INDUSTRIAL ORGANIZATIONAL PSYCHOLOGY – 67/100

(July 22, 2023)

1. Which of the following is not considered as a basic component to any organization

according to the Classical Theory?

a) People
b) Cooperation
c) Authority
d) Physical Setting

2. This theory believes that an organization should best be structured in order to accomplish its
goals

a) Classical
b) Neo-classical
c) Systems
d) Structural

3. This principle accounts for the grouping of work into such units as production, sales,
engineering, finance, and so on

a) Functional
b) Scalar
c) Line/staff
d) Span-of-control

4. _________: horizontal growth; ________: vertical growth

a) Functional ; scalar
b) Scalar; line/staff
c) Line/staff ; functional
d) None of the above

5. The best way to overcome organizational fragmentation according to Classical theorists

a) Unity of command
b) Cooperation
c) Task differentiation
d) Commend hierarchy

6. A disadvantage of imposing division of labor

a) each job requires relatively few skills

b) easier to find people who have the necessary KSAOs
c) lessens time required for training
d) requires resources to coordinate the activities of many specialized people

7. Which of the following is best considered as a line function?

a) Manufacturing
b) Talent management
c) Compensation
d) Marketing

8. This subordinate-supervisor ratio characterizes a flat organization

a) 1:2
b) 1:15
c) 1:3
d) 1:7

9. Which of the following statements would a neoclassicist disagree with?

a) Division of labor results to job dissatisfaction

b) Distinction between line and staff functions is valuable
c) Effective span of control is not determined by numbers alone
d) Many activities extend beyond the scalar principle

10. Neoclassicists believe that supervisor-subordinate ratio should depend on the following
except:

a) managerial ability
b) intensity of needed supervision
c) number of subordinates
d) leadership skills

11. This theory stresses that status and role differences exist among jobs within an
organization and define the behavior of individuals within the system

a) Bureaucracy
b) Neoclassical
c) Contingency
d) Systems – from biological sciences

12. This approach argues that ideas that work well in one situation might not work as well in
another situation

a) Bureaucracy
b) Neoclassical
c) Contingency
d) Systems

13. Roles and jobs ate not the same. A person in one job might play several roles.
a) Both statements are true
b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

14. An important element for organizational success, according to the Systems theory

a) Organizational communication
b) Division of labor
c) Functional similarities
d) Formal lines of authority

15. Which theory points out that decisions are often made in ways that deviate from formal lines
of authority

a) Classical
b) Neoclassical
c) Modern Organizational
d) Systems

16. Organizations that have all the properties of any organization (in terms of structural and
social components) with the added feature that their physical locations and employees are
distributed throughout the world are called _____ organizations

a) Global – single identity

b) Diverse
c) Multinational
d) Offsite

17. The concept of ______ in an open system perspective states that there is no one correct way
to structure and operate an organization

a) Equifinality
b) Entropy
c) Homeostasis
d) Input energy

18. The basic idea is that the attitudes and beliefs of supervisors about their subordinates
determine the organization’s management approach, which in turn affects how subordinates
behave

a) Modern Organizational
b) Bureaucracy
c) TheoryX/Y
d) Neoclassical

19. According to McGregor, the hard approach entails

a) Use of coercion and threats

b) close supervision
c) results in employee resistance
d) all of the above

20. The supervisory approach adopted by the Theory Y manager is likely to be quite different
from his or her Theory X counterpart. Rather than relying on directive approaches, the Theory Y
manager stresses employee autonomy and development.

a) Both statements are true

b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

21 The process of giving employees in an organization more power and decision-making

authority within a context of less managerial oversight.
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a) Autonomy
b) Empowerment
c) Enrichment
d) Upsizing

22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an empowered individual?

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a) get “energized” about a given activity

b) more likely to challenge and question
c) believes that he or she can affect or influence organizational outcomes
d) none of the above

23. A method of improving business processes using statistical information to achieve greater
customer satisfaction

a) Six Sigma
b) Standard Practice
c) Five S
d) Systematic Change

24. A type of organizational change which involves incremental modifications to the

organization, and as a consequence, does not suddenly alter the individual’s understanding of, or
relationship to, the organization

a) Additive
b) Evolutionary
c) Revolutionary
d) Imposed
25. An individual’s disposition toward change of organization relies heavily on psychological
______, which refers to the feeling of being psychologically tied to an object and feeling
possessive of that object

a) Reliance
b) Attachment
c) Commitment
d) Ownership – bakit mahirap i-let go ang nakasanayan na work; find it hard to accept changes

Higher the degree of Psychological Ownership = Harder it is to impose Org changes

26. An organizational change technique wherein each employee’s own goals are coordinated
with the goals of both supervisors and subordinates
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a) MBO
b) T-group
c) Goal Setting
d) Team Sync

27. Meta-analyses have found that many OD techniques are effective except
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a) Survey Feedback
b) MBO
c) T-group
d) Behavior Modelling

28. An OD technique that uses unstructured group interaction to assist workers gain insight
concerning their own behavior, to develop greater openness, and to improve skills in
understanding and dealing with others
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a) Sensitivity training
b) Team Building
c) Behavior Modelling
d) None of the above

29. According to the force field analysis model, these types of forces imply resistance to
change
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a) Driving forces
b) Retaining forces
c) Restraining forces
d) Stability forces

30. Resisting change as a political strategy to “prove” that the decision is wrong or that the
person encouraging change is incompetent

a) Avoiding costs
b) Saving face
c) Incongruence
d) Fear of the unknown

31. A strategy to create urgency for change by putting employees in direct contact with
dissatisfied customers

a) Saving face
b) Environmental pressure
c) Coercion
d) Customer-driven change

32. An approach to promote work-life balance by evaluating employees based on results, not
their face time
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a) ROWE initiative
b) Six Sigma
c) MARS model
d) Action approach

33. A problem-focused change process that combines changing attitudes and behavior and
testing theory
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a) Action-research
b) Parallel learning
c) Problem-solving mentality
d) Behavior modelling

34. This approach is deeply grounded in the emerging philosophy of positive organizational
behavior and breaks out of the problem-solving mentality of traditional change management
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a) Action-research
b) Appreciative inquiry –based on the strengths of the teams; commonly used large group inrervention but
also can be small group (like by department lang)
c) Occupational positivity
d) None of the above

35. This involves identifying trends and establish ways to adapt to those changes

a) Modernization
b) Trend bliss
c) Open systems
d) Future search – looking into trends; establish ways to adapt to changes; strengths to apply to meet the
future demands (approach of appreciative inquiry)

36. Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of large-group interventions

(malakihang change) for organizational change?

a) Increases the risk that few people will dominate

b) High expectation about an ideal future state
c) Difficulty in finding common ground
d) All of the above

37. This refers to the division of labor as well as the patterns of coordination, communication,
workflow, and formal power that direct organizational activities.

a) Organizational structure
b) Organizational activities
c) Organizational planning
d) Organizational design

38. The four main elements of organizational structure include:

a) Division of labor, coordination, chain of command, physical setting

b) Span of control, centralization, formalization, departmentalization
c) External environment, organizational size, technology, strategy
d) Knowledge, skills, abilities, other characteristics

39. All organizational structures include two fundamental requirements, namely

a) Leadership & Communication

b) Hierarchy & Coordination
c) Delegation & Communication
d) Division of labor & Coordination – to arrange the structure of the organization (concept of Classical
Theory)

40. Formal hierarchy can be efficient in complex and novel situations. It involves the exercise
of legitimate power.

a) Both statements are true

b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

In complex and novel situations – informal communication

Routine and easy tasks – formal communication

41. Which form of coordination works best for self-directed teams?

a) Informal communication do not always need to consult with the upper management; has their OWN
AUTONOMY
b) Formal hierarchy
c) Standardized practice
d) None of the above

42. A wider span of control is applicable when

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a) Coaching is much needed

b) Employees perform routine jobs
c) There is evident interdependence of work
d) All of the above

43. If Company A has a wider span of control than Company B, then Company A must have
__________ than does Company B.

a) Fewer layers of management

b) Flatter organizational structure
c) Larger number of direct reports
d) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not a problem regarding taller hierarchies?

a) higher overhead costs

b) lower-quality and less timely information
c) undermines employee empowerment
d) none of the above

45. This refers to the practice of removing one or more levels in the organizational hierarchy

a) Delayering – cutting out too much middle management

b) Decentralization
c) ROWE initiative
d) Centralization

46. Cutting out too much middle management may lead to the following outcomes, except

a) Restrict managerial career development

b) Increase number of direct reports
c) Decrease workload and stress
d) Fewer promotion opportunities

47. Larger organizations typically disperse decision authority and power throughout the
organization. Different degrees of decentralization can occur simultaneously in different parts of
an organization.

a) Both statements are true

b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

48. Which of the following statements is not true about formalization?

a) It applies the principles of participative mgmt.

b) It is related to standardization of activities - Formalization
c) It reduces organizational flexibility – Formalization
d) All of the above

49. Which of the following is least likely a characteristic of a mechanistic structure?

a) Narrow span of control

b) High degree of formalization
c) Horizontal communication flows
d) Taller hierarchies

Mechanistic – vertical communication (formal comm.)

Organic – horizontal communication (more informal comm.)

50. This element of organizational structure establishes the chain of command—the system of
common supervision among positions and units within the organization

a) Centralization
b) Formalization
c) Departmentalization
d) Span of control

51. This type of departmentalization usually depends on the owner’s direct supervision to
coordinate work activities

a) Functional
b) Simple
c) Team-based
d) Divisional

52. All of the following are limitations of a functional structure, except

a) Unless people are transferred from one function to the next, they might not develop a broader
understanding of the business
b) produces higher dysfunctional conflict and poorer coordination in serving clients or developing
products
c) it is very difficult to operate as the company grows and becomes more complex – Simple structure
d) None of the above

53. Which of the following is not a type of divisional structure?

a) Geographical
b) Product
c) Client
d) Branch

54. McDonalds probably utilizes this type of divisional structure

a) Geographical – per area around different places

b) Product – Avon, Natasha (different line of product: makeup, clothing)
c) Client – focused on clients (approaches differs: architects
d) Branch

55. An architectural firm caters clients around Puerto Princesa City, Palawan. If this company
were to utilize a divisional structure of departmentalization, which one will fit them best?

a) Geographical
b) Product
c) Client
d) Branch

56. Which of the following is false regarding team-based structures?

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a) this type of structure is usually organic

b) it is typically highly decentralized
c) there is high need for formalization
d) there is a wide span of control

According to different teams can also be departments (composed of different specialization)

57. Employees are assigned to a cross-functional team responsible for a specific game project,
yet they also belong to a permanent functional unit from which they are reassigned when their
work is completed on a particular project

a) Divisional
b) Matrix
c) Team-based
d) Functional
58. The downside of using a matrix structure is that

a) it increases conflict among managers who equally share power

b) there is lack of unity of command
c) it dilutes accountability
d) all of the above

Network – different companies working together (e.g. the company is based in Germany, but parts are
made in India)

59. Which of the following is least beneficial for larger organizations, according to the
contingency approach?

a) Centralization
b) Standardization
c) Formalization
d) Informal communication

60. In research settings, there is high variety and low analyzability. This means that an organic
structure if more applicable.

a) Both statements are true

b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

61. This term refers to the way an organization makes decisions and actions to achieve its goals

a) Organizational Design
b) Organizational Strategy
c) Organizational Planning
d) Strategic Planning

62. A type of team created for the purpose of developing innovative possibilities or solutions.

a) Problem-resolution
b) Creative
c) Tactical
d) Ad hoc

63. The dominant feature for tactical teams

a) Trust
b) Autonomy
c) Clarity
d) Flexibility

64. Used in organizations that encounter unusual or atypical problems that require an atypical
response for a limited duration
a) Problem-resolution
b) Creative
c) Tactical
d) Ad hoc

65. Which of the following is a work producer function?

a) Completer-finisher
b) Monitor-evaluator
c) Resource-investigator
d) Team facilitator

66. This role reports on ideas, developments, and resources outside of the team and creates
external contacts that may be useful to the team in their actions.

a) Completer-finisher
b) Monitor-evaluator
c) Resource-investigator
d) Team facilitator

67. According to the Team Effectiveness Model, the main components of an effective team
involves

a) Environment, design, processes

b) Cooperating, coordinating, communicating
c) Size, composition, roles
d) None of the above

68. This would occur in a team setting where each member works alone but shares raw materials
or machinery to perform her or his otherwise independent tasks.

a) Pooled interdependence
b) Sequential interdependence
c) Reciprocal interdependence
d) Team interdependence

69. During forming stage, members tend to

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a) Be polite
b) Consult authority
c) Possess swift trust – una pa lang sobrang trust mo na sila
d) All of the above

70. A process that consists of formal activities intended to improve the development and
functioning of a work team.
a) Team Stabilization
b) Team training
c) Team Building
d) Team Design

71. The degree of attraction people feel toward the team and their motivation to remain as a
member of the team.

a) Team identity
b) Team competence
c) Team commitment
d) Team cohesion

72. Studies show that when employees become too cohesive, this results to a

a) Higher-level production
b) Lower-level production (thesismates mo best friends mo = walang natapos for this day lol)
c) Lover-level job satisfaction
d) High-level job satisfaction

73. Diverse groups may find it faster to communicate, set standards, and grow as a cohesive
unit. Nondiverse groups may take longer to reach peak performance.

a) Both statements are true

b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false – baliktad (nondiverse also known as nondiverse)

74. According to research, the best working groups consist of primarily similar people but have a
dissimilar person adding tension and a different vantage point. This is called a ____ group

a) Diverse group
b) Slightly heterogenous group
c) Mixed-up group
d) Cross-cultural group

75. A group’s shared belief that they can attain organizational outcomes

a) Group efficacy
b) Group competence
c) Group confidence
d) Group cohesion

76. Organizational tensions, the announcement of unfavorable news, and time pressure are
examples of ______ forces that affect group performance

a) Intrapersonal – personal problems ng employees that affect produvitivity

b) Intraorganizational – problem between employees (supervisor vs subordinate)
c) Extrapersonal
d) None of the above

77. Type of trust which entails team members to act appropriately because they will face
sanctions if their actions violate reasonable expectations

a) Knowledge-based
b) Calculus-based
c) Identification-based
d) None of the above

78. This occurs when people focus their discussion on an issue while maintaining respect for
people having other points of view.

a) Functional debate
b) Constructive conflict
c) Brainstorming
d) Free-speak

79. A freewheeling meeting that relies on networked computers for submitting and sharing
creative ideas

a) Electronic brainstorming
b) Virtual connect
c) Nominal group technique
d) Online Free-speak

80. Employees in task-oriented roles usually score high in _______ while employees in social-
oriented roles score high in ________.

a) Conscientiousness ; openness
b) Conscientiousness ; agreeableness
c) Conscientiousness ; extraversion
d) Conscientiousness ; emotional stability

81. A group member who intentionally provides an opposing opinion to that expressed by the
leader or the majority of the group is called a/an

a) Devil’s advocate
b) Outlier
c) Outgroup member
d) Inhibitor

82. This theory states that when things are going well, group member realizes that his effort is
not necessary anymore; therefore causing social loafing

a) Free rider
b) Sucker
c) Dumbbell
d) Floater

83. Find the incorrect pair

a) Task function: goal-centered

b) Maintenance function: group-centered
c) Non-functional: individual-centered
d) None of the above

84. This persona has a high need for approval and obsessed with being liked

a) No person
b) Maybe person – hindi makatanggi; to play safe: pwede naman, try ko, sige gawan nang paraan..
c) Nothing person
d) Know-it-all

85. Which of the following is not true regarding functional conflict?

a) It occurs in moderate levels

b) It stimulates new ideas
c) It increases friendly competition
d) None of the above

86. The four dimensions of empowerment include all of the following except

a) Meaning
b) Competence
c) Impact
d) Responsibility

87. The extent to which employees view themselves as active participants in the organization;
that is, their decisions and actions have an influence on the company’s success.

a) Meaning
b) Competence
c) Impact
d) Responsibility

88. Mental imagery and positive self-talk are activities practiced during

a) Personal goal setting

b) Constructive thought pattern – create thought patterns that are healthy
c) Self-monitoring
d) Self-reinforcement

89. Which of the following is related to mental imagery?

a) practicing a task and visualizing its successful completion

b) “crossing the bridge even if you’re not there yet”
c) anticipating obstacles to goal accomplishment
d) all of the above

90. Which of the following is a good depiction of self-reinforcement?

a) Taking a nap instead of a break because you believe this reinforcement works best for you
b) Taking a break only after achieving a self-set goal
c) Doing an enjoyable task first to gain momentum to do a task you dislike
d) Rewarding self from time to time to stay reinforced

91. The advantages of computer-based training according to Blanchard and Thacker include the
following, except

a) Reduced learning time

b) Increased privacy of learning
c) Reduced cost of training
d) None of the above

92. The most basic computer-based training that provides for self-paced learning.
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a) Programmed instruction
b) Virtual reality training
c) Offsite learning
d) Intelligent tutoring systems

93. A sophisticated type of computer-based training that uses artificial intelligence to customize
learning to the individual

a) Programmed instruction
b) Virtual reality training – 3D computer generated (simulation through 3D)
c) Offsite learning
d) Intelligent tutoring systems

94. Which of the following is least likely related to Human Resource Management (HRM)?

a) Compensation and benefits

b) Diversity and inclusion
c) Training and organizational learning
d) Labor relations

95. Their responsibilities might involve creating training programs, designing systems to attract
and retain talent, and planning organizational development activities, which may be in the form
of workshops and more

a) Human resource managers

b) Human resource development manager
c) Organizational psychologist
d) All of the above

96. Often, they assist other managers throughout the company with employment-related concerns
and help resolve any disputes that arise between staff members

a) Human resource managers

b) Human resource development manager
c) Organizational psychologist
d) All of the above

97. Organizational change refers to specific implementations, usually in response to a problem or

situation. Organizational development, on the other hand, takes a longer and more holistic
approach to change.

a) Both statements are true

b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

98. Most OD programs are oriented toward long-term organizational improvement rather than
focused on solving immediate problems. The role of most OD practitioners is not to solve the
organization’s problems but to help improve the organization’s ability to solve its own problems.

a) Both statements are true

b) Only the first statement is true
c) Only the second statement is true
d) Both statements are false

99. This refers to the radical shift from one state of being to another, so significant that it
requires a shift of organizational culture, behavior, and mindset

a) Organizational change
b) Organizational development
c) Organizational transformation
d) Organizational improvement

100. Which of the following is least likely related to Human Resource Management (HRM)?

a) Compensation and benefits

b) Diversity and inclusion
c) Training and organizational learning
d) Labor relations