ANS

Name : Aman Dubey

Number : 17
5 Aug 2022 - 05:26PM

SCORE

Correct 66% 99
99
Wrong 34% 51 66%

Skipped 0% 0
150

Note: This score is not final

1. select the tissue receiving only sympathetic nerve supply

sweat glands
1/1 Marks

2. select the tissue receiving only parasympathetic nerve

supply

bronchial smooth muscle

1/1 Marks

3. which step is not included in neurohumoral transmission ?

transmitter synthesis
1/1 Marks

4. select the cotransmitter

vasoactive intestinal peptide ( VIP)

1/1 Marks

5. Pseudoc holinesterase is present in

plasma
1/1 Marks

6. Nicotinic Nm type receptors are located on

neuromuscular junction
1/1 Marks

7. Nicotinic Nn type receptors are not located on

adrenal medulla
0/1 Marks

8. select the receptor which plays major role in learning &

memory.

M1
1/1 Marks

9. Which of the following muscarinic receptors is

predominantly cardiac receptor ?

M2
1/1 Marks

10. which are the receptors which causes visceral smooth

muscle contraction & glandular secretion ?

M3
1/1 Marks

11. which receptor mediates vasodilation through EDRF

release ?

M1
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12. Muscarinic receptors are divided into how many subtypes

?

2
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13. Nicotinic receptors are divided into how many subtypes ?

2
1/1 Marks

14. Muscarinic receptors belong to which family of receptors ?

G protein coupled receptors

1/1 Marks

15. Nicotinic receptors belong to which family of receptors ?

Ion channel linked receptors

1/1 Marks

16. which receptor mediates skeletal muscle contraction ?

Nm
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17. which receptor mediates release of adrenaline and

noradrenaline from adrenal medulla ?

Nn
1/1 Marks

18. which receptor depresses SA node & AV node ?

M2
1/1 Marks

19. Acetylcholine is not useful in therapeutics because

it has very short duration of action

1/1 Marks

20. select the directly acting choline esters

physostigmine
0/1 Marks

21. Tachycardia & hypertension is seen due to stimulation of

which receptors ?

M2
0/1 Marks
22. Maximum potentiation by anticholinesterase is seen for

carbachol
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23. select the physiological antagonist of acetylcholine

atropine
0/1 Marks

24. which secretion is not increased by cholinomimetic drugs

?

milk
1/1 Marks

25. select the reversible anticholinesterase

Propoxur
0/1 Marks

26. select the irreversible anticholinesterase

neostigmine
0/1 Marks

27. select the non-carbamate reversible anticholinesterase

edrophonium
1/1 Marks

28. select the muscarinic receptor which is primarily a

neuronal receptor

M1
1/1 Marks

29. visceral smooth muscle contraction, glandular secretion &

vasodilatation is brought about by which receptor ?

M3
1/1 Marks

30. Autoreceptors on cholinergic nerve endings are of

M2 subtype
1/1 Marks

31. Actions of cholinergic drugs on eye is due to stimulation

of which receptors ?

M3
1/1 Marks

32. select the cholinergic agonist which has selective

muscarinic action on GIT and urinary bladder

carbachol
0/1 Marks

33. The main muscarinic receptor responsible for learning and

memory is

M1
1/1 Marks

34. select the anticholinesterase which attaches only to

esteratic site forming strong covalent bond

Dyflos
1/1 Marks

35. select the anticholinesterase which attaches only to

anionic site forming weak bonds

edrophonium
1/1 Marks

36. select the organophosphate which binds to both anionic

and esteratic site of enzyme

Dyflos
0/1 Marks

37. Duration of action of edrophonium is

8 -10 minutes
1/1 Marks

38. select the anticholinesterase which directly stimulates Nm

receptors at neuromuscular junction

physostigmine
0/1 Marks

39. select the anticholinesterase which is used in atropine

poisoning

neostigmine
0/1 Marks

40. select the anticholinesterase which is used for diagnosis

of myesthenia gravis

neostigmine
0/1 Marks

41. select the anticholinesterase which is used in treatment of

Alzheimer's disease

rivastigmine
1/1 Marks

42. select the anticholinesterase which is used in Glaucoma

physostigmine
1/1 Marks

43. oximes are ineffective in treatment of

propoxur poisoning
1/1 Marks

44. Treatment with oximes in organophosphate poisoning

should be started

as early as possible
1/1 Marks

45. select the primary antidote in organophosphate poisoning

atropine
1/1 Marks

46. select the anticholinergic drug which is a natural alkaloid

 g g

atropine
1/1 Marks

47. select the synthetic mydriatic

cyclopentolate
1/1 Marks

48. Topical application of atropine causes mydriasis, abolition

of light reflex, & cycloplegia lasting for

7 - 10 days
1/1 Marks

49. Transient initial bradycardia on intramuscular injection of

atropine is due to

blockade of muscarinic autoreceptors M1

1/1 Marks

50. select the anticholinergic drug which is more effective in

COPD than in bronchial asthma

lpratropium
1/1 Marks

51. select the anticholinergic drug which is used for motion

sickness

hyoscine
1/1 Marks

52. select the secretion which is not under cholinergic control

bile
1/1 Marks

53. select the antimuscarinic drug with preferential action on

bladder muscles indicated in urinary incontinence

darifenacin
1/1 Marks

54. select the anticholinergic which is used as antispasmodic

5 select t e a t c ol e g c c s used as a t spas od c
in dysmenorrhoea

dicyclomine
1/1 Marks

55. select the antimuscarinic drug which is used to hasten

cervical dilatation during labour

oxybutynin
0/1 Marks

56. select the non- anticholinergic antispasmodic which is

used for abdominal colics

oxybutynin
0/1 Marks

57. select the mydriatic which has quickest & briefest action

tropicamide
1/1 Marks

58. select the anticholinesterase which is used in treatment of

atropine poisoning

edrophonium
0/1 Marks

59. select the anticholinergic drug used in parkinsonism

dicyclomine
0/1 Marks

60. select the life-saving use of atropine

bronchial asthma
0/1 Marks

61. select the condition in which atropine is contraindicated

bronchial asthma
0/1 Marks

62. select the adverse effect of atropine

blurring of vision
1/1 Marks

63. select the depolarizing blocker

succinylcholine
1/1 Marks

64. select the competitive neuromuscular blocker

succinylcholine
0/1 Marks

65. select the neuromuscular compititive blocker which is

long acting

vecuronium
0/1 Marks

66. shortest acting neuromuscular blocker is

d- tubocurarine
0/1 Marks

67. The most important complication of neuromuscular

blocker is

respiratory paralysis and apnoea

1/1 Marks

68. competitive neuromuscular blockers are least potentiated

by

nitrous oxide
1/1 Marks

69. select the neuromuscular blocker which can be used for

endotracheal intubation and laryngoscopy

d-tubocurarine
0/1 Marks

70. select the neuromuscular blocker which has minimum

tendency to cause histamine release
atracurium
0/1 Marks

71. Hypotension due to d-tubocurarine is seen due to

all of the above

1/1 Marks

72. select the neuromuscular blocker which causes cardiac

arrhythmias in digitalized patients

d-tubocurarine
0/1 Marks

73. select the neuromuscular blocker which triggers

malignant hyperthermia with use of fluorinated anaesthetics

succinylcholine
1/1 Marks

74. which class of antimicrobial agents synergize with

competitive blockers ?

sulfonamides
0/1 Marks

75. The major neurotransmitter at postganglionic sympathetic

sites is

adrenaline
0/1 Marks

76. synthesis of adrenaline occurs in

adrenal medulla
1/1 Marks

77. The rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of

catecholamines is

Tyrosine hydroxylase
1/1 Marks

78. select the catecholamine which has highest potency for

alpha receptors
alpha receptors

adrenaline
1/1 Marks

79. select the catecholamine which has highest potency for

beta receptors

adrenaline
0/1 Marks

80. select the receptors which are located on adipocytes

beta 3
1/1 Marks

81. select the selective agonist of beta 3 receptors

mirabegron
1/1 Marks

82. select the adrenergic receptors which are located

prejunctionally

alpha 2
1/1 Marks

83. select the selective agonist of alpha 2 receptors

clonidine
1/1 Marks

84. select the selective antagonist of alpha 2 receptors

yohimbine
1/1 Marks

85. select the selective antagonist of alpha 1 receptors

prazosin
1/1 Marks

86. select the selective agonist of alpha 1 receptors

phenylephrine
1/1 Marks
87. which receptor acts as a autoreceptor ,?

alpha 2
1/1 Marks

88. adrenergic receptors belong to the family of

G protein coupled receptors

1/1 Marks

89. beta 2 receptors are located on

smooth muscle
1/1 Marks

90. which drug acts as a selective agonist of beta 2 receptors

salbutamol
1/1 Marks

91. which drug acts as a selective agonist of beta 1 receptors?

dobutamine
1/1 Marks

92. select the directly acting sympathomimetic

salbutamol
1/1 Marks

93. select the drug which inhibits MAO-B enzyme

selegiline
1/1 Marks

94. constriction of arterioles and veins is mediated by

both alpha 1 & 2 stimulation

1/1 Marks

95. relaxation of uterus is due to

beta 2 stimulation
1/1 Marks
96. cardiac stimulation is due to

beta 2 stimulation
0/1 Marks

97. Bronchodilation is due to

beta 2 stimulation
1/1 Marks

98. Glycogenolysis & hyperglycemia is due to

alpha 2 stimulation
0/1 Marks

99. vasodilation of arterioles and veins is due to stimulation of

beta 2 receptors
1/1 Marks

100. The mean BP rises due to

noradrenaline
1/1 Marks

101. Biphasic response of blood pressure is seen with

moderate doses of

isoprenaline
0/1 Marks

102. Dale's vasomotor reversal phenomenon after prior

administration of alpha blocker is seen with

adrenaline
1/1 Marks

103. adrenaline is not used in treatment of hypovolemic shock

because

all of the above

1/1 Marks

104. Mydriasis due to contraction of radial muscles of iris is

mediated by stimulation of
 y

alpha 1 receptors
1/1 Marks

105. cardiac actions due to sympathomimetics are due to

beta 1 stimulation
1/1 Marks

106. Bladder trigone & prostate contraction is due to

stimulation of

alpha 1 receptors
1/1 Marks

107. Ejaculation is due to stimulation of

alpha 1 receptors
1/1 Marks

108. which receptors are located centrally in hypothalamus &

vasomotor centre whose activation suppresses sympathetic
outflow leading to lowering of BP

alpha 2
1/1 Marks

109. smooth muscle relaxation is due to stimulation of

beta 2 receptors
1/1 Marks

110. route of administration of adrenaline in anaphylactic

shock is

IV
0/1 Marks

111. dilution of adrenaline for anaphylactic shock is

1: 1000
1/1 Marks

112. dose of adrenaline in anaphylactic shock is

0.2 - 0.5 mg
1/1 Marks

113. route of administration of adrenaline in cardiac arrest is

lV or intracardiac
1/1 Marks

114. dose of adrenaline in cardiac arrest is

1mg
1/1 Marks

115. reduced secretory activity of ciliary epithelium is due to

stimulation of

alpha 1 receptors
0/1 Marks

116. for control of haemorrhage, adrenaline is given by which

route ?

IV
0/1 Marks

117. adrenaline is contraindicated in

hypertension
1/1 Marks

118. adrenaline is drug of choice for

anaphylactic shock
1/1 Marks

119. drug of choice for cardiogenic shock & septic shock is

adrenaline
0/1 Marks

120. IV injection of adrenaline can lead to

all of the above

1/1 Marks

121 adrenaline should not be given during anaesthesia with

121. adrenaline should not be given during anaesthesia with
halothane due to risk of

arrhythmias
1/1 Marks

122. use of adrenaline in bronchial asthma is declined due to

it's

dangerous cardiac stimulant effect

1/1 Marks

123. dopamine dilates renal blood vessels due to it's action

on

alpha 2 receptors
0/1 Marks

124. select the catecholamine which is used as ionotropic

agent in acute heart failure

dobutamine
1/1 Marks

125. select the dose at which dopamine has beneficial effect

in cardiogenic and septic shock

2 -5 mcg /kg/min
1/1 Marks

126. select the selective D1 agonist

dobutamine
0/1 Marks

127. oxymetazoline is a selective

alpha 2 agonist
1/1 Marks

128. select the nasal decongestant which is banned

naphazoline
0/1 Marks

129 select the selective alpha 2 agonist which is used

129. select the selective alpha 2 agonist which is used
topically in Glaucoma

clonidine
0/1 Marks

130. select the uterine relaxant

isoxsuprine
1/1 Marks

131. vasomotor reversal of Dale is

fall in BP due to adrenaline after giving alpha blocker

1/1 Marks

132. reflex tachycardia due to alpha blocker seen due to

both a & b
1/1 Marks

133. which one is not a pharmacological action of alpha

blocker ?

impotence
0/1 Marks

134. select the noncompetitive alpha blocker

phenoxybenzamine
1/1 Marks

135. select the condition where phenoxybenzamine is not

used

to control hypertension due to cheese reaction in patients on MAO

inhibitors
0/1 Marks

136. select the uroselective alpha 1 A, 1D blocker

prazosin
0/1 Marks

137. select the cardioselective beta blocker

atenolol
1/1 Marks

138. select the beta blocker with additional alpha blocking

property

Bisoprolol
0/1 Marks

139. select the nonselective beta blocker

atenolol
0/1 Marks

140. cold extremities & worsening of peripheral vascular

disease are noticed due to blockade of

beta 2 receptors
1/1 Marks

141. Which among the following is NOT a contraindication for

the use of beta blocker

Diabetes mellitus
0/1 Marks

142. Which among the following is NOT a therapeutic use of

beta blocker ?

variant angina
1/1 Marks

143. Which among the following is not a feature of

cardioselective beta blocker ?

less interference with carbohydrate metabolism

0/1 Marks

144. select the beta blocker which has additional alpha

blocking property with antioxidant property

carvedilol
1/1 Marks

145 Whi h f th f ll i i df t t t f ti l
145. Which of the following is used for treatment of essential
tremor ?

atenolol
0/1 Marks

146. beta blockers in myocardial infarction should not be

given to patients

heart rate is below 50/ min

1/1 Marks

147. select the beta blocker which is preferred in

thyrotoxicosis

propranolol
1/1 Marks

148. Beneficial effect of beta blocker in Myocardial infarction

is due to

they limit infarct size

0/1 Marks

149. beneficial effect of beta blocker in congestive cardiac

failure is due to

hypotensive action
0/1 Marks

150. which of the following is not a benefit of beta blocker

with intrinsic sympathomimetic action

bradycardia at rest is not prominent

0/1 Marks

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