dks.kh; laox
s
(3) Kinetic energy (4) All of these (3) xfrt ÅtkZ (4) buesa ls lHkh
18. Magnetic field at point P is 18. fp=k esa /kjkokgh rkj ds dkj.k P fcUnq ij pqEcdh; {ks=k gS

l l
I I
P P
l l
μ0I μ 0I
(1) (2) μ0I μ0I
4 2 πl 4 πl (1) (2)
4 2πl 4 πl
μ0I μ 0I μ0I μ0I
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2πl 2 2πl 2πl 2 2πl
19. In a cyclotron, a charge particle (q, m) is completed 19. fdlh lkbDyksVªkWu esa ,d vkosf'kr d.k (q, m) n
pDdj iwjk
n rotations. The energy gained by it is djrk gS rc blds }kjk dh xbZ viuh ÅtkZ esa o`f¼ gksxh
(1) nqV (2) 2nqV (1) nqV (2) 2nqV
(3) n2qV (4) qV (3) n2qV (4) qV
20. The ratio of voltage sensitivity and current sensitivity is 20. foHko lqxkz fgrk vkSj /kjk lqxkz fgrk dk vuqikr gksxk
1 1
(1) (2) R (1) (2) R
R R
1 1
(3) R2 (4) (3) R2 (4)
R 2 R2
G G G G
21. Due to a magnet the angle between M and B is 21. fdlh pqEcd ds dkj.k M rFkk chp dk dks.k 90°
B ds
90°. The angle made by line joining the magnet and gS rc fcUnq vkSj pqEcd dks feykus okyh js[kk vkSj oS|qr
point, with dipole moment is
f}/qoz ds chp dks.k gksxk
(1) 45° (2) 60°
(1) 45° (2) 60°
–1 –1
(3) tan ( 2) (4) tan (2) –1
(3) tan ( 2) (4) tan–1(2)
22. Tangent law is 22. Li'kZT;k fu;e gS
(1) B = BH tan θ (2) BH = B tan θ (1) B = BH tan θ (2) BH = B tan θ
(3) B = BH sin θ (4) B = BH cos θ (3) B = BH sin θ (4) B = BH cos θ
23. Which of following is true? 23. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk dFku lR; gS\
(1) For diamagnetic substances χ is small and (1) izfr pqEcdh; inkFkks± ds fy;s χ NksVk rFkk Í.kkRed
negative gksrk gS
(2) For paramagnetic substances µr is small and (2) vuqpqEcdh; inkFkks± ds fy;s µr NksVk vkSj 1 ls cM+k
greater than 1 gksrk gS
(3) For ferromagnetic substances I-H curve is not a (3) ykSg pqEcdh; inkFkks± ds fy;s I-H oØ lh/h js[kk ugha
straight line gksrh gS
(4) All of these (4) buesa ls lHkh
24. Curic law is 24. D;wjh dk fu;e gS
1 1
(1) χ ∝ (2) χ ∝ T (1) χ ∝ (2) χ ∝ T
T T
1
(3) χ ∝ 2 (4) χ ∝ T
1 2
(3) χ ∝ (4) χ ∝ T
2
2 T
T

5
 dB dB
25. Magnetic field in a region varying at the rate of . 25. fdlh {ks=k esa pqEcdh; {ks=k dh nj ls ifjofrZr gks
dt dt
A loop of area A is kept in the magnetic field in such jgk gSA bl {ks=k esa ,d A {ks=k dk ywi yEcor~ j[kk x;k
a way that plane of loop is perpendicular to the field. gSA ;fn bl ywi dk izfrjks/ R gS rc ywi esa izsfjr /kjk
If resistance of the loop is R, then induced current gksxh
in the loop is
dB A dB
dB A dB (1) A (2)
(1) A (2) dt R dt
dt R dt
dB dB
(3) RA (4) Zero (3) RA (4) 'kwU;
dt dt

26. In the given figure charge stored on the capacitor is 26. fp=k esa la/kfj=k ij lafpr vkos'k gksxk
(side of the frame is 2m)

×
×
×
×
×
×
→
B = 0.4T
×
×
×
×
×
×
→
B = 0.4T

×
×
×
×
×
×
1
v = 5m/s
×
×
×
×
×

1 ×
C=5µF
C=5µF v = 5m/s 2

×
×
×
×
×
×
2
×
×
×
×
×
×

×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×

(1) 20 µC and plate 1 is positive (1) 20 µC vkSj IysV 1 /ukRed gksxh

(2) 10 µC and plate 1 is positive (2) 10 µC vkSj IysV 1 /ukRed gksxh
(3) 20 µC and plate 2 is positive (3) 20 µC vkSj IysV 2 /ukRed gksxh
(4) 10 µC and plate 2 is positive (4) 10 µC vkSj IysV 2 /ukRed gksxh
27. A coil of N turns is rotating with angular velocity ω 27. ,d N iQsjksa okyh dq.Myh ,d leku pqEcdh; {ks=k esa ω
in uniform magnetic field B. The maximum induced dks.kh; osx ls ?kwe jgh gS rc dq.Myh esa vf/dre izsfjr
emf in the coil is
fo|qr okgd cy gksxk
NBAω
(1) (2) NBAω NBAω
2 (1) (2) NBAω
2
(3) NBA (4) NBω (3) NBA (4) NBω
28. Mutual inductance of two solenoids (each of length 28. nks ifjukfydkvksa dk vU;ksU; izjs .k xq.kkad D;k gksxk (izR;sd
l, area of cross section A, and number of turns N1
and N2)
dh yEckbZ l, vuqizLFk dkV dk {ks=kiQy A vkSj iQsjksa dh
la[;k N1 rFkk N2 gS)
μ0N1N2l μ0N1N2 l
(1) µ0N1N2A (2) (1) µ0N1N2A (2)
A A

μ0N1N22 A μ0N1N2 A μ0N1N22 A μ0N1N2 A

(3) (4) (3) (4)
l l l l

29. Time taken by the current to reach the rms value 29. izR;korhZ /kjk dk lehdj.k (I = 10 2 sin 100πt) gS rc
from peak value is (I = 10 2 sin 100πt) /kjk dks vf/dre eku ls oxZ ekè; ewy eku rd igq¡pus
esa yxk le; gS
1 1
(1) s (2) s 1 1
100 400 (1) s (2) s
100 400
1 1 1 1
(3) s (4) s (3) s (4) s
200 250 200 250

6
30. The graph between inductive reactance XL and 30. izsj.k izfr?kkr XL vkSj dks.kh; vko`fÙk ω ds chp dk xzkiQ
angular frequency ω is gksxk
XL XL
XL XL
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
ω ω
ω ω
XL XL
XL XL
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
ω ω ω ω
31. In the given R-L-C circuit, rms current in the circuit is 31. fn;s x;s R-L-C ifjiFk esa oxZekè; ewy /kjk gksxh

R=100Ω L=50Ω C=50Ω

R=100Ω L=50Ω C=50Ω

E = 220 2 sin 100πt V

E = 220 2 sin 100πt V
(1) 2.2 2 A (2) 2.2 A
(1) 2.2 2 A (2) 2.2 A
(3) 1.1 A (4) 1.1 2 A (3) 1.1 A (4) 1.1 2 A
G G G
32. In electromagnetic waves if E is along x axis and B 32. fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax esa lfn'k x v{k ds vuqfn'k rFkk
E
is along y axis then velocity of electromagnetic G
B lfn'k y v{k ds vuqfn'k gS rc fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax
waves is along
dk osx dk v{k gksxk
(1) z axis (2) –z axis
(1) z v{k (2) –z v{k
(3) –y axis (4) +y axis (3) –y v{k (4) +y v{k
33. A light of intensity I0 incident normally on a perfectly 33. ,d iwoZ ijkorZd ry ij I0 rhozrk dk izdk'k vkifrr gks
reflecting surface, then radiation pressure of the
surface is
jgk gS rc fofdj.k nkc gksxk
I0 I0 I0 I0
(1) (2) (1) (2)
c 2c c 2c
2I0 I0 2I0 I0
(3) (4) (3) (4)
c 3c c 3c
34. An object is placed infront of a concave mirror of 34. fdlh 20 cm iQksdl nwjh vory niZ.k ds lkeus fdlh oLrq
focal length 20 cm. If size of image is twice the size dks j[kus ij izfrfcEc dk vkdkj oLrq ds vkdkj dk nqxuq k
of object, then position of object is gS rc oLrq dh niZ.k ls fLFkfr gS
(1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm (1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) 40 cm (4) nksuksa (1)
o (2)
35. If light ray incident at P as in figure, then refreactive 35. ,d izdk'k fdj.k fp=kkuqlkj P ij vkifrr gksrh gS rc
index of medium is ekè;e dk ijkoS|rq kad gS

P
P
°
45

µ
45

(1) 2 (2) 1
(1) 2 (2) 1
1
(3) 2 (4) 1
2 (3) 2 (4)
2
7
36. In the given figure net apparent shift is 36. fp=k esa vkHkklh foLFkkiu gS

µ=2 4cm µ=2 4cm

10cm 10cm
3 3
µ= 3cm µ= 3cm
2 2

5cm 5cm
P P
(1) 14 cm (2) 3 cm (1) 14 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) 2 cm (4) 4 cm (3) 2 cm (4) 4 cm

37. Focal length of silvered lens of focal length 30 cm is 37. fp=k esa dybZ fd;s gq;s ySal dh iQksdl nwjh gksxh (ok;q esa
ySal dh iQksdl nwjh = 30 cm)

µ=1.5
µ=1.5

(1) 30 cm (2) 7.5 cm

(1) 30 cm (2) 7.5 cm
(3) 15 cm (4) 120 cm (3) 15 cm (4) 120 cm
38. In interference pattern, intensities of slits are 9I0 and 38. O;frdj.k iz;ksx esa fizQUtksa dh rhozrk;sa 9I0 rFkk 4I0 gS rc
4I0, then maximum and minimum intensities are
vf/dre vkSj U;wure rhozrk;sa gksxh
(1) 25 I0, I0 (2) 5 I0, I0
(1) 25 I0, I0 (2) 5 I0, I0
(3) 16 I0, 4 I0 (4) 13 I0, 13 I0 (3) 16 I0, 4 I0 (4) 13 I0, 13 I0
39. Angular position of nth secondary minima in single 39. ,dy fLyV foorZu iz;ksx esa nth f}rh;d dkyh fizQUt dh
slit diffraction pattern is given by
dks.kh; fLFkfr gksxh
–1 ⎛ λ ⎞ –1 ⎛ λ ⎞ –1 ⎛ λ ⎞ –1 ⎛ λ ⎞
(1) θn = sin ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ (2) θn = cos ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ (1) θn = sin ⎜ ⎟ (2) θn = cos ⎜ ⎟
d d
⎝ d⎠ ⎝ d⎠

–1 ⎛ λP ⎞ –1 ⎛ d ⎞ –1 ⎛ λP ⎞ –1 ⎛ d ⎞
(3) θn = sin ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ (4) θn = sin ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ (3) θn = sin ⎜ ⎟ (4) θn = sin ⎜ ⎟
d λ ⎝ d ⎠ ⎝λ⎠
40. If proton and α particle are accelerated by same 40. ;fn izksVkWu vkSj α d.k dks leku foHko ls Rofjr fd;k
potential, then the ratio of their deBroglie's tkrk gs] rc mudh Mh&czkXyh rjax nSè;Z dk vuqikr gksxk
wavelength is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 1 : 8
(3) 1 : 2 2 (4) 1 : 8

8
41. When light of wavelength 3000Å is incident on a 41. tc ,d 1.5 eV dk;ZiQyu okyh /krq dh lrg ij 3000Å
photosensitive material of work function 1.5 eV then
the maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron
rjaxnSè;Z dk iQksVkWu vkifrr gksrk gS rc mRlftZr bysDVªku
will be dh vf/dre xfrt ÅtkZ gksxh
(1) 4.2 × 10–19 J (2) 3.2 × 10–19 J (1) 4.2 × 10–19 J (2) 3.2 × 10–19 J

(3) 2.63 × 10–19 J (4) Zero (3) 2.63 × 10–19 J (4) 'kwU;
42. Which of the following spectral series for hydrogen 42. fuEu esa ls dkSu lh Js.kh vojDr fofdj.k {ks=k esa vkrh
atom lines in infrared region? gS\
(1) Paschen Series (2) Brackett Series (1) ik'pr Js.kh (2) czd
S Vs Js.kh
(3) Pfund Series (4) All (3) iqQUM Js.kh (4) lHkh
43. When electron jumps from second excited state fo 43. tc bysDVªkuW f}rh; mÙksftr voLFkk ls izFke mÙksftr voLFkk
first excited state, then its deBrogli's wavelength
esa dwnrk gS rc Mh&czkXs yh rjaxnSè;Z fdrus xquh gks tk;sxh
1
(1) Becomes 2 times (2) Becomes times (1) nks xquh (2) vk/h
2
2 2
(3) Becomes times (4) Remains same (3) xquh (4) leku jgsxh
3 3

44. In the given figure nuclear fission is given by 44. fp=k esa dkSu lk ukfHkdh; fo[k.Mu iznf'kZr djrk gS
BE BE
—– —–
A A
+ +
b b
+ +
c c
a d + a +
d
+ +
z z
(1) a (2) b (1) a (2) b
(3) c (4) d (3) c (4) d

45. Graph between ν and Z in Moseley's law is 45. ekSlys ds fu;e esa ν rFkk Z dk xzkiQ gksxk

ν ν ν ν

(1) (2) (1) (2)

Z Z Z Z

ν ν ν ν

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Z Z Z Z

46. When trivalent impurity is added to pure 46. tc f=kla;ksth v'kqf¼ 'kq¼ v/Zpkyd esa feykbZ tkrh gS rc
semiconductor then
(1) p izdkj dk v¼Zpkyd curk gS
(1) p type semiconductor is formed
(2) n izdkj dk v¼Zpkyd curk gS
(2) n type semiconductor is formed
(3) LED curk gS
(3) LED is formed
(4) iQksVks Mk;ksM curk gS
(4) Photo diode is formed

9
47. Which of the following is reverse biased? 47. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk i'p vfHkur Mk;ksM gS

(1) 2V (1) 2V

5V 2V 5V 2V
(2) (2)

5V 5V
(3) (3)

(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) nksuksa (1) o (3)

48. Which of the following is/are use/s of a transistor? 48. fuEu esa dkSu lk Vªkfa UtLVj dk mi;ksx gS
(1) Switch (2) Oscillator (1) fLop (2) nksyfu=k
(3) Amplifier (4) All of these (3) izo/Zd (4) buesa ls lHkh
49. In the given transistor circuit amplification factor is 49. fn;s x;s Vªkfa tLVj dk izo/Zu xq.kkad gS

V2 V2

C C
B B
V1 V1
5µA 5µA
E E
500µA 500µA

(1) 49 (2) 50 (1) 49 (2) 50

(3) 99 (4) 40 (3) 99 (4) 40

50. The equivalent GATE is 50. fn;s x;s ifjiFk ds fy;s rqY; GATE gS

A A

B B

(1) NAND (2) NOR

(1) NAND (2) NOR
(3) AND (4) OR
(3) AND (4) OR

10
 [ PART - B : CHEMISTRY]
51. Which of the following is wrong with respect to 51. RCOONa ds fo|qr&vi?kVu ds lUnHkZ esa fuEu esa ls
electrolysis of RCOONa? dkSulk xyr gS?
(1) CH4 cannot be prepared by this method (1) bl fof/ }kjk CH4 fu£er ugha tk ldrh gS
(2) Alkanes with even number of carbon atoms (2) dsoy dkcZu ijek.kqvksa ds le la[;k okys ,Ydsu bl
prepared by this method fof/ }kjk fu£er gksrs gSa
(3) The reaction follows ionic mechanism (3) vfHkfØ;k vk;fud fØ;kfof/ dk vuqikyu djrh gS
(4) A small quantity of RCOOR is also produced (4) RCOOR dh vYi ek=kk Hkh mRi gksrh gS
52. Reductive ozonolysis of but-1-ene gives 52. C;wV-1-bZu dk vipk;d vkstksuhdj.k nsrk gS
(1) Acetaldehyde and formaldehyde (1) ,sflV,sfYMgkbM ,oa iQkWefZs YMgkbM
(2) Propionaldehyde and formaldehyde (2) çksfi;ksu,sfYMgkbM ,oa iQkWefZs YMgkbM
(3) Acetaldehyde only (3) dsoy ,sflV,sfYMgkbM
(4) Oxalic acid and propionaldehyde (4) vkDlsfyd vEy ,oa çksfi;ksu,sfYMgkbM
53. The reaction of HBr on CH3 C CH2 in the 53. ijkWDlkbM dh mifLFkfr esa CH3 C CH2 ij HBr dh
CH3 CH3
presence of peroxide will give fØ;k ls çkIr gksrk gS
(1) CH 3 CH CH2 Br (1) CH 3 CH CH2 Br
CH3 CH3

(2) CH 3 CBr CH3 (2) CH 3 CBr CH3

CH3 CH3

(3) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — Br (3) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — CH2 — Br

(4) CH3 CH2 CH CH3 (4) CH3 CH2 CH CH3

Br Br

54. Among the following, which has electron withdrawing 54. csUthu oy; ij fuEu esa ls fdlesa bysDVªkuW fu"dklh ijUrq
but o/p-directing group on benzene ring? o/p-funs'Z kh lewg gS\
NO2 NO2
CH2OH CH2OH
(1) (2) (1) (2)

OH OH
Cl Cl
(3) (4) (3) (4)

55. Acetylene is passed through a solution of 1% 55. 40% H2SO4 esa 1% HgSO4 foy;u ls ,sflVyhu xqtkjh
HgSO4 in 40% H2SO4. The product on oxidation, tkrh gSA vkWDlhdj.k ij mRikn vafre :i ls nsxk
finally gives
(1) esFksuksbd vEy (2) ,Fksuksbd vEy
(1) Methanoic acid (2) Ethanoic acid
(3) Propanoic acid (4) Propanone (3) çksisuksbd vEy (4) çksisuksu
11
56. Toluene is oxidised by chromyl chloride to produce 56. Øksfey DyksjkbM }kjk VkWybq uZ dk vkWDlhdj.k gksus lks çkIr
(1) CO2 + CO2 (2) C6H5CHO
gksrk gS
(1) CO2 + CO2 (2) C6H5CHO
(3) C6H5COOH (4) C6H5COCl
(3) C6H5COOH (4) C6H5COCl
57. Which of the following is aromatic according to
57. gdsy fu;e ds vuqlkj] fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,sjksefS Vd gS\
Huckel rule?
+ –
+ – ..
.. (1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) + (4) buesa ls lHkh

(3) + (4) All of these

58. Which of the following is not considered as a green 58. fuEu esa ls dkSulh xzhu gkml xSl ugha ekuh tkrh gS\
house gas? (1) CO2 (2) CH4
(1) CO2 (2) CH4
(3) ty ok"i (4) CO
(3) Water vapour (4) CO
59. A sample of water is quite rich in oxygen. Its BOD 59. ty dk ,d uewuk iw.kZr;k vkWDlhtu ls le`¼ gSA bldk
is expected to be BOD gks ldrk gS
(1) Less than 5 (2) Between 5 and 7 (1) 5 ls de (2) 5 rFkk 7 ds eè;
(3) Between 7 and 10 (4) More than 10 (3) 7 rFkk 10 ds eè; (4) 10 ls vf/d
60. Thionyl chloride (SOCl2) prefers to convert C2H5OH 60. Fkk;ksfuy DyksjkbM (SOCl2), C2H5OH dks 'kq¼ C2H5Cl esa
to pure C2H5Cl because ifjo£rr djrs gS]a D;ksfa d
(1) C2H5OH is pure (1) C2H5OH 'kq¼ gS
(2) C2H5Cl is a gas (2) C2H5Cl ,d xSl gS
(3) HCl and SO2 produced are gases (3) mRi HCl ,oa SO2 xSlas gS
(4) SOCl2 is fast reacting chemical (4) SOCl2 rhoz fØ;kdkjh jlk;u gS
OH OH OH OH
+
CHO +
CHO
CHCl3 + NaOH H2O/H CHCl3 + NaOH H2O/H
61. × 61. ×

The main intermediate that attacks benzene ring in bl vfHkfØ;k esa og eq[; eè;orhZ tks csUthu oy; ij
this reaction is vkØe.k djrk gS] gS
(1) CCl3 (2) CCl2
. . ..

..

(1) (2)
.. ..

CCl3
..

.. CCl2
(3) C —Cl (4) All of these ..
(3) C— Cl (4)
buesa ls lHkh
62. Which of the following is hydrolysed most easily?
62. fuEu esa ls dkSu lcls vklkuh ls tyvi?kfVr gksxk\
Cl Cl Cl Cl
H3C CH3 O2N NO2 H3C CH3 O2N NO2
(1) (2) (1) (2)

CH3 NO2 CH3 NO2

Cl Cl Cl Cl

(3) (4) (3) (4)

NH2 NH2

63. Which of the following is a tear gas? 63. fuEu esa dkSulh vJq&xSl gS\
(1) Chloretone (2) Chloropicrin (1) DyksjsVksu (2) Dyksjksfidjhu
(3) Salicylic acid (4) BHC (3) lSfylkbfyd vEy (4) BHC
12
64. Consider the following bromo compounds 64. fuEu czkes ks ;kSfxdksa ij fopkj dhft;s
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(A) (B) CH3 (C) CH3 Br (A) (B) CH3 (C) CH3 Br
Br Br Br Br
The correct order of SN1 reactivity is SN1 fØ;k'khyrk dk lgh Øe gS
(1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A (1) A > B > C (2) B > C > A
(3) B > A > C (4) C > B > A (3) B > A > C (4) C > B > A
65. Which of the following is hypnotic chemical? 65. fuEu esa ls dkSulk lEeksfgr jlk;u gS\
(1) CHCl3 (2) O2N — CCl3 (1) CHCl3 (2) O2N — CCl3
(3) (CH3)2C(OH)CCl3 (4) All of these (3) (CH3)2C(OH)CCl3 (4)
buesa ls lHkh
66. The conversion of aniline to fluorobenzene through 66. Mkb,tksfu;e ;kSfxd ds fuekZ.k ls ,uhyhu dk ÝyqvksjkscUs thu
the formation of diazonium compound, is known as
esa :ikUrj.k dgykrk gS
(1) Swart reaction
(2) Balz Schiemann reaction (1) LokVZ vfHkfØ;k (2) ckYt 'kheku vfHkfØ;k
(3) Gattermann Koch reaction (3) xSVjeku dksp vfHkfØ;k (4) fcuZckWe fleksuhuh vfHkfØ;k
(4) Birnbaum Simonini reaction 67. CHCl3 uewus esa CHCl3 ds dqy vk;ru esa C2H5OH dh
67. A very small quantity (0.6 to 1.0%) of C2H5OH of the vfr vYi ek=kk (0.6 ls 1.0%) feyk;h tkrh gS
total volume of CHCl3 is added to CHCl3 sample (1) CHCl3 dks LFkkbZÑr djus ds fy;s
(1) To stabilise CHCl3
(2) bls ehBh xU/ cukus ds fy,
(2) To make it sweet smelling
(3) blds ok"i nkc dks de djus ds fy,
(3) To decrease its vapour pressure
(4) To remove any COCl2 formed (4) dksbZ fu£er COCl2 dks gVkus ds fy,
68. Which of the following alcohols is used in 68. is; esa fuEu esa fdl ,YdksgkWy dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS\
beverages? (1) esFksukWy (2) ,FksukWy
(1) Methanol (2) Ethanol
(3) çksius -1-vkWy (4) çksiu
s -2-vkWy
(3) Propan-1-ol (4) Propan-2-ol
69. vEyh; tyvi?kVu ds ckn fuEu esa dkSu fxzxukMZ vfHkdeZd
69. Which of the following will give 2° alcohol on reaction
with Grignard reagent followed by acidic hydrolysis? ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ls 2° ,YdksgkWy nsxk?
I. HCHO II. CH3CHO I. HCHO II. CH3CHO
III. HCOOC2H5 IV. CH3COCH3
III. HCOOC2H5 IV. CH3COCH3
(1) dsoy II (2) dsoy III
(1) II only (2) III only
(3) I & IV both (4) II & III both (3) I rFkk IV nksuksa (4) II rFkk III nksuksa
70. Which of the following reactant combinations can be 70. fuEu esa ls fdl vfHkdkjd la;kstu bZFkj ds fuekZ.k ds fy,
used for the preparation of ether? mi;ksx fd;s tk ldrs gS\a
I. (CH3)3CCl + CH3ONa II. (CH3)3C – ONa + CH3Cl I. (CH3)3CCl + CH3ONa II. (CH3)3C – ONa + CH3Cl

III. Cl + CH3ONa IV. ONa + CH3Cl III. Cl + CH3ONa IV. ONa + CH3Cl
(1) I & II (2) III & IV (1) I ,oa II (2) III ,oa IV
(3) II & IV (4) All of these (3) II ,oa IV (4) buesa ls lHkh
71. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?
71. fuEu esa ls fdlesa mPpre DoFkukad gS\
(1) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — OH
(1) CH3 — CH2 — CH2 — OH
(2) CH2 CH2 CH2
(2) CH2 CH2 CH2
OH OH
OH OH
(3) CH2 CH CH3 (3) CH2 CH CH3
OH OH OH OH
(4) CH2 CH CH2 (4) CH2 CH CH2
OH OH OH OH OH OH
13
72. The IUPAC name of glycerol is 72. fXyljkWy dk IUPAC uke gS
(1) 2-Hydroxypropan-1, 3-diol (1) 2-gkbMªkD
W lhçksius -1, 3-MkbvkWy
(2) 1-Hydroxypropan-1, 2-diol (2) 1-gkbMªkD
W lhçksius -1, 2-MkbvkWy
(3) 1, 3-Dihydroxypropan-2-ol (3) 1, 3-MkbgkbMªkDW lhçksius -2-vkWy
(4) Propane-1, 2, 3-triol (4) çksisu-1, 2, 3-VªkbvkWy
73. The major product of the following reaction is 73. fuEu vfHkfØ;k dk eq[; mRikn gS
OH OH

Br2/H2O Br2/H2O

(1) 4-Bromophenol (1) 4-czke

s ksiQhukWy
(2) 2-Bromophenol (2) 2-czke
s ksiQhukWy
(3) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol (3) 2, 4, 6-VªkbZczkseksiQhukWy
(4) 3-Bromophenol (4) 3-czke
s ksiQhukWy
74. Which of the following is a strong acid but does not 74. fuEu esa ls dkSu çcy vEy gS ijUrq 'COOH’ lewg mifLFkr
contain ‘COOH’ group? ugha gksrk gS\
(1) Salicylic acid (2) Carbolic acid (1) lSfylSfyd vEy (2) dkcksfZ yd vEy
(3) Picric acid (4) Hydrocyanic acid (3) fidfjd vEy (4) gkbMªkslkbfud vEy
75. pH value ________ is maintained during addition of 75. NH3 O;qRi dks dkcksfZ uy ;kSfxd esa ;ksx ds nkSjku pH eku
NH3 derivative to carbonyl compound. ________ j[kk tkrk gSA
(1) 7.5 (2) 3.5 (1) 7.5 (2) 3.5
(3) 1.2 (4) 13.01 (3) 1.2 (4) 13.01
76. The process, which is regulated by POPOFF's rule 76. ikWiksiQ fu;e }kjk dkSulk çØe fu;af=kr gksrk gS\
(1) Iodoform reaction (1) vk;ksMksiQkeZ vfHkfØ;k
(2) Reduction of unsymmetrical ketone (2) vlefefr dhVksu dk vip;u
(3) Oxidation of unsymmetrical ketone (3) vlefefr dhVksu dk vkWDlhdj.k
(4) Both (2) & (3) (4) (2) ,oa (3) nksuksa
77. Which can undergo self aldol condensation? 77. Lo% ,YMksy la?kuu dkSu dj ldrk gS\
(1) CH3CHO (2) C2H5CHO (1) CH3CHO (2) C2H5CHO
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) All of these (3) CH3COCH3 (4) blesa ls lHkh
Br Br
Red P/Br2 yky P/Br2
78. RCH2COOH RCHCOOH . This reaction 78. RCH2COOH RCHCOOH . ;g vfHkfØ;k
is known as D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Schmidt’s reaction (2) Kolbe’s reaction (1) f'eV vfHkfØ;k (2) dksYcs vfHkfØ;k
(3) HVZ reaction (4) Curtius reaction (3) HVZ vfHkfØ;k (4) d£V;l vfHkfØ;k
79. Highest value of Ka can be assigned for 79. fdlds fy, Ka dk mPpre eku gS\
COOH COOH COOH COOH

(1) (2) (1) (2)

NO2 NO2
COOH COOH COOH COOH
NO2 NO2
(3) (4) (3) (4)

NO2 NO2
14
80. IUPAC name of cinnamic acid 80. fluSfed vEy dk IUPAC uke gS
(1) 3-phenyl propanoic acid (1) 3-isQfuy çksius ksbd vEy
(2) But-2-enoic acid (2) C;wV-2-buksbd vEy
(3) 3-phenyl propenoic acid (3) 3-isQfuy çksfiuksbd vEy
(4) 2, 3-diphenyl propenoic acid (4) 2, 3-MkbisQfuy çksfiuksbd vEy
81. Which of the following ketone gives iodoform reaction? 81. fuEu esa ls dkSulk dhVksu vk;ksMksiQkWeZ vfHkfØ;k djrk gS\
(1) CH3 —COCH3 (1) CH3 —COCH3

(2) COC2H5 (2) COC2H5

O O

(3) C (3) C

(4) C2H5COC2H5 (4) C2H5COC2H5

82. Which of the following is more acidic? 82. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vf/d vEyh; gS\
Cl Cl

(1) CH3 C COOH (2) CH2 CH2 COOH (1) CH3 C COOH (2) CH2 CH2 COOH

F F F F
Cl Cl

(3) CH3 CH COOH (4) CH3 C COOH (3) CH3 CH COOH (4) CH3 C COOH

Cl Br Cl Br
C H
83. R – COCl + NaN 3 ⎯→ X
C H
⎯⎯6⎯6 ⎯
→ Y 83. R – COCl + NaN 3 ⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯
6 6
Δ,–N
→ Y
Δ ,–N2 2
H3 O+ iuqZfoU; kl H3O+
Rearrangement
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (Z) ⎯⎯ ⎯⎯ → 1° amine ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (Z) ⎯⎯⎯→ 1° ,sehu
For above conversion which of the following fact is mijksDr :ikUrj.k ds fy, fuEu esa ls dkSulk rF; vlaxr gS\
irrelevant?
(1) It is known as Curtius reaction (1) ;g d£V;l vfHkfØ;k dgykrh gS
(2) Y is alkyl isocyanate (2) Y ,sfYdy vkblkslk;usV gS
(3) Amine contains same number of carbon as acid
(3) ,ehu esa ,flM DyksjkbM dh rjg dkcZu dh la[;k leku gS
chloride
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa
84. The strongest base among the following is 84. fuEu esa çcyre {kkj gS
(1) Piperidine (2) Pyrrole (1) fiisjhfMu (2) fijksy
(3) Aniline (4) Pyridine (3) ,fuyhu (4) fijhfMu
85. The strongest base in gas phase is 85. xSl çkoLFkk esa lokZf/d çcy {kkj gS
(1) NH3 (2) (CH3)2NH (1) NH3 (2) (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N (4) Aniline (3) (CH3)3N (4)
,fuyhu
86. The compound which gives N2 gas on treatment with 86. ;kSfxd ftldks NaNO2 + HCl ds lkFk vfHkÑr djokus ij
NaNO2 + HCl. N2 xSl nsrk gS] og gS
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3CH2NH2 (1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3CH2NH2
(3) (CH3)2CHNH2 (4) All of these (3) (CH3)2CHNH2 (4)
buesa ls lHkh
87. D-(+) glucose does not react with 87. D-(+) Xywdkst fdlds lkFk fØ;k ugha djrk gS\
(1) NaHSO3 (2) Brady reagent (1) NaHSO3 (2) cSMz h vfHkdeZd
(3) Tollen’s reagent (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) VkWysu vfHkdeZd (4) (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa

15
 O3/Zn dil. O3/Zn ruq
88. CH3 CH CH CH3 H2O
(A) NaOH (B) 88. CH3 CH CH CH3 H2O
(A) NaOH (B)

The product ‘B’ is mRikn ‘B’ gS

(1) CH3 —CH2CH2CHO (1) CH3 —CH2CH2CHO

(2) CH 3 CH CH2 C H (2) CH 3 CH CH2 C H

OH O OH O

CH3 CH3

(3) CH3 CH C H (3) CH3 CH C H

O O

(4) CH 3 C CH2 CH3 (4) CH 3 C CH2 CH3

O O

89. Monomer units of Terylene or Dacron 89. Vsjhyhu ;k MsØku dh ,dyd bdkbZ;k¡ gSa
(1) Melamine + HCHO (1) esy,sehu + HCHO
(2) Phenol + HCHO (2) iQhukWy + HCHO
(3) Ethylene glycol + Pthalic acid (3) ,sFkhyhu XykbdkWy $ fiFkSfyd vEy
(4) Ethylene glycol + Terephthalic acid (4) ,sFkhyhu XykbdkWy $ VsjhfiFkSfyd vEy
90. The well known antiseptic, Dettol, is a mixture of 90. vf/d çpfyr iwfrjks/h] MsVkWy fdldk feJ.k gS\
(1) Chloroxylenol + γ-terpeneol (1) DyksjkstkbyhukWy $ γ-V£ifuvkWy
(2) Fluoroxylenol + α-terpeneol (2) ÝyqvksjkstkbyhukWy $ α-V£ifuvkWy
(3) Chloroxylenol + α-terpeneol (3) DyksjkstkbyhukWy $ α-V£ifuvkWy

(4) Bromoxylenol + β-terpeneol (4) czksekstkbyhukWy $ β-V£ifuvkWy

91. Hardness of H2O is not due to 91. ty dh dBksjrk fdlds dkj.k ugha gksrh gS
(1) HCO3– (2) SO4– – (1) HCO3– (2) SO4– –
(3) Mg2+ (4) CO3– – (3) Mg2+ (4) CO3– –
92. Percentage concentration of 30 vol H 2 O 2 is 92. 30 vk;ru H2O2 dh izfr'kr lkUnzrk yxHkx gksxh
approximately
(1) 10 (2) 40
(1) 10 (2) 40
(3) 60 (4) 100 (3) 60 (4) 100
93. Thermally most stable carbonate is 93. rkih; :i ls lokZf/d LFkk;h dkcksuZ Vs gS
(1) BeCO3 (2) K2CO3 (1) BeCO3 (2) K2CO3
(3) Na2CO3 (4) CaCO3 (3) Na2CO3 (4) CaCO3
94. Caustic soda reacts with which element to produce 94. dkWfLVd lksMk fdl rRo ds lkFk fØ;k djds PH3 mRiUu
PH3 djrk gS
(1) White phosphorous (2) Black phosphorous (1) liQsn iQkWLiQksjl (2) dkyk iQkWLiQksjl
(3) Red phosphorous (4) All of these (3) yky iQkWLiQksjl (4) mijksDr lHkh
95. Least stable halide of Nitrogen is 95. ukbVªkt
s u dk U;wure LFkk;h gSykbM gS
(1) NF3 (2) NCl3 (1) NF3 (2) NCl3
(3) NBr3 (4) NI3 (3) NBr3 (4) NI3

16
96. Number of pπ-dπ bonds in SO3 is 96. SO3 esa mifLFkr pπ-dπ cU/ksa dh la[;k gS
(1) Zero (2) One (1) 'kwU; (2) ,d
(3) Two (4) Four (3) nks (4) pkj
97. Strongest acid is 97. izcyre vEy gS
(1) HOCl (2) HClO2 (1) HOCl (2) HClO2
(3) HClO3 (4) HClO4 (3) HClO3 (4) HClO4
98. Which can show optical isomerism? 98. izdkf'kd leko;ork dkSu iznf'kZr djsxk
(1) Trans [Cr(en)2Cl2]+ (2) Cis [Cr(en)2Cl2] (1) Trans [Cr(en)2Cl2]+ (2) Cis [Cr(en)2Cl2]
(3) [Pt(en)Cl2] (4) All of these (3) [Pt(en)Cl2] (4) mijksDr lHkh
99. Square planar complex is 99. oxZ leryh; ;kSfxd gS
(1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Cu(NH3)4]++ (1) [Ni(CO)4] (2) [Cu(NH3)4]++
(3) [NiCl4]– – (4) [Zn(CN)4]– – (3) [NiCl4]– – (4) [Zn(CN)4]– –

100. KMnO4 reacts with KI in alkaline medium to give 100. KMnO4 {kkjh; ekè;e esa KI ds lkFk fØ;k djds D;k
(1) KIO3 (2) I2 mRiUu djrk gS
(3) KOI (4) KIO2 (1) KIO3 (2) I2
(3) KOI (4) KIO2

[ PART - C : BOTANY]
101. Which one of the following plants is vegetatively 101. çÑfr esa fuEu esa ls dkSu lk ikni dkf;d :i ls ,d ioZ yEcs
propagated in nature by one internode long thick runner?
eksVs mifjHkwLrkjh }kjk ço£/r gksrk gS\
(1) Lawn grass (2) Water lily
(1) ykWu dh ?kkl (2) dqen q
(3) Water hyacinth (4) All of these (3) leqnz lks[k (4) buesa ls lHkh
102. Find correct match between 102. fuEu esa ls lgh feyku dk p;u dhft,
Column I Column II
dkWye I dkW y e II
a. Monoecious (i) Silene
a. mHk;fyaxkJ;h (i) lkbyhu
b. Dioecious (ii) Acalypha
b. ,dfyaxkJ;h (ii) ,sdsykbiQk
c. Trioecious (iii) Litchi
c. f=kvksdlh (iii) yhph
d. Polygamous (iv) Morus
d. loZfyaxh (iv) eksjl
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
103. Anther consisting of one lobe having one 103. ijkxdks'k ,d ikfy dk cuk gksrk gS ftlesa dsoy ,d
microsporangium only is found in
y?kqchtk.kq/kuh gksrh gS] ;g fdlesa ik;k tkrk gS\
(1) Smallest angiosperm (1) lcls NksVs vko`rchth esa
(2) Largest root parasite (2) lcls cM+s ewy ijthoh esa
(3) Smallest stem parasite (3) lcls NksVs LrEHk ijthoh esa
(4) Partial root parasite (4) vakf'kd ewy ijthoh esa
104. Which part of the anther functions as point of 104. ijkxdks'k dk dkSu lk Hkkx LiqQVu fcUnq ds :i esa dk;Z
dehiscence? djrk gS\
(1) Endothecium (2) Middle layer (1) vUrLFkhfl;e (2) eè; ijr
(3) Exothecium (4) Stomium (3) ckáFkhfl;e (4) LVksfe;e

17
105. Select an incorrect match 105. ,d xyr feyku dk p;u dhft;s
(1) Polyspory – Cuscuta (1) cgqchtk.kqrk – dqLdqVk
(2) Pollinium – Calotropis (2) iksyhfu;e – dsyksVªksfil
(3) Compound pollen grain – Drosera (3) la;Dq r ijkx d.k – Mªkl s js k
(4) Isobilateral tetrad – Dicots (4) lef}ik'oZ prq"d – f}chti=kh
106. Match the following 106. fuEu dk feyku dhft,
Column I Column II dkWye I dkW y e II
a. Parthenium (i) Nemec phenomenon a. ikFksfZ u;e (i) used s çØe
b. Hyacinthus (ii) Longest pollen grain b. gk;kflUFkl (ii) lcls yEck ijkx d.k
c. Myosotis (iii) Hay fever c. ek;kslksfVl (iii) ijkxt Toj
d. Zostera (iv) Smallest pollen grain d. tksLVsjk (iv) lcls NksVk ijkx d.k
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
107. Consider the following terms 107. fuEu 'kCnksa ij è;ku nhft;s
a. Integument b. Synergid a. vè;koj.k b. lgk;d dksf'kdk
c. Antipodal d. Secondary nucleus c. çfreq[kh dksf'kdk d. f}rh;d dsUnzd
e. Nucellus f. Endothelium e. chtk.Mdk; f. vUr% Lrj
Which of these structures are sporophytic in origin? buesa ls dkSulh lajpuk;sa mRifÙk esa chtk.kqnf~ Hkn gksrh gS\
a
(1) All, except d (2) a, b, c & e only (1) d ds vfrfjDr lHkh (2) a, b, c rFkk e dsoy
(3) a, d, e & f only (4) a, e & f only (3) a, d, e rFkk f dsoy (4) a, e rFkk f dsoy
108. A curved ovule with horse shoe shaped embryosac 108. ,d oØ chtk.M ftlesa ?kksM+s ds uky ln`'k Hkwz.kdks"k gksrk
is called as gS] D;k dgykrk gS\
(1) Circinotropous (2) Amphitropous (1) dq.Mfyr (2) vuqçLFk
(3) Anatropous (4) Hemianatropous (3) çrhi (4) v/Zçrhi
109. Most common type of embryosac shows 109. lcls lkekU; çdkj dk Hkw.z kdks"k n'kkZrk gS
(1) 3 + 1 + 3 arrangement of cells (1) dksf'kdkvksa dh 3 + 1 + 3 O;oLFkk
(2) 3 + 1 arrangement of cells (2) dksf'kdkvksa dh 3 + 1 O;oLFkk
(3) 2 + 3 + 3 arrangement of cells (3) dksf'kdkvksa dh 2 + 3 + 3 O;oLFkk
(4) 3 + 3 + 2 arrangement of cells (4) dksf'kdkvksa dh 3 + 3 + 2 O;oLFkk
110. Contrivances for self pollination are all, but not 110. fuEu esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr fn;s x;s lHkh Lo&ijkx.k ds
fy, ;qfDr;ka gS\
a
(1) Homogamy (2) Cleistogamy
(1) ledkyiDork (2) fuehfyrk
(3) Monocliny (4) Dicliny (3) mHk;fyaxrk (4) ,dfyaxrk
111. Pollen grain of one flower germinates more rapidly 111. ,d iq"i dk ijkx d.k blds Lo;a ds iq"i dh rqyuk esa
over stigma of another flower as compared to its own nwljs iq"i ds o£rdkxz ij vf/d 'kh?kzrk ls vadqfjr gksrk
flower, the phenomenon is called as gS] ;g ifj?kVuk D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Herkogamy (2) Dichogamy (1) vukReijkx.krk (2) fHkÂdkyiDork
(3) Prepotency (4) Heterostyly (3) çxq.krk (4) fo"keo£rdkRo
112. Match the following 112. fuEu dk feyku dhft;s
Column I Column II dkWye I dkW y e II
a. Salvia (i) Blastophaga a. lkfYo;k (i) CykLVksisQxk
b. Ficus (ii) Pseudocopulation b. iQkbdl (ii) dwV;qXeu
c. Aristolochia (iii) Bee c. ,fjLVksyksfd;k (iii) e/qeD[kh
d. Orchis (iv) Pit fall
d. vkW£dl (iv) fiV iQky
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (1) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

18
113. Growth of pollen tube is 113. ijkx ufydk dh o`f¼ gksrh gS
(1) Apical, unidirectional, chemotactic (1) 'kh"kZLFk] ,dfn'kh;] jlk;u&vuqpfyr
(2) Lateral, chemonastic (2) ik'oZ] jlk;u&vuqdqapfud
(3) Apical, unidirectional, chemotropic (3) 'kh"kZLFk] ,dfn'kh;] jlk;ukuqorhZ
(4) Diffused, chemotropic (4) folfjr] jlk;ukuqorhZ
114. Endosperm is absent in 114. Hkw.z kiks"k fdlesa vuqifLFkr jgrk gS\
(1) Podostemaceae (1) iksMksLVsel s h
(2) Trapaceae (2) Vªsislh
(3) Solanaceae (3) lksysuslh
(4) More than one option is correct (4) ,d ls vf/d fodYi lgh gSa
115. What will be the respective ploidy levels of embryo 115. Hkw.z k rFkk Hkw.z kiks"k dk futh xqf.krk Lrj D;k gksxk ;fn ,d
and endosperm if a hexaploid female plant is crossed "kVxqf.kr eknk ikni dks ,d prqxqZf.kr uj ikni ds lkFk
to a tetraploid male plant? ladfjr djk;k tkrk gS\
(1) 5x and 7x (2) 5x and 8x (1) 5x rFkk 7x (2) 5x rFkk 8x
(3) 6x and 4x (4) 8x and 5x (3) 6x rFkk 4x (4) 8x rFkk 5x
116. Embryo when arises directly from a nucellar or 116. Hkwz.k tc lh/s gh chtk.Mdk;h ;k vè;koj.kh dksf'kdk ls
integument cell, the phenomenon is called
mRi gksrk gS rks ;g ifj?kVuk dgykrh gS
(1) Haplospory
(1) vxqf.kr chtk.kqrk
(2) Non recurrent agamospermy
(2) vukorhZ vfu"ksdchtrk
(3) Adventive embryony (3) viLFkkfud Hkwz.krk
(4) Recurrent parthenogenesis (4) iqujkorhZ vfu"ksdtuu
117. If a female whose father is haemophilic marries to 117. ;fn ,d eknk ftlds firk ghekssiQhfyd gSa ,d lkekU; uj ls
normal male then probability of haemophilic progeny
will be
fookg djrh gS rks gheksiQhfyd lUrfr dh lEHkkouk D;k gksxh\

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 2 4 2

3 3
(3) (4) Zero (3) (4) 'kwU;
4 4
118. A colour blind man has normal brother and colour blind 118. ,d o.kkZU/ euq"; dk ,d lkekU; HkkbZ rFkk o.kkZU/ cgu gSA
sister. Phenotypes of the parents would be blds tudksa dk ley{k.kh D;k gksxk\
(1) Both are colour blind (1) nksuksa o.kkZU/
(2) Father normal, mother colour blind (2) firk lkekU;] eknk o.kkZU/
(3) Father colour blind, mother normal (3) firk o.kkZU/ ] ekrk lkekU;
(4) Father colour blind, mother carrier but normal (4)firk o.kkZU/] ekrk okgd ysfdu lkekU;
119. Which of the following is a better material for haploid 119. vxqf.kr mRiknu ds fy;s ,d csgrj inkFkZ gS?
production?
(1) ijkx (2) Hkwz.k
(1) Pollen (2) Embryo
(3) Protoplast (4) Ovule (3) thonzO; (4) chtk.M
120. Under biofortification programme, IARI has produced 120. ck;ksiQks£VfiQdslu dk;ZØeksa ds vUrZxr IARI us iks"kd çpqj
several nutrient enriched vegetable crops. Which of dbZ lCth iQlyksa dks mRikfnr fd;k gSA fuEu esa ls dkSu lh
the following vegetable crop has been enriched with lCth iQly dks foVkfeu A, Fe rFkk Ca ls çpqj fd;k x;k gS?
vitamin A, Fe and Ca?
(1) cFkqvk (2) ikyd
(1) Bathua (2) Spinach
(3) ljlksa (4) dn~nw
(3) Mustard (4) Pumpkin
19
121. The inherent capacity of a cell to regenerate a new 121. u;s tho mRi djus dh ,d dksf'kdk dh vUr£ufgr {kerk
organism is called D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Ontogeny (2) Totipotency (1) O;fDro`Ùk (2) iw.kZ'kDrrk
(3) Pluripotency (4) Proliferation (3) cgq'kDrrk (4) çpqjksn~Hkou
122. Correct statement in relation to sewage treatment is 122. eyty mipkj ds lEcU/ esa lgh dFku gS
(1) Grit, sand and other heavy particles are removed (1) dadM+] ckyw rFkk vU; Hkkjh d.kksa dks vkuqØfed fuL;Unu
by sequential filtration }kjk vyx fd;k tkrk gS
(2) BOD of primary effluent decreases initially and (2) çkFkfed cfg%L=kko dk BOD çkjEHk esa ?kVrk gS rFkk
secondary treatment continues till BOD increases
f}rh;d mipkj BOD ds c<+us rd yxkrkj fd;k tkrk gS
(3) In secondary treatment aerobic heterotrophic
(3) f}rh;d mipkj esa ok;qoh; ijiks"kh thok.kqvksa dk mi;ksx
microbes are employed for treatment of primary
effluent çkFkfed cfg%L=kko ds mipkj ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS
(4) Tertiary treatment is preferred if water is to be used (4) r`rh;d mipkj rc fd;k tkrk gS ;fn ty dk mi;ksx
for industrial and agricultural use vkS|kSfxd rFkk Ñ"kh; mi;ksx ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS
123. Blood cholesterol lowering agent ‘Statins’ are produced 123. :f/j dksysLVsjkWy fuEuu dkjd ^LVsfVu* fdldh fØ;k }kjk
by activity of mRi gksrs gSa\
(1) Mortierella renispora (2) Actinomycetes (1) eksVhZjsyk jsuhLiksjk (2) ,fDVuksekbflVht
(3) Yeast (4) Haemolytic bacteria (3) ;hLV (4) :f/jy;h thok.kq
124. Shakti, Rattan and Protina are 124. 'kfDr] jÙku rFkk çksfVuk gSa
(1) Lysine rich varieties of maize developed in India (1) Hkkjr esa fodflr eDds dh ykbflu çpqj fdLesa
(2) Tryptophan rich varieties of maize developed in India (2) Hkkjr esa fodflr eDds dh fVªIVksiQku çpqj fdLesa
(3) Methionine rich varieties of wheat developed in India (3) Hkkjr esa fodflr xsgw¡ dh esfFk;ksuhu çpqj fdLesa
(4) Protein rich varieties of rice developed in India (4) Hkkjr esa fodflr pkoy dh çksVhu çpqj fdLesa
125. Some microorganisms like bacteria, blue-green algae, 125. dqN lw{ethoksa tSls thok.kqvksa] uhys&gjs 'kSokyksa] ;hLV rFkk
yeast and filamentous algae are used as food and are rUrqe; 'kSokyksa dk mi;ksx Hkkstu ds :i esa fd;k tkrk gS rFkk
called SCP. They are processed to remove
;s SCP dgykrs gSaA ;s fdldks gVkus esa lalkf/r gksrs gSa\
(1) Excess nucleic acid (1) vR;f/d U;qfDyd vEy
(2) Erucic acid (2) bZ:fld vEy
(3) Excess fats (3) vR;f/d olk
(4) Toxic proteins (4) fo"kkDr çksVhu
126. Growing crops for alcohol production and other fuels 126. ,sYdksgkWy mRiknu rFkk vU; bZ/uksa ds fy, fodflr gks jgh iQly
is known as energy cropping. Which of the following ÅtkZ iQly dgykrh gSA USA }kjk vius xSlksgkWy dk;ZØe ds
crop is being experimented upon by USA for its fy, fuEu esa ls dkSu lh iQly dk ijh{k.k fd;k x;k gS?
Gasohal programme?
(1) Sugarcane (2) Tapioca (1) xÂk (2) VSfi;ksdk
(3) Maize (4) Sugar beet (3) eDdk (4) pqdUnj
127. Hoya and Canola are two varieties of rape seed. They 127. gks;k rFkk dSuksyk rksfj;k dh nks fdLesa gSaA ;s ___ rFkk ____
are free from___ and ____ antinutritional factors çfriks"k.kt dkjdksa ls eqDr gksrs gSa
(1) Cyanoalanine and erucic acid (1) lk;uks,sysuhu rFkk bZ:fld vEy
(2) Glucosinolate and erucic acid (2) XywdksfluksysV rFkk bZ:fld vEy
(3) Cyanoalanine and glucosinolate (3) lk;uks,sysuhu rFkk XywdksfluksysV
(4) Cyanoalanine, glucosinolate and erucic acid
(4) lk;uks,sysuhu, XywdksfluksysV rFkk bZ:fld vEy
20
128. The birth and death rates of four countries are given below. 128. uhps pkj ns'kksa dh tUe rFkk e`R;q nj nh x;h gSA fuEu esa ls fdl
Which one will have the least population growth rate?
ns'k esa U;wure tula[;k o`f¼ nj gksxh\
Country Birth rate/1000 Death rate/1000
ns'k tUe nj/1000 e`R;q nj/1000
M 15 5
M 15 5
N 25 10
N 25 10
O 35 18
O 35 18
P 48 41 P 48 41
(1) M (2) N (1) M (2) N
(3) O (4) P (3) O (4) P
129. In a terrestrial ecosystem, greater fraction of energy 129. ,d LFkyh; ifjrU=k esa ÅtkZ dk c`gr~ Hkkx fdlds }kjk çokfgr
flows through gksrk gS\
(1) Predator prey food chain (1) ijHk{kh Hk{; [kk| Üka`[kyk
(2) Detritus food chain (2) vijnh [kk| Üka`[kyk
(3) Grazing food chain (3) 'kkdorhZ [kk| Üka`[kyk
(4) Parasitic food chain (4) ijthoh [kk| Üka`[kyk

130. The ecological niche of an organism 130. ,d tho dh ikfjfLFkfrd deZrk

(1) Represents its functional role and status (1) bldh fØ;kRed Hkwfedk rFkk fLFkfr dks fu:fir djrh gS
(2) Is specific to the organism (2) tho ds fy, fof'k"V gksrh gS
(3) Is usually occupied by another species (3) lkekU;r;k nwljh tkfr }kjk vf/Ñr dj yh tkrh gS
(4) Both (1) & (2) are correct (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa lgh gSa
131. From the total cost of various ecosystem services, 131. fofHk ifjrU=k lsokvksa ds dqy [kpZ esa ls tyok;q O;oLFkkiu ds
the climate regulation accounts for about fy, yxHkx fdruk [kpZ fd;k x;k\
(1) 50% (2) 31% (1) 50% (2) 31%
(3) 10% (4) 6% (3) 10% (4) 6%
132. Recognising the deleterious effects of ozone depletion, 132. vkstksu {kh.krk ds gkfudj çHkkoksa dks Lohdkj djrs gq, ,d
an international treaty, effective in 1989 which was vUrjkZ"Vªh; lfU/ tks 1989 esa çHkko esa vk;h] ftl ij vkstksu
signed to control the emission of ozone depleting dks {kh.k djus okys inkFkksaZ ds mRltZu ds fu;U=k.k ds fy,
substances is gLrk{kj fd;s x;s] og lfU/ gS
(1) Montreal protocol (2) Kyoto protocol (1) ekWf.Vª;y çksVksdkWy (2) D;ksVks çksVksdkWy
(3) Earth summit (4) World summit (3) i`Foh f'k[kj lEesyu (4) fo'o f'k[kj lEesyu
133. How many types of gametes will be formed by an 133. ml tho }kjk fdrus çdkj ds ;qXedksa dk fuekZ.k fd;k tk;sxk
organism having the genotype AaBbCc?
ftlesa AaBbCc lethuh gS?
(1) 3 × 3 × 3 (2) 23 (1) 3 × 3 × 3 (2) 23
(3) 6 (4) 3 (3) 6 (4) 3
134. Find the incorrect match 134. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,
(1) Terminal flower : Recessive trait in garden pea (1) varLFk iq"i : m|ku eVj esa vçHkkoh y{k.k
(2) Test cross : Cross of F1 progeny with the recessive (2) ijh{k.k ladj.k : F1 lUrfr dk vçHkkoh tud ds lkFk
parent ladj.k
(3) Mendel : Selected 7 true breeding pea plant (3) es.My : 7 'kq¼ çtuuh eVj ikni fdLeksa dk p;u fd;k
varieties
(4) iqusV pkS[kkus : ,d vkuqoaf'kd ladj.k esa lUrfr;ksa ds
(4) Punnett square : Graphical representation to
calculate the probability of all possible genotypes lHkh lEHkkfor lethfu;ksa dh lEHkkouk dh x.kuk djus
of offspring in a genetic cross ds fy, xzkiQh; fu:i.k
21
135. Match the terms in Column-I with their appropriate 135. dkWye-I esa fn;s x;s 'kCnksa dk feyku dkWye-II esa buds mi;qDr
explanations in Column-II
Li"Vhdj.k ds lkFk dhft,
Column-I Column-II
dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Dominance (i) F1 generation resembles
a. çHkkfork (i) F1 ih<+h nksuksa tudksa ls
both the parents
lekurk j[krh gS
b. Incomplete (ii) F1 resembled either of
dominance the two parents b. viw.kZ çHkkfork (ii) F1 nksuksa tudksa esa ls fdlh
c. Co-dominance (iii) F1 is in between the two ,d lkFk lekurk j[krk gS
parents c. lg&çHkkfork (iii) F1 nks tudksa ds eè; dk
d. Multiple alleles (iv) HumanABO blood group gksrk gS
system
d. cgq,yhy (iv) ekuo ABO :f/j lewg rU=k
(1) a(ii); b(iii); c(i); d(iv) (2) a(i); b(iii); c(iv); d(ii)
(1) a(ii); b(iii); c(i); d(iv) (2) a(i); b(iii); c(iv); d(ii)
(3) a(iv); b(ii); c(i); d(iii) (4) a(ii); b(i); c(iii); d(iv) (3) a(iv); b(ii); c(i); d(iii) (4) a(ii); b(i); c(iii); d(iv)
136. Which of the following type of gamete is not produced 136. ml tho }kjk fuEu esa ls fdl çdkj ds ;qXedksa dk mRiknu ugha
by an individual with PpQqrr genotype?
fd;k tkrk gS ftlesa PpQqrr lethuh gS?
(1) PQR (2) PQr (1) PQR (2) PQr
(3) Pqr (4) pqr (3) Pqr (4) pqr
137. The ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic effect 137. ,d thu esa cgq&ley{k.kh çHkko gksus dh ;ksX;rk D;k
is known as dgykrh gS\
(1) Epistasis (2) Dominance (1) çcyrk (2) çHkkfork
(3) Pleiotropy (4) Linkage (3) cgqçHkkfork (4) lgyXurk
138. If crossing over takes place at 4-stranded stage in 138. U;wjksLiksjk esa ;fn fofue; 4-jTtqdh voLFkk ij gksrk gS rks
Neurospora, the ascospores would show ________
arrangement.
,Ldkschtk.kq ________ foU;kl fu:fir djsaxs
(1) 4 : 4 (2) 6 : 2 (1) 4 : 4 (2) 6 : 2

(3) 2 : 4 : 2 (4) 1 : 6 : 1 (3) 2 : 4 : 2 (4) 1 : 6 : 1

139. Study the pedigree chart given below: 139. uhps fn;s x;s oa'kkoyh pkVZ dk vè;;u dhft;s

What does it show? ;g D;k fu:fir djrk gS\

(1) Inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait like
(1) ,d vfyaxlw=kh çHkkoh y{k.k tSls ek;ksVksfud nq"iks"k.k dh
myotonic dystrophy
(2) Inheritance of a recessive sex linked disease like
oa'kkxfr
colour blindness (2) ,d vçHkkoh fyax&lgyXu jksx tSls o.kkZU/rk dh oa'kkxfr
(3) The pedigree chart is not possible (3) oa'kkoyh pkVZ lEHko ugha gS
(4) Inheritance of a Y-linked trait like hypertrichosis (4) ,d Y-lgyXu y{k.k tSls gkbijVªkbdksfll dh oa'kkxfr
140. Which of the following is not an example of aneuploidy? 140. fuEu esa ls dkSu vlexqf.krk dk mnkgj.k ugha gS?
(1) Down’s syndrome (1) MkmUl flUMªkse
(2) Turner’s syndrome (2) VjulZ flUMªkse
(3) Klinefelter’s syndrome (3) DykbuisQYVlZ flUMªkse
(4) Thalassaemia (4) Fksyls hfe;k
22
141. Which of the following represents a trisomic condition? 141. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,dkf/lw=kh voLFkk dks fu:fir djrk gS\
(1) One chromosome less than 2n (1) 2n ls ,d xq.klw=k de
(2) One chromosome more than 2n (2) 2n ls ,d xq.klw=k vf/d
(3) Two chromosomes less than 2n (3) 2n ls nks xq.klw=k de
(4) Three chromosomes more than 2n (4) 2n ls rhu xq.klw=k vf/d
142. Which of the following is correct exemplification of 142. fuEu esa ls dkSu 'kjxSiQ ds fu;e dk lgh lksnkgj.k gS\
Chargaff’s Law?
(1) A + T = C + G (2) A + G = C+ T
(1) A + T = C + G (2) A + G = C+ T
(3) A + U = G + T (4) A + G = T + U (3) A + U = G + T (4) A + G = T + U
143. The DNA formed as a result of ‘Teminism’ is 143. ‘VsfefuTe’ ds ifj.kkeLo:i fu£er DNA gS
(1) B-DNA (2) Z-DNA (1) B-DNA (2) Z-DNA
(3) cDNA (4) A-DNA (3) cDNA (4) A-DNA
144. Identify A, B and C in the following figure 144. fuEu fp=k esa A, B rFkk C dh igpku dhft;s
A A
C C

B B

Core of Histone Molecules fgLVksu v.kq dk dksj

(1) A - DNA ; B - H1 histone ; C - Histone octamer (1) A - DNA ; B - H1 fgLVksu ; C - fgLVksu v"Vyd

(2) A - H1 histone ; B - Histone octamer ; C - DNA (2) A - H1 fgLVksu ; B - fgLVksu v"Vyd ; C - DNA

(3) A - H1 histone ; B - DNA ; C - Histone octamer (3) A - H1 fgLVksu ; B - DNA ; C - fgLVksu v"Vyd

(4) A - Histone octamer ; B - DNA ; C - H1 histone (4) A - fgLVksu v"Vyd ; B - DNA ; C - H1 fgLVksu

145. Infective part of a bacteriophage is DNA was proved by 145. thok.kqHkksth dk laØked Hkkx DNA gksrk gS] ;g fdlds ç;ksx
the experiment of }kjk fl¼ gqvk\
(1) Hershey and Chase (1) gk'khZ rFkk pst
(2) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (2) ,sojh] eSd fy;kWM rFkk eSd dkVhZ
(3) Meselson and Stahl (3) eslsylu rFkk LVsgy
(4) Watson and Crick (4) okVlu rFkk fØd
146. DNA replicates semi-conservatively. This was proved 146. DNA dk f}xq.ku v/Z&laj{kh gksrk gSA ;g Vsyj ds ç;ksxksa }kjk
by experiments of Taylor by use of radioactive fuEu esa ls fdlesa jsfM;ks,fDVo Fkk;feMhu dk mi;ksx djds
thymidine in
çekf.kr gqvk\
(1) E.coli (1) bZ- dksykbZ
(2) Vicia faba (2) fofl;k isQck
(3) T2-bacteriophage (3) T2-thok.kqHkksth
(4) Streptococcus pneumoniae (4) LVªsIVksdksdl U;qeksfubZ

23
147. If the sequence of the coding strand in transcription 147. ;fn vuq y s [ ku bdkbZ es a la o s n lw = k dk vuq Ø e
unit is 5′ ACGCGGGTCGGG 3′, what will be the
5′ ACGCGGGTCGGG 3′ gS rks vuqyfs [kr RNA dk vuqØe
sequence of RNA transcribed?
D;k gksxk?
(1) 5’ ACGCGGGUCGGG 3’
(1) 5’ ACGCGGGUCGGG 3’
(2) 5’ UGCGCCCAGCCC 3’
(2) 5’ UGCGCCCAGCCC 3’
(3) 5’ UCGGGGGACGGG 3’ (3) 5’ UCGGGGGACGGG 3’
(4) 3’ ACGCGGGUCGGG 5’ (4) 3’ ACGCGGGUCGGG 5’
148. Identify A, B and C in the following figure 148. fuEu fp=k esa A, B rFkk C dh igpku dhft;s

A A
C C
B B
(1) A-jks dkjd ; B-RNA ; C-DNA
(1) A-Rho factor ; B-RNA ; C-DNA
(2) A-RNA ikWyhejst ; B-jks dkjd ; C-RNA
(2) A-RNA polymerase ; B-Rho factor ; C-RNA
(3) A-RNA polymerase ; B-sigma factor ; C-RNA (3) A-RNA ikWyhejst ; B-flXek dkjd ; C-RNA
(4) A-sigma factor ; B-Rho factor ; C-DNA (4) A-flXek dkjd ; B-jks dkjd ; C-DNA
149. Look at the figure and identify A, B and C 149. fuEu fp=k dks nsf[k;s rFkk A, B o C dh igpku dhft;s
P i P o z y a P i P o z y a

A A

lac mRNA C lac mRNA

C
B B
β-galactosidase Transacetylase β-galactosidase Transacetylase
Permease Permease

Inducer (Inactive repressor) Inducer (Inactive repressor)

(1) A-Inducer ; B-Transcription ; C-Translation (1) A-foçsjd ; B-vuqys[ku ; C-vuqoknu

(2) A-Transcription ; B-Translation ; C-Repressor mRNA (2) A-vuqys[ku ; B-vuqoknu ; C-neudkjh mRNA

(3) A-Inactive repressor ; B-Translation ; C-Inducer (3) A-fuf"Ø; neudkjh ; B-vuqoknu ; C-foçsjd
(4) A-Translation ; B-Transcription ; C-Inducer (4) A-vuqoknu ; B-vuqys[ku ; C-foçsjd
150. Match terms in Column-I with their appropriate ratios 150. dkWye-I esa fn;s x;s 'kCnksa dk feyku dkWye-II esa buds mi;qDr
in Column-II vuqikrksa ds lkFk dhft;s
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Complementary genes (i) 12 : 3 : 1 a. lEiwjd thu (i) 12 : 3 : 1
b. Recessive epistasis (ii) 15 : 1 b. vçHkkoh ,sfiLVsfll (ii) 15 : 1
c. Dominant epistasis (iii) 9 : 3 : 4 c. çHkkoh ,sfiLVsfll (iii) 9 : 3 : 4
d. Duplicate genes (iv) 9:7
d. f}d thu (iv) 9 : 7
(v) 1:4:6:4:1 (v) 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1
(1) a(iii); b(v); c(iv); d(i) (2) a(iv); b(iii); c(v); d(ii) (1) a(iii); b(v); c(iv); d(i) (2) a(iv); b(iii); c(v); d(ii)
(3) a(iv); b(iii); c(i); d(ii) (4) a(iv); b(i); c(iii); d(v) (3) a(iv); b(iii); c(i); d(ii) (4) a(iv); b(i); c(iii); d(v)

24
 [ PART - C : ZOOLOGY]
151. Oestrus cycle operates in 151. en pØ fdl tUrq esa ns[ksa x;s gSa
(1) Cows (2) Sheep (1) xk; (2) HksM+
(3) Deers (4) All (3) fgj.k (4) lHkh
152. Menstrual cycle operates in all the following, except 152. ÍrqL=kko pØ lHkh esa ik;k tkrk gS] flok;
(1) Monkeys (2) Apes (1) cUnj (2) ,sIl
(3) Humans (4) Rats (3) euq"; (4) pqgk
153. In which of the following organisms, the female 153. fuEufyf[kr esa fdl tho esa eknk ;qXed vfu"ksd tuu }kjk
gamete undergoes developement to form new u;s tho ds fuekZ.k gsrq fodflr gksus yxrk gS
organisms without fertilization?
(1) VdhZ (2) jksVhiQlZ
(1) Turkey (2) Rotifiers
(3) Honeybees (4) All (3) e/qefD[k;k¡ (4) lHkh

154. Each seminiferous tubule is lined on inside by 154. izR;sd 'kqØtud ufydk dk Hkhrjh Hkkx Lrfjr gksrh gS

(1) Male germ cells (1) uj teZ dksf'kdk;sa

(2) Sertoli cells (2) lVksZyh dksf'kdk;sa

(3) Leydig cells (3) yhfM+x dksf'kdk;sa

(4) Male germ cells and sustentacular cells (4) uj teZ dksf'kdk vkSj lLVsUVkdqyj dksf'kdk

155. The enlarged end of penis called the galns penis is 155. f'k'ku dk vafre ofpZr Hkkx f'k'ku eqMa dgykrk gS tks <hyh
covered by loose fold of skin is called Ropk ls <dk gksrk gS ftls dgrs gSa
(1) Smegma (2) Foreskin (1) Lesxek (2) vxzPNn
(3) Urethral meatus (4) Rete testes (3) FkqjFs kzy eh,sVl (4) jsVs VsfLVl

156. Find the correct statement 156. lgh dFku pqfu;s

(1) Oogenesis is initiated during the reproductive
age of female
(2) No orgonia are formed and added after birth
(3) At puberty about 4 lakh primary follides are left
in each ovary
(4) Primay follicle is characterised by a fluid filled
cavity called antrum
157. Find the incorrect match 157. xyr feyku pqfu;s
(1) eknk esa vaM tuu izfØ;k dh 'kq:vkr iztuu mez esa
gksrh gS
(2) dksbZ vaMd dk fuekZ.k ;k vaMd dh la[;k esa o`f¼ tUe
ds i'pkr ugha gksrk gS
(3) ;kSoukjEHk ds le; izR;sd v.Mk'; esa dsoy 4 yk[k
izkFkfed iqVd 'ks"k cprs gSa
(4) izkFkfed iqVd esa nzO; ls Hkjk xqgk ik;k tkrk gS ftls
,UVªe dgrs gSa

(1) Menstrual flow : 3-5 days (1) ÍrqL=kko : 3-5 fnu

(2) Proliferative phase : 8-9 days (2) iqVdh; izkoLFkk : 8-9 fnu

(3) Luteal phase : 5-6 days (3) Y;wfV;y izkoLFkk : 5-6 fnu

(4) Secretory phase : 14 days (4) L=kkoh izkoLFkk : 14 fnu

158. Preganancy maintainance hormone secreted by 158. dkWiZl Y;wfV;e dkSu lk gkWjeksu L=kkfor djrk gS tks dh
copus luteum is xHkZ/kj.k ds fy;s t:jh gS
(1) Estrogen (2) Progesterone (1) ,LVªkstu (2) izkstsLVsjkWu
(3) Relaxin (4) Inhibin
(3) fjysfDlu (4) bUghfcu

25
159. Following graph is diagrammatic presentation of 159. fuEufyf[kr xzkiQ dkSu ls gkWjeksu dk jDr Lrj vkrZo pØ
which hormone during a menstrual cycle
ds nkSjku n'kkZrk gS

Hormone level

jDr esa gkeksZu Lrj

in blood

1 14 28 1 14 28
(1) FSH (2) LH (1) FSH (2) LH
(3) Progesterone (4) Estrogen (3) izkstsLVsjkWu (4) ,LVªkstsu
160. After embryo implantation, the inner cell mass 160. Hkw z . k va r jks Z i .k ds ckn vUrj dks f 'kdk leq g fdl
differentiate in dksf'kdk Lrj esa foHksfnr gks tkrk gS
(1) Ectoderm only (1) dsoy ,DVksMeZ
(2) Ectoderm and mesoderm (2) ,DVksMeZ vkSj estksMeZ
(3) Mesoderm and endoderm (3) estksMeZ vkSj ,UMksMeZ
(4) Ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm (4) ,DVksMeZ] estksMeZ vkSj ,UMksMeZ
161. The signal for foetal ejection reflex originates from 161. iQhVy btsDlu jsÝysDl dh 'kq:vkr ds fy;s ladsr dgk¡
(1) Fully developed foetus ls vkrk gS
(1) iq.kZ fodflr xHkZ
(2) Placenta
(2) vijk
(3) Fully developed foetus and placenta (3) iq.kZ fodflr xHkZ vkSj vijk
(4) None of these (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
162. Find the incorrect statement 162. xyr dFku pqfu;s
(1) The reproductive cycle of female primates is
called menstrual cycle (1) eknk izkbesV esa iztuu pØ dks vkorZ pØ dgrs gSa
(2) Menstrual cycle starts only after attaining (2) vkorZ pØ ySafxd ifjiDork vkus ds ckn 'kq: gksrk gS
puberty
(3) During ovulation only one ovum is released per (3) izfr vkorZ pØ] v.MksRlxZ ds nkSjku ,d v.Mk.kq dk
menstrual cycle v.MksRlxZ gksrk gS
(4) Morula stage is implanted in the uterus resulting
in pregnancy (4) Hkw.z k vUr'ksi Z .k eks:yk voLFkk esa gksrk gS
163. According to 2001 census report, the population 163. 2001 bZ- dh tux.kuk ds vuqlkj tula[;k o`f¼ nj Fkh
growth rate was around
(1) 0.5% (2) 1.1%
(1) 0.5% (2) 1.1%
(3) 1.7% (4) 2.7% (3) 1.7% (4) 2.7%
164. Find the incorrect statement 164. xyr dFku pqfu;s
(1) Male condoms are reusable (1) uj dUMkse dk iqum Z i;ksx fd;k tk ldrk gS
(2) Use of condoms has increased benefit of (2) dUMkse ds mi;ksx ds }kjk xHkZ/kj.k ds vykok ;kSu
protecting the user from contracting STD's lapkfjr jksxksa rFkk ,M~l ls cpko tSls vfrfjDr ykHk gS
(3) Diaphragms are barriers made of rubber that are (3) Mk;kizQkWe] xHkkZ'k; xzhok Vksih rFkk okWYV vkfn Hkh jcj
inserted into the female reproductive tract to
ls cus jks/d mik; gS]a tks L=kh ds tuu ekxZ esa lgokl
cover cervix
ds iwoZ xHkkZ'k; xzhok ds <dus ds fy;s yxk;s tkrs gSa
(4) Both male and female condoms are disposable,
can be self inserted and thereby gives privacy to (4) L=kh ,oa iq:"k nksuksa ds dUMkse mi;ksx ds ckn iQsadus
user okys gksrs gS]a bUgsa Lo;a gh yxk;k tk ldrk gS
165. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the 165. MTP vis{kkÑr lqjf{kr ekuk tkrk gS
(1) First trimester (2) Second trimester (1) igyh frekgh rd (2) nqljh frekgh rd
(3) Third trimester (4) All (3) rhljh frekgh rd (4) lHkh
26
166. Oparin and Haldane proposed that first form of life 166. vksifs je ,oa gkYMsu ds vuqlkj thou dk igyk vkdkj dgka
could have come from ls vk;k
(1) RNA (2) Protein (1) RNA (2) izksVhu
(3) RNA and Protein (4) Cosmozoa (3) RNA rFkk izkV s hu (4) dkLekstksvk
167. Which of the following is connotation of the theory of 167. fuEukafdr esa dkSu fo'ks"k l`f"V fl¼kUr ds vfHk/ku gS
special creation?
(1) vkt ftrus Hkh tho ,oa tkfr;ka fo|eku gSa] os lHkh
(1) All living organism that we see today were ,sls gh lftZr gqbZ gSa
created as such
(2) mRifÙk ds le; esa gh ;g tSo fofo/rk Fkh vkSj Hkfo";
(2) The diversity was always the same since
creation and will be the same in future esa Hkh ,sls gh jgsxh
(3) Earth is about 4000 year old (3) i`Foh dsoy 4000 o"kZ izkphu gS
(4) All (4) lHkh
168. The codont reptiles were ancestor of 168. nUr;qDr ljhl`i fdlds iwot
Z gSa
(1) Dinosaurs (2) Crocodiles (1) MkW;uklksj (2) exjePN
(3) Birds (4) All (3) i{kh (4) lHkh
169. Find the incorrect statement 169. vlR; dFku pqfu;s
(1) vkLVªy S ksfiFksdl lEHkor% iwoZ vizQhdu ?kkl izn's k esa jgrs
(1) Australopithecus probably lived in East African
grasslands Fks
(2) vkLVªSyskfiFksdl iRFkj ls f'kdkj djrs Fks vkSj ekalHk{kh
(2) Australopithecus hunted with stone and ate meat
Fks
(3) Homo habilis was the first human like being (3) gkseksgfs cfyl lcls igys euq"; tSls fn[ks
(4) Homo habilis probably did not eat meat (4) gkseksgfs cfyl lEHkor% ekalkgkjh ugha Fks
170. Pre historic cave art developed about ______ years 170. izkxSfrgkfld xqiQk dyk ______ o"kZ iwoZ fodflr gqvk
ago
(1) 10,000 (2) 18,000
(1) 10,000 (2) 18,000
(3) 28,000 (4) 40,000 (3) 28,000 (4) 40,000
171. Find the correct statement 171. lgh dFku pqfu;s
(1) The zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres (1) ;qXeut ;k izkjfEHkd Hkwz.k (8 CykLVsfu;j rd) dks
could be transferred into the uterus
xHkkZ'k; esa LFkkukUrfjr fd;k tkrk gS
(2) The zygote more than 8 blastomeres could be
transferred into the follopian tube (2) 8 ls vf/d CykLVsfu;j okys ;qXeut dks fMacokfguh esa
(3) Infertility cases due to inability of male partner LFkkukUrfjr fd;k tkrk gS
to inseminate the female could be corrected by (3) ,sls ekeys esa tgk¡ iq:"k lEHkksx ds fy;s v{ke gks GIFT
GIFT
fd;k tkrk gS
(4) ICSI is a specialised procedure to form an
embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is (4) iz;ksx'kkyk esa Hkw.z k cukus ds fy;s vUr% dksf'kdh; 'kqØk.kq
directly injected into the ovum fu{ksi.k fd;k tkrk gS
172. Name the naturalist who worked in Malay 172. ml tho foKkuh dk uke crkb;s tks ey;vkdZisySxks ij
archepelago and had come to similar conclusion as
Darwin regarding evolution
dke fd;k vkSj MkfoZu tSls fu"d"kZ ij igqp a s
(1) Hugo de Vries (1) g~;xq ks Mh fczt
(2) Alfred Walkace (2) vYizQMs oSyl s
(3) Darlington (3) MkfyZXVu
(4) Spencer (4) LisUlj

27
173. Following diagram is representation of which of the 173. fuEukafdr fp=k fdl izdkj esa izkÑfrd oj.k dks iznf'kZr
following type of natural selection djrk gS

Number of individuals
with phenotype with

iQhuksVkbi ds lkFk
thoksa dh la[;k
Time le;
(1) Directional selection (1)
fn'kkRed izkÑfrd p;u
(2) Stabilizing selection (2) fLFkjdkjh izkÑfrd p;u
(3) Disruptive selection (3) fo?kVudkjh izkÑfrd p;u
(4) Progreassive selection (4) izxkeh izkÑfrd p;u
174. Find the incorrect statement about typhoid 174. Vk;iQk;M ds ckjs esa xyr dFku pqfu;s
(1) Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi (1) Vk;iQk;M] lkyeksfuyk VkbiQh }kjk gksrk gS
(2) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by Widal test (2) Vk;iQkbM cq[kkj dh tkap foMkYt tkap gS
(3) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in
(3) dHkh&dHkh vkarksa esa fNnz rFkk e`R;q rd gks ldrh gS
several cases
(4) Mary Mallons nicknamed Typhoid Mary was (4) eSjh eSyu (VkbiQkbM) ftlesa eSjh dks yEcs le; ls
chronic typhoid sufferer VkbiQk;M cq[kkj Fkk
175. Ringworm disease is most common infectious 175. nkn loZlqyHk laØe.k gS] bldk dkjd gS
disease in man is caused by
(1) ekbØksLiksje (2) VªkbdksiQkbVku
(1) Microsporum (2) Trichophytan
(3) ,fiMeksi
Z QkbVku (4) lHkh
(3) Epidermophyton (4) All
176. Virus infected cells secrete protein called _____ which 176. okbjl laØfer dksf'kdk;sa ______ uked izksVhu dk L=kko
protect non infected cells from further viral infection djrh gS tks vlaØfer dksf'kdkvksa dks laØe.k ls cpkrh gS
(1) Interferons (2) Interleuckin-I (1) bUVjiQsjkWu (2) bUVjY;wfdu-I
(3) Interleuckin-2 (4) Transferrin (3) bUVjY;wfdu-2 (4) VªkaliQsfju
177. An antibody is represented by 177. ,UVhckWMh dks iznf'kZr dj ldrs gSa
(1) H1 L3 (2) H3 L1 (1) H1 L3 (2) H3 L1
(3) H2 L2 (4) H L4 (3) H2 L2 (4) H L4
178. Find incorrect statement about AIDS 178. AIDS ds fy;s vlR; dFku pqfu;s
(1) Diagnostic test for AIDS is ELISA (1) AIDS, ELISA dk funku ijh{k.k gS
(2) Treatment of AIDS with antiretroviral drugs is (2) AIDS dk funku] ,UVhokbjl nokvksa ls lEHko gS
completely effective
(3) HIV gsYij T dksf'kdk izos'k dj xqf.kr gksrk gS rFkk
(3) HIV enters into helper T cell replicates and
produce progeny viruses larfr mRiUu djrk gS
(4) The macrophages act as HIV factory (4) eSØksiQstt
s HIV iQSDVªh dh rjg dk;Z djrs gSa
179. Which of the following drug is commonly called 179. fuEukafdr dkSu lh vkS"kf/ LeSd dgykrh gS
smack
(1) ekfiZQu (2) gsjksbu
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin
(3) Cocaine (4) Amphetamine (3) dksdhu (4) ,EiQsVfs eu
180. The maintanance of lives of honeybees for the 180. e/qeD[kh ikyu] 'kgn ds mRiknu ds fy;s dgykrk gS
production of honey is called
(1) lsVhdYpj (2) ,ihdYpj
(1) Sericulture (2) Apiculture
(3) ySdksdYpj (4) fiLlhdYpj
(3) Lacculture (4) Pisciculture
28
181. Blue revolution is associated with 181. uhyh Øakfr dk lEcU/ gS
(1) Fish production (2) Egg production (1) eNyh mRiknu ls (2) v.Mks ds mRiknu ls
(3) Oil production (4) Cereal production (3) rsy mRiknu ls (4) vukt mRiknu ls
182. Which of the following type of natural selection 182. fuEu esa ls fdlk izdkj dk izkÑfrd p;u ,d ih<+h ls
maintains the mean value from generation to vxyh ih<+h esa vkSlr eku dks cuk;s j[krk gSa o fofHkUurkvksa
generation; reduces variations and hence does not
promote evolutionary change ?
dks ?kVkrk gSa vr% mf}dklh; ifjoZru dks ugh c<+krk gS\ a
(1) Stabilizing natural selection (1) fLFkjdkjh izkÑfrd p;u

(2) Progressive natural selection (2) izxkeh izkÑfrd p;u

(3) Disruptive natural selection (3) fo?kVudkjh izkÑfrd p;u
(4) Directional natural selection (4) fn'kkRed izkÑfrd p;u
183. Which of the following ancestor in phylogeny of 183. ekuo dh tkfro`r esa dkSu ls iwoZt us igyh ckj vkStkj
human was first tool maker and used tools of stones cuk;sa Fks vkSj iRFkjksa ds vkStkjksa dk iz;ksx fd;k Fkk budh
extensively; had cranial capacity of about 700 cc ? dikyh; {kerk yxHkx 700 cc Fkh\
(1) Homo habilis (1) gkseks gsfcfyl
(2) Homo erectus pekinensis (2) gkseks bjsDVl isfdusfUll
(3) Australopithecus robustus (3) vkWLVªsyksfiFksdl jkscLVl
(4) Pithecanthropus erectus (4) fiFksdsUFkzksil bjsDVl
184. Which of the following antibody is found in at the 184. fuEu esa ls dkSu lh izfrj{kh vkalw ykj o uonqX/ esa ik;h
tears, saliva and in the colostrum ? tkrh gSa\
(1) IgA (2) IgG (1) IgA (2) IgG
(3) IgM (4) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgD
185. Which of the following is a carcinogen and can 185. fuEu esa ls dkSu dkflZukstu gSa o ;ksfu ds dSUlj dk dkj.k gSa\
cause cancer of vagina ?
(1) ,ÝykVkWfDlu (2) foukbyDyksjkbM
(1) Aflatoxin (2) Vinyl chloride
(3) Diethylstilbestrol (4) Cadmium oxide (3) MkbZ,FkkbyfLVycsLVªksy (4) dSMfe;e vWkDlkbM
186. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. hepatitis B 186. ;Ñr'kks/ B fo"kk.kq ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dkSulk gS\
virus? (1) ghisVªksVªksfid fo"kk.kq dk lcls vf/d ifjoZru'khy
(1) Most versatile of hepatotropic virus fo"kk.kq gSa
(2) Spread by contact with body secretions, such
(2) 'kjhj ds L=ko.k tSls oh;Z] ykj ds lEidZ ls iQSyrk gS
as semen, saliva
(3) Retrovirus (3) fjVªkfs o"kk.kq
(4) Can cause hepatocellular carcinoma (4) ghisVksdksf'kdh; dkflZuksek dk dkj.k gSa
187. Opioids are derived from the opium poppy plant, 187. vkWfivksbM~l dks vWkfi;e iWkih ikni ls izkIRk fd;k tkrk gS
which of the following effect can not be related to fuEu esa ls dkSulk izHkko fdlh vkWfivksbM ls lacfU/r ugh
any opioid ? fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(1) Slow down respiratory activity
(1) 'olu fØ;k dks /hek djrs gSa
(2) Cause dilation of the pupil
(2) iqryh ds foLrkj dk dkj.k gSa
(3) Reduce urinary output and cause constipation
(3) ew=kh; fuxZr dks ?kVkrs gSa o eykojks/ dk dkj.k gSa
(4) Decrease glandular secretions, impair the
digestion (4) xafz Fkr L=ko.k dks ?kVkrs gSa ikpu dks nqcyZ djrs gSa
188. Which of the following breed of cow originated in 188. xk; dh dkSulh uLy dh mRifRr dsjy esa LFkkuh; vof.kZr
Kerala by crossing the local nondescript cattle with eos'kh dk ladj.k tlhZ] czkmu fLol o gksYlfVu Úkblh;u
Jersey, Brown Swiss and Holstein Friesian breeds ? uLy ds lkFk djus ls gwbZ gS\
(1) Ayrshire (2) Sunandini
(1) vk;'kk;j (2) lquufnuh
(3) Karan fries (4) Nubian
(3) dju Úkbl (4) uqfc;u

29
189. Which of the following fishes can be grown 189. lkewfgd ekRl;dh esa dkSulh eNfy;ksa dks lkewfgd :i ls
collectively under composite fish farming ? ikyk tkrk gSa\
(1) Catla, Labeo, Cirrhina (1) dryk] ysfc;ks] fljfguk
(2) Catla, Stromateus, Sardinella (2) dryk] LVªksesfV;l] lkfMZusyk
(3) Hilsa, Labeo, Catla (3) fgYlk] ysfc;ks] dryk]
(4) Catla, Sardinella, Cirrhina (4) dryk] lkfMZusyk] fljfguk
190. Which of the following enzyme is used for 190. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,atkbe izfrcaf/r va'k ds Ýy'k ,.M
homopolymer tailing of flush end of restriction
fragment ? ds lecgqyd iqPNu esa iz;Dq r gksrk gS\ a
(1) Alkaline phosphatase (1) {kkjh; iQWkLiQVst

(2) Phosphorylase-C (2) iQkWLiQksjkbyst-C

(3) T4-ligase (3) T4- ykbxst

(4) Terminal transferase (4) VfeZuy VªkaliQjst

191. ;fn thu 'A' iq u ;ks Z x t okgd pBR322 es s a iz f rca f /r
191. If gene 'A' is inserted into recombinant vector
pBR322 by using Sal I restriction endonuclease, the ,.MksU;wfDy;st ds iz;ksx }kjk fuosf'kr fd;k tkrk gSa iqu;ksxZ t
recombinant cell will dksf'kdk gksxha
(1) Be sensitive to tetracycline (1) VªsVklkbfDyu ls laosnu'khy
(2) Fail to grow in complete medium (2) iw.kZ ekè;e esa o`f¼ djus esa foiQy gksxh
(3) Grow in the presence of tetracycline (3) VªV s klkbfDyu dh mifLFkfr esa o`f¼ djsxh
(4) Become ampicillin sensitive (4) ,fEiflfyu laon s h cu tk;sxh
192. Selection of recombinants is based on 192. iqu;ksx Z t dk p;u fdl ij vk/kfjr gS
(1) Restriction site (1) izfrcaf/r LFky
(2) Compelent host (2) l{ke iks"kh
(3) Insertional inactivation (3) fuos'ku fuf"Ø;.k
(4) Transfection (4) VªkaliQsDlu
193. Genetic engineering of insulin begins with 193. bUlqfyu dh vkuqo'a fkd vfHk;kaf=kdh DNA vuqØe dh igpku
identification and separation of DNA sequences o i`FkDdj.k ls izkjaHk gksrh gSa rks J`a[kyk A o B ds fy,
coding for chain A and B. This was found to present
with
dksM djrh gSa ;g fdldh mifLFkfr ls ik;k x;k Fkk\
(1) 9th xq.klw=k (2) 11th xq.klw=k
(1) 9th chromosome (2) 11th chromosome
(3) 13th xq.klw=k (4) 19th xq.klw=k
(3) 13th chromosome (4) 19th chromosome
194. isVUs V ,d vf/dkj gS tks vkfo"dkj dks vuqer gS og mlds
194. Patent is the right granted to an inventor to prevent
others from commercial use of his invention. vkfo"dkj ds O;kikfjd iz;ksx dks jksdrk gS ck;ksiVs Us V fdlds
Biopatent can be awarded for fy, iznku fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) Cell lines (2) DNA sequences (1) dksf'kdk ifDr;ka (2) DNA vuqØe
(3) GMOs (4) All of these (3) GMOs (4) buesa ls lHkh
195. Which of the following recombinant product used for 195. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk iqu;ksxZ t mRikn jDr FkDdk ds fuekZ.k
prevention of blood clot formation dks jksdrk gS\ a
(1) Reo-pro (2) CFTR (1) fj;ksμizks (2) CFTR
(3) Lysostaphin (4) α-1-antitrypsin (3) yk;lksLVsfiQu (4) α-1-,aVhfVªfIlu
196. Which of the following is incorrect pair w.r.t. 196. HkkSxksfyd vof/ rFkk blls lacfU/r ?kVuk ds lanHkZ esa xyr
geological period and the event related to it ? tksMh+ dkSu lh gS\ a
Period Event vof/ ?kVuk
(1) Silurian – Origin of jawless fishes and (1) flY;wfj;u – tcM+s jfgr eNfy;ksa o ia[k jfgr
wingless insects
dhV dh mRifRr
(2) Cambrain – Origin of trilobites
(2) dSfEcz;u – VªkbyksckbV~l dh mRifRr
(3) Triassic – Origin of mammals
(3) Vªkb,sfld – Lruh dh mRifRr
(4) Carboniferous – Diversification of amphibians
(4) dkcksZuhiQsjl – mHk;pj esa fofo/rk
30
197. Which of the following can not be related to the 197. ?kksMs+ dh tkfro`r ds nkSjku fuEu esa ls fdls mf}dklh; izofr
evolutionary trend shown during the phylogeny of ls lacf/r ugh fd;k tk ldrk gS\
horse ?
(1) xzhok o flj esa nh?khZdj.k
(1) Elongation of neck and head
(2) Reduction of lateral digits (2) ik'oZ vaxfq y;ksa esa deh

(3) Replacement of molars by premolars (3) izpoZ.k ds }kjk poZ.k dk izfrLFkkiu

(4) Increase in height (4) Å¡pkbZ esa o`f¼
198. Which of the following event can not be related to 198. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ?kVuk dks ySekdZokn ls lacfU/ ugh fd;k
Lamarckism ? tk ldrk gS\
(1) Presence of internal vital force in all organisms
(1) lHkh thoksa esa var% tSo cy dh mifLFkfr
(2) Use and disuse theory
(2) mi;ksx vkSj vuqi;ksx dk fl¼kUr
(3) Natural selection
(3) izkÑfrd oj.k
(4) Considers that new needs or desires produce
new structures and change the habits of the (4) u;h ekax ;k bPNk,a u;h lajpukvksa dks iSnk djrh gS o
organism tho dk LoHkko ifjofrZr gksrk gSa bl ij fopkj nsrk gSa
199. In which of the following type of placenta, no 199 fuEu esa ls fdl izdkj ds vijk esa e`rd vojks/d mifLFkr
maternal barrier is present ? ugh gksrs gS\
a. Epitheliochorial b. Syndesmochorial a. vidykμtjk;q b. tjk;q;ksth
c. Hemochorial d. Hemoendothelial c. :f/jμtjk;q d. gheks,.MksFkhfy;y
(1) b and c only (2) a and d only (1) dsoy b o c (2) dsoy a o d
(3) c and d only (4) a and b only (3) dsoy c o d (4) dsoy a o b
200. All environments can carry or sustain only a limited 200. lHkh i;kZoj.k esa dsoy lhfer vkdkj dh vkcknh dk ogu
size of population. This limit is termed as gksrk gSA ;g lhek dgykrh gSa
(1) Biotic potential (1) tSfod foHko
(2) Population density
(2) vkcknh ?kuRo
(3) Carrying capacity
(3) ogu {kerk
(4) Net primary productivity
(4) usV izkFkfed mRikndrk

31
 ANSWERS

1. (1) 41. (1) 81. (1) 121. (2) 161. (3)

2. (2) 42. (4) 82. (1) 122. (3) 162. (4)
3. (3) 43. (3) 83. (3) 123. (3) 163. (3)
4. (1) 44. (3) 84. (1) 124. (1) 164. (1)
5. (4) 45. (3) 85. (3) 125. (1) 165. (1)
6. (2) 46. (1) 86. (4) 126. (3) 166. (3)
7. (3) 47. (2) 87. (4) 127. (2) 167. (4)
8. (1) 48. (4) 88. (2) 128. (4) 168. (4)
9. (4) 49. (3) 89. (4) 129. (2) 169. (2)
10. (3) 50. (4) 90. (3) 130. (4) 170. (2)
11. (1) 51. (3) 91. (4) 131. (4) 171. (4)
12. (2) 52. (2) 92. (4) 132. (1) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (1) 93. (2) 133. (2) 173. (3)
14. (3) 54. (3) 94. (1) 134. (3) 174. (4)
15. (1) 55. (2) 95. (4) 135. (1) 175. (4)
16. (4) 56. (2) 96. (3) 136. (1) 176. (1)
17. (4) 57. (4) 97. (4) 137. (3) 177. (3)
18. (1) 58. (4) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (2)
19. (2) 59. (1) 99. (2) 139. (1) 179. (2)
20. (1) 60. (3) 100. (1) 140. (4) 180. (2)
21. (3) 61. (2) 101. (3) 141. (2) 181. (1)
22. (1) 62. (2) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182. (1)
23. (4) 63. (2) 103. (3) 143. (3) 183. (1)
24. (1) 64. (1) 104. (4) 144. (2) 184. (1)
25. (2) 65. (3) 105. (4) 145. (1) 185. (3)
26. (1) 66. (2) 106. (4) 146. (2) 186. (3)
27. (2) 67. (4) 107. (4) 147. (1) 187. (2)
28. (4) 68. (2) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (2)
29. (2) 69. (4) 109. (1) 149. (2) 189. (1)
30. (4) 70. (3) 110. (4) 150. (3) 190. (4)
31. (2) 71. (4) 111. (3) 151. (1) 191. (1)
32. (1) 72. (4) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (3)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (4) 193. (2)
34. (4) 74. (3) 114. (4) 154. (4) 194. (4)
35. (3) 75. (2) 115. (2) 155. (2) 195. (1)
36. (2) 76. (3) 116. (3) 156. (2) 196. (1)
37. (2) 77. (4) 117. (1) 157. (3) 197. (3)
38. (1) 78. (3) 118. (4) 158. (2) 198. (3)
39. (1) 79. (4) 119. (1) 159. (2) 199. (3)
40. (3) 80. (3) 120. (2) 160. (4) 200. (3)

32