Professional Documents
Culture Documents
0 (2024)
PRACTICE TEST - 08
DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 03/12/2023 M.MARKS : 300
Topics Covered
Physics: Center of Mass (Complete Chapter), Rotational Motion (Moment of Inertia, Perpendicular Axis and
Parallel Axis Theorem, Radius of Gyration, Torque, Rotational Equilibrium, Toppling, Rotation
about Fixed Axis)
Chemistry: IUPAC Nomenclature (till naming of polyfunctional compounds)
Mathematics: Sequence and Series (Full Chapter), Binomial Theorem (Full Chapter)
General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
4. There are Three Sections in the question paper, Section I, II & III consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II (Chemistry),
Section-III (Mathematics) and having 30 questions in each part in which first 20 questions are compulsory and are of
Objective Type and Last 10 questions are integers type in which you have to attempt 5 questions only.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
9. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR) .
[1]
Section-I (PHYSICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 6. A circle and a square (wire frame) each of mass m
1. Two spheres of same mass and radius are in contact are arranged as shown in the diagram. The diameter
with each other. If the moment of inertia of a sphere of the circle and the edge of the square are 2R each.
about its diameter is I, then the moment of inertia of Find moment of inertia of this configuration about
both the spheres about the tangent at their common
XX.
point would be-
(A) 3I (B) 7I
(C) 4I (D) 5I
5 5 5 7
(A) , (B) ,
6 6 6 6
5 5 5 5
(C) , (D) ,
3 6 6 7
11R5 26R5
(A) (B)
18 3 9. A rod of length ‘L’ is hinged from one end. It is
29 R5 26 R5 brought to a horizontal position and released. The
(C) (D)
30 15 angular velocity of the rod when it is in vertical
position is
5. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of the same mass 2g 3g
have the same moments of inertia about their (A) (B)
L L
respective diameters, the ratio of their radii is
(A) (5)1/2 : (3)1/2 (B) (3)1/2 : (5)1/2 g g
(C) (D)
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 3 2L L
[2]
10. A disc of radius 2 m and mass 200 kg is acted upon 15. Three rings, each of mass P and radius Q are
by a torque 100 N-m. Its angular acceleration would arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of
be inertia of the arrangement about YY’ axis will be
(A) 1 rad/sec2
(B) 0.25 rad/sec2
(C) 0.5 rad/sec2
(D) 2 rad/sec2
[3]
19. For the given uniform square lamina ABCD, whose 26. A rigid body can by hinged any point on the
centre is O x-axis. When it is hinged such that the hinge is at x,
the moment of inertia is given by I = (2x2 – 12x + 27)
kg-m2. What is the x-coordinate of centre of mass?
24. A torque of 2 newton-m produces an angular , as shown in the accompanying diagram, it is just
acceleration of 2 rad/sec2 a body. If its radius of 1
about to slip. If = tan −1 , then find the value
gyration is 2 m, its mass will be P/4 kg, then find p
the value of P is of p.
[4]
Section-II (CHEMISTRY)
Single Correct Type Questions 36. The correct structure of 6-Ethyl-2, 3, 5-
31. Which of the following does not represent 2- trimethylnonane is:
Bromo pentane?
I. (A)
(B)
II.
III.
(C)
IV.
V. CH3CH2CH2CHBrCH3
(A) II, III and V (B) Only II (D)
(C) II and III (D) III and V
32. Which of the following compound has sp, sp2 and 37. Root word used, if nine carbon atoms are present
sp3 hybrid carbon atoms? in the parent carbon chain of a compound is:
(A) Oct (B) Non
(A) (C) Enn (D) Hept
→ 3-Methylbutanal
(C) CH3 – CH – CH – CH 3
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 4
OH CH3
→ 2-Methyl-3-butanol
34. The correct IUPAC name of the following
compound is:
(D)
→ 2-Methyl-3-pentanone
(A) 6-Bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol
(B) 1-Bromo-4-chloro-5-methylhexan-3-ol 39. What will be the general formula of amine?
(C) 6-Bromo-4-chloro-2-methylhexan-4-ol (A) CnH2n+2N
(D) 1-Bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
(B) CnH2nN
35. Identify which of the following functional group (C) CnH2n+3N
is not present in the given compound? (D) CnH2n+1N
[5]
41. What will be the degree of unsaturation in the
following compound?
46.
[6]
Integer Type Questions 57. What will be DBE for the following compound?
51. What will be the sum of σ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 π bonds in the
following compound?
(ii) 5-Ethyl-1-
methyl-2-
53. The total number of -bond electrons in the
propylcyloh
following structure is
exane
(iii) 1, 2, 4-
Tribormo-3,
5, 6-
trichlorocylo
hexane
(iv) 4-Bromo-2-
54. What will be the sum of 1o, 2o and 3o hydrogens in
chloro-4-
the following compound?
methyl-2-
nitrohexane
[7]
Section-III (MATHEMATICS)
Single Correct Type Questions 68. The sum of 50 terms of the series
61. Let an , bn , cn where n N are 3 5 7
+ 2 2 + 2 2 2 + .... is
arithmetic progressions, such that a1 + b1 + c1 = 10 1 1 +2 1 +2 +3
2
b b b n
62. If a, b, c are in H.P., then a − , , c − are in 1
2 2 2 69. In the binomial expansion of x + 4 the first
(A) A.P. (B) G.P. 2 x
(C) A.G.P. (D) H.P. three coefficient form an arithmetic progression,
then sum of coefficients of all the terms is
63. If (1 + x)n = C0 + C1x + C2 x2 + .... + Cn xn , then the 3
5
3
6
(A) (B)
value of C0 − 3C1 + 5C2 − .... + (−1)n (2n +1)Cn is 2 2
(A) (n – 1)2n (B) 0 3
7
3
8
[8]
73. If (1 + x + x2)25 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + .... + a50x50, then 79. If a, b, c are non-zero real numbers, then the
minimum value of expression
a0 + a2 + a4 + .... + a50 is
(A) even ( )(
a8 + 4a4 + 1 b4 + 3b2 + 1 c2 + 2c + 2
)( ) equals
a4b2
(B) odd and of the form 3n
(C) odd and of the form (3n – 1) (A) 24 (B) 30
(D) odd and of the form (3n + 1) (C) 48 (D) 12
78. If the sum of the series 86. If the coefficients of (2r + 4)th and (r – 2)th term in
the expansion of (1 + x)18 are equal, find r.
2 4 1
25 + 24 + 23 + 23 + ..... is maximum, then
5 5 5
2
10 10
(A) last term of the series is 0 87. Sum of series S = 1 + 2 + 3 + .... upto
11 11
1
(B) last term of the series is infinite terms, is equal to
5
(C) number of terms of the series are 42 2015
[9]
89. If the series S = 1 + (1 + 3) + (1 + 3 + 5) + (1 + 3 + 90. If a2 + b = 2, then maximum value of the term
5 + 7) + …….. contains 5050 terms, then the value independent of x in the expansion of (ax1/6 + bx–1/3)9
S is equal to (where a > 0, b > 0)
of is equal to
5050
PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4
Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if
[10]