Marketing Management ?General Questions (2) (1)

Marketing management
General questions
1. Marketing is best defined as_______
(1) Matching a product with its market.
(2) Promoting and selling products.
(3) Facilitating satisfying exchange relationships.
(4) Distributing products at the right price to stores
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
2. The expansion of the definition of marketing to include non-business activities adds which
one of these examples to the field of marketing?
(1) Proctor and Gamble selling toothpaste.
(2) St. Pauls Church attracting new members.
(3) PepsiCo selling soft drinks.
(4) Liver’s donating Rs. 5 to a charity with every pack purchased
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
3. Tom goes to a vending machine, deposits Rs. 20, and receives a cola. Which one of the
following aspects of the definition of marketing is focused on here?
(1) Production concept.
(2) Satisfaction of organisational goals.
(3) Product pricing and distribution.
(4) Exchange
(5) None of these
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Ans: (4)
4. The marketing environment is best described as being______
(1) Composed of controllable variables.
(2) Composed of variables independent of one another.
(3) An indirect influence on marketing activity.
(4) Dynamic and changing.
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
5. A physical, concrete product you can touch is:
(1) A service (2) A good
(3) An idea
(4) A concept
(5) A philosophy
Ans: (2)
6. Chimney Sweeps employs people to clean fireplaces and chimneys in homes and
apartments. The firm is primarily the marketer of:
(1) A service
(2) A good
(3) An idea
(4) An image
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
7. Which one of the following statements by a company chairman best reflects the marketing
concept?
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(1) We have organised our business to make certain that we satisfy customer’s needs.
(2) We believe that the marketing department must organise to sell what we produce.
(3) We try to produce only high quality, technically efficient products.
(4) We try to encourage company growth.
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
8. The marketing concept is a way of thinking or a management philosophy that affects:
(1) Only marketing activities
(2) Most efforts of the organisation
(3) Mainly the efforts of sales personnel
(4) Mainly customer relations
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
9. If VonAir, a hairdryer manufacturer, is focusing on customer satisfaction, it will find that

what consumers really want is________
(1) More watts
(2) More speed
(3) Higher heat settings
(4) Attractive hair
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
10. The XKL company wants to adopt the marketing concept. To be consistent with this move,
it should adopt which of the following philosophies?
(1) The customer is always right
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(2) Making money is our business
(3) Sell, sell, sell
(4) Keep prices low
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
11. Boldnew, the maker of a highly innovative light bulb, finds that it has excess stocks. The
firm increases its advertising budget by 50 per cent and doubles its sales staff. This company is
operating as if it were operating
(1) Production
(2) Sales
(3) Marketing
(4) Social
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
12. Chrysler’s Chief Executive Officer is the company’s spokesperson. His message has
focused on concern for customers and product quality. Which aspect of implementing the
marketing concept does this represent?
(1) Focusing on general conditions
(2) Stressing the short run
(3) Endorsement of the marketing concept by top management
(4) Development of an information system
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
13. Which of the following is an example of a problem that may arise in the implementation of
the marketing concept?
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(1) By satisfying one segment in society, a firm contributes to the dissatisfaction of other
segments.
(2) Consumers do not understand what the marketing concept is.
(3) Dealers do not support the marketing concept.
(4) A product may fit the needs of too many segments.
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
14. Most specifically, marketing strategy________
(1) Is concerned with key decisions required to reach an objective
(2) Encompasses selecting and analysing a target market and creating and maintaining an
appropriate marketing mix
(3) Expands geographic boundaries of markets to serve larger geographic areas
(4) Involves determining the direction and objectives of marketing management
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
15. All of the following are marketing management tasks except___________
(1) Marketing planning.
(2) Organising marketing activities.
(3) Co-ordinating marketing activities.
(4) Project development and analysis.
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
16. If Erin Farm Insurance saw a sudden increase in the number of farmers seeking flood insur-
ance in Ireland due to major floods in Britain, the floods would be presenting the company
with a marketing:
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(1) Opportunity
(2) Strategy
(3) Concept
(4) Mix
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
17. A change in the minimum drinking age in India presents a change in which of the
following for bass brewery?
(1) Marketing mix
(2) Marketing environment
(3) Marketing concept
(4) Marketing task
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
18. If MK Invest was to perceive that consumers within a particular group were becoming
more conservative in their investing, and thus developed more products with lower risk, it
would be:
(1) Responding to the marketing environment
(2) Changing its target market
(3) Developing a sales orientation
(4) Changing its organisation structure
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
19. Capri is a brand of cigarette that contains low tar and slim in design to appeal to women. In
this instance, women comprise Capri’s______
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(1) Marketing mix
(2) Target market
(3) Target audience
(4) Marketing strategy
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
20. When DuPont develops new carpets that are highly stain resistant and durable, it must
educate consumers about the product’s benefits. This calls for activity in which of the
following marketing mix variables?
(1) Price
(2) Promotion
(3) Distribution
(4) Product
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
21. Why are marketers interested in the level of disposable income?
(1) It accurately represents future buying power
(2) It increases current buying power
(3) It is what is left after taxes to buy luxuries with
(4) It is a ready source of buying power
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
22. Which of the following companies would probably be most interested in tracking
discretionary income levels?
(1) Asda supermarkets
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(2) BMW automobiles
(3) The post office
(4) Kraft general foods
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
23. What type of competitive structure exists when a firm produces a product that has no close
substitutes?
(1) Monopoly
(2) Oligopoly
(3) Monopolistic Competition
(4) Perfect Competition
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
24. In the beer industry, a few large brewers supply the majority of the market. The brewing
industry is an example of which of the following competitive structures?
(1) Monopoly
(2) Oligopoly
(3) Monopolistic Competition
(4) Perfect Competition
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
25. Which of the following firms would most likely have a monopoly for its competitive
environment?
(1) Sunset cablevision
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(2) Montgomery transport
(3) Post office parcel services
(4) Telecom car phones
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
26. Essex Office Products has decided to use a particular competitive tool that it feels will have
a major impact. Its consultant, Dr. Bell, contends that this particular approach is the one most
easily copied by the firm’s competitors. The tool in question is:
(1) Price
(2) Market segmentation
(3) Distribution
(4) Promotion
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
27. A small hardware store whose only competitor is a huge discount store would be least
likely to use which competitive tool?
(1) Services
(2) Price
(3) Product offering
(4) Distribution
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
28. Technology assessment is:
(1) Assessing how much technology has been incorporated into an organisation
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(2) Tying to foresee the effects of new products and processes on a firm’s operation and on
society in general
(3) Assessing how much technology one wants to put into a company in the future
(4) Assessing the cost of new technology to determine whether a firm can afford to use it
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
29. When Bell Laboratories attempts to anticipate the effect of new products and processes on
its own innovations, other business organisations, and society in general, it is engaging in:
(1) Product differentiation
(2) Monopolistic competition
(3) Technology assessment
(4) Innovative marketing
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
30. If Videocon developed a new technology that made 3-D imagery possible through the use
of videotape played on an advanced television set, it would be more likely to market this
innovation if it could obtain a:
(1) Competitive advancement
(2) Patent
(3) Low price advantage
(4) Technological assessment
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
31. Which of the following represents an output from the marketing environment?
(1) Money borrowed by Liverpool F.C. to help finance its operations
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(2) Nike’s television advertising campaign featuring a leading sports personality
(3) Information on shoppers’ attitudes purchased by Debenhams department stores
(4) Steel purchased by Volvo to be used in producing cars
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
32. Compaq Computers collects information about political, legal, regulatory, societal,
economic, competitive and technological forces that may affect its marketing activities. This
process is called:
(1) Environmental scanning
(2) Survey of environment
(3) Marketing information analysis
(4) Environmental analysis
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
33. When Pepsi Co takes the information collected through research and attempts to assess and
interpret what it means for its soft drink marketing efforts, Pepsi Co is involved in
environmental:
(1) Scanning
(2) Forces
(3) Management
(4) Analysis
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
34. After Compaq computers gathers information related to its marketing environment, it
attempts to define current environmental changes and predict future changes, allowing it to
determine possible opportunities and threats facing the company this process is called.
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(2) Survey of environment
(3) Marketing planning
(4) Environmental analysis
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
35. If cigarette manufacturers were to lobby Parliament to get restrictions on cigarette

advertising eased, their environmental response would best be described as:
(1) Passive
(2) Reactive
(3) Proactive
(4) Conservative
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
36. There are two major categories of laws that directly affect marketing practices: pro-
competitive legislation and:
(1) Consumer protection legislation
(2) Unfair trade practices laws
(3) Trading standards legislation
(4) Consumer price discrimination legislation
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
37. If the National Association of Hoisery Manufacturers sets guidelines for its member firms
to follow regarding the use of unethical practices, it is engaging in:
(1) Legislation
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(2) Lobbying
(3) Self-regulation
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
38. The consumer movement is:
(1) Against foreign imports that are much cheaper than products produced in the home market
(2) A movement that is trying to improve consumer satisfaction
(3) A social movement that is able to challenge big business practices
(4) A diverse group of individuals, groups and organisations attempting to protect the rights of
consumers
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
39. Lynx has demonstrated against the sale of coats made of animal furs. This group’s efforts
to change shoppers’ attitudes represents for fur retailers.
(1) An opportunity
(2) Self-regulation
(3) A societal force
(4) An economic force
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
40. The period in the business cycle in which there is extremely high unemployment, low
wages, minimum total disposable income, and a lack of confidence in the economy by
consumers is:
(1) Recovery
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(2) Prosperity
(3) Depression
(4) Recession
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
41. Global marketing is:
(1) The development of marketing strategies for the entire world or major regions of the world
(2) Performing marketing activities across national boundaries
(3) The creation of value and the exchange of value between countries
(4) Having firms with operations or subsidiaries located in many countries
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
42. The Chairman of Unilever states that the world is just one big market. He feels anyone not
taking this stance is systematically passing up profitable business. His approach most closely
resembles
(1) Exporting
(2) Global marketing
(3) Export marketing
(4) Full-scale international marketing
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
43. McDonald’s and KFC satisfy hungry consumers in every hemisphere. This is an example
of –
(1) Globalisation
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(2) Customisation
(3) Internationalisation
(4) Regionalisation
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
44. Global marketing involves developing marketing strategies as if the world is one market.
Which one of the following marketing mix variables is most difficult to standardise for global
marketing?
(1) Brand name
(2) Package
(3)Media allocation
(4) Labels
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
45. When Graphic Products decided to go international with its marketing effort, it adopted a
totally global approach. Which one of the following factors did GP most likely experience
difficulty with as the firm applied a global strategy for marketing?
(1) Branding
(2) Product characteristics
(3) Packaging
(4) Advertising
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
46. When products are introduced into one nation from another, acceptance is far more likely
(1) If prices are set very low
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(2) When bribes are paid to local officials to aid distribution
(3) If there are similarities between the two cultures
(4) If packaging is adjusted to match local customs
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
47. Which of the following is often used to raise revenue for a country and/or to protect
domestic products?
(1) A quota
(2) A warning label
(3) An embargo
(4) An import tariff
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
48. The_________ is the difference in value between a nation’s exports and its imports.
(1) Balance of payments
(2) Export/import ratio
(3) Gross domestic product
(4) Net traded value
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
49. JCB would look to which of the following factors to determine how trade barriers would
affect its ability to market its earth-moving equipment in various countries?
(1) Political and legal forces
(2) Interpersonal forces
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(3) Social forces
(4)Technological forces
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
50. Which of the following statements about technological forces in international marketing is
TRUE?
(1) Television advertising can be used universally throughout the world
(2) Much of the technology used in industrialised regions of the world may be ill-suited for
developing countries
(3) Because all countries have up-to-date postal services, direct mail advertising is always a
viable option
(4) Technology is generally not a problem in international marketing
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
51. USA Chemicals’ president is very excited about the possibility of the firm’s British
subsidiary having access to the enitre EU. He realises that it will be some time before this area
truly becomes one market, primarily because of differences in
(1) Available advertising media
(2) Culture
(3) Law
(4) Technology
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
52. Countries in the Pacific Rim encompass of the world’s population.
(1) 40%
(2) 50%
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(3) 60%
(4) 70%
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
53. The lowest level of commitment to international marketing, and also the most flexible
approach, is
(1) A joint venture
(2) Direct ownership
(3) Exporting
(4) Licensing
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
54. Export agents__________
(1) Bring buyers and sellers from different countries together and collect a commission for
arranging sales
(2) Purchase products from different companies and sell them to foreign countries
(3) Are specialists at understanding the needs of customers in foreign countries
(4) Arrange for licensing agreements between domestic and foreign countries
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
55. Cuisinart Corporation owns the Spalding name but does not produce a single golf club or
tennis ball. This arrangement could indicate what type of organisational structure for
international marketing?
(1) Exporting
(2) Trading
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(3) Joint venture
(4) Licensing
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
56. Nuhitzu believes it has the technological expertise to produce communication systems that
will be the leaders around the globe. Boston Electronics is widely regarded as having excellent
management systems and superior marketing programme. The two might form________ to
work together on a worldwide basis.
(1) A licensing agreement
(2) An export trading company
(3) A joint agreement
(4) A strategic alliance
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
57. Once a company makes a long- term commitment to a foreign market that has a promising
political and economic environment, what becomes a possibility?
(1) Exporting
(2) Joint venture
(3) Limited exporting
(4) Direct ownership
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
58. ICI has subsidiaries in many countries. ICI is
(1) An exporter
(2) A licensing company
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(3) A trading company
(4) A multinational company
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
59. Body Shop and Benetton are examples of companies which have employed________ as a
market entry strategy.
(1) Franchising
(2) Exporting
(3) Joint ventures
(4) Licensing
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
60. Which approach to international marketing involves least risk and minimum effort?
(1) Licensing
(2) Exporting
(3) Franchising
(4) Joint venturing
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
61. The three major personal influences believed to affect the consumer buying decision
process are:
(1) Perception, motives, and attitudes.
(2) Personality, learning, and perception.
(3) Demographic, situational, and attitudes.
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(4) Situational, lifestyle, and demographic.
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
62. The purchase of_________ is least likely to be affected by demographic factors.
(1) A car
(2) Table salt
(3) A computer for home use
(4) Fast food
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
63. Buyers tend to remember information inputs that support their beliefs and forget inputs that
do not. This is known as selective ____________
(1) Exposure
(2) Distortion
(3) Retention
(4) Information
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
64. If a consumer receives information that is inconsistent with her or his feelings or beliefs,
the consumer may alter this information. This is known as selective_______
(1) Exposure
(2) Distortion
(3) Retention
(4) Information
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(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
65. Psychological forces that influence where a person purchases products on a regular basis
are called_________
(1) Convenience responses.
(2) Patronage motives.
(3) Shopping motives.
(4) Pattern responses.
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
66. A depth interview is most likely to be used to__________
(1) Alter a buyer’s attitudes toward a product.
(2) Influence a buyer’s perceptions of a product.
(3) Discover a buyer’s motives.
(4) Increase a buyer’s knowledge of a product.
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
67. Having used both Rexona and Denim deodorants, Anna feels that sure is a good product
and the one that best meets her needs. She has formed_____ about Sure.
(1) A motive
(2) An evoked set
(3) A cognition
(4) An attitude
(5) None of these
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Ans: (4)
68. A consumer’s buying decisions are affected in part by the people around him or her. These
people and the forces they exert on a buyer are called ________
(1) Motivational influences
(2) Social factors
(3) Roles
(4) Personality influences
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
69. Damien is torn between buying a new swing set for his children and buying a new set of
Wilson golf clubs for himself. He is experiencing:
(1) Attitude formation.
(2) Belief assessment.
(3) Role inconsistency.
(4) Cognitive dissonance.
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
70. Which one of the following is most likely to be a product for which both the purchasing
decision and the brand decision are strongly influenced by reference groups?
(1) Canned peaches
(2) Instant coffee
(3) Jeans
(4) Bed linen
(5) None of these
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Ans: (3)
71. The car company developed a concept statement, “An inexpensive subcompact “green’ car
appealing to environmentally conscious people who want practical transportation and low
pollution.” This concept statement would be used:
(1) To develop concepts
(2) For concept testing
(3) To prepare for idea screening
(4) To help generate new ideas
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
72. How does a company estimate sales?
(1) It examines past sales history of similar products
(2) It conducts market research to survey consumers
(3) It discusses manufacturing capacity with the plant manager
(4) a and b
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
73. The strategy used during maturity to attempt to increase the consumption of the current
product is called ____________
(1) Customer modification
(2) Market modification
(3) Product modification
(4) Marketing mix modification
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
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74. As a product manager on a product in the mature stages of the product life cycle, what
should you specifically do to best market your product?
(1) Defend against competitive marketing tactics
(2) Prepare to discontinue the product
(3) Modify the product, market and the marketing mix
(4) Increase sampling programs
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
75. Setting prices as low as possible typically supports which of the following marketing
objectives?
(1) Survival
(2) Current profit maximization
(3) Market-share leadership
(4) Product-quality leadership
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
76. Compaq Computer Corporation determined at what price they had to sell a computer for it
to appeal to its target market. It then designed a computer with the cost structure to meet the
targeted price. This is called ________
(1) A non-price position
(2) Partial cost recovery
(3) Social price
(4) Target costing
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
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77. The assistant category manager was told to use cost-plus pricing to evaluate the profit
potential of new products. This involves _________
(1) Setting prices to reach a specific rate of return
(2) Adding a standard markup to the cost of the product
(3) Pricing products with the buyer’s sense of value in mind
(4) Basing the prices on what the competition charges
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
78. Before setting his prices, Zach conducted a market research study to learn what consumers
would pay. Zach appears to be using which type of pricing method?
(1) Cost-plus
(2) Target profit
(3) Value-based
(4) Going-rate
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
79. When automobile manufacturers offer options in specially priced deals, they are practicing
a form of ____________
(1) Product-line pricing
(2) Product-bundle pricing
(3) Captive-product pricing
(4) By-product pricing
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
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80. Which, if any, of the following are reasons producers use intermediaries?
(1) Because of their greater efficiency in making goods available to target markets
(2) Because of their contacts and experience with retailers
(3) Because of their specialization in delivering goods as needed
(4) All (1), (2) and (3)
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
81. Which one of the following statements best characterises marketing research?
(1) Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
(2) Research is conducted on special-project basis
(3) Research is performed when routine information is required
(4) Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
82. In the previous three years, four studies have been conducted on the characteristics of
Tyrone Bricks clients. As the firm seeks to put together a report showing trends in this area, it
has a hard time locating the information contained in these study reports. This firm seems to
need:
(1) A marketing research manager
(2) A marketing databank
(3) Survey research
(4) Primary data
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
83. An intuitive manager could best be described as one who:
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(1) Uses scientific problem solving
(2) Eliminates uncertainty in decision making
(3) Searches out facts and data systematically
(4) Uses personal knowledge and experience to make decisions
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
84. If Master Foods Ltd knows that its market share in Ireland has dropped 13 percent in the
first quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
(1) Hypothesis development
(2) Symptom identification
(3) Problem identification
(4) Data interpretation
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
85. Suppose marketers at Lever Brothers are trying to determine whether the use of money off
coupons for detergent was the reason for a sales increase in a particular store. The type of study
conducted to answer this question would be:
(1) Exploratory
(2) Descriptive
(3) Casual
(4) Qualitative
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
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86. Marks and Spencer wants to learn about consumer attitudes toward mail order purchases
and conducts a study to acquire this information, this study would best be classified as
collecting data.
(1) Casual
(2) Experimental
(3) Primary
(4) Secondary
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
87. When working on a job placement for a local retailer, Joan Halverson was sent to the
library to look up data on population forecasts for Scotland, The population information she
found would be considered data______
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Syndicated research
(4) Exploratory
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
88. Primary data are best described as the______
(1) First batch of data collected for a specific study
(2) Data that are observed, recorded, or collected from respondents
(3) Data that were compiled for some purpose other than the study current study
(4) Data that are collected from a computerised data base
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
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89. Data compiled inside or outside the organisation for some purpose other than the current
research investigation are termed___ data.
(1) Organisational
(2) Primary
(3) Secondary
(4) Exploratory
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
90. A valid study_____________
(1) Portrays the population being studied
(2) Establishes a casual relationship between variables
(3) Uses random sampling
(4) Measures what it is supposed to
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
91. Marketing researchers at Cumbria Ltd. repeated an experiment several times and
discovered that the results produced each time were identical. This would suggest that the
results were_______
(1) Reliable
(2) Valid
(3) Usable
(4) Predictable
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
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92. To set the price of a new dictionary, Kiran Prakashan needs to know how many dictionaries
can be sold at different prices. The dependent variable in this example would be__________
(1) Competition
(2) Book publishers
(3) Sales
(4) Price
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
93. Nestle develops a scale to measure young adults’ attitudes toward snacking. There is
concern that if the questions were given to the same person several times they would produce
different answers, Nestle is concerned about the scale’s ________
(1) Validity
(2) Capacity
(3) Dependability
(4) Reliability
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
94. The University Book Shop selects 200 of its more than 8,000 customers to participate in a
study on service quality in the shop. The Book Shop has established a for use in its
research_________
(1) Population
(2) Field setting
(3) Dependent grouping
(4) Sample
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
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95. Ms.Mayawati is running for Parliament in the general election. She needs to know the
intended choices of the voters and will undertake a survey. All the voters on the electoral
register in her constituency would be the study’s__________
(1) Sample
(2) Dependent variable
(3) Population
(4) Independent variable
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
96. In what type of sampling design is the final choice of respondents left up to the
interviewer?
(1) Stratified sampling
(2) Random sampling
(3) Cluster sampling
(4) Quota sampling
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
97. Wessex Motors needs to assess the company’s image relative to a new competitor. The
time schedule is flexible, the research budget is very limited and a low response rate will not be
a major problem. Wessex Motors will probably use____ survey.
(1) Mail
(2) Telephone
(3) Random
(4) Personal interview
(5) None of these
32
Ans: (1)
98. If Adidas needs to survey retailers attitudes on the availability of product literature in
athletic shoe shops and needs the results within four working days, Adidas will probably use
survey.
(1) A mail
(2) A telephone
(3) A mall intercepts
(4) A personal interview
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
99. An item on the University Book Shop’s survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in their
own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. This item would be an example
of____ question.
(1) An open-ended
(2) A dichotomous
(3) A forced-sum choice
(4) A multiple choice
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
100. If Proctor and Gamble, the makers of Ariel, need to know what percentage of customers
examine product labels before making a product selection in the supermarket, this could best
be accomplished through:
(1) Focus groups
(2) Mail surveys
(3) Personal interviews
(4) Observation
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(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
101. Lever Bros, markets a number of different brands of laundry detergents including Radion,
Persil Power, Persil Colour and Surf. Each of these specific versions of laundry detergents can
be described as______
(1) A product item
(2) A product line
(3) A core product
(4) A mix item
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
102. A brand name is one of the elements of the __________
(1) Core product
(2) Actual product
(3) Augmented product
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
103. Procter & Gamble makes at least eight different detergents. This illustrates________
(1) Product mix width
(2) Product mix consistency
(3) Product mix depth
(4) Market item width
(5) None of these
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Ans: (3)
104. A product item can be best described as a __________
(1) Component of a marketing mix.
(2) Particular type of brand.
(3) Specific characteristics of a company’s product.
(4) Specific version of a product.
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
105. A group of closely related product items that are considered to be a unit because of
marketing, technical, or end-use considerations is a product _________
(1) Category
(2) Dimension
(3) Extension
(4) Line
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
106. The depth of a product mix is measured by the average number of _______
(1) Convenience products as compared with the number of specialty products.
(2) Different product lines offered by the company.
(3) Different products offered in each product line.
(4) Specialty products as compared with the number of convenience products.
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
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107. Beatrice Company markets such diverse products as Rosarita Mexican foods and
Samsonite luggage. These various offerings exhibit Beatrice’s product mix _________
(1) Width
(2) Depth
(3) Length
(4) Volume
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
108. Aggressive pricing is typical during the stage of the product life cycle.
(1) Decline
(2) Growth
(3) Introduction
(4) Plateau
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
109. Sales usually start to decline __ of the product life cycle.
(1) At the beginning of the termination stage
(2) At the end of the growth stage
(3) At the beginning of the decline stage
(4) During the maturity stage
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
110. An ad that stresses “Demand the real Lucas Wine Cooler; accept no substitutes!” is best
geared for which stage of the product life cycle?
36
(1) Introduction
(2) Growth
(3) Maturity
(4) Decline
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
111. Persil is the best-selling laundry detergent in the UK. When Lever Bros, used the Persil
brand name for its washing up liquid it was adopting policy.
(1) An individual branding
(2) An overall family branding
(3) A line family branding
(4) A brand extension branding
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
112. Firms that use_____ are less likely to damage their reputations if a new product fails.
(1) Individual branding
(2) Overall family branding
(3) Line family branding
(4) Brand extension branding
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
113. Which of the following is not a desirable feature for a brand name?
(1) It can facilitate the introduction of new products
(2) It can become used as the generic name for all products in the category
37
(3) It can make it possible for the firm to engage in non price competition
(4) It can help develop brand loyalty amongst buyers
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
114. Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer’s brand?
(1) Sainsbury wines
(2) Matsui televisions
(3) Yessica dresses
(4) Flymo lawnmowers
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
115. Andrex toilet tissue is a____ for Kimberly-Scott Corporation.
(1) Trade name
(2) Trade mark
(3) Brand name
(4) Brand mark
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
116. The Nike swoosh that is prominent on all of the firm’s packaging, products, and
advertising is a:
(1) Trade name
(2) Trade mark
(3) Brand name
38
(4) Brand mark
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
117. Own label brands are initiated and owned by:
(1) Manufacturers only.
(2) Manufacturers and retailers.
(3) Wholesalers only.
(4) Wholesalers or retailers.
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
118. The major characteristic of own label brands is that:
(1) Only retailers initiate and own the brand.
(2) Manufacturers are not identified on the product.
(3) Producers become involved with the marketing mix.
(4) Producers are identified on the product.
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
119. At one time, generic brands represented about 10 percent of all retail grocery sales. Today
they account for ____
(1) Considerably less.
(2) Considerably more
(3) About the same.
(4) None of above
(5) None of these
39
Ans: (1)
120. Dakotah, a South Dakota-based producer and marketer of fine home furnishings,
authorized Dan River Mills to produce and market a line of sheets under the Dakotah name.
This arrangement is an example of ________
(1) Brand extension.
(2) Brand licensing.
(3) Family branding
(4) Individual branding.
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
121. Who said “If the buyer in a transaction is buying for purposes of re-sale or to further his
business operations, the seller in that same transaction is engaged in wholesaling”?
(1) Davidson
(2) Philip Kotler
(3) Cundiff and Still
(4) Dr. Diya Parashar
(5) William J. Stanton
Ans: (3)
122. These type of goods are always purchased by wholesalers —
(1) Inferior
(2) Superior
(3) Huge Quantity
(4) Less Quantity
(5) Durable
40
Ans: (3)
123. Basically merchant wholesalers who do not provide full services, and often provide only
the minimum services is known as
(1) General Merchandise Wholesaler
(2) General Live Wholesaler
(3) Specialty Wholesaler
(4) Limited Function Wholesaler
(5) None of Above
Ans: (4)
124. Wholesalers make proper balance in between —
(1) Costs and profit
(2) Profit and loss
(3) Demand and supply
(4) Buyer and seller
(5) Government and Producer
Ans: (3)
125. Which is not an example of large scale trading?
(1) Specialty shop
(2) Departmental store
(3) Super bazar
(4) Mail order and business houses
(5) Shopping malls
Ans: (1)
126. ‘Bata showroom’ is an example of-
41
(1) Departmental stores
(2) Multiple shops
(3) Co -operative societies
(4) None of these
(5) All of Above
Ans: (2)
127. A Restaurant may be a part of-
(2) Super bazar
(3) Multiple shops
(4) 1 & 2
(5) 2 & 3
Ans: (1)
128. The name of distribution channel which is run by producers directly is known as
(2) Multiple shops
(3) Hire purchase shops
(4) MOB
(5) Small shops
Ans: (1)
129. Which business organisation requires more and effective advertisement support among
the following?
42
(2) Supper Bazar
(3) Multiple store
(4) MOB
(5) Ration shops
Ans: (2)
130. Among the following which business organisation have the widest scope?
(2) Super Bazar
(3) Chain shops
(4) Mail order business houses
(5) Ration shops
Ans: (4)
131. Management is the compulsory process of —
(1) Decision making
(2) Lapse
(3) Final decision
(4) Interim decision
(5) All of above
Ans: (1)
132. Which of the following is the most important responsibility of a Manager?
(1) Allowing fraud
(2) Making product
(3) Taking decisions
43
(4) Withdrawing salary
(5) Earning bonus
Ans: (3)
133. Who said – “Decision making is the selection based on some criteria from two or more
possible alternatives.”?
(1) George R. Teriy
(2) Earnest Dale
(3) Philip Kotler
(4) Marshal
(5) Koontz & O’Donnel
Ans: (1)
134. Who said – “Decision is the selection from among alternatives of a course of actions.”?
(1) Marshal
(2) Koontz & O’Donnel
(3) Earnest Dale
(4) Pankaj Parashar
(5) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Ans: (2)
135. Decision making involves the choice of a course of action to—
(1) Achieve success
(2) Achieve sale target
(3) Achieve pre-determined objectives
(4) Achieve trust
(5) Achieve incentive targets
44
Ans: (3)
136. A decision is generally expressed as:
(1) A Policy
(2) A Case
(3) A Motive
(4) A Directive
(5) 1 and 4
Ans: (5)
137. Which of the following is a type of incidents?
(1) Bold incident
(2) Present incident
(3) Past incident
(4) Future incident
(5) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (5)
138. Different decisions are —
(1) Inter related
(2) Inter dependent
(3) Outer
(4) (2) & (3)
(5) (1) & (2)
Ans: (5)
139. Decision making is a process of
45
(1) Dispersion
(2) Discrete
(3) Continuity
(4) Observation
(5) Scare
Ans: (3)
140. Which of the following describes the nature of decision making?
(1) Process of continuity
(2) Commitment
(3) Evaluation
(4) Birth to new decisions
(5) All of above
Ans: (5)
141. A decision reflects —
(1) Media
(2) Method of solving problem
(3) Commitment of decision maker
(4) Enterprise’s growth
(5) Care by owner
Ans: (2)
142. All the business activities are performed in accordance with the decisions taken by the —
(1) Lower level management
(2) Top level management
46
(3) Middle level management
(4) Junior level management
(5) Senior level management
143. In the process of decision making the available resources/alternatives are —
(1) Analysed
(2) Observed
(3) Compared
(5) None of the above
Ans: (4)
144. Which aspect of decision making put more emphasis on the need of proper Environment?
(1) Proper environment
(2) Environment of decision making
(3) Time of decision
(4) Psychological factor
(5) Employees participation
Ans: (2)
145. If there is only one method /way of doing a particular act, there is no need of —
(1) Management
(2) Need of decision taking
(3) Need of trading
(4) Need of environment
(5) Need of process
47
Ans: (2)
146. What will happen if the decisions are not implemented?
(1) Wastage of time
(2) Wastage of money
(3) Wastage of entertainment
(4) Wastage of all resources
(5) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (5)
147. Which aspect of the nature of decision making emphasise on having proper time of
decision making?
(1) Time lapse
(2) Speed
(3) Time of decision making
(4) Quality time
(5) Quantity of time
Ans: (3)
148. If the decisions are not taken at its proper time, it will cause various problem for —
(3) Lower level management
(4) Outer level management
(5) All of above except (4)
Ans: (5)
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149. The decision maker should have which of the following qualities?
(1) Ability
(2) Fatness
(3) Intelligence
(4) Experience
(5) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (5)
150. The factor which should be taken care of at the time of decision taking is
(1) Social Environment
(2) Liking
(3) Disliking
(4) Political learnings
Ans: (5)
151. Whose participation is most required in the process of decision making?
(2) Sources
(3) Subordinates
(5) None of above
Ans: (3)
152. Which aspect of decision making emphasises on contribution from subordinates?
(1) Participation
49
(2) Participation of employee
(3) Participation of government
(4) Participation of competitors
(5) Participation of consumers
Ans: (2)
153. Decisions and its communication must go ______
(1) Separately
(2) Together
(3) One by one
(4) Depends on situation
(5) As per nature
Ans: (2)
154. Implementation of decision can be ensured only when these are communicated.
(1) Timely
(2) Clearly
(3) Combined
(4) Properly
(5) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (5)
155. Marketing decisions defines the
(1) Scope of marketing activities
(2) Duties
(3) Responsibilities
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(4) Power of employees
(5) All of above
Ans: (5)
156. Marketing decisions are very critical because —
(1) Achievement of marketing objective
(2) Success of enterprise depends on it
(3) Purchase depends on it
(4) All the activities depends on it
(5) 1 and 2
Ans: (5)
157. Which of the following is one of the types of decisions?
(1) Major
(2) Minor
(3) Routine
(4) Rare
Ans: (5)
158. What type of decision affects the product line?
(1) Major decisions
(2) Minor
(3) Routine
(4) Rare
(5) Policy
51
Ans: (1)
159. Which of the following is one of the criterion of major decisions?
(1) To produce a new product or not
(2) To continue the production of existing product
(3) To provide the credit facility to consumers
(4) 1 and 3
(5) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (5)
160. Which decision is based on careful study and analysis of relevant factors?
(1) Major decisions
(2) Minor decisions
(3) Routine decisions
(4) Rare decisions
(5) Policy decisions
Ans: (1)
161. Name the decisions which are made for the implementation of major decisions.
(1) Policy decision
(2) Rare decision
(3) Minor decision
(4) Major decision
(5) Routine decision
Ans: (3)
162. Which of the following decisions affect the demand of a product?
52
(1) Routine decision
(2) Minor decision
(3) Major decision
(4) Rare decision
(5) Policy decision
Ans: (2)
163. Which of the following is an example of minor decisions?
(1) Colour of product
(2) Design of product
(3) Packing of product
(4) Form of product
Ans: (5)
164. Marketing is —
(1) Consumer oriented
(2) Product oriented
(3) Marketing oriented
(4) 1 or 3
(5) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (1)
165. Firstly business must find out what the –
(1) Consumer wants
(2) Market demand
53
(3) Product create
(4) Competitor supplies
Ans: (1)
166. What is offered for sale should be determined by
(1) Consumer
(2) Market
(3} Authorities
(4) Government
(5) Competitors
Ans: (1)
167. Marketing starts and ends with—
(1) Consumer
(2) Market
(3) Product
(4) Taxes
(5) MRP
Ans: (1)
168. What type of relation producer has with customers in older days?
(1) Simple
(2) Direct
(3) Indirect
(4) Complex
54
(5) Traditional
Ans: (2)
169. Nowadays producer’s has_______ relation with consumer.
(1) Indirect
(2) Direct
(3) Simple
(4) Complex
(5) Traditional
Ans: (1)
170. A market transaction takes place when there is a successful matching of take place.
(1) Product
(2) Buyer & seller
(3) Government
(4) Producer
(5) Tax authorities
Ans: (2)
171. What is the basis on which power to influence a transaction depends?
(1) Muscle power
(2) Discount
(3) Competitive strength
(4) Purchasing strength
(5) Selling strength
Ans: (1)
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172. Marketing should start—
(1) Before production
(2) After production
(3) During production
(4) As per the nature of the product
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
173. Marketing would have authority over —
(1) Product innovation
(2) Planning
(3) Production scheduling
(4) Sales
Ans: (5)
174. As per modern scenario the concept of marketing is that goods must reach customers at
maximum speed but with —
(1) Minimum quality
(2) Minimum price
(3) Maximum moisture
(4) Maximum packing
(5) Maximum spoiled condition
Ans: (2)
175. Marketing is being treated as
(1) Science
56
(2) Science & Art Both
(3) Art
(4) Mathematics
(5) English
Ans: (2)
176. Marketing was born as —
(1) The step child of Economic
(2) The step child of Mathematics
(3) The step child of English
(4) The step child of Art
(5) The step child of Accountancy
Ans: (1)
177. In part marketing is synonymous with
(1) Selling
(2) Product
(3) Marketing
(4) Market
(5) Producer
Ans: (1)
178. Marketing is an art because —
(1) It has body of rules
(2) It has body of principles
(3) Standardisation
57
(4) Market information
Ans: (5)
179. Marketing rules/principles cannot be accurate as, the rules of—
(1) Science
(2) Physics
(3) Chemistry
(4) 1 and 3
(5) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (1)
180. All marketing activities revolves around —
(1) Exchange process
(2) Selling process
(3) Purchase process
(4) Production process
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
181. Marketing is a process because—
(1) It comprises a series of functions
(2) It comprises a series of mishandling
(3) It comprises a series of frauds
(4) It comprises a series of mischiefs
(5) It comprises a series of products
58
Ans: (3)
182. To whom producer is giving more attention rather than production, nowadays?
(1) Government
(2) Females
(3) Consumers
(4) Male members of society
(5) Taxes
Ans: (1)
183. Who said- “Marketing is the business”?
(1) Peter F. Drucker
(2) Philip Kotler
(3) Marshal
(4) Robinson
(5) Clark
Ans: (5)
184. In what ways marketing is important to the society?
(1) Delivery of standard of living
(2) Decrease in distribution cost
(3) Increase in employment opportunities
(4) Increase in national income
Ans: (5)
185. Marketing discovers the —
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(1) Needs of consumer
(2) Wants of consumer
(3) Needs of Government
(4) Needs of tax authorities
(5) 1 and 2
Ans: (5)
186. How marketing effects the demand?
(1) Create demand of product
(2) Create demand of existing product
(3) Maintain demand of new product
(4) 1 and 3
(5) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (5)
187. Decrease in distribution cost directly effects the —
(1) Price of product
(2) Quality of product
(3) Quantity of product
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
188. There are successful operation of marketing activities in employment opportunities

because—
(1) Expansion needs more manpower
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(2) Expansion needs more machine
(3) Expansion needs more product
(4) Expansion needs more space
(5) Expansion needs more technique
Ans: (1)
189. Which is one of the activities involved in Marketing?
(1) Transport
(2) Communication
(3) Storage
(4) Warehousing
Ans: (5)
190. Successful operation of marketing activities is to increase the sales, thus it helps in
increasing —
(1) National income
(2) Sale price
(3) Purchase price
(4) Cost of product
(5) Distribution cost
Ans: (1)
191. Marketing research reduces overall cost and helps in increasing—
(1) Profits
(2) Other costs
(3) Nominal cost
61
(4) Revenue
(5) Competition
Ans: (1)
192. Which is the most important activity in any business concern?
(1) Employees
(2) Purchase
(3) Government
(4) Marketing
(5) Schedule
Ans: (4)
193. Name the inversely accepted business activity which is required for all the successful
businesses?
(1) Production
(2) Marketing
(3) Purchase
(4) Schedule
(5) Raw Material
Ans: (2)
194. The firm should decide what can be sold before deciding.
(1) Marketing
(2) Production
(3) What can be produced
(4) Channel of distribution
62
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
195. Who said “Product is a cluster of psychological satisfactions”?
(1) George Fisk
(2) Prof. Diya Parashar
(3) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(4) Rustom S. Davar
(5) Dr. Pankaj Parashar
Ans: (1)
196. What is a product?
(1) Goods which are produced for the sale purpose of consumption
(2) Anything that satisfies consumers wants or needs and involves transfer of title
(3) Anything that satisfies a need or want and can be offered on the market for attention,
acquisition, use or consumption, including physical objects, services, persons, places,
organisations ideas and mixes of the above
(4) Any physical goods
(5) Goods that satisfy a want or need and those consumers can actually see or touch
Ans: (3)
197. The three levels of product are—
(1) Raw, semi-finished & finished
(2) Core product, actual product and augmented product
(3) Price, place, promotion
(4) Design, brand name and packaging
(5) Tangible product, services ideas
63
Ans: (2)
198. Product Planners must think of products and services on three levels.
(1) True
(2) True when choices are limited
(3) True in case of Multi-level product
(4) False
(5) False when product is of durable nature
Ans: (1)
199. The following represents perhaps the most distinctive skill of professional marketers as
they create, maintain, protect and enhance consumer perception of a product or service. What
is it?
(1) Trade mark
(2) Design of a striking symbol
(3) Personal sales
(4) Branding
(5) Performance
Ans: (4)
200. A brand serves to identify the maker or seller of a product and may consist of –
(1) A name, term, sign, symbol, design
(2) A Board
(3) A catchy slogan
(4) A powerful name
(5) A high price tag
Ans: (1)
64
Marketing Management MCQs | Marketing Management Multiple Choice Questions(MCQs)
with Answers
(1) When making purchase decisions the main consideration involved in organizational buying
is
[A] Product quality
[B] Price
[C] Service
[D] All the above
Answer: All the above
(2) An appropriate pricing strategy for a new product to be introduced in the market will be
[A] Average/Marginal cost-plus pricing
[B] Skimming/Penetrating pricing
[C] Product-line pricing
[D] Differential pricing
Answer: Skimming/Penetrating pricing
DOWNLOAD CURRENT AFFAIRS PDF FROM APP

(3) In marketing research, primary data can be collected through
65
[A] Observational Method
[B] Survey Method
[C] Experimental Method
[D] All of the above
Answer: All of the above
(4) The customer joining the queue and leaving it afterwards is defined as
[A] Jockeying
[B] Balking
[C] Reneging
[D] None of the above
Answer: Reneging
(5) Which of the following is not included in the five forces of competition?
[A] Bargaining power of suppliers
[B] Bargaining power of consumers
[C] Threat of substitutes
[D] Strategic planning
Answer: Strategic planning
(6) Emerging market economies are:
[A] A part of developed countries
[B] Newly industrializing countries
[C] A part of developing countries
[D] A part of third world countries
Answer: Newly industrializing countries
(7) The number of product lines a company carries is called
[A] Product range
[B] Product mix depth
[C] Product mix width
[D] Product line length
Answer: Product mix width
(8) Which of the following is not the stage of new product development?
[A] Idea Generation
[B] Business Analysis
[C] Test Marketing
[D] Market Segmentation
Answer: Market Segmentation
(9) Globalization involves
[A] Free flow of technology from one country to another
[B] Free flow of investment from one country to the other
[C] Free flow of people from one country to the other
[D] All the above
Answer: All the above
(10) Which of the following organizations is meant for promoting small scale industries at
district level?
[A] SIDBI
[B] DIC
[C] SFCs
66
[D] NABARD
Answer: DIC
(11) Which of the following is not one of the benefits of E-Commerce?
[A] E-Commerce offers greater flexibility in meeting consumer needs
[B] E-Commerce can help to reduce cost
[C] E-Commerce increases potential market share
[D] E-Commerce increases the net cost per contact
Answer: E-Commerce increases the net cost per contact
(12) GATT stands for
[A] General Accord on Tariff and Trade
[B] Generous Agreement on Trade and Tariff
[C] General Agreement on Tariff and Trade
[D] Generalist Agreement on Trade and Tariff
Answer: General Agreement on Tariff and Trade
(13) Which one is not the overseas market entry strategy followed by Multinational
Corporations?
[A] Franchise
[B] Collaborations
[C] Joint venture
[D] Strategic planning
Answer: Strategic planning
(14) The evaluation of Business activities and behaviour as right or wrong is called
[A] Corporate Governance
[B] Business Ethics
[C] Social Responsibility
Answer: Business Ethics
(15) Which of the following provides direction, serves as standards for evaluating performance
and motivates members of the organization?
[A] Mission
[B] Values
[C] Objectives
[D] Goals
Answer: Objectives
(16) Statistical Quality Control requires determination of
[A] Quality tolerance limit
[B] Quantity measurement
[C] Production leads time
[D] Inventory carrying cost
Answer: Quality tolerance limit
(17) The Government of India established the Small Industries Development Organisation
(SIDO) in the year:
[A] 1951
[B] 1972
[C] 1954
[D] 1982
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Answer: 1954
(18) ‘Marketing is a human activity directed at satisfying needs and wants through Exchange
process’; is the statement of
[A] Cundiff ad still
[B] Kenneth Andrews
[C] Philip Kotler
[D] Kishwar S. Kan
Answer: Philip Kotler
(19) Which of the following is not the stage of product life cycle?
[A] Introduction
[B] Growth
[C] Market segmentation
[D] Decline
Answer: Market segmentation
(20) The scientific system of collecting and analysis of data pertaining to market is known as
[A] Production Research
[B] Advertising Research
[C] Marketing Research
Answer:c
1. ______ is a strong internal stimulus that compels action.
a. Cue
b. Reinforcement
c. Drive
d. Response
Answer
Answer: c. Drive
2. Which technique did Sigmund Freud use to uncover a person's deepest motivations?
a. Matrix
b. Welding
c. Laddering
d. Projective
Answer
Answer: a. Matrix
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3. Why is supervision necessary?
i] To see if quality is being controlled

ii] To see ensure that samples are submitted on time
iii] To find if deviations are accepted
iv] To check if field workers are doing their jobs in the parameters set by the company
a. Only i and ii
b. Only i and iv
c. All i, ii and iii
d. All i, ii and iv
Answer
Answer: d. All i, ii and iv
4. What do you call "An entry into product markets where there are synergies with existing
businesses"?
a. Market penetration
b. Market skimming
c. Unrelated diversification
d. Related diversification
Answer
Answer: d. Related diversification

5. Brands have to keep updating their _________ overtime vis a vis newer and stronger
competitors.
a. Unique Selling Proposition

b. Point of Differentiation
c. Consumer research
d. Repositioning
Answer
Answer: b. Point of Differentiation
6. What can a firm do to expand the market?
i] Updated database
ii] Prompt more usage of the existing product
iii] Ensure no demand in replacement market
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iv] Promote more occasions of usage
a. Only ii and iii

b. Only ii and iv
c. All i, ii and iv
d. All the above
Answer
Answer: c. All i, ii and iv
7.Interest rates and ______ have a direct impact in the financial services industry.
a. Principal availability
b. Interest availability
c. Debit availability
d. Credit availability
Answer
Answer: d. Credit availability
8.What do you call the goods that are bought in a hurry or in a crisis situation without much
thinking or evaluation?
a. Emergency goods
b. Convenience goods
c. Impulse goods
d. Speciality goods
Answer
Answer: b. Convenience goods
9._____ denotes that services are produced and consumed simultaneously
a. Inseparability
b. Perishability
c. Variability
d. Reliability
Answer
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Answer: b. Perishability
10.To identify purchasing patterns and market segments, the statistician sifts through the _____
data.
i] Data mining
ii] Inventory
iii] Warehouse
iv] Storehouse
a. Only ii
b. Only ii and iii
c. All i, iii, iv
d. All the above
Answer
Answer: a. Only ii
12. Which of the following demonstrates the importance of reliable service?
a. Switch & Pay more

b. Pay more & Complain
c. Loyalty & switch
d. Loyalty & pay more
Answer
Answer: c. Loyalty & switch
13. What is frontal Attack?
a. Match opponent 3:1 on one most important front

b. Match opponent 3:1 on all fronts
c. Match opponent 1:3 on one most importnat front
d. Match opponent 3:3 on all fronts
Answer
Answer: b. Match opponent 3:1 on all fronts
14. Quality managers realized that blindly chasing market share and customer satisfaction often
resulted in ______ erosion
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a. Margin
b. Customer
c. Market
d. All the above
Answer
Answer: a. Margin
15. Which of the following is true about core competence?
i] It is not a technology
ii] It is not a resource
iii] It is a functional area
iv] It is a raw material
a. Only iii
b. Only i and ii
c. Only ii and iii
d. All i, ii and iii
Answer
Answer: d. All i, ii and iii

16. Match the Following
1] Push Strategy i] "me too" products

2] Pull Strategy ii] differentiated image products
3] Channel conflict iii] cold chain network
4] Channel Power iv] Control behaviour of channel members
v] intensive with wide coverage
vi] inequitable relationship
Answer: c. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
17.Which is the most important part of the report that executives read?
a. Title
b. Executive Summary
c. Problem Definition
d. Table Contents
Answer: b. Executive Summary
18. Which category of customer do not tend for a change?
a. Paranoids
b. Explorers
c. Skeptics
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d. Pioneers
Answer
Answer: a. Paranoids
19. Which of the following are the types of Strategic Approaches?
i] Counter Feiter
ii] By passer
iii] Imitator
iv] Cloner
a. Only i and ii
b. Only i and iii
c. All i, ii and iii
d. All i, iii and iv
Answer
Answer: d. All i, iii and iv

20. The ______ depends on a buyer's expectation about future prices.
a. Selling price
b. Quote price
c. Fixed price
d. Cost price
Answer
Answer: d. Cost price
List of Marketing MCQs

1. Which of these is true about marketing?
A. Marketing is used to promote the product and services

B. Marketing is concerned about the sales only
C. Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating,
delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and
society at large.
D. Marketing considers only the needs of the organization and not the society
Answer: C) Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating,
communicating, delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients,
partners, and society at large.
Explanation:
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Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating,
delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and
society at large.
2. Which one is not a part of the 4 Ps?
A. Product
B. People
C. Price
D. Place
Answer: B) People
Explanation:
People are a part of the 7 Ps. The concept of the 7 Ps is used in service marketing.
3. Who is the Father of Modern Marketing?
A. Philip Kotler
B. Peter F Drucker
C. Abraham Maslow
D. Raymond Kroc
Answer: A) Philip Kotler
Explanation:
Philip Kotler is the father of modern marketing. He is an American marketing author and
professor emeritus.
4. ____defined marketing as the science and art of exploring, creating, and delivering value to
satisfy the needs of a target market at a profit?
A. Steve Jobs
B. Philip Kotler
C. Peter Drucker
D. Abraham Maslow
Answer: B) Philip Kotler
Explanation:
Philip Kotler is the father of modern marketing. He is an American marketing author and
professor emeritus.
5. The term "Marketing" refers to?
A. Promotion of the product
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B. Focusing on sales and profit
C. Strategizing and implementing the organization process
D. Set of activities to deliver customer value and satisfaction
Answer: D) Set of activities to deliver customer value and satisfaction
Explanation:
The latest idea of marketing is that it is a set of activities to deliver customer value and
satisfaction. There were different phases when marketing was considered more about
production and selling.
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6. ____ is the key term in AMA's definition of marketing?
A. Sales
B. Promotion
C. Value
D. Profit
Answer: C) Value
Explanation:
In its standard definition of marketing, the American Marketing Association focuses on Value
to the customers.
7. Why must the marketers monitor the competitor's activities?
A. The competitor may destroy the organization

B. The competitor may threaten the monopoly position of the company
C. New offerings of a competitor may need alterations in one or more components of the
company's marketing mix
D. The competitor may be violating the law to gain an advantage
Answer: C) New offerings of a competitor may need alterations in one or more components of
the company's marketing mix
Explanation:
Monitoring the competitor's activities helps the company to modify its plans and activities to
remain profitable and sustained in the market.
8. Different price points for a different level of quality for a company's related products is a
part of which pricing strategy?
A. Product line pricing

B. Incremental pricing
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C. Optional product pricing
D. By-product pricing
Answer: A) Product line pricing
Explanation:
In product line pricing the company adds features to the base product and charges more for the
features, as compared to the base product.
9. In today's time marketing must be understood and developed as?
A. Getting the first mover’s advantage

B. Creating value for the customers
C. Pushing for higher sales and profits
D. Creating innovative products
Answer: B) Creating value for the customers
Explanation:
The concept of marketing has evolved from production to creating value for the customers.
Today the customers don't buy the product simply because they are available, but if they add
value to the customer.
10. Which one of these is an appropriate definition of "want"?
A. The desires of consumers

B. Needs related to society
C. Basic human needs
D. Needs directed to the product
Answer: D) Needs directed to the product
Explanation:
When a buyer sees a gap or problem it is a need. Only when the buyer decides that his need can
be fulfilled by a particular product does it become a want.
11. In the evolution of marketing the production period ended in ?
A. Late 1800s
B. After the second world war
C. In the 1920s
D. Early 20th century
Answer: C) In the 1920s
Explanation:
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Before the 1920s demand was related to production. The companies focused on producing new
products and a demand was created automatically.
12. According to Philip Kotler marketing is____?
A. A science
B. An art
C. Both science and art
D. None of the above
Answer: C) Both science and art
Explanation:
Marketing, according to Philip Kotler, is neither a science nor an art. It is a mix of both. A
smart marketer understands when to depend on data and when to use intelligence.
13. Which concept holds that consumers will favor the products that are easily available at an
affordable price?
A. Production concept
B. Product concept
C. Marketing concept
D. Production cost concept
Answer: B) Product concept
Explanation:
In the Product Concept the marketers believed that if a product is readily available at a lower
price, the customers will prefer to buy it over a product that is difficult to find and expensive.
14. What does the term "marketing" refer to?
A. New product development

B. Advertising and other promotional activities
C. Achieving sales and profit targets
D. Creating customer value and satisfaction
Answer: D) Creating customer value and satisfaction
Explanation:
The latest idea of marketing is to focus on creating customer value and satisfaction. When you
can create value for customers, they will prefer your products and services over others.
15. Which part of the consumer's income interests the marketers?
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A. Gross Income
B. Disposable Income
C. Inflationary Income
D. Discretionary Income
Answer: D) Discretionary Income
Explanation:
Discretionary Income is the amount of income that is left for spending or investing after the
customer has paid for the personal necessities and taxes.
16. Catalogues, sponsored events, and digital media presence are closely associated with the
marketing mix activity of?
A. Product development
B. Pricing
C. Promotion
D. Sales
Answer: C) Promotion
Explanation:
These mediums are primarily used to spread awareness among consumers and promote the
products and services among the target consumers.
17. Early adopters and opinion leaders tend to?
A. Buy new products in their circles first and voice their opinion
B. Buy tried and tested products
C. Being from upper class, users from other classes are followers
D. Don’t take risks easily
Answer: A) Buy new products in their circles first and voice their opinion
Explanation:
The early adopters are willing to take the risk and try new things. They often buy new products
in their circles first. They also share their opinions about the products among their social
circles.
18. To achieve market expansion a company must?
A. Use distribution channels more effectively

B. Use advertising campaigns more effectively
C. Price their products more strategically
D. All of the above
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Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation:
Focusing on only one or two will not yield the desired results. For market expansion, the
marketer must take a broader approach and focus on all the activities to achieve the goals of
expansion.
19. In an organization strategic marketing planning must begin with?
A. Hiring a senior planning consultant

B. Establishing organizational goals and objectives
C. Writing the mission statement
D. Writing the vision statement
Answer: C) Writing the mission statement
Explanation:
Writing the mission statement is essential to create a successful marketing plan. A well-written
mission statement gives a clear direction and the marketing plan can be developed to achieve
the goals.
20. In the service industry how many Ps comprise the marketing mix?
A. 4 Ps
B. 7 Ps
C. 10 Ps
D. 8 Ps
Answer: B) 7 Ps
Explanation:
The concept of 7Ps is followed in the service industry. The product industry mainly uses 4Ps.
21. Which period worked on the marketing philosophy of "A good product will sell itself"?
A. Marketing
B. Production
C. Sales
D. Relationship
Answer: B) Production
Explanation:
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During the Production Period the marketers focused more on the quality of their products.
Whether the products add value to the customers was not considered much.
22. Which of the following describes "diversification"?
A. New products in new markets

B. New products in existing markets
C. Existing products in an existing market
D. Existing products in new markets
Answer: A) New products in new markets
Explanation:
Diversification is a concept where a company not only focuses on new products but also
explores new markets.
23. Which traits are desired of marketers today?
A. Only creativity
B. Only critical thinking
C. Both creativity and critical thinking
D. Neither creativity nor critical thinking
Answer: C) Both creativity and critical thinking
Explanation:
In today's time a marketer has to be both a creative and critical thinker. With these two
capabilities, the marketer can better understand the consumers and come up with solutions that
add value.
24. What is motive development?
A. The imbalance between the customer's actual and desired state in which gap or problem-
solving is recognized
B. The gap between the customer's current state and past state
C. The balance between the customer's actual and desired state
D. The gap between the customer's and his colleague's current state
Answer: A) The imbalance between the customer's actual and desired state in which gap or
problem-solving is recognized
Explanation:
There is always an imbalance between the customer's actual and desired state. A marketer's key
role is to recognize this gap and recognize a feasible solution.
25. Producers, wholesalers, and retailers act as a unified system to form a?
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A. Vertical marketing system
B. Horizontal marketing system
C. Traditional marketing system
D. Hierarchical marketing system
Answer: A) Vertical marketing system
Explanation:
The producers, wholesalers, and retailers work in a straight chain and fulfill the task to make
the products available to the end user.
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26. Select the strategic marketing planning tool?
A. A BCG matrix
B. Market analysis
C. Consumer analysis and scanning model
D. Market vulnerability/business opportunity analysis
Answer: A) A BCG matrix
Explanation:
BCG matrix uses market share and market growth to understand a product's position in the
market to its competing products.
27. Achieving strategic marketing objectives using marketing plans and strategies is called?
A. Target achievement
B. Marketing implementation
C. Market penetration
D. Goal setting
Answer: B) Marketing implementation
Explanation:
When the marketing goals are achieved through successful utilization of strategies and plans it
is said to be well implemented.
28. Using a successful brand name to launch a new product in a different category is called?
A. Line extension
B. Brand expansion
C. Brand extension
D. Branding
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Answer: C) Brand extension
Explanation:
When a company uses an established brand name and launches a new product category that
may or may not relate to the existing product it is called Brand extension.
29. The marketer focuses on product awareness, trial, and expansion in this stage of the
product life cycle?
A. Growth Stage
B. Decline Stage
C. Maturity stage
D. Introduction stage
Answer: D) Introduction stage
Explanation:
At the Introduction stage the marketer should not focus on profits or sales. The main objective
at this stage should be to make customers aware of the product and willing to try it.
30. The major objective of any marketing activity is to?
A. Sell
B. Promote
C. Create
D. Increase awareness
Answer: A) Sell
Explanation:
All marketing activities have one primary objective. This aim is to achieve sales. If the product
is not selling despite all the marketing activities, either the marketing plan or the product is at
fault.
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31. When a firm believes that competitive edge depends purely on its ability to innovate, it is
following?
A. Competitive model
B. Conventional model
C. Out-of-the-box thinking
Answer: B) Conventional model
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Explanation:
In the Conventional model a marketer believes that a better product will sell itself. Whether the
product adds value to the customer or not is not a consideration under the conventional model.
32. Which of the following is important for the success of a differentiated product with unique
customer benefits?
A. Early recognition of the need

B. Large scale promotion
C. Product superiority
D. Detailed analysis
Answer: C) Product superiority
Explanation:
WWhen a product is offering some unique benefits to the customers it must be superior to its
counterparts. If the solutions offered are not superior to its competitors, customers may not
show interest in switching to that product.
33. Choose the correct sequence of activities for brand building?
A. Selecting brand elements > Leveraging secondary associations > Developing a marketing
program
B. Developing marketing program > Selecting brand elements > Leveraging secondary
associations
C. Leveraging secondary associations > Developing marketing program > Selecting brand
elements
D. Selecting brand elements > Developing marketing program > Leveraging secondary
associations
Answer: D) Selecting brand elements > Developing marketing program > Leveraging
secondary associations
Explanation:
Selecting brand elements > Developing marketing program > Leveraging secondary
associations.
34. Which marketing channel makes the products available to end users without
intermediaries?
A. Indirect channel
B. Direct channel
C. Dynamic channel
D. Flexible channel
Answer: B) Direct channel
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Explanation:
In Direct Channel the company does not depend on intermediaries like distributors,
wholesalers, or retailers to make the products available to the customers.
35. One company adjusts its marketing budget by observing another company's budget. This
process is called?
A. Objective and task method

B. Competitor analysis
C. Competitive parity method
D. Affordable budget allocation
Answer: C) Competitive parity method
Explanation:
A company does competitor analysis and makes changes to its budget and plans to stay
competitive in the market by adjusting to the practices of the competitor.
36. At which stage of the product cycle is the profit typically negative?
A. Decline stage
B. Growth stage
C. Maturity stage
D. Growth stage
Answer: D) Growth stage
Explanation:
At the Growth stage the product gains market share and the sales go high. However, a lot of
efforts and expenses are occurred to achieve this growth. The net profit is generally negative at
this stage.
37. Which of the following facts defines the break-even point?
A. Total revenue is less than the total cost

B. Total revenue is the same as the total cost
C. Total profit is more than the total cost
D. The total cost is less than the total cost
Answer: B) Total revenue is the same as the total cost
Explanation:
A company is said to have achieved the breakeven point when the total revenue generation is
the same as the total cost incurred.
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38. The expenses paid to workers for overtime are considered as?
A. Fixed cost
B. Variable cost
C. Dependent cost
D. Total cost
Answer: B) Variable cost
Explanation:
The overtime done by workers changes and depends on the emphasis to achieve goals. Thus it
qualifies as a Variable cost.
39. During the societal marketing period what was firms' main concern for marketing?
A. Producing high-quality products

B. Social and ethical concerns in marketing
C. Achieving sales target
D. Understanding consumer insights
Answer: B) Social and ethical concerns in marketing
Explanation:
The companies focused on social and ethical concerns in their marketing activities during this
period. In the current times, the focus has shifted to adding value to the customers.
40. ____is achieved when customer expectations are met regarding the quality of products and
services along with the value-based price?
A. Quality excellence
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Value proposition
Answer: B) Customer satisfaction
Explanation:
The customer is satisfied with his purchase when the quality of the product is par with
expectations and he feels he is not being over-charged for the product or the service.
41. Dividing the market into homogeneous groups is called?
A. Segmentation
B. Classification
C. Analysis
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D. Grouping
Answer: A) Segmentation
Explanation:
In segmentation, the target customers are combined together considering some common factors
like age, income, gender, etc. The ones having similar values are put together and there is
homogeneity in the data.
42. Good marketing is a result of careful planning and ____?
A. Research
B. Sales
C. Execution
D. Strategies
Answer: C) Execution
Explanation:
A good marketing plan is important to successfully achieve the objective. Execution of a good
plan is equally important to achieve these objectives.
43. Logistics management is mainly concerned about?
A. Promotion
B. Production
C. Supply chain management
D. Sales
Answer: C) Supply chain management
Explanation:
Logistics management focuses majorly on Supply chain management. It does not cover
production, promotion, or sales.
44. What do you understand by Marketing buzz?
A. Social marketing
B. Traditional marketing
C. Digital marketing
D. Viral marketing
Answer: D) Viral marketing
Explanation:
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Viral Marketing is used by marketers to create a buzz about the product or service in the
market. The aim is to achieve maximum reach and spread the word as fast as possible.
45. Which markets buy goods or services to further process them or use them in the production
process?
A. Secondary markets
B. Consumer markets
C. Government markets
D. Business markets
Answer: D) Business markets
Explanation:
The Business Markets purchase goods or services, not for consumption. The intent is to use
these products or services and create a new product or service to be sold to the customers.
46. What do you understand by brand loyalty?
A. Consumer's emotional attachment to the brand

B. Consumer's social attachment toward the brand
C. Fulfillment of consumers needs
D. Feel good factor when using a brand’s product
Answer: A) Consumer's emotional attachment to the brand
Explanation:
Consumer's emotional attachment towards a brand. A brand loyal customer has emotional
reasons to buy a product rather than logical reasons.
47. A description of people and their place in society is covered under?
A. Geographic segmentation
B. Demographic segmentation
C. Income group
D. Age group
Answer: B) Demographic segmentation
Explanation:
Demographic Segmentation describes the target customer with respect to their age, income,
gender, location, and place in society.
48. When a firm sets high initial prices which fall with entry of competitors in the market, it is
called?
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A. Competitive pricing
B. Price skimming
C. Entry barrier
D. Monopolistic competition
Answer: B) Price skimming
Explanation:
In a Price skimming strategy a company sets high prices for its products eventually reducing
the price to meet the market average.
49. Who gave the concept of Five forces?
A. Seth Godin
B. Michael Porter
C. Tim Ferriss
Answer: B) Michael Porter
Explanation:
Michael Porter, the father of modern marketing gave the concept of Five forces to analyze a
company's competitive environment.
50. Which of the following is not a part of Barriers to Entry?
A. Government policies
B. Patents
C. High capital requirements
D. New Entrants
Answer: D) New Entrants
Explanation:
New Entrants are competitors which bring new dimensions to the market competitors. They are
not a barrier to entry.
51. In the buying process, when a customer recognizes a need or a problem, what is the stage
called?
A. Information search
B. Alternative evaluation
C. Purchase
D. Need recognition
Answer: D) Need recognition
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Explanation:
Need recognition is the stage when a customer realizes a problem and then starts to search for a
solution available in the market.
52. At which stage of the product life cycle do the sales slow down and profits level off or
decline?
A. Introduction
B. Growth
C. Maturity
D. Decline
Answer: D) Decline
Explanation:
When a product reaches the Decline stage, it is typically characterized by a fall in sales and
subsequent profits. At this stage, the product needs to be renewed or replaced.
53. When adopting a new product, the customer does not go through which of the following?
A. Interest
B. Comparison
C. Culture
D. Awareness
Answer: C) Culture
Explanation:
A customer product adoption cycle comprises of Awareness > Interest > Evaluation/
Comparison > Trial > Adoption
54. The evaluation of the difference between total benefits and total costs of one marketing
offer in comparison to competitive offers is known as?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Customer perceived value
C. Customer expectation
D. Customer relationship
Answer: B) Customer perceived value
Explanation:
Customer perceived value is a customer's perception of a product's advantages and desirability

in comparison to a competitor's products.
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55. Which company created Great Value for the customer using technology innovation and
became a game changer?
A. Apple
B. Nokia
C. Samsung
D. Oneplus
Answer: A) Apple
Explanation:
While every other company was focusing on new features and technological advancements,
Apple focused on creating great value for the customer through innovation in its products.
56. In general political campaigns are examples of ?
A. Digital marketing
B. Social marketing
C. Personal marketing
D. Conventional marketing
Answer: C) Personal marketing
Explanation:
While political campaigns talk about social and economical issues they primarily focus on how
the suggested leader will be able to achieve those goals thus becoming an example of Personal
marketing.
57. What is the major factor that differentiates a service from a product?
A. Availability
B. Intangibility
C. Price
D. Experience
Answer: B) Intangibility
Explanation:
A product can be measured and evaluated on various measurable parameters. On the other
hand, a service cannot be measured on any standard parameters. The acceptance of service as
good or bad purely depends on a customers person experience and expectations.
58. "Everyone likes a Mercedes car but few can buy it."This is an example of?
A. Demand
B. Desire
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C. Want
D. Need
Answer: A) Demand
Explanation:
Need is recognition of a gap or problem. It becomes a Want when the customer decides that the
need can be fulfilled by a specific product. Demand is when the want is backed by purchasing
power.
59. In which technique does a company use the social network on the internet to create the
brand image?
A. Community outreach
B. Viral marketing
C. Social Marketing
D. Traditional Marketing
Answer: B) Viral marketing
Explanation:
In Viral Marketing a company uses social media platforms to bring awareness and create a
brand image among the masses on a large scale.
60. Re-marketing is used for creating demand for which of the following?
A. Non-usable product
B. Reusable products
C. The renewed use of existing products
D. New Products
Answer: C) The renewed use of existing products
Explanation:
When a company tries to reposition an existing product with new uses it is called Re-
marketing.
61. What does demographic segmentation stand for?
A. Geographic locations
B. Description of people and their place in society
C. People living in diversified areas
D. Location of target customers
Answer: B) Description of people and their place in society
Explanation:
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Demographic segmentation identifies a market segment based on the physical and social traits
of target customers such as age, gender, income, etc.
62. Choose the factor which is not included as a part of the physical supply?
A. Storage
B. Standardization
C. Transport
D. Packaging
Answer: B) Standardization
Explanation:
Standardization is a component of production. The other three are a part of the supply chain.
63. In demographic segmentation which of these factors is not considered?
A. Age
B. Income
C. Interests
D. Gender
Answer: C) Interests
Explanation:
Demographic segmentation identifies a market segment based on the physical and social traits
of target customers such as age, gender, income, etc.
64. When a customer buys a product without logical thinking, his decision is?
A. Emotional
B. Rational
C. Patronage
D. All of the above
Answer: A) Emotional
Explanation:
When a customer does not evaluate a product or service based on the merits and price he is
displaying emotional buying behavior.
65. Charging low prices from the introduction stage to gain growth in the market is?
A. Premium
B. Penetration
92
C. Skimming
D. Rational pricing
Answer: B) Penetration
Explanation:
At the introduction stage many companies keep their prices low as a part of the strategy to
penetrate the market.
66. Which of the following is also called a supermarket?
A. Self-service store
B. Retail store
C. Hypermarket
D. All of the above
Answer: A) Self-service store
Explanation:
The concept of supermarkets developed with the idea of Self-service. Where a customer picks
and buys a product without any sales assistance.
67. What is the full form of MPR?
A. Marketing Public Relations

B. Monitoring Public Relations
C. Management of Public Relations
D. Measurement of Public Relations
Answer: A) Marketing Public Relations
Explanation:
Marketing Public Relations focus on building the brand indirectly by engaging in campaigns
that are not purely commercial.
68. Who used the term Meta Marketing for the first time?
A. Philip Kotler
B. Eugene J Kelly
C. Robert Kiyosaki
Answer: B) Eugene J Kelly
Explanation:
93
Eugene J Kelly coined the term Meta marketing during a discussion on the issue of ethics and
science in marketing. This widened the horizon of marketing by including not-for-profit
organizations.
69. Which of the following is the best distribution channel for vacuum cleaners?
A. Telemarketing
B. Retail Stores
C. Direct Marketing
D. All of above
Answer: C) Direct Marketing
Explanation:
Direct Marketing is the best distribution channel for vacuum cleaners.
70. E-marketing is a part of which of the following?
A. E-payment
B. E-commerce
C. E-mail marketing
D. Traditional marketing
Answer: B) E-commerce
Explanation:
E-marketing is an integral part of E-commerce since the E-commerce company works in the
internet space and doesn't have physical stores.
94

Marketing Management ?General Questions (2) (1)

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Marketing Management ?General Questions (2) (1)

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Marketing management

1. Marketing is best defined as_______

(1) Matching a product with its market.

(2) Promoting and selling products.

(3) Facilitating satisfying exchange relationships.

(4) Distributing products at the right price to stores

(5) None of these

(1) Proctor and Gamble selling toothpaste.

(2) St. Pauls Church attracting new members.

(3) PepsiCo selling soft drinks.

(4) Liver’s donating Rs. 5 to a charity with every pack purchased

(5) None of these

(1) Production concept.

(2) Satisfaction of organisational goals.

(3) Product pricing and distribution.

(5) None of these

4. The marketing environment is best described as being______

(1) Composed of controllable variables.

(2) Composed of variables independent of one another.

(3) An indirect influence on marketing activity.

(4) Dynamic and changing.

(5) None of these

5. A physical, concrete product you can touch is:

(1) A service (2) A good

(5) None of these

(3) We try to produce only high quality, technically efficient products.

(4) We try to encourage company growth.

(5) None of these

8. The marketing concept is a way of thinking or a management philosophy that affects:

(1) Only marketing activities

(2) Most efforts of the organisation

(3) Mainly the efforts of sales personnel

(4) Mainly customer relations

(5) None of these

9. If VonAir, a hairdryer manufacturer, is focusing on customer satisfaction, it will find that

(1) More watts

(2) More speed

(3) Higher heat settings

(4) Attractive hair

(5) None of these

(1) The customer is always right

(3) Sell, sell, sell

(4) Keep prices low

(5) None of these

(5) None of these

(1) Focusing on general conditions

(2) Stressing the short run

(3) Endorsement of the marketing concept by top management

(4) Development of an information system

(5) None of these

(2) Consumers do not understand what the marketing concept is.

(3) Dealers do not support the marketing concept.

(4) A product may fit the needs of too many segments.

(5) None of these

14. Most specifically, marketing strategy________

(1) Is concerned with key decisions required to reach an objective

(3) Expands geographic boundaries of markets to serve larger geographic areas

(4) Involves determining the direction and objectives of marketing management

(5) None of these

15. All of the following are marketing management tasks except___________

(1) Marketing planning.

(2) Organising marketing activities.

(3) Co-ordinating marketing activities.

(4) Project development and analysis.