PHILIPPINE CONSORTIUM FOR SCIENCE, MATHEMATICS

AND TECHNOLOGY

CAGAYAN STATE UNIVERSITY - ANDREWS CAMPUS

QUIZ BEE
COMPETITION
BIOLOGY
EASY ROUND
1. Which of the following lists best
illustrates the idea of increasing
levels of complexity?

A. Cells, tissues, organelles, organs, systems

B. Tissues, cells, organs, organelles, systems
C. Organs, organelles, systems, cells, tissues
D. Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, systems
1. Which of the following lists best
illustrates the idea of increasing
levels of complexity?

A. Cells, tissues, organelles, organs, systems

B. Tissues, cells, organs, organelles, systems
C. Organs, organelles, systems, cells, tissues
D. Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, systems
2. Adipose tissue is a
specialized form of:

A. Fibrous connective tissue

B. Elastic connective tissue
C. Loose connective tissue
D. Reticular connective tissue
2. Adipose tissue is a
specialized form of:

A. Fibrous connective tissue

B. Elastic connective tissue
C. Loose connective tissue
D. Reticular connective tissue
3. All of the following are part of a
prokaryotic cell except

A. DNA
B. A cell wall
C. A plasma membrane
D. An endoplasmic reticulum.
3. All of the following are part of a
prokaryotic cell except

A. DNA
B. A cell wall
C. A plasma membrane
D. An endoplasmic reticulum.
4. Root hairs are extensions of which
of the following kinds of cells?

A. Epidermal
B. Phloem
C. Xylem
D. Meristematic
4. Root hairs are extensions of which
of the following kinds of cells?

A. Epidermal
B. Phloem
C. Xylem
D. Meristematic
5. What are genes?

A. A double helix
B. A code of DNA
C. Food
D. The study of Genetics
5. What are genes?

A. A double helix
B. A code of DNA
C. Food
D. The study of Genetics
6. Alleles are:

A. Not a part of genetics

B. The color of the eyes
C. The shape of the nose
D. Pair of genes
6. Alleles are:

A. Not a part of genetics

B. The color of the eyes
C. The shape of the nose
D. Pair of genes
7. Edward Jenner is credited with
which of the following?

A. Applying germ theory to medical practices

such as surgery
B. Discovering the antibiotic properties of PCN
C. Developing the process of vaccination
D. Creating steps to link a specific bacteria to
a specific disease
7. Edward Jenner is credited with
which of the following?

A. Applying germ theory to medical practices

such as surgery
B. Discovering the antibiotic properties of PCN
C. Developing the process of vaccination
D. Creating steps to link a specific bacteria to
a specific disease
8. What is the process of naming
organisms?

A. Cladistics
B. Nomenclature
C. Systematics
D. Taxonomy
8. What is the process of naming
organisms?

A. Cladistics
B. Nomenclature
C. Systematics
D. Taxonomy
9. This cell structure is the site of ATP
synthesis

A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Golgi apparatus
9. This cell structure is the site of ATP
synthesis

A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Golgi apparatus
10. Non-membranous organelle that
forms mitotic spindle fibers

A. Centrioles
B. Centromere
C. kinetochore
D. centrosome
10. Non-membranous organelle that
forms mitotic spindle fibers

A. Centrioles
B. Centromere
C. kinetochore
D. centrosome
AVERAGE
ROUND
1. Which of the following defines a
genome?

A. Representation of a complete set of a

cell's polypeptides
B. The complete set of an organism's
polypeptides
C. The complete set of a species'
polypeptides
D. The complete set of an organism's genes
1. Which of the following defines a
genome?

A. Representation of a complete set of a

cell's polypeptides
B. The complete set of an organism's
polypeptides
C. The complete set of a species'
polypeptides
D. The complete set of an organism's genes
2. At which stage of mitosis are
chromosomes usually photographed
in the preparation of a karyotype?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
2. At which stage of mitosis are
chromosomes usually photographed
in the preparation of a karyotype?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
3. All of the following are part of a
prokaryotic cell except

A. DNA
B. A cell wall
C. A plasma membrane
D. An endoplasmic reticulum.
3. All of the following are part of a
prokaryotic cell except

A. DNA
B. A cell wall
C. A plasma membrane
D. An endoplasmic reticulum.
4. Which of the following types of cells
utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as
their genetic material but do not have
their DNA encased within a nuclear
envelope?
A. Archaea
B. Fungi
C. Plant
D. Protists
4. Which of the following types of cells
utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as
their genetic material but do not have
their DNA encased within a nuclear
envelope?
A. Archaea
B. Fungi
C. Plant
D. Protists
5. Humans and mice differ because

A. Their cells make different types of lipids.

B. Their cells have different small organic
molecules.
C. Their cells make different types of large
biological molecules.
D. Their cells have some differences in the
sequence of nucleotides in their nucleic acids.
5. Humans and mice differ because

A. Their cells make different types of lipids.

B. Their cells have different small organic
molecules.
C. Their cells make different types of large
biological molecules.
D. Their cells have some differences in the
sequence of nucleotides in their nucleic acids.
6. Which of the following is not a
polymer?

A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Cellulose
D. Chitin
6. Which of the following is not a
polymer?

A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Cellulose
D. Chitin
7. Singer and Nicolson's fluid mosaic
model of the membrane proposed that
A. Membranes are a phospholipid bilayer.
B. Membranes are a single layer of
phospholipids and proteins.
C. Membranes are a phospholipid bilayer
between two layers of hydrophilic proteins.
D. Membranes consist of protein molecules
embedded in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids.
7. Singer and Nicolson's fluid mosaic
model of the membrane proposed that
A. Membranes are a phospholipid bilayer.
B. Membranes are a single layer of
phospholipids and proteins.
C. Membranes are a phospholipid bilayer
between two layers of hydrophilic proteins.
D. Membranes consist of protein molecules
embedded in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids.
8. In addition to ATP, what are the end
products of glycolysis?
A. CO2 and H2O
B. CO2 and pyruvate
C. NADH and pyruvate
D. CO2 and NADH
8. In addition to ATP, what are the end
products of glycolysis?
A. CO2 and H2O
B. CO2 and pyruvate
C. NADH and pyruvate
D. CO2 and NADH
9. A plant has a unique photosynthetic
pigment. The leaves of this plant
appear to be reddish yellow. What
wavelengths of visible light are being
absorbed by this pigment?
A. Red and yellow
B. Blue and violet
C. Green and yellow
D. Blue, green, and red
9. A plant has a unique photosynthetic
pigment. The leaves of this plant
appear to be reddish yellow. What
wavelengths of visible light are being
absorbed by this pigment?
A. Red and yellow
B. Blue and violet
C. Green and yellow
D. Blue, green, and red
10. Starting with a fertilized egg
(zygote), a series of four cell divisions
would produce an early embryo with
how many cells?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
10. Starting with a fertilized egg
(zygote), a series of four cell divisions
would produce an early embryo with
how many cells?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
DIFFICULT
ROUND
1. The toxin of Vibrio cholerae causes
profuse diarrhea because it

A. Decreases the cytosolic concentration of

calcium ions, making the cells hypotonic.
B. Modifies a G protein involved in regulating
salt and water secretion.
C. Signals IP3 to act as a second
messenger for the release of calcium.
D. Binds with adenylyl cyclase and triggers
the formation of camp.
1. The toxin of Vibrio cholerae causes
profuse diarrhea because it

A. Decreases the cytosolic concentration of

calcium ions, making the cells hypotonic.
B. Modifies a G protein involved in regulating
salt and water secretion.
C. Signals IP3 to act as a second
messenger for the release of calcium.
D. Binds with adenylyl cyclase and triggers
the formation of camp.
2. A high degree of endemism is most
likely in environments that are
A. Easily reached and heterogeneous.
B. Easily reached and homogeneous.
C. Isolated and heterogeneous.
D. Isolated and homogeneous.
2. A high degree of endemism is most
likely in environments that are
A. Easily reached and heterogeneous.
B. Easily reached and homogeneous.
C. Isolated and heterogeneous.
D. Isolated and homogeneous.
3. Which taxon is essentially
equivalent to the
"embryophytes"?
ANSWER:

Plantae
4. What do you call the
vegetative (nutritionally active)
bodies of most fungi?
ANSWER:

Mycelia
5. What do you call the respiratory
organ of spiders?
ANSWER:

Booklung
CLINCHER
1. Snoopy is a dog cartoon character.
What breed of dog is snoopy?
ANSWER:

Beagle
2. What variety of peanut is known to
be the biggest in size?
ANSWER:

Brazillian Nut
3. Which term most precisely
describes the cellular process of
breaking down large molecules into
smaller ones?
ANSWER:

Catabolism
4. Instances in which a particular gene
may exist in three or more allelic
forms are known as:
ANSWER:

Multiple allele conditions.

CHEMISTRY
EASY ROUND
1. Valence electrons are the electrons in an atom
that can be gained or lost in a chemical reaction.
How many electrons does an unknown element
have when the electron configuration is:

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p4
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
1. Valence electrons are the electrons in an atom
that can be gained or lost in a chemical reaction.
How many electrons does an unknown element
have when the electron configuration is:

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p4
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
2. All of the following monosaccharides
are aldohexoses EXCEPT:
A. L-allose
B. D-fructose
C. L-galactose
D. D-glucose
E. L-mannose
2. All of the following monosaccharides
are aldohexoses EXCEPT:
A. L-allose
B. D-fructose
C. L-galactose
D. D-glucose
E. L-mannose
3. What are the hybridizations of
carbons 1 and 2 respectively in the
given structure?
A. sp3 and sp
B. sp2 and sp3
C. sp3 and sp2
D. sp2 and sp2
E. sp3 and sp3
3. What are the hybridizations of
carbons 1 and 2 respectively in the
given structure?
A. sp3 and sp
B. sp2 and sp3
C. sp3 and sp2
D. sp2 and sp2
E. sp3 and sp3
 4. A student performs five titrations and
obtains a mean result of 0.110 M, with a
standard deviation of 0.001 M. If the
actual concentration of the titrated
solution is 0.100 M, which of the following
is TRUE about the titration results
A. Accurate but not precise
B. Precise but not accurate
C. Both accurate and precise
D. Neither accurate nor precise
E. There are insufficient data to determine the
accuracy and precision of the result.
 4. A student performs five titrations and
obtains a mean result of 0.110 M, with a
standard deviation of 0.001 M. If the
actual concentration of the titrated
solution is 0.100 M, which of the following
is TRUE about the titration results
A. Accurate but not precise
B. Precise but not accurate
C. Both accurate and precise
D. Neither accurate nor precise
E. There are insufficient data to determine the
accuracy and precision of the result.
5. A flask containing 8.0 x 102 g of water
is heated, and the temperature of the
water increases from 20ºC to 85ºC. How
much heat did the water absorb?
(Specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g•ᵒC)
A. 217 568 J
B. 217 570 J
C. 217 600 J
D. 218 000 J
E. 220 000 J
5. A flask containing 8.0 x 102 g of water
is heated, and the temperature of the
water increases from 20ºC to 85ºC. How
much heat did the water absorb?
(Specific heat of water is 4.184 J/g•ᵒC)
A. 217 568 J
B. 217 570 J
C. 217 600 J
D. 218 000 J
E. 220 000 J
6. Which of the following molecular
formulas represents an ALKENE?
A. C2H2
B. C3H8
C. C4H8
D. C5H8
E. C6H14
6. Which of the following molecular
formulas represents an ALKENE?
A. C2H2
B. C3H8
C. C4H8
D. C5H8
E. C6H14
7. What is the ΔE for a system
which has the following two steps:
Step 1: The system absorbs 60J of heat while 40J of
work are performed on it.
Step 2: The system releases 30J of heat while doing
70J of work.
A. 100 J
B. 90 J
C. 30 J
D. 20 J
E. zero
7. What is the ΔE for a system
which has the following two steps:
Step 1: The system absorbs 60J of heat while 40J of
work are performed on it.
Step 2: The system releases 30J of heat while doing
70J of work.
A. 100 J
B. 90 J
C. 30 J
D. 20 J
E. zero
8. If 60.2 grams of Hg combines
completely with 24.0 grams of Br to
form a compound, what is the
percent composition of Hg in the
compound?
A. 28.50%
B. 39.90%
C. 60.10%
D. 71.50%
E. 251%
8. If 60.2 grams of Hg combines
completely with 24.0 grams of Br to
form a compound, what is the
percent composition of Hg in the
compound?
A. 28.50%
B. 39.90%
C. 60.10%
D. 71.50%
E. 251%
9. Which of the following is the
CORRECT complimentary DNA
strand of the given parent strand?
5’-GGATTCTAAT-3’
A. 3’-CCTAAGATTA-5’
B. 5’-CCTAAGATTA-3’
C. 5’-CCTAAGATTA-5’
D. 3’-CCUAAGAUUA-5’
E. 5’-CCUAAGAUUA-3’
9. Which of the following is the
CORRECT complimentary DNA
strand of the given parent strand?
5’-GGATTCTAAT-3’
A. 3’-CCTAAGATTA-5’
B. 5’-CCTAAGATTA-3’
C. 5’-CCTAAGATTA-5’
D. 3’-CCUAAGAUUA-5’
E. 5’-CCUAAGAUUA-3’
10. Combining aqueous solutions of
BaI2 and Na2SO4 affords a
precipitate of BaSO4. Which ion(s)
is/are spectator ions in the
reaction?
A. Ba2+ only
B. Na+ only
C. Ba2+ and SO42-
D. Na+ and I-
E. SO42- and I-
10. Combining aqueous solutions of
BaI2 and Na2SO4 affords a
precipitate of BaSO4. Which ion(s)
is/are spectator ions in the
reaction?
A. Ba2+ only
B. Na+ only
C. Ba2+ and SO42-
D. Na+ and I-
E. SO42- and I-
AVERAGE
ROUND
1. A radioactive isotope, which is used in
diagnostic imaging, has a half-life of 6.0
hours. If a quantity of this isotope has an
activity of 150 μCi when it is delivered to a
hospital, how much activity will remain 24
hours after delivery?
μCi = microcuries
A. 4.7 μCi
B. 9.4 μCi
C. 19 μCi
D. 38 μCi
E. 150 μCi
1. A radioactive isotope, which is used in
diagnostic imaging, has a half-life of 6.0
hours. If a quantity of this isotope has an
activity of 150 μCi when it is delivered to a
hospital, how much activity will remain 24
hours after delivery?
μCi = microcuries
A. 4.7 μCi
B. 9.4 μCi
C. 19 μCi
D. 38 μCi
E. 150 μCi
 2. Refer to the given structure of
lactose.
What type of bond is used to bind the
galactose and glucose units to form the
disaccharide lactose?

A. α (1,1) α glycosidic bond

B. β (1,4) β glycosidic bond
C. α (1,4) β glycosidic bond
D. β (1,4) α glycosidic bond
E. β (1,2) α glycosidic bond
 2. Refer to the given structure of
lactose.
What type of bond is used to bind the
galactose and glucose units to form the
disaccharide lactose?

A. α (1,1) α glycosidic bond

B. β (1,4) β glycosidic bond
C. α (1,4) β glycosidic bond
D. β (1,4) α glycosidic bond
E. β (1,2) α glycosidic bond
3. Evaluate the following alkyl bromide structures.
Which of the following is the CORRECT arrangement
of the structures in terms of increasing reactivity?

A. B.

C. D.
3. Evaluate the following alkyl bromide structures.
Which of the following is the CORRECT arrangement
of the structures in terms of increasing reactivity?

A. B.

C. D.
4. Given that a precipitation reaction
occurs, which of the following is likely
to be the precipitate formed when
magnesium chloride and silver nitrate
solutions are mixed?
A. MgCl2
B. AgCl
C. Mg(NO3)2
D. AgNO3
E. Ag2NO3
4. Given that a precipitation reaction
occurs, which of the following is likely
to be the precipitate formed when
magnesium chloride and silver nitrate
solutions are mixed?
A. MgCl2
B. AgCl
C. Mg(NO3)2
D. AgNO3
E. Ag2NO3
5. (Physical Chemistry) Consider the
following reaction mechanism:
Step 1: H2O2 + I− → H2O + IO−
Step 2: H2O2 + IO− → H2O + O2 + I−
Which of the following is the reaction
intermediate ?
A. I−
B. O2
C. IO−
D. H2O
E. H2O2
5. (Physical Chemistry) Consider the
following reaction mechanism:
Step 1: H2O2 + I− → H2O + IO−
Step 2: H2O2 + IO− → H2O + O2 + I−
Which of the following is the reaction
intermediate ?
A. I−
B. O2
C. IO−
D. H2O
E. H2O2
6. What is the IUPAC name of
isopropyl alcohol usually used as
disinfectants and hand sanitizers?

A. 1-propanol
B. 2-propanol
C. 1-methyl-1-propanol
D. 2-methyl-1-propanol
E. 2-methyl-2-propanol
6. What is the IUPAC name of
isopropyl alcohol usually used as
disinfectants and hand sanitizers?

A. 1-propanol
B. 2-propanol
C. 1-methyl-1-propanol
D. 2-methyl-1-propanol
E. 2-methyl-2-propanol
7. Vanadium is a transition element and
forms several oxides. In which of the
following reactions does vanadium
undergo oxidation

A. V2O3  VO
B. V2O5  VO2
C. V2O3  V2O5
D. VO2  V2O3
7. Vanadium is a transition element and
forms several oxides. In which of the
following reactions does vanadium
undergo oxidation

A. V2O3  VO
B. V2O5  VO2
C. V2O3  V2O5
D. VO2  V2O3
8. At 25°C, the maximum amount of PbI2
that can be dissolved in 1.00 L of pure
water is 1.0 mmol. Assuming complete
dissociation, the solubility product, Ksp
for lead iodide at 25°C is _____________.
A. 1.0 × 10−3
B. 1.0 × 10−6
C. 1.0 × 10−9
D. 2.0 × 10−9
E. 4.0 × 10−9
8. At 25°C, the maximum amount of PbI2
that can be dissolved in 1.00 L of pure
water is 1.0 mmol. Assuming complete
dissociation, the solubility product, Ksp
for lead iodide at 25°C is _____________.
A. 1.0 × 10−3
B. 1.0 × 10−6
C. 1.0 × 10−9
D. 2.0 × 10−9
E. 4.0 × 10−9
9. Column A is a list of examples of proteins
while Column B is a list of protein types.
The lists were randomly arranged. All of the
following pair of protein example and type
are correct EXCEPT Column A Column B

Albumin Defense

Hemoglobin Enzyme

A. Albumin: Structural
Immunoglobins Insulin
B. Hemoglobin: Transport
C. Immunoglobins: Defense Keratin Structural

D. Pepsin: Enzymes Pepsin Transport

9. Column A is a list of examples of proteins
while Column B is a list of protein types.
The lists were randomly arranged. All of the
following pair of protein example and type
are correct EXCEPT Column A Column B

Albumin Defense

Hemoglobin Enzyme

A. Albumin: Structural
Immunoglobins Insulin
B. Hemoglobin: Transport
C. Immunoglobins: Defense Keratin Structural

D. Pepsin: Enzymes Pepsin Transport

10. Refer to the given reaction.

HgO + 4I− + H2O → HgI42- + 2OH−

A 0.217 g sample of HgO (molar mass = 217 g) reacts

with excess iodide ions according to the reaction
shown above. Titration of the resulting solution
requires how many mL of 0.10 M HCl to reach
equivalence point
A. 1.0 mL
B. 10 mL
C. 20 mL
D. 50 mL
E. 100 mL
10. Refer to the given reaction.

HgO + 4I− + H2O → HgI42- + 2OH−

A 0.217 g sample of HgO (molar mass = 217 g) reacts

with excess iodide ions according to the reaction
shown above. Titration of the resulting solution
requires how many mL of 0.10 M HCl to reach
equivalence point
A. 1.0 mL
B. 10 mL
C. 20 mL
D. 50 mL
E. 100 mL
DIFFICULT
ROUND
1. Consider the following potential energy diagram for
a reversible reaction:

Which of the
following describes
the given system?
Reaction Activation Energy (kJ) ΔH
(kJ)

A. reverse 10 -20

B. reverse 10 -30

C. forward 30 +10

D. forward 20 +30

E. forward 40 -10
ANSWER:

A. REVERSE 10, -20

2. Draw the major organic product of
the given reaction.
ANSWER:
3. An impure sample of K2O was
analyzed by precipitating the potassium
as the insoluble tetraphenyl borate salt,
KB(C6H5)4. The precipitate, KB(C6H5)4
had a mass of 1.57 g.

What is the mass of K2O in the original

sample obtained? Express your answer
in three significant figures. (Molar
masses: KB(C6H5)4 = 358.3 g and K2O =
94.2 g)
ANSWER:

0.206 G
4. Redox enzyme catalysis involves
the cyclic oxidation and reduction of
metal ions that have at least two stable
positive oxidation states. Which of the
following groups of metals could be
found at the active site of redox
enzymes
A. Na, Ba, Al
B. Zn, Ca, Ga
C. Sr, Ga, Mg
D. Cu, Fe, Co
E. Mg, Li, K
4. Redox enzyme catalysis involves
the cyclic oxidation and reduction of
metal ions that have at least two stable
positive oxidation states. Which of the
following groups of metals could be
found at the active site of redox
enzymes
A. Na, Ba, Al
B. Zn, Ca, Ga
C. Sr, Ga, Mg
D. Cu, Fe, Co
E. Mg, Li, K
5. A 0.60 g sample an unknown
organic acid found in muscle cells is
burned in air and found to contain 0.24
g of carbon, 0.040 g of hydrogen, with
the rest being oxygen. If the molecular
weight of the substance is 90 g/mol,
what is the molecular formula?
ANSWER:

C3H6O3
CLINCHER
1. How many moles of tungsten atoms
are there in 4.8 x 1025 atoms of
tungsten
A. 1.3 x 10-1 moles
B. 8.0 x 10-1 moles
C. 1.3 x 10-2 moles
D. 8.0 x 101 moles
E. 8.0 x 102 moles
1. How many moles of tungsten atoms
are there in 4.8 x 1025 atoms of
tungsten?
A. 1.3 x 10-1 moles
B. 8.0 x 10-1 moles
C. 1.3 x 10-2 moles
D. 8.0 x 101 moles
E. 8.0 x 102 moles
2. What is the molarity of a NaNO3
solution made by diluting 250.0 mL of
a 1.60 M solution to a final volume of
400. mL? (Express your answer in
three significant figures
ANSWER:

1.00 M
3. Refer to the given structures

Which of the following pair of compounds

are aromatic?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
E. III and IV
3. Refer to the given structures

Which of the following pair of compounds

are aromatic?
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. II and IV
E. III and IV
4. What is the molarity of a solution
that contains 1.50 mol HCl in 2.50 L of
solution
ANSWER:

0.600 M
5. Which of the following is the
CORRECT classification of enzymes?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. Nucleic Acids
5. Which of the following is the
CORRECT classification of enzymes?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrates
C. Lipids
D. Nucleic Acids
MATHEMATICS
EASY ROUND
1. Which of the following is 𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏 an identity?

A. 2𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 + 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠

B. 2𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐
C. 2𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 − 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
D. 2𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 + 𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠
Answer:
C
 2. Divide 80𝑟𝑟 2 − 40𝑟𝑟 + 10 𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏 10𝑟𝑟.

A. 8𝑟𝑟 2 − 4𝑟𝑟 + 1/𝑟𝑟

B. −8𝑟𝑟 2 + 4𝑟𝑟 − 1/𝑟𝑟
C. −8𝑟𝑟 2 + 4𝑟𝑟 − 1/𝑟𝑟
D. 8𝑟𝑟 − 4 + 1/𝑟𝑟.
Answer:
D
 𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏
𝑎𝑎+ 𝑏𝑏−1
3. What is the simplest form of 𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏
1− 𝑏𝑏−1
𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏
A. 𝑎𝑎−𝑏𝑏
B. – 𝑏𝑏
𝑎𝑎−1
C. 𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏
D. 𝑎𝑎2 − 𝑏𝑏 2
Answer:
B
4. Determine the value of n which will make the roots of the
1
equation 𝑥𝑥 2 − 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 + = 0 equal.
16

A. 0
1
B. − 2
1
C. 2
1 1
D. and
2
−
2
Answer:
D
5. What is the eccentricity for
𝑥𝑥 2 𝑦𝑦 2
+ = 1?
25 16
Answer:
3
5
6. Find the area of an ellipse, given the
following: major axis =8 units and minor
axis=16 units
Answer:
𝑠2𝜋𝜋
7. How many triangles are formed with sides
𝑎𝑎 = 30 and 𝑏𝑏 = 60, and an angle 𝐴𝐴 = 30°?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. Cannot be determined
Answer:
B
8. Insert three harmonic means between 2 and 10.
2 3 1
a. , ,
5 10 5
5 10
b. , ,5
2 3
3 2 1
c. , ,
5 5 5
5 5
d. , ,5
3 2
Answer:
B
9. If the distance between points (3, y) and (8, 7) is
13, find the possible value(s) of y.
Answer:
-5 and 19
10. Evaluate:
𝜋𝜋 2 𝜋𝜋 2 𝜋𝜋
𝑠𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 − 4𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆𝑆 + 5𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇𝑇 + 12
4 6 3
Answer:
29
AVERAGE ROUND
1. Given : 𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 0.69
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 1.10
𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙𝑙 = 1.61

3
5
Find ln( )
6
Express your answer in two decimal places.
Answer:
-0.36
2. Solve for z:
2𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 − 𝑧𝑧 2b
−1=
2𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 + 𝑧𝑧 a−b
Answer:
−2𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏
3. A parabola has its axis parallel to the x-axis,
vertex at (-1,7) and one end of the latus rectum at
15 3
− , . Find the equation in general form.
4 2
Answer:
𝑏𝑏 2 − 14𝑦𝑦 + 11𝑥𝑥 + 60 = 0
4. Find the middle term of 2𝑥𝑥 2 − y 4 8
Answer:
8 16
𝑠120𝑥𝑥 𝑦𝑦
5. How far from the y-axis is the center of the
curve 2𝑥𝑥 2 + 2𝑦𝑦 2 + 10𝑥𝑥 − 6𝑦𝑦 − 55 = 0?
Answer:
5
2.5 𝑜𝑜𝑜𝑜
2
6. Find all the values of x in the interval
[0,2𝜋𝜋] for which 4 sin2 𝑥𝑥 = 1. (Use radian
measure for the final answer)
Answer:
𝜋𝜋 5𝜋𝜋 7𝜋𝜋 11𝜋𝜋
, , , 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎
6 6 6 6
7. Find the distance between the points
(sin x, cos x) and (cos x, -sin x)
Answer:
2 units
8. If x and y are positive acute angles and if
4 8
𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠 = and 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 = .
5 17
Find the value of sin(𝑥𝑥 − 𝑦𝑦).
Answer:
13
−
85
9. Solve for v and w.
2
𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 𝑤𝑤 = 2
2
𝑏𝑏 𝑣𝑣 + 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 = 2
Answer:
2
𝑤𝑤 = 2
𝑏𝑏 + 𝑎𝑎
2
𝑣𝑣 = 2
𝑏𝑏 + 𝑎𝑎
10. What is the distance from the point
(2, 1) to the line 4x–3y+5=0?
Answer:
2 units
DIFFICULT ROUND
1. Find the coordinate of a point
equidistant from (1, -6), (5, -6) and (6, -1)
Answer:
(3,-3)
2. Find the last term of the series:
1 4 2
, , , … 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 61 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡.
7 27 13
Answer:
1
−
8
3. Determine the equation of the circle in
standard form whose radius is 5, center on the
line x = 2 and tangent to the line 3x – 4y + 11 = 0.
Note: The circle is below the tangent line.
Answer:
2 2
𝑥𝑥 − 2 + 𝑦𝑦 + 2 = 25
 54 𝑥𝑥 −6𝑥𝑥
4.Find x: = 26(3𝑥𝑥 )
6𝑥𝑥 +2𝑥𝑥
Answer:
𝑥𝑥 = 3
5. Solve the following system of linear equations:
𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 + 𝑧𝑧 = 2
6𝑥𝑥 − 4𝑦𝑦 + 5𝑧𝑧 = 31
5𝑥𝑥 + 2𝑦𝑦 + 2𝑧𝑧 = 13
Answer:
𝑥𝑥 = 3, 𝑦𝑦 = −2, 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝑧𝑧 = 1
CLINCHER
 𝜋𝜋 𝜋𝜋
1. What is the value of sin + cos ?
6 2
Answer:
1
2
 𝜋𝜋
2. Calculate 4𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠(− )
12
Answer:
2− 6
2. What is the value of cos(870°)?
Answer:
3
−
2
3. Find the value:
𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡+𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡
1−𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡
Answer:
3
4. Compute the expression:
𝑥𝑥 − 2𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦 − 3; when x=-4, y=2
and z=-7.
21
5. Subtract 3𝑎𝑎 − 2𝑏𝑏 and (2𝑎𝑎 +
5𝑏𝑏) from −𝑎𝑎 − 5𝑏𝑏 .
Answer:
-6a-8b or -2(3a+4b)
6. (𝑥𝑥 4 −4𝑥𝑥 3 + 3𝑥𝑥 2 − 4𝑥𝑥 + 12) ÷ (𝑥𝑥 − 3)
Answer:
𝑥𝑥 3 − 𝑥𝑥 2 −4
7. Compute:
(2𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 − 𝑧𝑧 + 3) (2𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 + 𝑧𝑧 − 3)
Answer:
4𝑥𝑥 2 + 4𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 + 𝑦𝑦 2 − 𝑧𝑧 2 + 6𝑧𝑧 − 9
8. Factor:
3 3 6 6
−12𝑢𝑢 𝑣𝑣 + 9𝑣𝑣 + 4𝑢𝑢
Answer:
2𝑢𝑢3 − 3𝑣𝑣 3 2
9. Factor:
𝑎𝑎2 − 9𝑏𝑏 2 − 𝑑𝑑 2 − 2𝑎𝑎 + 1 − 6𝑏𝑏𝑏𝑏
Answer:
(𝑎𝑎 − 1 + 3𝑏𝑏 + 𝑑𝑑)(𝑎𝑎 − 1 − 3𝑏𝑏 − 𝑑𝑑)
10. Factor completely:
ℎ9 − 𝑘𝑘 9
Answer:
(ℎ − 𝑘𝑘)(ℎ2 + ℎ𝑘𝑘 + 𝑘𝑘 2 )(ℎ6 + ℎ3 𝑘𝑘 3 + 𝑘𝑘 6 )
PHYSICS
EASY ROUND
1. It is the force acting on an
object due to gravity.
Answer:
WEIGHT
2. What is the SI unit for
frequency or number of
periods or cycles per second?
Answer:
HERTZ
3. Which of the following
electromagnetic waves have
the highest energy?
A. Radio waves
B. Microwaves
C. Infrared
D. Ultraviolet
Answer:
D. Ultraviolet
4. An iron bar allows
electricity to easily flow in it.
What kind of material is iron?
A. Insulator
B. Conductor
C. Semiconductor
D. Superconductor
Answer:
B. Conductor
5. A mercury thermometer was
contact with a baby’s armpit
records the body temperature of
the baby as 36.9 °C. What
thermodynamic law was applied
here?
A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
B. First Law of Thermodynamics
C. Second Law of Thermodynamics
D. Third Law of Thermodynamics
Answer:
A. Zeroth Law of
Thermodynamics
6. A 65 Ω resistor is connected to
the terminals of a battery whose
emf is 12.0 V and whose internal
resistance is 65 Ω. Calculate the
current in the circuit.
Answer:
0.183 A
7. At what temperature does
water starts anomalously
expanding as it cools?
Answer:
4 °C
8. Every weekend, Mario and
Maria sell fruits and vegetable for
a living using a pushcart. Will
they exert less force if they
A. Push the cart
B. Pull the cart
C. Drag the cart
D. Propel the cart
Answer:
B. Pull the cart
9. The ratio of the speed of the
aircraft to the speed of sound in the
gas determines the magnitude of
many of the compressibility effects.
Guinness World Records recognized
NASA’s X-43A scramjet with a new
world speed record for a jet-powered
aircraft reaching nearly the ratio of
9.6 in 2004. What is this ratio
called?
Answer:
MACH NUMBER
10. His contribution is pioneering
of the quantum theory, that
revolutionized our understanding
of atomic and subatomic
processes.
A. Albert Einstein
B. Max Planck
C. Nikola Tesla
D. Louis Brillouin
Answer:
B. Max Planck
AVERAGE
ROUND
1. An object is located at twice
the focal length of a convex lens.
Describe the size and orientation
of the image formed.
A. larger, upright
B. same size, inverted
C. same size, upright
D. smaller, inverted
Answer:
B. same size, inverted
2. Two point charges Q1 = 25 nC
and Q2 = - 75 nC, and are
separated by a distance r = 3.00
cm. Find the magnitude of the
electric force between them. The
permittivity of free space is 8.85E-
12 C2 / Nm2.
Answer:
0.019 N
3. If gravity overpowers the
expansion of the universe, the
cosmos will collapse into an
infinitely dense state.
A. Big Bounce
B. Big Crunch
C. Big Rip
D.Dig Freeze
Answer:
B. Big Crunch
4. If you heat a thin, circular ring
in the oven, does the ring’s hole
get ________.
Answer:
Larger
5. How much energy does your
freezer have to remove from 1.5
kg of water at 20°C to make ice at
-12 °C?
[cw = 4186 J/kg°C, LF = 3.33E5
J/kg°C, cice =2100 J/kg°C]
Answer:
660 kJ
6. Escape velocity is the
minimum speed required of an
object to escape from a planet's
gravitational pull. Since the
Apollo 11 is more massive, it has
higher escape velocity from Earth
compared to a commercial
airplane. True or False.
Answer:
False
7. A marksman holds a rifle of
mass 3.00 kg loosely, so it can
recoil freely. He fires a bullet of
mass 5.00 g horizontally with a
velocity relative to the ground of
300 m/s. What is the recoil
velocity of the rifle?
Answer:
-0.5 m/s
8. According to this twin paradox,
suppose one of a pair of 20-year-
old twins takes off in a spaceship
traveling at very high speed to a
distant star and back again, while
the other twin remains on Earth.
Who will age less at their
reunion?
A. Earth Twin
B. Traveling Twin
Answer:
B. Traveling Twin
9. This is the basis of
transformers, where the magnetic
field generated by a coil of wire
induces voltage in an adjacent
coil of wire.
Answer:
Mutual Induction
10. The Earth’s magnetic north
pole is not confined to one
location, and it moves every day.
Where is the magnetic north pole
headed to as of 2022?
Answer:
Siberia
DIFFICULT
ROUND
1. A passenger on a fictional high-
speed spaceship traveling
between Earth and Jupiter at a
steady speed of 0.75c reads a
magazine which takes 10.0 min
according to her watch. How long
does this take as measured by
Earth-based clocks?
Answer:
15.1 min
2. The speed of light according to
Einstein is the ultimate speed of a
material mass. Write in 9
significant digits the ultimate
speed.
Answer:
299, 792, 458 m/s
3. When a family of four with a
total mass of 200 kg step into
their 1200-kg car, the car’s
springs compress 3.0 cm. How far
will the car lower if loaded with
300 kg rather than 200 kg?
Answer:
4.5 cm
4. Ketchups flow more easily as
you shake its bottle. What kind of
fluid is this, that becomes less
viscous as more stress is applied
to it?
A. Rheopectic
B. Thixotropic
C. Pseudoplastic
D. Dilatant
Answer:
C. Pseudoplastic
5. If 200 cm3 of tea at 95°C is
poured into a 150-g glass cup
initially at 25°C, what will be the
common final temperature T of
the tea and cup when equilibrium
is reached, assuming no heat
flows to the surroundings? [cwater
= 4186 J/kg°C, cglass = 840 J/kg°C]
Answer:
86 °C