Commerce1 (With Maths)

INDEX
➢ English
➢ Economics
➢ Business Studies
➢ Accounts
➢ Maths
New Era Public School
Assignment (2021-22)
Class- XII
Subject: English
Flamingo
Chapter 1- The Last Lesson

Short answer questions (2 marks)
1. Why didn’t Franz want to go to school?
2. What was the significance of the bulletin board?
3. What was posted on the bulletin board that day?
4. How did the villagers react to the news?
5. How did Franz react to the news?
6. What changes did the order from Berlin cause in school that day?
7. How did Franz’s feelings about M. Hamel and school change?
8. What was M. Hamel’s regret?
9. According to Hamel what is the importance of language?
10. What did he write on the board and why?
11. How did the villagers react to the news of that day?
12. Why were the villagers sitting in the school room?
A12. On the last day, the villagers sat in the classroom to pay tribute to the French teacher M. Hamel,
who had spent 40 years teaching in the village. They also regretted not going to school more. This also
reflects the love for their country and their language, which was being taken over by the Germans.
Long answer questions (6 marks)
1. Describe M. Hamel.
2. Justify the title ‘The Last Lesson’.
A2. The title refers to the last lesson of French in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine, two places in France
taken over by the Prussians, who imposed German on these schools. Written against the backdrop of
Franco-Prussian war of 1871, the story deals with the ideas of language imposition and language loyalty.
Two regions of France, Alsace and Lorraine have been taken over by the Prussians and a new order has
been passed that henceforth German will be taught in schools instead of French. This declaration has
made the villagers realise the importance of their language and a sudden feeling of regret has dawned
upon them about the fact that they did not spend a considerable time in learning their language, that is,
French. For the villagers, the last lesson in their school is a way to pay a tribute to their old master for his
dedication, to the language which will not be taught anymore and to their country. It is also the time for
the old teacher himself to bid them all good bye. He goes through the last lesson with utmost patience and
determination. He teaches as never before, emphasizing the value of French as their national language and
at the end he exhibits his devotion and courage by writing ‘Vive la France’ on the board.
For Franz, it is a moment of realisation that the school and lessons which he had taken lightly till now will
come to an end. He now wants to hang on to this class and absorb as much as he can because he knows
there wouldn’t be any more such classes after this.
This last lesson, thus, acquires a greater significance than an ordinary day. It becomes a moment of
realisation, regret and a renewed determination to keep their language alive.
Chapter 2- Lost Spring
1. What do you know about Saheb’s background?
2. What does the writer mean when she says that they were looking for gold in the garbage?
3. Describe the lives of these ragpickers in brief.
4. Why does garbage have a different meaning for children?
5. Did Saheb enjoy working in the tea stall?
6. What makes the city of Firozabad famous?
7. Describe the life of the children working in Firozabad.
8. Why was Saheb’s name ironical?
A8. Saheb’s real name was Saheb-e-alam, which means ‘lord of the universe’. It was ironical because he
was a mere ragpicker who could barely manage his survival. He could never be the lord of the universe.
1. Justify the title ‘Lost Spring’.
A1. Spring here refers to the spring of life, that is, childhood. Childhood is the most precious time of a
person's life where he is moulded or shaped. But, unfortunately, there are many children in our society
who are deprived of it. They are forced to give up this part of their lives due to poverty and tradition. On
the one hand, poverty forces many children to become labourers and work in shops, offices, houses etc.
Tradition, on the other hand, becomes a big hindrance to development of children. It binds people in
shackles of the caste system.
In the story, the two protagonists have lost their childhood due to these two factors. They are poverty
stricken, there is a lack of education and they work day and night to feed themselves. Due to this, they
have lost their innocence, imagination and are burdened with responsibilities of earning money. Hence the
title is very appropriate.
Chapter 3- Deep Water
1. What was Douglas' first experience of water?
2. What was the result of Douglas's experience at the beach in California?
3. What was Douglas' first attempt to overcome his fear?
4. What is the misadventure that Douglas speaks about?
5. How did the experiences at the pool affect him?
6. What was the series of emotion that Douglas went through when he went down?
7. What strategy did Douglas have in his mind when he was thrown into the pool?
8. Why couldn't Douglas execute his plan?
9. What was Douglas' experience when he started going down the third time?
10. Why was Douglas determined to overcome his fear?
11. How did the instructor build a swimmer out of Douglas?
12. How did Douglas conquer his old terror?
A12. After the instructor had trained Douglas in the art of swimming, Douglas was still not sure of
himself. He felt tiny vestiges of the fear now and then. So, he went to Lake Wentworth and swam. Once
when terror returned, he challenged it and did not let it overcome him. Finally, Douglas went to the Warm
Lake. There he swam and the fear didn’t return to haunt him again.
1. Draw a character sketch of William Douglas.
2. 'I had both the sensation of dying and the terror that fear of it can produce'. Describe what Douglas
refers to.
A2. Douglas had a very close encounter with death when he nearly drowned in YMCA pool. He was
pushed into the deep end of the pool by a bull when he hadn’t learnt to swim very well. Inspite of his
strategic planning and efforts to come upto the surface of the water, Douglas couldn't do so and kept
going down towards the bottom of the pool. Finally, he panicked and thought that he was going to drown,
that was the time when he experienced the terror that fear of dying can produce. After swallowing some
water, he started losing consciousness. Blackness swept over him. Douglas felt that these two experiences
(terror of death, sensation of dying) strengthened his resolve to live immensely. He probably valued life
much more after his experience at the pool.
Chapter 4- The Rattrap
1. When did the peddler get the idea of world being a rattrap?
2. Why did he accept Edla Wilmansson’s invitation?
3. Why did Edla entertain the peddler even after she knew the truth about him?
4. Why did the peddler sign himself as the Captain Von Stahle?
A4.The peddler had been mistaken for Captain Von Stahle. He had also been treated as if he was a
respectable officer and not a peddler. He had never experienced that kind of treatment and it inspired him
to change himself into a better person and behave in a manner befitting a captain, on having done so he
could sign himself as Captain Von Stahle.
1. How did the peddler respond to the act of kindness shown by the iron master, his daughter and the
crofter?
A1. The old crofter welcomed the peddler warmly. He was generous with food and talked to him like a
friend. He was a simple man who trusted the peddler blindly and showed him the place where he kept his
savings. The peddler abused his trust and hospitality by stealing his money.
The iron master and his daughter made him feel welcome in their house even after realizing their mistake
of thinking that he was an old regimental comrade. They let him rest, gave him good food and made him
participate in Christmas festivities with them. While there, the peddler’s conscience pricked him. He was
overcome with guilt and decided to turn into a better person and not to kill the faith that Edla had shown
in him. He gave her the stolen money and rattrap signifying that he would never be tempted to take the
bait.
Chapter 5- Indigo
1. Why did Gandhiji feel that taking the Champaran case to court was useless?
2. How did the Champaran peasants react when they heard that a Mahatma had come
to help them?
3. What made the Lieutenant Governor drop the case against Gandhiji?
4. Why did Gandhiji oppose when his friend Andrews offered to stay in Champaran and
help the peasants?
5. Why do you think Gandhi considered the Champaran episode to be a turning point
in his life?
6. What did the peasants pay to the British landlords as rent?
7. Why did Gandhiji decide to go to Muzaffarpur before going to Champaran?
8. “The battle of Champaran is won!” What led Gandhiji to make this remark?
9. Why did Gandhi agree to the planters’ offer of a 25% refund to the farmers?
A9. Gandhiji agreed to a settlement of 25% refund to the farmers in order to break the deadlock between
the landlords and peasants. For him the amount of the refund was not very important. The fact that the
landlords had been obliged to surrender a part of their money as well as their prestige gave a moral
victory to the farmers. Thus, Gandhiji not only made the landlords accept their dishonesty but also made
the farmers learn a lesson in defending their rights with courage.
1. Why is the Champaran episode considered to be the beginning of the Indian struggle
for independence?
2. Gandhiji’s loyalty was not a loyalty to abstractions; it was a loyalty to living human
beings. Why did Gandhiji continue his stay in Champaran even after indigo sharecropping disappeared?
A2. After the Champaran battle was won and the land reverted to the peasants, Gandhiji continued to stay
on in the region. His loyalty was, indeed, to living human beings and he realised that a lot needed to be
done for the upliftment of the peasants in the villages of Champaran. Gandhiji took the initiative and
began the work of eradicating their cultural and social backwardness. Primary schools were started so that
the poor peasants and their children could be educated. Gandhiji appealed to teachers, and many of his
disciples, including his wife and son, volunteered for the work.
Health conditions in the area were also miserable. Gandhiji got a doctor to volunteer his services for six
months. All this goes to prove that Gandhiji’s loyalty was not to abstractions, but his politics was always
intertwined with the practical day to day problems of the millions.
Chapter 6- Poets and Pancakes

1. Through the mention of Robert Clive, how does the narrator bring out the extravaganza of those in
power?
2. Describe the make-up room of the Gemini Studios as described by the author.
3. A strict hierarchy was maintained in the make-up department. Explain.
4. Why did the office boy come to the author? Why was the author praying for crowd shooting?
5. What advantage did the office boy think Subbu had?Who was Subbu’s enemy? Why?
6. Subbu was charitable and improvident, yet he had enemies. Why?
7. How did the lawyer lose his job?
8. What role did the canteen play at the Gemini studio?
9. What was the opinion of the Khadi clad poets of Gemini Studios about Communism?
10. What shows that the boss knew very little about the poet who was visiting Gemini studio?
11. Why was the English poet who visited the Gemini Studios as baffled as his audience?
12. The boss of Gemini studio had nothing to do with Spender’s poetry but not with his 'God that failed`.
Bring out the significance of this line?
13. Why did Stephen Spender visit Gemini Studios?
A13. Stephen Spender was an anti-Communist, like the people at Gemini Studios. He had been invited to
talk about his journey into Communism and his disillusioned return.
1. Describe the Moral Re-Armament Army’s visit to Gemini Studios?
2. Analyse the character of Kothamangalam Subbu.
3. Asokamitran has used humor and satire effectively in Poets and Pancakes. Discuss.
4. What does Asokamitran’s lesson ‘Poet and Pancakes’ deal with?
A4. The author Asokamitran recounts his years spent at the Gemini Studios. Gemini Studios was set up in
the year 1940 in Chennai and grew into one of the most influential film producing organizations of India
in the early years of the Indian film making industry. The studios of film production has never confined
its activities within the four walls of the studios but it also gives a fine glimpse of outside world as well.
The production department has two prominent divisions – the make-up department and the story
department. In the make-up room there had a team of workers from chief make-up man to the office boy
who stopped the crowd players with lotions and pancakes. Pancakes were used by the actors and actress.
Pancake was the popular brand name there. There was a strict hierarchy of make-up man.
The story department had its significant contribution. There was a legal advisor duly accompanied with an
assembly of poets and writers. They were engaged in creating story, songs, social and other work. In
those days, it was mainly indoor shooting. The Boss had a strict vigil at every aspect. He was assisted by
Kothamanglam Subbu, who was an indispensable person for the studios. Beside this, the Gemini Studios
had become the favourite haunt of the poet and other visitors because of its decent mess that served coffee
till the late at night. The studios hosted the visit of Moral Re-Armament Army and a poet-cum-editor
Stephen Spender. The MRA was a counter movement to international communism but the people at the
studios were averse in this ideology. The visit of Spender also became an unexplained mystery for all.
Chapter 7- The Interview

1. In what way have the interviews become a common place of journalism?
2. What drawbacks of interviews have been pointed out by Lewis Carroll?
3. How does Rudyard Kipling condemn an Interview?
4. What was odd about Rudyard Kipling interviewing Mark Twain?
5. In what way does the interviewer hold a position of unprecedented power and influence over the
person interviewed?
6. How, when and why did Umberto Eco start writing novels?
7. Why was Umberto Eco’s writer friend Roland Bathers frustrated?
8. What is the secret of Umberto Eco’s working style?
9. What do you think were the distinguishing features of his novel ‘The Name of the Rose’?
10. Why, according to Umberto Eco, were the journalists puzzled at the popularity of the novel ‘The
Name of the Rose’?
Ans10. According to Umberto Eco the journalists were puzzled because journalists believed that people
liked the writings of poor quality. They thought that difficult reading experiences were not liked by
people. But they were wrong. The novel was liked by millions of people even if it had difficult
experiences.
1. What impression do you form about Umberto Eco as a scholar and writer on the basis of “The
Interview.”?
2. “I can’t understand how a man can do all the things he does.” Discuss this statement with reference to
Umberto Eco.
3. Highlight the importance of interview; its drawbacks, positive aspects and reactions of celebrity
writers based on the The Interview.
4. Describe opinions for and against the interview as are given in the lesson./ Why do the celebrities
despise and condemn ‘interview’? Describe their viewpoint.
A4. An interview is formal meeting, interaction or a kind of discussion with someone. In other sense it is
a kind of conversation which aims at obtaining information. In actual practice the interview has become
an indispensable feature of journalism today. Some call it a great art. In the same way the celebrities,
criminals and victims are interviewed. In case an incident involves a celebrity, the media immediately
rush to him for interaction. Most often the celebrities do not like to face the interviewer since it is like the
stealing of one’s soul. It even makes them feel that it somehow diminishes them.
In the words of Nobel laureate, V.S. Naipaul, “Some people are wounded buy interviews and lose a part
of them”. They feel a part of their personalities stolen. Lewis Carroll, the author of ‘Alice in Wonderland’
was said to have had a just horror of the interviewer and he never consented to be interviewed. Caroline,
the wife of Rudyard Kipling, went on saying that an interview is vile, crime and all offence. No
respectable person would ask it, much less give it. On the other hand H.G. Wells referred it to be an
interviewing ordeal. Nobel laureate Saul Bellow took it like thumb-prints on his windpipe.” Thus most of
the celebrities do not find favour with interview but the interviewer holds a position of great power and
influence.
Chapter 8-Going Places

1. What did Sophie dream of doing after leaving school? What was she expected to do?
2. Why did Jansie discourage her from entertaining such thoughts?
3. What impression do you get of Sophie’s parents?
4. What does Sophie tell Geoff?
5. Which member of the family was Sophie close to? Why?
6. According to Sophie, how did she meet Danny Casey?
7. Why did she go to the canal after dark?
8. What did she do at the canal?
9. Why did Sophie like her brother Geoff more than any other person? What did he symbolise?
10. In what ways were Jansie and Sophie different from each other?
A10. Sophie was a dreamer who did not look at the practical aspects of life. She was unhappy in present
circumstances and wanted a life of affluence (wealth). She wanted to defy her father and all the restraints
that she was bound by. Jansie was the voice of reason and practicality. She was Sophie’s good friend and
tried to discourage her from dreaming of the impossible.
1. What were Sophie’s plans for her future? Why would you call her dreams unrealistic?
2. Had Sophie really met Danny Casey? What details of her meeting with Danny Casey did
she narrate to her brother?
3. Contrast Sophie’s real world with her fantasies.
A3.The story ‘Going Places’ is a journey into the dream world of the protagonist, a schoolgirl named
Sophie who drifts from one dream to another. The world of dreams is so fascinating for her that even her
wildest thoughts can find refuge in it.
Sophie finds the reality of her life too harsh to accept. She belongs to a lower middle class family where
nobody encourages her to dream of better prospects. Still, she dreams of owning the best boutique,
becoming a manager in some store or at other times, becoming an actress or a fashion designer.
In her dream world, she visits the Royce’s, meets Danny Casey, the sports icon, and even fixes up a date
with him. It’s all in her mind but she considers it true and actually waits for him to show up at a specified
spot and time. The flight of her imagination is such that it flips from one dream to another, from one place
to the other.
Chapter 9- My Mother at Sixty Six

Summary
The poet in the poem shares her childhood fear of losing her mother to death, which is a cause of great
pain to her.She describes an incident when she is driving with her mother to the airport after one of her
visits. Her mother sitting next to her dozes off and seeing her sleep peacefully as if she is dead, the poet is
haunted by her fear again.The pale face of her sleeping mother reminds the poet that her mother is aging.
She pushes that thought out of her mind and looks at the young trees and merry children. The poet uses
this imagery (trees and children) to emphasize upon the age of her mother. They also present a contrast to
the age and weakness of her mother as they symbolize the joy, energy and enthusiasm of the youth.At the
airport's security check, the poet looks at her mother's face and is reminded of her childhood fear again.
Now she compares her mother to a late winter's moon but she hides her emotions, suppresses her fear,
smiles and says to her mother," See you soon". The words ‘smile and smile’ seem to serve two purposes -
one, to assure herself that she would meet her mother again and another, make her mother happy by
promising to see her soon.
Reference to context (4 marks)
1. “Driving from my parent’s
home to Cochin last Friday
morning, I saw my mother,beside me,
doze, open-mouthed, her face ashen like that
of a corpse and realized with pain
that she was as old as she looked…”
a. Name the poem and the poet.
b. What did the poet notice about her mother?
c. Why was her mother’s face looking like that of a corpse?
d. Identify the figure of speech used in this stanza.
2. “And looked out at young
trees sprinting, the merry children spilling
out of their homes, but after the airport’s
security check, standing a few yards
away, I looked again at her, wan, pale
as a late winter’s moon and felt that old
familiar ache, my childhood’s fear…”
a. What thought did the poet drive away from her mind?
b. Explain ‘merry children spilling’.
c. Why does the poet compare her mother to late winter’s moon?
d. What was the poet’s childhood fear?
1. What is the kind of pain and ache that the poet feels?
2. Why has the poet brought in the image of merry children ‘spilling out of their home’?
3. Why has the mother been compared to ‘late winter’s moon’?
4. What do the parting words of the poet and her smile symbolise?
5. Why are the young trees described as ‘sprinting’?
A5. The young trees have been personified. When looked at from the poet’s moving car, they seem to
be running past. The poet found it to be strikingly opposite to her mother who looked as still as a dead
body.
Chapter 10-An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum
Summary
The poet highlights the theme of social inequality and the plight of slum children in this poem. He
describes the state of an elementary school classroom in a slum to comment on the divide between the
privileged and the underprivileged in a society.
He laments that these children are deprived of the joys of childhood (far from the gusty waves). Their hair
is unkempt around their pale faces (which reflects their state of neglect and malnutrition). They are
unwanted and uncared for in society like weeds (use of a simile). He goes on to describe some of the
students in this classroom of the elementary school. He talks of a tall girl who looks ill, exhausted and
burdened with responsibilities, a very thin boy who has hungry eyes (use of a metaphor-rat’s eyes), an
unfortunate boy who has inherited a disease of twisted bones from his father and as a result is not able to
move around normally and sits on his desk only, a sweet child sitting unnoticed on the last seat, always
distracted and disinterested in studies.
In the second stanza, the poet mocks the irrelevant and uninspiring décor of the class. The faded walls
(sour cream) are a reflection of the apathy and indifference of the administration towards these poor
children. The walls are decorated with donation certificates (symbolizing money/power), Shakespeare’s
portrait (a symbol of higher education/learning), a painting of skyscrapers present in all cities
(symbolizing development/progress), a beautiful painting of Tyrolese Valley (a symbol of beauty) and a
map depicting the world (a symbol of wider horizons). Through this description, the poet is trying to
highlight the fact that the classroom has been decorated thoughtlessly and insensitively with things and
elements that these children cannot relate with like education, progress, beauty and opportunities as they
are missing in their world of poverty and malnutrition. The poet drives home his point with a powerful
statement that the world of these slum children is limited and visible to them through their windows and
that their future is very uncertain (painted with fog). Their life is like a narrow street (fewer opportunities)
sealed with a lead sky (hopelessness). The slum children live static lives lacking the fluidity of rivers,
wider horizons of capes and light of education.
Stephen Spender goes on to explain the irrelevance of the paintings and portrait in the next stanza. He
conveys that Shakespeare is meaningless in the class as his portrait is a mere picture of an unsmiling,
wicked man for the children who are unaware of his genius. The map is useless for them as they cannot
locate their slum in it. The paintings depicting beauty and progress tempt them to take to crime as they
know that they can never achieve them through legitimate means. As a result, they end up spending their
entire life in their dirty, dingy hutments (cramped holes) and life is not only uncertain but filled with
despair (from fog to endless…). In their slum, these children, according to the poet, suffer from
malnutrition; their bones are visible through their skins, they have weak eyes and due to lack of means
they wear coarse spectacles (bottle bits on stone). Their lives are consumed by these slums, which is a
blot on their lives and responsible for their doomed state.
In the last stanza, the poet suggests measures to change the scenario. He says that these young lives will
not progress and will remain buried in these slums (shut upon their lives…), in other words, the state of
these slum children will not improve unless the governor (the government), the inspector (the
administration) and the visitors (the non-state actors like the citizens and civil rights bodies) intervene to
provide these children opportunities to integrate them in the society. He urges the readers to break the
barriers in the society to bring in equality so that these children also get opportunities to grow (show them
to…), to give them access to the sky-blue waves rising over the golden sands (wider horizons), to allow
these children to quench their thirst for knowledge. He wants these children to be allowed conditions to
blossom (white and green...). The poet is of the belief that if these children are given the weapon /strength
of education, they can also create history.
1. “Far far from gusty waves these children’s faces.
Like rootless weeds, the hair torn around their pallor:
The tall girl with her weighed-down head. The paper-
seeming boy, with rat’s eyes…”
a. Where do you think, are these children sitting?
b. How do the faces and hair of these children look?
c. Why is the head of the tall girl ‘weighed-down’?
d. What do you understand by ‘The paper-seeming boy, with rat’s eyes’?
2. “On sour cream walls, donations. Shakespeare’s head,
Cloudless at dawn, civilized dome riding all cities.
Belled, flowery, Tyrolese valley. Open-handed map
Awarding the world its world.”
a. What does the colour of the walls suggest?
b. Which two worlds does the poet hint at?
c. What does Shakespeare represent?
d. Explain: ‘Open-handed map awarding the world its world’.
1. What message does Stephen Spender give through this poem? What solution does he offer?
2. The walls of the classroom are decorated with the pictures of ‘Shakespeare’, ‘buildings with domes’,
‘world maps’ and beautiful valleys. How do these contrast with the world of these children?
3. ‘So blot their maps with slums as big as doom’. What does the poet want to convey?
4. Why does the poet use the image of despair and disease in the first stanza of the poem?
A4. The poet uses these images to stress upon the pathetic and miserable lives of the slum children. He
wants to draw the attention of the readers towards the hunger and disease rampant in their world and the
indifference of the world towards them. Expressions like ‘paper-seeming’, ‘rat’s eyes’, ‘gnarled disease’,
point at the hungry and malnourished children, while ‘rootless weeds’ reflects the indifference of the
society.
Chapter 11- Keeping Quiet
Summary
The poet speaks of the necessity of introspection in a moment of silence in today’s world. He advocates
silence and stillness for a short while for it. It would be a rare experience to have no noise or rush and all
of us would be bound by the stillness around us.
During the silence of introspection all violence would cease, man would stop the reckless killing of
animals(…not harm whales). Man will also look at the damage, he is causing himself in the rat race of
life(…look at his hurt hands).
Neruda feels that introspection would put an end to all kinds of wars; be it the war against nature or
against humanity. He says that wars only cause destruction, even the victor faces losses. Introspection
would force the perpetrators of war to change their mindset (put on clean …)and become messengers of
peace(walk hand in hand..),not harming anyone.
The poet warns that his advice to observe silence and stillness for a while must not be confused with total
inactivity. He explains that total inactivity is as good as being dead, because life is about growth and
evolution, which is possible through constant actions and endeavor only and not through inactivity. He
just wants readers to reflect on what they are doing and not be so focused on just moving aimlessly.
Regular introspection, according to Neruda will help us understand ourselves better and lead to our
happiness.
The poet ends with a very relevant example of the impact of silence. He says that during winter the Earth
looks quiet and colorless, but under the quiet exterior, the seeds are germinating and preparing to bring
life back on Earth. Likewise, when we are quiet and still during our introspection we need not necessarily
be inactive, a regeneration (of body, soul and mind) may be taking place within us which may contribute
immensely to our growth and development as human beings.
1. “If we were not so single-minded
about keeping our lives moving,
and for once could do nothing,
perhaps a huge silence
might interrupt this sadness
of never understanding ourselves
and of threatening ourselves with death.”
a. Whom does ‘we’ refer to in the above lines?
b. Why does the poet want us to ‘do nothing’ for once?
c. What is the ‘sadness’ that the poet refers to in the poem?
d. How can a huge silence do good to us?
2. “Perhaps the Earth can teach us
as when everything seems dead
and later proves to be alive
Now I’ll count upto twelve
and you keep quiet and I will go.”
a. What does the Earth teach us?
b. What does the poet mean to achieve by counting upto twelve?
c. What is the significance of ‘keeping quiet’?
d. What is always alive, even when everything seems to be dead?
3. “It would be an exotic moment
without rush, without engines,
we would all be together
in a sudden strangeness.”
a. What will happen if there is no rush or running of engines?
b. Why would it be called an exotic moment?
c. How would we feel at that moment?
d. Name the poem and the poet.
1. What will ‘counting up to twelve’ and ‘keeping still ‘help us achieve?
2. What is the sadness that the poet refers to in the poem ‘Keeping Quiet’?
3. How, according to Neruda, can keeping quiet change our attitude to life?
A3. Keeping quiet and suspending all our activities for a brief moment will give us time to introspect and
analyse our own actions. We will develop a new understanding of our surroundings and thus change our
attitude to life. We will check our destructive ways and try to be more positive and constructive.
Chapter 12- A Thing of Beauty
Summary
The poet says that a beautiful thing is a source of joy, its beauty enhances with the passage of time, it is
eternal, it is forever and never dies or perishes. A beautiful thing (beauty) is a source of peace (…keep a
bower quiet), happiness (...sleep full of sweet dreams), good health and contentment (quiet breathing).
The poet goes on to elaborate the qualities or advantages of a beautiful thing and says that it helps us
create a beautiful bond with Earth. It helps us steer clear of despondency and disappointments. We forget
all our despair caused by the acute shortage of noble souls (inhuman dearth…), of sadness (of the gloomy
days…),of immorality and of misfortunes that overtake us to test our forbearance. It is at such depressing
moments that the sight of a thing of beauty dispels the pall of sadness from our spirits making room for
hope and optimism.
The poet cites some examples of beautiful things- the Sun, moon, greenery like trees whose shade is a
boon for creatures like the sheep to rest under it, various flowers like daffodils, rivers full of clear waters
which cool everyone in the summers, the thick bushes of forest fern where beautiful, fragrant musk roses
bloom. In addition to these objects of nature, there are wonderful tales of our legendary heroes/ great men,
who lived and died heroically. Their lives continue to inspire generations so they are also beautiful. The
poet says that there is an abundance of eternal beauty around us(an endless fountain) which have been
gifted to us from the heaven above. They are like an elixir of life, a never diminishing source of pleasure
and delight and an endless fountain of joy that seems to be a precious gift from Heaven. These beautiful
things are metaphorically an endless source of nectar.
1. “A thing of beauty is a joy forever
Its loveliness increases, it will never
Pass into nothingness; but will keep
A bower quiet for us and a sleep
Full of sweet dreams and health and quiet breathing.”
a. How does a thing of beauty remain a joy forever?
b. Mention any two sources of joy which a thing, of beauty provides to us.
c. Explain, “never pass into nothingness.”
d. What is meant by ‘bower’?
2. “Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing
A flowery band to bind us to the Earth,
Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth
Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways
Made for our searching.”
a. What are the flowery bands that bind us to the Earth?
b. What message do the above lines convey?
c. Why is there an “inhuman dearth of noble natures”?
d. What do you understand by “unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways”?
3. “And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read;
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from heaven’s brink”.
a. Name the poem and the poet.
b. What is the thing of beauty mentioned in these lines?
c. What image does the poet use in these lines?
d. What is the effect of this ‘immortal drink’ on us?
1. What does Keats consider an endless fountain of immortal drink and why does he
call its drink immortal?
2. How does a thing of beauty provide shelter and comfort?
3. What makes human beings love life in spite of troubles and sufferings?
4. Why is ‘grandeur’ associated with the mighty dead?
5. What images does the poet use to describe the beautiful bounty of the Earth?
A5. The poet uses the image of an ‘endless fountain’, which showers bounties on Earth. He calls this an
‘immortal drink’ from heaven. The sun, the moon, the trees, the daffodils, the lush green forests and
streams, all reflect the beautiful bounties which God has given us.
Chapter 13- A Roadside Stand
A. Sometimes I feel myself I can hardly bear,
The thought of so much childish longing in vain, The sadness that lurks near the open window there,
That waits all the day in almost open prayer, for the squeal of brakes.
a. What can’t the poet tolerate?
b. Who has been longing and for what?
c. Why is the longing termed as childish?
d. What do the expressions “open window” and “open prayer” mean?
B. The little old house was out with a little new shed
In front at the edge of the road where the traffic sped,
A road side stand that too pathetically pled,
It would not be fair to say for a dole of bread,
But for some of the money, the cash, whose flow supports
The flower of cities from sinking and withering faint
1. What is the condition of the roadside stand?

2. What did the stand expect?
3. Which words bring out the contrast between the rural and urban folk?
4. Explain! “That too pathetically pled’, Give the figure of speech used.
Ans:
1. It was in a miserable condition. The owner lacked resources to give it an artistic look.
2. It expected money from passersby who would buy their wares, so that they could develop the country
stand.
3. The city folk speed across while the stand ‘pathetically pled’, shows the huge gap.
4. Personification is the figure of speech. The owner desperately pleads to the rich city dwellers to shop
at the roadside stand and buy their wares so that some money could flow in their hands.
1. What was the plea of the folk who had put up the roadside stand?
2. Why are the cars called ‘selfish ?
3. Why can't the poet bear the childish longing of the poor people?
4. Who is anguished at the plight of the stand –owners? Why?
5. What are the two significant roles of money in the lives of the poor people?
A6. Money is the measuring rode of growth for the village people. They estimate their economic growth
by means of the small amount of money at hand. Similarly, money is necessary for a villager to feel
confident. He feels a ‘lift of spirit’ with money in reach
Chapter 14- Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers

1. “When Aunt is dead, her terrified hands will lie
Still ringed with ordeals she was mastered by
The tigers in the panel that she made
Will go on prancing, proud and unafraid.”
a. Who is the aunt mentioned here?
b. Why is she “ringed with ordeals”?
c. What is the difference between her and the tigers?
d. Why has Aunt Jennifer created the tigers so different from her own character?
2. “Aunt Jennifer’s tigers prance across a screen,
Bright topaz denizens of a world of green
They do not fear the men beneath the tree,
They pace in sleek chivalric certainty.”
a. How are Aunt Jennifer’s tigers described?
b. Why are they described as denizens of a world of green?
c. Why are they not afraid of the men?
d. What are her tigers symbolic of?
1. How do the 'denizens' and 'chivalric' add to our understanding of the tiger's attitude?
2. Why do you think Aunt Jennifer's hand is 'fluttering' through her wools? Why is she finding the needle
so hard to move?
3. Of what or of whom is Aunt Jennifer terrified with in the third stanza?
4. What are the 'ordeals' Aunt Jennifer is surrounded by, why is it significant that the poet uses the word
'ringed'? What are the meaning of the word 'ringed' in the poem?
5. Why do you think Aunt Jennifer created animals that are so different form her own character? What
might the poet be suggesting through this experience?
6. What is suggested by the image ' massive weight of uncle's wedding band?
A6. This refers to the burden that marriage has become for Aunt Jennifer. The constraints of married life
oppressed and stifle her.
Vistas
Chapter 1- The Third Level

1. How did Charley reach the third level of the Grand Central Station?
2. Why did Charley run away from the third level?
3. What was Sam’s answer to Charley’s dilemma?
4. How did Charley’s friends relate his stamp collecting habit to his being abnormal?
5. Does Charley agree that stamp collecting habit is a way of escapism? Why?
6. Would Charley ever go back to the ticket-counter on the third level to buy tickets to Galesburg for
himself and his wife?
7. Do you think that the third level was a medium of escape for Charley? Why?
8. What do you infer from Sam’s letter to Charley?
9. How did the narrator’s psychiatrist friend analyze his claim of being at the third level of Grand
Central Station?
10. What did the narrator’s friends say about him? What did his stamp collecting point to?
11. What did the narrator say about his escapism from the real world?
12. The narrator thinks that the Grand Central is growing like a tree. What makes him think so? Why has
it been ‘an exit’?
13. How did the narrator get lost when he was heading for the sub-way?
14. How did the narrator come out on the third level at grand Central Station after he had lost the way?
15. What did the narrator see unusual at the third level?
16. How did Charley make sure that he had actually travelled in the past?
17. Why did Charley rush back from the third level?
18. Why did Charley want to go to Galesburg?
19. How did Charley prepare to go to Galesburg? Why couldn’t he reach there?
20. How did Charley learn that his psychiatrist friend had reached Galesburg of 1894?
21. What did Sam write to Charley from Galesburg?
22. Why does Charley think Sam escaped to Galesburg?
23. How do you find the ending of the story surprising?
24. How did Charley ascertain that he had reached the 1894 world?
A24. Charley reached the third level of the Grand Central Railway Station, New York. Amidst his fresh
amazement, Charley could not relate the possibility of being in a hundred year old world. But when
Charley observed the dim gas lamps, brass spittoons, old styled costumes of men and women, moustaches
and beards generally worn by men, string-watches and so on, Charley began to doubt that he had become
part of the old world yet he still didn’t know which year it was. Charley got it resolved only at the sight of
The World, the newspaper that bore the date of 1894 with a piece of news of President Cleveland.
Long answer questions (6 marks) (120-150 Words)
1. What does the third level refer to? Is it a medium or a way of getting away from the unpleasant and
insecure present forgetting your normal life?
2. How did Charley stumble into the third level at Grand Central Station? Describe his experience there?
3. Describe Charley. Do you think his being on the third level at Grand Central Station was a waking-
dream wish fulfillment? What did his stamp collecting point to?
4. ‘The Third Level’ at the Grand Central Station is nothing but a convenient excuse for escapism. Justify
the statement.
5. Describe Charley’s character with special reference to his escapist tendency.
6. Describe Charley’s impression of the world he encounters on the third level at the Grand Central
Station. Why couldn’t he buy tickets to Galesburg?
7. How has Jack Finney interwoven fantasy and reality in ‘The Third Level’? Also highlight the
interaction of space and time in the story.
8. Charley wanted to go home quickly but he reached the third level. How did he get there?
9. What was the third level like? How did Charley know he had bumped into the past?
10. Why did Charley come back from the third level? What did his psychiatrist friend think about his
experience?
11. Sam’s letter to Charley is a fine blend of reality and fantasy. Comment.
12. What was Charley’s strange experience at the Grand Central Station?
A12. The Grand Central Railway Station, New York, has only two levels. It is a common fact. A simple,
normal, man, Charley, once took an unknown way down to the third level of this station. He got lost in a
100 year old world there. People, fashion, currency and dressing were different there. Even though it was
difficult for Charley to believe what was happening, he had no other choice than believing the reality. He
thought of living there, a world behind his time, because the 1894 world was more peaceful, fragile,
innocent and secure. He tried to get two rail tickets to his hometown Galesburg; one for his wife, indeed.
But Charley failed to get the tickets as the clerk at the ticket counter suspected him and his currency
notes. Charley ran away, got out of the third level and finally reached the present world and got home.
Chapter 2-The Tiger King

1. Why did the Maharaja start out on tiger hunt?
2. What did the astrologer say when the Maharaja killed his first tiger?
3. What punishment would be inflicted on the person who would harm a tiger?
4. What dangers did the Maharaja face during his tiger hunt?
5. Was the Maharaja’s bid to save his kingdom successful? How?
6. What was the unforeseen hurdle that brought the Maharaja’s tiger-hunting mission to a standstill?
7. What was the real purpose of the Maharaja’s marriage?
8. How did the Tiger King celebrate his victory over the killing of the hundredth tiger?
9. What is the significance of the toy tiger in the story?
10. Describe the upbringing of the royal infant.
11. What did the state astrologer say when the king killed his first tiger?
12. Why did the Maharaja’s hunter shoot the hundredth tiger?
13. What was the prophecy made at Tiger King’s birth?
A13. When the Tiger King was born, the astrologers foretold that he would grow up to be a warrior of
warriors, hero of heroes and champion of champions, but one day he will have to meet his death. The
chief astrologer said that because he was born in the hour of the bull, the reason of his death would be a
tiger.
1. What actions were taken by Maharaja to escape the prophecy show his desperation?
2. The tiger king proved that ‘Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely’. Today’s political
order presents a similar picture. It is time to realise that authority and power should be used for the benefit
of the masses. Write a speech for the school assembly on this theme.
3. Attempt a character sketch of the Tiger King.
4. It is understood from the lesson ‘The Tiger King’ by Kalki that the king was surrounded by people who
obeyed him out of fear and there was a lack of good counselling from his ministers to run his kingdom for
the good of the people. How important is it to have a good council of ministers for the good governance
of the country?
5. “Even though the Maharaja lost Rs 3 Lakh, he was still happy”. Justify the statement.
6. The fascination for everything English is brought out beautifully in the lesson ‘The Tiger King’ by
Kalki. The Maharaja of Pratibandapuram is given an ‘English’ upbringing. How can love for one’s
country be inculcated against all odds?
7. The astrologers predict, “The child will grow up to become the warrior of warriors, hero of heroes,
champion of champions…” In contrast to the above statement, the Tiger King’s death is an anticlimax.
Comment.
A7. When the Tiger King was born, the astrologers predicted that the Tiger King would be valiant and
courageous but “the child born under this star will one day have to meet its death.” When the Tiger King
grew up and got to know of this prophecy, he set out on a tiger hunt. From that day onwards, the tigers in
the kingdom were under threat from the king himself. Just to disprove the prophecy and to prove himself
powerful, the Maharaja started his ruthless slaughter of tigers.
The irony was that the Maharaja, who had bravely fought and killed ninety-nine tigers, lost his life
because of a wooden inanimate tiger which he had brought as a birthday present for his son. A small
splinter of wood from the crude toy injured him and infected his entire arm, which led to his untimely
death. Thus, the hundredth tiger avenged the death of all the other tigers.
It was, undoubtedly, a trick of fate and the cruelty of the Maharaja that led to such an anticlimax.
Chapter 3- Journey to the End of the World

1. What was the Akademik Shokalsky? Where was it headed and why?
2. How does the author describe the Antarctica?
3. How did the Antartica amaze the writer when he first saw it?
4. How is present day Antarctica different from GONDWANA?
5. Why does Tishani Doshi call her two week stay in Antarctica ‘a chilling prospect’?
6. Why does one lose all earthly perspective on reaching Antarctica?
7. What sort of brightness and silence prevail in Antarctica during summer?
8. "And for humans, the prognosis is not good". Explain the situation & observation.
9. How long have the human civilizations been around? How has it affected the earth and its resources?
10. How is Antarctica a crucial element in the debate on climate change?
11. What was the objective of the ‘Student on Ice Programme’?
12. What are the reasons behind the Programme’s success?
13. How does Antarctica differ from the earth?
14. What experience did the author have near the Antarctica circle?
Q.15 What is Gondwana?
A15. Six-fifty million years ago, a super continent existed around the present day Antarctica called
Gondwana. Gondwana thrived for 500 million years. As mammals replaced the dinosaurs, the landmass
separated into countries.
1. Describe the author’s journey to the end of the Earth.
2. Describe the impact of Antarctica on the writer.
3. What are phytoplanktons? How are they important to our ecosystem?
4. “A lot can happen in a million years but what a difference a day makes”. Discuss with reference to the
lesson.
5. By whom and with what objective was the “Students on Ice” Programme started? How far has it
achieved its goals?
6. What is the significance of the title` Journey to the End of the Earth?’
A6. The title, ‘Journey to the End of the Earth,’ has more than one meaning. It describes an educational
journey to Antarctica undertaken by groups of high school students to learn more about the real impact of
Global Warming and the future of the earth. 52 students went to the coldest, driest, windiest continent in
the world called Antartica in a Russian research vessel, the Akademik Shokalskiy.. The author calls it a
journey to the end of the earth because it began 13.09 degree North of Equator in Madras, involved
crossing nine time zones, six checkpoints, three oceans and three ecospheres. She travelled over 100
hours in combination of a car, an aeroplane and a ship. The journey, being to the extreme south of the
earth, is really towards the end of it. Another meaning of this title is more significant as the warnings that
Antarctica gives are shocking and much concerning the humanity and the millions of other species on the
earth. The changes taking place in Antarctica are pointing a warning finger at the existence of the earth;
the earth is journeying to its end!
Chapter 4-The Enemy
1. What was Sadao’s father’s dream for him? How did Sadao realise it?
2. Who was Dr Sadao Hoki?
3. Describe Dr Hoki’s childhood.
4. How did Dr Sadao and Hana establish the injured man’s identity?
5. Why did Sadao decide to operate on the injured man?
6. What was the servants’ reaction towards the injured man?
7. How did the gardener react at the presence of the enemy in his master’s home?
8. How did Hana react to the servants’ decision?
9. What plan did the General suggest to get rid of the American prisoner?
10. Why did Sadao agree to the plan of eliminating Tom?
11. Did the General’s plan of eliminating the prisoner succeed? Why?
12. Why was Dr Sadao not sent to the battlefield?
13. What role did the American professor play in bringing Hana and Sadao together?
14. How did Sadao finally get rid of the wounded prisoner?
15. How can you say that Sadao respected his father very much?
Ans : The writer has very clearly indicated that Dr Sadao’s father was a very traditional and conventional
man. Sadao didn't marry Hana until he knew she was Japanese because his father wouldn't have approved
of her otherwise. The old man never let any foreign object even enter his room.
1. What conflicting ideas arise in Sadao and Hana’s mind when they bring the wounded American
soldier home? What pains did Sadao and Hana take to save the American soldier?
2. ‘Fortune favours the brave’ – Sadao had his doubts and anxieties while he helped the prisoner of
war (POW). Despite this he follows the dictates of his heart. What is courage really all about? Why
should one cultivate it?
3. What role did Hana play in saving the life of the enemy? What humanitarian values do you find
in her act?
4. Despite bias,Sadao rises above his prejudices to save a person’s life. Why is it important for us to
become tolerant as a society?
5. What was the moral dilemma that Sadao faced when he saw a wounded American soldier washed
ashore on his doorstep? How was his predicament resolved?
A5. As a patriotic citizen of Japan, Dr Sadao was duty bound to hand over the American soldier to the
Japanese police. However, Dr Sadao was a surgeon and his duty towards his profession was to save a
human life if he could do so. Dr Sadao resolved this clash of values in a creative manner. He treated the
American by operating on him to remove the bullet, thus, fulfilling his duty towards his profession.
Simultaneously, he informed the General about the presence of the American, thus fulfilling his patriotic
duty towards his country. In fact, he was reassured by the General that the American would be ‘taken care
of’ (i.e., assassinated) very soon. However, when this assurance was not backed up by any action on the
General’s part, the humanitarian aspect of the situation made Dr Sadao ‘help’ the American to escape
from his home.
Chapter 5-Should Wizard Hit Mommy
1. What was the custom followed by Jack in the evenings and for Saturday naps?
2. Why was the custom especially fatiguing on Saturday?
3. Why does Jack think that storytelling has become futile?
4. What was the basic plot of Jack’s stories?
5. Which particular animal featured in the story Jack told Jo?
6. What was Jo’s reaction at the mention of this animal?
7. What did Roger Skunk’s universal detestation remind Jack of?
8. What new phase in Jo’s life has been mentioned here?
9. Why did Roger Skunk go to the wizard?
10. How did the wise old owl and the wizard help poor Roger Skunk?
11. What mistake did Jack commit while narrating the story? Who corrected him?
12. How can you say that Jo was an attentive listener?
13. How did Roger Skunk’s life change after his meeting with the wizard?
14. Why did his mother get angry? What did she do?
15. What was Jack’s ending of the story?
16. How did Jo want the story to end? Why?
17. Why did Jack disapprove of Jo’s ending of the story?
18. What were the arguments put forth by Jo to support her ending of the story?
19. How did her father try to reason out with her?
20. Why did all other animals tease Roger Skunk?
21. Do you think parents should impose their will on their children?
22. Who is Jo? How does she respond to her father’s storytelling?
A22. Jo is the four year old daughter of Jack and Clare. Her full name is Joanne. Her father Jack tells her
stories out of his own imagination. As these stories are woven around the same basic plot, they are almost
predictable for her. However, she still listens to them very attentively. She even asks different questions
from her father, and corrects him, if he gets anything wrong.
1. Do you think Jo’s ending of the story was right? Why/Why not?
2. Jack wishes to help his wife but certain prejudice comes in the way of actually doing so. Analyse
how preconceived notions about other people will often come in the way of evolving ourselves into better
people.
3. Bring out the moral conflict in the story?
4. Jack is very influenced by his mother’s upbringing of him. He also feels that ‘mother knows best’.
Explain how and why placing trust in one’s parents is justified and rewarding?
5. Comment on Jack’s art of storytelling?
A5. Jack enjoys the art of storytelling. Every story comes out of his head, his imagination. ‘The world of
romance’ that his stories create, doesn't match with the harsh realities of his life. Jack has a basic tale.
Each new story is a slight variation of the basic tale. Jack loves his daughter very much, so he creates
special effects to keep her interest intact. He also imitates the voice of the wizard. The voice of the wizard
was one of Jack’s own favourite effects. This world created by Jack belongs to Roger Fish, Roger
Squirrel, Roger Chipmunk etc. It is the world of the wise owl and the wizard with the magic wand and of
magic spells. Jack often adds his autobiographical details to the stories. In this story Jack has chosen a
new character, Roger Skunk, who smells very bad. In Roger Skunk’s isolation, he recalls ‘certain
humiliations his own’. Roger is upset and goes to the wise owl who directs him to the wizard. The ending
made by Jack is a sad one and his daughter does not approve of it. However, since Jack’s stories are
meant to have a moral, he does not change its ending.
Chapter 6-On the Face of It
1. Why does Derry sneak into Mr Lamb’s garden?
2. Was Mr Lamb bothered by Derry’s face?
3. Why is Derry hesitant to stay in the garden?
4. How does Mr Lamb try to drive away his fear?
5. Why did the children call Mr Lamb ‘Lamey-Lamb’? Did it upset him?
6. What does Mr Lamb grow in his garden?
7. Why does Mr Lamb say that names are not important?
8. ‘I am not afraid, people are afraid of me’. Why does Derry say so?
9. What kind of attitude does Mr Lamb have towards life?
10. What were the bitter episodes in Derry’s life?
11. How is Derry’s attitude towards life a contrast to that of Mr Lamb?Why does Derry call Mr
Lamb peculiar?
12. Why is the gate of Mr Lamb’s garden always open?
13. What is Mr Lamb’s philosophy of life?
14. Why does Mr Lamb urge Derry to choose?
15. How does Derry’s mother talk about Mr Lamb?
16. What made Derry go back to Mr Lamb in the end, inspite of his mother’s objection?
17. What is Mr Lamb’s role in bringing about Derry’s transformation?
18. Who is Derry? What opinion does he hold about himself?
A18. Derry is a fourteen year old boy with one side of his face disfigured and burnt as acid fell on it. It is
because of this that Derry has no friends. He says that he is not afraid but people are afraid of him. He
loathes pity and sympathy from others because of his disfigured face. He believes that people pretend to
be sympathetic towards him but are afraid to talk about his looks because he was ugly.
1. Do you think the tragic end to Mr Lamb’s life will affect Derry in some way?
2. “I am interested in anybody, anything. There is nothing that God made that doesn't interest me”.
Explain the statement in reference to Mr Lamb’s character.
3. “Whining about anything and everything is not conducive to a positive attitude. It is your attitude
toward others that determines the resulting attitude toward you. What you think is what you get.” Derry
and Mr Lamb are victims and yet have different attitude toward life. Explain .
A3. Mr Lamb and Derry both have a different point of view towards life. The conversation between Derry
and Mr Lamb reveals their different attitudes towards life.Derry is a fourteen year old boy, half of whose
face is disfigured, as it got burnt by acid. The half-face has left him miserable. He feels unwanted. He
thinks that people think he is ugly like the devil and they are afraid of him. He gets infuriated when
people sympathise with him. All these bad experiences have made him cynical, and he has developed a
pessimistic attitude towards life.
On the other hand, Mr Lamb is a complete contrast to Derry. He doesn't let his physical disability destroy
his life. He is an optimist. He finds beauty and peace in everything. When children tease him by calling
him Lamey-Lamb, he is not offended. He feels that such a name suits him. He is full of hope and
positivity.
It is this hope and positivity of Mr Lamb that leaves an indelible imprint on Derry. Derry goes through a
metamorphosis later on, having heard Mr Lamb’s philosophy and understands the true meaning of life is
to live it to the fullest.
Chapter 7-Evans Tries An O-Level
1. What makes Evans different from typical criminals?
2. What was the unusual request that the Governor made to the Secretary of the Examinations
Board?
3. Was Evans really interested in getting some sort of academic qualification? Give reasons.
4. How was it decided to examine Evans and what arrangements were made in this regard?
5. What precautions and arrangements were made for the smooth conducting of the examination and
providing Evans with no means to escape?
6. Why did the prison officers call Evans - “Evans the Break”?
7. What information did the Governor give to the Secretary of Examinations Board about Evans?
8. Why did Jackson ask Stephens to take Evans’ razor and nail scissors out of the cell after he
finished shaving?
9. Who was Reverend Stuart McLeery? Did he really come to invigilate?
10. “Beneath all the bluster and the bullshit” a tiny core of compassion was buried somewhere in
Jackson. Justify the statement.
11. ‘Jackson found a puzzling thing in McLeery’s suitcase.’ How did McLeery explain it?
12. What were the necessary instructions that McLeery gave Evans before the examination started?
13. What was the correction slip? Why did Evans say later that the correction slip killed two birds
with a single stone?
14. Why was Stephens a little surprised to see a grey regulation blanket draped around Evans’
shoulders?
15. At 11.22 am the Governor wanted to speak to Stephens. What was the message that was
conveyed to Stephens? Was the call fake?
16. A hasty decision on Stephens’ part created all the confusion. Do you agree?
17. What roles did Evans friends play in his escape?
18. Who was the most unexpected man in the world that waited for Evans in his bedroom at the
Golden Lion?
19. How was Evans arrested?
20. What was the final act of foolishness that led to the escape of Evans and proved that the Governor
was‘just another good-for-a-giggle”?
21. Who was Evans? Describe two of his main characteristics?
A21. James Roderick Evans was ‘quite a pleasant sort of chap’. He had no record of violence. He was one
of the stars at the Christmas concert. But he was ‘just a congenital kleptomaniac.’ The prison officers
called him “Evans the Break.” Thrice he had escaped from prison.
1. The Governor in fact proved to be a gullible person. Explain
2. Evans’ friends played a crucial role in his escape. Elucidate.
3. What were the special precautions and safety measures taken by the authorities for the smooth
conduct of the O-level examination in the prison? Which of these precautions failed in their objective?
4. ‘It takes something more than intelligence to act intelligently.’ Based on the above statement,
attempt a character sketch of Evans.
A4. Evans was a young prisoner at the Oxford Prison. He was known as ‘Evans the Break’ because thrice
he had escaped from the jail.
In this story, we see a battle of patience and nerves. The Governor and his staff are outwitted by the wily
Evans. In this tug of war, Evans proves to be the natural winner. He easily slips out of the net that had
been laid to arrest him. From the very beginning, Evans was very clear about his plan of escaping; that is
why, he decided to appear for an O-level German examination. It was the only way in which he could get
out of jail. He had very smartly devised and executed his escape plan. He managed to leave fake clues and
misguide the officials causing him, including the Governor.
Even when Evans was arrested by the Governor at the Golden Lion, he devised another escape plan. The
prison van and the police officer used by the Governor to shift Evans back to the jail were fake. They
were arranged by his friends and at last, he succeeded in his plan. Finally, he was out of the jail, managing
his escape even after being caught. Evans escaped ultimately and had the last laugh.
Chapter 8-Memories of Childhood
1. Why was the white woman keeping an eye on Zitkala-Sa?
2. What was the warning given by Judewin? How did they both react to it?
3. Why did Zitkala protest?
4. What did Zitkala do to prevent the shingling of her hair?
5. What indignities did Zitakala face after parting from her mother?
6. How did she feel at last?
7. “I was one of the animals driven by a herder.” Why did the narrator deliver this statement?
8. Why did Bama cover the distance of ten minutes in half an hour?
9. What did Bama notice while coming back from school? What made her shriek with laughter?
10. What changed Bama’s laughter into anger?
11. How did Annan narrate the incident of untouchability with him?
12. What did Annan advise Bama to do? How did his words affect Bama?
13. Did Bama follow Annan’s advice?
14. How was Zitakala feeling on the first day of her school?
A14. On the first day of her school, Zitkala was extremely uncomfortable. She was wearing her new dress
when she entered the dining hall. A small bell was tapped. Thinking that they had to be seated, Zitkala
pulled out a chair and sat on it. But to her surprise everybody kept standing. She was getting up when the
second bell rang and all were seated. Finally, she could not use the knife and fork for eating and she
started crying because of her embarrassment.
1. Describe how Zitkala fought her oppressors in vain?
2. How does ‘Memories of Childhood’ bring out the plight of marginalized communities in India?
3. When did Bama learn of untouchability? How did she try to overcome it?
4. As long as men are free to ask what they must; free to say what they think; free to think what they
will and free to follow their religious beliefs–only then there exists democracy. What reforms can be
advocated in order to avert such cruelty like what Zitkala Sa and Bama experienced.
5. For people like Bama it is necessary to break the shackles that society burden them with and
come out triumphant. What should one possess /acquire to help one live without fear?
6. Harijan-Hari Jan (children of God) is what Gandhiji called the Dalits. Great stalwarts like the
Mahatma, Dr. Ambedkar and Ramanujam worked relentlessly for the upliftment of the Dalits. But,
unfortunately the caste bias still rears its ugly head in many parts of the country. What values need to be
instilled in individuals for the betterment and upliftment of the marginalized communities?
7. Seeds of rebellion are sown early in life, injustice can’t escape even the eyes of child.
Justify the statement with reference to the lesson “Memories of childhood.”
A7. The lesson ‘Memories of Childhood’ is an amalgamation of two autobiographical episodes. One by
an American Indian woman and the second by a Tamil Dalit writer. Both stories highlight the women’s
oppression, class barriers, racialism, discrimination and exploitation that tend to pull them down. Both the
stories advocate the statement that seeds of rebellion are sown early in life.
In ‘The cutting of my long hair’ the feeling of breaking free and gaining freedom are seen in the girl.
Zitkala-Sa, in the very first line reports that her first day in school was “bitter-cold”. For her, it not only
describes the weather, but also represents the atmosphere of the boarding school. Though she was a child
but she could observe the overly disciplined students of the school and its unfriendly staff. She faced
indignity & oppression since she had left her mother. She is not ready to get her hair cut, to lose her
identity. She fights till the end but is helpless as she overpowered.
Also in ‘We Too Are Human Beings’, when Bama was in class 3rd, no one had talked to her about
untouchability but still she had experienced it and could notice the difference between landlords and
Dalits.The little girl was amused to see how the old man was holding the packet but when she came to
discover the truth, she is extremely upset and criticises the ways of the rich. Through her struggle & hard
work she stands first and wins many friends. Thus, we can see that though the children are small and
innocent, they cannot tolerate injustice if they are taught early in their life.
Writing Skills
1. Short (4 Marks)
• Notices
• Advertisements
• Designing or drafting posters
• Formal and informal invitations and replies.
2. Long (6 Marks)
• Formal Letters
• Job Application
3. Very Long (2x10=20 Marks)

• Article
• Report
• Debate
• Speech
Notice
A notice is a medium to convey a message to masses together at the same time.
Distribution of Marks :
Format : Name of the Institution,. Notice, Title Date, Writer's Name with designation (1 Marks)
Contact : What, when, where, who, how, contact (2 Marks)
Expression : Overall organisation, accuracy, fluency (1 Mark)
Points to Remember:
16. Begin with Name of the issuing authority / institution / organisation/ school / society.
17. Write Notice, Heading, Date
18. Mention Purpose of notice and details of the event (date, time, venue, duration, programme).
19. Process and Chief Guest if any.
20. Other details / relevant instructions
21. Name and designation of the person issuing the notice.
22. Notice About School Activities or Events
23. The Notice should be in a Box.
NAME OF INSTITUTION/COMPANY (Center)
Dated: Day/Month/Year NOTICE (Center)
TOPIC IN CAPITAL LETTER (Center)
This is to inform all students/employees of class ----- (class Name)/this company that our school/company
is going to organise“----------------------"(topic name) on:
Date :
Time :
Venue:
The students/employees who desire to take part, please give/register their names to the undersigned.
XYZ (Left)
(Designation) (Left)
Q1. On account of heavy fog and chilly winters, your Principal has decided to extend the winter vacations
by a week. As the Head Boy/ Head Girl, draft a notice informing students of the same. (Word Limit: 50
words)
Q2. As the Activity Captain of your school, you are organising a Career Counselling Session for XI and
XII standard students of your school. Write a notice giving details of it to be displayed on your school
notice board. (Word Limit: 50 words)
Advertisements
There are two types of advertisement:
a. Classified Advertisement
b. Commercial/ Display Advertisements.
a. Classified Advertisements
Types of Classified Advertisements:

23. Situation Vacant / Wanted
24. Sale and purchase ( Property/ Vehicle/ Household & Office Goods)
25. To Let
26. Missing (Persons and Pets)
27. Lost and Found
28. Tours and Travel
29. Matrimonial Alliance
30. Obituary
31. Appeal
32. Educational
33. Change of Name/ Address/ Other Information
Distribution of Marks:
Title: Suitable heading/ classification e.g., Situation Vacant (in capitals) - (1 Mark)
Content : Subject matter including contact address, phone number - (2 Marks)
Expression :Grammatical accuracy, spelling, suitable style - (1Mark)
Format
Details Required :
• Give heading ‘WANTED’, ‘REQUIRED’, SITUATION VACANT’etc.
• Write the name of the organisation/ company, in case of ‘Situation Vacant’
• Indicate the post and number of vacancies
• State the essential qualifications and experience
• Give preferences, if any, such as age limits and gender of the candidate (if applicable)
• Other preferences/ details like pay and perks, mode of applying etc. are optional and may be included
where relevant or not obvious.
• Contact address and phone number of the advertiser is optional.
b.
Commercial/Display Advertisements:
Essential Details:
• Name/Logo of the company/institute/organisers etc.
• Details regarding the product/event/educational courses etc.
• Special offers or discounts, if any
• Address and contact details of the company/institute/organisers etc.
Q1.You want to purchase a 400 sq m or larger plot in Gomti Nagar, Lucknow, for building a bungalow.
Write a classified advertisement for the local daily giving your requirements. (50 Words)
Q2. You are HR Manager of Elephanta Software Services. You require software engineers familiar with
ERP Software Oracle with minimum 5 years’ experience. Draft a suitable classified newspaper
advertisement for the same.
Q3.You are the Creative Director of an advertising agency. Draft an attractive commercial advertisement
on behalf of Safal Toothpaste giving a visual and stating the advantages that this brand has over others.
Poster Designing
Types of Poster:
a. For awareness of a Social Problem
b. For an Event
Posters can be used for publicizing and highlighting the following :
• Cultural show/exhibitions/seminar/workshop/fair/fete etc.
• Educational institutions and students’ activities
• Promoting sales of a product or service
• Influencing public opinion
• Advancing a social cause, etc.
Points to be kept in mind while designing a Poster:
• A poster is designed to be put up at a public place, so it should be designed in such a way that it
catches the attention of the passer by.
• A poster should have bigger/bold/capital letters because it is read by the public from a distance.
• A poster should not have any extra or irrelevant matter.
• A poster can be made catchy by using phrases, slogans and attractive language.
Q1. Repeated floods in

various flood prone areas in
India have resulted in
unprecedented damage and
destruction to both life and property. Educating people on the precautions to be taken is the need of the
hour. Design a poster for creating this awareness.
Q2. MTV roadies is going to conduct auditions for its new season. Create an attractive poster announcing
the auditions.
Formal and Informal Invitations and replies.
1. Formal Invitation: Card Type

Value Points :
• Formal invitations don't include the name of the addressee
• Are always written in third person—he, she or it are used in place of I, you or we
• The occasion, name of the invitee, name of the host, date, day, time, venue etc., are written in proper
sequence
• Some more details like name, designation, address etc., of organiser, sponsor or host should be
included
• If a VIP is invited, then the name of that VIP should appear prominently
• No abbreviations for guest names, titles, days and dates
• Subject matter in center setting.
• Other details like the address, RSVP, dress code, instructions may be placed either to the left or to the
right, whichever seems more suitable.
• A route map for reaching the venue may be given at the back of the card, if required.
2. Formal Invitation, Letter Format:
Sarvodaya Public School

E-7 New Model town
Mumbai-411041
12th August, 2018
Mr P K Singh
District Magistrate
Civil Lines
Mumbai-411001
Subject : Invitation for Annual Sports Day
Sir
It is a matter of great pride that our school is celebrating its 25th Annual Sports Day on 25th
September, 2018 from 10 am at the school ground. We shall consider it a great favour if you could
grace the occasion by presiding over the function as the Chief Guest and give away the prizes.
Soliciting a line in reply or an e-mail at sarvodayaacademy@gmail.com
Yours Sincerely
Principal
Sarvodaya Public School
The format of formal invitation is the same as that of a formal letter.
1. Formal Replies :
a. Acceptance (Formal)
Date
Mrs Suman and Mr Sushil Goel accept the kind invitation of Mrs and Mr Rakesh Verma with pleasure
and confirm their presence at dinner on Sunday, 25th October, 2018 at their residence.
Best Wishes
Goels
b. Refusal (Formal)
12th January,201X
Mrs. and Mr. M.N. Malviya thank Mrs. and Mr. Chawala for inviting them on the occasion of the 5th
birthday of their son, Rahul on Monday, 28th January, 201X at Konark Hotel. They regret that they will
not be able to attend the function due to a prior engagement.
Best wishes
Malviyas
2. Informal Invitations:
Informal invitations are just personal letter written to friends or relatives. Their style is relaxed and
informal and can include personal feelings and emotions.
417/2 Janakpuri
New Delhi
18th September, 2018
Dear Manav
You know that Diwali is approaching. It gives me great pleasure to invite you to Diwali
celebrations at my residence. We shall have great fun. Do join us for the ‘Puja’and Diwali
celebrations.
Yours Affectionately
Sooraj
2. Informal Replies:
In informal replies, simple language is used and the invitation is acknowledged in first or second person.
Acceptance is communicated or refusal is regretted with a specific reason.
Q1. Your school is organising the Annual Day next month in one of the prestigious auditoriums of your
city. Draft an invitation in not more than 50 words giving all essential details. Do not forget to include
necessary instructions against bringing mobile phones and cameras.
Q2. You are Aakash/Varsha. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s sister during
summer vacation. Respond to the invitation, regretting your inability to accept the invitation.
Formal Letters
There are different kinds of Formal Letters:
A. Business Letters
• Making enquiries/asking for information
• Replying to enquiries/giving information
• Placing orders and sending replies
• Cancelling orders
• Letters registering complaints
B. Official letters:
• Registering complaints
• Making inquiries
• Making request/appeals
C. Letters to the Editor
• Giving suggestions on issues of public interest
• Expressing views on an issue already raised in an article/write up/in a published letter
D. Letters of Job Application
Distribution of Marks :
Format: 1 Mark
Content: 3 Marks
Expression: 2 Marks
a. Making Request Sample:

b Letter to editor sample
c. Format of Bio-Data
a. Formal Letter, addressed to the prospective employer, expressing your interest in the vacant
position. Briefly describe yourself and why you are suitable for the said job. Mention that you
have enclosed your bio-data with the letter.
BIO-DATA
Name-
Father’s Name-
Mother’s Name
Date of Birth-
Contact No.-
Email ID-
Languages Known
Marital Status-
Educational Qualifications-
Work Experience-
References-
Article Writing
What is an article?
An article
• is a piece of writing usually intended for publication in a newspaper, magazine or journal
• is written for a wide audience, so it is essential to attract and retain the readers’ attention
• may include amusing stories, reported speech and descriptions
• can be formal or informal, depending on the target audience

• should be written in an interesting or entertaining manner
• should give opinions and thoughts, as well as facts
• is in a less formal style than a report
An article can
• describe an experience, event, person or place
• present an opinion or balanced argument
• compare and contrast
• provide information
• offer suggestion
An article should consist of:

1. an eye-catching title which attracts the readers’ attention and suggests the theme of the article. (Think
about why you read a magazine or newspaper article recently - what made you read it?) Articles can also
have subheadings before each paragraph.
2. an introduction which clearly defines the topic to be covered and keeps the reader’s attention
3. the main body of two to five paragraphs in which the topic is further developed in detail
4. the conclusion - summarising the topic or a final opinion, recommendation or comment
Format
Title
Writer’s Name
Para 1- Brief introduction
Para 2- Analysis of the topic in terms of
Types
Consequences
Causes
Good/bad aspects
Related information
Para 3- Implications-social/environmental/psychological/health related
Para 4- Concluding Para- suggestions
Q1. Write an article in about 120 words highlighting the stressful conditions in which students live and
suggest steps to improve the situation. You may use the points below along with your own ideas.
* Extremely busy schedule-academic pressure, difficult assignments, games
*Parents' high expectations
*Peer pressure
*Little time for relaxation
*Remedies- * Time Management
* Balance between work and other activities
* Learning the art of stress busting
Q2. Write an article on the topic- 'Mobile phones:a modern utility or a health hazard' (120 words).
Debate
A debate is a formal contest of argumentation in which two opposing teams defend and attack a given
proposition. It is a persuasive manner of speaking with the aim of converting the view of another person,
or an audience, to your own point of view. In this speech, the speaker speaks either for or against the issue
being discussed.
Format
• Salutation : Address the jury and the audience properly
• Introduction : Begin with a quotation, question or interesting statistics
• Stating the stand : Make your stand very clear from the very beginning
• Main points : Highlight the main points very emphatically
• Develop points : Substantiate them with relevant examples, statistics, etc
• Conclusion : State your own opinion or view in the concluding lines to emphasise your stand on the
issue
Points to remember
• Open by addressing the audience with ‘Respected chairperson, members of the jury, and dear friends’,
or begin with a simple ‘Good morning, ladies and gentlemen’.
• Begin the first paragraph by making your stand clear, that is, mention ‘the motion tabled before the
house is …’ and state whether you’re speaking ‘strongly in favour of’… or ‘firmly against…’ the issue.
• Develop 3–4 good points in support of your stand and negate at least two points of your opponent.
• Try to give a strong example with your best point.
• Language structures used should be specific to a debate.
• At least one point could be built up by asking a series of questions for more effective presentation. For
example, instead of making a statement such as ‘class room teaching methods even today are often
mundane and boring…’, it would be more effective if the point was conveyed thus— ‘In today’s
technology-driven world, may I ask why classroom teaching methods are still so mundane and boring?’
• Conclude with your strongest point and reiterate your stand once again.
Q1. Prepare a debate for or against the motion in 150-200 words, ‘The advent of technology like the
internet and computers means the end of books.’
Q2. You are chosen for representing your school at the regional level inter-school debate contest. Prepare
a debate in 150-200 words for the same on the topic given below: ‘Newspapers ought to contain more
news and fewer advertisements.’
Speech
A speech is meant to convey one’s thoughts or opinions, share information with or spread awareness
among a large number of people. A good speech has clarity of thought and expression, accuracy of facts
and an unbiased view of issues.
Format
• Beginning : A pre-speech note : Salutation : Occasion of speech : Announcement of topic
• Development of topic : Reference to newspapers statistics, effects and results, arguments, etc
• Winding up : Summing up of all points
• Conclusion : Conclude with a hope or an appeal or a warning : End with a ‘Thank You’
Points to remember
• It is very important to hold the attention of the audience. Therefore, keep the speech to the point and
appealing.
• Start the speech with an interesting bit of information, a question or a quotation.
• Convey your opinions and views in an organised and coherent manner.
• Develop each point properly and then move on to the next one.
• Provide examples, statistics and facts that are properly researched and authentic.
• Interact with the audience by posing questions and including some humour, if it is appropriate.
• End with an emphasis on your point of view and personal inferences so that the audience thinks about
what you have expressed.
• Always thank the audience for listening to you before leaving the stage.
Q1. You have lately read the account of many cases of violent behaviour by school children. Some
instances have been quite injurious and harmful to the victims. You are shocked by these accounts and
decide to share your views with your schoolmates. Prepare a speech in 150-200 words for the morning
assembly on the topic ‘Growing violence in children: Causes and cures’.
Q2. Media has a strong hold on society. Write a speech in 150-200 words on how media influences public
opinion to be delivered in the school assembly.
Report
A report is a systematic and well organised presentation of facts and findings of an event that has already
taken place somewhere. It is written for a specific readership and intended to be kept as a record. A good
report includes the following:
• The record of a sequence of events
• Interpretation of the significance of these events
• Evaluation of facts
• Discussion of the outcomes of a decision or course of action
• Conclusions
• Recommendations
Kinds of report
• Newspaper report
• School magazine report
Format of Newspaper
Headline
Name of the reporter
Place, Date, Day:
1st Para- Opening paragraph (expansion of the headline)
2nd Para- Detailed description of the event/happening
3rd Para- Remarks of the witness/people present at the event
4th Para- Action taken so far/will be taken
Format of School Magazine Report
Heading
By ____
1st Para- What/Where/When/for Whom/Who is invited
2nd Para- Sequence of events to be described
3rd Para- Quote excerpts from Chief Guest’s Speech and Conclusion
Q1. Scholastic India Ltd. organised a one day workshop on creative writing in your school to promote
writing skills. As the Literary captain of your school, write a report to be published in the school
magazine. You are Rohit/Radha.
Q2. A massive fire due to short circuit gutted 50 shops in the congested area of Sadar Bazar, Delhi,
leading to loss of life and property. As a reporter with the Times of India, write a report for the newspaper
in 150-200 words.
Class: XII
Subject: Economics
PART A- MACROECONOMICS
UNIT 1-NATIONAL INCOME AND RELATED AGGREGATES
Very short answers-(1 mark)
1. How can the problem of double counting be avoided?

2. State the components of operating surplus.
3. Are exports included in NFIA? Explain.
Short answers- (3/4 marks)
4. Classify the following as stocks and flows. Give reason for your answer.
a. Savings
b. Capital
c. Population of India as per 2011 census reports.
d. Capital formation
5. What are the steps involved in calculation of National Income by Value Added method?
6. State any three precautions to be taken while calculating National Income by Income method.
7. Explain the circular flow of income in a two-sector model of an economy.
8. Distinguish between consumer and capital goods. Which of these are final goods?
9. Machine purchased is always a final good. Do you agree? Give reason in support of your
answer.
Ans. No, machine purchased is not always a final product. Whether it is a final or an intermediate
good depends on its usage.
• Machine purchased by households is a final good because it is meant for final consumption.
• If the machine is bought by a firm for its own use, then also it is considered as a final good
because it is meant for investment.
• If machine is purchased for resale, then it is an intermediate product. 10. Differentiate between
Nominal and Real GDP.
11. Explain how ‘externalities’ are a limitation of taking gross domestic product as an
index of welfare.
Ans. Externalities are the good and bad impact of an activity without paying the price or penalty
for it. Example: Positive externalities occur when a park maintained by the government raises
welfare of public for which they are not paying anything. There is no valuation of it in the
estimation of GDP. Negative externalities occur when air and water pollution is caused by
industries. Environmental pollution causes a loss of social welfare. Impact of positive or negative
externalities is not accounted in the index of social welfare in terms of GDP.
12. In determination of social welfare, what matters is the quantum of domestic product and not its
composition. Defend or refute.
Numericals - (3/4 marks)

13. The value of nominal GNP of an economy is `2,500 crores and that of Real GNP is`
3,000 crores. Calculate the value of GNP deflator.
14. Suppose a country produces only commodity A. In the year 2017, 1000 units of the
commodity were produced, price of A being `10 per unit. In the base year 2015, the
price of commodity A was `8 per unit. What is the value of the price index?
15. Find NVAMP of a firm
S.No Items (ìn lakhs)
i. Fixed capital good with a life span of 5 years 15

ii. Raw materials 6
iii. Sales 25
iv. Net change in stock (-)2
v. Taxes on production 1
(NVAMP =
` 14 lakhs)
16. Calculate intermediate consumption of the firm from the given data;
i. Value of output 200
ii. NVAFC 80
iii. Customs Duty 15
iv. Consumption of fixed capital 20
v. Rent 5
(Intermediate consumption= `85 lakhs)
17. Calculate sales from the following data;
i. Subsidies 200
ii. Opening stock 100
iii. Closing stock 600
iv. Intermediate consumption 3000
v. Depreciation 700
vi. Profit 750
vii. Net value added at factor cost 2000
viii. Exports 100
(Sales= `5000 lakhs)
18. Calculate gross fixed capital formation from the following data;
i. Private final consumption expenditure 1000
ii. Government final consumption expenditure 500
iii. Net exports (-)50
iv. Net factor income from abroad 20
v. Gross domestic product at market price 2500
vi. Opening stock 300
vii. Closing stock 200
(GFCF= `1150 lakhs)
Long answers-(6 marks)
19. State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
a. Japanese Ambassador staying in India for a period ofmore than one year will be treated
as a resident of India.
b. Nominal GDP can never be less than Real GDP.
c. Air conditioner purchased by a consumer is a part of gross domestic fixed capital
formation.
a. National income is a stock concept.
b. National income at market price is always greater than national income at factor cost.
c. Expenditure on purchase of second-hand plant and machinery from abroad is a part of
Gross domestic capital formation.
21. Giving reasons classify the following into intermediate products and final products.
a. Furniture purchased by a school.
b. Chalks, dusters, etc. purchased by a school.
c. Computers installed in an office.
a. Mobile sets purchased by a mobile dealer.
b. Expenditure on maintenance of an office building.
c. Expenditure on adding a floor to the building.
a. Insurance premium paid by households to an insurance company.
b. Advertising expenditure incurred by JIO on promotion of its products.
c. Expenditure on fertilizers by a farmer.
24. Giving reasons, explain how the following will be treated while estimating national
income.(2 marks each)
a. Social security contributions by employees
b. Pension paid after retirement.
c. Payment of interest on borrowings by general government.
d. Festival gift to employees.
e. Government expenditure on street lighting.
f. Souvenirs purchased by the foreigners from Delhi.
g. Services rendered by family members to each other.
h. Commission received on sale of a second hand car by the dealer.
i. Purchase of machinery by a factory.
j. Expenditure on purchase of shares of a company.
k. Interest payment on loan taken by an individual to buy a car.
l. Interest received on debentures.
m. Expenditure by the government on scholarships to students.
n. Payment of claim by LIC to an injured worker.
o. Free uniform provided to nurses by the hospital.
25. Giving reasons, explain how the following are treated while estimating domestic income.
a. Salaries paid to Russian workers working in Indian embassy in Russia.
b. Rent paid by Japanese embassy in India to an Indian resident.
c. Profits earned by a branch of an Indian bank in England.
d. Remittance from non-resident Indians to their families in India.
e. Rent received by an American resident from a building located in India.
f. Profits earned by branch of an American bank in India.
Numericals - (6 marks)
26. Calculate National Income by

i. Production method
ii. Expenditure method
S.No Items (ìn crores)
i. GVAMP by Primary sector 300
ii. Private final consumption expenditure 750
iii. Consumption of fixed capital 150
iv. Net indirect tax 120
v. GVAMP by Secondary sector 200
vi. Net domestic fixed capital formation 220
vii. Change in stocks (-20)
viii. GVAMP by Tertiary sector 700
ix. Net imports 50
x. Government final consumption expenditure 150
xi. Net factor income from abroad 20
(NY=`950 Crores)
27. Calculate NNPMP from the given data;
S.No Items (ìn crores)
i. Undistributed profit 20
ii. Compensation of employees 800
iii. Rent 300
iv. Dividend 100
v. Royalty 40
vi. Net current transfers to abroad (-)30
vii. Corporation tax 50
viii. Interest 400
ix. Depreciation 70
x. Net factor income from abroad (-)10
xi. Net indirect tax 60
(NNPMP= `1760 crores)
28. Calculate
a. National income
b. Compensation of Employees
S.No Items (ìn Crores)
i. Royalty 15
iii. Net current transfers From ROW 20
iv. Government final consumption expenditure 100
v. Net factor income from abroad (-)10
vi. Net domestic capital formation 80
vii. Consumption of fixed capital 50
viii. Net exports 40
ix. Net indirect taxes 60
x. Employer’s contribution to social security schemes 90
xi. Rent 180
xii. Interest 120
xiii. Profit 85
(NY= ₹550 crores, compensation of employees= `150 crores)
29. Calculate NNPFC from the following data:

i. Factor income from abroad 15
iii. Consumption of fixed capital 50
iv. Government final consumption expenditure 200
v. Net current transfers to abroad (-)5
vi. Net domestic fixed capital formation 110
vii. Net factor income to abroad 10
viii. Net imports (-)20
ix. Net indirect tax 70
x. Change in stocks (-)10
(NNPFC=`840 lakhs)
30. Calculate GNPFC from the following data:

i. Rent 200
ii. Net factor income to abroad 10
iii. National debt interest 15
iv. Wages and salaries 700
v. Depreciation 10
vi. Undistributed profit 20
vii. Corporate tax 30
viii. Interest 150
ix. Social security contributions by employers 100
x. Net indirect tax 23
xi. Net current transfers to rest of the world 5
xii. Dividends 50
(GNPFC= `1250 lakhs)
31. Calculate NVAFC for a firm:

S.No Items (` in crores)
i. Domestic sales 1000
ii. Subsidies 10
iii. Purchase of raw materials and other inputs 360
iv. Depreciation 45
v. Exports 500
vi. Import of raw materials 60
vii. Increase in stock 120
viii. Net indirect tax 30
Ans.
i.Domestic sales + 1000
v.exports +500
=Total sales 1500
+vii. Change in stock +120
=Value of output 1620 -360
-iii. purchase of raw materials and other
inputs
=GVAMP 1260 -45
-v. Depreciation
=NVAMP 1215 -30
-viii. Net indirect taxes
=NVAFC 1185
(NVAFC=`1185 crores)
ASSERTION and REASONING

ASSERTION (A):
Domestic income of a country can be more than its National income.
REASONING (R):
It is possible when factor income paid abroad is more than factor income received from abroad.
Alternatives:
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Ans: (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
ASSERTION (A):
Purchase of a car always means the purchase of a final good.
REASONING (R):
It depends on the end-use of the car. If it is purchased by a household, it is a final good. It is like
a consumer durable, If it is purchased by taxi.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A)
Assertion (A)
Ans: (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

CASE STUDY-
Consumption is the final aim of all economic activities. But it must be preceded by production,
distribution and exchange. National income is the final outcome of all economic activities of a
nation. In India, a systematic measurement of National income was first attempted in 1949. Now
the task of estimating national income is performed by CSO in its publication Estimates of
National income. National income may be considered of a closed economy or an open economy.
National income is the aggregate money value of all goods and services produced in a country
during one year. The factor income is produced by factors of production and hence distributed
between them. However, it should be noted that what is produced is more important.
1. Which of the following are economic activities?

(a) Distribution (b) Production
(c) Consumption (d) All of the above
2.What is the full form of CSO
(a) Central service organisation (b) Central Statistics office
(c) Central statistical organisation (d) Country service organisation
3. What is the need for the study of national income?
(i) To measure the size of the economy
(ii) To measure the level of economic performance of the country
(iii) To make international comparison of peoples living standard
(iv) To help government to formulate plans and policies to increase growth rate
(a) i,ii,and iv (b) ii,iii,and iv
(c) i,iii and iv (d) All of the above
4. In a closed economy _________ is not included.
(a) Household (b) Firms
(c) Government (d) Foreign sector
ANSWERS:
1. (d) All of the above
2. (c) Central statistical organisation
3. (d) All of the above
4. (d) Foreign sector
UNIT 2- MONEY AND BANKING

1. What are the two components of money supply?

2. Which ratio determines the maximum amount of credit that commercial banks can create?
3. What is SLR? State any two ways in which SLR can be maintained by the banks.
4. What would be the impact of a rise in the repo rate on the aggregate demand in the
economy?
Ans. A rise in the repo rate would result in low demand for credit as interest rates will rise and
consequently aggregate demand will fall.
5. Nameany twomethods used by RBIfor qualitative credit control?
6. What is meant by the term ‘margin requirement’ by the commercial banks?
7. Who issues rupee one notes and coins in India?
8. What would be the likely impact of demonetisation of 500 and 1000 rupee notes on the credit
creation capacity of commercial banks?
9. What is reverse repo rate?
10. What is the difference between bank rate and repo rate?
11. How do demand deposits differ from time deposits?

12. Explain the ‘Banker to the government’ function of the central bank.
13. What is the difference between quantitative and qualitative credit control?
14. How can the RBI use open market operations to combat deficient demand in the
economy? 15. How does a change in CRR impact money supply in the economy?
16. In what three capacities is the Central bank regarded as the ‘Banker to commercial banks’?
17. Recently, RBI increased the Repo rate by 25 basis points to 6.25 %. Analyse the economic
value of this statement in context of consumption and investment expenditure in the
economy.
Ans. An increase in the repo rate followed by an increase in the market rate of interest will
increase in the cost of borrowings and is expected to reduce borrowings for the purchase of
consumer durables (by households) and for investment purpose (by the producers).
18. Explain how ‘Jan–DhanYojna’ help in increasing money supply in the economy by
the commercial banks.
Ans. Jan-DhanYojna helped in creating primary deposits with the commercial banks.
Consequently, there is a rise in the credit creating capacity of the commercial banks.
Numericals-(3/4 marks)
19. Calculate the value of total deposits created, if the initial deposit is of ₹1,500 crores and
LRR is 12.5%.
Ans. Total deposits= Initial deposit X Money multiplier
= 1,500 X 8 = `12,000 crores

20. If the total deposits created by commercial banks are `25,000 crores and the primary deposit is`
2,500 crores, what is the value of money multiplier and reserve ratio?
22. Explain the process of credit creation by the commercial banks.

23. Explain any two instruments of quantitative credit control used by the RBI to combat inflation in
the economy.
a. CRR implies higher capacity of commercial banks to create credit.
b. In order to increase money supply in the economy, the RBI should increase the margin
Higher requirements.
c. If the commercial banks buy government securities, their capacity to create credit is
reduced.

ASSERTION (A):
Jan -dhan-yojana has increased the credit creation in the economy by the commercial banks.
REASONING (R):
The primary deposits increased due to which more secondary deposits could be created.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A)
Assertion (A)
Case Study
‘RBI Monetary Policy 2021: The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Monetary Policy Committee
(MPC) kept the repo rate unchanged at 4 per cent while maintaining an ‘accommodative
stance’ as long as necessary to mitigate the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic, RBI Governor
Shaktikanta Das said on Friday.’ -The Indian Express,
June 5,2021
1.Define the term ‘repo rate’.

2. Why has the RBI recommended to keep the repo rate at a low level? What mpact will it have
on the economy?
3. Name any two more monetary measures that the RBI can adopt to stabilise the economy.
UNIT 3- DETERMINATION OF INCOME AND EMPLOYMENT
1. Differentiate between autonomous and induced consumption.

2. What is the significance of a 45° line in determination of equilibrium level of output?
Ans. Any point on 45° line shows equality between aggregate demand and aggregate supply. i.e.
AD=AS
3. What is the value of MPC when MPS is 0.2?
4. What does a linear consumption function say about the MPC?
5. Can the value of APC be greater than one?
6. Can the value of APS be negative?
7. How is aggregate demand different from market demand in an economy?
8. What happens if ex-ante i.e. planned spending is less than planned output?
Ans. When planned spending is less than planned output, it means that the consumers and firms
are buying less than what firms are producing. Consequently, unplanned increased inventories of
unsold goods occur. Due to a rise in inventories the producer will reduce production resulting in a
fall in the level of employment and income till equilibrium is reached.
9. ‘Full Employment does not mean a situation of zero unemployment.’ Explain.
Ans. Full Employment is a situation in which all those who want to work at the existing wage
rate get work. In this situation there is no involuntary unemployment but voluntary
unemployment can exist.
10. How can savings curve be derived from the consumption curve?
a. Lower the value of MPS, lower the value of investment multiplier.
b. The lowest value of investment multiplier is zero.
c. The value of APC is equal to zero at break-even point.
12. Using saving and investment approach explain how an economy reaches equilibrium.
13. An economy is facing inflationary pressures. How can the monetary authority of
India use bank rate policy to ease the situation?
Ans. Bank rate is the rate at which Central Bank lends funds to commercial banks. If bank
rate increases cost of borrowing from RBI increases so banks borrow less which reduces their
credit giving ability. Banks also increase lending rates. This discourages businessmen from
taking loans. This reduces volume of credit and money supply and results in a decline in the
aggregate demand.
14. Explain deficient demand/ deflationary gap/ underemployment equilibrium? How

can the government use fiscal tools to correct the situation of deficient demand in the
economy?
Ans. Deficient Demand is a situation, where aggregate demand is less than aggregate supply
(AD<AS)at the level of full employment. It creates deflationary gap. At the full employment
level of output AD <AS. (explain using diagram). Government can use the following fiscal
measures to correct the situation of deficient demand:
• Decrease taxes
• Increase government expenditure and subsidies.
15. An investment of `100 crores in the economy would result in a manifold increase in the
national income. Justify using suitable schedule.
Numericals-(6 marks)
16. The savings function of an economy is S= -200 +0. 25Y.The economy is in equilibrium
when income is equal to `2000. Calculate:
a. Investment expenditure at equilibrium level of income
b. Autonomous consumption
c. Investment multiplier
(Ans. a. At equilibrium level, investment =`300

b. Autonomous consumption is` 200
c. Investment multiplier=4)
17. Calculate MPC and APS from the given information.

INCOME 0 20 40 60
SAVING -12 -6 0 6
(Ans: MPC: --, 0.70, 0.70, 0.70; APS:--, 0.30, 0.00, 0.10)
18. Complete the following table.

Income Consumption MPS APC
0 15 - -
50 50 - -
100 85 - -
150 120 - -
(Ans: MPS: --, 0.30, 0.30, 0.30; APS: --, 1.00, 0.85, 0.80)
19. As a result of increase in investment, national income rises by `600 crores. If marginal
propensity to consume is 0.75, calculate the increase in investment.
(Ans: `150 crores)
20. In an economy, the actual level of income is `500 crores, whereas, the full employment
level of income is `800 crores. If one-fourth of additional income is saved, calculate the
increase in investment required to achieve full employment level
of income.(Ans: `75 crores)
21. In an economy, the equilibrium level of income is `12,000 crores. The ratio of MPC and
MPS is 3:1. Calculate the additional investment required to reach a new equilibrium level of
income of `20,000 crores. (Ans: `2,000 crores)
22. In an economy, the equilibrium level of income is `5,000 crores. The autonomous
consumption expenditure is `250 crores and investment expenditure is` 1,000 crores.
Calculate:
a. Consumption expenditure at equilibrium level of income
b. MPS
c. Savings function
d. Investment multiplier
e. Break-even level of income
(Ans. a. At equilibrium level, consumption expenditure = `4,000 crores; MPS = 0.25;
Savings function = -250 +0.25Y; Investment multiplier=4; break-even level of income
= `1,000 crores)
ASSERTION (A):
The value of MPC is higher for the developed nations as compared to the developing nations
REASONING (R):
The Break-even point occurs when the saving in an economy is zero.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
Case Study
State-owned Indian Oil Corporation on Monday said it has signed up an investment pact for
adding petrochemical and lube plants to its previously announced plan to expand crude oil
processing capacity at its Koyali refinery at Vadodara in Gujarat. Expanding refining capacity
by 4.3 million tonnes per annum to 18 million tonnes and adding plants to produce 500,000
tonnes per annum of polypropylene and 2,35,000 tonnes of lube oil base stock at the site
would see total investment of about Rs 24,000 crore. Economic Times
1.The impact of fresh investment of Rs 24,000 crore is likely to increase the national income
by several times more than this amount. Which economic concept is being referred to here?
2.In the situation of Deficient aggregate demand what two fiscal tools are available to the
government to rectify the situation?
3.If the value of MPC is 0 then the increase in national income will be -----------(equal to/
greater than/lesser than ) thee increase in investment
UNIT 4 - GOVERNMENT BUDGET AND THE ECONOMY
1. What is the difference between fiscal deficit and interest payment called?
2. What does a zero primary deficit indicate?
3. Which type of budget helps to maintain price stability during inflation in the economy?
4. Which budget is considered conducive for growth of developing economies?
5. What does revenue deficit indicate?
Ans. Revenue deficit implies that the government is borrowing to maintain its consumption
expenditure.
6. Define tax.
7. Give an example of non- debt creating capital receipt.
8. Explain with the help of examples, the distinction between direct tax and indirect tax.
9. Find out the value of total receipts of government budget if budget deficit is `2,000
crores and the total expenditure is `5,000 crores.
Ans. Budget deficit =Total Expenditure- Total receipts
Thus Total Receipts = `3,000 crores
10. What will be the value of fiscal deficit if primary deficit is `50,000 crores and interest
on borrowings is `5,000 crores?
Ans. Fiscal deficit = Primary deficit + Interest Payment
= `50,000 + `5,000
= `55,000
11. In a government budget, revenue deficit is `45,000 crores and borrowings are `75,000
crores. How much are the fiscal deficits?
12. The government aims to provide subsidised electricity to firms operating in rural areas and
policies for skill formation and digitalisation of rural areas of the country. Which budgetary
objectives does it try to achieve through this provision? Ans. Balanced regional development and
inclusive growth
13. Imposing heavy taxes on cigarettes and providing subsidies on production of khadi
help in achieving which budgetary objective?
Ans. Reallocation of resources
14. When does public debt cause inflationary trends in the economy?
15. Other things remaining constant, what will be the impact of an upward revision in the pay
scale of government employees on the revenue deficit of the government?
16. What will be the impact of demonetisation of 500 and 1,000 rupee notes by the government
on its fiscal deficit?
17. What is the economic value behind implementation of progressive rate of taxation?
18. Revenue deficit can be managed through borrowings and disinvestment but fiscal deficit can
be met only through borrowings. Do you agree? Give reason.
19. ‘There can be fiscal deficit even without revenue deficit’. Do you agree? Give reason in
support of your answer.
20. Differentiate between revenue expenditure and capital expenditure. Give an example of
each.
21. Is fiscal deficit always inflationary in nature?
22. What will happen to aggregate demand when the government budget is in deficit? Ans. A
deficit budget increases the aggregate demand because it means that the government expenditure
is more than the amount of receipts resulting in increase in money supply in the economy.
23. Differentiate between tax revenue and non-tax revenue and state two examples of each
Ans. Tax revenue is the revenue that arises on account of taxes levied by the government. For
example, income tax, corporate tax, whereas indirect taxes are the taxes levied on the production
and sale of goods like GST, custom duty. Non- tax revenue is revenue that arises on account of
the administrative function of the government. It includes fees, fines and penalties etc.
24. Government provides food grains to BPL population at nominal rates. What is the
economic value behind this government expenditure?
Ans. Redistribution of Income: Every economy strives to attain a society, where inequality of
income and wealth is the minimum. In order to achieve this objective through the government
spends money on social security schemes, providing economic subsidies etc.
Numericals-(3/4 marks)
25. From the following data calculate

a. Revenue deficit
b. Fiscal deficit
c. Primary deficit
S.No PARTICULARS (` in crores)
1. Tax revenue 49
2. Non tax revenue 10
3. Borrowings 30
4. Revenue expenditure 90
5. Interest payments 20
6. Capital expenditure 35
26. From the following data about a government budget, find

a. Revenue deficit
b. Fiscal deficit
c. Primary deficit
S.No PARTICULARS (ìn crores)
1. Capital receipts net of borrowings 95
2. Revenue expenditure 100
3. Revenue Receipts 80
4. Interest payments 10
5. Capital expenditure 110
a. Capital expenditure reduces capital stock of the economy.
b. A regressive tax causes a greater real burden on the rich.
c. A persistent recessionary trend in the economy results in a fall in the revenue receipts of
the government.
28. Categorise the following government expenditures into revenue and capital expenditure.
Give reasons for your answer.
a. Construction of highways
b. Repayment of loans
c. Salary paid to government employees
29. Categorise the following government receipts into revenue and capital receipts. Give
reasons for your answer.
a. Disinvestment of a public sector undertaking.
b. Borrowings from public.
c. Profits earned bySAIL.
Ans. a. It is a capital receipt as it results in a reduction of assets.
b. It is a capital receipt as it creates a liability.
c.It is a revenue receipt as it neither creates a liability nor reduces any asset.
30. Categorise the following government receipts into revenue and capital receipts. Give
reasons for your answer.
a. Income tax received by government
b. Recovery of loans
c. Special assessment
31. Categorise the following government expenditures into revenue and capital expenditure.
Give reasons for your answer.
a. Subsidies
b. Grants given to state governments
c. Purchase of defence equipment from Germany
Ans. a. It is revenue expenditure as it neither creates any asset nor reduces liability.
b. It is revenue expenditure as it neither creates any asset nor reduces liability.
c. It is a capital expenditure as it increases asset of the government.
ASSERTION (A):
The Government cannot ask the RBI to print fresh currency to finance its expenditure.
REASONING (R):
The Fiscal deficit increases whenever the government needs to spend more than its total
receipts as has happened during the Corona pandemic.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A)
of Assertion (A)
Case Study
‘The first time since the Covid-19 pandemic hit India, central govt departments and
ministries would be cutting down expenses on heads like overtime allowance and rewards,
etc by 20%.
The Union government has ordered curbs on wasteful/avoidable expenditure which would
impact among many things, perks like overtime allowance of the employees.’
India Today Magazine
1. What is the objective of the Government move with reference to the Government budget?
2. What can be the consequence if the total expenditures of the government exceed the total
receipts?
3. If the entire amount of borrowings were made to cover previous interest payments what
can be said about Primary deficit for that fiscal year?
UNIT 5 - BALANCE OF PAYMENTS

1. What does a change in the market value of US dollar from ₹60 to ₹45 indicate in terms
of Indian currency?
Ans. Indian currency has appreciated.
2. The market price of US dollar has increased considerably leading to a rise in the rupee value
of imports of essential commodities. What can RBI do to ease the situation?
3. What does a deficit in balance of trade account indicate?
4. What does a deficit in BOP account indicate?
5. Give any one point of difference between depreciation and devaluation of currency.
6. Distinguish between ‘balance of current account’ and ‘balance of trade’.
Ans. Balance on current account includes transactions of visible items, invisible items and
unilateral transfers whereas balance of trade includes only visible items of trade.
It is defined as the difference between export of goods and import of goods.
Balance of Trade = Export of visible items – Imports of visible items
7. The balance of trade shows a deficit of `600 crores, the value of exports is`1000 crores.
What is the value of imports?
Ans: Balance of Trade = Exports of goods – import of goods
Import of good = Export of goods – (B.O.T) =
1000- (-600) = `1600.
8. Give any two points of difference between autonomous and accommodating transactions.
9. What will be the likely impact of a rise in the value of foreign exchange on the import of
goods in India?
10. What will be the impact of an increase in foreign investments in India on the BOP of the
country?
11. Import substitution can help in reducing current account deficit. Do you agree? Give reason.
12. How will the remittances by non- resident Indians to their families in India affect the supply
curve of foreign exchange?
13. State any two factors that explain expansion of demand for a foreign currency in
response to a fall in its price.
Ans. When foreign currency depreciates (i.e. rupee appreciates), we get more units of foreign
currency per unit of rupee. Consequently, foreign goods and services become cheap for Indians,
so imports increase and therefore, demand for foreign currency increases. Also, making
investments abroad becomes lucrative. Accordingly, the demand for foreign currency increases.
a. An increase in the interest rate in the domestic economy leads to an appreciation of
domestic currency.
b. Other things remaining constant, when in a country the price of foreign currency rises,
national income will tend to rise.
c. A deficit in BOP results in an appreciation of domestic currency.
15. On which side and under which account are the following transactions recorded in the
BOP account? Give reason for your answer.
a. Establishment of production units by Apple Inc. in Bengaluru.

b. Transfer of funds to relatives abroad
c. Import of machinery from abroad.
ASSERTION (A):
The current account of the Balance of payments is a wider concept as compared to the balance
of trade.
REASONING (R):
The deficits or surpluses in the current account are accommodated in the capital account in the
balance of payments.
Alternatives:
Assertion (A)
of Assertion (A)
Case study
The current account deficit (CAD) narrowed sharply to just USD 300 million, or 0.1 per cent
of GDP, in the June quarter, driven by lower trade deficit on deeper import contraction, the
Reserve Bank said today. First post
1. What is meant by the term ‘current account deficit’?
2. What are the transactions included in the current account of the BOP?
3. What will be the likely impact of depreciation of domestic currency on the current
account deficit and why?
PART A-INDIAN ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT
UNIT 6- DEVELOPMENT EXPERIENCE (1947-90) AND ECONOMIC

REFORMS SINCE 1991
1. What is meant by commercialisation of agriculture?

2. Name some notable economists who estimated India’s per capita income during the
colonial period.
3. What was the two-fold motive behind systematic de-industrialisation by the
British government in pre-independent India?
Ans: The main motive of the British Government was to make India a mere supplier of
cheap raw materials to feed the own rapidly expanding industrial base. (ii) Making India
a market to sell the finished goods produced by the British Industries
4. What do you understand by the drain of India’s wealth during the colonial period?
5. Why is 1921 considered as the year of great divide?
6. What type of economic system was accepted in post-independent India?
7. What is the name of the institution which is formed in place of planning commission?
8. When was NITI Aayog formed?
9. What is economic planning?
10. Define a plan.
11. What is meant by full employment?
12. State any two main land reform measures.
13. What do you mean by the term import substitution?
14. Define the term outsourcing.
15. What is meant by the term disinvestment?
16. Why do developed nations oppose outsourcing?
Ans: Developed countries oppose his because outsourcing leads to the outflow of capital
from the developed countries to the developing countries. It also leads to a reduction in
employment in the developed countries as the same jobs are outsourced to the developing
countries where these are done at relatively cheap wage rates.
17. What do you mean by devaluation of currency? What is its impact on the BOP
position of a country?
Ans: Devaluation is an official lowering of the value of a country's currency by the
government. Exports will increase and imports will decrease due to exports becoming
cheaper and imports more expensive. This leads to an improved balance of payments.
18. Differentiate between a direct and an indirect tax.
19. Give an example of indirect tax.
20. Why is the year 1991 regarded as the year of great divide in context of India’s
foreign trade?
21. What is the rationale behind adoption of inward-looking trade strategy?
22. Read the following statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of
the correct alternatives given below:
Assertion (A): While announcing demonetisation on November 8 in 2016, Prime
Minister Narendra Modi had outlined three broad objectives to fight black money,
corruption and terror funding.
Reason (R): Rs 500 and Rs1000 notes were banned.
Alternatives:
(a). Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation
of Assertion (A)
(b). Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
(c). Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d). Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
23. Read the following statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the
correct alternatives given below:
Assertion: Under the colonial regime, basic infrastructure such as Railways, ports, water
transport, posts and telegraphs did develop.
Reason: To sub serve colonial interests.
Alternatives
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation.
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation.
Assertion: The green revolution enabled the government to procure sufficient amount of
food grains to build a stock which could be used in times of food shortage.
Reason: The concentration of land ownership in a few hands was reduced.
Alternatives
explanation.
Assertion: Most MNCs and even small companies are outsourcing their services to India.
Reason: Services can be availed at a cheaper cost with reasonable degree of skill and
accuracy from India.
Alternatives
(b)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation.
26.How did discriminatory tariff policy lead to a decline in the handicraft industry in
India?
27.Indicate the changes in the composition and direction of foreign trade at the time of
independence.
28.How was Zamindari system an important cause of agricultural stagnation during
colonial period?
29.Highlight the salient features of India’s pre-independence occupational structure.
30.Give a brief account of the demographic profile of India during the British rule.
31.Briefly mention the effects of the development of railways in India by the British
rulers.
32.List some of the positive side effects of British rule in India.(any four)
33.Does modernisation as a planning objective create contradiction in the light of
employment generation? Explain.
34.Explain economic growth as an objective of planning.
36.Features of Indian agriculture reflect its backwardness. Do you agree?
37.What do you mean by Green Revolution? Explain the major achievements and
shortcomings of Green Revolution.(any four)
38.What are the main arguments against subsidies being given to farmers in India?
Ans:The principal arguments against subsidies are as follows:
i. Fertiliser subsidies have widened regional disparities to some extent. The
maximum benefit of subsidisation of inputs is reaped only by big farmers, who possess
the capacity to buy expensive inputs.
ii. It puts a burden on the government exchequer leading to a decline in public
investment.
39.Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 formed the basis of the Second Five Year Plan, the
plan which tried to build the basis for a socialistic pattern of society. Explain the three
characteristics of this resolution.
40.What industrial sector reforms were initiated in the year 1991?
41.What is the rationale behind privatisation?
42.Write a short note on WTO.
43.Explain the relative importance of SSI in the growth process of the Indian economy.
44.The financial sector in India is regulated by the Reserve bank of India. Compare
the role of RBI in the financial sector before and after 1991.
45.What were the salient features of Indian economy at the time of independence?
46.Briefly describe the state of India’s foreign trade during colonial rule.
47.Critically evaluate the achievements of five-year plans in India. (Any six)
Case study
48.Prime Minister Narendra Modi is calling upon people to promote indigenous products
for the next three years till the completion of India’s 75 th year of Independence. He is
presenting a soaring vision of India’s ability to emerge as a strong nation that will also be
a world leader. He is also honoring all those who are at the forefront of research and
innovations on ways to defeat Coronavirus. He is emphasizing that technology is the core
of all strategies to mitigate the economic impact of lockdown. A similar approach was
also adopted by our planners during 1950-90. Explain the three goals of planning
49.Differentiate between Socialist Economy, Mixed Economy and Capitalist Economy.
50.Describe the main features of Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956.
51.What was the need for the introduction of New Economic Policy 1991? (any four)
52. Give a brief outline of policies that were followed to promote globalisation in the
Indian economy.
53. Gains of green revolution are significant but not sufficient. Elucidate.
54. Discuss the positive impacts of LPG policy introduced in the year 1991.(any four)
55. ‘All that glitters is not gold.’ In the light of the given statement discuss the impact
of LPG policy pursued till the year 1991. (Any four)
56. What were the objectives behind the launching of the New Economic policy
(NEP) in 1991?
Ans: The objectives behind the launching of the New Economic policy (NEP) in
1991were:
i. To bring down the rate of inflation
ii. To achieve higher economic growth rate and to build sufficient foreign exchange
reserves.
iii. To shift towards market economy by removing all kinds of un-necessary
restrictions.
iv. To permit the international flow of goods, services, capital, human resources and
technology, without many restrictions.
v. To increase the participation of private players in the all sectors of the economy.
57. State (giving valid reasons) whether the following statements are true or false.
(2+2+2)
(a) Jobless growth in the Indian economy has been reducing continuously.
(b) There is no obvious linkage between water and sanitation and health.
(c) Human capital creates private benefit whereas physical capital creates both private
and social benefits.
Case study
Read the following hypothetical Case Study carefully and answer the question 1 to 4
on the basis of the same.
From 1947 to 2017, the Indian economy was premised on the concept of planning. This
was carried through the Five-Year Plans, developed, executed, and monitored by
the Planning Commission (1951-2014) and the NITI Aayog (2015-2017). With the prime
minister as the ex-officio chairman, the commission has a nominated deputy chairman,
who holds the rank of a cabinet minister. Montek Singh Ahluwalia is the last deputy
chairman of the commission (resigned on 26 May 2014). The Twelfth Plan completed its
term in March 2017.[1] Prior to the Fourth Plan, the allocation of state resources was
based on schematic patterns rather than a transparent and objective mechanism, which
led to the adoption for the Gadgil formula in 1969. Revised versions of the formula have
been used since then to determine the allocation of central assistance for state plans. The
new government led by Narendra Modi, elected in 2014, has announced the dissolution of
the Planning Commission and its replacement by NITI Aayog (an acronym for National
Institution for Transforming India).
Q1. Enumerate any two goals of planning.
Q2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Indian economy during the initial
phase of planning?
(a) Strong public sector
(b)Import substitution
(c) Encouragement to SSIs
(d)Large scale digitalization
Q3. Name the institution which replaced the Planning Commission in India.
Q4. How many five-year plans could be formulated by the Planning Commission?
Assertion Reasoning
Read the following statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct
alternatives given below:
Assertion: The government has a variety of programmes to generate wage employment
for the poor unskilled people living in rural areas.
Reason: India was among the pioneers in the world to envisage that public expenditure
on social consumption improves the living standard of the poor.
Alternatives
explanation.
UNIT 7-CURRENT CHALLENGES FACING INDIAN ECONOMY
1. Choose the correct option;

Rural population needs short term loans:
a. for buying cattle
b. for meeting consumption expenditure
c. for buying tractors
d. for paying old debts
2. What is meant by animal husbandry?
3. Define human capital formation.
4. What is meant by open unemployment?
5. What is AYUSH system in the ISM?
6. State any strategy adopted by India to contain water pollution.
Ans. The use of organic compost will avoid chemical contamination of water.
7. What is the Food for Work Programme?
8. What is the significance of renewable sources of energy in dealing with the energy
crises?
9. What is the highest tier in the system of health infrastructure in India?
Read the following hypothetical Case Study carefully and answer the question 10 to
13 on the basis of the same.
On July 29, 2020, the Union Cabinet of India approved the National Education Policy
(NEP) 2020 which outlines the vision of India’s new education system. The new policy is
a comprehensive framework for elementary education to higher education as well as
vocational training in both rural and urban areas; and also the policy aims to transform
India’s education system by 2040. With the new policy, India’s educational system gets
an overhaul after 34 years. This is the third NEP after policies that came in 1968 and
1986. Though the Government amended the 1986 policy in 1992, it was largely the same.
In 1964, the Kothari Commission had 6 recommended an allocation of 06 percent of
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) but unfortunately India never spent 06 percent of GDP
on education since Independence. There has always been inadequate investment on
education in India. Public expenditure on education in India was 2.7 percent of GDP in
2017-18. This was about 10 percent of the total government (that is centre and states)
spending (as per Economic Survey 2017-18). The approach of the Policy on investment
in education is to significantly increase the public investment on education. This would
go up from the current 10 percent of overall public expenditure in education to 20 percent
over a 10 year period. This gradual increase will ensure that as all the actions of this
Policy come on stream, adequate funding is made available, while giving the
Government room to plan and accommodate these increases. It will certainly trigger
employment generation and rural development process as well.
10. When basic education is considered as a ________(right/ privilege) of the citizens,

then it is essential that the Government should provide education services free of cost.
11. The labour skill of an educated person is ______(more/less) than that of an
uneducated person and that the former generates ____(more/less) income than the latter.
12. In rural India, the percentage of work force engaged in regular-salaried employment
is lesser. What can be the reason behind it?
(a) These jobs require skill and higher level of literacy
(b) Not many enterprises requiring workers on regular basis are operating in rural areas.
(c) Majority of rural people own plots of land and cultivate independently making the
share of self-employment greater.
(d) All the above
13. Educational system of a country constitute_______(Social Infrastructure/Economic
Infrastructure).
14.Urban poverty is a spillover of rural poverty. Comment.

15. How can progressive taxation help to reduce poverty?
Ans. Progressive taxation refers to the policy of imposing greater income tax on
higher income groups. This policy aims at reducing income inequalities among
people. Also the money thus collected can be spent on welfare schemes for the poor.
16. Justify the statement that skill formation facilitates conversion of economic
growth into economic development.
17. Who is a literate? How is literacy different from education?
18. Describe the need for promoting women’s education in India.
19. What is the difference between Green Revolution and Golden Revolution?
20.’Human capital formation leads to inventions, innovations and technological
improvement.’ Comment.
21. Critically evaluate the role of the rural banking system in the process of rural
development in India.
22. The employment generated in the last 50 years is not commensurate with the
growth of GDP. Elaborate.
23. Briefly explain any four drawbacks of the Indian healthcare system.
24. As per a newspaper headline, ‘Delhi’s air quality index shifts from moderate to
severe.’ What does it imply and what possible steps can be taken to rectify the situation?
Suggest any three measures.
25. Komal got married immediately after completing her MBA in Human Resource
Management from a reputed university. She couldn’t take up a job as she had to look
after her elderly and sick father-in-law. Though she continued to take good care of her
family and herself, she was not considered as a human capital. Differentiate between
human capital and human development in her context.
26. ‘The Green Revolution was a harbinger of major changes in the credit system as it led
to the diversification of the portfolio of rural credit towards production-oriented lending’.
In the context of the given statement, state the composition of institutional structure of
rural banking. Also describe the need of self-help groups by discussing two points.
27.‘The Indian government adopted a three pronged approach to tackle the problem of
poverty.’
Discuss the above mentioned three prongs.
28. Explain any three self-employment generation programmes launched by the
government of India.
29. ‘The workers in this sector can be dismissed without any compensation.’
Which sector is being referred to here? What is the basis of classification used to
categorise this sector? Mention three more problems faced by workers in this sector.
30. Human capital formation remains a challenge to be overcome by the planners in
India. Justify by giving any four arguments.
Ans. The challenges facing human capital formation in India are as follows:
a. Insufficient resources: the resources allocated for human capital formation are grossly
inadequate when compared to the population of India. Therefore, the progress is slow.
b. Inefficient utilisation: Human resources are either underutilized or inefficiently
utilised as there is unemployment and underemployment Illiteracy and poor health
facilities still hamper growth.
c. Brain drain: there is a huge loss of skilled and qualified labour force in search of better
job opportunities and better salaries. This is a big loss to the economy that has incurred
costs on their training and skill development
d. Lack of manpower planning: There is a mismatch in the demand and supply of human
resources especially in case of highly skilled personnel. This incompatibility exists due to
faulty manpower planning and improper education.
31. Information technology has become an important source of sustainable development
in the rural areas. Elucidate.
32. Organic farming has proved to be beneficial but is not without its limitations. Explain
by stating three arguments in favour of and three against organic farming in India.
33. The COVID-19 associated lockdown has suddenly made visible the poverty and
vulnerability of the millions of people in India.
The given diagram reflects one of the aggregate categories of poor.

(a) Enumerate this aggregate category.
(b) State the two specific categories under the one identified in part (a).
Discuss any three causes of poverty in India.
UNIT 8-DEVELOPMENT EXPERIENCE OF INDIA-A COMPARISON WITH
NEIGHBOURS
1. Which country had adopted the one child policy?

2. Name any two indicators of HDI.
3. Name any two indicators of comparative development.
4. What is commune system of farming?
5. In which sector has China surpassed both India and Pakistan?
6. What do you mean by the ‘liberty indicators’ of development?
Ans: ‘Liberty indicators' are those indicators which represent the degree of civil and
political freedom to individuals in a country.
7. What is not true regarding the development strategies of China?
(a) It has succeeded in raising the level of growth along with alleviation of poverty.
(b) By retaining collective ownership of land and allowing individuals to cultivate land, it
has ensured social security in rural areas.
(c) Absolute political freedom has succeeded in raising the level of growth.
(d) With the introduction of one-child norm, the population growth rate could be
controlled
8.Name the revolution introduced in China in 1965 under which students and professionals
were sent to work and learn from the country side
8. Which factors helped China attract more FDI as compared to India and Pakistan?
9. What was the implication of ‘one child policy norm’ in China?
Ans: China’s birth and fertility rates declined leaving the country with a population that
was aging too rapidly as well as a shrinking workforce. Also, because of the preference
for sons, there was a rise in the number of abortion of female foetuses.
10. Compare the GDP and growth in GDP of China, India and Pakistan
11. Highlight some of the common failures of India and Pakistan in achieving economic
growth.
12. How was the structural transformation different in China as compared to
India and Pakistan?
Ans: India, Pakistan and China have shown a noticeable structural transformation from
the primary sector to other two sectors. The primary sector in both the countries is no
longer the important contributor to the nation’s GDP. While India and Pakistan are
relying more on its tertiary sector China is relying more on its secondary sector in terms
of the sectoral contribution to the GDP.
13. Give reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of poverty in Pakistan.
Ans. The following are the main reasons for the slow growth and re-emergence of
poverty in Pakistan:
i. Greater dependence on the Public Sector Enterprisesand reliance on the policy of
protection.
ii. The major portion of the foreign exchange earnings of Pakistan was in the form of
remittances from Pakistani workers in the Middle-east and highly volatile agricultural
products. This can be regarded as one of the reasons for the slow economic growth.
iii. Increasing Dependence on Foreign Loans: There was an increasing dependence on
foreign loans for meeting foreign exchange requirements. The increasing burden of huge
foreign loans slowed down the economic growth prospects of Pakistan.
iv. Due to lack of political stability huge public expenditure was incurred on maintaining
law and order in the country which acted as a drain on the country’s economic resources.
14. What are the areas where?
a. Pakistan has an edge over India
b. India has an edge over Pakistan
c. China has an edge over India
Q14. A table showing the demographic indicators of India, Pakistan and China is given
below.
Country Estimated Population Annual Growth of Density (per sq. Sex Ratio
(in millions) (2015) Population (2015) km) (2015)
India 1311 1.2 441 929
China 1371 0.5 146 941

Pakistan 188 2.1 245 947
15. Give a brief description of the development paths adopted by China, India and
Pakistan.
16. Compare the Economies of China, India and Pakistan on the basis of salient
demographic indicators.
Case study
Read the following hypothetical Case Study carefully and answer the question 1 to 4 on the
basis of the same.
China is the world's largest manufacturing economy and exporter of goods. It is also the
world's fastest-growing consumer market and second-largest importer of goods. China is a net
importer of services products. It is the largest trading nation in the world and plays a prominent
role in international trade. China became a member of the World Trade Organization in 2001. It
also has free trade agreements with several nations, including ASEAN, Australia, New
Zealand, Pakistan, South Korea and Switzerland. China's largest trading partners are the US, EU,
Japan, Hong Kong, South Korea, India, Taiwan, Australia, Vietnam, Malaysia, and Brazil. With
778 million workers, the Chinese labour force is the world's largest as of 2020. It ranks 31st on
the Ease of doing business index and 28th on the Global Competitiveness Report.
Economic growth generally been more rapid in coastal provinces than in the interior and there
are large disparities in per capita income between regions. One-Child policy, official program
initiated in the late 1970s and early ’80s by the central government of China, the purpose of
which was to limit the great majority of family units in the country to one child each. The
rationale for implementing the policy was to reduce the growth rate of China’s
enormous population.
Q1. Name one economic indicator mentioned in the above case study.
Q2. State the reason behind the biased gender ratio in China.
Q3. Enumerate any two demographic indicators.
Q4. Which of the following policy changes led to fast industrial growth in China?
(a) Dual Pricing
(b) Setting up of Special Economic Zones
(c) State Owned Enterprises were made to face competition
(d) All the above
Assertion Reasoning
. Read the following statements-Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose one of the correct
alternatives given below:
Assertion: Until the 1980s, more than 80 per cent of the people in China were
dependent on farming as their sole source of livelihood.
Reason: China has more of rural population than India.
Alternatives
explanation.
Class: XII
Subject: Business Studies
CH 1-NATURE AND SIGNIFICANCE OF MANAGEMENT

1. The task of management is to make people work towards achieving the organisational goals, by making
their strengths effective and their weaknesses irrelevant. Which dimension of management is being
referred here?
Ans. Management of people.
2. Assertion (A): The effect of management is noticeable in an organization where targets are met
according to plans, employees are happy and satisfied and there is orderliness instead of chaos.
Reason (R): Every member of the organization has a different purpose for joining the organization and
each member works towards his personal goal.
Select the correct option:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
3. ________________refers to the process of designing and maintaining an environment in which
individuals working together in groups, efficiently accomplish selected aims.
4. A manager applies these scientific methods and body of knowledge to a given situation, an issue or a
problem, in his own unique manner. Which aspect of nature of management is being discussed here?
Ans. Management as an art.
5. In an organisation , targets are met according to plans, employees are happy and satisfied, and there is
orderliness instead of chaos. Which characteristic of management is being highlighted here?
Ans. Management is an intangible force.
6. Dheeraj is working as ‘Operations Manager’ in Tifco Ltd. Name the managerial level at which he is
working.
7. ___________level of management is responsible for all the activities of the business and for its impact
on society.
8. Educational qualification is the pre-requisite to enter a profession. Which of the following feature is
revealed in the above statement?
a. Restricted entry b. Ethical code of conduct
c. Professional association d. Well defined body of knowledge
9. Ashutosh Goenka was working in ‘Axe Ltd.’, a company manufacturing air-purifiers. He found that the
profit has started declining from the last six months. Profit has an implication for the survival of the firm,
so he analysed the business environment to find out the reasons for his decline.
(i) Identify the level of management at which he was working.
(ii) State three functions performed by this level of management.
10. XYZ Power Ltd. set up a factory for manufacturing solar lanterns in a remote village as there was no
reliable supply of electricity in rural areas. The revenue earned by the company was sufficient to cover the
costs and risks. As the demand of lanterns was increasing day-by-day, the company decided to increase
production to generate higher sales. For this, they decided to employ people from a nearby village as very
few job opportunities were available in that area. The company also decided to open schools and crèches
for the children of its employees. Identify and explain the objectives of management discussed above.
11. Suppose, a company’s target production is 5000 units in a year. To achieve this target the manager has
to operate on double shifts due to power failure most of the time. The manager is able to produce 5000
units but at a higher production cost. Do you think that the manager is efficient? Give reason for your
answer.
12. Noori owns a garment factory in Gurugram. She has observed that frequent conflicts emerge between
production and marketing department which adversely affects the sales of the company. When she shared
this problem with her father, he told her that these conflicts arise due to the fact that each department is
performing activities in isolation from others and barriers between departments are becoming more rigid.
(i) Identify and explain the quality of management which is lacking.
(ii) Also, explain any three features of the concept identified above.
13. A.R. Rehman is the first Indian to win an Oscar award for his composition `Jai Ho’. His composition
of music is unique and different as he has used the singing notes in a manner that is entirely his own
interpretation. Like A.R. Rehman, `Nandan’ General Manager in Sea Ltd, uses his knowledge of
management in a unique and different manner and all the employees working under his guidance are
happy and satisfied. He rewards the employees who come to office on time.
(i) Identify the nature of management highlighted above.
(ii) State two other ways in which nature of management can be explained.
Ans.(i) Nature of management - Management is an art.
(ii) Management as science and Management as profession.
14. ‘Management is an inexact science’. Explain giving any three reasons.
15. The management of Vrinda Ltd. strongly believes that the members of an organization should work
towards fulfilling the common organizational goals. This requires team work and integration of efforts of
all individuals, departments and specialists. This is because all the individuals and departments depend
on each other for information and resources to perform their respective activities. Managers need to
reconcile differences in approach, timing, effort or interest. At the same time it should enable all its
members to grow and develop. Thus, there is a need to harmonize individual goals and organizational
goals.
i) Identify the concept of management discussed above.
ii) State any three features of the concept identified in part (i) above.
Long answers-(5/6 marks)
16. ‘Coordination is an orderly arrangement of group efforts to provide unity of action in the pursuit of
common purpose’. In the light of this statement explain the nature of coordination.
17. Esha works as the cost and risk management head of a company in the power sector. As a result of her
excellent managerial competence, the company is able to reduce costs and increase productivity. The
company belongs to infrastructure sector, wherein regular amendments are made in the government
regulations and policies. She holds regular meetings to ensure that people in her department are not only
aware of the related changes but are also able to adapt to these changes effectively. This helps the
company to maintain its competitive edge. She motivates and leads her team in such a manner that
individual members are able to achieve personal goals while contributing to the overall organisational
objective. In the process of fulfilling her duties for the growth of the organisation, she helps in providing
competitive services, adopting new technology, creating more employment opportunities etc. for the
greater good of the people at large.
In context of the above case:
Identify the various reasons that have made management so important by quoting lines from the
paragraph.
Ans.The various reasons mentioned in the above paragraph that have made management so
important are stated below:
Management increases efficiency as it leads to reduction in costs due to optimum utilisation of resources.
‘As a result of her excellent managerial competence the company is able to reduce costs and increase
productivity.’
Management creates a dynamic organisation so that it is able to incorporate the corresponding changes in
its working with any change in its business environment.
‘The company belongs to infrastructure sector, wherein regular amendments are made in the government
regulations and policies. She holds regular meetings to ensure that people in her department are not only
aware of the related changes but are also able to adapt to these changes effectively. This helps the
company to maintain its competitive edge.’
Management helps in achieving personal objectives of the employees in the organisation.
‘She motivates and leads her team in such a manner that individual members are able to achieve personal
goals while contributing to the overall organisational objective.’
‘The employees of the company are happy and satisfied with their remuneration, working conditions,
promotion policy etc.’
Management helps in the development of society by contributing effectively towards it in multiple ways.
‘In the process of fulfilling her duties for the growth of the organization, she helps in providing
competitive services, adopting new technology, creating more employment opportunities etc. for the
greater good of the people at large.’
18. Dharam is a well-known businessman in the field of publishing. He owes the success of his business
to his own education in business management and his team of certified management consultants.
Therefore, he decides to send both his children-Danush and Damini abroad to acquire a degree in business
management in their individual area of expertise. He feels that all over the world there is marked growth
in management as a discipline, but still it is not considered to be a full-fledged profession for certain
reasons.
In the context of the above case:
(i) Explain the reasons because of which Dharam considers management as a discipline.
(ii) Critically examine the various reasons because of which management is not considered to be a full-
fledged profession.
Ans. Dharam considers management as a discipline because there exists a number of theories and
principles on management which have been formulated by various management experts. It is
taught in various schools and colleges, all over the world, as a separate subject of study.
Management is not considered to be a full-fledged profession because of the following reasons:
1. Restricted entry. Unlike management, the entry to the other professions is restricted through an
examination or eligibility criteria like specific percentage in a particular degree or diploma. However,
management as profession does not fulfill this criterion as anyone can be called a manager regardless of
his/her academic qualifications.
2. Professional association: Unlike managers, all working professionals have to be a member of an
affiliated professional association which regulates their entry, grants certificate of practice and formulates
and enforces code of conduct. For example, the practicing lawyers have to be a member of Bar Council of
India; the practicing doctors should have membership of All India Medical Association etc. However, in
case of management, although there exist several management associations like the AIMA (All India
Management Association), neither does it have any statutory backing nor is it mandatory for the
practicing managers to a member of such associations.
CH 2-PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT
1. Give one difference between unity of command and unity of direction.
2. State one point of similarity between the approach of Fayol and Taylor.
3. Define the term ‘scientific management’.
4. What did Taylor want to communicate through mental revolution?
5. The principles of management can be changed according to the prevailing situation in an organization.
This shows that management principles are:
a. Flexible b. Universal
c. Behavioural d. Scientific
6. Name the principle of general management suggested by Henri Fayol, which advocates that, “there
should be good superiors at all levels, clear and fair agreement and judicious application of penalties.”
7. The objective of ______study is to determine the one best way to perform the job.
8. The principles of management are rigid prescriptions, which have to be followed absolutely. State true
or false.
9. Assertion (A): Even a small production activity like loading pigs of iron into boxes can be scientifically
planned and managed.
Reason (R): Taylor believed that there was only one best method to maximize efficiency.
Find the correct option:

10. Kumaran is working in a Shoe manufacturing Co. The management asked him to work overtime so as
to produce more in order to meet increase in demand in the market. But he was not paid adequate wages
for extra time and so he never contributed to his maximum.
(i) Which principle of Fayol is violated in the above case?
(ii) Give two positive effects of following the above principle.
Answer:
(i) Remuneration of employees
(ii)Ensures healthy atmosphere and good relations between the employees and the management. ;
Smooth functioning of the organisation.
11. Principles of Taylor and Fayol are mutually complementary. One believed that the management
should scientifically select the person and the work assigned should suit his/her physical and intellectual
capabilities, while the other suggested that the work can be performed more efficiently if divided into
specialised tasks. Identify and explain the principles of Fayol and Taylor referred to in the above
paragraph.
12. Vaibhav, an employee in Yamuna Ltd., was instructed by Mr. Vinayak (Production manager) to
increase production of steel due to excess stock of steel. On the other hand, Mr. Madhav (Sales manager)
directed him not to increase the steel production as there was low demand for steel in the market. Vaibhav
got confused regarding whose order to follow and hence was unable to work in a proper manner. Because
of overlapping orders and instructions, Vaibhav was unable to satisfy both the bosses which led to
conflict in the organization.
(i) Name and explain the principle not being followed.
(ii) Give any two advantages of following this principle.
13. Tanya and Swarna, having same educational qualifications are working as managers in Alfa Ltd.
Tanya belongs to a rural area where employment opportunities are very less whereas Swarna belongs to
an urban area. Ignoring many other differences between the two, management of Alfa Ltd. appointed
them as assistant managers, on the same salary package of Rs.45000 per month.
Name and briefly explain the principle of management being followed in the above case.
Ans.(i) Principle of Èquity’ - Similar treatment is assured to employees in similar positions. - fair
and impartial treatment to employees.

14. Explain why is it said that principles of management are 'mainly behavioural' and 'contingent' in
nature. Also explain how principles of management provide managers with ‘useful insights into reality'
and 'help in thoughtful decision-making'.
15. After completing his entrepreneurship course from Australia, Sanket came back to India and started a
coffee shop 'Premium Cold Coffee' in a famous mall in Delhi. Its specialty was the special aroma of
coffee and a wide variety of flavours to choose from. Somehow the business was neither profitable nor
popular. Sanket was keen to find out the reason. He appointed Riya, an MBA from a reputed college, as a
manager to find out why the business was not doing well. Riya took a feedback from the clients and
found out that though they loved the unique aroma of coffee they were not happy with the long waiting
time being taken to process the order.
She analysed and found out that there were many unnecessary stoppages in between which could be
eliminated. She set up a standard time for processing the order. She also analysed that there were many
flavours of coffee available for which the demand was very less. So she also decided to discontinue some
of them. Within a short period, Riya was able to attract the customers. Identify and explain
the management techniques used by Riya to solve the problem.
16. 'AapkaVidyalaya' believes in holistic development of students and encourages team building through
a mix of curricular, co-curricular and sports activities. On its Founder’s Day, a stage performance had to
be put up. A committee of ten prefects was constituted to plan different aspects of the function. They all
decided to use recycled paper for decoration. There was a spirit of unity and harmony and all members
supported each other. With mutual trust and belongingness, the programme was systematically planned
and executed. Kartik, one of the prefects realised that unknowingly the group had applied one of
the principles of management while planning and executing the programme. He was so inspired by the
success of the function that he asked his father to apply the same principle in his business. His father
replied that he was already using this principle
(i) Identify the principle of management applied to the success of the programme.
(ii) State any two features of management highlighted in the above para.
(iii) Identify any two values which 'AapkaVidyalaya' communicated to the society.
17. One of the principles of scientific management emphasizes that to make the employees learn the `best
method’ of production, training to workers is essential. It further emphasizes that each person should be
scientifically selected and the work assigned to the employees should suit physical, mental and
intellectual capabilities.
(i) Name and explain the principle of scientific management involved.
(ii) Name the principle of scientific management which is concerned with selecting the best way of
performing a job through application of scientific analysis and not by intuition or hit and trial methods.
Ans. (i) Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and ability. -
Employees should be selected scientifically. - Efficient employees produce more to earn more.
(ii) Science, not rule of thumb.
CH 3-BUSINESS ENVIRONMENT
1. Define the term ‘Business Environment’.
2. ‘Demand of sarees is high in India but almost nil in Japan’. Which element of business environment is
referred to in this point?
3. Define Globalisation as a process of economic reform.
4. Due to entry of foreign firms, competition for Indian firms has increased, especially in service
industries. Name one such service industry.
5. Change in the value of crude oil prices during pandemic situation of Covid-19 is the example of
___________ environment.
6. A leading book publishing company identified the importance of ‘value-based questions’ in CBSE and
published a book based on these types of questions. The book became popular. Seeing the demand, few
book sellers started charging high price. Identify the point of significance highlighted here.
7. Assertion (A): Reservation of jobs for backward cases as per the constitution of India affects business
environment.
Reason (R): Various elements of legal dimension affect the business environment.
8. FSSAI has brought new regulations with the aim of bringing more clarity in quality standards of instant
noodles because of the Maggi controversy. Name the dimension of business environment.
9. Sudden announcement of lockdown in the entire country by our Prime Minister, is an example of
which feature of business environment?
a. Relativity b. Specific and general forces
c. Uncertainty d. Interrelatedness
10. The understanding of business environment helps the managers to identify threats. What is meant by
threats here?
Ans: Threats refer to the external environment trends and changes that will hinder a firm’s
performance.
11. On all eatable packed products, manufacturing and expiry dates are mentioned along with other
necessary details. Which business environment makes mentioning of such information compulsory?
12. Government of India is seriously thinking to allow oil-marketing public sector undertakings to fix
their own price for petrol and diesel. Which economic reform is the reason of this change in government
policy? Define it.
13. A company produces goods according to the festival seasons. It hires men and women at same rates.
It also produces according to the latest designs. Demand for sweets increases on various occasions. It also
takes loans from banks. But banks are giving them loans at high rates. Briefly explain the dimensions of
business environment discussed above, by quoting the lines.
14. Bharat is running an ice-cream parlour in a local market. Keeping in mind the changing perceptions
about health among the people, one of his employees Abhiraj suggests to him that they should introduce a
range a flavoured yogurt. Bharat accepts his suggestion, as a result both the image and the profitability of
his business increases. In the context of the above case, identify and explain the related dimension of the
business environment.
15. With change in consumption pattern of people, Neelesh, who was running a sweet shop shifted to
chocolate business. On the eve of Diwali he offered chocolates in attractive packages at reasonable prices.
He anticipated huge demand and created a website- chocolove.com for taking orders online. Identify and
explain the dimensions of business environment discussed above.
16. A recent rate cut in the interest on loans announced by banks encouraged Amit, a student of
Progressive School to take loan from the State Bank of India to experiment and develop cars to be
powered by fuel produced from garbage. He developed such a car and exhibited it in the Science Fair
organized by Directorate of Education. He was awarded the first prize for his invention. Identify and
explain the dimensions of business environment discussed above.
17. Explain Increasing Competition and More demanding customers as an impact of Government policy
changes on Business and Industry.
18. ‘A good understanding of environment by business managers enables them not only to identity and
evaluate but also to react to the forces external to their firm.’ In the light of the above statement explain
any five points of importance of understanding business environment by a manager.
19. Often it is observed that some political parties of a country are in favour of giving a lot of freedom to
business while some other opposes to this view. When general elections are approaching in a country, the
impact of this approach of the political parties can be seen on the share market. For example, general
elections are about to take place in the country, and the general view of the people is that the political
party having a positive approach to business will come into power. As a consequence of this news the
rates of shares in the market will be rising.
a. Identify and explain one feature of business environment highlighted above.
b. Also explain any four other features of business environment, apart from the one identified above.
Ans. a. Inter-relatedness: Different forces of business environment are closely related to each other. For
example, an increase in the income of the consumers increases the demand for consumer durables such as
television, refrigerator, etc.
b. Dynamic: Business environment is dynamic and ever changing in nature. For example, consumer tastes
and preferences, technology, government rules and policies keep changing continuously.
c. Uncertainty: Business environment is uncertain. Changes in different forces of the environment cannot
be predicted easily. In addition, dynamism of the forces makes it even more uncertain.
d.Complex: Business environment is the aggregate of different interrelated and dynamic forces. Thus, it
becomes difficult and complex to understand. For example, all political, social, economic, technological
and legal matters affect the performance of organisation simultaneously. While, it may be easy to
understand the individual effect of these forces, their cumulative effect is quite difficult to understand.
e. Relativity: Business environment is relative in nature. It differs from region to region. For example,
political conditions, religious beliefs, government rules and policies differ from one region to another.
CH 4- PLANNING
1. Which function of management bridges the gap between where we are and where we want to go to?
2. Name the primary function of management.
3. One of the functions of Management is considered as base for all other functions. Name that function.
4. ‘Controlling is not possible without planning’. Identify the importance of planning highlighted by this
statement.
5. Name the type of plan:
(i) 'Alcohol is not permitted within the factory premises.'
(ii) The Company follows the practice of hiring employees who are above 18 years of age.
(iii) A company needs a detailed plan for its new project-construction of a shopping mall.
6. How does planning reduce the risk of uncertainty?
7. What qualities are required for planning?
Ans. Intelligence, Imagination, Foresight, Sound Judgment.
8. A company wants to increase sales; the alternatives may be reducing price, introducing variants,
improving packaging, etc. Which step of planning process relates with the above example?
9. Assertion (A): Competition in the market can upset financial plans.
Reason (R): Planning leads to rigidity.
10. Name the feature of planning which says planning is a forward-looking function?
11. ‘These are general statements that guide thinking and channelize energies towards a particular
direction and help in solving routine problems.’ Identify the type of plan.
12. At which level of management is the planning function of management conducted?
13. Planning is required at all levels of management and in all departments of the organization. This fact
illustrates which feature of planning?
a. Planning is continuous b. Planning is futuristic
c. Planning is pervasive d. Planning involves decision making
14. A ________________ is a control device through which deviations can be taken care of.
15. ‘Planning promotes innovative ideas.’ Explain how.
16. Strategy is a comprehensive plan which includes three dimensions. Enumerate them.
17. Identify the type of plan in the following statements:
i. RK Ltd. allocated Rs100 crore to its cosmetics business, Rs50 crore to furniture business and Rs120
crore to readymade garments business.
ii. HIG Ltd. fills its middle level management posts internally only.
iii. XYZ Ltd. uses vestibule training for its workers to get to know the handling of machinery.
18. In ‘Chak de India’ movie, Shahrukh Khan becomes the coach of the girls’ hockey team. He knows
that he has to prepare the girls for the international hockey matches and bring the world cup after
winning. For this he prepares a long- term plan and thinks of ways to beat the competitors. He coaches the
girls to play in different ways like defensive, offensive, etc. At the outset of a match, he explains who will
open the match, and how the ball will be passed by one player to another step by step.
Identify four types of plans that are highlighted in the above case, quoting the lines from it.
19. A company is manufacturing garments. The manager wants to increase profits by purchasing new
high-speed machines or increasing the sale price or using waste materials in manufacturing stuffed toys.
He decided that ‘using waste material’ is the best solution for him.
(a) Identify the concept of management involved.
(b) Mention the steps highlighted in the above process by quoting the lines from the question.
20. Aryan, a worker is given a target of assembling 50 LPG gas stoves per day. He came with an idea of
doing the assembling differently. According to him, it would reduce the time taken and the target can be
increased to 55 gas stoves per day. However, when he shared the idea with his supervisor, the supervisor
got annoyed. Instead of appreciating his suggestion he ordered him to focus on the assigned work only.
He also said that the last minute ideas cannot be incorporated and all such things need to be pre-decided.
Name and explain the two limitations of planning that are described by the above case.
21. Two years ago Mayank obtained a degree in food technology. For some time, he worked in a
company manufacturing bread and biscuits. He was not happy in the company and decided to have his
own bread and biscuits manufacturing unit. For this he decided the objectives and targets and formulated
action plan to achieve the same. One of his objectives was to earn 50% profit on the amount invested in
the first year. It was decided that raw materials like flour, sugar, salt etc. will be purchased on two months
credit. He also decided to follow the steps required for marketing the products through his own outlets.
He appointed Harsh as a Production Manager who decided the exact manner in which the production
activities are to be carried out. Harsh also prepared a statement showing the requirement of workers in the
factory throughout the year. Mayank informed Harsh about his sales target for different products, area
wise for the forthcoming quarter. While working on the production table, a penalty of Rs150 per day was
announced for not wearing a helmet, gloves and aprons by the workers.
Quoting lines from the above paragraph identify the different types of plans discussed.
CH 5- ORGANISING
1.‘It’ refers to the systematic delegation of authority from top management to the lower level managers.
Identify ‘it’.
2. Under _______ , maximum authority is retained at top level while authority is systematically dispersed
at every level under__________.
3. Grouping of activities of similar nature and organising these jobs as separate departments creates:
a. Decentralised organization b. Divisional structure c. Functional structure d. None of these
4. The employees of ABC Ltd. take part in volleyball matches on Sunday. Name the type of organization
formed.
5. Delegation allows the managers to concentrate on strategic issues and explore new areas for growth by
assigning routine jobs to their subordinates. State true or false.
6. A company has its registered office in Delhi, manufacturing unit at Gurgaon and marketing and sales
department at Faridabad. The company manufactures consumer products. Which type of organization
structure should it adopt to achieve its targets?
7. The function of management which establishes relation between authority and responsibility is:
a. Planning b. Organising c. Staffing d. Directing
8. Assertion: Functional structure is suitable for a uni-product manufacturing company
Reason: Functional structure leads to inflexibility.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. Both (A) and (R) are false
d. (A) is true but (R) is false
9. National Vritech Ltd. has grown in size. It was a market leader but with changes in business
environment and with the entry of MNCs its market share is declining. To cope up with the situation CEO
starts delegating some of his authority to the General Manger, who also felt himself overburdened and
with the approval of CEO disperses some of his authority to various levels throughout the organization.
Identify the concept of management discussed above.
10. A manager has kept all the decision-making rights with himself. Each and every employee has to
come to him for orders again and again. Identify and state the concept of management not followed by the
manager.
11. Hindustan Ltd. is manufacturing computers, soaps and textiles. Which type of organizational structure
would suit the requirement of such organization? State any three advantages of this organization structure.
12. ‘A manager is of the view that he is not responsible for the quality of work that he has delegated to his
subordinate’. Do you agree with this viewpoint? Justify your answer.
13. ‘Authority can be delegated, but accountability cannot.’ Elucidate.
14. ‘If we delegate authority, we multiply by two, if we decentralize, we multiply by many.’
Elaborate the statement.
Ans. Delegation is a process of sharing the task with the subordinates in a prescribed limit. It involves
two individuals (parties) superior and subordinate. But when the top-level management disperses
authority and responsibility to the lowest level of management for quick decision making at the point of
action, it leads to more initiative at the lower level of management also, it is called decentralization. So
decentralization involves managers at all the levels of authority.
15. 'Panda Trucks Ltd.’ decided to set-up its new truck manufacturing factory in the backward area of
Bihar where very less job opportunities were available. People of that area welcomed this effort of 'Panda
Trucks Ltd.' To attract people to work in its factory it also decided to provide many other facilities like
school, hospital, market etc. in the factory premises. 'Panda Trucks Ltd.' started earning huge profits.
Another competing company asked its production manager Sanjay to investigate the reasons of earning
huge profits by 'Panda Trucks Ltd'. Sanjay found out that in both the companies there was systematic
coordination among the various activities to achieve organizational goals. Each employee knew who was
responsible and accountable to whom. The only difference was that in his organization communication
took place only through the scalar chain, whereas Panda Trucks Ltd. was allowing flow of
communication in all the directions as per the requirement which led to faster spread of information as
well as quick feedback.
(a) Identify the type of Organization which permits the flow of communication in all the directions in
‘Panda Trucks Ltd.'.
(b) Explain any two advantages and two limitations of such an organization.
16. Rishu, Ashu and Ravi have decided to start a business of manufacturing toys. They identified the
following main activities which they have to perform:
• Purchase of raw materials,
• Purchase of machinery,
• Production of toys,
• Arrangement of finance,
• Sale of toys,
• Identifying the areas where they can sell their toys
• Selection of employees
In order to facilitate the work, they thought that four managers should be appointed to look after:
• Production,
• Finance,
• Marketing
• Personnel.
a) Identify the function of management involved in the above-mentioned para.
b) Explain the steps followed in the process of this function of management.
CH 6- STAFFING
1. Name the method of training in which the trainees learn under the guidance of a master worker.
2. In_________process, various steps are performed to eliminate the unsuitable candidates.
3. Which process increases knowledge and skills of an employee for doing a particular job?
4. Which source of recruitment brings new blood in the organization?
5. Recruitment is called a negative process. Defend or refute.
6. ________ is the concept which involves growth of individuals in all respects:
a. Training b. Development c. Recruitment d. Orientation
7. An organization provides security services. It requires such candidates who are reliable and don’t leak
out the secrets of their clients. What step should be incorporated in selection process?
8. In order to improve employee productivity and increase employee morale, Xian Ltd adopted various
ways of training such as:
a) Ramesh was provided with equipments which were similar to those which he would be using.
b) Harish and Rakesh were put under the guidance of a master worker to acquire high levels of skill.
Identify the methods of training adopted by Xian Ltd. In Part (a) and (b)
9. Name the following concepts:
(i) Determining the number and type of human resources necessary for the performance of various jobs
and accomplishment of organizational goals.
(ii) Determines the number and type of human resources available for the performance of various jobs and
accomplishment of organizational goals.
(iii) Process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs.
(iv) Process of choosing from among the pool of prospective job candidates.
(v) Process of introducing the employees to their new jobs, fellow employees and familiarizing with the
rules and policies of the company.
(vi) Occupying the position or post for which the person has been selected.
(vii) Evaluating an employee’s current/past performance as against certain pre-determined standards.
(viii) Shifting of an employee without a substantive change in the responsibilities and status of the
employee.
10. Assertion: Selection is a negative process.
Reason: In selection, applications of unsuitable candidates are rejected.
11. Tarak is learning work under Mehta who is a master electrician from the past 20 years. Tarak observes
him while working and assists him regularly. Sometimes, Mehta lets Tarak work alone under his
guidance. He gets monthly stipend too. Identify and explain the training method depicted above.
12. Some learning opportunities are designed and delivered to improve skills and abilities of employees
whereas some others are designed to help in the growth of individuals in all respects. Identify and explain
the two concepts explained above.
13. Manu, a chief Manager in a company using highly sophisticated machines and equipment, wants that
every employee should be fully trained before using the machines and equipment. Suggest and describe
the best method of training that Manu can use for training of the employees.
14. Sahil, director of a garments company, is planning to manufacture bags for the utilization of waste
material of one of his garments unit. He decided that his manufacturing unit will be set up in a rural area
of Orissa where people have very less job opportunities and labour is available at very low rate. He also
thought of giving equal opportunities to men and women. For this, he selected S. Chatterjee, Inderjeet
Kaur, Aslam and Sarabjeet as Heads of Sales, Accounts, Purchase and Production Departments.
a. Identify and explain the next two steps that Sahil has to follow in the staffing process after selecting the
above heads.
15. Anushka is doing a course in fashion designing from an institute of repute. As a part of the course, she
has been asked to take on-the-job training in an export house for a fortnight in order to gain an insight
about various practical aspects related to designing. Anushka, through the references from her senior,
joins an export house owned by an upcoming designer, Nandita. In context of the above case, name and
explain the type of training which Anushka has been asked to undertake.
16. ‘Our assets walk out of the door each evening; we have to make sure that they come back the next
morning.’ This statement relates to which function of management? Identify it and explain any five points
of importance of this function.
17. Ashish, the Marketing Head, Raman, the Assistant Manager and Jyoti the Human Resource Manager
of ‘Senor Enterprises Ltd.’ decided to leave the company. The Chief Executive Officer of the company
called Jyoti, the Human Resource Manager and requested her to fill up the vacancies before leaving the
organisation. Informing that her subordinate Miss Alka Pandit was very competent and trustworthy, Jyoti
suggested that if she could be moved up in the hierarchy, she would do the needful. The Chief Executive
Officer agreed for the same. Miss Alka Pandit contacted ‘Keith Recruiters’ who advertised for the post of
marketing head for Senor Enterprises Ltd. They were able to recruit a suitable candidate for the company.
Raman’s vacancy was filled up by screening the database of unsolicited applications lying in the office.
Name and explain the internal/external sources of recruitment used by ‘Senor Enterprises Ltd.’ to fill up
the above stated vacancies.
CH 7- DIRECTING
1. Ravi, the Marketing Manager of Weaver Garments Ltd. does not allow the salesmen working under
him to freely express their frank opinion and feelings regarding work related matters. Identify the
organisational barrier to communication that has been created by Ravi.
2. Name the incentive in which benefits like car allowance, housing, medical aid are offered to an
employee.
3. ____________ barriers arise due to emotional status of sender and receiver of message.
4. Financial incentives satisfy higher level needs, while non-financial incentives satisfy lower-level needs.
State True or False.
5. Name the process of stimulating people to action to accomplish desired goals to strive willingly for
mutual object.
6. ‘Suggestions’ and ‘reactions’ are included in which type of formal communication?
7. Identify the leadership styles in the following situations:
a. Mr. Ulhas, CEO of I Create India, distributes the work for the month. He delegates the work to his
staff Ms. Ranju, Ms. Anjana, Ms. Geeta and Mr. Dinesh as per his discretion.
b. Mr. Ulhas has realized that due to absence of Ms. Geeta, the work will not get over as scheduled. He
discusses with his staff members how to meet the dead line. Everybody decides to do over time and plans
to stay back accordingly.
c. The staff plans to organize a party in honor of Ms. Geeta as she gets promoted. Mr. Ulhas asks the
other members of staff to fix the venue and the menu for the occasion.
8. Assertion (A): Motivation may be positive or negative.
Reason (R): If the employee is enthusiastic, bonus and promotions act as incentive; but if the employee is
lazy, fear of cut in the pay and demotion act as an incentive.

9. Himanshu and Shilpa are working in the same organization but in different departments. One day at
lunch time Shilpa informs Himanshu that due to computerization many people are going to be retrenched
soon from the organization. Identify which type of communication is this? State any two limitations of
this type of organization.
10. Govind is working in a company on a permanent basis. As per the job agreement he had to work for 8
hours a day and was free to work overtime. Govind worked overtime, due to which he fell ill and had to
take leave from his work. No one showed concern or enquired about his health. He realized that he was
fulfilling only some of his needs while some other needs still remained to be fulfilled.
(i) By quoting the lines from the above para, identify the needs of Govind which he is able to fulfill.
(ii) Also explain two other needs of Govind followed by the above needs, which are yet to be satisfied.
11. Sadaf is the Chief Executive Officer of a reputed company. She introduced appropriate skill
development programmes and a sound promotion policy for the employees of her company. To motivate
and retain the best talent in the company, she designed the jobs of the managers to include greater variety
of work content. Identify and explain the two incentives introduced by Sadaf to motivate the employees
of her company.
12. ‘Alfa Ltd.’ was dealing in renewable energy. To get the business, the team leader and his team used to
travel to different states to give presentations to their clients. As per the policy of the company, the leader
used to travel by air, whereas his team travelled by road/train. It was not only time consuming but also at
time forced female team members to travel alone. As a result, the subordinates were not acting in desired
manner to achieve organizational goals. The CEO came to know about it. He called the team leader,
discussed the matter with him and decided to change the travel policy of the company. It was decided that
all the members including the leaders would travel together in future and would usefully utilize the
travelling time in discussion with the subordinates about the presentation to be given to the clients. This
made a positive impact and every member of the team started acting in a manner as desired by the team
leader. State the features of the element of the function of management used by the CEO.
13. Suggest which element of directing is suitable under the following situation and why?
Workers are always unwilling to take up any kind of work. Due to rise in demand firm wants them to
cooperate to meet pending orders. The supervisor is finding it difficult to cope with this situation.
Ans. In this situation manager must use motivation element of directing to induce workers and to get
willing cooperation of workers.
14. You are a soft skills trainer who trains people in their speaking and writing skills. What ideas can you
give to the trainees about improving their communication effectiveness? (Any six points)
15. ‘Z limited’ is a Multi-national Company. It has two divisions: plastic utensils and steel utensils. Anita
Goyal is the head of plastic division and Sunali Gupta is the head of the steel division.
Anita is in the habit of taking all the decisions by herself. She is of the view that her subordinates cannot
take a right decision. This type of thinking has resulted in the fall of the morale of the employees of her
department. In order to boost the morale of the employees, she placed a proposal before the board of
directors for the increase in their salary. The board of directors accepted it.
Sunali’s nature is quite opposite to Anita. She has full faith in her subordinates. She takes every decision
after consulting her subordinates. Consequently, the morale of her employees has gone up. It has directly
influenced their performance. In order to further improve the performance of her employees, she has
ensured promotion to those who succeed in achieving the target fixed by her.
a. Explain the leadership style which is being followed by both the divisional managers.
b. On which motivators are both the divisions in the company focusing their attention?
16. Arun is working as HR Consultant in a firm, manufacturing cosmetics. The company is facing a
problem of high employee turnover. The CEO of the company has invited suggestions from him for
retaining the talented employees and reducing the employee turnover. Arun recommends that the good
employees be rewarded in a way that it creates a feeling of ownership among the employees and at the
same time, makes them contribute towards the growth of organization.
a. Identify the incentive and explain its type, which has been suggested by Arun.
b. Explain four other incentives of the same type.
CH 8-CONTROLLING
1. What do you mean by Deviation?
2. Deviation refers to difference between _____ performance and _____performance.
3. What do you mean by key result area in context of controlling?
4. Assertion: Controlling is both backward and forwardlooking function.
Reason: Controlling is blind without planning.
5. Ahaan Ltd. noticed that the average daily production of a worker is much less than the standard. Inspite
of all efforts, picture remains same. What is the alternative for Ahaan Ltd.?
6. Prakash Jha wishes to fix the standard production for workers along with the standard time to complete
the job. Under which function of management, are standards fixed? Define it.
7. Engineer India Ltd. is engaged in manufacturing machine components. The target production is 300
units per day. The company had been successfully attaining the target 3 months ago. Over the last 3
months it has been observed daily production varies between 220 and 250 per units. Identify the
management function which will rectify the above situation.
8. ‘30 minutes taken by Pizza Hut to deliver’ is an example of-
a. Quantitative Standard b. Qualitative Standard c. Both d. None of these
9. Controlling is not required in an educational institution. Defend or refute.
10. Which two steps in the process of control are concerned with compelling events to conform to plan?
11. Control is the exclusive duty of top management only. State True or False.

12. You are a manager in a car manufacturing company. It is reported that postal expenses have increased
by 10% and cost of raw material is increased by 2%. Which of the two deviations is more critical to you?
To which concept of controlling is it related? Explain it.
13. There are two managers -Rahim and Pankaj. Rahim is saying that controlling is forward-looking
whereas according to Pankaj controlling is looking back. Who is correct? Explain, with reasons.
14. Kapil& Co. is a large manufacturing unit. Recently, the company had conducted time and motion
studies and concluded that on an average, a worker could produce 300 units per day. However, it has been
noticed that the average daily production of a worker is in the range of 200-225 units. Name the function
of management discussed above. Also identify and explain the step in the process of this function which
helped in finding out that the actual production of a worker is less than the set target.
15. A.S. Ltd. is a large company engaged in assembly of air-conditioners. Recently the company had
conducted the Time and Motion study and concluded that on an average a worker can assemble ten air-
conditioners in a day. The target volume of the company in a day is assembling of 1,000 units of air-
conditioners. The company is providing attractive allowances to reduce labour turnover and absenteeism.
All the workers are happy. Even then the assembly of air conditioners per day is 800 units only. To find
out the reason the company compared actual performance of each worker and observed through C.C.T.V.
that some of the workers were busy in gossiping.
a. Identify the function of management discussed above.
b. State those steps in the process of the function identified which are discussed in the above paragraph.
16. Michael John is a sole proprietor in Nicobar. He has started trade after getting an M.B.A degree. He is
fully familiar with all the functions of management. He starts his business with the planning function of
management. He desires that all his activities should conform to planning. To this effect, he has adopted a
system that keeps a constant watch on all activities of the business. Consequently, there is zero possibility
of adverse results. It can, therefore, be said that this method is directly related to the results. Mr. John also
believes that this method applies not only to any one level of management but to all the levels as well.
a) Identify the function of management referred to in the above paragraph.
b) Describe any two features of the above-mentioned function.
c) Explain any two points of importance of the above identified function.
CH 9- FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
1. In the paint industry, various raw materials are mixed in different proportions with petroleum for
manufacturing different kinds of paints. One specific raw material is not readily and regularly available to
the paint manufacturing companies. Bonler Paints Company is also facing this problem and because of
this there is a time lag between placing the order and the actual receipt of the material. But once it
receives the raw materials, it takes less time in converting it into finished goods. Identify the factor
affecting the working capital requirements of this industry.
Ans. Availability of Raw material is the factor affecting the working capital requirements of this
industry.
2. Define the term ‘financial planning’.
3. Wealth maximization means maximization of______ of shares.
4. Assertion: Use of debt decreases the return of shareholders.
Reason: Debt and equity are similar in cost and risk.
5. Sigma ltd sells goods on cash. The company requires ______working capital.
a. More b. Less c. Nil d. Very much
6. In the absence of ___, no business planning can be successfully implemented.
a. Dividend decision b. Investment decision c. Financial planning d. Financing decision
7. It is the most significant blueprint of the financial activities of the business. Identify it and state any
two points describing the importance of it.
8. Explain the following as factors affecting the requirements of fixed capital:
(i) Diversification
(ii) Level of collaboration
9. ‘Madhur Milan’ is a popular online matrimonial portal. It seeks to provide personalized match making
service. The company has eighty offices in India, and is now planning to open offices in Singapore, Dubai
and Canada to cater to its customers beyond the country. The company has decided to opt for the sources
of equity capital to raise the required amount of capital.
(i) Identify and explain the type of risk which increases with the higher use of debt.
(ii) Explain briefly any two factors because of which you think the company has decided to opt for equity
capital.
10. Khoobsurat Pvt. Ltd. is the largest hair salon chain in Delhi, with over a franchise of two hundred
salons. The company is now planning to set up a manufacturing unit in Faridabad for production of
various kinds of beauty products under its own brand name.
In the context of the above case:
(i) Comment upon the fixed capital needs of the company.
(ii) How will the requirement of the fixed capital of the company change when it implements its plan to
set up a manufacturing unit?
11. The Return on Investment (ROI) of a company ranges between 10 – 12% for the past three years. To
finance its future fixed capital
needs, it has the following options for borrowing debt:
Option ‘A’ : Rate of interest 9%
Option ‘B’ : Rate of interest 13%
Which source of debt, ‘Option A’ or ‘Option B’, is better ? Give reason in support of your answer.
Also state the concept being used in taking the decision.
12. Vanshika Handlooms Ltd. is a company manufacturing home-furnishing products. It has been
consistently earning good profits for many years. This year too, it has been able to generate enough
profits. There is availability of enough cash in the company and it has good opportunities for growth in
future. It is a well-managed organisation and believes in quality, equal employment opportunities and
good remuneration practices. Many of its shareholders prefer to receive a regular income from their
investments. The company has taken a heavy loan from ICICI Bank and is bound by certain restrictions
on the payment of dividend according to the terms of the loan agreement.
The above discussion about the company leads to various factors which decide how much profit should be
retained and how much has to be distributed by the company. By quoting lines from the above discussion,
identify and explain any four such factors.
13. Well-being Ltd. is a company engaged in production of organic foods. Presently, it sells products
through indirect channels of distribution. But considering the sudden surge in the demand for organic
products, the company is now inclined to start its online portal for direct marketing. The financial
managers of the company are planning to use debt in order to take advantage of trading on equity. Explain
how a company can trade on equity with the help of a numerical example.
14. Explain any six factors affecting the choice of capital structure.
15. Hurray Ltd. owns an amusement park in Lucknow. Till now the company had been operating on
owner’s funds. Keeping in view its plan to set up two more amusement parks in the country the company
raised debt capital to take advantage of trading on equity. The debt in the overall capital of the company is
30%. The debt has been raised @12% whereas the return on investment is 10%. However even after
employing debt the earning per share i.e, EPS of the company is falling.
(i) Identify and explain the two types of financial decisions taken by the company.
(ii) Why do you think that even after employing debt the earning per share of the company is falling?
(iii) State any two factors which favored the issue of debt by the company.
Q16. State whether the working capital requirement will be more or less in the following and justify with
reasons-
a. Bread manufacturing firm d. Furniture manufacturing unit
b. Coolers manufacturing company e. Company with liberal credit policy
c. Woollen textile during summer. f. Company selling good on cash.
CH 10-FINANCIAL MARKETS
1. SEBI recently called for information and issued a show cause notice to NSE and its fourteen official
seeking explanations on the preferential access allegations at the Exchange’s Co-location facility. State
the function that SEBI performed by doing it.
Ans. Regulatory Function was performed by SEBI.
2. Treasury bills are issued by _________on behalf of the central government of India to raise short term
funds.
3. Radha’s grandfather has gifted her shares of a large steel company, with which he had been working.
The securities were in physical form. She already has a bank account and does not possess any other
forms of securities. She decides to sell the shares and approaches a registered broker for the purpose.
Mention one mandatory detail which she will have to provide to the broker.
Ans. She will have to give her Permanent Account Number (PAN) to the broker as it is mandatory
as per law.
4. Which of the following is a development function of SEBI?
a. Controlling insider trading.
b. Registration of brokers
c. Calling for information by undertaking inspections.
d. Conducting research and publishing information useful to all market participants.
5. Meca. Ltd. - a reputed automobile company needs rupees ten crores as additional capital to expand its
business. Atul Jalan, the CEO of the company wanted to raise funds through equity. On the other hand,
the finance manager, Nimi Sehdev said that the public issue may be expensive on account of various
mandatory and non-mandatory expenses. Therefore, it was decided to allot the securities to the
institutional investors. Name the method through which the company decided to raise additional capital.
Ans. Private Placement is the method through which the company decided to raise additional capital.
6. Assertion (A): Commercial bill is a self-liquidating instrument.
Reason (R): Commercial bill can be discounted with a bank if the seller needs funds before the bill
matures. Find the correct option:
7. Prices in the primary market are determined by the demand and supply of the securities. State true or
false.

8. ‘Money market is essentially a market for short term funds.’ In the light of this statement, state any
three features of money market.
9. Rajat and Rahul are good friends. They decide to try their luck in stock market by making an
investment. Rajat invests in the IPO of a company whereas Rahul buys existing shares of a steel company
through a stock broker. In context of the above case:
(i) Identify the two different types of capital markets approached by Rajat and Rahul respectively.
(ii) Differentiate between two different types of capital markets as identified above on the basis of
location, capital formation and determination of prices.
10. A Stock exchange is an institution which provides a platform for buying and selling of existing
securities. As a market, the stock exchange facilitates conversion of a security into money and vice versa.
Stock exchanges help companies to raise finance, provide liquidity and safety of investment to the
investors along with pricing of securities.
State two more functions of Stock exchange.
Ans. a. It promotes the habit of saving and investment among the general public
b. It helps the companies in raising finance, thus facilitating capital formation and economic
growth.
11.'Ganesh Steel Ltd.' is a large and credit-worthy company manufacturing steel for the Indian
market. It now wants to cater to the Asian market and decides to invest in new hi-tech machines. Since
the investment is large, it requires long-term finance. It decides to raise funds by issuing equity shares.
The issue of equity shares involves huge floatation cost. To meet the expenses of floatation cost the
company decides to tap the money-market.
1) Name and explain the money-market instrument the company can use for the above purpose.
2) What is the duration for which the company can get funds through this instrument?
3) State any other purpose for which this instrument can be used.
12. ‘Trading in securities is now executed through an on-line, screen-based electronic trading system’.
Explain this statement describing the steps involved in the trading and settlement procedure in a stock
exchange.
13. Madhav’s is one of the most trusted brands in Indian sweets and snacks segment. The company has
manufacturing plants in Kota, Kanpur, New Delhi and Mumbai. Madhav’s has its own retail chain stores
and a range of restaurants in these cities. Now, the company plans to extend its business in twelve more
cities in India. In order to raise the funds, its directors have decided to float a public issue through
prospectus. Besides, it intends to raise money to meet the floatation costs in terms of brokerage,
underwriting commission, advertising etc. In context of the above case:
(i)What is the other name used for the funds required to meet floatation costs?
(ii) Describe briefly the short-term instrument popularly used by the companies to raise funds required to
meet floatation costs. Who can issue them?
(iii) Distinguish between the two types of financial markets that the company intends to approach to meet
its financial needs.
14. After completing the Online NSE Academy Certified Capital Market Professional (E-NCCMP) course
Bhavya along with five other school friends started an investment portal for online trading and investment
under the name ‘Go Lucky’. As per law, in order to open an account with a Depository they first got their
business registered with SEBI.
Through ‘Go Lucky’ portal an investor can either trade in existing securities of the companies or invest in
the e-ipos. In context of the above case:
(i) What is the name given to the intermediaries like ‘Go Lucky’ who serve as a link between investors
and depository?
(ii) Name the depositories operating in India.
(iii) Mention any one function being performed by ‘Go Lucky’.
(iv) What are the two segments of capital market in which an investor can deal through ‘Go Lucky’
portal?
CH 11- MARKETING MANAGEMENT
1. Woyal Ltd. is an automobile manufacturer in India. It makes two million family cars every year. It has
a sales network of company approved retailers that spreads across 400 cities. In the context of above case,
identify the type of the channel of distribution adopted by the company.
2. In order to enhance the easy marketability of the products, Dev, a producer gets the home furnishing
products manufactured in confirmation to the predetermined specifications. Identify the type of marketing
function being described in the given case:
a. Physical distribution
b. Standardization and grading
c. Transportation
d. Warehousing
3. _________tool of promotion will primarily be used to promote or protect a company’s image or its
individual products. Fill in the blank.
4. ‘Buy one get one free’ is printed on the label of the package of a mosquito repellant. State the labeling
function being performed by this statement.
Ans. The labeling function being performed by the above statement is- Help in promotion of
Products.
5. Zoom Udyog, a car manufacturing Co., has started its business with Zoom 800 and slowly launched
Zoom-1000, Wagon-Z, Swy-fy etc. and offered various services like after sale services, availability of
spare parts etc. Identify the element of marketing mix referred here.
6. Assertion (A): If a company provides home delivery, it gives some flexibility to it in fixing prices.
Reason (R): Pricing objectives affect the fixation of the price of a product. Find the correct option:
7. __________element of marketing mix is concerned with informing the customers about the firm’s
product.
8. Suraj is a small entrepreneur involved in the manufacturing of hair wax. He finds that cost of
production of 100 gm of hair wax is Rs. 250. He has decided to keep a margin of 15% as profit moreover,
he has assessed that there is a free competition in this product segment.
In the context of above case:
a. Identify the function of marketing being performed by Suraj.
b. State briefly the two factors that he is taking into consideration while performing the function as
identified in part (a)
9. Identify the marketing management philosophies used by marketers in the following cases:
a. A detergent manufacturing company gives more quantity of detergent at the same price.
b. An artificial jewellery manufacturing company uses metal instead of glass to enhance durability of its
products.
c. A chips manufacturer makes its chips available at almost all the retail outlets of the city.
10. ‘An important task in the marketing of products relates to designing the label as it provides useful and
detailed information about the product.’ In the light of the above statement, draw a label for a ‘Liquid
Soap’/’Packed Juice’ and highlight the important information to be provided on it.
11. Anurag is a small-scale manufacturer of luggage bags. Keeping in line with the government policy of
universalisation of primary education, he has decided to tie up with the government schools in the nearby
rural areas to provide them with low-cost school bags, whereas as a production manager of a popular
luggage brand, Raghav constantly endeavours to devise new ways to add more value to his products in
terms of their features like comfort, durability and designs.
Distinguish between the type of marketing philosophy being pursued by Anurag and Raghav respectively
in the above case. (any two)
12. Mr. David, working as Sales executive in Mahalaxmi Ltd. possesses good marketing techniques. His
techniques involve oral presentation of message in the form of conversation with prospective customers
for the purpose of making sales. Name the promotional tool used by Mr. David.
13. A company was marketing 'water purifiers' which were very popular due to their quality and after
sales services provided to the customers. The company was a leading company in the market and earning
huge profit. Because of huge profits the company ignored the after sales services. As a result, its relations
with the customers got spoiled and the image of the company was damaged in the public. Top
Management become concerned when the profits for the current quarter fell steeply. On analysis it was
revealed that ignoring the after sales services was its reason. Therefore, the company took all possible
measures to protect and promote its favourable image in the eyes of the public. As a result, the goodwill
of the company improved in the society.
(i) Name and state the communication tool used by the marketer in the above case to improve its image
(ii) Also explain role of the tool as identified in part (a).
14. Ashima purchased a bottle of tomato-sauce from the local grocery shop. The information provided on
the bottle was not clear. She fell sick on consuming it. She filed a case in the District Forum under
Consumer Protection Act and got the relief.
(i) Identify the important aspect neglected by the marketer in the above case.
(ii) Explain briefly the functions of the aspect identified in (i) above.
15. After acquiring the necessary knowledge and skills on starting an Aloe-vera Farm, Ashok wanted to
be the leading manufacturer of Aloe-vera products worldwide. He observed that the products were
expensive as the demand for the products was more than supply. He was also keen to promote methods
and practices that were economically visible, environmentally sound and at the same time protecting
public health.
Ashok's main consideration was about the amount of money paid by the consumers in consideration of
the purchase of Aloe-vera products. He also thought that competitors’ prices and their anticipated
reactions must also be considered for this.
After gathering and analysing information and doing correct marketing planning, he came to know that
the consumers compare the value of a product to the value of money which they are required to pay. The
consumers will be ready to buy a product when they perceived that the value of the product is at least
equal to the value of money which they would pay.
Since he was entering into a new market, he felt that he may not be able to cover all costs. He knew that
in the long run, the business will not be able to survive unless all costs are covered in addition to a
minimum profit. He examined the quality and features of the products of the competitors and the
anticipated reactions of the consumers. Considering the same he decided to add some unique features to
the packaging and also decided to provide free home delivery of the products.
The above case relates to a concept which is considered to be an effective competitive marketing weapon.
In conditions of perfect competition, most of the firms compete with each other on this concept in the
marketing of goods and services.
(i) Identify the concept.
(ii) Explain briefly any four factors discussed in the above case related to the concept so identified.
16. Ginika, Tanish and Rohit were friends from college days and now they are doing different kinds of
business. They regularly meet and discuss their business ideas and exchange notes on customer
satisfaction, marketing efforts, product designing, selling techniques, social concerns etc.
In one of such meetings, Ginika drew the attention of Tanish and Rohit towards the exploitation of
consumers. She told that most of the sellers were exploiting the consumers in various ways and were not
paying attention towards the social, ethical and ecological aspects of marketing, whereas she was not
doing so.
Tanish told that they were under pressure to satisfy the consumers, but stated that the consumers would
not buy or not buy enough unless they were adequately convinced and motivated for the same.
Rohit stressed that a company cannot achieve its objectives without understanding the needs of the
customers. It was the duty of the businessmen to keep consumer satisfaction in mind because business is
run by the resources made available to them by the society. He further stated that he himself was taking
into consideration the needs of the customers.
Identify the various types of thinking that guided Ginika, Tanish and Rohit in making efforts for their
business. Also state one more feature of the various types of thinking identified that is not given in the
above para.
Ans.The various types of thinking that guided Ginika, Tanish and Rohit in the marketing efforts of
their business are described below.
(i) (Ginika) Societal marketing concept- The main focus of this philosophy is on both the needs of the
potential buyers as well as concern for the society at large. The ends include profit maximization through
customer satisfaction and social welfare.
(ii) (Tanish) Selling concept- The main focus of this philosophy is on existing products. The ends include
profit maximization through sales volume.
(iii) (Rohit) Marketing concept- The main focus of this philosophy is on customer needs. The ends
include profit maximization through customers’ satisfaction.
17. Sunaina was a student of Business Studies of class XII .Her father was a farmer who grew different
varieties of rice and was well-versed about various aspects of rice cultivation. He was also selected by the
government for a pilot-project on rice cultivation. As a project-work in Business Studies she decided to
study the feasibility of marketing good quality of rice at a reasonable price. Her father suggested her to
use internet to gather customers’ views and opinions. She found that there was a huge demand for
packaged organic rice. She knew that there were no pre-determined specifications in case of rice because
of which it would be difficult to achieve uniformity in the output. To differentiate the product from its
competitors, she gave it the name of ‘Malabari Organic Rice’ and classified it into three different varieties
namely-Popular, Classic and Supreme, based on the quality. She felt that these names would help her in
product differentiation.
Explain the three functions of marketing, with reference to the above paragraph.
CH 12- CONSUMER PROTECTION

1. Manuj bought a packet of chips from a local shopkeeper and found that the ingredients given on the
label were not legible. He complained about it to the company. The company sent a written apology
stating that they will make sure that existing packets are withdrawn from the market and new packets with
legible labels are soon made available. State the consumer right which Manuj exercised.
2. Suman bought a box of cheese of a reputed brand from a local shopkeeper. On opening the box she
found a piece of stone in the cheese. She reported the matter to the shopkeeper who forwarded her
complaint to the concerned company. The company ignored her complaint. She filed case against the
company in forum and won the case. State the consumer right which Suman exercised by filing the case.
3. On Sonika's birthday her mother gave her a pair of gold earrings. After one month Sonika observed that
the ear-rings are losing their shine. She checked the mark on the earrings and found that it was not a
proper Hallmark and her mother had been cheated by the shopkeeper. So, she filed a complaint in the
district forum which rejected it. Not satisfied by the decision of district forum, after three months decided
to appeal further.
Can Sonika appeal against the decision of the district forum?
4. Rajiv, a vegetarian was traveling in Rajdhani Express was served food and later he found out that it had
a non-vegetarian content. His sentiments were hurt. Will Rajiv be able to claim compensation, which right
of the consumer is violated?
5. A shopkeeper sold you some spices, claiming that those were pure. Later a laboratory test showed that
those were adulterated. What precautions should you have taken before buying and what remedies are
available to you for the wrong act?
6. Under which consumer right does a business firm set up consumer grievance cell?
a. Right to safety b. Right to be heard c. Right to seek redressal d. None of these
7. _____ is the apex institution under CPA 2019.
8. Assertion: Consumer protection is important from the business point of view.
Reason: In the long term interest and for moral justification, enlightened business firms aim to serve and
satisfy the customers.

9. The Consumer Affairs Minister, Ram Villas Paswan, recently declared that the sale of a pack of soft
drinks above MRP will now attract penal action. Moreover, he laid stress on an important prerequisite-
‘Consumers need to be more aware and file complaints. If there is no complaint, how can government
take action’?
Identify the responsibilities of consumer being highlighted in the above case.
10. Rohit went to purchase his class XII reference book from Mangal Book Store. He was asked to pay
more than the MRP because of the shortage of this reference book with the store. Being a registered
member of a consumer organization named Common Cause in Delhi; he denied doing this and also made
a complaint against this practice.
State any three points indicating the role played by Consumer Organisations and NGOs for the protection
and promotion of interest of consumers.
11. Mr. Anil bought a car from an automobile company. He found that the engine was defective and made
a complaint in the appropriate consumer court.
(i) State any two directions which the consumer court can issue to the automobile company after being
satisfied with the genuineness of the complaint.
(ii) Who can file a complaint on behalf of Mr. Anil?
12. XYZ Ltd., a firecracker manufacturing firm had launched some new products on Diwali which
attracted many buyers. However, the product package did not have adequate ‘directions for use’, because
of which many accidents took place. Despite the accidents, the product was not withdrawn from the
market by the manufacturers.
Identify and explain the consumer rights which are being violated by the firm. 4.
13. Indian Youth Organisation (IYO) organised a visit of its members to an old age home to inculcate the
habit of social work among them. The visit revealed that the living conditions of the inmates of the old
age home were not hygienic. So, the IYO members decided to clean the premises. During their
cleanliness drive, they realised that the old-age home also required pest control. But some of the inmates
of the old-age home were reluctant for it because they believed that the pest control may create health
problems for them. IYO therefore decided to provide ethical, safe and odourless pest control. They
showed the inmates of the old age home a pamphlet of the proposed pest control product which
promised easy, inexpensive and long-lasting pest control. The inmates happily agreed and the pest control
was carried out. It worked for a fortnight but to their dismay, the effect started wearing off. IYO contacted
the pest control company which kept on postponing their visit. After waiting for a month, IYO filed a case
in the consumer court.
The consumer court was satisfied with the genuineness of the complaint and issued necessary directions
to the pest control company. State any six directions that might have been issued by the court.
14.Sumit purchased an ISI marked washing machine of a famous brand ‘MG’ from TG Electronics Ltd.
The shopkeeper asked him to wait for two days for installation of the machine. His friend, Vivek, was
very fond of experimenting with new electronic products. He told Sumit that there is no need to wait for
the company’s representative to install the machine and that he could do it. So, both of them installed the
machine without following the manufacturer’s instructions. Initially, effectively and the wash was good.
But after two days, the machine stared stopping in between the wash cycle. Sumit and Vivek tried their
best to start the machine but failed in their efforts. Sumit, therefore, approached TG Electronics Ltd.,
which refused to provide any service on the plea that the installation of the machine was not done by
the company.
a. State the responsibility which Sumit had to fulfill as an aware consumer to get the services of the
company.
b. Also explain briefly any two rights which Sumit could have exercised had he fulfilled his responsibility
identified in part (a).
15. Srima purchased a washing machine worth Rs.55,000 from CY Electronics. After two weeks, she
found that the washing machine was not working properly. She complained about it to CY Electronics.
After several complaints, CY Electronics did not rectify the defect in washing machine.
a. Identify the consumer right violated by CY Electronics
b. Where can Srima file a case against CY Electronics and under which right?
c. List any 3 remedies that Srima can receive.
Assignment(2021-22)
Class XII
Subject: Accountancy
CHAPTER 1: ACCOUNTING FOR NOT- FOR- PROFIT ORGANISATIONS

1. What is the nature of Income and Expenditure Account?
2. What is the basis of preparing Receipts and Payments Account?
3. Which of the following is to be recorded in an income and Expenditure Account
a) Purchase of a fixed Asset
b) Capital Expenditure incurred on a fixed asset
c) Profit on the sale of a fixed asset
d) Sale of a fixed asset
4. Subscription received in cash during the year amounted to `60,000; subscription received in
advance for next year was `3,000 and received in advance during previous year was `2,000.
Subscription in arrear at the end of current year was `5,400. The amount credited to Income &
Expenditure Account will be:
a)`53,600 b) `66,400
c) `55,600 d)`64,400
5. Salary paid in cash during the current year was `80,000; Outstanding salary at the end was
`4,000; Salary paid in advance last year pertaining to the current year was `3,200; paid in
advance during current year for next year was `5,000. The amount debited to Income and
Expenditure Account will be:
a)`85,800 b) `77,800
c) `82,200 d)`74,200
6. Amount received from sale of grass by a club should be treated as:
a) Capital Receipt b) Revenue Receipt
c) Asset d) Earned Income
7. If there is a ‘Match Fund’, then match expenses and incomes are transferred to:
a) Income and Expenditure A/c b) Assets side of Balance Sheet
c) Liabilities side of Balance Sheet d) Both Income and Expenditure A/c and to Balance
Sheet
8.How will you treat the following items in the income and expenditure account and balance
sheet of a non profit organization?
a) Donation for Building Fund b) Purchase of investment
c)Legacy d)Entrance fee
9. From the following extract of the Receipts and Payments Account of National Club and the
additional information, you are required to compute the income from subscriptions for the
year ended 31st March, 2017 and show it in the Final Accounts of the club:
RECEIPTS & PAYMENTS ACCOUNT (an extract)
for the year ended 31st March,2017
Receipts ` Payments `
To Subscriptions 1,00,000
Additional Information: As on 31.3.2016 As on 31.3.2017

(`) (`)
Subscriptions Outstanding 20,000 40,000
Subscriptions Received in Advance 30,000 20,000
10. Calculate the amount of stationery that will be debited to Income and Expenditure Account
for the year ended 31st March, 2018:
`
st
Stock of Stationery on 1 April, 2017 1,60,000
Stock of Stationery on 31st March,2018 1,20,000
Creditors for Stationery on 1st April,2017 1,80,000
Creditors for Stationery on 31st March,2018 2,20,000
Stationery purchased during the year ended 31st March,2018 4,70,000
Ans. Amount of stationery to be shown in Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended
31st March, 2018:
Particulars `
Stock of Stationery on 1st April, 2017 1,60,000
Add. Creditors for Stationery on 31st March,2018 2,20,000
Stationery purchased during the year ended
31st March,2018 4,70,000
Less. Stock of Stationery on 31st March,2018 1,20,000
Creditors for Stationery on 1st April,2017 1,80,000
Stationery to be shown in Income and Expenditure
Account 5,50,000
11. How are the following items dealt in preparing Income and Expenditure Account for the year
ended 31st March, 2018 and Balance Sheet as at that date?
As on 31.3.2017 As on 31.3.2018
(`) (`)
Sundry Expenses Outstanding 10,000 18,000
Sundry Expenses paid In Advance 16,000 14,000
Sundry Expenses paid during the year ended 31st March, 2018 `80,000.
12. From the following information, calculate amount of subscriptions outstanding for the year
ended 31st March,2018:
A club has 100 members each paying an annual subscription of `2,000.The Receipts and
Payments Account for the year showed a sum of `2,05,000 received as subscriptions. The
following additional information is provided:
`
st
Subscriptions Outstanding on 31 March,2017 60,000
Subscriptions received in advance on 31st March,2018 80,000
Subscriptions received in advance on 31st March,2017 28,000
13. Following is the summary of cash transactions of Friends Club for the year ended
31st March, 2017.Prepare the Income & Expenditure Account for the year ended 31st March,
2017 and also the Balance Sheet as at that date:
RECEIPTS & PAYMENTS ACCOUNT
Receipts ` Payments `
To Cash in hand 14,130 By Rent & Taxes 8,610
To Entrance Fees 5,520 By Salaries 9,400
To Subscriptions 22,000 By Electricity charges 420
To Donations 10,610 By General expenses 1,250
To Interest 410 By Books 3,120
To Profit from By Office expenses 4,500
entertainment 820 By Investments 14,000
By Cash at Bank 6,190
By Cash in hand 6,000
53,490 53,490
Additional Information:
(i) In the beginning of the year, the club had Books worth ` 30,000 & Furniture worth `5,800.
(ii) Subscriptions in arrears on 1st April, 2016 were `600 &` 700 on 31st March,2017.
(iii)`1,800 were due by way of rent in the beginning as well as at the end of the year.
(iv)Write off `500 from Furniture &`3,000 from Books.
(v) On 31st March,2017 Salaries `1,500 & Electricity Charges `200 were outstanding.
14. From the following Trial Balance, how are the following dealt with while preparing the final
accounts of a club:
Particulars Dr. (`) Cr. (`)

Match Fund ….. 80,000
Match Fund Investments 72,000 …..
Match Fund Bank Balance 3,500 ……
Interest on Match Fund ….. 2,880
Investments
Match Expenses 5,500 …..
15. Young India Club decided to spread awareness about cleanliness in the country under the
programme ‘Swatchh Bharat Abhiyan’and donated for the same. The Receipts and
Payments of the club are given below. You are required to prepare the Income &
Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.2017and also the Balance Sheet as at that
date after taking into consideration the following additional information.
Additional information:
(i) The club has 50 members each paying an annual subscription of `2,500.Subscription
outstanding on 31st March, 2016 were to the extent of `30,000.
(ii) In the beginning of the year, the club owned Building at `10,00,000;Furniture worth
`1,00,000 and Books `1,00,000.
(iii) On 31stMarch, 2017, Salaries outstanding amounted to `10,000.Salaries paid in 2016-17
included`30,000 for the year 2015-16.
Receipts and Payments Account
For the year ended 31st March,2017
Receipts Amount(`) Payments Amount(`)
To Balance b/d 35,000 By Salaries 1,40,000
To Subscriptions By General Expenses 30,000
2015-16 25,000 By Electricity Charges 20,000
2016-17 1,00,000 By Books 50,000
2017-18 20,000 1,45,000 By Newspapers 40,000
To Rent received from the By Balance c/d 20,000
use of hall 1,10,000
To Sale of old newspapers 10,000
3,00,000 3,00,000
CHAPTER2: ACCOUNTING FOR PARTNERSHIP FIRMS: FUNDAMENTALS

1. Gupta and Sharma were partners in a firm. They wanted to admit two more members in a firm.
List the categories of individual other than minors who cannot be admitted by them.
2. Can a partner be exempted from sharing the losses in a firm? If yes, under what circumstances?
3. Interest on capital will be paid to the partners if provided for in the partnership deed but only
out of:
a) Profits b) Reserves
c) Accumulated Profits d) Goodwill
4. P and Q are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1: 2. R was manager who received the salary
of`10,000 p.m. in addition to commission of 10% on net profits after charging such commission.
Total remuneration to R amounted to `1,80,000. Profit for the year before charging salary and
commission was:
a) `7,20,000 b)`6,00,000
c) `7,80,000 d) `6,60,000
5. A and B are partners in a firm. They are entitled to interest on their capitals but the net profit
was not sufficient for this interest, then the net profit will be distributed among partners in:
a) Agreed Ratio b) Profit Sharing Ratio
c) Capital Ratio d) Equally
6. Which one of the following is NOT an essential feature of a partnership?
a) There must be an agreement
b) There must be a business
c) The business must be carried on for profits
d) The business must be carried on by all the partners
7. A and B are partners. B draws a fixed amount at the end of every month. Interest on drawings
is charged @15% p.a. At the end of the year interest on B's drawings amounts to `8,250.
Drawings of B were:
a) `12,000 p.m. b) `l0,000 p.m.
c) `9,000 p.m. d) `8,000 p.m.
8. A, B and C started business on 1st July,2015.You are required to find out:
i. A drew `8,000 in the beginning of every month for 9 months ending 31st March,2016.
ii. B drew `8,000 at the end of every month for 9 months ending 31st March,2016.
iii. C drew `8,000 every month for 9 months ending 31st March,2016.
Calculate interest on drawings@ 10%p.a.
9. Anil,Sunil and Ravinder entered into a partnership on 1st April,2015 to share profits in the ratio
of 2:1:1.It was provided in the deed that Ravinder’s share of profits will not be less than `70,000
p.a. The losses for the year ended 31st March,2016 were `2,00,000 before allowing interest `8,000
on Anil’s loan which is due for the current year. You are required to show necessary account for
division of loss and also pass the necessary journal entries.
10. Mudit and Uday are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 2:3.Their capital accounts
as on April 1, 2015 showed balances of `70,000 and `60,000 respectively. The drawings of Mudit
and Uday during the year 2015-16 were `16,000 and `12,000 respectively. Both the amounts
were withdrawn on 1stJanuary, 2016.It was subsequently found that the following items had been
omitted while preparing the final accounts for the year ended 31st March,2016:
i. Interest on capital@6% p.a.
ii. Interest on drawings @6%p.a.
iii. Mudit was entitled to a commission of `4,000 for the whole year.
Show your workings clearly and pass a rectifying entry in the books of the firm.
11. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5:4:1. C is given a guarantee that his
share of profits in any given year would be `5,000.Deficiency if any, would be borne by A and
B equally. The profit for the year ended 31st March, 2016 amounted to `40,000.Pass the
necessary journal entries in the books of the firm.
12. A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3.Their fixed
capitals were `1,00,000; `2,00,000 and 3,00,000 respectively. For the year ended 31st
March,2018 interest on capital was credited to them @10% instead of 9%.Pass the necessary
adjustment entry.
13. The partners of a firm distributed the profits for the year ended 31st March,2016 90,000 in the
ratio of 3:2:1 without providing for the adjustments:
i. A and B were entitled to a salary of 1,500 each per annum.
ii. B was entitled to a commission of 4,500.
iii. B and C had guaranteed a minimum profit of 35,000 p.a. to A.
iv. Profits were to be shared in the ratio of 3:3:2.
Pass the necessary journal entry for the above adjustments in the books of the firm.
14. X and Y are partners with a profit-sharing ratio of 1:2 with capitals of `4,00,000 and
`6,00,000 respectively. On 1stOctober, 2014 X and Y granted Loans of `1,00,000 and `60,000
resp.to the firm. Distribute the profit/losses amongst the partners for the year ended 31st
March,2015 in each of the following cases:
i. If the profit before interest for the year amounted to `12,000.
ii. If the profit before interest for the year amounted to `3,000.
iii. If the loss before interest for the year amounted to `7,500.
15. Sarita and Vandana were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of their capitals
contributed on commencement of business which were `4,00,000 and `3,00,000
respectively. The firm started business on 1st April,2016. According to the partnership
agreement:
i. Every year `50,000 or 10% of the profit, whichever is more, will be donated for
providing school fees of specially abled children.
ii. Interest on capital is to be allowed @12% p.a. and interest on drawings is to be charged
@10%p.a.
iii. Sarita and Vandana are to get a monthly salary of `10,000 and `15,000 respectively.
The profits for the year ended 31st March,2017 before making above appropriations was
`6,00,000. Drawings of Sarita and Vandana were `2,00,000 and `2,50,000 respectively. Interest
on drawings amounted to `10,000 for Sarita and `12,500 for Vandana.
You are required to:
i. Identify the value being highlighted in this case.
ii. Prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation Account and Partner’s Capital Accounts
assuming that their capitals are fluctuating.
CHAPTER 3: GOODWILL:NATURE AND VALUATION AND CHANGE IN PROFIT

sSHARING RATIO AMONG THE EXISTING PARTNERS

1.Why is ‘Goodwill’ considered an intangible asset but not a fictitious asset?
2. How will you deal with reserves and accumulated profits at the time of change in the profit
sharing ratio among the existing partners?
3. Under the capitalisation method, the formula for calculating the goodwill is:
a) Super profits multiplied by the rate of return
b) Average profits multiplied by the rate of return
c) Super profits divided by the rate of return
d) Average profits divided by the rate of return
4. A firm earns `1,10,000. The normal rate of return is 10%. The assets of the firm amounted to
`11,00,000 and liabilities to `1,00,000. Value of goodwill by capitalisation of Average Actual
Profits will be:
a) `2,00,000 b) `10,000
c) `5,000 d) `1,00,000
5. Any change in the relationship of existing partners which results in an end of the existing
agreement and enforces making of a new agreement is called
a) Revaluation of partnership.
b) Reconstitution of partnership.
c) Realization of partnership.
d)None of the above.
6. Total Capital employed in the firm is `8,00,000, reasonable rate of return is 15% and Profit for
the year is `12,00,000. The value of goodwill of the firm as per capitalization method would
be :
a) `82,00,000 b) `12,00,000
c) `72,00,000 d) `42,00,000
7. A, B and Care partner sharing profits in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. On 1-4-2016 they decided to share
the profits equally. On the date there was a credit balance of `1,20,000 in their Profit and Loss
Account and a balance of `1,80,000 in General Reserve Account. Instead of closing the General
Reserve Account and Profit and Loss Account, it is decided to record an adjustment entry for
the same. In the necessary adjustment entry to give effect to the above arrangement:
a)Dr. A by `50,000; Cr. B by `50,000
b)Cr. A by `50,000; Dr. B by `50,000
c)Dr. A by `50,000; Cr. C by `50,000
d) Cr. A by `50,000; Dr. C by `50,000
8. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2.They agreed to take C into
partnership for 1/3rd share. For this purpose, goodwill is to be valued at two year’s purchase of
the average profit of last four years which were as follows:
Year ending on 31st March, 2014 `50,000 (Profit)
Year ending on 31st March, 2015 `1,20,000 (Profit)
Year ending on 31st March, 2016 `1,80,000 (Profit)
Year ending on 31st March, 2017 `70,000 (Loss)
On 1st April, 2016 a Motor bike costing 50,000 was purchase and debited to travelling
expenses account, on which depreciation is to be charged @20% p.a. Calculate the value
of the goodwill.
9. On 1stApril, 2018 an existing firm had assets of `75,000 including cash of `5,000.The
partner’s capital accounts showed a balance of `60,000 and reserve constituted the rest. If the
normal rate of return is 10% and the goodwill of the firm is valued at `24,000 at 4 year’s
purchase of super profits, find the average profits of the firm.
10. X, Yand Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4:3:2.From 1st April, 2017, they decided
to share profits equally. On that date, their books showed the following items:
Profit and Loss A/c `1,20,000
General Reserve A/c `45,000
Workmen Compensation Reserve `60,000
Advertisement Suspense Account (Dr.) `90,000
Record the necessary journal entries.
11. P, Q and Rare partners sharing profits equally. They decided that in future, R will get 1/5th
share in the profits. On the date of change in profit sharing ratio, the firm’s goodwill is valued
at `3,00,000.Pass the necessary journal entry to give effect to the above arrangement.
12. Following information is available about the business of a firm:
i. Profits: 2013: `40,000; 2014: `50,000;2015: `60,000
ii. Non-recurring income of `1,000 is included in the profits of 2014.
iii. Profits of 2013 have been reduced by `6,000 because goods were destroyed by fire.
iv. Goods have not been insured but it is thought to insure them in future. The insurance
premium is estimated at `400 per year.
v. Reasonable remuneration of the proprietor of business is `6,000 per year, but it has not
been taken into account for calculation of above mentioned profits.
vi. Profits of 2015 include `5,000 income on investment.
vii. Goodwill is agreed to be valued at two year’s purchase of the weighted average profits of
the past three years.
viii. The appropriate weights to be used are: 2013- 1; 2014- 2 and 2015- 3.
Calculate the value of goodwill of the firm.
13. The following information relates to a partnership firm:
i. Profits for the last five years:
2012 `80,000 2015 `1,50,000
2013 `1,00,000 2016 `2,70,000
2014 `2,00,000
ii. Average Capital Employed is `5,00,000.
iii. Rate of normal profit 20%
Find out the value of goodwill on the basis of:
(a) Three year’s purchase of average profits.
(b)Three year’s purchase of super profits.
(c) Capitalisation of super profits.
14. Bhavya and Naman were partners in a firm carrying on a tiffin service in Hyderabad. Bhavya
noticed that a lot of food is left at the end of the day. To avoid wastage, she suggested that it is
to be distributed to the needy; Naman wanted that it should be mixed with the food being
served the next day.
Naman then gave a proposal that if his share in the profit is increased, he will not mind free
distribution of leftover food. Bhavya happily agreed. So, they decided to change their profit
sharing ratio to 1:2 with immediate effect. On that date, revaluation of assets and reassessment
of liabilities was carried out that resulted into a gain of `18,000.On that date, the goodwill of
the firm was valued at `1,20,000.
i. Pass the necessary journal entries for the above in the books of the firm.
ii. State any two values highlighted in the above case.
15. Ashok, Bhim and Chetan were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2:1.Their
Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2015 was as follows:
Balance Sheet as at 31st March,2015
Liabilities ` Assets `
Creditors 1,00,000 Land 1,00,000
Bills Payable 40,000 Building 1,00,000
General Reserve 60,000 Plant 2,00,000
Capitals: Stock 80,000
Ashok 2,00,000 Debtors 60,000
Bhim 1,00,000
Chetan 50,000 3,50,000 Bank 10,000
5,50,000 5,50,000
Ashok, Bhim and Chetan decided to share the future profits equally, w.e.f.1s April,2015. For this,
it was agreed that :
i. Goodwill of the firm be valued at `3,00,000.
ii. Land be revalued at `1,60,000 and Building be depreciated by 6%.
iii. Creditors of `12,000 were not likely to be claimed and hence be written off.
Prepare Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital Accounts and Balance Sheet of the reconstituted
firm.
CHAPTER 4: ADMISSION OF A PARTNER
1. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses equally. Z enters for 1/8th share
Which he acquires in the form as half of it as gift from A and remaining equally from
both. Find A’s new share?
2. Ritesh and Hitesh are childhood friends. Ritesh is a consultant whereas Hitesh is an
architect. They contributed equal amounts and purchased a building for `2 crores.
After a year, they sold it for ` 3 crores and shared the profits equally. Are they doing
the business in partnership ? Give reason in support of your answer.
3. X and Y are partners in a firm with capital of `1,80,000 and `2,00,000. Z was admitted for
1/3rd share in profits and brings `3,40,000 as capital, calculate the amount of goodwill:
a) `2,40,000 b) `1,00,000
c) ` 1,50,000 d) ` 3,00,000
4. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3.On admission, C brings
`70,000 as cash and `43,000 against Goodwill. New profit ratio between A, B and C is 7:5:4,
The sacrificing ratio of A and B is:
a) 3:1 b)1 : 3
c) 4 : 5 d) 5 :9
5. X and Yare partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. Z is admitted for 1/5th share and he
brings in `1,40,000 as his share of goodwill in cash of which `1,20,000 is credited to X and
remaining amount to Y. New profit sharing ratio will be:
a) 4 : 3 : 5 b) 2 : 2 : 1
c) 1:2:2 d) 2 : 1 : 2
6. In case of admission of a partner, the entry for unrecorded investments will be:
a) Debit Partners Capital A/c and Credit Investments A/c
b) Debit Revaluation A/c and Credit Investment A/c
c) Debit Investment A/c and Credit Revaluation A/c
d) None of the above
7. Ramesh and Suresh are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:1 respectively. Ramesh Capital is
`1,02,000 and Suresh Capital is `73,000. They admit Mahesh and agree to give him 1/5th share
in future profit. Mahesh brings `14,000 as his share of goodwill. He agrees to contribute capital
in the new profit sharing ratio. How much capital will be brought by Mahesh?
a) `43,750 b) `45,000
c) `47,250 d) `48,000
8.Anubhav and Babita are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2
respectively. On April 1, 2018, they admitted Deepak as a new partner for 3/13th share
in the profits. Deepak contributed the following assets towards his capital and for his
share of goodwill: Land ` 90,000, machinery `70,000, stock ` 60,000 and debtor
`40,000. On the date of admission of Deepak, the goodwill of the firm was valued at
`5,20,000. Goodwill appearing in the balance sheet was `5,00,000. Record the
necessary Journal entries in the books of the firm.
9. Asha and Aditi are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3: 2.
They admit Raghav as a partner for1/4th share in the profits of the firm. Raghav
Brings`6,00,000 as his capital and his share of goodwill in cash. Goodwill of the firm
is to be valued at two years’ purchase of average profits of the last four years. The
profits of the firm during the last four years are given below :
Year Profit (`)
2013 – 14 3,50,000
2014 – 15 4,75,000
2015 – 16 6,70,000
2016 – 17 7,45,000
The following additional information is given:
(i) To cover management cost an annual charge of ` 56,250 should be made for the purpose
of valuation of goodwill.
(ii) The closing stock for the year ended 31.3.2017 was overvalued by `15,000.
Pass necessary journal entries on Raghav’s admission showing the working notes
clearly.
10.Karan and Varun were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 1 :2.
Their fixed capitals were `2,00,000 and `3,00,000 respectively. On 1st April, 2016
Kishore was admitted as a new partner for 1/4thshare in the profits. Kishore brought
`2,00,000 for his capital which was to be kept fixed like the capitals of Karan and
Varun. Kishore acquired his share of profit from Varun. Calculate goodwill of the firm
On Kishore’s admission and the new profit sharing ratio of Karan, Varun and Kishore.
Also, pass necessary Journal Entry for the treatment of Goodwill on Kishore’s
Admission considering that Kishore did not bring his share of goodwill premium in
Cash.
11.Anil and Beena were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 4:3. On
1stApril, 2018 they admitted Chahat as a new partner for 1/4th share in the profits of
the firm. On the date of Chahat’s admission, the Balance Sheet of Anil and Beena
showed a General Reserve of`70,000, a debit balance of `7,000 in the Profit and
Loss Account and Investment Fluctuation Fund of `10,000.The following was agreed
upon, on Chahat’s admission:
(a) Chahat will bring `80,000 as her capital and her share of goodwill premium of
`21,000incash.
(b) The market value of investments was `17,000 less than the book value.
(c) New profit sharing ratio was agreed at 2:1:1.
Pass the necessary Journal entries for the above on Chahat’s admission.
12. A,B and C are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. D is admitted into the
firm for1/4th share in profits, which he gets as 1/8 from A and 1/8 from B. The total capital of
the firm is agreed upon as `3,20,000 and D is to bring in cash equivalent to ¼ of this amount
as his capital. The capitals of other partners are also to be adjusted in the ratio of their
respective shares in profits. The capitals of A, B and C after all adjustments are`1,00,000,
`75,000 and `60,000 respectively. Calculate the new capitals of A, B and C, and record the
necessary journal entries.
13. Pass entries in the firms Journal for the following
(i) Unrecorded investments worth `20,000
(ii) Unrecorded liability towards suppliers `5,000.
(iii) An item of`1,600 included in Sundry Creditors is not likely to be claimed and hence
should be written back.
Ans.
Date Particulars L.F. Dr.(`) Cr.(`)
(i) Investment A/c …Dr. 20,000 20,000

To Revaluation A/c
(Being the increase in value of assets)
(ii) Revaluation A/c …Dr. 5,000 5,000
To Debtors A/c
(Being the decrease in value of assets)
(iii) Creditors A/c …Dr. 1,600 1,600
To Revaluation A/c
(Being the decrease in value of Liabilities)

14.Rajat and Ravi are partners sharing profits in the capital ratio. Their Balance Sheet as at 31st
March, 2018 was as follows:
Creditors 12,000 Debtors 2,00,000
Workmen Compensation Bank 60,000
Reserve 50,000 Stock 1,80,000
Employees Provident Fund 18,000 Machinery 6,10,000
Provision for doubtful debts Patent 10,000
Capiatl A/cs: 40,000 Investment 20,000
Rajat 7,00,000 Goodwill 40,000
Ravi 3,00,000
10,00,000
11,20,000 11,20,000
Ramesh was admitted as a new partner on the following terms:
(i) He brings proportionate capital on the basis of total capital of new firm after all
adjustments.
(ii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at `40,000. Ramesh is admitted for ¼ share and unable to
bring his share of Goodwill in cash.
(iii) Claim on account of workmen compensation was `30,000.
(iv) Stock was undervalued by10%.
(v) Patents are valueless.
(vi) Investments are valued `30,000. Rajat and Ravi took over the investment at this value
in their profit sharing ratio.
Pass the necessary Journal entries and prepare Revaluation Account, Partner's Capital Accounts and
15. A and B were partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 11:4 respectively. C was
admitted as a partner for 1/5th share in the profits on 1st April,2017.
Balance Sheet of A & B as at31stMarch, 2018 was as follows:
Creditors 15,000 Bank 17,000
Bills Payable 30,000 Stock 29,000
Employees Provident Fund 20,000 Debtors 30,000
Workmen’s Compensation Less : Provision for
Fund 1,60,000 Doubtful debts 1,000 29,000
Capitals Plant
A 20,00,000 Land 3,00,000
B 5,50,000 25,50,000 Building 10,00,000
14,00,000
27,75,000 27,75,000
It was agreed that

i) C was to bring capital to the extent of 1/5th of the total capital of the new firm &
`1,50,000 for his share of goodwill, half of which was withdrawn by A & B.
ii) Building & Plant were to be depreciated by 20%.
iii) The Claim on account of Workmen’s Compensation was settled at `10,000.
Pass the necessary Journal entries and prepare the Revaluation Account, Partner’s Capital
Accounts & the Balance Sheet of the new firm.
CHAPTER 5: RETIREMENT/DEATH OF A PARTNER
1. When Profit and Loss Suspense Account is opened in Partnership firm?
2. Jayant, Kartik and Leena were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:2: 3
Kartik died and Jayant and Leena decided to continue the business. Their gaining ratio was 2:3
Calculate the new profit-sharing ratio of Jayant and Leena.
3. Gaining ratio is used to distribute ------------------ in case of retirement of a partner.
a) Goodwill b)Revaluation Profit or Loss
c) Profit and Loss Account (Cr. Balance) d) Both b and c
4. A and B were partners. They shared profits as A- ½; B- 1/3 and carried to reserve 1/6. B died.
The balance of reserve on the date of death was `30,000. B’s share of reserve will be:
a) `10,000 b)`8,000
c) `12,000 d)`9,000
5. On retirement of a partner, debtors of `34,000 were shown in the Balance sheet. Out of this
`4,000 became bad. One debtor became insolvent. 70% were recovered from him out of
`10,000. Full amount is expected from the balance debtors. On account of this item loss in
revaluation account will be:
a) `10,200 b) `3,000
c)`7,000 d) ` 4,000
6. A, B and C were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:2:1. Books are closed on
31st March every year. C died on November 5, 2018. Under the Partnership deed the executors of
the deceased partner are entitled to his share of profit to the date of death calculated on the basis
of last year’s profit. Profit for the year ended 31st March, 2018 was `2,14,000. C’s share of profit
will be
a) `28,000 b) `32,000
c) `28,800 d) `48,000
7. On death of a Partner, the remaining partner(s) who have gained due to change in profit sharing
ratio should compensate the
a) Deceased partner only
b) Remaining partners (who have sacrificed) as well as deceased partner
c) Remaining partners only (who have sacrificed)
d) None of the above
8. X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:3:5. Goodwill is appearing in their
books at a value of `50,000. X retires and on the day of X’s retirement, goodwill is valued at
`45,000. Y and Z decided to share the future profits equally. Pass the necessary Journal entries.
9. K, M and A are partners sharing profits as 20%,30% and 50%. K decided to retire with the
consent of other partners and sold her share to M. Goodwill was valued at two and a half years
purchase of the average profits of three years. Profits of these three years were `50,000, `70,000,
and `60,000. Reserve fund stood in the balance sheet at `30,000 at the time of her retirement.
You are required to record necessary journal entries to record above adjustments on
K’sretirement.
10. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1:2:3. C retires and his capital, after
making adjustments for reserves and profit on revaluation stands at `1,20,000. A and B agreed to
pay him `1,50,000 in full settlement of his claim. Record necessary Journal entry for the
treatment of goodwill if the new profit sharing ratio is decided at 1:3.
11. Monu, Nigam and Shreya were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of
4:3:1. The firm closes its books on 31st March every year. As per the terms of partnership deed on
the death of any partner, the share of goodwill of the deceased partner will be calculated on the
basis of 50% of the net profits credited to the partner’s capital account during the last four
completed years before death. Monu died on 1st July, 2015. The profits for last four years were:
Year Profit (`)

2011-12 97,000
2012-13 1,05,000
2013-14 30,000
2014-15 84,000
His share of profit in the year of his death was to be calculated on the basis of sales. Sales for the
year ended 31st March, 2015 amounted to `21,00,000. From 1st April, 2015 to 30th June, 2015 the
firm’s sales were `2,00,000. Pass necessary Journal entries relating to the amount of goodwill and
profit to be transferred to Monu’s Capital Account. Also show your workings clearly.
12. A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:2;1. A retires and after all adjustments
relating to revaluation, goodwill and accumulated profits the capital account of B showed a credit
balance of 1,40,000 and that of C 1,00,000. It was decided to adjust the capitals of B and C in
their profit-sharing ratio. Calculate the new capitals of the partners and record the necessary
Journal entry for bringing in or withdrawing cash. Show your workings clearly.
CHAPTER6 - DISSOLUTION OF PARTNERSHIP FIRM
Very short answer- (1 mark)
1. Give two circumstances under which a partnership firm is dissolved.
2. On firm’s dissolution, what entry will be made on realisation of goodwill which was shown in
Balance Sheet?
3. Court may order dissolution of partnership firm
a) When a partner has become of unsound mind
b) When a partner is permanently incapacitated
c) When a partner is found guilty of misconduct
d) All of the above.
4. Which of the following is paid first in case of dissolution of partnership firm?
a) Realisation expenses b)External liabilities
c) Secured loan d) Partner’s loan
5. At the time of dissolution total assets are worth `3,00,000 and external liabilities are worth
`1,20,000. If assets realised 120% and realisation expenses paid were `4,000, then profit/loss on
realisation will be:
a)Profit ` 60,000 b)Loss ` 60,000
c) Loss ` 56,000 d) Profit ` 56,000
6. When Realisation expenses are to be borne by a partner, actual Realisation expense is credited
to:
a)Partner’s capital a/c b) Cash a/c
c) Realisation a/c d) None of the above
7. On dissolution of a firm Goodwill appearing in the balance sheet is transferred to:
a) Capital account of partners b) Cash account
c) Debit side of Realisation account d) Credit side of Realisation account.
8. Pass journal entries for the following transactions:
(i) Realisation expenses amounted to ` 5,000.
(ii) Realisation expenses amounted to ` 8,000 were paid by partner X.
(iii) Realisation expenses amounted to ` 10,000 were paid by the firm on behalf of the partner.
9. Z and Y are two partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:1. Give the journal entry at the time of
dissolution in the following cases:
i) Deferred revenue advertising expenditure appeared at `30,000.
ii) Profit and Loss A/c was appearing on the liabilities side of Balance Sheet at ` 60,000.
iii) An unrecorded investment realised at `60,000.
10. Journalise the following transactions:
(i) Realisation expenses amounted to ` 15,000 were paid by the firm. Mr. X one of the partner has
to bear these expenses.
(ii) Realisation expenses amounted to ` 20,000 were paid by the firm. ` 8,000 were to be borne
by the firm and balance by Maruti, a partner.
(iii) Dissolution expenses amounted to ` 20,000. ` 8,000 were to be borne by the firm and
balance by Maruti, a partner. The expenses were paid by the Maruti.
(iv) Sudhir, a partner, was allowed a remuneration of `10,000 to carry out dissolution of the firm.
He was to bear all expenses of realization which amounted to ` 16,000 were paid by the firm.
11. A, B and C decided to dissolve the partnership firm. The position as at 31st March 2018, the date of
dissolution, was as follows:
Creditors 2,75,000 Furniture 5,000

A’s Loan Account 30,000 Stock 1,75,000
Capital Account Debtors 2,40,000
A 1,00,000 Bills Receivables 30,000
B 50,000 Cash 10,000
C 5,000 1,55,000
4,60,000 4,60,000
The share profit and losses in the ratio of A: 1/2 ; B : 3/10 and C : 1/5.`20,000 of the debtors
proved bad; the bills receivables were realized in full; the stock realized ` 1,70,000; Furniture was
taken over by B at Book Value and the expenses of Realisation amounted to ` 20,000.
Prepare Realisation Account and Partners capital Account in the books of the firm.
12. Prashant and Rajesh were partners in a firm sharing profit in the ratio of 3:2. Inspite of
repeated reminders by the authorities, they kept dumping hazardous material into a nearby river.
The Court ordered for the dissolution of their partnership firm on 31st March 2012. Prashant was
deputed to realise the assets and to pay the liabilities. He was paid ` 1,000 as commission for his
services. The financial position of the firm as on 31st March 2012 was as follows:
Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2012
Creditors 80,000 Building 1,20,000

Mrs. Prashant’s Loan 40,000 Investments 30,600
Rajesh’s Loan 24,000 Debtors
34,000
Investment Fluctuation Fund 8,000 Less : Provision for
Capitals: Doubtful debts 30,000
Prashant : 42,000 4,000
Rajesh : 42,000 84,000 Bills Receivable 37,400
Cash 6,000
Profit and Loss Account 8,000
Goodwill 4,000
2,36,000 2,36,000
Following was agreed upon:

(i) Prashant agreed to pay off his wife’s loan.
(ii) Debtors realized ` 24,000.
(iii) Rajesh took away all investments at ` 27,000.
(iv) Building realized ` 1,52,000.
(v) Creditors were payable after 2 months. They were paid immediately at 10% discount.
(vi) Bills receivables were settled at a loss of ` 1,400.
(vii) Realisation expenses amounted to ` 2,500.
Prepare Realisation Account.
Long answers- (6/8 marks)
13. A and B share profits and losses in the ration of 3:2. They have decided to dissolve their firm.
Assets and External Liabilities have been transferred to Realisation Account. Pass the journal
entries for the following transactions:
(a) Bank loan of ` 12,000 is paid off.
(b) A was to bear all expenses of realisation for which he is given a commission of ` 400.
(c) Deferred Advertisement Expenditure A/c appeared in the books at ` 28,000.
(d) Stock worth ` 1600 was taken over by B at ` 1,200.
(e) An unrecorded computer realized ` 7,000.
(f) There was an outstanding bill of repairs for ` 2,000, which was paid off.
14. Rohit, Kunal and Sarthak are partners in a firm. They decided to dissolve the firm. Pass
necessary Journal entries for the following after various assets (other than cash and bank) and the
third party liabilities have been transferred to Realisation Account:
(a) Kunal agreed to pay off his wife loan of ` 6,000.
(b)Total Creditors of the firm were ` 40,000. Creditors worth ` 10,000 were given a piece of
furniture costing ` 8,000 in full and final settlement. Remaining Creditors allowed a discount of
10%.
(c) Rohit had given a loan of ` 70,000 to the firm which was duly paid.
(d) A machine which was not recorded in the books was taken over by Kunal at ` 3,000, whereas
its expected value was ` 5,000.
(e)The firm had a debit balance of ` 15,000 in the Profit and Loss Account on the date of
dissolution.
(f)Sarthak paid the realisation expenses of `16,000 out of his private funds, who was to get a
remuneration of ` 15,000 for completing dissolution process and was responsible to bear all
expenses to bear all the realisation expenses.
15. Ram, Shyam and Mohan shared profits in the ration of 2:2:1. Following is their Balance Sheet
on the date of dissolution:
Creditors 40,000 Cash at Bank 44,000

Bills Payable 2,600 Debtors 15,000
Provisions for depreciation 15,000 Stock 50,000
Ram’s loan 40,000 Plant 75,000
Capital Accounts: Patents 20,000
Ram 1,35,000 100 shares of X Company 5,000
Shyam 30,000 300 shares of Y Company 18,000
Mohal 10,000 Goodwill 15,600
Advertisement Suspense A/c 30,000
2,72,600 2,72,600
1. Ram takes over Debtors at `10,000; Stock at a 20% less value; and Plant at `30,000.
2. One of the Creditors took some of the patents whose book value was `8,000, at a valuation of
`4,800. Balance of the Creditors were paid at a discount of `1,200.
3. There was an unrecorded asset of `15,000 (not mentioned in the Balance Sheet) which was
taken over by Ram at `10,000 in part payment of his loan.
4. Shares in X Co. were agreed to be taken over by Shyam at `30 per share.
5. Share in Y Co. were valued at `12,000. All partners divided these shares in their profit-sharing
ratio.
6. Balance of the Patient realized 70% of their book value.
Prepare necessary ledger account.
16. Pass journal entries for the following transactions on the dissolution of the firm of T and P
after various assets (other than cash) and outside liabilities have been transferred to Realisation
Account:
1. Bank loan `34,000 was paid.
2. Furniture worth `70,000 was taken by partners T at `43,000.
3. Partner P agreed to pay a creditor `7,500.
4. A computer previously written off fully realised at `3,900
5. Expenses of Realisation`3,200 were paid by partner T.
6. Profit on Realisation`4,800 was distributed between T and P in 5:3 ratio.
Ans:
Date Particulars L.F. Dr. (`) Cr. (`)
(i) Realisation A/c Dr. 34,000

To Bank A/c 34,000
(Being the payment of bank loan made)
(ii) T’s Capital A/c Dr. 43,000
To Realisation A/c 43,000
(Being furniture taken by T)
(iii) Realisation A/c Dr. 7,500
To P’s Capital A/c 7,500
(Being the creditor paid by P credited to his Capital Account)
(iv) Bank A/c Dr. 3,900
To Realisation A/c 3,900
(Being the computer realized previously written off fully)
(v) Realisation A/c Dr. 3,200

To T’s Capital A/c 3,200
(Being the dissolution expenses paid by T credited to his Capital
Account)
(vi) Realisation A/c Dr. 4,800
To T’s Capital A/c 3,000
To P’s Capital A/c 1,800
(Being the profit on realization transferred to the Capital Accounts
of Partners)
CHAPTER 7: ISSUE OF SHARES

1. Is ‘Reserve Capital’ a part of ‘Unsubscribed Capital’ or ‘Uncalled Capital’?
2. What is meant by a ‘Share’? Give any one difference between ‘Preference Share’ and ‘Equity
Share’.
3. If a share of `10 issued at a premium of `2 on which the full amount has been called and `8
(including premium) paid is forfeited, the Share Capital Account will be debited with
a) `12 b) `10 c) `8 d) `6
4. A company has issued 10,000 Equity Shares of `10 each and it has called the total nominal
(face) value. It has received the total amount, except the final call of `3 on 500 Equity Shares.
These 500 Equity Shares will be shown as
a) Subscribed and fully paid-up.
b) Subscribed but not fully paid-up.
c) Issued share capital.
d) None of these.
5. Star Ltd. issued 10,000 equity shares of `100each at a premium of 20%. Mamta, who has been
allotted 2,000 shares did not pay first and final call of `5 per share. On forfeiture of Mamta's
shares, amount debited to Securities Premium Reserve Account will be
a) `5,000. b) `10,000 c) `15,000 d) Nil.
6. On a share of `20 issued at a premium of `4on which `16 (including premium) is called-up and
`10 (including premium) paid is forfeited, the Share Capital Account will be debited by
a) `20. b) `12. c) `10. d) `16.
7. Mohar Ltd. forfeited 160 shares of `10each on which the holder had paid only the application
money of `2 per share. Out of these, 40 shares were reissued to Gaurav as fully paid for `9 per
share. The gain on reissue is
a) `320. b) `160 c) `40. d) None of these.
8. Shiva Ltd. issued 1,00,000 Equity Shares of `10 each at a premium of ` 5 per share. The whole
amount was payable on application. The issue was fully subscribed. Pass necessary Journal
entries.
9. X Ltd. invited applications for 11,000 Equity Shares of `10 each issued at 20% premium. The
whole amount was payable on application. The issue was undersubscribed by 1,000 shares. Pass
necessary Journal entries.
10. Citizen Watches Ltd. invited applications for 50,000 shares of `10 each payable `3 on
application, `4 on allotment and balance on first and final call. Applications were received for
60,000 shares. Applications were accepted for 50,000 and remaining applications were rejected.
All calls were made and received except first and final call on 500 shares. Pass the Journal entries
in the books of company.
11.Sugandh Ltd. issued 60,000 shares of `10 each at a premium of `2 per share payable as `3 on
application, `5 (including premium) on allotment and the balance on first and final call.
Applications were received for 92,000 shares. The Directors resolved to allot as:
(i) Applicants of 40,000 shares 30,000 shares
(ii) Applicants of 50,000 shares 30,000 shares
(iii) Applicants of 2,000 shares Nil
Mohan who had applied for 800 shares in Category (i) and Sohan, who was allotted 600 shares in
Category (ii) failed to pay the allotment money. Calculate amount received on allotment.
Ans. Total application money received = 92,000 x 3 = `2,76,000
Less adjusted in application = 60,000 x3 = `1,80,000
Excess = ` 96,000
Less refunded = 2,000 x 3= ` 6,000= `90,000
Mohan was allotted: Applied for x total allotted/total applied for
800 x 30,000/40,000 = 600 shares
Excess money adjusted in allotment = (800 -600) x 3= `600
Sohan was allotted: Allotted x total applied/total allotted for
600 x 50,000/30,000 = 1,000 shares
Excess money adjusted in allotment = (1,000 -600) x 3= `1,200
Total amount received on allotment = (60,000 x 5) - 90,000- (600 x 5- 600)-(600 x 5- 1200)
= `2,05,800
12. Z Ltd. issued 20,000 Equity shares of `10 each at par payable; On application `2 per share;
non allotment `3 per share; on first call `3 per share; on second and final call `2 per share. Mr.
Gupta was allotted 100 shares. Pass Journal entries relating to forfeiture of shares
Case 1: Mr. Gupta failed to pay the allotment money & his shares were forfeited.
Case 2 : Mr. Gupta failed to pay the allotment money and first call & his shares were forfeited.
Case3:Mr. Gupta failed to pay the first call & Second Call his shares were forfeited.
13.Eastern Star Cycle Ltd. was registered with a capital of 5,00,000 divided into 20,000
shares of `25 each. The company offered to public for subscription 10,000 shares payable `5 per
share on application, `5 per share on allotment and balance in two calls of `7.50 each. The
company received application for 11,600 shares. Application for 1,000 shares was rejected and
application money was refunded to the applicants. A person who applied for 1,000 shares was
allotted only 400 shares and excess of his application money was carried forward towards the
payment of allotment and calls. Give Journal entries.
14. N K Ltd., a truck manufacturing company, is registered with an authorised capital of
`1,00,00,000 divided into equity shares of ` 100 each. The subscribed and paid up capital of the
company is `50,00,000. The company decided to open technical schools in the Jhalawar district
of Rajasthan to train the specially abled children of the area. It is planning to provide them
employment in its various production units and industries in the neighborhood area. To meet the
capital expenditure requirements of the project, the company offered 20,000 shares to the public
for subscription. The shares were fully subscribed and paid. Present the share capital in the
Balance Sheet of the company as per the provisions of Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013.
Also identify any two values that the company wants to communicate.
15. X Ltd. invited applications for issuing 50,000 equity shares of `10 each.
The amount was payable as follows:
On Application : ` 2 per share
On Allotment : `2 per share
On First Call : ` 3 per share
On Second and Final Call : Balance amount
Applications for 70,000 shares were received. Applications for 10,000 shares were rejected and
the application money was refunded. Shares were allotted to the remaining applicants on a pro-
rata basis and excess money received with applications was transferred towards sums due on
allotment and calls, if any. Gopal, who applied for 600 shares, paid his entire share money with
application. Ghosh, who had applied for 6,000 shares, failed to pay the allotment money and his
shares were immediately forfeited. These forfeited shares were re-issued to Sultan for ` 20,000; `
4 per share paid up. The first call money and the second and final call money was called and duly
received. Pass necessary journal entries for the above transactions in the books of X Ltd. Open
Calls-in-Advance Account and Calls-in-Arrears Account wherever necessary.
CHAPTER8 – ISSUE OF DEBENTURES AND REDEMPTION OF DEBENTURES

1. What is meant by debentures issued as collateral security?
2. Global Savings Bank Ltd. is to redeem 10,000; 10% Debentures of `100each on 30th June,
2020. How much amount should be transferred to DRR by it?
a) ` 2,50,000
b) `1,00,000
c) ` 5,00,000
d) Nil
3. Debenture interest is paid
a) at a predetermined rate.
b) at variable rate.
c) at a rate based on net profit of the company.
d) at a rate as determined by the company from time to time.
4. X Ltd. purchased building of Y Ltd. for `4,00,000.The consideration was paid by issue of 10%
Debentures of `100each at a discount of `20.10% Debentures Account is credited with
a) `5,20,000. b) `5,00,000 c) `4,80,000. d) `3,20,000
5. Which of the following statement is Correct?
a) A debenture holder is an owner of the company.
b) A debenture holder can get his money back only on the liquidation of the company.
c) A debenture issued at a discount can be redeemed at a premium.
d) A debenture holder receives interest only in the event of profits.
6. When debentures are issued at a discount, the discount is written off
a) After debentures have been redeemed.
b) In the year when debentures are issued.
c) During the life of the debentures.
d) None of these.
7. William Pens Ltd. issued 10,000, 7% Debentures of `100each at a discount of `4. It has a
balance in Securities Premium Reserve of `25,000. It will write off Discount on Issue of
Debentures
(a) `40,000 from Securities Premium Reserve.
(b) `40,000 from Statement of Profit and Loss.
(c) `25,000 from Securities Premium Reserve and `15,000 from Statement of Profit and Loss
(Finance Cost).
(d) `15,000 from Securities Premium Reserve and `25,000 from Statement of Profit and Loss
(Finance Cost).
8. Pass the journal entries for issue of Debentures in each of the following alternative cases:
a) 10% Debentures of `100 each issued at `95, repayable at `100.
b) 10% Debentures of `100 each issued at `95, repayable at `105.
c) 10% Debentures of `100 each issued at `105, repayable at `110.
9. On 1st April, 2015, K.K. Ltd. issued 500, 9% Debentures of `500 each at a discount of 4%,
redeemable at a premium of 5% after three years. Pass necessary journal entries for the issue of
debentures and debenture interest for the year ended 31st March, 2016 assuming that interest is
payable on 30th September and 31st March and the rate of tax deducted at source is 10%. The
company closes its books on 31st March every year.
10. A. Ltd. Issued 5,000; 9% Debentures of `100 each at par and also raised a loan of `80,000
from bank, collaterally secured by 1,00,000; 9% Debentures. How will be the Debentures shown
in the Balance Sheet of the company assuming that the company has passed Journal entry for
issue of Debentures as collateral security in the books?
11. On 1st May,2017, Solar Energy Ltd. issued 10,000; 9% Debentures of `100 each at a discount
of 10% redeemable at par after five years. All the Debentures were subscribed. It has a balance of
`60,000 in Capital reserve and `1,00,000 in securities premium reserve which the company
decided to use for writing off the loss. It decided to write off the discount in the first year itself.
Pass the journal entries for issue of Debentures and writing off the discount. Also prepare
discount on issue of Debentures A/c.
12. On 31st March,2020,VJ Ltd., an unlisted company, not being a NBFC or HFC, had the
following balances in its books;
9% Debentures ` 6,00,000
Debentures Redemption Reserve ` 30,000
Surplus, i.e., Balance in Statement of Profit and Loss ` 3,00,000
On that date, the company transferred `30,000 to Debentures Redemption Reserve. It redeemed
debentures of `3,00,000on 30th June, 2020.
Pass necessary Journal entries in the books of the company for the above.
13.i) Z Ltd. purchased building for `22,00,000. Half of the payment was made by cheque and the
balance half by issue of 9% Debentures of `100 each at a premium of 10%. Pass necessary
journal entries.
(Note- Number of Debentures issued = 10,000)
(ii) Green tea Ltd. purchased a piece of land from Jss Ltd. and paid the consideration as follows;
(a) Issued a cheque for `10,00,000;
(b) Issued a bill of exchange for 3 months for `5,00,000;
( c) Issued 5,000; 9% Debentures of `100 each at par redeemable at 10% premium after 5 years.
Pass the journal entry.
14.On 1st April,2016, GSC InfoTech ltd. took over assets of `4,50,000 and liabilities of `60,000
of RSHS ltd. for the purchase consideration of `4,40,000. It paid the purchase consideration by
issuing 8% Debentures of `100 each at 10% premium. On the same date, it issued another 30,000,
8% Debentures of `100 each a discount of 10%, redeemable at a premium of 5% after 5 years.
According to the terms of the issue `30 is payable on application and the balance on the allotment
of Debentures.
You are required:
(a) Pass journal entries in the books of GSC InfoTech ltd. to record the above transactions and
writing off loss on issue of Debentures for two years.(ignore interest on Debentures)
(b) Prepare Loss on issue of Debentures Account for the years ended 31st March, 2017 and 31st
March 2018.
(Note - Goodwill A/c = `50,000)
15. On 1st April, 2019 the following balances appeared in the books of Blue& Green Ltd., an
unlisted (Non-NBFC/HFC) company:
12% Debentures (Redeemable on 31st August, 2020) `20,00,000
Debentures Redemption Reserve `1,00,000
The company met the requirements of Companies Act, 2013 regarding Debentures Redemption
Reserve and Debentures Redemption Investments and redeemed the debentures.
Ignoring interest on investments, pass necessary Journal entries for the above transactions in the
books of company.
CHAPTER 9 : Financial Statements of Companies

1. What is ‘Operating Cycle’?
Ans. ‘Operating Cycle’ is the time between the acquisition of assets for processing and their
realization in cash and cash equivalents.
2. Give the meaning of ‘Long-term Provisions?
Ans. Provisions for which the related claims are expected to be settled beyond twelve months or
an operating cycle are classified as Long-term Provisions.
3. Debentures redeemable after 10 years from the date of issue are shown as
a) Long-term Borrowings.
b) Other Long-term Liabilities,
c) Short-term Borrowings.
d) Other Short-term Liabilities.
4. Mining Rights are
a) Tangible Fixed Assets.
b) Other Current Liabilities.
c) Intangible Assets under Development.
d) Short-term Borrowings.
5. Premium on Redemption of Debentures is shown as
a) Long-term Borrowings.
b) Short-term Borrowings.
c) Other Long-term Liabilities.
d) Short-term Provisions.
6. Identify the item which is not a part of Shareholders' Funds:
a) Share Application Money Pending Allotment
b) Share Capital
c) Reserves and Surplus
d) Money Received against Share Warrants.
7. Cash and Cash Equivalents does not include
(a) Cheques.
(b) Balances with banks.
(c) Bank deposits with more than 12 months maturity.
(d) Inventories.
8. Under what heads will you classify the following items on the equity and liability side of the
Balance Sheet of a limited company:
(i) Unclaimed Dividend
(ii) Proposed Dividend
(iii) Securities Premium Reserve
(iv) Share Forfeited Account
(v) Public Deposits
(vi) Debentures
(vii) Bills discounted but not matured.
9. How would you disclose the following items in the Financial Statements of a Limited
Company?
(i) Outstanding Salary
(ii) Bank Balance
(iii) Unpaid Matured Deposits
(iv) Preliminary Expenses
(v) Sale of services
(vi) Goodwill written off
(vii) Medical Expenses.
10. State under which major headings and sub-headings the following items will be presented in
the Balance Sheet of a company as per Schedule III of the Companies Act,2013
(i) Capital reserve
(ii) Calls in Advance
(iii) Loose Tools
(iv) Bank Overdraft
(v) Copyrights and Patents.
CHAPTER10 : Financial Statements Analysis

1. What is meant by‘ Financial Analysis’?
Ans. Financial Analysis is a systematic process of classifying the data into simple groups and
making a comparison of various groups with one another to pin-point the strong points and
weakness of the business.
2. List any one objective of analyzing the financial statements.
Ans. To measure the earning capacity of the business.
Or
To measure the short-term and long-term solvency of the enterprise.
3. List any two uses of analyzing the financial statements.
Ans. 1.Helpful in taking investment decisions.
1. Helpful in taking credit decisions.
4. From financial statement analysis, the creditors are interested to know
a) Liquidity.
b) Efficiencies.
c) Profit.
d) Share capital.
5. Creditors or Suppliers are interested to know the
a) Profitability of the firm in relation to turnover.
b) Profitability of the firm in relation to investments.
c) Short-term solvency/liquidity of the concern.
d) Effective utilisation of its (firm's) resources.
6.Comparison of values of one period with those of another period for the same firm is
a) Intra-firm comparison.
b) Inter-firm comparison.
c) Pattern comparison.
d) Trend comparison.
7. Which of the following is not a limitation of Financial Statement Analysis?
a) Ignores the Qualitative Elements
b) Not free from personal bias
c) Intra-firm Comparison
d) Ignores the price level changes
8. Comparative Statements show the changes in
a) Percentages.
b) Absolute amounts.
c) Both (a) and (b).
d) Ratios.
9. State any three objectives of analysis of financial statements.
10. State any three limitations of analysis of financial statements.
11. How is analysis of financial statements important to Government Authorities?
CHAPTER 11: Tools for Financial Analysis.
1. What is meant by Comparative Financial Statements?
2. Give any two objectives of Comparative Financial Statements.
3. Which item is assumed to be 100 while preparing Common-Size Statement of Profit and Loss?
a) Revenue from operations
b) Balance Sheet Total
c) Net Purchases
d) None of these
4. Find the odd one out of following:
a) Common-Size Statements.
b) Ratio Analysis.
c) Cash Flow Statement.
d) Financial Statements of a company
5. Common size Balance Sheet is ………………
6. Which item is assumed to be 100 while preparing Common-Size Statement of Profitand Loss?
a) Cost of Goods sold
b) Revenue from operations
c) Finance cost
d) None of these
7. Write all the tools of Financial Analysis.
Ans. The tools of Comparative Statements:
(i) Comparative Statements
(ii) Common Size Statements
(iii) Accounting Ratios
(iv) Cash Flow Statements
(v) Funds Flow Statements
(vi) Break-Even Point Analysis
(i) Comparative Statement :
Financial Statement of two years is compared. Absolute change
and then the percentage change in figure are calculated. It is a form of Horizontal Analysis
(ii) Common Size Statement : Various figure of single year Financial Statement are converted in
to percentage with respect to some common base. In Income Statement sales in take as base
(i.e.100) where as in Balance Sheet total assets are taken as base.
(iii) Trend Analysis : Here trend percentage are calculted for a number of years taking
one year as a base year. This helps is assessing the trend of increase or decrease in various items.
(iv) Accounting Ratios: Study of relationship between various items is known as Ratio analysis.
(v) Cash Flow Statement : It shows the inflow and outflow of cash and cash equivalents
during a particular period which helps in finding out the causes of changes in cash between the
two dates.
8. From the following information, prepare Comparative Balance Sheet of X Ltd. :
Particulars 31.03.2017 31.03.2018
` `
Current Assets 13,00,000 18,20,000
12% Debentures 5,00,000 4,00,000
Equity Share Capital 10,00,000 10,00,000
Fixed Assets 15,00,000 20,00,000
Investments 2,00,000 50,000
Current Liabilities 9,00,000 12,70,000
Reserves and Surplus 6,00,000 12,00,000
9. Write all the significance or importance of Financial Analysis.
Ans. For Management: To know the profitability, liquidity and solvency condition to measure the
effectiveness of own decision taken and take corrective measure in future.
For Investors: Want to know the earning capacity and future growth prospects of the business
which helps in assessing the safety of their investment and reasonable return.
For Creditors :Short term creditors want to know the liquidity condition of the business where as
long term creditors want to know the solvency will be able to pay the interest constantly.
For Govt.: To know the profitability condition for taking taxation decision and to find out the
company.
For Employees :To know the progress of the company for assessing Bonus, increase in wages and
ensure stability of their job.
CHAPTER12 : ACCOUNTING RATIOS
1. What is meant by ‘Liquidity of business’?
2. What will be the impact of ‘Cash paid to Trade Payables’ on a current ratio of 2:1? State the
reason.
3. M. Ltd. has a Current Ratio of 3.5 : 1 and Quick Ratio of 2 : 1. If the excess of Current
Assets over Quick Assets as represented by Stock is Rs.1, 50,000, calculate Current Assets.
a) ` 3,50,000
b) ` 2,50,000
c) ` 3,00,000
d) ` 1,00,000
4.Change in inventories of Finished Goods, Work-in-Progress and Stock in Trade refers to:
a) Opening inventory - Closing inventory
b) Closing inventory - Opening inventory
c) Either and (a) or (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
5. The Quick Ratio of a company is 1.5:1. What is the effect of transaction ‘Bills payable paid at
maturity.’ on this ratio.
a) Improve
b) Decrease
c) No change
6. Operating Ratio + Operating Profit Ratio = ……….
7. Choose the correct option from the following statements:
Statement I – Suppliers of long-term funds are concerned with firm’s long-term solvency
Statement II – Investors are interested about the credit worthiness of the firm.
a) Only Statement II is true
b) Only Statement I is true
c) Both Statements are true
d) Both Statements are false
8. The current assets of a company are `29,745 and the current ratio is 1.5.The inventories stood
at `8,827.Calculate the liquid ratio and comment on the liquidity position of the company.
9.Calculate Debt Equity Ratio from the following:
`
Land and Building 15,00,000
Plant and Machinery 6,00,000
Intangible Assets 1,00,000
Inventory 5,50,000
Trade Receivables 1,70,000
Trade Payables 1,20,000
Long Term Borrowings 12,00,000
10. Calculate inventory turnover ratio:
Opening inventory `20,000; Closing inventory `22,000; Purchases `80,000; Wages `9,000;
Carriage Outwards `2,000; Returns Outwards `1,000;Revenue from operations `80,000;
Carriage Inwards `4,000; Rent `5,000.
11. Calculate the Gross Profit Ratio:
Opening Inventory `60,000; Closing Inventory `1,00,000; Inventory Turnover Ratio 8 Times;
Selling Price 25% above cost.
12.Calculate Return On Investment:
Net Profit after interest and tax `1,00,000; Current assets `4,00,000; Current liabilities
`2,00,000; Tax rate 20% ; Fixed assets `6,00,000; 10% Long term debt `4,00,000.
13. Calculate Trade Receivables Turnover Ratio and Average Collection Period from the
following:
Total Revenue from operations `4,00,000
Cash Revenue from operations: Being 25% of Credit Revenue from operations
Closing Trade Receivables `1,00,000
Excess of Closing Receivables over Opening Trade Receivables `40,000.
14. Assuming that the Debt to Equity ratio is 2:1, state giving reasons whether this ratio would
increase, decrease or remain unchanged in the following cases:
i. Purchase of fixed asset on a credit of 2 months.
ii. Purchase of fixed asset on a long term deferred payment basis.
iii. Issue of bonus shares.
iv. Sale of fixed asset at a loss of `3,000.
15. From the following information, calculate the following ratios:
i. Gross Profit Ratio
ii. Working Capital Ratio
iii. Proprietary Ratio
`
Paid up capital 8,00,000
Current assets 5,00,000
Credit Revenue from operations 3,00,000
Cash Revenue from operations 75% of credit sales
9% Debentures 3,40,000
Current Liabilities 2,90,000
Cost of Revenue from operations 6,80,000
CHAPTER 13- CASH FLOW STATEMENT
1. Give any one limitation of Cash Flow Statement.
2. What is meant by Cash Flow Statement.
Ans: Cash Flow statement is a statement that shows the flow of cash and cash equivalents during
the period under report. It is prepared showing cash flow under three heads, namely;
1. Cash Flow from Operating Activities.
2. Cash Flow from Investing Activities
3. Cash Flow from Financing Activities.
3. Which of the following is not an investing cash flow?
a) Purchase of marketable securities for ₹ 25,000 cash.
b) Sale of land for ₹28,000 cash.
c) Sale of 2,500 shares (held as investment) for ₹15 each.
d) Purchase of equipment for ₹500 cash.
4. Balance Sheet (An Extract)
Equity and liabilities 31-3-2019 31-3-2020
12% Debentures ₹2,00,000 ₹1,60,000
Additional Information: Interest on debentures is paid on half yearly basis on 30th September and
31st March each year. Debentures were redeemed on 30th September 2019. How much amount
(related to above information) will be shown in Financing Activity for Cash Flow Statement
prepared on 31st March 2020?
a)Outflow ₹ 40,000.
b) Inflow ₹ 42,600.
c) Outflow ₹ 61,600.
d) Outflow ₹ 64,000
5. Balance Sheet of ……
Equity and Liabilities 31st March,2019 (`) 31st March,2020 (`)
10% Debentures 1,00,000 80,000
Additional Information: Debentures were redeemed on 31st March,2020.
How much amount will be shown in Financing Activity for Cash Flow Statement prepared on 31st
March, 2020?
a) Outflow ` 30,000
b) Inflow ` 40,600.
c) Outflow ` 20,000.
d) Outflow `64,000.
6. Discount/Loss on issue of Debentures debited to Statement of Profit and Loss (Finance Cost) is
a) added under Operating Activities and Debentures are shown under Financing Activities at net
amount received.
b) added under Operating Activities and Debentures are shown under investing Activities at net
amount received.
c) deducted under Operating Activities and shown as inflow under Financing Activities.
d) added under Investing Activities and shown as Operating Activities at net amount received.
7. Fill in the Blank:
The amount transferred to General Reserve will be affecting __________ Activity of Cash Flow
Statement.
8. Briefly explain the importance of preparing Cash Flow Statement.
9. Calculate Cash Flow from Investing Activities from the following particulars:
1st April 2014 31st March 2015
` `
Plant & machinery 7, 20,000 8,60,000
(i) Depreciation charged during the year `85,000.
(ii) Plant & Machinery having a written down value of `1,10,000 was sold for
`1,25,000.
10. From the following extracts taken from the Balance Sheets of M/s Khanduja Ltd., on 31st
March and the additional information provided, you are required to calculate:
(i) Cash Flows from Operating Activities.
(ii) Cash Flows from Financing Activities.
Equity & Liabilities 31.3.2015 31.3.2016

` ``
10% Preference Share Capital 2,00,000 1,00,000
Securities Premium Reserve A/c -- 95,000
Profit and Loss Balance 4,00,000 8,00,000
10% Debentures 10,00,000 10,00,000
Additional Information :
1. Fresh equity shares were issued on 31st March 2016 at a premium of 10%.
2. Interim Dividend was paid on equity shares @8%.
3. Preference shares were redeemed on 31st March, 2016 at premium of 5%.
Premium on redemption was charged against premium received on issue of fresh equity
shares.
11.From the following summarized Balance Sheets of a company, calculate the Cash Flow from
operating activities :
Particulars Note 31-3-2018 31-3-2017
No. ` `
I. EQUITY AND LIABILITIES :
(1) Shareholder's Funds :
(a) Share Capital 50,000 50,000
(b) Reserve and Surplus 60,000 30,000
1. Non-Current Liabilities
Long-term Borrowings 1 80,000 60,000
2. Current Liabilities
(a) Trade Payables 35,000 48,000
(b) Short Term Provision 2 40,000 32,000
TOTAL 2,65,000 2,20,000

II. ASSETS :
(1) Non-Current Assets :
(a) Fixed Assets 1,40,000 1,00,000
(b) Investments 30,000 40,000
(2) Current Assets :
(a) Inventory 45,000 30,000
(b) Trade Receivables 40,000 30,000
(c) Cash & Cash Equivalents 10,000 20,000
TOTAL 2,65,000 2,20,000
Notes : (1) Long-term Borrowings : 31.3.2008 (`) 31.3.2017 (`)

6% Debentures 80,000 60,000
(2) Short term Provision :
Provision for Tax 40,000 32,000
12. From the following activities, calculate cash flows from financing activities :
Particulars 31.3.2018 31.3.2017
` `
12% Preference Share Capital - 2,,00,000
14% Debentures 1,00,000 -
(i) Equity Shares were issued at a premium of 15%.
(ii) 12% Preference Share were redeemed at a premium of 5%.
(iii) 14% Debentures were issued at a discount of 1%.
(iv) Dividend paid on old Preference Shares ` 24,000.
(v) Interest paid on debentures `14,000.
(vi) Underwriting commission of Equity Shares `10,000.
(vii) Proposed Dividend on Equity Shares for the year ended 31.3.2018 `1,20,000.
(viii) Proposed Dividend on Equity Shares for the year ended 31.3.2017 ` 90,000.

13. From the Balance Sheet of R.S. Ltd. as at 31st March 2018.
Balance Sheet as at 31.3.2018
No. ` `
(a) Share Capital 9,00,000 7,00,000
(b) Reserve and Surplus 2,50,000 1,00,000
(2) Non-Current Liabilities
Long-term Borrowings (12% Debentures) 4,50,000 3,50,000
(3) Current Liabilities
(a) Short Term Borrowings
(b) Trade Payables 1 1,50,000 75,000
2,00,000 1,25,000
TOTAL 19,50,000 13,50,000

III. ASSETS :
(1) Non-Current Assets :
(a) Fixed Assets
(i) Tangible 2 14,65,000 9,15,000
(ii) Intangible (Goodwill) 1,00,000 1,50,000
(b) Non-current Investments 1,50,000 1,00,000
(2) Current Assets :
(a) Current Investments 40,000 70,000
(b) Inventories 1,22,000 72,000
(c) Cash and Cash Equivalents 73,000 43,000
TOTAL 19,50,000 13,50,000
Notes to Accounts :
Note No. Particulars 31.3.2018 31.3.2017
` `
1. Short-term borrowings-Bank overdraft 1,50,000 75,000
2. Tangible Assets
Machinery 16,75,000 10,55,000
Accumulated Depreciation (2,10,000)14,65,000 (1,40,000)9,15,000
Additional Information :
(1) Contingent Liability 31.03.2018 31.03.2017
` `
Proposed Dividend 2,00,000 1,25,000
(1) ` 1,00,000, 12% Debentures were issued on 31-3-2018.
(2) During the year a piece of machinery costing `80,000, on which accumulated
depreciation was `40000, was sold at a loss of `10,000.
Prepare a Cash Flow Statement.
14. From the following particulars of Bharat Gas Limited calculate Cash Flows from Investing
Activities. Also show the workings clearly preparing the ledger accounts.
Assets 31.3.2015 31.3.2016
` `
Goodwill 1,00,000 3,00,000

Patents 2,80,000 1,60,000
Machinery 10,20,000 12,40,000
10% Long term investment 60,000 1,60,000
Investment in land 1,00,000 1,00,000
Shares of Amartax Ltd. 1,00,000 1,00,000
1. Patents were written off to the extent of `40,000 and some Patents were sold at a profit of
`20,000.
2. A Machine costing `1,40,000 (Depreciation provided thereon `60,000) was sold for
`50,000. Depreciation charged during the year was `1,40,000.
3. On March 31, 2016, 10% Investments were purchased for `1,80,000 and some
Investments were sold at a profit of `20,000. Interest on Investment was received on
March 31, 2016.
4. Amartax Ltd. paid Dividend @10% on its shares.
5. A plot of Land was purchased out of surplus funds for investment purposes and let out for
commercial use and rent received `30,000. (6)
15. From the following Balance Sheets of Humility Ltd., prepare its Cash Flow Statement for the
year 2017-18 (as per AS-3) :
No. ` `

(a) Share Capital 33,00,000 32,00,000
(b) Reserve and Surplus 1 5,00,000 4,00,000
(2) Non-Current Liabilities
Long-term Borrowings 2 16,00,000 15,00,000
(3) Current Liabilities
(a) Trade Payables 3,20,000 5,13,000
(b) Short-term Provision (provision for 30,000 27,000
Tax)
TOTAL 57,50,000 56,40,000
II. ASSETS :
(a) Fixed Assets
(i) Tangible 3 39,50,000 34,60,000
(j) Intangible 4 50,000 40,000
(c) Non-current Investments 6,00,000 6,00,000
(b) Current Assets :
(a) Current Investments 5 10,000 30,000
(b) Trade Receivables 50,000 40,000
(c) Inventories 6,00,000 8,00,000
(d) Cash & bank 4,90,000 6,70,000
TOTAL 57,50,000 56,40,000
Notes to Accounts :
(1) Reserve & Surplus : 31.3.2018 31.3.2017
` `
General Reserve 3,50,000 2,80,000

Statement of P & L 1,50,000 1,20,000
5,00,000 4,00,000
(2) Long-term Borrowings :
10% Debentures 16,00,000 15,00,000
(3) Tangible Assets : Plant & Machinery 39,50,000 34,60,000

(4) Intangible Assets : Goodwill 50,000 40,000
(5) Current Investments :
Marketable Securities 10,000 30,000
(i) The debentures were issued on 1.4.2017.
(ii) Machinery costing `70000 (accumulated depreciation thereon `10,000)was sold for
`45,000.
(iii) Machinery costing `8,00,000 was purchased during the year.
(iv) Interim dividend of `11,000 was paid during the year.
(v) Proposed Dividend for the year ended 31st March, 2018 was `20,000 and for the year
ended 31st March 2017, was `13,000.
Class: XII
Subject : MATHEMATICS
CH I- RELATION AND FUNCTIONS

Short answers– (1Mark /2 Marks)
1. Find the number of all the possible one-one functions from set A = {1, 2, 3} to itself.
2. Let f : R →R be defined by f (x) = |x|. Is the function f onto? Give reasons.
3. If f (x) = ex and g(x) = log x, show that fog = gof, given x > 0.
4. Let f be the greatest integer function and g be the absolute value function, find the value of
 5  −5 
(gof)   − ( fog )   .
 3  3 
x −1
5. If f (x) = , (x  1, –1), is an invertible function, show that fof–1 is an identity function.
x +1
5x + 3  5
6. If f (x) = ,  x   , show that f {f(x)} is an identity function.
4x − 5  4
3x − 2
7. If f (x) is an invertible function, find the inverse of f (x) = .
5
8. If f : R → B given by f (x) = sin x is onto function, then write set B.
| x − 1|
9. What is the range of the function f (x) = ?
( x − 1)
1
10. Let f : R → R be the function defined by f (x) = , x R, find the range of f.
2 − cos x
Long answers –(3 Marks /5Marks)
11. Let A = {x ∈Z : 0 x 12}. Show that R = {(a, b) :a, b ∈ A, |𝑎 − 𝑏| is divisible by 5} is an

equivalence relation. Find the set of all elements related to 1. Also write the equivalence
class [2].
12. Let N denote the set of all natural numbers and R be the relation on N × N defined by (a, b) R
(c, d) if ad (b + c) = bc (a + d). Show that R is an equivalence relation.
13. Let n be a positive integer. Prove that the relation R on the set Z of all integers numbers defined by
(x, y)  R  x − y is divisible by n, is an equivalence relation on Z.
14. Show that the relation R defined by R = {(a, b) : a – b is divisible by 3 ; a, b N} is an
equivalence relation.
15. Let A = {1, 2, 3.... 9} and R be the relation in A ×A defined by (a, b) R (c, d) if a + d = b + c
for (a, b),(c, d) in A ×A. Prove that R is an equivalence relation and also obtain the
equivalence class for [(2, 5)].
2 4x + 3
16. Show that the function f in A = R –   defined as f (x) = is one-one and onto. Hence
3 6x − 4
find f –1.
x
17.Show that the function f : R → R defined by f ( x) = 2 , x  R, is neither one-one nor onto.
x +1
18. Consider f : R+→ (−9, ) given by f(x) = 5x2 + 6x− 9. Prove that f is invertible with
54 + 5 y − 3
f−1(y) = .
5
19. f : N → N be a function defined as f(x) = 9x2 + 6x− 5. Show that f : N → S, where S is
the range of f, is invertible. Find the inverse of f and hence find f−1(43) and f−1(163).
Objective type questions:
20. If f : R → R is defined by f(x) = 3x + 2 then fof(x) is

(A) 9x - 8 (B) 9x + 8 (C) 8x + 9 (D) 8x – 9
21. Set A has 3 elements and set B has 4 elements. The number of injective mappings that can be defined
from A to B is
(A) 144 (B) 12 (C) 24 (D) 64
22. Let f : [2, ∞) → R be the function defined by f (x) = x2 – 4x + 5, then the range of f is
(A) R (B) [1, ∞) (C) [4, ∞) (D) [5, ∞)
23. The maximum number of equivalence relations on the set A = {a, b, c} is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
24. If f be the greatest integer function defined as f(x) = [x] and g be the modulus function defined as
−5
g(x) = |x|, the value of g of ( 4 ) is___________
25. Let D be the domain of the real valued function f defined by f (x) = 25 − x2 . Then D is _________
26. Consider the set A = {1, 2, 3} and R be the smallest equivalence relation on A, then R = ________
27. If the set A contains 5 elements and the set B contains 6 elements, then the number of one-one and
onto mappings from A to B is _________
 2x : x  3

28. Let f : R → R be defined by f ( x) =  x 2 :1  x  3 , then f (– 1) + f (2) + f (4) is ___________
 3x : x  1

ANSWERS
5𝑥+2 1
1. 6 2. No 4. 0 7. f-1(x) = 3 8. [−1,1] 9.1, -1 10. [3 ,1]
11.1, 6,11 & [2] =  2,7,12  15. {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8), (6, 9)}
3 + 4x
16. f −1 ( x) =
6x − 4 19. f-1 (43)=2 , f -1(163)=4 20. (B) 21. (C)
22. (B) 23.(D) 24. 2
25.  −5,5 26. (1,1), (2, 2), (3,3) 27. 0 28. 9
CH- 2 INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY
Short answers –(1 Mark/ 2Marks )
1. Evaluate :
(a) cosec-1 (cosec 13π/4) (b) cos-1 ( cos 5π/3) (c) sin-1 (sin -3π/5)
2. Evaluate:
(a) cos [cos-1 (√3/2) + π/6] (b) sin [2sin-1 (3/5)]
(c) cosec {cosec (- π/4}
-1
(d) cos {π/3 – cos-1 (1/2)}
(e) sin−1(sin(−600°)) (f) cos−1(cos(−680°))
3. Write the domain and range for the function cosec-1 x.
4. Prove that:
(i) sec2(tan−12) + cosec2(cot−13) = 15 (ii) tan2(sec−12) + cot2(cosec−13) = 11
 −5 
5. Find the value of sin  2cot −1 
 12 
Long answers – (3Marks)
6. Solve for x :
2
(a) tan-1 (2 + x) + tan-1 (2 – x) = tan−1 3 (b) sin-1 (1-x) + sin-1 x = cos−1 𝑥
 1 a  1 a  2b
7. Prove that: tan  + cos −1  + tan  – cos −1  =
 4 2 b   4 2 b  a
8. Write each of the following in the simplest form:
 x −1
 x + 1 − x 2  1 1
(i) tan −1   , −a < x < a (ii) sin  , −  x 

a + a − x 
2
 2  2 2
9. Write in the simplest form:
 cos x   1+ x + 1− x 
(i) tan −1   (ii) sin −1  , 0 < x <1
 1 + sin x   2 
8
10. Solve for x: tan–1 (x + 1) + tan–1 (x –1) = tan–1 .
31
1 1 4
11. Prove that: 2 tan −1 + tan −1 = tan −1
5 8 7
 12  4  63 
12. Prove that: sin–1   + cos −1   + tan −1   =  .
 13  5  16 
1 1 1 1 
13. Prove that: tan–1 + tan −1 + tan −1 + tan −1 = .
3 5 7 8 4
6𝑥−8𝑥 3 4𝑥 1
14. Prove that: tan–1(1−12𝑥2 ) − 𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (1−4𝑥2 ) = tan−1 2𝑥, |2x| <
√3
15. Prove that: tan–1(1) + tan–1(2) + tan–1(3) = 
16. Prove that: cot–1(7) + cot–1(8) + cot–1(18) = cot–1(3)
 1   1   1 
17. If tan−1  + tan−1  + .... + tan−1   = tan , then find the value of .
−1
 + 
  + 
 + +
1 1.2 1 2.3 1 n.( n 1) 
5 2
18. If (tan–1x)2 + (cot–1x)2 = , then find x.
8
x y x 2 2 xy y2
19. If cos–1 + cos−1 = , prove that 2 − cos  + 2 = sin 2  .
a b a ab b
−1 2 −1 2
20. Find the greatest and least value of (sin x) + (cos x) .
3 4   −3 3 
21. Find the simplified form of cos −1  cos x + sin x  where x  , 
5 5   4 4
22. Find the sum of the following series to infinity:
1 1 1
tan −1 + tan −1 + tan −1 + .....
1+1+12
1+ 2 + 2 2
1 + 3 + 32
𝜋
23. The value of 𝑐𝑜𝑡 ( 4 − 2𝑐𝑜𝑡 −1 (3)) is equal to
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 7
2 3 4
−1 −1
24. The value of 𝑡𝑎𝑛 √3 − 𝑠𝑒𝑐 ( − 2) is equal to
𝜋 𝜋
(A)  (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) −3
  43  
25. The value of sin −1  cos    is
  5 
3 −7  
(A) (B) (C) (D) –
5 5 10 10

26. If sin–1 x + sin–1 y = , then value of cos–1x + cos–1y is _____________
2
4
27. If tan–1 x + tan–1y = , then cot–1 x + cot–1 y is equal to ______________
5

28. If tan–1 x + tan–1 y = , xy < 1, then the value of x + y + xy is _________
4
ANSWERS
1. (a) – π / 4 (b) π / 3 (c) -2π / 5

2. (a) 1 / 2 (b) 24/25 (c) – π / 4 (d) 1 (e) /3 (f) 2/9
120
3. Domain: x ≥ 1 or x ≤ - 1 and Range : [-π / 2, π/2] - { 0} 5. – 6.a) 3, -3 b) 0, 1/2
169
1 −1 x π −1  π 1
+ cos −1 x
𝑥
8. (i) sin , (ii) + sin x -
4 2
2 a 4 9 (i) (ii) 4 2
1 n
–8, 17. =
10. 4 n + 2 18. x = -1
5π 2 π2 4 
and tan −1 − x 22.
4
23.(D) 24.(D) 25. (D)
20. 4 8 21. 3
𝜋
26. π/2 27. 5 28. 1
CH 3 and 4 MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS
Short answers – (1Mark /2Marks)
1. Find the number of all possible nonzero matrices of order 2 × 3, with each entry 0, 2, or 4.
(i + 2 j ) 2
2 . For a 2× 2 matrix A =[aij], whose elements are given by aij = , write the value of a21.
4
 −1 2 
3. Find the value of p, such that the matrix   is singular.
 4 p
x y
4. If points (2, 0), (0, 5) and (x, y) are collinear, using determinants, show that + = 1 .
2 5
5. If for matrix A, |A| = 3, find |5A|, where matrix A is of order 2 × 2.
6. A is a non-singular matrix of order 3 and |A| = –4. Find |A .adj. A|
7. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |A| = –2, find the value of |–3A|.
a b 
8. If A =   , find determinant (A. (adj. A)).
c d 
sin 30° cos 30°
9. Evaluate: | |
− sin 60° 𝑐𝑜𝑠 60°
x + 1 x − 1 4 −1
10.If = , write the value of x.
x−3 x+ 2 1 3
1 2 3
11.If  = 2 0 1 write the minor of element a23, a32 and a13.
5 3 8
Long answers –( 3Marks /5Marks )
 3 1
 , if f(x) =x – 5 x + 7, show that f (A) = 0 and hence find A .
2 -1
12.If A = 
 −1 2 
 1 2 3  1 
13.Find the value of x, if: [1x 1]  4 5 6  −2  = 0
  
 3 2 5  3 
1 −1 a 1  2 2 2
14. If A =   ,B=   and (A + B) = A + B , then find the values of a and b.
 2 − 1  b − 1
15. Express the following matrix as the sum of a symmetric matrix and a skew symmetric matrix:
3 −2 −4
[ 3 −2 −5]
−1 1 2
 −1
16. If A =  2  , B = [–2 –1 –4], verify that (AB)´ = BÁ´.
 
 3 
2 −1 4
17. Using elementary row transformations, find the inverse of the following matrix:[4 0 2]
3 −2 7
( y + z )2 xy zx
18. Show that: xy ( x + z )2 yz = 2 xyz ( x + y + z )3 .
xz yz ( x + y)2
19. Using properties of determinants, prove the following:
  
 2
 22
= ( – ) ( –) ( +  + ) (–)
+   + +
−4 4 4 1 −1 1
20. If A = [−7 1 3 ] and B = [1 −2 −2] , find AB and use it to solve the system of equations
5 −3 −1 2 1 3
x – y + z = 4; x –2y –2z = 9; 2x + y + 3z = 1.
 1 −1 0   2 2 −4 
21. Given two matrices A = 2 3 4 and B =  −4 2 −4  verify that BA = 6I.
 
   
 0 1 2   2 −1 5 
Use the above result to solve the following system of equations:
x – y = 3; 2x + 3y + 4z = 17; y + 2z = 7.
22. Ten students were selected from a school on the basis of values for giving awards and were
divided into three groups. The first group comprises of hard workers, the second group
has honest and law-abiding students and the third group has vigilant and obedient
students. Double the number of the first group added to the number in the second group
gives 13, while the combined strength of first and second group is four times that of the
third group. Using matrix method, find the number of students in each group.
 2 1   −3 2  1 0
23. Find the matrix A, such that   A = .
 3 2  5 −3 0 1
𝑎 −1 0
24. If f(x) = | 𝑎𝑥 𝑎 −1| , using properties of determinants, find the value of f(2x) - f(x).
𝑎𝑥² 𝑎𝑥 𝑎
25. Three schools A, B and C organized a fete for collecting funds for helping the flood victims.
They sold handmade fans, mats and plates at the rate of rupees 25, 100 and 50 each. The
number of articles sold is as follows:
Article / School A B C
Fans 40 25 35
Mats 50 40 50
Plates 20 30 40
Find the funds arranged by each school by selling the above articles. Also find the total funds
collected.
2 −3
26. Given A = [ ], compute 𝐴−1 and show that 2𝐴−1 = 9 I – A.
−4 7
1 1 1 + 3x
27.Using properties of determinants, prove that 1+ 3y 1 1 = 9 (3xyz +xy + yz +zx)
1 1 + 3z 1
1 2 −3
28. If A =(2 3 2 ), find 𝐴−1 . Use it to solve the system of equations: x + 2y – 3z = – 4,
3 −3 −4
2x + 3y + 2z = 2, 3x – 3y – 4z = 11.
 1 −1 1 
29. If A =  2 1 −3 , find A–1 and use it to solve the following system of equations:
 
 1 1 1 
x + 2y + z = 4, –x + y + z = 0, x – 3y + z = 2
1 2 3 1 7 11
30. If [ ][ ]=[ ], the value of k is
3 4 2 5 𝑘 23
(A) 17 (B) −17 (C) 23 (D) – 23
0 1 −2
31. If matrix A = (−1 0 3 ) is skew symmetric, the value of x is
𝑥 −3 0
(A) 1 (B) -1 (C) 2 (D) – 2
𝑘 0 1 0
32. If A = [ ],𝐵 = [ ] and 𝐴2 = 𝐵, the value of k is
1 1 2 1
(A) 4 (B) - 4 (C) 1 (D) 0
4 5 6
33. The value of |8𝑥 10𝑥 12𝑥 | is ___________
5 6 8
 1 0
34. If [x 1]   = 0 , then x equals ___________
 −2 0
 4 x + 2
35. If A =   is symmetric matrix, then x equals ______________
2 x − 3 x + 1
36. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |adj A| = 16, then |A| equals __________
ANSWERS
1.36 -1 2. 4 3.P= -8 5.75 6.-64 7. 54
1  2 −1
8. ( ad-bc)2 9. 1 10. x =2 11.-7, -5 ,6 12.  13. x =5/3
7 1 3 
1 −1 1 
3 1/2 −5/2 0 −5/2 −3/2 2 2 2
−1  
14. a= 1 , b=4 15. [ 1/2 −2 −2 ] and [5/2 0 −3 ] 17. A =  −4 3 −1
−5/2 −2 2 3/2 3 0 5 −3 1 
 
2 2 2
20. x = 3, y = -2, z = -1 21. x=2, y=-1, y=4
1 1
22. 5, 3 ,2 23. A=   24. ax(3x+2a )
1 0
26. 1 
7 3
25.A 7000, B 6125, C 7875 Total: 21000 
2  4 2
 4 2 2
1 
−5 0 5 ; x = , y = , z =
9 2 7
28.x=3, y= – 2, z=1 29.
10   5 5 5
 1 −2 3
30.(A) 31.(C) 32.(C) 33. 0 34. 2 35.5 36. 4 ,-4
CH 5-CONTINUITY AND DIFFERENTIABILITY
Short answers - (1 Mark/2Marks )
1. Give an example of a function which is continuous at x = 1, but not differentiable at x = 1.

2 x + 3sin x
2. If function f(x) = , for x≠ 0 is continuous at x = 0, then find f(0).
3x + 2sin x
3. State the number of points of discontinuity for the function f(x) = [x] in -3 < x < 3.
3x + 4 tan x
4. Is the function f(x) = continuous at x = 0? Give reasons.
5x
5. Show that the function defined by f(x) = | cos2x | is a continuous function.
6. Discuss the continuity of the function f(x) = sin3x. cos2x.
7. Differentiate tan x w.r.t. x.
 
8. If f (x) = |cos x – sin x |, find f ′  
6
9. Differentiate sin (log x), with respect to x.
10. Differentiate the following w.r.t. x: log 2 (sin x).
Long answers –( 3Marks/5Marks )
11. Determine the values of a, b and c for which the function f(x) is continuous at x = 0

 sin(a + 1) x + sin x , x  0
 x

f ( x) =  c, x=0

 x + bx − x ,
2
x0
 b x3
 3ax + b, if x  1

12. If the function f ( x ) =  11, if x = 1 is continuous at x = 1, find the values of a and b.
5ax − 2b if x  1

 1 − sin 3 x 
 3cos2 x , if x
 2
  
13.Let f ( x ) =  a , if x = be a continuous function at x = , find a and b.
 2 2
 b(1 − sin x ) 
 (  − 2 x ) 2 , if x
 2
 
 1 − cos 4 x , x  0 
 x2 
 
14. Let f (x) =  a , x = 0  , determine the value of a, if possible, so that the function
 
 x
, x  0
 16 + x − 4 
 
is continuous at x = 0.
 x
 , x0
15. Prove that the function f (x) =  | x | +2x 2 remains discontinuous at x = 0, regardless the
 x=0
 k,
choice of k.
𝑑𝑦 −𝑦
16. If 3 sin(xy) + 4 cos(xy) = 5, show that = 𝑑𝑥 𝑥
y x 𝑑𝑦 (𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)2
17. If e = y , show that 𝑑𝑥
= 𝑦
log ( )
𝑒
𝑑𝑦
18. Given that ex + ey = ex+y . Show that 𝑑𝑥 = -e y-x.
𝑑𝑦 2𝑦
19. If x16y9 = (x2 + y)17 , show that 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥
𝑑𝑦 log (𝑥)
20. If xy = ex-y , show that 𝑑𝑥 = (𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑒𝑥)2
 x 
21. Differentiate tan–1   with respect to sin–1 (2 x 1 − x ).
2
 1− x 
2
3+5𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑑𝑦 4
22. Given that y = cos-1 . Show that =
5+3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑑𝑥 5+3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
𝑥 𝑎2 𝑥
23. If y = 2
√𝑎2 − 𝑥 2 + 2 sin-1𝑎, prove that y’ = √𝑎2 − 𝑥2
√ 1+𝑥 + 1−𝑥
√ 𝑑𝑦 −1
24. y = log√ 1+𝑥− 1−𝑥 . Show that 𝑑𝑥 =
√ √ 2𝑥√1−𝑥 2
𝑑𝑦 𝑥3 1−𝑦 8
25. √1 − 𝑥 8 + √1 − 𝑦 8 = a( x4 – y4). Show that = 3
√ 8
𝑑𝑥 𝑦 1−𝑥
2 𝑑𝑦
26. y√1 + 𝑥 2 = log(√1 + 𝑥 2 − 𝑥). Show that (𝑥 + 1) 𝑑𝑥 + xy + 1= 0
27. y = (cotx + cosecx). Show that (1 – cosx)2 y” = sinx.
28. x = sint, y = sinpt. Show that (1 – x2)y” – xy’ +p2y = 0.
dy 
29. If x = cos t (3 –2 cos2t) and y = sin t (3 – 2 sin2t), find the value of at t = .
dx 4
x +1
30. If f(x) = x 2 + 1 ; g(x) = and h(x) = 2x− 3, then find f[h{g(x)}]. .
x2 + 1
𝑥 1 𝑎 2
31. If y = xlog(𝑎+𝑏𝑥), prove that y” = 𝑥 (𝑎+𝑏𝑥)
𝑥2 𝑦2 𝑏4
32. If 𝑎2
+ 𝑏2 = 1, show that y” = - 𝑎2 𝑦3
33. If y= extan-1x, prove that(1+x2)y” – 2(1-x+x2)y’ +(1-x)2y = 0
𝑥+𝑒𝑥+⋯…….. 𝑑𝑦 𝑦
34. y = 𝑒 𝑥+𝑒 . Prove that 𝑑𝑥 = 1−𝑦
 log(1 + 3x) − log(1 − 2x)
 , x0
35. If the function f(x) defined by f(x) =  x is continuous at x = 0 then
 k, x =0
the value of k is
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) −1 (D) none of these
36. The function f (x) = cot x is discontinuous on the set
(A) {x=nπ : n ∈ Z} (B) {x=2nπ : n ∈ Z}
    n 
(C)  x = (2n + 1) ; n  Z (D) x = ; n  Z
 2   2 
37. The function f (x) = [x], where [x] denotes the greatest integer function, is continuous at
(A) 4 (B) –2 (C) 1 (D) 1.5
1
38. The number of points at which the function f (x) = is not continuous is
x − [ x]
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these
1
39. The number of points at which the function f (x) = is discontinuous is
log | x |
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) none of these
𝑥 𝑑𝑦
40. If y = 𝑒 log x then 𝑑𝑥 is _______
41. The second order derivative of y = x3 + tan x is____________
42. The derivative of |x –3| at x = –1 is ___________
43. f (x) = |2x – 7| is not derivable at x = ___________
44. The derivative of sin x w.r.t. cos x is ___________
ANSWERS
(sec2 x )
1. I x-1I 2.1 3. 5 4. Yes 6. continuous 7.
4 x tan x
1 COS (𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥) COT 𝑥
8. − (1 + 3) 9. 𝑥
10. 𝑙𝑜𝑔2
11. a = –3 / 2, c = 1 / 2, b any value (≠ 0)
2
2
12. a = 3, b = 213.a = 1 / 2, b = 4 14. 8 21. ½ 29.130. f [2] =
5
35.(B) 36.(A) 37.(D) 38. (D) 39.(C)
1 7
40. e x ( + log x) 41. 6x+ 2 sec2 xtanx 42.-1 43. 44. – cot x
x 2
CH 6 – APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVES
Short answers -(1 Mark / 2 Marks )

1. The total revenue received from the sale of x units of a product is given by
R(x) = 6x3 + 13x2 + 13x + 10. Find the marginal revenue when x = 10.
2. The side of an equilateral triangle is increasing at the rate of 0.5 cm/sec. Find the rate of
increase of its perimeter.
3. The total cost C(x) of producing x units of an article is given by C(x) = 0.005x3 – 0.02x2 + 20x +2500.
Find the marginal cost when 4 units are produced.
4. Find the maximum and minimum values, if any, of the following functions:
(i) f(x) = |x + 3 | – 1 (ii) g(x) = – | x - 1| + 3
(iii) f(x) = | sin 2x + 3| (iv) h(x) = x + 1, x ∈ (– 2, 2)
5. Find the maximum value of sinx + cosx.
6. Find the minimum value of sinxcosx.
7. Find the approximate change in the volume V of a cube of side x meters caused by increasing the side
by 2%.
8. Find the approximate % increase in the area of a circle if its radius is increased by 2%.
9. Show that the function f(x) = 4x3−18x2 + 27x − 7 is always increasing on R.
10. If f (x) = ax + cos x is strictly increasing on R, find a.
Long answers – (3 Marks /5Marks)
11. The top of a ladder 6 metres long is resting against a vertical wall. Suddenly, the ladder begins to slide
outwards. At the instant when the foot of the ladder is 4 metres from the wall, it is sliding away at the
rate of 0.5m/sec. How fast is the top sliding downwards at this moment? How far is the foot from the
wall when the foot and the top are moving at the same rate?
2
12. A particle moves along the curve y = 3 x3 +1. Find the points on the curve at which the
y-coordinate is changing twice as fast as the x-coordinate.
13. Water is leaking from a conical funnel at the rate of 5𝑐𝑚3 /𝑠𝑒𝑐. If the radius of the base of the funnel
is 10cm and its height is 20cm, find the rate at which the water level is dropping when it is 5cm from
the top.
2 1
14. A man of height 2 metres walks at a rate of 13 m/sec towards a street light which is 53 m above the
ground. At what rate the tip of his shadow moving? At what rate is the length of his shadow changing
1
when he is 3 m from the base of light?
3
15. Using differentials, find the approximate value of each of the following:
1
(i) 25.1 (ii) √0.082
√
4
16. If y = x + 10 and x changes from 2 to 1.99, find the approximate change in y.
17. Find the intervals in which the function f(x) = 20 − 9𝑥 + 6𝑥 2 − 𝑥 3 is strictly increasing or
strictly decreasing.
−𝜋 𝜋
18. Show that the function f(x) = tan x – 4x is strictly decreasing on ( 3 , 3 )
𝑥
19. Find the intervals in which the function f given by f(x) = log 𝑥 is
(i) strictly increasing (ii) strictly decreasing
20. Show that the function f(x) = x –3x + 1 is neither increasing nor decreasing on (0, 3)
2
21. Find the intervals in which the function f(x) = 3x4 – 4x3 – 12 x2 + 5 is
(a) strictly increasing (b) strictly decreasing
22. The equation of the tangent at (2, 3) on the curve y2 = ax3+ b is y = 4x − 5. Find the values of
a and b.
23. Prove that the curves y2 = 4x and x2 + y2 – 6x + 1 = 0 touch each other at the point (1, 2).
24. Show that the curves xy = a2 and x2 + y2= 2a2 touch each other.
25. Prove that the tangents to the curve y = x2 – 5x + 6 at the points (2, 0) and (3, 0) are at right angles.
26. Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the curve 16x2 + 9y2 = 144 at (x1, y1), where
x1 = 2 and y1> 0. Also, find the points of intersection where both tangent and normal cut the
x – axis.
x2 y 2
27. Find the area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse 2 + 2 = 1 .
a b
28. If the sum of the lengths of the hypotenuse and a side of a right angled triangle is given, show that the
𝜋
area of the triangle is maximum when the angle between them is 3 .
29. An open box with a square base is to be made out of a given quantity of cardboard of area
c3
c2 square units. Show that the maximum volume of the box is cubic units.
6 3
30. Prove that the radius of the right circular cylinder of greatest curved surface area which can
be inscribed in a given cone is half of that of the cone.
31. Show that the rectangle of maximum area that can be inscribed in a circle of radius r is a square of
side √2r.
32. A window has the shape of a rectangle surmounted by an equilateral triangle. If the perimeter
of the window is 12m, find the dimensions of the rectangle that will produce the largest area
of the window.
33. Find the volume of the largest cylinder that can be inscribed in a sphere of radius r.
34. Of all the closed right circular cylindrical cans of volume 128 𝜋 𝑐𝑚3 , find the dimensions of the can
which has minimum surface area.
35. An open tank with a square base and vertical sides is to be constructed from a metal sheet so
as to hold a given quantity of water. Show that the cost of material will be least when depth
of the tank is half of its width.
36. The side of an equilateral triangle is increasing at the rate of 2cm/ sec. If the side of the
triangle is 10cm, the rate at which its area is increasing is
(A) 20√3 cm2/sec (B) 10√3 cm2/sec (C) 5√3 cm2/sec (D) 15√3 cm2/sec
37. The minimum value of x2 - 4x is
(A) -1 (B) -4 (C) 4 (D) does not exist
38. The points on the curve x2 + y2 - 2x - 4y + 1 = 0, where the tangents are parallel to the y-axis are
(A)(3, 2), ( -1, 2) (B) (2, 3), ( -1, 2) (C) (3, 2), ( 2, -1) (D) (2, 3), (2, -1)
39. The approximate change in the volume of a cube of side x m caused by increasing the side by 3% is
(A) 0.06 x3 m3 (B) 0.6 x3 m3 (C) 0.09 x3 m3 (D) 0.9 x3 m3
3
40. If the tangent to the curve y = 𝑥 + 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏 𝑎𝑡 𝑃(1, −6) is parallel to the line y −𝑥 = 5, the respective
values of a and b are
(A) −2, −5 (B) 2, 5 (C) −2, 5 (D) 2, −5
41. The total revenue received from the sale of x units of a product is given by
R(x) = 6x2 + 13x + 10. The marginal revenue when x = 10 is __________
42. f (x) = xx has a stationary point at ____________
𝜋
43. The slope of the normal to the curve y = sin2  at  = 2 is ________
44. The minimum value of f (x) = 9x2 + 12x + 2 is ____________
2
45. The number of all lines having slope 2 which are tangents to the curve y = is ____________
x −1
ANSWERS
1.Rs 2073 2.1.5 cm/s 3. 20.08
4.(i) Min Value = -1, Max does not exist. (ii) Max value =3, Min does not exist
(iii)Min Value =2 , Max Value = 4 (iv) Min and Max values do not exist .
1
5.√2 6. -1/2 7. 0.06 x3m3 8. 4% 10. a˃1 11. 5 m/sec; 3√2m
√
5 1 4 2
12. (1, 3) & (-1, 3
) 13. cm/sec
45𝜋
14. 23
m/sec, -1m/sec
15. (i) 0.1996 (ii) 0.2867 16. -0.32
17. strictly increasing :(1, 3) and strictly decreasing: (-∞, 1)∪ (3, ∞)
19. strictly increasing :(e, ∞) and strictly decreasing: (0, e)−{1}
21.Strictly increasing in (−1, 0)  (2, ) & Strictly decreasing in (0 ,2) 22. a=2, b= -7 26.32x + 27y
145 −14
=145 & 27 x – 32y + 42=0, x = , x=
32 9
4(6 + 3) 30 − 6 3
33. 4 r
3
27. 2 ab sq units 32. cm, cm unit 3
11 11 3 3
34. r = 4cm and h = 8cm 36. (B) 37.(B) 38.(A) 39.(C) 40.(A)
1
41.Rs133 42. 43. Not defined 44. -2 45. 0
e
CH-7 INTEGRALS (INDEFINITE INTEGRALS)
Short answers-(1Mark/2Marks)
Integrate from Q1. to Q16:
log 𝑥 1 𝑐𝑜𝑠5 𝑥 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥 𝑥+𝑐𝑜𝑠6𝑥
1. ∫ (𝑥+1)2
dx 2.∫ 𝑥 2 +4𝑥+8dx 3. ∫ sin 𝑥
dx 4.∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥 dx 5.∫ 3𝑥 2 +𝑠𝑖𝑛6𝑥 dx
Long answers I-(3 Marks)

1 1 𝑑𝑥
6. ∫ 2−3𝐶𝑂𝑆 2𝑋dx 7. ∫ 3+sin 2𝑥 dx 8. ∫ 4𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥+5𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝑥
𝑑𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥
9. ∫ 1+3𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥+8𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝑥 10.∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝑥+𝑐𝑜𝑠4 𝑥 dx 11. ∫ 5𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥+4 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 dx
𝑑𝑥 3𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥+2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 2𝑥−3
12.∫ 1−𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 13. ∫ 3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥+2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 dx 14.∫ 𝑥 2 −3𝑥−18dx
1 2𝑥+3
15.∫ 3+2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥dx 16.∫ 2 dx
√𝑥 +2𝑥+3
Long answers II-(5 Marks)

𝑥2 𝑥 1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
17. Evaluate ∫ (𝑎+𝑏𝑥)2 dx 18. Evaluate ∫ 𝑥 4 −𝑥 2 +1 dx 19. Evaluate ∫ 𝑒 𝑥 ( 𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝑥
)dx
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 1
20. Evaluate ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛4𝑥 dx 21. Evaluate ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝑥+𝑐𝑜𝑠4 𝑥 dx
1 𝑥4
22. Evaluate ∫ 4𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥+4𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥+5𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝑥 dx 23.∫ 𝑥 4 −1 dx
 (3 − 2 x )
𝑥 2 −1 𝒙𝟑 −𝟏 log x
24. ∫ 𝑥 4 +1 dx 25. − x 2 + x + 2dx 26. ∫ 𝒙𝟑+𝒙 𝑑𝑥 27.  (1 + log x) 2
dx

3𝑒 𝑥 – 5 𝑒 −𝑥
28. If ∫ 4𝑒 𝑥 + 5 𝑒 −𝑥 dx = ax + blog | 4𝑒 𝑥 + 5 𝑒 −𝑥 | + c, the values of a and b are
−1 7 1 7 −1 −7 1 −7
(A) a = 8
, b=8 (B) a = 8, b = 8 (C) a = 8
, b= 8
(D) a = 8, b = 8
𝑑𝑥
29. ∫ 16+9𝑥2 is equal to
1 3𝑥 1 3𝑥 1 3𝑥 1 9𝑥
(A) 4
tan−1 4 + 𝑐 (B) 12 tan−1 4 +𝑐 (C) 3 tan−1 4
+𝑐 (D) 12 tan−1 4
+𝑐
6 cos 𝑥 − 9 sin 𝑥
30. The value of ∫ 6 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 dx is
−3 3
(A) 2 log | 3 cosx + 2 sinx| + c (B) 2 log | 3 cosx – 2 sinx| + c
3 2
(C) 2 log | 3 cosx + 2 sinx| + c (D) 3 log | 3 cosx – 2 sinx| + c
(𝑥−5)𝑒 𝑥
31. The value of ∫ dx is
(𝑥−3)3
𝑒𝑥 2𝑒 𝑥 2𝑒 𝑥 𝑒𝑥
(A) (𝑥−3)3 + c (B) (𝑥−3)2 + c (C) (𝑥−3)3 + c (D)(𝑥−3)2 + c
2 (
32. The value of ∫ 𝑡𝑎𝑛 3𝑥 + 5)𝑑𝑥 𝑖𝑠
tan ( 3𝑥+5) tan ( 3𝑥+5) tan ( 3𝑥+5) tan ( 3𝑥+5)
(A) 3
− 𝑥+𝑐 (B) 3
+ 𝑥 + 𝑐 (C) 5
− 𝑥 + 𝑐 (D) 5
+ 𝑥+𝑐
33. The primitive of e (cosx – sinx ) equals
x
(A)−𝑒 𝑥 cos 𝑥 + 𝑐 (B)𝑒 𝑥 cos 𝑥 + 𝑐 (C) 𝑒 𝑥 sin 𝑥 + 𝑐 (D) −𝑒 𝑥 sin 𝑥 + 𝑐

2𝑥
34. The value of ∫ 3 dx is
√𝑥 2 +1
𝑑𝑥
35. The value of ∫ is ______________
√9−4𝑥 2
𝑒 𝑥 (1+𝑥)
36. ∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠2 (𝑥𝑒 𝑥 )
dx is equal to ______________
2𝑥+1 − 5𝑥−1
37. The value of is ∫ 10𝑥
dx is ____________________
𝑑𝑥
38. ∫ is equal to _____________
√𝑥+ 𝑥
sin 𝑥−cos 𝑥
39. ∫ √1 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥 dx, 0 < 𝑥 < 𝜋⁄2 is equal to _________
𝑑𝑥
40. ∫ 𝑥 2 + 4𝑥+3 is equal to __________________
4
41. The value of ∫ 𝑥 log x dx is _________________
42. Anti-derivative of cosxcos2x w.r.t. x is ______________.
ANSWERS
log 𝑥 𝑥 1 𝑥+2 1
1. − 𝑥+1 + log |𝑥+1| + 𝑐 2. 2 tan−1 ( 2
)+c 3. 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 x − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 + log | sin 𝑥| + 𝑐 4.tanx –x +c
1 1 √5 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥−1 1 3𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥−1
5.6 log│3x2+ sin6x│+ c 6.2 5 log│ 5 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥+1 │+c 7. 2√2
tan−1( 2 2 ) +c
√ √ √
1 2𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 1 2𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥
8. tan−1( ) +c 9. tan−1( ) +c 10.tan−1 ( 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝑥) + c
2√5 √5 6 3
𝑥
2 5𝑡𝑎𝑛 +4 𝑥 1 −12 5
11. tan−1 ( 2
)+c 12. - log │cos x-sinx│+ c 13. x - log │3cosx +2sinx│+c
3 3 2 2 13 13
2 𝑥−3 𝑥
14.log│x2+3x-18│-3 log│𝑥+6│+c 15.tan−1 (1 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2) + c
16. √𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 3 +log |(x+1)+√𝑥 2 + 2𝑥 + 3 |+c
1 𝑎2 1 2
−1 2𝑥 −1
17.𝑏3 [(a + bx) – 2alog│a + bx│-𝑎+𝑏𝑥 + c18. tan ( ) +c 19. ex tanx + c
√3 √3
1 1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 1 1+√2 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 1 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝑥−1 1 1
20.8 log│1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 │+4 log │ 1−√2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 │+c 21. 2 tan−1 ( 2 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 )+ c 22.4 tan−1 ( 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 + 2 )+c
√2 √ √
1 𝑥−1 1 1 𝑥 2 −√2 𝑥+1
23. x + 4 log │𝑥+1 │- 2 tan−1 𝑥 + c 24.2 2 log│ 𝑥 2 + 2 𝑥+1 │+ c
√ √
2 1 9 2𝑥−1
25. 3
(2 + 𝑥 − 𝑥 2 )3/2 + 2 (2𝑥 − 1)√2 + 𝑥 − 𝑥 2 + 4 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 ( 3
) +C
1 𝑥
26. x –log|x| + 2
log(x2+1) - tan-1x + C 27.𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥+1 + 𝐶 28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (C) 31.(D)
2⁄
3(𝑥 2 + 1) 3 1 2𝑥
32.(A) 33. (B) 34. +c 35. sin−1 + 𝑐 36. tan (x𝑒 𝑥 ) + 𝑐
2 2 3
5−𝑥 −2−𝑥
37. -2 log 5 - 5 log 2 + c 38. 2 log (√𝑥 + 1) + 𝑐
1 𝑥+1 𝑥5 𝑥5 𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
39. – log | cosx + sinx| + c 40. 2 log|𝑥+3| + c 41. 5
log 𝑥 − 25 + c 42. [ 6
+ 2
] +c
CH-7 INTEGRALS (DEFINITE INTEGRALS)
4 𝑥 𝑒2 1
1.Evaluate: ∫2 dx 2. Evaluate: ∫0 dx
𝑥 2 +1 𝑥𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥
𝑥 ‫׳‬
3. If f(x) = ∫0 𝑡 sin 𝑡 dt ,write the value of f (x).
𝑎 1 𝜋
4.If ∫0 𝑥 2 +4 dx = 8 , find the value of ‘a’.
𝑎
5. If ∫0 3𝑥 2 dx = 8, write the value of ‘a’.
Long answers I-(3Marks)
𝜋
4 1
6. Evaluate:∫0 (│𝑥│ + │𝑥 − 2│ + │𝑥 − 4│)𝑑𝑥 7.Evaluate:∫𝜋3 1+√𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑥
dx.
6
𝜋 3⁄
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 2 │ 𝑥 cos 𝜋𝑥
8. Evaluate:∫02 sin 𝑥+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 dx 9.Find ∫0 │dx
𝜋 𝜋
5𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥+3𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥
10.∫02 dx 11.∫02 dx
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝑥+𝑐𝑜𝑠4 𝑥
Long answers II-(5 Marks)
3
12.Evaluate ∫1 (𝑒 2−3𝑥 + 𝑥 2 + 1) dx as limit of a sum.
𝜋
𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 1
13 Find ∫04 1+2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 dx 14. Find ∫0 cot −1 (1 − 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 ) dx.
𝑥 𝜋 𝜋
15.Evaluate:∫0 1+sin 𝑥
dx. 16. Evaluate:∫−𝜋(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑎𝑥 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑏𝑥)2 dx
3
1 𝑥 +│𝑥│+1 𝜋 𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥
17.Evaluate:∫−1 𝑥 2 +2│𝑥│+1 dx 18. ∫0 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥+𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥
dx
𝜋
𝜋 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛8𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔(𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑥)
19. ∫0 𝑎 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝑥+𝑏2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥
dx 20. ∫0 2
𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝑥
dx
3
21.Evaluate ∫1 (𝑥 2 + 5𝑥) as limit of a sum.

2
 
x − x dx e sin  + x dx
3 2x
1
22. ∫0 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 (1+ 𝑥2 ) dx
1−𝑥 2
23. −1 24. 0 4 
 /2
sin 2 x
 sin x + cos x
dx
25. 0
2
26. Evaluate ∫−1 (7x − 5 + e3x )dx as limit of a sum.
𝑏+𝑐
27. ∫𝑎+𝑐 𝑓 (𝑥)𝑑𝑥 is equal to
𝑏 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏−𝑐
(A)∫𝑎 𝑓 (𝑥 − 𝑐)dx (B)∫𝑎 𝑓 (𝑥 + 𝑐)dx (C)∫𝑎 𝑓 (𝑥 )dx (D)∫𝑎−𝑐 𝑓 (𝑥)dx
1 𝑥 3 + |𝑥|+ 1
28. ∫−1 𝑥 2 + 2 |𝑥|+1 dx is equal to
1
(A) log 2 (B)2 log 2 (C) log 2 (D) 4log 2
2
2 𝑥 1
29. The value of ∫−2 (𝑥 3 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 + 2
) √4 − 𝑥 2 dx is
(A) π (B) 2 π (C) 4π (D) 0
4
30. The value of ∫1 | 𝑥 − 5|𝑑𝑥 is
13 15 −13 −15
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) 2
(D) 2
2
31. ∫1 𝑒 − log 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 is
(A) 2log2 (B) -log2 (C) log 2 (D) – 2log2
𝜋
2 1 1
32.∫ −𝜋 2
𝑥
𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝑥) dx, where x ≠ 0, is equal to
2
(A) -2 (B) 0 (C)1 (D)π
𝜋⁄
33. ∫0 8 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 (2𝑥) is equal to
4 −𝜋 4+𝜋 4 −𝜋 4 −𝜋
(A) 8 (B) 8
(C) 4
(D) 2
1
34. The value of ∫0 𝑥 (1 − 𝑥)𝑛 𝑑𝑥 is ____________
𝜋
35. The value of ∫ 2𝜋 𝑥 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 is _____________
−
2
𝜋⁄
36. ∫−𝜋⁄4 ( 𝑥 3 + 𝑥 cos 𝑥 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛5 𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 equals________________
4
𝜋
37. ∫ 4𝜋 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 is equal to _________
−
4
3
38. The value of ∫1 | 2𝑥 − 1|𝑑𝑥 is ____________________
𝑎 𝑑𝑥 𝜋
39. If ∫0 1+4𝑥 2
= 8 , the value of a is _________________________
2𝜋
40. The value of ∫0 |𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥|𝑑𝑥 is ____________
ANSWERS
1 17 𝜋
1.2 log 5 2. log2 3. xsinx 4. 2 5. 2 6. 20 7.12
1 √2 + 1 5 1 𝜋2 32−𝑒 −7 + 𝑒 −1
8. log │ │ 9. - . 10. 2𝜋 11. 12.
2√2 √2−1 2𝜋 𝜋2 16 3
1 √2 + 1 𝜋 𝜋 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑎𝜋 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑏𝜋
13.6 log │ 2−1 │+ 6 2 14.2 − 𝑙𝑜𝑔2 15. π 16. 2π + 2𝑎
– 2𝑏
√ √
𝜋2 𝜋2 86 
17. 2log2 18. 2 − 𝜋 19.2𝑎𝑏 20. 0 21. 3 22. − log 2
2
−1 2x  2 2 +1
23. 11/4 24. (
e +1 ) 1
log  .

5 2 25. 2 2  2 2 − 1 
−9 1 1
26. 2
+ 3 (𝑒 6 - 𝑒 3 ) 27. (A) 28.(B) 29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (C)
1
32.(B) 33.(A) 34. (𝑛+1)(𝑛+2)
35. 0 36. 0 37. 2
1
38. 12 39. 2
40. 4
CH–8 APPLICATION OF INTEGRATION
Short answers-I (1 Mark/ 2Marks)

x2 y 2
1. Sketch the region of the ellipse + = 1 and find the area using integration.
25 16
2. Find the area enclosed by the parabola 4y = 3x2 and the line 2y = 3x + 12
3. Find the area of the segment cut off from the parabola y2 = 2x by the line y = 4x-1
4. Find the area bounded by the circle x2 + y2 = 16 and the line y = x in the first quadrant.
5. Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y2 = 4x, x = 1, x = 4 and the x axis in the first
quadrant.
6. Find the area between the line 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 2 = 𝑥
7. Find the area enclosed between the curve 𝑦 = 2√1 − 𝑥 2 , 𝑥 ∈ [0, 1] and the axes.
8. Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line x – y + 2 = 0, x = √𝑦 and y axis.
𝑎2
9. If the area bounded by the parabola y2 = 16ax and the line y = 4mx is sq.units then
12
using integration, find the value of m.
Long answers-II(3Marks/ 5 Marks)
10. Draw the graph of y = │x+1│and using integration find the area below the curve
y=│x+1|, above the x-axis and between x =2, x = -4.
11. Find the area of the triangle formed by positive x-axis and tangent and normal to the circle
x2 + y2 = 4 at (1,√3).
12. Find the area enclosed by the parabolas y2 = 6x and x2 = 6y.
13. Find the area of the region lying above x-axis and included between the curves x2+y2 = 4x and y2 = 2x.
14. Find the area lying above x-axis and included between the circle x2 + y2 = 8x and the
parabola y2 = 4x.
15. Using integration find the area of the triangle ABC whose vertices are A(3,0), B(4,6) and
C (6, 2).
16. Using integration find the area of the triangle ABC where A is (2,3) B(4,7) and C(6,2).
17. Find the area included between the parabolas y2 = 4ax and x2= 4ay
18. Using the method of integration, find the area of the region bounded by the lines y = 2 + x,
y = 2 – x and x = 2
19. Find the area bounded by the line y = x and the curve y = x3.
20. Find the area of the region {(x, y) : x2 + y2 ≤ 1 ≤ x + y}
21. Find the area of the region bounded by y = x2 + 1, y = x, x = 0 and y = 2
22. Using integration, find the area of the triangle ABC, co-ordinate of whose vertices are
A (4, 1), B (6, 6) and C (8, 4).
23. Find the area of region bounded by the curve y = √5 − 𝑥 2 and y = | x – 1| .
24. Find the area of the region bounded by the curves y = │x - 1│ and y = 3 -│x│.
25. Find the area of the region {(x , y) : y2 ≤ 6ax and x2 + y2 ≤ 16a2 },using method of integration.
ANSWERS
1. 20π sq.units 2. 27sq.units 3.9/32 sq.units 4. 2π sq.units 5. 28/3 sq. units

6. 9/2sq.units. 7. π/2sq.units 8. 10/3 sq.units 9.m =2 10.9sq. units
11.2√3 sq.units 12. 12sq.units. 13. (2π – 16/3)sq.units 14.4/3(8 + 3π) 15. 8 sq units
16. 4 sq.units 17. 16 a3/3 sq.units 18. 4sq.units 19.1/2sq.units 20.(π/4 – ½)sq.units
5 −1 2 1 1
21.4/3sq.units 22.7sq.units 23. ( (𝑠𝑖𝑛 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 ) − )sq.units
2 √5 √5 2
24.4sq.units. 25.4a2/3(√3 + 4π)sq.units
CH-9 DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
1. Find the differential equation of all circles of given radius ‘a’ which touch x-axis at origin.
2. Write the integrating factor for solving the differential equation cos y dx = (sec y – x sin y)dy.
3. Verify that the function y = a cos x – b sin x is a solution of the differential equation y‫ ״‬+ y = 0.
𝑑𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦
4. If ‘p’ and ‘q’ are order and degree of the differential equation 3( 𝑑𝑥 )2 - 𝑑𝑥 2
+5x = 0, find 3p – 2q.
𝐴
5. Find the differential equation representing the family of curves v = 𝑟 + 𝐵 , where A and B are arbitrary
constants.
Long answers I-(3Marks)
𝑑𝑦
6. Solve the differential equation = 𝑒 𝑥+𝑦 + 𝑥 2 𝑒 𝑦
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
7. Solve ( x – 1 ) = 2𝑥 3 𝑦
𝑑𝑥
𝑦
8. Find the particular solution of the differential equation 𝑒 𝑥 √1 − 𝑦 2 dx+ 𝑥 dy =0, given
that y = 1, when x = 0
𝑑𝑦
9. Find the particular solution of the differential equation x2𝑑𝑥 = 2𝑥𝑦 + y2 given that y =1
when x = 1.
𝑑𝑦 2
10. Solve the differential equation (𝑥 2 − 1) + 2𝑥𝑦 = 2
𝑑𝑥 𝑥 −1
11. Find the particular solution of the differential equation
𝑑𝑦 𝜋
x𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑥 + 𝑥𝑦𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑥 = 0, x ≠ 0, given that when x = 2 , y = 0
12. Find the particular solution of the differential equation
𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥
+ 2𝑦 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 = sin x given that x = π/3 when y = 0.
Long answers-II(5 Marks)
13. Find the general solution of the equation (1+ tan y) (dx – dy) + 2x dy = 0
14. Find the solution of the following differential equation
𝑑𝑦
(y + x) 𝑑𝑥 = y – x
15. Find the general solution of the differential equation
𝑦 𝑦
(xdy – y dx). ysin(𝑥 ) = (y dx + xdy). x cos (𝑥 )
𝑑𝑦 𝑥+𝑦 cos 𝑥
16. Find the particular solution of differential equation 𝑑𝑥 = − 1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
given that y = 1 when x = 0.
𝑑𝑦 𝜋
17. Solve the differential equation x𝑑𝑥+ y = x cosx + sinx, given that y = 1 when x = 2 .
𝑑𝑦
18. Solve the differential equation: √1 + 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 + 𝑥 2 𝑦 2 + 𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝑥
=0
𝑑𝑦
19. Find the general solution of the differential equation (x + y) y). 𝑑𝑥
= (2x –
20. Find the general solution of the differential equation ydx – (x + 2y )dy = 0
2

𝑑2 𝑦
21. If y = A𝑒 5𝑥 + B𝑒 −5𝑥 , 𝑑𝑥2 is equal to
(A) 25y (B) 5y (C) -25y (D) 15y
𝑑𝑦 2
22. The degree of the differential equation 1 + (𝑑𝑥 ) = x is
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 1 (D) 0
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 3
23. The degree of the differential equation = 𝑥2 2
− 𝑦) x is (𝑥
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6
𝑑𝑦
24. The integrating factor of the differential equation (x + 3𝑦 2 ) 𝑑𝑥 = y is
1 −1
(A) y (B) -y (C) 𝑦 (D) 𝑦
25. The order of the differential equation of the family of circles touching x axis at the origin is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
26. The number of arbitrary constants in the particular solution of a differential equation of second order
is (are)
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
𝑑𝑦 2
27. The integrating factor of the differential equation x 𝑑𝑥 + 2y = 𝑥 is ______________
28. The integrating factor of the differential equation y dx – (x + 2𝑦 2 ) dy = 0 is ______________
𝑑𝑦
29. The general solution of the differential equation 𝑒 𝑦−𝑥 = 1 is ______________
𝑑𝑥
30. The degree of the differential equation (𝑦")2 + cos y’ = 0 is ______________
ANSWERS
1.(x2 – y2)y‫ – ׳‬2xy = 0 2 .I.F= sec y 4. 3p – 2q = 4 5. r v‫ ״‬+2v‫ = ׳‬0

𝑥3 2
6. 𝑒 𝑥 + 𝑒 −𝑦 + 3
+c 7. log│y│= x3 + x2 + 2x +2 log │x-1│+ c
3
8.√1 − 𝑦 2 = x𝑒 𝑥 - ex + 1
𝑥−1
9. x2 + xy – 2y = 0 10. y(x2-1) = log │𝑥+1 │+ c 11. xysinx = -x cosx + sinx -1
1 𝑦
12.y = cosx – 2 cos2x 13. xey(sin y + cos y) = ey sin y + c 14.2log (x2 + y2) + tan−1 𝑥 = c
𝑦 𝑦
15. log│sec(𝑥 )│-log│𝑥 │= 2 log │x│+ c 16. 2y(1 + sinx) + 𝑥 2 = 2 17.y = sin x
1 √1+𝑥 2 −1
18. √1 + 𝑦 2 = −√1 + 𝑥 2 − log | |+𝑐 19. y2 + 2xy – 2x2 = c 20. x = y(2y + c)
2 √1+𝑥 2 +1
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. 𝑥 2
28. 1⁄𝑦 29. 𝑒 𝑦 − 𝑒 𝑥 = 𝐶 30. Not defined
CH-10 VECTORS
Short answers-(1Mark / 2Marks)
𝑎 and 𝑏⃗ are two vectors of the same magnitude inclined at an angle of 60⁰ such that
1. If ⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 . 𝑏⃗ = ½ then find | 𝑎
⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ | and | 𝑏⃗ |.
2. Find the value of p for which the vector p(2𝑖̂-𝑗̂+5𝑘̂) is a unit vector.
3. If 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ = 26 , 𝑏⃗ = 7 and |𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗  𝑏⃗| = 35 , find ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 . 𝑏⃗
 
4. Write the value of p for which a = 3𝑖̂+2𝑗̂+9𝑘̂ and b = 𝑖̂+ p𝑗̂+3𝑘̂ are parallel vectors.
5. What is the cosine of the angle which the vector √2 𝑖̂ +𝑗̂+𝑘̂ makes with y-axis?
6. A vector ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 is inclined at an angle of 45⁰ with x-axis and 60⁰ with y-axis such that |𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ |=6.
Find the inclination of the ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 with z-axis. Also find 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ .
7. Find a vector of magnitude 3, which is perpendicular to each of the vectors 3𝑖̂ +𝑗̂ – 4𝑘̂
and 6𝑖̂ +5𝑗̂ - 2𝑘̂.
 
8. If =a x𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ - ̂
z𝑘 and b = 3 𝑖̂-y𝑗̂+3𝑘̂ are two equal vectors, write the value of x+y+z.
𝑎 = 7𝑖̂+𝑗̂ - 4𝑘̂ and ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 = 2𝑖̂+6𝑗̂ +3𝑘̂ , then find the projection of ⃗⃗⃗
9. If ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 on ⃗⃗⃗
𝑏.
10. Find λ, if the vectors 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂+3𝑗̂ +𝑘̂, 𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ = 2𝑖̂-𝑗̂-𝑘̂ and 𝑐⃗⃗ = λ𝑖̂+3𝑘̂ are coplanar.
11. If a line makes angles 90º, 30º and 𝛼 with x, y and z axis respectively, where 𝛼 is acute,
find 𝛼.
12. Find the projection of ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑏 +𝑐⃗⃗ on 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ , where 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ = 2𝑖̂ -2𝑗̂+𝑘̂, ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 = 𝑖̂+2𝑗̂–2𝑘̂ and 𝑐⃗⃗ =2𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ +4𝑘̂.
13. If |𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ |=3 , |𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ | =5 , |𝑐⃗⃗ |= 7 ,and ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 +𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ +𝑐⃗⃗ = 0 , find the angle between ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 and ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 .
14. Let ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 = 2𝑖̂+2𝑗̂+2𝑘̂, 𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ = -𝑖̂+2𝑗̂+𝑘̂ and 𝑐⃗⃗ = 3𝑖̂+𝑗̂. If 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ +λ𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ is perpendicular to 𝑐, find λ.
𝑎. 𝑎 𝑎. 𝑏
15. Prove that | ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 × ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 |2= | |.
𝑏. 𝑎 𝑏. 𝑏
16. If 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ +𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ +𝑐⃗⃗ = 0, prove that 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ ×𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ =𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ ×𝑐⃗⃗ = 𝑐⃗⃗ ×𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗
17. Find the area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are 3𝑖̂+𝑗̂-2𝑘̂ and 𝑖̂-3𝑗̂+4𝑘̂.
18. If 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂-2𝑗̂+3𝑘̂, ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 = - 2𝑖̂+3𝑗̂-λ𝑘̂ and 𝑐⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂-3𝑗̂+5𝑘̂ are coplanar, find λ .
19. Prove that [𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 𝑐⃗⃗ +𝑑] = [𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 𝑐⃗⃗ ] + [𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗𝑑 ].
20. Find the position vector of a point R which divides the line joining two points P and Q
   
whose position vectors are (2 a + b ) and ( a -3 b ) respectively, externally in the ratio 1:2
Also, show that P is the mid-point of the line segment RQ.
Long answers -I(3Marks)
21. If 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ are unit vectors and Ѳ is the angle between them, show that
⃗⃗⃗ and 𝑏
 a −b  a+b  a −b
(i) sin = (ii) cos = (iii) tan =
2 2 2 2 2 a+b
22. Express ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑎 = 5𝑖̂-2𝑗̂+5𝑘̂ as the sum of two vectors such that one is parallel to ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 = 3𝑖̂ + 𝑘̂
and other is perpendicular to 𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ .
23. The dot product of a vector with the vectors 𝑖̂ +𝑗̂ – 3𝑘̂, 𝑖̂+3𝑗̂-2k and 2 𝑖̂ +𝑗̂ +4 𝑘̂ are 0, 5
and 8, respectively. Find the vector.
⃗⃗⃗ = 4 𝑖̂+5𝑗̂ – 𝑘̂, ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 = 𝑖̂ -4𝑗̂ +5𝑘̂ , 𝑐⃗⃗ =3 𝑖̂ +𝑗̂ – 𝑘̂ ,. Find ⃗⃗⃗
24. If 𝑎 𝑑 so that ⃗⃗⃗𝑑 is perpendicular to
both 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗ and 𝑏 and 𝑑 . 𝑐⃗⃗ = 21.
25. If 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ =𝑐⃗⃗ ×𝑑
⃗⃗⃗ ×𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ ,𝑎
⃗⃗⃗ ×𝑐⃗⃗ =𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ ×𝑑
⃗⃗⃗ , show that 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ || 𝑏
⃗⃗⃗ -𝑑 ⃗⃗⃗ - 𝑐 , a ≠ d , b≠ c .
⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂+𝑗̂+𝑘̂ and 𝑏
26. If 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑗̂- 𝑘̂, find a vector 𝑐⃗⃗ such that 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ and 𝑎
⃗⃗⃗ × 𝑐⃗⃗ = 𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗𝑏 = 3.
27. Show that the four points with position vectors 4𝑖̂+5𝑗̂+𝑘, -𝑗̂- 𝑘, 3𝑖̂+9𝑗̂+4𝑘̂ and -4𝑖̂+4𝑗̂+4𝑘̂
̂ ̂
are coplanar.
28. If ⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 +𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ +𝑐⃗⃗ =0, show that the angle Ѳ between ⃗⃗⃗ 𝑏 and 𝑐⃗⃗ is given by
| a |2 − b − c
2 2
cosѲ =
2 | b || c |
29. The scalar product of the vector 𝑖̂+2𝑗̂+4𝑘̂ with a unit vector along the sum of the vectors
𝑖̂+2𝑗̂+3𝑘̂ and λ𝑖̂+4𝑗̂-5𝑘̂ is equal to one. Find the value of λ.

30. Find a vector a of magnitude 5√2, making an angle of π/4 with x-axis, π/2 with y-axis
and an acute angle ө with z-axis.
31.If the projection of 𝑎 = 𝑖̂ - 2𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂ on 𝑏⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + p𝑘̂ is zero, the value of p is
−2 −3
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2
32. If |𝑎⃑ | = 3, |𝑏⃗⃑ | = 4 and |𝑎⃑ × 𝑏⃗⃑ | = 6, the value of 𝑎⃑. 𝑏⃗⃑ is
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 3 √3 (D) 6 √3
33. The area of the triangle whose two sides are represented by the vectors 𝑖̂ + 𝑘 and 2𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ is
̂
√3 3
(A) (B) 3 (C) √3 (D)
2 2
34. The value of p for which p(𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂) is a unit vector is
1
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) √3
√
35. The area of a triangle formed by vertices O, A and B, where ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝑂𝐴 = 𝑖̂ + 2 𝑗̂+ 3 𝑘̂ and ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝐵 = -3 𝑖̂ -2 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
is
(A) 3√5 sq.units (B) 5 √5 sq.units (C) 6√5 sq.units (D) 4 sq. units
36. If |𝑎⃑ | = 4 and -3 ≤ 𝜆 ≤ 2, then |𝜆𝑎⃑ | lies in
(A) [0, 12] (B) [2,3] (C) [8,12] (D) [-12,8]
̂ ̂ ̂
37. The vectors 3𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘, 2𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 3 𝑘 and 𝑖̂ + λ𝑗̂ - 𝑘 are coplanar if the value of λ is
(A) -2 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) Any real number
38. The value of 𝜆 for which the vectors 2𝑖̂ - 𝜆 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ and 𝑖̂ +2𝑗̂ - 𝑘̂ are orthogonal is __________
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 2𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ - 𝑘̂ and 𝑂𝐵

39. The position vectors of two points A and B are 𝑂𝐴 ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 2 𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂, respectively.
The position vector of a point P which divides the line segment joining A and B in the ratio 2: 1 is
___________
40. A vector of magnitude 14 in the direction of the vector 𝑎 = -2 𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 6𝑘̂ is ______________
41. The area of the parallelogram whose diagonals are 2𝑖̂ and -3𝑘̂ is ________ square units.
42. If 𝑎 is a non zero vector, then (𝑎. 𝑖̂) 𝑖̂ + (𝑎. 𝑗̂) 𝑗̂ + (𝑎. 𝑘̂) 𝑘̂ equals__________
43. The projection of the vector 𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ on the vector 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ is _____________
ANSWERS
1. 1 2. ±1/√30 3. ±7 4. 2/3 5. π/3 6. 600 or 1200, 6( 1/√2𝑖̂ + 1/2𝑗̂±1/2𝑘̂)
7. 2𝑖̂-2𝑗̂+𝑘̂ 8. -2 9. 8/7 10. -21/2 11. 𝛼 =60º 12. 2 13. 60⁰ 14. λ=8
 
17. 5√3 18. 4 20. 3 a +5 b 22. ( 6𝑖̂+2𝑘̂) +(-𝑖̂-2𝑗̂+3𝑘̂)
23. 𝑖̂+2𝑗̂+𝑘̂ 24. 7𝑖̂-7𝑗̂-7𝑘̂ ̂
26. 5/3 𝑖̂+2/3𝑗̂ +2/3𝑘. 29. λ=2 30.5𝑖̂+ 5𝑘̂
31. (C ) 32.(D) 33. (A) 34.(B) 35.(A) 36.(A)
37. (A) 38. 1/2 ̂
39. 2 𝑖̂ - 𝑗̂ + 𝑘 40. -4𝑖̂ + 6𝑗̂ + 12𝑘̂ 41. 3
42. 𝑎 43. 0
CH-11 THREE DIMENSIONAL GEOMETRY
Short answers- (1 Mark/2Marks)

1. What are the direction cosines of the line, which makes equal angles with the co-ordinate
axes.
2. Find the distance of the plane 3x-4y +12z = 3 from origin.
3. Write the direction cosines of the line parallel to z-axis.
4. Write the direction cosines of the unit vector perpendicular to the plane
( )
r. 6iˆ − 3 ˆj − 2kˆ + 1 = 0.
𝑥+2 2𝑦−1 3−𝑧
5. Find the direction ratios of the line 1 = 3 = 5 .
6. Find the angle between the planes
→𝑟. (𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ − 2𝑘̂ ) = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 →𝑟. (3𝑖̂ − 6𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ ) = 0
𝑥+2 𝑦−5 𝑧+1
7. Find the co-ordinates of the point where the line 1 = 3 = 5 cuts the yz- plane.
8. Find the equation of the line passing through the point (6, 2, -1) and perpendicular to the
plane →𝑟. (2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ) + 3 = 0.
9. The x co-ordinate of a point P on the line joining the points Q (2, 2, 1) and R (5, 1,-2) is 4.
Find its z co-ordinate.
x −1 y + 4 z − 7
10. If the line = = is parallel to the plane 3x-2y + cz =14, find the value of c.
2 1 2
Long answers I-(3 Marks)
11. Find the shortest distance between the lines


( ) 
(
r1 = iˆ + 2 ˆj + 2kˆ +  iˆ − ˆj + kˆ and r2 = 2iˆ − ˆj − kˆ +  2iˆ + ˆj + 2kˆ )
12. Find the equation of the line passing through the point (1 ,2, -4) and perpendicular to the
x − 8 y + 19 z − 10 x − 15 y − 29 z − 5
lines = = and = = .
3 −6 7 3 8 −5
13. Find the equation of the plane passing through (3, 4, -5) and parallel to the vectors
(3iˆ + ˆj − kˆ). and (iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ).
14. Show that the points(1,2,3) , (3, 0, 3) and (3,4,6) , (-2,-3,-3) are coplanar.
15. Find the equation of the plane passing through (1,1,1) and perpendicular to x + 2y + 3z = 7
and 2x-3y+4z = 0.
x +1 y + 3 z + 5 x−2 y−4 z −6
16. Show that the lines = = and = = intersect.
3 5 7 1 3 5
Also find their point of intersection.
17. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1,2,3)and parallel to the
planes

( ) 
( )
r . iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ = 5andr . 3iˆ + ˆj + kˆ = 6 .
18. Find the equation of the plane passing through the point (3,0,-1) and perpendicular to the

( )
plane r . iˆ + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ =0 and parallel to the line
x−3
2
=
y
−3
=
z +1
4
.
19. Find the distance between the point (-1,-5,-10) and the point of intersection of the line
x − 2 y +1 z − 2
= = and the plane x- y+ z = 5.
3 4 12
Long answers II- (5 Marks)
20. Find the co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point A (1, 0, 3) to
the join of the points B (4,7,1) and C (3,5,3). Also find the perpendicular distance.
21. Find the co-ordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point P(7,14,5) to
the plane 2x +4 y –z =2. Also find the length of the perpendicular and the image of the
point P in the plane.

22. Find the point(s) on the line r = (3 − 2)iˆ + (2 − 1) ˆj + (2 + 3)kˆ at a distance of √18 from
the point (1,2,3).
23. Find the equation of the plane through the intersection of the planes x+3y+6=0 and
3x-y-4z =0 whose perpendicular distance from origin is 1. .
24. Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the planes x+y+z-1=0
and 2x+3y+4z= 5 and is perpendicular to the plane x-y + z =7. Also find the distance of
the plane from the origin.
25. Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the planes x+y+z-1=0
x −1 y − 5 z +1
and 2x+3y+4z= 5 and is parallel to the line = = .
1 −1 1
26. Find the equation of the plane passing through the points (2, 2, 1) and (9, 3, 6) and
perpendicular to the plane 2x +6y +6z =1. Also show that the plane thus obtained contains

the line r = 4i + 3 ˆj + 3kˆ +  (7iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ) .
27. Find the coordinate of the point P where the line through A (3, -4, -5) and B(2, -3,1) crosses
the plane through three points L(2,2,1) , M(3,0,1) and N(4,-1,0). Also find the ratio in
which P divides the line segment AB.
x −1 y +1 z −1 x−3 y −k z
28. If the lines = = = =
2 −3 4 and 1 2 1 intersect, find the value of k
and hence find the equation of the plane containing these lines.
29. The length of the perpendicular drawn from the point (4, -7, 3) on y axis is
(A) 3 units (B) 4 units (C) 5 units (D) 7 units
30. If the direction cosines of a line are a, a, a, then
1 −1
(A) a > 0 (B) a = 1 or a = -1 (C) 0 < a < 1 (D) a = or a =
√3 √3
31. The plane 3x -2y + 6z +11 = 0, makes an angle sin−1 (𝛼) with x axis. The value of 𝛼 is
−3 3 2 √3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7 7 7 2
32. A point P lies on the line segment joining the points (-1, 3, 2) and ( 5, 0, 6). If x coordinate of P is 2,
then its z- coordinate is
3
(A) -1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 8
33. The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (-2, 8, 7) on XZ-plane is
(A) (-2, -8, 7) (B) (2, 8, -7) (C) (-2, 0, 7) (D) (0, 8, 0)
34. The image of the point (2, -1, 5) in the plane 𝑟 . 𝑖̂ = 0 is
(A) (-2, -1, 5) (B) (2, 1, -5) (C) (-2, 1, -5) (D) (2, 0, 0)
35. The vector equation of XY-plane is
(A) 𝑟 . 𝑘̂ = 0 (B) 𝑟 . 𝑗̂ = 0 (C) 𝑟 . 𝑖̂ = 0 (D) 𝑟 . 𝑛̂ = 1
36. The distance of the point (2, 3, 4) from the plane 𝑟. (3 𝑖̂ - 6𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂) = -11 is
(A) 0 units (B) 1 unit (C) 2 units (D) 15/7 units
37. The coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (2, -3, 4) on the y axis is
(A) (2, 3, 4) (B) (-2, -3, -4) (C) (0, -3, 0) (D) (2, 0, 4)
38. The distance between parallel planes 2x + y -2z -6 = 0 and 4x + 2y - 4z = 0 is___________________
39. The vector equation of the line passing through the point (-1, 5, 4) and perpendicular to the plane
z = 0 is______________
40. If P(1, 0, -3) is the foot of the perpendicular from the origin to the plane, then the cartesian
equation of the plane is __________
41. The two planes x – 2y + 4z = 10 and 18x +17y + kz = 50 are perpendicular, if k is equal to ________
42. The line of shortest distance between two skew lines is _______ to both the lines.
ANSWERS
1.1/√3,1/√3, 1/√3 or -1/√3,- 1/√3,- 1/√3 2. 3/13 3. (0, 0, 1) 4. 6/7𝑖̂ – 3/7𝑗̂ – 2/7𝑘̂.
𝑥−6 𝑦−2 𝑧+1
5. 1, 3/2, -5 or 2, 3, -10 6.cos-111/21 7. (0, 11, 9) 8. = = 9. -1
2 −1 1
3 2 x −1 y − 2 z + 4
10. -2 11. units 12. = = 13. x+4y+7z+16=0.
2 2 3 6
x −1 y − 2 z − 3
15. 17x+2y-7z=12. 16.(1/2, -1/2,-3/2) 17. = = 18. 17x+2y-7z-58=0
−3 5 4
19. 13 units 20. (5/3 ,7/3, 17/3) 21. (1,2,8) ,√189 , (-5,-10, -11)
22. (-2,-1,-3) & (56/17, 43/17,111/17) 23. x-2y-2z=3;2x+y-2z=-3 24. x – z +2=0, √2units
25. x-z+2=0 26. 3x+4y-5z=9 27. (1, -2, 7) and 2:1 28. K = 9/2, 5x -2y –z -6 = 0
29. (C) 30. (D) 31. (B) 32. (B) 33. ( C) 34. (A) 35. (A)
36. (B) 37. (C) 38. 2 units 39. 𝑟 = -𝑖̂ + 5𝑗̂ + 4𝑘̂ + λ𝑘̂ 40. x -3z = 10
41. 4 42. Perpendicular
CH-12 LINEAR PROGRAMMING
Long answers-(3Marks/ 5Marks)
1. A company produces soft drinks that has a contract which requires a minimum of 80 units
of chemical A and 60 units of chemical B, in each bottle of a drink. The chemicals are
available in prepared mix packets from two different suppliers. Supplier S has a packet of
mix of 4 units of A and 2 units of B that costs 10 and the supplier T has a packet of mix
of 1 unit of A and 1 unit of B that costs `4. How many packets of mixes from S and T
should the company purchase to honour the contract requirements and yet minimize the
cost? Make a LPP and solve graphically.
2. A diet for a sick person must contain at least 4000units of vitamins, 50 units of proteins
and 1400 calories. Two foods A and B are available at a cost of `40 and `30 per unit
respectively. If one unit of A contains 200 units of vitamin, 1 unit of protein and 40
calories, and one unit of B contains 100 units of vitamin, 2 unit of protein and 40 calories,
find what combination of foods should be used to have the least cost? Formulate the
above LPP mathematically and solve it graphically.
3. Two tailors A and B earn `150 and `200 per day respectively. A can stitch 6 caps and 4
shirts while B can stitch 10 caps and 4 shirts per day. How many days shall each work if it
is desired to produce at least 60 caps and 32 shirts at a minimum labour cost? Formulate
the above LPP mathematically and solve it graphically.
4. If a girl drives a car at 25 km/hr, she has to spend `2/km. on CNG. If she drives it at a
faster speed of 40 km/hr, the cost increases to `5/km. She has `100 to spend on
CNG and wishes to find what is the maximum distance she can travel within one hour?
Formulate the above LPP mathematically and solve it graphically.
5. A factory owner purchases two types of machines M1 and M2 for his factory. The
requirements and limitations for the machines are as follows :
Area occupied by Labour force for Daily output

each machine each machine
Machine M1 1000 sq. m 12 men 60 units
Machine M2 1200 sq. m 8 men 40 units
He has an area of 9000 sq. m. available and 72 skilled men who can operate the machines.
How many machines of each type should he buy to maximize the daily output?
6. A manufacturer of patent medicines is preparing a production plan for medicines M1 and M2.
There is sufficient raw material available to fill 20000 bottles of M1 and 40000bottles of M2.
But there are only 45000 bottles into which either of the medicines can be put. Further it takes
3 hours to prepare enough material to fill 1000 bottles of M1, it takes 1 hour to prepare enough
material to fill 1000 bottles of M2, and there are 66 hours available for this operation. The profit is `8
per bottle for M1 and `7 per bottle for M2. How should the manufacturer schedule his production in
order to maximize his profit? Formulate the above LPP mathematically and solve it graphically.
7. A company produces two types of belts, B1 and B2 . Belt B1 is of a superior quality and
Belt B2 is of lower quality. Profits on type B1 and type B2 are `2 and `1.50 per belt,
respectively. Each belt of type B1 requires twice as much time as required by a belt of
type B2.If all belts were of type B2 , the company could produce 1000 belts per day. But
the supply of leather is sufficient only for 800 belts per day, (both B1 and B2combined).
Belt B1 requires a fancy buckle and only 400 fancy buckles are available per
day. For belt of type B2, only 700 buckles are available per day. How should the
company manufacture the two types of belts in order to have a maximum overall profit?
8. A retired person wants to invest an amount of `50,000. His broker recommends investing
in two type of bonds ‘A’ and ‘B’ yielding 10% and 9% return respectively on the invested
amount. He decided to invest at least `20,000 in bond ‘A’ and at least `10,000 in bond ‘B’.
He also wants to invest at least as much in bond ‘A’ as in bond ‘B’. Solve this linear
programming problem graphically to his returns.
9. Find graphically, Maximise Z = x + 2y subject to the constraints:

x – y ≥ 0, 2y ≤ x + 2 , x≥ 0 , y ≥ 0.
10. Find graphically, the maximum value of Z = 2x+5y, subject to constraints:
2x+4y ≤ 8 , 3x+y ≤ 6 , x + y ≤ 4, x≥ 0 , y ≥ 0.
11. A manufacturer has employed 5 skilled men and 10 semi-skilled men and makes two models A and B
of an article. The making of one item of model A requires 2 hours work by a skilled man and 2 hours
work by a semi-skilled man. One item of model B requires 1 hour by a skilled man and 3 hours by a
semi-skilled man. No man is allowed to work more than 8 hours per day. The manufacturer’s profit
on an item of model A is `15 and on model B is `10. How many items of each model should be
made per day in order to maximize daily profit? Formulate the above LPP mathematically and
solve it graphically.
12. The corner points of the feasible region determined by the system of linear inequalities are (0, 0),
(4,0), (2,4) and (0,5). If the maximum value of z = ax + by, where a, b > 0 occurs at both (2, 4) and
(4, 0) then which of the following is true?
(A) a = 2b (B) 2a = b (C) a = b (D) 3a = b
13. In an LPP, if the objective function z = ax + by has the same maximum value on two corner points of
the feasible regions, then the number of points at which maximum of z occurs is
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) finite (D) infinite
14. The graph of the inequality 2x + 3y > 6 is
(A) half plane that contains the origin
(B) half plane that neither contains the origin nor the points of the line 2x + 3y = 6
(C) whole XOY plane excluding the points on the line 2x + 3y = 6.
(D) entire XOY plane.
15. In an LPP, the linear function which has to maximized or minimized is called a linear _________
function.
16. The corner points of the feasible region of an LPP are (0, 0), (0, 8),(2, 7),(5, 4)and (6, 0).The
maximum profit P= 3x + 2y occurs at the point_____________.
17. In LPP, the linear inequalities or restrictions on the variables are called _________.
18. If the feasible region for a LPP is _________, then the optimal value of the objective
function Z = ax + by may or may not exist.
19. In a LPP if the objective function Z = ax + by has the same maximum value on two corner
points of the feasible region, then every point on the line segment joining these two points
give the same _________ value.
20. A corner point of a feasible region is a point in the region which is the _________ of two
boundary lines.
ANSWERS
1. (10,40), `260 2 (5, 30), `1100 3. (5, 3), `1350 4. (50/3 Km ,40/3 km) , 30 Km
5. (4,3) or(6, 0),360 units 6. (10500, 34500), `325500. 7. (200,600),`1300
8.(40000,10000), `4900 9. No maximum value 10. 10 at (0, 2)
11. ( 10,20), `350 12.(A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. Objective
16. (5, 4) 17. Constraints 18. Unbounded 19. Maximum 20.Intersection.
CH-13 PROBABILITY
Short Answers -(1Mark/2 Marks)

1. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. Find the probability that the cards are
either both red or both aces?
2. A couple has two children. Find the probability that both are boys, if it is known that at least one of
the children is a boy.
3. The probability of simultaneous occurrence of at least one of two events A and B is p. If the
probability that exactly one of A, B occurs is q, then prove that P(A’) + P(B’) = 2–2p+q.
4. A and B are two candidates seeking admission in a college. The probability that A is selected is
0.7 and the probability that exactly one of them is selected is 0.6. Find the probability that B is
selected.
5. Let A and B be two events. If P (A) = 0.2, P (B) = 0.4, P (A∪B) = 0.5, find P (A | B)
6. Bag P contains 4 white, 3 black balls and another bag Q contains 3 white and 2 black balls.
From bag P one ball is transferred to bag Q. Find the probability of drawing 1 black ball from
the bag Q.
7. Prove that if E and F are independent events, then the events E and F' are also independent.
8. An experiment succeeds thrice as often as it fails. Find the probability that in the
next five trials there will be at least three successes.
9. Eight coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting
(i) atleast six heads (ii) atleast three heads.
Long answers- (3 Marks / 5Marks)
10. A letter is known to have come either from TATANAGAR or KOLKATA. On the
envelope, only the two consecutive letters TA are visible. What is the probability that the
letters have come from
(i) TATANAGAR (ii) KOLKATA?
11. A bag contains 4 balls. Two balls are drawn at random and are found to be white. What is
the probability that all balls are white?
12. In a test an examinee either guesses or copies or knows the answer to multiple choice question
with four choices and only one correct option. The probability that he copies the answer is 1/6,
The probability that he makes a guess is 1/3, the probability that the answer is correct given
that he has copied, is 1/8. Find the probability that he knows the answer to the question, given
that he correctly answered it.
13. Bag I contains 5 white and 5 red balls and another bag II contains 7 white and 6 red balls. Two
balls are transferred from bag I to bag II and then two balls are drawn from bag II. If the balls
drawn from bag II are both red, find the probability of transferring 1 white and 1 red ball.
14. In a self-assessment survey, 60% persons claimed that they never indulge in corruption, 40% persons
claimed that they always spoke the truth, 20% persons said that they neither indulged in corruption
nor told lies. A person is selected from this group.
(i) What is the probability that the person is either corrupt or tells a lie?
(ii) If the person is never indulged in corruption. Find the probability that he speaks
the truth.
(iii) If the person always speaks the truth then find the probability that he claims to
have never indulged in corruption.
15. If A and B are independent events such that P (A) = p, P (B) = 2p and P (Exactly one of A, B) = 5/9
then determine the value of p
16. A girl throws a dice. If she gets 1, 2, 3 or 4, she tosses a coin two times and notes the number
of heads obtained. If she obtained exactly two heads, what is the probability that she threw
1, 2, 3 or 4 with the dice?
17. A card from a pack of 52 cards is lost. From the remaining cards, 3 cards are drawn and
are found to be all spades. Find the probability of the lost card being a spade?
18. Four defective oranges are accidentally mixed with sixteen good ones; three oranges are
drawn from the mixed lot. Find the probability distribution of the number of defective
oranges.
19. Two numbers are selected at random from the first six positive integers. Let X denote the
larger of the two numbers obtained. Find the probability distribution of X and hence find
the mean of the distribution.
20. From a lot of 15 bulbs which include 5 defective bulbs, a sample of 4 bulbs is drawn one by
one with replacement. Find the probability distribution of the number of defective bulbs.
Hence find the mean of the distribution.
21. An urn contains 4 white and 3red balls. Let X denote the number of red balls in a random
draw of 3balls. Find the mean and variance of X.
22. Five bad oranges are accidentally mixed with 20 good ones. If four oranges are drawn one
by one with replacement, find the mean and variance of the distribution.
23. A and B throw a pair of dice turn by turn, the first to throw a total of 9 is awarded the prize.
If A starts the game, find the probability of A getting the prize.
(
24. If A and B are two independent events such that P A  B = ) 2
andP (A  B ) =
1
15 6
find P(A) and P(B).
25. How many minimum number of times must a man toss a fair coin so that the
probability of having at least one head is more than 80%?

1 1
26. If A and B are two independent events with P(A) = 3 and P(B) = 4, then P(𝐵′⁄𝐴) is
1 1 3
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
27. If A and B be two events such that P(A) = 0.2, P(B) =0.4 and P(A ∩ 𝐵) = 0.08, then P(𝐴⁄𝐵)
is
(A) 0.02 (B) 0.2 (C)0.4 (D) 0.08
28. From the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, two numbers a and b ( a≠0) are chosen at random. The
𝑎
probability that 𝑏 is an integer is:
1 1 1 1
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 12 (D) 24
29. Three dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of obtaining a total score of 5 is
5 1 1 1
(A) 216 (B) 6 (C) 36 (D) 49
30. A bag contains 3 white, 4 black and 2 red balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random (without
replacement), the probability that both the balls are white is
1 1 1 1
(A) 18 (B) 36 (C) 12 (D) 24
31. Two cards are drawn at random and one by one without replacement from a well shuffled
pack of 52 cards. The probability that one card is red and the other is black
is__________________
32. A bag contains 3 black, 4 red and 2 green balls. If three balls are drawn simultaneously at
random, then the probability that the balls are of different colours is_______________
33. An unbiased coin is tossed 4 times. The probability of getting at least one head is
____________
34. A black die and a red die are rolled together. The conditional probability of obtaining a sum
greater than 9 given that the black die resulted in a 5 is _______
35. A card is picked at random from a pack of 52 playing cards. Given that the picked card is a
queen, the probability of this card to be a card of spade is ________
36. A die is thrown once. Let A be the event that the number obtained is greater than3. Let B be
the event that the number obtained is less than 5. Then P(A∪ 𝐵) is____________
37. A number is chosen randomly from numbers 1 to 60. The probability that the chosen
number is a multiple of 2 or 5 is __________
ANSWERS
1. 55/221 2. 1/3 4. 0.25 5. 0.25 6. 17/42 8. 918 / 45 9. 37/256, 219/256

10.(i) 3/5 (ii)2/5 11. 3/5
12. 24/29 13. 105/191 14. (i) 4/5 (ii) 1/3 (iii) 1/2 15.1/3 or 5/12 16. 4/7
17. 110/539
X 0 1 2 3
18.
P(X) 28/57 24/57 8/95 1/285
X 2 3 4 5 6
19.
Mean = 4.67
P(X) 1/15 2/15 1/5 4/15 1/3
20. Mean = 4/3

X 0 1 2 3 4
P(X) 16/81 32/81 24/81 8/81 1/81
21. 9/7, 24/29 22. 4/5, 0.64 23. 9 /17. 24. 1/5, 1/6 25. 3
26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (C)
31. (C) 32. 2/7 33. 15/16 34.1/3
35.1/4 36. 1
37. 3/5
CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Q1. A tank with rectangular base and rectangular sides, open
at the top is to be constructed so that its depth is 2 m and
volume is 8 m3. Building of tank costs Rs 70 per square
metre for the base and Rs 45 per square metre for the sides.
x and y represent the length and breadth of the tank respectively.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) The relation between the variables x and y is given by
(a) xy = 4 (b) xy=6 (c) xy =8 (d) xy=2
(ii) The cost of the base of the tank is

(a) Rs 40 xy (b) Rs 70 xy (c) Rs 45 xy (d) Rs 50 xy
(iii) The cost of building the four walls of the tank is

(a) Rs 80(x+y) (b) Rs 100(x+y) (c)Rs 90(x+y) (d) Rs 180(x+y)
(iv) For building the least expensive tank, the value of (x, y) is
(a) (2, 2) (b) (2, 4) (c) (4, 2) (d) (4, 4)
(v) The cost of least expensive tank is

(a) Rs 900 (b) Rs 800 (c) Rs 1000 (d) Rs 720
Q2. The heptagonal prism is a prism with heptagonal base. This polyhedron has 9 faces,
21edges, and 14 vertices. Seven rectangular faces of a heptagonal prism are marked with
numbers 1 to 7 as shown in figure 2.
Figure 1
Figure 2
The prism is rolled along the rectangular faces and number on the bottom face (touching
the ground) is noted. Let X denotes the number obtained on the bottom face and the
probability distribution of random variable X is given in the following table.
X 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
2 2
P(X) K 2K 2K 3K K 2K 7K2 + K
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:
(i) The value of K equals
1 2 1 7
(a) 5 (b)3 (c) 10 (d) 10
(ii) The value of P(X < 3)is
1 3 2 1
(a) 10 (b) 10 (c) 5 (d) 7
(iii) P(X > 6) is equal to

3 7 17 19
(a) 20 (b) 20 (c) 100 (d) 100
(iv) The value of P(0 < X < 3) is

3 1 3 1
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) (d) 10
4
(v) P(X = 6) equals

7 3 1 5
(a) 10 (b) 10 (c) 50 (d) 10
Q3. Rekha visited the fair along with her family.
The fair had a huge swing, which attracted many
children. Rekha found that the swing traced the
path of a parabola as given by 𝑦 = 𝑥2.
Based on the above information, answer the
following questions:
(i). Let 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅 be defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥2 is

(a)Neither Surjective nor Injective
(b) Surjective
(c) Injective
(d) Bijective
(ii). Let 𝑓: 𝑁 → 𝑁 be defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥2 is

(a) Surjective but not Injective (b) Surjective (c) Injective (d)Bijective
(iii). Let f: {1,2,3,….}→{1,4,9,….} be defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥2 is

(a) Bijective (b) Surjective but not Injective
(c) Injective but Surjective (d)Neither Surjective nor Injective
(iv). Let f : 𝑁 → 𝑅 be defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥2. Range of the function among the following is
(a) {1, 4, 9, 16,…} (b) {1, 4, 8, 9, 10,…} (c) {1, 4, 9, 15, 16,…} (d) {1, 4, 8, 16,…}
(v). The function f: Z→Z defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥2 is

(a) Neither Injective nor Surjective (b) Injective (c) Surjective (d)Bijective
Q4. A manufacture produces three stationery products

Pencil, Eraser and Sharpener which hesells in two
markets A and B.
Annual sales are indicated below:
Market Products (in numbers)

Pencil Eraser Sharpener
A 10,000 2000 18,000
B 6000 20,000 8,000
If the unit Sale price of Pencil, Eraser and Sharpener are `2.50, `1.50 and `1.00respectively and unit
cost of the above three commodities are ` 2.00, ` 1.00 and ` 0.50 respectively, then,
Based on the above information answer the following:
(i). The total revenue of Market A is
(a) ` 64,000 (b) ` 60,400 (c) ` 46,000 (d) ` 40,600
(ii) The total revenue of Market B is
(a) ` 35,000 (b) ` 53,000 (c) ` 50,300 (d) ` 30,500
(iii) The cost incurred in Market A is
(a) ` 13,000 (b) ` 30,100 (c) ` 10,300 (d) ` 31,000
(iv) Profit in market A and B respectively are
(a) `15,000, `17,000 (b) ` 17,000, `15,000
(c) ` 51,000, ` 71,000 (d) ` 10,000, ` 20,000
(v) Gross profit in both markets is

(a) ` 23,000 (b) ` 20,300 (c) ` 32,000 (d) ` 30,200
Q5. The Relation between the height of the plant

(y in cm)with respect to exposure to sunlight is
𝑥2
Governed by the following equation y = 4𝑥 − ,
2
where x is the number of days exposed to sunlight.
(i) The rate of growth of the plant with respect to sunlight is
𝑥2
(a) 4𝑥 − 2
(b) 4 − 𝑥
𝑥2
(c) x − 4 (d) 𝑥 − 2
(ii) What is the number of days it will take for the plant to grow to the
maximum height?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 10
(iii) What is the maximum height of the plant?

(a)12 cm (b)10 cm (c)8 cm (d)6 cm
(iv) What will be the height of the plant after 2 days?

(a) 4cm (b)10 cm (c)8 cm (d)6 cm
(v) If the height of the plant is 7/2 cm, the number of days it has been exposed to the sunlight is
(a)2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d)1
Q6. A cricket match is organized between two Clubs A and B for which a team from each club is chosen.
Remaining players of Club A and Club B are respectively sitting on the plane represented by the
equation →𝑟. (2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ ) = 3 and →
𝑟. (𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 2 𝑘̂) = 8 to cheer the team of their own clubs.

(i) The cartesian equation of the plane on which players of Club A are seated is
(a) 2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 3 (b) 2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 3 (c) 2𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = −3 (d) 𝑥 − 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 3
(ii) The magnitude of the normal to the plane on which players of club B are seated, is
(a) √15 (b) √14 (c) √17 (d) √20
(iii) The intercept form of the equation of the plane on which players of Club B are seated is
𝑥 𝑦 𝑧 𝑥 𝑦 𝑧 𝑥 𝑦 𝑧 𝑥 𝑦 𝑧
(a) + 8 + = 1 (b) + 8 + = 1 (c) + 8 + = 1 (d) + + = 1
8 3
2 5 3
3 8 3
4 8 7 2
(iv) Which of the following is a player of Club B?
(a) Player sitting at (1, 2, 1) (b)Player sitting at (0, 1, 2)
(c)Player sitting at (1, 4, 1) (d)Player sitting at (1, 1, 2)
(v)The distance of the plane, on which players of Club B are seated, from the origin is
8 6 7 9
(a) 14 units (b) 14 units (c) 14 units (d) 14 units
√ √ √ √
Q7. Suppose the floor of a hotel is made up of mirror polished Salvatore stone. There is a large crystal
chandelier attached to the ceiling of the hotel room. Consider the floor of the hotel room as a
plane having the equation x – y + z = 4 and the crystal chandelier is suspendedat the point
(1, 0, 1).
Based on the above answer the following:

(i) Find the direction ratios of the perpendicular from the point (1, 0, 1) to the plane x – y + z = 4.
(a) (-1, -1, 1) (b) (1, -1, -1) (c) (-1, -1, -1) (d) (1, -1, 1)
(ii). Find the length of the perpendicular from the point (1, 0, 1) to the plane x – y + z = 4
(a) 2√3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 (b) 4√3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 (c)6√3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 (d)8√3𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
(iii). The equation of the perpendicular from the point (1, 0, 1) to the plane x – y + z = 4 is
𝑥−1 𝑦+3 𝑧+5 𝑥−1 𝑦+3 𝑧−5
(a) 2 = −1 = 2 (b) −2 = −1 = 2
𝑥−1 𝑦 𝑧−1 𝑥−1 𝑦 𝑧−1
(c) 1
= −1
= 1
(d) 2
= −2
= 1
(iv). The equation of the plane parallel to the plane x – y + z = 4, which is at a unit distance from the point
(1, 0, 1) is
(a) x – y + z + (2 - √3) (b) x – y + z - (2 + √3)
(c) x – y + z + (2 + √3) (d) Both (a) and (c)
(v). The direction cosine of the normal to the plane x – y + z = 4 is
1 −1 −1 1 −1 1 −1 −1 1 −1 −1 −1
(a) ( , , ) (b) ( , , ) (c) ( , , ) (d) ( , , )
√3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3 √3
Q8. A coach is training 3 players. He observes that the player A can hit a target 4 times in 5 shots,
player B can hit 3 times in 4 shots and the player C can hit 2 times in 3 shots.
Let A represents the target is hit by A, B represents the target is hit by B and C represents the
target is hit by C. From this situation answer the following questions:
(i). The probability that A, B and C all will hit the target is
(a) 4/5 (b) 3/5 (c) 2/5 (d)1/5
(ii). What is the probability that B and C will hit and A will lose?
(a)1/10 (b) 3/10 (c) 7/10 (d) 4/10
(iii). What is the probability that any two of A, B and C will hit the target?
(a) 1/30 (b) 11/30 (c) 17/30 (d) 13/30
(iv). What is the probability that ‘none of them will hit the target’?
(a) 1/30 (b) 1/60 (c) 1/15 (d) 2/15
(v). What is the probability that at least one of A, B or C will hit the target?
(a) 59/60 (b) 2/5 (c) 3/5 (d) 1/6
Q9. An architect designs a building for a multi-national company. The floor consistsof a rectangular
region with semicircular ends having a perimeter of 200m as shown below:
Design of Floor

(i). If x and y represents the length and breadth of the rectangular region, then the relation
between the variables is
(a) x + π y = 100 (b) 2x + π y = 200 (c) π x + y = 50 (d) x + y = 100
(ii). The area of the rectangular region A expressed as a function of x is
2 1 𝑥 2
(a) (100 𝑥 − 𝑥2) (b) (100 𝑥 − 𝑥2) (c) (100 𝑥 − 𝑥2) (d) 𝜋𝑦 2 + (100 𝑥 − 𝑥2)
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
(iii). The maximum value of area A is
𝜋 3200 2 5000 2 1000 2
(a) 3200
𝑚2 (b) 𝜋
𝑚 (c) 𝜋
𝑚 (d) 𝜋
𝑚
(iv). The CEO of the multi-national company is interested in maximizing the area of the whole floor
including the semi-circular ends. For this to happen the value of y should be
𝜋 𝜋 400 200
(a) 200 m (b) 400 𝑚 (c) 𝜋
m (d) 𝜋
m
(v). When the combined area of the floor is maximum then the value of x is
(a)0 m (b)30 m (c)50 m (d) 80
Q10. In an office three employees Vinay, Sonia and Iqbal process incoming copies of a certain form. Vinay
process 50% of the forms. Sonia processes 20% and Iqbalthe remaining 30% of the forms. Vinay
has an error rate of 0.06, Sonia has an error rate of 0.04 and Iqbal has an error rate of 0.03
(i). The conditional probability that an error is committed in processing given that Sonia processed the form
is:
(a) 0.0210 (b) 0.04 (c) 0.47 (d) 0.06
(ii). The probability that Sonia processed the form and committed an error is:
(a) 0.005 (b) 0.006 (c) 0.008 (d) 0.68
(iii). The total probability of committing an error in processing the form is
(a) 0 (b) 0.047 (c) 0.234 (d) 1
(iv). The manager of the company wants to do a quality check. During inspectionhe selects a form at
random from the days output of processed forms. If the form selected at random has an error, the
probability that the form is NOT processed by Vinay is:
(a)1 (b) 30/47 (c) 20/47 (d) 17/47
(v). Let A be the event of committing an error in processing the form and let E1,E2 and E3 be the
events that Vinay, Sonia and Iqbal processed the form. The value of ∑3𝑖=1 P (Ei| A) is
(a) 0 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.06 (d) 1
SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Class: XII
Subject: Mathematics
Time: 3Hours M.M:80
General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains two parts A and B. Each part is compulsory. Part A carries
24 marks and Part B carries 56 marks.
2. Part-A has Objective Type Questions and Part -B has Subjective Type Questions.
3. Both Part A and Part B have choices.
Part – A:
1. It consists of two sections- I and II.
2. Section I comprises 16 very short answer type questions.
3. Section II contains 2 case studies. Each case study comprises 5 case-based
MCQs. Attempt any 4 out of 5 MCQs.
Part – B:
1. It consists of three sections- III, IV and V.
2. Section III comprises 10 questions of 2 marks each.
3. Section IV comprises 7 questions of 3 marks each.
4. Section V comprises 3 questions of 5 marks each.
5. Internal choice is provided in 3 questions of Section-III, 2 questions of Section-IV
and 3 questions of Section-V. You have to attempt only one of the alternatives in
all such questions.
PART-A
SECTION – I
Q1.The relation R on set A = {a, b, c} is defined as
R = {(a, b), (b, a), (a, c), (c, b)}. Is R a transitive relation? Justify.
Q2. If a set A contains 4 elements and set B contains 5 elements then write the number of
bijective mappings from A to B.
Q3. Write the range of sin-1 x other than its principal branch.
OR
−3𝜋
Evaluate: tan−1 (tan ( ))
4
Q4. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and |𝐴| = 3 then write the value of |2𝐴′|, where 𝐴′ is the
transpose of matrix A.
a + ib c + id
Q5. Find the value of | |
−c + id a − ib
OR
Construct a 2 x 2 matrix A = [aij], whose elements aij are given by aij = 2i – j
Q6. Using determinants, find the value(s) of k if the area of the triangle with vertices (−3, 0),
(3, 0) and (0, k) is 18 square units.
𝜋/2
Q7. Evaluate:∫0 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
OR
3𝑥 2 +4𝑥−5
Find : ∫ (𝑥 3+2𝑥 2 −5𝑥+1) dx
Q8. Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line 𝑥 = 2𝑦, the 𝑥 −axis and the
lines 𝑥 = 2 and 𝑥 = 4.
𝑑𝑦
Q9. Write the integrating factor of the differential equation: 𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = 2 log 𝑥
OR
2
𝑑𝑦 4 𝑑2 𝑦
Write the sum of order and degree of the differential equation:(𝑑𝑥 ) + (𝑑𝑥 2 ) = 0.
⃗⃗⃗ = 2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ on 𝑏
Q10. Find the projection of 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ .
OR
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ .
If A (1, 2, 3) and B(2, 2, –1) are two given points, find the direction cosines of 𝐴𝐵
2𝑖̂ 3𝑗̂ ̂
6𝑘
Q11. Write the distance of the plane 𝑟. ( 7 + − ) = 1 from the origin.
7 7
Q12. Find the value of |𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ | if |𝑎

⃗⃗⃗ × 𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ | = 2 and 𝑎
⃗⃗⃗ | = 10, |𝑏 ⃗⃗⃗ = 12
⃗⃗⃗ . 𝑏
Q13. Write the vector equation of a line which is parallel to the vector (2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 3𝑘̂) and
which passes through the point (5, – 2, 4).
𝜋 𝜋
Q14. Find a vector 𝑟 of magnitude 3√2 units which makes an angle of 4 and 2 with 𝑦 and 𝑧 axes
respectively.
1 1 1
Q15. If A and B are two events such that P(A) = 2, P(B) = 3 and P(A/B) = 4 then find P(A ∪ B).
Q16. Two cards are drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 playing cards with replacement. Find the
probability that both cards are kings.
SECTION –II
Q17. Driving is a necessity for many and for others it may be luxury that thousands of people
partake of every day. Having one’s own vehicle increases one’s mobility and eliminates
dependence on public transport.
However, driving also comes with its own perils. We often hear drivers rue traffic
indiscipline, lack of legal enforcement by road authorities and myriad other complaints
about the traffic scenario. Cases of road accidents and rule-breaking are reported in the
newspapers on a daily basis. Here are some important reasons to get insurance.
• It pays for damages.
• It reduces owner’s liability.
• It pays for owner’s hospitalization.
• It compensates family in case of loss of life.
Considering these factors, it is important to get insurance right after one buys a vehicle.
An insurance company insured 1000 scooter drivers, 2000 car drivers and 3000 truck drivers. The
probabilities of an accident involving a scooter driver, car driver and a truck driver are 0.01, 0.015
and 0.02 respectively.
Based on above information, answer any four of the following questions:
(i) The conditional probability that accident occurred given that the person was a car driver is
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.03 (c) 0.02 (d) 0.015
(ii) The probability that a scooter driver met with an accident

(a) 0.0075 (b) 0.015 (c) 0.01 (d) 0.02
(iii) The total probability that accident will happen is
(a) 0.045 (b) 0.16 (c) 0.016 (d) 0.106
(iv) One of the insured persons met with an accident. The probability that the
person is a truck driver is
1 3 1 1
(a) 5 (b) 5 (c) 60 (d) 2
(v) The probability that one of the drivers insured by the company selected at random
is a car driver is
1 1
(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 0.03 (d) 0.01
Q18. Ventilation is the intentional introduction of fresh air into a space while the stale air is
removed. It is done to maintain the quality of air in that space.
Ventilation is an important factor in preventing the virus that causes COVID-19 from
spreading indoors. Below are a few steps to consider which can improve indoor
ventilation.
• Consider using natural ventilation, opening windows if possible
• Increase total airflow supply to occupied spaces, if possible.
• Improve central air filtration.
• Ensure exhaust fans in restroom facilities
In order to provide better ventilation, the architect designed the windows in every room of the
building in the form of a rectangle surmounted by an equilateral triangle. The perimeter of each
window is 12m.
The layout of the window is shown above in the third figure on the right side.
Based on above information, answer any four of the following questions:
(i) If x and y represents the length and breadth of the rectangular region of the window then
the relation between the variables is
(a) 4x+2y = 12 (b) 2x +2y =12 (c) 3x + 2y = 12 (d) 5x + 2y = 12
(ii) The area of the window expressed in terms of x is
3 √3 2 2 √3 2
(a) 6x − x 2 + x m (b) 6x − x 2 + x m2
2 4 4
5 2 √3 √3
(c) 12x − 2
x + 4 x 2 m2 (d) 6x − 12x 2 + 4 x 2 m2
(iii) The value of x, when the area of the window is maximum is
4(4+√3) 4(6+√3) 12(4+√3) 24(10+√3)
(a) m (b) m (c) m (d) m
11 11 13 97
(iv) The value of y, when the area of the window is maximum is
4(6+√3) 6(5+√3) 4(6−√3) 6(5−√3)
(a) m (b) m (c) m (d) m
11 11 11 11
(v) The ratio of x and y, when the area of the window is maximum is
(use √3 = 1.7)
(a) 14: 3 q (b) 14: 9 (c) 3 :14 (d) 9:14
PART-B
SECTION - III
Q19. Find the value of
−1 −1
4𝑡𝑎𝑛−1 (1) + 3𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 ( 2 ) + 6𝑠𝑖𝑛−1 ( 2 )
1 2 𝑥
Q20. If [2𝑥 3] [ ] [ ] = 𝑂, find the value(s) of x.
−3 0 3
OR
−1 5
Express the matrix 𝐴 = [ ] as the sum of a symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix.
3 2
𝑘𝑥 + 5, when 𝑥 ≤2
Q21. Find the value of 𝑘 for which 𝑓(𝑥) = {
𝑥 − 1, when 𝑥 >2
is continuous at 𝑥 = 2.
1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑘𝑥
, 𝑥 ≠0
𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥
If the function f defined by 𝑓(𝑥) = { 1 is continuous at x = 0, find the value(s)
, 𝑥=0
2
of k.
𝜋
Q22. Find the equation of the tangent to the curve 𝑦 = 2𝑠𝑖𝑛2 3𝑥 at 𝑥 = 12.
Q23. Find: ∫ tan−1 𝑥 𝑑𝑥

OR
𝑑𝑥
Find: ∫ (3+2𝑥−𝑥 2)
Q24. Find the area of the region bounded by the curve 𝑦 2 = 4𝑥 between the lines x = 0 and
x = 4.
𝑑𝑦
Q25. Solve: 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 − 𝑦 = 2𝑥 3
⃗⃗⃗ = 2𝑖̂ − 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ and ⃗⃗⃗⃗

Q26. Find a unit vector perpendicular to both the vectors 𝑎 𝑏 = 3𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ − 𝑘̂.
⃗⃗⃗ , ⃗⃗⃗
Q27. If 𝑎 𝑏 , 𝑐⃗⃗ are three vectors such that 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ + ⃗⃗⃗
𝑏 + 𝑐⃗⃗ = ⃗⃗0⃗ and |𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ | = 3, |𝑐⃗⃗ | = 15 then find
⃗⃗⃗ | = 2, |𝑏
the value of 𝑎 ⃗⃗⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗
𝑏 + ⃗⃗⃗
𝑏 . 𝑐⃗⃗ + 𝑐⃗⃗ . 𝑎
⃗⃗⃗
2 4
Q28. The probabilities of two students X and Y attending a workshop are and respectively.
7 7
Assuming that the events ‘X attending the workshop’ and ‘Y attending the workshop’ are
independent, find the probability of only one of them attending the workshop.
OR
Two numbers are selected at random (without replacement) from the first five positive integers.
Let X denotes the smaller of the two numbers obtained. Find the probability distribution of X.
SECTION - IV
𝑥−1
Q29. Let A = R – {2} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f : A → 𝐵 defined as 𝑓(𝑥) = . Show
𝑥−2
that f is bijective.
d2y dy
Q30. If y = ex (sin x + cos x), prove that 2
− 2 + 2 y = 0.
dx dx
𝑑𝑦
Q31. If xy + yx = a, find 𝑑𝑥
OR
(3 + 𝑥), if 𝑥 ≤ 1
Show that the function 𝑓(𝑥) = { is not differentiable at 𝑥 = 1.
(5 − 𝑥), if 𝑥 > 1
9𝑥 2 +1
Q32. Find the intervals in which the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 , 𝑥 ≠ 0 is
(a) strictly increasing (b) strictly decreasing.
Q33. Evaluate:   cot x + tan x  dx
OR
8
Evaluate: ∫ (𝑥+2)(𝑥 2+4) dx
𝑥2 𝑦2
Q34. Find the area bounded by the ellipse + 25 = 1 above the 𝑥 −axis, using integration.
9
𝑑𝑦
Q35. Find the particular solution of the differential equation: 𝑥𝑦 = (𝑥 + 2)(𝑦 + 2)
𝑑𝑥
when y(1) = 1.
SECTION - V
1 −1 2 −2 0 1
Q36. Use the product [0 2 −3] [ 9 2 −3]
3 −2 4 6 1 −2
to solve the following system of equations:
𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2𝑧 = 1, 2𝑦 − 3𝑧 = 1, 3𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 4𝑧 = 2
OR
2 1 1
If 𝐴 = [1 −2 −1] , find 𝐴−1 .
0 3 −5
Using 𝐴−1 solve the following linear equations
3
2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 𝑧 = 1; 𝑥 − 2𝑦 − 𝑧 = ; 3𝑦 − 5𝑧 = 9
2
𝑥 𝑦−1 3−2
Q37. Find the image of the point P (1, 6, 3) in the line = =
1 2 3
OR
Find the equation of the plane through the line of intersection of the planes
2𝑥 + 𝑦 − 𝑧 = 3 and 5𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 4𝑧 + 9 = 0 and
𝑥−1 𝑦−3 𝑧−5
parallel to the line = = .
2 4 5
Q38. Solve the given LPP graphically: Minimize 𝑍 = 5𝑥 + 10𝑦 subject to constraints
𝑥 + 2𝑦 ≤ 120, 𝑥 + 𝑦 ≥ 60, 𝑥 − 2𝑦 ≥ 0 𝑥 ≥ 0 , 𝑦 ≥ 0
OR
In the following figure, the feasible region for a LPP is shown. Write all the constraints as a
system of inequalities and maximize 𝑍 = 250𝑥 + 75𝑦 subject to these constraints.

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INDEX

Chapter 1- The Last Lesson

Chapter 6- Poets and Pancakes

Chapter 7- The Interview

Chapter 8-Going Places

Chapter 9- My Mother at Sixty Six

1. What is the condition of the roadside stand?

Chapter 14- Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers

Short answer questions (2 marks)

Chapter 2-The Tiger King

Chapter 3- Journey to the End of the World

3. Very Long (2x10=20 Marks)

Dated: Day/Month/Year NOTICE (Center)

TOPIC IN CAPITAL LETTER (Center)

Types of Classified Advertisements:

Q1. Repeated floods in

1. Formal Invitation: Card Type

Sarvodaya Public School

12th August, 2018

Subject : Invitation for Annual Sports Day

18th September, 2018

D. Letters of Job Application

a. Making Request Sample:

• can be formal or informal, depending on the target audience

An article should consist of:

Para 1- Brief introduction

Para 2- Analysis of the topic in terms of

Para 3- Implications-social/environmental/psychological/health related

Para 4- Concluding Para- suggestions

1st Para- Opening paragraph (expansion of the headline)

2nd Para- Detailed description of the event/happening

3rd Para- Remarks of the witness/people present at the event

4th Para- Action taken so far/will be taken

Format of School Magazine Report

1st Para- What/Where/When/for Whom/Who is invited

2nd Para- Sequence of events to be described

1. How can the problem of double counting be avoided?

Numericals - (3/4 marks)

i. Fixed capital good with a life span of 5 years 15

26. Calculate National Income by

29. Calculate NNPFC from the following data:

30. Calculate GNPFC from the following data:

31. Calculate NVAFC for a firm:

ASSERTION and REASONING

Ans: (d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

1. Which of the following are economic activities?

UNIT 2- MONEY AND BANKING

1. What are the two components of money supply?

11. How do demand deposits differ from time deposits?

= 1,500 X 8 = `12,000 crores

Long answers-(6 marks)

22. Explain the process of credit creation by the commercial banks.

ASSERTION and REASONING

1.Define the term ‘repo rate’.

UNIT 3- DETERMINATION OF INCOME AND EMPLOYMENT

Very short answers-(1 mark)

1. Differentiate between autonomous and induced consumption.

Long answers-(6 marks)

14. Explain deficient demand/ deflationary gap/ underemployment equilibrium? How

(Ans. a. At equilibrium level, investment =`300

17. Calculate MPC and APS from the given information.

18. Complete the following table.

ASSERTION and REASONING