David C Funder - Personality Puzzle Test Bank

Personality Puzzle 8th Edition
Funder Test Bank
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Personality Puzzle 8th Edition Funder
Test Bank
CHAPTER 1 The Study of the Person
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 1.4. Explain Funder’s first law—that great strengths are
usually great weaknesses and vice versa.
1.1. Summarize the main objectives of personality
1.5. Evaluate the concept of the One Big Theory (OBT)
psychology.
and explain why separate approaches to personality
1.2. Understand the concept of a basic approach are needed.
(or paradigm).
1.3. Define and distinguish between the major basic
approaches to personality.
2 | CHAPTER 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT part of the psychological triad?

a. behavior c. psychological health
b. thoughts d. feelings
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Study of the Person
OBJ: 1.1 MSC: Remembering
2. Personality psychology and clinical psychology overlap most often when approaching which topic?
a. personality processes c. personality development
b. personality disorders d. None of the answer options is correct.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Study of the Person
3. Personality psychology shares with clinical psychology

a. an emphasis on mental disorders and the treatment of psychological problems.
b. a common obligation to try to understand the whole person.
c. a requirement that psychologists be licensed.
d. the fact that both personality psychologists and clinical psychologists are usually in
private practice rather than employed by universities.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person
4. Which subfield of psychology uses personality psychology to understand vocational interests and
occupational success and leadership?
a. social c. developmental
b. cultural d. organizational
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Study of the Person
5. Which part of the psychological triad corresponds to cognitions about the self?
a. thoughts c. behaviors
b. traits d. disorders
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Study of the Person
OBJ: 1.1 MSC: Understanding
6. Personality is an individual’s characteristic patterns of

a. behavior. c. thought.
b. emotion. d. All of the answer options are correct.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
The Study of the Person | 3
7. The unique mandate of personality psychologists is to attempt to

a. identify and measure individual differences in ability and behavior.
b. determine the effect of the social environment on behavior.
c. explain whole, functioning persons and real-life concerns.
d. prevent or treat psychological personality disorders.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
8. Advocates of any particular basic approach to personality historically

a. claimed that their approach explains everything worth explaining.
b. admitted that other approaches have their good points.
c. proudly asserted that they have deliberately limited what they have chosen to look at.
d. claimed that approaches cannot be compared with each other.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
9. In observing human behavior, it is impossible to

a. understand everything about a person all at once.
b. choose to limit what you look at in a person.
c. find patterns across different kinds of observation.
d. make any real progress toward solving the personality puzzle.
10. The purpose of a basic approach (or paradigm) is to

a. expand the range of data you consider.
b. integrate diverse perspectives.
c. limit inquiry to certain kinds of observations and patterns.
d. resolve contradictions in data.
11. The phenomenological approach leads to which two directions of research?

a. humanistic and cross-cultural perspectives on personality
b. humanistic and social-learning perspectives on personality
c. cross-cultural and cognitive perspectives on personality
d. trait and cross-cultural perspectives on personality
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
12. Personality psychologists who adhere to the approach try to understand people by way of
identifying, conceptualizing, and measuring the ways in which people differ psychologically from one
another.
a. psychoanalytic c. cognitive
b. trait d. phenomenological
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
4 | CHAPTER 1
13. Personality psychologists adhering to the approach try to understand people by way of
psychic energy, the workings of the unconscious mind, and the nature and resolution of internal
mental conflict.
b. trait d. phenomenological
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
14. The personality paradigm that focuses on rewards and punishments is known as the
paradigm.
a. trait c. phenomenological
b. behaviorist d. psychoanalytic
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
15. theories of personality apply the insights and methods derived from the study of perception,
memory, and thought to the study of personality.
a. Psychoanalytic c. Cognitive
b. Trait d. Phenomenological
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
16. Psychologists following the phenomenological approach

a. focus on the workings of the unconscious mind and the resolution of internal mental
conflict.
b. study how overt behavior is affected by rewards and punishments.
c. build theoretical models of how people process information.
d. are concerned with our conscious experience of the world and the consequences of
having free will.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
17. Which of the following MOST closely represents a focal topic of the trait approach to personality?
a. understanding mental conflicts
b. measuring and conceptualizing individual differences
c. understanding the mind in terms of biological mechanisms
d. applying principles of behaviorism and social observation
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
18. Which of the following MOST closely represents a focal topic of the biological approach to
personality?
c. understanding the heritability of behavior and personality
19. Which of the following MOST closely represents a focal topic of the psychoanalytic approach to
personality?
c. discovering how conscious awareness produces uniquely human characteristics
20. Which of the following MOST closely represents a focal topic of the phenomenological approach to
personality?
21. Which of the following MOST closely represents a focal topic of the learning and cognitive
approaches to personality?
22. The task of an employer who attempts to identify dependable, conscientious, and hard-working job
applicants is similar to the task of the psychologist, who attempts to identify and assess
individual differences.
b. trait d. behavioral
OBJ: 1.3 MSC: Applying
6 | CHAPTER 1
23. Jeff suspects that his roommate’s sexist jokes may indicate that his roommate has some hidden,
unconscious hostility toward women or that he feels very insecure around women. Jeff’s analysis
suggests a approach to personality.
a. psychoanalytic c. phenomenological
b. trait d. behaviorist
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic approaches to personality?
a. psychoanalytic c. assessment
b. learning d. phenomenological
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
25. A major advantage of personality psychology is that it focuses on the whole person and real-life
concerns, yet this can often lead to overinclusive and unfocused research. Which of the following is a
major theme of your textbook that speaks to this conflict?
a. The personality puzzle will never be solved.
b. The One Big Theory (OBT) can account for everything in personality.
c. Great strengths are usually great weaknesses.
d. A single basic approach must be chosen on the basis of rigorous data analysis.
26. According to Funder, in what way do personality psychologists appreciate individual differences?
a. They categorize and label people; that is, they pigeonhole them.
b. They appreciate rich individual differences because the person is the starting point of
personality psychology.
c. They psychoanalyze people, because there are important differences in the unconscious.
d. They focus on how similar people behave in different situations.
27. What is a major advantage of using a basic approach to study personality psychology?
a. It is the only approach that uses the scientific method.
b. It focuses on the unconscious mind.
c. It uses One Big Theory.
d. It is a systematic way to study specific patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.
28. According to the text, personality’s greatest strength, understanding whole persons, is also its greatest
weakness. Which term describes this fundamental observation?
a. pigeonholing c. One Big Theory
b. psychological triad d. Funder’s First Law
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
29. Which of the following is an expression of Funder’s First Law?

a. People vary in terms of their trait levels.
b. There are no perfect indicators of personality.
c. Characteristics that are strengths in one sense are weaknesses in other ways.
d. Individual differences should not be put into the “error” term in statistical analysis.
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
OBJ: 1.4 MSC: Analyzing
30. Is narcissism always a bad trait?

a. No, narcissists are highly persuasive and often make competent leaders.
b. No, narcissists sometimes act kindly toward others.
c. No, narcissists are rigid in their ethical thinking.
d. Yes, it is associated with negative outcomes like exploitativeness.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
31. What is one of personality psychology’s biggest advantages over other areas of psychology?
a. It uses more rigorous methods.
b. It appreciates the uniqueness of the individual.
c. It created the One Big Theory to explain whole persons.
d. It focuses on the two most important aspects of the psychological triad.
32. Why haven’t personality psychologists combined all paradigms into One Big Theory?
a. A theory that tries to explain everything would probably not provide the best explanation
for any one thing.
b. The manageability of research programs would be lost.
c. The different basic approaches to psychology address the same sets of questions.
d. Applying principles of behaviorism helps reduce negative behaviors, making the
cognitive approach the best one.
33. The trait approach, the behaviorist approach, and the psychoanalytic approach
a. are irreconcilable and contradictory views of human psychology.
b. are all part of the One Big Theory (OBT).
c. all address the biological basis of human psychology.
d. address different sets of questions about human psychology.
8 | CHAPTER 1
34. Funder writes that there are good reasons why personality psychologists have distinct theories versus
One Big Theory. Which is NOT one of those reasons?
a. One Big Theory would undermine the smaller theories.
b. There is a trade-off between breadth and depth in theories.
c. There is, for now, no accepted One Big Theory.
d. Each theory offers a different perspective on personality.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
35. Personality psychology emphasizes how people are , whereas subfields such as cognitive
and social psychology emphasize how people are .
a. similar to each other; different from each other
b. different from each other; similar to each other
c. essentially good; essentially bad
d. motivated by unconscious forces; motivated by conscious forces
ANS: B DIF: Moderate
REF: Pigeonholing Versus Appreciation of Individual Differences
36. One critique of personality psychology is that it “pigeonholes” people. What does pigeonholing
someone mean?
a. psychoanalyzing people c. statistically analyzing results
b. prescribing medication d. categorizing and labeling people
ANS: D DIF: Moderate
REF: Pigeonholing Versus Appreciation of Individual Differences
37. What is the largest and most dominant approach in personality psychology today?
a. learning and cognitive c. psychoanalytic
b. trait d. biological
38. One reason why behaviorism is so effective at changing behavior is that it ignores the possibility of
a. social interactions. c. cognitive mechanisms.
b. free will. d. evolution.
39. What does Funder mean when he says that personality is coherent?
a. The personality of one person depends on the personality of those around him or her.
b. Clinical psychology is the most dominant subfield.
c. Strengths are often weaknesses and vice versa.
d. Each aspect of one’s personality depends on the other parts.
MATCHING
Match the personality approach with the most applicable research question.
a. Applied
b. Biological
c. Learning
d. Phenomenological
e. Psychoanalytic
f. Trait
1. How do rewards affect social behavior?
2. How does unconscious conflict affect well-being?
3. What characteristics of individuals predict health?
4. Are there differences in neurotransmitter expression between people?
5. How do people from individualist cultures differ from others?
1. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

2. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
3. ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
4. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
5. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology
Match the most relevant term with each definition.

a. Psychological triad
b. Funder’s First Law
c. Pigeonholing
d. One Big Theory
e. Paradigm
f. Funder’s Second Law
6. Thoughts, feelings, and behavior
7. A basic approach to personality
8. Labeling and categorizing people
9. Great strengths are often great weaknesses.
10. A framework that can predict everything about human behavior
6. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person

7. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person
8. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person
9. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person
10 | CHAPTER 1
10. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person

SHORT ANSWER
1. Explain why Funder believes that the basic approaches to personality are complementary and not
competing explanations for understanding the psychological triad.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

2. Funder argues that a basic approach that is good for explaining some elements of personality is
usually poor at explaining other elements of personality. Provide an example of an aspect of
personality that is well explained by one basic approach but not the others. Then identify limitations
in that basic approach by pointing to other aspects of personality that are better explained by a
different approach.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

3. Identify and describe the basic approaches to personality outlined in Chapter 1. Why is it useful to
have a basic approach?
ANS:
Answers will vary.

OBJ: 1.2 | 1.3 MSC: Understanding
4. Explain the idea of the One Big Theory. Identify the disadvantages of establishing such a theory.
ANS:
Answers will vary.

5. Define Funder’s First Law and come up with your own example to illustrate it.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

6. Your text states that personality psychology is both the largest as well as the smallest subfield of
psychology. Explain what this means.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person OBJ: 1.1

MSC: Understanding
CHAPTER 2 Personality Research Methods
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 2.6. Differentiate the goals of scientific training from

technical training.
2.1. Understand that personality is not directly observ-
2.7. Define and distinguish reliability and validity.
able, and data are clues.
2.8. Give examples of techniques researchers can use to
2.2. Recognize and classify instances of B, L, I, and S data.
improve measurement quality.
2.3. Define and distinguish B, L, I, and S data.
2.9. Identify a variety of issues related to generalizability.
2.4. Identify strengths and weaknesses of B, L, I, and S
2.10. Compare and contrast different types of research
data.
designs.
2.5. Understand new concepts and terminology associated
with different types of data.
12
Personality Research Methods | 13
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The goal of the dissertation in the process of scientific education is to demonstrate that the future
scientist
a. has memorized all of the known facts about a given topic.
b. has read all of the known articles about a given a topic.
c. can contribute something new to the field.
d. can apply the technical knowledge learned in graduate school.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate
REF: Psychology’s Emphasis on Method: Scientific Education and Technical Training
2. According to the text, the goal of a scientific education is to

a. question what is known and how to find out what is not yet known.
b. convey what facts are already known about a subject.
c. train individuals to exclusively rely on deductive reasoning to solve problems.
d. All of the answer options are correct.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate
3. According to the text, a would receive technical training, whereas a would

receive scientific education.
a. pharmacologist; pharmacist
b. physician; biologist
c. botanist; computer programmer
d. research psychologist; clinical psychologist
4. According to the textbook, there are no perfect of personality, only .

a. measures; devices c. theories; hypotheses
b. indicators; clues d. reliable measures; valid measures
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data
5. Researchers must use clues to personality in their research because personality

a. is defined solely by biological factors that cannot be observed.
b. tests are unethical.
c. is something difficult to measure that resides inside an individual.
d. is defined by responses to self-report questionnaires.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data
14 | CHAPTER 2
6. When gathering data or clues about personality, the best policy is to

a. gather only a very small number of clues and focus on the important ones.
b. gather only clues that are certain not to be misleading.
c. rely solely on self-report data.
d. collect as many clues as possible.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data
7. Because each kind of data has limitations, personality psychologists should

a. not bother collecting data.
b. gather as much data as possible.
c. only use L data, which are the most reliable.
d. use only one source of data and control for its limitations.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data
8. There is a possibility that individuals are so accustomed to certain aspects of their personality that
they might not be aware of those traits. This is called the effect.
a. fish-and-water c. self-expectancy
b. self-verification d. narcissism
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
9. In order to examine the relationship between early life experiences and adult criminality, Dr. Robbins
asks his research participants to fill out questionnaires describing their early lives. He then obtains
copies of their arrest records from the county courthouse. The questionnaires used in Dr. Robbins’s
study would be data, whereas the arrest records would be data.
a. L; B c. S; L
b. S; I d. B; L
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
10. To assess the personality traits of a group of 5-year-olds, researchers use puppets to illustrate different
personality traits. Children are then asked to pick the puppet that best matches their personalities. This
is an example of data.
a. S c. L
b. I d. B
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
11. data are the most frequently used basis for personality assessment.
a. B c. S
b. L d. I
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
12. I data are

a. self-judgments.
b. judgments made by knowledgeable observers.
c. easily observable, real-life outcomes.
d. direct observations of the subject in some predefined context.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
13. I data essentially measure

a. your internal states or emotions.
b. your level of self-awareness.
c. your reputation.
d. work productivity (in industrial psychology).
14. According to the text, accidental mistakes in judging personality are considered , whereas
inaccurate judgments that are influenced by prejudices are considered .
a. biases; stereotypes c. errors; biases
b. heuristic errors; formal errors d. trivial; serious
15. What is one advantage of collecting descriptions of a participant’s personality from his or her
acquaintances?
a. The acquaintances are likely smarter.
b. The acquaintances’ descriptions of the participant are likely based on many behaviors in
many situations.
c. The acquaintances are likely more accurate in judging the participant’s internal state.
d. There is little to no bias with acquaintance descriptions.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
16. According to a study reported in the text, researchers were able to predict individuals’ level of
conscientiousness and openness to experience based solely on various aspects of their bedrooms. This
study used data to assess personality.
a. S c. B
b. I d. L
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
17. The Thematic Apperception Test and the Rorschach test elicit data.
a. L c. S
b. I d. B
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
16 | CHAPTER 2
18. The typical experimental psychologist in a testing situation collects data.

a. B c. L
b. I d. S
19. To obtain S data, a psychologist can

a. develop a questionnaire. c. observe the subject directly.
b. recruit informants. d. look up information in public records.
20. What you do may be influenced by how you see yourself and how you are seen by others. This means
that your self-perceptions and others’ perceptions have
a. definitional truth. c. phenomenological force.
b. causal truth. d. causal force.
21. What is the best way for a researcher to judge the face validity of items on a measure?
a. Conduct an exploratory factor analysis on the items.
b. Conduct a confirmatory factor analysis on the items.
c. Conduct an internal consistency analysis on the items.
d. Read and consider the content of the items.
22. data are fairly easily verifiable, concrete, real-life outcomes of possible psychological
significance.
a. S c. I
b. B d. L
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
23. data derive from the researcher’s direct observation of what the subject does.
a. L c. S
b. I d. B
24. In a priming study, participants solved puzzles that included words such as gray, wise, retired, and
Florida. After solving these puzzles, participants were observed as they walked down a hallway. The
observation of participants’ speed of walking would be considered data.
a. experience sampling c. L
b. laboratory B d. projective
25. Which kind of data would be the easiest way to obtain information about the content of dreams?
a. S c. L
b. B d. I
26. Dr. Garcia wants to measure the earliest autobiographical memories of the participants in her project.
She would most likely obtain data.
a. L c. S
b. I d. B
27. Different informants may not agree about the personality of a common target individual because
a. each judge may see the target person in only a limited number of social contexts.
b. judges may form a mistaken impression based on the recollection of a single,
uncharacteristic behavior.
c. some informants may have biases that affect the accuracy of their judgments.
28. What kinds of behaviors by an acquaintance would MOST likely be remembered?

a. an atypical behavior that was emotionally evocative
b. only behaviors consistent with the acquaintance’s personality
c. the most recently observed typical behavior
d. behaviors that are observed every day
29. Records of employee absenteeism are what type of data?

a. S c. I
b. B d. L
18 | CHAPTER 2
30. Which of the following types of personality data is the MOST objective and verifiable?
a. S c. I
b. B d. L
31. Which of the following would be an example of natural B data?

a. observations of the number of times a subject told a joke in a day
b. number of seconds a subject waits before seeking help in an experimental emergency
situation
c. a subject’s verbal responses to a Rorschach test
d. number of times a subject interrupts others during a videotaped laboratory situation
32. Which type of data is likely to be the most judgmental, subjective, and irreducibly human?
a. I c. L
b. B d. S
33. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered B data?

a. measures of heart rate and other physiological measurements
b. observation of how many times a participant spoke during a five-minute conversation
c. a psychologist’s interpretation of a participant’s responses to an unstructured clinical
interview
d. a participant’s records of his daily activities in a daily research “diary”
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
34. When a psychologist asks a question because he or she wants to know the answer, the question elicits
data. When a psychologist asks a question because he or she wants to see how the
individual will respond to that stimulus, the test elicits data.
a. B; I c. S; B
b. S; I d. laboratory B; natural B
35. Which kind of data is the LEAST expensive to collect?

a. L c. I
b. S d. B
36. According to the text, which of the following is another term for behavioral confirmation?
a. action verification c. expectancy effect
b. causal force d. narcissistic reflection
37. The tendency for us to become what other people believe us to be is called a(n) effect.
a. confirmation c. fish-and-water
b. expectancy d. self-monitoring
38. The fact that behavior is frequently determined by multiple causes presents the most significant
disadvantage for data.
a. B c. I
b. L d. S
39. The judgments that others make of your personality affect your opportunities and expectancies. Thus,
these judgments have
a. generalizability. c. causal force.
b. validity. d. reliability.
40. A major advantage of S data is that

a. only a trained personality psychologist can interpret S data.
b. the best information about personality is obtainable from real-life social outcomes.
c. you are probably the world’s best expert about your own personality.
d. to assess personality, you must observe what the person actually does.
41. If Dr. O’Connell wants to learn about Laura, why might Dr. O’Connell want to avoid using S data?
a. The person supplying the S data may not want to or be able to provide accurate reports
about Laura.
b. The S data often do not have psychological relevance.
c. The S data are influenced by too many factors to reveal much about a person’s
personality.
d. The S data have definitional truth.
20 | CHAPTER 2
42. Because Jesse’s teacher believes that he is intelligent, she challenges him with extra assignments and
generally encourages his curiosity. At the end of the school year, Jesse performs better on the school’s
achievement test than any other student. Jesse’s enhanced performance is likely due to the
a. recency effect. c. self-serving bias.
b. expectancy effect. d. judgment bias.
43. A researcher asks participants to imagine that they have been excluded from their circle of friends and
then takes images of their brains using functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) scanning
technology. The images generated in this study would be considered data.
b. experimental B d. projective
44. The most important advantage of B data is that they are based on
a. common sense, so they have greater psychological relevance.
b. a report by the best expert, so they are more accurate.
c. direct psychological tests, so they have greater causal force and scientific value.
d. direct observations of behavior, so they are more objective and quantifiable.
45. When someone is high in narcissism, what type of data about this person might be the LEAST
trustworthy?
a. B c. L
b. I d. S
46. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of I data?

a. They have causal force.
b. They include common sense.
c. They are based on large amounts of information.
d. They come from carefully controlled experimental situations.
47. A major disadvantage of L data is that

a. they provide too much information.
b. informants may have access to only a narrow range of the target’s behavior.
c. the data are influenced by multiple factors besides just personality.
d. judges may be biased about the person they are describing.
48. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of B data?

a. Direct observations require little in the way of psychological interpretation.
b. Direct observations are easily quantifiable.
c. Direct observations can be made with extreme precision, as in the case of reaction times.
d. Psychologists can construct situations to elicit particular behaviors.
49. One concern with items on measures like the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is
that they often lack face validity. What kind of problem does this create?
a. Participants can easily fake responses on the items.
b. Such items raise concerns with social desirability.
c. Responses are difficult to interpret in psychological terms.
d. Such items tend to make participants anxious.
50. As part of a research project, a participant uses a smart phone application that signals her at random
times throughout the day. At those times, the application presents a series of questions for her to
answer regarding her current activities. This is an example of data.
b. experimental B d. projective
51. What term describes computer-assisted methods to measure thoughts and feelings that occur during
normal daily activities?
a. experiential assessment
b. ambulatory assessment
c. projective assessment
d. digitally assisted experimental assessment
52. What term is sometimes used to describe instruments like the Rorschach and Thematic Apperception
Test (TAT)?
a. S instruments c. objective tests
b. omnibus personality test batteries d. performance-based personality tests
53. A behavioroid measure is a combination of which two types of data?

a. S and B c. I and B
b. L and B d. S and L
22 | CHAPTER 2
54. According to the principles on enhancing reliability described in the text, it would be relatively
difficult to create a reliable measure of attitudes toward
a. lumber tariffs. c. outgroup members.
b. casual sexual encounters. d. the self (like self-esteem).
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Reliability
55. If measurement errors are truly random, then they should

a. never occur.
b. not affect the reliability of a measure.
c. not attenuate the validity of a measure.
d. sum to zero.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Reliability
56. Which formula in psychometrics quantifies the principle of aggregation?

a. alpha c. kappa
b. Spearman-Brown d. Kaiser-Guttman
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Reliability
57. If you can get the same answer repeatedly, then your measure is
a. reliable. c. significant.
b. valid. d. generalizable.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Reliability
58. The technical meaning of reliability refers to

a. how much measurement error is present in your assessment instrument.
b. whether an instrument accurately assesses the construct it is intended to measure.
c. whether an instrument correlates with a similar measure of the same construct.
d. whether a sample of participants reasonably represents the population of interest.
59. On Friday, Terence completes the Self-Monitoring Scale and receives a score of 49. On the following
Tuesday, he fills out the scale again and receives a score of 28. Terence’s scores on the
Self-Monitoring Scale do not appear to be
a. valid. c. significant.
b. reliable. d. free of unwanted biases.
60. Linda is taking an intelligence test. During the test, the teachers walk through the halls and chat loudly
with each other. Due to these distractions, Linda scores lower on the test than she would have if she
had been able to concentrate fully. The influence of the teachers’ chatting is an example of
a. reliability. c. a cohort effect.
b. a validity bias. d. measurement error.
61. The MOST important and generally useful way to enhance reliability is to
a. use the smallest possible number of items.
b. measure something that is important.
c. aggregate your measurements.
d. maximize error variance.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Reliability
62. At the heart of aggregation is the idea that

a. random errors cancel each other out.
b. random errors never cancel each other out.
c. reliable errors cancel each other out.
d. a sufficiently precise measure has no reliable error.
63. Dr. Grant is creating a new measure of shyness, and she decides to include more than one item in her
scale. She believes that using multiple items will lead to a more reliable measure. Dr. Grant is
following which principle of measurement?
a. multitrait assessment c. aggregation
b. content validation d. construct validation
64. A researcher can increase the reliability of a personality test by

a. refusing to aggregate items.
b. measuring something important instead of something trivial.
c. using very few items to reduce the risk of mistakes.
d. constructing items with complicated words and phrases.
65. Which of the following is NOT likely to undermine the reliability of a survey?
a. entering data into a database incorrectly after collection
b. the immediate state of the participant
c. the mood of the experimenter
d. aggregation of responses to different items
24 | CHAPTER 2
66. In simple language, questions about reliability concern , whereas questions about validity
concern .
a. accuracy; consistency c. stability; dependability
b. consistency; dependability d. consistency; accuracy
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Validity
67. Validity is the degree to which a measurement

a. is consistent and stable.
b. provides the same result if repeated.
c. actually reflects or measures what you think it does.
d. is reliable.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Validity
68. According to Cronbach and Meehl’s (1955) terminology, psychological attributes such as intelligence
and sociability are examples of , whereas an IQ test and an extraversion questionnaire are
examples of specific tests or measurements.
a. constructs c. assessments
b. valid ideas d. manifest factors
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Validity
69. Janelle recently completed a new test that was designed to measure her IQ. She took the test twice and
each time received the same score. The test administrator told her that her scores indicate she is
extremely intelligent. However, Janelle scored well below average when she completed the
Stanford-Binet and the Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS), two well-established intelligence
tests. Based on this pattern of results, it appears that the new measure of IQ was a
a. valid measure of intelligence.
b. valid but unreliable measure of intelligence.
c. reliable but not valid measure of intelligence.
d. more accurate measure of intelligence than the Stanford-Binet or the WAIS.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Validity
70. Reliability is for validity.

a. a necessary and sufficient condition
b. a necessary but not sufficient condition
c. a sufficient condition
d. not at all relevant
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Validity
71. A research strategy that involves gathering as many different measurements as you can of a particular
construct and determining if those measurements correlate is called
a. construct validation. c. generalization.
b. aggregation validation. d. internal validation.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Validity
72. Many psychologists tend to use college students as participants in their research and then assume that
what they learn applies to people in general. However, this common practice may limit the
a. ecological reliability of their research. c. generalizability of their findings.
b. internal validity of their studies. d. construct validity of their studies.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Generalizability
73. Reliability and validity are actually both aspects of a broader concept called
a. factorial invariance. c. measurement equivalence.
b. systematic bias. d. generalizability.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Generalizability
74. The fact that much of modern empirical research in psychology has been based on white, middle-class
college sophomores may reduce the of psychological research.
a. generalizability c. validity
b. reliability d. statistical significance
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Generalizability
75. Which of the following sampling methods affords a researcher the greatest generalizability?
a. randomly selecting a sample of introductory psychology students
b. randomly selecting a sample of both high school and college students
c. recruiting all the executives at a large company to participate
d. collaborating with researchers from other countries to recruit participants from outside
the country
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Generalizability
76. According to the text, which of the following would NOT be a threat to the generalizability of
personality research?
a. More women than men participate in research.
b. Participants who show up for research studies are more conventional than individuals
who do not show up.
c. Personality researchers strive to study multiple cohorts.
d. Much personality research is based on samples of college students.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Generalizability
26 | CHAPTER 2
77. Narrative psychology is an example of the method.

a. case study c. experimental
b. correlational d. behavioral
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Research Design: Case Method
78. What is the big disadvantage of the case study method?

a. It describes isolated variables, not the whole phenomenon.
b. It is rarely the source of testable hypotheses.
c. It does not usually apply to particular individuals, only to groups.
d. It is not generalizable.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Research Design: Case Method
79. The major difference between the experimental and correlational methods is that in the experimental
method the presumed causal variable is , whereas in the correlational method the same
variable is .
a. externally derived; internally derived c. manipulated; measured
b. significant; important d. reliable; valid
REF: Research Design: Comparing the Experimental and Correlational Methods
80. The strongest advantage of the experimental method is that

a. it allows the assessment of causality.
b. it allows the study of naturally occurring individual differences that already exist in the
participants.
c. participants are always randomly sampled from the general population.
d. it can take advantage of extreme levels of the independent variable.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
81. Random assignment allows researchers to

a. ignore problems of measurement biases in self-report personality assessments.
b. assume that groups of participants are more or less equivalent on preexisting conditions.
c. ignore ethical constraints on research that may otherwise limit their ability to conduct
research.
d. control for the selective attrition of participants who have dropped out of the study.
82. If test scores decrease as anxiety increases, then

a. test scores and anxiety are positively correlated.
b. test scores and anxiety are negatively correlated.
c. test scores and anxiety are unrelated.
d. the correlation between test scores and anxiety must be 1.0.
83. Dr. Low is interested in studying the effect mood has on the willingness to help a stranger. She
randomly assigns half of her participants to the pleasant mood condition and shows them funny film
clips. The other half of her participants is assigned to the unpleasant mood condition and is forced to
watch boring film clips. She then gives every participant an opportunity to donate money to a
homeless stranger. Dr. Low is using a(n) design.
a. experimental c. case study
b. correlational d. repeated measures
84. To conduct an experimental study of the causal effect smoking has on physical health, we would have
to
a. find a group of smokers and compare their physical health to a group of nonsmokers.
b. randomly assign some people to a smoking condition and some others to a control
condition.
c. compare the physical health of a heavy smoker to the physical health of a person who has
never smoked.
d. teach one group of people to adopt good health habits and see if they are more likely to
begin smoking than a group of people who have not been taught good health habits.
85. Dr. Liao is interested in studying the relation between mood and willingness to help a stranger. Every
participant in her study completes a mood-rating questionnaire and is then given an opportunity to
donate money to a homeless stranger. Dr. Liao is using a(n) design.
86. Which design is best suited for addressing the third-variable problem?
ANS: A DIF: Difficult
28 | CHAPTER 2
87. A researcher is interested in investigating what people do to make others happy on a daily basis. To do
so, she asks participants to provide an account of their prosocial behavior at the end of each day. This
is an example of data.
a. S c. B
b. I d. L
88. The Electronically Activated Recorder (EAR) is a recording device worn in participants’ pockets that
records samples of audio the participant hears throughout the day. The EAR collects what type of
data?
a. B data c. S data
b. I data d. L data
89. According to the text, L data can be difficult to interpret because life outcomes can have many causes.
In other words, L data may be subject to
a. the expectancy effect. c. multidetermination.
b. construct validation. d. self-verification.
90. Technicians-in-training focus on , whereas scientists-in-training focus on .

a. writing; reading
b. memorizing what is already known; questioning what is already known
c. the philosophical components of their field; mechanical components of their field
d. teaching undergraduate students; teaching graduate students
91. Based on what you know about the distinction between technicians and scientists, a therapist would
require training, whereas a research psychologist would require training.
a. technical; scientific c. data collection; data analysis
b. scientific; technical d. data analysis; data collection
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Psychology’s Emphasis on Method
92. Dr. Lane has just created a new measure to assess individuals’ levels of optimism. To make sure her
measure is actually assessing optimism, she gives a set of participants her measure, and then asks each
of the participant’s friends to rate how optimistic they are on the same scale. Dr. Lane is testing the
of her new measure.
a. reliability c. generalizability
b. face validity d. construct validity
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data
93. What is a major advantage of conducting a case study above all other methods?
a. It describes the whole phenomenon and not just isolated variables.
b. It uses statistics to assess how two constructs are related to one another.
c. It increases the generalizability of a psychological phenomenon.
d. It introduces a great degree of situational control.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Research Design: Case Method
94. Which of the following is NOT an example of something that can limit how reliable a measure is?
a. A research assistant dozes off when they should be observing participants’ behavior.
b. A study is conducted during finals and all college student participants are sleep-deprived.
c. After comparing the self-report to informant reports, a researcher realizes their measure
isn’t accurate.
d. A fire alarm goes off in the middle of an experiment.
95. According to the text, correlational and experimental methods are not entirely different. For example,
they both
a. always use S data.
b. assess the relationship between two variables.
c. assess causality.
d. focus on one phenomenon in depth.
MATCHING
Match the most applicable type of data with each piece of information .
a. B data
b. L data
c. I data
d. S data
e. T data
f. E data
1. Your own responses to the statement, “I consider myself a nervous person”
2. A therapist’s description of her client
3. The number of times someone has been arrested
4. Reaction times to photographs
5. A father’s report on his daughter’s talkativeness
1. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues

2. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
3. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
30 | CHAPTER 2
4. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues

5. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues
Match the most relevant term with each definition.

a. Reliable
b. Valid
c. Generalizable
d. Measurement error
e. Aggregation
f. Precision
6. The cumulative effect random influences have on the outcome of interest
7. A method or instrument that provides the same information repeatedly
8. An instrument actually reflects the construct of interest
9. A result applies beyond the context of the current study
10. Combining many items in a test to eliminate idiosyncrasies of any one item
6. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data

7. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data
8. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data
9. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data
10. ANS: E DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data
SHORT ANSWER
1. Why does Funder believe there are no perfect indicators of personality? What strategies can
researchers use to deal with this concern?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data OBJ: 2.1

MSC: Understanding
2. Explain why Funder considers answers to the items on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality
Inventory (MMPI) to be an example of B data.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues

3. Consider the construct of delay of gratification. Explain how you could obtain S, I, B, and L data for
measuring delay of gratification. Identify and describe one advantage and one disadvantage for each
of your examples of S, I, B, and L data.
ANS:
Answers will vary.

OBJ: 2.3 | 2.4 MSC: Applying
4. What is face validity, and how does it apply to S and B data? What is a limitation of face validity for
evaluating the quality of B data? Do you think this concern also applies to S data?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues

OBJ: 2.4 MSC: Evaluating
5. Consider the trait of courage. Describe the advantages and limitations of obtaining informant report
data for this trait.
ANS:
Answers will vary.

6. Why would you recommend aggregation to a researcher interested in measuring shyness? Explain why
aggregation improves the reliability of psychological assessments such as measures of shyness.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Reliability

OBJ: 2.7 | 2.8 MSC: Evaluating
7. Consider the construct of intelligence. What steps would researchers do to validate measures of this
construct? Why is validity harder to establish and evaluate than reliability?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Validity

32 | CHAPTER 2
8. Recently, a group of researchers raised concerns about the use of so-called WEIRD participants in the
majority of psychological studies. Who are WEIRD participants? Why is this issue a potential concern
to psychological researchers (e.g., do WEIRD participants hurt reliability)? What steps can be taken to
address the concerns about WEIRD participants?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Generalizability

OBJ: 2.7 | 2.8 | 2.9 MSC: Evaluating
9. What is generalizability? What are the facets of generalizability described in the book, and how does
each one relate to the broad idea of generalizability?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Data: Quality of Data: Generalizability

Personality Assessment: Effect Size,
CHAPTER 3
Replicability, and Open Science
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 3.7. Explain how factor analytic methods revealed the Big
Five traits.
3.1. Define personality assessment and key concepts asso-
3.8. Understand the process of evaluating research with
ciated with assessment.
significance testing.
3.2. Distinguish between S and B data, as they relate to
3.9. Illustrate the use of effect sizes as a means of evaluat-
projective versus objective tests, in personality
ing research.
assessment.
3.10. Interpret and recognize important ethical issues
3.3. Understand projective tests and evaluate their
related to personality assessment.
merits.
3.11. Explain the principle of replication and evaluate its
3.4. Define objective tests and recognize examples of
merit in science.
them.
3.12. Identify some of the possible questionable research
3.5. Explain and distinguish different methods of objec-
practices and explain how they can be avoided.
tive test construction.
3.13. Understand the properties of and reasons behind the
3.6. Recognize strengths and weaknesses of different
emergence of open science.
methods of objective test construction.
33
34 | CHAPTER 3
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Personality assessment refers to

a. a treatment for personality disorders.
b. the identification and analysis of genetic markers of personality.
c. the measurement of any characteristic pattern of behavior, thought, or emotion.
d. the selection of a group of individuals with the most unique temperaments.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Assessment
2. Personality assessment would be relevant to which of the following constructs?

a. attitudes toward political leaders c. aggression
b. extraversion d. All of the answer options are correct.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Assessment
3. What term refers to personality inventories that are designed to measure a wide range of traits?
a. big bandwidth inventories c. omnibus inventories
b. high-fidelity inventories d. Big Seven inventories
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests
4. The California Psychological Inventory (CPI) was designed to

a. assess individuals with psychological disorders.
b. assess normal individuals.
c. identify the Big Five personality factors.
d. assess Jung’s psychological types.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests
5. The is the most widely used personality inventory in the world.

a. MMPI c. BFI
b. CPI d. NEO
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests
6. The MMPI was designed to assess , whereas the CPI was designed to assess .
a. individuals with psychological difficulties; nondisturbed individuals
b. normal individuals; clinical populations
c. the Big Five personality factors; Hogan’s personality factors
d. Jung’s psychological types; Freud’s defense mechanisms
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests
Personality Assessment: Effect Size, Replicability, and Open Science | 35
7. tests aim to gain insight into personality by interpreting individuals’ open-ended responses,
whereas tests evaluate individuals’ responses to specific questions with predetermined
response options.
a. Clinical; nonclinical c. Quantitative; qualitative
b. Projective; objective d. Subjective; objective
REF: Personality Tests: S-Data Versus B-Data Personality Tests
8. According to the text, IQ tests yield B data by asking participants

a. to rate how intelligent they are on a scale from 1 to 7.
b. a series of questions of varying difficulty that have specific correct answers.
c. to interpret an ambiguous image.
d. to describe a time in their lives that demonstrated intelligence.
9. An IQ test yields what kind of data?

a. B c. L
b. I d. S
ANS: A DIF: Easy
10. According to the projective hypothesis, an individual’s response to an ambiguous stimulus comes
from
a. the individual’s needs, feelings or experiences.
b. a “yes” or “no” answer.
c. the stimulus itself.
d. S data.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
11. Your responses to the personality test item “I am an intelligent person” would be data,
whereas your score on an intelligence test that reflects the number of problems you got right would be
data.
a. B; L c. I; B
b. S; L d. S; B
36 | CHAPTER 3
12. A projective test yields data.

a. B c. L
b. I d. S
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
13. According to the text, one of the nonpsychometric functions of projective tests is to
a. diagnose psychiatric disorders.
b. increase the billable hours of clinical psychologists.
c. break the ice between client and therapist.
d. reduce confusion among client and therapist.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
14. As described in the text, according to some motivation researchers, the Thematic Apperception Test
(TAT) measures , whereas questionnaire-based measures predict .
a. what people want; actual performance
b. what people need; what people want
c. what people want; how motives are expressed
d. how motives are expressed; actual performance
15. According to the text, which projective test appears to have produced evidence that comes close to
establishing its validity?
a. Draw-a-Person Test c. Buss-Perry Aggression Q-Sort
b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) d. Draw-a-Face Test
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
16. According to the text, what is the purpose of projection tests such as the Picture Story Exercise or the
Thematic Apperception Test?
a. to show individuals how to work in a research laboratory
b. to evaluate individuals’ ability to discriminate between two similar pictures
c. to measure individuals’ implicit motives
d. to diagnose psychological disorders
17. A psychologist administering the TAT asks respondents to

a. draw a person so that the psychologist may determine which parts are left out or
exaggerated.
b. describe their current level of hostility so that the psychologist can measure their type A
tendencies.
c. tell stories about pictures that the psychologist shows them.
d. describe their perceptions of the causes of people’s behavior so that the psychologist can
measure attributional complexity.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
18. All projective tests

a. involve stimuli with no clear meaning.
b. involve the construction of stories and narratives.
c. require choosing among multiple, predetermined alternatives.
d. rely on computer scoring methods.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
19. If you were shown an inkblot and asked to describe what you saw, you would be taking the
a. MMPI. c. Rorschach Test.
b. CPI. d. Thematic Apperception Test.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
20. When evaluated as psychometric instruments, most projective tests

a. do not fare very well.
b. have validity but little reliability.
c. have generalizability but little validity.
d. do as well as objective tests like the CPI and MMPI.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
21. Which of the following is a limitation of projective tests?

a. Clinicians tend to find them relatively unhelpful despite their considerable validity.
b. Projective tests are relatively inefficient, lacking in validity, and expensive to administer.
c. Although projective tests discriminate between known groups, the content of the items
may seem absurd to test takers.
d. Respondents uniformly hate taking projective tests because of their length.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests
38 | CHAPTER 3
22. If a test consists of a list of True/False questions and is graded using a computer-scored answer sheet,
then it is a(n)
a. projective test. c. objective test.
b. Q-sort. d. commonality scale.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests: Objective Tests
23. The main reason why objective tests include so many items is to increase the of the test.
a. criterion-related validity c. content validity
b. reliability d. construct validity
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Objective Tests
24. The improvement in reliability gained by adding additional “good” test items can be precisely
calculated using the formula.
a. Pearson Product Moment c. Tucker-Lewis
b. alpha d. Spearman-Brown
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Objective Tests
25. Which of the following is an objective test?

a. MMPI c. Rorschach inkblots
b. TAT d. Picture Story Exercise
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Tests: Objective Tests
26. Increasing the number of items on a test makes it a better instrument according to which principle?
a. construct validation c. aggregation
b. operational definition d. incremental validation
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Objective Tests
27. Which objective personality scale could be used to identify individuals who cannot read text?
a. the F scale c. the PPI Illiterate Responder scale
b. the MMPI Lie scale d. the CPI commonality scale
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Objective Tests
28. If everybody read, interpreted, and answered an item in exactly the same way, then that item
a. would not be very useful for the assessment of individual differences.
b. would be very informative about personality.
c. was developed using the rational method of test construction.
d. is empirically derived.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Tests: Objective Tests
29. The basis of the method of test construction is to come up with items that seem directly,
obviously, and logically related to what it is you wish to measure.
a. rational c. philosophical
b. empirical d. factor analytic
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Tests: Methods of Objective Test Construction
30. Which of the following methods of objective test construction involves creating questions that are
directly and obviously related to what the test developer wishes to measure?
a. factor analytic
b. rational
c. empirical
d. a combination of factor analytic and empirical methods
ANS: B DIF: Easy
31. According to the text, the last step in a factor analysis is to

a. calculate correlation coefficients between all item pairs.
b. administer the items to a new sample.
c. find new criterion groups.
d. name the factors.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
32. The factor analytic technique of test construction is designed to

a. identify individuals who are attempting to lie or sabotage a test.
b. identify groups of test items that seem to be alike.
c. identify items that mean the same thing to the respondent as they do to the researcher.
d. create projective tests.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
33. What is the first step in the empirical method of scale construction?
a. Gather lots of items.
b. Identify the groups.
c. Administer items to a large sample.
d. Conduct a factor analysis on existing scales.
40 | CHAPTER 3
34. The primary criterion for item selection in the empirical method of test construction is determining
whether the item
a. makes the scale more reliable.
b. is cross-validated between two known groups.
c. loads highly on its primary factor.
d. will be challenged in a legal context.
35. A test created using the empirical method yields what kind of data?
a. B c. L
b. I d. S
ANS: A DIF: Easy
36. The Woodworth Personality Data Sheet was designed to measure psychiatric problems in what group?
a. college students c. potential employees of Target stores
b. U.S. Army recruits d. high school students
37. The approach to personality test construction that examines a set of correlations among many items in
order to identify which items are highly correlated is called the approach.
a. nomothetic c. rational
b. idiographic d. factor analytic
ANS: D DIF: Easy
38. Factor analysis can

a. give psychological meaning to groups of traits.
b. unquestionably determine the basic dimensions of personality.
c. identify groups of items that go together.
d. tell which items best differentiate normal and abnormal populations.
39. The sole basis on which items are selected for empirically derived personality scales is whether
a. their content adequately reflects the construct to be measured.
b. they are correlated with other items on the scales.
c. the respondent will be willing and able to give an accurate self-assessment for them.
d. they are answered differently by different kinds of people.
40. Dr. Akita is designing a test to measure sociability. She writes items that seem directly and obviously
related to sociability, such as “I like to go to parties” and “I enjoy the company of other people.” Dr.
Akita is using the method of test construction.
a. empirical c. rational
b. factor analytic d. projective
41. Imagine that you want to develop a test to measure depression. You gather a set of 100 potential test
items and ask a sample of people diagnosed with clinical depression and a sample of nondepressed
people to respond to the items. For your final version of the test, you decide to keep only the 15 items
that the depressed and nondepressed groups answered differently. You are using a(n)
method of test construction.
a. factor analytic c. projective
b. rational d. empirical
42. If you were to fully develop a personality test without even looking at the item content, you would be
using the method of test construction.
a. factor analytic c. projective
b. rational d. empirical
ANS: D DIF: Easy
43. A test created using the rational method yields what kind of data?
a. S c. L
b. I d. B
42 | CHAPTER 3
44. The method is NOT a basic method for constructing objective personality tests.
a. rational c. factor analytic
b. empirical d. consensus validation
ANS: D DIF: Easy
45. According to the text, which of the following is NOT one of the conditions that must hold for an S
data personality test to accurately measure an attribute of personality?
a. The test taker must be able to make an accurate self-assessment.
b. All of the items must be valid indicators of the construct.
c. The test taker must be willing to report the self-assessment accurately.
d. The test must contain both positively and negatively worded items.
ANS: D DIF: Difficult
46. According to the text, what is the best approach to test construction?
a. the rational method c. the empirical method
b. the factor analytic method d. a combination of all three approaches
ANS: D DIF: Easy
47. Which of the following approaches to test construction is the MOST atheoretical?
a. rational c. content validation
b. factor analytic d. empirical
48. Which method of objective test construction involves comparing item responses between two
independently identified groups of people?
a. the rational method c. the empirical method
b. the factor analytic method d. a combination of all three approaches
ANS: B DIF: Easy
49. Faking responses in order to influence test results is MOST difficult on constructed tests.
a. factor analytically c. rationally
b. empirically d. nomothetically
50. Inventories derived from the empirical method sometimes have items that seem strange or even
objectionable to test takers
a. in order to catch test takers who are faking responses.
b. because those items correlated with outcomes of interest to the test developers.
c. to identify test takers who are prudish and closed-minded.
d. because those items seemed the most content-valid to the test developers.
51. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to rationally constructed personality scales?
a. The items must all be face-valid indicators of what the tester is trying to measure.
b. The person who completes the form must be able and willing to report an accurate
self-assessment.
c. Each item must mean the same thing to the person who fills out the form as it did to the
psychologist who wrote it.
d. Items are selected with the aid of statistical analyses such as item response theory (IRT).
52. Currently, the consensus among most personality researchers is that there are fundamental
personality traits.
a. 3 c. 7
b. 5 d. 16
ANS: B DIF: Easy
53. The Big Five

a. are the five key steps in the process of factor analysis.
b. are steps in the construction of rational tests.
c. factor analytically derived dimensions of personality.
d. are the primary methods of test construction used by personality psychologists.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
54. Which of the following is NOT one of the Big Five?

a. psychoticism c. neuroticism
b. conscientiousness d. agreeableness
ANS: A DIF: Easy
44 | CHAPTER 3
55. If a psychologist describes a research result as statistically significant, what does he or she typically
mean?
a. The result is important.
b. The result is large and dramatic.
c. The result is unlikely to have occurred by chance.
d. The result will likely revolutionize the field.
REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Significance Testing
56. A researcher wants to conduct a significance test for the correlation between extraversion and
happiness. What is the null hypothesis in this analysis?
a. Extraversion is positively correlated with happiness.
b. Extraversion is negatively correlated with happiness.
c. Extraversion is the same construct as happiness.
d. Extraversion is uncorrelated with happiness.
57. What is the correct definition of the p-value?

a. probability that the null hypothesis is true
b. probability that the null hypothesis is false
c. probability that the observed result occurred by chance given that the null hypothesis is
true
d. probability that the observed result occurred by chance given that the null hypothesis is
false
58. Imagine that a researcher conducts a study and finds a statistically significant correlation between
eating pizza and aggression. However, there is no real association between eating pizza and aggression
in the population. What kind of error has this researcher made?
a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. correlational
59. Imagine that a researcher conducts a study and fails to find a statistically significant correlation
between exercise and weight loss. However, there is a real association between exercise and weight
loss in the population. What kind of error has this researcher made?
a. Type I c. Type III
b. Type II d. correlational
60. Which of the following is NOT one of the concerns associated with the practice of null-hypothesis
significance testing?
a. A statistically significant result is not necessarily important or meaningful.
b. The smaller the sample size, the easier it is to find a significant effect.
c. The criterion for a significant result (p  .05) is arbitrary.
d. The p-value is easy to interpret and its logic is easy to describe.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult
61. The number between 1 and 1 that indexes the linear association between any two variables is called
the
a. significance level. c. alpha level.
b. probability value. d. correlation coefficient.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
62. The Binomial Effect Size Display is a method for illustrating the size of
a. reliability coefficients. c. correlation coefficients.
b. validity coefficients. d. p-values.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
63. A researcher computes a correlation coefficient between variables X and Y using a handheld
calculator. Which of the following values would automatically tell the researcher that he or she made
a mistake?
a. 2.50 c. 0
b. .75 d. .98
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
64. Imagine that you could draw a flat horizontal line through the points on a scatter plot depicting the
relation between X and Y. Which of the following is the closest value to the correlation coefficient
that you would compute from these data?
a. 1.0 c. 0
b. .5 d. 1.0
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
65. Imagine that you could draw a line through the points on a scatter plot depicting the relation between
X and Y that slopes upward from left to right. Which of the following is a possible value for the
correlation coefficient that you would compute from these data?
a. 1.0 c. 0
b. .5 d. 1.0
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
46 | CHAPTER 3
66. Which of the following is good practice for interpreting a correlation?

a. finding a method that demonstrates the size of the correlation in a concrete manner
b. evaluating whether it is statistically significant at the p  .05 level
c. simply looking at the sign of the correlation and ignoring the actual value
d. squaring the value, so that you can interpret the value more easily
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
67. Using the Binomial Effect Size Display, if there is a correlation of .30 between drinking alcohol and
the likelihood of having a car accident, then out of 100 people who have been drinking, you would
expect of them to have an accident.
a. 100 c. 90
b. 45 d. 65
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
68. Assume that you are studying 200 participants, all of whom are sick. An experimental drug is given to
100 of them; the other 100 are given nothing. If the correlation between taking the drug and living is
.26, then percent of those who got the drug would still be alive at the end of the study.
a. 13 c. 26
b. 63 d. 52
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size
69. Integrity tests administered in employment screening provide good measures of

a. conscientiousness. c. drug use on the job.
b. intelligence. d. sociability.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Ethical Issues: Purposes of Personality Testing
70. Eliminating the use of personality tests in employment screening will

a. prevent biases from affecting hiring decisions.
b. decrease the likelihood that women and minorities will be discriminated against in
hiring.
c. increase the use of lie detector tests and drug tests in employment screening.
d. not prevent traits from being judged but will change the ways traits are judged.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Ethical Issues: Purposes of Personality Testing
71. One objection to the use of vocational interest tests is that these tests
a. measure conscientiousness rather than vocational interest.
b. may discourage women or minority group members from joining certain fields.
c. measure performance ability rather than job interest.
d. can be used to tell individuals what kind of occupational group they most resemble.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Ethical Issues: Purposes of Personality Testing
72. Which of the following is an ethical issue involved in the research process?
a. how research findings are used
b. which research topics are studied
c. how truthful researchers are when describing their work
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Ethical Issues: Honesty and Open Science
73. Which of the following is the central reason why researchers use deception in their research?
a. to test the causal relationship between two variables
b. to ensure the study will be approved by the IRB
c. to make the research realistic
d. to increase generalizability of the results
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Ethical Issues: Protection of Research Participants
74. What is the main concern for violating participants’ privacy when collecting data with the
Electronically Activated Recorder (EAR) device?
a. Participants are not aware that they are being recorded.
b. Recorded sounds provide information about bystanders who never agreed to participate.
c. Social media offers information on participants that they don’t even know they are
giving.
d. EAR studies are never approved by the IRB.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Ethical Issues: Protection of Research Participants
75. Dr. Gardiner wants to conduct a replication of a well-known study. Broadly speaking, what function
does this replication serve?
a. It is an indication of the stability of the results.
b. It is more prestigious than novel research.
c. It enables her to explore a new psychological phenomenon.
d. It serves no function; scientists should always be conducting novel research.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Replication
76. According to the text, one influential study manipulated a real dataset to show that listening to the
Beatles song “When I’m 64” actually made people younger. What questionable research practice did
these researchers use to get this result?
a. publication bias c. p-hacking
b. null-hypothesis significance testing d. open science
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Replication
48 | CHAPTER 3
77. Which of the following is the best explanation for why publication bias is a major concern in science?
a. Only researchers with interesting findings are awarded grants and jobs.
b. It is far too easy for researchers to commit fraud.
c. Researchers can make choices throughout the research process and manipulate real
datasets to get the results they want.
d. Strong effects are published more, leading to a literature that does not represent the
actual strength of an effect.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Replication
78. Which of the following is NOT an example of p-hacking?

a. neglecting to report experimental conditions that fail to get the desired results
b. deleting unusual responses
c. publishing both strong and weak results
d. adjusting the results to remove seemingly extraneous factors
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Replication
79. According to the text, which of the following can serve as a remedy for questionable research
practices?
a. open science c. p-hacking
b. closed science d. experimental study designs
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Ethical Issues: Honesty and Open Science
80. When publishing her study, Dr. Mouzakis decided to only report the experimental conditions that
provided significant results. Why is this problematic behavior?
a. Experimental psychologists always use deception and are therefore unethical.
b. Readers do not know which experimental methods did not yield significant results.
c. She is faking her data and committing fraud.
d. It is not problematic; only significant results should be reported.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Ethical Issues: Honesty and Open Science
81. Which of the following is NOT an open science practice?

a. freely sharing data with other scientists
b. refraining from using deception in experimental studies
c. reporting studies that failed and succeeded
d. describing all aspects of all studies
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Ethical Issues: Honesty and Open Science
82. In addition to serving as a way for psychologists to construct objective tests, the factor analysis
method has also been used to
a. construct projective tests.
b. design experimental studies.
c. decide how many fundamental traits exist.
d. determine reliability.
83. Dr. Fritz just ran an experiment testing the effects performing acts of kindness has on gene expression.
She is currently analyzing the data and is interested in knowing the magnitude or importance of her
study’s findings. What aspect of her analyses should Dr. Fritz be evaluating?
a. the p-value c. the effect size
b. the null-hypothesis significance test d. the factor analysis
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Ethical Issues: Protection of Research Participants
MATCHING
Match the most applicable type of test with each description.

a. Projective test
b. Objective test
c. IAT
d. TAT
e. Rorschach
f. MMPI
1. A person interprets an ambiguous stimulus.
2. Clients tell stories about drawings of people.
3. A job applicant answers the question “I am shy.”
4. Patients tell an analyst what they see in an inkblot.
5. Test takers draw a person.
1. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests

OBJ: 3.2 | 3.3 | 3.4 MSC: Understanding
2. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests
3. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests
4. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests
5. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests
50 | CHAPTER 3
Match the most relevant method with each basis of an objective test.
a. Factor analytic
b. Rational
c. Empirical
d. Significance testing
e. BESD
f. Interpretive
6. Correlation matrices
7. A test writer’s construct of interest
8. Known groups (schizophrenic versus not), plus responses to a large number of questions
9. Patterns of factor loadings
10. A psychological theory
6. ANS: A DIF: Difficult

7. ANS: B DIF: Difficult
8. ANS: C DIF: Difficult
9. ANS: A DIF: Difficult
10. ANS: B DIF: Difficult
SHORT ANSWER
1. Describe the theory of assessment that underlies projective tests. Do these sorts of tests have evidence
of validity? What purposes might they serve beyond personality assessment?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Projective Tests OBJ: 3.3

MSC: Understanding
2. Describe the purpose of factor analysis and the steps that researchers take when using this method.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Tests: Methods of Objective Test Construction

3. How would a personality psychologist use the rational method of test construction to create a measure
of depression? What are the limitations of this technique?
ANS:
Answers will vary.

4. How would a personality psychologist use the empirical method of test construction to create a
measure of depression? What are the limitations of this technique? What are the strengths of this
approach over alternatives?
ANS:
Answers will vary.

5. What is null-hypothesis significance testing? What does a p-value tell researchers? What are the
potential limitations of relying solely on this approach to data analysis?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Significance Testing

6. Imagine that you find a correlation between emotional instability (neuroticism) and relationship
quality of .25 in a study of 200 married couples. How could you use the Binomial Effect Size
Display to illustrate the size of this correlation? What could you conclude from this translation?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Evaluating Assessment and Research: Effect Size

7. What are some objections to personality testing? Which of these concerns are valid, and which might
be overstated or naïve?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Ethical Issues: Purposes of Personality Testing

CHAPTER 4 Persons and Situations
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 4.7. Use correlational effect sizes to compare the predic-
tive power of person and situation.
4.1. Recognize features of the trait approach.
4.8. Understand that people are both consistent and
4.2. Understand and apply the concepts of cross- change.
situational consistency and stability.
4.9. Recognize different life outcomes that are associated
4.3. Recall the proponents (and their arguments) in the with different traits.
person-situation debate.
4.10. Identify and generate examples of the principle of
4.4. Explain the situationist position. interactionism.
4.5. Understand and give evidence for the pro-personality 4.11. Evaluate how values might influence people to sup-
response. port a situationist or pro-personality position.
4.6. Distinguish the situationist critique from the person-
ality response.
52
Persons and Situations | 53
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The trait approach is based on empirical research that is mostly from studies.
a. correlational c. case
b. experimental d. archival
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Trait Approach
2. Personality trait measurements are typically made on a(n) scale.

a. nominal c. ratio
b. ordinal d. quasi-nominal
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Trait Approach
3. The trait approach focuses exclusively on

a. the measurement of absolute levels of traits.
b. aspects of personality that are the same in all people.
c. physical dimensions.
d. individual differences.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Trait Approach
4. According to Kluckhohn and Murray, “Every man is in certain respects (a) like all other men, (b) like
some other men, (c) like no other man.” Which section of this quote MOST closely reflects what trait
psychologists study?
a. “like all other men” c. “like no other man”
b. “like some other men” d. All of the answer options are correct.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Trait Approach
5. Which of the following is NOT a reason that older people believe their personalities are more
consistent than those of younger people?
a. Their social roles are more stable. c. They have more wealth accumulated.
b. They are more mature. d. They have more responsibilities.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: People Are Inconsistent
6. According to the text, which of the following characteristics is positively associated with personality
consistency?
a. openness to experience c. general mental health
b. neuroticism d. need for cognition
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: People Are Inconsistent
54 | CHAPTER 4
7. Which of the following terms describes the tendency for people to act differently in different
situations?
a. inconsistency c. emotional instability
b. consistency d. stability
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: People Are Inconsistent
8. A fundamental problem for the trait approach is that

a. individual differences cannot be measured reliably.
b. situations do not affect behavior.
c. people are inconsistent.
d. correlational methods do not clearly indicate effect size.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: People Are Inconsistent
9. Individuals in which age group are likely to have the greatest amount of stability in their personality
traits?
a. school-age children
b. adolescents
c. young adults between the ages of 20 and 30
d. adults between the ages of 50 and 70
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: People Are Inconsistent
10. In his book, Personality and Assessment, Mischel argues that

a. traits are the only factors that influence human behavior.
b. situations do not reliably predict consistent behavioral trends.
c. behavior is too inconsistent to predict using broad personality traits.
d. personality traits transcend the immediate situation and moment, and they provide the
most consistent guide to a person’s actions.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Person-Situation Debate
11. Which of the following psychologists is often credited with starting the person-situation debate?
a. Gordon Allport c. Walter Mischel
b. Sigmund Freud d. Henry Murray
12. Walter Mischel and his 1968 book Personality and Assessment are noteworthy because this work
a. provides the most cogent argument for why trait theory and psychodynamic theory
should be integrated.
b. is credited with starting the person-situation debate by claiming that traits are not as
important as situational factors in behavioral prediction.
c. provides the first published defense of trait theory against the situationist critique.
d. was the first to outline the Five Factor Model of personality.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Person-Situation Debate
13. In his book, Personality and Assessment, Mischel argued that behavior can be MOST accurately
predicted from
a. situations. c. motivations.
b. personality variables. d. goals.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Person-Situation Debate
14. The situationist argument holds that

a. a thorough review of the literature reveals that there is a limit to how well one can
predict behavior from personality.
b. situations are more important than personality traits for determining behavior.
c. our everyday intuitions about people are fundamentally flawed.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Person-Situation Debate
15. Situationism is the position that

a. situations do not influence behavior.
b. situations are less important than personality traits in determining behavior.
c. the ability of personality traits to predict behavior is severely limited.
d. trait words are more than mere descriptions of situations.
16. According to the text, which of the following is NOT part of the situationist argument?
a. There is an upper limit to how well we can predict behavior based on a personality trait
measure.
b. Situations are more important than traits for determining behavior.
c. Everyday intuitions that people have about personality are wrong.
d. Persons and situations interact to predict behavior.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Person-Situation Debate
56 | CHAPTER 4
17. Mischel originally argued that personality coefficients seldom exceed .30, whereas subsequent
situationists raised that estimate to
a. .40. c. .35.
b. .50. d. .45.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Predictability: The Situationist Argument
18. Which of the following was NOT one of the types of data that Mischel compared to one another?
a. S data and B data c. I data and B data
b. S data and S data d. B data and B data
19. According to situationists, the upper limit of personality coefficients is estimated as

a. .20. c. .60.
b. .40. d. .80.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
20. A correlation coefficient is a measure of and mathematically ranges between .

a. effect size; .30 and .40 c. effect size; 1 and 1
b. probability; 1 and 100 d. significance test; zero and infinity
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: The Person-Situation Debate: The Power of the Situation
21. Someone who is is likely to express his or her personality consistently from one situation to
the next.
a. low in self-monitoring c. low in self-efficacy
b. high in self-monitoring d. high in self-efficacy
REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Predictability: The Response
22. One difficulty in searching for variables that might predict consistency of behavior is that
a. it is hard for researchers to think of variables that would predict differences in
consistency.
b. such research is too time-consuming to conduct.
c. only one variable seems to predict consistency.
d. the effects of such variables are subtle and are sometimes difficult to detect.
23. How thorough was Mischel’s review of the personality literature in Personality and Assessment?
a. fairly thorough; about half of the book
b. incredibly thorough; about three-quarters of the book
c. not very thorough; about as long as a typical undergraduate term paper
d. He barely mentions it at all; only about two pages
24. Which of the following is the best example of a situationist argument?

a. Melinda’s talkativeness is related to her optimism.
b. Knowing Robert’s extraversion doesn’t really let us predict his behavior.
c. Knowing Sanjay’s neuroticism means we know how anxious he usually is.
d. Suri’s conscientiousness changes depending on the time of day.
25. In order to improve personality research, researchers can

a. check for factors that predict consistency.
b. predict behavioral trends rather than single acts.
c. measure behavior in real life.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
26. One response to Mischel’s critique asserts that a fair review of the research on the predictability of
behavior from personality traits would likely indicate that
a. behavior can never be reliably predicted from personality variables.
b. the predictability of behavior from personality traits is better than Mischel
acknowledged.
c. the predictability of behavior from situations is worse than the predictability from
personality.
d. Mischel was right that personality traits are unpredictable from behavior.
27. According to the text, the purpose of personality traits is to predict

a. specific behavioral manifestations. c. I data but not B data.
b. behavior in the long term. d. S data but not I data.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
58 | CHAPTER 4
28. Which of the following characteristics seems to predict increased consistency of behavior?
a. high self-monitoring c. preference for consistency
b. neuroticism d. none of these attributes
ANS: C DIF: Easy
29. Which reason describes why averaged (aggregated) behaviors are more strongly related to personality
traits than individual behaviors?
a. Random variations tend to cancel out when aggregated.
b. Random variations tend to multiply when aggregated.
c. Trait variation is mostly random when aggregated.
d. Trait variation is mostly specific when aggregated.
30. According to recent research, individuals high in might actually be more consistent.
a. self-control c. preference for consistency
b. self-esteem d. extraversion
31. Which of the following behaviors would be the easiest to predict accurately?
a. Mary will smile at 10:00 A.M. tomorrow.
b. At a party on Friday, Susan will talk to at least 10 people.
c. David will generally be on time for work most days next week.
d. None of the answer options is correct; each of these behaviors would be equally easy to
predict.
32. When a researcher examines the association between behaviors at a party on Friday night and how
many times someone volunteers to answer questions in class on Monday, she is looking at the
association between data and data.
a. I; B c. B; B
b. S; I d. B; I
33. Which of the following would be an example of trying to improve the predictability of behavior from
personality traits by taking into account the possibility that some people are more consistent than
others?
a. measuring how frequently you are late to work using a daily diary report of your
everyday behavior
b. collecting information about your responses to stressful work situations
c. trying to predict how warm and friendly you will act when you meet your in-laws next
Monday
d. determining if the behavior of high self-monitors is less predictable than that of low
self-monitors
34. Which of the following is NOT one of the responses to the situationist argument?
a. Personality researchers argued that Mischel’s literature review was selective.
b. Personality researchers searched for certain kinds of people who were more consistent
than others.
c. Personality researchers started to think more carefully about the importance of a
correlation of .40.
d. Personality researchers worked harder to find single traits that could strongly predict
single responses at a particular point in time.
35. A situationist would interpret a correlation of around .30

a. as an example of a very small effect size.
b. as an example of a medium effect size.
c. as an example of a large effect size.
d. by using a Binomial Effect Size Display.
36. Which of the following is true about predicting future behaviors?

a. Specific behaviors are generally pretty easy to predict.
b. Specific behaviors are better predicted than aggregated behaviors.
c. Aggregated behaviors are better predicted than specific behaviors.
d. Aggregated behaviors aren’t usually very accurate when predicting future behaviors.
60 | CHAPTER 4
37. According to the analogy drawn in the text between situational effects on behavior and Scud missiles,
situations
a. can overshadow individual differences in all cases.
b. never seem to affect behavior.
c. seem to have inconsistent effects.
d. seem to bring out individual differences in all people.
38. Funder and Ozer (1983) examined the results of three classic social psychological studies. They
converted the results to effect sizes and found that the effects were equivalent to correlations in the
range of (in absolute value).
a. .10 to .20 c. .61 to .75
b. .30 to .40 d. .70 to .97
39. Which of the following was NOT a study that Funder and Ozer reviewed in their work calculating the
size of the situation coefficient?
a. the forced compliance task that illustrated cognitive dissonance
b. the bystander intervention effect that illustrated situational factors on helping behavior
c. the reduction in intrinsic motivation that occurs when children are given rewards
d. the position of the learner in Milgram’s experiments on obedience
40. A recent review of the entire literature on social psychology concluded that the situational effect was
about
a. .10. c. .40.
b. .20. d. .50.
41. The traditional practice in evaluating the degree to which behavior is affected by the situation has
been to
a. square the correlation coefficient for the relationship between behavior and some aspect
of the situation.
b. determine the percentage of variance accounted for by personality, subtract that from 100
percent, and then assign that value to the situation.
c. multiply the variance in the behavioral measure by 2.
d. add the variance in the behavioral measure to the variance for the situational variable.
42. Funder and Ozer (1983) converted the results of three classic social psychological studies to effect
sizes. After comparing those effect sizes with those typically obtained by personality psychologists,
Funder and Ozer concluded that
a. situational variables, like personality variables, cannot predict behavior.
b. both situational and personality variables are important determinants of behavior.
c. the upper limit for a situation coefficient is only .20.
d. the three studies were so fundamentally flawed that they do not allow us to conclude
anything about the predictability of behavior from situational variables.
43. Which of the following is NOT one of Funder’s conclusions regarding the person-situation debate?
a. Most situational coefficients are actually between .30 and .40.
b. Situational coefficients are similar in size to personality coefficients.
c. Both situational variables and personality variables have an effect on behavior.
d. It is difficult to translate experimental results into effect sizes.
44. Historically, personality psychologists have concentrated on to evaluate the effects of

personality variables, whereas social psychologists have concentrated on to evaluate the
effects of situational variables.
a. variance; standard deviations c. effect size; statistical significance
b. standard deviations; variance d. statistical significance; effect size
45. A social psychologist focused on statistical significance is concerned with , whereas a

personality researcher focused on effect sizes is concerned with .
a. documenting the existence of an effect; quantifying the size of an effect
b. quantifying the size of an effect; documenting the existence of an effect
c. squaring correlations; Binomial Effect Size Displays
d. process; outcome
62 | CHAPTER 4
46. In Leikas, Lönnqvist, and Verkasalo (2012), participants interacted with trained actors. The number of
times a participant gazed into the eyes of his or her partner depended a lot on the behavior of the
partner. Which of the following reflects the correct interpretation of this result?
a. The amount of variability explained by the person was small.
b. The amount of variability explained by the person was large.
c. The amount of variability explained by the situation was small.
d. The amount of variability explained by the situation was large.
REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Absolute Versus Relative Consistency
47. In Leikas, Lönnqvist, and Verkasalo (2012), participants interacted with trained actors. The number of
times a participant gestured depended mostly on his or her own characteristics. Which of the
following reflects the correct interpretation of this result?
a. The amount of variability explained by the person was small.
b. The amount of variability explained by the person was large.
c. The amount of variability explained by the situation was small.
d. The amount of variability explained by the situation was large.
48. In Leikas, Lönnqvist, and Verkasalo (2012), participants interacted with trained actors. What was one
of the major conclusions from this study?
a. Behaviors with more situation variance had less person variance.
b. Behaviors with less situation variance had less person variance.
c. Situations didn’t vary that much.
d. People didn’t vary that much.
49. Funder and Colvin (1991) brought participants to the lab for two interactions with different people.
Which of the following results shows the power of the situation?
a. Participants who spoke loudly at session 1 also spoke loudly at session 2.
b. Participants who kept partners at a distance also behaved in a fearful manner.
c. Participants smiled frequently and spoke in a loud voice more than expected.
d. Participants were more relaxed at session 2 than session 1.
50. Funder notes that the person who is most talkative at a party is also likely to be the most talkative at
the department of motor vehicles (DMV). Which of the following terms describes this principle?
a. absolute consistency c. absolute change
b. relative consistency d. relative change
51. Which definition best describes the meaning of a cross-situational consistency coefficient of r  .70?
a. Behaviors in one situation strongly predict behaviors in another situation.
b. Behaviors in one situation weakly predict behaviors in another situation.
c. Behaviors in one situation are the opposite of behaviors in a different situation.
d. Behavior is the mediator between personality and the situation.
52. Which of the following conclusions does Funder draw about the role of persons versus situations in
affecting behavior?
a. Situations matter more than persons, because people tend to be inconsistent.
b. Situations have an important influence on behavior, but people also tend to be consistent.
c. Situations matter, but only under particular conditions, because people tend to be
inconsistent.
d. Situations have a minimal influence on behavior, because people tend to be consistent.
53. The large number of trait terms in the English language indicates that
a. we need an abundance of trait terms to distinguish between different types of people.
b. personality traits are an important part of our culture.
c. when it comes to personality, one size does not fit all.
REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Are Person Perceptions Fundamentally Mistaken?
54. Which conclusion follows from Funder’s analysis of the person-situation debate?
a. Personality doesn’t usually predict behavior.
b. Person perceptions are largely incorrect.
c. Even in the same situation, all people do not behave in the same way.
d. People don’t really act differently from each other.
ANS: C DIF: Difficult
REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Are Person Perceptions Fundamentally Mistaken?
64 | CHAPTER 4
55. The avoidance of drug abuse is associated with what trait?

a. openness to experience c. extraversion
b. neuroticism d. conscientiousness
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality and Life
56. Political liberalism is associated with what trait?

b. neuroticism d. conscientiousness
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality and Life
57. Happiness is associated with what trait?

b. self-monitoring d. conscientiousness
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality and Life
58. Peer acceptance is associated with what trait?

59. Attractiveness is associated with what trait?

60. Good coping would be positively associated with what trait?

a. neuroticism c. agreeableness
b. conscientiousness d. openness to experience
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality and Life
61. A long life is associated with what trait?

a. openness to experience c. neuroticism
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality and Life
62. According to Funder, what evidence is there that the person-situation controversy still exists today?
a. The current literature still includes the occasional mention that personality is not a
significant predictor of behavior.
b. Psychologists still rely heavily on correlational research designs.
c. Social psychologists make more money on average than personality psychologists.
d. There is no real evidence that the controversy still exists.
REF: Persons and Situations: Persons, Situations, and Values OBJ: 4.11
MSC: Understanding
63. The perspective indicates that, under the right circumstances, everyone can be rich, popular,
and successful.
a. interactionist c. situationist
b. pro-personality d. behaviorist
MSC: Understanding
64. According to the text, when psychologists argue about the importance of the person versus the
situation, they may really be arguing about
a. their fundamental values. c. historical accounts of psychology.
b. study design decisions. d. their religious beliefs.
MSC: Remembering
65. Which of the following does NOT describe a type of person-situation interaction?
a. People generally prefer situations that are pleasant.
b. People choose the situations they occupy.
c. People change the situations they occupy.
d. People react differently to the same situation.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Persons and Situations: Interactionism
66. Which of the following is NOT an example of interactionism?

a. An extraverted person chooses to live in a bigger, faster-paced city.
b. An agreeable person is generally a good team player.
c. A neurotic person expects to be socially excluded, which makes others stay away from
him.
d. A conscientious person reacts differently to feedback from her boss.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Persons and Situations: Interactionism
66 | CHAPTER 4
67. Sally found that neither caffeine nor extraversion individually predicted problem solving; however,
she found that they both worked together to predict problem solving. This is an example of what kind
of an effect?
a. a true interaction c. an evocation
b. a suppressor d. a true mediation
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Persons and Situations: Interactionism
68. Based on recent research, what is likely to happen when an aggressive person plays a competitive
multiplayer video game?
a. The aggressive person will be less aggressive.
b. The aggressive person will evoke aggression from the other players.
c. The aggressive person will frequently win.
d. There is no ability to predict how the aggressive person will behave in this context.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Persons and Situations: Interactionism
69. Which of the following statements does NOT reflect the influence of values that contribute to
a situationist versus a pro-personality position?
a. People are both flexibly adaptive to situations and consistent in personal style.
b. Attributing behavior to the situation absolves people from blame.
c. Attributing actions to personality implies that people are responsible for their
circumstances.
d. People are free to do what they want, so they are responsible for their actions.
MSC: Analyzing
70. Which of the following describes social psychologist Roger Brown’s views on the importance of
personality?
a. He first believed situations were important but later changed his mind.
b. He first believed traits were important but later changed his mind.
c. He first believed traits were unimportant but later recognized their importance.
d. He first believed situations were unimportant but later recognized their importance.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: People Are Different
71. According to the text, what is the central lesson that came out of the person-situation debate?
a. Sometimes a theory’s greatest strength is also its greatest weakness.
b. People are different from one another, and these differences matter.
c. Individual differences are relatively unimportant in predicting behavior.
d. Reliability is necessary but not sufficient in ensuring a construct is measured validly.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: People Are Different
72. How were all of the behavioral measurements in the studies reviewed in Mischel’s influential book
collected?
a. from real-life observations c. from self-reported narrative accounts
b. in laboratory settings d. from peer-reported accounts
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Predictability
73. What dramatic conclusion did some psychologists and non-psychologists draw from Mischel’s claims
regarding personality and behavior?
a. that personality did not exist
b. that correlations cannot test the link between the person and the situation
c. that personality does not change over the life span
d. that people are in some ways similar and in some ways different than other people
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Predictability
74. Dr. Danvers recently ran a study in which participants’ behavior was assessed in a series of different
situations. Given what we know from the studies on behavioral consistency referenced in the text,
what conclusions will Dr. Danvers likely draw from his study?
a. The individual’s behavior is entirely dependent on the situation they are in.
b. Situations have influence on behavior, but individuals still tend to be consistent.
c. Behavior is almost impossible to measure from lab observations.
d. Personality is the only real predictor of behavior.
75. According to the text, historically, tended to regard individual differences as relatively
unimportant, while tended to put such differences front and center.
a. sociologists; philosophers
b. tenured psychologists; pre-tenured psychologists
c. behavioralists; evolutionary psychologists
d. social psychologists; personality psychologists
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: People Are Different
MATCHING
Match the correct term with each definition.

a. Relative consistency
b. Situationism
c. The “personality coefficient”
d. Aggregation
e. Interactionism
f. BESD
1. Correlations are higher when behaviors are averaged.
2. The friendliest person at a party is probably also the friendliest in class.
68 | CHAPTER 4
3. r  .30 to .40
4. The situation is more important than the person in determining behavior.
5. The effect of a person variable may depend on the situation.
1. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate

2. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate
3. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate
4. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate
5. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate
Match the position or person who would most endorse each argument.
a. Situationist critique
b. Walter Mischel
c. Pro-personality response
d. David Funder
e. Henry Murray
6. A correlation of .30 to .40 is very small.
7. You may travel the world, but your personality is the baggage you will always have with you.
8. The BESD shows that r  .30 implies 6 percent predictive accuracy.
9. Some people are more consistent than others.
10. A correlation of .30 leaves 91 percent of the variance “unexplained.”
6. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Person-Situation Debate

7. ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: The Person-Situation Debate
8. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: The Person-Situation Debate
9. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: The Person-Situation Debate
10. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Person-Situation Debate
SHORT ANSWER
1. Describe the three major aspects of the situationist argument. Explain how trait psychologists
responded to this argument.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Predictability

2. Explain the issues that are involved in judging the size of the correlation coefficient of .40.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Person-Situation Debate: Predictability

3. Describe why the Funder and Ozer (1983) calculation of effect sizes from famous experiments in
social psychology is important for undermining the situationist argument. How does Funder believe
that these results should be interpreted?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Person-Situation Debate: The Power of the Situation
4. What is interactionism? Explain different ways that personality attributes and situations can work
together. Illustrate your arguments using examples of the associations between personality and work
outcomes.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Persons and Situations: Interactionism

5. According to Funder, what deep issues about human nature are at the heart of the person-situation
debate, and why is it difficult to fully resolve them?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Persons and Situations: Persons, Situations, and Values
CHAPTER 5 Personality Judgment
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 5.6. Understand the four variables that affect the likeli-
hood of accurate personality judgment.
5.1. Recognize that people judge themselves and others,
5.7. Differentiate between the different stages of the
and these judgments have consequences.
Realistic Accuracy Model.
5.2. Understand the concept of expectancy effect and the
5.8. Evaluate the difficulties in creating accurate personality
self-fulfilling prophecy.
judgments.
5.3. Summarize how the accuracy of personality judg-
5.9. Understand the circumstances around high and low
ment is assessed.
accuracy of self-knowledge.
5.4. Differentiate between the constructivist and critical
5.10. Describe the ways in which one can improve
realist positions.
self-knowledge.
5.5. Give examples of the accuracy of first impressions.
70
Personality Judgment | 71
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The judgments other people make of your personality may affect

a. your opportunities. c. expectancies of your behavior.
b. your chances of getting a job. d. All of the answer options are correct.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Consequences of Everyday Judgments of Personality OBJ: 5.1
MSC: Understanding
2. Judgments other people make of your personality are known as your

a. reputation. c. realistic accuracy model signal.
b. self-concept. d. identity.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
3. Judgments of your personality by others

a. reflect who you are.
b. impact what you are like.
c. are too inaccurate to be used in research contexts.
d. reflect who you are and can influence what you are like.
MSC: Understanding
4. Shy people fear social interactions and often feel lonely. Others typically perceive them as
a. shy. c. warm and friendly.
b. cold and aloof. d. sensitive and intelligent.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Consequences of Everyday Judgments of Personality: Opportunities
5. In terms of interpersonal judgment, one’s has a significant effect on the opportunities he or

she faces in his or her life.
a. cross-situational consistency c. ability to demonstrate athleticism
b. self-fulfilling tendencies d. reputation
ANS: D DIF: Easy
72 | CHAPTER 5
6. Self-fulfilling prophecies are more technically known as

a. opportunistic fallacies. c. consequential reputations.
b. expectancy effects. d. recency effects.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Consequences of Everyday Judgments of Personality: Expectancies
7. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the likely reasons that high-expectancy students
perform better?
a. Teachers are warmer to these students.
b. Teachers provide more detailed and constructive feedback to these students.
c. Teachers show an increased willingness to ignore disciplinary problems in these
students.
d. Teachers provide extra opportunities to these students.
8. In a study of social expectancies, Snyder, Tanke, and Berscheid (1977) found that if male participants
were shown a photograph of an attractive woman and told they would be interacting with her by
telephone, the female participant they actually spoke with
a. rated herself as more attractive than the woman in the photograph.
b. rated herself as less attractive than the woman in the photograph.
c. was rated by other people as behaving in a warm, humorous, and friendly manner.
d. was rated by other people as behaving in a cold, aloof, and unfriendly manner.
9. Attractive females are expected to be warm and friendly, and those females who are considered to be
attractive are treated in such a manner that they indeed respond in warm and friendly ways. According
to Snyder, Tanke, and Berscheid (1977), this effect is a type of
a. self-fulfilling prophecy. c. sex discrimination.
b. accuracy moderator. d. judgeability phenomena.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
10. In a series of studies about intellectual expectancies, Rosenthal and Jacobson (1968) found that
schoolchildren randomly identified as “bloomers” showed an average IQ increase of about 15 points
by the end of the school year. These studies demonstrated
a. the power of expectancies.
b. that formal training designed to develop self-efficacy can impact performance.
c. the accuracy of lay judgments of personality.
d. the good target moderator of accuracy.
11. According to Lee Jussim (1991), the source of real-life expectancies is likely
a. erroneous stereotypes about groups.
b. previous observations of behavioral tendencies.
c. authoritarian personality traits.
d. a cognitive bias to seek incongruent information.
12. Research on intellectual and social expectancies demonstrates that

a. other people’s perceptions of your personality can influence who you are and what
you do.
b. other people’s perceptions of your personality have little influence on your expectations.
c. such judgments are always based on direct observation of behavior.
d. such judgments are rarely unbiased.
13. What might be an effect of expectancies in real life?

a. to create new behavioral tendencies
b. to enhance reputations
c. to magnify or maintain existing behavioral tendencies
d. to diminish or punish existing behavioral tendencies
14. Julie does not like to attend parties because she is shy and convinced that people will not like her.
When Julie does go to a party, she avoids eye contact, gives abrupt responses to other people’s
questions, and quickly withdraws from interactions. As a result, she spends most of the evening in a
corner by herself, convinced that no one at the party likes her. This is an example of
a. the causal force of I data. c. the effects of low self-monitoring.
b. expectancy effects. d. an internal locus of control.
15. What are the two primary criteria for evaluating personality judgments?
a. interjudge agreement and internal consistency
b. internal consistency and behavioral prediction
c. interjudge agreement and behavioral prediction
d. predictive validity and behavioral prediction
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
74 | CHAPTER 5
16. The basic reason that research on the accuracy of personality judgments experienced a lengthy hiatus
between 1955 and the mid-1980s was that
a. early researchers had already identified the characteristics of a good judge of personality.
b. researchers turned their attention to the content of personality judgments.
c. researchers lacked consensual criteria for deciding the accuracy of personality
judgments.
d. early research indicated that personality judgments are relatively inconsequential.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
17. The observation “If it looks like a duck, walks like a duck, and quacks like a duck, then it is probably
a duck” illustrates the method of
a. moderator variables. c. procedural judgment.
b. constructivist accuracy. d. convergent validation.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
18. In terms of personality judgment, according to the text, which of the following is assessed in the
process of convergent validation?
a. interjudge agreement c. critical realism
b. constructivism d. first impressions
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
19. Which of the following is an example of predictive validity in the context of accuracy judgments?
a. Your own ratings of your neuroticism correlate with your parents’ ratings.
b. Your friend’s ratings of your openness do not predict your timeliness.
c. Your own ratings of your agreeableness correlate with a clinician’s ratings.
d. Your parents’ ratings of your conscientiousness correlate with the messiness of your
room.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
20. Which of the following is an example of interjudge agreement in the context of accuracy judgments?
a. Your own ratings of your conscientiousness predict your class attendance.
b. Your friends’ ratings of your agreeableness do not predict your neatness.
c. Your friends’ ratings of your extraversion converge with your parents’ ratings.
d. Your parents’ ratings of your neuroticism correlate with your tendency to have test
anxiety.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
21. Imagine that judgments of extraversion made on the first day of college correlate with the number of
parties that students attend over the course of their four years of college. Researchers would therefore
say that these judgments have
a. interjudge agreement. c. critical realism.
b. internal consistency. d. predictive validity.
22. Which of the following illustrates converging criteria that could be used to establish the accuracy of a
personality judgment?
a. One of your friends describes you as an extravert.
b. You always show up to work on time, and your colleagues say that you are dependable
and conscientious.
c. You tend to get into arguments, and you throw tantrums frequently.
d. You describe yourself as intelligent, but you score low on an IQ test.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
23. When Samira argues that all interpretations of reality are equally accurate, she is advocating the
philosophical position.
a. realist c. empiricist
b. positivist d. constructivist
24. When Andrew argues that some interpretations of reality are more correct than others, he is
advocating the philosophical position.
a. realist c. empiricist
b. positivist d. constructivist
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
25. The statement “There is no such thing as objective reality, only human ideas or perceptions of reality”
would MOST likely be made by a(n) . The statement “The absence of perfect, infallible
criteria for truth does not force us to conclude that all interpretations of reality are equally likely to be
correct” would MOST likely be made by a(n) .
a. constructivist; empiricist c. critical realist; empiricist
b. constructivist; critical realist d. empiricist; critical realist
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment
76 | CHAPTER 5
26. According to research described in the textbook, about how often did the more “competent”-looking
candidate win in the 2004 senate races?
a. 20 percent of the time c. 70 percent of the time
b. 50 percent of the time d. 100 percent of the time
REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: First Impressions
27. What does recent research suggest about the validity of first impressions?
a. First impressions based on configural properties of faces may have some validity.
b. First impressions based on the size of the target’s nose have a surprising amount of
validity.
c. First impressions based on the shape of the target’s mouth have a surprising amount of
validity.
d. First impressions based on face judgments have no validity.
REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: First Impressions: The Face
28. Based on recent research, what approach for job interviews might be the best?
a. written responses to open-ended questions
b. telephone interviews
c. face-to-face interviews
d. computer-mediated interviews
29. Participants in a recent study were shown and then asked to judge composite faces from targets who
scored extremely low or extremely high on personality dimensions. Which two traits had the highest
levels of accuracy for both female and male targets?
a. extraversion and neuroticism c. agreeableness and neuroticism
b. extraversion and agreeableness d. neuroticism and openness
30. Which was NOT one of the areas in which people made reasonably accurate judgments, based only on
looking at someone’s face?
a. dominance versus submissiveness c. profitability of a CEO’s company
b. sexual orientation d. number of children
31. People who enjoy reflective, complex music tend to be higher in what trait?
a. cheerfulness c. imagination
b. talkativeness d. intelligence
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: First Impressions: Other Visible Signs of Personality
32. People who enjoy upbeat, conventional music tend to be higher in what trait?
a. cheerfulness c. imagination
b. talkativeness d. intelligence
33. Imagine your new roommate makes her bed carefully each morning. What might you infer with some
accuracy about her personality?
a. She is conscientious. c. She is depressed.
b. She is open to experience. d. She is extremely extraverted.
34. A variable that affects the relation between two other variables is known as a
a. moderator. c. transmitter.
b. catalyst. d. residual.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: Moderators of Accuracy
35. Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the textbook as a potential moderator of accuracy?
a. qualities of personality judges
b. qualities of the target of the judgment
c. the amount of information available to judges
d. the age of the target of the judgment
ANS: D DIF: Easy
36. A(n) condition refers to a limit on the generalizability of a particular research conclusion.
a. threshold c. exclusionary
b. boundary d. caveat
ANS: B DIF: Easy
78 | CHAPTER 5
37. According to the text, describes a context where social norms tend to restrict what
people do.
a. a weak situation c. a strong situation
b. an unstructured conversation d. situationism
ANS: C DIF: Easy
38. Andersen (1984) found that the quality of information affected the accuracy of personality judgments.
According to the results of this study, information obtained from which actions would MOST likely
lead to a social impression that corresponds to the target’s self-assessment?
a. listening to the target describe his or her overt behaviors
b. observing the person’s behaviors at work
c. watching a 5-minute videotaped interaction between the target and an opposite-sex
stranger
d. listening to the target describe his or her thoughts and feelings
ANS: D DIF: Easy
39. Which of the following attributes were MOST consistently related to being a good judge of
personality in earlier studies investigating accurate personality judgment?
a. extraversion and openness c. conscientiousness and intelligence
b. agreeableness and intelligence d. extraversion and conscientiousness
40. Recent research on the good judge of personality indicated that the good judge was high in
a. extraversion. c. narcissism.
b. self-monitoring. d. agreeableness.
41. According to a recent study described in the textbook, which of the following is accurate about people
who describe themselves as “a good judge of personality”?
a. Such people are much better than others at judging personality.
b. Such people are no more accurate than others at judging personality.
c. Such people are quite high in narcissism.
d. Such people are quite high in self-esteem.
42. According to the text, what trait refers to individual differences in the willingness to engage in sexual
relations with minimal acquaintanceship?
a. sexual constraint c. socio-openness
b. sociosexuality d. sexual openness
ANS: B DIF: Easy
43. According to evolutionary theory, humans should be able to judge the trait of more
accurately than other traits that are less important for the survival of the species.
a. social intelligence c. sociability
b. self-esteem d. sociosexuality
ANS: D DIF: Easy
44. What was the boundary on the acquaintanceship effect identified by Colvin and Funder (1991)?
a. The advantage of close acquaintances vanishes when the criterion is the ability to predict
behavior in a situation similar to one that strangers have seen but acquaintances have not.
b. Judgments made by acquaintances who have known the target for 5 years are as valid as
judgments made by parents and acquaintances who have known the target for 20 years.
c. Strangers’ judgments are more accurate than acquaintances’ judgments when the
criterion is self-other agreement.
d. Strangers’ judgments, based on a 5-minute videotape of the target’s behavior,
demonstrated these judges’ ability to generalize to situations and contexts that were very
different from the videotaped interactions.
45. According to the text, does not seem to significantly improve as judges acquire more
information, whereas does seem to improve considerably.
a. accuracy; consensus c. predictive validity; reliability
b. consensus; accuracy d. consensus; interjudge agreement
46. How should you act in everyday life according to the “transparent self” theory of psychological
health?
a. Act like a chameleon, changing from one situation to the next, and keep your inner self
private.
b. Conceal very little from those around you; show your true self.
c. Adopt a public persona and always follow that identity to keep your inner self private.
d. Make sure to act like everyone else around you to blend in with the crowd.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
80 | CHAPTER 5
47. One difficulty that early researchers encountered in identifying the good judge of personality was
that
a. a good judge in one context was not always a good judge in other contexts.
b. clinical psychologists dismissed the findings, claiming that good judgment of others
required extensive training.
c. no one could measure personality objectively in the first place.
d. researchers did not have the statistical tools to study accuracy.
48. A good judge of personality seems to be high in

a. agency. c. communion.
b. self-monitoring. d. absorption.
49. A recent study found that women are more accurate than men in judging others. What was the
explanation for this finding?
a. Women are better than men at figuring out what is unique about each person.
b. Men are biased to see everyone more negatively.
c. Men are biased to see everyone more positively.
d. Women are better than men at knowing what the average person is like.
50. According to the text, if peers based judgments on reputation and not observation, then researchers
should find
a. more agreement on unobservable traits compared to observable traits.
b. more agreement on observable traits compared to unobservable traits.
c. equal agreement for both observable and unobservable traits.
d. no agreement in personality judgments whatsoever.
51. What is the best description of the acquaintanceship effect?

a. Your acquaintances are more accurate than you are when judging your personality.
b. The more information you have about someone, the more accurate your judgment of his
or her personality.
c. The longer you have known someone, the less accurate your judgment of his or her
personality.
d. People judge their friends more favorably than they judge their enemies.
52. A small number of studies have investigated whether making an extra effort to be a good judge of
personality improves accuracy. According to the textbook, what conclusions can be drawn from this
literature?
a. Extra effort greatly improves accuracy.
b. Extra effort reduces accuracy by a considerable amount.
c. Extra effort improves judgments of close friends but not casual acquaintances.
d. The results of the existing studies are mixed.
53. Abed is a stable, well-adjusted person. His behavior is fairly consistent and predictable; essentially,
“what you see is what you get.” Abed would MOST likely be
a. easy to judge accurately.
b. a good judge of personality.
c. a narcissist.
d. someone who scores high on commonality.
54. Which of the following is an aspect of the “good” trait?

a. moderation c. visibility
b. unpredictability d. acquaintanceship
55. According to research that shows a link between a trait’s observability and the accuracy with which it
is judged, which of the following traits would be easiest to judge accurately?
a. moodiness c. empathy
b. talkativeness d. creativity
56. Given what we know about trait visibility and judgment, which of the following traits would be
difficult to judge?
a. emotional stability c. physical appearance
b. extraversion d. social dominance
82 | CHAPTER 5
57. In making an overall judgment of your personality, which person should be MOST accurate?
a. a teacher
b. a lifelong best friend
c. a trained clinical psychologist
d. a classmate who has seen you most recently
58. Which of the following is the strongest situation using the psychological definition of a strong
situation?
a. a party c. a funeral
b. an unstructured job interview d. free time on a Saturday afternoon
59. The finding that more observable traits yield better interjudge agreement suggests that peer judgment
is based more on than on .
a. expectancies; the target’s self-judgments
b. a manufactured reputation; direct behavioral observation
c. direct behavioral observation; a manufactured reputation
d. stereotypes; expectancies
60. A salesperson has been married for 10 years, but her husband has never seen her do her job.
According to the textbook, which of the following statements is true regarding the accurate prediction
of her behavior during her work?
a. Her customers will be about as accurate as her husband in predicting her behavior at
work.
b. Her husband will be much more accurate than her customers in predicting her behavior at
work.
c. Her customers will be much more accurate than her husband in predicting her behavior at
work.
d. None of the answer options is true.
61. Imagine that Sally thinks she can judge Charlie’s personality better than Lucy’s personality.
According to a study referenced in the text on the accuracy of personality judgment (Biesanz et al.,
2011), which statement is MOST correct?
a. Sally will be more accurate in her judgments of Lucy.
b. Sally will be equally accurate in her judgments of Charlie and Lucy.
c. Sally will be more accurate in her judgments of Charlie.
d. Lucy will report a fairly negative view of Sally, if she is asked.
62. Drawing on research described in the text on the effect of acting against one’s transparent self, what
would be a reasonable prediction about an individual with high social anxiety who was instructed to
act comfortable in social situations for a week?
a. He or she will report increased concentration at work.
b. He or she will report being psychologically tired and depleted from the effort.
c. He or she will report increased feelings of closeness with others.
d. He or she will not be noticeably different after the study.
63. Doug has known Manesh for more than 20 years. Jim has only known Manesh since he joined Jim’s
department at Acme Advertising Agency two months ago. According to Colvin and Funder’s (1991)
study of the boundaries on the acquaintanceship effect, if both Doug and Jim are asked to predict how
Manesh will behave during a presentation at work next week, whose predictions will be more
accurate?
a. Doug’s
b. Jim’s
c. The two predictions will be about equally accurate.
d. Neither Doug’s nor Jim’s; such behavior is not predictable.
64. What are the steps in the Realistic Accuracy Model (RAM) of personality judgment?
a. recall/adjustment/manipulation
b. realism/accuracy/manipulation
c. recall/activation/matching/detection
d. relevance/availability/detection/utilization
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: The Realistic Accuracy Model
84 | CHAPTER 5
65. A judge may see a target’s behavior, pay attention to the behavior, and use the behavior in his or her
judgment about the target’s personality. However, for the personality judgment to be accurate, the
a. observed behavior must be relevant to the trait being judged.
b. behavior must be unusual and distinctive.
c. judge must have observed the behavior on multiple occasions.
d. personality trait must be cross-situationally consistent.
66. Imagine that you are at a party, and your best friend introduces you to a guy named David. You and
your friend talk to David for an hour, and you both notice the hostile comments that he repeatedly
makes about his roommate. Later, you and your friend discuss your impressions of David, and you
find that you disagree about him. Your friend thinks that David’s comments were just good-natured
joking and that he is a nice guy and a pretty funny fellow. You think that his comments were
mean-spirited and that he is a hostile person. Your disagreement arises because you and your friend
differ in the stage of the Realistic Accuracy Model (RAM) of personality judgment.
a. detection c. utilization
b. availability d. judgment
67. Consider the following scenario: A courageous person rushes into a burning building to save a child.
Which of the following represents a likely reason that accurate judgment of this person’s
courageousness might fail?
a. The actor does not display important cues for courageousness.
b. The situation doesn’t allow for the display of courageousness.
c. A judge sees the courageous act and applies that information to his or her judgment.
d. A judge’s eyes are irritated due to the smoke in the air and he or she is unable to see the
situation unfold.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
68. Consider the following scenario: A person sits quietly during a classroom lecture. Which of the
following represents the MOST likely reason that accurate judgment of extraversion might fail?
a. Important cues for extraversion are readily displayed.
b. The situation doesn’t allow for the display of extraversion.
c. A judge sees no extraverted behavior and judges that the target is introverted.
d. A judge pays good attention and sees all the important behaviors.
69. Consider the following scenario: A child cries for his father to take him to the park while they are at
the library. Which of the following represents a likely reason that accurate judgment of the child’s
extraversion might fail?
a. Important cues for extraversion are not displayed.
b. The situation doesn’t allow for the display of extraversion.
c. A judge sees the tantrum and recognizes that the information isn’t relevant.
d. A judge is highly intelligent and notices important cues.
70. Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons that accuracy matters?
a. Personality judgments matter for things like promotion at our jobs.
b. Your reputation doesn’t matter much for your well-being and happiness.
c. We can’t escape personality judgment; friends and others will form impressions of us.
d. When we understand people better, we have better relationships with them.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Accuracy Matters
71. According to the text, what is one of the reasons accurate self-knowledge is a hallmark of mental
health?
a. Someone with accurate self-knowledge scores higher on IQ tests.
b. Someone with accurate self-knowledge is also in a good position to make good life
decisions.
c. Someone with accurate self-knowledge tends to behave in risky behaviors.
d. Accurate self-knowledge is not a hallmark of mental health at all.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Accurate Self-Knowledge
72. Maria realizes that it is easy for her to talk to people at parties and that she is therefore high in
extraversion. To what component of the Realistic Accuracy Model (RAM) does this realization
speak?
a. relevance c. utilization
b. detection d. observation
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Accurate Self-Knowledge
73. According to a study referenced in the text on personality judgments from close acquaintances (Kolar
et al., 1996), acquaintance judgments were more accurate than self-judgments in predicting
a. overt behavior. c. life satisfaction.
b. emotional experiences. d. job satisfaction.
REF: Accurate Self-Knowledge: Self-Knowledge Versus Knowledge of Others
86 | CHAPTER 5
74. After Lenny Skutnik dove in to a freezing river to save a woman in danger of drowning, he rejected
the media’s assertion that he was a hero and claimed that anyone would have done the same thing.
According to Funder, why was it difficult for Lenny to accept that he had behaved heroically?
a. He had a low IQ score and therefore could not analyze his own behavior.
b. He did appreciate his heroism but was too modest to admit it to the media.
c. He did not behave in a heroic manner.
d. He did not have the perspective to judge his actions against that of others.
REF: Accurate Self-Knowledge: Self-Knowledge Versus Knowledge of Others
75. Introspection would be included as part of the function of the Realistic Accuracy Model
(RAM).
a. detection c. utilization
b. relevance d. communication
REF: Accurate Self-Knowledge: Improving Self-Knowledge OBJ: 5.10
MSC: Understanding
76. Which of the following would NOT be considered a route toward improving your self-knowledge?
a. using introspection to look inside your mind and understand yourself better
b. asking others for feedback about yourself
c. taking a poll of how others would behave in the situation you are in
d. observing your behaviors and drawing conclusions about who you are
REF: Accurate Self-Knowledge: Improving Self-Knowledge OBJ: 5.10
MSC: Analyzing
77. Bijoy is painfully shy at work. As a consequence of his shyness, according to research referenced in
the text, he
a. is less likely to get help if he asks for it.
b. is probably better at working in groups.
c. likely perceives himself as highly extraverted.
d. is likely considered to be very likable among his coworkers.
78. The degree to which an individual expresses sophistication and creativity when telling a story
accurately reflects how he or she is.
a. extraverted c. conscientious
b. neurotic d. open to experience
ANS: D DIF: Easy
79. Research from multiple psychological domains has demonstrated that first impressions are
a. not at all accurate in judging personality.
b. accurate in judging most of the Big Five personality traits.
c. accurate in judging athleticism.
d. only accurate in judging how neurotic someone is.
REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: First Impressions
80. Broadly speaking, improving the accuracy of personality judgments depends notably on how well
everyone is able to
a. be himself or herself. c. behave the same in the same situation.
b. talk to one another. d. be polite in social situations.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Accuracy Matters
MATCHING
Match the most applicable stage of the Realistic Accuracy Model with each hypothetical successful or
failed judgment.
a. Availability
b. Relevance
c. Utilization
d. Detection
e. Judgment
f. Understanding
1. A friend is revealing important information at a concert, but you fail to hear it.
2. An attentive judge notices important patterns in a target’s speech.
3. A judge accurately identifies another person’s trait.
4. Cybil makes an active attempt to conceal neurotic behaviors from John.
5. Jake makes a judgment of Marla’s high conscientiousness based on her friendliness.
6. A judge fails to notice a critical behavior.
7. The situation is not applicable for displaying a trait.
8. After a lecture, you are asked to judge the talkativeness of another attendee.
9. A good trait is displayed in a range of contexts.
10. A friend confesses that he has a messy room, but you discount this information.
1. ANS: D DIF: Moderate

3. ANS: C DIF: Moderate
88 | CHAPTER 5
4. ANS: A DIF: Moderate

5. ANS: B DIF: Moderate
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is constructivism, and why does this philosophy disqualify the evaluation of the accuracy of
personality judgments? Describe the critical realist alternative to this point of view. How does this
perspective support research concerning the accuracy of personality judgments?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment

2. What is a moderator variable? Identify the four moderators of accuracy detailed in the text, and
provide clear examples for each moderator.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: Moderators of Accuracy

3. What is the acquaintanceship effect, and what boundary condition did Colvin and Funder (1991)
discover? Provide a clear example to illustrate this boundary condition.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: Moderators of Accuracy

4. Describe the four steps of the Realistic Accuracy Model (RAM). Apply those steps to the accurate
judgment of the trait of honesty.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Accuracy of Personality Judgment: The Realistic Accuracy Model
5. Describe why everyday judgments of personality are important. Describe consequences in the
interpersonal domain as well as the achievement-related domain of work or school.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Accuracy Matters OBJ: 5.1

MSC: Understanding
CHAPTER 6 Traits and Types: The Big Five and Beyond
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 6.6. Recognize and classify outcomes and facets associ-
ated with traits in the Big Five framework.
6.1. Distinguish between the four different approaches to
6.7. Explain limitations to the typological approach to
studying traits.
personality traits.
6.2. Understand self-monitoring and narcissism as exem-
6.8. Summarize the factor analytic approach to uncover-
plars of the single-trait approach.
ing essential traits.
6.3. Explain and recognize examples of the many-trait
6.9. Understand both the applications and criticisms of
approach.
the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator.
6.4. Understand the theoretical approach to uncovering
6.10. Explain the function and usefulness of personality
essential traits.
types.
6.5. Recognize theorists and practices associated with the
essential-trait approach.
90
Traits and Types: The Big Five and Beyond | 91
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A researcher seeks to understand the reasons that a person uses drugs. Which approach is the
researcher MOST likely to adopt?
a. single-trait c. essential-trait
b. many-trait d. typological
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Four Ways to Study Personality
2. A researcher interested in identifying common patterns of traits that characterize whole persons will
likely use a approach.
a. single-trait c. configural
b. typological d. many-trait
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Four Ways to Study Personality
3. A researcher who starts with an interest in delinquency and then identifies the traits associated with
that category of behavior is taking a(n) approach.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Four Ways to Study Personality
4. A researcher who tries to discover the most important or basic personality traits that exist is taking
a(n) approach.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Four Ways to Study Personality
5. People who adjust their behavior to best fit the situation are called , and people whose
behavior is guided by their personality are called .
a. ego resilient; ego controlled
b. ego controlled; ego resilient
c. high self-monitors; low self-monitors
d. low self-monitors; high self-monitors
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring
6. When compared to high self-monitors, people who score low in self-monitoring tend to
a. perform better in job interviews. c. be willing to lie to get a date.
b. use strategies to influence coworkers. d. be regarded as more honest.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring
92 | CHAPTER 6
7. Low self-monitors are more likely than high self-monitors to be described as

a. talkative. c. having social poise and presence.
b. self-dramatizing. d. independent.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring
8. Research on addresses important questions concerning the way that inner reality and the
private self relate to external reality and the self as presented to others.
a. authoritarianism c. self-monitoring
b. introversion and extraversion d. conscientiousness
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring
9. Given Snyder’s description of self-monitoring, you would expect someone who is low in
self-monitoring to be than someone high in self-monitoring.
a. harder to judge c. less depressed
b. easier to judge d. less conscientious
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring
10. According to recent research about personality and energy drink preferences (Smidt & DeBono,
2011), those high in self-monitoring would likely prefer which brand of energy drink in a consumer
taste test study?
a. Superstar Energy c. Energy Enhancer
b. Acme Energy Drink d. Energy for You
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring
11. Julie is a serious and conscientious employee; however, with her friends at happy hour on Friday
afternoon she is the life of the party. According to Snyder’s theory, Julie would MOST likely be
a. a high self-monitor. c. high in private self-consciousness.
b. a low self-monitor. d. low in public self-consciousness.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring
12. Which trait is associated with putting more effort into hairstyles and clothing?
a. conscientiousness c. narcissism
b. self-monitoring d. authoritarianism
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Narcissism
13. Which dimension of personality assessed by the Narcissistic Personality Inventory appears to be the
one MOST responsible for obnoxious and arrogant behavior?
a. leadership/authority c. entitlement/exploitativeness
b. self-sufficiency d. self-esteem
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Narcissism
14. Which trait is associated with positive first impressions but more negative impressions in longer-term
relationships?
a. conscientiousness c. narcissism
b. self-monitoring d. authoritarianism
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Narcissism
15. Which of the following is NOT a currently discussed explanation for narcissistic behavior?
a. Narcissists are struggling to maintain an unrealistic self-concept.
b. Narcissists have trouble controlling impulses.
c. Narcissists are motivated by power and prestige and use certain strategies to attain these
goals.
d. Narcissists are actually shy and timid but believe that these traits reflect personal
weaknesses.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Narcissism
16. The items in the California Q-Set were derived from

a. a quantitative factor analysis.
b. a biologically based model of personality.
c. Allport and Odbert’s original list of trait terms from everyday language.
d. efforts by researchers to develop a complete list of items sufficient to describe any
person.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Many-Trait Approach: California Q-Set
17. The is a personality assessment device consisting of a deck of 100 cards, each of which
describes an aspect of personality. These cards are sorted into categories by the respondent.
a. California F scale c. California Q-Set
b. self-monitoring scale d. NEO Personality Inventory
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Many-Trait Approach: California Q-Set
18. The MOST important advantage of Q-sorting is that it

a. allows the judge to rate the target person consistently high or low on every trait.
b. does not require the judge to make subtle discriminations between trait ratings.
c. can only be used by trained clinicians, thus preventing problems with untrained judges.
d. forces the judge to compare all the items directly against each other.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: California Q-Set
94 | CHAPTER 6
19. A researcher taking the many-trait approach to understanding personality would likely use which of
the following measurement instruments?
a. California F scale c. the NEO-PI neuroticism scale
b. California Q-Set d. self-monitoring scale
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: California Q-Set
20. Which approach to studying personality begins with the question “Who does that?” and then seeks to
understand the traits associated with a specific behavior?
a. many-trait approach c. single-trait approach
b. essential-trait approach d. typological approach
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: Talking
21. The MOST important thing to notice about a table of Q-sort correlates is the
a. general patterns that emerge. c. wording of specific items.
b. exact value of the correlations. d. smallest correlation.
22. Fast and Funder (2008) found that using words like guarantee was correlated .21 with “has a high
aspiration for self.” Which of the following is a correct interpretation of this finding?
a. Participants who used the word guarantee were very likely to also have high aspirations.
b. Participants who used the word guarantee were very unlikely to also have high
aspirations.
c. Participants who used the word guarantee were slightly more likely to also have high
aspirations.
d. Participants who used the word guarantee were slightly less likely to also have high
aspirations.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: Talking
23. Research has shown that when people use words such as to describe their life stories, they
are described by acquaintances as more intelligent.
a. absolutely c. positivity
b. smart d. mindfully
24. Manuel is discontented with economic and political systems as an adult. Recent research suggests that
as a child, Manuel would have been described as
a. over-controlled. c. misbehaved.
b. well-adjusted. d. egocentric.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: Political Beliefs
25. Sally prefers listening to relaxing music by folk singers who write and perform their own songs. Sally
is likely high in which trait?
a. extraversion c. conscientiousness
b. openness d. neuroticism
REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Extraversion: The Big Five View of Extraversion
26. According to the text, which of the following is one of the reactions an individual high on right-wing
authoritarianism would have when playing experimental games?
a. They are less likely to obey an experimenter’s commands.
b. They seek to win at all costs.
c. They experience more positive emotions than nonauthoritarians.
d. They tend to be uncooperative and inflexible.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: Political Beliefs
27. Jack Block found that 23-year-olds who described themselves as being politically conservative were
likely to have been described as at age 3.
a. self-reliant and energetic c. maintaining close relationships
b. guilty and anxious d. emotionally unstable and aggressive
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: Political Beliefs
28. Which of the following is NOT a dimension that would likely show differences between liberals and
conservatives?
a. harm/care c. authority/respect
b. in-group loyalty d. purity
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: Political Beliefs
29. What is another name for ego resiliency?

a. psychological adjustment c. extraversion
b. self-monitoring d. self-control
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Reducing the Many to a Few: Theoretical Approaches
30. What is another name for ego control?

a. psychological adjustment c. emotional stability
b. self-monitoring d. self-control
ANS: D DIF: Easy
96 | CHAPTER 6
31. What are essential traits according to Jack Block?

a. neuroticism/extraversion
b. negative emotionality/positive emotionality
c. stability/plasticity
d. ego control/ego resiliency
ANS: D DIF: Easy
32. What are the essential traits according to Hans Eysenck?

a. neuroticism/extraversion/openness to experience
b. neuroticism/extraversion/psychoticism
c. ego control/ego resiliency/ego adjustment
d. positive emotionality/negative emotionality/constraint
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Reducing the Many to a Few: Factor Analytic Approaches
33. What are the Big Three traits according to Auke Tellegen?
a. neuroticism/extraversion/openness to experience
b. neuroticism/extraversion/psychoticism
c. ego control/ego resiliency/ego adjustment
d. positive emotionality/negative emotionality/constraint
ANS: D DIF: Easy
34. Which essential trait theorist developed a model with the strongest ties to psychoanalytic ideas?
a. Jack Block c. Auke Tellegen
b. Hans Eysenck d. Raymond Cattell
ANS: A DIF: Easy
35. A researcher using factor analysis to identify basic traits is likely to favor the approach.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
36. According to Jack Block, ego gets people into trouble, but ego gets people out of
trouble.
a. undercontrol; overcontrol c. overcontrol; undercontrol
b. resiliency; overcontrol d. undercontrol; resiliency
37. Positive emotionality in Tellegen’s three-factor model is closest to which trait in Eysenck’s model?
a. extraversion c. psychoticism
b. openness to experience d. neuroticism
38. Negative emotionality in Tellegen’s three-factor model is closest to which trait in Eysenck’s model?
a. extraversion c. psychoticism
b. openness to experience d. neuroticism
39. Factor analyses are mostly based on which of the following pieces of information?
a. researchers’ judgments c. thematic apperception tests
b. superfactors d. correlation matrices
40. Which of the following terms describes the often-criticized outcome of Raymond Cattell’s factor
analysis, which revealed 16 factors?
a. underextraction of factors c. too few superfactors
b. overextraction of factors d. facets
41. Pooja is a strong proponent of the lexical hypothesis. Where would she likely begin her search for the
essential traits of personality?
a. the dictionary
b. observation of the personalities of nonhuman animals
c. Eysenck’s theories
d. ancient Greek medical texts
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: The Big Five and Beyond OBJ: 6.5
MSC: Applying
98 | CHAPTER 6
42. According to the text, individuals high in are usually valued employees.
a. extraversion c. emotional intelligence
b. agreeableness d. conscientiousness
ANS: D DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
43. Which trait has been consistently linked to a range of health outcomes?
a. neuroticism c. openness
b. authoritarianism d. conscientiousness
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness
44. According to a recent study described in the textbook, which trait has been linked to a decrease in life
satisfaction following a period of unemployment?
a. agreeableness c. narcissism
b. conscientiousness d. self-monitoring
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness
45. Which trait is linked to avoiding risks and driving carefully?

a. narcissism c. conscientiousness
b. openness d. self-monitoring
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness
46. According to the text, tests of conscientiousness predict

a. psychopathy and happiness.
b. job performance and employee thefts.
c. talkativeness and social anxiety.
d. criminal behavior and political affiliation.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness
47. Which Big Five domain captures a tendency to experience positive emotions?
a. neuroticism c. conscientiousness
b. extraversion d. openness
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Extraversion
48. Which Big Five domain captures a tendency to experience negative emotions?
a. neuroticism c. conscientiousness
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Neuroticism
49. Which of the following Big Five domains is related to less smoking?
a. neuroticism c. agreeableness
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Agreeableness
50. Which of the Big Five traits appears to be the most complex and “difficult to grasp”?
a. neuroticism c. psychoticism
REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Openness to Experience/Culture/Intellect
51. According to recent research (Boyce & Wood, 2011), which trait seems to be related to quicker
recovery from disabling accidents or illnesses?
a. agreeableness c. conscientiousness
b. neuroticism d. openness
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Agreeableness
52. Which trait is MOST closely linked with dominance?

b. neuroticism d. extraversion
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Extraversion
53. Which of the Big Five traits appears to have the MOST inconsistency in terms of cross-cultural
replication?
a. agreeableness c. psychoticism
54. According to the text, some researchers propose that openness to experience is related to ,
while others claim it is related to .
a. athleticism; religiosity c. liking rock music; liking classical music
b. drug use; conservativeness d. creativity; intelligence
100 | CHAPTER 6
55. Factor analyses have revealed a broader personality factor called plasticity. Which of the following
Big Five factors are subfactors of this factor?
a. conscientiousness and extraversion c. extraversion and openness
b. openness and neuroticism d. neuroticism and agreeableness
MSC: Remembering
56. Factor analyses have revealed a broader personality factor called stability. Which of the following Big
Five factors are subfactors of this factor?
a. extraversion, neuroticism, agreeableness
b. extraversion, openness, conscientiousness
c. neuroticism, openness, agreeableness
d. neuroticism, agreeableness, conscientiousness
MSC: Remembering
57. Which of the following traits has been difficult to replicate across different samples and cultures?
a. openness c. emotional stability
MSC: Understanding
58. The lower your score is on measures of psychological health and well-being, the your score
is on .
a. higher; agreeableness c. higher; self-monitoring
b. higher; neuroticism d. lower; authoritarianism
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Neuroticism
59. In order to alleviate the effects of bias in employment testing, employers might want to use
because they typically do not show racial or ethnic differences.
a. aptitude tests c. tests of conscientiousness
b. ability tests d. achievement tests
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness
60. What additional trait(s) do some psychologists argue should be added to expand the Big Five to the
Big Six?
a. narcissism c. honesty-humility
b. conscientiousness d. self-monitoring
REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Beyond the Big Five OBJ: 6.8
MSC: Applying
61. Which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with conscientiousness?

a. high IQ c. educational level
b. avoidance of risks d. longevity
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness
62. Though some researchers disagree, after over 60 years of research, most personality psychologists
think there are how many essential personality factors?
a. three c. five
b. four d. six
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
63. The Big Five are believed to be orthogonal factors of personality. What does orthogonal mean?
a. People’s scores on one of the factors are useful for predicting their scores on only one of
the other factors.
b. People’s scores on one of the factors are useful for predicting their scores on two of the
other factors.
c. People’s scores on one of the factors are useful for predicting their scores on three or
four of the other factors.
d. People’s scores on one of the factors do not predict their scores on any of the other
factors.
MSC: Understanding
64. Which trait describes people who are psychologically well adjusted and tend to be religious?
a. honesty-humility c. frugality
b. sensuality d. humor
MSC: Understanding
65. According to the text, which three personality types are the MOST replicable?
a. well-adjusted/undercontrolled/overcontrolled
b. Type A/Type B/Type D
c. introvert/extravert/thinker
d. resilient/controlled/anomic
REF: Typological Approaches to Personality: Evaluating Typologies
102 | CHAPTER 6
66. The approach to personality usually assumes that all people can be characterized by points
on a continuous score of measurement; the approach to personality suggests that people
might differ in kind more than in degree.
a. typological; trait c. essential-trait; single-trait
b. trait; typological d. constructivist; critical realist
67. Which of the following does NOT describe a reason that people gravitate to the typological approach
in contrast to the trait approach?
a. Qualitative differences between types of people are somewhat easier to comprehend than
traits.
b. The typological approach has many years worth of empirical support.
c. The trait approach assumes that all people can be characterized using similar traits,
which might be wrong.
d. Different types of people may be qualitatively distinct from each other.
68. Which choice does NOT describe a reason that the typological approach to personality traits is less
valid than trait-based approaches?
a. Researchers have to know which personality types are sufficient, which is very difficult.
b. Personality is more diverse than typological approaches would lead us to believe.
c. Personality types may summarize many traits within an overarching label.
d. Knowing a person’s personality type lends a researcher little ability to better predict
behavior beyond traits.
69. What is the best summary of the current state of knowledge about personality types?
a. Knowing a person’s personality type adds to our ability to predict his or her behavior
beyond what can be predicted by knowing how the person stands on the traits that define
the typology.
b. Although types add little for psychometric purposes of measurement and prediction, they
still may have value as aids in education and theorizing.
c. There are five basic personality types, each corresponding to one of the Big Five
personality traits.
d. Compared to the trait approach, the typological approach is completely useless for
explaining or describing people or behavior.
70. According to the lexical hypothesis,

a. the most important aspects of human life are labeled and will exist in many languages.
b. personality does not have a significant influence on behavior.
c. traits can only be identified in an experimental setting.
d. the trait honesty-humility should be added to the Big Five personality traits.
MSC: Understanding
71. Someone who scores high on extraversion likely , whereas someone who scores high on
agreeableness likely .
a. is thrifty; is accident-prone
b. is sensitive to rewards; is psychologically well adjusted
c. scores low on agreeableness; scores low on extraversion
d. does not show their emotions; is vulnerable to bullying
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: The Essential-Trait Approach
72. When compared to personality types, personality traits are at predicting behavior.
a. better c. equally good
b. worse d. equally poor
73. Which of the following descriptions best characterizes the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?
a. It is a short version of a questionnaire that assesses the Big Five personality traits.
b. It is a long questionnaire, often used in cross-cultural contexts, that tests how individuals
rate on dozens of personality characteristics.
c. It is a short questionnaire that tests whether individuals are well adjusted, maladjusted
overcontrolling, or maladjusted undercontrolling.
d. It is a long questionnaire, often used by corporations to assess potential employees, that
tests which of two opposing tendencies characterizes an individual.
REF: Typological Approaches to Personality: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
74. According to the text, why is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator particularly popular?
a. It is free for researchers to use.
b. It is particularly good at predicting important life outcomes.
c. Its vague questions give the impression that it offers deep insight.
d. It has strong psychometric properties.
104 | CHAPTER 6
75. Which of the following is NOT a criticism of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator?
a. Its scales are distributed normally and not bimodally.
b. Its measurements of personality types are not reliable over time.
c. The theory behind personality types and job placement is not supported empirically.
d. It is time-consuming to score and interpret.
76. According to your text, what is one important use of personality types?
a. They serve as a way to summarize how someone stands on several traits.
b. They are good indicators of how people are quantitatively different from one another.
c. They are the best way to predict job performance.
d. There is no real use for personality types.
REF: Typological Approaches to Personality: Uses of Personality Types
77. Ciara is an advertiser who is interested in labeling consumers in terms of their spending habits and
shopping behavior to efficiently target groups of people for different products. What approach to
personality should Ciara use in her assessment?
a. essential-trait c. many-trait
b. typological d. single-trait
REF: Typological Approaches to Personality: Uses of Personality Types
78. In the factor analysis approach to personality, a “factor” can be best described as a personality
a. trait. c. theory.
b. type. d. item.
79. Carlos is interested in understanding everything there is to know about a person, and he is developing
a lengthy personality measure to achieve this. What approach is Carlos taking to study personality?
a. essential-trait c. many-trait
b. typological d. single-trait
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach
80. Chan tends to be disorganized, irresponsible, and unable to handle criticism well. What is the best
description of Chan’s personality?
a. low extraversion and high openness to experience
b. low agreeableness and high neuroticism
c. low conscientiousness and high neuroticism
d. low openness to experience and high conscientiousness
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Neuroticism
MATCHING
Match the most associated trait factor with each facet.

a. Extraversion
b. Agreeableness
c. Conscientiousness
d. Neuroticism
e. Openness
f. Narcissism
g. Self-monitoring
1. Hostility
2. Gregariousness
3. Altruism
4. Self-discipline
5. Assertiveness
1. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Neuroticism

2. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Extraversion
3. ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Agreeableness
4. ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness
5. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Extraversion
Match the most associated trait with each behavior or emotional outcome.
a. Extraversion
b. Agreeableness
c. Conscientiousness
d. Neuroticism
e. Openness
f. Narcissism
g. Self-monitoring
6. Higher grade-point average
7. Charming demeanor
8. Higher social status
106 | CHAPTER 6
9. Lower emotional well-being

10. Creative hobbies
6. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Conscientiousness

7. ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Narcissism
8. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Extraversion
9. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: Neuroticism
10. ANS: E DIF: Moderate
SHORT ANSWER
1. What aspects of behavior does self-monitoring help to explain? Thoroughly describe the construct and
identify interesting correlates of both high self-monitoring and low self-monitoring. Are there
connections between self-monitoring and the Big Five domains?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Single-Trait Approach: Self-Monitoring

2. How has research with the California Q-Set helped to identify personality correlates of verbal fluency,
political orientation, and depression? Briefly describe the Q-sort procedure and explain how such
studies have been conducted. What gender differences have been found, and how are these usually
interpreted?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Many-Trait Approach: California Q-Set

3. Describe the personality correlates of political orientation. How were these studies conducted? What
are the major concerns that might arise when studying potential connections between personality and
politics?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Many-Trait Approach: Political Beliefs

4. How were the Big Five discovered? Define and describe each of the Big Five trait domains. What
essential questions about strangers do these dimensions address?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Essential-Trait Approach: The Big Five and Beyond
5. What is the difference between a trait approach and a typological approach to personality? What are
some of the common personality types identified by researchers? What are the limitations to the
typological approach? What are personality types useful for?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Typological Approaches to Personality: Evaluating Typologies

Personality Stability, Development,
CHAPTER 7
and Change
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 7.7. Identify the ways in which early life experiences
and childhood temperament contribute to the
7.1. Describe how personality remains stable over the life trajectory of one’s personality trait structure
course in terms of rank-order consistency. development.
7.2. Explain how personality changes over the life span in 7.8. Describe how research conducted over the last
terms of its trends and specific causes. 40 years has contributed to our understanding of
both personality change and stability.
7.3. Identify the basic tenets of Developmental Personality
Psychology. 7.9. Explain the ways in which people interact with their
environment.
7.4. Relate personality change to both psychotherapeutic
interventions and layperson strategies for personal 7.10. Explain the ways in which individuals develop their
change. goals and narrative identity.
7.5. Identify and describe the ways in which personality 7.11. Discuss the negative consequences for both personal-
development is studied in psychology. ity stability and personality change.
7.6. Distinguish between the seven principles of personal-
ity continuity and change.
108
Personality Stability, Development, and Change | 109
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Developmental Personality Psychology is the study of personality and .

a. structure; organization c. consistency; stability
b. traits; facets d. judgment; accuracy
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Stability, Development, and Change
2. According to the text, what paradox is central to the study of personality development?
a. People’s personality traits both change and stay consistent over time.
b. People’s personalities change both across their entire lives and in response to specific
events.
c. People develop their personalities according to both nature and nurture.
d. Some people’s personalities change dramatically over the life span, and some people
don’t change at all.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Stability, Development, and Change
3. When individuals have rank-order personality consistency, they maintain the ways in which they
other people the same age.
a. are the same as c. are different from
b. spend time with d. are liked by
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Stability
4. In one study, researchers found that personality trait scores from the same people measured 10 years
apart correlated between r  .60 and r  .90. This is evidence for
a. personality stability. c. mean level change.
b. personality accuracy. d. adaptability.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Stability: Evidence for Stability
5. Personality disorders generally across the life span.

a. are responsive to therapy and become less severe
b. are stable
c. get worse
d. become less severe
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Stability: Evidence for Stability
110 | CHAPTER 7
6. Which of the following serves as evidence for the claim that personality remains stable throughout the
life span?
a. Due to major life events throughout young adulthood, people undergo significant
personality trait changes.
b. The impact of major life events is similar in young adulthood and later in life.
c. People’s personalities tend to deviate from their peers’ to a lesser extent as they get
older.
d. Childhood personality ratings are predictive of adult life outcomes.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Stability: Evidence for Stability
7. Which of the following is NOT a basic aspect of childhood temperament?

a. positive emotionality c. effortful control
b. negative emotionality d. heterotypic continuity
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: From Temperament to Personality
8. According to the text, the personality one begins with is known as one’s
a. rank-order consistency. c. temperament.
b. trait structure. d. social clock.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
9. As a child, Brett always had a lot of energy at his parent’s social gatherings. As an adult, he makes a
point to talk to everyone attending a party. This is an example of
a. personal-environment transactions. c. heterotypic continuity.
b. temperament. d. cumulative continuity.
10. Which of the following is NOT a known physical factor that influences personality development?
a. height c. gender
b. attractiveness d. ethnicity
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: Physical and Environmental Factors
11. According to psychologist Frank Sulloway, firstborns are more compared to those born
later.
a. conscientious c. open to experience
b. neurotic d. extraverted
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: Birth Order OBJ: 7.7
MSC: Remembering
12. John was bullied a lot in grade school. Given this early experience, which of the following behaviors
is John MOST likely to exhibit later in life?
a. self-confidence and resilience c. depression and apathy
b. anxiety and disorganized thoughts d. laziness and irresponsibility
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: Early Experience
13. Between ages 10 and 20, levels of extraversion tend to and then .
a. decrease; increase c. decrease; stay the same
b. level off; stay the same d. increase; level off
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Cross-Sectional Studies
14. generally refers to the traits that help a person to fulfill socially important adult roles such
as being a spouse, a parent, or a worker.
a. Responsibility c. Maturity
b. Consistency d. Generativity
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: Cumulative Continuity and Maturity
15. The processes by which people respond to, seek out, and create environments that are compatible with
their personalities are called
a. cumulative personalities continuity.
b. person-environment transactions.
c. personality-life-history transactions.
d. birth-order effects.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: Person-Environment Transactions
16. The process by which a person seeks out compatible environments and avoids incompatible ones is
called
a. active person-environmental transaction.
b. reactive person-environment transaction.
c. evocative person-environment transaction.
d. heterotypic continuity.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
112 | CHAPTER 7
17. In line with the process, if someone is high on conscientiousness, they will most likely
select environments that promote achievement and order.
a. evocative person-environment transaction
b. active person-environment transaction
c. reactive person-environment transaction
d. heterotypic continuity
18. Richard is an introvert and finds himself miserable at parties. His response is an example of a(n)
person-environment transaction.
a. active c. inactive
b. evocative d. reactive
19. Consistency of individual differences in personality typically over the life span.
a. decreases c. increases
b. stays the same d. increases and then decreases
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: Cumulative Continuity and Maturity
20. According to previous research, when does personality stop developing?

a. There’s no way to know for sure; the evidence is inconclusive.
b. Personality stops developing somewhere between childhood and adolescence.
c. Personality stops developing by the time someone turns 30.
d. Personality continues to develop throughout the entire life span.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability: The End of History?
21. Personality development is the

a. mean level change of a trait over time.
b. cross-situational consistency of a trait.
c. rank-order change of a trait across individuals.
d. change in social status of an individual over time.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Development
22. Joaquim is 65 years old. Relative to his personality as a 20-year-old, John has likely in
openness to experience.
a. increased c. decreased
b. stayed pretty much the same d. increased and then decreased
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Cross-Sectional Studies
23. According to a recent large-scale cross-sectional study that measured personality stereotypes of people
in 26 different countries, adolescents around the world in today’s age tend to be
a. agreeable and considerate. c. conscientious and studious.
b. impulsive and rebellious. d. aggressive and angry.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Development: Cross-Sectional Studies
24. A current study is surveying people of different ages in order to understand whether individuals’
levels of subjective well-being change across the life span. What type of developmental study is this?
a. longitudinal c. informant
b. cross-sectional d. experimental
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Personality Development: Cross-Sectional Studies
25. According to a classic study, individuals who grew up during the Great Depression had different
attitudes regarding work and financial security than those who did not grow up during this time. These
findings provide evidence for
a. the maturity principle. c. rank-order stability of personality.
b. cohort effects. d. cumulative continuity principle.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Cohort Effects
26. Personality psychologists are currently debating whether young adults in the 21st century are more
than previous generations.
a. self-centered and narcissistic c. agreeable and happy
b. depressed and anxious d. hardworking and diligent
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Cohort Effects
27. What is a well-known issue with cross-sectional methodology?

a. the length of time it takes to collect data from each and every age group
b. the possibility that cohort differences determine differences between age groups
c. the difficulty in obtaining data from each and every age group
d. the possibility that one group is overrepresented in the study
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Cohort Effects
114 | CHAPTER 7
28. According to recent evidence, results from longitudinal studies and cross-sectional studies about
personality traits are
a. only slightly different. c. not comparable.
b. drastically different. d. only the same in certain contexts.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Longitudinal Studies
29. What is a key strength of longitudinal personality development studies?

a. They are easy and quick to complete.
b. They are not biased by the cohort effect.
c. They are typically high powered with many thousand participants.
d. They are not affected by attrition.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Longitudinal Studies
30. Based on personality development research conducted over the last 40 years, what can we conclude
regarding William James’s claim that personality is “set like plaster” by age 30?
a. He was more or less correct.
b. He was very wrong.
c. There is not yet enough evidence to know whether he was correct.
d. He was wrong in the sense that personality remains stable after age 50.
31. Ajay has just begun his first professional job. Ajay will MOST likely display an increase in which
trait?
b. openness to experience d. agreeableness
REF: Personality Development: Causes of Personality Development
32. According to psychologist Ravenna Helson, someone who stays “on time” in relation to their social
clock
a. receives social approval.
b. feels no different than someone who is “behind.”
c. receives social shaming.
d. feels as if they have not “lived.”
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: The Social Clock
33. Research suggests that women who follow reported being content and satisfied with life 20
years after graduation.
a. the Feminine Social Clock
b. the Masculine Social Clock
c. neither the Feminine Social Clock nor the Masculine Social Clock
d. either the Feminine Social Clock or Masculine Social Clock
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: The Social Clock
34. Maria is in her late twenties and is a manager at an advertising company. According to the text, Maria
is following the Clock.
a. Feminine Social c. Masculine Social
b. Neither Social d. Occupational Achievement
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: The Social Clock
35. According to Dan McAdams, the narrative theme of “agency” organizes the life story around
a. an event that seemed terrible at the time but had positive consequences in the end.
b. individuals who had a particular influence in the trajectory of one’s life.
c. episodes of challenging oneself and then accomplishing one’s goals.
d. a high point, a low point, and a turning point.
REF: Personality Development: The Development of Narrative Identity
36. As the author of one’s own autobiography, one forms a(n)

a. sense of purpose. c. intellectual identity.
b. well-rounded personality. d. narrative identity.
37. What is the correct order of narrative identity development over the life course, according to
Dan McAdams?
a. actor, agent, author c. agent, actor, author
b. author, agent, actor d. agent, author, actor
38. In the last month, Oscar learned to drive and began working at his first job. These new developments
are helping him to see himself as an
a. agent. c. author.
b. actor. d. artist.
116 | CHAPTER 7
39. Ashley has always wanted to be a great lawyer. After years of hard work, she has just graduated from
law school and in the next few weeks will begin working as a junior partner at a national law firm.
Ashley is beginning to see herself as an
a. agent. c. author.
b. artist. d. actor.
40. Paul used to abuse alcohol and at his lowest point, his father helped him become sober. Now Paul and
his father are closer than they ever have been. Paul’s story is an example of a(n) story.
a. agency c. redemptive
b. interpersonal d. communion
41. Young people with life-threatening illnesses appear to shift their goals from to .
a. exploration; emotional well-being c. work; family
b. generativity; meaningfulness d. intellectual achievement; creativity
REF: Personality Development: Goals Across the Life Span OBJ: 7.10
MSC: Remembering
42. A shift in one’s goals is related to a change in one’s

a. age. c. personality trait levels.
b. life narrative. d. social roles.
REF: Personality Development: Goals Across the Life Span OBJ: 7.10
MSC: Understanding
43. During old age, individuals tend to have goals that focus on
a. what is emotionally meaningful. c. what can earn them the most money.
b. staying as busy as possible. d. traveling around the world.
REF: Personality Development: Goals Across the Life Span OBJ: 7.2 | 7.10
MSC: Understanding
44. According to one survey, what trait did the greatest number of people report wanting to change?
a. agreeableness c. openness
b. extraversion d. neuroticism
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: The Desire for Change
45. What piece of evidence suggests that age is NOT a determining factor in the desire to change one’s
personality?
a. College students are more likely to want to change themselves than do individuals in
their sixties.
b. There is little to no correlation between participants’ age and their self-reported desire to
change.
c. Parents report that their children want to change more often than their children report
wanting to change.
d. There is a negative correlation between participants’ age and their self-reported desire to
change.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: The Desire for Change
OBJ: 7.4 | 7.8 MSC: Analyzing
46. What drug can lead to increases in openness to experience that lasts a year or longer?
a. Prozac c. psilocybin mushrooms
b. marijuana d. cocaine
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: Psychotherapy
47. Based on the findings from various studies investigating interventions aimed at changing delinquent
behavior, targeting children seems to be more effective.
a. older c. younger
b. low socioeconomic status d. high socioeconomic status
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Change: General Interventions
48. According to a recent study, what intervention can lead people to become more tolerant of stress and
less defensive in general?
a. attending a two-week acceptance training
b. practicing daily mindfulness activities
c. participating in one-on-one counseling sessions
d. writing self-affirmation essays
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: Targeted Interventions
49. All the following exercises are used to help develop self-control EXCEPT
a. meditating. c. relaxing.
b. self-affirmation. d. reconsidering temptations.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: Targeted Interventions
118 | CHAPTER 7
50. What intervention has been developed to (temporarily) change levels of narcissism?
a. Individuals were given psilocybin mushrooms.
b. Individuals were instructed to work for a charity for at least 10 hours per week.
c. Individuals were told to practice mindfulness meditation.
d. Individuals were told to practice empathy and taking perspective.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Change: Targeted Interventions
51. According to a new theoretical model for personality change, if individuals change , the trait
change will follow.
a. their mind-set c. the relevant behaviors
b. the relevant environmental factors d. their life goals
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personality Change: Targeted Interventions
52. Starting a job, entering college, and beginning a serious relationship are all associated with increases
in
a. openness to experience. c. extraversion.
b. neuroticism. d. conscientiousness.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Change: Behaviors and Life Experiences OBJ: 7.2
MSC: Remembering
53. According to a study investigating personality change among young Germans, those who completed
community service increased in at a higher rate than those who entered into the military.
a. agreeableness c. extraversion
b. conscientiousness d. emotional stability
ANS: A DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
54. What event is likely to contribute to personality changes well into adulthood?
a. entering college
b. beginning a serious relationship
c. caring for a spouse with a terminal illness
d. going through the natural aging process
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
55. Johnny just lost his job. What change in personality is he likely to undergo?
a. an increase in conscientiousness c. an increase in emotional stability
b. a decrease in agreeableness d. a decrease in extraversion
MSC: Applying
56. Joe just got back from a month-long trip to Africa. According to the text, what are the likely long-term
effects of his trip?
a. an increase in his self-confidence and social skills
b. a decrease in verbal fluency
c. an increased appreciation for his hometown and family
d. a decreased sense of self
MSC: Applying
57. According to a study investigating the relationship between stress and important life events (Seery et
al., 2013), a amount of stress throughout one’s life leads to a(n) in cardiovascular
reactivity (or resiliency).
a. low; decrease c. moderate; increase
b. high; decrease d. moderate; decrease
MSC: Understanding
58. According to the text, narcissists seem to the positive consequences of changing
themselves.
a. overestimate c. fully understand
b. underestimate d. reject
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Change: Overcoming Obstacles to Change OBJ: 7.4
MSC: Understanding
59. Sandy is afraid that her lack of diligence and timeliness will cause her to get fired from her job.
According to the text, what is the first thing she must do to increase her level of conscientiousness?
a. recognize her specific problem areas and want to change
b. talk to her boss to get his perspective
c. change herself immediately without much thought
d. recognize that particular aspects of her job are likely causing her to be late and lazy
MSC: Applying
120 | CHAPTER 7
60. According to the theoretical model cited in the text, what is the correct order of steps necessary to
accomplish self-regulated personality trait change?
a. changing one’s behavior, allowing the behaviors to become habitual, wanting to change,
believing change is possible
b. believing change is possible, wanting to change, asking for outside help, changing one’s
behavior
c. changing one’s behavior, asking for outside help, believing change is possible, wanting
to change
d. wanting to change, believing change is possible, self-regulating behavioral change,
behavior change becoming habitual
MSC: Understanding
61. People tend to blame negative experiences on rather than recognizing the role of .
a. their own personalities; external factors
b. luck; their own personalities
c. external factors; their own personalities
d. external factors; luck
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
62. The idea that people seek to develop a stable sense of who they are and then strive to act consistently
with this self-view is consistent with the principle.
a. identity development c. corresponsive
b. role continuity d. plasticity
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
63. All of the following are among Roberts and colleagues’ principles of personality development
EXCEPT the principle.
a. cumulative continuity c. role continuity
b. maturity d. rank-order reversal
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
64. In high school Jane was made fun of for being a geek. As an adult, she is a molecular biologist who
now proudly wears the “geek” badge of honor. Jane’s experience is an example of which of the
principles of personality development?
a. plasticity principle c. identity development principle
b. role continuity principle d. maturity principle
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
65. According to the text, which of the following is true regarding the principles of personality
development proposed by Roberts, Wood, and Caspi (2008)?
a. The principles argue against the previous claim that personality changes across the life
span.
b. The principles serve as the bases of personality development and as a guide for future
research.
c. The principles direct a therapist’s approach to effortful personal change.
d. The principles argue against the previous claim that personality remains stable across the
life span.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
66. With accumulated evidence from personality and developmental psychology we can conclude that
personality and over the life course.
a. is positive; negative c. is subjective; objective
b. changes; is stable d. is self-reported; peer-reported
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Is Personality Change Good or Bad?
67. The best sort of personality change

a. is quick and focused.
b. occurs in childhood but not in adulthood.
c. is slow and steady.
d. is a constant effortful struggle throughout the life span.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Is Personality Change Good or Bad?
68. What is a reasonable argument for the idea that personality change is maladaptive?
a. Having a disorganized, unsteady personality can cause others to find it difficult to make
sense of or relate to that person.
b. Personality stability causes others to consider that person as “too perfect.”
c. Someone who changes their personality frequently is perceived as unattractive and
therefore may not acquire many relationship partners.
d. Personality instability causes borderline personality disorder.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Is Personality Change Good or Bad?
69. Which of the following life events has NOT been identified as contributing to significant changes in
one’s personality over one’s life span?
a. birth order c. attending college
b. early experience d. retirement
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Stability: Causes of Stability
122 | CHAPTER 7
70. Over the last 10 years, Angelica has become more agreeable, conscientious, and emotionally stable.
What principle best describes Angelica’s development?
a. cumulative continuity c. plasticity
b. maturity d. social investment
71. Which of the following is NOT a method for changing personality stated in the text?
a. psychotherapy c. life experiences
b. intervention programs d. self-monitoring
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Change
72. Longitudinal studies survey , whereas cross-sectional studies survey .

a. the same people over time; people at different ages
b. older participants; younger participants
c. people at different ages; the sample people over time
d. younger participants; older participants
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development
73. Altaf is interested in conducting a study that assesses narcissism across the life course, but he has
limited time and money to do so. What type of study should Altaf use?
a. longitudinal c. cross-sectional
b. typological d. experimental
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development: Cross-Sectional Studies
74. change implies that personality changes over the life course, whereas consistency
implies that it stays relatively stable.
a. Rank-order; mean-level c. Longitudinal; cross-sectional
b. Mean-level; rank-order d. Cross-sectional; longitudinal
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Stability, Development, and Change
75. According to a study described in the text (Baranski, 2018), college students in more than
60 countries reported current efforts to change their personalities.
a. a little less than half of c. almost no
b. exactly 50 percent d. more than half of
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: The Desire for Change
76. Zara reported that she wants to be more extraverted. According to recent research on personality
change and desire, Zara is likely
a. high in extraversion. c. low in extraversion.
b. high in emotional stability. d. low in emotional stability.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: The Desire for Change
77. According to a recent review of 207 studies, which of the following is MOST associated with
increased levels of extraversion and emotional stability?
a. participating in psychotherapy
b. participating in a workplace productivity intervention
c. desiring to increase agreeableness
d. attending the opera
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Change: Psychotherapy
78. The field of life-span development focuses on as a basis for personality change.
a. psychotherapy c. volitional personality change
b. shifts in social roles d. the social clock
REF: Personality Development: Causes of Personality Development
MATCHING
Match each definition with its associated principle of personality development.

a. Taking on roles or images such as being a “jock” can lead personality to be consistent
over time.
b. People become better equipped to deal with the demands of life as they acquire
experience and skills.
c. People seek to develop a stable sense of who they are and then strive to act consistently
with this self-view.
d. Personality can change at any time (but such change may not be easy).
e. Personality traits increase in rank-order consistency as people get older.
f. Person-environment transactions can cause personality traits to remain consistent or even
magnify over time.
g. Changing social roles at different stages of life, such as becoming a spouse, parent, or
boss, can cause personality to change.
1. Identity development principle
2. Plasticity principle
3. Maturity principle
4. Cumulative continuity principle
5. Social investment principle
6. Corresponsive principle
7. Role continuity principle
1. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change

124 | CHAPTER 7
2. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change

3. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
4. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
5. ANS: G DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
6. ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
7. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Principles of Personality Continuity and Change
SHORT ANSWER
1. Identify and discuss the ways in which individuals interact with their environment. Explain the
difference between reactive and evocative person-environment interaction.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult
2. Identify and describe the ways in which personality development is studied throughout psychology.
What are the strengths and drawbacks of the longitudinal and cross-sectional approaches?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Personality Development OBJ: 7.7

MSC: Analyzing
3. How capable are we of changing ourselves? Are we passive or active in the process? Identify
interventions and techniques used to aid in effortful personal change.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Change: The Desire for Change

4. What is the relationship between lifetime experiences, physical health, and personality change? In
other words, how do major life events affect an individual’s health or personality trait change and vice
versa?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Change: Behaviors and Life Experiences

5. Laura has just graduated from college. She is highly motivated and very extraverted. How and why
will she remain the same? How and why might her personality change? Identify and discuss the social,
environmental, and physical factors that will affect her personality development.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Personality Change: Behaviors and Life Experiences

CHAPTER 8 The Anatomy and Physiology of Personality
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 8.7. Recall the specific scientific outcomes for each
brain activity measurement and assessment proce-
8.1. Understand how psychologists and biologists tried to dure (including psychosurgeries) in terms of the
explain the mind-body problem over the years. general benefits of each and what we learn from
their results.
8.2. Define and relate the parts of the brain to their
respective Big Five personality trait and emotional or 8.8. Recall the disadvantages, drawbacks, and critiques of
behavioral outcome. each of the brain activity measurement and assess-
ment procedures (including psychosurgeries).
8.3. Define and relate neural chemicals (i.e., neurotrans-
mitters and hormones) to their respective Big Five 8.9. Link parts of the brain with certain neurotransmitters
personality trait and emotional or behavioral outcome. and hormones.
8.4. Recall the different parts of the neural pathways and 8.10. Understand the importance of studying the brain in
how the brain’s chemical impulses (neurotransmitters terms of its systems.
and hormones) are directed throughout the body.
8.11. Apply behavioral outcomes of brain damage to
8.5. Understand the bidirectional cause-effect relationship explain the biological basis for personality and
between the brain, its neural chemicals, and behavior. emotion.
8.6. Obtain a complete understanding of the various
ways to measure and assess brain activity and func-
tion in terms of what they do and why/how they
were developed.
126
The Anatomy and Physiology of Personality | 127
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the best description for the mind-body problem?

a. the degree to which all aspects of human nature are understood in terms of our physical
brains and bodies
b. the dispute among psychologists as to whether human nature is a product of biological or
environmental influences
c. the philosophical argument for the physical basis of the mind
d. the degree to which neurotransmitters or hormones affect our personality and behavior
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Anatomy of Personality
2. The MOST important thing scientists gain by studying animal models for the biological basis of
personality is
a. learning how to modify our behavior to lower our risk of animal attack.
b. an understanding of our own anatomy by studying animals with similar brain structures
as our own.
c. learning how to better communicate with them via sign language.
d. taming animals to adjust in the wild.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: The Anatomy of Personality
3. Which brain region secretes several hormones and is located just above the roof of the mouth?
a. cingulate c. brain stem
b. hypothalamus d. hippocampus
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality
4. What brain region is responsible for both an individual’s ability to plan ahead, anticipate
consequences, and consistently do the morally right thing?
a. basal ganglia c. frontal lobes
b. amygdala d. hippocampus
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality
5. Which brain structure is responsible for an individual’s capacity to remember large amounts of
information in preparation for an exam?
a. basal ganglia c. thalamus
b. hypothalamus d. hippocampus
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality
128 | CHAPTER 8
6. Nerve fibers that organize and regulate transmissions between nerves are called
a. afferent nerves. c. interneurons.
b. efferent nerves. d. extraneurons.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Anatomy of Personality
7. Nerves that send messages from the body to the brain are called , whereas nerves that carry
messages from the brain to the body are called .
a. afferent nerves; efferent nerves c. interneurons; extraneurons
b. efferent nerves; afferent nerves d. extraneurons; interneurons
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality
8. The projections from nerves that receive stimulation are called and pass this
message on to the next nerve cell.
a. axons; synapses c. afferents; axons
b. dendrites; axons d. efferents; synapses
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality
9. What part of the human brain seems to be the MOST distinct from the brains of nonhuman animals?
a. hypothalamus c. hippocampus
b. amygdala d. neocortex
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Anatomy of Personality
10. What term refers to brain regions that have been injured, removed, or destroyed?
a. lesions c. tomographs
b. afferent areas d. efferent areas
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: Research Methods for Studying the Brain: Brain Damage
11. What technique can be used to temporarily “knock out” regions of the brain without having to create
lasting lesions?
a. electroencephalography c. transcranial magnetic stimulation
b. magnetoencephalography d. encephalographic stimulation
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: Research Methods for Studying the Brain: Brain Stimulation
12. As surgeons stimulated a particular part of her brain, Lisa experienced symptoms of depression.
According to the text, surgeons are MOST likely stimulating the central region of the left
a. frontal cortex. c. amygdala.
b. substantia nigra. d. ascending reticular activating system.
13. What neurotransmitter is NOT typically associated with the substantia nigra?
a. dopamine c. serotonin
b. norepinephrine d. oxytocin
14. is a phenomenon that explains the tendency for the function of one part of the brain to
depend on the activity of another.
a. Neural context c. Blood oxygen level dependent (BOLD)
b. Inhibitory activity d. Perfusion imaging (PI)
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: Research Methods for Studying the Brain: Brain Activity and
Imaging OBJ: 8.10 MSC: Understanding
15. What term refers to images of very thin slices of the brain?
a. X-rays c. magnetic images
b. tomographs d. sonographs
ANS: B DIF: Easy
Imaging OBJ: 8.6 MSC: Remembering
16. What is the oldest brain-imaging technique?

a. electroencephalography (EEG)
b. magnetoencephalography (MEG)
c. positron emission tomography (PET)
d. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
130 | CHAPTER 8
17. The signal shows differences in brain activity levels in one condition versus another
condition in an fMRI experiment.
a. electroencephalographic (EEG)
b. transcranial differential (TD)
c. blood oxygen level dependent (BOLD)
d. perfusion imaging (PI)
18. Which of the following brain imaging techniques would be MOST useful to a researcher interested in
brain blood flow activity associated with fear after viewing pictures of spiders?
a. positron emission tomography (PET)
b. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
c. computed tomography (CT)
d. electroencephalography (EEG)
Imaging OBJ: 8.7 MSC: Applying
19. What is NOT a challenge associated with the advancement of neural imaging technology?
a. The signal is sensitive to outside interference.
b. It is extremely expensive to acquire and operate.
c. There is not much evidence supporting its use to assess brain activity.
d. It requires expert attention in its operation and statistical analysis.
Imaging OBJ: 8.8 MSC: Analyzing
20. Recent feedback regarding fMRI research suggests that results from such studies might be misleading
and exaggerated due to
a. fraudulent data collection practices. c. unreliable machine hardware.
b. questionable analytic techniques. d. uncooperative subject participation.
21. Which of these brain structures is thought to play a role in judging whether stimuli offer threats or
rewards?
a. amygdala c. ventromedial cortex
b. hippocampus d. neocortex
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Amygdala
22. In 1966, Charles Whitman killed his wife, his mother, and 14 more people at the University of Texas
before police killed him. An autopsy revealed that a tumor affecting Whitman’s was likely
the cause for the motivation behind his killing spree.
a. frontal lobe c. ventromedial cortex
b. amygdala d. cerebellum
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Amygdala
23. What piece of evidence best suggests that the frontal lobes are associated with the experience of
emotion?
a. The left frontal lobe seems to be more active when a person is approaching something
pleasant.
b. Dopamine has been linked to novelty-seeking behavior.
c. Stimulating the hippocampus causes individuals to remember past events.
d. Serotonin has been shown to inhibit feelings and impulses.
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Frontal Lobes and the Neocortex: The Frontal Lobes and
Emotion OBJ: 8.2 MSC: Understanding
24. The case of railroad worker Phineas Gage illustrates that

a. brain injuries affect physical but not psychological functioning.
b. injuries to the brain can affect personality and behavior.
c. the amygdala has important effects on fear and anger.
d. the right hemisphere is the province of image-oriented, intuitive thinking.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Frontal Lobes and the Neocortex: The Case of Phineas Gage
25. Early reports about personality and emotional changes in Phineas Gage after his accident likely
contributed to
a. an increased appreciation for substantia nigra.
b. an increased appreciation for the difficulties with neurosurgeries.
c. neurosurgeons performing lobotomies to control maladaptive behavior.
d. a better understanding of how oxytocin functions in the brain.
26. What part of Phineas Gage’s brain was damaged in his accident?
a. hippocampus c. cerebellum
b. brain stem d. frontal lobes
ANS: D DIF: Easy
132 | CHAPTER 8
27. If damaged, which of the following areas of the brain would result in a flattening out of emotional
responses?
a. frontal lobe c. amygdala
b. corpus collosum d. nucleus accumbens
28. Before brain surgery, Elliott was a good father and held a responsible job. After removal of portions
of his frontal lobe, what prediction about Elliott’s personality is likely to come true?
a. He will experience visual hallucinations.
b. He will experience auditory hallucinations.
c. His emotional reactions and decision-making abilities will be impaired.
d. He will be even more driven and focused on his work.
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Frontal Lobes and the Neocortex: The Case of Elliot
29. According to Damasio’s somatic marker hypothesis, damage to the right frontal lobes impairs a
person’s , which then impairs his or her .
a. emotional reactions to events and thoughts; ability to make decisions about what is and is
not important
b. primary visual and auditory cortexes; ability to distinguish real sensory stimulation from
hallucinations
c. reptilian brain; ability to perform creative activities as opposed to simple responses and
fixed patterns of behavior
d. ability to experience pain; fear of consequences
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Frontal Lobes and the Neocortex: The Case of Elliot
30. Capgras syndrome arises from damage to the

a. amygdala. c. right frontal lobe.
b. brain stem. d. left frontal lobe.
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Frontal Lobes and the Neocortex: Cognition and Emotion
31. Someone inflicted with Capgras syndrome would likely

a. spontaneously produce curse words.
b. have wild emotional swings in response to loved ones.
c. be unable to experience fear.
d. fail to feel an emotional response to loved ones.
32. What brain region connects the two halves of the brain?
a. brain stem c. corpus callosum
b. frontal lobes d. hippocampus
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Anterior Cingulate OBJ: 8.2
MSC: Remembering
33. Which brain region is important for detecting a discrepancy between the actual world and
expectations about the world?
a. hippocampus c. anterior cingulate
b. amygdala d. right frontal lobe
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Anterior Cingulate OBJ: 8.2
MSC: Remembering
34. Which of the following would NOT be a pronounced symptom in a patient who suffers frontal lobe
damage?
a. impaired language abilities c. flattened emotional responses
b. problems with decision making d. self-control difficulties
REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Lessons of Psychosurgery
35. Evidence from brain imaging research and brain damage case studies suggests that the
is/are the location of cognitive control, serving to anticipate and plan the future and help to regulate
emotions in response to it.
a. frontal lobes c. brain stem
b. amygdala d. hippocampus
ANS: A DIF: Easy
36. One reason why the results of psychosurgeries are often erratic is that
a. different brain structures have different functional roles in different people.
b. brain systems might be more important for functioning than discrete areas.
c. tools designed to lesion the brain are not very sophisticated.
d. the infections that often accompany these surgeries further damage the brain.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality: Brain Systems
37. Which of the following was NOT one of Galen’s bodily humors that influenced one’s personality?
a. blood c. phlegm
b. black bile d. marrow
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
134 | CHAPTER 8
38. Galen suggested that there were basic types of personality, each linked to an excessive
amount of a different .
a. five; hormone c. four; bodily humor
b. three; neurotransmitter d. two; inhibitory neural mechanism
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
39. According to Galen, an excess of yellow bile would cause a person to MOST likely
a. isolate themselves from others. c. be friendly and cheerful at a party.
b. be thoughtlessly rude and cold. d. hold a grudge after an argument.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
40. Chemicals that facilitate communication between neurons are called

a. synapses. c. neurotransmitters.
b. hormones. d. inhibitory communicators.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
41. What term describes the junction between two neurons?

a. neurotransmitter c. axon
b. synapse d. node
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
42. According to the text, the chemicals that make up neurotransmitters are also important in determining
the neurotransmitters’ specific behavioral expression. An example of this is
a. monoamine oxidase’s breakdown of neurotransmitters such as dopamine and serotonin.
b. endorphin inhibition due to levels of certain other hormones.
c. the length of the neurotransmitter’s axon determining the strength of its expression.
d. the blood oxygen level dependent (BOLD) affecting the speed of any neural impulse.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
43. According to research by modern health psychologists, the choleric, or chronically hostile, person
seems to be at extra risk for
a. a heart attack. c. diabetes.
b. cancer. d. Alzheimer’s disease.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
44. The term refers to the body’s natural painkillers, which are chemicals that act in an
fashion.
a. monoamine oxidase; excitatory c. endorphins; inhibitory
b. dopamine; inhibitory d. serotonin; excitatory
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
45. The neurotransmitter dopamine is associated with systems that

a. respond to reward. c. block the effects of opiates.
b. generate acute feelings of anxiety. d. generate vertigo.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Neurotransmitters: Dopamine
46. According the text, which neurotransmitter is the foundation of plasticity?

a. oxytocin c. serotonin
b. monoamine oxidase d. dopamine
ANS: D DIF: Easy
47. What brain structure in conjunction with dopamine works to form the Go system in Gray’s model?
a. ascending reticular activating system c. nucleus accumbens
b. substantia nigra d. amygdala
48. According to Jeffrey Gray’s theory, dopamine is associated with the system, which he
argues produces and reinforces the motivation to seek .
a. behavioral activation; rewards
b. ascending reticular activating; interpersonal contact
c. behavioral activation; interpersonal contact
d. ascending reticular activating; rewards
49. What is the technical name for drugs like Prozac?

a. selective serotonin depletion inhibitors
b. selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c. serotonin selection and reuptake facilitators
d. serotonin reuptake facilitators
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Neurotransmitters: Serotonin
136 | CHAPTER 8
50. According to the text, which neurotransmitter is the foundation of stability?

a. oxytocin c. serotonin
b. monoamine oxidase d. dopamine
ANS: C DIF: Easy
51. Wayne tends to suffer from chronic pessimism, is hypersensitive to rejection, worries obsessively, and
is prone to sudden bursts of irrational anger. He is exhibiting the symptoms of
a. high norepinephrine levels. c. hormonal imbalance.
b. serotonin depletion. d. low dopamine levels.
52. The chemicals that are released from the hypothalamus, the gonads, and the adrenal cortex are called
, whereas the chemicals released by bioelectrical impulses throughout the brain are called
.
a. synapses; hormones c. neurotransmitters; synapses
b. hormones; neurotransmitters d. inhibitory communicators; dendrites
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones
53. Which hormone is associated with the fight-or-flight response?

a. epinephrine c. monoamine oxidase
b. serotonin d. dopamine
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones: Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
54. According to S. E. Taylor, during the prehistoric era of human development, women were most likely
to calm everyone down and band people together when faced with a threat. What hormone did Taylor
believe is associated with this response?
a. epinephrine c. oxytocin
b. serotonin d. dopamine
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones: Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
55. levels of testosterone have been observed in dominant males competing with other males
for the attention of women, and levels of testosterone have been observed for men entering
fatherhood.
a. Low; high c. Low; low
b. High; high d. High; low
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones: Testosterone
56. What is the best description of the role that testosterone plays in personality?
a. It acts as a direct cause of frustration.
b. It acts as an energizing factor that accentuates existing behavioral tendencies.
c. It acts as a dampening factor that reduces existing behavioral tendencies.
d. It seems to directly influence levels of agreeableness in men but not in women.
57. Shortly after joining the cross-country team, Patrick’s friends have noticed that he is irrationally
aggressive and erratic. What is a reasonable conclusion Patrick’s friends can draw about his behavior?
a. He has started taking an SSRI to help with his anxiety.
b. He’s undergoing catharsis therapy.
c. He is going through puberty.
d. He has started using anabolic steroids.
58. In one study, male U.S. military veterans were asked about their past behaviors, and those with higher
testosterone levels more often reported having assaulted others. This is evidence for testosterone’s
association with
a. erratic and aggressive tendencies. c. depression.
b. having very many sexual partners. d. delusions.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
59. Thomas is known to be very social and dominant at parties. He most likely has high levels of which
hormone?
a. dopamine c. oxytocin
b. testosterone d. serotonin
60. Brad has had substantially more sex partners and has demonstrated more excessive behavior than
Todd. We can safely assume that Brad has relative to Todd.
a. failure in dopamine reuptake c. high testosterone levels
b. synaptic decay d. an estrogen imbalance
138 | CHAPTER 8
61. One problem researchers experience when attempting to directly link testosterone to aggression and
sexuality is that
a. the relationships have never been studied in women.
b. testosterone seems to affect sexual desire in men but not in women.
c. it is difficult to determine the causal direction because aggression and sex can affect
testosterone levels.
d. both sex and especially aggression are difficult to study in the lab.
62. According to the text, which one of the following is the MOST appropriate way to interpret a strong
relationship between levels of testosterone and sociability and aggression?
a. High levels of testosterone cause people to be more social and aggressive.
b. Individuals who are social and aggressive put themselves in situations that will always
increase their testosterone levels.
c. There is evidence behind increases in testosterone being both cause and effect for
increases in sociability and aggression, and so we cannot make a claim to know the
directionality of this relationship.
d. There is not a strong enough relationship between testosterone and sociability and
aggression to merit its interpretation.
63. Low levels of cortisol are associated with which psychological disorder?
a. Type A personality c. post-traumatic stress syndrome
b. social phobia d. antisocial personality disorder
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones: Cortisol OBJ: 8.3
MSC: Remembering
64. High levels of cortisol appear to be associated with , and low levels of cortisol appear to be
associated with .
a. stress, anxiety, and depression; impulsivity and sensation seeking
b. extraversion; introversion
c. extraversion; neuroticism
d. the left frontal lobe; the right frontal lobe
MSC: Understanding
65. Gordon is walking down his street, sees an angry dog running toward him, and begins to run in the
opposite direction. In addition to an increase in heart rate and blood pressure, he would also display an
increase in which glucocorticoid hormone?
a. serotonin c. progesterone
b. estrogen d. cortisol
MSC: Applying
66. Someone with excess cortisol production might be at risk for

a. heart disease. c. aggression.
b. sexual dysfunction. d. an increase in brain size.
MSC: Remembering
67. We would expect a newlywed couple to have high levels of which hormone?
a. norepinephrine c. cortisol
b. serotonin d. oxytocin
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones: Oxytocin OBJ: 8.3
MSC: Understanding
68. According to one theory proposed by Australian psychologists, oxytocin is more than just a “love”
hormone because it seems to
a. facilitate approach behavior.
b. accentuate all behavioral tendencies.
c. facilitate sex as well as bonding.
d. place individuals at risk for social phobias.
MSC: Understanding
69. Which piece of evidence is LEAST relevant to Anne Campbell’s theory concerning the function of
oxytocin?
a. Oxytocin increases during childbirth.
b. Oxytocin is related to fight-or-flight behaviors.
c. Oxytocin is related to sexual activity and orgasm.
d. Oxytocin is related to breast feeding.
MSC: Applying
140 | CHAPTER 8
70. According to the textbook, which of the following is the best description of the causal link between
biological processes and social behavior?
a. Biological processes cause social behavior but not vice versa.
b. Social behavior causes biological processes but not vice versa.
c. Biological processes and social behavior are both causes and effects of each other.
d. There is no evidence of a causal link between biological processes and social behavior.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Biology: Cause and Effect
71. Which approach is a relatively unobtrusive method for stimulating brain function that may be helpful
for treating brain disorders such as migraine headaches, hallucinations, and depression?
a. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)
b. electrode stimulation
c. psychosurgery
d. electroencephalography (EEG)
72. Electroencephalographies (EEGs) are good at determining but not .

a. where in the brain activity is concentrated; when the brain is active
b. links between personality and behavior; where the brain is damaged
c. when the brain is active; where in the brain activity is concentrated
d. where the brain is damaged; links between personality and behavior
73. According to the text, what is one cause of many of the questionable research practices and
controversies associated with fMRI research?
a. the lack of growth in fMRI research
b. the funding sources for fMRI research
c. the way fMRI research is taught to undergraduates
d. the rapid growth in fMRI research
Imaging OBJ: 8.8 MSC: Understanding
74. Maren, a world-renowned chef, is fascinated by the ways different flavors of certain foods combine to
change and enhance the taste of a dish. What statement best describes the link between Maren’s
fascination for flavor and her success as a chef?
a. Emotions motivate thinking and guide strategic decision making.
b. People high in conscientiousness also tend to be creative.
c. Hormones spread throughout the body in response to stress.
d. Biological processes affect personality and social behavior.
75. The text describes a study that found men with wider, shorter faces, who were influenced by
androgens during development, were more violent and antisocial. New research has discovered that
these findings
a. are robust and replicable.
b. disappear when tested with representative samples.
c. only replicate with men in their sixties.
d. were made up by a fraudulent researcher.
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones: Now You See It, Now You Don’t
76. According to the text, in such a rapidly developing area of research, the relationship between biology
and personality should be regarded as
a. misleading and baseless. c. robust and replicable.
b. interesting but tentative. d. uninteresting but robust.
REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Hormones: Now You See It, Now You Don’t
77. Which of the following traits are associated with the metatrait of stability?
a. agreeableness and conscientiousness
b. extraversion and openness
c. emotional stability and extraversion
d. conscientiousness and openness
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Big Five and the Brain
78. Which trait is associated with the neurotransmitter serotonin and the brain structure middle frontal
gyrus?
a. extraversion c. emotional stability
b. openness d. conscientiousness
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Big Five and the Brain
79. Lee tends to have high levels of endorphins. On what personality trait does he likely rate high?
a. agreeableness c. extraversion
b. emotional stability d. openness
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Big Five and the Brain
142 | CHAPTER 8
80. Which of the following is an example of the cause-and-effect nature of the relationship between
biology and behavior?
a. Children with a large left frontal lobe and high levels of serotonin grow up to be angry
adults.
b. Winning a game or exercising causes one’s testosterone level to increase.
c. Drugs and psychotherapy can change brain activity.
d. There is no reliable relationship between biology and personality.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Biology: Cause and Effect
MATCHING
Match the neurotransmitter or hormone that is most closely associated with each disease or
syndrome. (Note: options can be used more than once.)
a. Serotonin
b. Cortisol
c. Dopamine
d. Endorphins
e. Adrenalin
1. Parkinson’s disease
2. Acute anxiety disorder
3. Heart disease
4. Chronic pain
5. Depression
1. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality

2. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
3. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
4. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
5. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality
Match the hormone or brain structure with the most closely associated Big Five personality trait.
a. Endorphins
b. Cortisol
c. Middle frontal gyrus
d. Left prefrontal cortex
e. Serotonin
f. Oxytocin
6. Extraversion
7. Conscientiousness
8. Openness
9. Neuroticism
10. Agreeableness

Emotion OBJ: 8.2 | 8.3 MSC: Understanding
SHORT ANSWER
1. Explain why it is so difficult to study links between personality and the brain. What methods have
been proposed, and what are the difficulties associated with each of these methods?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Anatomy of Personality: Research Methods for Studying the Brain
2. Describe the evolution of psychosurgery. What important principles about the brain are illustrated by
the limited successes of psychosurgeries?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Lessons of Psychosurgery

3. Describe the functions of neurotransmitters. How do they seem to work in the body? Pick two
neurotransmitters and describe why each is relevant to understanding personality.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Biochemistry of Personality: Neurotransmitters

144 | CHAPTER 8
4. DeYoung has identified two metatraits of personality (stability and plasticity) and linked those
domains to the neurotransmitters serotonin and dopamine. Describe these metatraits and explain their
links with biology. How might this approach to understanding the biology of personality help to
organize this area of study? What are some of the advantages of this approach? What are some
limitations of this model?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Big Five and the Brain OBJ: 8.3
MSC: Analyzing
5. How did researchers first learn about the functions of the frontal lobes? What are those functions?
Describe the consequences of severe frontal lobe damage. What does this tell us about personality?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Anatomy of Personality: The Frontal Lobes and the Neocortex
OBJ: 8.4 | 8.9 | 8.11 MSC: Analyzing
Genetics and Evolution:
CHAPTER 9
The Inheritance of Personality
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 9.9. Know the theoretical and historical basis for
evolutionary psychological theory and how it adds
9.1. Define and calculate the heritability coefficient. to our understanding of people beyond biological
sciences.
9.2. Understand what and how twin studies have told us
about the heritability of personality in terms of both 9.10. Understand how evolutionary processes maintain
genetic and environmental influences. individual differences.
9.3. Know what the heritability coefficient tells us about 9.11. Be able to explain behavioral trends as evolved psy-
the genetic quality of certain individual differences. chological mechanisms.
9.4. Identify the molecular basis of personality and spe- 9.12. Define sociometer and inclusive fitness.
cific behavioral tendencies.
9.13. Explain sex differences from an evolutionary psy-
9.5. Understand how an individual’s genes interact with chology perspective.
the environment.
9.14. Explain sex differences from a social theory
9.6. Distinguish between biology, evolutionary psychol- perspective.
ogy, and behavior genetics.
9.15. Understand the limitations of behavioral genetics.
9.7. Know the dark side of behavioral genetics.
9.16. Understand the current methods in the field of
9.8. Identify the five stress tests (and other criticisms) and behavioral genetics and evolutionary psychology.
their defenses.
145
146 | CHAPTER 9
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The field of study that attempts to explain how individual differences in behavior (i.e., personality
traits) are shared by biological relatives is called
a. evolutionary biology. c. heritability science.
b. behavioral genetics. d. behavioral Darwinism.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Inheritance of Personality
2. Behavioral genetics, like trait psychology, focuses on aspects of personality that , whereas
evolutionary psychology more typically focuses on aspects of personality that .
a. all humans share; differ from one individual to another
b. vary among groups of individuals; vary among individuals
c. differ from one individual to another; all humans share
d. are species specific; are individual specific
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Inheritance of Personality
3. A scientist who studies how patterns of behavior characteristic of the entire human species originated
because of the survival value they had for our ancestors is called a(n)
a. evolutionary psychologist. c. heritability scientist.
b. behavioral geneticist. d. behavioral Darwinist.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Inheritance of Personality
4. According to the text, biology will NEVER be able to explain

a. which brain structures are associated with depression.
b. how people act in their daily social environments.
c. how likely it is for schizophrenia to be passed down from mother to child.
d. the influence increased serotonin has on changes in behavior.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Behavioral Genetics
5. The notion that humans could be improved through selective breeding is called
a. eugenics. c. behavioral Darwinism.
b. cloning. d. heritability.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Behavioral Genetics
Genetics and Evolution: The Inheritance of Personality | 147
6. The MOST controversial thing that has arisen from the study of behavioral genetics is that it has led
to
a. ideas such as eugenics and cloning.
b. the chance that the public will think criminality is unchangeable.
c. heated debates between behavioral geneticists and evolutionary psychologists.
d. the chance that the public will think twins are the same in every way.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics
7. Which of the following explanations is a correct statement regarding the shared genetic material
between a mother and her child?
a. A mother only shares 25 percent of her genetic material with her child.
b. The shared genetic material between mother and child is higher for monozygotic twins
relative to dizygotic twins.
c. A mother shares 50 percent of her genetic material with her child.
d. A mother shares 50 percent of the genetic material that varies across individuals.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Tells You
8. What is the correct formula for calculating heritability?

a. 2 (rMZ  rDZ) c. 2  (rMZ  rDZ)
b. 2  (rMZ  rDZ) d. 2 (rDZ  rMZ)
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
9. According to studies of non-twin relatives, the average heritability coefficient for most traits is about
a. .20. c. .60.
b. .40. d. .80.
10. Jacob and Ashley have the same father but have different mothers. About how much genetic material
do they share?
a. 0 c. .25
b. .125 d. .50
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
11. If the correlation between the shyness of a sample of dizygotic twin pairs is .25 and the correlation
between the shyness of a sample of monozygotic twin pairs is .50, then the heritability coefficient for
shyness is
a. .125. c. .500.
b. .250. d. 2.00.
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
148 | CHAPTER 9
12. The presence of schizophrenia was measured in both monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) twins.
The correlation between the MZ twins was .50 and the correlation between the DZ twins was .30.
What is the heritability coefficient for schizophrenia?
a. .80 c. .40
b. .20 d. .65
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
13. What might explain the difference in heritability coefficients between twin and non-twin studies?
a. increased measurement error in non-twin studies
b. the presence of interactive genetic effects
c. the greater statistical power of twin studies
d. the rarity of non-twin studies
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
14. Monozygotic (MZ) twins share percent of the genes that vary across individuals, and
dizygotic (DZ) twins share, on average, percent of the genes that vary across individuals.
a. 50; 25 c. 50; 100
b. 90; 10 d. 100; 50
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
15. The refers to the underlying genetic structure that leads to the observable .
a. phenotype; genogram c. phenotype; genotype
b. genotype; phenotype d. genetic map; genetic architecture
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
16. According to estimates based on twin studies, the average heritability coefficient of many traits of
personality is about when using self-reports of personality.
a. .20 c. .80
b. .40 d. 1.0
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
OBJ: 9.1 | 9.2 MSC: Remembering
17. If a trait is influenced by genes, then it ought to be more highly correlated across pairs of
than across pairs of .
a. genetic siblings; fraternal twins c. identical twins; fraternal twins
b. fraternal twins; identical twins d. adoptive siblings; genetic siblings
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability
18. When personality psychologists measure trait differences in extraversion, what kinds of direct
observations are they making?
a. phenotypic c. allelic
b. genotypic d. genome-wide
19. Heritability estimates based on twin studies are likely , while heritability estimates based on
broader family relationships are likely .
a. overestimated; underestimated c. more accurate; less accurate
b. underestimated; overestimate d. less accurate; more accurate
20. Which of the following attributes seems to have the lowest heritability coefficient?
a. phobias c. extraversion
b. alcoholism d. depression
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Tells You
21. Which of the following is NOT indicated by a heritability statistic?

a. whether genetic factors play some role in shaping individual differences
b. whether the etiology of certain conditions such as mental retardation is environmental
c. whether genes and environments interact to produce behavior
d. how much variability in a trait is due to nonshared environmental factors
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Tells You
22. What behavioral genetic research finding seems to support the conclusion that the effect of growing
up in the same home environment is rather minimal?
a. The personality traits of monozygotic (MZ) twins are correlated at .50 on average.
b. The personality traits of dizygotic (DZ) twins are correlated at .30 on average.
c. The personality traits of adoptive siblings raised in the same family are correlated
around .05.
d. The personality traits of adoptive siblings raised in the same family are correlated
above .25.
23. Which factor below would be part of the so-called nonshared environment?
a. family social-economic status c. different friendships for siblings
b. genetic attributes d. general parenting styles
150 | CHAPTER 9
24. In the past, some psychologists have concluded that shared family environments have little or no
effect on personality development. Recent research has cast doubt on such conclusions by finding that
a. molecular geneticists identified the specific alleles associated with each of the Big Five
personality traits.
b. the shared family environment actually has a larger effect on personality than does the
shared nonfamily environment (e.g., school).
c. the shared environment was related to certain aspects of personality when personality
was measured through direct behavioral observation.
d. the shared environment was related to personality when personality was measured
through self-report data.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Tells You
25. Henry and Adam are identical twins. According to a study conducted by Bokenau and colleagues,
similar levels of which trait are NOT likely to be influenced by their shared environment?
a. extraversion c. openness
b. neuroticism d. agreeableness
REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Tells You: Insight into Effects of the Environment
26. A high heritability coefficient can result when the trait across individuals or when genes are
important in a(n) sense.
a. does not vary; very limited c. varies greatly; very limited
b. varies greatly; absolute d. does not vary; absolute
REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Can’t Tell You OBJ: 9.3
MSC: Understanding
27. If there is no phenotypic variation in a trait, then the heritability of that trait will be approximately
a. 1.0. c. .25.
b. .50. d. 0.
MSC: Applying
28. What is the scientific benefit of knowing a trait’s heritability coefficient?

a. the variance in a trait that is due to genetic influences
b. the degree to which genetic influences in a trait are due to inheritance
c. the degree to which reliable genetic effects are statistically significant
d. the degree to which genetic effects will replicate in an additional sample
MSC: Analyzing
29. It is difficult to calculate the heritability of traits that

a. develop later in adulthood.
b. do not vary across people.
c. are highly affected by one’s environment.
d. are highly affected by one’s genes.
MSC: Applying
30. Which of the following is true about gene-environment interactions and trait expression?
a. If two individuals have the same behaviors of a trait, they must share the same gene for
that trait.
b. If two individuals share the same gene for a trait, they must have the same behaviors of
that trait.
c. If two individuals have the same behaviors of a trait, they must share the same gene for
that trait, but two individuals can share the same gene for the trait and have differing
behaviors of that trait.
d. Two individuals can have the same gene for a trait and have differing behaviors of that
trait, and two individuals can have the same behaviors of but have differing genes for the
trait.
REF: Behavioral Genetics: Gene-Environment Interactions OBJ: 9.5
MSC: Analyzing
31. How might a behavior geneticist explain the statistically significant finding that television watching is
heritable?
a. There is an active gene that causes individuals to watch TV.
b. There are related heritable propensities, such as sensation seeking or lethargy, that might
lead one to watch TV more often.
c. Individuals form TV watching habits if they grow up with parents who often watch TV.
d. Parents encourage their children to watch TV because of its inherent tendency to keep
them well-informed about the world around them, which helps secure their reproductive
success.
REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Can’t Tell You: How Genes Affect Personality
32. What term refers to different forms of the same gene?

a. chromosome c. allele
b. genotype d. nucleotide
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Behavioral Genetics: Molecular Genetics
152 | CHAPTER 9
33. Bryan has just been diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). His sister Sarah
has never been diagnosed with ADHD. Which of the following genes might differ between Bryan and
Sarah?
a. DRD4 c. 5-HTT
b. SSRI d. APOA
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: Molecular Genetics
34. Linda suffers from depression, whereas her brother Kyle is more emotionally stable. Which of the
following genes is likely to differ between Kyle and Linda?
a. DRD4 c. 5-HTT
b. SSRI d. APOA
REF: Behavioral Genetics: What Heritability Can’t Tell You: How Genes Affect Personality |
Behavioral Genetics: Molecular Genetics OBJ: 9.4 MSC: Applying
35. In which sample would you expect the heritability of IQ to be the lowest?
a. low socioeconomic status twins
b. middle socioeconomic status twins
c. high socioeconomic status twins
d. none of the above; the heritability will be the same in all three groups
MSC: Applying
36. When Brett was born, he and his identical twin were separated and have been living on opposite sides
of the country ever since in houses of equal socioeconomic status yet with parents employing
drastically different parenting styles. Which of the following are Brett and his twin MOST likely to
share?
a. a sense of rebelliousness c. IQ score
b. level of anxiety d. music preference
MSC: Applying
37. A recent study indicates that a serotonin-related genetic allele seems to influence the development of
depression in conjunction with
a. stressful life events. c. low extraversion.
b. high neuroticism. d. childhood maltreatment.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Behavioral Genetics: Molecular Genetics | Behavioral Genetics: Gene-Environment
Interactions OBJ: 9.5 MSC: Understanding
38. As a result of Timothy’s genes, he went through puberty later than his peers. Because he was much
smaller than the other boys they tended to pick on him, and he fought back to protect himself. As a
young adult, Timothy is more aggressive than his peers. This scenario illustrates that his aggression is
a. completely the result of his genetic inheritance.
b. completely the result of his early social environment.
c. the result of an interaction between the genetic expression and the resulting social
environment.
d. the result of his social environment in adulthood because genes cannot affect behavior in
adulthood.
Behavioral Genetics: Gene-Environment Interactions OBJ: 9.5
MSC: Applying
39. A scientist interested in understanding how early experiences shape genetic expression studies
a. eugenetics. c. epigenetics.
b. ontogenetics. d. genome-wide associations.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: Epigenetics
40. A(n) searches for specific genes that are linked with particular personality attributes.
a. epigenetic scan c. allelic frequency study
b. epigenetic association study d. genome-wide association study
REF: Behavioral Genetics: The Future of Behavioral Genetics OBJ: 9.4
MSC: Remembering
41. What is the major difference between molecular genetics studies and genome-wide association
studies?
a. Genome-wide studies test for individual genes only, whereas traditional molecular
genetics studies test many different genes.
b. Genome-wide studies test individual genes as well as patterns of genes, whereas
traditional molecular genetics studies only test individual genes.
c. Genome-wide studies test patterns of genes only, whereas traditional molecular genetics
studies test both individual genes and patterns of genes.
d. Both genome-wide studies and traditional molecular genetics studies test patterns of
genes and individual genes.
REF: Behavioral Genetics: Genome-Wide Association Studies OBJ: 9.16
MSC: Analyzing
42. Which of the following types of studies is the MOST recently developed method for understanding
the roles of genes in determining our behavior?
a. twin studies c. genome-wide association studies
b. molecular genetics studies d. adoption studies
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
154 | CHAPTER 9
43. Which of the following is a legitimate reason why genome-wide association studies are still not
conducted very frequently?
a. They are extremely time-consuming and expensive.
b. It is still difficult to determine environmental effects on the genes.
c. The method is still too new to be accurate.
d. Early results have not been very promising.
MSC: Remembering
44. Which of the below best describes the future of behavioral genetics according to the text?
a. the further documenting of the fact that genes have important influences on personality
b. the further understanding of the ways in which personality traits have evolved over time
c. the further understanding of gene-environment correlations and interactions
d. the future understanding of the interaction between the current social structure and
evolved mechanisms
REF: Behavioral Genetics: The Future of Behavioral Genetics OBJ: 9.16
MSC: Analyzing
45. Darwin’s book The Origin of Species is one of the basic foundations for which area of psychology?
a. psychoanalysis c. behavioral genetics
b. personality psychology d. evolutionary psychology
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology
46. According to the text, we can be 100 percent certain that all of our ancestors have done which of the
following?
a. had successful careers c. had children
b. received adequate education d. lived to old age
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology
47. According to evolutionary biology, altruistic behavior might help assure the survival of one’s own
genes into succeeding generations primarily because
a. altruistic individuals take fewer risks than nonaltruistic individuals, so they are more
likely to survive and produce children.
b. altruistic people tend to attract more mates, thereby increasing the likelihood that
altruistic people will reproduce.
c. some of your genes will make it into the next generation if the people who share your
genes also survive.
d. altruism promotes physical health and longevity.
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior: Aggression and Altruism
48. Which of the following accurately describes evolutionary mismatch?

a. Evolutionary mismatch is the idea that self-sacrificing behaviors can still be
evolutionarily advantageous if they help the survival of others that share your genes.
b. Evolutionary mismatch is the idea that negative emotions or feelings may actually be
helpful because they act as a motivator to avoid bad outcomes in the future.
c. Evolutionary mismatch is the idea that certain traits that have evolved in the past may not
be useful or may even be detrimental to survival today.
d. Evolutionary mismatch states that individual differences in traits and behaviors are a
required mechanism for evolution to occur.
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior: Evolutionary Mismatch
49. Which of the following accurately describes inclusive fitness?

a. Inclusive fitness is the idea that self-sacrificing behaviors can still be evolutionarily
advantageous if they help the survival of others that share your genes.
b. Inclusive fitness is the idea that negative emotions or feelings may actually be helpful
because they act as a motivator to avoid bad outcomes in the future.
c. Inclusive fitness is the idea that certain traits that have evolved in the past may not
necessarily be useful or may even be detrimental to survival today.
d. Inclusive fitness states that individual differences in traits and behaviors are a required
mechanism for evolution to occur.
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior: Evolutionary Mismatch
50. A researcher interested in predicting patterns of helping behavior using the concept of inclusive
fitness would want to know
a. how strongly helping behavior in biological parents correlates with helping behavior in
their offspring.
b. how much genetic material you share with someone you might help.
c. the similarity between adopted siblings on measures of helping behavior.
d. monozygotic (MZ) and dizygotic (DZ) correlations for helping behavior.
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior: Aggression and Altruism
51. The idea that feelings of self-esteem evolved to gauge social acceptance is known as the
theory.
a. sociometer c. social self-acceptance
b. social self d. self-esteem as survival
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior: Self-Esteem
156 | CHAPTER 9
52. What explanation might an evolutionary psychologist give for an individual giving a large amount of
money to charity?
a. In our current social environment, people who give money to charity are regarded as
noble and are therefore attractive.
b. People are basically selfless beings who give for the sake of giving.
c. Giving to charity increases our self-esteem, which is an indicator of our social
acceptance.
d. Giving to charity satisfies our basic instinct to balance the social scales.
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior: Self-Esteem
53. What might be the evolutionary function of crying, according to recent research described in the text?
a. a way to elicit social support
b. an aversive motivator of behavioral change toward more adaptive pursuits
c. an index of social acceptance
d. a way of preventing wasteful energy expenditures on lost causes
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior: Depression
54. Which of the following explains how Keller and Nesse’s evolutionary explanation for negative
emotions (e.g., depression) differs from Leary’s sociometer theory?
a. Negative emotions help signal your social standing in your community.
b. Negative emotions are a by-product of the evolution of positive emotions.
c. Negative emotions help motivate us to avoid bad outcomes in the future.
d. Negative emotions help solicit social support from others in the community.
55. Rachel’s girlfriend just broke up with her. According to a recent study about types of depression, the
particular kind of depression Rachel will MOST likely experience is characterized by
a. emotional pain, crying, and seeking social support.
b. aggression, hostility, and anger.
c. fatigue, pessimism, and guilt.
d. sexual dysfunction, increased cortisol, and increased motor activity.
56. Harry was just fired from his job. According to a recent study, the particular kind of depression that
will MOST likely follow is characterized by
a. emotional pain, crying, and seeking social support.
b. aggression, hostility, and anger.
c. fatigue, pessimism, and guilt.
d. sexual dysfunction, increased cortisol, and increased motor activity.
57. So far, evolutionary psychology has been much more concerned with the origins of than
with .
a. unconscious processes; conscious processes
b. extraversion and agreeableness; neuroticism, openness, and conscientiousness
c. neuroticism, openness, and conscientiousness; extraversion and agreeableness
d. general human nature; individual differences
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Individual Differences
58. Which of the following groups of people are MOST likely to have a slow life history?
a. parents who have only one child
b. traditional hunter-gatherer societies
c. a community living during a war or plague
d. individuals growing up in a dangerous neighborhood and who have no employment
prospects
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Individual Differences: Adaptation
59. According to evolutionary psychology, which of the following does NOT account for individual
differences?
a. Certain levels of maladaptive traits such as neuroticism ensure that populations are not
so excessively large that it threatens the survival of the group.
b. Behavioral patterns evolve as reactions to specific environmental experiences (and if
different individuals inhabit different environments, they will then exhibit different
behavioral patterns).
c. Individuals differ in terms of the behavioral strategies that make the most sense, given
their other characteristics.
d. Some biologically influenced behavior may be “frequency dependent” (only appearing in
some subset of the population).
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Individual Differences: Accounting for Individual
Differences OBJ: 9.10 MSC: Understanding
158 | CHAPTER 9
60. What is the biggest reason why cloning one’s personality will never be feasible?
a. Meeting your clone would be too confusing to process.
b. Personality is the result of a complex interaction between one’s genes and environment.
c. The government has refused to fund any research on cloning.
d. Our understanding of the genetic basis of personality is far too limited to know which
genes are related to specific personality traits.
MSC: Analyzing
61. What is a “stress test” in regard to evolutionary psychology?

a. an example of a person-environment interaction
b. a type of “inclusive fitness”
c. a focus on negative emotions, such as stress
d. a challenge or critique of the evolutionary approach that it must overcome
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Five Stress Tests for Evolutionary Psychology
62. What is a common methodological concern of evolutionary psychology?

a. The methods used are too qualitative.
b. Evolutionary psychologists do not employ the scientific method.
c. All the theories of evolutionary psychology are too difficult or even possible to
empirically test.
d. Evolutionary psychology is too heavily influenced by anthropology.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
63. Which of the following is a NOT a common methodological concern of evolutionary psychology?
a. All theories lack experimental evidence.
b. Many of the theories are “just so” explanations that ignore other possibilities.
c. Many of the theories are difficult to disprove.
d. Many of the theories do not account for individual differences.
64. There are controversies related to evolutionary theorizing with respect to the difficulty in providing an
evolutionary explanation to rare behaviors. This has been called the
a. low base rate fallacy. c. spurious causation fallacy.
b. dilemma of the rarely exercised option. d. naturalistic fallacy.
65. If Sally believes that anything natural is morally acceptable, she is committing a(n) fallacy.
a. naturalistic c. justificationist
b. reductionistic d. evolutionary
66. Frans de Waal is known for the “dilemma of the rarely exercised option” in evolutionary psychology.
Based on this dilemma, which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for why someone
would be unfaithful in a relationship?
a. Seeking out new mates helps increase social status.
b. Seeking out other mates helps increase chances for reproductive success.
c. Being unfaithful is a side effect of another evolutionary adaptation.
d. Cheating behavior helps test honesty of potential mates.
67. Much of the world is changing toward a setting where physical strength matters less and alternative
child-care arrangements are possible. The view that men’s and women’s behavioral tendencies are
determined by social structure implies that
a. their behavioral tendencies will change over thousands of years.
b. their behavioral tendencies will change relatively quickly (over hundreds of years).
c. their behavioral tendencies will probably never change.
d. men will primarily adopt child-rearing duties and women will primarily adopt the duties
of rulers and warriors.
68. Which of the following is an example of the “conservative bias” for which evolutionary psychology is
often criticized?
a. The methods of evolutionary psychology are too qualitative.
b. Evolutionary psychologists do not employ the scientific method.
c. The theories of evolutionary psychology are too difficult or even impossible to
empirically test.
d. Evolutionary psychology is too heavily influenced by anthropology.
160 | CHAPTER 9
69. All of the following are reasonable complications to evolutionary personality theory EXCEPT
a. males’ looks are extremely important to many women.
b. women that are very thin lack sufficient body fat to menstruate.
c. the degree to which someone is considered physically attractive can be influenced by
how much we like them.
d. women and men often abandon their children.
70. All of the following are objections to evolutionary theorizing EXCEPT evolutionary
a. theorizing consists of after-the-fact speculations that cannot be put to empirical test.
b. theorists assume that everybody wants many children when, in fact, many people limit
their own reproduction.
c. theorists assume that behavior patterns present today are essentially inevitable and
unchangeable because they are rooted in our biology.
d. theory is unnecessarily complicated because it involves too many basic principles.
71. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of evolutionary psychology?

a. Behavioral patterns developed because they were helpful or necessary for survival.
b. The current behavioral order was inevitable and unchangeable in the short term.
c. Our primary goal is ensuring our reproductive success as well as the reproductive
success of our offspring.
d. Certain social influences enable individuals to dictate when their reproductive instincts
are present.
72. A common critique of evolutionary psychology is that it focuses too much on instinctual behavior
patterns. Which of the following explanations is NOT used as evidence for this critique?
a. Human behavior is flexible, and people can adapt to changing environments.
b. Much of human behavior is modular.
c. A wide range of individual differences influences behavior.
d. Humans have evolved higher-order thinking over time to overcome their innate
tendencies.
73. In contrast to evolutionary theorizing, Eagly and Wood (1999) suggest that
a. societies’ norms reflect men’s greater size and strength and women’s role in childbearing
more than biologically hardwired behavioral tendencies.
b. social norms are shaped by evolutionary forces and therefore are impossible to change.
c. social norms regarding child care vary dramatically from one culture to the next.
d. the great diversity of gender roles across cultures undermines evolutionary perspectives.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
74. According to the Eagly and Wood’s social-structure theory, why are women more likely to value
wealth and power in a mate over their physical appearance?
a. Due to their superior strength, men typically hold positions of power and dominance in
today’s society.
b. Women have evolved to value how well their mates will be able to provide for them and
their offspring.
c. Women are attracted to men who will buy them expensive objects.
d. Women are attracted to men who are careful and responsible.
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Five Stress Tests for Evolutionary Psychology:
Biological Determinism or Social Structure? OBJ: 9.14
MSC: Analyzing
75. The debate between evolutionary theories on sex differences and Eagly and Wood’s theory on social
structure is comparable to the versus debate.
a. biological reductionism; evolutionary reductionism
b. nature; nurture
c. “dilemma of the rarely exercised option”; “just so” stories
d. epigenetics; behavioral genetics
REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Five Stress Tests for Evolutionary Psychology:
Biological Determinism or Social Structure? OBJ: 9.14
MSC: Analyzing
76. The point of view that scientists will eventually be able to explain everything about the mind via
biology is called
a. biological reductionism. c. psychophysical structuralism.
b. the naturalistic fallacy. d. evolutionary theorizing.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Will Biology Replace Psychology?
162 | CHAPTER 9
MATCHING
Match each rebuttal with its associated stress test of evolutionary psychology.
a. Evolution of a cerebral cortex enables humans to have the ability to overcome innate
urges.
b. It is not necessary for people to be consciously aware of what evolutionary theory says is
required for reproductive success.
c. For any theoretical proposal in science, alternative explanations are always possible.
d. The differences between men and women in mate selection and other behaviors are
built-in through biological evolution.
e. Evolutionary psychologists are not concerned with the moral justification or
condemnation of any one aspect of the human psyche.
1. Methodology
2. Reproductive instinct
3. Conservative bias
4. Human flexibility
5. Biological determinism

Match each psychologically evolved mechanism perspective with its associated behavior.
a. Useful in seeking social support
b. Enables social dominance and an increase in status
c. Helps secure the reproductive success of close relatives
d. Increases awareness of infidelity
e. Helps secure a dedicated and lifelong mate
6. Aggression
7. Crying
8. Male sexual jealousy
9. Altruism
10. Female mate pickiness
6. ANS: B DIF: Easy

REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Evolution and Behavior
7. ANS: A DIF: Easy

8. ANS: D DIF: Easy
9. ANS: C DIF: Easy
10. ANS: E DIF: Easy
Match each person-environment transaction type with its appropriate example.

a. An adventurous individual decides to move to another country and thus experiences
many new situations.
b. A rebellious child leads to more strict parenting styles.
c. An individual develops an anxiety disorder after experiencing a traumatic event.
11. Active
12. Reactive
13. Evocative

SHORT ANSWER
1. What is the heritability coefficient? Explain how it is calculated and what information heritability
statistics provide to researchers.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Behavioral Genetics: Calculating Heritability

164 | CHAPTER 9
2. How can the study of gene-environment interactions explain some enduring puzzles in psychology?
Provide specific examples of gene-environment interactions described in the book and explain why
these findings are potentially important.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult
Behavioral Genetics: Gene-Environment Interactions OBJ: 9.5
MSC: Evaluating
3. What is the basic premise of evolutionary theory as it is applied to psychology? How could an
evolutionary approach be used to understand something such as sibling conflict?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology

4. What is the inherent conflict between the theories of evolutionary psychology and the study of
individual differences?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Evolutionary Personality Psychology: Individual Differences

5. What are some of the main objections to evolutionary theory as it is applied to psychology? How do
evolutionary psychologists respond to these criticisms?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult
6. What is the value of psychology in explaining behavior in light of biological sciences? In other words,
what exactly does it mean when we say that inheritance is the beginning, not the end?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult
CHAPTER 10 Basics of Psychoanalysis
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 10.8. Describe the psychosocial stages of development.

10.9. Discuss how individuals move through the psycho-
10.1. Know the major tenets of Freud’s therapeutic phi-
social stages.
losophy and technique.
10.10. Know the extreme consequences of not successfully
10.2. Identify aspects of Freud’s legacy.
moving through each stage in a normative way.
10.3. Identify the key ideas behind psychoanalytic theory
10.11. Define fixation, regression, identification.
as well as its overarching goal.
10.12. Distinguish between primary and secondary process
10.4. Explain conventional and unconventional behavior
thinking.
from a psychoanalytic perspective.
10.13. Identify and discuss the different levels of the topo-
10.5. Identify the parts that make up the internal
graphic model of thinking.
structure of the mind.
10.14. Discuss how dreams fit in to Freud’s model of
10.6. Review criticisms and controversies of
consciousness.
psychoanalysis.
10.15. Explain how the various parapraxis and defense
10.7. Identify current psychoanalytic therapeutic
mechanisms are deterministic.
tendencies.
165
166 | CHAPTER 10
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The therapeutic technique that involves instructing the patient to say whatever comes to mind is called
a. free association. c. repressed memory recovery.
b. systematic regression. d. reaction formation.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Freud Himself
2. Why did Freud believe that psychotherapy was beneficial?

a. It helps the individual understand aspects of the collective unconscious.
b. Therapists provide objective insight without becoming emotionally involved.
c. Talking about problems helps bring those issues into conscious awareness.
d. Scientific methods proved the effectiveness of psychotherapy.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Freud Himself
3. According to the text, the widespread use of Freud’s ideas in popular culture may actually be a
deterrent for promoting the study of his theories because
a. his theories are still widely used in psychotherapy today.
b. many of their uses in popular culture are actually incorrect.
c. his theories are too broad and holistic of human behavior.
d. his theories seem so cliché or mundane that people will have little interest in studying
them.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Why Study Freud?
4. Freud’s greatest contribution to modern-day psychotherapy was

a. parapraxes. c. unconditional positive regard.
b. the “talking cure.” d. defense mechanisms.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Freud Himself
5. According to the text, the four key ideas of psychoanalytic theory are
a. internal structure, mental energy, psychic conflict, and psychic determinism.
b. internal structure, mental energy, psychic conflict, and unconscious motives.
c. internal structure, mental energy, psychic determinism, and unconscious motives.
d. mental energy, psychic conflict, psychic determinism, and unconscious motives.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis
Basics of Psychoanalysis | 167
6. Toni forgot the day of his final exam and therefore did not complete it. The idea that Toni’s behavior
was not an accident and instead had a direct cause is the idea of
a. unconditional positive regard. c. psychic determinism.
b. mental causality. d. libidinal functionalism.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Psychic Determinism
7. Unlike other perspectives, the psychoanalytic perspective emphasizes the importance of in

determining behavior.
a. conscious desires c. self-efficacy
b. environmental influences d. unconscious processes
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Psychic Determinism
8. The psychoanalytic explanation for the behavior of the governor who paid for prostitutes yet
supported anticrime initiatives would be that
a. the power of the situation caused his behavior.
b. he decided to get a prostitute of his own free will.
c. his behavior is inconsistent and difficult to predict.
d. the causes of his behavior lie in the psychic conflict of his mind.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Psychic Determinism
9. Jason is playing with his brother’s new skateboard when he runs it into a wall and breaks it into
pieces. Psychoanalysts would maintain that the destruction of the skateboard was
a. just an accident.
b. probably determined by some unconscious desire in Jason to ruin his brother’s new toy.
c. a conscious free choice made by Jason right before he ran it into the wall.
d. caused by the environmental conditions.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Psychic Determinism
10. What is the difference between the mind and the brain according to the psychoanalytic perspective?
a. The mind is the psychological product of the brain’s activity.
b. The brain is the psychological product of the mind’s activity.
c. The brain is the physical product of the mind’s activity.
d. The mind is the physical product of the brain’s activity.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Internal Structure
11. According to Freud, the internal structure of the mind consists of

a. the oral, anal, and phallic stages. c. libido and Thanatos.
b. the id, ego, and superego. d. psychic energy and psychic conflict.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Internal Structure
168 | CHAPTER 10
12. According to Freud, the irrational and emotional part of the mind is the , and the rational
part of the mind is the .
a. superego; ego c. libido; Thanatos
b. id; libido d. id; ego
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Internal Structure
13. What did Freud mean when he described sexual behavior as fixation?
a. The individual has successfully resolved the conflict that is present at a particular stage.
b. Excessive attention is paid to the penis during the genital stage of development.
c. Too much libido is invested in a given stage of psychosexual development.
d. He meant the development of extreme disgust of one’s self.
REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”: Moving Through Stages
14. According to the textbook, the result of the compromise between the id, the ego, and the superego is
what
a. the person unconsciously believes.
b. the person wishes to happen.
c. causes extreme depression.
d. the person consciously thinks and how he or she behaves.
REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Psychic Conflict and Compromise
15. A moralistic church official ends up soliciting prostitutes. According to Freudian theory, this was
caused by the
a. ego winning out over the superego. c. id winning out over the superego.
b. superego winning out over the id. d. ego winning out over the id.
16. Tracy has an important test tomorrow. She knows she should study for the test but she really wants to
go to Greg’s party. However, when she considers not studying and going to the party she feels guilty.
Tracy therefore decides to stay home and study for the test. According to psychoanalytic theory,
Tracy’s
a. ego won out over her superego. c. id won out over her superego.
b. superego won out over her id. d. ego won out over her id.
17. According to Freud, the mental energy that makes the mind function is called
a. the id. c. libido.
b. Thanatos. d. sublimation.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Mental Energy
18. Which statement best summarizes Freud and modern psychoanalytic thinking about mental energy?
a. Freud believed that mental energy was limited, whereas modern psychologists believe
that it is the mind’s ability to process information that is limited.
b. Freud believed that the mind’s processing ability was limited, whereas modern
psychoanalysts believe that mental energy is limited.
c. Both Freud and modern psychologists believed that mental energy is limited.
d. Freud and his current followers believed that mental energy could be precisely quantified
through the process of psychoanalysis.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Mental Energy
19. Jenny spends most of her psychic energy trying to push her memory of a recent mugging out of
conscious awareness. According to Freud, if Jenny tries to write a novel, she will find that
a. the repression has created additional psychic energy that will make her more creative.
b. she has little psychic energy left to spend on her writing.
c. nothing has changed, and her writing will proceed as well as it normally does.
d. the repression has created additional energy for her to invest in other outlets.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Mental Energy
20. What is the current status of Freud’s idea that psychic energy is limited?
a. This idea has withstood the test of time and empirical scrutiny.
b. The newer idea suggests it is the mind’s processing capacity rather than psychic energy
that is limited.
c. No research has tested this idea, so little can be said about it.
d. This is an idea that trained psychoanalysts tend to reject but academic researchers tend to
favor.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis: Mental Energy
21. Which of the following of Freud’s theories is part of modern psychoanalytic thought?
a. Compromise formation is the ego’s main job.
b. The mind is divided into three parts.
c. Psychological impulses will build up if they are not expressed.
d. Psychic energy, or libido, is finite.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Key Ideas of Psychoanalysis
170 | CHAPTER 10
22. The most common criticism of Freud’s ideas today is that . The most common criticism of
Freud’s ideas at the time that it was first introduced was that .
a. he placed too much emphasis on sex and sexual energy; he relied too heavily on
controlled, systematic studies
b. his theory is unscientific; he placed too much emphasis on sex and sexual energy
c. he relied too heavily on controlled, systematic studies; he placed too much emphasis on
sex and sexual energy
d. he maintained that behavior is largely the result of rational thought processes; his theory
is unscientific
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Controversy OBJ: 10.6
MSC: Understanding
23. Which of the following aspects of Freud’s theory was LEAST developed?
a. libido c. psychosexual stages
b. the death instinct d. regression
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis, Life, and Death
24. Freud called the fundamental force that was necessary for creation, protection, and enjoyment of life
. The idea that the basic tendency of ordered systems is toward disorder and chaos is similar
to Freud’s concept of .
a. Thanatos; libido
b. libido; Thanatos
c. the primary process; the secondary process
d. fixation; regression
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis, Life, and Death
25. Allen has just ended his relationship with his longtime girlfriend, Katy. According to the doctrine of
opposites, Allen will respond to the breakup by
a. regressing to an earlier stage of development.
b. switching from being an oral character to being an anal character.
c. trying to find a new woman who is very similar to Katy.
d. beginning to despise Katy.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis, Life, and Death
26. According to Freud, the process of psychological development is driven by the

a. investment and redirection of psychic energy.
b. development of key psychosocial relationships with others.
c. development of autonomy.
d. conflict between the conscious and preconscious mind.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”
27. Which of the following is the correct order of Freud’s major stages of psychosexual development?
a. anal, oral, genital, phallic c. oral, anal, genital, phallic
b. anal, oral, phallic, genital d. oral, anal, phallic, genital
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”
28. In psychoanalytic theory, the structures of personality emerge during specific stages of psychosexual
development. Which structure-stage pair is correctly matched?
a. ego-latency c. id-anal
b. superego-phallic d. ego-genital
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”
29. Baby Jessica’s parents respond to her every need as soon as she cries. Freud would predict that, as an
adult, Jessica will
a. be well adjusted. c. rebel against authority figures.
b. be passive. d. become sexually promiscuous.
REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”: Oral Stage
30. Sally tries to keep her distance from other people, especially her boyfriend. How might Freud explain
this behavior?
a. Sally’s parents spoiled her, and no one else can live up to her expectations.
b. Sally’s parents were neglectful and rarely responded to her crying as an infant.
c. Sally had a really bad romantic relationship when she was younger.
d. Sally never resolved her Electra complex.
31. Mark never studies for his psychology exams and is consequently flunking his course. He confronts
his professor and explains that he expects a higher grade because he really wants an A in the class.
Freud would classify Mark as a(n) character.
a. anal c. oral
b. narcissistic d. phallic
172 | CHAPTER 10
32. According to the text, Freud was

a. a profound moderate who disliked extremes of any kind.
b. a believer in indulging infants so that they developed basic trust.
c. an extremist who believed that even young infants must take care of themselves.
d. not particularly concerned with the first 18 months of life because infants do not have
language.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
33. What psychological theme is related to the oral stage?

a. jealousy c. control
b. morality d. dependency
ANS: D DIF: Easy
34. The id is present

a. during the oral stage of development.
b. after the resolution of the oral stage.
c. after the resolution of the anal stage.
d. after the resolution of the phallic stage.
35. Stephen’s apartment is exceptionally neat and clean, whereas Mary Anne’s house is always messy.
According to Freud,
a. Stephen is an anal character, and Mary Anne is an oral character.
b. Stephen is an oral character, and Mary Anne has regressed to the latency period.
c. both Stephen and Mary Anne have developed fixations in the phallic stage.
d. both Stephen and Mary Anne are anal character types.
REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”: Anal Stage
36. Which type of parenting style produces children who are the MOST psychologically healthy?
a. ambivalent c. authoritative
b. authoritarian d. permissive
ANS: C DIF: Easy
37. According to the text, what is the psychological theme of the anal stage?
a. dependency c. sexuality
b. self-control d. trust
ANS: B DIF: Easy
38. According to Freud, the superego develops during the stage of psychosexual development,
and the ego develops during the stage.
a. penile; vaginal c. phallic; anal
b. vaginal; penile d. oral; genital
39. According to Freud, the ego

a. follows the pleasure principle.
b. tries to satisfy urges while acknowledging the constraints of the real world.
c. emerges during the resolution of the Oedipal/Electra complexes.
d. acts like your conscience by avoiding bad behavior and striving for morally correct
behavior.
40. Two-year-old Jonathan knows he is not allowed to have a second piece of candy. When his mother is
distracted, he takes another piece out of the candy jar, just to see if he can get away with it. Jonathan
is in the stage of development.
a. phallic c. anal
b. oral d. latency
41. During the anal stage, parents insist that the child . Accordingly, an anal character is
consistently dealing with issues of .
a. remain passive and dependent; dependency and passivity
b. relinquish his or her attachment to the opposite-sex parent; jealousy and sexual identity
c. exhibit self-control and obedience; control and relations to authority
d. be assertive and productive; creation and enhancement of life
174 | CHAPTER 10
42. The superego maintains its power through its ability to

a. produce dreams. c. use psychic energy.
b. produce fear. d. pass moral judgments.
REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”: Phallic Stage
43. The basic developmental task of the phallic stage is

a. the acquisition of gender identity.
b. the development of self-control.
c. forming relationships with an opposite-sex peer.
d. accomplishing learning tasks such as reading and writing.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
44. Which of the following does NOT develop during the phallic stage?
a. the ego c. attitudes about sexuality
b. gender identity d. the superego
45. According to Freud, the physical focus of the phallic stage is the
a. penis for boys and the vagina for girls.
b. anus for boys and the mouth for girls.
c. penis for both boys and girls.
d. womb for boys and the penis for girls.
46. In the last two years, Marcus has had more than three dozen sexual partners. Marcus has likely
developed a fixation in the
a. genital stage. c. latency period.
b. oral stage. d. phallic stage.
47. What does Freud mean by identification?

a. the process by which a child takes on attitudes and values of the same-sex parent
b. the ability of a child to recognize attachment figures in his or her world
c. successful recognition and classification of different objects in the child’s world
d. the child’s ability to have empathy and to identify with another person’s situation
ANS: A DIF: Easy
48. According to Freud, boys and girls figure out what it means to be male and female
a. by being rewarded or punished for gender-appropriate behavior.
b. through the process of identification.
c. during the genital stage of development.
d. during the latency stage of development.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
49. What term did Freud use to describe the psychological respite or time out that occurs before the
genital stage?
a. exploratory stage c. latency stage
b. rest period d. moratorium stage
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”: Genital Stage
50. What marks the end of the latency stage?

a. marriage c. puberty
b. the selection of a career d. the start of formal education
51. According to Freud, individuals focus on enhancing society during the stage.
a. latency c. Oedipal
b. genital d. phallic
ANS: B DIF: Easy
176 | CHAPTER 10
52. The genital character type

a. tends to be sexually promiscuous.
b. is dependent on other people.
c. is psychologically well adjusted.
d. operates according to the pleasure principle.
53. Joe developed a fixation in the phallic stage. When he experiences a great deal of stress at work, Joe
will likely become
a. disorganized. c. dependent and passive.
b. uninterested in sex. d. overcontrolled and anxious.
54. Leaving a disproportionate amount of libido behind at a childhood stage of development is called
a. regression. c. transference.
b. fixation. d. the secondary process.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
55. When she is scared, 25-year-old Maria becomes passive and dependent. Maria is experiencing
a. regression. c. sublimation.
b. transference. d. libidinal restructuring.
56. What type of primary process thinking refers to the instance where one image represents multiple
thoughts, memories, and emotions?
a. condensation c. regression
b. displacement d. symbolization
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Thinking and Consciousness
57. Unconscious thought is generally due to , and conscious thought is generally due to
.
a. primary process thinking; secondary process thinking
b. regression; repression
c. secondary process thinking; primary process thinking
d. superego functioning; id functioning
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Thinking and Consciousness
58. What differentiates secondary process thinking from primary process thinking?
a. Primary process thinking is impulsive, whereas secondary process thinking is rational.
b. Primary process thinking is rational, whereas secondary process thinking is impulsive.
c. Primary process thinking develops during the anal stage, whereas secondary process
thinking develops during the phallic stage.
d. Primary process thinking develops during the oral stage, whereas secondary process
thinking develops during the phallic stage.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Thinking and Consciousness
59. Freud often used hypnosis to reveal thoughts from which level of the mind?
a. conscious mind c. unconscious mind
b. preconscious mind d. the ego
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Thinking and Consciousness
60. Which level of the mind did Freud consider to be the MOST important?
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Thinking and Consciousness
61. If a new friend were to ask you what you had for dinner last night, from what level of consciousness in
Freud’s topographic model of the mind would your answer be drawn?
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Thinking and Consciousness
62. When someone asks how you are currently feeling, what level of consciousness are they accessing?
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Thinking and Consciousness
63. Eduardo has a reoccurring dream about showing up to his final exam without wearing any clothes.
Freud would say which level of consciousness is causing the dream?
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Thinking and Consciousness
178 | CHAPTER 10
64. Which of the following is FALSE regarding Freud’s views about dreams?
a. Dreams are the result of primary process thinking.
b. Dreams are a way for unconscious thoughts to become conscious.
c. Dreams have meanings that are unique for every individual.
d. Freud eventually developed a formal dream dictionary.
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Thinking and Consciousness
65. According to Freud, what is one’s unconscious motivation behind forgetting something?
a. to avoid feeling guilt or shame
b. to avoid thinking about something painful or anxiety producing
c. to handle overly complex, highly stimulating events
d. to combat an inflated ego
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Parapraxes OBJ: 10.15
MSC: Understanding
66. What is another more common name for a parapraxis?

a. Oedipus complex c. a “Freudian slip”
b. the “talking cure” d. libido
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Parapraxes OBJ: 10.15
MSC: Remembering
67. Generally speaking, what is the function of a parapraxis?

a. to manifest unconscious conflict in one’s behavior
b. to help one talk through psychological issues
c. to comfort, guide, and support the patient through the difficult healing process
d. a means to present explanations in their simplest form
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Parapraxes OBJ: 10.15
MSC: Understanding
68. Which of the following examples best illustrates the forgetting parapraxes?
a. mistakenly saying the name of a former significant lover to a current boyfriend or
girlfriend
b. a student who can’t remember the name of their professor
c. an athlete missing an easy goal during an important game
d. calling students “infants” by mistake
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Parapraxes OBJ: 10.15
MSC: Applying
69. Which of the following is an example of the defense mechanism reaction formation?
a. a politician who solicits sex pushes to increase punishment for prostitution
b. a college student forgets that his paper is due at 8:00 A.M. before the final exam
c. employees throw darts at a picture of their boss
d. a mother explains to her daughter that her dog has passed on
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Anxiety and Defense
70. When asked what his definition of mental health was, Freud eloquently said it is the ability to
a. think and learn.
b. engage in therapy and change behavior.
c. love and work.
d. get married and have children.
REF: Psychoanalysis as a Therapy and as a Route Toward Understanding
71. Which of the following psychological stages is associated with the id?
a. phallic c. oral
b. genital d. anal
ANS: C DIF: Easy
72. The main goal of psychoanalytic therapy is to

a. bring unconscious conflicts into conscious awareness.
b. teach the client to repress id impulses.
c. regress the client to earlier levels of functioning through hypnosis.
d. have the therapist become emotionally involved with the client.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
73. During therapy, Bob feels the same hostility toward his therapist that he feels toward his father. What
term describes Bob’s experience?
a. countertransference c. regression
b. displacement d. transference
74. Bob’s therapist started to develop feelings of anger toward Bob during their therapy sessions. What
term describes this process?
a. countertransference c. regression
b. displacement d. transference
180 | CHAPTER 10
75. Freud’s theory is often criticized for lacking all of the following EXCEPT
a. in-depth observation and analysis of the individual.
b. operational definitions.
c. disconfirmable hypotheses.
d. the use of Occam’s razor (i.e., less is more).
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Psychoanalytic Theory: A Critique
76. Psychoanalysis is often criticized for its ; however, recent research demonstrates its
perceived .
a. simplistic explanations; complexity c. low cure rate; long-term effectiveness
b. case study method; empirical support d. sexism; gender equality
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalytic Theory: A Critique
77. Based on the text, what aspect of Freud’s theory provides evidence to support the claim that Freud and
psychoanalysis are sexist?
a. the idea that only males could be the norm so females couldn’t be used for case studies
b. the idea that the psychological themes related to the phallic stage include love, fear, and
jealousy
c. the idea that the side effects of being female include having less self-esteem, less
creativity, and less moral fiber
d. the idea that defense mechanisms are only effective for men
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Psychoanalytic Theory: A Critique: Sexism
78. Which of the following is evidence for Freud’s lasting influence on the practice of psychotherapy?
a. everyday explanation of behavior in terms of Freud’s defense mechanisms (e.g.,
sentences like “you’re just in denial”)
b. widespread psychic diagnoses based on the characters of The Oedipus Plays
c. use of Freud’s textbook in universities around the world
d. practicing the “talking cure”
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Why Study Freud?
79. Why did Freud counterattack criticisms of his psychoanalytic theory by providing examples of
Darwin’s theory of evolution and Copernicus’s teachings that the earth is not the center of the
universe?
a. to emphasize the scientific integrity of his psychoanalytic theory
b. to emphasize that many theories initially do not have much scientific evidence to support
them
c. to illustrate that many theories are initially rejected because they make people feel
uncomfortable
d. to highlight the evolutionary origins of his own theory
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Controversy OBJ: 10.6
MSC: Analyzing
80. Freud often developed his theories based on his experiences with patients. Why was this method
criticized?
a. His critics were often too specific to individual cases and were not generalizable to
others.
b. Because of the patients’ privacy, other scientists could never verify the details of his case
studies.
c. The majority of his patients were women and thus biased against men.
d. Modern psychoanalytic therapy is very different from Freud’s psychoanalytic theory.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Psychoanalytic Theory: A Critique: Case Study Method OBJ: 10.6
MSC: Understanding
MATCHING
Match each psychological theme with Freud’s psychosexual stages.

a. Dependency
b. Maturity
c. Gender identity and sexuality
d. The opportunity to learn what is needed in adult life
e. Obedience and self-control
1. Oral stage
2. Anal stage
3. Phallic stage
4. Genital stage
5. Latency stage
1. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”

2. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”
3. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”
4. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”
5. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”
Match each function with its associated defense mechanism.

a. Attribute an unwanted impulse in oneself to other people
b. Take a shameful impulse and enact the opposite
c. Prevent detection of the source of anxiety
d. Redirect forbidden impulses onto a safe target
e. Create a seemingly logical reason for doing something shameful
6. Repression
7. Reaction formation
8. Projection
9. Rationalization
182 | CHAPTER 10
10. Displacement
6. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Anxiety and Defense

7. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Anxiety and Defense
8. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Anxiety and Defense
9. ANS: E DIF: Difficult REF: Anxiety and Defense
10. ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Anxiety and Defense
SHORT ANSWER
1. Describe the stages of psychological development according to Freud. Identify the physical focus and
psychological theme of each stage.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”

2. Pick characters from popular movies and TV shows that illustrate the different adult character types
associated with fixation at the oral, anal, and phallic stages. Clearly explain the process of fixation and
provide adequate descriptions of these adult types.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Psychosexual Development: “Follow the Money”

3. Explain how dreaming is understood from a Freudian perspective. Describe Freud’s topographic
model and clearly define primary and secondary process thinking. Make sure to relate your discussion
of dreaming to your discussion of primary and secondary thinking.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Thinking and Consciousness OBJ: 10.12

MSC: Understanding
4. Explain the procedures and purpose of psychoanalytic therapy from the perspective of Freud’s views
of the psyche. Is there research that suggests whether this approach is beneficial?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis as a Therapy and as a Route Toward Understanding

5. Identify and describe the four key ideas of psychoanalysis. Provide clear examples as to how these are
exemplified by specific concepts in Freud’s theory.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis as a Therapy and as a Route Toward Understanding

Psychoanalysis After Freud: Neo-Freudians,
CHAPTER 11
Object Relations, and Current Research
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 11.7. Understand the ways in which neo-Freudian ideas

have influenced modern personality and develop-
11.1. Relate the various neo-Freudians with their specific mental and social psychology.
psychoanalytic approach.
11.8. Identify the major tenets behind object relations
11.2. Identify contemporary psychoanalytic theory in theory and how it relates to classic psychoanalytic
general and understand how it relates to the main theory.
tenets of classic psychoanalytic theory.
11.9. Evaluate contemporary psychological research in
11.3. Understand the common ways Freudian ideas are relation to classic psychoanalytic theory.
interpreted today.
11.10. Identify Freudian theories that have modern scientific
11.4. Identify the ways in which neo-Freudians differ support and those that do not.
from Freud in their approach to psychoanalysis.
11.5. Understand modern neo-Freudians and their theo-
retical contributions to current research.
11.6. Be able to identify how neo-Freudians explain life-
span development.
184
Psychoanalysis After Freud: Neo-Freudians, Object Relations, and Current Research | 185
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT a reason why different people easily interpret many of Freud’s
theories in different ways?
a. Freud often changed his mind.
b. Freud’s extensive writing allows for individuals to pick and choose different aspects on
which to focus.
c. Neo-Freudians used the scientific method to test their interpretations.
d. Many of Freud’s theories are vague enough that they can be reinterpreted.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Interpreting Freud
2. According to the text, what is unique about the criticism Freud’s theories have faced, compared to
other psychological theories that have also received criticism?
a. Criticism of Freud’s theories tends to be mixed with personal criticisms toward Freud as
a person.
b. Critics of Freud’s theories often point out the lack of scientific evidence supporting
them.
c. Freud’s theories often contradict many modern-day psychological theories.
d. Criticism of Freud’s theories is also directed toward neo-Freudians.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Psychoanalysis after Freud
3. Though traditional psychoanalysis might focus on childhood conflicts, neo-Freudians expanded their
focus to include
a. the eternal struggle between the id and superego.
b. how those childhood conflicts play out in current interpersonal relationships.
c. connecting the childhood conflicts to unconscious processes.
d. how those childhood conflicts stem from the psychosexual stages.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis after Freud
4. Most neo-Freudians rely on information from to test or verify their ideas.

a. controlled experiments c. Freud’s original case descriptions
b. archival and field studies d. patient histories and introspection
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
186 | CHAPTER 11
5. In general, neo-Freudians
a. are strict followers of Freudian ideas.
b. represent the majority of psychologists working in universities today.
c. use the same research methods Freud advocated.
d. rarely practice psychoanalysis.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
6. Why were many of the arguments between Freud and neo-Freudian Karl Jung never resolved?
a. The attacks between them became too personal.
b. There was conflicting scientific evidence between their theories.
c. Many of their theories were actually very similar to each other.
d. Evidence came from their personal experiences, which was impossible to prove.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
7. Modern psychoanalytic theory deviates from Freudian theory because it focuses less on and
more on .
a. sex; ego c. attachment; development
b. adults; children d. mothers; fathers
REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: Common Themes of Neo-Freudian Thought
8. Compared to Freud, ego psychologists pay a good deal of attention to

a. conscious thought. c. relationships with fathers.
b. unconscious thought. d. the Big Five traits.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
9. One difference between the neo-Freudians and Freud is that nearly all neo-Freudians
a. place more emphasis on early childhood development.
b. put more emphasis on interpersonal relationships.
c. adhere to evolutionary theory and emphasize the importance of sex as a motivator.
d. emphasize the importance of unconscious processes in the determination of behavior.
10. Most neo-Freudians differ from Freud in three major respects. Which of the following is NOT one of
these differences?
a. They emphasize a more scientific approach than Freud did.
b. Sexuality is less emphasized by neo-Freudians.
c. Conscious processes are emphasized more by neo-Freudians.
d. They describe interpersonal relationships as the source of psychological health.
11. Javier commonly asserts his dominance to his peers by picking fights or showing off how much
weight he can lift at the gym. What kind of overcompensating behavior is Javier displaying?
a. organ inferiority c. inferiority complex
b. masculine protest d. basic mistrust
REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: Inferiority and Compensation: Adler
12. Adler felt that was an important motivator of human thought and behavior.
a. the collective unconscious c. social interest
b. animus d. anxiety
ANS: C DIF: Easy
13. Jared always felt that no one ever took him seriously because he was much shorter than everyone else
growing up. Now, as an adult, he tries to dominate all situations and assert his opinion whenever he
can. According to Adler, what would describe Jared’s behavior?
a. organ inferiority c. neurotic need
b. parapraxes d. basic mistrust
14. According to Adler, social interest is

a. the tendency to observe other people in their natural environments.
b. his personal measure of sociability.
c. an interest in dominance.
d. the desire to relate productively to others.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
188 | CHAPTER 11
15. Which of the following concepts is NOT associated with Adler?

a. feminine protest c. masculine protest
b. inferiority complex d. organ inferiority
ANS: A DIF: Easy
16. Tom was a sickly child and always felt helpless. According to Adler, as an adult Tom will probably
a. be a complete invalid.
b. lose all interest in his social environment.
c. attempt to overcompensate.
d. become obsessed with his persona.
17. Jane feels inferior to the people around her, but she tries to act like she is powerful and in control.
Adler would say that Jane is
a. experiencing the masculine protest. c. developing a persona.
b. expressing her animus. d. reacting to her social interest.
18. In order for a person to develop an inferiority complex, he or she must

a. actually have some disability that makes him or her inferior to others.
b. have developed narcissistic tendencies as a child.
c. have feelings of inferiority as a child.
d. have a particularly strong superego.
19. According to Adler, adult behavior that stems from perceived childhood inferiorities is referred to as
a. personality. c. way of living.
b. style of life. d. developing a persona.
REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: The Collective Unconscious, Persona, and Personality: Jung
20. What is the animus?

a. a man’s idealized conception of women
b. a woman’s idealized conception of men
c. the idealized conception of a nonhuman animal
d. the idealized conception of humankind
ANS: B DIF: Easy
21. Jung’s biggest divergence from Freud stemmed from his

a. spiritualistic theories.
b. feminist theories.
c. focus on interpersonal relationships.
d. development of personality in adulthood.
22. Jung’s distinction between people who are outwardly oriented toward the world and those who are
turned in on themselves corresponds to
a. Erikson’s stage of intimacy versus isolation.
b. Freud’s ideas of the oral and anal character types.
c. Jung’s own concept of animus and anima.
d. the extraversion-introversion dimension of the Big Five.
23. Jung believed that we all share inborn, species-specific ideas and memories. This is Jung’s idea of
a. social interests. c. anima.
b. collective unconscious. d. animus.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
24. From a Jungian perspective, a reoccurring image of a snake as the villain in myths and literature is an
example of a(n)
a. anima. c. persona.
b. social interest. d. archetype.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
190 | CHAPTER 11
25. The idea that men and women each have a masculine and a feminine side is linked to Jung’s ideas
about
a. intimacy and isolation. c. the collective unconscious.
b. inferiority and compensation. d. animus and anima.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
26. What is the anima?

a. a man’s idealized conception of women
b. a woman’s idealized conception of men
c. the idealized conception of a nonhuman animal
d. the idealized conception of humankind
ANS: A DIF: Easy
27. Mike’s ideal mate is sensitive and intelligent. Mike’s idealized image of a woman is his
a. unconscious compensation. c. anima.
b. animus. d. feminine persona.
28. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator measures

a. the Jungian classification of the four basic ways of thinking.
b. prototypical images of women and men.
c. the Big Five traits.
d. aspects of Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development.
29. Paul is always concerned about how he appears to others and thus wears a carefully chosen public
“face” in every situation. According to Jung, Paul has
a. effectively mediated the tension between the animus and anima.
b. become obsessed with his persona.
c. created a false archetype.
d. overcompensated for his sense of inferiority.
30. Horney felt that when women experience penis envy, it symbolizes their
a. desire to actually possess a penis.
b. lack of power or personal freedom in society.
c. rejection of motherhood.
d. dissatisfaction with their own bodies.
REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: Feminine Psychology and Basic Anxiety: Horney
31. All of the following describe neurotic needs, according to Horney, EXCEPT neurotic needs
a. involve a natural stage of adult development everyone must go through.
b. stem from childhood anxieties.
c. are often contradictory.
d. involve a desire for something unrealistic.
32. Adult behavior, according to Horney, is based on efforts to

a. overcome the fear of being alone in a hostile world.
b. deal with recurring Oedipal crises.
c. resolve interpersonal conflicts with significant others.
d. repress the collective unconscious.
33. Horney’s major deviation from traditional Freudian ideas was her
a. emphasis on anxiety.
b. view of penis envy.
c. ideas about the development of neurotic needs.
d. link between adult functioning and childhood struggles.
34. Throughout his childhood, George developed the basic anxiety of being alone and helpless. According
to Horney’s theory, as an adult, George has most likely developed a neurotic need for all of the
following EXCEPT
a. finding a partner who will solve all of his problems.
b. being loved by everybody.
c. feeling accepted and secure with one’s self.
d. being independent of everybody.
192 | CHAPTER 11
35. Katie begins online dating hoping she will meet her future husband and avoid becoming an old maid.
Her attempt to avoid being alone is an example of a(n)
a. neurotic need. c. depressive position.
b. defense mechanism. d. attachment style.
36. Freud’s oral stage corresponds to Erikson’s stage of

a. generativity versus stagnation. c. initiative versus guilt.
b. basic trust versus mistrust. d. autonomy versus shame and doubt.
REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: Psychosocial Development: Erikson
37. Freud’s anal stage corresponds to Erikson’s stage of

38. Freud’s phallic stage corresponds to Erikson’s stage of

a. industry versus inferiority. c. initiative versus guilt.
39. Freud’s latency period corresponds to Erikson’s stage of

b. identity versus identity confusion. d. industry versus inferiority.
40. Erikson’s view is distinct from Freudian theory in that he believed psychological development
a. occurs primarily in early childhood.
b. continues to change throughout the life span.
c. depends on the resolution of the Oedipal complex.
d. involves the investment of the libido at each stage.
41. Major differences between Erikson’s theory of personality development and Freud’s theory are
Erikson’s ideas regarding
a. the existence and functioning of the id.
b. development as occurring in a series of stages.
c. the role and pervasiveness of conscious conflict.
d. the importance of parents to a child’s development.
42. In Erikson’s scheme, we progress from one crisis to another according to

a. processes of physical maturation.
b. developmental tasks at different times of life.
c. the successful repression of inappropriate id impulses.
d. the physical location of libido at each stage.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
43. What neo-Freudian concept or theory did Erik Erikson develop?

a. neurotic needs c. the animus and anima
b. psychosocial stages of development d. object relations theory
ANS: B DIF: Easy
44. Which sequence represents the correct order for Erikson’s first three psychosocial stages?
a. basic trust versus mistrust; initiative versus guilt; autonomy versus shame and doubt
b. basic trust versus mistrust; autonomy versus shame and doubt; initiative versus guilt
c. basic trust versus mistrust; initiative versus guilt; identity versus identity confusion
d. identity versus identity confusion; intimacy versus isolation; basic trust versus mistrust
45. Jamal is entering his freshman year of high school. According to Erikson’s psychosocial stages, Jamal
is likely to face a(n)
a. inferiority complex. c. identity crisis.
b. struggle for intimacy. d. sense of shame and doubt.
194 | CHAPTER 11
46. Martha just turned 55 years old and is about to see her last born off to college. According to Erikson,
what psychosocial crisis is Martha likely to experience?
a. generativity versus stagnation c. integrity versus despair
b. intimacy versus isolation d. industry versus inferiority
47. Ellen is a 50-year-old woman who is raising her two grandchildren, is active in her community, and is
learning how to paint. According to Erikson’s theory, Ellen has chosen
a. industry. c. integrity.
b. initiative. d. generativity.
48. Modern developmental psychology has been most influenced by Erikson’s idea that psychological
development
a. occurs in stages. c. happens across the life span.
b. is influenced by parents. d. is dependent on physical maturation.
49. Some psychologists maintain that your relationships with other people are based on the images of
them that you hold in your mind. Psychologists who emphasize this idea are known as
theorists.
a. object relations c. Adlerian
b. Eriksonian d. ego
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: Object Relations Theory: Klein and Winnicott
50. The core idea of object relations theory relates back to Freud’s work on how adult behavior toward
others stems from childhood relationships. This process is known as
a. the inferiority complex.
b. the psychosocial stages of development.
c. development of the ego.
d. transference.
51. Dr. Ders is a psychotherapist who emphasizes the importance of relating to others as real people who
have mixtures of virtues and vices. Dr. Ders is MOST likely a therapist in the tradition of
theory.
a. Freudian c. Eriksonian
b. neo-Freudian d. object relations
52. According to Winnicott, a niffle is transitional because it

a. helps the child shift from a time when adults constantly took care of him or her.
b. is useful when moving from place to place.
c. is an object that is personified by children.
d. enables a child to put on a false self.
53. According to D. W. Winnicott, a niffle is a(n)

a. affectionate name for a friend who helps children cope with separation from parents.
b. transitional object that helps children bridge the gap between fantasy and reality.
c. imaginary friend that helps children cope with separation from parents.
d. technique to measure objects in children.
54. According to Melanie Klein, the position refers to a child’s desire to destroy the bad parts
of an object because he or she fears being destroyed by them.
a. depressive c. psychotic
b. destructive d. paranoid
55. According to Melanie Klein, the position refers to a child’s desire to worship and protect
the good parts of an object because he or she fears losing them.
a. depressive c. enhancing
b. constructive d. paranoid
196 | CHAPTER 11
56. According to Melanie Klein, a child who idealizes a parent also

a. feels hatred toward that parent.
b. feels unconditional love toward that parent.
c. desires to have all of that parent’s traits.
d. feels ambivalent toward that parent.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
57. What is the overarching principle of object relations theory?

a. Dream objects have a special significance to the person’s waking life.
b. Every object we encounter reflects our unconscious experience.
c. We relate to others through our mental images of them.
d. We project psychological characteristics on physical objects.
58. In psychoanalytic terms, objects are

a. pieces of unconscious material against which the ego defends itself.
b. patients undergoing psychoanalytic therapy.
c. emotionally important people and relationships in one’s life.
d. created by emotionally unimportant people in one’s life.
59. The object relations theorist Melanie Klein suggests that important love relationships are mixed with
emotions such as envy, fear, and guilt. People react to these emotions by
a. avoiding close relationships.
b. resorting to idealizations of relationships.
c. regressing to early stages of psychosexual development.
d. adopting a new object.
60. College students often have pictures of their friends and families from back home displayed in their
dorm rooms. What do these pictures represent?
a. a transitional object
b. reaching the final stage of psychosocial development
c. a neurotic need for love and acceptance
d. an archetype
61. According to the object relations theorist D. W. Winnicott, the purpose of a transitional object is to
a. compensate for an inferiority complex.
b. defend the superego from unconscious urges.
c. protect the true self by keeping it invisible.
d. compensate for the fact that we cannot have our loved ones with us all of the time.
62. According to the object relations theorist D. W. Winnicott, the purpose of a false self is to
a. compensate for an inferiority complex.
b. defend the superego from unconscious urges.
c. protect the true self by keeping it invisible.
d. motivate us to perform moral behavior.
63. Jimmy is a 5-year-old boy. When his parents leave him with a babysitter, he latches onto his stuffed
animal, Tim. In the terminology of the object relations theorist D. W. Winnicott, Tim is a(n)
a. transitional object. c. institutional object.
b. ego object. d. archetype.
64. A key theme of object relations theory is that

a. every relationship has elements of satisfaction and frustration.
b. every relationship is either pleasurable or frustrating.
c. unconscious processes determine the conflict among one’s objects.
d. we are often able to overcome early maladaptive relationships and form mature love
relationships.
65. From the perspective of object relations theory, what is the purpose of psychotherapy?
a. to enable an individual to come to terms with his or her phobias and irrational fears
b. to help minimize use of defense mechanisms
c. to encourage free expression of hate, anger, love, and fear
d. to help minimize the difference between the true and false selves
198 | CHAPTER 11
66. According to the textbook, why do chapters of Freud and neo-Freudians tend to be referred to as a
“tour of the graveyard”?
a. Most neo-Freudians are dead.
b. The theories of Freud and neo-Freudians are largely regarded as extinct.
c. Most neo-Freudian interpretations are just as negative and dark as Freud’s original
theories.
d. A review of Freud and neo-Freudians are often excluded from contemporary textbooks.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: Where Have All the Neo-Freudian Theorists Gone?
67. According to Drew Westen, all of the following studies might be described as psychoanalytic research
EXCEPT a study
a. about genetic contributions to infant attachment.
b. about the impact of sexual and aggressive wishes on behavior.
c. to determine the impact of early child-rearing practices on adult personality
characteristics.
d. about self-deception and self-defensive thought.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research
68. Which of the following describes a key methodological difference between psychoanalytic
psychologists and personality psychologists?
a. Personality psychologists rely on anecdotes or personal experiences, whereas
psychoanalysts rely on the scientific method.
b. Psychoanalysts rely on anecdotes or personal experiences, whereas personality
psychologists rely on the scientific method.
c. Personality psychologists rely on introspective methods for data collection, whereas
psychoanalysts rely on outward experiences.
d. Psychoanalysts rely on introspective methods for data collection, whereas personality
psychologists rely on outward experiences.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research
69. According to the text, what is one reason why psychoanalytic theory is NOT advancing in academic
departments?
a. Research psychologists are often ignorant of psychoanalytic thinking.
b. No one is interested in psychoanalytic thinking, not even psychoanalysts.
c. Psychoanalytic thinking has been perfected with object relations theory, so there is no
room for advancement.
d. Neo-Freudians respect Freud too much to contradict his theory.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research
70. Which statement is MOST true regarding the influence of Freud?

a. Freud’s ideas about the Oedipal crisis have empirical support.
b. Freud’s ideas no longer hold any influence in current psychoanalysis.
c. Few people find psychoanalytic theory interesting or insightful.
d. Freudian ideas continue to influence psychology today.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses
71. According to a study referenced in the text, researchers interested in testing Freud’s theory of ego
suppression exposed participants to emotionally charged words and assessed their sweat-gland activity
in order to measure participants’
a. conscious perceptions. c. ego.
b. perceptual defense. d. id.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses: Perceptual Defense
72. According to the text, why it is difficult for psychologists to scientifically test for Freud’s theory of
unconscious suppression?
a. Participants may not be willing to report embarrassing thoughts with researchers.
b. Experiments involving anxiety-inducing thoughts are often prohibited by ethics review
boards.
c. Most psychologists do not believe Freud’s theory of the unconscious to be correct.
d. There are currently no methods available for testing the unconscious.
REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses: Perceptual Defense
73. Many current cognitive psychologists have adapted Freud’s theory of the unconscious by stating that
only a small fraction of psychological activity is conscious. This is known as
a. catharsis. c. parallel distributed processing.
b. consecutive conscious thought. d. object relations theory.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses: Unconscious Thought
74. Anne vents to her friend about her concerns over her boyfriend and their future together. Even though
she doesn’t resolve her major concerns, she still feels better after talking to her friend. What did Anne
experience?
a. ego suppression c. intimacy versus isolation
b. catharsis d. a neurotic need
REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses: Defense and Catharsis
200 | CHAPTER 11
75. Which of the following Freudian ideas is NOT supported by modern research?
a. Denial is a defense mechanism that the unconscious mind uses to keep a perception from
emerging into consciousness.
b. The Oedipal crisis occurs in the phallic stage.
c. Much of what the mind does is unconscious.
d. There is evidence of conflict between different mental processes.
REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses: Defense and Catharsis
76. According to the textbook, what question is MOST useful to ask when evaluating the psychoanalytic
approach?
a. Is this approach scientific?
b. Is this approach morally wrong?
c. Does this approach raise unanswered questions about human behavior?
d. How would Freud use this approach to evaluate the behavior of his patients?
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis in Perspective
77. Classic psychoanalytic theory assumes development , whereas contemporary developmental

psychology assumes development .
a. relies on nature; relies on nurture
b. stops after adolescence; continues throughout adulthood
c. continues throughout adulthood; stops after adolescence
d. relies on nurture; relies on nature
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis in Perspective
78. Freud’s descriptions of the anal and oral character have found support in what modern area of
psychology?
a. cognitive psychology c. personality psychology
b. neuroscience d. social psychology
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis in Perspective
79. According to the text, a neo-Freudian would most likely believe all the following EXCEPT
a. much of mental life (i.e., thoughts, feelings, motives) is unconscious.
b. childhood experiences shape the personality developed in adulthood.
c. relationships formed with parents repeat later in adulthood.
d. young boys are shaped by the experience of admiration and love for their mother and
bitter jealousy for their father.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis in Perspective
MATCHING
Match each central theoretical viewpoint with its associated neo-Freudian psychologist.
a. People are motivated as adults to overcome feelings of inferiority they developed as
children.
b. Human beings are a part of the collective unconscious, which includes inborn memories,
ideas, and images.
c. Women lack confidence due to the structure of society rather than the biological
differences between men and women.
d. Part of normal development is creating socially acceptable false selves to maintain
smooth interpersonal relationships.
e. People relate to other people through the images of them we hold in our minds.
f. People develop through their confrontation with various conflicts throughout their life
spans.
g. Psychological development is the story of ego development because the function of ego
is to make sense of everything a person experiences.
h. Individuals’ early experiences with love shape their future outlooks on life and other
people.
i. Any psychological research is at least “a little” psychoanalytic.
1. Drew Westen
2. Carl Jung
3. Alfred Adler
4. Erik Erikson
5. Karen Horney
6. Melanie Klein
7. Jane Loevinger
8. D. W. Winnicott
1. ANS: I DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists

2. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
3. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
4. ANS: F DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
5. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
6. ANS: E DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
7. ANS: G DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
8. ANS: F DIF: Difficult REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists
202 | CHAPTER 11
SHORT ANSWER
1. Gee is entering his senior year of high school and has successfully moved through Erikson’s
psychosocial stages of development to this point. Explain which of Erikson’s stages Gee will confront
as an adult. What will need to happen for him to continue through Erikson’s stages successfully?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Latter-Day Issues and Theorists: Psychosocial Development: Erikson
2. Identify and discuss the four principles of object relations theory.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate
3. What makes a theorist neo-Freudian? Identify two or three neo-Freudians and explain how they have
influenced contemporary personality research.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research OBJ: 11.4

MSC: Evaluating
4. Identify and describe the three different infant attachment styles mentioned in the textbook. Explain
how these styles may be self-fulfilling or self-perpetuating in adulthood.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses

5. What are some of the key psychological insights provided by contemporary psychoanalytic research?
Which of Freud’s ideas appear to have stood the test of time?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Psychoanalysis in Perspective OBJ: 11.10

MSC: Evaluating
6. Compare and contrast the theoretical and methodological aspects of contemporary psychological
research in relation to classic psychoanalytic theory, providing at least two examples of similarities
and differences.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Psychoanalysis in Perspective OBJ: 11.10

MSC: Analyzing
7. How has contemporary psychology tested psychoanalytic hypotheses that support Freudian and
neo-Freudian theories? Which Freudian theories has empirical research failed to support and why?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Current Psychoanalytic Research: Testing Psychoanalytic Hypotheses

Humanistic Psychology, Positive
CHAPTER 12
Psychology, and the Science of Happiness
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 12.6. Define the positive experiences of mindfulness,

flow, and awe, and understand how they relate to
12.1. Be able to identify and explain the central ideas other phenomenological concepts.
associated with humanistic psychology and phenom-
12.7. Understand how the concept of personal constructs
enology in general.
enables one to organize the world and how this
12.2. Identify the various phenomenology and humanism organization relates to an individual’s construal of
philosophers and understand how their ideas con- the world.
tribute to our understanding of the human
12.8. Apply the philosophical concepts associated with
experience.
humanism and phenomenology to personality and
12.3. Understand the central tenets of existentialism and social psychology research and to business and eco-
identify the different perspectives from its various nomic practices.
philosophers.
12.9. Apply humanistic, existentialistic, and other ideas to
12.4. Understand the various concepts associated with the ideas taught by religion.
optimistic humanism and how these ideas enable
12.10. Relate the ideas put forth in humanistic psychology
individuals to reach their optimal selves.
to various psychoanalytic approaches.
12.5. Understand the central tenets of self-determination
12.11. Understand the basic tenets of positive psychology
theory.
and how they relate to that of humanistic
psychology.
12.12. Understand happiness and identify what contributes
to one’s level of happiness.
204
Humanistic Psychology, Positive Psychology, and the Science of Happiness | 205
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. psychology is based on the premise that to understand a person, you must understand his or
her unique view of reality.
a. Existential c. Cultural
b. Humanistic d. Psychoanalytic
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Humanistic Psychology, Positive Psychology, and the Science of Happiness
2. What aspect of human psychological functioning is of particular interest to humanistic psychologists?

a. self-awareness c. internal psychological conflicts
b. human suffering d. the importance of social relationships
REF: Humanistic Psychology, Positive Psychology, and the Science of Happiness
3. Your particular experience of the world is called your

a. conscience. c. construal.
b. consciousness. d. confluence.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
4. All of the following elements make up humanistic psychology EXCEPT

a. holistic. c. will.
b. value. d. spiritual.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
5. One possible interpretation of the basic phenomenological philosophy is that

a. the same objective reality exists for diverse groups of people and different cultures.
b. all interpretations of reality are equally valid.
c. if you look at the world through another’s eyes, you will realize that your own worldview
is invalid.
d. all behavior, thoughts, and feelings are determined by past experience.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
206 | CHAPTER 12
6. Imagine that you are participating in a psychology experiment. The experimenter asks you to take a
bite of chocolate and to describe your experience of the chocolate—how it tastes, how it feels on your
tongue, and so on. You would be involved in which method of psychological research?
a. experimental c. introspective
b. correlational d. case study
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
7. According to humanistic psychologists, you can achieve free will by choosing

a. to follow the six core virtues. c. your construal of the world.
b. to have an authentic existence. d. your life’s purpose.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
8. Which element of humanistic psychology best corresponds to the study of happiness?

a. holistic c. historic
b. phenomenological d. positivity
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
9. Which of the following philosophers was NOT mentioned in the text as an existentialist thinker?
a. Kierkegaard c. Sartre
b. Nietzsche d. Descartes
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism
10. From an existential perspective, what is the key question with which every individual is faced?
a. What is the nature of existence?
b. How can happiness be created?
c. What is an individual’s unique experience of the world?
d. How can one achieve the optimal experience?
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism
11. consists of your biological experiences and consists of your psychological

experiences.
a. Umwelt; Eigenwelt c. Eigenwelt; Mitwelt
b. Mitwelt; Umwelt d. Umwelt; Mitwelt
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism: The Three Parts of Experience
12. Wei watched himself in the mirror and was overcome with the remarkable insight that he was
observing himself in the mirror. Wei is experiencing
a. self-actualization. c. Eigenwelt.
b. Mitwelt. d. angst.
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Existentialism: The Three Parts of Experience
13. Carolyn is fondly thinking about her mother. Carolyn is experiencing

a. self-actualization. c. Eigenwelt.
b. Mitwelt. d. angst.
ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Existentialism: The Three Parts of Experience
14. is a term for the time, place, and circumstances into which you happened to be born.
a. Existential location c. Thrown-ness
b. Eigenwelt d. Angst
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: “Thrown-ness” and Angst
15. Also known as Geworfenheit, refers to the time, place, and circumstances into which you
happened to be born.
a. niche c. era
b. thrown-ness d. ethos
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: “Thrown-ness” and Angst
16. According to Sartre, angst can be analyzed into three separate sensations. What are they?
a. nothingness, nausea, alienation
b. loneliness, despair, hopelessness
c. helplessness, hopelessness, worthlessness
d. anguish, forlornness, despair
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: “Thrown-ness” and Angst
17. Jerry has been wondering what life means and whether he is living his life purposefully. If he cannot
answer these questions, he will probably experience
a. angst. c. Eigenwelt.
b. thrown-ness. d. self-actualization.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism: “Thrown-ness” and Angst
208 | CHAPTER 12
18. Jorge realizes that helping one set of people could lead others to suffer. According to Sartre, what
sensation will this insight produce?
a. nausea c. anguish
b. alienation d. despair
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism: “Thrown-ness” and Angst
19. The courage to face mortality and the apparent meaninglessness of life is called by
existential philosophers.
a. optimistic toughness c. autotelic existence
b. hardiness d. Eigenwelt
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: Bad Faith
20. Existentialists would say that if Donna does not worry about existential concerns but instead focuses
on getting a job, obtaining material wealth, or maintaining her friendships, then she will
a. become a fully functioning person. c. still not be happy.
b. experience authentic existence. d. live an autotelic life.
ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Existentialism: Bad Faith
21. Mike thinks that sitting around contemplating the meaning of existence is a waste of time. He spends
his life concentrating on developing his career, building a bigger house for his family, and enjoying
himself. Sartre and other existentialists would say that Mike is
a. living in bad faith.
b. preventing himself from becoming a functioning person.
c. ignoring Mitwelt.
d. following core ideas of self-determination theory.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism: Bad Faith
22. According to existentialist philosophy, the opposite of living in bad faith is

a. authentic existence. c. objectivism.
b. autotelic existence. d. Eigenwelt.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: Authentic Existence
23. Nietzsche argued that the MOST honorable response to the dilemmas of existence is to
a. retreat to close relationships to manage your terror.
b. rise above it all and become a superman.
c. acknowledge your own despair.
d. distract yourself from your inevitable sense of dread.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: Authentic Existence
24. According to Sartre, the existential challenge is to

a. avoid thinking about the meaning of existence.
b. face the basic uncertainty and anguish of life and find personal meaning.
c. maintain generativity and avoid stagnation.
d. become a fully functioning, self-actualizing person.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: Authentic Existence
25. Sanjay has come to terms with his mortality, accepted responsibility for his existence, and knows that
he determines what happens in his life. Existentialists would say that Sanjay is
a. living in bad faith. c. attaining authentic existence.
b. experiencing thrown-ness. d. achieving Mitwelt.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism: Authentic Existence
26. What Buddhist term refers to the idea that an independent singular self is simply an illusion?
a. anatta c. nirvana
b. anicca d. Eigenwelt
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: The Eastern Alternative
27. What Buddhist term refers to the idea that all things are in flux and impermanent?
a. anatta c. nirvana
b. anicca d. Eigenwelt
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: The Eastern Alternative
28. The Buddhist alternative to existential anguish, forlornness, and despair is

a. anatta. c. nirvana.
b. anicca. d. Eigenwelt.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Existentialism: The Eastern Alternative
29. If one achieves a state of complete serenity, selflessness, and awareness, he or she has MOST likely
achieved
a. anicca. c. nirvana.
b. anatta. d. construal.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism: The Eastern Alternative
210 | CHAPTER 12
30. Which of the following would NOT be an example of Rogerian psychotherapy?

a. Acknowledge and appreciate a client’s every viewpoint.
b. Ask a client to describe his or her ideal self and his or her actual self.
c. Help a client develop a gratitude list.
d. Do not attempt to change or modify anything about a client.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
31. According to a study reported in the text, one result of Rogerian psychotherapy may be that
a. people report feeling like they become closer to their ideal selves.
b. people establish their own conditions of worth.
c. clients report feeling more experiences of flow.
d. clients meet their hierarchy of needs.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
32. Which of the following is NOT a concern when evaluating the benefits of Rogerian psychotherapy?
a. It is not clear that the match between perceived self and ideal self is an adequate criterion
for psychological adjustment.
b. No measurable variables have been used to evaluate Rogerian therapy.
c. The results may be due to clients changing their ideal views.
d. The sole criterion used for determining adjustment could lead us to consider people with
obvious disorders as being well-adjusted.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
33. Which two individuals are credited with turning existentialism into a more optimistic view of life?
a. Sartre and Nietzsche c. Rogers and Maslow
b. Rogers and Freud d. Maslow and Maddi
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
34. The humanist psychologists Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow took basic existential assumptions and
added the assumption that
a. people are good and have an innate need to make themselves and the world better.
b. to know a person, it is essential to understand his or her phenomenology.
c. only humans, as opposed to other animals, have an awareness of their own mortality.
d. people are essentially childlike and have an innate tendency toward selfishness and
impulsivity.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
35. The highest need proposed by Maslow was self-

a. determination. c. actualization.
b. esteem. d. transcendence.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
36. Carl Rogers maintained that the one basic tendency for humans is to
a. maintain and enhance life. c. identify personal constructs.
b. struggle against despair and anguish. d. develop conditions of worth.
37. According to Carl Rogers, a person can only be understood from the perspective of the entire
panorama of his or her conscious experience or what he called the
a. organismic perspective. c. Eigenwelt.
b. phenomenological position. d. phenomenal field.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
38. To avoid developing conditions of worth, a person should experience from the important
people in his or her life.
a. unconditional positive regard c. conditions of worth
b. Mitwelt d. existential optimism
39. According to Rogers, believing that others value you based only on intelligence, success, or
attractiveness can lead to
a. existential dread. c. despair.
b. unconditional positive regard. d. conditions of worth.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
40. According to Carl Rogers, you can become a only if you experience from
important others in your life.
a. fully functioning person; unconditional positive regard
b. fully functioning adult; unconditioned stimulation
c. authentic person; unconditional love
d. fully functioning person; positive reinforcement
41. Linda thinks that her friends will like her only if she is thin, attractive, and cheerful. Rogers would say
it is unlikely that Linda will
a. self-actualize. c. build personal constructs.
b. become a fully functioning person. d. experience Umwelt.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
212 | CHAPTER 12
42. Some American corporations use Maslow’s ideas when dealing with their employees. For example,
they might
a. maximize their employees’ feelings of security so that the employees can pursue higher
goals and identify with the organization.
b. attempt to hire only people who are close to achieving at least minimal levels of
self-actualization.
c. reinforce desired employee behavior by providing small salary increases whenever an
employee performs an activity that is beyond what is usually expected.
d. maximize their employees’ feelings of material satisfaction so that the employees
become financially dependent upon the company (and are thus more dedicated to it).
43. From an optimistic humanism perspective, what is true of all human beings?
a. They begin as blank slates.
b. They are basically good.
c. They are aware of their surroundings.
d. They come from the earth and will return to it when they die.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow
44. Which theorist would MOST likely make the statement that above all else, individuals are driven to
fulfill all that meets their basic needs of survival?
a. Maslow c. Kelly
b. Rogers d. Csikszentmihalyi
45. All of the following make up Maslow’s hierarchy of needs EXCEPT

a. self-actualization. c. status and esteem.
b. safety and security. d. extraversion and openness.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow: The Hierarchy of Needs: Maslow
46. According to the text, what is the main goal of psychotherapy from a humanistic perspective?
a. to help the client confront her fears
b. to help the client vocalize her subconscious thoughts
c. to help the client become a fully functioning person
d. to help the psychologist gather data about the human condition
REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow: Psychotherapy
47. What basic approach do humanistic, Rogerian psychotherapists use when treating their patients?
a. utilize the talking cure
b. offer them unconditional positive regard
c. offer harsh advice and criticism
d. relate the patients’ issues to those of their own
REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow: Psychotherapy
48. According to George Kelly, a person’s interpretation or theory of what the world is like is his or her
a. phenomenal field. c. personal construct system.
b. Eigenwelt. d. circumplex model.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly
49. George Kelly’s personal construct theory emphasizes that individuals

a. construct reality through neurotic distortions.
b. build an authentic existence through the acceptance of personal responsibility.
c. construct a hierarchy of needs that motivates behavior.
d. build the experience of reality through unique sets of ideas about the world.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly
50. Research has shown that some personal constructs are more readily called to mind than others. These
constructs are considered
a. chronically accessible. c. intrinsic notions.
b. recall-ready. d. intrinsically motivated.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly: Sources of Constructs
51. George Kelly believed that to understand a person, you need to understand his or her personal
construct system. This idea is known as
a. the interpersonal circumplex. c. construct renewal.
b. constructive alternativism. d. the sociality corollary.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly: Sources of Constructs
52. The theorist would likely use the metaphor “humans are scientists” to describe the nature of
human psychology.
a. George Kelly c. Abraham Maslow
b. Carl Rogers d. Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly: Sources of Constructs
214 | CHAPTER 12
53. The personality test that asks you to identify sets of three people, ideas, or objects and describe how
any two of them are similar to each other and different from the third is attempting to assess your
a. hierarchy of needs. c. cognitive scripts.
b. conditions of worth. d. personal constructs.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly: Sources of Constructs
54. The idea that you choose your own reality is closest to which concept in the humanistic perspective on
personality?
a. Eigenwelt c. sociality corollary
b. constructive alternativism d. self-determination theory
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly: Constructs and Reality
55. George realizes that if he moves his food truck to a different neighborhood, he’ll make twice the
profit. When George makes the move, he is achieving a(n) goal.
a. optimizing c. profitable
b. satisficing d. opportunity
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personal Constructs: Kelly: Constructs and Reality
56. Aleksa is taking a walk through a forest and is very aware of every sound she hears and every thought
she has. What is Aleksa currently experiencing?
a. mindfulness c. awe
b. flow d. nirvana
REF: Positive Psychology: Positive Experience: Mindfulness, Flow, and Awe
57. Jacqueline is visiting the Notre Dame cathedral in Paris. Upon entering the cathedral for the first time,
she is overcome by its vastness and her own feelings of humility. What is Jacqueline currently
experiencing?
b. flow d. nirvana
58. Jennifer is so immersed in a video game that she doesn’t realize how late it has gotten or that her
mother has been calling her to dinner. What is Jennifer currently experiencing?
b. flow d. nirvana
59. Flow most likely arises when one’s activity entails a balanced ratio of to .
a. effort; reward c. approach; avoidance
b. stress; eustress d. skills; challenges
60. Research suggests that individuals high in which personality attribute are MOST likely to experience
flow?
a. locus of control c. openness
b. extraversion d. self-monitoring
61. An autotelic activity

a. results in social reinforcement such as praise or approval.
b. produces a material reinforcement such as money.
c. releases unconscious urges and desires.
d. is enjoyable for its own sake.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
62. Csikszentmihalyi’s concept of flow is analogous to

a. self-actualization. c. an optimal experience.
b. an authentic existence. d. existential optimism.
63. The psychological state of flow involves all of the following EXCEPT
a. a focused state of consciousness. c. intense feelings of joy and happiness.
b. a disrupted sense of time. d. tremendous concentration.
64. Csikszentmihalyi concluded that the best way someone can spend his or her time is in
activities.
a. telegraphic c. nomotelic
b. autotelic d. autographic
216 | CHAPTER 12
65. Which of the following is NOT an example of an experience of flow?

a. writing a paper for four hours straight
b. playing a video game that requires a lot of skill
c. binge-watching a television series
d. running a marathon
ANS: C DIF: Easy
66. According to self-determination theory, which of the following should be limited?

a. autonomy c. eudaimonic pleasure
b. competence d. hedonic pleasure
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Happiness: Defining Happiness
67. Based on self-determination theory, the individual who is likely to report the highest level
of well-being.
a. values financial success c. is focused on personal growth
b. seeks fame d. is focused on hedonic pleasures
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Happiness: Defining Happiness
68. Stephen seeks to maximize pleasure and minimize pain. He pursues

a. hedonic well-being. c. bad faith.
b. eudaimonic well-being. d. self-determination.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Happiness: Defining Happiness
69. According to self-determination theory, individuals who seek to increase their will limit
their .
a. intrinsic pleasure; extrinsic pleasure c. eudaimonic pleasure; hedonic pleasure
b. hedonic pleasure; eudaimonic pleasure d. well-being; happiness
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Happiness: Defining Happiness
70. According to the text, which of the following questions is central positive and humanistic psychology
but is NOT traditional psychology?
a. What is the meaning of life?
b. How are people different from one another?
c. How are people motivated to succeed?
d. What parts of the brain relate to our personality?
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Positive Psychology
71. Which of the following virtues is LEAST important in Eastern traditions?

a. humanity c. temperance
b. justice d. courage
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Positive Psychology
72. is the relatively recent branch of psychology that investigates the traits, processes, and
social institutions that promote a good and meaningful life.
a. Hedonic well-being c. Positive psychology
b. Eudaimonic well-being d. Optimistic psychology
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Positive Psychology
73. Positive psychology seeks to study human rather than .

a. behavior; thoughts or cognitions c. potential; behavior
b. strengths; faults d. nature; social constructions
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Positive Psychology
74. Positive psychologists usually argue that true happiness comes from overcoming important challenges.
This idea is quite similar to Sartre’s conception of
a. optimistic toughness. c. self-actualization.
b. hardiness. d. Umwelt.
75. Which of the following is NOT a major component of defining happiness?

a. high levels of positive emotions and low levels of negative emotions
b. satisfaction with how things are going in different life domains
c. achieving absolute existential awareness
d. overall satisfaction with life
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Positive Psychology
76. Which of the following factors is NOT a major contributor toward one’s happiness?
a. life circumstances
b. intentional activities
c. genetically determined individual set points
d. cultural upbringing
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Positive Psychology
218 | CHAPTER 12
77. According to the text, which of the following contributes to your happiness the MOST?
a. your genes c. making a lot of money
b. getting married d. gratitude interventions
78. According to the text, which of the following best describes the relationship between happiness and
positive life outcomes?
a. Happiness leads to positive life outcomes.
b. Positive life outcomes lead to happiness.
c. Happiness leads to positive life outcomes, which in turn increases happiness.
d. There is not enough evidence on the link between happiness and positive life outcomes.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Positive Psychology
79. Which of the following is NOT one of the core virtues identified by positive psychology?
a. courage c. justice
b. purity d. wisdom
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Positive Psychology: Virtues
80. From a phenomenological perspective, to understand another person, you must understand
a. that person’s construals. c. how they feel about you.
b. that person’s family history. d. yourself.
REF: Humanistic and Positive Psychology in the 21st Century: Understanding Others
MATCHING
Match the theory or central idea that is associated with each philosopher or psychologist.
a. The theory of flow
b. Personal construct theory
c. Hierarchy of needs
d. Self-actualization
e. Self-determination theory
f. Existentialistic superman
g. The experience of Umwelt, Mitwelt, and Eigenwelt
h. Thrown-ness
i. Optimistic toughness
1. George Kelly
2. Friedrich Nietzsche
3. Carl Rogers
4. Abraham Maslow
5. Jean-Paul Sartre
6. Ludwig Binswanger
7. Mihalyi Csikszentmihalyi
8. Richard Ryan and Edward Deci

9. Heidegger
1. ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything

2. ANS: F DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
3. ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
4. ANS: C DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
5. ANS: I DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
6. ANS: G DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
7. ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
8. ANS: E DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
9. ANS: H DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything
SHORT ANSWER
1. What does it mean to take a phenomenological perspective on personality? Explain the basic idea of
phenomenology and describe the philosophical roots of this approach.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Phenomenology: Awareness Is Everything

2. What is “thrown-ness” and why does it lead to angst? What do existentialist philosophers believe
should be done to cope with these feelings? Compare this perspective with a Buddhist perspective.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Existentialism OBJ: 12.3

MSC: Understanding
220 | CHAPTER 12
3. Explain how a business could apply Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to facilitate employee motivation
and success. Provide specific recommendations for each of the needs in Maslow’s hierarchy.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult
REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow: The Hierarchy of Needs: Maslow
4. Describe Rogerian psychotherapy. What does a Rogerian therapist attempt to do for clients? Why
does Rogers think this approach should work? What might be a downside to a humanistic view of
mental health?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Optimistic Humanism: Rogers and Maslow: Psychotherapy

5. What is positive psychology and how is it directly linked to humanistic perspectives? What is
potentially new about this movement? What elements of humanistic psychology have yet to be fully
addressed by this approach?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Positive Psychology OBJ: 12.11

MSC: Evaluating
6. How is happiness defined? What are the potential causes of happiness? Are there any downsides to
being too happy?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Happiness OBJ: 12.12 MSC: Understanding

Cultural Variation in Experience,
CHAPTER 13
Behavior, and Personality
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 13.7. Distinguish between individualist and collectivist

cultures.
13.1. Be able to define both cultural and bicultural
13.8. Identify and discuss challenges, controversies, and
identity.
biases psychologists face when studying personality
13.2. Know the relationship between behavior, personal- cross-culturally.
ity, and culture.
13.9. Identify and discuss the implications of cultural
13.3. Understand how the honor, face, and dignity of par- relativism.
ticular countries contribute to their cultural makeup.
13.10. Explain the ways in which individuals interact with
13.4. Identify and describe the ways in which culture is their culture.
studied in psychology.
13.11. Identify the importance of and know the difference
13.5. Distinguish between characteristics that are found in between studying both within- and between-culture
all cultures (cultural universals, etics) and traits that differences.
are unique to certain cultures (cross-cultural speci-
13.12. Define the ecological approach to cross-cultural
ficity, emics).
psychology and understand its implications on
13.6. Identify the different cultural characteristics and cross-cultural psychology.
understand their implications in cross-cultural
psychology.
221
222 | CHAPTER 13
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What term associated with Japanese culture refers to indulgence and dependence that may exist
between a parent and child?
a. amae c. anicca
b. anatta d. amie
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Cultural Variation in Experience, Behavior, and Personality
2. occurs when a child picks up the cultural influences of the place where he or she grows up.
a. Acculturation c. Assimilation
b. Enculturation d. Accommodation
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Culture and Psychology: What Is Culture?
3. occurs when someone moves to a new place and gradually picks up the culture of the new
location.
a. Acculturation c. Assimilation
b. Enculturation d. Accommodation
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Culture and Psychology: What Is Culture?
4. According to the text, refers to the psychological attributes of groups.

a. culture c. socioeconomic status
b. acculturation d. enculturation
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Culture and Psychology: What Is Culture?
5. Nima moved to the United States when she was 5 years old, and she gradually adopted the language,
attitudes, and styles of American culture. The process through which Nima became Americanized is
known as
a. enculturation. c. accommodation.
b. acculturation. d. assimilation.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Culture and Psychology: What Is Culture?
Cultural Variation in Experience, Behavior, and Personality | 223
6. Which of the following is NOT an important reason for identifying cross-cultural differences in
experience, personality, and behavior?
a. The differences provide support for genetic explanations for personality.
b. The differences, if not understood, may cause misunderstandings.
c. Such differences tell us about variability in human experiences.
d. Cross-cultural research informs us about the generalizability of research findings.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Importance of Cross-Cultural Differences
7. According to the textbook, what behavior led to a Danish mother’s arrest in New York?
a. breastfeeding in public
b. spanking her child in public
c. leaving her 14-month-old daughter asleep in a stroller
d. giving marijuana to her 16-year-old son
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: The Importance of Cross-Cultural Differences: Cross-Cultural Understanding
8. According to Cohen, Nisbett, Bowdle, and Schwartz (1996), the American South has a culture that
involves elaborate displays of mutual respect. This idea is called the
a. culture of obligation. c. ritualistic respect.
b. culture of honor. d. customs of obligation.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: The Importance of Cross-Cultural Differences: Cross-Cultural Understanding
9. Psychologists who are concerned that the results of contemporary empirical research may not apply to
all people everywhere are questioning the of those results.
a. reliability c. cross-cultural flexibility
b. generalizability d. construct validity
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: The Importance of Cross-Cultural Differences: Generalizability of Theory and Research
10. It has been suggested that the only way psychologists can address the generalizability issue is to
a. conduct research using participants from around the world.
b. limit their focus to one homogeneous sample at a time.
c. subtract the effects of culture from their research findings.
d. repeat their studies in carefully controlled laboratory settings.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
224 | CHAPTER 13
11. According to Henrich et al., 80 percent of participants come from countries that are
a. Western, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic.
b. white, European, independent, Republican, and diligent.
c. wealthy, extraverted, intellectual, reactive, and dominant.
d. weak, Eastern, introverted, regressive, and distant.
12. If members of two cultures experience the same emotions, seek the same goals, and organize their
thoughts in comparable ways, then the two cultures
a. are individualistic cultures.
b. have collectivist construals.
c. have similar experience-near constructs.
d. view the world through culture-free lenses.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: The Importance of Cross-Cultural Differences: Varieties of Human Experience
13. The best analogy to describe the experience-near constructs within the field of cross-cultural
psychology is
a. “walking a mile in another’s shoes.”
b. “the squeaky wheel gets the grease.”
c. “seeing the world through different lenses.”
d. “the nail that stands out gets pounded down.”
REF: The Importance of Cross-Cultural Differences: Varieties of Human Experience
14. Components of ideas that are particular to a specific culture are called , and components that
are universal across cultures are called .
a. individualisms; collectivisms c. cultures; values
b. emics; etics d. etics; emics
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Etics and Emics
15. Concepts like amae and yuan might be , whereas concepts like duty and obligations to the
group might be .
a. etic; emic c. experience near; experience far
b. emic; etic d. experience far; experience near
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Etics and Emics
16. According to the text, what term describes cultures that have only a few socially sanctioned goals and
only a few ways to achieve these goals?
a. authoritarian c. tough
b. vertical d. stressful
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Tough and Easy
17. David McClelland would argue that a culture that emphasizes children’s stories, such as “The Little
Engine That Could,” has a high need for
a. achievement. c. appraisal.
b. affiliation. d. affluence.
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Achievement and Affiliation OBJ: 13.6
MSC: Applying
18. David McClelland would argue that a culture that tells stories emphasizing community and social
bonds would have a high need for
a. community. c. affiliation.
b. achievement. d. agreeableness.
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Achievement and Affiliation OBJ: 13.6
MSC: Applying
19. According to the text, which characteristic of cultures might be the MOST difficult to judge?
a. toughness c. heart
b. tightness d. complexity
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Complexity
20. According to the text, what two factors are hypothesized to influence whether a culture is high in
tightness?
a. population density and economic conditions
b. ethnic homogeneity and economic conditions
c. ethnic homogeneity and population density
d. population density and the dominant religion
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Tightness and Looseness OBJ: 13.6
MSC: Understanding
21. Which of the following countries would MOST likely be classified as having a “loose” culture?
a. United States c. Japan
b. China d. Germany
MSC: Applying
226 | CHAPTER 13
22. If less than 2 percent of a country’s population exhibits left-handedness, then cross-cultural
researchers might say that this is likely a(n) culture.
a. tight c. collectivist
b. simple d. loose
MSC: Applying
23. According to Triandis, cultures that tolerate very little deviation from cultural norms are high in
a. collectivism. c. strictness.
b. agency. d. tightness.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
24. Which city in the United States had the lowest “heart” score, according to a recent survey?
a. San Francisco c. Boston
b. Washington, D.C. d. New York
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Head Versus Heart
25. Which of the following is NOT a “strength of the head”?

a. artistic excellence c. critical thinking
b. creativity d. fairness
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Head Versus Heart
26. According to one study, city residents who scored higher on strengths of the head tended to vote for
the presidential nominee.
a. Republican c. Democratic
b. Independent d. Green Party
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Head Versus Heart
27. According to Park and Peterson (2010), which attribute is a strength of the heart?
a. mercy c. curiosity
b. creativity d. artistic excellence
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Head Versus Heart
28. cultures tend to emphasize the needs of the group.

a. Tight c. Complex
b. Collectivist d. Tough
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: The Self and Others
29. Which of the following people is likely to be the MOST individualistic?

a. a woman from Japan c. an African American woman
b. a man from India d. a European American man
30. A culture that stresses “tall poppies are cut first” or that “the nail that stands out gets pounded down”
might be high in which cultural dimension?
a. tightness c. heart
b. collectivism d. toughness
31. Based on research discussed in the text comparing the importance of personality traits between
individualistic and collectivistic countries, in which country would you expect there to be less
research on personality traits and more research on social phenomena?
a. United States c. China
b. New Zealand d. Germany
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Personality and Collectivism
32. Which finding has been used to support the argument that personality itself has no meaning in
collectivist societies?
a. the inability of researchers to find Big Five domains in cultures outside of the United
States
b. the relatively few number of trait-related words in Chinese
c. the inability of Japanese individuals to understand personality inventories
d. the lack of predictive validity of trait measures in Asian countries
33. One potential argument for the claim that personality seems to matter less in collectivistic cultures is
that
a. the Chinese language has far fewer trait words than the English language.
b. more autobiographies are written in collectivistic cultures.
c. social hierarchies are more important in individualistic cultures.
d. Chinese students often call their professors by their first names whereas American
students never do.
228 | CHAPTER 13
34. Although individuals from a(n) culture may become discouraged after negative feedback,
individuals from a(n) culture tend to be more encouraged to do better next time.
a. tight; loose c. individualistic; collectivistic
b. loose; tight d. collectivistic; individualistic
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Behavioral Consistency
35. An individual from is more likely to have a different emotional experience at school versus
at home with their family, compared to an individual from , who is more likely to have a
similar emotional experience at school and at home.
a. New Zealand; Japan c. United States; China
b. Japan; China d. China; United States
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Behavioral Consistency
36. “Losing face” is a primary danger in a(n) culture.

a. complex c. tight
b. individualist d. collectivist
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Sociability, Emotion, and
Motivation OBJ: 13.7 MSC: Understanding
37. The holier-than-thou effect is MOST likely to occur in members from what country?
a. Spain c. England
b. China d. India
Motivation OBJ: 13.7 MSC: Applying
38. Members from which country would be MOST likely to self-enhance?

a. Spain c. Germany
b. China d. India
Motivation OBJ: 13.7 MSC: Applying
39. Members of different kinds of cultures may experience emotions differently. People in
countries report more self-focused emotions, whereas people in countries are more likely to
report other-focused emotions.
a. emic; etic c. tight; loose
b. complex; simple d. individualistic; collectivist
Motivation OBJ: 13.7 MSC: Analyzing
40. What does self-determination mean?

a. Your behavior is a result of the situation you are in.
b. Your behavior is a result of your own personality.
c. Free will is only a consideration in individualistic cultures.
d. Your behavior is more consistent the more socially embedded you are.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Verticality and Compassion
41. According to Triandis, societies assume that individuals are importantly different from each
other.
a. vertical c. horizontal
b. authoritarian d. idiographic
ANS: A DIF: Easy
42. According to Triandis, societies assume that all persons are essentially equal.
a. vertical c. horizontal
b. authoritative d. nomothetic
ANS: C DIF: Easy
43. According to the text, which of the following is considered to have a collectivist-vertical society?
a. United States c. Japan
b. Israel d. China
44. According to the text, which of the following is considered to have an individualist-horizontal
society?
a. Brazil c. Norway
b. Israel d. France
45. According to a recent survey, which of these countries had the highest levels of self-compassion?
a. Thailand
b. Taiwan
c. United States
d. All three countries had the same average levels of self-compassion.
230 | CHAPTER 13
46. What is the MOST dominant criticism for the collectivistic/individualistic dichotomy in the
comparison between Japan and the United States?
a. The United States and Japan score relatively similarly on individualism measures.
b. There is typically a great difference between the sample sizes in the United States and
Japan.
c. There are more females in the United States, and so the results are biased and
uninterpretable.
d. Individualism and collectivism are not yet well-defined constructs.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Cautions about
Collectivism/Individualism: The Japanese Case OBJ: 13.7
MSC: Remembering
47. Which of the following is a negative outcome of relying on the individualism/collectivism dichotomy,
particularly in regard to Japan and the United States?
a. The dichotomy is too similar to other cultural constructs, such as tightness/looseness or
horizontal/vertical societies.
b. There is a limited amount of information that can be used to compare groups.
c. There is the potential for dehumanizing outgroup members.
d. Individualism and collectivism are not yet well-defined constructs.
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Cautions about
Collectivism/Individualism: The Japanese Case OBJ: 13.7
MSC: Understanding
48. The level of individualism in a country tends to increase over time as that country
a. becomes more economically developed.
b. increases in population size.
c. increases in population density.
d. has a more hierarchical social network.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism: Is the World Becoming More
Individualistic? OBJ: 13.7 MSC: Understanding
49. According to the text, cultures of face emerge in societies that

a. have higher rates of suicide.
b. have societies with weak forces of civilization.
c. are highly sensitive to threats of prestige or distinction.
d. are stable hierarchies based on cooperation.
REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Honor, Face, and Dignity OBJ: 13.3
MSC: Understanding
50. The United States is a culture.

a. tough c. horizontal collectivist
b. face d. dignity
MSC: Understanding
51. What condition or conditions seem to facilitate the development of honor cultures?
a. central governments and well-established judicial systems
b. weak central governments and a lack of police
c. low population density
d. collectivist values
MSC: Understanding
52. Cultural tightness is analogous to the personality traits of

a. ideocentrism and allocentrism.
b. conscientiousness and intolerance for ambiguity.
c. extraversion and introversion.
d. neuroticism and emotional stability.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment
53. Cultural complexity is much like the individual personality trait of

a. the need for cognition. c. cognitive complexity.
b. emotional intelligence. d. allocentrism.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment
54. The individualist versus collectivist distinction is analogous to the distinction between with
respect to personal values.
a. ideocentrism and allocentrism
b. conscientiousness and intolerance for ambiguity
c. extraversion and introversion
d. neuroticism and emotional stability
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment
55. Some cross-cultural researchers compare average levels of traits across cultures. For example, Chueng
and Song (1989) found that Chinese participants generally described themselves as higher on
when compared to an American sample.
a. emotional reserve c. impulsivity
b. extraversion d. sensation seeking
REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment: Comparing the Same Traits Across Cultures
232 | CHAPTER 13
56. Studies of cross-cultural gender differences in the Big Five tend to find that
a. few Big Five gender differences replicate across societies.
b. the size and direction of gender differences on these traits are the same in all societies.
c. the size of the gender differences is larger in more-developed societies than in
less-developed societies.
d. the direction and size of gender differences on these traits fluctuate widely across
societies.
57. Countries with low average levels of self-esteem also tend to have high rates of
a. narcissism. c. violence.
b. locus of control. d. suicide.
58. Shannon has lived in Wisconsin her whole life. According to the Rentfrow, Gosling, and Potter (2008)
study of geographic variation in personality, which type of person is Shannon likely to be?
a. friendly and conventional c. relaxed and creative
b. temperamental and uninhibited d. extraverted and agreeable
59. Studies of endogenous personality descriptors in China and Spain seem to suggest that there are
factors in each lexicon.
a. three c. six
b. five d. seven
REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment: Different Traits for Different Cultures?
60. What conclusion emerges from item response theory (IRT) analyses that are used to evaluate the
validity of cross-cultural comparisons of common personality measures?
a. Mean level comparisons across countries and cultures are straightforward.
b. Personality variability is greater in collectivist countries as compared to individualistic
countries.
c. Mean level comparisons across countries might be difficult due to item-responding
differences.
d. Most people use personality items in the same way regardless of culture.
61. Several studies have examined whether certain Big Five traits apply universally across cultures. As it
stands, which trait does NOT appear to be truly universal?
62. What does it mean for a culture to think holistically?

a. It explains events in context and seeks to integrate divergent points of view.
b. It describes people in terms of their traits, life stories, and personal goals.
c. It describes the world as it stands in the present moment.
d. It explains events in isolation and seeks to set different points of views against one
another.
REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment: Thinking: Holistic Perception and the Self
63. Individuals from which country would be the LEAST willing to describe themselves in contradictory
terms?
a. China c. India
b. Japan d. United States
64. Cross-cultural psychology has examined differences in the way that members of various cultures
think. Some research suggests that people from collectivist cultures think more than those
from individualistic cultures.
a. holistically c. creatively
b. logically d. intelligently
ANS: A DIF: Easy
65. Shalom Schwartz and Lilach Sagiv (1995) identified and as the two basic
dimensions that they believe organize universal values.
a. openness to change versus conservatism; self-transcendence versus self-enhancement
b. openness to change versus conservatism; agency versus communion
c. collectivism versus individualism; vertical versus horizontal
d. agency versus communion; utilitarian versus deontic
REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment: Values: The Search for Universal Values
234 | CHAPTER 13
66. Cross-cultural researchers interested in discovering universal values are developing an

measure.
a. emic c. ethnocentric
b. etic d. endogenous
REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment: Values: The Search for Universal Values
67. Which value would MOST likely be associated with a collectivist culture?
a. liberty c. rights
b. reciprocity d. freedom
REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment: Values: Cultural Differences in Values
68. The example of the abortion debate that illustrates the difference between personal freedoms and
group moral responsibility illustrates which inherent cultural distinction?
a. tough versus easy c. individualism versus collectivism
b. horizontal versus vertical d. etic versus emic
REF: Cultural Assessment and Personality Assessment: Values: Cultural Differences in Values
69. Rakim argues that a particular culture’s distinctive view of reality simply exists and believes that there
is no way to meaningfully address the origin of cultural differences. Rakim seems to subscribe to
which philosophical tradition?
a. empiricism c. deconstructionism
b. existentialism d. naturalism
REF: The Origins of Cultural Differences: Avoiding the Issue OBJ: 13.9
MSC: Applying
70. In Triandis’s model, the distinctive tasks a culture needs to accomplish and the physical layout and
resources of its land are called the culture’s
a. ecology. c. socialization processes.
b. complexity. d. personality.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Origins of Cultural Differences: The Ecological Approach
71. According to the ecological approach, differences in ecology generate differences in , which
in turn shapes .
a. socialization; culture c. culture; socialization
b. personality; culture d. behavior; personality
ANS: C DIF: Easy
72. One reason Europeans were able to colonize and dominate other cultures was that they
a. never needed to develop metal-based tools for agriculture.
b. lived close together in cities and thereby developed immunities to certain diseases.
c. gathered food rather than hunted or farmed.
d. failed to appreciate the importance of their local geography.
73. Extraversion, openness, and sociosexuality might be lower in countries near the equator because low
levels of these traits
a. facilitate greater group cooperation.
b. reduce interpersonal contact and disease risk.
c. promote psychological well-being in warm climates.
d. facilitate hunting in complicated ecological systems.
74. Which of the following is NOT evidence for genetic differences as a source of cultural differences?
a. The DRD4 gene has been found in both Americans and Asians.
b. Individuals from collectivistic cultures tend to have more children.
c. Individuals within a cultural group are only slightly more similar to each other in their
DNA makeup than they are to individuals outside their cultural group.
d. Because individuals move in and out of cultures so frequently, it is difficult to define
cultural groups on the basis of anything in particular.
REF: The Origins of Cultural Differences: Genetics and Culture
75. Ethnocentrism is the tendency to

a. judge another culture from the point of view of our own.
b. see members of groups to which we do not belong as all being alike.
c. see members of our own ethnic group as all being very different from one another.
d. limit the focus of cross-cultural research by studying one group at a time.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Challenges and New Directions for Cross-Cultural Research: Ethnocentrism
76. We are MOST likely to commit ethnocentrism when the “real” nature of the situation
a. is difficult to understand. c. seems very obvious.
b. directly affects us. d. does not involve us.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: Challenges and New Directions for Cross-Cultural Research: Ethnocentrism
236 | CHAPTER 13
77. The tendency to see members of your own group as very different from one another but the members
of groups to which you do not belong as very similar to each other is called the
a. ethnocentric error. c. bicultural contrast error.
b. in-group favoritism bias. d. outgroup homogeneity bias.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Challenges and New Directions for Cross-Cultural Research: The Exaggeration of Cultural
Differences OBJ: 13.8 MSC: Remembering
78. The idea that all cultural views are equally valid and that it is ethnocentric to think otherwise is called
a. the semiotic subject fallacy. c. cultural relativism.
b. the deconstructionist dodge. d. semiotic pluralism.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: Challenges and New Directions for Cross-Cultural Research: Cultures and Values
79. Why is relativism considered bad in the context of cross-cultural psychology?

a. Researchers may disregard cultural practices and customs that are actually quite harmful
to the group.
b. Researchers may be too biased by their own ethnocentrism to accurately judge another
culture.
c. Cultural relativism tends to increase the likelihood for out-group homogeneity biases.
d. Cultural relativism might decrease the likelihood of finding cultural emics.
REF: Challenges and New Directions for Cross-Cultural Research: Subcultures and Multiculturalism
80. Given that around half of the world’s population is bilingual, half of the world’s population is also
likely to
a. be left-handed.
b. have a high level of bicultural identity formation.
c. be bicultural.
d. be ethnocentric.
81. Jinny’s parents are from China, but she was born and raised in the United States. If Jinny believes that
American culture and Chinese culture are in conflict with each other, she is likely to be in
.
a. high; bicultural identity integration c. high; ethnocentrism
b. low; bicultural identity integration d. low; ethnocentrism
82. One of the two aspects of the measure of bicultural identity integration (BII) is the degree to which
bicultural individuals
a. see their two cultures as distant from each other.
b. enjoy their two cultures.
c. respect their two cultures.
d. understand their two cultures.
83. According to recent cross-cultural research, bilingual individuals

a. gave the same personality responses in both English and Spanish.
b. reported less extraversion when they completed the personality measure in English.
c. reported more neuroticism when they completed the personality measure in English.
d. reported more conscientiousness when they completed the personality measure in
English.
84. One argument for the universal human condition is that differences between cultural rules for
appropriate behavior may mask
a. similar trait structures. c. similar pathological conditions.
b. similar motivations. d. similar social structures.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Universal Human Condition
MATCHING
Match the description with its associated cultural characteristic.

a. High sensitivity to threats to reputation
b. Limited acceptance for those outside cultural norms
c. Belief that one’s value is directly linked to one’s own success overcoming obstacles
d. Belief that the needs of the group outweigh the needs of the individual
e. Limited availability of goals and the ways to achieve them
f. Belief that people are unique
g. Belief that one’s value is unrelated to others’ opinions
h. Emphasis on attaining goals
i. Avoidance of social conflict through hierarchy, humility, and harmony
j. Sensitivity to success and failure
1. Dignity
2. Need for achievement
3. Collectivism
4. Face
5. Toughness
6. Vertical
7. Head
238 | CHAPTER 13
8. Tightness
9. Self-regard
10. Honor
1. ANS: G DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures

2. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
3. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
4. ANS: I DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
5. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
6. ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
7. ANS: H DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
8. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
9. ANS: J DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
10. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures
SHORT ANSWER
1. What is culture? Why are personality psychologists interested in cross-cultural differences? What are
some of the reasons why this is a difficult topic of study?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Culture and Psychology OBJ: 13.4

MSC: Analyzing
2. Why might researchers want to move beyond the collectivism and individualism distinction in the
cross-cultural study of personality? What are some limitations of this approach, and what
modifications have been proposed to broaden the scope of this work?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Collectivism and Individualism

3. Define the newly proposed dimensions of honor, face, and dignity. What conditions are thought to
facilitate the development of honor, face, and dignity cultures?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Characteristics of Cultures: Honor, Face, and Dignity

4. Describe the ecological approach for explaining the origins of cross-cultural differences in behavior.
How does this perspective differ from a deconstructionist perspective on this issue?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Origins of Cultural Differences: The Ecological Approach
5. Describe evidence that is consistent with the idea that genetically influenced personality attributes
generate cultural differences. What considerations are critically important to emphasize when
discussing this possibility?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Origins of Cultural Differences: Genetics and Culture
6. What are the reasons why cultural differences in personality might be exaggerated?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate
REF: Challenges and New Directions for Cross-Cultural Research: The Exaggeration of Cultural
Differences OBJ: 13.8 | 13.2 MSC: Understanding
Personality Processes: Learning,
CHAPTER 14
Motivation, Emotion, and Thinking
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 14.9. Know the different types of goals and how
each acts as a motivating force in an individual’s
14.1. Identify the central tenets of behaviorism. life.
14.2. Distinguish between the various behaviorists and 14.10. Know the different strategies individuals use to
their respective theories. accomplish their goals and how these strategies
relate to their personalities, situations, and
14.3. Describe and identify the main ideas associated
behaviors.
with Bandura’s social learning theories.
14.11. Understand what contributes to one’s emotional
14.4. Understand how behaviorism relates to personality.
experience and the individual differences that
14.5. Identify the three major types of learning and underlie these experiences.
understand how they are similar and different.
14.12. Distinguish between the different types of emotions
14.6. Explain the central ideas behind habituation. in their consequences, contributing factors, and
behavioral outcomes.
14.7. Explain the central ideas behind classical conditioning
and the ways in which it has been studied and tested. 14.13. Understand the types of cognitive theories of per-
sonality and how they differ.
14.8. Explain the central ideas behind operant conditioning
and the ways in which it has been studied and tested.
240
Personality Processes: Learning, Motivation, Emotion, and Thinking | 241
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Behaviorists believe that personality differences can be entirely explained by

a. learning. c. phenomenological processes.
b. behavioral traits. d. IQ.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Personality Processes: Learning, Motivation, Emotion, and Thinking
2. Behaviorism is rooted in the basic principle that all behavior

a. stems from environmental influences.
b. is phenomenological.
c. can be revealed through psychoanalysis.
d. is a result of the personality traits.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
3. The attempt to determine how behavior is connected to the environment is called

a. behavioral linking. c. associationism.
b. empiricism. d. functional analysis.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.1
MSC: Remembering
4. An individual’s environment, from a behaviorist perspective, includes his or her

a. thoughts, feelings, and emotions.
b. close surroundings with others who offer support and advice.
c. rewards and punishments in the physical and social world.
d. immediate physical space (e.g., a forest or a house).
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.1
MSC: Remembering
5. Why do behaviorists believe that useful information only comes from direct observation?
a. This information is more decontextualized.
b. This information is how unconscious motives are expressed.
c. Behaviorists cannot verify internal thoughts or feelings.
d. Behaviorists are more interested in how groups learn than in how individuals learn.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.1
MSC: Understanding
242 | CHAPTER 14
6. Operant conditioning emphasizes , whereas respondent conditioning emphasizes .

a. active learning; passive learning
b. punishment; reward
c. an animal’s learning ability; a human’s learning ability
d. effects on one’s physical world; effects on one’s social world
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Behaviorism: Operant Conditioning
7. According to the central ideas of behaviorism, what are the three main types of learning?
a. learned helplessness, stimulus-response associations, if … then associations
b. habituation, classical conditioning, operant conditioning
c. humanism, hedonism, associationism
d. reinforcement, punishment, conditioning
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.5
MSC: Remembering
8. Based on recent research regarding the ability to forecast emotional reactions to major events, people
tend to
a. be accurate judges of the emotional impact of future events.
b. underestimate the emotional impact of negative events but not positive events.
c. underestimate the emotional impact of positive events but not negative events.
d. overestimate the emotional impact of both negative and positive events.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism: Habituation
9. The idea that, in time, you can get used to almost anything is associated with which learning
mechanism?
a. habituation c. operant conditioning
b. classical conditioning d. respondent conditioning
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism: Habituation
10. According to the concept of affective forecasting, positive events won’t as one might
expect, and negative events won’t as one might expect.
a. lead to as much happiness; lead to as much misery
b. last as long; be as short lasting
c. be as frequent; be as infrequent
d. be as complex; be as simple
11. When a new mobile is first hung over baby Jessica’s crib, she looks at it frequently, but after several
weeks pass she hardly notices it. Jessica has become to the mobile.
a. classically conditioned c. habituated
b. operantly conditioned d. counterconditioned
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism: Habituation
12. Habituation is associated with which of the following changes in behavior over time?
a. a slow increase in behaviors c. a sudden change in behavior
b. a slow decrease in behaviors d. no change in behaviors
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism: Habituation
13. According to recent reviews of the literature, repeated exposure to violent video games can make
someone more aggressive and less empathic. This is an example of
a. the negative consequence of habituation.
b. rank-order change.
c. becoming less consistent.
d. effective classical conditioning.
14. Which of the following is NOT an example of classical conditioning?

a. avoiding a meal that caused you to have food poisoning in the past
b. experiencing nostalgia when visiting a previous residence
c. not studying for an exam because of many previous failed attempts
d. rewarding a dog for good behavior with a treat
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism: Classical Conditioning
15. In Pavlov’s famous studies, when the presentation of meat was frequently preceded by the sound of a
bell, dogs
a. refused to eat the meat.
b. began to salivate at the sound of the bell.
c. showed fear responses to the bell.
d. salivated only when given the meat.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Behaviorism: Classical Conditioning: How Classical Conditioning Works
16. Pavlov’s experiments on the timing of associations demonstrated that two things become associated
because
a. they occur at the exact same time.
b. the conditioned stimulus (CS) comes well before the unconditioned stimulus (UCS).
c. one event changes the meaning of the other event.
d. they have similar perceptual features.
REF: Behaviorism: Classical Conditioning: How Classical Conditioning Works
244 | CHAPTER 14
17. Experiments have shown that if one receives rewards and/or punishments randomly (i.e., regardless of
what one does), then one is likely to develop depression. This phenomenon is known as
a. learned helplessness. c. social learning theory.
b. angst. d. reverse conditioning.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Behaviorism: Classical Conditioning: Learned Helplessness
18. It has been suggested that chronic anxiety is the result of

a. repeated pairing of a common stimulus with an unpleasant response.
b. the occurrence of one predictable negative event.
c. repeated exposure to aversive stimuli that are unpredictable and random.
d. second-order conditioning and stimulus generalization.
REF: Behaviorism: Classical Conditioning: Learned Helplessness
19. Behaviorists like John Watson assumed that an individual’s personality consists of a repertoire of
learned
a. helplessness. c. if … then responses.
b. stimulus-response associations. d. social norms.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Behaviorism: Classical Conditioning: S-R Conception of Personality
20. A light goes on in a room just before an excruciatingly loud buzzer sounds. A subject who startles
when the light goes on shows behavior, but one who leaves the room to avoid the noise
exhibits behavior.
a. respondent; operant c. conditioned; counterconditioned
b. operant; respondent d. counterconditioned; conditioned
REF: Behaviorism: Operant Conditioning: Techniques of Operant Conditioning: Skinner
21. What term is used to describe a good result that follows a particular behavior?
a. positive affect c. respondent conditioning
b. reinforcement d. operant response
ANS: B DIF: Easy
22. According to Skinner’s terminology, behavior that acts on the environment and changes
environmental conditions to the organism’s advantage is behavior.
a. respondent c. operant
b. reinforced d. reciprocally determined
ANS: C DIF: Easy
23. On the first day of kindergarten, the teacher responds to the students every time they ask her a
question. By the end of the first week, the teacher will only respond to students who are sitting quietly
at their desks. At the end of the second week, the teacher will only respond to students’ questions if
they are quietly seated, raise their hands, and wait to be called on before asking their questions. The
teacher is using to change the students’ behavior.
a. habituation c. punishment
b. shaping d. secondary conditioning
24. The causes of behavior from operant conditioning

a. can only be unconscious.
b. can only be conscious.
c. can be both conscious and unconscious.
d. are similar to psychoanalysis.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism: Operant Conditioning
25. Understanding the situation and changing one’s behavior accordingly requires which of the following?
a. idiographic goals c. nomothetic goals
b. insight d. personality
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Social Learning Theory
26. Social learning theory arose to correct several shortcomings of orthodox behaviorism; specifically
social learning theorists argue that behaviorism ignores
a. personality, identity, and individualism.
b. motivation, thought, and emotion.
c. both positive and negative emotion.
d. goals, life stories, and personality traits.
REF: Social Learning Theory: Shortcomings of Behaviorism OBJ: 14.3
MSC: Understanding
246 | CHAPTER 14
27. Julian Rotter’s social learning theory focuses primarily on

a. drives. c. decision making.
b. drive reduction. d. reciprocal determinism.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
28. Which of the following is NOT considered a shortcoming of classic behaviorism?

a. It is largely based on research with animals.
b. It ignores the social aspects of learning.
c. It doesn’t explain how people can differ in their behaviors.
d. It treats its subjects as passive.
MSC: Understanding
29. The key target for psychotherapy, according to Bandura, is to

a. change the client’s overt behavior to match the demands of the situation.
b. achieve a better match between the client’s efficacy expectations and capabilities.
c. change the client’s reinforcement values to match their behaviors.
d. modify the client’s habit hierarchy.
REF: Social Learning Theory: Shortcomings of Behaviorism: Self-Efficacy
30. Charles is reluctant to go to a party where he knows he won’t know many people. Based on Bandura’s
prescription of self-change, Charles should if he wants to change his level of social anxiety.
a. stay home and adjust slowly
b. force himself to go to the party
c. go to the party but only talk to people he knows well
d. go to the party but only if he really wants to
31. According to Bandura, what two components influence an individual’s impression of what they are
capable of doing and who they are?
a. self-efficacy and self-concept
b. personality traits and personal life goals
c. social support and self-esteem
d. intelligence and level of diligence
32. Your is how you see yourself, whereas your is what you think you are capable of
accomplishing.
a. self-concept; reputation c. reputation, self-efficacy
b. self-concept; self-efficacy d. self-efficacy; self-concept
33. The Bobo doll studies of aggression demonstrated that

a. changing efficacy expectations can facilitate behavioral change.
b. expectancies vary across situations.
c. children will imitate positive but not negative behaviors.
d. learning can occur vicariously through observation.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Social Learning Theory: Shortcomings of Behaviorism: Observational Learning
34. According to the text, a distinctive aspect of humans is that we learn

a. nearly everything from observation.
b. by both punishment and reward.
c. very few things from observation.
d. nearly everything from classical conditioning.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
35. Bandura’s has proven to be the MOST influential of his ideas.

a. specific approach to psychotherapy c. locus of control
b. emphasis on observational learning d. discovery of if ... then contingencies
ANS: B DIF: Easy
36. What two important ideas are combined in Mischel’s cognitive-affective personality system (CAPS)?
a. An individual’s belief may matter more than reality, and individuals have completely
stable personality traits.
b. Observation is the most important source of learning, and individuals have completely
stable personality traits.
c. Observation is the most important source of learning, and the personality system has
multiple tracks.
d. An individual’s belief may matter more than reality, and the personality system has
multiple components that often interact.
REF: Cognitive Theories of Personality: CAPS and BEATS: CAPS
248 | CHAPTER 14
37. According to Mischel, what is the MOST important aspect of personality and cognition?
a. Personality traits are subordinate to cognitive processes.
b. Cognitive processes are subordinate to personality traits.
c. The interaction between the many systems of personality and cognition is most
important.
d. Systems of personality and cognition operate in a serial process.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: Cognitive Theories of Personality: CAPS and BEATS OBJ: 14.4
MSC: Remembering
38. According to Mischel’s theorizing, which of the following methods would be the best way to stop
yourself from eating a piece of delicious chocolate cake?
a. smelling the cake to trick yourself into thinking that you ate it
b. telling yourself repeatedly that chocolate tastes bad
c. thinking about the chocolate cake as a piece of brown plastic
d. imagining how good the cake tastes to replace the actual desire to eat it
REF: Cognitive Theories of Personality: CAPS and BEATS: CAPS
39. According to Carol Dweck’s BEATS model of personality, what is the final need for which everyone
will strive?
a. self-coherence c. self-concept
b. self-efficacy d. self-esteem
REF: Cognitive Theories of Personality: CAPS and BEATS: BEATS
40. What construct would Mischel prefer to replace the construct of personality traits?
a. expectancies c. cognitive-affective person units
b. the self-system d. if ... then contingencies
MSC: Understanding
41. According to Mischel, every individual’s if … then pattern of contingencies is unique and comprises
his
a. personality. c. behavioral signature.
b. life narrative. d. personal goals.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
42. Mischel’s if … then model is rooted in Watson’s

a. S-R connection theory. c. social learning theory.
b. five-factor model. d. personal construct theory.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
43. Based on the text, which of the following would NOT be considered a personality process?
a. perception c. emotion
b. motivation d. trait development
44. A is a desired end state, and are the means that the individual uses to achieve this
end state.
a. goal; strategies c. self-concept; self-schemas
b. strategy; goals d. motivation; needs
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Motivation OBJ: 14.9 | 14.10
MSC: Remembering
45. According to the discussion in the text about personal goals, it is important to have the ability to
a. focus primarily on general, long-term goals.
b. make connections between short- and long-term goals.
c. focus primarily on very specific goals.
d. set general goals that are separate from your daily activities.
REF: Motivation: Goals: Short-Term Goals and Long-Term Goals
46. Goals that are unique to the individuals pursuing them are called goals.
a. strategic c. nomothetic
b. judgment d. idiographic
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Motivation: Goals: Idiographic Goals
47. What goal-related term describes the ongoing motivation that persists in the mind until the goal is
either attained or abandoned?
a. current concerns c. judgment goals
b. personal projects d. personal strivings
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: Motivation: Goals: Idiographic Goals: Current Concerns OBJ: 14.9
MSC: Remembering
250 | CHAPTER 14
48. What idiographic goal term refers to long-term goals that organize broad areas of a person’s life?
a. current concerns c. development goals
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Motivation: Goals: Idiographic Goals: Personal Strivings OBJ: 14.9
MSC: Remembering
49. Which of the following is NOT a type of idiographic goal?

a. current concerns c. developmental goals
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Motivation: Goals: Idiographic Goals
50. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of idiographic goals?

a. They are conscious at least some of the time.
b. They are common goals that essentially everyone pursues.
c. They are assumed to be changeable over time.
d. They are assumed to function independently of each other.
REF: Motivation: Goals: Idiographic Goals: Properties and Limitations of Idiographic Goals
51. Rosie has recently been rejected from several graduate school programs. In response, she works on the
weak aspects of her application and intends to gain experience and reapply the following year. Rosie
is high in motivation.
a. power c. achievement
b. affiliation d. developmental
REF: Motivation: Goals: Nomothetic Goals: The Big Three, or Five, or Two
52. According to distinctions between types of idiographic goals, a is something you think
about, whereas a is something you do.
a. judgment goal; development goal c. long-term goal; short-term goal
b. current concern; personal project d. personal project; current concern
REF: Motivation: Goals: Idiographic Goals: Current Concerns OBJ: 14.9
MSC: Analyzing
53. Essential motivations that almost everyone pursues are called goals.
a. development c. nomothetic
b. judgment d. idiographic
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Motivation: Goals: Nomothetic Goals
54. All of the following are primary goals proposed by David McClelland EXCEPT a need for
a. achievement. c. affiliation.
b. autonomy. d. power.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
55. Which of the following represent the MOST common types of nomothetic goals?
a. achievement and affiliation c. power and learning
b. achievement and power d. learning and affiliation
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Goals: Nomothetic Goals
56. Which of the following is the typical way that primary goals, as defined by McClelland, are assessed?
a. having participants list all personally meaningful goals
b. completing a standard goal questionnaire
c. using the Thematic Apperception Test
d. using the Implicit Association Test
57. Given that Rory works hard on his golf game and pursues excellence, he should score high in which of
McClelland’s primary goals?
a. achievement c. mastery
b. domination d. performance
58. Mrs. Garcia often invites her family and friends to her house for lunches and parties. She is also
involved with the people in her church group and in the Parent-Teacher Association at her child’s
school. According to McClelland’s view of motivations, Mrs. Garcia is high in motivation.
a. achievement c. power
b. affiliation d. connectedness
59. Mrs. Khoury enjoys running the office. She likes telling other employees what to do and strives to be
promoted to vice president of her company. According to McClelland’s view of motivations, Mrs.
Khoury is high in motivation.
a. narcissism c. power
b. affiliation d. dominance
252 | CHAPTER 14
60. Sharon believes that intelligence and ability are innate and you cannot do anything to change them.
Sharon has a(n) theory of ability.
a. entity c. schematic
b. incremental d. rigid
REF: Motivation: Goals: Judgment Goals and Development Goals: Entity and Incremental Theories
61. Steven believes that intelligence and ability can change with experience. Steven has a(n)
theory of ability.
a. entity c. schematic
b. incremental d. flexible
REF: Motivation: Goals: Judgment Goals and Development Goals: Entity and Incremental Theories
62. A(n) goal is one in which an individual is interested in self-improvement, and a(n)
goal is one in which an individual seeks to validate a personal attribute.
a. intrinsic; extrinsic c. extrinsic; intrinsic
b. judgment; development d. development; judgment
REF: Motivation: Goals: Judgment Goals and Development Goals
63. A person with a developmental goal will most likely respond to failure with a(n) pattern of
behavior.
a. helpless c. anxiety-driven
b. mastery-oriented d. pessimistic
64. A person with a judgment goal will respond to failure with a(n) pattern of behavior.
a. helpless c. anxiety-driven
b. mastery-oriented d. pessimistic
65. Which of the following theoretical models describes the relationship between views of the world and
particular goals?
a. Epstein’s cognitive-experiential self-theory (CEST)
b. Dweck’s motivational theory
c. Kelly’s personal construct theory
d. McCrae and Costa’s characteristic adaptations theory
66. Methods for pursuing goals in life and organizing a wide range of activities are known as
a. schemas. c. scripts.
b. expectancies. d. strategies.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Motivation: Strategies
67. Laura attends church regularly because she finds personal meaning and spiritual fulfillment in the
rituals and discussions. Jeanne attends church regularly because she knows that many influential
business leaders from the community also attend that church. Laura and Jeanne have
a. the same strategies, leading to different behaviors.
b. the same strategies, leading to the same behavior.
c. different strategies, leading to different behaviors.
d. different strategies, leading to the same behavior.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Strategies
68. What term describes a person who typically expects the worst so that they can be surprised or even
relieved when the worst does not happen?
a. defensive optimists c. strategic pessimists
b. defensive pessimists d. reverse optimists
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Motivation: Strategies: Defensive Pessimism
69. Research by Julie Norem indicates that defensive pessimists and optimists likely goals.
a. use different strategies but obtain similar
b. have similar specific goals but different general
c. use the same strategies but obtain different
d. have different learning goals but similar performance
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Strategies: Defensive Pessimism
254 | CHAPTER 14
70. Some research suggests that pessimism might prove more adaptive than optimism in
a. individualistic cultures.
b. collectivistic cultures.
c. handling the diagnosis of a chronic disease.
d. handing the diagnosis of a terminal disease.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Strategies: Defensive Pessimism
71. How might an optimist and a defensive pessimist behave differently when waiting for the results of a
recent exam?
a. The optimist will expect the best and the pessimist will be more accurate.
b. The optimist will expect the best and the pessimist will expect the worst.
c. The pessimist will expect the worst and the optimist will be more accurate.
d. The pessimist will expect the best and the optimist will expect the worst.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Strategies: Defensive Pessimism
72. Research has examined the degree to which individuals’ optimistic and pessimistic strategies persist
across various contexts. The results of this research suggest that
a. correlations of strategy use across contexts range from about .30 to .40.
b. correlations of strategy use across contexts are essentially zero.
c. the correlation of strategy use across contexts is about .30 for optimism but about -.30 for
pessimism.
d. the correlation of strategy use across contexts is about -.30 for optimism but about .30 for
pessimism.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Strategies: Defensive Pessimism
73. From the perspective of cognitive psychology, how exactly can emotions be considered a kind of
procedural knowledge?
a. Emotions are only fully understood after being explicitly told what they are.
b. Emotions are typically understood from repeated experience.
c. Emotions cannot be learned and can only be fully expressed through action.
d. Emotions develop through mechanisms of both nature and nurture.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Emotion OBJ: 14.9
MSC: Remembering
74. Which of the following is NOT one of the basic stages of emotion?
a. appraisal c. facial expressions
b. motives d. scripts
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Emotion: Emotional Experience
75. When Zajonc famously said, “preferences need no inferences” with respect to emotion, what was he
really arguing?
a. Appraisal does not need to come first in the emotion process.
b. Appraisal must come first in the emotion process.
c. Personality traits are more important than situations for determining emotions.
d. Attitudes are more important than personality traits for determining emotions.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Emotion: Emotional Experience
76. What are the two basic dimensions of the emotional circumplex model?
a. aroused-unaroused and negative-positive
b. positive stimuli and negative stimuli
c. strong-weak and aroused-unaroused
d. aroused-unaroused and strong-weak
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Emotion: Varieties of Emotions
77. A strong, consistent, and stable tendency to experience positive and energizing emotions is the
fundamental feature of what trait?
a. neuroticism c. openness
b. extraversion d. achievement motivation
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Emotion: Individual Differences in Emotional Life: Emotional Experience, Intensity and
Change OBJ: 14.11 MSC: Remembering
78. According to the text, which of the following is an example of the negative consequences associated
with rapidly changing emotions?
a. Frequent emotional swings cause stress to both the person experiencing them and
surrounding others.
b. Frequent emotional swings limit the individual’s capacity to adapt to any one
environment.
c. Frequent emotional swings create social distance and sometimes result in chronic
depression.
d. Frequent emotional swings typically create many more negative emotional experiences
than positive emotional experiences.
Change OBJ: 14.11 MSC: Understanding
79. According to previous research, women are generally higher than men in affect intensity. This finding
may provide evidence for why
a. it is more adaptive for women to express their anger than it is for men.
b. women are more emotionally intelligent compared to men.
c. women have a higher threshold for pain compared to men.
d. women are more prone to depression compared to men.
Change OBJ: 14.11 MSC: Understanding
256 | CHAPTER 14
80. An individual who experiences powerful feelings of both joy and sadness would score high on what
personality dimension?
a. neuroticism c. affect intensity
b. affect variability d. affect instability
ANS: C DIF: Easy
Change OBJ: 14.12 MSC: Remembering
81. Grant is up against a deadline and fears he will not have enough time to do all he needs to do for it. In
response, he makes a list of everything he needs to do in order of priority and gradually completes
each task. Grant is practicing high
a. cognitive control. c. social control.
b. emotional intelligence. d. affect stability.
REF: Emotion: Individual Differences in Emotional Life: Emotional Intelligence
82. What term describes someone who is low in emotional intelligence?

a. hedonic c. dysthymic
b. eudaimonic d. alexithymic
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Emotion: Individual Differences in Emotional Life: Emotional Intelligence
MATCHING
Match the theory or model with its associated behaviorist.

a. S-R association theory
b. If … then contingency model
c. Social learning theory
d. Operant conditioning model
e. Beliefs, Emotions, and Action Tendencies (BEATS) model
1. Albert Bandura
2. Walter Mischel
3. Carol Dweck
4. B. F. Skinner
5. John Watson
1. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.2

MSC: Analyzing
2. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.2
MSC: Analyzing
MSC: Analyzing
4. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.2
MSC: Analyzing
5. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.2

MSC: Analyzing
Match each definition with its type of goal.

a. Goals that everyone has
b. Goals to improve oneself
c. Goals that are long term and can organize broad areas of a person’s life
d. Goals that are specific to the individual
e. Goals to validate an attribute in oneself
6. Judgment goals
7. Development goals
8. Idiographic goals
9. Nomothetic goals
10. Personal strivings
6. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Goals

7. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Goals
8. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Goals
9. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Goals
10. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Goals
SHORT ANSWER
1. Compare and contrast Mischel’s cognitive-affect personality system (CAPS) model with Carol
Dweck’s Beliefs, Emotions, and Action Tendencies (BEATS) model. What do they have in common?
What makes the theories unique?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Cognitive Theories of Personality: CAPS and BEATS

2. Explain Dweck’s motivational theory. According to this model, how do implicit theories of
intelligence and ability shape goals and responses to failure in achievement domains? How might
teachers or parents use this model to help children succeed in school?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Motivation: Goals: Nomothetic Goals

258 | CHAPTER 14
3. Compare and contrast operant conditioning with classical conditioning. Give an example for each
when one might be more useful for understanding behavior.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Behaviorism OBJ: 14.7 | 14.8 MSC: Analyzing
4. Describe the development of social learning theory and what makes it distinct from classical
behaviorism.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Social Learning Theory OBJ: 14.3

MSC: Understanding
5. Compare and contrast nomothetic and idiographic goals. Provide an example of each.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Motivation: Goals OBJ: 14.9

MSC: Analyzing
CHAPTER 15 The Self: What You Know About You
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 15.5. Understand the central tenets of the procedural

knowledge and declarative knowledge and how they
15.1. Understand the distinction between the I and the me are distinct from one another.
and the function of each.
15.6. Distinguish between relational selves and implicit
15.2. Be able to identify the types of self-knowledge selves.
(e.g., self-schema, self-esteem, and self-efficacy)
15.7. Discuss psychotherapeutic and layperson strategies
that are associated with the declarative self and
to change procedural knowledge.
know how they are measured and what their impli-
cations are. 15.8. Understand the ideas behind a working self-concept
and how it relates to declarative and procedural
15.3. Understand the inner workings of memory and how
knowledge.
it is related to the establishment of one’s
self-concept. 15.9. Understand the concept of self-esteem and how it
relates to the self.
15.4. Be able to explain how one can have “possible
selves,” the discrepancy between different “selves,” 15.10. Understand how procedural knowledge can be
and the controversy around this idea. assessed.
259
260 | CHAPTER 15
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. According to William James, the does the thinking and sensing, whereas the is
the object of thoughts about the self.
a. I; me c. independent self; interdependent self
b. me; I d. interdependent self; independent self
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The I and the Me
2. Gloria is at a job interview and is asked to tell the interviewer a little about herself. Gloria says that
she is friendly, hardworking, and reliable. What self is she describing?
a. the I c. the me
b. the ego d. the id
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The I and the Me
3. According to the text, which of the following is the MOST difficult to assess using conventional
scientific investigation?
a. the I c. the me
b. implicit selves d. explicit selves
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The I and the Me
4. What does the author mean when he says the me is the epistemological self?
a. The me can be manipulated and changed.
b. The me is logical and rational.
c. The me is an object that can be described.
d. The me is a subjective entity.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The I and the Me
5. is NOT one of the key functions of the self.

a. Facilitating self-regulation
b. Serving as an information-processing filter
c. Facilitating basic and reflexive responses to environmental contingences
d. Fulfilling identity functions
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Contents and Purposes of the Self
The Self: What You Know About You | 261
6. The self acts as an information-processing filter in all of the following ways EXCEPT by
a. restraining impulses to focus on long-term goals.
b. guiding us toward important information relevant to ourselves.
c. organizing the information relevant to ourselves.
d. distorting self-knowledge to maintain a positive self-image.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Contents and Purposes of the Self
7. What emotions are thought to occur when a stranger harms aspects of your me self?
a. anger and distress c. sadness and anxiety
b. shame and guilt d. fear and terror
8. William James believed that our self includes our .

a. I; possessions c. me; possessions
b. I; personality traits only d. me; personality traits only
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Contents and Purposes of the Self
9. Self-knowledge can be divided into knowledge and knowledge.

a. procedural; episodic c. procedural; semantic
b. procedural; declarative d. declarative; explicit
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Contents and Purposes of the Self
10. Procedural self-knowledge does NOT include

a. social skills. c. unconscious self-knowledge.
b. styles of relating to others. d. explicit self-knowledge.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Contents and Purposes of the Self
11. A person who knows that he is hostile and aloof is said to have knowledge.
a. procedural c. implicit
b. episodic d. declarative
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Contents and Purposes of the Self
12. A person who habitually avoids social interaction but is unaware of his shyness is said to have
knowledge about the self.
a. procedural c. semantic
b. episodic d. declarative
262 | CHAPTER 15
13. What is a key difference between the declarative self and the procedural self?
a. Declarative self contains information about who we are, whereas the procedural self
contains information about what you do.
b. Declarative self contains information about who we are friends with, whereas the
procedural self contains information about our occupation.
c. Declarative self contains information about actions, whereas the procedural self contains
information about your thoughts and feelings.
d. Declarative self contains information about where we’re going, whereas the procedural
self contains information about why we’re going there.
14. What “selves” are two aspects of procedural self-knowledge?

a. relational and implicit c. collectivist and individualist
b. rational and explicit d. I and me
15. The overall opinion of the self is called

a. the procedural self. c. self-concept.
b. self-esteem. d. self-schema.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self
16. According to the text, self-esteem is part of the self.

a. procedural c. I
b. declarative d. ought
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self
17. The declarative self consists of an overall opinion on our and our .
a. relational self; actual self c. worthiness; traits and abilities
b. implicit self; relational self d. actual self; self-schema
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self
18. Everything you think you know about your traits and abilities resides in the
a. procedural self. c. I self.
b. self-esteem structure. d. declarative self.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self
19. What state government set up a task force to enhance the self-esteem of its residents?
a. Texas c. California
b. Massachusetts d. Oregon
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
20. Which of the following is NOT associated with low self-esteem?

a. depression c. loneliness
b. suicide d. fearlessness about death
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
21. According to the theory of self-esteem, low self-esteem might serve as a warning signal for
rejection.
a. detection c. threatened egotism
b. sociometer d. rejection sensitivity
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
22. Providing individuals with seems to be the best way to raise self-esteem.
a. a series of self-affirmations to repeat each day
b. harsh criticism to inoculate them against insults
c. unconditional positive feedback
d. opportunities for success
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
23. Jack’s friends don’t think he is very smart; however, Jack considers himself to be quite intelligent.
Jack would most likely be considered high in
a. self-insight. c. sociometry.
b. self-enhancement. d. self-justification.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
24. Self-enhancement occurs when an individual has too self- .

a. much; esteem c. much; insight
b. little; esteem d. little; insight
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
264 | CHAPTER 15
25. What is likely to happen if every morning a person low in self-esteem repeats self-affirmations such as
“Every day, in every way, I am getting better and better”?
a. The individual will start to report feeling worse.
b. The individual will start to report increased self-esteem.
c. Nothing will happen, as these interventions do little to change self-esteem.
d. The individual will become slightly more aggressive.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
26. Mary has just been in a terrible car accident and has lost all memory of the previous year. According
to case study research, Mary’s self-view will MOST likely
a. remain intact and unaffected by her memory loss.
b. change significantly after losing her memory.
c. change only in how she interacts with others.
d. appear to be unchanged but will inevitably change when new memories become more
salient.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
27. According to the text, on average, have higher self-esteem than .

a. noncollege students; college students c. adults; children
b. men; women d. teachers; students
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem: Gender Differences in Self-Esteem
28. Perhaps surprisingly, gender differences in self-esteem are largest in

a. older adults.
b. younger adults.
c. developing nations.
d. the United States and other Western countries.
29. One potential explanation for the gender differences in self-esteem found in the United States is that
women are comparing themselves to rather than .
a. men; each other
b. each other; men
c. their past selves; how they will feel in the future
d. how they will feel in the future; their past selves
30. The example given in the textbook on gender differences in self-esteem illustrates which of the
following?
a. how improving research practices can influence results
b. how self-identity can change over time
c. how society can sometimes influence your self-worth
d. how easily self-knowledge can be manipulated
31. In the context of self-knowledge, what is the take home message of the Socrates quote, “know
thyself”?
a. The most important aspect of self-knowledge is whether your opinion is good or bad.
b. The most salient of all goals is obtaining high self-esteem.
c. The most salient of all goals is personality continuity.
d. The most important aspect of self-knowledge is the degree to which it is accurate.
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem
32. What is the name of the cognitive structure that contains the declarative self?
a. self-determination center c. self-schema
b. I self d. self-esteem
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: The Self-Schema
33. According to the text, what does S data capture?

a. what the self-schema contains c. procedural knowledge
b. other people’s imposed impressions d. long-term memories
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: The Self-Schema
34. Which methods are appropriate for identifying self-schema?

a. S data only c. S data and I data
b. B data only d. S data and B data
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: The Self-Schema
35. Individuals who are responsible or shy are sometimes said to be experts in these particular traits. A
cognitive personality psychologist in this tradition would describe these so-called experts as
individuals who
a. are schematic for these attributes.
b. have episodic memories consistent with these traits.
c. have possible selves aligned with these traits.
d. have self-discrepancies related to these traits.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: The Self-Schema
266 | CHAPTER 15
36. Self-schemas can be useful for acquiring information, but they can also
a. prevent someone from becoming an expert in that relevant domain.
b. limit a person’s worldview or boundaries of their self-image.
c. change a person’s sense of self if they forget the relevant information about themselves.
d. cause inconsistent behaviors.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: The Self-Schema
37. According to the text, which of the following statements correctly describes the relationship between
our self-view and our memories of ourselves?
a. There is no relationship between our memories and our self-view.
b. Our memories are shaped by how others view our personality.
c. Our self-view of our personality exists independently of our memories of specific things
we’ve done.
d. Our self-view of our personality is dependent on our memories of ourselves.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: The Self-Schema
38. Sam is schematic for agreeableness. When he is asked to make judgments about whether he is
friendly, kind, and modest, he will
a. take far longer to answer than someone who is aschematic for this trait.
b. answer more quickly than someone who is aschematic for this trait.
c. answer at about the same speed as someone who is aschematic for this trait.
d. become emotionally distressed at the question prompts.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: The Self-Schema
39. Long-term memory is

a. permanent memory storage.
b. limited to procedural knowledge only.
c. limited to an average of seven bits of information.
d. memory storage for around five years.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
40. The effect describes the enhancement of long-term memory that comes from relating
information to the self.
a. self-enhancement c. self-justification
b. self-consistency d. self-reference
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
41. A study in China showed that information about one’s is remembered as well as
information about the self.
a. coworkers c. mother and father
b. enemies d. romantic partners
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
42. According to previous research, the the processing of information received, the more likely
it will be transferred to long-term memory (LTM).
a. shorter and more simple c. harder and more stressful
b. longer and more complex d. easier and more enjoyable
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
43. Which of the following is the best way to get information into long-term memory?
a. rehearsal c. elaboration
b. elongation d. reverberation
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
44. Repeating the items on a grocery list such as “cheese, bread, soda, canned soup, salad dressing, and
paper napkins” over and over again in your mind is an example of what process?
a. rehearsal c. elaboration
b. elongation d. reverberation
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
45. Imagine that you are trying to teach a classroom of personality students how to better remember the
material for an exam. What would likely be the best recommendation that you could make?
a. Do your best to relate the material to something that is personally relevant.
b. Avoid making the material personally relevant to avoid self-related cognitive biases.
c. Make flash cards and repeat the material three times before going to sleep.
d. Highlight relevant passages and do your best to rehearse those passages.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
46. The self-reference effect explains why personally meaningful memories tend to be
a. from childhood. c. personally relevant.
b. with other people. d. in learning situations.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
268 | CHAPTER 15
47. Cory is studying for his psychology exam. According to research on long-term memory, what would
be an effective way for Cory to retain the material?
a. rewrite all of his notes
b. think about how it relates to his life
c. visualize his professor teaching the material
d. repeat the material aloud over and over again
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Reference and Memory
48. is the basis behind the idea that our opinions about our capabilities set the limits of what we
will attempt.
a. Self-esteem c. Self-efficacy
b. Self-schema d. Self-reference
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Efficacy
49. Coaches often try to make their athletes believe they have the talent to succeed. What self-related
concept are the coaches trying to improve?
a. the feared self c. self-discrepancies
b. self-references d. self-efficacy
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Efficacy
50. Self-efficacy is an important part of our self-concept because it

a. dictates our actual abilities.
b. sets the limits of what we will attempt.
c. influences our implicit self-knowledge.
d. influences how we see others.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Efficacy
51. According to the textbook, diverse representation in the media is important for encouraging
participation in college classes or other pursuits. This is because seeing someone else similar to you
succeed increases your own self-
a. esteem. c. reference.
b. efficacy. d. construal.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Efficacy
52. According to the text, what are possible selves?

a. our various levels on each of the Big Five personality traits
b. the ways in which our identity shifts from childhood to adulthood
c. the various social roles we hold
d. the images we construct of the other ways we might be
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Possible Selves
53. The desire to maintain the same identity over time is the desire for of the self.
a. continuity c. reliability
b. strength d. flexibility
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Possible Selves
54. Which of the following is NOT a motivating need someone has when reporting their desired future
selves?
a. self-esteem c. meaning
b. competence d. discipline
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Possible Selves
55. The clarity of self-concept between young adulthood and middle age and during
old age.
a. increases; decreases c. stays the same; increases
b. decreases; increases d. decreases; stays the same
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Possible Selves
56. According to the self-discrepancy theory, individuals have kind(s) of desired self(ves).
a. two c. one
b. three d. many different
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Discrepancy Theory
57. The self is NOT one of the self-relevant schemas that are part of self-discrepancy theory.
a. rejected c. ideal
b. actual d. ought
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Discrepancy Theory
58. According to self-discrepancy theory, what emotion arises from discrepancies between ideal and
actual selves?
a. fear c. depression
b. anxiety d. hostility
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Discrepancy Theory
59. According to self-discrepancy theory, what emotion arises from discrepancies between ought and
actual selves?
a. depression c. frustration
b. anxiety d. hostility
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Discrepancy Theory
270 | CHAPTER 15
60. Leah is depressed. There is likely a discrepancy between her self and her self.
a. ideal; relational c. real; ideal
b. ought; real d. ought; ideal
61. Katie is anxious. There is likely a discrepancy between her self and her self.
a. ideal; ought c. real; ideal
b. relational; real d. ought; real
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Discrepancy Theory
62. What is a key difference between the ideal self and the ought self?
a. Your ideal self is your view of who you should be friends with, and your ought self is
your view of what your occupation is.
b. Your ideal self is your view of the meaning of life, and your ought self is your view of
your role in it.
c. Your ideal self is your view of your ideal moral self, and your ought self is your view of
your potential in life.
d. Your ideal self is your view of what you could do and your ought self is your view of
what you should do.
63. According to the textbook, the ought self resembles Jeffrey Gray’s system, whereas the
ideal self resembles Gray’s system.
a. Go; Stop c. conscientiousness; neuroticism
b. neuroticism; conscientiousness d. Stop; Go
64. According to the discussion of self-discrepancy theory, the root of depression is , whereas
the root of anxiety is .
a. disappointment; fear c. anger; frustration
b. anger; fear d. disappointment; anger
65. The working of the procedural self is usually hard to describe because it is
a. conscious. c. learned.
b. unconscious. d. innate.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Procedural Self
66. The best way to change procedural knowledge of the self is by

a. practicing and feedback.
b. introspection.
c. watching others.
d. transferring knowledge from the declarative self.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Procedural Self
67. What term refers to self-schemas based on our past experiences that direct how we relate to the
important people in our lives?
a. relational self-schema c. interdependence self-schema
b. self-in-relationship schema d. interdependent self-schema
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: The Procedural Self: Relational Selves
68. According to the relational self-schema, which of the following would best predict how you will
behave around your parents as an adult?
a. how you behave around your friends
b. how you behave around strangers
c. how you behave around a significant other
d. how you behaved around your parents as a child
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Procedural Self: Relational Selves
69. What is actually measured by the Implicit Association Test (IAT)?

a. heart rate c. visual tracking
b. blood pressure d. reaction time
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Procedural Self: Implicit Selves
70. Research using the Implicit Association Test (IAT) has found that people’s awareness of their own
shyness is conscious.
a. partially c. completely
b. not at all d. independent of their
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Procedural Self: Implicit Selves
71. According to the examples given in the text, the Implicit Association Test (IAT) has been used to
study all of the following EXCEPT
a. personality traits. c. self-esteem.
b. life goals. d. shyness.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Procedural Self: Implicit Selves
272 | CHAPTER 15
72. According to the text, one study found the measures of neuroticism and extraversion
predicted behavior better than measures of these traits.
a. self-report; implicit c. IAT; implicit
b. implicit; self-report d. IAT; reaction time
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Procedural Self: Implicit Selves
73. According to research described in the text, how is narcissism related to implicit and explicit
attitudes?
a. Narcissism might be more evident in those whose implicit self-esteem is low relative to
their declarative self-esteem.
b. Narcissism occurs when implicit and declarative self-esteem are both low.
c. Narcissism is unrelated to implicit self-esteem but strongly related to declarative
self-esteem.
d. Narcissism is strongly related to implicit self-esteem but unrelated to declarative
self-esteem.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Procedural Self: Implicit Selves
74. Results of Implicit Association Test (IAT) studies indicate that our attitudes and feelings
a. influence our behavior without us knowing why.
b. are sometimes incorrect indications of how we will behave.
c. change depending on the situation.
d. determine our behavior more consistently than our personality.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Procedural Self: Implicit Selves
75. Dr. Morse is a psychologist whose current patient wants to become less introverted and more
confident. According to what we know about procedural knowledge, what is the first thing Dr. Morse
should do to help his patient?
a. motivate his patient to go to a party and talk to a minimum of five people
b. provide feedback on how his patient is doing in his or her ongoing efforts
c. instruct his patient to practice mindfulness and truly accept his or her introversion
d. allow his patient to talk freely about his or her social issues
REF: The Procedural Self: Acquiring and Changing Procedural Knowledge
76. According to the text, what is the best way to change procedural knowledge that dictates a pattern of
fear and avoidance in social situations?
a. Avoid social situations in the future until symptoms decrease.
b. Acquire more positive social experiences to outweigh the negative experiences.
c. Practice social situations alone to gain confidence.
d. Read a book about social interactions to learn more information.
REF: The Procedural Self: Acquiring and Changing Procedural Knowledge
77. What is a common criticism of the working self-concept?

a. A coherent sense of self is generally viewed as a hallmark of mental health.
b. Self and informant ratings of personality are generally very similar.
c. Constant fluctuation in one’s identity signifies a high ability to adapt to different
situations.
d. People do not generally change who they are from situation to situation.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: How Many Selves?
78. Albert Bandura criticized theories involving multiple selves on what grounds?
a. Existing theories have not identified a representative range of selves.
b. Once you start fractionating the self, there is no clear place to stop.
c. The concept of a self is unnecessary because we should concentrate on observable
behavior.
d. There is no good way to measure the self.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: How Many Selves?
79. According to the text, which of the following is an outcome of having greater alignment between your
current self and your future self?
a. a lack of ability for foresight or planning
b. an increase in self-control
c. a greater connection between your conscious and unconscious selves
d. a greater disconnect between your future self and your past self
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: How Many Selves?
MATCHING
Match the declarative and procedural selves with the definition associated with that term.
a. Your view of what you should do
b. Your view of self that is outside your conscious awareness
c. Our ideas about ourselves organized into a coherent system
d. A continuously changing self based on the people you are with and the environmental
circumstances you are in
e. Acting in a way that is in accordance with your personality traits
f. Our ideas about our characteristics and capabilities
g. Your overall opinion about whether you are good or bad
h. The images we have or can construct of the other ways we might be
i. The self-schema based on past experiences that direct how we relate to one another
j. Your views about what you could be doing
1. Self-esteem
2. Self-schema
3. Self-efficacy
4. Relational self
5. The ought self
6. The ideal self
7. The implicit self
274 | CHAPTER 15
8. Working self-concept
9. Congruence
10. Possible selves
1. ANS: G DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
OBJ: 15.2 | 15.4 | 15.6 | 15.8 MSC: Analyzing
2. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
3. ANS: G DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
4. ANS: I DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
5. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
6. ANS: J DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
7. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
8. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
9. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
10. ANS: H DIF: Moderate REF: The Self: What You Know About You
SHORT ANSWER
1. Define the distinction between declarative self-knowledge and procedural self-knowledge. Identify
and describe the important aspects of declarative self-knowledge.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Declarative Self OBJ: 15.2

MSC: Analyzing
2. What is self-esteem? What purpose does it have and what does it seem to predict? What is
self-enhancement? Is there a difference between self-enhancement and self-esteem?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Esteem OBJ: 15.2

MSC: Analyzing
3. Use self-discrepancy theory to explain particular emotional reactions to failing a test and not living up
to moral expectations. Provide a complete description of the theory.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Discrepancy Theory

4. What is procedural knowledge? How can it be assessed? How can it be changed?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Procedural Self OBJ: 15.7 | 15.9

MSC: Understanding
5. What are the purposes of the different types of selves?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Contents and Purposes of the Self

6. What is self-discrepancy theory? How do self-discrepancies impact how people feel about
themselves?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: The Declarative Self: Self-Discrepancy Theory

CHAPTER 16 Relationships and Business
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 16.7. Understand the limitations of current theories for

the origins of homosexuality.
16.1. Identify personality traits that predict positive social
16.8. Summarize the theoretical underpinnings of attach-
relationships.
ment theory.
16.2. Identify personality traits that predict negative
16.9. Identify and distinguish between different attach-
social relationships.
ment types.
16.3. Explain differences among men and women in what
16.10. Identify psychological factors that predict job
they find attractive in a mate.
performance.
16.4. Identify the evolved psychological mechanism
16.11. Understand the link between conscientiousness and
behind different mating behaviors.
job performance.
16.5. Explain differences among men and women in mat-
16.12. Identify and describe the personality traits associ-
ing strategies and jealousy.
ated with successful leaders.
16.6. Understand what sociosexuality is and its implica-
16.13. Describe why person-job fit is important.
tions on mating behavior.
276
Relationships and Business | 277
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. One study reported in the text demonstrates that people are more inclined to like others who they
perceive as and less inclined to like people who they perceive as .
a. warm and trustful; moody and irritable
b. intellectual and responsible; free-spirited and open-minded
c. pragmatic and logical; naïve
d. moody; overly cautious
REF: Relationships: Deal-makers: Traits that Promote Good Relationships
2. George is a generally positive person that demonstrates a high degree of self-control. According to the
text, which of the following is George MOST likely to have?
a. a good job c. good relationships
b. a clean house d. strong musical talent
3. In a speed-dating context, people that rate themselves as are less likely to report being
attracted to someone.
a. warm c. picky
b. ugly d. smart
ANS: C DIF: Easy
4. According to the text, after trying to predict the degree of romantic interest and success following
4-minute speed dates, researchers were able to
a. determine who will be successful at dating but were unable to predict with which
romantic partner they will be successful.
b. determine who will be romantically compatible, but not how long the relationship will
last.
c. identify that opposite personalities attract, but not the degree of interest that these people
have for one another.
d. identify what physical characteristics are attractive, but not what personality traits are
attractive.
278 | CHAPTER 16
5. and people tend to score higher on dispositional contempt.

a. Women; older c. Men; younger
b. Women; well-educated d. Men; poorly educated
REF: Relationships: Deal-breakers: Traits that Prevent or Undermine Relationships
6. Ben is often seen as arrogant and disagreeable yet also emotionally fragile and insecure. For what trait
does Ben likely score high?
a. emotional instability c. high self-monitoring
b. dispositional contempt d. introversion
REF: Relationships: Deal-breakers: Traits that Prevent or Undermine Relationships: Dispositional
Contempt OBJ: 16.2 MSC: Applying
7. According to the text, what two traits are especially significant “deal-breakers” for individuals to have
in a relationship?
a. being untrustworthy and having anger issues
b. being emotionally unavailable and judgmental
c. being controlling and a bad listener
d. being too needy and jealous
8. People who score high on the Dispositional Contempt Scale are more likely to be
a. dissatisfied with their partners but have partners who are satisfied with them.
b. dissatisfied with their partners and have partners who are dissatisfied with them.
c. satisfied with their partners but have partners who are dissatisfied with them.
d. satisfied with their partners and have partners who are satisfied with them.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: Relationships: Deal-breakers: Traits that Prevent or Undermine Relationships: Dispositional
Contempt OBJ: 16.2 MSC: Understanding
9. Which of the following is NOT listed in your text as a relationship deal-breaker?

a. dispositional contempt c. untrustworthiness
b. rejection sensitivity d. obsessive-compulsiveness
10. Mohammed is troubled by the fact that his romantic partner assumes they are being excluded and
dismissed at the slightest expression of irritation from him. On what trait does Mohammed’s partner
score high?
a. rejection sensitivity c. dispositional contempt
b. self-monitoring d. closed mindedness
REF: Relationships: Deal-breakers: Traits that Prevent or Undermine Relationships: Rejection
Sensitivity OBJ: 16.2 MSC: Applying
11. What is the common relationship outcome for people who score high on rejection sensitivity?
a. Their partners rise to the occasion and reassure them that they are valued.
b. Their partners do what they fear the most and reject them.
c. They typically have more arguments with their partners than in an average relationships.
d. Their partners end up developing rejection sensitivity.
REF: Relationships: Deal-breakers: Traits that Prevent or Undermine Relationships: Rejection
Sensitivity OBJ: 16.2 MSC: Understanding
12. Most people are agreeable and well adjusted. Non-normal, disagreeable people have a personality that
is not likely to be successful in relationships and they are likely in relationships with partners who are
not similar to them. Which of the following conclusions can you draw from the above argument?
a. People who are more similar are more likely to have a successful relationship.
b. People who are more similar are less likely to have a successful relationship.
c. There is no one explanation why some people are and are not compatible with one
another.
d. People who are sensitive to rejection tend to be rejected.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Relationships: Compatibility
13. What relationship outcome is likely to occur for two people who are both disagreeable?
a. Their relationship will be successful because they are similar.
b. Similarly disagreeable people will probably never meet in the first place.
c. Similarly disagreeable people will likely not have a successful relationship.
d. There is no evidence to support that similarity in traits predicts relationship success.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Compatibility
14. According to the text, research focusing on investigates what one looks for in the opposite
sex, whereas research focusing on investigates how one handles heterosexual relationships.
a. sociosexuality; mate value c. mate value; sociosexuality
b. mating strategies; mate selection d. mate selection; mating strategies
REF: Relationships: Sexual Relationships: Mating Behavior OBJ: 16.3
MSC: Understanding
280 | CHAPTER 16
15. Kara is setting up her online dating profile. According to evolutionary predictions about mate
selection, she will most likely highlight her
a. physical attractiveness. c. financial resources.
b. future goals. d. personality traits.
MSC: Applying
16. Kevin is setting up his online dating profile. According to evolutionary predictions about mate
selection, he will most likely highlight his
a. physical attractiveness. c. financial resources.
b. propensity for jealousy. d. young age.
MSC: Applying
17. Across a wide variety of cultures, are more likely to place a higher value on physical
attractiveness than .
a. women; men c. extraverts; introverts
b. introverts; extraverts d. men; women
ANS: D DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
18. Which of the following describes the evolutionary explanation of sex differences in mate selection?
a. Men and women seek very different things; men seek just sex and women only seek
commitment.
b. The differences are the result of a biological fluke and will disappear completely in the
next hundred years.
c. Men and women seek essentially the same thing; both are trying to increase the
likelihood that they will produce viable offspring who will survive.
d. The differences are the result of socialization practices.
MSC: Understanding
19. According to evolutionary theory, a woman’s greatest worry is that

a. her partner won’t make as much money in the future as he previously did.
b. her partner will have a sexual relationship with another person.
c. her partner will form an emotional bond with another person.
d. she will be forced to raise her partner’s children from a previous relationship.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
20. According to evolutionary theory, a man’s greatest worry is that

a. his partner will leave him for another person.
b. he is not the biological father of the children that he is supporting.
c. his partner will form an emotional bond with another person.
d. his partner will share resources with another person.
ANS: B DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
21. According to evolutionary theory, mate with someone who will provide their offspring with
optimal health; mate with someone to provides resources that will aid in the survival of
their offspring.
a. men; women c. women; men
b. men; men d. women; women
MSC: Understanding
22. Which of the following is NOT a complication in the evolutionary explanation for mating behavior?
a. A woman who is extremely thin and attractive to men sometimes does not have enough
body fat to menstruate.
b. The degree to which we are attracted to someone can be influenced by how much we like
them.
c. The physical attractiveness of a man is important to women and indicates that he is a
healthy mate.
d. Men tend to have more sexual partners than women do.
MSC: Analyzing
23. Which partner in a heterosexual relationship would MOST likely be concerned with maintaining a
well-established and stable relationship?
a. women c. men
b. both men and women d. neither men nor women
ANS: B DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
24. According to the text, is a likely explanation for why those in a relationship often find
opposite-sex strangers less attractive than people who aren’t in a relationship.
a. the “sexy-son” hypothesis c. relationship maintenance
b. jealousy d. sociosexuality
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
282 | CHAPTER 16
25. According to a study presented in the text, tend to be more jealous of sexual infidelity,
whereas tend to be more jealous of emotional infidelity.
a. men; women
b. women and men; neither women nor men
c. women; men
d. neither women nor men; women and men
ANS: A DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
26. A woman who mates with an unstable but attractive man seems to follow a different reproductive
strategy than most other women. This idea is called
a. the “sexy son” hypothesis. c. the adaptive option proposal.
b. taking the reproductive high road. d. evolutionary roaming.
MSC: Applying
27. What term describes the willingness to engage in sexual activities in the absence of a committed
relationship?
a. openness to experience c. sociosexuality
b. sensation seeking d. sociometry
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: Relationships: Sexual Relationships: Sociosexuality OBJ: 16.6
MSC: Remembering
28. Those who score high on are especially concerned with finding attractive, short-term
mating partners, whereas those who score low on are concerned with traits related to
parenting behaviors.
a. neuroticism; sociosexuality c. narcissism; agreeableness
b. sociosexuality; neuroticism d. sociosexuality; sociosexuality
MSC: Understanding
29. Men who score high on are especially accurate when it comes to judging their mate value,
whereas women who score high on are especially accurate when it comes to judging their
mate value.
a. neuroticism; sociosexuality c. sociosexuality; agreeableness
b. sociosexuality; narcissism d. narcissism; sociosexuality
MSC: Understanding
30. Which of the following describes someone who would score high on sociosexuality?
a. a woman who consistently follows sex role norms
b. a man described as “husband material” by women
c. a man who buys flashy jewelry in order to attract a mate
d. a very sensitive and even effeminate man
ANS: C DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
31. According to Freud’s theory of psychosexual development, socialization shapes sexual behavior;
therefore, it is possible for
a. anyone to be attracted to anyone or even anything.
b. men to be attracted to women and women to be attracted to men.
c. men to be attracted to men, but not possible for women to be attracted to women.
d. women to be attracted to women, but not possible for men to be attracted to men.
REF: Relationships: Sexual Relationships: Sexual Orientation and Homosexuality
32. Which of the following is NOT a reason why homosexuality was removed from the DSM as a
psychological disorder?
a. Homosexuality is very common.
b. Homosexuality exists in other species.
c. People identifying as homosexual enjoy happy, healthy, and productive lives.
d. Homosexuality is rare.
33. Which area of psychology has found empirical evidence for the origins of homosexuality?
a. neuroscience
b. evolutionary psychology
c. social psychology
d. No area of psychology has found empirical evidence for the origins of homosexuality.
284 | CHAPTER 16
34. Dr. Patel is a psychologist who is interested in the environmental origins of sexuality. Which of the
following is Dr. Patel MOST likely to focus on researching regarding the origins of homosexuality?
a. if there is a heritable “gay gene”
b. whether boys fall in love with their mothers and are homosexual because they cannot
bear to betray them
c. whether genes associated with advantageous traits are paired with genes that promote
homosexuality
d. whether children develop sexual feelings for the gender they did not interact with as a
child
35. theory focuses on patterns of relationships with others that are consistently repeated with
different partners throughout one’s life.
a. Sociosexuality c. Attachment
b. Evolutionary d. Psychosocial
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
36. According to many laboratory studies, attachment is considered a

a. trait. c. state.
b. temperament. d. product of the situation.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
37. According to Bowlby, the basis of love is

a. friendship. c. fear.
b. attachment. d. security.
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
38. The psychological goal of attachment is to

a. feel secure and protected. c. avoid conflict with authority figures.
b. release sexual urges. d. advance reproduction.
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
39. According to attachment theory, children from their early experiences.

a. learn whether their attachment figures are reliable
b. develop dispositional contempt
c. learn the skills necessary for occupational success
d. develop traits that promote good relationships
40. Susie is an infant participating in a strange situation. When her mother leaves the room, Susie does
not seem to care. Upon her mother’s return, Susie ignores her. What kind of attachment does Susie
have to her mother?
a. anxious-ambivalent c. rejecting
b. avoidant d. depressive
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
41. According to attachment theory, what are the three types of attachment in children?
a. anxious-ambivalent, avoidant, and dependent
b. anxious-ambivalent, avoidant, and secure
c. anxious-ambivalent, dependent, and secure
d. avoidant, dependent, and secure
42. Research suggests that anxious-ambivalent children are relatively likely to become adults who tend to
a. be obsessed with their romantic partners.
b. be relatively uninterested in romantic relationships.
c. have high self-esteem and confidence.
d. enjoy long, stable romantic relationships.
43. Research suggests that avoidant children are likely to become adults who tend to
a. be obsessed with their romantic partners.
b. be relatively uninterested in romantic relationships.
c. have high self-esteem and confidence.
d. enjoy long, stable romantic relationships.
44. A child is considered if they become upset when left in a strange situation by their parents
and if they do not appear stressed at all.
a. secure; avoidant c. avoidant; secure
b. avoidant; anxious-avoidant d. anxious-ambivalent; avoidant
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
45. Randy is participating in the strange situation. When his mother returns after being gone from the
room, he is happy and greets her warmly. What attachment style does Randy likely have?
a. anxious-ambivalent c. secure
b. avoidant d. agreeable
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
286 | CHAPTER 16
46. What is the best example of the self-fulfilling tendency of attachment styles?
a. a child who is anxious-ambivalent and so likable that she attracts her parents’ attention
b. a professor who is so secure he tends to annoy his students
c. a college senior who is secure and gives her classmates the impression that she is
uninterested in them
d. a troubled teen who is avoidant and tends to make people angry and drive them away
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
47. Charlie just broke up with his boyfriend and, though he admits that he is now lonely, he is not very
upset that the relationship has ended. What attachment style does Charlie likely have?
b. avoidant d. agreeable
48. According to the text, anxious-ambivalent adults typically display what type of behavior in a
relationship?
a. obsessive and jealous c. distant and withholding
b. warm and understanding d. competitive and dismissive
49. When Sandy is under a lot of stress, she seeks out her significant other for support and reassurance.
What attachment styles does she likely have?
b. avoidant d. obsessive-compulsive
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
50. Which of the following best describes the behavior of individuals with a secure attachment style?
a. They may have feelings of sadness and insecurity, but they do not distort reality to deal
with it.
b. They never feel sad or stressed because they have such a positive outlook on life.
c. They may have feelings of sadness but not insecurity, because their attachment has been
reliable.
d. They have negative emotions but are able to change their reality to cope with it.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
51. According to attachment theory, attachment behaviors are learned and reinforced in a
self-fulfilling manner .
a. in young adulthood; late in life
b. in early childhood; across young adulthood
c. throughout one’s life; throughout one’s life
d. late in life; late in life
52. If someone establishes an avoidant attachment style, it is for them to change to a different
attachment style later in life.
a. impossible c. very easy
b. difficult but not impossible d. neither easy nor difficult
53. According to the text, why might someone who is securely attached most of the time, but who also
fluctuates between secure and avoidant attachment styles, not have a good romantic relationship?
a. People like their partners to be predictable and it is difficult for them to not know what is
coming next.
b. People find even a small amount of avoidant behavior difficult.
c. People tend to see the combination of secure and avoidant attachment styles as a
particularly bad combination.
d. People prefer not to be with someone who has positive attitudes most of the time.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
54. Researchers have recently begun to consider attachment as a two-dimensional model. Specifically,
individuals can be described in terms of their degree of and in their relationships.
a. avoidance; security c. obsessiveness; security
b. anxiety; avoidance d. happiness; anxiety
55. The behavioral pattern of “citizenship performance” while at work is predicted by which trait?
a. neuroticism c. extraversion
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success
288 | CHAPTER 16
56. Which of the following is NOT listed in your text as a reason why personality is important in the
business world?
a. Some work environments influence employee behaviors.
b. Some people make better employees than others.
c. Some people make better bosses than others.
d. Some people have more successful relationships than others.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success
57. Tara is an executive at a corporation and is looking to hire an assistant. According to the text, which
of the following qualities is Tara more likely to seriously evaluate during the interview?
a. trustworthiness c. creativity
b. happiness d. extraversion
58. Integrity tests typically measure all of the following traits EXCEPT
a. openness. c. agreeableness.
b. emotional stability. d. conscientiousness.
59. What trait is the MOST predictive of job performance?

b. emotional stability d. agreeableness
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success
60. According to the text, what is a common criterion used to judge job performance?
a. the employees’ self-reported evaluations
b. how much profit the employee makes for the company
c. the supervisor’s evaluations a year after the employee is hired
d. the employees’ ratings on a job performance questionnaire
REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success: Conscientiousness and Job Performance
61. According to a meta-analysis reported in the text, what behavior is highly predictive of poor job
performance?
a. absenteeism c. having conversations with coworkers
b. not speaking up in meetings d. not volunteering to work overtime
62. Years of education is considered a(n) of conscientiousness and is often used by employers
as a signal of future job performance.
a. integrity test c. facet
b. distractor variable d. marker variable
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success
63. According to the text, what is NOT considered a possible reason why someone is likely to experience
occupational success if their spouse is high in conscientiousness?
a. Conscientious people tend to marry other conscientious people.
b. A conscientious spouse can serve as a role model to work harder.
c. A conscientious spouse keeps things running at home, which helps with concentration at
work.
d. Having a conscientious spouse is considered impressive to one’s boss.
64. One benefit of assessing job performance with tests of integrity or conscientiousness is that, unlike
tests of intelligence, they do NOT
a. show racial or ethnic differences. c. cost a lot.
b. show gender differences. d. take a long time to administer.
65. Even on a genetic level, grit and conscientiousness are

a. essentially the same trait.
b. significantly different personality dimensions.
c. facets of the same trait.
d. distinct from “drive.”
REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success: Personality and Economic Success
66. Karine just did really well on her interview to work at a tech start-up company. If Karine is high in
conscientiousness, what behavior would likely explain why she did so well interviewing?
a. She had a lot of energy and enthusiasm.
b. She expressed optimism about her future.
c. She spent time before the interview researching the position.
d. She maintained eye contact during the interview.
290 | CHAPTER 16
67. Which trait is NOT associated with making more money?

a. high conscientiousness c. high extraversion
b. low agreeableness d. low neuroticism
68. When in a person’s life are traits associated with job performance first detected?
a. as early as 8 years old c. when they start their first job
b. around 18 years old d. later in life, around 60 years old
REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success: Personality and Economics
69. According to the text, economists are starting to understand that matter just as much as
to occupational success.
a. personality traits; self-control c. personality traits; cognitive ability
b. IQ; cognitive ability d. social dynamics; personality traits
REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success: Personality and Economics
70. Which of the following traits is the best predictor of management performance?
a. emotional stability c. extraversion
b. conscientiousness d. agreeableness
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Leadership and Management
71. Why is it more important to understand the personality of a manager than to understand the
personality of an employee?
a. There are fewer managers, so it is important to learn about this underrepresented group.
b. The actions of a manager impact the behavior and outcomes of many people.
c. Managers typically have stronger personalities, which are easier to study.
d. Understanding the personality of the manager and employee is equally important.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Leadership and Management
72. Manuel tends to be calm and steady most of the time. For what position at his company is he
particularly well suited?
a. receptionist c. salesperson
b. customer service representative d. manager
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Leadership and Management
73. Which of the following traits are included in the dark triad?
a. narcissism, Machiavellianism, and psychopathy
b. low agreeableness, neuroticism, and low conscientiousness
c. narcissism, neuroticism, and antisocialism
d. psychopathy, antisocial personality disorder, and schizophrenia
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Leadership and Management
74. Which of the following traits is NOT a predictor of manager performance?

a. emotional stability c. conscientiousness
b. agreeableness d. extraversion
75. Why are people high in dark triad traits often advantageous at gaining power?
a. They are particularly well organized.
b. They are ruthless and cunning.
c. They are good at reading people.
d. They work hard to the point of exhaustion.
76. Which of the following best characterizes managers high on dark triad traits?
a. tough but fair c. kind and approachable
b. selfish and toxic d. cold and distant
77. Based on recent research, what occurrence might signal a major concern when selecting a
stockbroker?
a. evidence that the broker loses big money at poker games
b. few pictures of loved ones in the office
c. modest earnings during the recession
d. a messy and sloppy appearance
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Work and Business: Leadership and Management
78. Jalisa is highly conscientious but lacks the motivation at work to do the best she can. According to the
text, what is Jalisa MOST likely missing in her professional life?
a. a job that fits her personality
b. an open-seating work environment
c. coworkers with whom she gets along
d. a boss who is high on the dark triad traits
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Occupational Choice
292 | CHAPTER 16
79. Julia is an accountant at a major firm. What Holland type is Julia MOST likely to be?
a. enterprising c. investigative
b. social d. conventional
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Occupational Choice
MATCHING
Match each person’s description with the attachment style they are likely to have.
a. Someone who worries that other people will not be available at times of need
b. Someone who, while under stress, withdraws from their partner and denies any stress
exists
c. Someone who tends to be obsessed with their partner and is riddled with jealousy
d. Someone who strives for independence and emotional distance from others
e. Someone who enjoys long, stable romantic relationships characterized by friendship and
trust
1. Secure attachment style
2. Avoidant attachment style
3. Anxious-ambivalent attachment style
4. High attachment anxiety
5. High attachment avoidance
1. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment

2. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
3. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
4. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
5. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment
SHORT ANSWER
1. According to evolutionary theory, what do men and women want from potential mates? Where are
their similarities and where are their differences? How does this lead to specific gender differences in
reactions to particular kinds of infidelity?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Relationships: Sexual Relationships: Mating Behavior

2. Identify and describe the three different infant attachment styles mentioned in the textbook. Explain
how these styles may be self-fulfilling or self-perpetuating in adulthood.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Relationships: Love and Attachment

3. Identify and describe the various relationship deal-makers and deal-breakers. How exactly do
particular personality traits promote and impede relationship success?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate
REF: Relationships: Deal-makers: Traits that Promote Good Relationships | Relationships:
Deal-breakers: Traits that Prevent or Undermine Relationships OBJ: 16.1 | 16.2
MSC: Analyzing
4. Describe the ideal job candidate in terms of his or her personality traits and behavior. In other words,
what do employers look for when they are interviewing job candidates? How do employers judge job
candidates, and what is their criteria for job performance?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Work and Business: Occupational Success

5. Dietlinda is an excellent CEO. Her employees are productive, she makes wise financial decisions, and
she has exceeded the company’s production goals every quarter since she started. Describe Dietlinda
in terms of her personality traits (e.g., the Big Five and beyond) and behavior.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Work and Business: Leadership and Management

CHAPTER 17 Mental and Physical Health
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 17.7. Understand how psychologists collect and evaluate

data on health and why it is often difficult.
17.1. Understand the purpose, benefits, and criticisms of
17.8. Identify the steps and approaches clinical psycholo-
the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM).
gists take to diagnose patients based on systems laid
17.2. Know the differences between the DSM-IV and out by the new DSM-5.
DSM-5 and the controversy behind the major
17.9. Understand the negative consequences diagnoses of
changes that took place in writing the new section
the major personality disorders introduces.
of the DSM-5.
17.10. Identify the various links between personality and
17.3. Identify and discuss the defining characteristics of
health outcomes.
personality disorders.
17.11. Understand the organizations of the old DSM-IV
17.4. Identify each of the major personality disorders and
categories.
discuss their severity and prevalence.
17.12. Discuss the concept of the “healthy personality”
17.5. Be able to identify the behavior and thought pat-
and routes individuals can take to improve their
terns associated with each of the six major person-
health.
ality disorders.
17.6. Understand how the new DSM-5 organizes the
major personality disorders and how each relates to
the Big Five personality traits.
294
Mental and Physical Health | 295
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM)?
a. DSM-III c. DSM-IV-TR
b. DSM-III-TR d. DSM-5
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM)
2. Which French psychiatrist identified the problem known as madness without distortion (manie sans
delire)?
a. Jean-Paul Sartre c. Renee De Gaul
b. Philippe Pinel d. Jacques De Franco
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM)
3. The controversy around the DSM revolved around different viewpoints from and .
a. personality psychologists; social psychologists
b. professional psychologists; the public
c. “old guard” clinicians; scientifically oriented psychologists
d. politicians; scientists
REF: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM): Controversy over the DSM
4. The quote from the DSM-5, “it is hoped that both versions will serve clinical practice and research
initiatives, respectively” (p. 645) represents the
a. complete change from traditional methods to methods based on modern scientific
evidence.
b. controversy between clinicians using traditional methods and researchers advocating new
methods.
c. broad usefulness of the DSM.
d. debates between politicians and scientists over research funding.
5. According to the text, what was the main controversy in revising the DSM that led to the delay of the
new edition?
a. how to define personality disorders
b. whether to include the Big Five traits
c. how to classify multipersonality disorder
d. how long the DSM should be
296 | CHAPTER 17
6. According to the textbook, one purpose of the DSM is to , and a second is to .

a. make psychiatric diagnosis more objective; guide research on disorders
b. make psychiatric diagnosis more objective; facilitate insurance billing
c. guide research on disorders; facilitate biological research on disorders
d. facilitate genetic research on disorders; make psychiatric diagnosis more objective
ANS: B DIF: Easy
REF: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM): Purposes of the DSM
7. All of the following are useful purposes of the DSM-5 EXCEPT it

a. allows psychologists or psychiatrists to have a common vocabulary for describing a
client or a patient.
b. streamlines and simplifies diagnoses.
c. diagnoses individuals for research purposes.
d. facilitates insurance billing.
REF: The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM): Purposes of the DSM
8. Which of the following are NOT general characteristics of personality disorders?

a. They are unusual. c. They typically cause problems.
b. They affect social relations. d. They are unstable across the life span.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Defining Personality Disorders
9. A major criteria for personality disorders is that they cause major problems
a. in the workplace.
b. for the person who has the disorder or for others.
c. only a small percentage of the time.
d. for everyone except the person who has the disorder.
REF: Defining Personality Disorders: Unusually Extreme and Problematic
10. According to psychiatrist Kurt Schneider, unusually extreme personality attributes that cause
are the defining features of personality disorders.
a. major problems in the workplace
b. depression or anxiety
c. major problems for the afflicted person or for others
d. a break from reality
11. Which of the following explains why one must consider cultural context when diagnosing personality
disorders?
a. There can be genetic differences between cultural groups.
b. Cultural biases by clinicians may make diagnoses more accurate.
c. A behavior that may seem extreme to one group may actually be culturally appropriate in
another group.
d. Clinicians have not yet begun to include cultural context in their practices.
12. People who have ego-syntonic personality disorders

a. are acutely aware of their disorder.
b. lose their identities.
c. are low in ego control and ego resiliency.
d. do not think anything is wrong.
REF: Defining Personality Disorders: Social, Stable, and Ego-Syntonic
13. Why are personality disorders considered social?

a. They manifest in interactions with other people.
b. They only cause problems for other people and not for the individual.
c. They require diagnosis by an individual other than the one affected by the disorder.
d. They have genetic origins.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
14. People with personality disorders usually seek out help, while people with
personality disorders usually do not see a reason or need to change themselves.
a. extrinsic; intrinsic c. ego-syntonic; ego-dystonic
b. intrinsic; extrinsic d. ego-dystonic; ego-syntonic
15. Which of the following disorders has NOT been deleted from the research-based section of the
DSM-5?
a. histrionic c. antisocial
b. paranoid d. schizoid
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
298 | CHAPTER 17
16. What is a major difference between the DSM-IV-TR and the research-based section of the DSM-5?
a. The DSM-IV-TR cluster categorization system has been deleted.
b. The antisocial and narcissistic disorders have been deleted.
c. The DSM-IV-TR is much more concise and, therefore, much more reliable.
d. The new DSM-5 is a lot less technical and is meant to be understood by the general
public.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
17. Which disorder appears on the DSM-IV-TR Cluster A?

a. obsessive-compulsive c. avoidant
b. paranoid d. histrionic
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
18. Which disorder appears in the DSM-IV-TR Cluster B?

a. avoidant c. antisocial
b. paranoid d. schizoid
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
19. According to the DSM-IV-TR classification scheme, what are the Cluster C disorders?
a. avoidant, schizoid, and obsessive-compulsive
b. narcissistic, schizotypal, and borderline
c. antisocial, borderline, and avoidant
d. dependent, avoidant, and obsessive-compulsive
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
20. Which disorder appears in the DSM-IV-TR Cluster C?

a. dependent c. borderline
b. narcissistic d. histrionic
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
21. A more extreme version of schizotypal personality disorder is

a. narcissism. c. schizophrenia.
b. schizoid personality disorder. d. antisocial personality disorder.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Schizotypal Personality Disorder
22. Henry was just diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which of the following behaviors is Henry NOT likely
to display?
a. hallucinations c. jumbled thinking
b. distortions of reality d. extreme lack of empathy
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Schizotypal Personality Disorder
23. All of the following are true about narcissistic personality disorder EXCEPT it is
a. easy to diagnosis.
b. difficult to treat.
c. ego-dystonic.
d. hard to estimate the prevalence in the population.
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Narcissistic Personality Disorder
24. According to the textbook, Adolf Hitler exhibited many of the classic signs of which personality
disorder?
a. histrionic c. narcissistic
b. antisocial d. borderline
25. What is the common first impression someone has when they meet a person with narcissistic
personality disorder?
a. The person is shy and inhibited.
b. The person is strange and deluded.
c. The person is charming and extraverted.
d. The person is entitled and egocentric.
26. According to the text, why is narcissistic personality disorder difficult for psychologists to treat?
a. because it is extremely ego-syntonic
b. because their patients tend to be violent
c. because it is rare
d. because it appears in short bursts
300 | CHAPTER 17
27. If you were to tell a person with narcissistic personality disorder that he is smarter than Bill Gates and
better looking than Brad Pitt, he would likely
a. agree with you.
b. become aggressive and argumentative.
c. suspect you are being insincere.
d. compliment you in the same exaggerated way.
28. Imagine your roommate refuses to do any chores because they have more important things to do. Your
roommate is exhibiting a symptom of which personality disorder?
a. narcissistic c. borderline
b. antisocial d. schizoid
29. Someone who brags about her physical health and vitality in front of a friend going through
chemotherapy exhibits a symptom of which personality disorder?
a. histrionic c. narcissistic
b. antisocial d. schizotypal
30. Which disorder seems to be linked with economic status and urban settings?
a. antisocial c. schizotypal
b. schizoid d. histrionic
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Antisocial Personality Disorder
31. Which of the following is NOT a defining characteristic of antisocial personality disorder?
a. manipulation c. impulsivity
b. confused identity d. aggression
32. Confused, delusional, and even self-destructive thinking is NOT typically associated with which of
the following personality disorders?
a. borderline c. schizoid
b. antisocial d. schizotypal
33. An individual who is typically irritable, aggressive, and irresponsible might have which personality
disorder?
a. histrionic c. schizotypal
b. schizoid d. antisocial
ANS: D DIF: Easy
34. The hallmark of borderline personality disorder is

a. grandiose self-evaluations.
b. acute discomfort in social situations.
c. a pervasive disregard for the feelings of others.
d. emotional instability.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Borderline Personality Disorder
35. Suicide and self-mutilation are especially characteristic of which personality disorder?
a. borderline c. paranoid
b. histrionic d. schizoid
ANS: A DIF: Easy
36. Individuals with personality disorder are prone to “splitting” the ways they view other
people in their lives.
a. schizoid c. schizotypal
b. histrionic d. borderline
ANS: D DIF: Easy
37. Recent work suggests that problems with the endogenous opioid system are associated with which
personality disorder?
b. narcissistic d. borderline
38. A description such as “emotional hemophilia” applies MOST accurately to which personality
disorder?
a. borderline c. dependent
b. avoidant d. schizoid
302 | CHAPTER 17
39. Which of the following is NOT a behavioral attribute associated with borderline personality disorder?
a. self-destructive acts
b. uncontrollable anger
c. preoccupation with fantasies of ultimate attainment
d. chronic feelings of emptiness
ANS: C DIF: Easy
40. An individual who consistently fears abandonment may suffer from which personality disorder?
b. borderline d. narcissistic
41. Bethany often has emotional outbursts for no apparent reason. What personality disorder is Bethany
likely to have?
a. schizotypal c. avoidant
b. borderline d. narcissistic
42. According to the text, which therapy has sometimes been effective for treating borderline personality
disorder?
a. object relations–based psychotherapy c. cognitive objective therapy
b. dialectical behavioral therapy d. progressive desensitization therapy
43. Janet consistently expects criticism, contempt, and rejection from others. Which disorder is she
MOST likely to have?
a. schizotypal c. avoidant
b. antisocial d. paranoid
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder
44. Susan absolutely demands to be uncritically accepted by her partner, Jade. Susan MOST likely has
which personality disorder?
a. schizotypal c. schizoid
b. dependent d. avoidant
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Avoidant Personality Disorder
45. Which psychotropic drug has been used to treat obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?
a. serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) c. lithium
b. antipsychotics d. sedative-hypnotics
ANS: A DIF: Easy
REF: The Major Personality Disorders: Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
46. Which of the following is/are NOT a major characteristic for obsessive-compulsive personality
disorder (OCPD)?
a. perfectionism c. being a pack rat
b. inability to delegate d. hallucinations
ANS: D DIF: Easy
47. Which of the following personality disorders is more common?

a. antisocial c. narcissistic
b. avoidant d. obsessive-compulsive
ANS: D DIF: Easy
48. Coworkers know Lisa as a workaholic. From what personality disorder might she suffer?
a. schizotypal c. obsessive-compulsive
b. avoidant d. dependent
49. The reason obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) is characterized both by being unable
to throw anything away and being obsessively clean is that
a. being unable to throw anything away describes someone low on OCPD and being
obsessively clean describes someone high on OCPD.
b. the underlying cause of both of these behaviors is the same.
c. not being able to throw anything away isn’t really used very often to describe someone
with OCPD.
d. people high on OCPD switch off between keeping everything and being obsessively
clean.
304 | CHAPTER 17
50. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) and obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) are
distinct in that OCPD generally does NOT include
a. a grandiose way of thinking.
b. hallucinations about clean surfaces.
c. specific compulsions like obsessive handwashing.
d. ego-syntonic tendencies.
51. The recent updates to the DSM include a(n) in the number of disorders and, more
importantly, a change from placing disorders into discrete categories, recognizing that disorders are
more a matter of .
a. reduction; kind than of degree c. increase; degree than of kind
b. increase; kind than of degree d. reduction; degree than of kind
REF: Organizing and Diagnosing Disorders with the DSM-5 OBJ: 17.6
MSC: Remembering
52. is the tendency to frequently and intensely feel negative emotions such as anxiety,
depression, and suspicion.
a. Negative affectivity c. Detachment
b. Antagonism d. Disinhibition
ANS: A DIF: Easy
MSC: Remembering
53. Which of the maladaptive personality traits in the new section of the DSM-5 bears the closest
resemblance to low extraversion in the Big Five?
a. psychoticism c. disinhibition
b. antagonism d. detachment
MSC: Understanding
54. Which of the maladaptive personality traits in the DSM-5 captures many of the personality attributes
associated with narcissism?
a. psychoticism c. negative affectivity
b. antagonism d. detachment
MSC: Understanding
55. The following domains from the DSM-5 have replaced the cluster system of the DSM-IV-TR EXCEPT
a. negative affectivity. c. antagonism.
b. detachment. d. paranoia.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
REF: Organizing and Diagnosing Disorders with the DSM-5: The Bad Five
56. Which of the maladaptive personality traits in the DSM-5 bears the closest resemblance to low
conscientiousness in the Big Five?
a. psychoticism c. disinhibition
b. antagonism d. urgency
57. Ricky was just diagnosed with a personality disorder that fits into the detachment category of the
DSM-5. What behaviors is he likely to display?
a. suspiciousness c. anxiousness
b. impulsivity d. eccentricity
58. Mario is extremely manipulative, deceitful, and callous, and his behavior is negatively affecting those
around him. The personality disorder he may have would fall into which of the DSM-5 dimensions?
a. detachment c. disinhibition
b. antagonism d. psychoticism
59. According to the DSM-IV-TR, clinical psychologists make their diagnoses by ; however,
according to the new section in DSM-5, they make their diagnoses by .
a. counting up the number of indicators present; assessing the degree of the client’s
psychological dysfunction
b. self-reported assessments; peer-reported assessments
c. a physical assessment; psychological assessment
d. assessing whether the client’s personality functioning is impaired; making a yes or no
decision regarding the presence or absence of a disorder
REF: Organizing and Diagnosing Disorders with the DSM-5: Diagnosis
306 | CHAPTER 17
60. All of the following steps are included in the new method of diagnosing disorders according to the
DSM-5 EXCEPT assess
a. the degree to which the client is characterized by each of the five maladaptive
personality traits.
b. the number of indicators that are present or absent for a particular disorder.
c. whether at least one of the six defined types of personality disorders is present.
d. whether the client’s personality functioning is impaired.
REF: Organizing and Diagnosing Disorders with the DSM-5: Diagnosis
61. Which of the following is NOT accurate regarding some of the concerns that have been raised about
the DSM?
a. The DSM system is not widely used by the psychiatric community.
b. There is a tendency to pathologize morally repugnant and criminal behavior.
c. There is little in the way of a clear definition of mental health in the DSM.
d. The labels in the DSM can be overused.
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Personality and Disorder
62. Dr. Spitz is a clinical psychologist whose last patient has recently developed a habit of lying to his
parents. If Dr. Spitz were to immediately diagnose his patient with antisocial personality disorder, he
would be his patient’s behavior.
a. appropriately analyzing c. pathologizing
b. categorizing d. misdiagnosing
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Personality and Disorder: Pathologizing
63. Clinical psychologist Dr. Powell has just seen a new patient and needs to diagnose him to appease the
insurance company. In this case, use of is helpful to Dr. Powell.
a. labeling c. treatment
b. measurement d. psychoanalysis
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality and Disorder: Labeling
64. According to the text, labeling personality disorders can be useful for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT it can
a. provide a useful explanation for the disorder.
b. be useful for predicting other behaviors relevant to the disorder.
c. help psychologists by giving them something to write on an insurance billing.
d. be useful for diagnosing or predicting your own behavior.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Personality and Disorder: Labeling
65. According to the text, what is one potential issue for diagnosing personality disorders?
a. The descriptions of behaviors are too vague to be applied to any specific person.
b. Individuals with personality disorders cannot recognize them in their own behaviors.
c. Insurance companies refuse to cover personality disorder treatments.
d. There is no sharp defining line between normal personality and abnormal personality.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Personality and Disorder: Normal and Abnormal
66. Greg is often characterized as “marching to a different drummer” or acting original and somewhat
idiosyncratically. What is an exaggerated version of Greg’s tendencies?
a. schizotypal c. borderline
b. obsessive-compulsive d. histrionic
ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: Personality and Disorder: Normal and Abnormal
67. According to the text, correlations between personality traits and self-reports of “feeling good” may
reflect how personality affects rather than physical health.
a. mood c. mental health
b. other trait levels d. personal opinions
REF: Physical Health: Connections between Personality and Health
68. According to a recent study on longevity, friend ratings of participants’ personalities that predicted
longevity were participants’ self-ratings.
a. worse than c. about the same as
b. worse for women and better for men than d. better than
69. All of the following are reasons for why it is difficult to gather data on health EXCEPT
a. people may not know how unhealthy they are.
b. death records are an unreliable way to measure health.
c. people may be unwilling to answer truthfully when asked about their health.
d. public health records are confidential.
70. What two pathways between personality and health must be considered when evaluating their
relationship with one another?
a. individual and social c. self-report and peer-report
b. physical and physiological d. biological and behavioral
308 | CHAPTER 17
71. The original research on individuals with the Type A personality claimed that these individuals had a
higher chance of
a. heart disease. c. narcissistic personality disorder.
b. major depression. d. increased longevity.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Physical Health: The Type A Personality
72. Research on the Type A personality disorder has in recent years.

a. increased c. declined
b. become more biologically rooted d. stayed the same
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Physical Health: The Type A Personality
73. One reason that research on Type A personality was so popular for so long may be because research
on it was funded by the
a. government. c. pharmaceutical industry.
b. alcohol industry. d. tobacco industry.
ANS: D DIF: Difficult REF: Physical Health: The Type A Personality
74. A recent cross-lagged correlational study shows that being sick leads to but that the reverse
isn’t true.
a. negative emotions c. increased optimism
b. long-term anxiety d. no change in emotionality
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Physical Health: Emotionality
75. According to research on emotionality, leads people to experience more stressful events,
such as unemployment and divorce, while leads people toward optimistic thinking
engagement in more health-promoting behaviors.
a. negative emotions; positive emotions
b. positive emotions; negative emotions
c. extraversion; neuroticism
d. Type A personality traits; Type B personality traits
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Physical Health: Emotionality
76. What trait is MOST clearly associated with positive health outcomes?
a. extraversion c. emotional stability
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Physical Health: Conscientiousness
77. One reason why people high on conscientiousness have especially good health is because
a. they are more likely to do things that make good health more likely.
b. there is a direct, biological connection between conscientiousness and health.
c. they have a strong social network.
d. they have especially high positive well-being.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Physical Health: Conscientiousness
78. Which of the following describes the benefit of changing someone’s personality in an effort to
improve their physical (or mental) health, rather than changing specific behaviors?
a. It is easier to change a trait than a specific behavior.
b. Insurance companies are more likely to cover trait therapies than individual behavior
therapies.
c. Changing a trait could change all relevant health behaviors at once rather than
individually.
d. There are no benefits to changing a trait.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Physical Health: Prospects for Improving Health
79. According to the text, psychological remedies to improve health often focus on changing
a. learned behavior. c. personality.
b. attitudes about health. d. cultural norms.
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Physical Health: Prospects for Improving Health
80. What two components define the so-called healthy personality?

a. mental and physical health c. personality and social relationships
b. environmental and situational factors d. self- and peer-report data
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Healthy Personality
MATCHING
Match the behavioral pattern with the major personality disorder.

a. Characterized by stubborn, ritualistic behavior
b. Expectations of criticism that force individuals to resort to extreme social withdrawal
c. Expectations of unconditional recognition and admiration of others
d. Characterized by manipulation, deceit, recklessness, and impulsivity
e. Characterized by unstable and confused behavior and patterns of self-harm
f. Involves distortions of reality, jumbled thinking, and hallucinations
1. Narcissistic
2. Borderline
3. Obsessive-compulsive
4. Schizotypal
5. Avoidant
6. Antisocial
310 | CHAPTER 17
1. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders

2. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
3. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
4. ANS: F DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
5. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
6. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Major Personality Disorders
Match each of the trait domains used to understand personality disorders in the DSM-5 with the
associated Big Five personality trait.
a. Disinhibition
b. Detachment
c. Negative affectivity
d. Antagonism
7. Extraversion
8. Agreeableness
9. Conscientiousness
10. Emotional stability

SHORT ANSWER
1. Identify and discuss the major differences between the DSM-IV-TR and the new research-based
section of the DSM-5. Specifically, what controversies surrounded the major changes?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult
2. Identify and describe the five general characteristics of personality disorders. Why are there
controversies surrounding the definition of personality disorders?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Defining Personality Disorders OBJ: 17.3

MSC: Evaluating
3. Explain how the Big Five traits can be used to organize the DSM-5 personality disorders. Provide at
least four concrete examples of how certain personality disorders might reflect constellations of
extreme scores on particular Big Five traits (i.e., “The Bad Five”).
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: Organizing and Diagnosing Disorders with the DSM-5: The Bad Five
4. How is personality related to health? Identify and discuss various findings from studies investigating
this relationship and discuss how these findings are useful in developing ways to improve health.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: Physical Health OBJ: 17.10

MSC: Evaluating
5. What two aspects define the so-called ideal healthy personality? What can individuals do in their
everyday lives to reach this ideal in both of these domains?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: The Healthy Personality OBJ: 17.12

MSC: Applying
CHAPTER 18 What Have We Learned?
LEARNING OBJECTIVES 18.5. Describe the ways personality psychology suggests

that one can obtain happiness.
18.1. Differentiate between approaches to studying per-
18.6. Explain the individual’s role in changing his or her
sonality in terms of the questions they answer and
behavior and personality.
the approaches they use.
18.7. Describe how an individual’s construal and culture
18.2. Understand how individuals experience both cross-
contribute to how he or she views reality.
situational consistency and change.
18.8. Identify and explain the negative and positive conse-
18.3. Identify and describe the various biological bases of
quences for diagnosing personality disorders.
personality.
18.9. Know the relationship between personality, behav-
18.4. Understand the relevance of both the unconscious
ior, and health.
mind and free will in determining an individual’s
behavior. 18.10. Understand the purpose of studying personality.
312
What Have We Learned | 313
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The approach focuses on moment-to-moment conscious experience, free will, and the
ability to choose important aspects of one’s reality.
a. trait c. humanistic
b. cognitive d. learning
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Which Approach Is Right?
2. The approach focuses on individual differences that make every person unique.
b. cognitive d. learning
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Which Approach Is Right?
3. The approach includes a focus on the heritability of some aspects of personality.

b. biological d. social learning
ANS: B DIF: Easy REF: Which Approach Is Right?
4. The approach focuses on rewards and punishment and how behavior is a function of the
situation.
b. biological d. learning
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Which Approach Is Right?
5. The approach emphasizes personality processes, such as perception, motivations, and the
self.
a. cognitive c. trait
b. biological d. cross-cultural
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Which Approach Is Right?
6. All of the following are approaches to studying personality EXCEPT

a. cognitive. c. trait.
b. psychoanalytic. d. political.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
314 | CHAPTER 18
7. One view of the different approaches to personality psychology is that each one
a. addresses the same basic questions as the other approaches.
b. largely addresses different questions about personality.
c. makes fundamental advances that surpass the one that preceded it.
d. lacks scientific rigor.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
8. If a psychologist is researching the relationship between conscientiousness and health, she is probably
a psychologist.
a. cognitive/learning c. trait
b. humanistic d. psychoanalytic
ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
9. If a psychologist is interested in understanding how unconscious thought informs perception of

parental involvement, she should take the approach to studying personality.
b. psychoanalytic d. cognitive
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
10. If a psychologist is interested in understanding how cultural construals of reality shape an individual’s
behavior, she should take the approach to studying personality.
a. humanistic c. psychoanalytic
b. biological d. trait
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
11. If a psychologist is interested in understanding the thinking and feeling that underlie behavior, she
should take the approach to studying personality.
a. trait c. cognitive
b. humanism d. psychoanalytic
12. Each personality paradigm effectively addresses its own key concerns
a. and has corresponding therapeutic interventions that will change behavior.
b. as well as the concerns of the other paradigms.
c. and attempts to explain the functioning of the unconscious.
d. but tends to ignore pretty much everything else.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
13. According to the text, you should judge an approach to studying personality by its
a. ability to best explain all of the facts about human nature.
b. ability to explain unconscious processes.
c. usefulness.
d. ability to integrate affective and cognitive mechanisms.
14. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria that Funder believes is important for selecting a
personality approach to use in your own work?
a. whether the approach is right or wrong
b. whether the approach addresses topics you wish to understand
c. whether you find the approach interesting
d. whether you think you can use the approach to add knowledge to psychology
15. Funder is researching how extraversion and openness vary around the world. What two approaches
might he use?
a. cognitive and biological c. trait and cross-cultural
b. biological and trait d. cross-cultural and humanistic
16. One of the challenges of studying the whole person and everything that is important about an
individual’s psychology is that it is
a. an overwhelming and frankly impossible endeavor.
b. only possible in a biological sense.
c. only possible if you consider behavior and cognition together.
d. necessary for all research endeavors.
17. Lizzie has just graduated from college and is in the job market. According to the text, after taking this
personality course and reading The Personality Puzzle, what skills does she have that will aid her in
her job search?
a. research methods skills
b. organization and time-management skills
c. social skills
d. a rich and detailed historical understanding of psychological processes
REF: What Have We Learned?: Research Methods Are Useful OBJ: 18.10
MSC: Applying
316 | CHAPTER 18
18. According to the text, research methods are useful for knowing both and .
a. broad research questions; how to develop One Big Theory
b. what research questions to ask; the best methods to answer the questions
c. which approaches to personality are best; research methods in other scientific disciplines
d. personality research methods; research methods in other disciplines
REF: What Have We Learned?: Research Methods Are Useful OBJ: 18.10
MSC: Understanding
19. Research from the paradigm has demonstrated the consistency of a pattern of thought like
pessimism.
a. trait c. cognitive
b. behavioral d. psychoanalytic
REF: What Have We Learned?: Cross-Sectional Consistency and Aggregation
20. According to what we know about cross-situational consistency of behavior, if Ted is the most
extraverted person in a wedding, he will MOST likely at a funeral.
a. be the most extraverted person c. be the least extraverted person
b. be like everyone else d. act exactly the same
21. According to the text, behavioral consistency is only accurate when you predict the of
several behaviors.
a. most dominate c. weakest
b. aggregate d. range
22. behavioral predictions are easier to make than behavioral predictions.

a. Specific; general c. Situational; trait
b. General; specific d. Trait; situational
23. According to the text, behavioral consistency is limited in the sense that
a. behavior surely changes from one situation to the next.
b. personality is biologically determined.
c. behavior is always a function of the situation.
d. borderline personality disorder limits how well an individual can identify with any one
personality.
ANS: A DIF: Easy
24. According to the text, which of the following is likely the MOST important influence on personality
change?
a. maturity c. changing life demands
b. self-initiated changes in behavior d. Personality does not change.
REF: What Have We Learned?: Personality Growth and Change
25. According to the text, what is the best way to change your personality?
a. through slow and consistent changes in small behaviors over time
b. by putting yourself in new environments or situations
c. using targeted therapies with consistent feedback
d. You cannot change your personality.
REF: What Have We Learned?: Personality Growth and Change
26. The biological approach to personality includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. genes. c. learning.
b. hormones. d. heritability.
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: What Have We Learned?: The Biological Roots of Personality
27. According to the text, consistent patterns of behavior are rooted in all the following anatomical
structures EXCEPT
a. neurotransmitters. c. the brain’s frontal lobes.
b. hormones. d. the skeletal structure.
ANS: D DIF: Easy
318 | CHAPTER 18
28. According to the text, what we don’t know about the biological roots of personality is what
we do know.
a. far less than c. incomparable to
b. equal to d. far more than
29. According to the text, what is one difficult aspect about studying the relationship between biological
structures and personality?
a. Each biological component interacts with the other components.
b. There isn’t sufficient technology to evaluate all structures.
c. There is still a lot about personality traits that we do not know.
d. Brain structures change dramatically over time.
30. Decades of research has shown that John Locke’s idea that the human mind is a blank slate at
birth is
a. accurate.
b. true in the context of personality disorders.
c. inaccurate.
d. dependent on the area of psychology conducting the research.
31. According to what we know about memory, most of the brain’s activity is
a. conscious.
b. conscious or unconscious, depending on the social context.
c. neither conscious nor unconscious.
d. unconscious.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned?: The Unconscious Mind
32. The following are all examples of the significance of the unconscious mind EXCEPT
a. the presence of Freud’s defense mechanisms.
b. humans’ ability to store large amounts of information in their short-term memory.
c. brain damage so severe that people have behaviors they cannot control.
d. the ability to prime perceptions, memories, and thoughts.
ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned?: The Unconscious Mind
33. Which area of psychology has established a reasonable way to think about free will?
a. psychoanalysis c. humanism
b. trait d. behaviorism
REF: What Have We Learned?: Free Will and Responsibility OBJ: 18.4
MSC: Remembering
34. According to the text, psychology tends to free will throughout the scientific process.
a. ignore c. always consider
b. measure constructs related to d. control for
ANS: A DIF: Easy
MSC: Understanding
35. According to the text, what may be the secret to psychological success?
a. recognizing the points that we are able to make a choice in life
b. increasing our positive affect as much as possible
c. loving and working
d. maintaining a rich social network
MSC: Understanding
36. According to research on the science of well-being, one should strive to achieve a life with
a. as little stress as possible.
b. reasonable and meaningful challenges.
c. more stressful experiences than nonstressful experiences.
d. many goals that are almost impossible to accomplish.
REF: What Have We Learned?: The Nature of Happiness OBJ: 18.5
MSC: Understanding
37. Anthony just won the lottery. What advice would a positive psychologist give him to maintain his
happiness?
a. Spend as much of the money as possible as fast as possible on new material goods.
b. Invest the money so that your wealth increases.
c. Remember to be grateful for the things you already have.
d. Use the money to gain power or other resources.
REF: What Have We Learned?: The Nature of Happiness OBJ: 18.5
MSC: Applying
320 | CHAPTER 18
38. Francis is deciding whether to take a job in Chicago. According to the chapter, what is Francis
confronting right now?
a. a shift in social status c. an environmental factor
b. an opportunity cost d. a choice point
REF: What Have We Learned?: Choosing and Changing Situations
39. What is the cognitive perspective on why the self-selection of our environments, such as which
college to attend, are important for our success in life?
a. The environment can change our biology through epigenetics.
b. The environment influences our construal of the world.
c. The environment dictates the rewards and punishments to which we will be subject.
d. The environment interacts with our traits to produce our behavior.
REF: What Have We Learned?: Choosing and Changing Situations
40. Recent cross-cultural research is focused on

a. what people have in common.
b. how people are different.
c. the difference between individualism and collectivism.
d. how people in a particular culture behave.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned?: Culture and Personality
41. According to the text, it is important to keep in mind that people often belong to
a. predominately one culture.
b. a culture for every social context in their lives.
c. more than one culture at a time.
d. no single culture.
ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: What Have We Learned?: Culture and Personality
42. What term is defined as an individual’s unique view of the world?

a. construal c. existentialism
b. culture d. well-being
ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: What Have We Learned?: Construals
43. According to all areas of psychology, it is not things that matter but
a. our person-environment interaction. c. society’s view of things.
b. our early social relationships. d. our opinions of things.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned?: Construals
44. From a personality psychology perspective, construal is studied as the origins and consequences of
individuals’
a. existential obligations. c. social learning.
b. neurotic and self-defeating behaviors. d. differing views of reality.
ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned?: Construals
45. According to the text, which of the following contribute to an individual’s view of reality?
a. biological processes c. past experiences
b. ambitions d. All of the answer options are correct.
ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: What Have We Learned?: Construals
46. What label describes personality that is both unusual and problematic?
a. neuroticism c. personality disorder
b. construal d. consistency
ANS: C DIF: Easy
REF: What Have We Learned?: The Fine, Uncertain, and Important Line Between Normal and
Abnormal OBJ: 18.8 MSC: Remembering
47. According to the text, everyone has personality characteristics that, at their extreme, would overlap
with
a. their construal. c. socially desirable traits.
b. another personality trait. d. personality disorders.
Abnormal OBJ: 18.8 MSC: Remembering
48. According to the text, labeling personality patterns is both and .

a. useful; problematic c. self-reported; peer-reported
b. social; political d. harmless; criminal
ANS: A DIF: Easy
Abnormal OBJ: 18.8 MSC: Understanding
49. Why is labeling often helpful?

a. It helps us measure the Big Five personality traits.
b. It helps us talk about and understand important phenomena.
c. It helps us distinguish between good and bad types of people.
d. It enables clinicians to pathologize their patients.
322 | CHAPTER 18
50. Why is labeling at times dangerous?

a. Once a person is labeled, other people may only view the person as the label and not as
an individual.
b. Clinical psychologists have a diagnosis to report to insurance companies.
c. Doing so organizes complex patterns of behavior into discrete categories.
d. We are forced to talk about problematic behavior in terms of its label.
51. Tony frequently gets into fights and is also generally described as hostile and aggressive. What
conclusions can we most reasonably draw between his personality and health?
a. His hostile personality puts him into situations that lead to dangerous confrontations.
b. His hostile personality would likely cause him to withdraw and fail to take care of
himself.
c. There is probably no relationship between his personality and his physical health.
d. His frequent fighting causes his hostile and aggressive personality, which in turn
increases his level of anxiety.
REF: What Have We Learned?: Personality, Behavior, and Health
52. According to the text, what is the MOST useful thing we can learn from studying the relationship
between personality and health?
a. the specific traits associated with longevity
b. which behaviors are healthy or unhealthy
c. how to change our personality to become healthier
d. gene-environment interactions that promote healthy living
53. Laura always scores extremely high on conscientiousness. According to what we know about the trait
of conscientiousness, what is a possible explanation for why Laura will likely live longer than her
peers?
a. She always sees the best in everyone she meets.
b. She travels a lot and is always looking for the next adventure.
c. She doesn’t smoke and exercises regularly.
d. She is withdrawn and rarely attends social gatherings.
54. According to the text, personality psychology, in the final analysis, is a quest for
a. mutual understanding. c. personal insight.
b. an existential awakening. d. an increase in life satisfaction.
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Quest for Understanding
55. The MOST effective way to learn about a person is to and .

a. watch what he or she does; listen to what he or she says
b. measure his or her personality; measure his or her well-being
c. ask him or her; ask his or her friends
d. make observations; form hypotheses
ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Quest for Understanding
MATCHING
Match the scientific goal with the associated approach to studying personality .
a. Understanding the heritability and evolutionary basis of behavioral patterns
b. Understanding the unconscious mind and the effects of motivations and conflicts of
which we are not aware
c. Understanding moment-to-moment conscious awareness and the ability to experience
free will
d. Understanding individual differences and the ways in which we are psychologically
unique
e. Understanding basic mental processes relevant to perception, memory, emotion, and
motivation
1. Trait
2. Biological
3. Cognitive
4. Humanistic
5. Psychoanalytic
1. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?

2. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
3. ANS: E DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
4. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
5. ANS: B DIF: Moderate REF: Which Approach Is Right?
324 | CHAPTER 18
SHORT ANSWER
1. Imagine you are asked to give the lecture in Psychology 101 (Introduction to Psychology) that covers
personality psychology. You have a limited amount of time to expose students to this subdiscipline.
What are you going to cover? What findings are you going to emphasize and why? (Note: You should
strive to present cross-cutting themes that cover multiple approaches to personality.)
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: What Have We Learned? OBJ: 18.10

MSC: Applying
2. What are the three most important core themes you learned from the textbook and your personality
class? You must clearly justify why these themes are important and why they offer critical insights
into human nature. How can these themes be applied to everyday life in terms of understanding your
own behavior or the behavior of those around you?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Difficult REF: What Have We Learned? OBJ: 18.10

MSC: Analyzing
3. Draw on what you have learned about personality psychology to support the argument that the most
important choices you make in life are the environments that you select.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned?: Choosing and Changing Situations
4. Explain how an individual’s construal and cultural environment can shape the ways in which he or she
views reality.
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned?: Choosing and Changing Situations
5. Why is it important to maintain an awareness of alternative approaches to the study of personality?
ANS:
Answers will vary.
DIF: Moderate REF: What Have We Learned? OBJ: 18.1 | 18.10

MSC: Understanding

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CHAPTER 1 The Study of the Person

1. Which of the following is NOT part of the psychological triad?

3. Personality psychology shares with clinical psychology

6. Personality is an individual’s characteristic patterns of

7. The unique mandate of personality psychologists is to attempt to

8. Advocates of any particular basic approach to personality historically

9. In observing human behavior, it is impossible to

10. The purpose of a basic approach (or paradigm) is to

11. The phenomenological approach leads to which two directions of research?

16. Psychologists following the phenomenological approach

29. Which of the following is an expression of Funder’s First Law?

30. Is narcissism always a bad trait?

1. ANS: C DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

Match the most relevant term with each definition.

6. ANS: A DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person

10. ANS: D DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person

DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

DIF: Difficult REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

DIF: Moderate REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

DIF: Difficult REF: The Goals of Personality Psychology

DIF: Moderate REF: The Study of the Person OBJ: 1.1

LEARNING OBJECTIVES 2.6. Differentiate the goals of scientific training from

2. According to the text, the goal of a scientific education is to

3. According to the text, a would receive technical training, whereas a would

4. According to the textbook, there are no perfect of personality, only .

5. Researchers must use clues to personality in their research because personality

6. When gathering data or clues about personality, the best policy is to

7. Because each kind of data has limitations, personality psychologists should

12. I data are

13. I data essentially measure

18. The typical experimental psychologist in a testing situation collects data.

19. To obtain S data, a psychologist can

28. What kinds of behaviors by an acquaintance would MOST likely be remembered?

29. Records of employee absenteeism are what type of data?

31. Which of the following would be an example of natural B data?

33. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered B data?

35. Which kind of data is the LEAST expensive to collect?

40. A major advantage of S data is that

46. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of I data?

47. A major disadvantage of L data is that

48. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of B data?

53. A behavioroid measure is a combination of which two types of data?

55. If measurement errors are truly random, then they should

56. Which formula in psychometrics quantifies the principle of aggregation?

58. The technical meaning of reliability refers to

62. At the heart of aggregation is the idea that

64. A researcher can increase the reliability of a personality test by

67. Validity is the degree to which a measurement

70. Reliability is for validity.

77. Narrative psychology is an example of the method.

78. What is the big disadvantage of the case study method?

80. The strongest advantage of the experimental method is that

81. Random assignment allows researchers to

82. If test scores decrease as anxiety increases, then

90. Technicians-in-training focus on , whereas scientists-in-training focus on .

1. ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues

4. ANS: A DIF: Easy REF: Personality Data: Four Kinds of Clues

Match the most relevant term with each definition.