PATIENT CARE AND MANAGEMENT, HUMAN 9.

Which of the following structures is often

ANATOMY, MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY, referred to as “abdominal policeman”?
ADMINISTRATION, ETHICS AND JURISPRUDENCE
-Greater omentum
1. The three fat pads is associates to the elbow
10. most of the reabsorption of water occurs in
are:
what structure ? ASCENDING COLON
-supinator fat pad.
11. All of the structures provides boundaries in
-posterior fat pad the pelvic inlet except ? INFERIOR RAMUS OF
THE PUBIS
2. What is NOT part of the branch of right
coronary artery. -circumflex 12. The oocyte is release in the ovaries and
fertilized mostly in what area ? AMPULLA
3. The anterior interventricular artery is a branch
of -left coronary artery 13. Which of the ff. major joint is the most
frequently injured:
4. During the ejection in the cardiac cycle, the
atrioventricular valve is ________ and the - ankle
semilunar valve is _______.
14. Which is the separation bone:
-Close, open
-inferior nasal concha
5. Arrange the following structure in the correct
15. Which of the following best describe the
order as air passes through them travelling from
lambda:
the bronchi
- point of the calvaria junction of the sagittal and
1. Alveolar duct
lambdoidal sutures
2. Alveolus
16.) Which is NOT a distinctive characteristic of
3. Respiratory Bronchiole typical cervical vertebrae?

4. Terminal Bronchiole — Articular process contains a superior facet that

is directed inferoanteriorly
-3412
17.) Which of the following is true regarding the
6. The three connective tissue covering and
intervertebral disk between C1 and C2?
protecting the CNS structure are collectively
called — There is no intervertebral disk between C1 and
C2
- Meninges
18.) Which of the following is correct?
7. What structure detects the amount of stretch
and tension in skeletal muscles, tendons and — Spinal cord is enlarged in the lumbosacral
joints? region for the innervation of the lower limbs

-Pressure receptors 19. Best of describe kyphosis? - results from

developmental anomaly and as well as from
8. Which of the following structures is located in
osteoporosis
the posterior mediastinum?

-Right coronary artery

20. Characteristic of lordosis? - anterior rotation 32. Which of the following is carrying highly
of pelvis. oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

21. Best describe of scoliosis? -asymmetrical *Pulmonary veins

weakening of intrinsic back muscle
33. Which of the folloqing structures is located
22. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in posterior to the mediastinum?
respect to the ulna and radius.
*Azygous vein
-The Ulnar styloid process is much larger than the
34. All of the following statements concerning
Radial styloid process and extends farther
the pericardium are true except?
laterally
* the fibrous pericardium is connected to the
23. Which of the following describes the order
sternum through the pericardiocophrenic
of the distal rows of carpal from lateral to
ligament
medial.
35. All of the following statements concerning
- Trapezium, Trapezoid, Capitate,Hamate
the sinoatrial node are true except?
24. Which of the following is TRUE in respect to
* It is located near the superior end of sulcus
the acromioclavicular joint.
terminalis
- when dislocated, it is often offered to as "
36. All of the following statements concerning
separated shoulder"
the sinotrial node are true except?
25. Which of the following is true in respect to
* it is avascular
the clavicle
37.) which of the following is incorrect
I- clavicle varies in shape other than most of the
long bones. Ans. When the patient is supine the aortic arch
lies superiorly to the transverse thoracic plane
II- Right clavicle is stronger than the left and is
usually small. 38.) which does NOT likely contributes to chest
pain
Ans- I and II
Ans. Thyroid disorders
26. All carpometacarpal and interphalangeal
joints have a plane of synovial joints except 39.) proponent of this management theory
believes that productivity is increase if the
Ans-Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb
workers receive proper training and instructions,
27. A patient receives a knife wound to the working condition is improve and better work
axilla. What problem do you except? method is introduce

-Paralysis to the coracobrachial, biceps and Ans. Scientific Management Theory

brachial
40. proponent in this manangement theory,
31. Which of tje following is the basic unit of organization with hierarchical structure is more
structure for the gas exchange of lung? effecient and effective. -BUEAUCRATIC
ORGANIZATIONAL THEORY
*Alveoli
Which of the following constitutes to the 50. A type of aphorical organizational model
motivational theory? -PERSON SHALL BE which stresses open communication,
APPOINTED OF MERIT independent judgement and self reputation

41. according to this management theory, —free form

human factors such as giving special care,
51. A type of organization chart which defines
attention to workers, recognize the efforts,
the relationship between and among the
increases productivity. -BEHAVIORAL THEORY
different levels in an organization— Vertical
43. A management principle that states a Structure
manager should be able to give orders so that
58. Which of the physiological organization
they can get things done.
fucus in the performance and interaction of the
*Unity of command people organization

42. according to this motivational theory, -Behavioral organization.

average person is ingerently lazy, therefore the
59. Which management physiological
task of the manager is to exercise strict control. -
organization with hierarchical structure are most
THEORY X
effective and effecient.
45. What type of leader is characterized as task-
-Bureaucracy
focused?
60. Which of the following outling the purpose
*Autocratic leadership style
of organization chart.
46. Which of the ff is/are characteristics of
•Used for policy making and planning
Laissez-faire leader?
•Used to evaulate the strength and weaknesses
Ans: Abstain from leading staff
of the present structure
47. A principle in organization that allows some
•Used to orient the new people of the
amount of participation among lower level
organization.
managers
1,2, 3
Ans: Delegation of authority
52. According to the organizational philosophy
48. Which of the ff is/are characteristics of
of management theory, an average person is
Participative leader?
naturally lazy and this does not exclude the
Ans: Helper who belongs to the group healthcare workers. In this case, what should thr
chief of the department do in order to maintain
49. The principle management which states that
quality care for the patients? -Strict guidelines
each employee must receive his/her instruction
has to be followed by the immediate supervisor
about a particular operation from only one
to ensure the delivery of quality health care
command?
services.
— Unity of Command
53. Which of the following constitutes
Behavioral School of Management Theory -
proposes the "Hawthorne" effect
54. Which of the following constitutes
Bureaucratic Organizational Theory? - People
shall be appointed by merit
55. Fundamental principles that constitute
scientific management include:
1. The scientific education and development of
the worker
2. The intimate, friendly relationship between
management and labor.
3. The development of a true science of
management.
1, 2, and 3.
56. Which of the following constitutes the
concept of modern management theory?
Managing is not a personal talent but a skill.
57. This management philosophy views the
organization as a self contained unit that
interacts within and its environment in a
continuous process of interchange and renewal?
System theory.
58. Which of the management philosophy
focuses on the performance and behavior of the
employee in an organization.- Organizational
behavior
59. Which of the management philosophy
believes that organization that has hierarchical
structure are most effective and efficient-
Bureaucracy
60. Which of the following outlines the purpose
of organizational chart.
-used in policy making and planning
–used in the evaluation of strength and
weaknesses of the current structure
-used to orient new staff in the organization
61. What kind of organization is most effective if
managers desire better coordination and
effective communication.
Ans. Tall chart
62. What organizational chart, places the
manager in top, wide control.
Ans.horizontal
63. What is the great point having flat chart in
organization.
Ans. Communication becomes easier, simple and
fast, minimize distortion of messages.
64. Which of the following is a good of point of a
tall chart in an organization?
answer: Clear definition relationship among the
different level of organization
65. Characterized as minimal participation of the
manager in decision making.
answer: permissive
66. Which of the following is a good point of a
flat chart in an organization.
answer: shows outward flow of formal authority
resulting to minimize implications of positions
67) Which of the following are the concepts of
democratic leadership style? Ans: Togetherness
is emphasized in the group, workers are to feel
that they are important contributor, group
organizer
68. Which of the ff. is/are characteristics of
Autocratic Leader?
1. Firm, insisted, self-assured, denominating and
self-centered
2. Try to listen suggestions that may not be
necessary influenced
-1&2
70. What is the basic law and fundamental
activity of management process?
- Planning
71. Which of the ff. is/are characteristics of
Autocratic Leader?
1. Firm, insisted, self-assured, denominating and
self-centered
2. Try to listen suggestions that may not be
necessary influenced
-1&2
72. Management process that dealt with
organizing:
- Group of activities for the purpose of achieving
objectives
73. A principle in an organization that allows
some participation among lower level of
managers:
- delegation of authority
74. Which of the following is/are character(s) of
Passive leader?
- abstinence from leading staffs
75. A principle in management which states that
each employees must receive his or her
instruction about the operation from only one
person.
- unity of command
76. Out of necessity, the physician decides for
treatment and procedure to the patient and
announces it to other personnel who is expected
to carry out the order. What type of leadership
does the physician have? -AUTOCRATIC
77. He identified the 14 management principles
and he believes that scientific forecasting and
proper method of management, satisfactory is
incresed. -HENRI FAYOL
78. Which of the following describes res ipsa
liquitor? -A PATIENT WENT TO THE HOSPITAL
HAVING KIDNEY STONES AND ENDED UP HAVING
AN APPENDECTOMY PROCEDURE, THE THING
SPEAKS FOR ITSELF
82. A branch of medical science which deals with
radiation for diagnosis, treatment and research:
RADIOLOGY
83. A successful examinee shall be required to
take the oaths before the board or any person
authorized by the board prior to practice as
Radiologic Technologist/ X-ray technologist. This
section is: Section 23
84. The patient understands the reason of
proposed intervention, the benefits and its risk
and agreed to the intervention by signing a:
INFORMED CONSENT
85. In radiologic technology law, section 17,
state that the examinations that will qualify an
individual for registration without examination
are..
3. Examination for chest xray technologist and
proficiency examination for medical radiation
technologist as administered by the department
of health.
Ans. 3 only
86. Refer to the behavior of a professional
person's wrongful act, failure to deliver
professional duties.
Ans. Malpractice.
87. Qualification of the Board.
1. A citizen and a resident of the philippines.
2. Be of good moral character.
4. Atleast 30 years old.
Ans. 124
88. The general use of lead marker except.
Ans. MARKER IS USED FOR DISPLAYS AND
ACCESSORIES
89. Radiograph of medico legal is important
bcoz? Ans. RADIOGRAPH ARE LEGAL
DOCUMENTS
90. What is the legal doctrine that the person
present in a court brings supported documents
such as radiograph? Ans. SUBPOENA DUCES
TECUM
90. Which of the ff. legal doctrines commanding
an individual to present in the court all the
documents such as radiographs
-Subpoena Duces Tecum
91. The patients right include:
1. Right to refuse treatment
2. Right to confidentiality
92. The following are the patient right to
privacy:
1. Patient must be dignity to be preserved
2. Patient must be modesty to be respected
3. Patient must be confidentiality to reserved
97. Whic of the following is liable for light
felonies?
1. Accomplices
2. Principals
*1 and 2
98. It refers to confidentiality and privacy of
facts of patients personal case and pathology.
*Patient secrecy
99. A radiographer divulge information to an
unauthorized person. He is liable of what?
*infringement of privacy
100.) Patient rights includes the following
1. The right to refuse treatment
2. The right of confedentiality
- 1 and 2 only
101.) Which of the following refers the right
patient privacy
1. Patient modesty must be preserve
2. Patient dignity must be respected
3. Patient confidentiality must be respected
-1, 2 and 3
102.) Informed consent is a method that
promotes
-autonomy
103. It is the personal conviction of something
that is absolutely right and wrong in all
situations
-moral
104. The client is advised by the doctor to
undergo chemotherapy. The informed consent
has not yet signed. The client request the
healthcare provider to explain about the side
effects of the medication, lentgh of the
treatment and the prognosis of the disease. The
health care provider honestly answer all the
questions of the client even though he may
choose not to undergo the treatment. The
healthcare provider promotes?
-fidelity
105. The rrt in a unit is caring for several
patients, to distribute the care. The radtech uses
the triage principle due to limited availability of
the resources. He promotes the ethical principle.
and knows that the resources are limited.
-Justice
106. a duty to respect priviledge information is
called
-confidentiality
107. greatest benefit and least harm is a
principle of
-principle of beneficence
108. a _ is an offense against the state
commited or ommited in violation of a public
law
-crime
109. Health care practitioner might be accused
of ________ for promising patients “miracle
cures” or for accepting fees from patient while
using mystic or spiritual powers to heal.
*FRAUD
110. In case of needle stick or sharp injury, what
should the employee do when he/she refuses
vaccination.
*They should write a incident letter
111. ________ of which is an acceptance and
conduct of parties. Expressed rather than words
to create a contract.
*Implied contract
112. A patient who rolls up a sleeve and
introduce of his arm for an injection creating
what type of consent?
- Implied contract
113. Entering an exam room without knocking
and improper use of or breach of confidentiality
of the medical records may be seen as:
- Invasion of privacy
114. Which violation of revocation of certificate
for registration of X-ray/ Radiologic Technology?
A. Final conviction
B. Dishonorable conduct
C. Fraud
- A,B,C
116.enlargement of the heart?
-megalocardio
-cardiomegaly
117.bodily health impared, means weakness and
illness?
-disease
118. A surgeon may have to remove a diseased
portion of the stomach. If the natural
connection is removed, the surgeon must form a
new connection between the stomach and
duodenum. The procedure is called:
Gastroduodenostomy
119. Cardialga means: Pain in the heart
120. Medical terminology for vomiting: Emesis
121. Hypertrophy means overdevelopment.
Troph/o is from the Greek word for:
•Noursihment
122. What medical terminology specifically refer
to a gland? •Aden/o
123. ________ is a glandular tumor. •Adenoma
127. The medical terminology which is
pertaining to between ribs
*Intercostal
124.) Increase fluid in the head causes
herniation at the base of the brain. Herniation of
the brain in medical languange is termed as ?
ENCEPHALOCELE
125.)A condition of softened brain tissue
ENCEPHALOMALACIA
126.)What does arth/o/plast/y means?
SURGICAL REPAIR OF JOINT
128. Movement away from midline
*Abduction
129. Striking or joining together _______.
*Adhesion
130.THE structure that wanders from
Normal Aberration
131. Movement Towards the lateral side
Abduction
132. Movement towards the midline
Adduction
133. Build a term meaning surgical puncture or
tapping the abdomen. Abdominocentesis
134. What is cryptorchism? Condition of a
hidden testes
135. What is the tem referring to the narrowing
of the prepuce? Phimosis
136.) root word is considered as the:
FOUNDATION OF ANY WORD ELEMENT
137.) which refers stomato: MOUTH
138.) which refers to vomiting of blood:
HEMATEMESIS
139.what condition in which the lungs are
collapsed? ans. Atelectasis
140. Which of the following refers fluid in the
abdominal cavity? ans. Ascites
141.what is cystitis? ans. Inflammation of
Urinary bladder
142. What is epistaxis ?
- Nose bleeding
143. A patient is suffering from shallow slow
breathing. this condition is medically termed as
?
- Oligopnea
144. Alopecia is medically termed as ?
-Loss of Hair
145: Which is refer to the accumulation of fluid
in the kidney and pelvicalyceal system.
Ans: Hydronephrosis
146: Which is refer to the inflammation of the
kidney.
Ans: Nephritis
147: A process of bone has never been
separated from the bone where it is part
Ans: apophysis
148. Medical Terminology "vesico-" means
ans: Urinary Bladder
149. Osseous material exuded around the
fragments of the broken bone, ultimately
converts into true bone
ans: Callus
150. Curvature of the spine with convexity
forward
ans: Lordosis
151. Sagging of an organ from normal position?
Ptosis
152.constriction of lumen or opening of canal?
Stenosis
153. The disease begin during fetal
characterized by obliterate medullary space,
dark oessous density and sclerosis.
Osteopotrosis
154. It is termed as blood clot, when formed,
progress into the bloodstream- embolism
155. Inflammation of the gallbladder is medically
termed as - cholecystitis
156. Which indication is the Inflammation of
serous membrane that covers the lung and lines
the wall of thoracic cavity- Pleurisy
157. Which of the ff is a correct step by step
process in responding to unconscious victim?
1.patient's airwayd should be open
2. Begin external chest compression
3 give 2 full breaths of mouth to mouth rescue
breathing
Ans. 1 2 3
158. A sphygmomanometer is used to
Ans. Measure blood pressure
159. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg reveals
that
Ans. A pressure of 80 mm Hg when the heart is at
rest
160. Which of the following contains all of the
instruments and medication necessary for
cardiac arrest? Crash cart
161. Which the following describes hypovolemic
shock? Cause by a loss of large amount of blood
or plasma
162. Which of the following describes
neurogenic shock? Cause of blood to pool in the
peripheral vessels
163. Which correctly describes the cause of
cardiogenic shock?
* CAUSED BY AN INTERFERENCE WITH THE
HEART FUNCTION
164. Which correctly describes the cause of
septic shock?
* OCCURS AFTER INJECTION OF IODINATED
CONTRAST AGENT
165. A patient shows accelerated rate, cool,
clammy, pale skin and a systolic pressure of less
than 30 mmHg. The patient is suffering from
* SHOCK
166. What should the radiographer do first
when it is suspected a patient is going into shock
-call for assistance
167. A patient who has sustained head injury of
a motor vehicle accident arrived at the radiology
department alert and well oriented. While
radiographing the patient, the radiographer
observed that the patient was becoming drowsy,
irritable and less coherent. Which of the
following would be the correct action of the
radiographer? -Notify the department supervisor
or the attending physician of the change in the
patient’s condition.
168. What degree of reaction is cardiac arrest?
Severe reaction to contrast agent
169. A document that medical history, that the
patient may start prior to incapacitance? —
ADVANCED DIRECTIVE
170. Formal term “no code” —DO NOT
RECUCSITATE ORDER
171. Needles and syringe must be disposed? –
UNCAPPED
175. W/c of the ff. Is used to restore normal
heartbeat?
*DEFIBRILLATOR
176. The abnormal accumulation of air in the
pulmonary tissue, resulting in over distention of
pulmonary alveolar spaces?
*EMPHYSEMA
177. What condition of pulmonary alveoli loses
elasticity and became permanently inflated
causing patient to consciously exhale?
*EMPHYSEMA
* left ventricle; systemic circuit
185. Freshly oxygenated blood enters the heart
through the _______, and is pumped out the
_______,

178. Which of the following are cinsidered to be * left atrium; aorta

bloodborne pathogens?
186. Someone suffering a heart attack in the
1. HIV anterior lower right ventricle probably has a
blockage in which coronary artery?
2. Hepatitis B
* anterior interventricular artery
- 1 and 2
187. When do the AV Valves Close during
172. Causing a px to become apprehend of
cardiac cycle ?
being injured ANS. Assault
* When the Ventricular Pressure exceeds that of
173. Bradycardia indicates a pulse of:
the atria
ANS. lower than 60 beats per min.
188.Chemical digestion of foods include?
174. What instruments is used to administer
*Hydrolysis reaction in the Small Intestine
oxygen through the nose
189. The GallBladder
ANS. Nasal Cannula
* Store Bile
179. What capabilities have been lost by a
paraplegic patient? 193. Blood is drained from the liver by:

- the lower part of the body is paralyzed • Hepatic vein

180. Which of the following is the proper way of 194. A convertion of amino acids to glocuse is an
cleaning the perineal area in order to prevent example of?
UTI?
•Gluconeogenesis
- wipe the perineal area from front to back
195.The major function of the large intestine is
181. Dual purpose lining and the outer most to
layer of the heart
*remove waste material
- visceral pericardium(epicardium )
195. Which of the ff. cell types is responsible for
182. Layer of the heart that smooth and act as the skeletal muscle regeneration?
protective lining of the chamber and valve
• Satellite cell
-endocardium
196.Which of the ff. Is true of the appendix
183. Bicuspid valve is located ?
* it typically contains almost no capillarue.
- at the left side of the heart
197. What differentiate the rectum to colon.
184. The ______ has the thickest wall because it
*Lacks of tiniae coli.
leads to _______
198.Paneth cells is the responsible for the
production of
*Lysozyme
199. In skeletal muscle, a triad refers to which of
the ff
- A T tubule sanwiched between 2 dilated
sacroplasmic reticulum
200. Which of the ff does not describe skeletal
muscle fiber
- branched
201. Which of the ff is part of neurons
- dendrites, axon and cell body
202. A dendrite conducts nerve impulse ___ the
cell body. Ans towards
203. A axon conducts nerve impulse ____ the
cell body. Ans away from
204. Neuroglial cells support and provides
nutrients for the ____ ans neurons
208. The human ovum and spermatozoon is
similar in that. Ans. THEY HAVE THE SAME
NUMBER OF CHROMOSOME.
209. spermatogenesis involves. Ans.
TRANSFORMATION OF SPERMATIDS INTO
SPERMATOZOA
210. In the early and middle fetal life. The testes
is located in the? Ans. ABDOMINAL CAVITY
211. Inflammation of seminiferous tubules -
PRODUCE SPERMATOZOA
212. Mitochondria on mature sperm cell -BODY
(MIDDLE PIECE) OF SPERM
213. movement of spermatozoa from
epididymal duct and seminal fluid to ejaculation
duct and urethra are called and controlled by -
EMISSION/SYMPATHETIC
214- prostaglandins are thought to
*stimulate the vestibular(bartholins) gland to
produce mucus
215 - cell types that synthesizes organic
component of cartilage matrix
*chondrocytes
216-hormone acts as stimulant to osteoclasts
activity and bone resorption
*Parathyroid hormone
217. What statement about bone is TRUE?
-Bone is a dynamic tissue that changes in
response to hormonal demands
218. What is NOT true about the characteristic
of bone tissue?
-Lacunae that contain 2-4 cells each
220. Organic components of bone matrix is
produced by *osteoblasts
221. Which of the following is true about
osteoblasts *osteoblasts respond to parathyroid
hormones
222. Renal medulla is composed of tissue called
*renal pyramids
223. Juxtaglomerular is combine with ______
cells to form juxtaglomerular apparatus in the
kidney?
ANSWER : MACULA DENSA
224. Which of the following is not a sequence of
the proper blood flow of the kidney? the starting
point is the renal artery and the finishing point is
the renal vein.
answer: INTERLOBAR VEIN
225. it is found in the highest concentration of
the urine?
answer: Urea
226. The primary function of the ascending
loops of henla in the kidney?
answer: the reabsorption of chloride ion
227. The middle layer of the urinary bladder is
- Submucous coat
228. The micturition reflex center is located at
-Sacral Plexus
229. Which of the following statements would
be true regarding tracheostomy patients
1. Tracheostomy patients have difficulty in
speaking
3. Audible rattling sound indicate the need for
suction.
230. The pain that an individual experiences in
the coronary artery due to not sufficient blood
supplied to the heart.
-Angina Pectoris
231. Oophora is commonly known as: CERVIX
231. Which of the following is(are) symptom(s)
of shock?
1. Pallor & Weakness
2. Increased pulse rate
-Ans. 1 and 2
232. The anatomical term for the chin: MENTAL
232. An intravenous urogram requires a patient
to remain in one position for an extended period
of time. What can be done to make the patient
as comfortable as possible.
1. Place a pillow under the patient's head
2. Place a support cushion under the patient's
knee to relieve back strain
-Ans. 1 and 2 only
233. Blood pressure may be expressed 120/95.
What does 95 represent?
1. The phase relaxation of cardiac muscle tissue
3. A higher-than-average diastolic pressure
-Ans. 1 and 3 only
233. Which of the following is proper from
singular to plural: LITHIASES-LITHIASIS
234. The condition of absence of urine: ANURIA
234. What is the important considerations of
radiologic technologist when working with
geriatric patients?
1. There is an increased pain threshold and
breakdown of skin
2. Atrophy of fat pads and sweat glands
-Ans. 1 and 2 only
240. A successful communication should start
with:
- Patient's name verification by the healthcare
241. The secondary verification for patient:
- ask her/his birthday
242. The following are the cause of fever:
1. Malaise
2. Tachycardia
3. Tachypnea
-1,2,3a•
243. The frequent litigation in radiology involves
1. A patient with spinal injury is moved
from stretcher to the x-ray table resulting to
irreversible damage to the spinal cord
2. A radiographer fails to inquire about
possible pregnancy before performing a
radiographic examination
3. A patient had an x-ray examination in the
emergency department and was sent home. The
radiologist interprets the images but fails to
inform the emergency department physician
about the findings. The physician receives a
written report two days later. Meanwhile, the
patient suffers an irreversible damage from an
undiagnosed condition.
— 1, 2, 3
244. Oversized heart or enlarged heart is
medically termed as
1. Megalocardio
2. Cardiomegaly
— 1 and 2
245. A surgeon must remove a portion of a
diseased stomach. If the natural connection is
removed, the surgeon must form a new opening
between the stomach and duodenum. This
procedure is called?
— Gastroduodenostomy
246. Cardialgia means?
— Pain in the heart
247. Troph comes from the Greek word? -
nourishment
248. Medical term for glandular tissue? -Adeno
249. Toward the midline? -adduction
250. Alopecia? Loss of hair
251. What is cryptochism?
- condition of a hidden testes
252. Which of the ff. reffering to the narrowing
prepuce.
-Phismosis
253. Qualification of the Board Member must be
a:
1.Be a citizen and resident of the Phil.
2.Be a good moral character
3.Be at least 30 yrs. Of age
5.A member of the faculty, Lecturer of
school,college
-1,2,3 5
254. Because of medicolegal
considerations,radiographic image are required
to include all the ff. EXCEPT.
-The Patient's birth date
255.) RRT is caring several clients in his
department, to distribute care. He utilized the
principle of triage due to the limited aviability of
resources. The Radtech contribute which of
ethical principle? Answer: Justice
256. Which of the following auxiliary branch of
radiology that deals with technical radiation?
Ans- Radiologic Technology
257. More benefits and least harm is a principle
of?
Ans- Principle of Beneficience
258. Is an offense against the state in violation
of a public law. Answer: Crime
259. A radtech maybe accused for ____ if he
promises " miracle cure" or accepts fees for
giving mystical or spiritual healing.
-Fraud
260. Which is not an element of contract
-abandonment
261. Classification of Negligence, it is a lawful act
that is done incorrectly.
● Malfeasance
262. Are lawsuits by patient against physician for
errors in diagnosis or treatment.
● Malpractice claims
263. Sometimes called an advance directive, is a
legal document addressed to patient's family
and healthcare providers.
● Living will
267. An ordinary or usual manner of doing or
acting or habitual practice
* habit
268. Who is the chairman of the board?
* the commissioner
269. In the radiologic technology law, section
19: examination requirements states that all
applicants for the exam must satisfy the
requirements, which include
1. Filipino citizen
2. Good moral character
4. No criminal record involving moral turpitude
* 1, 2, and 4
270. A developmental manager encourages his
employees in developing their strengths and
improving their performance. What is the other
term for this management style?
* coaching style
271.)The radiographer's manager most
important communication skill
Ans. Communication skill
272.)Among the 6 management style, which
style has the primary objective of producing long
term direction and vision for employee
Ans. Authoritative
273.)Which is NOT part of code of ethics in
radiologic technology
Ans. Responsibility to Non Profitable Organization
274.)A termes reclusion perpetua is penalties of
crime
Ans. From 20 years and 1 day to 30 years
275. which of the following defines the manager
who practice the pacesetting style of
management? - 1. DO IT MYSELF MANAGER
3.ACCOMPLISHED TASK WITH A HIGH STANDARD
EXCELLENCE (1 and 3.)
276. which of the following includes in the
management process of staffing? -1.
IDENTIFICATION OF TYPE AND NUMBER OF
PERSONNEL 2. SALARY AND SCALLING 3.
RECRUITMENT 4.SELECTION AND APPOINTMENT
277. for the effective implementation, the
radiographer must have an assement skills,
interpersonal skills, psychosocial skills and also -
COMMUNICATION SKILLS
•poor in the production of urine -OLIGURIA
278. 3 articular surface of the calcaneal joins
with the talus. -1. ANTERIOR FACET 2.LATERAL
FACET. (1 and 2only)
280. Which of the following correctly described
the lambdoidal suture?
*A joint between parietal bone and occipital
bone
281. A vertical plane that divides the body into
right and left
*saggital plane.
283. Precise site in gas exchange within the
lungs occurs
Ans: at the alveoli
284. Approximately. What is the maximum
capacity of the GB in storing bile?
Ans: 30 ml
285. Approximately. What is the volume of 297. The bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
infiltrate entering the glomerular capsule each occurs at the level of which of the following
day? structures? Crest of ilium.

Ans: 180 L 298. Digestion mainly occurs in which of the

following structures? Stomach and duodenum.
286. Which of the ff act as filtration apparatus of
the kidney? 299. What is the part of the uterus that
Protudes to the uppermost vagina -cervix
Ans: Glomerular Capsule
300. What structure is the largest accessory
287. In a typical long bone, the spongy bone is
organ in the male reproductive organ -Prostate
called
301. Which of the following correctly applies to
—Diaphysis
genum valgum -tibia is laterally rotated
288. Name the canal that, are communicating
303. Which of the ff is not included in
From the outside of the bone to its internal
epicondyle of the humerus.
central canal
Ans. Great tubercle.
—Volksmann’s (Perforating) Canal
304. Which of the ff is true regarding carpus.
289. Which of the following is not part of the
Ans. The triquetrium articulates proximally, with
process in the Glomerular Capsule
articular disk of radioulnar joint.
— Albumin
305. Syntactyl is. Ans. Abnormal fusion of finger
290. In the serous membrane, the surface area and toes
is called— Visceral Pleura
306. The articular part of the rib tubercle ,
291. Which of the following structures deliver articulates which of the ff structure. Ans.
blood to the left atrium -Pulmonary veins Transverse process

292. It refers to any spaces within the body to 307. Which of the following Statement correctly
help protect, separate and support organs -Body about tricuspid valve?
cavities
answer : chordae tendenae is attached to the
293. The duodenojejunal junction is supported free edges of the cusps
by attachment of whichbof the following
308. Which of the following is not part of a
structures? -Ligament of Treitz
Chest?
294. The main pancreatic duct and the bile duct
answer: clavicle
unite to form -hepatopancreatic ampulla
309. A radiologic technology law, the term of
295. All of the following statements concerning
xrat technology in an section define as?
renal hilum are correct, EXCEPT. It contains the
renal pyramids. answer: An Auxiliary branch of radiology thay
deal with the technical application of xray as aid
296. Which of the following muscles is
in diagnosis of disease and injury.
considered to be the chief muscle of inspiration?
Diaphragm.
310. Which of the following duties of board
radiologic technology as stated in RA 7431.
1. To issue subpoena and subpoena duces tecum
2. To conduct yearly board examination
3. To look, time to time, into condition affecting
the practice of xray and radiologic technology
answer: 1,2 and 3
311) The term commission in ra 7431, definition
of term states that? Ans: Professional Regulatory
Commission created under Presidential decree
number 223
312) Exemption from examination under section
16 of RA 7431
Ans: -Civil Service examination for x-ray tech,
-Examination for the private sector x-ray
technicians.
313. Person fails to give reasonable care to
individual? - negligence
314. health care provider fails to provide
standard of care that may constitute breach of
standard of care? -breach duty
315. Report of ratings defines the condition of
passing examination includes:
- Weighted average of 75% with no rating below
60% in any of the subjects
316. Section 19 of Radiologic Technology law
encompasses:
- Qualification of Examination
317. Which of the following is/are requirements
to qualify for Board Licensure Examination:
2. Filipino Citizen
3. With good moral character
-2&3
318. Radiologic Technologist from other
countries invited for lectures of consultation or
as visiting or exchange professors to colleges or
universities duly recognized by the Government
is exempt from examination according to the
section 17(b) Republic Act 7431:
1. That such Radiologic Technologists are legally
qualified to practice as such in their own state or
country
2. That they shall first secure a special permit
from the Board which shall be valid as the Board
may determine
3. That the privilege granted in this subsection
shall be given only to Radiologic Technologists
from countries giving similar privilege to their
Filipino counterparts.
- 1,2 & 3
319. Requirements for excemption from the
examination of Radiologic technology includes:
- 2. Be of good moral character and has not been
convicted to any crime involving moral turpitude.
3. Passed Civil Service examination for x-ray
technicians with continuous practice of radiologic
technology for 10 years.
(2 & 3)
320. Which of the following circumstances is
punishable by RA 743
-1. Without certificate of registration
2. Using expired license
3. Using as his own the certificate of registration
of another person
(1,2,3)
321. Under Section 6 of Republic act no. 7431.
Creation of board of radiologic technology.
There is hereby created a board of radiologic
technology which shall be composed of:
- 1 chairman and 4 members 335. What does "mastectomy" means

322. The members of the board at the time of Ans. Excision of the breast
his appointment shall have professional practice
336. The Prefix which means "false"
of his own field of profession at least:
Ans. Pseudo
- 10 years
337. A disease caused by failure or imcomplete
323. Accessory of crime is defined in the revised
replacement of the cartilage to bone
penal code as:
Ans. Achondroplasia
1. Profits themselves
338. Which of the following describe the cause
2.Conceals or destroys the body of crime
of anaphylaxis
3.Accessory in the escape of the principal
Ans. Caused by allergic reactions to foreign
criminal
proteins.
-123
340.)Vomiting flushing and nausea are
324. Janine avoid deliberate harm, risk of harm symptoms of what type of contrast agents
and harm accuring in her performance in nurse reaction?
actions. The nurse promotes what ethical
Ans. Local irritating
principle? -BENEFICENCE
341.)The material used to measure blood
325. What limb defect is correctly matched with
pressure.
its definition? -CLEFT HAND (LOBSTER CLAW
DEFORMITY), 3RD METACARPAL IS ABSENT AND II. Sphygmomanometer
FUSION OF 1-2 DIGIT AND 4-5 DIGIT
III. Stethoscope
326. What is a fatty tumor? -LIPOMA
Ans. 2&3
327. The incision into, or temporary opening of
the trachea is termed as: 342.)The patient is experiencing this symptom
orthopnea this would experience least
-tracheoctomy discomfort when the body position is.
328. Skull is termed as: Ans. Fowler
-Cranium 349. The epididymis directed to the sperm into?
ans. Vas deferens
329. Which of the ff. terms best described the
term brain: 350.)the end of vas deferens has dilated sac like
called? Ampulla
-Encephal/o
351. Blood in the face, scalp and in the
-Cerebrum
superficial part of the neck are drained by?
330. The inflammation of the brain is medically
*External Jugular Vein
termed as:

-Encephalitis
352. Inability of left ventricle to pump out blood -Right atrium
is indication of?
363. the central cardiac region is in _ of the
*Congestive heart failure brain

353. Unique system that caries blood directly -medulla oblongata

from instestine to liver instead of Inferior Vena
364. the T wave of an electrocardiogram
Cava.
represents which event
*Hepatic Portal System
-ventricular repolarization
354. Congenital predisposition of a ruptured
365. a heart beat below 60 beats per minute is
aorta.
called
*Marfans Syndrome
-bradycardia
355.) Which membrane closest to heart muscle
366. which of the following is not a function of a
-visceral pericardium liver

356.) A _____ valve lies between right atrium -secretion of digestive enzymes
and right ventricle
367. The dentin in the crown of the tooth is
-tricuspid valve covered by -enamel

357.) A pulmonary semilunar valve prevents 368.pancreatic cell produce?

back flow to the
-glucagon
-right ventricle
369. The cecum is a region of
358.) Aortic seminular valve is to prevent back
*Large intestine
flow to the
370. Which of the following is not a fat-soluble
-left ventricle
vitamin?
359. What structure contains the lowest oxygen
*vitamin C
-Vena cava
371. Calcitonin inhibits:
360. The cardiac output is determined by the
- Osteoclast activity
formula
372. The metabolic effects of epinephrine are
-HR x SV
similar to those of:
361.The first sound of the heart beat is the
- Glucagon
closing of the ______ valve
373. The Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) is release
-Atrioventricular
in response to:
362.The electric initiation of the heart is at the
- Low level of plasma calcium
____of the chamber wall
374. Vitamin D is converted into a hormone that
participates in the regulation of:
- Calcium Activity
379. Which of the following is not a function of
the liver: Storage of Vitamin C
380. The gallbladder: Stores and concentrates
bile
381. The majority of the digested nutrients are
absorbed in the: Jejunum
382. Which of the following sphincters is under
voluntary control:b
383. High doses of antibiotics can destroy
bacterial flora in the large intestine. This can
cause impaired: •Bacterial Coagulation
384. Which structure will thicken in certain
regions of the alimentary canal that forms as
sphincter? •Circular layer of muscularis externa
385. Prime intrinsic salivary glands are: •Parotid,
submandibular, sublingual
386. In the junction between the esophagus and
the stomach, the epithelial layer has abrupt
change from _______ to _______.
•Nonkeratinized stratified squamous; simple
columnar
387.) Histologically, stomach wall is unique
because it contains?
-1 EXTRA LAYER IN ITS EXTERNA MUSCULARIS
388.) The gastric gland cells with its abscence
causes pernicious anemia?
-PARIETAL CELLS
389.)The digestive tube wall which contains the
blood vessels, lymphatic nodules,rich supple of
elastic fibers
-SUBMUCOSA
390.) The tooth structure is?
-A THIN PERIODONTAL LIGAMENT WHICH HOLDS
THE TOOTH IN PLACE
391. Mechanical digestion occur in the _______.
*Stomach
392. Paneth cells are.
*Secrete antibacterial enzymes
393. A baby is admitted into the hospital with a
history of projectile vomiting after each feeding.
On examination, it found that the pyloric
splincter is thickened and does not open readily.
Because of the baby's loss of gastric juice, his
blood probably indicates:
*Ankylosis
394. Which of the gastric cell types synthesizes
and releases gastrin, histamine, cholecystokinin
and serotinin?
*Enteroendocrine cells
396. This hormone decreases blood calcium
level? * Calcitonin
403.) which of the following statement
concerning classical liver lobule is true: BILE
FLOWS FROM CENTER TO THE PERIPHERY OF
THIS LOBULE
404.) intrinsic factor produced by which of the
following cell? PARIETAL CELL
405.) which of the following is a major product
of serous salivary gland secretion?: LYSOZYME
406.) which of the following induced contraction
of gallbladder smooth muscle:
CHOLECYSTOKININ
407. Which of the following is not a component
of gastric juice? ans. Amylase
408. Which of the following pairs of hormone
mainly involved in controlling pancreatic
exocrine secretion? ans. Cholecystokenin,
secretin
413. If i eat a meal of french fries, buttered
toast, ice cream and whole milk which of the
following would secrete the most of enzyme 430. Which portion of the tooth that closely
that is involved in digesting this food. resembles the bone -dentin

- Exocrine Pancreas. 431. Which constrics during breathing to

prevent air from entering the esophagus
414.Chemical protein reduces larger molecule to
simplier compound by the process of. Ans. Inferior constrictor

-Catabolism 432. A hiatal hernia is a weakness of _____

muscle, which allows the digestive tract to enter
415: Protein molecule will be hydrolyzed by
the thoracic cavity.
enzymes secreted in to ?
Ans. Diaphragm
Ans: stomach, pancreas, small intestine
433. The ___ prevents the food from entering
416: Carbohydrates are acted on by?
the small intestine.
Ans: Amylase, maltase, sucrace
Ans. Pyloric valve
417: Selecting the correct enzymes-subtrate
434. Protein is digested or broken down by ____
combination.
in rhe stomach
Ans: Amylase starch
Ans. Pepsin
418: Chief cell in children secrete enzymes that
435. What is the stimuli for the cck release?
curdle milk?
Lipids
Ans: Rennin
436. What blocks the pancreatic secretion from
419. Most of the water you drink is absorbed by entering the duodenum- sphincter of oddi
the
437. Pancreatitis is mainly the result of _____
ans: Colon activity. Trypsin

420. What organ produces the ezyme trypsin 438. The liver stores ____ for energy. Glycogen

ans: Pancreas 422. Which Intestinal Layer accounts for the

action of peristaltic waves
421. Which Gastrointestinal layer is
characterized by having a tough fibrous ans: Muscularis
connective tissue
439. What organ produces and secretes bile?
ans: Serosa
* LIVER
427. Which lymphatic area is most commonly
440. The buildup of bile pigment in the tissue
inflamed -palatine tonsil
that can be cause by gallstones is
428.wisdom tooth is also termed as-third molar
*OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE
429. Which portion of the tooth that lies within
441. Which of the ff is the liver waste product?
the mandibular area-root
*BILIRUBIN
442. The _____ ducts is directly recieves fluid
from the gallbladder.
*Cystic
443. The common bile duct is formed by the
merger of the hepatic and ____duct. -cystic
444. The ampulla of vater is an area where it
joins the common bile duct to the ___duct. -
pancreatic
445. Intercalated disk: -contains desmosomes
and gap junctions
446. Motor units: -consists of motor neurons and
all the muscle fiber it supplies
447. A cell type tissue that is least likely contain
more than one tissue? SMOOTH MUSCLE TISSUE
448. A Muscle tissue that wrapped around
muscle that is continuos in the tendon?
EPIMYSIUM
449. In nerve tissue, neurotransmitter receptor
is located? ON THE MOTOR END
456. Tho hollow organs and some blood vessels
contain this type of muscle tissue?
- smooth
453. A Px is suffering from nerve gas exposure is
given an atropine to counter acetylcoline
effects.
*ATROPINE BLOCKS THE ACETYLCOLINE
RECEPTORS THAT PREVENT LINGERING EXCESS
ACh
454. Which of the ff is NOT TRUE:
* MUSCLE IS USING SKELETON BONE AS
LEVERAGE POINT AS THEY PUSH AGAINST BONE
TO PRODUCE BODY MOVEMENT
455. Skeletal muscle is correctly described by
the ff. EXCEPT
*AUTORHYTHMIC
456. Spermatogenesis is the function of:
SEMINIFEROUS TUBULE
457. Which of the following is unique to cardiac
muscle tissue?
- contains intercalated disks
458. Approximately, what percentage of heat is
generated by muscle tissue?
- 85%
459. The major protein muscle ?
-troponin and tropomyosin
460.action caused by skeletal muscle
- eye movement
461. Does not occur in muscle contraction
- muscle fiber stretch
465.Lack of Achase in the synaptic cleft would
result in
*Excess, continuous of stimulation on muscle
fiber
466. The Toxin curare blocks the Achase
receptor on muscle fiber. would result in
*Inability of the muscle to respond to the motor
neuron stimulus
467. Jogging,swimming and aerobics all this have
effect.
* Increase no. of mitochondria per muscle cell.
468. Muscular dystrophy is congenital disorder
that characterized by?
-Skeletal muscle is degenerated
469. Anabolic steroids have all of these effect
except.
-Increase skeletal muscle production
470. Which of the following statement regarding
aging and muscular system is true.
- Aging is associated with decreased number of
myoglobin muscle
471. Nerve impulses create a charge in voltage
which is measured and can be seen on a(n)
•OSCILLOSCOPE
472. Axoplasms is the
•CYTOPLASMS OF THE AXON
473. A resting potential indicates that the inside
of neuron is ____ to the outside.
•NEGATIVE
474.) Axoplasm is the ______ Answer:
Cytoplasm of the axon
475.) The resting potential indicates that the
inside of the neuron is _____ compared to the
outside. Answer: Negative
476.) The "Sodium - Potassium pump" pumps
______ Answer: Sodium ions out and Potassium
ions in
477. The action potential patterns that appears
oscilloscope speed caused by rapid
- polarity change
478. The action potential measures in millivolts
(mV) and is range of
- -65mv to +45mv
479. With the action potential depolarization of
the axomembrane as the gate open allowing ___
to flow into the axon
- sodium ions
480. As potassium ions moves out of the axons,
a oscilloscope records a ___ ans repolarization
481. A refractory period is ______
ans a brief time when a neuron is unable to
conduct a nerve impulse
482. In humans, a transmission of the nerve
impulse across the synaptic cleft is carried out
by ___ ans neurotransmitter molecule
486. Which of the following enzyme that breaks
down neurotransmitter?
Ans. ACETYLCHOLINESTERASE
487. ____ is the summation of excitatory and
inhibitory signals?
Ans. INTEGRATION
488. Excitatory signals have _____ effect?
Ans. DEPOLARIZING
489. Substance does. It normally pass through
glomerular filtration -ALBUMIN
490. Serous membrane surrounding the lung -
VISCERAL PLEURA
491. delivers blood to left atrium -PULMONARY
VEINS
492- somatic cells contains nerves that control
the
*skeletal system
493-pair of cranial nerves
*12
494- PNS contains mixed nerves that are
*both sensory and motor
498. Brain and spinal cord are protected by
membrane called *meninges
499. The higher processes for learning and
memory are controlled primarily by *cerebrum
500. The *MEDULLA OBLONGATA, centers for
heartbeat, breathing, and blood pressure
501. The medulla oblongata controls reflex 515. A newborn baby girl’s ovaries has ______
centers -Coughing, Vomiting, Sneezing, Hiccup, gamete-producing cells called ______
Swallowing
* 2 million, primary oocytes
502. What is the main function of cerebellum-
516. The onset of menstruation during puberty
muscle coordination
is referred to as
503.Alcohol in liver is metabolized in,
* menarche
Liver where it disrupts glycolysis and kerbs cycle.
517.) During ovarian cycle, ovulation occurs
504.Nicotine in cigarettes:
Ans. During the surge of LH and FSH
Causes excess dopamine where it induce drug
518.) In the menstrual cycle, the menstrual
dependence
phase of menses usually occurs day_____ and
505. The active ingredient in marijuana is___. day_______ of the cycle

-THC or Tetrahydrocannibol from the cannabis Ans. 1 and 5

sativa resin
519. The secretory phase of endometrium
506. The active ingredient in cocaine is____. coordinates with which of the following ovarian
phase? -LUTEAL PHASE
-a plant alkaloid from Erythroxylum cocoa shrub
520. Which following is shed as menses? -THE
507. Cocaine drugs affects the moods interfering
BASAL LAYER
an uptake of ________. DOPAMINE
521. What is the dominant hormone controlling
508. Most people needs drugs to become high ,
the proliferative phase of the uterine
this is called_______. DEPENDENCE
endometrium?
509. Nervous System contributes into a wider
*Estrogen
range of functions. The basic functional unit of
Central Nervous System is ? NEURON 522. A woman with a typical 28-day menstrual
cycle is most likely to get pregnant as a result of
511. Dopamine is an important
sexual intercourse on a day
neurotransmitter. Which disorder or disease is a
result when the neurons in the brain that *12-15
produces dopamine die?
523. The cervix is the portion of Ans: Uterus
— Parkinson’s disease
524. The Female part that is corresponding to
512. Cerebral palsy affects the neurons in which the scrotum of the male Ans: Labia Majora
part of the body?
525. Human Eggs and sperm are similar in that:
— Brain
—they have the same number of chromosomes
513. Genetic disease that cause the Neurons to
526. The testosterone-producing in testes is
wasting time or die? - huntington disease
called
514. Which of the following are not similar to
— Leydig Hormone
male? - urethra
 543. The primary sex organ of the male_____.

527. A testicular cells mostly responsible for 1. Testis 2. Scrotum 3. Epipidymis

blood-testes barrier -sertoli cells
-1,2,3
528. A oocytes surrounded by one layer of
544. The location of the testis during fetus/fetal
squamous follicle-like cells -primordial follicle
life
529. An antrum is characteristic of _________
-retroperitoneal space
follicles. Secondary and Graafian
547. The source of male sex hormone.
530. This rounded region of the uterus superior
to the entrance of the uterine tubes is the? Ans. Interstitial cells
Fundus.
548. Itcontains lysosomal-like structure
533. which of the following is correctly relative
to the female anatomy? Ans. Acrosome

answer : The urethra is more ventral of the 2 555. A process of capacitation usually occurs in
openings vulva the

534. Sertoli cells produce: *in the 5th month of pregnancy

answer: Androgen binding protein 556. The urethra passes through _______ of the
penis
535) Spermatogenesis begins at? Ans
Seminiferous tubule. *corpora spongiunosum

536) Oogenesis begins at? Ans: Ovary 557. Which of the following is not compatible
with penile erection
537. In the 1st phase of menstrual cycle:
-blood leaves erectile tissue
- An oogonia with 20 secondary grows more
enlarge 558. Testosterone is converted into ____ in the
prostate
538. During ovulation, all of the following occur,
EXCEPT: -dihydrotestosterone

- Estrogen production reaches it’s nadir 559. Which of these is not a function of
testosterone?
539. Sertoli cells produce:
*Loss of body hair
- Androgen-Binding Protein (ABP)
560. How many oocytes are there in the ovaries
541. In the first phase of menstruation: of an adult?
-ABOUT 20 SECONDARY OOCYTES BEGIN TO *400,000
ENLARGE
561. Which cell has been fertilized by a sperm
542. During ovulation, all of the following occur cell?
except?
- Secondary oocyte
-ESTROGEN PRODUCTION IS LOW
562. A cell called the ________ is a fertilized cell
- Zygote
563. The largest component of uterus by weight
is - endometrium
564. Which structure corresponds to the
scrotum of male - labia majora
565. Specifically, where are the sperm cells
formed within the testes?: Within the
seminiferous tubules
566. What portion of the sperm cell contains the
23 chromosome: Head
567. Males have a number of accessory organs.
Which one is/are the structure that produces
mucus that contains fructose and
prostaglandins: •seminal vesicles
568. What layer of the uterus is shed once
monthly during menstruation? •Endometrium
569. The term for the human sex organ.
**GONADS
570. THE ___ is considered an extention of
abdominopelvic wall
571. What is the source of female sex steroids?
Ovary
572. Which of the following cell is primary
responsible for bone resorption? Osteoclasts
575. Removal of organic component in the bone
matrix makes the bone - more fragile and readily
breakable
576. Which of the following is found in the
cartilage but not in the bone - chondroitin
577. This cell is located in the bone tissue?
Osteocytes
578. The dense connective tissue covering the
outer surface of the bone diaphysis is known
as_____. Periosteum
579. Which of the following bone that is
considered as a sesamoid bone. -patella
580. The two components of bones are
responsible in hardness and pliability.
* mineralized salts and collagen
581. The fracture in the shaft of a long bone
would be a
-Diaphysis
582. ____carry blood vessels along with a long
axis of the bone.
- Haversian canal
583.) The cell type that maintains previous
formed long bones. Answer: Osteocytes
584. A soft connective tissue membrane
between cranial bone at birth
Ans. fontanels
585. Endochondral and intramembranous is 2
types of mechanisms of
* EMBRYONIC SKELETAL OSSIFICATION
586.Which of the following is NOT a cranial
suture?
-EPIPHYSEAL
587. The 2 pairs tget make up the hard palate
are left and right.ans. palatine and maxillae
590. What is not part of the cranium?
*PALATINE
591. Which of the following is NOT part of axial
skeletal?
- FEMUR
593. The thickened cartilage of the knee that
absorbs conpression is the: MENISCI
595. Which of the ff LEAST likely to require *HCO3
arthroscopic surgery? *Repair of a torn lateral
608.) ADH has which of the following effects in
collateral ligament in the knee.
the distal convoluted tubule?
596. This hormone decreases blood calcium
-INCREASE WATER RE-ABSORPTION
level:
611.) Release of Angiotension II? INCREASE
•Calcitonin
FILTRATION RATE
597 which of the ff describes the characteristic
612.) An effect of diuretic is? DECREASE CARDIAC
of cartilage as it form to other connective tissue
OUTPUT
- lacks of blood vessels
615. The apex of the Renal pyramid is called
598. Fibrocartilage
*RENAL PAPILLA
- is structurally intermediate between dense of
619.juxtaglumerular apparatus that form when
connective tissue and cartilage
___ projection between afferent arteriole and
599.) All of the following facilitate distribution of efferent arteriole next to bowmans capsule
the nutrients and oxygen to the osteocyte
-distal tubule
except
620. Collectively , capillary epithelium ,basement
-bone matrix
membrane ,podocyte form
601. Each if the ff. Statement Q of epiphyseal
plat is correct. Except? -filtration membrane
They are composed of mainly elastic cartilage 623. A triangular area in the Urinary Bladder
between the two ureters posteriorly and urethra
602. Which if the ff conditioning. A poor output
anteriorly is the ?
urine?
*TRIGONE
Oliguria
624. Skeletal muscle that surrounds the urethra
603. The primary function of descending loop of
as it extends to the pelvic floor is the ?
henley in the kidney is.
*EXTERNAL URETHRA SPHINCTER
Ans. reabsorption of water by osmosis
625. Active transport of substances from the
604. Which of the ff is not considered a part of
blood into the nephron is called
male urethra.
-tubular secretion
Ans. Vasapore
626. The movement of substances from the
605. When glucose is found in the urine it is
filtrate back into the blood of the peritubular
called ______.
capillaries is called:
*Glucosuria
- backflow
606. Which of the following is not considered
627. The part of the total cardiac output that
the components of the kidney stones?
passes through the kidneys is called
•PLASMA MEMBRANE
628. Which of these substances normally cannot
pass through the filtration membrane?
• HEMOGLOBIN
629.) Of the infiltrate that enters the nephron,
about what percentage in reabsorbed during
urine formation? Answer: 95%
642. Which of the substances is actively
transported into the filtrate in the proximal and
distal tubule
* H+ IONS
When the tubular lobes exceed to the maximun
tubular, the substance *APPEAR IN THE
URINE

630.) A decreased in plasma protien results in.

Answer: decreased colloid osmotic pressure

631. As filtrates moves through the thin

segment of the descending limb of the loop of
henle, the water moves _________ the nephron
and the solutes moves __________ the nephron
Ans: Out of, Into

632. During tubular reabsorption of the proximal

tubule of the nephron, most of the solutes
moved across the apical movement by
___________ and basal movement by
__________ Ans: Cotransport, Facilitated
diffusion

637. Cotransportation across the apical

membrane of ascending limb of loop of Henley

-K+ ion & Cl-ion

638. Descending tubule and collecting ducts

-ADC

639-all of these compounds are reabsorbed

from the filtrate to the blood except

*penicillin

640- at which location is the osmolality of the

filtrate the highest

*bottom of the loop of henle

641. Renal tubules are ____ permeable in urea

than they are to water. Therefore the urea
concentration in the tubule ___.

*INCREASES