24.

The biceps brachii muscle is innervated by What is the purpose of bile in the small
which nerve? intestine?

Musculocutaneous nerve Fat emulsification

25.Which of the following valves allows blood 33.Which of the following enzymes causes
to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle? contraction of the gall bladder in order to
release bile?
Mitral valve
Cholecystokinin
26.Hypersecretion of growth hormone during
childhood results in which of the following 34.Which of the following support cells
conditions? myelinates the axons of the peripheral nervous
system?
Gigantism, where the individual has normal
face and body proportions in relation to his or Schwann cells
her size
35.Before cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) travels
27.What is the synthesis site for the from the third ventricle into the fourth ventricle,
catecholamines epinephrine and what does it flow through?
norepinephrine?
Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius
Adrenal medulla
36.Which of the following is not a role of the
28.Which one of these adrenal gland structures limbic system?
is incorrectly paired with the hormone(s) it
secretes? Posture and balance

Zona glomerulosa—epinephrine 37.Which cranial nerves originate in the pons?

29.Which of the following is necessary for the V, VI, VII, VIII

development of the testes?
SRY gene product
30.Why are women more prone to urinary tract
infections compared to males?
38.Which of the following accurately describes
a characteristic of fast twitch fibers located
within a muscle?
Fewer mitochondria

They have shorter urethras than men
31.Stratified squamous epithelium can be
found in all of the following except in
the __________.
39.An experimental drug is given to a patient.
The drug is known to inhibit the activity of
acetylcholinesterase. What effect would most
likely be observed in the patient as a result of
this drug?

Stomach Induced muscle contractions

40.A scientist is examining a sample of tissue
taken from a skeletal muscle biopsy. Which of
the following is most likely true of sample?
The cells have well-developed sarcoplasmic
reticulum for storing calcium cations
1.Which of the following activates
muscarinic receptors in parasympathetic
nervous tissue?
Acetylcholine
Which of the following does not release
histamine?
Neutrophil
A 50-year old secretary comes to you
complaining that she feels weak and tired at
the end of the day. She says she has
difficulty driving home from work because
she can’t keep her eyes open. What do you
expect to see on her EMG with repeated
stimulations?

In regards to the the zonal anatomy of the Decreasing amplitude

prostate gland, where do most carcinomas
originate? 9.Which of the following describes the
function of rod cells in vision?
Peripheral zone
Vibrant colors

Which of the following measurements is not
typically taken during a pulmonary function
test (spirometric test)?
Oxygen saturation (O2Sat)
Peripheral motion, especially in low light
situations
10.Why is part of the tidal volume
considered "dead space" volume?

Which disorder is characterized by a chronic It does not take part in gas exchange in the
accumulation of air in the alveoli? lungs

Emphysema 11.If an individual has a blood pH of 6.8,

then they should __________.
5.Name the protein most directly involved
leukocyte rolling during diapedesis. breathe faster to remove excess CO2

Selectins 12.Which of the following is not an effect of

epinephrine on the circulatory system?
6.Which of the following causes edema
during inflammation? Constrict the skeletal muscle arterioles

Increased oncotic pressure in the venules 13.Which of the following statements about

the cardiovascular system is false?
Increased hydrostatic pressure in the
arterioles The pulmonary veins bring back
deoxygenated blood to the heart
If an individual has a stroke volume of 65mL 20. Which cranial nerves carry
and a heart rate of 80 beats per minute, parasympathetic fibers?
then what is this indiviudal's cardiac output? Select the most complete list.

5.2L Trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus

15.What gelatinous material primarily allows 21.Which portion of the brain is responsible
for the compression and torsion forces that for maintaining body temperature and
dictate motion in spinal joints and signaling hunger?
vertebrae?
Hypothalamus
Nucleus pulposus 
22.Which of the following adds the myelin
16.Which of the following types of joints sheath to neurons of the central nervous
exists between the phalanges in your system?
fingers?
Oligodendrocytes
Hinge joints
23.Which of the following correctly follows
17.A rib is an example of a __________ bone.  the passage of matter through the large
intestine?
flat
Cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure,
18.In excitation-contraction coupling in transverse colon, splenic flexure,
skeletal muscle, the calcium released from descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
the smooth endoplasmic reticulum binds to
which of the following? 24.Which of the following blood vessels
carries blood that contains the most
Troponin nutrients?

19.A scientist is studying a type of cell and Portal vein

discovers that this cell uses kinesin to
transport secretory vesicles down long
cytoplasmic extensions. Upon further study,
the vesicles are found to contain the
substance acetylcholine. What is the most
likely classification of this cell?
Efferent (motor) neuron
25.Which structure allows for the conscious
control of holding urine?
External urethral sphincter
Which developmental stage results in the
rise of the three germ layers?

xGastrula
Which male reproductive structure is
responsible for the storage of sperm cells?
Epididymis
28. Which of the following is not a response
due to increased levels of parathyroid
hormone?
Decreased levels of calcium in the blood
29. Which of the following structures is
found in the middle mediastinum?
Heart
30.The pleural cavity contains what organ?
Lungs
31.Which nerve innervates the extensor
muscles of the arm and forearm?
Radial nerve
32.Which artery supplies blood to the
cerebellum and brainstem?
Basilar artery
33.Which of the following make up the
erectile bodies in the penis?
Corpus spongiosum and corpus cavernosum
34. The lateral thickening of the fascia lata
forms what?
Iliotibial (IT) band
35. Which of the following is not generally
considered to be one of the joints of the
ankle?
Cuboid-metatarsal joint
36.Which bone of the skull forms most of
the inferior and posterior faces of the skull?
Occipital
37.A patient has AB positive blood. Which of
the following blood types, if transfused,
would cause agglutination?
None of these
38.Which of the following is not part of the
pelvic girdle?
Femur
39.Which of the following muscles is a
synergist of the biceps brachii?
Brachialis
Which of these muscles is innervated by the
common fibular divison of the sciatic nerve?
Short head of the biceps femoris
1.What is a synonym for anterior?
Ventral
2.Which of the following relationships has
the correct usage of the directional terms?
The face is anterior, while the back of the
neck is posterior
3.The spinous process of the seventh
thoracic vertebrae (T7) sits at what level?
T8
Which of the following is not a bone of the
foot?
Scaphoid
5. Which of the following types of
joints allows the greatest degree of
freedom?
Sinovial joints
6. Which muscles aid in inspiration?
External intercostals
7.What large and flat muscle is responsible
for allowing a person to lower their lips and
jaw downward, but also stretches and
tightens the skin of the neck?
Platysma
8. What is the function of the lateral
pterygoid?
Moves the jaw forward (protraction) and
from side to side
9. Which of the following organs synthesizes
bile?
Liver
10. Which of the following areas of the
brain, if damaged, would cause receptive
aphasia?
Wernicke's area
11. Cushing's disease is caused by which of
the following?
Excess of adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH)
12. An individual has an end diastolic
volume of 120mL, an end systolic volume of
50mL, and a stroke volume of 70mL. He also
has a heart rate of 60 beats per minute.
What is his ejection fraction?
58%
13.The middle, muscular layer of the heart
wall is called the __________.
Myocardium 
14.Which section of the brain controls
unconscious breathing?
The pons
15. Which structure is shared by the
respiratory and digestive systems?
Pharynx
16.Prostaglandins belong to what class of
hormones? 
Eicosanoids 
17. What is the primary target for gastrin?
Gastrointestinal tract and pancreas
18. What is the function of human chorionic
gonadotropin (hCG)?
Stimulates the corpus luteum to make
progesterone
19. Which of the following nephron sections 26. The lungs, liver, stomach, and kidneys
is primarily associated with the absorption are all innervated by which cranial nerve?
of sodium ions and the secretion of
potassium ions? Vagus

Distal convoluted tubule 27. Which of the following describes the

function of cranial nerve (CN) XI?
20. Which of the following is true regarding
the nephron? Head turning, shoulder shrugging
(sternocleidomastoid and trapezius)
All of these
28. When there is decreased oxygen in
21. Which cells are considered circulation, an organ senses this and
lymphocytes?  secretes a hormone. Which organ and what
hormone are in play?
T cells, B cells, natural killer cells 
The kidneys and erythropoietin
22. Which antibody is able to cross the
placenta?  29. Which of the following is true of compact
bone?
IgG 
It contains Haversian systems, which run
23. Jen has been having issues digesting longitudinally within the bone
gluten throughout her life. Her doctors tell
her that she has celiac disease, which is an 30. Which of the following is NOT an
autoimmune disease that is causing her example of a synarthrosis? 
immune system to attack the brush border
of her __________, which then prevents Diarthrosis
absorption and causes illness when she
consumes gluten. 31. In a muscle cell, the H-zone
has __________.
small intestine
thick filaments only
24. What is the primary neurotransmitter in
sympathetic postganglionic neurons? 32.What is the pericardial membrane?

Norepinephrine The tissue that surrounds the heart

25. Which of the following senses uses 33. Which of the following is NOT a function
chemoreceptors in order to send signals to of the liver?
the brain?
Bile storage
Smel

l
34.What spinal tract carries sensory
information about vibrations through the
spinal cord before arriving at the post-
central gyrus of the cerebral cortex?

Dorsal column medial lemniscal pathway

Which of the following hormones is not

produced by the anterior pituitary gland?

Anti-diuretic hormone

36.How are steroid hormones released from

the secretory cell?

Simple diffusion

Skin, hair, and nails are associated

with which biological organ system?

Integumentary

You suspect that your patient has a C5 nerve

root irritation. Which deep tendon reflex
could help you rule in this diagnosis?

Biceps brachii

39.If someone has a drop foot, which nerve

is suspected to be damaged?

Deep fibular nerve

40. What part of the action potential results

in the depolarization of the cell?

Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels

MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY
7) Which of the following terms refers to the
MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY ability to breathe comfortably only when in an
1) The general meaning of "corpus" is best upright position?
described by which of the following?
(A) Apnea
(A) Abdomen (B) Dyspnea
(B) Body (C) Eupnea
(C) Chest (D) Hypercapnia
(D) Head (E) Orthopnea
(E) Trunk 8) Which of the following is the term for
2) Which of the following is the term for an abnormally large breasts in men?
abnormally low white blood cell count?
(A) Gynander
(A) Anemia (B) Gynecomania
(B) Leukemia (C) Gynecomastia
(C) Leukocytosis (D) Gynephobia
(D) Leukopenia (E) Gynoplastics
(E) Leukoplakia 9) Which of the following terms means drainage
3) An area of dead myocardial tissue is best from the nose?
described by which of the following?
(A) Rhinolalia
(A) Angina pectoris (B) Rhinomycosis
(B) Hypertrophy (C) Rhinophyma
(C) An induration (D) Rhinorrhaphy
(D) An infarct (E) Rhinorrhea
(E) Stenosis 10) The combining form "cephal/o" refers to
4) The term "lithiasis" is best described by which which of the following?
of the following?
(A) Abdomen
(A) Constriction of tissue (B) Head
(B) Dissolving (C) Neck
(C) Abnormal condition of stones (D) Ribs
(D) Penetrating a cavity (E) Spine
(E) Stretching of tissue 11) The prefix pertaining to fingernail is which of
5) Menarche refers to which of the following? the following terms?

(A) Beginning of menstruation (A) Odont-

(B) Development of female characteristics (B) Olfact-
(C) End of childhood (C) Omphal-
(D) End of pregnancy (D) Onco-
(E) Primary infertility (E) Onych-

6) Adipose tissue is made of which of the 12) Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as
following? which of the following terms?

(A) Fat cells (A) Colitis

(B) Lymph nodes (B) Fasciitis
(C) Muscles (C) Hidradenitis
(D) Skin (D) Pimelitis
(E) Tendons (E) Rhinitis
13) The prefix meaning outside or outer is which 19) Which of the following suffixes means
of the following? "cutting operation"?

(A) Ana- (A) -ectomy

(B) Dia- (B) -plasty
(C) Epi- (C) -scopy
(D) Exo- (D) -stomy
(E) Peri- (E) -tomy
14) The prefix "brady-" means which of the 20) Which of the following is the CORRECT
following? spelling for the plural of bronchus?

(A) Away from (A) Bronchuses

(B) Downward (B) Bronchii
(C) Irregular (C) Bronchi
(D) Slow (D) Bronchae
(E) Without (E) Broncha
21) Which of the following is the plural form of the
15) The patient's complaint of painful menstrual medical term that means chest?
periods will be documented in the medical record
as which of the following? (A) Alveoli
(B) Apices
(C) Calyces
(A) Amenorrhea (D) Pleurae
(B) Dysmenorrhea (E) Thoraces
(C) Menorrhagia
(D) Menorrhea 22) Which of the following is the medical term for
(E) Metrorrhagia hair loss?

(A) Folliculitis
16) Which of the following suffixes refers to (B) Eczema
eating? (C) Pediculosis
(D) Alopecia
(A) "phagia" (E) Impetigo
(B) "phasia" 23) Which of the following terms is used to
(C) "phonia" describe a lateral curvature of the spine?
(D) "plegia"
(E) "praxia" (A) Kyphosis
(B) Scoliosis
17) Which of the following terms refers to pain?
(C) Osteoporosis
(A) Arthralgia (D) Lordosis
(B) Diplopia (E) Stenosis
(C) Dysplasia 24) Which of the following terms is used to
(D) Hemiplegia describe a condition in which the body produces
(E) Urticaria too much cortisol?
18) Which of the following is the definition for
(A) Gigantism
aphagia?
(B) Myxedema
(A) Extreme thirst (C) Cushing's syndrome
(B) Inability to hear (D) Diabetes insipidus
(C) Inability to swallow (E) Grave's Disease
(D) Loss of hair
(E) Pain free
25) "K" is the chemical symbol for which of the 31) Which of the following is a surgical procedure
following substances? in which a pendulous breast is lifted and fixed to
the chest wall?
(A) Barium
(B) Calcium (A) Mastostomy
(C) Iron (B) Mastotomy
(D) Hydrogen (C) Mastectomy
(E) Potassium (D) Mastopexy
(E) Mesopexy
26. Which of the following is the chemical symbol
for iron? 32) Which of the following is an incision made to
enlarge the opening of the external urethra?
(A) F
(B) Fe (A) Cystotomy
(C) Fr (B) Meatotomy
(D) I (C) Nephrostomy
(E) Ir (D) Pyelostomy
(E) Ureterotomy
27) Which of the following is the term for
reconstruction of the eardrum? 33) Korotkoff sounds are evaluated by which of
the following procedures?
(A) Myringotomy
(B) Otoplasty (A) Counting the apical heartbeat
(C) Stapedectomy (B) Determining the blood pressure
(D) Tympanocentesis (C) Performing ultrasonography
(E) Tympanoplasty (D) Counting the respirations
(E) Evaluating the pulse
28) Colporrhaphy is the repair of which of the
following? 34) Which of the following is a nonsterile
procedure?
(A) Bladder
(B) Intestines (A) Amniocentesis
(C) Spleen (B) Cystoscopy
(D) Uterus (C) Peritoneal dialysis
(E) Vagina (D) Proctosigmoidoscopy
(E) Renal biopsy
29) Which of the following terms describes
surgical fixation of the uterus in a suspended 35) Which of the following is a procedure in
position? which synovial fluid is removed for analysis?

(A) Hysterectomy (A) Apheresis

(B) Hysterodesis (B) Arthrocentesis
(C) Hysteropexy (C) Arthrography
(D) Hysteroscopy (D) Arthroscopy
(E) Hysterotripsy (E) Articulation
30) A pyloromyotomy is performed in which of 36) Which of the following procedures is
the following body systems? indicated when an abnormal growth is identified
on a barium enema X-ray study?
(A) Cardiovascular
(B) Gastrointestinal (A) Arthroscopy
(C) Musculoskeletal (B) Bronchoscopy
(D) Nervous (C) Colonoscopy
(E) Reproductive (D) Cystoscopy
(E) Colposcopy
37) A patient scheduled for 42) A patient who has hypergonadism,
echoencephalography will undergo a study of prolactinoma, and hirsutism will most likely be
which of the following? referred to which of the following specialists?

(A) Abdomen (A) Immunologist

(B) Brain (B) Pathologist
(C) Heart (C) Rheumatologist
(D) Lungs (D) Endocrinologist
(E) Spine (E) Gerontologist

38) Which of the following physicians specializes 43) Polydipsia, polyuria, good appetite with
in treating patients with diseases of the liver? weight loss, and blurred vision are signs and
symptoms of which of the following conditions?
(A) Hematologist
(B) Hepatologist (A) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Nephrologist (B) Gout
(D) Oncologist (C) Hypothyroidism
(E) Rheumatologist (D) Marasmus
(E) Polyposis coli
39) Which of the following branches of medicine
specializes in the study of the musculoskeletal
system?
44) Dysphonia is a common symptom of which of
(A) Gynecology the following conditions?
(B) Nephrology
(C) Orthopedics (A) Iritis
(D) Pediatrics (B) Laryngitis
(E) Urology (C) Pneumonitis
(D) Rhinitis
40) A patient with encephalitis is most likely to be (E) Stomatitis
treated by which of the following specialists?
45) Which of the following is a malignant tumor of
(A) Endocrinologist the eye that is known to be hereditary?
(B) Hematologist
(C) Neurologist (A) Glioblastoma
(D) Oncologist (B) Neuroblastoma
(E) Radiologist (C) Osteosarcoma
(D) Pheochromocytoma
41) A cystoscope is an instrument used most (E) Retinoblastoma
commonly by a specialist in which of the
following? 46) Which of the following are round bacteria that
grow in pairs?
(A) Endocrinology
(B) Gastroenterology (A) Streptococci
(C) Gynecology (B) Diplococci
(D) Radiology (C) Bacilli
(E) Urology] (D) Spirilla
(E) Staphylococci
47) Which of the following words is 9) E
MISSPELLED?
10) B
(A) Adenopathy
(B) Basaphil 11) E
(C) Edematous
(D) Hemopoiesis 12) C
(E) Myeloid
13) D
48) Which of the following medical terms is
spelled CORRECTLY? 14) D

(A) Albumine 15) B

(B) Hemorrhoid
(C) Larinx 16) A
(D) Opthalmology
(E) Amenorrhia 17) A

18) C

19) E

49) Which of the following spellings is 20) C

CORRECT?
21) E
(A) Abecess
(B) Abces 22) D
(C) Abscess
(D) Abscus 23) B
(E) Absess
24) C
50) Which of the following is the CORRECT
spelling for the focusing ability of the eye? 25) E

(A) Accomedation 26) B

(B) Accommodation
(C) Acomodation 27) E
(D) Acommodation
(E) Acommedation 28) E

Answers 29) C
1) B
30) B
2) D 31) D
3) D
32) B
4) C 33) B
5) A
34) D
6) A 35) B
7) E
36) C
8) C
37) B

38) B 4) Which of the following is flexible connective

tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?
39) C
(A) Adipose
40) C (B) Cartilage
(C) Epithelial
41) E (D) Muscle
(E) Nerve
42) D
5) Which of the following allows air to pass into
43) A the lungs?

44) B (A) Aorta

(B) Esophagus
45) E (C) Heart
(D) Pancreas
46) B (E) Trachea

47) B 6) Which of the following is the body cavity that

contains the pituitary gland?
48) B 49.) C 50.)B
(A) Abdominal
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY (B) Cranial
(C) Pleural
1) 1) Which of the following terms describes the (D) Spinal
body's ability to maintain its normal state? (E) Thoracic
7) Which of the following closes and seals off the
(A) Anabolism
lower airway during swallowing?
(B) Catabolism
(C) Tolerance (A) Alveoli
(D) Homeostasis (B) Epiglottis
(E) Metabolism (C) Larynx
2) Which of the following best describes the (D) Uvula
human body's defense mechanism against (E) Vocal cords
environmental bacteria? 8) Which of the following is located beneath the
diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the
(A) Hair in the nose
abdominal cavity?
(B) Mucous membranes
(C) Osteoblasts (A) Appendix
(D) Saliva (B) Duodenum
(E) Tears (C) Gallbladder
3) Which cells in the blood do not have a (D) Pancreas
nucleus? (E) Spleen

(A) Lymphocyte
(B) Monocyte
(C) Erythrocyte
(D) Basophil
(E) Neutrophil
9) Which of the following anatomical regions of 15) Which of the following is a structural, fibrous
abdomen lies just distal to the sternum? protein found in the dermis?

(A) Epigastric (A) Collagen

(B) Hypochondriac (B) Heparin
(C) Hypogastric (C) Lipocyte
(D) Lumbar (D) Melanin
(E) Umbilical (E) Sebum
10) Which of the following cavities are separated
by the diaphragm?
16) A patient has a fracture in which the radius is
(A) Abdominal and pelvic bent but not displaced, and the skin is intact. This
(B) Cranial and spinal type of fracture is known as which of the
(C) Dorsal and ventral following?
(D) Pericardial and pleural
(E) Thoracic and abdominal (A) Closed, greenstick
(B) Complex, comminuted
(C) Compound, transverse
(D) Open, spiral
11) Which of the following terms describes the (E) Simple, pathologic
motion of bending the forearm toward the body?
17) Which of the following is the large bone found
(A) Abduction superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?
(B) Eversion
(C) Flexion (A) Calcaneus
(D) Pronation (B) Femur
(E) Supination (C) Symphysis pubis
(D) Tibia
12) In which of the following positions does a (E) Ulna
patient lie face down?
18) The physician directs the medical assistant to
(A) Dorsal complete a request form for an X-ray study of the
(B) Erect fibula. The procedure will be performed on which
(C) Lateral of the following structures?
(D) Prone
(E) Supine (A) Heel
(B) Lower leg
13) If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which (C) Toes
direction? (D) Thigh
(E) Pelvis
(A) Inward
(B) Outward
(C) Upward
(D) Downward 19) Which of the following is a disorder
characterized by uncontrollable episodes of
14) The anatomic location of the spinal canal is falling asleep during the day?

(A) caudal (A) Dyslexia

(B) dorsal (B) Epilepsy
(C) frontal (C) Hydrocephalus
(D) transverse (D) Narcolepsy
(E) ventral (E) Shingles
20) Which of the following is the point at which an 25) A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the
impulse is transmitted from one neuron to left upper abdomen and requires surgery. Which
another neuron? one of the following organs is most likely to be
involved?
(A) Dendrite
(B) Glial cell (A) Appendix
(C) Nerve center (B) Gallbladder
(D) Synapse (C) Pancreas
(E) Terminal plate (D) Urinary bladder
21) Which of the following controls body (E) Spleen
temperature, sleep, and appetite? 26) Where is the sinoatrial node located?
(A) Adrenal glands (A) Between the left atrium and the left
(B) Hypothalamus ventricle
(C) Pancreas (B) Between the right atrium and the right
(D) Thalamus ventricle
(E) Thyroid gland (C) In the interventricular septum
22) Which of the following cranial nerves is (D) In the upper wall of the left ventricle
related to the sense of smell? (E) In the upper wall of the right atrium
27) Blood flows from the right ventricle of the
(A) Abducens heart into which of the following structures?
(B) Hypoglossal
(C) Olfactory (A) Inferior vena cava
(D) Trochlear (B) Left ventricle
(E) Vagus (C) Pulmonary arteries
23) Which of the following is a substance that (D) Pulmonary veins
aids the transmission of nerve impulses to the (E) Right atrium
muscles? 28) Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by
which of the following structures?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) Cholecystokinin (A) Aorta
(C) Deoxyribose (B) Carotid arteries
(D) Oxytocin (C) Inferior vena cava
(E) Prolactin (D) Pulmonary veins
24) Which of the following best describes the (E) Superior vena cava
location where the carotid pulse can be found? 29) The thoracic cage is a structural unit
important for which of the following functions?
(A) In front of the ears and just above eye
level (A) Alimentation
(B) In the antecubital space (B) Menstruation
(C) In the middle of the groin (C) Mentation
(D) On the anterior side of the neck (D) Respiration
(E) On the medial aspect of the wrist (E) Urination
 (D) Spleen
(E) Stomach
30) Which of the following substances is found in
greater quantity in exhaled air? 36) Which of the following is an accessory organ
of the gastrointestinal system that is responsible
(A) Carbon dioxide for secreting insulin?
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrogen (A) Adrenal gland
(D) Oxygen (B) Gallbladder
(E) Ozone (C) Liver
(D) Pancreas
31) Which of the following allows gas exchange (E) Spleen
in the lungs?

(A) Alveoli
(B) Bronchi 37) Which of the following is the lymphoid organ
(C) Bronchioles that is a reservoir for red blood cells and filters
(D) Capillaries organisms from the blood?
(E) Pleurae
(A) Appendix
32) At which of the following locations does bile (B) Gallbladder
enter the digestive tract? (C) Pancreas
(D) Spleen
(A) Gastroesophageal sphincter (E) Thymus
(B) Duodenum
(C) Ileocecum 38) Which of the following best describes the
(D) Jejunum process whereby the stomach muscles contract
(E) Pyloric sphincter to propel food through the digestive tract?

33) Which of the following structures is part of the (A) Absorption

small intestine? (B) Emulsion
(C) Peristalsis
(A) Ascending colon (D) Regurgitation
(B) Cecum (E) Secretion
(C) Ileum
(D) Sigmoid colon 39) Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon
(E) Transverse colon which of the following nutrients?

34) Which of the following conditions is (A) Starches

characterized by incompetence of the (B) Proteins
esophageal sphincter? (C) Fats
(D) Minerals
(A) Crohn's disease (E) Vitamins
(B) Esophageal varices
(C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease 40) In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures
(D) Pyloric stenosis are most commonly obtained from which of the
(E) Stomatitis following structures?

35) Which of the following organs removes (A) Anus

bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma (B) Bladder
proteins, and is involved with the production of (C) Skin
prothrombin and fibrinogen? (D) Testicle
(E) Urethra
(A) Gallbladder
(B) Kidney
(C) Liver
41) Which of the following describes the cluster 46) Which of the following are mucus-producing
of blood capillaries found in each nephron in the glands located on each side of the vaginal
kidney? opening?

(A) Afferent arteriole (A) Adrenal

(B) Glomerulus (B) Bartholin's
(C) Loop of Henle (C) Bulbourethral
(D) Renal pelvis (D) Corpus luteum
(E) Renal tubule (E) Parotid
42) Which of the following conditions is 47) Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon
characterized by the presence of kidney stones occurs in which of the following structures?
(renal calculi)?
(A) Cervix
(A) Glomerulonephritis (B) Fallopian tube
(B) Interstitial nephritis (C) Ovary
(C) Nephrolithiasis (D) Uterus
(D) Polycystic kidney (E) Vagina
(E) Pyelonephritis
48) Calcium, potassium, and sodium are
classified as which of the following?

43) Which of the following best describes the (A) Androgens

structure that collects urine in the body? (B) Catecholamines
(C) Electrolytes
(A) Bladder (D) Estrogens
(B) Kidney (E) Prostaglandins
(C) Ureter
(D) Urethra
(E) Urethral meatus
44) In men, which of the following structures is
located at the neck of the bladder and surrounds 49) Which of the following is the master gland of
the urethra? the endocrine system?

(A) Epididymis (A) Adrenal

(B) Prostate (B) Pancreas
(C) Scrotum (C) Pineal
(D) Seminal vesicle (D) Pituitary
(E) Vas deferens (E) Thyroid
45) Male hormones are produced by which of the 50) Patients with which of the following diseases
following? are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?

(A) Glans penis (A) Bell's palsy

(B) Prepuce (B) Crohn's disease
(C) Prostate (C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Testes (D) Graves' disease
(E) Vas deferens (E) Pernicious anemia
Answers 29) D

1) D 30) C

2) B 31) A

3) C 32) B

4) B 33) C

5) E 34) C

6) B 35) C

7) B 36) D

8) E 37) D

9) A 38) C

10) E 39) A

11) C 40) E

12) D 41) B

13) B 42) C

14) B 43) A

15) A 44) B

16) A 45) D

17) B 46) B

18) B 47) B 48) C 49.)D 50.) E

19) D

20) D

21) B

22) C

23) A

24) D

25) E

26) E

27) C

28) D