METEOROLOGY PAPER I

ATMOSPHERE

1. Most of the water vapour in the atmosphere is contained in the:

a) Tropopause
b) Stratosphere
c) Troposhere
d) Stratopause

2. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause
a) decreases and its temperature increases
b) increases and its temperature increases
c) increases and its temperature decreases
d) decreases and its temperature decreases

3. Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following

contribute the most?
a) Solar radiation and conduction.
b) Absorption and vaporization.
c) Convection and condensation.
d) Absorption and evaporation.

4. One of the reasons the captain of an aircraft needs to know the height of the tropopause
is, because:
a) It normally represents the limit of weather
b) Density starts to increase
c) There are no longer jet streams and CAT
d) It indicates the height of the thermal wind

5. The atmosphere is a mixture of gasses of the following proportions:

a) Oxygen 21% nitrogen 78% other gasses 1%
b) Oxygen 21% hydrogen 78% other gasses 1%
c) Nitrogen 78% argon 21% oxygen 1%
d) Nitrogen 78% oxygen 21% hydrogen 1%

6. The radiation of the sun heats

a) the air in the troposphere directly
b) the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
c) the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
d) the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present
7. The height of the tropopause depends on latitude, longitude and season, on average it is
likely to be:
Pole 50 N Equator
a) 36000 ft 40000 ft 50000 ft
b) 26000 ft 36000 ft 56000 ft
c) 30000 ft 42000 ft 53000 ft
d) 20000 ft 26000 ft 55000 ft

8. Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

a) At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 per
100m.
b) At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 per
100m
c) At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with heighl 1 °C
per 100m
d) At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa

9. The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International Standard
Atmosphere is
a) 0.65°C
b) 1°C
c) 0.5°C
d) variable

10. Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight
documentation in the tropics?
a) The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart.
b) The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore
not important
c) Tropopause information is of no value.
d) The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown.

TEMPERATURE, HUMIDITY AND PRESSURE

11. Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by?

a) Gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing
at the lower levels.
b) Compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud.
c) An unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at
lower levels.
d) Terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night
12. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when?
a) The sky is overcast and the wind is weak.
b) The sky is overcast and the wind is strong.
c) The sky is clear and the wind is weak.
d) The sky is clear and the wind is strong

13. During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were
measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce
saturation?
a) It must decrease to +7°C.
b) It must decrease to +5°C.
c) It must decrease by 5°C.
d) It must decrease to +6°C.

14. The rate of pressure decrease with height, e.g. in Hpa/100 ft, is
a) greatest in warm air.
b) the same in cold air and in warm air.
c) inversely proportional to density
d) greatest in cold air.

15. If you are flying at FL 180 and the outside temperature is -10°C, at what altitude will the
"freezing level" be?
a) FL 150
b) FL 80
c) FL 160
d) FL 130

16. At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C. The air density at this level is:
a) Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
b) Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
c) Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
d) Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.

17. An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the
temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a) 10°C warmer than ISA.
b) 5°C warmer than ISA.
c) 5°C colder than ISA.
d) 10°C colder than

18. How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C at the 300 hPa level over Kano?
a) Within ±50C of ISA
b) Low
c) Very low
d) High
19. The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this
air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
a) It is not influenced by changing water vapour.
b) It decreases with increasing water vapour.
c) It is only influenced by temperature.
d) It increases with increasing water vapour.

20. Cloud cover will reduce diurnal variation of temperature because:

a) Incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing
terrestrial radiation is reflected back to earth
b) Incoming solar radiation is re-radiated back to space and atmospheric heating by
convection will stop at the level of the cloud layer
c) The cloud stops the suns rays getting through to the earth and also reduces
outgoing conduction
d) Incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial
radiation is re-radiated from the cloud layer back to the surface

21. The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is

a) overcast and winds are weak
b) overcast and winds are light
c) clear and winds are light
d) clear and winds are strong

22. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the
tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 310. What is the most likely temperature at FL
350?
a) -58°C.
b) -54°C.
c) -56.5°C.
d) -50°C.

23. When the temperature of the air is below 00C, water vapour will:
a) evaporate and cause dew
b) sublimate and cause frost
c) condense and cause ice
d) condense and cause dew

24. Air density at the earth’s surface will be low when:

a) pressure is high and temperature is high
b) pressure is high and temperature is low
c) pressure is low and temperature is low
d) pressure is low and temperature is high
25. The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere,
to about
a) 32 000 FT
b) 34 000 FT
c) 39 000 FT
d) 30 000 FT

26. A ground base inversion is characterized by:

a) Convection currents at the surface
b) Cold temperature
c) Poor visibility
d) Good visibility

ALTIMETRY

27. You are flying in an atmosphere which is colder than ISA, what might you expect?
a) true altitude to be lower than indicated altitude
b) true altitude to be higher than indicated altitude
c) true altitude to be the same as indicated altitude
d) true altitude to be decreasing

28. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate
elevation of the airfield is
a) 120 metres
b) 160 metres
c) 600 metres
d) 540 metres

29. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If
the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting
procedure?
a) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
b) It will increase
c) It will decrease
d) It will remain the same

30. Transition Level:

a) will be given by NOTAM.
b) is published on every approach chart and landing chart for every airfield.
c) will be calculated by the pilot-in-command.
d) will be calculated by the ATC service of an ATC unit.
31. The transition from altitude to flight level and visa versa is made:
a) on the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent.
b) at the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent
c) at the transition level only
d) at the transition altitude only

32. What is the density altitude when the pressure altitude is 10 000 ft at OAT - 30ºC?
a) 7000 ft
b) 10 000 ft
c) 13 000 ft
d) 16 000 ft

33. Which of the following statements is true with regard to pressure altitude, density altitude
and air temperature?
a) Density altitude increases with rising temperature at constant pressure altitude.
b) Density altitude is unchanged with rising temperature at constant pressure
altitude.
c) There is no connection between the quantities.
d) Density altitude decreases with rising temperature at constant pressure altitude.

34. Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest take-off run?
a) High temperature and low airport elevation
b) Low temperature and low airport elevation
c) High temperature and high airport elevation
d) Low temperature and high airport elevation

35. Assume a pressure altitude of 19,000 ft. At what temperature will the density altitude be
the same as the pressure altitude?
a) -260C
b) -190C
c) -300C
d) -230C
36. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is - 40°C, and the pressure at sea level
is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a) 21740 feet
b) 18260 feet
c) 19340 feet
d) 20660 feet

WINDS

37. Where does wind shear occur?

a) At any level, and it can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction.
b) Only at high altitudes, usually in the vicinity of a jet streams
c) Primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain waves.
d) Only in the vicinity of thunderstorm
38. What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the
weather map are very close together?
a) Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
b) Strong and parallel to the isobars.
c) Strong and flowing across the isobars.
d) Moderate and parallel to the isobars.

39. What is the approximate speed of a 25 knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
a) 35 km/h
b) 45 km/h
c) 55 km/h
d) 60 km/h

40. If Kano City in Northern Nigeria reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR,
what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above
the ground?
a) 08005KT
b) 08015KT
c) 05020KT
d) 11020KT

41. Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
a) veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
b) backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
c) backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.
d) veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.

42. In a land and sea breeze circulation the land-breeze blows:

a) during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
b) during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
c) during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
d) during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.

43. The wind speed in a system of curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars
(other conditions being the same)
a) always higher
b) always lower
c) higher if curvature is cyclonic
d) higher if curvature is anticyclonic

44. (For this question use annex 050-4333A below). Which of the following best describes
Zone C?
a) Col
b) Ridge of high pressure
c) Depression
d) Trough of low pressure
45. A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea
and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny
afternoon?
a) Land to sea.
b) Variable.
c) Parallel to the coastline.
d) Sea to land.

46. For standing waves to form, the wind direction must be near perpendicular to a ridge or
range of mountain and the speed must:
a) Decrease with height within a stable layer above the hill.
b) Increase with height within an unstable layer above the hill.
c) Increase with height within a stable layer above the hill
d) Decrease with height within an unstable layer above the hill.

47. Violent turbulent with mountain waves is most likely:

a) above the Cap cloud.
b) in the AC lenticular cloud on the windward side of the mountain.
c) below the first wave on the downwind side of the mountain.
d) in the first wave on the windward side of the mountain.

48. A polar front jet is located about ……….nm……. the ground position of the
………………front.
Complete the above sentence correctly using one of the following:
a) 200 behind cold
b) 400-500 ahead of cold
c) 200 ahead of cold
d) 400-500 behind warm
49. Wake turbulence behind large aaircraft begins ------- and ends when -------
a) on flap retraction established in the climb
b) on airbrake extension the approach begins
c) on flap extention the approach begins
d) on rotation on take off the nosewheel goes down on rollout

50. What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other
jet streams?
a) Vertical dimension.
b) Wind direction.
c) Horizontal dimension.
d) Windspeed

51. Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are south westerly while most of
the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these
two wind directions?
a) Friction between the wind and the surface.
b) A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
c) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
d) The influence of warm air at the lower altitude.

52. What is the main factor contributing to the formation of jet stream in the atmosphere?
a) They are often associated with polar front.
b) Existence of steep temperature gradient across the cold and warm airmasses.
c) Presence of widespread precipitation area.
d) Existence of steep gradient.

53. The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in
flight by
a) dust or haze at high level
b) a constant outside air temperature
c) long streaks of cirrus clouds.
d) a high-pressure centre at high level

54. Low-level wind shear occurs:

a) when surface winds are 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and
wind speed with height.
b) after a warm front has passed.
c) when there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the
inversion.
d) when surface winds are light and variable.

55. Where is the best position following a heavier aeroplane?

a) above its flight path and downwind
b) below its flight path and upwind
c) directly behind and slightly high
d) upwind and above its flight path
STABILITY. CLOUD AND PRECIPITATION

56. Adiabatic warming is associated with:

a) A constant pressure and a decrease in volume
b) An increase in density and a decrease in volume
c) A decrease in pressure and an increase in volume
d) An increase in pressure and a decrease in volume

57. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
a) reaches warmer layers
b) is heated by expansion
c) loses water vapour
d) is heated by compression

58. Correctly complete the following sentence using one of the four sets of 'words given.
"......instability exists when the ...... is ...... than the DALR."
a) Absolute SALR less
b) Conditional SALR less
c) Absolute ELR greater
d) Conditional ELR greater
59. The stability in a layer is increasing if:
a) warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
b) warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
c) warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
d) cold and dry air is advected in the upper part

60. What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?
a) You have flown into an area of thunderstorm
b) Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude
c) You have flown through a cold front
d) If you descend, you will fly out of this icing condition

61. Altocumulus is ------- cloud which produces --------- preceipitation and ---------
turbulence.

Correctly complete the above sentence using one of the following:

a) high slight no
b) medium rarely any slight/nil
c) medium showery moderate
d) low rarely any moderate
62. The atmosphere is humid, with a lapse rate of 4°C per 1000 ft. Which of the following
clouds is most likely to develop?
a) small cumulus.
b) cumulonimbus.
c) extensive cirrostratus.
d) medium level layer cloud.

63. A sheet of turbulence cloud have a flat top because:

a) There is an unstable air above the cloud
b) The cloud is sand witched by unstable layer above and a stable layer below
c) There is an inversion layer above the cloud
d) Above the cloud, temperature and moisture decrease with height

64. One hazard that can be indicated by the presence of virga is

a) severe airframe icing
b) strong updrafts
c) microburst activity
d) induction system icing

65. Cumulonimbus clouds can best be described as:

a) thin, white, featherlike clouds in patches or narrow bands.
b) dense clouds, dark at lower levels, extending many thousands of feet upward.
c) white or gray layers or patches of solid clouds, usually appearing in waves .
d) fluffy, white clouds appearing in layers and sometimes producing steady
precipitation.