LONG QUIZ

SCIENCE 8 (REGULAR CLASS-LOYALTY & LOVE)

Direction: Read each question carefully and choose the letter of the correct answer.
1. Principles of Heredity was proposed by Gregor Mendel after conducting several experiments. Which of the
following DOES NOT belong to the Principles of Heredity?
A. Law of Interaction B. Law of Segregation
C. Law of Dominance D. Law of Independent Assortment

2. Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in which two true-breeding parents crossed to produce an

intermediate offspring. What will be the phenotype of the offspring if the red and white flowers were crossed?
A. red B. white C. pink D. Both red & white

3. Nathan has a homozygous widow’s peak hairline (WW) while his wife has a homozygous straight hairline
(ww). In what percentage did their children will get a widow’s peak hairline?
A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100%

4. Species refers to the group of organisms that are capable of producing fertile offspring. Which type of
species concept refers to the sharing of certain characteristics that distinguish them from other species?
A. Biological B. Ecological C. Phylogenetic D. Typological

5. Mr. James discovered a new species. It has scales, beak, and feathers. Which class does the new species
belong according to the Linnaean Hierarchical System of Classification?
A. Aves B. mammal C. fish D. reptile

6. Reptiles and mammals are vertebrates; they are multicellular and heterotrophic. Which statement BEST
differentiates the characteristics of mammals from reptiles?
A. Mammals are cold-blooded while reptiles are warm blooded.
B. Mammals have hair or fur while reptiles possess scales and wings.
C. Mammals possess mammary glands to feed their young while reptiles do not.
D. Mammals do not have hair or fur and they possess mammary glands to feed their young while
reptiles possess scales and lay eggs.

7. Angiosperms and gymnosperms belong to kingdom Plantae; they are photoautotrophs which means they
can produce their own food. Which statement BEST describes the difference between angiosperm and
gymnosperm?
A. Gymnosperms are seed-bearing plants while angiosperms are cone bearing plants.
B. Gymnosperms are non-flowering plants while angiosperms are flowering plants.
C. Gymnosperm are cone bearing plants and angiosperms are seed bearing plants.
D. Gymnosperms are flowering plants while angiosperms are non-flowering plants.

8. Carolus Linnaeus is most famous for creating a system of naming plants and animals. Which arrangement
reflects the Linnaean Hierarchical System of Classification in ascending order?
A. species-genus-family-order-class-phylum-kingdom-domain
B. species–phylum–genus–species–class–order–family–domain
C. family–domain–phylum–genus–species–class–order–kingdom
D. kingdom–domain–phylum–genus–species–class–family–order

9. Meiosis happens in sex cells or gametes that reduces the number of chromosomes in half. What do you call
to the stage where a segment of sister chromatid of one chromosome is exchanged with the same segment of
the sister chromatid of the homologous chromosome?
A. Anaphase B. Cytokinesis
C. Crossing Over D. Pairing of Homologous Chromosome

10. Mitosis happens in body cells which is responsible for growth and repair. Which of the following DID NOT
happen in Prophase during mitosis?
A. Chromosome condensed.
B. Nuclear membrane disappear.
C. Centrioles move to the opposite poles.
D. Sister chromatids aligned at the metaphase plate.

11. Cell cycle is a series of events that takes place in a cell as it grows and divides. There are two types of cell
cycle, mitosis and meiosis. Which differentiates mitosis and meiosis in terms of the number of daughter cells
produced?
A. Mitosis produced two haploid daughter cells while meiosis produced four diploid daughter cells.
 B. Mitosis produced two diploid daughter cells while meiosis produced four haploid daughter cells.
C. Meiosis produced two haploid daughter cells while mitosis produced four diploid daughter cells.
D. Meiosis produced two diploid daughter cells while mitosis produced four haploid daughter cells.

12. Sperms is a male reproductive cell or gametes which is produced in the testes. Which part of the sperms
has the genetic information?
A. acrosome B. head C. middle piece D. tail

13. Oogenesis is a process of forming egg cells in the ovaries of female. Which statement is TRUE about
oogenesis?
A. Polar bodies degenerate. B. Ovum produced is diploid.
C. Primary oocyte is haploid. D. Secondary oocyte is diploid.

14. Digestive system is responsible for breaking down of food into usable form. Which of the following breaks
down food into tinier pieces to begin mechanical digestion?
A. esophagus B. stomach C. teeth D. tongue

15. Carbohydrates act as an energy source and help control blood glucose and insulin metabolism. What is the
result of chemical digestion of carbohydrates?
A. amino acid B. bile C. fatty acids D. simple sugars

16. Absorption is the third process that happens in the digestive system. It is the process by which our body
can absorb the nutrients from the food that we eat. Which tiny structures line the internal surface of the small
intestine to increase its surface area for the absorption of nutrients?
A. bile ducts B. cilia C. salivary glands D. villi

17. Enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts by accelerating chemical reactions. What type of
enzyme present in saliva helps break down starch?
A. amylase B. lactase C. lipase D. maltase

18. Large intestine is divided into caecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid
colon. What is the main function of the large intestine?
A. It breaks down hemoglobin. B. It secretes digestive enzymes.
C. It regulates the release of bile. D. It reabsorbs water from chyme.

19. Digestive system involves important processes in order to carry out its function. Which of the following
shows the correct sequence of the processes involved in the human digestive system?
A. assimilation, absorption, ingestion, digestion, and egestion
B. digestion, ingestion, assimilation, egestion and absorption
C. egestion, absorption, digestion, assimilation and ingestion
D. ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion

20. Digestive system is composed of different organs working together to perform specific roles. Which of the
following is the correct order of the digestive tract?
A. mouth → rectum → esophagus → rectum → anus → small intestine → large intestine
B. mouth → stomach → esophagus → rectum → anus → small intestine →large intestine
C. mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → rectum → anus
D. mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → anus → large intestine → rectum

21. Deoxyribonucleic acid or DNA is located in the nucleus of the cell. In what stage of Interphase does
replication of DNA happens?
A. Gap 1 phase B. Gap 2 phase C. synthesis phase D. system phase

22. Meiosis is a process of cell division where a single cell divides twice. If a cell undergoes meiosis, how
many chromosomes does its daughter cells have?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 23 D. 46

23. Chromosome is located in the nucleus of the cell where it contains DNA. What does DNA mean?
A. Deoxyribosome Acid B. Deoxyribosome Arms
C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid D. Deoxyribonucleic Arms

24. Spermatogenesis refers to the formation of sperms. Which statement is FALSE about spermatogenesis?
A. The secondary spermatocytes are haploid.
B. It takes place in the testes of male animals.
C. Each primary spermatocyte becomes four diploid spermatids.
D. Each primary spermatocyte becomes four haploid spermatids.
25. Oogenesis form three polar bodies and one mature egg cell. What is the role of the polar bodies during
oogenesis?
A. It increases the number of sperms.
B. It increases the number of egg cells.
C. It weakens the ovum during fertilization.
D. It removes the excess haploid sets of chromosomes.

26. When the spermatogonia undergo meiosis it will become four mature sperms. Which of the following is
involved in the maturation of sperms?
A. growth of primary spermatocytes through mitosis
B. formation of ovum from primary oocytes through meiosis
C. creation of polar bodies from primary oocytes through meiosis
D. development of spermatids from secondary spermatocytes through meiosis II

27. Heterozygous genotype have two different alleles of a particular gene/s. Which of the following is a
heterozygous dominant genotype?
A. HH B. Hh C. HHH D. hh

28. Variation is the difference among individuals. The siblings in a family differs from the physical appearance.
Which refers to the physical appearance of an organism?
A. Genotype B. Homozygote C. Heterozygote D. Phenotype

29. Punnett Square is used to determine the possible traits of an offspring. Which refers to the offspring
resulting from a cross between homozygous parents with two contrasting traits?
A. Crossbred B. Multiple Allele C. Hybrid D. Purebred

30. Economically important species or species that have actual or potential value in trade or utilization for
commercial purposes are valuable sources of income for people. Which are categories of the value of species?
I. aesthetic III. direct economic value
II. recreational value IV. indirect economic value

A. I and II B. I, III and IV C. III and IV D. I, II and III

31. Endangered species refers to species or subspecies that are not critically endangered but whose survival
in the wild is unlikely to thrive if unwanted human factors continue operating. Which policy promotes the
protection and welfare of endangered species?
A. Prohibit Kaingin system as it leads species to become extinct.
B. Regulate hunting of animals specially the endangered and endemic species.
C. Ban cutting of young trees as birds may lose habitat.
D. All of the above

32. Which Republic Act provides for the conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their habitats to
promote ecological balance and enhance biological diversity?
A. Republic Act 9003 C. Republic Act 7586
B. Republic Act 9147 D. Republic Act 7587

33. Ecosystem stability is the ability of an ecosystem to maintain a steady state, even after a stress or
disturbance. Which is NOT a principle of an ecosystem stability?
A. Biodiversity is maintained.
B. Ecosystems use sunlight as source of energy.
C. Ecosystems replenish nutrients by recycling all elements.
D. The size of a consumer population is not maintained such that overgrazing and other forms of
overuse do not occur.

34. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants make their own food. Which gas is needed by plants to
manufacture food?
A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen C. Oxygen D. Water
35. Water cycle is a biogeochemical cycle that describes the continuous movement of water on, above and
below the surface of the Earth. Which is/are done by animals that gives up water to undergo the water cycle?
I. breathing II. perspiration III. urination

A. III only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

36. Oxygen-carbon dioxide cycle is a biogeochemical cycle that involves plants, animals and humans. What is
the role of animals in the cycling of materials in the ecosystem?
A. They give off oxygen to the atmosphere.
B. They release carbon dioxide during cellular respiration.
 C. They release nitrogen during oxygen-carbon dioxide cycle.
D. They release nitrogen into the soil when they breakdown dead organism.

37. Plants are photoautotrophs while animals are heterotrophic organisms. Which is correct about the
relationship of plants and animals in an ecosystem?
A. Animals are dependent on dead plants.
B. Plants are used as fertilizers for animals.
C. Plants provide carbon dioxide for animals while animals provide oxygen for the plants.
D. Plants provide oxygen for the animals while animals provide carbon dioxide for the plants.

38. A farmer is spraying chemicals on his crops to kill insects. The chemicals that he uses leaks into the river.
Which most likely happen to the organisms that live in the river?
A. They change color. B. They get sick or die.
C. They have more food to eat. D. They have more energy to use.

39. The government issued a law to address biodiversity concerns. Which human activity has the most positive
environmental impact on the environment?
A. Export of different kinds of endangered species
B. Use of pesticides to control insect populations
C. Reforestation and crop rotation to inhibit soil erosion
D. Overhunting of many predators to avoid the death of prey animals

40. Diversity is the state of being diverse; variety. Which describes genetic diversity?
A. variety of ecosystems in a given area
B. variety of all living and non-living things in a given area
C. variety of genes within a species or population in a given area
D. disturbance in the environment conditions that cause genetic changes to occur in organisms

41. Humans hunt organisms for different purposes; some for food while the others are for recreation. Which
prediction will happen when hunting and collecting of wildlife animals for trade to help raise economic status of
some people continue?
A. It decreases the existence of wildlife species.
B. It decreases the crimes committed by people.
C. It increases the biodiversity of wildlife species.
D. It increases the reproduction of wildlife species.

42. Biodiversity refers to the variety of life on Earth while sustainability refers to the ability to maintain or
support a process continuously over time. Which of the following is correct about the interrelatedness of
biodiversity and sustainability?
A. Biodiversity has nothing to do with sustainability.
B. The lower the biodiversity, the greater the sustainability.
C. The higher the biodiversity, the greater the sustainability.
D. The higher the biodiversity, the less sustainable the ecosystem.

43. Carolus Linnaeus is a Botanist who first to classify organisms. Which is the largest category in classifying
organisms?
A. class B. family C. domain D. species

44. Organisms can live in different ecosystems like marine, freshwater, forest and etc. Which of these groups
live and settle in diverse places and even in the most extreme environments?
A. Archaea B. Eukarya C. Eubacteria D. Protista

45. Scientific name is composed of two names; the first name came from the generic name while the second
name is the species name. Which is the correctly written scientific name of the lion?
A. Panthera Leo B. Panthera leo
C. Panthera leo D. Panthera Leo

46. Phylum is a principal taxonomic category that ranks above class and below kingdom. Which group is
considered as the most successful of all animal phyla because they are present in almost all types of habitats?
A. Phylum Annelida B. Phylum Molluska
C. Phylum Chordata D. Phylum Arthropoda

47. Anthropogenic activities are human activities that can cause pollution to the environment. Which
anthropogenic activity is encouraged to protect and preserve biodiversity?
A. Biological Pollution B. Logging and Pouching C. Kaingin D. Reforestation
48. The government issued laws to address biodiversity concerns. Which Republic Act provides for the
conservation and protection of wildlife resources and their habitats to promote ecological balance and enhance
biological diversity?
A. Republic Act 9003 B. Republic Act 7586
C. Republic Act 9147 D. Republic Act 7587

49. Direct economic value refers to the utilization of biological resources either for direct consumption or for
commercial purposes. Which of the following shows direct economic value of species?
A. bangus grown in farms
B. butterfly pollenating a rose flower in a garden
C. trees along riverbanks preventing soil erosion
D. scenic view over chocolate hills in Bohol

50. Threatened species are any species which are vulnerable to extinction in the near future. Which of the
following criteria are considered in determining when a species is threatened?
I. Inadequacy of existing regulatory mechanism
II. Modification or curtailment of its habitat and range
III. Natural or man-made factors affecting the existence of wildlife
IV. Over-utilization for commercial, recreational, scientific or educational purposes

A. I, II and III B. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. I, II, III and IV