ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

The term "mental" pertains to which of the following? 8. Which facial bone is responsible for the formation
a. Skull of the lateral wall of the orbitals?
b. Chin Palatine bones
c. Navel Nasal bones
d. Ear Zygomatic bones
e. Nose Lacrimal bones
2. Maxillary bones
Which of the following groups of muscles in the leg 9.Which of the following is not found on the scapula?
allows a person to stand on their toes? Coracoid process
Dorsiflexors Glenoid fossa
Inverters Coronoid process
Plantarflexors Supraspinous fossa
Abductors Acromial process
Everters

3.A coronal plane divides the body into __________. 10.Name the suture that connects the parietal bones
ventral and dorsal to the occipital bone.
medial and lateral Sagittal suture
transverse and oblique Metopic suture
superior and inferior Lambdoid suture
left and right Coronal suture
Squamous suture
4. Which of the following is not considered part of the
quadriceps muscle group? 11.Which of the following is not involved in joining a
Biceps femoris rib to the sternum?
Vastus medialis Sternocostal joint
Vastus lateralis Hyaline cartilage
Vastus intermedius Costochondral joint
Rectus femoris Synovial joint
Sternoclavicular joint
5.Which of the following is not a muscle of the rotator 12. Which of the following does not serve an
cuff? endocrine function?
Subscapularis Pancreas
Supraspinatus Heart
Teres major Kidney
Teres minor Liver
Infraspinatus Medulla oblongata
7. Which of the following best describes the primary
curvatures of the spine? 13. What part of the action potential results in the
Cervical and lumbar curvatures depolarization of the cell?
Lumbar and sacral curvatures Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels
Only the thoracic curvature Closing of voltage-gated potassium channels
Cervical and thoracic curvatures Opening of voltage-gated potassium channels
Thoracic and sacral curvatures Closing of voltage-gated sodium channels
7.Which of the following is located adjacent to the
hamate?
Scaphoid
Cuboid
Navicular 14.Which of the following is not a branch of the facial
Capitate nerve (cranial nerve VII)?
First metacarpal Maxillary
Buccal
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Mandibular The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled
Zygomatic
Cervical 1.Which of the following is not a role of the hormone
15. Damage to which nerve results in "winging" of gastrin?
the scapula? Increase pancreatic bicarbonate secretion
Median nerve Increase growth of gastric mucosa
Subscapular nerve Increase gastric acid secretion
Thoracodorsal nerve Increase release of pepsinogen
Long thoracic nerve Increase gastric motility
Axillary nerve 22. Which of the following glands would be most
active in a person with low blood calcium levels?
16.Which of the following does not contain apocrine Pancreas
sweat glands? Pituitary gland
Areola of the breast Parathyroid gland
Fingers Thyroid gland
Axilla Thymus gland
Perianal region 23. Which of the following is not a role of insulin?
Ear canal Increases glycogenolysis
17. Which blood protein is used to maintain the Increases protein synthesis in muscles
osmotic pressure of the blood? Increases triglyceride storage
Hemoglobin Increases cellular uptake of potassium
Fibrinogen Increases glycogen synthesis and storage
Vasopressin
Immunoglobulin 24. How do steroid hormones affect their target
Albumin organs?
They bind to receptors on the cell membrane in order
18. What would happen if the vagus nerve was to be activated, allowing them to directly enter the
detached from the heart? cell
They attach to protein receptors on the cell
The heart's contractions would not be affected membrane
Only one side of the heart would beat They use a second messenger system to elicit an
The heart rate would increase effect on target cells
The heart would stop beating They enter the nucleus and affect the transcription of
The heart would not beat in a steady rhythm genes
They travel to target organs by floating freely in the
19. As the carbon dioxide partial pressure bloodstrea
increases, what will happen to hemoglobin's affinity
for oxygen? 25. A fetal circulatory structure is used in order to
It will decrease take blood from the pulmonary trunk and reroute it to
It depends on the temperature the fetal aorta. What does this structure become after
It will stay the same birth?
It will initially decrease, then increase Fovea ovalis
It will increase Navel
Ligamentum arteriosum
20. What is the inspiratory reserve volume? Fossa ovalis
The additional amount of air that can be forcefully Ligamentum venosum
inhaled following a normal inspiration 26. Which germ layer will develop into the
The amount of air that stays in the lungs following skeletal and muscular systems?\
exhalation Endoderm
The amount of air necessary to completely fill the The skeletal and muscular systems do not arise from
lungs the same germ layer
The total volume of the thoracic cavity Ectoderm
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Epiderm 32. The glomerulus is primarily associated with
Mesoderm which function?
Protein reabsorption
27.What is the purpose of human chorionic Ion reabsorption
gonadotropin (hCG) in the female body? Active transport
Causes menstruation Filtration
Maintains the corpus luteum Secretion
Maintains the placenta 33. Which white blood cell type will notably
Stimulate the corpus albicans increase during allergies and parasitic infections?
Causes ovulation Lymphocytes
Monocytes
28. Which section of the small intestine involves Eosinophils
the greatest amount of chemical digestion? Basophils
Neutrophils
PyloruS
Ileum 34. Which of the following cells plays a key role in
Jejunum both humoral and cell-mediated immunity?
Cecum Cytotoxic T-cell
Duodenum Helper T-cell
Memory B-cell
29. What is the purpose of the bicarbonate ions Plasma cell
released by the pancreas? Basophil
Breaks down proteins
Raises the pH in the stomach 35. What is the role of plasma cells?
Helps separate the chyme They release free antibodies into the blood
Raises acidity in the stomach They present antigens from the blood to helper T-cells
Lowers the acidity in the small intestine for identification
They engulf pathogens in the blood
3 They remain latent in the body, and wait for
30. How does antidiuretic hormone (ADH) affect reinfection in order to release antibodies
the nephron? They cause inflammation by secreting plasma-like
ADH makes the loop of Henle impermeable to water, fluid
concentrating the urine
ADH makes the collecting duct permeable to water, 36.Which of the following cell types synthesizes
concentrating the urine hydroxyapatite?
ADH makes the loop of Henle permeable to water, Common lymphoid progenitor cells
concentrating the urine Osteoclasts
ADH makes the collecting duct impermeable to water, Osteoblasts
concentrating the urine None of these
ADH makes the collecting duct permeable to water, Satellite cells
diluting the urine
37. Which of the following is NOT a function of
31. Which of the following directly stimulates the the skeletal system?
release of aldosterone? Thermoregulation
All of these are functions of the skeletal system
Angiotensin II Hematopoiesis
Vasopressin Support
Renin Mineral storage
Angiotensinogen
Adrenocorticotropic hormone 38.What is the name of the concentric rings formed
by osteoblasts in bone tissue?
Trabeculae
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Canaliculi White fibers
Lamellae
Lacunae Decreased mitochondria
Epiphyses
. What protein must undergo a conformational
39. Erythropoiesis takes place in which section of change so that myosin can be attached to actin?
long bones?
Epiphysis Collagen
Diaphysis
Articular cartilage ATP
Haversian canal
Lacuna Tropomyosin

40. Which of the following sarcomere portions Troponin

does not decrease in length during muscular
contraction? Titin
A band 45. Which of the following statements is true
I band concerning neurotransmitters?
None of these portions decrease during contraction
All of these portions decrease during contraction The neurotransmitters remain attached to the
H zone postsynaptic neuron in order to prevent multiple
binding to a single receptor
41. Which ion is quintessential for muscle
contraction in skeletal muscle, but not in smooth An influx of sodium stimulates the release of
muscle? neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
Calcium
Sodium Neurotransmitters attach to receptors inside the
Potassium postsynaptic neuron
Bicarbonate
Chloride GABA and acetylcholine will have similar effects on
neuron stimulation

Calcium will enter the presynaptic neuron, stimulating

the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic
42. What process releases the myosin head from cleft
actin? 46. Which of the following support cells is
The binding of tropomyosin to actin responsible for phagocytosis of microbes in the
The attachment of calcium to the myosin head central nervous system?
The cleavage of ATP to ADP on the myosin head
The attachment of ATP to the myosin head Astrocytes
The expulsion of ADP and a phosphate from the
myosin head Satellite cells

43. Which of the following statements does not Oligodendrocytes

describe type 2 muscle fibers?
Ependymal cells
Decreased myoglobin content
Microglia
Slow twitch 47. Which of the following is not a property of a
Schwann cell?
Fast twitch
Increases conduction velocity via saltatory conduction
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

All of these are properties of Schwann cells All of these are functions of the hypothalamus

Predominant cell type in white matter Thirst and water balance

Myelinates only a single axon Temperature regulation

Arises from neural crest cells Distributes sensory information to the brain cortex
48. Which of the following statements is true
concerning the absolute refractory period? Regulates hunger
52. Which of the following cranial nerves does not
A larger than normal stimulus is needed in order to help with eye movement?
create an action potential during this time
4. The ciliary muscle is responsible for which
Even the smallest stimulus will create an action function in the eye?
potential during this time
Closing the eyelid
No stimulus can result in an action potential during
this time Varying the size of the pupil

The action potential will proceed, but will take place Moving the eyeball left and right
in the opposite direction, re-stimulating previously
stimulated neurons The shaping of the lens

Sodium channels are still open from a pervious Opening the eyelid
stimulus
CN III - occulomotor nerve
49. Which of the following layers of the meninges
is the innermost layer that lines the cerebral cortex? All of these are involved in eye movement

Subarachnoid mater CN VI - abducens nerve

Pia mater CN V - trigeminal nerve

Arachnoid mater CN IV - trochlear nerv

53. Which of the following cranial nerves (CN) is
Dura mater correctly matched to the cranial nerve name?
50. Which of the following neurotransmitters
generally has an inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic CN XII - glossopharyngeal nerve
neuron?
CN VI - accessory nerve
Norepinephrine
CN I - optic nerve
GABA
Your current choice:
Glutamate CN VII - facial nerve

Serotonin CN V - hypoglossal nerve

Dopamine 54. The ciliary muscle is responsible for which

1. Which of the following is not a function of the function in the eye?
hypothalamus?
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
The shaping of the lens
Postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous
Opening the eyelid system
57. Which group of neurons releases the
Moving the eyeball left and right neurotransmitters epinephrine and norepinephrine?

Varying the size of the pupil Preganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous
system
Closing the eyelid
55. Which section of the ear contains the malleus, Preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous
incus, and stapes bones? system

Inner ear None of these secrete epinephrine or norepinephrine

Pinna Postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic

nervous system
Cochlea chamber
Postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous
Outer ear system
9. An 8-year old boy has difficulty walking, and
Middle ear you notice that although he has really thin thighs, his
56. Which of the following statements is true calves appear to be very well developed. When you
concerning the autonomic nervous system? ask him to stand up and walk for you, you notice that
he leans forward and pushes on his thighs to stand. A
Only the parasympathetic division has signals mutation affecting which protein causes this
originating from the spinal cord condition?

The cranial nerves are considered part of the Huntingtin

autonomic nervous system
Frataxin
Both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
use epinephrine Dystrophin

The autonomic nervous system is voluntarily Actin

controlled
Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are found
closer to the effector than sympathetic postganglionic
neurons
57. Which group of neurons releases the
neurotransmitters epinephrine and norepinephrine?
Preganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous
system
Preganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous
system
None of these secrete epinephrine or norepinephrine
Postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic
nervous system
Troponin
60. Which of the following would indicate
damage to the posterior cruciate ligament?
Enlargement of the femoral epicondyles
Anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the
femur
Posterior displacement of the tibia relative to the
femur
A positive anterior drawer test
Enlargement of the tibial tuberocity
1. Which of the following orientation pairs are
not opposites of one another?
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Glomerular filtration rate will remain the same
Proximal and lateral
The increased osmotic pressure will elevate
Superficial and deep glomerular filtration rate
7. What muscle is responsible for retraction and
Anterior and posterior elevation of the scapula?

Superior and inferior Deltoid

2. If an individual has a blood pH of 6.8, then
they should __________. Trapezius

eat more acidic foods Rhomboid major

breathe faster to intake excess O2 Latissimus dorsi

8. What nerve innervates the coracobrachialis
breathe slower to minimize loss of CO2 muscle?

breathe faster to remove excess CO2 Ulnar nerve

breathe slower to maximize use of O2 Musculocutaneous nerve

4. A spike in the concentration of which of the
following hormones stimulates ovulation in females? Median nerve

Estrogen Radial nerve

9. How many cervical vertebrae are there in the
Progesterone human body?

Follicle-stimulating hormone Four

Luteinizing hormone Five

Testosterone Twelve
5. Which muscle does NOT extend the knee?
Seven
Vastus medialis 10. The crista galli is a part of which skull bone?

Biceps femoris Frontal bone

Vastus lateralis Ethmoid bone

Rectus femoris Sphenoid bone

6. If the efferent arteriole becomes constricted,
what is likely to occur in the nephron? Temporal bone
11. During muscle contraction, which
Glomerular filtration rate will decrease due to a loss in component(s) of the sarcomere shorten(s)?
blood pressure
The A-band only
The increased hydrostatic pressure will elevate
glomerular filtration rate The A-band and H-zone

Fluid backup will cause the nephron to rupture The H-zone and I-band
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
The I-band only 17. Which of the following is not a function of
thyroid hormone?
The H-zone only
13. During an anterior approach to hip Increase blood pressure
replacement, a resident accidentally ligates the lateral
femoral cutaneous nerve. Where would you expect Increase protein synthesis
the patient to have sensory deficits upon waking?
Increase basal metabolic rate
Anterior leg
Stimulate bone growth
Groin area
Stimulate brain maturation
Plantar surface of foot 18. Which of the following hormones is created in
the hypothalamus, then sent to the pituitary gland?
Medial leg
Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Lateral thigh
14. What vertebra do the occipital condyles Your current choice:
attach to in order to allow a nodding motion of the Adrenocorticotropic hormone
head?
Prolactin
Axis
Oxytocin
Sacrum 19. Fertilization typically takes place in which
location?
Atlas
Uterus
Thoracic vertebrae
15. Which of the following lobes of the brain has Ovary
the function of processing auditory input and storing
memory? Vagina

Frontal lobe Fallopian tube

20. The luteal surge is caused by which effect in
Parietal lobe the body?

Occipital lobe A dramatic increase in estradiol

Temporal lobe A dramatic decrease in estradiol

A friend of yours sprained their ankle playing soccer
and is using crutches to get around. She complains of
a pins and needles sensation in her arm. What nerve is
likely being compressed as a result of improperly fit
crutches?
Musculocutaneous nerve
The development of the corpus albicans
A dramatic increase in progesterone
21. Which structure is responsible for bypassing
the fetal liver and taking blood directly to the right
atrium?

Radial nerve Umbilical vein

Median nerve Ductus venosus

Ulnar nerve Ductus arteriosus

 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

Foramen ovale It is the most common neuron type in the brain

22. The release of renin ultimately results in the
stimulation of which gland? It only communicates with two other neurons
7. The ventral horn in the spinal cord contains
Your current choice: which of the following?
Thyroid gland
Cerebrospinal fluid
Adrenal cortex
Sensory nerves
Anterior pituitary gland
Sensory neurons
Adrenal medulla
23. Which section of the nephron does not result Motor neurons
in a change in filtrate concentration? 28. What region in the brain may have been
damaged if a person has trouble understanding
Proximal convoluted tubule language?

Loop of Henle Amygdala

Distal convoluted tubule Broca's area

Collecting duc Wernicke's Area

24. Which of the following processes allows the
liver to store excess carbohydrate precursors until Hypothalamus
necessary when blood sugar levels are low?
Hippocampus
Gluconeogenesis 29. Which of the following brain structures is NOT
correctly matched with its function?
Deglutition
Posterior pituitary regulates thirst and water balance
Glycogenesis
Basal ganglia helps initiate voluntary movements and
Glycogenolysis make postural adjustments
25. Which of the following enzymes secreted by
the pancreas is necessary in order to activate all Thalamus is the major relay center for sensory
remaining enzymes secreted into the small intestine? information

Chymotrypsin Cerebellum helps maintain posture and balance,

muscle tone, and coordinate voluntary motor activity
Lipase 30. Which cranial nerve is responsible for bringing
auditory and orientation information to the brain?
Ribonuclease
Cranial nerve VIII
Trypsin
26. Which of the following statements is true of a Cranial nerve X
bipolar neuron?
Cranial nerve I
It has two axons branching off of the neuron body
Cranial nerve II
It has two processes extending off of the neuron's cell 31. Which of the following cranial nerves is not
body associated with the taste, hearing, smell, or vision?
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

Cranial nerve II I, II, and III

Cranial nerve VIII I and II

Cranial nerve I II, only

Cranial nerve V I and III

32. What part of the muscle cell allows an action
potential to spread uniformly throughout the cell? 34. Clostridium tetani is a microorganism that
causes constant muscle contraction, and results in the
T-tubules characteristic risus sardonicus, or lockjaw. The toxin
produced by this organism acts on inhibitory neurons
Sarcoplasmic reticulum that downregulate the activity of excitatory neurons
directly involved in the neuromuscular junction.
Neuromuscular junctions The release of which neurotransmitters are most likely
to be inhibited during Clostridium tetani infection?
Sarcolemma I. Glycine
Clostridium tetani is a microorganism that causes II. Glutamate
constant muscle contraction, and results in the III. GABA
characteristic risus sardonicus, or lockjaw. The toxin
produced by this organism acts on inhibitory neurons I, II, and III
that downregulate the activity of excitatory neurons
directly involved in the neuromuscular junction. II, only
The release of which neurotransmitters are most likely
to be inhibited during Clostridium tetani infection? Your current choice:
I. Glycine I and II
II. Glutamate
III. GABA II and III

II and III I and II

36. Which joint type allows for little to no
I, II, and III movement between the connected bones?

I and II Diarthrotic joints

II, only Synovial joints

I and II Fibrous joints

. Clostridium tetani is a microorganism that
causes constant muscle contraction, and results in the
characteristic risus sardonicus, or lockjaw. The toxin
produced by this organism acts on inhibitory neurons
that downregulate the activity of excitatory neurons
directly involved in the neuromuscular junction.
The release of which neurotransmitters are most likely
to be inhibited during Clostridium tetani infection?
I. Glycine
II. Glutamate
III. GABA
II and III
Cartilaginous joints
37. What is the purpose of basophils?
They cause inflammation in order to allow more
leukocytes to migrate to the affected area
They engulf bacteria and pathogens in the body
They release antibodies for one specific antigen
They aid in destroying parasites and addressing
allergic reaction
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
38. Which blood vessel directly feeds blood to the
left ventricle before it is pumped out to the rest of the
body?
No blood vessel directly feeds the left ventricle
Superior vena cava
Inferior vena cava
Aorta
Pulmonary vein
9. How does the systemic circuit of the heart get
blood to farther sections of the body compared to the
pulmonary circuit, which only needs to pump blood to
the nearby lungs?
The left ventricle pumps with more force
The left ventricle pumps more frequently than the
right ventricle
The left ventricle does not need to push blood
through a valve
The left ventricle has a larger stroke volume than the
right ventricle
40. Which scenario causes fluid to return to the
capillaries from the interstitial fluid?
The interstitial osmotic pressure becomes greater
than the capillary hydrostatic pressure
The interstitial osmotic pressure becomes weaker
than the capillary hydrostatic pressure
The interstitial osmotic pressure becomes greater
than the arteriole hydrostatic pressure
The interstitial hydrostatic pressure becomes greater
than the capillary hydrostatic pressure
41. Which of the following muscles does NOT
assist in forced inhalation?
Sternocleidomastoid
Rectus abdominis
External intercostals
Diaphragm
42. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for
removing neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft?
The neurotransmitter is destroyed by enzymes
The neurotransmitter is pumped back into the
presynaptic neuron
The neurotransmitter diffuses out of the cleft
Neurotransmitters are recycled inside the
postsynaptic neuron
42. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for
removing neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft?
The neurotransmitter is destroyed by enzymes
The neurotransmitter is pumped back into the
presynaptic neuron
The neurotransmitter diffuses out of the cleft
44. Which of the following statements is true?
B-lymphocytes have antibodies that attach to
presented antigens
Memory T-cells release antibodies in the event of
infection by a previously encountered pathogen
A B-lymphocyte will release different antibodies until
one of them attaches to an antigen
An antibody can attach to multiple antigens
Neurotransmitters are recycled inside the
postsynaptic neuron
42. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for
removing neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft?
The neurotransmitter is destroyed by enzymes
The neurotransmitter is pumped back into the
presynaptic neuron
The neurotransmitter diffuses out of the cleft
Neurotransmitters are recycled inside the
postsynaptic neuron
42. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for
removing neurotransmitters from the synaptic cleft?
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
The neurotransmitter is destroyed by enzymes
The neurotransmitter is pumped back into the
presynaptic neuron
The neurotransmitter diffuses out of the cleft
Neurotransmitters are recycled inside the
postsynaptic neuron
3. Which of the following is NOT a function of
the lymphatic system?
Immune system surveillance and protection
Transport dietary lipids
Drain interstitial fluid
Transport oxygen to tissues
A 65-year old nursing home resident is referred to you
from her primary care physician, who is concerned
that she may have a neurological deficit. As you
proceed to test her cranial nerves, you note her blink
reflex is absent (she doesn’t blink when you touch her
cornea with a cotton swab). In order to figure out
what is wrong, you ask her to make different facial
expressions including shutting her eyes tightly, which
she successfully does.
45. Now confident that you know which cranial
nerve is involved, what other deficit do you expect to
see in this patient?
Sensory deficits in the face
Impaired sense of smell
Inability to turn her head
Absent gag reflex
Lack of eye movement
46. A football player is found to have damaged is
anterior interosseous nerve (branch of the median
nerve). Which of the following hand motions will he
be unable to perform?
Form an L with his thumb and ring finger
"OK" sign
Thumbs up
Peace sign
A 23-year old man was involved in a high-speed motor
vehicle accident and presents with an open fracture of
the right mid-shaft humerus. In the trauma bay he
complains of numbness in the dorsum of his right
hand. He is taken immediately to the operating room
where an intramedullary rod was placed. There were
no complications during surgery. Five days after the
surgery, the man still complains of numbness in the
dorsum of his right hand and is also unable to extend
his right elbow.
47. What other abnormality do you expect to see
in this patient?
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Wrist drop
Anterior interosseous nerve syndrome
Claw hand
Erb-Duchenne palsy
48. While carrying a pot of food to the dinner
table, you accidentally bump your elbow against a
counter in the kitchen and immediately feel pain
shoot down your forearm to your ring finger and
pinky. Recalling your anatomy, which nerve did you
compress and where did you irritate it?
Radial nerve by the extensor carpi radialis brevis
Median nerve at the bicipital aponeurosis
Median nerve by the pronator teres
Ulnar nerve within Guyon’s canal
Ulnar nerve at the condylar groove
49. A 57-year old woman comes to a clinic
complaining that she cannot feel anything in her
shoulders and arms. When asked to explain herself,
she mentions that she can’t tell when something is
hot and has burned her fingers on the stove a few
times over the past few weeks. T1 MRI of the cervical
spine shows radiodensity in the spinal cord. If left
untreated, what would you expect to see on physical
exam after disease progression?
Hypotonia
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Hyperreflexia Orbicularis oris
5. Which of the following structures is
Clasp-knife spasticity associated with the chin?

Loss of vibration and proprioception Sternocleidomastoid muscle

Clonus Iliocostalis cervicis

Compartment syndrome is a condition in which
pressures around skeletal muscles rise to a level that Your current choice:
cuts off blood flow and compresses nerves around the Geniohyoid muscle
muscles. A 66-year old woman is involved in a high-
speed motor vehicle collision and presents with a left Popliteus muscle
femoral shaft fracture. After fixing her bone with an
intramedullary rod, the patient is taken to the Nuchal ligament
recovery room. Upon waking she complains of intense 6. Which muscle is responsible for the plantar
pain in her left thigh as well as sensory deficits in the flexion of the foot?
anterior portion of the same thigh. You diagnose her
with compartment syndrome and suspect that a nerve Biceps femoris
is being compromised.
50. If left untreated, what action do you expect Rectus femoris
the patient will not be able to perform?
Gastrocnemius
Extend the knee
Your current choice:
Flex the knee Tibialis anterior
6. Which muscle is responsible for the plantar
Dorsiflex the ankle flexion of the foot?

Evert the foot Biceps femoris

Plantar flex the ankle Rectus femoris

2. What direction does your hand move with
radial deviation of the wrist? Gastrocnemius

Your current choice: Your current choice:

Laterally Tibialis anterior
7. Which of the following innervates the gluteus
Medially maximus?

Anteriorly Femoral nerve

Posteriorly Obturator nerve

4. Which facial muscle is responsible for raising
the corners of the mouth into a smile? Inferior gluteal nerve

Your current choice: Superior and inferior gluteal nerves

Masseter
Superior gluteal nerve
Frontalis 8. Which of the following cannot flex the
forearm at the elbow?
Zygomaticus major
Flexor carpi radialis
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY

Coracobrachialis Hinge joint

Brachialis Saddle joint

3. Which of the following is considered a
Biceps brachii trochoid (pivot) joint?

Brachioradialis Sternoclavicular joint

9. The three cone-shaped cuneiform bones in
the foot are part of the larger group of bones Atlanotoaxial joint
commonly referred to as the __________.
Humeroulnar joint
tarsal bones
Acromioclavicular joint
cuboids
Glenohumeral joint
phalanges 4. Which of the following is not a joint
articulation found in the thoracic cavity?
metatarsal bones
Your current choice:
None of these Costochondral
10. Which of the following correctly lists the
bones of the lower extremities, proximal-to-distal? Acromioclavicular

Femur, tibia, metatarsals, tarsals Sternoclavicular

Tibia, tarsals, metatarsals, femur Sternocostal

15. The calcaneal tendon is formed from the
Femur, tarsals, tibia, metatarsals joined tendons of all of the following muscles except
the __________.
Femur, tibia, tarsals, metatarsals
soleus
Metatarsals, tarsals, tibia, femur
11. Which of the following is a common place for gastrocnemius
fracture of the humerus?
plantaris

Anatomic neck popliteus

Spiral groove Tendons from all of these muscles combine to form

the calcaneal tendon
Head 15. The calcaneal tendon is formed from the
joined tendons of all of the following muscles except
Surgical neck the __________.
12. What kind of joint exists between the first
metacarpal and the trapezium? soleus
gastrocnemius
Suture joint
plantaris
Rotational joint
popliteus
Ball-and-socket joint
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
Tendons from all of these muscles combine to form
the calcaneal tendon Axillary vein
16. Which of the following organs is
intraperitoneal? Brachial vein

Kidneys Cephalic vein

Stomach Basilic vein

22. You suspect that your dad has nerve damage
Bladder in his hand. You ask him to make a fist, but he is
unable to flex his lateral two digits or his thumb,
Pancreas instead producing the "papal sign." What nerve has
been damaged?
Descending colon
17. Which of the following is a false statement Superficial ulnar nerve
about the pleura in the thoracic cavity?
Deep ulnar nerve
Parietal pleura is innervated by the intercostal nerves
and phrenic nerves Radial nerve

Visceral pleura lines the lungs Median nerve

23. Which nerve is the most important sensory
Parietal pleura has four parts: costal, mediastinal, nerve in the hand?
diaphragmatic, and cervical
Superficial branch of the ulnar nerve
The visceral pleura is sensitive to pain
8. Which of the following ligaments connects the Digital branches of the median nerve
ovary to the abdominal wall?
Deep branch of the ulnar nerve
Suspensory ligament
Radial nerve
Round ligament 24. The biceps brachii muscle is innervated by
which nerve?
Ovarian ligament
Musculocutaneous nerve
Gubernaculum
Median nerve
Broad ligament
19. What is located on the posterolateral aspect Axillary nerve
of the testes in the male scrotum?
Radial nerve
Bulbourethral gland (Cowper's gland) 24. The biceps brachii muscle is innervated by
which nerve?
Vas deferens
Musculocutaneous nerve
Seminal vesicles
Median nerve
Epididymis
Axillary nerve
Gubernaculum
21. Which vein drains the superficial lateral Radial nerve
portion of the arm?
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
25. Which of the following valves allows blood to
flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle? SRY gene product

Pulmonary valve Wolfian excitatory hormone

Mitral valve Testosterone

Tricuspid valve Estrogen

Aortic valve Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

26. Hypersecretion of growth hormone during 30. Why are women more prone to urinary tract
childhood results in which of the following conditions? infections compared to males?

Acromegaly, where the individual has normal face and
body proportions in relation to his or her size
Dwarfism, where the individual has normal face and
body proportions in relation to his or her size
Gigantism, where the individual has abnormal face
and body proportions in relation to his or her size
Your current choice:
Gigantism, where the individual has normal face and
body proportions in relation to his or her size
They have shorter urethras than men
Women have smaller bladders compared to men
Their levels of estrogen make their immune systems
weaker
Men have specialized white blood cells in the urethra
that women lack
33. Which of the following enzymes causes
contraction of the gall bladder in order to release
bile?

Acromegaly, where the individual has abnormal face Cholecystokinin

and body proportions in relation to his or her size
27. What is the synthesis site for the Secretin
catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine?
Carboxypeptidase
Pituitary gland
Trypsin
Testes
Pepsin
Adrenal medulla 34. Which of the following support cells
myelinates the axons of the peripheral nervous
Adrenal cortex system?
28. Which one of these adrenal gland structures is
incorrectly paired with the hormone(s) it secretes? Astrocytes

Zona reticularis—gonadocorticoids Ependymal cells

Adrenal medulla—catecholamines Oligodendrocytes

Zona fasciculata—glucocorticoids Schwann cells

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is made by the choroid
All of these are correctly paired plexus in the lateral ventricals of the telencephalon.
The CSF is then reabsorbed in the arachnoid villi in the
Zona glomerulosa—epinephrine superior sagittal sinus.
29. Which of the following is necessary for the
development of the testes?
 ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
35. Before cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) travels from Additional acetylcholine release from the presynaptic
the third ventricle into the fourth ventricle, what does neuron of the neuromuscular junction
it flow through?

Foramen of Magendie

Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius

Foramen of Monro

Foramen of Lushka

Central canal
36. Which of the following is not a role of the
limbic system?

Feeling and emotion

Spatial memory

Aggression

Posture and balance

36/40
The frontal lobe, thalamus, midbrain, pons,
and medulla all house specific cranial nerve nuclei.
37. Which cranial nerves originate in the pons?

V, VI, VII, VIII

IV, V, VI, VII

VI, VII, VIII, IX

IV, V, VI

VII, VIII, IX, X

39. An experimental drug is given to a patient.
The drug is known to inhibit the activity of
acetylcholinesterase. What effect would most likely be
observed in the patient as a result of this drug?

Weakened muscle contractions

Induced muscle contractions

Reduced muscle contractions

Reduced acetylcholine present in the neuromuscular

synapse