CLOSED DOOR 2022

Cluster 4

1. Long-bone measurement most frequently requires radiography of the:

- Femurs only

2. When the gallbladder is stimulated to secrete bile, the bile first passes through the
- Cystic duct

3. A small-bowel series is considered complete when the column of barium sulfate enters the:
- Cecum

4. Coarctation of the aorta means:

- Narrowing of the aorta

5. When the patient takes in a deep breath during chest radiography, the diaphragm:
- Contrast and the dome moves downward

6. For myelography, the contrast medium is introduced into the

- Subarachnoid space

7. The most anterior part of a typical:

- Body

8. Which of the following facilitates arterial communication between the anterior and posterior circulation
along circulation along the base of the brain?
- Circle of Willis

9. What type o fracture is characterized by separation of the bone into numerous fragments at the midshaft?
- Comminuted

10. What is the function of the falciform ligament?

- Separates the right lobe of the liver from the left lobe

11. Which structures is not found in the mediastinum?

- Lungs







 12. Which of the following structures of the stomach is the most proximal?
- Fundus

13. What is it called when the fifth lumbar vertebrae is slips forward on the sacrum?
- Spondylolisthesis

14. The olecrenanon process is a part of the:

- Ulna

15. Which of the following is a type of pathology sometimes seen in acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
(AIDS) patients?
- Pneumocystic carinii pneumonia

16. The zygomatic arch is formed by part of which bone?

- Temporal

17. Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) in a primigravida patient can be diagnosed using which of the
following?
- Sonography
- Pelvimetry (Colcher-Sussman method)

18. The neck of the "Scottie dog" seen on the oblique projections of the lumbar spine series is formed by:
- Pars interarticularis

19. Arthrography is usually performed on what type of joints?

- Diarthredial

20. The frat seeral vertebrae (81) is located at the level of the.
- Anterior superior lilac spine (ASIS)

21. The largest bone in the proximal row of carpals is the:

- Scaphoid

22. Blood leaving the right ventricle of the heart wil enter tho
- Pulmonary artery

23. The movement of a structure towards the central axis of the body is termed:
- Eversion




 24. The aspect of the kidney on which the renal helium is located is the:
- Medial

25. A colon that has not been property prepared for a barium enema examination may cause retained focal
material to resemble:
- Crohn's disease

26. In which of the following positions would the patient be placed during the insertion of an enema
up?
- Sim's position

27. Which of the following organs receives blood from the portal vein?
- Liver

28. What is the name of the special imaging procedure examination of the salivary ducts?
- Sialography

29. Which carpal bone has a characteristics hook like process?

- Hamate

30. Into which anatomic structures is the superior end of the T-tube placed for performing postoperative
cholangiography?
- Common bile duct
31. Which type of pathology would be best demonstrated by a radiograph of the lower leg?
- Osgood-Schlatter disease

32. The proper medical term for a collapsed lung is:

- Atelectasis

33. Which of the represents the level of the iliac crest in the body?
- Fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae

34. Which of the following anatomic structures articulates with the capitulum of the humerus?
- Head of radius

35. What is the name of the bony projection that extends superiorly from the cribriform plate of the ethmoid
bone?
- Crista galli







 36. What is the name of the type of skull that is considered to be of average shape and size?
- Mesocephalic

37. What is an anterior curvature of the vertebral column called?

- Lordosis

38. What is the rounded projection on the anterior proximal surface of the tibia called?
- Tibial tuberosity

39. Which of the following articulates with the medial cuneiform bone?
- First metatarsus

40. Which of the following pathologies are well visualized by a double-contrast BE?
- Polyps

41. What is the name of the process that extends superiorly from the scapula?
- Coronoid process

42. Which two bones are united to form the sternoclavicular (SC) joint?
- Clavicle and sternum

43. For which type of body habitus will the diaphragm be at the highest position?
- Hypersthenic

44. Where should the contrast media be injected for a lumbar myelogram?
- Subarachnoid space

45. Which of the following anatomic structures pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta?
- Left ventricle

46. How much will the kidneys move when changing the patient from the recumbent to the erect position?
- 1 inch

47. The anatomic organ used for phonation is called the

- Larynx






 48. The site of the doudenojejunal flexure is held tightly in position by a fibrous connective band of tissue
called the:
- Ligament of Treitz

49. The head of the radius articulates on the medial side with the.
- Coronoid process

50. The part of the lung that extends above the clavicle is termed the
- Apex

51. It can be defined as a breach or a failure to fulfill the expected standard of care:
- Negligence

52. Which of the following is not the legal consideration of the radiographer?
- Participation in medical staff activities are required

53. What is myocardium?

- Heart muscle

54. Which ethical principles is related to the theory that patients have the right to decide what will or will not
be done to them?
- Autonomy

55. What is strabismus?

- Squinting

56. With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to:

- Elevate the head slightly
- Place a support under the knees

57. The act of inspiration will cause elevation of the:

- Sternum
- Ribs

58. A person who tend to develop feelings of self righteousness in all his decision:
- Autocratic



 59. A diagrammatic form which shows the important aspect of an organization.
- Organization chart

60. If a radiographer is ordered "stat" it means:

- Immediately

61. Which of the following abbreviation is stated INCORRECTLY?.

Q2H: every four hours

62. A radiographer would be negligent if he / she:

- Failed to give reasonable care

63. When a trauma patient experience a rapid heartbeat with low blood pressure and lacks of normal color,
he/she is experiencing:
- Sign of shock

64. Because of medicolegal considerations, radiographic images are required to include all the following
information, EXCEPT:
- The patient's birth date

65. Factors that are important to evaluate when selecting contrast media include:
- Miscibility
- Potential toxicity
- Viscosity

66. What is necro?

- Death

67. What is the medical term for difficult to speech?

- Aphonia

68. What part of the pharynx posterior to the nasal cavities above and behind the soft palate?
- Nasal pharynx

69. In which of the following is the space left in and near the median line of the chest by the non-
approximation of the two pleura?
- Nerves



 70. Which of the following assumes an important function in the formation of sound, particularly in the
creation of vowel sounds?
- Larynx

71. What part of the large intestine is the longest and passes transversely from the right to left across the
abdomen?
- Transverse colon

72. Which of the following organ is a compound racerose gland, analogues in its structure to the salivary
glands, though softer and less compactly arranged than those organ?
- pancreas

73. Water is consist of 05% solutes and saliva is percent.

- 99.5

74. Which portion of the lips is non-keratinized and the color of the blood in the underlying vessel is visible
through the transparent surface layer?
- Vermillion

75. Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the:
- Superior vena cava
76. Which of the following bones help to form the hard palate?
- Palatines and maxillae

77. Which organs of the abdominopelvic cavity are most affected by variations in the patient's body
habitus?
- Stomach and gallbladder

78. The bone that provides attachment for the muscles of the tongue and mouth is the _ bone?
- Hyoid

79. Concerning the joints, the periosteum is continuous with which of the following?
- Tendons
- Ligaments

80. Which of the following conditions correctly describes an infection is the peritonea space?
- Peritonitis





 81. Which two carpal bones can normally be palpated on the anteromedial surface of the wrist?
- Pisiform and hamate

82. Which of the following bones form all or part of the knee joint?
- Fibula
- Patella
- Tibia

83. Discrepancy in the length of the lower limbs would best be evaluated by:
- Scanogram

84. The most prominent aspect of the greater trochanter lies at approximately
the symphysis pubis.
- 1 inch above

85. What is the maximum length of practice of X-ray Technician in order for him to be qualified for the
Grand Father's Clause and be exempted from taking the board examinations?
- 10 years after 1992

86. How many articulation does the humerus have?

-2

87. It is an act of regulating the practice of Radiologic Technology in the Philippines, creating the board of
Radiologic Technology, Defining it powers and functions:
- RA 7431

88. Forms of intentional misconduct include.

- Slander
- Invasion of privacy

89. When patient with an arm injury needs help in undressing, the radiographer should:
- Remove clothing from the injured arm first

90. Which vertebral structures have bifid tips?

- Transverse processes of cervical vertebrae

91. Which bones form the pelvis?

- Two hip bones, sacrum and coccyx only







 92. When radiographing the elderly, it is helpful to:
- Address them by their full name
- Give straight forward instruction

93. You receive an ambulatory patient for a GI series. As the patient is seated on the x-ray table, he feels
faint. You should
- Lay the patient down on the x-ray table
- Elevate the patient's legs or place the table slightly trendelenburg

94. A Radiologic Technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations:
- Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation
- Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination
- Discussing a patient's condition with a third party

95. If the radiographer performed a lumber spine examination on a patient who was supposed to have an
elbow exam, which of the following charges may be brought against the radiographer?
- Battery

96. Which of the following pertain to the deletion to PART CPE Code and collection, custody and
disbursement of funds be supervised by PART?
- Resolution No. 158. 1992

97. A policy of PRC on the computerization of Licensure examination with the use of Data Bank.
- Resolution No. 652s. 1993

98. A Radiologic / X-ray Technologist must adhere to the:

- General Principles of Code of Ethics

99. His function is to provide and maintain facilities, equipment's and medical assistance to a medical staff:
- Duties of the administrator

100. Which layer of the heart or pericardium serves the dual purpose of lining the pericardium and forming
the outermost wall of the heart?
- visceral pericardium (epicardium)

101. The layer of the heart that forms a smooth, protective lining of the heart chambers and valves is the
- Endocardium







 102. The bicuspid valve
- is located on the left side of the heart

103. The ___ has the thickest wall because it pumps blood to the ____.
- left ventricle: systemic circuit

104. Freshly oxygenated blood enters the heart through the ____, and is pumped out the ____.
- left atrium; aorta

105. Someone suffering a heart attack in his anterior lower right ventricle probably had a blockage in which
coronary artery?
- anterior interventricular artery

106. When do the A-V valves close during the cardiac cycle?
- when ventricular pressure exceeds that of the atria

107. Chemical digestion of food involves:

- hydrolysis reactions in the small intestine

108. The gall bladder:

- stores bile

109. The esophageal hiatus is the:

- site where the esophagus passes through the diaphragm

110. A patient who has undergone gastrectorny (removal of the stomach) may suffer from:
- pernicious anemia

111. The organs of taste are called:

- taste buds

112. Blood is drained from the liver by the

- hepatic veins

113. The conversion of amino acids to glucose is an example of

- gluconeogenesis



 114. Which of the following cell types is responsible for skeletal muscle regeneration?
- Satellite cells

115. How many T- tubules lie within a single skeleton muscle sarcomere?
-2

116. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the name given to which of the following?

- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum in all muscle cells

117. The connective tissue layer that bundles skeletal muscle fibers into fascicles is the.
- Perimysium

118. An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the

- Band

119. In skeletal muscle, a triad refers to which of the following?

- A T tubule sandwiched between 2 dilated cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

120. Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle fibers?
- Branched

121. Which of the following are the parts of neurons?

- dendrite, axon, and cell body

122. A dendrite conducts nerve impulses ____ the cell body.

- Toward

123. An axon conducts nerve impulses ____ the cell body.

- Away from

124. Neuroglial cells support and provide nutrition for the

- Neurons

125. A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system take nerve impulses from sensory receptors to the
- Central nervous system

126. An interneuron has

- short dendrites and a long or short axon







 127. Schwann cells are one of several types of ____ cells in the nervous system
- Neuroglial

128. The human ovum and spermatozoon are similar in that.

- they have the same number of chromosomes

129. Spermiogenesis involves:

- the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa

130. During early and middle fetal life, the testes are located in the
- abdominal cavity

131. Inflammation of the seminiferous tubules could interfere with the ability to:
- produce spermatozoa

132. The mitochondria in mature sperm cells are located in the:

- body (middle piece) of the sperm

133. The movement of spermatozoa, from the epididymal duct, and seminal fluid set into the ejaculatory duct
and the urethra is called and is under control.
- ejaculation / parasympathetic

134. Prostaglandins within the seminal fluid are thought to:

- stimulate the vestibular (Bartholin's) glands to produce mucus

135. Which of the following cell types is responsible for synthesizing the organic component of cartilage
matrix?
- chondrocytes

136. Which of the following hormones acts to stimulate osteoclast activity and thus increase bone
resorption?
- Parathyroid Hormone

137. Which of the following statements about bone is TRUE?

- Bone is a dynamic tissue which changes in response to hormonal demands

138. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of bone tissue?

- Lacunae that contain 2-4 cells each




 139. The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of all of the following EXCEPT:
- Perichondrium

140. The organic component of bone matrix is produced by:

- Chondroblasts

141. Which of the following statements about osteoblasts is TRUE?

- Osteoblasts respond to parathyroid hormone

142. The renal medulla is composed of tissue called

- Renal pyramids

143. Juxtaglomerular cells combine with _____ cells to form the juxtagomerular apparatus in the kidney.
- Macula densa

144. Which of the following is not in the sequence of proper kidney blood flow? The starting point is
the renal artery and the finishing point is the renal vein.
- Interlobal Vein

145. Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine?

- Urea

146. The primary function of the ascending loop of Henle in the kidney is?
- The active re-absorption of chloride ions

147. The middle layer of the urinary bladder is identified as

- Submucous coat

148. The micturition reflex center is located in the

- Sacral plexus

149. Which statement(s) would be true regarding tracheostomy patients?

- Tracheostomy patients have difficulty speaking
- Audible rattling sounds indicate a need for suction

150. The pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the
heart is called:
- Angina pectoris





 151. Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock?
- Pallor and weakness
- Increased pulse rate

152. An intravenous urogram require as the patient to remain in one position for an extended period of time
What can be done to make the patient as comfortable as possible
- Place a pillow under the patient's head
- Place a support cushion under the patient's knees to relieve back strain

153. Blood pressure may be expressed as 120/95. What does 95 represent?

- The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue
- A higher-than-average diastolic pressure

154. What are important considerations of radiologic technologists when working with geriatric
- There is an increased pain threshold and breakdown of skin
- Atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands
- Physical changes include loss of hearing and mental alertness

155. When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an infant, it is required that the number of
compressions per minute, compared to that for an adult,
- Increase

156. Which of the following statements are true regarding a two-member team performing mobile
radiography on a patient with MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphyloccus aureus) precautions?
- One radiographer remains "clean", he or she has no physical contact with the patient
- The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure

157. All of the following statements are true regarding the administration of a barium enema to a
patient with a colostomy, except:
- The patient should not be permitted to insert the colostomy tip

158. The most effective means of reducing friction when moving a patient is by:
- Asking the patient to cooperate with you

159. To have an effective communication, it should start with:

- Introduction of healthcare provider to the patient




 160. Which of the following is an example of a second verification on patient's identity?
- Ask his/her birth date.

161. Symptoms of fever includes:

- Malaise
- Tachycardia
- Tachypnea
162. Frequent litigation in radiology involves:
- A patient with a spinal injury is moved from the stretcher to the x-ray table, resulting in irreversible
damage to the spinal cord.
- The radiographer fails to inquire about a possible pregnancy before performing a radiologic
examination.
- The patient undergoes an x-ray examination in the emergency department and is
sent home. The radiologist interprets the images and fails to notify the emergency department
physician of the findings. The physician gets a written report 2 days later. Meanwhile, the patient
suffers permanent damage from an untreated condition.

163. Oversized heart, or enlargement of the heart is medically termed as?

- Megalocardio
- Cardiomegaly

164. A surgeon may need to remove a portion of a diseased stomach. If the natural connection is removed,
then the surgeon must form opening between the stomach and duodenum. This procedure is called ____.
- Gastroduodenostomy

165. Cardialgia means?

- Pain the heart

166. Hypertrophy means overdevelopment; troph/o comes from the Greek word for
- Nourishment

167. What medical terminology specifically refers to gland?

- Aden/o

168. Movement toward the midline.

- Adduction




 169. Alopecia is medically known as?
- loss of hair

170. In which of the following refer to smooth muscle tumor:

- Leiomyosarcoma

171. What is cryptorchism?

- Condition of a hidden testes

172. Which of the following referring to the narrowing of the prepuce?

- Phimosis

173. Qualifications of Board Member must be a?

- Be a citizen and resident of the Philippines
- Be a good moral character
- Be at least thirty (30) years of age
- A member of the faculty, lecturer of any school or college.

174. The RRT in a unit is caring for several clients on his department. To distribute care, he utilized the
principle of triage due to the limited availability of resources. The radtech is promoting which ethical
principle?
- Justice

175. Which of the following auxiliary branch of radiology which deals with the technical application of
radiation?
- Radiologic technology

176. Greatest benefit and the least harm is a principle of?

- Principle of Non-maleficence

177. A a Crime
- Is an offense against the state committed or omitted in violation of a public law.

178. Health-care practitioners might be accused of ____ for promising patients "miracle cures"
or for accepting fees from patients while using mystical or spiritual powers to heal.
- Fraud



 179. Which of the following is not an element of contract?
- Abandonment

180. Classification of negligence, it is a lawful act that is done incorrectly

- Misfeasance

181. Are lawsuits by a patient against a physician for errors in diagnosis or treatment.
- Malpractice claims

182. Sometimes called an advance directive, is a legal document addressed to the patient’s family and health
care providers
- Living will

183. In cases of needle stick and sharp injury, what should the employee do If he/she refuses vaccination?
- They must write an incident letter

184. A health-care professional who stops care without providing an equally qualified substitute can be
charged with a?
- Abandonment

185. If the patient lacks decision-making capacity, their rights can be exercised on their behalf by:
- designated surrogate
- designated proxy

186. An ordinary or usual manner of doing or acting or the habitual practice

- Habit

187. Who is the chairman of the commission?

- The Commissioner

188. In the Radiologic technology law, Section 19: Qualification for Examination states that every applicant
for examination shall satisfy the following requirements, which includes:
- Filipino Citizen
- Good moral character
- Not been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude








 189. A developmental manager is the one who helps and encourages employees to develop their strengths and
improve their performance. This management style is also known as?
- Coaching style

190. The radiographer manager's most important communication skills is:

- Communication skills

191. Among six management styles, which style has primary objective of providing long term direction and
vision for employees?
- Authoritative

192. Which of the following is not part of Code of Ethics of Radiologic Technology?
- Responsibility to Non Profitable Organizations

193. A termed reclusion perpetua is penalties of crimes

- From 20 years and 1 day to 30 years

194. Which of the following defines a manager who practices a Pacesetting style of management?
- Do it myself manager
- Everyone has input
- Accomplishing task to a high standard of excellence

195. Which of the following is included in the management process of staffing?

- Identifying the type of and number of personnel
- Salary scaling
- Recruitment
- Selection and appointment

196. For effective implementation, the radiographer must possess assessment skills, interpersonal skills,
psychosocial skills and also:
- Communication skills

197. Which of the following match with the definition: a poor output of urine?
- Oliguria

198. What stage of grieving of a patient who has diagnosed to have breast cancer when she becomes silent
and withdrawn and does not want to eat and talk to anybody?
- Depression




199. Which of the following is NOT a qualification of a member of the Board of Radiologic
Technology?
- Has at least 12 years of practice in their specialty

200. Which blood vessel empty into the left atrium?

- Right pulmonary veins

201. A patient who has informed by his physician that he has lung cancer, refuse to talk, does not want to eat
and take any treatment. What is his stage of grieving?
- Depression

202. What is the virtue of the radiographer of knowing and deciding what is right without due fear?
- Courage

203. A radiologic technologist when doing a procedure must treat a patient to his patient's best interest:
- Non maleficence

204. What structures in the vein prevent the backflow of blood?

- Valves

205. One of the responsibilities of the radiologic technologist is to update himself of new developments in
the field of his specialty, practices the virtue of:
- Humility

206. Who is the person who is NOT infected, but transports harmful bacteria?
- Carrier

207. What Is the root word relating to the ear?

- Aur-

208. What is the radiation science specially which deals with the use of radiation for diagnosis and treatment?
- Nuclear medicine

209. What should a radiographer do if he had problem with another colleague regarding schedule of duties in
the department?
- Discuss problem with the colleague to seek possible solution
210. A restless carrying 2 years old boy who fell from the stairs was brought to the ER. He was referred for
X-ray of the skull to rule out fracture. As He posed danger to fall from the x-ray table. What is the best thing
to do?
- Ask the boy knows the mother, ask her and relatives to hold the boy during x-ray

211. What bone comprise the medial malleolus?

- Tibia

212. Where is the left atrium located as seen on the chest x ray PA and lateral view?
- Right boarder of the heart

213. What is the normal adult capacity of the urinary bladder in ml?
- 500 - 600

214. This patient has most likely suffered from cerebrovascular accident:
- Difficulty in speech, one sided drooping eye and face, severe headache, loss of consciousness

215. Who is the best person who can give informed consent?
- The patient himself

216. What is the most common means of spreading infection?

- Human hands

217. The chief radiographer could be recommended as the radiation safety officer in the department, if he has
attended a course on radiation and protection and at least how many years of experience?
-6
218. What is the most proximal part of the colon?
- Cecum

219. An admitted patient is scheduled for an x - ray procedure, but he is restless and indifferent and does not
want to do the procedure, the radiographer should:
- Follow the patient's wishes and ask the ward to get patient for rescheduling of procedure

220. What is the part of the kidney where urine is collected?

- Renal pelvis

221. As blood travels from the aorta towards the capillaries:

- Pressure increases
222. What comprise the hand boxes?
- Metacarpals

223. Which organ produces bile?

- Liver

224. What is the location of the kidneys in the region of the abdomen?
- Hypochondriac

225. Where does the right ventricle pump its blood?

- pulmonary artery

226. The accreditation of CPD program is valid for how many years?
- 3

227. What is the region of the abdomen where the gallbladder could normally be found?
- Hypochondriac

228. A certificate of x-ray radiologic technology to practice the profession is issued by:
- Board of Radiologic Technologists

229. As a licensed radiologic technology professional, how many CPD units is required when he applies to
renew his license at the Professional Regulation Commission?
- 45

230. The coronary artery supply to the heart comes from:

- Aortic root

231. What is the normal blood pressure reading (mmHg)?

- 100/60 - 140/90

232. A new radiographer was hired in a hospital and after sometime, he was to assist in an interventional
radiography procedure for which he had no experience. What would be his most likely approach?
- To inform the chief technologist that he has limited knowledge of the procedure

233. Eighty percent of deaths in the elderly over 65 years old is mostly due to
- Heart disease, stroke, cancer
234. What should be done prior to performing an interventional procedure in radiology?
- Informed consent

235. Bile and pancreatic juice flow to the duodenum via which duct?
- Common bile

236. Who is the President of the Philippines responsible for signing the RA 7431 into law as the Radiologic
Technology Act?
- Corazon Aquino

237. What does a free and informed consent mean?

- A valid document if patient is given adequate information understood the procedure and not forced
to sign

238. Fear of the sight of blood:

- Hemophobia

239. What does litigation mean?

- A lawsuit

240. What compose the ankle bone?

- Tarsal

241. What is the carpal bone that articulates with radius proximally?
- Scaphoid

242. Decreased level of bile salts in the bile would interfere with digestion of _____?
- Fat

243. What is the possible source of Hepatitis A infection?

- Food handlers

244. What is the cardiac cycle?

- One complete heartbeat

245. Which of the following refers to "aphasia"?

- Impairment of language
 246. What should a radiographer do if he is doing an x-ray procedure to a patient who is disabled and
difficult to move?
- Obtain as much help as necessary to avoid injury

247. What is the usual number of sacral vertebrae that is fused into one bone?
- 5

248. The medical term "nocturia" means ______ urination at night.

- Excessive

249. A person who is integrated to the whole is the principle of ______

- Common good

250. What is the lower arm long bone on the side of the little finger?
- Ulna

251. The major innervation of the diaphragm is the ______ nerve.

- Phrenic

252. The radiologic technologist - patient relationship is based on:

- Trust and confident

253. What is the virtue of giving what is best for the patient?
- Beneficence

254. What is the name of the drug given by the company who manufactures the medicine?
- Trade name

255. Which of the following is NOT likely to be used in restraining a child?

- Lead apron

256. What is the true about the pancreas?

- Both endocrine and exocrine glands

257. Which of the following is NOT true form of the liver?

- Receives blood from the hepatic artery and not from the hepatic portal veil

258. What group of patients should the Radiographer practice strict infection control when doing x-ray
procedures which include blood and body fluids safeguard.
- Patients who have hepatitis B infection

259. Water is excreted mainly in the form of ______

- Urine

260. Where does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide happen?
- Capillary

261. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

- The right kidney is slightly higher than the left

262. In blood pressure reading of 120/80, the 80 is the ______ pressure.

- Diastolic

263. Who can NOT APPLY as CPD provider?

- Non PRC professional

264. Which of the following is TRUE of the liver?

- Detoxification of substances

265. What is the chemical symbol for potassium?

- K

267. What is the method of administration of drug given under the tongue?
- Sublingual

268. Identify which of the following blood vessel is NOT a direct branch of the following aortic arch?
- Coronary artery

269. How is an endocrine gland differ from an exocrine gland?

- Negative feedback mechanism of hormone secretion

270. What should you do if, as supervising radiographer, you have discovered that the radiographers took
alcohol during their duty hours in the night shift?
- Make an incident report and ask department professional ethic committee to investigate
271. Select the normal adult body temperature taken orally (in degrees centigrade).
- 36.5

272. Bone tissues can be described as ______

- Dense and hard connective tissue

273. Which is NOT white blood cell?

- Erythrocyte

274. Which blood vessel DO NOT empty into the right atrium?
- Pulmonary trunk

275. A mobile chest x-ray was requested at the medical ICU on a patient with pleural effusion after
withdrawal of fluids. They inserted an ______
- Chest tube

276. What is the intestinal hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to contract?
- Cholecystokinin

277. Which part of the nephron does the function of filtration happen?
- Glomerulus

278. A 'pyloromyotomy' is performed in which of the following body system?

- Gastrointestinal

279 What is NOT a function of the lymph node?

- Hematopoiesis

280. Identify which is NOT an element?

- Carbon

281. Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

- Pathology is the study and treatment of disease

282. A radiologic technologist who is selfless, who voluntarily helps patients waiting at the department for a
procedure, helps his fellow technologists, practice the virtue of?
- Fortitude
283. Choose the medical term which refers to "pain"?
- Arthralgia

284. Identify the medical terminology which describes a movement of an extremity around its axis?
- Circumduction

285. What is meant by Homeostasis?

- Maintenance of state of body balance

286. The chief radiographer has included everyone in the department in his research study on radiation
protection which would entail repeated blood extraction at different intervals. As a radiologic technologist, he
asked you to join this study. Which of the following do you need to secure?
- An informed consent to join in this study

287. Select the drug which acts to increase secretion of mucous from bronchial tube?
- Decongestant

288. What is the thoracic level of the xiphoid process?

- T10

289. Which of the following structures are found in the small intestines?
- Villi

290. What organ is responsible for the immune response of the body?
- Thymus

291. Under what circumstances can a hospital chart be taken out of the hospital?
- When the court asks the radiologic technologist to be and expert and to bring the document

292. What should you do to ensure that you have the correct in patient waiting for a radiographic procedure?
- Call the patient's name and check patient armband ID.

293. What is TRUE of the liver?

- Compose of hepatocytes
294. What electrical activity of the heart starts in the
- SA node
 295. What is the technique performed by the interventional radiologist in doing a procedure to keep an area
free from contamination?
- Aseptic

296. What is the range of normal adult respiratory rate/min?

- 10-20

297. What structure in the brain procedures the cerebrospinal fluid?

- chord plexus

298. Which of the following medical condition would need medical intervention as an emergency?
- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

299. This term pertains to tears:

- Lacrimal

300. What is the area used as a frequent site to feel the pulse?
- Radial

301. False and extravagant, unethical advertisement of practice is claimed as ______ malpractice.
- Civil

302. What is the longest bone in the upper extremity?

- Humerus

303. What is the master gland of the endocrine system?

- Pituitary

304. Which of the following diagnostic procedures is indicated when a space occupying mass is identified on
barium enema?
- Colonoscopy

305. The medical suffix -plasia refers to:

- Formation or development

306. The three fat pad of associated to the elbow are

- Supinator fat pad
- Posterior fat pad





 307. Which of the following is NOT a branch of the right coronary artery?
- Circumflex

308. The anterior interventricular artery is a branch of the

- left coronary artery

309. During the period of ejection in the cardiac cycle, the atrioventricular valves are ______ and the
semilunar valves are ______
- closed, open

310. Balanitis means

- Inflammation of glans penis

311. Major Duct of the sublingual salivary gland

- Bartholin's duct

312. It is one of the two small mucus-secreting glands located on the posterior and lateral aspect of the
vestibule of the vagina
- Bartholin's gland

313. A positioning method for producing x-ray images of the inferior -orbital fissures
- Bertel

314. An orange-yellow pigment of bile formed principally by the breakdown of hemoglobin in red blood
cells after termination of their normal lifespan.
- Bilirubin

315. b.i.d means

- bis in die

316: Blennorrhea means

- excessive mucus

317. It is an infant born with cyanosis caused by congenital heart lesion, most commonly Tetralogy of Fallot
- blue baby



 318. Which of the following legal principles is violated by discussing patient information with a friend
outside the medical setting?
- Invasion of privacy

319. What is intended by the abbreviation LLQ?

- Lower left quadrant

320. What legal doctrine, now in decline, holds that the employer is responsible for acts of the radiographer?
- Respondeat superior

321. In which of the following situations would it be possible to proceed with a radiographer procedure
although the patient clearly indicate refusal?
- the patient is a minor and the parents give permission
- the patient is a prisoner in the custody of an officer of the law, who gives permission

322. Where is the center of gravity for standing patient?

- At the midline level with the iliac crest

323. Which of the following is the preferred method of performing pediatric procedures when it can be
achieved?
- the feet should be slightly apart to provide a wide base of support for the baby
- the back should be kept as straight as possible

324. What position places the patients semi sitting with the head raised from 45 degrees?
- Fowler's

325. Which of the following structures must always be supported when carrying a baby?
- back
- head

326. Which of the following are useful indicators of a patient's overall condition?
- skin
- respiratory

327. Which of the following is proper element of a wheelchair to x-ray table of a patient who can stand but
cannot walk?
- the radiographer stands facing the patient and places both hand on the patient's scapulae




 328. Which of the following guidelines will effectively protect the radiographer from physical harm while
moving a large patient?
- Lift with legs instead of the back

329. which of the following are elements of a pull sheet transfer of a patient from x-ray table to a stretcher
cart?
- Roll the sheet as close to the patient's body as possible
- When 2 persons are transferring the patient on should be positioned on each side of
the patient
- When 3 persons are transferring the patient, all should be on same side or the
patient

330. Which of the following are normal responses of a small child to distress
- crying
- kicking

331. Which of the following bones includes the inion?

- Occipital

332. The short, thick processes that project posteriorly from the vertebral body are the
- Pedicle

333. What is the name of the area between the two pleural cavities?
- Mediastinum

334. Which of the following process involves gaseous exchanges between the cells of the body and their
fluid?
- Internal respiratory

335. Which of the following is the smallest of the salivary glands?

- Sublingual

336. Which of the following terms is synonym, of the agminated glands?

- Peyer's gland
337. What do you call the concave medial border of the stomach?
- Lesser curvature

 338. What do you call the major movement of the small intestine, it is strictly a localized contraction
containing?
- Segmentation

339. The junction of the transverse colon, and the descending colon forms are:
- Splenic flexure

340. Which of the following is not function of nephron?

- gets rid waste

341. Which of the following is a hollow tubes that extends from kidney to urinary bladder?
- Ureter

342. Which of the following procedures can demonstrate ureteral reflux?

- Voiding cystourethrogram

343. Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?
- Hydronephrosis

344. How many lobes is the prostate gland have?

- 3

345. What do you call the fibrous covering of the testes?

- tunica albugenia

346 What is the other term for nymphae?

- Bartholin

347. What do you call the commencement of the vagina and behind the hymen, round or oblong with reddish
yellow color and a size of horse bean analogous to Cowper's gland in male?
- Bartholin gland

348. What do you call a thin fold of vascularized mucous membrane separating the vagina from the
vestibule?
- Hymen

349. Which of the following is also known as fissure of SYLVIUS?

- Lateral sulcus

 350. Which of the following is most helpful in communication with every small children?
- getting down to eye level with the child and maintaining distance

351. Which of the following conditions are known to cause breakdown of the skin?
- immobility in a single position for several hours
- prolonged contact with a wet sheet or a gown
- tension during transfer to an x-ray table

352. Which of the following describes reducing the probability of infectious organism being transmitted to
someone who is susceptible?
- Medical asepsis

353. What is the proper to take if sterilization of an object is in question?

- Discard the object

354. Which of the following describes the first stage of an infection?

- Incubation period

355. In what position is the patient when the x-ray table is inclined with the patient's head slightly lower than
the body?
- Trendelenburg

356. Which of the following are necessary when returning a patient to their room following x-ray
examination?
- lower the bed to the lowest position
- report to the return of the patient to the appropriate nursing station

357. Which of the following are most resistant to aseptic techniques?

- bacillus spore bacteria

358. Which are the following can help a patient feel more comfortable and relaxed prior to a radiological
examination?
- specifying exactly what clothing should be removed
- explaining the radiographic procedure

359. Which of the following is the appropriate method for clearing a contaminated x-ray table?
- Start with the least contaminated area and work into the higher contamination



 360. Which term describes the destruction of pathogens by using chemicals?
- Disinfection

361. Which of the following are forms of fungi?

- yeast
- protozoa
- molds

362. What is the structural component of circulatory system?

- heart and blood vessels

363. Which blood vessels carry and absorbed food from the gastrointestinal tract of the liver?
- portal vein

364. What is the valve that opens from the right atrium and right ventricle?
- Tricuspids

365. Which of the following vessels contain blood with the highest oxygen saturation?
- Pulmonary vein

366. Which of the following is not a branch of the celiac artery?

- superior mesenteric artery

367. Which of the following valves has two cups?

- Mitral

368. Which of the following is also known as central sulcus?

- Fissure of Rolando

369. Which of the following is located between forebrain and hindbrain?

- Midbrain

370. Any abnormal blood condition

- Dyscrasia

371. The medical term rrhaphy means

- Suture





 372. A substance found in urine of infants born with congenital problems
- Phenylketonuria

373. Enuresis means

- Bed wetting

374. It secreted by the kidney important substance in the control of blood pressure and crythroprotein.
- Renin

375. Macrotia means

- Large ears

376. It medical term loss of hearing due to aging process

- Presbycusis

377. A term means difficulty of seeing at night or in faint light?

- Nyctalopia

378. Profuse sweating

- Diaphoresis

379. Spitting of blood means

- Hemoptysis

380. Hirsutism means

- Abnormal increase of hair in the female

381. Herpes - Zoster means

- Adult chicken pox

382. Stridor means

- A high pitched breathing

383. Varicocele means

- Enlarged swollen veins near the testicles

384. Oligospermia means

- Low sperm count




 385. Outward protrusion of a bone is what pathological condition?
- Exostosis

386. Onset of menstrual cycle at puberty

- Menarche

387. Diuresis means

- Increased excretion of urines

388. Aphonia means

- Loss of the ability to produce normal speech sounds

389. Normal breaths per minute for adults

- 16-20

390. Eupnea means

- Normal breathing

391. When monitoring patient's vital sign, what conditions indicated by a diastolic pressure above 90 mm
Hg?
- Hypertension

392. Isolation that is used for patients who have depresses immune system is known as
- Protection isolation

393. If the patient is recumbent on the radiographic table and says the he or she feels faint what action should
the radiographer take?
- Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

394. The most complication of arthrography is:

- Infection

395. What type disease process is indicated by a positive Venereal Disease Research
Laboratory (VDRL) analysis of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample taken from spinal puncture?
- Meningitis
396. Which of the following are types of gastric tube?
- Cantor
- Levin








 397. Which of the following deliver the highest concentration of the oxygen?
- Aerosol mask

398. Which of the following are tissue drains?

- Cantor
- Penrose
- Hemovac

399. Which of the following require surgical procedures during insertion?

- closed chest drainage tube
- nasogastric
- tracheostomy

400. From what location does a cystotomy tube drain fluid?

- Urinary bladder

401. Which of the following may be recommended by the radiographer if the/ :

disconnected?
- Swan-Ganz Catheter
- Oxygen line

402. What is the function of a T- Tube that is surgically implanted in the biliary ducts?
- Admission of contrast media in the biliary system

403. What condition results from the mobilization of fatty acids when insufficient insulin is
available to metabolize glucose?
- Ketoacidosis

404. Routes of entry of toxic chemical may include:

- swallowing
- inhalation
- absorption through skin or mucous membranes

405. If hazardous chemicals come in contact with the skin, the following must be performed
- Rinse immediately with cool water for at least 5 minutes

406. Gloves must always be worn when :

- assisting patients with urinals or bedpans



- handling needles and syringe
- handling bandages and dressings

407. Needles and syringes must be disposed of in:

- Sharp containers

408. Used bandages and dressings must be placed into:

- Waterproofs bags and sealed

409. Causing a patient to become apprehensive of being injured is called:

- Assault

410. Violation of confidentially defines:

- Invasion of privacy

411. Neglect or omission of reasonable care defines:

- Unintentional misconduct

412. The legal doctrine stating that an employer is responsible for employee's negligent action is:
- Respondent superior

413. Bradycardia a pulse of:

- Fewer than 60 beats per minute

414. Normal adult respiration is:

- 12-16 breaths per minute

415. Shock is indicated when the diastolic pressure is:

- Less than 50%

416. This item contains all equipment and drugs needed during respiratory or cardiac arrest.
- Crash cart

417. This item used to measure blood pressure

- Sphygmomanometer
418. The type of shock that occurs when toxins produced during infection cause a dramatic drop in blood
pressure is called:
- Septic shock

438.Which of the following is NOT TRUE concerning scheduling of radiographic exams?

- Schedule pediatric and geriatric patients later in the day

439. What must precede any examinations involving iodinated contrast media?
- Thyroid assessment

440. Diabetic patients should be scheduled:

- Early because of their insulin

441. If scheduled for Gl studies, patient preparation includes:

- low residue diet
- NPO for 8-12 hours before the procedures
- cathartics and enemas

442. Which of the following should not be asked when taking history?
- How long have you had a cancer?

443. Violations of civil law are known as:

- Torts

444. Unlawful touching or touching without consent constitutes:

- Battery

445. Battery may involves:

- unlawful touching or touching without consent constitutes harm resulting from physical contact with
the radiographer
- radiographing the wrong patient, the wrong part, or performing radiography against a patient's will

446. Unjustified restraint of the patient constitutes

- False imprisonment

447. Unnecessary or improperly exposing the patient's body or photographing the patient without his or her
permission constitute:
- Violation of privacy
448. Written false information about another person, that results in defamation of character or loss of
reputation is
- libel

449. Spoken false information about another person that results in defamation of character or loss of
reputation is
- Slander

450. How a reasonable person with similar education and experience would perform under
similar circumstances defines:
- Reasonably prudent person doctrine

451. An act that demonstrate reckless disregard for life or limb is called :
- Gross negligence

452. A case in which the injured person caused some of the injury is called
- Contributory

453. Conditions needed to established malpractice include:

- established of the standard of care and proof it was violated
- demonstration that the injury was caused by the caregiver
- proof that the injury actually occurred and is a result of the negligence

454. The legal doctrine stating that the cause of negligence is obvious is
- Res ipsa loquitor

455. Which of the following is NOT a legal entry on a radiograph?

- Grease pencil markings or stickers

456. What term describes defective muscular coordination?

- Ataxia

457. What is the common cause of respiratory arrest?

- Aspiration of drink

458.What is the recommended rate of external cardiac compressions for two rescuer CPR of an adult?
- 100
459. What is the proper number of cardiac compressions for every two ventilations during adult
cardiopulmonary resuscitations?
- 15

460. Which of the following is an appropriate if a patient is not breathing but the carotid pulse
can be detected?
-Ventilation

461. Which of the following are potentially life threatening?

- asthmatic attack
- diabetic reaction
- anaphylaxis

462. Which term describes profuse sweating?

- Diaphoresis

463. Which of the following is a nosebleed?

- Epistaxis

464. When cardiopulmonary resuscitation is performed, where should the second hand of the
person performing the compression be placed?
- On the top of the first hand

465. What is the recommended location to a pulse reading prior to beginning resuscitation?
- Carotid

466. Which of the following are important during cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

- locked elbows
- check carotid pulse every minute
- call for assistance

467. Which part of the hand should be placed on the sternum to initiate cardiac compression
during cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
-The fingertips

468. What is meant by a "stat' order ?

- It is to be performed as soon as possible after other orders
469. What is the proper action to take if no pulse is obtained when ventilating a patient with an
airway obstruction?
- Sharply compress the abdomen just below the ribs

470. How far should the sternum should be compressed during cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
of an adult?
-1.5 to 2"

471. Which of the following is part of the Heimlich maneuver?

- quick forceful pressure upward against the diaphragm
- clearing the mouth with two fingers
- mouth-to-mouth resuscitation

472. What term describe labored or difficult breathing?

- Dyspnea

473. Which of the following is NOT a correct action to take for a patient experiencing a seizure??
- move objects out of the patients reach

474. Which of the following is correct procedure for sealing the airway during cardiopulmonary
resuscitation?
- clamping the nose with fingers

475. What conditions results from an excess amount of insulin in the bloodstream of a patient
with diabetes mellitus?
- Hypoglycemia

476. Which of the following are considered essential drugs for CPR?
- morphine sulfate
- nitroglycerine

477. Which of the following are required for effective cardiac compression during
cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
- a clear airway
- a hard surface under the patient

478. What is the proper treatment for a patient hypoglycemia?

- Administration of sugar
479. Artificial circulation is produced cardiopulmonary resuscitation when the chest is
compressed by squeezing the heart between which two structure?
- to established a direct route for introducing medication
- to established the primary route for contrast media injection
- to established a secondary route for the injection addition contrast media

480. Which of the following drugs are considered essential for CPR?
- lidocaine
- epinephrine

481. If several acute emergency orders are receive at one, what procedure should determine which is done
first by the radiographer?
- The procedure that can be completed in the shortest length of time should be done first

482. Which of the following is the most like cause of one-sided muscle weakness and eye
deviation with difficult speech and a sudden stiff neck?
- Cerebral vascular accident

483. What is the proper number of ventilation for every 15 cardiac compression during adult
cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
- 15

484. What is the maximum length of time cardiac compressions may be interrupted once
cardiopulmonary resuscitation has begun?
- 7 seconds

485. Which of the following are symptoms of a partially obstructed airway?

- Noisy breathing, wheezing, labored breathing

486. Into what positions should a patient be moved to avoid aspiration a vomitus?
- lateral recumbent
- sitting

487. Which during will resolve an acute asthmatic episode

- Benadryl (diphenhydramine)
488. Which contrast medium is indicated for a gastrointestinal procedure when a perforation of
the bowel is possible?
- Iodine

489. Which of the following constitutes a fasting order may ?

- NPO

490. Which of the following occur if the barium solution bag is too high during a barium enema
examination?
- severe abdominal cramping
- excessive pressure on the anal veins
- rupture of diverticula in the colon

491. Which of the following may stool materials is an indication of upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
- severe, tarry blood

492. Which of the following best describes the examination of the urinary system that is
accomplished by intravenous injection of iodinated contrast media?
- Pyelogram

493. Why should barium be administered orally with a straw?

- To avoid coating the mouth with barium

494. In what position should a patient placed of insertion of an enema tip?

- Sims

495. Which of the following should be ingested 24 hours prior to a barium examination of the
gastrointestinal tract?
- Carbonated beverages

496. What is the proper action during the first five seconds of rescue activity when an
unwitnessed cardiac arrest has occurred?
- Open the airway

497. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in the unconscious victim of
unwitnessed collapse?
- Tongue
498. What is the purpose of an inflatable balloon cuff on an enema tip?
- increased sphincter pressure to siw the defecation urge

499. Which of the following contrast media can be used to visualize the colon?
- air
- barium

500. Which are potential complications of barium leaking into the peritoneal cavity or
bloodstream during a gastrointestinal examination?
- peritonitis
- barium

501. What type of shock is caused by an abnormally low volume of circulating blood?
- Hypovolemic

502. Which of the following are possible causes of bowel perforation?

- gastric ulcer
- trauma to the abdomen

503. Which of the following are true concerning non- ionic iodinated contrast media?
- they are less likely to cause anaphylactic shock
- they are considerably more expensive
- they produce higher quality images

504. Which of the following are signs of anaphylactic shock?

- sneezing and coughing
- itching at the site of injection, eyes and nose
- apprehensiveness

505. What is the recommended temperature range for barium solution that will be used for rectal
administration?
- 98 to 100° F

506. What is the approximate quantity of barium required for an average normal adult barium enema
examination without air contrast techniques?
- 400 to 500 ml
507. What is the most efficient route for administration of medication to counteract adverse reactions?
- Oral

508. Which of the following is recommended sequence of contrast media studies?

- Biliary, urinary, lower Gl, upper GI

509. Which of the following is true regarding the hemodynamic consequence of iodinated
contrast material?
- causes vasodilation
- increases cardiac output
- increases heart rate

510. Which type of cleansing enema removes interstitial fluid from the bowel, thus promoting peristalsis?
- Normal saline

511. Which of the following are necessary to begin an intravenous infusion?

- tourniquet
- alcohol wipes
- adhesive tape

512. Which of the following minimizes electrolyte balance problems and cardiac insufficiency following a
barium enema?
- mixing barium with normal saline solution
- decreasing the barium solution temperature
- hydrating patients well prior to examination

513.Toward what landmark should enema tip be directed as it is inserted into the anus?
- Symphysis pubis

514. Within what period of timer do most reaction to iodinated contrast media occur?
- 15 to 30 minutes

515. Which of the following patients require priority over other patient for examination of the gastrointestinal
system?
- pediatric
- geriatric
516. What is cathartic?
- A laxative

517. Which describe a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram?

- a long, thin needle is used
- insertion is through the liver into the biliary ducts
- peritonitis is a potential side effect

518. Which of the following is a common cause of spasm of the colon during an enema?
- when 200 to 400 ml have been administered

519. What is the most appropriate action if resistance is encountered when inserting an enema
tip for a barium enema?
- Retract the tip and try from different angle until the tip has been Inserted completely

520. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of cleansing the bowel for a barium
enema?
- Bismuth laxative

521. Which organs can be examined with iodinated contrast media?

- gallbladder
- kidneys

522. Why is fluid run to an enema tip to inserting at in the rectum?

- Air left in the tubing will slow the flow of fluid

523. What is the most common route of administration of contrast media for a cystogram?
- Urinary catheter

524. Why should geriatric patients be advised to increase fluid intake following a barium enema
examination?
- barium absorbs fluid from the bowel
- barium may solidify into an impaction
- barium becomes toxic if not flushed from the bowel within 48 hours

525. The patient bill of rights provides for:

- informed patient consent
- patient refusal of any exam
526. The doctrine that provides for care when the patient is unconscious is;
-Implied consent

527. Informed consent requires that:

- the patient must be mentally competent and legal age
- consent must be offered voluntarily
- the patient must be adequately informed using language he or she understands

528. The first step to take when transferring ( moving ) a patient is to:
- Check the patient ID band

529. Which of the following is NOT part proper body mechanics ?

- Lift with the strong muscles of the back

530. When moving a patient involves a wheelchair or cart, what is the first thing to Double- check after
verifying patient ID?
- That the breaks are applied

531. Before moving a patient the radiographer should assess which of the following :
- the patient's ability
- the presence of nausea
- the presence of sensitive or thin skin

532. Which of the following kinds of infection transmission occurs secondary to touching
- Contact transmission

533. Which of the following types of infection transmission occur from animal to carrier?
- Vector borne transmission
534. Which of the following types of infection transmission occur via coughing or sneezing?
- Droplet transmission

535. What is usually used to perform medical asepsis?

- Water and chemical

536. What includes complete sterilization of equipment and the appropriate skin preparation?
- Surgical asepsis
537. The process used to open sterile packs is called:
- Sterile technique

538. Which of the following is NOT true concerning sterile fields?

- Touch the inner surface to make sure it is smooth and ready for sterile
instruments

539. Sterile objects or fields touched by non sterile objects or persons :

- Are immediately contaminated

540. If you suspect an object is contaminated assume:

- That it is contaminated

541. Damp objects are assumed to be:

- Contaminated

542. What is the first step to be performed when gloving?

- Wash hands thoroughly

543. After donning sterile gloves, the hands must be placed

- In front of the body without touching anything

544. Airborne precautions require the use of:

- gowns
- masks
- standard precaution

545. Droplet precautions require the use of

- Masks
- Standards precaution

546. Contact precautions require use of

- Gowns and gloves
- Masks
- Standard precautions

547. When mobile radiography is performed in isolation, the cassette:

- Is placed in a protective
548. When wearing a protective cap for isolation:
- All hair should be tucked inside

549. When wearing a mask in isolation:

- Cover both the nose and the mouth

550. When you are leaving the patient's room in isolation, attire should be :
- Removed carefully and disposed of as required

551. Before the portable x-ray machine is returned it to the radiology department or storage
area, I must be
- Cleaned thoroughly

552.When ready to leaving the patient who is in isolation, what must be done?
- Wash hands and use paper towels to touch the faucet handles, if equipped the handles

553. Assessment of changing patient conditions during radiography is responsibility of the

- Radiographer

554. Assessment of patient conditions may be done observing:

- Changes is skin color to cyanotic or waxen pallor
- Cyanosis of lips or nail beds
- Skin temperature and moisture

555. An area of the patient that may turn cyanotic is (are) :

- Lips nail
- Nail beds

556. Normal adult oral temperature

- 98-99° F

557. A pulse of more than 100 beats per minute is indicate of:
- Tachycardia

558. A pulse of less than 60 beats per minute is indicative of:

- Bradycardia
559. Systolic blood pressure measures:
- Heart at rest

560. Diastolic blood pressure measures:

- Pumping action

561. Diastolic pressure greater than 90 mm Hg indicates some level of:

- Hypertension

562. Diastolic blood pressure less than 50 mm Hg indicates some level of:
- Shock

563. What is administered at 3 to 5 L per minute

- Oxygen

564. If the radiographer is working alone and the patient requires CPR, what is the first step to be performed?
- Call for help before beginning

565. Cessation of heart function is called:

- Cardiac arrest

566. In the event of cardiac arrest what must be done immediately?

- Commence CPR

567. Possible cause of respiratory arrest include:

- upper respiratory tract swelling
- failure of CNS
- choking

568. In the event of respiratory arrest, the radiographer must be aware of the location of a (n):
- Tracheotomy tray

569. Respiratory arrest secondary to choking necessities the use of

- Suction
- Th Heimlich maneuver

570. A type of shock that may follow injection of iodinated contrast media is:
- Anaphylactic
571. Symptoms of shock may include:
- Dyspnea
- Accelerated pulse
- Alteration in ability to think

572. Into what position should the radiographer place the patient who goes into shock?
- Trendelenburg

573. When initiating treatment for a patient who is in shock, after calling for help what should the
radiographer do?
- Determine blood pressure
- Administer oxygen
- Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position

574. Mechanical respiratory is called:

- Ventilators

575. Urinary tract infections are the number one cause of:
- Nosocomial infection

576. Barium sulfate is a (n)

- Inert salt

577. Nonionic means

- Does not contain free ion in solution
578. Flushing, hives and nausea may be symptoms of what type of reaction to iodinated
contrast media?
- Anaphylactic

579. Hypotension, tachycardia, and cardiac arrest may be symptoms of what type of reaction to iodinated
contrast media?
- Cardiovascular

580. Patient anxiety or suggestions of possible reactions described during the informed consent process may
be symptoms of what type of reaction to iodinated contrast media?
- Psychogenic
581. A reaction to iodinated contrast agents may be:
- Sneezing
- Itching
- Hoarseness

582. The gauge of hypovolemic needle indicated its:

- Diameter

583. Which of the following is not a branch of the aorta?

- Right common carotid artery

584. Which of the following suffixes referred to as "pain"?

- Dynia

585. What is the largest and longest of the human body?

- Sciatic

586. Which of the following term refers to a process of " pruning or cutting of ?
- Amputation

587. Which bone is the pterygoid process associated with ?

- Sphenoid

588. Which of the following term describes an irregularity in the heartbeat?

- Arrhythmia

589. Which of the following is not a part of an intervertebral joint?

- Synovial fluid

590. Which of the following term refers to a painful digestion?

- Dyspepsia

591. Which substance, collection in the radiology department, and assayed in the laboratory?
- Renin

592. Which of the following term pertains to a "fox mange" ?

- Alopecia ( hair loss)
593. Which of the following refers to the inflammation of the covering of the brain or spinal cord?
- Meningitis

594. Which of the following refers to the dilation of the renal calyx?
- Cali ectasia

595. What is syncope?

- Fainting

596. Which of the following term is a chronic superficial of the skin characterized by redness
oozing crushing and scaling?
- Eczema

597. What is Cystitis?

- Inflammation of the Urinary Bladder

598. What is meningocele?

- A protrusion of the meninges through a defect

599. Which of the following refers to the vomiting of blood?

- Hematemesis

600. Which of the following would describe an ambulatory patient?

- One that is able to walk