Lebanese University

Lebanese University Faculty of Sciences

Faculty of Sciences

C1100
General Chemistry
Department of Chemistry and Biochemistry

Fall Semester
2021/2022

©opyright Reserved
 CHAPTER 1

Atomicity and Classification of Elements in Periodic Table

Chapter Review
 Paramagnetism and Diamagnetism
 Paramagnetic elements are the elements, which have a number of unpaired electrons (n ≥ 1) with
parallel spins reinforcing each other. Paramagnetic substances are attracted by a magnet.
 Diamagnetic elements are the elements in which all electrons are paired, or antiparallel to each
other (the number of unpaired electrons is n = 0). In these elements, the magnetic effect cancel
out. Diamagnetic substances are slightly repelled by a magnet.

 Rydberg- Balmer formula:

 Rydberg-Balmer formula for hydrogen atom and hydrogenoide species:
𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏
= 𝑹𝑹𝑯𝑯 𝒁𝒁𝟐𝟐 � 𝟐𝟐 − � RH = 1.097 x 107m-1 (m > n and n ≠ 0)
𝝀𝝀 𝒏𝒏 𝒎𝒎𝟐𝟐

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 Bohr Model:
 Bohr model: the energy of orbit n for hydrogen atom and hydrogenoide species is given by:

𝒁𝒁 𝟐𝟐 −𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝒁𝒁 𝟐𝟐
𝐄𝐄𝐧𝐧 = −𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟔𝟔 � � 𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆 = −𝟐𝟐. 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 × 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 � � 𝑱𝑱
𝒏𝒏 𝒏𝒏

𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓𝐧𝐧𝟐𝟐
 The radius of hydrogen atom and Hydrogenoide atoms is given by 𝐫𝐫 = 𝐩𝐩𝐩𝐩
𝐙𝐙

 Some Constants

; RH = 109677 cm–1; c = 3×108m/s; h = 6.626×10–34 J.sec; 1 nm = 10–9 m,

m(electron) = 9.1×10−31kg; NA= 6.023×1023; 1 eV = 1.6×10−19 J ;

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 Multiple Choice Questions

I. Electromagnetic Radiation and Nature of Matter

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1. In the copper atom 29 Cu , there is:
A) 29 neutrons, 34 protons, 34 electrons B) 63 nucleons, 29 protons, 29 electrons
C) 29 neutrons, 63 nucleons, 34 electrons D) 34 neutrons, 63 nucleons, 29 protons
E) B and D

2. Which of the following are isotopes?

A) 14 C and 14 C . B) 14 C and 14
N. C) 12 C and 28
Si . D) 14 N and 15
N E) B and D

3. What is the energy of a photon of light with a wavelength of 6.0x102 nm?

A) 1.10 x10–19 J B) 3.31 x10–19 J C) 2.71 x1018 J
D) 3.68 x10–20 J E) 1.33 x10–18 J

4. The blue color in fireworks is often achieved by heating copper(I) chloride (CuCl) to about 1200°C)
Then the compound emits blue light having an energy 4.41 x10–19 J. What is the wavelength of this
blue light?
A) 360 nm B) 450 nm C) 360 m
D) 450 m E) 237 nm

II. The Photoelectric Effect

5. When light having a wavelength of 497 nm strikes a metal coating of an emitter, an electron with
kinetic energy of 2.52 x 10-19 J is ejected. What is the threshold frequency for this metal?
A) 6.78 × 1014 s-1 B) 3.80 × 1014 s-1 C) 6.04 × 1014 s-1
14
D) 2.23 × 10 s -1 14
E) 5.75 × 10 s -1

6. What is the binding energy or work function (in J/mol or kJ/mol) of an electron in a metal whose
threshold frequency for photoelectrons is 2.50 × 1014 /s?
A) 99.7 kJ/mol B) 1.66 × 10-19 J/mol C) 2.75 × 10-43 J/mol
D) 7.22 × 1017 kJ/mol E) 1.20 × 10-6 J/mol

III. de Broglie’s equation

7. An alpha particle (helium nucleus He) has a velocity of 10.0% of the speed of light. What is its de
Broglie wavelength (in m)? (mass of He particle is 6.65×10-27 kg).
A) 3.32 x 10-15 m B) 3.30 x 10-18 m C) 3.70 x 10-16m
D) 1.22 x 10-15 m E) 3.50 x 10-21 m

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IV. The Atomic Spectrum of Hydrogen, Bohr’s Model
8. Knowing the wavelength of a photon (500 nm) absorbed by a hydrogen atom move the electron from
energy level n = 2 to n = 3. We can calculate:
A) The energy of the photon emitted by the electron when it drops from n=3 to n =2
B) The energy of the photon absorbed by the electron
C) The transition energy of the electron from n=2 to n=3
D) All of the above answers are correct
E) All of the above answers are incorrect

9. What is the wavelength of a photon emitted when the electron of H atom drops from level n=5 to
level n =2?
A) 5.12 × 10-7 m B) 4.34 × 10-7 m C) 6.50 × 10-7 m
D) 5.82 × 10-7 m E) none of the above

10. For which of the following transitions does the light emitted have the longest wavelength?
A) n = 4 to n = 3 B) n = 4 to n = 2 C) n = 4 to n = 1
D) n = 3 to n = 2 E) n = 2 to n = 1

11. Which one of the following transitions for the H atom produces radiation of the shortest
wavelength?
A) n = 2 to n = 3 B) n = 3 to n = 2 C) n = 5 to n = 6
D) n = 6 to n = 5 E) n = 2 to n = 1

12. The ionization energy of the ground state of a certain hydrogen like species is 106.82 x 10-18 J/atom.
How many protons are contained in the nucleus?
A) 1 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

13. In 42𝐻𝐻𝐻𝐻 + ion, an excited electron is found initially at a certain level ni. When this electron falls down
into n = 2, the wavelength of the radiation emitted is λ = 164.6 ×10-9 m. Determine ni.
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6 E) 7

14. A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs a photon of a frequency 3.223x1015/sec. Following this
process, it emits a photon characterized by a frequency of 2.98x1014/sec. What is the final energetic
level of the electron of this atom?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

15. For Be3+, the transition energy of an electron from the second excited level (n = 3) to the third excited
level (n = 4) is:
A) 10.6 J B) 30 eV C) 1.68 × 10-18 eV D) 10.6 eV E) 30 J

16. According to the Bohr model, which of the following species requires the most energy to ionize?
A) 7N6+ B) 1H C) 8O7+ D) 3Li2+ E) 2He+

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V. Quantum Numbers
17. Indicate which of the following combinations is (are) correct:
A) n=3, ℓ =0, mℓ =0, ms = -1/2 B) n=2, mℓ =3, mℓ =0, ms =+1/2
C) n=3, ℓ =2, mℓ =-1,ms= -1/2 D) n=2, ℓ =2, mℓ =-1, ms =+1/2
E) A and C

18. The number of possible values of the magnetic quantum number (mℓ) corresponding to a d sub-shell
is:
A) 3 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12 E) 16

19. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers describes a valence electron of a chlorine atom
(17Cl)?
A) n = 2, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = +1/2 B) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +1/2
C) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 2, ms = -1/2 D) n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = -1/2
E) n = 4, l = 2, ml = -2, ms = -1/2

20. How many electrons can be described by these quantum numbers? n=4, ml = -2, ms = +1/2
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 6

21. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 1?
A) 10 B) 2 C) 6 D) 18 E) 32

22. How many electrons can be described by the quantum numbers n = 3, l = 3, ml = -1?
A) 0 B) 2 C) 6 D) 10 E) 14

23. Which of the following is not a valid value for the magnetic quantum number (ml) of an electron in
5d subshell?
A) 3 B) 0 C) -1 D) 1 E) 2

24. Which gas-phase atom in its ground state could have an electron with the quantum numbers:
n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = –1/2?
A) Na B) Mg C) P D) Ti E) None of these

25. The maximum number of electrons having the quantum numbers n = 4, ms = +1/2 is:
A) 16 B) 32 C) 14 D) 36 E) 43

26. Which of the following electrons, identified only by their n and l quantum numbers, has the highest
energy :
I. n = 3, l = 0 II. n = 4, l = 1 III. n = 3, l = 2 IV. n = 4, l = 2
A) IV B) II C) III D) I E) All of these have the same energy

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27. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers could represent the "last" electron added to
complete the electron configuration for a ground state atom of As (Z = 33).
A) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = + ½
B) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –1, ms = – ½
C) n = 4, l = 1, ml = +1, ms = + ½
D) n = 4, l = 1, ml = +1, ms = – ½
E) C and D

28. Give the corresponding atomic orbital designations for electrons with the following quantum
numbers. n l ml ms
1) 2 1 0 -1/2
2) 5 3 -1 -1/2
3) 3 2 +1 -1/2
A) 2p, 5f, 3f B) 2p, 5d, 3p C) 2s, 5d, 3p
D) 2p, 5f, 3p E) 2p, 5f, 3d

VI. Orbital Shapes and Energies, Polyelectron Atoms

29. What type of orbital is occupied by an electron with the quantum numbers n = 5, l = 3. How many
orbitals of this type are found in a multi-electron atom?
A) 5p, 6 B) 5f, 14 C) 5p, 3 D) 5d, 2 E) 5f, 7

VII. Aufbau Principle, Electron Configurations, Periodic Table

30. For an atom in the ground state, which of the following electron configuration is correct ?
A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d9 B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d4 C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d6
D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5 E) None of the above

31. In the ground state of a cobalt (27Co) atom, there are … unpaired electrons.
A) One B) two C) three D) six E) seven

32. The electronic configuration of Cr+ in the ground state is:

A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d4 B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5
C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 4d4 D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s13p3 3d10
E) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 4d5

33. Consider the following atoms and ions; which is (are) isoelectronic with Argon?
I. Cl- II. Mg III. P IV. K+ V. Ce
A) only I B) I and IV C) Only IV D) II, III, and V E) none of these

34. A ground-state atom of manganese (25Mn) has ___ unpaired electrons and is _____.
A) 0, diamagnetic B) 2, diamagnetic C) 3, paramagnetic
D) 5, paramagnetic E) 7, paramagnetic

35. A ground-state chromium 24Cr atom has how many single electrons?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 3
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36. Which of the following BEST describes the ground state electronic configuration of the P atom?
A) [Ne]3s23px23py1
B) [Ne]3s13px23py2
C) Ne]3s23px13py13pz1, two p spins of +1/2, one p spin of -1/2
D) [Ne]3s23px13py13pz1, three p spins of +1/2
E) Ne]3s23px13py13pz1, one p spin of +1/2, two p spin of -1/2

VIII. Periodic Trends in Atomic Properties

37. Rank the following main group elements in order of decreasing atomic size: Br, Rb, Kr, Ca, Sr.
A) Rb < Sr < Ca < Br < Kr B) Ca > Br > Kr > Rb > Sr
C) Rb > Sr > Ca > Br > Kr D) Ca > Rb > Sr > Br > Kr
E) Kr > Br > Ca > Sr > Rb

38. Which of the following has the smallest radius?

A) 35Br34+ B) 85At84+ C) 4Be3+ D) 6C5+ E) 13Al12+

39. Which element has the highest first ionization energy?

A) Be B) B C) N D) C E) O

40. Consider the following electron configurations to answer the following question:
(I) [Kr] 5s1 (II) [Ne] 3s2 3p5 (III) [Ar] 4s2 3d10 4p4
(IV) [Ne] 3s2 3p6 (V) [Ar] 4s1

The electron configuration of the atom that is expected to have the highest IE1 is:
A) (I) B) (II) C) (III) D) (IV) E) (V)

41. Of the choices below, which gives the correct order for first ionization energies?
A) Br> Se > Ga > Ca > K B) Br> K > Ca > Ga >Se
C) K> Ga > Ca > Se > Br D) Br> Ca > Se > Ga > K
E) Br> Se > Ca > Ga > K

42. When you move from left to right within the same row of a periodic table, the electron affinity will
becomes:
A) more negative B) less negative C) remains constant D) need more information

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 CHAPTER 2

Chemical Bonding and Hybridization

Chapter Review
 The dipole moment
 The molecule is neutral on the whole, but it has two poles, one positive, and the other negative.
If the electronegativity of the two atoms is the same (molecules symmetrical, H2, N2, O2...) the
bond will not be polarized and the molecule is nonpolar.

 If the electronegativity of the two atoms is very different, the bond will be polarized (asymmetric
molecules, HCl, HF,...). The more electronegative atom will attract the shared pairs to it. The
molecule is polar and similar to a dipole, formed by the set of two charges + q and - q, separated
by a distance d.

 Consider an A - B bond between two atoms A and B and let B more electronegative than A. The
shared electrons is more attracted to the more electronegative atom, here B. Everything happens
as if A was a partial positive charge and B a partial negative one, then δB = - δA

 An electric dipole has been created. It is characterized by its dipole moment, µ:

 The dipole moment is a vector scale, whose direction is that of the binding and its way is from
the positive pole to the negative pole. Its intensity is given by the relation:

µ=δxd

 δ: partial charge in coulomb (C); δ = 0 the bond is purely covalent.

 dA-B: bond distance in meter (m)
 µ: dipole moment in C.m. In practice we use the Debye units, D with 1 D = 3.33 x 10-30 C.m

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 Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following species has a triple bond?

A) CO2 B) C2H4 C) NH3 D) C22- E) H2CO

2. Which of the following does not conform to the Lewis octet rule?
A) CH4 B) CO C) CO2 D) BF3 E) H2S

3. Consider the following species. Which contain an odd number of electrons?

1) BrO3 2) HO2- 3) N2O 4) SO3 5) SO32-
A) 1, 3 and 4 B) 2 and 5 C) 3 and 4 D) only 1 E) only 2

4. Which of the species in the following list is square planar?

1) BF4- 2) SF4 3) XeF4 4) SiF4 5) PCl4-
A) 1 and 4 B) 4 only C) 1 only D) 3 only E) 1 and 3

5. Which of the species in the following list is trigonal planar?

1) ClF3 2) BF3 3) ClO3- 3) GeCl3+ 5) SiH3-
A) 3 and 5 B) 3 only C) 1 only D) 2 and 4 E) 1 and 3

6. The shape of BrF4- is :

A) Square planar B) see-saw C) angular D) linear E) tetrahedral

7. The shape of NF4+ is :

A) Tetrahedral B) see-saw C) angular D) linear E) square planar

8. How many lone pair(s) of electrons are there in the valence shell of the central atom in BrF3?
A) two B) four C) zero D) one E) three

9. The bond angles in IF2+ are:

A) Slightly less than 90o B) exactly 120o C) exactly 109.5o
D) exactly 90o E) slightly less than 109.5o

10. Which of the following has bond angles ≤ 120o?

1) ClF3 2) BF3 3) ClO3- 4) SF4 5) GeCl4
A) 1 and 4 B) 2 and 4 C) 2 only D) 4 only E) 5 only

11. Consider the following molecules and select those that are nonpolar.
1) XeF4 2) SF4 3) SiF4
A) 1 and 3 B) 1 only C) 3 only D) 2 only E) 1 and 2

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12. Which of the species in the following list is trigonal pyramid?
1) ClF3 2) BF3 3) ClO3- 4) GeCl3+ 5) SiH3-
A) 3 and 5 B) 3 only C) 2 and 4 D) 1 only E) 1 and 3

13. Which of the following has a dipole moment?

A) CO2 and BF3 B) CO2 C) SO2 D) BF3 and SO2 E) BF3

14. Which of the following structures represents the BEST Lewis structure for NOCl?

15. Rank the following bonds in order of increasing polarity.

I. F−O II. F−P III. F−S IV. F−F
A) IV < II < III < I B) II < III < I < IV C) III < II < I < IV
D) I < II < IV < III E) IV < I < III < II

16. What are the formal charges on the central atoms in each of the following structures?

B N O
A) 0 +1 -1
B) -1 +1 +1
C) +1 +1 -1
D) -1 0 +1
E) +1 -1 0

17. In which structure(s) below does nitrogen have a formal charge of +1?

A) I B) II and IV C) III and V D) I and V E) V

18. What types of hybrid orbitals are involved in bonding of TeF4?

A) sp3 B) dsp3 C) sp2 D) sp E) d2sp3

19. What angles exist between sp hybrid orbitals?

A) 109.5o B) 180o C) 105o D) 120o E) 90o

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20. How many orbitals does the sp3d2 hybrid orbitals set contain?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6

21. Consider the molecule below and identify the correct statement.
A) There is 1 carbon with sp3 hybridization
B) There are 2 carbons with sp3 hybridization
C) There are 3 carbons with sp3 hybridization
D) There are 4 carbons with sp3 hybridization
E) There are 6 carbons with sp3 hybridization

22. How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds does the following molecule
contain?
A) 7σ, 2π B) 9σ, 2 π C) 12σ, 2 π
D) 15σ, 2 π E) 16σ, 2 π

11
 CHAPTER 3

Thermodynamics

Chapter Review
 Types of systems
 Open system: can exchange mass and energy usually in the form of heat with its surroundings
(hot water in open beaker).
 Closed System: allows the transfer of heat but not mass.
 Isolated System: does not allow the transfer of either the energy or the mass.

 State variables
The set of conditions that completely specifies the properties of the system. These include:
temperature, pressure, composition and volume. The properties of these variables are of two types:
1. Intensive Properties: Do not depend on the amount of substance (temperature, pressure, density)
2. Extensive Properties: Depend on the amount of substance ( mass. volume, Energy)

 State Functions
It is a quantity whose changed value depends only on the final and initial state and not on the path.
Suppose a state function Z has its initial state Zi and final state Zf, then the change in the state function
Z is: ∆Z = Zf – Zi. The change in a state function does not depend on how the process is carried out.
Work (w) and heat (q) changes are not state functions.

 Types of Systems Regarding their Thermodynamic Conditions

 Isothermal System or Isothermal Change: system at constant temperature (supply or take
away just enough heat so that the temperature remains constant).
 Adiabatic System or Adiabatic Change: No heat is exchanged during change, that is, the
system is insulated from its surroundings. (no heat transfer between system and surroundings.
 Isobaric (constant pressure)
 Isochoric (constant volume)
 Reversible Process (always in Equilibrium)
 Irreversible Process (defines direction of time)

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 Process quantities: Processes that depend on the pathway they are related to a process and not to a
system (work and heat)

 Work Calculation
𝑉𝑉2
𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = −𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 . 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 ⇒ 𝑊𝑊 = − � 𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑
𝑉𝑉1

 Case 1: When Pext is constant

𝑉𝑉2 𝑉𝑉2
𝑊𝑊 = − � 𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = −𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 � 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = −𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 ∆𝑉𝑉
𝑉𝑉1 𝑉𝑉1

 Case 2: When Pext is variable and the work is reversible and isothermal (constant
temperature),
The gas is considered ideal (perfect) ⇒ equation of state:
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛
𝑃𝑃𝑃𝑃 = 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 ⇒ 𝑃𝑃 =
𝑉𝑉

𝑉𝑉2 𝑉𝑉2
𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 𝑉𝑉2
𝑊𝑊𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟𝑟 = − � 𝑃𝑃𝑒𝑒𝑒𝑒 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = − � 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = −𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛 � �
𝑉𝑉1 𝑉𝑉1 𝑉𝑉 𝑉𝑉1
 Heat (q)
 Heat Capacity (c, J): 𝝏𝝏𝝏𝝏 = 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄
 Molar Heat Capacity (c, J/mol. K): 𝝏𝝏𝝏𝝏 = 𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏
 Specific Heat Capacity (c = s, J/g. K): 𝝏𝝏𝝏𝝏 = 𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎
 Isothermal Reversible Expansion of a perfect gas
𝑽𝑽
 Internal Energy: ΔE = qrev + wrev = 0 ⇒ 𝒒𝒒𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓 = −𝑾𝑾𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓 = 𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏𝒏 �𝑽𝑽𝟐𝟐 �
𝟏𝟏

 According to first Law: ∆𝑬𝑬 = 𝒒𝒒 + 𝒘𝒘 = 𝒒𝒒 − 𝑷𝑷∆𝑽𝑽

 At constant volume: 𝒒𝒒𝑽𝑽 = ∆𝑬𝑬 = 𝒏𝒏𝑪𝑪𝑽𝑽 ∆𝑻𝑻

 At constant pressure: 𝒒𝒒𝑷𝑷 = ∆𝑯𝑯 = 𝒏𝒏𝑪𝑪𝒑𝒑 ∆𝑻𝑻

𝒒𝒒𝑷𝑷 = ∆𝑯𝑯 = ∆𝑬𝑬 + 𝑷𝑷∆𝑽𝑽

 Molar Heat capacities 𝑪𝑪𝑷𝑷 = 𝑪𝑪𝑽𝑽 + 𝑹𝑹(𝑱𝑱. 𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎𝒎−𝟏𝟏 𝑲𝑲−𝟏𝟏 )

 For chemical Reaction: ∆𝑯𝑯𝒓𝒓 = ∆𝑬𝑬𝒓𝒓 + 𝑹𝑹𝑹𝑹∆𝒏𝒏

∆𝒏𝒏 = ∑ 𝒏𝒏𝑷𝑷 − ∑ 𝒏𝒏𝑹𝑹 (Only for gases species)

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 Bond Formation Energy (BFE):
 All Reactants and Products are in gaseous state
∆𝐫𝐫 𝐇𝐇 𝐨𝐨 = ∑ 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑷𝑷 − ∑ 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑹𝑹
Or ∆𝐫𝐫 𝐇𝐇 𝐨𝐨 = ∑ 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑹𝑹 − ∑ 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑷𝑷

 If some species are in solid or liquid states, the equation will be as follows:
𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨
∆𝐫𝐫 𝐇𝐇 𝐨𝐨 = �� 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩 − � 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩 � + �𝐚𝐚∆𝐇𝐇𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐨
+ 𝐛𝐛∆𝐇𝐇𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯 �𝑹𝑹 − �𝐜𝐜∆𝐇𝐇𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐨
+ 𝐝𝐝∆𝐇𝐇𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯 �𝑷𝑷
𝑷𝑷 𝑹𝑹

OR
𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨
∆𝐫𝐫 𝐇𝐇 𝐨𝐨 = �� 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩 − � 𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩𝑩 � + �𝐚𝐚∆𝐇𝐇𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐨
+ 𝐛𝐛∆𝐇𝐇𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯 �𝑹𝑹 − �𝐜𝐜∆𝐇𝐇𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬 𝐨𝐨
+ 𝐝𝐝∆𝐇𝐇𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯𝐯 �𝑷𝑷
𝑹𝑹 𝑷𝑷

 Example

6C(s) + 3H2(g) → C6H6(g)

 First Method:

𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨
∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇 𝐨𝐨 = [𝟔𝟔∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂−𝐇𝐇 + 𝟑𝟑∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂−𝐇𝐇 + 𝟑𝟑∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂=𝐂𝐂 ] − [𝟑𝟑∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐇𝐇−𝐇𝐇 ] + [𝟔𝟔∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂(𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬) ]

 Second Method: By Diagram

𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨 𝐨𝐨
∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇 𝐨𝐨 = [𝟔𝟔∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂−𝐇𝐇 + 𝟑𝟑∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂−𝐇𝐇 + 𝟑𝟑∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂=𝐂𝐂 ] − [𝟑𝟑∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐇𝐇−𝐇𝐇 ] + [𝟔𝟔∆𝐟𝐟 𝐇𝐇𝐂𝐂(𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬𝐬) ]

14
 Simple definition of a change in entropy

∂qrev nc∂T
T
2
c∂T
dS = = ⇒ ∆S = n ∫
T T T1
T

T 
 At constant pressure and constant Cp : ∆S = nC P ln 2 
 T1 
T 
 At constant volume and constant CV : ∆S = nCV ln 2 
 T1 
dq rev dw nRT ln  V2 
 Isothermal Reversible Expansion ∆S = ∫ = ∫ − rev =  
T T T  V1 

 Phase Transitions and Temperature

 Equilibrium System of the following reaction:

H2 (g) + I (s) ⇄ 2HI (g)

 [HI]eq
2
 2
(PHI )eq
KC =   KP =
 [H ]  (PH 2 )eq
 2 eq 
 Equilibrium System of the following reaction:
Zn (s) + 2H+ (aq) ⇄ Zn2+ (aq) + H2 (g)

ΔG r = ΔG or + RT.LnQ
 [Zn 2+ ] × PH 2 
ΔG r = ΔG + RT.Ln
o 
r
 [H + ]2 
 
15
 Multiple Choice Questions

1. A cylinder contains 7.0g of nitrogen gas. How much work must be done to compress the gas at a
constant temperature of 80̊ C until the volume is halved reversibly?
A) -508 J B) 50.8J C) -50.8J D) 508J E) 5.08 J

2. What is the name of an ideal-gas process in which no heat is transferred?

A) Isochoric B) Isentropic C) Isothermal D) Isobaric E) Adiabatic

3. For the following chemical reaction carried out at constant temperature and constant pressure,
predict the sign of w and tell whether work is done on or by the system
2NH4NO3(s)  2N2(g) + 4H2O(g) + O2(g)
A) w is positive, Work is done by the system.
B) w is positive, Work is done on the system
C) w is negative, Work is done by the system.
D) w is negative, Work is done on the system.
E) None of the above

4. Which one of the following conditions would always result in an increase in the internal energy of
a system?
A) The system loses heat and does work on the surroundings.
B) The system loses heat and has work done on it by the surroundings
C) The system gains heat and has work done on it by the surroundings.
D) The system gains heat and does work on the surroundings.
E) None of the above is correct
5. In an isobaric process, calculate the work done by an ideal gas of pressure, p, which expands to three
times its original volume, V.
A) 3P/V B) - 2PV C) -3PV D) PV/3 E) None of the above

6. Calculate the work done by a closed system consisting of 50.00g of argon gas, assumed ideal, when
it expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 5.000L to a volume of 10.000L at a
temperature of 25oC
A) 2146 J B) -2146 J C) -180.362J D) 180.362J E) 1716.5 J

7. A system undergoes a process in which ∆E = -300 J while releasing 100 J of heat energy and
undergoing an expansion against 1.0 atm. What is the change in the volume (L)?
A) 2 B) 5 C) 3 D) 4 E) 1

8. The following reaction is environmentally significant: 2CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g).
Both CO and CO2 are combustion products of hydrocarbon fuels. At constant T and P, which of the
following statements is correct?
A) ΔH = ΔE B) ΔH < ΔE C) ΔH > ΔE
D) T must be known to properly select an answer E) None of these answers
16
 9. Hess’s law states that the overall enthalpy change ∆H of a cyclic process is zero. Why is this true?
A) Because pressure is constant B) Because volume is constant
C) Because ∆H = ∆E D) Because ∆H is a state function
E) None of these answers

10. For which of the following reactions would the ∆Ho for the reaction be labeled ∆Hof ?
A) Al(s) + 3/2 H2(g) + 3/2 O2(g) → Al(OH)3(s) B) PCl3(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → POCl3(g)
C) 1/2 N2O(g) + 1/4 O2(g) → NO(g) D) CaO(s) + SO2(g) → CaSO3(s)
E) The ∆H for all these reactions would be labeled ∆H f
o o

11. What is the enthalpy change of the third reaction in terms of the enthalpy changes of the first two
reactions? 2H2(g) + O2(g) → 2H2O(l) ∆H1
4NH3(g) + 3O2(g) → 6H2O(l) + 2N2(g) ∆H2
4NH3(g) → 6H2(g) + 2N2(g) ∆H3
A) ∆H3 = ∆H2 - ∆H1/2 B) ∆H3 → ∆H2/2 - 3∆H1 C) ∆H3 = ∆H2 - ∆H1
D) ∆H3 = ∆H2 - 3∆H1 E) ∆H3 → 2∆H2 - 3∆H1

12. The value of ∆E for the following reaction is –59.4 kJ/mol at 298K. What is the value of ∆H in
kJ/mol at the same temperature? C6H6(l) → 6C(s) + 3H2(g)
A) +7.37 kJ/mol B) -44.6 kJ/mol C) -52.0 kJ/mol D) -59.4 kJ/mol E) -74,6 kJ/mol

13. At Temperature T, For iodine, I2, the standard enthalpy of fusion is 16.1 kJ mol–1 and the standard
enthalpy of vaporization is 45.0 kJ mol–1. Calculate the standard enthalpy of sublimation.
A) 61.1 kJ mol–1 B) 16.1 kJ mol–1 C) 25.0 kJ mol–1
D) 28.9 kJ mol–1 E) 114 kJ mol–1

5
14. Estimate the enthalpy of the equation: C2H2(g) + 2 O2(g)  2CO2(g) + H2O(g)
Bond formation energies are given below in kJ/mol.
C-C H-C H-O C=O C=C C≡C O=O
− 347 − 414 − 464 − 803 − 611 − 837 − 498
A) − 1230 kJ B) + 1230 kJ C) − 2475 kJ
D) − 869 KJ E) none of these answers

15. Let’s consider the following reaction :

CH3OH (l) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2O (g) ∆rHo = -613kJ/mol
Calculate the formation energy of C=O bond [∆fHo(C=O)]
Given the following data
CH3OH (CH3OH) ∆fHo (H-C) ∆fHo (H-O) ∆fHo (O=O) ∆fHo (C-O)

38 -414 - 464 -498 -358

kJ/mol kJ/mol kJ/mol kJ/mol kJ/mol

A) +803 kJ B) -803 kJ C) +358 kJ D) − 358 KJ E) None of these answers

17
16. For copper, the variation with temperature of the heat capacity at constant pressure, is given in J
mol–1 K–1 by the expression: Cp = 22.64 + (6.28 x 10–3) T. Calculate the change in the molar enthalpy
of copper when it is heated from 293 to 323 K.
A) +29.7 kJ mol–1 B) +1.23 kJ mol–1 C) +737.2 J mol–1
D) +1.13 kJ mol–1 E) none of these answers

17. Predict which of the following reactions has a negative entropy change.
I. 2AgNO3(s) AgNO2(s) + O2(g)
II. 3N2H4(l) 4 NH3(g) + N2(g)
III. 2Ag (aq) + CrO42-(aq)
+
Ag2CrO4(s)
A) II and III B) I and II C) I D) III E) II

18. Which of the following is true for reversible the free expansion of an ideal gas?
A) ∆Ssystem > 0 B) ∆Ssurroundings = 0 C) ∆Ssystem < 0
D) All of the above are true E) All of the above are wrong

19. Which of the following represents an increase in entropy?

A) Freezing of water B) Boiling of water
C) The reaction: 2NO(g)  N2O2(g) D) (B) and (C)
E) Crystallization of salt from a supersaturated solution

20. Consider the two equilibria below at 298 K

4HCl (g) + O2(g) 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g)
During the reaction
A) Disorder increases B) Disorder decreases
C) Disorder does not change D) Disorder increases only at T > 298 K
E) None of these statements is correct

21. Calculate the ∆So of vaporization in J/mol.K for methylene chloride, CH2Cl2, which boils at 40oC.
The heat of vaporization is 31.7 kJ/mol.
A) 31.7 B) 79 C) 101 D) 9.9 E) 75.3

22. Consider the following reaction 2Hg(l) + O2(g) 2HgO(s) ∆Go = -117 kJ/ mol,
So (J/K.mol) 76.0, 205.1, 70.3
Calculate ∆fH HgO (kJ).
o

A) -152.5 B) -102.5 C) -181.4 D) -97.5 E) -90.7

23. The entropies of NH3(g), N(g) and H(g) are 192.3, 153.2, and 114.6 J mol-1 K-1 respectively at
298oK. Using the ∆Go given below calculate the bond energy of NH3 (kJ).
NH3(g) N(g) + 3H(g) ∆Go = 1082.0 kJ
A) 374.2 B) 390.9 C) 382.3 D) 397.4 E) 367.6

18
24. Calculate ∆G (kJ) at 25oC for the following reaction when the pressures are as follows:
P(PCl5) = 1.0 x 10-6 atm; P(PCl3) = 0.20 atm and P(Cl2) = 0.80 atm

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

PCl5(g) PCl3(g) Cl2(g)

∆Hof (kJ/molE) -374.9 -287.0 0
o
S (J/K.molE) 364.6 311.8 223.1

A) +95.2 B) +37.1 C) +48.9 D) +89.2 E) +66.8

25. Consider the following reaction at standard conditions: H2S(g) + 3/2 O2(g) → SO2(g) + H2O(l)
Which of the following is correct?
A) ∆Hor - ∆Gor > 0 B) ∆Hor - ∆Gor < 0 C) ∆Hor = ∆Gor
D) ∆Sor > 0 E) None of these

26. Using the listed information calculate the temperature (oC) where Kp = 1.0.

Ag2O(s) = 2Ag(s) + 1/2 O2(g)

Ag2O(s) Ag(s) O2(g)

∆Hof
(kJ/mol) -31.0 0 0
o
S (J/K.mol) 121.3 42.6 205.1
A) 367 B) 194 C) 152 D) 441 E) 222

19
 Exercises

1
1. Let’s consider the following reaction: H2 (g) + O2 (g) H2O (l). Calculate the work
2
done during the synthesis of one mol of water at normal conditions. What about the sign of the work?
Explain.

2. Suppose that air is formed by 20 % dioxygen and approximately 80 % (by mol) dinitrogen.
CP O2(g) = 29.35 J.mol-1.K-1, CP N2(g) = 29.12 J.mol-1.K-1
a- Calculate the molar heat capacity of air under constant pressure CP air.
b- Calculate the variation of the enthalpy for one mol of air if the temperature increases from 0 ºC
to 100 ºC under 1 atm pressure.

3. Calculate the work done during the combustion of one mol of ethane under 1 atm pressure and at
298 K, suppose that the produced H2O is in its gaseous state.

4. 140 g of dinitrogen (perfect gas) changes from 200 K to 400 K, at constant volume. Calculate the
change in internal energy ΔE, and the change in enthalpy ΔH. Given: CV = 20.77 J.K-1.mol-1;

5. 8 dm3 of dioxygen at 27°C under the pressure P = 1 bar. The gas is compressed reversibly and
isothermally until the volume of 5 dm3.
a- Calculate the final pressure.
b- Calculate the internal energy change and the enthalpy change of the gas.
c- Calculate the quantity of heat and work exchanged between the gas and the surroundings during
the transformation.

6. Calculate the enthalpy of formation of Ca(OH)2 (s) by using the following equations.
H2 (g) + 1/2 O2 (g) H2O (l) ∆H = -68.3 Kcal.mol-1
Ca (s) + 1/2 O2 (g) CaO (s) ∆H = -151.8 Kcal.mol-1

CaO (s) + H2O (l) Ca(OH)2 (s) ∆H = -15.3 Kcal.mol-1

7. C2H4 and C3H6 can react with hydrogen according to the reactions :
C2H4 (g) + H2 (g) C2H6 (g) Δ r H 10
C3H6 (g) + H2 (g) C3H8 (g) Δ r H 02
Calculate. Δ r H10 and Δ r H 02
Given: Δ f H 0 (C2H4(g)) = + 52.26 KJ.mol-1; Δ f H 0 (C2H6(g)) = – 84.68 KJ.mol-1
Δ f H 0 (C3H6(g)) = + 20.42 KJ.mol-1; Δ f H 0 (C3H8(g)) = – 103.85 KJ.mol-1

8. The triglycerin C3H5N3O9 could be decomposed according to the following equation of the reaction:

C3H5N3O9(ℓ) 5/2H2O (ℓ) + 3CO2 (g). +3/2N2 (g). + 1/4O2 (g).

20
 The decomposition of 1g of C3H5N3O9(ℓ) in a closed calorimeter release a quantity of heat
QV = – 6.6 kJ in a standard conditions at 298 K. Calculate
a- ΔE 0298 (kJ/mol) of the reaction.
b- ΔH 0298 (kJ/mol) of the reaction.

9. 3 moles of dihydrogen obey to the following transformations:

a- Isothermal compression at 25°C from 1 to 5 atm.
b- Isobaric heating under 5 atm pressure from 25°C to 100°C)
- Determine ΔH0 and ΔS0 for each transformation. Given: Cp (H2)(g) = + 29 J.mol-1.K-1;

10. The carbon dioxide could be reduced by dihydrogen into methanol according to the following
reaction:
CO2 (g) + 3H2 (g) H2O(ℓ) + CH3OH (g) Δ R H 0298 = -93 kJ.mol-1.
Suppose that Δ f H 0298 ( H 2O(l ) ) = - 285 kJ.mol-1. ∆ f H 0CO2(g) = −394 kJ.mol-1
a- Determine ΔH 0298 Combustion of methanol which produce CO2 (g) and H2O(ℓ).
b- Determine ΔH0 for the following reaction:
CO2 (g) + 3H2 (g) H2O(g) + CH3OH (g)
Suppose that: H2O(l) H2O(g) ΔH 0Vap = 44 kJ.mol-1.
What about the sign of Δ R S0 ?

11. a- Let’s consider the physical transformation Br2(ℓ) Br2 (g). Is this transformation
spontaneous at standard conditions and at 298 K?
b- Starting from which temperature the transformation is considered as spontaneous? (Suppose that
Δ R H 0T and Δ R S0T do not depend on the temperature.
Given: ∆ f H 0Br 2 (g)
= 30.7 kJ.mol-1 ; S0Br2(g) = 245 J.K -1mol -1 ; S0Br2( l ) = 152 J.K -1mol -1

12. Consider the following equations:

C (gr) + 1/2 O2 (g) CO(g) (1) Δ R H 0298 K =?
1/2 O2 (g) + H2 (g) H2O (g) (2) Δ R H 0298 K =?
C(gr) H2(g) H2O(g) O2(g) CO(g)
0
∆𝑓𝑓 𝐻𝐻 kJ/mol -------- -------- -241 -------- -110
S0 J/K.mol 6 130 188 205 198

a- Determine Δ R H 0298 K and Δ R G 0298 K for the above reactions.

b- Determine Δ R G 0298 K for the below reaction in function of Δ R G 0298 K of the above reactions:
C (gr) + H2O (g) CO(g) + H2 (g) (3)
c- Deduce Δ R G 0298 K and KP for the reaction (3).
d- Determine the variation of the enthalpy of the reaction (3) ∆𝑅𝑅 𝐻𝐻30 ,
21
 CHAPTER 4
Chemical Kinetic
Multiple Choice Questions

1. The rate law expression of the following reaction X + Y → Z in the gaseous phase is as follows:
v=k[X]2[Y]. If the concentration of X is tripled and the concentration of Y is doubled, the reaction
rate would be increased by a factor of:
A) 6 B) 9 C) 12 D) 18 E) 36

2. For a reaction, the rate constant k depends on :

A) The concentration of reactants. D) The order of the reaction.
B) The concentration of products. E) C and D
C) The temperature.

3. For a reaction, if the temperature increase:

A) The half time (t1/2) increases D) The yield of the reaction increases
B) The half time (t1/2) decreases E) B and D
C) The half time (t1/2) doesn’t change

4. For the reaction: 2H2S(g) + O2(g) →2S(s) + 2H2O(l), which one of the following statements is
absolutely true?
A) The reaction is of order 1 with respect to H2S and order 2 with respect to O2
B) The reaction is fourth overall order
C) The rate law is: rate = k[H2S]2[O2]
D) The rate law is: rate = k[H2S][O2]
E) The rate law cannot be determined from the information given

5. The integrated rate law of the following first order reaction A→ Products is:
A) [A]t – [A]0 = - kt B) [A] = [A0]e-kt C) Ln [A] – ln [A0] = kt
D) [A0] = [A]e-kt E) None of the above

6. For a second-order reaction A → Products, a straight line is obtained from a plot of:
A) ln(t) vs. [A] B) ln[A] vs. t C) 1/[A] vs. t D) [A] vs. t E) ln(1/t) vs. [A]

7. For which reaction-order does the half-life gets longer as the initial concentration decreases?
A) order 0 B) order 1 C) order 2 D) a and b are correct E) None of them

8. The chemical reaction A → B + C takes place in aqueous solution. Its half-time (t1/2 ) is independent
of the initial concentration of reactant A and equals to 1110 minutes. Calculate in min the time t
required for 25 % of the reactant to disappear
A) t = 319 B) t = 2 220 C) t = 555 D) t = 461 E) t = 965
22
9. The reaction: A → products is of first order with a rate constant of 0.33min-1. How many minutes
will it take for a concentration of A of 0.13 M to decrease to 0.088 M?
A) 1.2 B) 1.4 C) 0.70 D) 0.13 E) None of the above

10. The reaction: A → B + C has a rate constant of 0.413 L/(mol.s). If the initial concentration of A is
5.25 × 10-3 mol/L, then the half-life of the reaction is
A) 461.2s B) 0.006s C) 1.677s D) 2.421s E) None of the above

11. A plot of 1/[A] versus time for the hypothetical reaction A → B + C yields a straight line. If it took
57 seconds for the concentration of A to decrease by 40 percent from its initial value of 0.050 M,
what is the rate constant for the reaction?
A) 0.0089 s–1 B) 0.0035 mol/L.s C) 0.2339 L/mol.s
D) 0.0035 L/mol.s E) None of the above answers is correct

12. The decomposition of nitrogen dioxide, 2NO2(g) → 2NO(g) + O2(g) has a rate constant of 0.498
M.s–1 at 319oC and a rate constant of 1.81 M.s–1 at 354oC. The activation energy Ea of the reaction
is:
A) 105.1 kJ/mol B) 113.7 kJ/mol C) – 113.7 kJ/mol
D) 113.7 J/mol E) 34.6 kJ/mol

13. The half-life of a first order reaction is 49.5s. The reaction rate constant (s-1) is:
A) 4.50 x 10-2 B) 1.40 x 10-2 C) 2.20 x 10-2 D) 3.40 x 10-2 E) 1.80 x 10-2

14. The catalyzed reaction has a _____ activation energy and thus causes a _____ reaction rate.
A) higher, lower B) higher, higher C) lower, higher
D) lower, steady E) higher, steady

15. The activation energy of a certain uncatalyzed reaction is 64 kJ/mol. In the presence of a catalyst,
the Ea is 55 kJ/mol. How many times is the catalyzed faster than the uncatalyzed reaction at 400°C?
Assume that the frequency factor remains the same.
A) 5.0 times B) 1.16 times C) 15 times D) 2.0 times E) 0.2 times

16. Consider a series of reactions having the following energy profiles:

Rank the reactions from slowest to fastest assuming that they have nearly the same frequency factors.
23
 A) (2) < (3) < (1) B) (1) < (3) < (2) C) (2) < (1) < (3)
D) (3) < (2) < (1) E) None of the above

17. How do you explain the increased rate observed when a reaction is heated?
A) The rate constant increases
B) The activation energy decreases
C) A faster pathway can be found
D) A higher fraction of molecules has enough kinetic energy to surmount the activation energy
barrier
E) A and D

18. The decomposition reaction of benzenediazonium chloride in aqueous solution at 20oC is of a first
order:

For the initial concentration of C6 H 5 N 2 Cl , the following kinetic results are

obtained:
Time (min) 20 50

[H+] (mol.L-1) 5.25 x 10-4 1.26 x 10-3

The rate constant (k) and the half-life of the reaction (t1/2) are respectively:
A) k = 1.69 x 10-3 min-1 and t1/2 = 410 min B) k = 2.69 x 10-3 min-1 and t1/2 = 257 min
C) k = 3.69 x 10-3 min-1 and t1/2 = 188 min D) k = 4.69 x 10-3 min-1 and t1/2 = 148 min
E) k = 4.69 x 10-3 min-1 and t1/2 = 254 min

19. In a constant volume reactor V = 1 L , we introduce pure ethanal which decomposes in the gaseous
phase, according to the following total reaction: CH 3 CHO ( g ) → CH 4 ( g ) + CO ( g )
The kinetic law of this order 2 reaction, depending on the initial pressure Po and the total pressure
Pt is:
A) 1/(2P0 – Pt) – 1/P0 = k t / RT B) 1/(2P0 – Pt) – 1/P0 = k t
C) 1/P0 – 1/(2P0-Pt) = k t / RT D) 1/P0 – 1/(2P0-Pt) = k t
E) None of the above

20. Consider the following reaction: A(g) → B (g) + D (g)

Given the following kinetic results:
Initial concentration of A (mol/L) 0.01 0.03

t1/2(s) 200 67
We can deduce that the order of the reaction and its rate constant are respectively:
A) Order 2 and k = 0.25 s-1 B) Order 2 and k = 0.5 L.mol-1.s-1
C) Order 1 and k = 0.5 L.mol-1.s-1 D) Order 0 and k = 0.25 L.mol-1.s-1
E) Order 0 and k = 0.5 mol.L-1.s-1
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21. A heterogeneous catalyst
A) Reduces the activation energy
B) Allows to speed up a chemical reaction thermodynamically feasible
C) Does not appear in the global reaction
D) Must remain intact throughout the chemical reaction
E) All of the above

22. A compound A decomposes into B and C according to a first order reaction. The rate constant of the
reaction is equal to 0.5min-1. The remaining percentage of A after 2 minutes of decomposition is:
A) 36.8 % B) 46.8 % C) 56.8 % D) 66.8 % E) None of the above

23. The unit of the reaction rate

A) is mol.L-1.s B) is mol.L-1.s-1 C) is mol-1.L-1.s-1
D) is mol-1.L-1.s E) depends on the reaction partial orders

24. Considering the following reaction:

Cr2O72 – + 14 H+ + 6 I– → 2 Cr3 + + 3I2 + 7 H2O
Which of the following statements concerning the reaction is correct?
𝐝𝐝[𝐂𝐂𝐂𝐂𝟐𝟐 𝐎𝐎𝟐𝟐−
𝟕𝟕 ]
𝐝𝐝[𝑰𝑰− ] 𝐝𝐝[𝐂𝐂𝐂𝐂𝟐𝟐 𝐎𝐎𝟐𝟐−
𝟕𝟕 ] 𝐝𝐝[𝐂𝐂𝐂𝐂𝐂𝐂+] 𝐝𝐝[𝐂𝐂𝐂𝐂𝟐𝟐 𝐎𝐎𝟐𝟐−
𝟕𝟕 ] 𝟏𝟏 𝐝𝐝[𝐈𝐈𝟐𝟐 ]
A) 6 = B) =2 C) = 𝟑𝟑
𝐝𝐝𝐝𝐝 𝐝𝐝𝐝𝐝 𝐝𝐝𝐝𝐝 𝐝𝐝𝐝𝐝 𝐝𝐝𝐝𝐝 𝐝𝐝𝐝𝐝
D) A and C are correct E) None of the above

25. Considering the following first order reaction:

(CH3)3CBr + HO– → (CH3)3COH + Br–
The half-time of the reaction was determined at two different temperatures under the same
conditions. At T = 25°C, t1/2 = 12.5h and at T′ = 50°C, t’1/2 = 56 min. The activation energy of the
reaction Ea is equal to:
A) + 34.6 kJ.mol-1 B) + 83.2 kJ.mol-1 C) – 83.2 kJ.mol-1
D) – 34.6 kJ.mol-1 E) None of the above

26. Consider the following reaction:

A (aq) → P
The plot of Ln(r) as a function of Ln[A]
gives a straight line as shown in the
following figure ( y = 2x + 3.91). What is
the rate order of the reaction?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4

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 Exercises

1. Considering the following reaction: 2NO2(g) + F2 (g) → 2NO2F (g)

Given the following results, determine the rate law expression and the global order of the reaction.
Calculate the reaction rate constant.

No. of experiment [NO2]0 mol.L-1 [F2]0 mol.L-1 (v)0 mol.L-1.s-1

1 1.00 1.00 1.00 x 10-4

2 2.00 1.00 2.00 x 10-4

3 1.00 2.00 2.00 x 10-4

4 2.00 2.00 4.00 x 10-4

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