UPSC EPFO

EO 2020
INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS
50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

50 Important Polity Questions

Q1) Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court
and no judgement can be made on it.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: “a”
Q2) Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at
atleast 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha,
the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the
opposition.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: “d”
Q3) Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. The speaker of Legislative Assembly Shall vacate office his office if he ceases to be
a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his
immediately.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: “a”
50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q4) Which part of the Indian Constitution safeguard’s one’s right to marry the person
of one’s choice?
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 22
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 28
Correct Answer: “a”

Q5) Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution were amended to
provide reservation to economically weaker sections of citizens other than the
Scheduled Castes (SC), the Scheduled Tribes (ST), and the non-creamy layer of the
Other Backward Classes (OBC-NCL)?
(a) Articles 14, 15 & 16 only
(b) Articles 14 & 16 only
(c) Articles 15 & 16 only
(d) Articles 14 & 15 only
Correct Answer: “d”
Q6) Which areas will be exempted by the Citizen (Amendment) Act, 2019?
(a) Tribal Areas notified in Sixth Schedule
(b) All North East States of India
(c) All states having International Borders
(d) No area will be exempted
Correct Answer: “a”
Q7) Which of the following are the modes of loss of Indian Citizenship?

(1) Termination
(2) Renunciation
(3) Deprivation
(4) Repatriation
(a) Only 1, 3 and 4
(b) Only 1,2 and 4
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4
(d) Only 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: “d”
Q8) The President can dismiss a member of the council of Ministers

(a) with the consent of the speaker

(b) only under emergency conditions
(c) on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(d) Upon his own will
Correct Answer: “c”
50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q9) Which schedule of the Indian Constitution is related to the allocation of seats in
the Rajya Sabha to the States and the Union Territories?

(a) Fifth Schedule

(b) Fourth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule
Correct Answer: “b”
Q10) Which of the following Act of British India designated the Governor-General of
Bengal and subsumed the powers of Madras and Bombay Presidencies?
(a) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(b) Charter Act of 1813
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Regulating Act, 1773
Correct Answer: “d”
Q11) The Eleventh Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the
prime ministership of
(a) Rajeev Gandhi
(b) P.V. Narsimha Rao
(c) Chandra Shekhar
(d) Morarji Desai
Correct Answer: “b”
Q12) Which of the given statements is/are correct?
1. A proclamation of National Emergency may be applicable to the entire country or
only a part of it.
2. The President can proclaim a National Emergency only after receiving a written
recommendation from the Prime Minister.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) None
(d) Both
Correct Answer: “1”
50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q13) The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:

(a) must be a member of the Lok Sabha.
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must
become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months.
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament.
(d) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must
become a member of one of the Houses within six months.
Correct Answer: “d”
Q14) The Sarda Act is related to
(a) Upliftment of scheduled castes
(b) Upliftment of minorities
(c) Child Marriage
(d) Widow Remarriage
Correct Answer: “c”
Q15) Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid
down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To safeguard public property
2. To protect the weaker sections and minorities from social and economic injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To protect and improve the natural environment

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: “c”

Q16) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1. Election Commission
2. Planning Commission
3. National Commission for Women
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: “c”
50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q17) Which of the statements about Attorney General of India is / are correct?
1. can take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: “c”

Q18) Which of the statements given is / are correct regarding a No-Confidence Motion
in India?
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in either House of Parliament.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: “a”
Q19) Which of the following statements are correct about Public Account Committee?
1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the both houses of Parliament.
2. None of its members can be the ministers in the government.
3. examines the audit report of Comptroller and Auditor and General of India.
4. Its chairperson is appointed by the President of India.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: “c”

50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q20) Which of the statements is/are not correct?

1. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting
right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice
President.
2. The Deputy Chairman is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha from among its
members.
3. The first nominated woman member of the Rajya Sabha was Smt. Rukmini Devi
Arundale.

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) All of the above
(d) None

Correct Answer: “c”

Q21) Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts.
(b) The Committee on Estimates.
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings.
(d) All have equal strength.

Correct Answer: “b”

Q22) Which of the following country does not have a written Constitution?
(a) United Kingdom
(b) Australia
(c) United States of America
(d) Netherlands

Correct Answer: “a”

Q23) Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. Appeal lies with SC against high court
3. A dispute between two or more States.
4. Enforcement of Fundamental Rights through Article 32.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: “a”

50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q24) Which Article of the Constitution talks about the establishment of the Supreme
Court?
(a) Article 124
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 130
(d) Article 324

Correct Answer: “a”

Q25) ________ means that the President of India can refer any matter that is of public
importance or that which involves interpretation of Constitution to Supreme Court for
advice.
(a) Original Jurisdiction.
(b) Writ Jurisdiction.
(c) Appellate Jurisdiction.
(d) Advisory Jurisdiction.

Correct Answer: “d”

Q26) Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha
by the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to
create more All India Services.
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the
President after his/her retirement.
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of
Election Commissioners.

Correct Answer: “b”

Q27) Consider the following statements about ‘Inner Line Permit’ and mark the correct
statements.
1. Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the concerned state
government to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a
limited period.
2. It was created by 1st Constitutional Amendment.
3. It is operational in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Nagaland.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: “c”
50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q28) Which of the following are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the
Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code
2. Organizing Village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. To improve agriculture and encourage animal husbandry.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: “d”

Q29) Consider the following statements and mark the incorrect ones.
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a
bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the
Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the
States of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: “d”

Q30) In the context of Indian parliament what is ‘Zero Hour’?
(a) Time immediately after Question Hour.
(b) Time in the first half of the parliamentary proceeding.
(c) Time in the last half of the parliamentary proceeding.
(d) Time before Question Hour.

Correct Answer: “a”

Q31) Which of the following right has been removed from fundamental rights and
converted to a simple legal right?
(a) Right to life and personal liberty.
(b) Right to property.
(c) Right to education.
(d) None of these.

Correct Answer: “b”

50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q32) “Forests” is listed in the ________ list given in the Seventh Schedule in the
Constitution of India.
(a) Union.
(b) State.
(c) It is not in any list.
(d) Concurrent.

Correct Answer: “d”

Q33) What is the literal meaning of the term “Habeas Corpus”?

(a) We command
(b) To forbid
(c) By what authority (or) warrant
(d) To have the body

Correct Answer: “d”

Q34) Who has the power to amend the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Prime Minister’s Office
(c) Parliament
(d) President

Correct Answer: “c”

Q35) For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
(a) Anyone who is residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.

Correct Answer: “c”

Q36) Which of the following are the features of Parliamentary form of government?
1. Majority Party Rule
2. Leadership of President
3. Dissolution of Lower House
(a) Only 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 1, 2 and 4
(d) Only 1 and 3

Correct Answer: “d”

50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q37) In the Indian Parliamentary System, “Vote on Account” is valid for how many
months (except the year of elections)?
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 2 months
(d) 6 weeks

Correct Answer: “c”

Q38) Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with its Tribunals?
(a) Part XIVA
(b) Part XIV
(c) Part XV
(d) Part IX A

Correct Answer: “a”

Q39) Who was the first judge of the Supreme Court, against whom the proposal of
impeachment was presented in the Parliament of Independent India?
(a) Justice Soumitra Sen
(b) Justice Karnan
(c) Justice V Ramaswamy
(d) Justice Rangnath Mishra

Correct Answer: “c”

Q40) Which of the following is not correct about the post of CDS in the India?
1. He is the head of Department of Defence, Ministry of Defence.
2. He is described by officials as the “first among equals” among service chiefs.
3. The CDS will not come under the Right to Information Act.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 3

Correct Answer: “c”

50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q41) Which of the following statements are not correct about Constituent Assembly?
1. Its last session was held on 26 January 1950.
2. Its Vice-president was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee.
3. Initially there were 389 seats in it which post freedom became 299.
(a) Only (1)
(b) Only (1) and (2)
(c) Only (3)
(d) Only (2) and (3)

Correct Answer: “a”

Q42) By which Amendment Part VII of the Constitution deleted ?

(a) 8th Amendment
(b) 7th Amendment
(c) 9th Amendment
(d) None of these

Correct Answer: “b”

Q43) Which of the following committee approved the creation of post of Chief of
Defence Staff?
(a) Cabinet Committee on Security.
(b) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs.
(c) Appointments Committee of the Cabinet.
(d) Cabinet Committee on Accommodation.

Correct Answer: “a”

Q44) With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not
elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the
first time in its history.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: “d”

50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

45) If there is a deadlock between Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha over an ordinary bill, it
will be resolved by

(a) The President

(b) The Council of Ministers
(c) The Joint Session of Parliament
(d) The Supreme Court

Correct Answer: “c”

Q46) Which of the statements given is/are incorrect about Election Commission ?
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of
both general elections and by-elections.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) Both
(d) None

Correct Answer: “d”

Q47) Which of the following is not a type of urban local governance body?

(a) Nagar Panchayat

(b) Zila Parishad
(c) Municipal Council
(d) Municipal Corporation

Correct Answer: “b”

Q48) Which of the following Acts allows the council to discuss the budget related
matters for the first time?

(a) Charter Act of 1853

(b) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909

Correct Answer: “c”

50 Important Polity Questions Free static GK e-book

Q49) Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution:

1) According to Article 19, the right to form Co-operative Societies is a fundamental
right.
2) The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011, gave a constitutional status and
protection to Co-operative Societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: “c”

Q50) Consider the following regarding the executive powers of Centre’s direction to
the states:
1) The construction and maintenance of means of communication in the state.
2) The measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state.
3) The drawing up and execution of the any schemes for the welfare of the scheduled
tribes in the state.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: “a”

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