Answer Key:

1.C
2.B
3.D
4.B
5.C
6.C
7. A
8. D
9.C
10.A
 In each of the items from number 21 to 25, select the idiom
that best fits the sentence from the choices under each sentence.
21. The terrorists were not _____ the crimes they committed.
A. absolve in B. absolve of C. absolve from D. absolve about
22. The cashier _____ me ___ the groceries I bought.
A. charged/with B. charged/for C. charged/of D. charged/from
23. It is difficult to _____ people of different beliefs.
A. contend for B. contend at C. contend with D. contend over
24. Justice Undersecretary Merciditas Gutierrez _____ the truthfulness of
Gracia Burnham’s statement that she heard Abu Sabaya talking to
President Gloria Macapagal-Arroyo using a satellite phone.
A. inquired of B. inquired about C. inquired from D. inquired into
25. You will get up to 57 percent discount if you _____ Newsweek than
buy it from the newsstand.
A. subscribe to B. subscribe for C. subscribe of D. subscribe by

In Numbers 26 to 30, each item is composed of three words. The

first pair of words shows a verbal analogy. Select the fourth word from the
options provided following the same verbal analogy as the original pair of
words.
LANGUAGE PROFICIENCY REVIEW TEST
26. Able : Disabled : : Arrange : _____
In each item from number 1 to 10, select the word or phrase
A. Rearrange B. Anarrange C. Disarrange D. Unarrange
which is similar in meaning to the italicized word in the phrase.
27. Gills: Fish : : Lungs : _____
1. exemplary services of the journalists
A. Arteries B. Blood C. Veins D. Man
A. cautionary B. commendable C. prolific. D. fraudulent
28. Brother : Sister : : Warlock : _____
2. mosaic of ruined buildings
A. Widow B. Witch C. Warlady D. Widower
A. display B. architecture C. puzzle D. picture
29. Mahabharata: India : : Iliad : _____
3. hostilities in Iraq
A. Rome B. Greece C. Troy D. Russia
A. warfare B. convergence C. divergence D. hostages
30. Thread : Cloth : : Wire : _____
4. plethora of humanitarian aid
A. Current B. Mesh C. Cage D. Metal
A. shortage B. excess C. flimsy D. devoid
5. dire humanitarian needs
In Numbers 31 to 35, each pair of words exhibits a form of
A. urgent B. petty C. persistent D. earnest
association. Under each pair are two sets of words. Select the pair of
6. specious military tactics
words that shows the same relation as the original pair of words.
A. logical B. misleading C. spacious D. ingenious
31. Egypt: Desert: : __________
7. think carefully to avoid qualms
A. Philippines: Tropics C. Cactus: Desert
A. scruple B. certainty C. mortification D. embarrassment
B. Alaska: Snow D. Philippines: Islands
8. the palace speaks of profuse lifestyle
32. Car: Garage: : __________
A. lavish B. important C. deplete D. vigorous
A. Dog: Cage C. Airplane: Ramp
9. sa manlulupig di ka pasisiil
B. Bird: Cage D. Airplane: Hangar
A. mapagsamantala C. mapagtaksil
33. Kid: Goat: : __________
B. mapagkalinga D. mapagkupkop
A. Pony: Horse C. Lion: Lioness
10. alab ng puso
B. Colt: Horse D. Ponytail: Pigtail
A. pighati B. sakit C. damdamin D. poot
34. Water: H2O: : __________
11. benign acts of charity
A. Carbon Dioxide: CO C. Liquid: Li
A. compassionate B. sympathy C. apathy D. antipathy
B. Gold: Au D. Centimeter: Cm
12. defiled by his opponents
35. Sum: Addition: : __________
A. respected B. tarnished C. maligned D. criticized
A. Quotient: Division C. Plus: Minus
13. clandestine meeting
B. Minuend: Subtrahend D. Positive: Negative
A. open B. secret C. romantic D. passionate
14. awakened by pandemonium of bombs
In Numbers 36 to 40, choose the determiner or predeterminer
A. uproar B. noise C. silence D. anger
that best fits in the sentence.
15. intrepid suicide bombers
36. Easy glider, _____ anaconda can cruise like a submarine and, with its
A. bold B. brave C. timorous D. arrogant
eyes and nostrils strategically positioned atop its small, flat head, peer
16. hail the peace lovers
above water like a periscope.
A. chide B. salute C. respect D. applaud
A. the B. an
17. succinct speech
37. _____ peso you pay for in a National Geographic, goes to the research
A. vague B. extensive C. epigrammatic D. convincing
project on wildlife, like the research on
18. oppugns the decision of the court
anacondas.
A. gratifies B. accepts C. respects D. questions
A. Every B. Each
19. mayuming dalaga
38. _____ estimates suggest that there is nearly 200 billion barrels,
A. mahinhin B. maharot C. madaldal D. makyeme
roughly as much as the proven reserves of Iran and Iraq combined.
20. tugatog ng tagumpay
A. Every B. Some
A. rurok B. katuparan C. ilalim D. nakalalasing
39. _____ of the Caspian’s sturgeon are being decimated by poaching and
pollution.
A. Many B. All
40. _____ fishermen set about half a mile from shore, pulled their nets
with sturgeons for caviar to sell in the black market.
A. These B. Those
In Numbers 41 to 45, choose the correct noun derivation from
the options.
41. In choosing music for your wedding ceremony, your first _____ is to
keep it true to the purpose of the liturgy or service being said.
A. responsibility B. responsible
42. Many churches are quite strict about the _____and religiosity of the
music played during the ceremony.
A. sacredly B. sacredness
43. The list was compiled through the _____ of the parish priest.
A. kind B. kindness
44. This list has been arranged to accommodate a purely instrumental
music selection, a selection just for voices, or a combination of the two
programs, by which you may choose to have _____ and singers perform
your ceremony music.
A. musician B. musical
45. For general purposes, we shall assume that the music alluded to shall
be applicable to _____ weddings.
A. Philippine B. Filipino
In Numbers 46 to 50, choose the correct noun derivation from
the options.
46. The women’s choir competition gave a special prize to the most
outstanding _____ performer.
A. alto B. countertenor
47. Filipina _____ looks charming in their Filipiniana costumes.
A. stewardess B. steward
48. The _____ of the story is portrayed by Angel Locsin.
A. hero B. heroine
49. In the show “Mel and Joey,” Joey (de Leon) is the _____.
A. anchorwoman B. anchorman
50. My luggage were taken by a _____ at the port.
A. chambermaid B. stevedore
In Numbers 51 to 55, complete each of the following sentences
accurately by choosing the correct noun plural.
51. That accounting firm employs two _____ for five CPAs.
A. secretaries B. secretarys
52. Both my _____ agreed to the settlement.
A. sister-in-laws B. sisters-in-law
53. Two major _____ will participate in arms negotiation.
A. countries B. country
54. Nearly all _____ demand observance of the standard punctuation.
A. editor in chiefs B. editors in chief
55. The office is unusually quiets on _____.
A. Sundays B. Sunday’s
In Numbers 56 to 60, for each sentence, choose the correct
pronoun from the options.
56. Jashmid wore a thin sport shirt, Reebok warm-up pants, and shower
clogs when I visited _____, unannounced.
A. he B. him
57. Jamshid shares his room with two other people. _____ sleep on iron
cots with creaking springs.
A. Them B. They
58. In the Soviet era students bore _____ responsibility for their futures.
A. few B. little
59. The state determined _____ to send to evict in Baku.
A. whom B. who
60. Jamshid _____ perseverance is unwavering, has a bright future ahead
of him.
A. which B. whose
In Numbers 61 to 65, for each sentence, choose the correct
pronoun from the options.
61. Apparently, one of the female applicants forgot to sign _____
application.
A. her B. their
62. Everyone has completed the reports except Marc and _____.
A. he B. him
63. Lack of work disturbs Roy as much as _____.
A. I B. me
64. A number of inquiries were addressed to Vicky and _____.
A. myself B. me
65. On her return from Australia, Ms. Aquino, along with many other
passengers, had to open _____ luggage for inspection.
A. her B. their
In Numbers 66 to 70, for each sentence, choose the correct verb from the
options.
66. Yesterday, Ms. Co _____ a new dress for the awards night.
A. choose B. chose
67. Across from our school _____ the food stalls.
A. is B. are
68. Neither the faculty nor the students _____ rehearsing for the
Intramurals.
A. has been B. have been
69. Have you _____ to your parents about the trip to Boracay?
A. spoke B. spoken
70. Anton _____ his new bicycle.
A. lost B. losed
In Number 71, choose the one that illustrates consistency in use
of subject, voice, and mood. Choose either A or B.
71.
A. She was an enthusiastic teacher who always had a smile for everyone.
B. She was an enthusiastic teacher who always has a smile for everyone.
In Numbers 72 to 74, for each sentence, choose the correct
adjective or adverb from the options.
72. Darren completed the employment test _____.
A. satisfactorily B. satisfactory
73. New owners will receive a _____ trial period.
A. 60-day B. 60 day
74. You must check the document _____.
A. page by page B. page-by-page
In Numbers 75 to 77, select the preposition that best fits the
sentence from the choices under each sentence.
75. Masked for protection _____ stinging jellyfish, Philippine divers squirt
illegal and deadly cyanide to stun and net the
fish.
A. toward B. for C. with D. against
76. The bus that leaves for Baguio leaves the station at _____ five o’clock
in the morning.
A. in B. on C. at D. about
77. Larger live specimens from the reefs began going to places ___ Hong
Kong so fashionable diners could pick them out of a restaurant tank to
eat, paying hundreds of dollars for the privilege.
A. as B. toward C. like D. inside
 In Numbers 78 to 80, select the conjunction that best fits the
sentence from the choices under each sentence.
78. Results of the study show that Filipinos are more aware of immediate
problems that affect urban lives such as waste/garbage management
(83%), air pollution (75%), floods (48%) and water pollution (37%). It
_____ shows that environmental problems that are personally observed
and experienced create the most impact on awareness.
A. however B. further C. actually D. so
79. Respondents have very low systemic understanding of the cause and
effect of environmental issues _____ possess a superficial grasp of
problems makes matters worse.
A. or B. but C. and D. while
80. The findings of this study are disconcerting. _____so many years of
painstaking hard work and hard-nose advocacy, environmentalists are
apparently still on the losing end in their battle to save the country’s vital
resources.
A. After B. During C. In the period D. Besides
In Numbers 81 to 90, choose the letter that corresponds to the
word/phrase that makes the sentence inconsistent and confusing.
81. If you write a page in your diary everyday, you will discover that one
learn from practice.
ABCD
82. He went into his room, closed the door, opened the window and goes
to bed.
ABCD
83. Inserting the letter in the envelope and seal it.
ABCD
84. When you pass the UPCAT, one should be proud.
ABCD
85. We blocked the road, stopped the vehicles and had the traffic will be
rerouted.
ABCD
86. The hallways are deserted, the parking lot is isolated, and the canteen
abandon.
ABCD
87. They are sincere when you fulfill your promise.
ABCD
88. The experimental apparatus was set up and the laboratory assistant
cleans up after the experiment was completed.
ABCD
89. The mother wraps the baby in a towel before the baby took a bath.
ABCD
Adopted from “How much do Filipinos know about their environment?”
Haring Ibon. 1st Quarter 2002.
90. First, splice the wire. Next, the soldering iron should be taken.
ABCD
In Numbers 91 to 100, each number has an ungrammatical
sentence. Below it are sentences related to the original sentence.
Choose the letter that would correspond to the best and clearest sentence
from the options.
91. Driving across Metro Manila, our gas ran out.
A. we ran out of gas. C. our gas went running.
B. our gas ran. D. we ran with the gas.
92. Enclosed are your contracts on Charice concert in triplicate.
A. Enclosed are your Charice concert triplicate contracts.
B. Your contracts enclosed are Charice concert triplicate.
C. Your triplicate contracts of the Charice concert are enclosed.
D. Charice concert triplicate contracts are enclosed for you.
93. The president’s Independence Day speech will be followed by the
firing squad.
A. After the president’s Independence Day speech, the firing squad will
follow.
B. The firing squad will follow the president’s Independence Day speech.
C. The president’s firing squad will follow the Independence Day speech.
D. Following the president’s Independence Day speech is the firing
squad.
94. Next Monday, we will see a program about mothers who gave birth to
babies who are alcoholic.
A. Next Monday, we will see a program about mothers who gave birth
to alcoholic babies.
B. Next Monday, we will see a program on alcoholic mothers who gave
birth.
C. Next Monday, we will see an alcoholic program about mothers who
gave birth to babies.
D. Next Monday, we will see a program on alcoholic mothers and
babies.
95. Your letter regarding your order of 10 trucks arrived by airmail this
morning.
A. Your morning letter regarding your order of 10 trucks arrived by
airmail.
B. Your airmail letter regarding your order of 10 trucks arrived this
morning.
C. This morning, your airmail letter regarding your order of 10 trucks
arrived.
D. Ten trucks arrived this morning by airmail with your letter.
96. When only one year old, this customer’s mother died.
A. This customer’s mother died when they were only one year old.
B. This customer’s mother died at one year old only.
C. This mother died when the customer was only one year old.
D. The customer was one year old when his/her mother died.
97. Wearing an orange dress, the prayers were offered by the monk.
A. Wearing a dress, the orange monk offered prayers.
B. Wearing an orange dress, the monk offered prayers.
C. The monk who was wearing an orange dress offered a prayer.
D. The prayers were offered by the orange monk who was dressed.
98. The mother took the gift and gave it to the child from the bag.
A. and gave the bag to the child.
B. from the bag and gave it to the child.
C. and gave it to the child from the bag.
D. and gives the bag to the child.
99. Mr. Macapagal ate sugpo for dinner after returning from the trip.
A. Mr. Macapagal ate sugpo from the trip.
B. Mr. Macapagal who returned from a trip, ate sugpo for dinner.
C. Mr. Macapagal ate sugpo for dinner returning from the trip.
D. After eating sugpo, he returned from the trip.
100. When you take the exam, he/she should expect the worst.
A. When you take the exam, expect the worst.
B. When you take the exam, you should expect the worst.
C. Expect the worst exam.
D. Expect your worst exam.
 GENERAL SCIENCE REVIEW TEST
For questions 1-3 please refer to the following choices:
A. Gold and silver
B. Iron and nickel
C. Oxygen and silicon
1. What materials are abundant in the crust?
2. What does the mantle contain?
3. The metals _______ make up most of the earth’s core.
4. Which does not belong to the group?
A. asthenosphere B. mesosphere
C. lithosphere D. troposphere
5. Movement of tectonic plates is due to the hot, flowing condition
of the asthenosphere. What is the term
for semi-liquid condition?
A. fluidity B. malleability
C. plasticity D. rigidity
6. The outer core is ________ because _________ is the
controlling factor.
A. solid – temperature B. liquid – pressure
C. liquid – temperature D. solid – pressure
7. The inner core is ______ because _______ is the controlling
factor.
A. solid – temperature B. liquid – pressure
C. liquid – temperature D. solid – pressure
8. Energy in the mesosphere moves slowly by ________.
A. conduction B. convection
C. radiation D. conduction and radiation
9. The crust is made up of two separate layers: the oceanic crust
and the continental crust. Which of the following characterizes the
oceanic crust?
A. exhibits folded mountain formation
B. composed of basalt and gabbro
C. composed of granite and rhyolite
D. composed of rocks with low density
10. Which make up continental crust?
A. basalt and gabbro C. limestone and sandstone
B. granite and rhyolite D. granite and basalt
11. Which make up the lithosphere?
A. crust B. crust and upper mantle
C. upper mantle D. upper and lower mantle
12. The shadow zone is the boundary between the _______?
A. crust and upper mantle B. upper mantle and lower mantle C.
lower mantle and outer core D. outer core and inner core
13. Which best describes primary waves?
A. compress and expand particles that lie in their path
B. resemble the wavelike motion that results when a rope is
stretched from side to side
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
14. Which illustrates a surface wave?
A. compress and expand particles that lie in their path
B. resemble the wavelike motion that results when a rope is
stretched from side to side
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
15. Where do the seismic waves from an earthquake go? Seismic
waves spread out in
A. a straight line C. all directions
B. a perpendicular pattern D. no particular direction
16. Why can earthquakes be not detected at the shadow zone?
A. It is too deep within the earth.
B. The outer core stops P waves and bends S waves.
C. The outer core bends P waves and stops S waves.
D. The outer core bends L waves.
17. Why are P waves bent as they strike the mantle?
A. The core and the mantle have identical properties.
B. The core and the mantle have different properties.
C. The crust and the mantle have identical properties.
D. The crust and the mantle have different properties.
18. A change in direction of a wave as it moves through rock layers
of different densities is known as
A. deflection B. reflection C. refraction D. diffraction
19. What is the principle of uniformitarianism?
A. The geologic processes that occurred in the past are very
much different from today’s processes.
B. The same processes that shaped the earth are still at work
today.
C. The laws of nature changes very much over time.
D. Only sedimentation occurred.
20. Which supported the continental drift theory?
1.fossils
2.rock formations
3.continental edges
4.glaciers
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, 3, and 4
21. All of the following are associated with seafloor spreading
except:
A. divergent plate boundaries
B. mid-oceanic ridges
C. old age of oceanic crust compared to continental crust
D. rising of magma from the asthenosphere
22. Which of the following occurs when two oceanic plates collide?
A. folded mountain formation C. subduction
B. seafloor spreading D. tension
23. Any plate boundary where the plates collide is called a
___________ boundary.
A. convergent B. divergent
C. strike-slip D. transform
24. The theory of _______ explains all known major surface
geological phenomena.
A. continental drift C. sea-floor spreading
B. plate tectonics D. none of the above
25. What are formed when two continental plates collide?
A. folded mountains C. trenches
B. rift valleys D. volcanoes
26. Which of the following global locations best shows the action
of divergent plate boundaries?
A. African rift valley C. Marianas trench
B. Himalayan mountain range D. Mayon volcano
Questions 27 and 28 are related.
27. The type of stress that can form a trench is _______.
A. compression B. friction C. shear D. tension
28. What kind of fault results from # 27?
A. gravity B. lateral C. normal D. reverse
29. In a ______ fault, the hanging wall to move upward in relation
to the footwall, while in a _____ fault, the
hanging wall moves downward in relation to the footwall.
A. normal…….reverse C. reverse……thrust
B. reverse……normal D. uplift……….thrust
30. Arrange the following in the correct sequence
1.oceanic crust melts
2.magma rises through the earth’s crust
3.pool of magma forms under the earth’s surface
4.magma solidifies forming a pluton
5.oceanic crust subducts at boundary with continental plate
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
C. 5, 1, 3, 2, 4 D. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
31. What kind of fault is formed by tension?
A. normal B. reverse C. lateral D. transform
32. On the other hand, what kind of fault is formed by
compression?
A. normal B. reverse C. lateral D. transform
33. Volcanic eruptions usually occur at the _______ of continents
where forces between adjoining tectonic
plates are usually the strongest.
A. bottom B. edges C. middle D. surface
34. What kind of energy do seismic waves carry?
A. kinetic B. light. C. potential D. radiant
35. The earth has _______ energy and is changed into ________
energy during an earthquake.
A. kinetic…….potential C. mechanical……light
B. potential……..kinetic D. light……radiant
36. The energy transformation in # 35 occurs at the _____.
A. epicenter B. focus C. Moho D. Shadow zone
37. What happens to the amount of kinetic energy carried by the
wave as the wave moves away from the
focus?
A. decreases B. increases
C. remains the same
D. fluctuates depending on the substance that the wave passes
thru
38. Which earthquake waves are called body waves?
A. P and L B. L only C. P and S D. L and S
39. The area along a fault where rocks first break and move is
the_______.
A. epicenter B. focus C. Moho D. Shadow zone
40. The point on the earth’s surface where an earthquake’s
shaking is generally the strongest is________.
A. epicenter B. focus C. Moho D. Shadow zone
41. In volcano, what factor causes magma to move through a pipe?
A. heat C. heat and pressure
B. pressure D. temperature
42. Which best characterizes a cinder cone volcano?
A. has flat top formed from runny lava that flows away
from the vent
B. has steep sides, generally formed by wet, silica – rich
magma
C. contain alternating layers of volcanic debris and lava,
has steep tops but gently sloping bases
D. has steep slopes, contains layers of cinders and lava
43. The _______ seismic waves can cause the most damage
because they cause the earth’s surface to move
up or down or side to side
A. P B. L C. S D. P and S
44. Which best characterizes a mineral?
1.naturally formed
2.solid
3.has definite crystal structure
4.organic
5.maybe an element or a compound
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 2, 3, 5 C. 1, 2, 4, 5 D. 1, 3, 4, 5
45. Which is NOT a mineral?
A. coal B. diamond C. feldspar D. graphite
46. What is the symbol of quartz?
A. Si O2 B. Si2 O2 C. Si2 O D. Si O
47. Ferrous oxides are composed of:
A. carbon and oxygen C. iron and oxygen
B. ferritin and oxygen D. silicon and oxygen
48. Which is NOT a rock?
A. halite B. phyllite C. granite D. marble
49. Which statement is TRUE?
A. the color of the mineral is always the same
B. the luster of the mineral is always the same
C. the streak of the mineral is always the same
D. none of the above
50. Specific gravity is the ratio of a mineral’s density to the density
of water. What is the specific gravity of a
mineral whose density is 5.3 g/cm3?
A. 5.3 B. 5.3 g/cm3 C. 5.3 cm3/g D. 5.3 g
51. Moh’s scale is used to determine the ________ of a mineral.
A. Hardness B. luster C. malleability D. magnetism
52. A mineral scratches all the other minerals. What is its hardness
number in Moh’s scale?
A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12
53. The “lead” in pencil is actually
A. charcoal B. graphite C. halite D. quartzite
54. What minerals maybe used to make porcelain?
A. borax and feldspar C. talc and halite
B. quartz and sulfur D. graphite and gypsum
55. The _________ of a mineral leaves even surface while ______
of a mineral leaves uneven plane.
A. fracture…..cleavage C. hardness…..streak
B. cleavage….fracture D. specific gravity….streak
56. You have two mineral samples that vary in color but are
identical in all other properties. What can you infer about the two
samples?
A. different mineral, different impurities
B. different mineral, same impurities
C. same mineral, different impurities
D. same mineral, same impurities
Questions 57 and 58 are related.
57. A sample of a mineral has a mass of 64 g and a volume of 16
cm3. What is its density?
A. 48 g x cm3 B. 80 g x cm3
C. 4 cm3/g D. 4 g/cm3
58. What is its specific gravity?
A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32
59. Which does NOT belong to the group?
A. marble B. sandstone C. schist D. quartzite
60. Which is an igneous rock?
A. conglomerate B. gneiss C. obsidian D. phyllite
61. Which is a metamorphic rock?
A. schist B. dolomite C. pumice D. limestone
62. Igneous rocks are formed by the _________ of magma.
A. cooling and solidifying C. depositing and cementing
B. cooling and cementing D. solidifying and depositing
63. The process by which new rocks are formed thru intense heat
and pressure is called ________.
A. crystallization B. lithification
C. metamorphism D. plastic deformation
64. Both sedimentary rocks are metamorphic foliated rocks have
layers. Sedimentary rocks are formed by
_________ while foliated rock layers consist of _________.
A. particles of different sizes……..different minerals
B. particles of the same size……….same minerals
C. organisms of different sizes………same minerals
D. different minerals…….particles of different sizes
65. When magma cools rapidly, the rocks that form ______.
A. have small or no minerals C. have large mineral crystals
B. are glassy D. are fractured
66. A rock with two very different textures means that the rock
probably
A. is sedimentary
B. formed at two different depths
C. is metamorphic
D. formed as two different rocks fused
67. The oldest rock layers lie on the bottom according to the
principle of
A. crosscutting B. faunal succession
C. superposition D. uniform process
68. The parent rock of gneiss is __________.
A. clay B. shale C. limestone D. granite
69. Breakdown of rocks due to daily fluctuations in temperature is
a form of _________.
A. chemical weathering C. mechanical weathering
B. leaching D. oxidation
70. Which is NOT a factor of weathering?
A. heat C. plants and animals
B. temperature and pressure D. magnetic field
71. Frost action breaks rocks apart due to _________.
A. the expansion of water as it expands
B. the dissolution of minerals by water
C. the sharp edges of the ice
D. none of the above
72. Which mineral will resist weathering the most?
A. calcite B. feldspar C. iron oxide D. quartz
73. The most important product of weathering is _______.
A. another rock B. mineral C. soil D. fine particle of rock
74. Daily temperature changes affect rocks due to the ________ of
the outer surface layer of the rock which
causes rocks to crack.
1.expansion
2.contraction
3.convection
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 3
75. Which is not a form of chemical weathering?
A. carbonation B. exfoliation C. hydration D. oxidation
76. Why is carbonic acid a significant weathering agent?
A. it is a strong acid C. it is common in nature
B. it can be artificially synthesized D. it is naturally occurring
77. What forces break / split parent rock into blocks or boulders?
1.mechanical weathering
2.chemical weathering
3.cementation
4.lithification
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. 3 and 2 and 4
Classification of rivers depends on how much they erode the areas
around them. There are three stages of river
erosion: young, mature and old.
For questions 78 and 79 refer to the following:
A. little erosion at the bottom of the river, steep slope, swift
flow,
B. presence of rapids and waterfalls V-shaped valleys
C. broad, flat floodplain, oxbow lake
D. gentle slope, presence of meanders
E. rapids and waterfalls, oxbow lake, meanders
78. Which characterizes an old river?
79. Which best describes a young river?
80. Which of the following best explains why nitrogen is the most
common gas in the atmosphere?
A. it is inert
B. it is required for respiration
C. it is needed to produce fertilizers
D. it is a vital component of amino acids
81. In Northern Hemisphere, air in a cyclone blows ______.
A. clockwise C. counterclockwise
B. from west to east D. into an area of high pressure
82. The least dense air is found in the ________.
A. mesosphere C. thermosphere
B. stratosphere D. troposphere
83. The layer of the atmosphere which contains the ozone gas is
________.
A. mesosphere B. stratosphere
C. thermosphere D. troposphere
84. In what part of the atmosphere do average sized and large
meteors burn in during atmospheric entry?
A. exosphere C. mesosphere
B. ionosphere D. stratosphere
85. Why don’t we feel pressure of air?
A. Pressure inside and outside our bodies are equal.
B. Pressure inside our body is greater than the pressure
outside our body.
C. Pressure inside is lesser than the pressure outside.
D. Air pressure is negligible.
86. How are the density of air and the air pressure related to the
height above the surface of the earth?
A. Density and pressure increases as the height increases.
B. Density and pressure decreases as the height increases.
C. Density increases with altitude while pressure decreases.
D. Density decreases with altitude while pressure increases.
87. Energy that powers weather comes from the sun. How is this
energy transferred among the different air
masses in the earth? 99. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. convection B. radiation A. Jupiter B. Neptune C. Pluto D. Saturn
C. conduction D. radiation and conduction 100. Earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of _______.
88. The warming of the atmosphere due to the trapping of heat A. 21.50 B. 23.50 C. 30.20 D. 40.10
from the sun by carbon dioxide and other gases is known as
________.
A. coriolis effect B. ozone depletion
C. smog D. greenhouse effect
89. The gas in the stratosphere that absorbs UV radiation is
_______.
A. oxygen B. neon C. ozone D. carbon
90. The layer of the atmosphere where most airline planes travel
in is the _____.
A. Stratosphere B. ionosphere C. exosphere D. troposphere
91. The temperature at which air is saturated with water vapor is
called the _______.
A. saturation point C. freezing point
B. evaporation point D. dew point
92. Air mass A is 80% saturated, while air mass B is 60% saturated.
Assuming that air temperature is constant, which of the following
statements is true?
A. Air mass A has lower dew point than air mass B.
B. Air mass A has higher dew point than air mass B.
C. Air mass A and air mass B have equal dew points.
D. No conclusion regarding dew points can be made.
93. Air mass A has a water vapor amount of 25ppm while air mass
B has 50ppm. Assuming air temperature is
constant, which of the following statements is true?
A. Air mass A would exhibit rain first.
B. Air mass B would exhibit rain first.
C. Both air masses will exhibit rain at the same time.
D. No conclusive statement about rain can be made.
94. Sea and land breezes are caused by _______.
1.uneven heating
2.local changes in air pressure
3.changes in air density
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 3
95. The _________ corresponds to the solar surface.
A. chromosphere B. corona
C. photosphere D. radiation zone
96. The _________ is the origin of the solar wind.
A. chromosphere B. convection zone
C. core D. corona
97. After billions of years, the sun would eventually use up its
hydrogen fuel and “die”. It would then become a
A. black hole B. red giant
C. supernova D. white dwarf
98. new moon  __________  waxing quarter  __________  full
moon  __________  waning quarter
 __________ new moon
A. waxing gibbous  waxing crescent  waning gibbous  waning
crescent
B. waxing crescent  waxing gibbous  waning crescent  waning
gibbous
C. waxing gibbous  waxing crescent  waning crescent  waning
gibbous
D. waxing crescent  waxing gibbous  waning gibbous  waning
crescent
1. Abstemious: Not self-indulgent
2. Abstruse: Difficult to understand
3. Acuity: Keenness of thought
4. Alacrity: Promptness/Haste
5. Altruistic: Unselfishly concerned for others
6. Ambivalent: Conflicted (feelings)/ Mixed thoughts
7. Analogous: Comparable/Similar
8. Ascetic: A self-disciplined person (like a monk)
9. Astute: Shrewd/Sly/Smart
10. Belie: To contradict/disguise (ex. His wrinkles belie
the fact that he is only 20 year old)
11. Brevity: Concise/Quick
12. Capricious: Impulsive/Whimsical
13. Censure: Disapproval
14. Corroborate: To confirm/support
15. Deference: Humble submission/respect
16. Depravity: Moral Corruption
17. Deprecate: To disapprove of
18. Despondent: In low spirits
19. Didactic: Instructive (very)
20. Diminution: Reduction in size or value
21. Disputatious: Argumentative
22. Eclectic: A mix of various ideas or styles
23. Enervating: Exhausting
24. Ephemeral: Short-lived/Fleeting
25. Ersatz: A poor substitute
26. Equivocal: Ambiguous/Questionable
28. Exonerate: To absolve or acquit
29. Extol: To praise
30. Facetious: Cleverly amusing/Bantering
31. Fastidious: Attentive to detail
32. Frivolous: Carefree/Useless
33. Furtive: Secretive/Avoiding of attention
34. Gratuitous: Unwarranted or uncalled for
35. Guile: Sly or cunning
35. Impugn: To attack as wrong or false
36. Inane: Silly or stupid
37. Incorrigible: Cannot be corrected/improved
38. Insipid: Bland or lacking in flavor/interest
39. Intrepid: Dauntless/Fearless
40. Laconic: Brief/To the point
41. Levity: Humor/Frivolity
42. Miserly: Like a miser (a scrooge/skinflint)
43. Morose: Sullen and ill tempered
44. Phlegmatic: Unemotional/Stoic
45. Precocious: Developed early/quickly
46. Profusion: An excess of something
47. Quandary: A dilemma
48. Quixotic: Unrealistic/Idealistic
49. Rancor: Bitterness or resentment
50. Rebuttal: To refute
51. Reprove: Reprimand
52. Repudiate: Refuse to accept/be associated with
53. Reticence: Restrain/Reluctance
54. Sanguine: Optimistic/Cheerful
55. Succinct: Concise/Brief
56. Superfluous: More than enough
57. Surreptitious: Clandestine/Secret
58. Taciturn: Reserved/Silent
59. Trite: Unoriginal
60. Vacillate: Indecisive