AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2025 Date: 29/10/2023 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone : 011-47623456 AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2025 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. TEST - | (Online) MM : 720 TOPICS COVERED PHYSICS — : Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom BOTANY — : Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell eycle and Cell Division ZOOLOGY Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues only, Biomolecules [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: SECTION -A 1. The error in the measurement of linear momentum of a particle is 2%. What is the error in the measurement of its kinetic eneray? (1) 2% (2) 1% (3) 4% (4) 8% 2. Ifenergy (€}, velocity (V] and time [7] are chosen as fundamental quantities, then dimensional formula of force is (1) (EVAT] (2) (Ev) (3) (EV'T] (4) [EV] 3. The SI unit of luminous intensity is, (1) mole (2) kelvin (3) candela (4) kilogram 4. The force (F} of interaction between two bodies is siven by ox’ F= of exp| 2 pom] Where a, are constant, Tis temperature and x is distance. The dimensions of f is (1) IMT] (2) (MLST-«-1] (3) [MLT-*«] (4) (MLTK] 5. The variation of velocity (in m s-") of an abject with time (in second) is given by io =6-5t+e ‘The object is at rest at (1) t=28 (2) t=3s (3) t=6s (4) Both (1) and (2) 6. A particle is projected from the ground vertically upward with initial speed u. Choose the correct velocity-position (v-s) graph. w | @) @) (4) . - 7. Two trains, each of length 200 m are moving in opposite direction on straight parallel tracks. If their speeds are 10 ms and 108 km tr", then they cross ‘each other in (1) 208 (3) 35s (2) 10s (4) 5s Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-170005, Ph.: 011-47623456Practice Te 8, 10. " 12 13. 14, Codi (Ontin W force is given by F = AVR BI, where x is displacement and is time, then dimensions of 4 is aon (2) [LT] (3) LT] (4) (777) I error in measuring the radius of a sphere is 2% and that of density is 33%, then error in measuring the mass of material of the sphere is (1) 5% (2) 7% (3) 9% (4) 11% A student has measured the length of a wire equal to 0.09320 m. The value of length, has the number of significant figure equal to (ya (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 3 Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same dimensions? (1) Force and Power (2) Work and Torque (8) Power and Torque (4) Force and Torque The given figure shows the position-time (x - 0) graph of an object. Find the ratio of velocity at t=35stothat of f= 12s, x(n) 0 rs 1015 mt @ 2 (3) 4 4) 4 The velocity of a particle is given by v= (180 ~16x) m s+, where x is in m. Its acceleration is zero at x equal to (1) 1.125 m (2) 112.5m (3) 1125 m (4) 11.25. m Which of the following position-time graphs represent motion with positive acceleration, off. aif — — x x ®t A (4) f =r = 16. 16, 17. 18. 19. 20. 24 22. Ca ‘An object is moving with constant acceleration from points Pto Q ina straight line PQ. If wand v are the velocities at P and Q respectively, then velocity of ‘object at midpoint between P and Qis (4) AA student uses simple pendulum and a stopwatch of least count 1s and records 80 s for 40 oscillations. The error AT in measuring, the time period is (is (2) 08s (3) 0.05 s, (4) 0.025 s The force F on a sphere of radius r moving in a medium with velocity v is given by F = 6rnrv. The dimensions of n are (1) [ML (2) (MLT] (3) [IMT-] (4) IMLT-] ‘A substance of mass 42.60 g occupies 1.2 cm? of volume. The density at substance (in g cm) with correct number of significant figures is (1) 36 (2) 35.5 (3) 35.0 (4) 35 If force is proportional to square of angular velocity ©, then the dimensions of proportionality constant is (1) [ML] (2) [ML] (3) [IML] (4) (ML) If the error in the measurement of a side of a cube is 1%, then percentage error in determination of surface area of cube is, (1) 6% (2) 12% (3) 4% (4) 2% if A=(100+1), B= (2020.2) and ¢ = (50+05) . then the percentage error in the calculation of x2HB ig c (1) 4% (2) 5% (3) 6% (4) Zero The value of (3.20 + 1.21 + 4.5) with regards to significant figures is (1) 891 (2) 9.0 (3) 89 (4) 88 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-170005, Ph.: 011-47623456AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2025 23, 24 25. 26. 2. 28. 29. If increase in the speed of object is 10% and increase in the mass of the object is 20%, then percentage change in the linear momentum of the object is (1) 30% (2) 31% (3) 32% (4) 20% If 1 pascal = (10° CGS unit, then n is a4 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 The van der Waals equation of state of real gases is expressed as | Pie |(¥-2)=RT where P is pressure, V is volume and T is absolute temperature. a, b and R are some constants, then dimensions of Ris (1) IMLT 4] (2) [MLPT= Ky] (3) [MALTA] (4) [MLT? K-4] A person goes to his office from his home with constant speed. On increasing his speed by 15% he reached his office 6 minutes earlier. What is the actual time he takes to reach his office dally? (1) 42 min (2) 46 min (3) 48 min (4) 52 min A body travels distance of 20 m and 40 m with constant velocities of 5 ms“! and 10 ms respectively, the average speed of the object is (1) 65ms+ (2) 7.3ms* (3) 75ms+ (4) 82ms4 Which of the following statements is correct? (1) Number of significant figures in 0.0030 is 4 (2) Number of significant figures in (2.3 + 10.40) is 3. 6.00 3) Number of significant figures in £2%is 1 8) gniicant figures in ST (4) Number of significant figure in 10.01 mis 1 A ball is projected vertically upwards at ¢ = 0 from the ground, The ball is at the same height at 4s and 8 8. The maximum height attained by ball is (g= 10ms] (1) 180m (2) 190m (3) 150m (4) 200 m 30. 34 32 33, 36, 36. A particle starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration along a straight line. Distance travelled by the particle in 3° and 5” second will be in the ratio (1) 9:25 2) 3:5 (8) 5:9 (4) 4:7 The inital velocity of a particle moving along positive xaxis is 10 ms“. if the constant acceleration a= -2 m s*2acts on the partie, then distance travelled by the particle when it reaches to its inal position again is, (1) 20m (2) 25m (3) 40m (4) 50m A car can be accelerated with maximum acceleration of 4 m s* and its brakes can produce a maximum retardation of 6 m s~. The minimum time to cover a distance of 1200 m starting from rest and finally coming to the rest, is (1) 2010s (2) 1010s (3) 30,10 s (4) 40.10 s If dimensional formula of relative velocity is [M"LYT4] then x +y +z is equal to (1) 3 (22 (3) 0 (4) 4 An object is projected vertically upward with a velocity of 37 m s™ from ground. If distance travelled by the object in last second of its upward journey is ‘then distance travelled by the object in first second of its downward journey will be (1) diz (2) 2a (3) d (4) 3a If P and Q are two different physical quantities having different dimensional formula, then which among the following would be a valid expression (1) P+Q (2) 3P-2Q Pp ®) 39 (4) Pa SECTION -B ‘The length of a rectangular plate is measured as 10 ‘cm by vernier scale of least count 0.01 cm and its breadth as § cm by the same scale. The percentage ‘error in area is (1) 0.1% (2) 0.3% (3) 0.01% (4) 0.05%, Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456Practice Te Codi (Onlin 37. A body starts moving from rest and travels 8 m in ath second with constant acceleration, then acceleration of body is (1) 1.07 ms? (2) 97ms2 (3) 207 ms2 (4) 05ms2 38. A bus starts from rest with an acceleration of 4m s~% Aman who is 48 meter ahead of the bus is moving with uniform velocity of 10 m s~’. The minimum time after which the bus will pass the man (1) 128 (2) 16s (8) 20s (4) 24s 39. Abus travelling the first one third of total distance at a speed of 20 km/h, the next one-third at 30 km/h and last one-third at 60 km/h, The average speed of the bus is (1) 20 kmh (2) 30 kmh (3) 60 km/h (4) 48 kmih 40. The velocity-position (v — x) graph of a particle moving in a straight line along the x axis given 1 below. The acceleration of particle at x= mis ums") ve4y xm) (1) tms? (2) 2ms2 (@) 4ms? (4) @ms? 41. Aball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with velocity 22 m s-". It experiences a constant resistance force from air which produces retardation of 1 m s~2. The time to reach maximum height is (take g = 10 ms) (1) 258 @) 228 Q) 2s (4) 5s Ca 42. A particle is moving in a straight line with a uniform acceleration travels 10 m and 26 m in first 4 s and next 4 s respectively. The initial velocity of the particle is (1) 0.5ms4 (2) 0.6ms* (3) 08ms+ (4) 1ms* 43. Iftwo resistances Ri = (20 # 0.3) 9 and R 0.4) @ are connected in series, then the maximum percentage error in the resultant will be (1) 1.20% (2) 2.18% (3) 3.2% (4) 25% 44, Ifthe displacement y of a particle is y= A sin(Pt + aX) where x is in m and tis in s, then dimensional formula of ‘APq’ is ou 2) UT @) IT] 4 11 45, The product of 1.2, 2.54 and 3.257 is (1) 9.927 (2) 9.93 (2) 99 (4) 9.9273 46. The kinetic energy (KE) of a particle varies with time Avt +B tas KE = : where A and B are dimensional constants, then dimensional formula for AB is (1) [Mer | | (2) |M2T? | | (3) Mer? wry (4) |M2T? l i Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-170005, Ph.: 011-47623456AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2025 47. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity? (1) Gravitational constant (2) Speed of light (3) Planck's constant (4) Relative density 48. Time period of simple pendulum is given by {(r T= 27 where [isthe length of pendulum and g 9 is acceleration due to gravity. If percentage error in the length and acceleration due to gravity is 4% and 2% respectively, then the percentage error in time 49. A ball is projected vertically upward from the ground. If we neglect the effect of air, then which ‘one of the following is the best representation of variation of distance (s) with time (1)? a ¢ 0 * 2 LA. A, “lH (3) a ¢ Period is 50. A stone thrown vertically upward with speed u from (1) 3% the top of a tower reaches ground after @ 4% 5 seconds. Ifheight of the tower is 45 m, then speed of projection is (3) 6% (1) 20m (2) 25 ms (4) 1% (3) 16ms* (4) 12ms* [CHEMISTRY] SECTION -A 51. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle having mass 0.12 kg and moving with a velocity of 4 x 108 ms-! (= 6.6 « 10 Js) is (1) 2.76% 10-%m (2) 276 x 10 m (3) 1.98 104m (4) 1.38 x 10° m 52. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a subshell having n=3, £= 2 are (2 (ae (10 (4) 14 53. All ofthe following phenomena can be explained by particle nature of electromagnetic radiation, except (1) Photoelectric effect, (2) Black-body radiation (3) Diffraction (4) Variation of heat capacity of solid as a function of temperature 54, Energy required to remove an electron from second Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is (1) 84 1025 (2) 8.4 «10-95 (@) 2.7% 10-95 (4) 2.71025 55. Average atomic mass of an element E is 11.2 u. It is found naturally in two isotopic forms E: and E2 in 2: 3 ratio of abundances. If E: has atomic mass ‘equal to 10 u then atomic mass of E2 is, (1) 13.6u (2) 12.0u (3) 11.8u (4) 13.2u 56. 2 mol of glucose contains a, 12 mole of carbon atoms b. 12 mole of hydrogen atoms ©. 12 mole of oxygen atoms (1) aandb only (2) aandconly (2) band c only (4) a,bande 57. Number of phosphorus atoms present in 0.34 g of molecules of Ps is approximately (1) 0,042 Na (2) 0.031 Na (3) 0.024 Na (4) 0.011 Na 58. 1.8 x 10% molecules of sodium chloride are dissolved in water to make 500 mL of aqueous salt solution. The molarity of solution is (Na = 6 x 1023) (1) 0.03M (2) 0.02 (3) 0.06 M (4) 0.04 M 59, Which of the following has the maximum number of atoms? (1) 1 gof He (2) 1 mole of Ca (3) 1 molecule of COz (4) 1 g molecule of SO2 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-4762345661 62. 63. 64 If uncertainty in velocity of electron is double the uncertainty in position of the electron then uncertainty in position can correctly be represented as 1 1 Diem ® amy ir ha © Var One Consider the given statements Statement I: Total number of nodes in 4p orbital is 3, ‘Statement Il: Number of angular nodes in 3p orbital is two. Choose the correct option, (1) Both the statements | and Il are correct (2) Both the statements I and Il are incorrect (3) Statement 1 is correct and statement II is incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect and statement || is correct Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as reason (R) Assertion (A): For 2p orbital, the possible values of mare -1,0, +1 Reason (R): Magnetic quantum number defines spatial orientation of orbitals as well as_ their energies. In the light of above statements choose the correct answer. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true but (R) is false (4) (A)is false but (R) is true The volume of carbon dioxide produced on complete combustion of 6 g of ethane (CzHe) in the sufficient oxygen supply at STP is, (1) 4.48 L (2) 6.72L. (3) 7.684 (4) 8.96L If the mass percentage of Mg in a biomolecule is 0.24% then the minimum molecular mass of the biomolecule is (1) 12000 u (3) 10000 u (2) 11000 u (4) 13000 u 66, 66. 67 68, 69, 70. nm CUSaae 3t for NEE ra 12.6 g impure sample of NaHCOs produces 2.2 g of COz on decomposition. The percentage purity of the sample of NaHCOs is (1) 48% (2) 54% (3) 66.7% (4) 72% Choose the isoelectronic pair (1) Na* and © (2) and ar (3) Ne and F (4) Mg? and Al Number of moles of oxygen needed for the complete combustion of 9.2 g of ethanol (C2HsOH) is (1) 0.2 mol (2) 1 mol (3) 0.4 mol (4) 0.6 mol Consider the given statements ‘Statement I: In 2 L of 2 M aqueous stock solution of sucrose 2 L of water is added to make another solution of 0.5 M concentration Statement Il: Stock solution is a solution of known higher concentration Choose the correct option (1) Both the statements | and II are correct (2) Both the statements | and Il are incorrect (3) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as reason (R). Assertion (A): On changing the concentration of limiting reagent, amount of product will also be changed, Reason (R): Limiting reagent determines yield of products, In the light of above statements choose the correct (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct ‘explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true Equal mass of oxygen gas and sulphur dioxide gas fare taken in container. Mole fraction of sulphur dioxide in the reaction mixture is (1) 0.699 (2) 0.33 (3) 0.812 (4) 0.442 Orbital angular momentum of 3d orbitals is (1) V2 (2) VBn (3) 2" (4) Von Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2025 72. 73, 74, 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. Equivalent weight of phosphoric acidin the following reaction is HPO: + NaOH -> NaHsPO« + H20 (1) 326 (2) 49 (@) 653 (4) 98 ‘An organic compound contains C, H and O with the following composition C= 40% 0 = 53.3% I molar mass of the compound is 180 g/mol then its molecular formula is (1) CaHs0H (2) CoHsOH (3) GaHi08 (4) CaHsCHO The orbital with neither radial nodes nor nodal plane is (1) 28 2) 3p (@) 18 (4) 2p Choose the incorrect statement (1) In case of mult electron system, the energy of an electron depends on both principal quantum number and azimuthal quantum number (2) Effective nuclear charge is the total attractive forces experienced by core electrons itrespective of their atomic number (3) Shielding effect depends upon the type of orbital in which the inner shell electrons are present (4) The electrons present in s-orbital shields the ‘outer shell electrons from nucleus to maximum extent as compared to electrons in p or d orbitals for same shell Total number of exchanges possible for 3a configuration is, (1) Four (2) Two 3) Six (4) Eight Which of the given series of transitions for H atom will fallin ultraviolet region? (1) Lyman series (2) Balmer series (3) Paschen series (4) Brackett series Mass of 2.24 L of methane gas at STP is (1) 169 2) 169 (3) 329 (4) 329 The electronic configuration of Gd (atomic number = 64)is, (1) Ke] 4P 5eP 632 (2) Ke] 4f Se? 632 (3) ke] af 5c 632 (4) [Xe] 4 508 652 80. 81 82 83, 85. 86. 87 88 The species with maximum number of unpaired d electrons is (1) Ni* [Ni (Atomic number) = 28) (2) Cut [Cu (Atomic number) = 28) (3) Mn" (Mn (Atomic number) = 25] (4) Fe? [Fe (Atomic number) = 26] The pair of d-orbitais in which electron densities does not ie along the axes is (1) dy and d,, (2) dy andd,, @) dandd,, 2 (4) day and d.» Total number of electrons present in M shell of phosphorus is (1) 4 @) 6 Pair of isotones is (1) Beand Sc @) Bcand}'N 2) 5 (4) 8 (3) Cand SN (4) Nand #5N Temperature independent untless concentration termis (1) Molality (2) Mole fraction (3) Molarity (4) wiv % Formula mass term is applicable for (1) Sucrose (2) Ethanol (3) Water (4) Common salt SECTION -B The correct order of wavelength of the given electromagnetic radiations is (1) Radio wave < IR < UV < Microwave (2) UV < Microwave < IR < Radio wave (3) Radio wave < Microwave < IR < UV (4) UV < IR < Microwave < Radio wave Total number of nucleons in $80 ion is (1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 18 Choose the incorrect match Orbital | (n +2) value () | 4f 7 [ad 3 (3) | 6s 6 (4) | 5p 6 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456 iGEC ET 89. For an electromagnetic radiation, frequency is | 95. 1 g NaOH is dissolved in water to make 251 g 2 * 10°° Hz, Choose the incorrect value from the solution, molality of solution wll be following (1) 0.4m 2) 08m () 44.5% 102m (3) 0.1m (4) 0.2m (i) ¥ =4% 107 mnt 96. According to following reaction, how much amount - s (grams) of manganese dioxide is required to (ii) B= 1.2 10% J produce 112 L of chlorine gas at STP? (Atomic (1) () only mass of Mn = 55) (2) (iyand Gi) only MnO (s) + AHCI(a9) > MnCl, (24) + 2H40()+Ch(a) (8) Giy only (1) 3389 (2) 4354 (4) (0, and (i) @) 1759 (4) 5759 90. Density (ing L-) of COs gas at STP is 97, Molality of a 10% (wiw) aqueous urea solution is (1) 234 (2) 1.26 (1) 0.45 2) 0.95 (3) 2.48 4) 1.96 {@) 1.85 (4) 278 98 Empirical formula and molecular formula is not 91. Number of photons emitted in 2s by a light source idonicai for (power = 200 watt) having wavelength 200 nm is alacHo ee (1) 4 10 (2) 2 * 10% (3) CHsCOOH (4) CHsOH (2) 4« 10% (4) 2 10% 99. Choose the set of quantum number which is 92. Mass percentage of sulphur in sulphuric acid is applicable for valence electron of calcium atom (1) 16.2% (2) 40.8% (1) n=3, 6-0, 4 (3) 32.6% (4) 28.4% 93. Mass of a carbon atom in gram is approximately 2) n=3, (1) 2% 102g (2) 210g ey nS 3) 2« 102 ® ao @)n=4 £20, (4) 2* 102g 94. Significant figures in 7.000 are 100. Two elements A and B combine to form two compounds AxB and AB», If 0.5 mol of A:B weighs (1) Infiite 20.9 and 0.1 mol of ABs weighs 5 g then atomic (2) One weights of A and B (in u) respectively are @) Three (1) 10 ana 15 (2) 18 and 10 (4) Four (3) 10.and 20 (4) 20 and 10 [BOTANY] SECTION -A 102, Which of the following statements depicts the 101. Read the following statements and select the correct option, Statement A: Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living Statement B: Centrosome is a_non-membrane bound organelle that aids in cell division of higher plant cells. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect, paradox of meiosis? (1) It brings out variation (2) It provides a chance for the formation of new combinations of chromosomes (3) It reduces the chromosome number to half in gametes so that fertilization restores the original diploid number in zygote (4) It gives rise to four haploid daughter cells Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456‘AIATS Practice Test for NEE ra 103. Read the following events: ‘A. Disappearance of nuclear membrane. B. Two groups of chromosomes get enclosed by separate nuclear membrane. . Shortening of microtubules attached to kinetochore aids the movement of sister chromatids towards opposite poles. D. Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle gets attached to the kinetochores of the sister chromatids. Which of the following options represents the correct sequential order of the meiosis II events? ()ASD>C5B Q)A>D>B>C Q)BSASD>C 4) C4B>A5D Which of the following features is not associated with eyanophycean granule? (1) Not bounded by membrane (2) Found only in animal cells (8) Stores reserve material in prokaryotic cells (4) Lies freely in the cytoplasm Match column-1 with column-l| and choose the correct option. 104. 105, Column-t Column-it a. | Leptotene | (i) | Beginning of chromatin condensation b. | Zygotene | (ii) | Dissolution of synaptonemal complex Pachytene | (ii) | Pairing of homologous chromosomes d. | Diplotene | (iv) | Appearance of recombination nodules (1) a(i), bai), c(iv), dQ) (2) ati), BUv), efit, ACiy (3) ali), BG), ef), ii) (4) ai), BG), ef), div) Chlorophyll pigments in chloroplast are present in (1) Organised flattened membranous sacs (2) inner membrane (3) Space limited by the inner membrane, ic., stroma (4) Space between outer and inner membrane Centripetal and —_centrifugal__ cytokinesis, respectively, occur in (1) Plant cells and animal cells (2) Animal cells and plant cells (3) Animal cells and protozoans (4) Plant cells and bacterial cells 106. 107. 108. 109, 110, m1 112, 113. 114, 116, a Select the mismatched pair. (1) Anton von Leeuwenhoek — Described a live cell (2) Matthias Schleiden — Presence of cell wall is a Unique character of plant cells (3) Theodore Schwann — Reported that cells had a thin outer layer, ie., plasma membrane (4) Rudolf Virchow — Omnis cellulee cellule Duration of a complete cell cycle in yeast is (1) 90 minutes (2) 24 hours (3) 20 minutes (4) 30 minutes A coll having 20 chromosomes undergoes cell division, How many chromosomes will be present just after S-phase? (1) 20 (2) 10 (3) 40 (4) 50 Mitotic apparatus is composed of: (1) Two asters together with spindle fibres (2) One centrosome only (3) Nucleolus and ER (4) Chromosomes only In most of the animals, mitotic cell division is seen in (1) Oocytes (2) Diploid somatic cells (3) Gametes (4) Haploid germ cells The site of attachment of spindle fibre to chromosome is (1) Kinetochore (2) Secondary constriction (3) Centromere (4) Telomere During mitotic anaphase, the centromere of each chromosome is (1) Degenerated (2) Remained attach to the centromere of other sister chromatid (3) Directed towards the pole (4) Directed towards the equator Reformation of ER and golgi complex occurs during (1) Telophase (2) Anaphase (3) Metaphase (4) Prophase Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456Practice Te 116. Read the following statements and state true (T) or false (F). A: Svedberg's unit is an density and size. B: Inner chloroplast membrane Is relatively more permeable than outer chloroplast membrane. indirect measure of a |B w(t [rt @ [F [F @ [F(t @ it [F 117. Inmitosis, the disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the beginning of phase in which (1) Congression of chromosomes takes place (2) Shape of chromosomes can easily be studied (3) Spireme stage is observed (4) Disappearance of mitotic spindle is observed 118. Liquid endosperm of coconut represents (1) Enucleated condition (2) Uninucleated condition (3) Unfertiized condition (4) Syncytium 119. Which of the following features of plasma membrane can be used as the measure of its fluidity? (1) Presence of cholesterol (2) Arrangement of polar head of lipids towards the outer side (3) Lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer (4) Semi-permeable nature 120. Reorganization of all cell components takes place during the phase in which (1) Cell is metabolically inactive and does not replicate its DNA (2) DNA replication takes place (3) Cell is metabolically active but does not proliferate (4) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis take place 121, Mitosis in a diploid cell results in the production of: (1) Diploid daughter cells with different genetic complements (2) Diploid daughter cells with identical genetic complement (3) Haploid daughter cells with different genetic ‘complements (4) Haploid daughter cells with identical genetic complement EUSeaer 122. Nuclous was discovered by (1) Robert Brown (2) Robert Hooke (3) Camillo Goigi (4) Schieiden 123. The length of mycoplasma is (1) 3 um (2) 0.3 um (3) 5 um (4) 7am 124. Mesosome is the characteristic of (1) Plant cell (2) Bacterial cell (3) Animal cell (4) Fungal cell 125. Gram positive bacteria can be differentiated from gram negative on the basis of difference in (1) Cell envelope composition and the manner in which they respond to the stain (2) Plasma membrane composition (3) Mode of nutrition (4) Number of nucle’ in the cells 126.The motile surface structure of bacteria is composed of all the following components, except (1) Filaments (2) Pil (3) Hook (4) Basal body 127. Select the ineorract match. (1) | Chromoplast -] Presence of _ water- soluble carotenoids (2) | Chloroplast | - (3) | Aleuroptast_ | - Presence of chlorophyll Storage of proteins (4) [Elaioptast | — | Storage of oils and fats 128. Polysome is (1) A membrane-bound organelle (2) Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA to form a chain (3) Subunits of ribosome (4) Composed of RNA and lipid only 129, Membrane proteins can be classified as integral and peripheral, based on the (1) Difference in their chemical composition (2) Ease of extraction (@) Surface charge distribution (4) Difference in size 130. Na'/K* pump facilitates the process of (1) Diffusion (2) Passive transport (3) Active transport (4) Osmosis 131, Which of the following structures connects the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells? (1) Middle lamellae (2) Plasmodesmata (3) Primary wall (4) Secondary wall Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456‘AIATS Practice Test for NEE ra 132, In animal cells, steroidal hormones are produced in (1) Golgi bodies (2) Vacuoles (3) RER (4) SER 133. In Amoeba, osmoregulation is facilitated by (1) Gas vacuole (2) Phosphate granule (3) Contractile vacuole (4) Food vacuole 134. Chromatin contains all the following components, except (1) Upids (2) DNA (3) RNA (4) Histone proteins 135, Satelite in chromosome represents (1) Non-staining primary constriction (2) Staining primary constriction (3) Staining secondary constriction (4) The fragment beyond non-staining secondary constriction SECTION -B 136. Read the following statements and select the correct option: Assertion(A): Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the ER. Reason(R): Materials to be packaged from the ER, fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (Ais true but (R) is false (4) (A)is false but (R) is true 137. Which of the following structures in the cell is called ‘suicidal bag’? (1) Peroxisome (2) Glyoxysome (3) Residual bodies (4) Autophagic vacuole 138. Which of the following events takes place during the stage between telophase | and prophase II? (1) Centriote duplication in animal cell (2) DNA replication in plant cell (3) Chromosomes decondensation to chromatin fibres (4) RNA and protein synthesis for meiosis | a 199, Match Column-| with Column-lI and choose the correct option. Column. Column-ll Prevents the bacterium from bursting from collapsing a, | Slime layer @ b. | Capsule (i) | Glycocalyx as loose sheath Hide the bacterium from host immune system | Cellwall (iy 4. | Cellmembrane | (iv) | Structure found in prokaryote is, similar to that found in eukaryotes: (1) alii), b(ill), (i), div) (2) a(i), b(v), ei), di) @) atin, BD, ev), ai) (4) ai), b¢i, 0), iv) 140, The spherical sructure found in the nucleoplasm (1) Is bounded by a membrane (2) Disappears in the cells that are actively involved in protein synthesis (3) Is the site for rRNA synthesis (4) Forms a barrier between nucleus and cytoplasm 141. Which of the following events is associated with the phase that represents the transition to metaphase i (1) Spliting of centromere (2) Appearance of X-shaped structure called chiasmata (3) Formation of synaptonemal complex (4) Terminalization of chiasmata 142, APCs involved in all ofthe following events, except (1) Separation of sister chromatids (2) Disassembly of nuclear membrane (3) Decondensation of chromosomes (4) Division of centromere 4143. Outer mitochondrial membrane is (1) Characterised with many infoldings (2) Embedded with enzymes of electron transport system (3) Permeable to molecules of low molecular weight (4) Less permeable as compared to membrane inner Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456Practice Te 144, 146. 146. 147. 151. Codi (Ontin How many of the given statements are correct wir cilium? A. It works like oars. B. It shows the presence of nine radial spokes C. Itis emerged from centriole-ike basal body D. tis enclosed in central sheath E. Axoneme has nine pairs of doublets in the centre (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Read the following statements: A: It confers certain unique phenotypic characters to bacteria B: It is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA. These statements are true for: (1) Nucteoid (2) Pill (3) Mesosome (4) Plasmid DNA Read the following statements and select the correct option: Assertion(A): Cell division occurs in order to restore the nucieo-cytoplasmic rato, Reason(R): Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio between nucleus and the cytoplasm (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation (A) (3) (A)is true but (R) is falso (4) (A)is false but (R) is true Select the correct option that represents the functions associated with cytoskeleton a. Mechanical support Motility Maintenance of the shape of the cell. Energy production Photosynthesis Excretion (1) Only a, b and ¢ (3) Only b, cand d (2) Onlyc, d, and e (4) Only a, dande CUSSea Das 25 148. Observe the following figure and select the correct feature associated with the labelled part. (1) ‘A’is continuous with the inner membrane of the nucleus (2) 'B' serves as the passage through which RNA and protein move between nucleus and cytoplasm (3) 'C’ is the granular structure discovered by Palade (4) 'D’is the site for ipid synthesis During anaphase, isobrachial appears (1) T-shaped (2) V-shaped (3) L-shaped (4) L-shaped 149. chromosomes that are | 180. Anaphase-!_can be differentiated from mitotic anaphase, as in the former (1) Separation of sister chromatids takes place (2) Separation of homologous chromosomes takes place (2) A chromosome appears as tetrad (4) Shortening of microtubules takes place [ZOOLOGY] SECTION - A ‘Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t tissue? (1) itis present in multicellular animals. (2) It is a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances. (3) All cells of a tissue perform a specific function, (4) All functions of the body are performed by all the cells present in a tissue. 162. How many basic types of lissues are present in the body of a complex animal? a4 (23 (3) 2 a4 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-170005, Ph.: 011-47623456 i‘AIATS Practice Test for NEE ra 163. In the body of complex animals, an organ system is formed when (1) Two or more cells perform same function (2) All cells together form compound epithelium (3) Assingle type of tissue is present in an organ, (4) Two or more organs perform a common function by their physicalichemical interaction 154. The cells are compactly packed with ttle intercellular matrix in (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue (3) Muscular tissue (4) Neural tissue 155, The elements present in a sample of Earth’s crust are (1) Not present in living tissue (2) Always much more in comparison to a living tissue (3) Also present in a sample of living tissue (4) Always less in comparison to corresponding sample of living tissue 156. While analysing the chemical composition of the living tissue, the sample is generally grinded with the help of mortar and pestle in (1) CHsCOOH (2) CecOoH (3) Nac (4) CHa(CH2)xCOOH 187. Acid-insoluble fraction obtained during analysis of chemical composition of a living lissue is also called (1) Fittrate (2) Retentate (3) Slurry (4) Micromolecules 158. All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues can be called (1) Micromolecules (2) Macromolecules (3) Biomolecules (4) Nucleic acids 159, Dry weight ofa living tissue does not contain (1) Nacl (2) CacOs (3) POS (4) H20 160. c-amino acids are substituted (1) Methanes (2) Propanes (3) Trihydroxyalcohol (4) Purines 161. The type of supportive connective tissue present in external ears and in between adjacent bones of vertebral column with solid and pliable matrix is (1) Bone (2) Adipose tissue (3) Tendon (4) Cartilage a 162. Read the following features:- (2) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed (b) Orientation of fibres shows a regular pattern (c) Itis responsible to attach one bone to another ‘Which among the following tissues is characterized by the presence of above mentioned features? (1) Cartilage (2) Ligament (3) Tendon (4) Areolar connective tissue 163, The type of cell that produces and secretes fibres in loose connective tissue is (1) Macrophage (2) Fibroblast (3) Mast cell (4) Osteocyte 164, Select the correct match. (1) | Paimitic acia | — | 20 carbon fatty acid including the carboxyl carbon (2) | Valine = | Neutral protein (3) | Concanavalin A | - | Secondary metabolite used as essential oil (4) | Lecithin = ] Phospholipid found in cell membrane 165, Read the following statements and select the option representing function(s) of adhering junctions. () They provide both structural and functional links between individual cells. (iy) They prevent leaking of substance across a tissue. (i) They perform cementing to keep neighbouring calls together (1) Gand (i) only (2) (i) and (i) only (3) (i) only (4) (i) and (ili) only 166, Biologists have described the protein at four levels Which level of protein structure formed by a single polypeptide chain is mainly necossary for many biological activites of proteins? (1) Quaternary structure (2) Primary structure (8) Secondary structure (4) Tertiary structure 167. The most abundant protein in the animal world perform the function ike (1) Forming intercellular ground substance (2) Acting as respiratory pigment (3) Fighting infectious agents (4) Sensory reception Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456Practice Te 168. Select the type of connective tissue which lacks fibres in its matrix (1) Blood (2) Areolar tissue (3) Tendon (4) Ligament 169. Each skeletal muscle is composed of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils called (1) Sarcoplasm (2) Microfilaments (3) Myofibrils (4) Sarcolemma 170. Select the correct option w.r1. skeletal muscles. (1) Involuntary in action as their functioning cannot be directly controlled (2) Present in the wall of heart (3) Smooth in appearance (4) Possess muscle fibres that are muttinucleated and unbranched 171. Intercalated discs are characteristic feature of muscles present in (1) Biceps (2) Wall of blood vessel (3) Wall of stomach (4) Wall of heart 172, Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement |: Neuroglia make up more than one half of the volume of neural tissue in our body. Statement ll: When neuroglia are suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swifly travels along its plasma membrane. striped. (1) Statement | is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) Statement Il is correct but Statement I is incorrect (3) Both the statements are correct, (4) Both the statements are incorrect 173. Select the incorrect statement w.r. features of simple squamous epithelium, (1) Made up of flattened cells with boundaries (2) Found in the lining of stomach and intestine (3) Involved in forming diffusion boundary (4) Composed of single layer of cells 174, Which enzyme is responsible for dramatically increasing the speed of reaction from forming 200 molecules of HzCOs in an hour to form 600,000 molecules every second? (1) Carboxypeptidase (2) Alcohol dehydrogenase (3) Carbonic anhydrase (4) Succinic dehydrogenase irregular EUSeaer 3t for NEE ra 175. All of the given enzymes are proteinaceous in nature, except (1) Trypsin (2) Carbonic anhydrase (3) Ribozyme (4) Carboxypeptidase 176. Select the incorrect biomacromolecules, (1) They have molecular weights in the range of ten thousand dalton and above. (2) The molecules in the acid-insoluble fraction with exception to protein are polymeric substances. (3) Acid-insoluble fraction has only four types of organic compounds i.e., proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides and lipids. (4) On chemical analysis of living tissues, the macromolecules from cytoplasm and organelles are present in the acid-insoluble fraction. 177. Select the type of epithelium responsible for moving particles or mucus in a specific direction. (1) Squamous epithelium (2) Glandular epithelium (3) Ciliated epithetium (4) Cuboidal epithelium 178. Read the following statements and choose the ‘option containing the incorrect statement(s) only. (i) Digestive enzymes are secreted by endocrine glands. (i) Compound epithelium has limited role in secretion and absorption. statement w.rt. (ii) In glandular epithelium, some columnar or ‘cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion. (iv) Simple epithelium has protective function as it does in our skin, (1) (and (il) only (2) (i), (i) and (ill) only (3) (and (iv) only (4) (iv) only 179. Choose the incorrect match w.rt. double helical structure of B-DNA, (1) | Ateach step of ascent the | - | 36° strand turns (2) | One fulltum would involve | - | 10 base: pairs (3) | The rise perbase par | -|34A (4) | One pitch = [s4nm Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456AIATS Practice Test for NEET-2025 180. 181. 182, 183, 134, Select the correct statement. (1) Co-enzymes are inorganic compounds but their association with apoenzyme is only transient, (2) Zinc is the co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme, succinic dehydrogenase. (3) The non-protein part of the enzyme is called apoenzyme. (4) NAD and NADP are examples of co-enzymes, Match List I with List Il and select the correct option. List| List i a. [Ligases | (i) | Catalyse removal of group from substrates b. | Isomerase | (i) | Catalyse inter- conversion of optical, geometric or positional isomers c. | Transferase (ii) Catalyse transfer of a group a. [Lyases | (iv) | Catalyse linking together of the two compounds (1) ativ), BG, ef, dQ) (2) ali), bai), c(i), tiv) (3) ativ), Bai), of), di) (4) Qi), bai), etiv), dit) Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state. (2) When the binding of the chemical shuts off the enzyme activity than that chemical is called an inhibitor. (3) Non-competitive inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens. (4) In case of competitive inhibitor, the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate's structure. The competitive inhibitor of enzyme succinic dehydrogenase is, (1) Malate (2) Malonate (3) Succinate (4) Fumarate Which of the following monosaccharides is a pentose sugar present in a nucleic acid? (1) Ribose (2) Fructose (3) Glucose (4) Mannose 185, 186, 487. 188, 189, a Match List I with List I List 1 List a. | Cellulose | (i) | Monosaccharide b. | Fructose | (i) | Homopolymer of glucose c. | Chitin | (ii) | Homopolymer of fructose d. | inuin | (iv) | Homopolymer of N- acetyiglucosamine Select the correct option. (1) atii), bfiv), ofili), ai) (2) afin, bt), eG), Ai) (3) atin, DG), of), iv) (4) a(i), bfiv), efili), (ii) SECTION -B The Kn value of an enzyme denotes the substrate concentration at which the enzyme catalysed reaction (1) Attains half of the Vix (2) Stops (3) Reaches Vax (4) Exceeds beyond Vinax Goblet cells are specialized cells of (1) Compound epithelium (2) Glandular epithelium (3) Cilliated epithelium (4) Squamous epithelium Which among the following statements incorrect? (1) In connective tissue, fibres provide strength, and flexibility to the tissues. (2) Adipocytes are specialised to store fats. (3) Blood is the main fluid connective tissue that helps in transport of various substances. (4) Neural tissue is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals. Select the type of tissue that covers the moist surface of buccal cavity and inner lining of ducts of salivary glands. (1) Simple squamous epithelium (2) Compound epithelium (3) Glandular epithelium (4) Simple cuboidal epithelium Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-170005, Ph.: 011-47623456190. Select the type of bond present between phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar in a nucleotide. (1) Peptide bond (2) Glycosidic bond (3) Ester bond (4) Phosphodiester bond 191. Choose the incorrect match wart. secondary metabolites. (1) Pigment — Anthocyanins (2) Drug = Abrin (3) Polymeric substance - Gums (4) Toxin = Ricin 192. Select the example of protein with quatemary structure. (1) Haemoglobin (2) Myoglobin (3) Keratin (4) Collagen 193. Choose the correct statement w.rt. metabolites, (1) Primary metabolites do not have identifiable functions and play minimal roles in_normal physiological processes. (2) Role of all of the secondary metabolites is known at this moment, (3) Morphine belongs to carotenoids category of secondary metabolites. (4) Many of the secondary metabolites are useful to human welfare and some of them have ‘ecological importance. 194, Select the correct statement. (1) Assembly of a protein releases energy. (2) Catalytic activity persists even when the co- factor is removed from the enzyme, (3) The difference in average energy content of substrate from that of transition state is called activation energy. (4) Enzyme works efficiently at high temperatures and high pressure while inorganic catalyst gets damaged at high temperature. from amino acids a EUSeaer Os ra 195. Identify the incorrect statement w.r. bones and select the correct option (1) They provide structural frame to the body. (2) They interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements, (3) Bone marrow in some bones is the site of production of blood cells, (4) They support and protect softer tissues and organs. 196, Choose the odd one w.rt. nucleoside present in RNA. (1) Adenosine (2) Guanosine (3) Cytidine (4) Thymidine 197. In a polysaccharide, two _consecutive monosaccharides are linked by bond. Choose the option that fills the blank correctly. (1) Peptide (2) Phosphodiester (3) Amide (4) Glycosidic 198. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t, Watson and Crick double helical DNA structure. (1) The two. strands of polynucleotide are antiparallel. (2) The back bone is formed by Nz bases projecting inwards. (3) A and G of one strand compulsorily base pairs with T and C of the other strand respectively. (4) Secondary structure is exhibited by DNA. 199. Choose the correct function of gap junction. (1) Helps in secretion and absorption (2) Facititate the cells to communicate with each ‘other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules. (3) Perform cementing to keep the neighbouring cells together (4) Separate two cells from each other 200. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option. Bronchioles : Ciliated epithelium :: Blood vessels (1) Glandular epithelium (2) Columnar epithelium (3) Cuboidal epithelium (4) Simple squamous epithelium Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa New Delhi-110005, Ph.: 011-47623456