Number System 10.

The hexadecimal number AD is equivalent to

binary number
1. The binary number 10101 is equivalent to the a) 10101101
decimal number b) 11011010
a) 19 c) 10001101
b) 21 Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22
c) 35 11. The octal number 706 is equivalent to
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 a) Hexadecimal 1C6
2. The decimal number 29 is equivalent to the b) Binary 111001110
binary number c) Decimal 484
a) 10111 Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22
b) 11011 12. The number (101110000)2 is equivalent to
c) 11101 a) (160)16
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 b) (570)8
3. The binary coded decimal (BCD) number c) (368)10
10010001 is equivalent to a decimal number Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22
a) 19 13. Octal number 75 is equivalent to binary
b) 91 number
c) 145 a) 111011
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 b) 111101
4. He decimal number 37 is equivalent to BCD c) 110111
number Ref: BLT 4 Page number 2542
a) 00110111 14. Binary number 10110110 is equivalent to
b) 00100101 hexadecimal number
c) 00101111 a) A6
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 b) B6
5. Which of the following number cannot be an c) E6
octal number? Ref: BLT 4 Page number 2546
a) 11011 15. The digital system works on ____ system.
b) 771 a) Binary number system
c) 339 b) Octal number system
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 c) Decimal system
6. The binary number 100010001 is equivalent Ref: BLT 4 Page number 2553
to the octal number 16. Which of the following 4 bit combination is
a) 111 invalid in BCD?
b) 273 a) 1011
c) 421 b) 0010
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 c) 1000
7. The hexadecimal number 111 is equivalent to Ref: BLT 4 Page number 2553
octal number
a) 73 Data conversion
b) 273
c) 421 17. A device which is used to convert a
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 continuous signal into digital data stream is
8. The hexadecimal number C9 is equivalent to known as
the decimal number a) ADC
a) 21 b) DAC
b) 129 c) Multiplexer
c) 201 Ref: ATB module 03 Page 3.3
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22 18. A 4 bit ADC with an input from 0 to 5 volts
9. The binary number 10110011 is equivalent to has quantization step size
hexadecimal number a) 1.25 volts
a) 93 b) 0.625 volts
b) B3 c) 0.3125 volts
c) 113 Ref: ATB module 03 Page 3.3
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page number 22
19. In a four bit analog to digital converter how
many quantization level is present?
a) Four
b) Eight
c) Sixteen
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page 25
20. Digital to analog converter has
a) One input and one output
b) Multiple input and single output
c) One input and multiple output
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page 25
21. Resolution of DAC depends upon
a) Number of bits
b) Accuracy of resistance used
c) Accuracy of reference voltage
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page 27
22. Residual sampling frequency components
from the output is eliminated by passing
output from
a) Low pass filter
b) Band pass filter
c) High pass filter
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page 28
23. A DAC can produce 256 different output
voltages. It has resolution of
a) 8 bits
b) 128 bits
c) 256 bits
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page 32
24. The process of sampling approximating an
analog signal to a series of discrete levels is
referred to
a) Interfacing
b) Quantizing
c) Data conversion
Ref: Mike and Tooly Page 32
25. The signal which have both positive and
negative limit is called
a) Analog signal
b) Digital signal
c) Bipolar signal
26. Ref: ATB module 03 Page 3.3
27. Direct current is a/an
a) Uni-polar analog signal
b) Bipolar analog signal
c) Digital signal
Ref: ATB module 03 Page 3.3
Data Buses
28. Which data bus is used to connect single
source to multiple sink?
a) ARINC 429
b) ARINC 629
c) MIL – STD – 1553B
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.2
29. ARINC 629 data bus used to connect
a) Single source to single sink
b) Single source to multiple sinks
c) Multiple sources to multiple sinks
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.2
30. At receiver end data is decoded by the
component called
a) Multiplexer
b) De-multiplexer
c) Modulator
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.2
31. Data transfer rate in MIL-STD-1553B data
bus is
a) 100 Kbps
b) 1 Mbps
c) 100 Mbps
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.2
32. Data transfer rate in ARINC 429 data bus is
a) 100 Kbps
b) 1 Mbps
c) 100 Mbps
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.4
33. MIL-STD-1553B data bus is
a) Simplex data bus
b) Half Duplex data bus
c) Full Duplex data bus
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.2
34. ARINC 429 data bus is
a) Simplex architecture
b) Half Duplex architecture
c) Full Duplex architecture
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.4
35. How many maximum receiver terminals are
accepted by ARINC 429 data bus?
a) Upto 20
b) Upto 31
c) Upto 131
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.4
36. Error detection in ARINC 429 data bus is
performed by
a) Sign Status Matrix (SSM)
b) Parity Bit
c) Data itself
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.5
37. Which data bus consists a Bus
Controller/Monitor?
a) ARINC 429
b) ARINC 629
c) MIL-STD-1553B
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.2
38. ARINC 629 data bus consists of
a) Synchronization bits and data bits
b) Parity Bit and data bits
c) Synchronization bits, parity bit and data
bits
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.6
39. Which data bus uses full Duplex architecture?
a) ARINC 429
b) ARINC 629
c) ARINC 664
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.6
40. In ARINC 664 data bus, data transfer is
accomplished by
a) Direct link
b) Virtual link
c) Switches
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.6
41. ARINC 629 data word consists
a) 32 bits
b) 20 bits
c) 64 bits
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.6
42. Which data bus is used for In-flight
entertainment system for fast video
streaming?
a) ARINC 664
b) ARINC 629
c) IEEE 1394 firewire
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.7
43. Virtual link in ARINC 664 AFDX is determined
by
a) Fixed Communication table in switch
b) Configuration table in LRU
c) Configuration table in hub
Ref: MTB module 05 Page 4.6
Logic gates
44. Which logic gate among following can have
two inputs?
a) AND gate
b) NOT gate
c) Buffer gate
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.2
45. Number of input in NOT gate is
a) Always 1
b) Always 2
c) More than 2
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.2
46. A buffer gate always has
a) One input and one output
b) One input and two output
c) Two inputs and one output
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.2
47. In AND gate output is high only if
a) All inputs are low
b) All inputs are high
c) Both inputs are different
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.3
48. In OR gate output is high only if
a) All inputs are low
b) All inputs are high
c) Atleast one input is high
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.3
49. In a parallel circuit, lamp will extinguish only
when both switches are off. Which logic gate
will acts in above circuit?
a) AND gate
b) OR gate
c) X-OR gate
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.3
50. NAND gate is combination of
a) NOT and AND gates
b) NOT and OR gates
c) AND and OR gates
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.3
51. OR gate followed by NOT gate is called
a) NAND gate
b) NOR gate
c) X-OR gate
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.4
52. Output of two inputs NAND gate is high only if
a) Atleast one input is logic high
b) Atleast one input is logic low
c) Both inputs are logic high
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.4
53. Output of two inputs NOR gate is logic 1 only
if
a) All inputs are logic 1
b) Neither input is logic 1
c) Neither input is logic 0
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.4
54. Output of negative AND gate is same as
a) NAND gate
b) NOR gate
c) Not gate
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.5
55. This symbol indicates
a) AND gate
b) NAND gate
c) NOR gate
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.4
56. This symbol indicates
a) OR gate
b) X-OR gate
c) X-NOR gate
Ref: ATB module 05, page 5.6
57. This symbol indicates
a) AND gate
b) OR gate
c) NOR gate
 (Ref: EASA04/1.29) Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 64
58. Which logic gate represents parallel switching 67. A group of 8 bits is called
circuit? a) Nibble
a) AND gate b) Byte
b) OR gate c) Digit
c) NOT gate Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 64
(Ref: BLT 04/2557) 68. A group of 4 bits is called
59. Which logic gate represents Series switching a) Nibble
circuit? b) Byte
a) AND gate c) Digit
b) OR gate Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 64
c) NOT gate 69. Basic unit of data that can be manipulated as
(Ref: BLT 04/2561) an entity is referred to
60. Which gate is called inequality comparator? a) Word
a) X-OR gate b) Byte
b) X-NOR gate c) Nibble
c) NAND and NOR gate Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 64
(Ref: BLT 04/2560) 70. Which hardware is called brain of computer?
61. Which gate is called universal gate? a) CPU
a) X-OR gate b) Memory devices
b) X-NOR gate c) Input or output device
c) NAND and NOR gate Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.2
(Ref: BLT 04/2566 & 2568) 71. Which bus is serial bus?
62. When both inputs of NAND gate is shorted it a) Address bus
acts as b) Data bus
a) OR gate c) Control bus
b) AND gate Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.2
c) NOT gate 72. Which buses are running externally
(Ref: BLT 04/2567) throughout the aircraft?
63. Which gate is equivalent to series switching a) Address bus
circuit? b) Data bus
a) AND gate c) Control bus
b) OR gate Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.2
c) NOR gate 73. Which buses are referred to as parallel
(Ref: BLT 04/2561) buses?
a) Control and address bus
Basic Computer Structure b) Address and data bus
c) Data and control bus
64. Which of the following computer hardware is Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.2
an input device? 74. Which components retrieve and process the
a) CPU instructions and coordinate the flow of data
b) Keyboard throughout the computer?
c) Monitor a) CPU
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 63 b) RAM
65. Which type of bus is used to specify memory c) Input device
location? Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.4
a) Address bus 75. Overall CPU operations are supervised by
b) Data bus a) ALU
c) Control Bus b) Register
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 63 c) Control Unit
66. Locally generated clock signal to provide time Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.5
reference for synchronizing the transfer of 76. Most computer operations are performed by
data is in the form of a) ALU
a) High frequency square wave b) Register
b) High frequency alternating wave c) Control Unit
c) Low frequency alternating wave Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.5
77. CPU speed is measured in 87. A sequence of instructions which tells the
a) Hz computer to perform the specific task is
b) Decibel a) Software
c) Nanosecond b) Hardware
Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.5 c) Programs
78. Which memory unit is used to permanently Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 71
store the data that can’t be changed? 88. The act of moving data from the
a) RAM microprocessor to a memory location involves
b) ROM a) Read operation
c) PROM b) Write operation
Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.5 c) Both read and write operations
79. Frequently used data are stored in Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 83
a) RAM
b) ROM Fiber Optics
c) RAM cache storage
Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.5 89. A fibre optics transmission system has high
80. Which memory is called volatile memory? a) Bandwidth
a) RAM b) Mechanical strength
b) ROM c) Attenuation in medium
c) EPROM Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 111
Ref: ATB module 5, Page 6.5 90. Fibre optics govern by the fundamental law of
81. Non-volatile data such as programme code a) Reflection
as well as permanent data are stored in b) Refraction
a) RAM c) Reflection and refraction
b) ROM Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 111
c) Cache memory 91. In fiber optics, light travels through
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 65 a) Core
82. Transient data and variables used by b) Cladding
program is stored in c) Coating
a) RAM Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.2
b) ROM 92. Which type of transmitting media is
c) Cache memory completely immune from Electro – Magnetic
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 65 Interference (EMI)
83. Data stored in which type of memory is lost a) Fibre optics
once power supply is lost or disconnected? b) Coaxial cable
a) RAM c) Twisted pair of wire
b) CMOS RAM Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.2
c) ROM 93. In comparison of copper cable optical cables
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 65 are
84. 1 Kbytes is equal to a) Lighter
a) 1000 bytes b) Less expansive
b) 1024 bytes c) Easy to splice
c) 512 bytes Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.3
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 65 94. In fiber optics cable, if plastic core is used
85. A memory device in which data may be instead of glass
retrieved from all location with equal ease is a) More expansive
a) Random access memory b) Higher loss
b) Read only memory c) Less immune to EMI
c) EPROM Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.2
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 65 95. Which of the following is needed at receiver
86. Bipolar memory is now rarely used due to side if data is transmitted via fiber optic
a) They offer slower access time cable?
b) Requires more power a) LED
c) Larger size b) Laser diode
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 65 c) Photo cell
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.3
96. Bandwidth of fiber optics cable is determined
by which factor?
a) Cone of acceptance
b) Numerical aperture
c) Material of strength member
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 112
97. Density of cladding is
a) Equal to that of core
b) Less than that of core
c) More than that of core
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 112
98. Light wave propagates inside the core due to
a) Continuous refraction
b) Total internal reflection
c) Modal dispersion
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 112
99. Attenuation coefficient of an optical fiber
refers only to
a) Core loss
b) Bending loss
c) Coupling loss
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 113
100. Core loss in optical fiber is mainly due to
a) Radiation and absorption
b) Absorption and scattering
c) Scattering and radiation
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 113
101. Which type of light ray is used by optical
transmitter?
a) Infra red
b) Ultra violet
c) Visible red light
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 114
102. In multimode optical fiber, different mode
travels at different speed. This phenomenon
is known as
a) Attenuation
b) Scattering
c) Dispersion
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 115
103. Optical fiber cable is protected from
moisture and damage by
a) Cladding
b) Strength material
c) Outer jacket
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.2
104. Fiber optic cables are connected by
a) Soldering
b) Crimping
c) Termination coupler
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.2
105. A device that have multiple input and
output ports for light to travel is called
a) Coupler
b) Switches
c) Routers
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.3
106. In which type of coupler, optical power
loss increases proportionally as number of
terminal nodes increases?
a) Four port directional coupler
b) T-Coupler
c) Star coupler
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.3
107. Direction coupler, T – coupler and star
coupler are
a) Active coupler
b) Passive coupler
c) High loss coupler
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 10.4
108. What aircraft standard applies to fiber
optic network?
a) ARINC 429
b) ARINC 573
c) ARINC 636
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 115
109. In a multi core fiber optic cable,
a) Cores are color coded
b) Cladding is color coded
c) Outer Jacket is color coded Buffer is
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 115 color coded
110. A significant advantage of fiber optic
cable in large passenger aircraft is
a) Lower installation cost
b) Reduced weight
c) Ease of maintenance
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 111
111. The attenuation in optical fiber is typically
a) Less than 2dB per km
b) Between 2 dB and 20 dB per km
c) More than 20 dB
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 113
112. A pulse of infrared light traveling down a
multimode fiber becomes stretched. This is
due to
a) Reflection
b) Refraction
c) Dispersion
Ref: Mike and Tooly, Page 115
Electronic Display
113. Which type of display can combine
several flight and navigational function in a
single display?
a) Analog Instrument
b) Digital Instrument
c) Passive display
Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.2
114. LED works as display in
a) Forward bias
b) Reverse bias
c) Both forward and reverse bias
 Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.3 a) Only focusing
115. Which among works on the principle of b) Only accelerating
electroluminescence? c) Accelerating and focusing
a) CRT display Ref: Integrated Instrument Page 285
b) LCD display 126. Purpose of cathode is
c) LED display a) To emit electron
Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.2 b) To focus an electron beam
116. A phenomenon whereby light emission is c) To control the intensity
caused by electric current Ref: Integrated Instrument Page 285
a) Electroluminescence 127. Deflection system in CRT display of
b) Fluorescence aircraft uses
c) Radiation a) Electrostatic field
Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.2 b) Electromagnetic field
117. LEDs are made of c) Either electrostatic or electromagnetic
a) Conductor field
b) Semiconductor Ref: Integrated Instrument Page 286
c) Insulator 128. A colour CRT has _____ electron guns.
Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.3 a) One
118. When LED is in reverse bias b) Three
a) LED produces light c) More than three
b) No light is given off Ref: Integrated Instrument Page 290
c) LED destroy
Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.3 Electrostatic sensitive Devices
119. A fibre optics receiver contain
a) An LED 129. Transfer of electrostatic charges between
b) A photodiode bodies at different potential is called
c) LCD a) Electro static discharge
Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.3 b) Current electricity
120. Which material coating is used in LCD c) Electro static induction
polarizing plate? Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.2
a) Indium Oxide 130. Sensitivity of ESD sensitive devices
b) Nematic material recognized as class II is
c) Liquid crystals a) 1 to 100 volts
Ref: Integrated instrument Page 15 b) 100 to 1000 volts
121. Which display is called passive display? c) 1000 to 4000 volts
a) LED Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.2
b) LCD 131. Which of the following should be kept
c) CRT outside the ESD controlled environment?
Ref: ATB module 5, page 11.3 a) Conductive foot wear
122. In CRT which types of electron emission b) Steel meshed smocks
takes place? c) Insulating material
a) Thermionic emission Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.3
b) Photo emission 132. Table top mat used in static safe
c) Secondary emission workstation is made of
Ref: Integrated Instrument Page 284 a) Conductive material
123. Inside of CRT screen is coated with b) Insulating material
a) Nematic material c) Semiconductor
b) Phosphor Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.3
c) Indium Oxide 133. While working on ESD equipment, wrist
Ref: Integrated Instrument Page 284 strap should be worn by a person to
124. Electron gun of CRT consists a) Dissipate the static charge
a) Cathode, Control grid and deflection plate b) Prevent the formation of static charge
b) Cathode, Anode and screen c) Accumulate the charge
c) Cathode, Grid and Anode Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.3
Ref: Integrated Instrument Page 284
125. Purpose of anode in CRT is
134. Ionizer used in the controlled environment
used for ESDS devices, minimized the effect
of static charge by
a) Raising the relative humidity
b) Lowering the relative humidity
c) Neutralizing the charged insulator
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.4
135. Ionizer used in ESDS controlled
environment has air stream containing
a) Positive ions only
b) Negative Ions only
c) Both positive and negative ions
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.4
136. Static charge in work area is detected by
the use of
a) Grounding Test Station
b) Electrostatic field meter
c) Ionizer
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.4
137. ESD sensitive component must be stored
in
a) Insulating bag
b) Conductive bag
c) Electrostatic conductive bag
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.5
138. In three layers of electrostatic conductive
bag used to store ESD components, middle
layer is made
a) Insulating layer
b) Transparent metalized layer
c) Antistatic layer
Ref: ATB module 05, Page 12.5
139. Which among following may results most
severe static charge on human body?
a) People having dry skin
b) People having moist skin
c) People having dry skin wearing cotton
clothes
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 132
140. When human hair is combed, comb
becomes
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 132
141. Which among following offer least
protection to ESD devices?
a) Conductive material
b) Static dissipative materials
c) Anti static material
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 136
142. Damage to ESD devices can be
prevented by using
a) low relative humidity
b) Correct ESD handling process
c) Insulating carpet
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 136
143. Which device is more susceptible to
damage from stray static charge?
a) Power rectifier
b) TTL logic gate
c) MOSFET transistor
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 134
144. The typical resistance of wrist strap is
a) 1 Ohm
b) 1 Kilo Ohm
c) 1 Mega ohm
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 134
145. Which of the following material is neutral
on tribo-electric series?
a) Dry human skin
b) Cotton
c) Polyester
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 132
146. The static voltage generated when a
person walks across a carpet at 20 % relative
humidity can be
a) No more than about 10 kV
b) Between 10 kV and 20 kV
c) More than 20 kV
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 133
147. To reduce the risk of damaging an ESD
during soldering it is important to use
a) Low voltage soldering iron
b) Low temperature soldering iron
c) High voltage soldering iron
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 135
148. Which among these is comparatively
least prone to damage from stray static
charge?
a) Field effect transistor
b) Un-mounted semiconductor device
c) PCB mounted components
Ref: Mike Tooly, Page 133
Software Management Control
149. Software Consideration in Airborne
System and Equipment Certification is a
a) Standard Software
b) Standard document
c) Standard Equipment
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2
150. DO-178B is first published by
a) Radio Technical Commission for
Aeronautics (RTCA)
b) Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)
c) European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA)
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2
151. Under DO-178B/ED-12B, flight control
and navigation system needs
a) Level A Certification
 b) Level B Certification c) Ampere meter
c) Level E Certification Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2 160. When a charged object induces the
152. Aircraft system, failure of which has no redistribution of charge in another object, it is
impact on the safety of aircraft operation are called
certified in a) Mutual induction
a) Level A b) Self induction
b) Level B c) Electrostatic induction
c) Level E Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2 161. When electric current is passing through
153. Which level of certification is needed for a straight conductor, direction of magnetic
cabin entertainment system in DO-178B? field is given by
a) Level B a) Fleming’s left hand rule
b) Level C b) Fleming’s right hand rule
c) Level E c) Right hand grip rule
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2 Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
154. Which of the following is a software 162. Which type of EMI coupling can cover
specification used to host multiple software longer distance?
application of different criticality level on a) Inductive coupling
same processor? b) Radiative coupling
a) ARINC 629 c) Capacitive coupling
b) ARINC 653 Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
c) ARINC 664 163. Which type of coupling occurs when a
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2 varying electric field exist between two
155. Certification documents related to adjacent conductors induce a voltage change
Software Tool Qualification is a) Radiative coupling
a) DO-330 b) Capacitive coupling
b) DO-331 c) Conductive coupling
c) DO-178 Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.3 164. Coupling occurs when the coupling path
156. Which level does not required any between the source and victim is formed by
traceability in DO-178C? direct contact
a) Level A a) Radiative coupling
b) Level E b) Capacitive coupling
c) Level A, B, C c) Conductive coupling
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.3 Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
157. Aircraft equipments failure of which 165. The azimuth of lightening discharge can
reduces the safety margin but well within be calculated by
crew capabilities are certified in which a) ADF receiver
category? b) DME Receiver
a) Level B c) ILS receiver
b) Level C Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.3
c) Level D 166. Distance from the thunderstorm can be
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2 detected by
158. Potential consequences of an undetected a) Power density of lightening strike
errors in software of Level A equipment is b) DME indicator
a) Catastrophic c) ADF receiver
b) Hazardous Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.3
c) Minor 167. Conductivity test after repair of composite
Ref: ATB module 05, page 13.2 structure is done by using
a) Ohmmeter
Electromagnetic Environment b) Voltmeter
c) Ammeter
159. Unit of magnetic field strength is Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.4
a) Volt per meter 168. Static wicks are device used on aircraft
b) Ampere per meter for
 a) Lightening detection
b) Lightening protection
c) HIRF protection
Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.3
169. Which type of ADF antenna is used to
detect the azimuth of lightening strike?
a) Loop antenna
b) Sense antenna
c) Wire antenna
Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.3
170. Reducing the harmful effect of unintended
electromagnetic interference is the goal of
a) Electromagnetic compatibility
b) High Intensity Radiated field
c) Conductive coupling
Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.4
171. Digital electronic equipment is more
susceptible to EMI because it operates on
a) Digital signal
b) Low level voltage
c) High level voltage
Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.4
172. Sensitive micro electronic device s can be
operated in protected environment by using
Faraday’s Cage by
a) Filtering
b) Shielding
c) Screening
Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.4
173. Electromagnetic compatibility can be
achieved by addressing
a) Emission issue
b) Susceptibility issue
c) Both emission and susceptibility issue
Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
174. Electrical equipment that generates EMI
must be operated within specified limit is
ensured by
a) Filtering and shielding
b) Separation of wiring bundles
c) Bonding and sealing
Ref: ATB module 05, page 14.2
ACARS
175. Which aircraft system provides a mean by
which operator can exchange data from
aircraft without human intervention?
a) ACARS
b) GPS
c) EFIS
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 157
176. ACARS is a digital data link which
operates in
a) HF frequency range
b) VHF frequency range
c) UHF frequency range
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 157
177. The standard of ACARS is defined in
a) ARINC 429
b) ARINC 629
c) ARINC 597
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.6
178. ACARS message which originate from
aircraft is called
a) Uplink
b) Downlink
c) Data link
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 158
179. ACARS message which originate from
ground is called
a) Uplink
b) Downlink
c) Data link
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 158
180. Frequency used for the transmission and
reception of ACARS messages is
a) 108 MHz to 118 MHz
b) 118 MHz to 136 MHz
c) 129 MHz to 137 MHz
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 158
EICAS and ECAM
181. EICAS upper display indicates
a) Primary engine parameter
b) Secondary engine parameter
c) Status of non engine system
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 378
182. Which data is displayed on EICAS lower
display?
a) EGT
b) Engine vibration
c) Warning and caution message
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 379
183. Engine operating information and any
alert required to be actioned by crew are
displayed in which mode of EICAS?
a) Operational mode
b) Status mode
c) Maintenance mode
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 380
184. Which mode of EICAS can be selected by
the crew on display select panel
a) Operational and maintenance modes
b) Operational and status modes
c) Operational, status and maintenance
modes
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 380
185. In which mode of EICAS, dispatch
readiness of the aircraft is determined?
a) Operational mode
 b) Status mode 194. In fly by wire system, flight control surface
c) Maintenance mode is actuated by
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 380 a) Hydraulic actuator
186. Which mode of EICAS is selected on the b) Mechanical linkage
ground prior to shut down of electrical power c) Servo actuator
to aid the flight crew in making entry in Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 158
technical Log? 195. Fly by wire system increases the
a) Operational mode a) Weight of aircraft
b) Status mode b) Fuel efficiency
c) Maintenance mode c) Carbon dioxide emission
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 380 Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 158
187. Which mode in EICAS is used by
maintenance staff for troubleshooting and Flight Management System
testing?
a) Operational mode 196. Which system is used to compute
b) Status mode optimum flight path based on stored digital
c) Maintenance mode map terrain data base to guide the aircraft to
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 380 destination?
188. In EICAS system, warning that requires a) GPS
immediate corrective action comes under b) FMS
a) Level A c) IRS
b) Level B Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.9
c) Level C 197. FMS drives the flight director command
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 382 bars on
189. EICAS Level A message are displayed in a) Primary flight display
a) Red b) Navigational display
b) Yellow c) IRS display
c) Green Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.10
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 382 198. Which system drives the actuators that
190. In EICAS display of loss of cabin altitude move control surfaces for lateral and vertical
comes under control along computed flight path?
a) Level A a) Flight management computer
b) Level B b) Thrust management system
c) Level C c) Automatic flight control system
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 383 Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.10
191. Engine operating data are displayed on
which of the following display? INS and IRS
a) EICAS
b) ECAM 199. Which one is self contained navigational
c) EFIS unit?
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 387 a) DME
192. In ECAM data related to primary aircraft b) VOR
system is displayed in the c) IRS
a) Tabular format Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.06
b) Check list and synoptic format 200. The direction in which nose of the aircraft
c) Analog format is pointed is called
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 387 a) Relative Bearing
b) Magnetic bearing
Fly by Wire c) Heading
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 255
193. Main disadvantage of fly by wire system 201. Inertial navigation system uses
is a) Strap down arrangement
a) Increase in weight b) Gyro stabilized platform
b) Increased fuel consumption c) Ring Laser Gyro
c) Lack of feel to pilot Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 260
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 158
202. Rate of change in aircraft attitude in IRS
is sensed by
a) Accelerometer
b) Spinning rotor gyro
c) Ring laser Gyro
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 270
203. Optical sensor used in RLG measures the
difference in
a) Colour
b) Density
c) Frequency
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 271
204. In which mode of INS or IRS aircraft must
remain stationary?
a) ALIGN mode
b) NAV mode
c) STBY mode
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 273
205. Which of the following is not a mode in
IRS?
a) STBY mode
b) ALIGN mode
c) NAV mode
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 274
206. Mode selection in IRS is done on
a) Control and display unit
b) Mode selection panel
c) Inertial mode reference panel
Ref: Integrated Instrument, page 274
207. Accelerometer used in INS or IRS
measures
a) Linear acceleration
b) Angular velocity
c) Rate of turn
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.6
208. When flying over large bodies of water
INS must be updated by
a) Flight director system
b) Ground beacon
c) Global positioning system
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.8
GPS
209. Global poisoning system is
a) Ground based navigation system
b) Space based navigation system
c) Air based navigation system
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.8
210. GPS is presently controlled by
a) EASA
b) FAA
c) US department of defense
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 166
211. Which of the following information is
provided by GPS?
a) Position and time only
b) Position and speed only
c) Position, speed and time
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.8
212. All satellites are the part of
a) Space segment
b) User segment
c) Control segment
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 166
213. GPS accuracy is maintained by using
a) Stationary satellites
b) Atomic clock
c) Ground antenna
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 167
214. How many minimum satellites are needed
to determine position and elevation both?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.8
TCAS
215. Information needed to compute the TCAS
alarm is
a) Heading
b) Bearing
c) Closure rate
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 167
216. Traffic Collision Avoidance System are
transponder based ______ traffic monitoring
and alarming system.
a) Air to air
b) Air to ground
c) Ground to ground
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.10
217. TCAS I issues
a) Traffic advisory only
b) Resolution advisory only
c) Traffic as well as resolution advisory
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.10
218. TCAS works in coordination of secondary
surveillance radar in
a) Mode A and C
b) Mode A and S
c) Mode C and S
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.11
219. Interrogated aircraft transponder reply
with an encoded signal at frequency
a) 1030 MHz
b) 1090 MHz
c) 1060 MHz
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.11
220. When bearing information is available,
intruder in RA zone is identified on the ND by
a) Open diamond
 b) Red Solid Square a) Aircraft is in flight
c) Yellow Solid Circle b) Engine is running
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 170 c) AFCS is engaged
221. When bearing information is available, Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 161
intruder in TA zone is identified on the ND by 230. PFD, MFD and ND are
a) Open diamond a) CRT display
b) Red Solid Square b) LED display
c) Yellow Solid Circle c) LCD display
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 170 Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 160
222. Which command has the highest priority
a) Pitch command from FDS
b) Pitch command from RA
c) Pitch command from TA
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 170
223. RA commands is issued to both aircraft
aurally and visually if vertical separation
degrade to
a) 1200 feet
b) 850 feet
c) 600 feet
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.11
224. TA commands is issued to both aircraft
aurally and visually if vertical separation
degrade to
a) 1200 feet
b) 850 feet
c) 600 feet
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.11
225. A plus sign indicates that target aircraft is
a) Above
b) Climbing
c) Approaching
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.11
226. A target aircraft is diving is indicated by
a) Plus sign
b) Minus sign
c) Downward arrow
Ref: ATB module 05, page 15.11

EFIS

227. In EFIS, which symbol generator is

serves as back up that can be used in case of
other symbol generator?
a) Left SG
b) Right SG
c) Center SG
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 161
228. In EFIS, First officers EADI and EHSI are
connected to which symbol generator?
a) Left SG
b) Right SG
c) Center SG
Ref: Mike and Tooly, page 161
229. Digital flight data recorder is turned on
when