Roll No: O00 Test Date: [05-11-2023] ALOK AMS @) Aakash fax —___— Medical Entrance Exam - 2024 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (Xl Passed Students) INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES Read each question careful. Ihis mandatory to use Blue/Black Bal Point Pen to darken the Soproprate cele nthe arswersheet Mork shouldbe darkand shouts completely ithe cess. Rough work must notbe done onthe answer sheet. De not uve white. fuid or any ot rdbing material on answer hast No change nthe answer once markedis alowed. ‘Studentcannot te og tables andcalouatrs or any othermatrial inte examinaton al Before atemping the question paper, student shout ensure that thes paper contain allpages and no pageismising Each correct answer caries four marks, One mark wil be (deductod for eachincorect newer romthe tl sre Before handing over the answer sheet to thy eviglatr, candidate should check that Roll NO. and Cente Code nave been filed anc ‘markedcorecty immediately ater the prescribed examination tne i over, the ‘answer sheettoberetumedto the ivialator There are two sections in each subject, Secton-A& Section. You have to atom all 35 questons om SectionA & only Oquestons ovtot 15 kom Secon 8. Not tis compulsory to Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet otherwise you answer sheet wil nt be consideredTOPICS OF THE TE aE) Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane CASE Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom. Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The living world Structural Organisation in Animals~Animal Tissues, Biomolecules[PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer: 6. Ifthe relation between postion (in m) of a particle SECTION -A and time (in ) is given by s = 2P + 3¢'+ 2t+ 8, then 1. Acar moves ftom P to T along the path PORST the time at which acceleration of the particle is zero ‘shown in figure. The net displacement ofthe car is 7 P,__8km (1) 05s tim _g N (2) 2s 1 km wy, @) 1s It km (@) Acceleration can never be zero inthis case soar 7. linear momentum (P), area (A) and time (7) are taken to be the fundamental quantities, then ener (1) 2km,60°S of W (2) Skm, 37° Sof E has the dimensional formula %y (3) Bkm,53°EOfS (4) 10km, 45° E ofS (1) (PAT (2) (PRAT) 2. Ha body travets with speed 4 mis during half of the @) PA*T] (4) [PAST time and with speed 6 m/s during remaining half, | 8 Consider the statements with regard to significant then the average speed during its journey is Given figures and choose the correct option by () Allnon zero digits are significant (1) Sms (2) 4mis (ll) All zeroes appearing between two non-zero (3) 6mis (4) 1 mis gis are significant 3. _xand y coordinates (in m) of a particle varies with (1) Only (is corect time as x = 2 and y = 3t. The magnitudes of (2) Only (I) is corect velocity and acceleration at t= 1 s respectively are (8) Both (1) and (tt) are correct (1) Sails, 4 mis? (2) 6 mis, 2 mis? (4) Both (1) and (It) are incorrect (3) tims, 12mis? (4) 2s, 14 mis? 9. Yel (wo sate depen on Sepacement(s) : i asv= n acceleration versus displacement 4. A particle is projected vertically upward with initial raph wll bone pan vartn 7 velocity 25 mis. For its motion during third second, Staph will be (where symbols have usual meaning) ‘Which of the folowing statements is correct? a 7 (1) Displacement ofthe particle is 30 m (2) Distance covered by the particle is 30 m {G) Distance covered by the particle is 2.5 m (4) Displacement of particle is 2.5 m = 5. The number of significant figures in the value 0.005 8) @ is ay @4 @ 3 (4) Infinite 3 3 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Dal '10005, Phone: 071-87623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 10. A ball is released from the top of a building. It travels 25 m in last second of its motion before striking the ground. The height of the building is Take g = 10 mist} (1) 45m (2) 60m (3) 50m (4) 25m 11. A balloon is moving up with an acceleration ao = 4 mis? starting from rest. A coin is dropped from the balloon 5 seconds after the start of balloon. The initial velocity of the dropped coin is (1) Zero (2) 20mis (3) 30 mis (4) 45 mis 12, The path followed by a body projected at an angle with horizontal is given by yavBx-fe, Itg= 10 m/s? then the angle of projection of the projectile from horizontal is (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75° 13. Two vectors A=i+j+kand B given, find the value of |[A—24 aM 8 @) V7 @ i ) 7 14. Ina certain system, the units of length, mass and time are chosen to be 1 cm, 100 g and 10 s. The Unit of kinetic energy will be (1) Ot erg (2) 10erg 8) terg (4) 20er9 18. The distance travelled by a tiger is measured as, $= 100 m#0.1 mintime, t= 100.1 s. Its average speed under permissible limit of error can be written as (1) (10 £0.11) mis (2) (1000 + 11) m/s (3) (10+ 1.1) mis (4) (100 + 0.2) mis Te ificant zeroes present 15, The Tyr value 2.0800 inh a4 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 6 47, Velocity of particle starting from rest varies yt position according to equation v = Vax . Whatis ty distance travelled by particle in t second from start 4 at? a) jar? @) gat 3 at cl (3) got (4) 2 18. The time of fight for a ground to ground projectile 40 s and its horizontal range is 800 m, what is the horizontal component of velocity? (1) 20 m/s (2) 10 mis (3) 40 mis (4) 20V3 mis 19. The motion of an object falling from rest in a viscous medium can be described by the equation a= a—Bv where a and v are the acceleration and velocity of the object and a and f are constants. Find the initial acceleration of object. 8 ms (2) Ba @) 7 Ao 20. Att=0, a particle is at rest at origin. Its acceleration is 2 mls? for first 2 s and —2 m/s? for next 4 seconds. as shown in a versus f graph. a (mis*) t(s) Choose the correct for above arf eane ®t SPeed versus time grapt Space for Rough Work(1) speed (mvs) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 ts) 21. If in a vernier callipers, n VSD coincides with (n= 2) MSD, then the least count of the vernier callipers is given by (1 MSD = a mm) 9) (2) mm @) (22) mm. o(25)mm (om 22. A panicle starts moving from rest with acceleration 2 mis? Distance travelled by it in 5 second is (1) 1.25m (2) 2.25m (3) 9m (4) 12m 23. A projectile is given initial velocity of / +2j. The equation of its path is: (g = 10 mis?) (1) y= 2x—5x? (2) y=x- 5x? (4) y= 2x25 24. The physical quantity that has the same dimensional formula as work is (1) Young's modulus (2) Torque (3) Angular momentum (4) Surface tension 25. A ball is projected vertically upwards from ground with velocity 12 m/s in the presence of air drag whose magnitude always remains constant during motion. If ball takes 1 second to reach the highest point in the presence of air friction then the maximum height reached by ball is (g = 10 mis?) (1) 72m (2)6m (3) 83m (4) 5m 26. The area under acceleration-time graph gives (1) Velocity at any instant (2) Change in velocity (3) Distance travelled (4) Displacement travelled 27. Which of the following statements is true? (1) If magnitude of displacement of a particle is zero, then distance covered by it must be zero, (2) If the distance covered is zero then the displacement must be zero (3) Speed of particle can be positive, negative or zero (4) Magnitude of displacement is always greater than or equal to distance 28. Which of the following is incorrect for non-uniform circular motion? (1) Speed of the particle changes continuously (2) Velocity of the particle remains constant (3) Tangential acceleration of the particle is non- zero (4) Acceleration of the particle changes continuously 29. The path of a projectile as seen by an observer on another projectile is a/an (1) Straight line (2) Parabola (3) Ellipse (4) Circle ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pus: Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone: 017-47623456ies for NEET-2024 CIOS 30. For a particle velocity-position graph is given. Find acceleration at x = vemis) Poi +++» ++ (mm) (1) 25 mis? (2) 30 mis? (3) 75 mis? (4) 40 mis? 31. The acceleration of a moving body is equal to the (1) Slope of distance-time graph (2) Slope of acceleration-time graph {8) Slope of velocity-time graph (4) Area under velocity-time graph 32. Aplayer throws a ball such that maximum range of ball is 500 m then maximum height of the ball attained in the above condition will be (1) 200m (2)'500 m (3) 125m (4) 1000 m 33. A body is projected from ground such that its horizontal range is n times of maximum height attained, then angle of projection of the body from ground is @) o-tan(4) a ooer() (3) 0=tan™ (2) (4) o= tan-'(3) 34. The equation of path of projectile is given by y =V3x~- 522, then the time of flight of the particle is () gs @ &. & 8 @ Bs o> Te x 35. Which of the following statements is incorrect fora particle in uniform circular motion? (1) Velocity of particle is not constant (2) Speed of particie is constant @) Kinetic energy of particle is constant (4) Angular speed of particle is not constant SECTION -B 36. Three persons A, B, C are standing at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. If they stan moving simultaneously with same speed (v) such, that A always faces towards B, B always faces towards C and C always faces towards A, then time after which they wil meet is 2a 3a 1) 22 3 2 a? 2a sa a) 2 3a ® 3) Oo wer ar and the percentage erors in te CO? measurements of A, B, © and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and 1% respectively. Then the percentage efor in zis (1) 2% 42) 9% (3) 12% (4) 5% 38. A river of width 1 km is flowing with speed 1 kmh ‘Aman can swim with speed 2 km/h instil wate. he wants to cross a river along shortest path then time of crossing the river will be a) 3 th 1 @) ea * Ba" 39. A particle is projected with velocity =(/-+3)) ™® from ground, its velocity when it strikes the fu" willbe (1) (7+37) ms (3) 2li-3)) ms (2) 2(7 +37) mis (4) (7-3/) mis Space for Rough Worka 42 43, 44, 45 Cn) Angle made by vector A=3)4.4] 45% with zaxis is (1) cos 3. (4 Le (; 53) 2) cos (<5) The E stain \@ energy E of an oscillating body i harmonic motion depends on ts mase nr een mand amplitude A as E= Kim)(ny (aye Geet dimensional constant then the valu : 16 of (2x + y + 2) a4 (2) 22 @) 6 (4) 9 Aparticle is said to have non-zero acceleration (1) Only if its direction of velocity changes (2) Only if its magnitude of velocity changes (3) Either its direction of velocity or magnitude of velocity or both change (4) Neither direction nor magnitude of velocity change. The dimensional formula of acceleration is given by (1) (MLT] (2) [M°L Ty] (3) [MoLo Ty (4) (MPL? TS] ‘A ball is thrown up from ground with speed 40 mis and another ball is simultaneously thrown down from a height of 45 m with speed 50 mis. They will collide after time 1 (1) 2s Or ot (4) 45 ‘A particle is moving on a straight line according to the given acceleration-time graph. If particle starts with velocity 3 mis, then velocity at t= 6 sis ams’) ‘Space for Rough Work 46. 47 48. 49, 50 All India Aakash Test Series for (1) 23 mis (2) 3 mis (3) 20 mis (4) 10 mis A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers distance ds, de and ds in the first 2 seconds, the next 2 seconds and the further next 2 seconds Tespectively. Then dh : dz: ds is equal to (1) 1:2:3 (2) 1:3:5 (3) 4s4s4 (4) 2:3:4 Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by x=4f—31+5. Speed of the particle at != 2 seconds is (xis in metre) (1) 8mis (2) 2mis @) 13ms (4) Zero ‘Two bodies A (of mass 5 kg) and 8 (of mass 10 kg) are dropped from same height. The ratio of time taken by them to reach the ground is Ge 4 5 Os az 12 OF (4)1 A particle is projected vertically upwards. from ground with an initial speed of 57 mis. If acceleration due to gravity is taken to be equal to 40 mis*, then the displacement ofthe particle in the sixth second ofits motion will be (1) 29m (2)2m (3) 12m (4) 42m ‘At the maximum height of a body thrown vertically up (1) Velocity is non zero but acceleration is zero (2) Acceleration is non zero but velocity is zero (3) Both acceleration and velocity are zero (4) Both acceleration and velocity are non zero. Number of sucrose molecules present wa (Ecc [CHEMISTRY] SECTION -A in 400 mL of 0.5 M aqueous solution of sucrose is (1) 1.2 10 (2) 6.02 « 108 (3) 1.2 10% (4) 6.02 x 10% Volume of oxygen required at STP to completely with 176 g of propane is (1) 224 (2) 96L (3) 3208 (4) 448L react . Amixture of 18 g oxalic acid (CzOsH2) and 4.6 g of formic acid is treated with excess concehtrated HzSOs. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through excess KOH pellets. Mass of remaining gaseous product obtained at STP will be (1) 62g (2) 429 (3) 349 (4) 849 Strength (gL) of 4 M aqueous solution of NaOH is (1) 80 (2) 16 (3) 160 (4) 40 BB** is isoelectronic with which of the following ions? () (2) ur (3) Her (4) Mg? The orbital angular momentum of electron in 3p orbital is aa (2) Bn (3) V2n (4) 3a Consider the following statements about Dalton’s atomic theory (a) Atoms of different elements differ in mass. (b) Matter consists of indivisible atoms. (c) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction. ‘The correct statements are (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only (3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) ‘Space for Rough Work 58. 59: 61. The number of neutrons, electrons and protons 23'Th respectively are (1) 141, 231, 90 (2) 90, 231, 141 (3) 141, 90, 90 (4) 90, 141, 90 The energies, E: and Ez of two radiations ay 140 eV and 40 eV respectively. The relation betwee their wavelength i.e. A+ and A2 will be (1) 4 2 (2) 41 = Die (3) A= Ake If a particle of mass 4 mg is moving with a veloc of 1800 km/h then the de Broglie wavelengt associated with the moving particle will be (Giver Planck's constant, h = 6.6 x 10 Js) (1) 33* 10m (2) 3.3 x 10m (3) 33x 10m (4) 3.3 « 10m Given below are the two statements Statement |: Azimuthal quantum number (¢) give information about the spatial orientation of th orbital with respect to standard set of co-ordina axis. Statement Il : For a given value of n, ¢ can hav (+ 1) values ranging from 0 ton In light of the above statems answer ents, choose the corre (1) Statement 1 is c orre i ieseet ct_but statement Il Statement 1 isin \cor i come rect but statement Il Be ‘oth statement | and statement Il are correct Bot th stateMent | and statement Il are incorence 62. 6, 66. 67. 7 The_waverumber for the longest Tarslon n the Paschen sores of atomic yaocon spectrum is (Ru = Rydberg constant for hydrogen Ry oF @) Se TR Ry (3) 144 (4) oe Correct order of wavelength of the given radiations. is (1) UV> X rays > IR > Microwave (2) IR> Microwave > UV > X rays (3) Xrays > UV> IR > Microwave (4) Microwave > IR > UV > X rays Ifthe mass ratio of methane and sulphur dioxide is 1:2, then the ratio of their number of atoms will be (1) 2:3 (2:1 (3) 10:3 (4) 5:6 Number of angular and radial nodes present in 4f orbital respectively are (1) 4and2 (2) 3 ando (3) Sand 4 (4) 4 and 3 Mole fraction of solute in its 9.45 molal aqueous solution is (1) 0.225 (2) 0.327 (3) 0.025 (4) 0.145 Mass of concentrated nitric acid solution required to prepare 800 mL of 4 M HNOs solution is (Concentrated acid is 70% (w/w) HNOs) (1) 288 g (2) 3649 (3) 1429 (4) 4249 ‘An element X has the following isotopic composition; “X : 40%; “°X : 20%; “*X : 40%: The weighted average atomic mass of naturally ‘occurring element X will be 69, 70. n 72. 73. Uo (1) 1444 2) 143.84 (3) 1449u (4) 145.1u Ifthe mass percentage of C, H and N of an organic compound are 67 9%, 5.7% and 26.4% respectively then empirical formula ofthe compound will be (1) CHaN (2) CHiN (@) CHeNe (8) CoH Correct order of energy of orbitals for mult electronic species is (1) 84> 5p>4f>5s (2) 5d> 4f> 5p> 5s (3) 8d>5p>5s>4f (4) 4f> Sd> 5p> 58 Given below are the two statements Statement | : The characteristics of cathode rays ind on the nature of gas present in cathode ray : Television picture tubes are cathode Statement ray tubes. In ight of the above statements, choose the correct, answer (1) Statement 1 is coect but statement Il is incorrect (2) Both statement | and statement Il are correct, (3) Both statement | and statement I are incorrect, (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength (in ppm) of the electron in the third Bohr orbit is (Given : Bohr radius, (a0) = 52.9 pm) (1) 952.2" (2) 317.4. (3) 634.8 (4) 105.8 For principal quantum number n = 6, the total number of orbitals having = 3is (14 5 7 (4) 10 “Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aak: sah Tower. 6, Pura Road, New Dalhi-110005, Phone: 017-47623456All Ingla Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 74. Consider the following set of quantum numbers a |e |m fs @{2 [1 fo ]ya 2 mls [2 {3 [4 2 ws fo fa [oa 2 lr [2 [a [a4 2 fs f+ ft [it 2 Which ofthe following sets of quantum numbers are not possible? (1) (e) and (d) only (2) (2). (0) and (c) only (3) (b), (cand (4) oniy (4) (©), (6) and (e) only 75. Frequency of a photon with 3 eV energy will be (1) 73 «10H 4¢(2) 25 10°5Hz (3) 4.1% 108Hz (4) 2.4% 10° Hz 76. Consider the following statements (2) In photoelectric effect, the number of electrons ‘ejected is proportional to the frequency of the light. (b) Work function of sodium is greater than potassium, (c) In photoelectric effect, there is no time lag between the striking of light beam and ejection of electrons from the metal surface. The correct statements are (1) (@)and(b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (b) and (c) only __(4) (a) and (c) only er) 77. if mass percentage of selenium in an enzym (0.2% then the minimum molar mass of the enzyme will be (Atomic mass of selenium = 79 u) (1) 3950 g mot* (2) 7900 g mot-* (8) 395009 mol* (4) 79000 g moF* 78. 18 g of He and 64 g of Or are reacted in a sealed vessel. The mole of water produced in this reaction (1) 9 mole: (2) 6 mole (3) 4 mole (4) 8 mole 79. Which among the following has maximum number of atoms? (1) 10g of Cacos (2) 20g of SOs (3) 672 Lof CH« at STP (4) 4.48 L of NHs at STP 80. If concentrated aqueous HaSOs is 98% by mass and its density is 1.7 g mL~ then the volume of acid required to make 2500 mL. of 0.5 M HzSOs solution will be (1) 125.2 mb (2) 51.7 mL. (3) 89.2 mL. (4) 73.5 mL. 81. Number of atoms of nitrogen in 5 litres of air Containing 78% Na by volume at STP is (1) 0.35 Na (2) 0.80 Na (3) 1.25 Na (4) 2.75 Na 82. If 25 9 of MgCOs (impure) sample decomposes on heating to give 5.6 L of CO2 gas at STP, then percentage purity of MgCOs sample will be (1) 92% (2) 75% (3) 88% (4) 84% 83. Which of the following pairs of orbital will not have electron density along the axes? (1) By ands 2 (2) Pe and» (3) dz ya andd.g (8) dyy and dye ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone’ O11-47623456% Cenigutiongvenin Ung Pe econ List Liste 3._| Mat farsa b fer | Gi)_| tanger eo | Gil) | tangas {a [we [on [rassce (1) (i), efiv), (iii) 86. 87. 88, (2) ati), Bi), ctv), eiy (3) afili), BG), efiv), afi) (4) ativ), Bai, oi, ai) Ratio of the radius of first orbit of He to the second orbit of Li?* will be (1) 1:4 (2)3:8 3) 3:4 (4) 3:16 SECTION -B Mass of calcium carbonate required to react completely with 2 L of 4 M HCI solution is (1) 200 g (2) 8009 (3) 600 g (4) 4009 Total number of electrons present in 4.8 mg of Mg? ions is (1) 1.2 10% (2) 1.2 107" (3) 1.2« 10 (4) 1.2% 102 100 mL of 0.4 M HNOs solution is mixed with 400 mL of 0.2 M NaOH solution. The molarity of OH in the resultant solution becomes (1) 0.15 M (2) 0.08 M (3) 0.004 M (4) 0.02 M Given below are the two statements Statement I : In Rutherford's a-particle scattering experiment, most of the a-particle passed through the gold foil undeflected. 90, 1 92, 93, Ee eae Statement Il : According to Rutherford, electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction. In light of the above statements, choose the most ‘appropriate answer from the options given below (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement II is incorrect, (2) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement I is correct |f 36 watt bulb emits monochromatic light of wavelength 220 nm then the number of photons emitted per second by the bulb will be nearly (n= 6.6 x 10 Js) (1) 2« 102 (2) 4108 (3) 8x 10% (4) 6 x 102 Total number of electrons present in p orbitals of a chlorine atom is ii) as Qe (3) 6 @n Energy required to ionise 0.05 9 of hydrogen atoms is (1) 27.2ks (2) 656 ks (3) 131.2kd (4) 90.5 ks Ifa photon of wavelength 2.2 * 10-7 m strikes on a ‘metal surface then the kinetic energy of the ejected electron will be (Given: Work function of metal = 2eV;h=66 x 10 Js) (1) 58x 10-5 (2) 25% 10%) (3) 1.1% 10-84 (4) 7.4 x 10-5 100 mL of 5 M NaOH solution was diluted by adding water to make the final solution having molarity 0.25 M. The volume of water added to the solution was (1) 204, (3) 19 (2) 164 (4) 1.8L Space for Rough WorkAll India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 95. 97. 101 ‘Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY and XYs. If 0.2 mole of XY weighs 18.5 g and 0.1 mole of XYs weighs 13.05 g then atomic weights of X and Y respectively will be (1) 35.5 and 19 (2) 80 and 19 (3) 35.5 and 80 (4) 16 and 80 Significant figures in 0.0012 and 300.0 respectively are (1) Sand 4 (2) 2and1 (3) Sand4 (4) 2and4 Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Energy of 2s orbital of lithium is ‘more than energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen. Reason (R) : Energies of the orbitals in the same subshell decreases with increase in the atomic number. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A (2) Ais true but Ris false (3) Ais false but Ris true (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A [BOTANY] SECTION - A Select the correct option representing hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic categories in ascending order. (1) Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species {2) Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom (3) Kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, species (4) Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum, kingdom Zz ce 98. Consider the given experimental phenomen: (i) Photoelectric effect (ii) Blackbody radiation (ii) Diffraction (iv) Interference The phenomena which can be explained by p: nature of electromagnetic radiation are (1), Gi) and (ii) (2) (i) and (ii) only (3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (ii) only 99. Maximum number of electrons that cat 1, associated with n= 3 and m, =—> is (1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 3 a9 100. If uncertainty in position and momentum are e then uncertainty in velocity will be iE (2) m 2n 1 fn 1 fh @ a 7 (4) if 102. Binomial nomenciature was given by (1) Aristotle (2) Ernst Mayr (3) Carolus Linnaeus (4) Darwin 103. Select the correct match. (1) Herbarium — Itis a place having collectioy Preserved plants and animal ~ Itis a storehouse of conserv plant specimens, (3) Zoological — They are the places where (2) Museum parks animals are kept in prote: environments (4) Flora ~ It contains information on ‘one taxon Space for Rough Work) so4.oiplotene stage of meiosis (1) Involves crossing over betw. chromosomes (2) Can last for months or some vertebrates @) Involves synapsis of chromosomes (4) Represents transition to metaphase | 405.Enzyme recombinase activity is seen in (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (3) Leptotene (4) Diplotene 406.Match column | with column i! and select the correct option, een homologous years in the oocytes of homologous Column-1 Column-t ] a. | S-phase (| Actual cet division Gephase (ii) | Centriote | duplication c, | Grphase (i) | Tubulin protein synthesis 4. | M-phase (iv)| Duplication of most of the cell organelles (1) alii), BG), eG), dtiv) (2) ali), BG), ef), atv) (3) a(i), Bil), civ), dQi) (4) ai), bi), efiv), dQ) 107. All of the following are features of M-phase, except (1) Assembly of mitotic apparatus (2) Synthesis of DNA (3) Reformation of nucleolus (4) Dissolution of nuclear envelope 108.Select the odd one out wrt mesosomes. (1) They help in cell wall formation. (2) They help in DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells. (3) They help in respiration and secretion process. (4) They decrease the surface area of plasma membrane and enzymatic content. functions of CUI ns 109. Which of the following cell organelles is bounded by a single membrane? (1) Chloroplasts (2) Mitochondria (3) Vacuole (4) Nucleus 110. (a) They are vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus. (b) They contain enzymes capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids. Above statements are true for which of the following cell organelles? (1) Nucleosomes (2) Lysosomes (3) Glyoxysomes (4) Spherosomes 111.How many of the following statements is/are correct? (a) The cell walll of a young plant cell is capable of growth. (b) Secondary cell wall holds or glues the different neighbouring cells together. (c) Middle lamella is formed on the inner side of the plant cell. (d) The cell wall and middle lamella may be traversed by plasmodesmata which connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells. (1) One (2) Three (3) Four (4) Two 112. The inner mitochondrial membrane forms a number of infoldings called (1) Cisternae (2) Grana (3) Thylakoids (4) Cristae 113. Duration of cell cycle in yeast is about (1) 24 hours (2) 6 hours (3) 60 minutes (4) 90 minutes 414. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. interphase. (1) It lasts more than 95% of the duration of cell cycle (2) Itis also known as resting phase (3) It starts with nuclear division (4) Itrepresents the phase between two successive, M phases ‘Space for Rough WorkAll india Aakash Test Series for NEE 024 115.Read the following statements and select the correct option. Assertion (A): Even after S phase the number of ‘chromosomes remains the same. Reason(R): ‘S' or synthesis phase marks the period ‘during which amount of DNA per cell doubles. (1) Only assertion is true (2) Only reason is true () Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion (4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion 116. The most dramatic period of the cell cycle is (1) Gi phase (2) M phase (3) Gephase (4) S phase 117. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell During zygotene stage of meiosis-I, what would be the number of bivalents or tetrads? (ye 2) 16 @) 4 (4) 24 118. Reductional division will occur in (1) Pollen grain (2) Embryo sac (3) Meiocyte (4) Conidia 119. Match lst | with list Il and select the correet option. ist! List [a.|Vacuole () [Forms spindle apparatus ’b.Amyioplast | (i) [Helps in excretion in amoeba | c.|Cytoskeleton | i) [Stores starch a. [Centrioies (iv) [Helps in motility (1) aid, BG, e(v), dQ (2) ali, BAD, CG), ativ) (3) ali), b(t), c(v), dQ) (4) ali), ta, eG), Atv) 120.Which of the following is not correct w.rt chioroplast? (1) The space enclosed by the inner membrane of chloroplast is the stroma (2) Stroma contains a large number of flattened non-membranous sacs called stroma lamellae. (Code-£) (3) Stroma contains enzymes required for the synthesis of carbohydrates. (4) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called grana 121.Which of the following cell organelles show polymorphism? (1) Golgi apparatus (2) Endoplasmic reticulum (3) Mitochondria (4) Lysosomes 122. Trans face of golgi apparatus (1) Is convex in appearance, directed towards nucleus (2) |s the forming face that receives materials to be modified and packaged (@) Releases golgian vacuoles or vesicles (4) Receives transitional vesicles from ER 123. The algal cell wall is mainly made up of (1) Chitin, a polymer of Nacetyiglucosamine (2) Cellulose only (3) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium carbonate (4) Hemicellulose, pectin and proteins 124. In human beings, the membrane ofthe erythrocyte (RBC) has approximately (1) 52 percent proteins and 48 percent lipids (2) 42 percent proteins and 50 percent lipids (3) 40 percent proteins and 52 percent lipids (4) 52 percent proteins and 40 percent lipids 425. Choose the odd one out w.r.t plasmids. (1) They are small circular DNA outside genomic DNA in many bacteria. (2) They confer certain unique characters to such bacteria, (3) The plasmid DNA is used to monitor bacterial transformation with foreign DNA. (4) They are enveloped by a nuclear envelope. phenotypic ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Phone: O11 47625456eeeico Read the following statements correct option, Statement I: Both mitochondria an semi-autonomous organelles, Statement I: Both mitochondria a are the sites of aerobic respiration, (1) Only statement |is correct (2) Only statement I! is correct (3) Both the statements are correct, (4) Both the statements are incorrect, 1z1.In some photosynthetic prokaryote: S Cyencbactera, and purple bacteria, there sre some other membranous extensions into the cytoplasm which contain pigments, they are called (1) Chloroplasts (2) Chromatins (@) Chromoplasts _«(4) Chromatophores 128, Capsule of a bacterial cell (1) Is loose sheath of glycocalyx (2) Determines the shape of the cell {@) Protects the cell from loss of water and nutrients (4) Is responsible for giving gummy and sticky character to the cell 429. 1n fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane (1) Polar, hydrophobic heads of phospholipids are arranged towards the outer sides (2) Non-polar, hydrophilic heads of phospholipids are arranged towards inner side @) Polar, hydrophilic tails of phospholipids are arranged towards the outer side (4) Non-polar, hydrophobic tails of phospholipids are arranged towards inner side 130. Crossing over occurs between (1) Sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes and select the chloroplast are Ind chloroplasts (2) Non-sister chromatids of _non-homologus chromosomes (@) Sister chromatids of —_ non-homologous chromosomes (4) Non-sister chromatids of chromosomes homologous All India Aakash Test Serles for NEET-2024 191, How many meiotic divisions are required to produce 32 praen grains? 1) 4 (2) 16 @) 8 (4) 32 132, The four chromatids of homologous chromosomes become distinct and clearly appear as tetrad in which stage of prophase? (1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene 133.Which of the following gives a cart wheel appearance? (1) Centriole +(2) Centrosome (3) Glyoxysome (4) Peroxisome 134, During protein synthesis, many ribosomes form a chain on a common messenger RNA and form (1) Polyribosomes (2) Residual bodies (3) Dictyosomes (4) Massule 135. Identify the following statements as true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option. ‘A In plant cells, the vacuoles can occupy up to 90 percent of the volume of the cell B. The mitochondrial matrix contains enzymes for TCA cycle ©. Ribosomes are composed proteins, (1) ACT), BF), CCT) <(2) AT), BIT), CCT) (3) AIF), BUF), CCT) (4) ALF), BCT), CAF) SECTION -B of FRNA and 136. The keys (1) Are based on similar characters generally in a pair called couplet (2) Are used for identification of plants only {@) Are separate for each taxonomic category (4) Are not analytical in nature 47 Select the odd one w.rt taxonomic categories of mango. (1) Anacardiaceae (3) Dicotyledonae (2) Poales (4) Angiospermae =r Pua Road, New ‘Space for Rough Work FAT T0005 Phone: 0114762345624 138 Choose incorrect statement w.r.t. Go phase. (1) Itis also known as quiescent stage (2) Itis metabotically inactive stage (3) Cells inthis stage no longer proliferate uriless called on to do so (4) Cells that do not divide further ext Gy phase to enter Go phase 139.Terminalsation of X-shaped structures formed during prophase | of meiosis isa distinctive feature of (1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene (9) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene 140.Arrange the following events of mitosis in the correct sequence. (@) Condensation of genetic material (©) Spiiting of centromere (6) Reassembly of nuclear envelope (d) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator (6) Segregation of sister chromatids (1) @) > @) >) >) (2) (@) + (6) > (@) +(e) > (@) 8) @ >) >a) >) +e) (4) (8) + (b) > (c) > (a) +(e) 141 Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) (1) Are present in prokaryotes only (2) Are the sites of lipid synthesis (3) Contain ribosomes attached to their extra luminal surface (4) Are non-membrane bound structure 142, When the centromere is situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very. long arms, the chromosomes is referred as (1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric (3) Telocentric (4) Sub-metacentric Cr) 443 Match the following columns and select the correct option Column 4] (i) | Kinetochores Column! a. | Primary constriction '"Y) b. | Beyond (ii) | Satelite ‘Secondary constriction 1) ©. | Disc shaped | (ii) | Telomere structures on the sides of primary constriction ti) | 4. | End of the chromosome (1) atv), BG), e€), Ai) (2) ativ), BG, efi), 6) (9) ali, b(W), ef, i) (4) ati), b(v), efi), a) 144 Select the odd one wrt. significance of mitosis, (1), Growth of muticelular organisms (2) Restore nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio (3) Introduces genetic variations (4) Healing, regeneration and cell repair 145 Sites of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells are (1) Golgi bodies (2) Peroxisomes (3) Ribosomes cs (4) Mesosomes 146 Nucleolus (1) Is found in all ving celts (2) |s spherical structure present in cytoplasm (S) I site for active ribosomal protein synthesis (4) Is not a membrane bound structure (wv) Centromere | ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Dein "0008: Phone: 077-a7ea3a55Test ar choose the incorrectly matched pair (1) Schwann = Presence of Unique cha plant cells Reported that cells had a thin outer layer ie. plasma membrane Explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells, Proposed the hy pothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed ell wall is acter of the (2) Schleiden 7 (3) Rudolf Virchow — (4) Schwann - CU 148 Which of the following layers of cell envelope Prevents bacteria from bursting or collapsing? (1) Slime layer (2) Capsule (3) Cell wall (4) Glycocalyx 149 When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis it results in (1) Formation of syncytium 2) Continuous growth of cells (3) Loss of metabolic activity of cells (4) Breakage of chromosomes 150 Which of the following is not a part of bacterial flagellum? of cells and 3 cells Nt Products of (1) Fitament (2) Hook (3) Pili (4) Basal body [ZOOLOGY] SECTION -A (1) Phenylalanine (2) Tryptophan 151. The body of an organism is made of different types of cells and the number of cells in each type can be in thousands. This was first observed in members of which phylum? (1) Aschelminthes (2) Cnidaria (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Annelida 152. The type of epithelium that is composed of a single layer of cells perform all of the given functions, except (1) Lining for body cavities (2) Forming diffusion boundary (3) Secretion (4) Protection from chemical stresses 153. The epithelium of PCT of nephrons in the kidneys is made up of cells. Select the option that correctly fils the Blank. (1) Columnar (2) Flattened (3) Cube-lke (4) Polygonal 4184. Choose the odd one w.r.t. presence of aromatic rings in the structure of given amino acids, (3) Arginine (4) Tyrosine 155.All of the given elements form higher per cent weight of Earth’s crust in comparison to human body, except (1) Sodium (2) Carbon (3) Magnesium (4) Calcium 156.All of the following give an idea of elemental composition of living tissue, except (1) Hydrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Alcohol (4) Carbon 157.Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option. Polymeric substance : Rubber :: Toxin: _ (1) Morphine (2) Abrin (3) Curcumin (4) Diterpene 158.Which of the following is not stricly a macromolecule but present in retentate after the chemical analysis of a tissue? (1) Lipids (2) Amino acids (3) Nucleotides (4) Monosaccharides ‘Space for Rough WorkBUI 159, Adult haemoglobin exhibits the quaternary structure that consists of polypeptide chains Select the correct option to fill in the blank. (1) 2eand26 (2) 2aand2y (3) 2pand2y (4) 3aand 1p 160. Choose the basic amino acid among the following, (1) Glutamic acid ~ (2) Lysine (8) Valine (4) Glycine 161. One full turn of the helical strands in case of B-DNA involves how many base pairs? as (2) 20 @) 10 8 162. The stomach which assists in digestion of food is, made up of (a) Epithelial tissue (©) Connective tissue Select the correct option. (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b), (c) and (4) only (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (@), (b), (c) and (a) 163. Choose the incorrect match, (b) Muscular tissue (6) Nervous tissue (1) [Simple squamous|— [Air sacs of lungs epithelium (2) [Compound = Inner tining of ducts epithelium of salivary glands (3) [Brush bordered|— | Lining of stomach columnar epithelium (4) [Simple cuboidal|— [Ducts of glands epithelium 164, The major function of the epithelium lining the moist surface of buccal cavity, is (1) Forming a diffusion boundary (2) Assisting in movement of particles or mucus in a specific direction (3) To provide protection against chemical and ‘mechanical stresses (4) Absorption and secretion ‘Space for Rough Work 465. Some cells get specialised for secretion and are called glandular epithelium. Choose the correct statement wrt. these cells. (1) Flattened cells with irregular boundaries (2) Similar cells are found in the lining of intestine (3) Characterised by tall and slender cells without nucleus (4) Similar cells are found in the walls of bioog vessels 4166. The isolated glandular cells of the alimentary canal assist in secretion of (1) Mucus (2) Her (3) Pepsinogen (4) Saliva 167. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement A: Three types of cell junctions are found in the epithelium and other tissues. Statement B: All cells in epithelium are held together without intercellular material. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct 168.Match column 1 with column Il and select the correct option (Column ja. |Areolar tissue |(i) [Attach skeletal muscles CH to bones Column It b. |Adipose tissue |(i) [Serves as suppor tw framework for epithelium ic. |Tendons qj) |(ii) [Attach one bone Janother bone [d._Ligaments iy |(iv) ,Btiv), etl), ai) (2) alii, biiv), efi), (3) aliv), bi), c(i), ait) (4) ali), bCi), c(i), dtiv) ‘Specialised to store fatsfor NEET-2024 x 180. Consider the given features: a. A secondary metabolite 4. Component of cotton fibres . Cannot hold lz . Constituent of paper made from plant pulp ‘The above features are true for (1) Starch (2) Glycogen (2) Cellose (4) Lipid 181. Match column 1 with column Il and select the correct option Columat |_| Column 2. [inatin | (| Abundant protein in whole Ww biosphere ©. [ Cotagen |G) | Storage poysaccharide € | Gtyoogen | (ip | intercetutar ground Co_| substance [| RuBiscS |) | Powmer of rucoos (1) tiv), Dei, t, a() (2) ali), Bi), fi), iv) (3) aliv), BG, c(i, di) (4) ai, Bi), cf), a) 182. Assertion (A): The smooth muscle fibres are involuntary in nature, Reason (R): The functioning of a smooth muscle cannot be controlled directly .e., we are not able to make it contract merely by thinking about i. In the light of above statements, select the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the corect ‘explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)/s true, (R)is false (4) Both (A) and (R) are false 183. Observe the figure given below labelled as ‘A’ ‘Cand 'D’. Identify the labeled structures ‘and choose the correct function writ. (1) A~Secretes antibodies (2) 8 Produces and secretes fibres (3) C= Involved in phagocytosis (4) D~Provides rigiity, excitability and contracity 184. Read the given statements and select the correct ‘option. Statement A: The type of co-factor found in peroxidase is actually an organic compound which is tightly bound to apoenzyme. Statement B: Catalase and carboxypeptidase Possess same type of co-factor. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct, 185.'X' belongs to class of enzymes that cleaves the peptide bonds while "Y’ belongs to the class of enzymes that leads to the formation of phosphodiester bonds. Identity the class of enzymes to which ‘x’ and 'Y" belong to respectively and select the correct option. (1) 2.5 23.6 @) 4.6 42,3 SECTION - B 186 The presence of Which of the following structures makes a neural ti issue unique? (1) Protoplasmic processes and nucleus (2) Nucleus and ribosomes (3) Neuroglia and neurons (4) Golgi body and nucleus Space for Rough Work Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Daly ***9005. Phone: O71 A7Saaa66Cr) 187. the complex nitrogen homopolysaccharide that forms (1) Fungal cell wall (2) Reserve food material in plants (@) Energy storing material in mammals (4) Most abundant organic compound in biosphere 488, The enzyme whose EC number is 1.1.1 toclass (1) Hydrolases (2) Dehydrogenases (@) Lyases (4) Transferases 4189 With the increase in substrate concentration, which of the folowing changes is observed in the velocity ofthe enzymatic reaction? (1) The velocity of enzymatic reaction reaches at peak and then decreases (2) The velocity of enzymatic reaction decreases (3) No change is observed (4) The velocity of enzymatic reaction rises at first and then becomes stable 190 The common feature between bone and cartilage ‘among the following is, (1) Presence of lamellae (2) Absence of osteocytes (3) Being a hematopoietic tissue (4) Presence of lacunae 191 Select the one that lacks fibres made up of elastin Containing 1 belongs or collagen. (1) Adipose tissue» (2) Lymph ) Ligament (4) Areolar tissue 192 The ligament that is responsible for joining tibia and fibula belongs to which category? (1) Loose connective tissue (2) Dense regular connective tissue (3) Dense irregular connective tissue (4) Specialised connective tissue 183 The junction that facilitates the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm oF adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions is Er 194. Choose the correct statement. (1) The products of exocrine glands are secreted directly into the fuid bathing the gland. (2) Exocrine glands secrete pepsin, gastrin, insulin and glucagon, (2) The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals is epithelial tissue (4) Most of the cartiages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by bones in adults. 195. wo glucose molecules join together withthe help cof bond X'to form a disaccharide YX" is the result of dehydration Select the option representing molecular formula of (1) Crate (2) CitHaOr (3) CettoOw (4) CroHxOn 4196. Applying the general rule of thumb, calculate the increase in rate of reaction ifthe temperature rises ffom 30°C to 80°C ina thermophilic organism. Choose the correct option. the correct (1) 4 times (2) Stimes (3) 8 times (4) 32 times 197. Select the incorrect match. «n [¢H= OF =] Present in nospholipid aon oe buon membrane 2 | CHy¢CH),.- COOH | — | Saturated fatty acid (@)| GOH 7 H-G-NH, bs, (4) | HOCH, 0. 7 ‘Simplest amino acid Pentose sugar of RNA (1) Adhering junction (2) Tight junction (8) Gap junction (4) Macula adherens Space for Rough Work OH_OH ‘Dalni-110005, Phone: 011-47623456 7.6 Pasa Road, New ei akash Tower, Corporate Offic econCr) C1 ome ge a th ee nt 199 How many among the following is/are secondary of bropoticies ie lon present te Ming of metabolite(s)? (1) Fallopian tubes (2) Alveoli of lungs Morphine, Insulin, Vinblastin, _ Cellulose, (3) Blood vessels (4) Ovaries ‘Space for Rough WorkFor Answers & Solutions Please visit our website: www.aakash.ac.in Video Solutions _ sumac ei ( g ~ 7 Sean the QR Code for Al