AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REVIEWER SHEET b.

An embossed letter ‘HP’

c. An embossed letter ‘H’
Aircraft Landing Gear System 12. The purpose of a relief system valve in a brake
assembly system is to
1. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft
a. Reduce pressure for break application
tire is an indication of
b. Prevent the tire from skipping
a. Overinflation
c. Compensate for the thermal expansion
b. Excessive toe-in
13. In shock struts, chevron seals are used to
c. Underinflation
a. Absorb bottoming effect
2. How long should you wait after a flight before
b. Prevent oil from escaping
checking tire pressure?
c. serve as a bearing surface
a. At least 2 hours (3 hours in hot weather)
14. The left brake is dragging excessively on an
b. At least 3 hours (4 hours in hot weather)
airplane on which no recent brake service work has
c. At least 4 hours (5 hours in hot weather)
been performed. The most probable cause is.
3. Aside from an external leak in the line, what will
a. Foreign particles stuck in the master cylinder
cause parking brakes to continually bleed off
compensating port.
pressure?
b. Excessively worn brake linings.
a. An internal leak in the master cylinder
c. Low fluid supply in the brake system reservoir.
b. Insufficient hydraulic fluid in the reservoir
15. A stripe or mark applied to a wheel rim and
c. Glazed brake linings
extending onto the sidewall of a tube-type tire is a
4. The purpose of an orifice check valve is to
a. Slippage mark.
a. Relieve pressure to a sensitive component
b. Wheel-to-tire balance mark
b. Restrict flow in one direction and allow free
c. Wheel weight reference mark
flow in the other
16. Chines are used on some aircraft nose wheel tire
c. Relieve pressure in one direction and prevent
to help
flow in the other direction
a. Nose gear extension at higher air speeds.
5. Aircraft brakes requiring a large volume of fluid to
b. Reduce the possibility of hydroplaning.
operate the brakes generally
c. Deflecting water away from the fuselage.
a. Use independent master cylinder systems
17. An electric motor used to raise and lower a landing
b. Do not use brake system accumulators
gear would most likely be a
c. Use power brake control valves
a. Shunt field series-wound motor.
6. Lockout deboosters are primarily pressure
b. Split field shunt-wound motor.
reducing valves that
c. Split field series-wound motor.
a. Allow full debooster piston travel without fluid
18. What device in a hydraulic system with a constant-
from the high pressure side entering the low
delivery pump allows circulation of the fluid no
pressure chamber
demands are on the system?
b. Cannot allow full debooster piston travel
a. Pressure relief valve.
without fluid from the high pressure side
b. Shuttle valve
entering the low pressure chamber
c. Pressure regulator
c. Must be bled separately after brake bleeding has
19. A hydraulic system referred to as a ‘power
been completed
pack’ system will
7. What would be the effect if the piston return
a. Have an engine-driven pump for greater
spring broke in a brake master cylinder?
pressure
a. The brakes would become spongy
b. Have all hydraulic power components located in
b. The brake would become excessive
one cucuit.
c. The brakes would drag
c. Have a pressurized reservoir.
8. What type of valve is used in the brake actuating
20. What is the purpose of the torque links attached to
line to isolate the emergency brake system from the
the cylinder and piston of a landing gear oleo strut?
normal power brake control valve system?
a. Limit compression stroke.
a. A bypass valve
b. Hold the strut in place.
b. An orifice check valve
c. Maintain correct wheel alignment.
c. A shuttle valve
21. Debooster valves are used in brake system
9. Instructions concerning the type of fluid and
primarily to
amount of air pressure to be put in a shock strut are
a. Ensure rapid application and release of the
found
brakes.
a. On the airplane data plate
b. Reduce brake pressure and maintains static
b. In the aircraft operations limitations
pressure.
c. In the aircraft manufacturer’s service
c. Reduce the pressure and release the brakes
manual
rapidly.
10. The metering pin in oleo shock struts serve to
22. In brakes service work, the term ‘bleeding brakes’
a. Lock the struts in the DOWN position.
is the process of:
b. Retard the flow of oil as the struts are
a. Withdrawing air only from the system.
composed.
b. Withdrawing fluid from the system for the
c. Meter the proper amount of air in struts.
purpose of removing air that has entered the
11. On an air valve core stem, what indicates high-
system.
pressure type?
c. Replacing small amounts of fluid in reservoir.
a. An embossed letter ‘NP’
23. Extension of an oleo shock strut is measured to
determine the:
a. Amount of oil in the strut.
b. Physical condition of the strut itself.
c. Proper operating position of the strut.
24. Many brake types can be adapted to operate
mechanically or hydraulically. Which type is not
adaptable to mechanical operation?
a. Single-disk spot type.
b. Single-servo type.
c. Expander-tube type.
25. Debooster cylinders are used in brake
systems primarily to:
a. Reduce brake pressure and maintain static
pressure.
b. Relieve excessive fluid and ensure a positive
release.
c. Reduce the pressure to the brake and
increase the volume of fluid flow.
26. What condition would most likely cause excessive
fluctuation of the pressure gauge when the
hydraulic pump is operating?
a. Accumulator air pressure low
b. Inadequate supply of fluid
c. System relief valve sticking closed
27. If an airplane equipped with master cylinders and
single-disk brake pedal travel, but the brakes are
hard and effective, the probable cause is
a. The master cylinder one-way cup is leaking
b. Worn brake linings
c. Worn brake disk causing excessive clearance
between the notches on the perimeter of the disk
and the splines or keys on the wheel
28. A flexible hydraulic hose identified as MIL-H-8788
will have a stripe running the length of the hose.
The stripe
a. Is used to ensure that the hose is installed
without excessive twisting
b. Identifies that the hose is for high pressure
fluids, with a 60 degree flexing range
c. Identifies that the hose is constructed of Teflon
and is suitable for a wide temperature range
29. An automatic damping action at the steering
damper if for any reason the flow of high-pressure
fluid is removed from the
a. Outlet of the steering damper
b. Inlet of the steering damper
c. Replenishing check valve
30. A brake debooster valve is installed in systems
where the high pressure of the hydraulic system
(300 psi) is used to operate brakes
a. That are designed to work with lower
pressure
b. That are used in conjunction with an antiskid
system
c. That are used on aircraft having high landing
speeds
31. The repair of an out-of-tolerance toe-in condition of
main landing gear wheels determined not to be the
result of bent or twisted components consists of
a. Shimming the axle in the oleo trunnion
b. Inserting, removing, or changing the location of
washers or spacers at the center pivotal point of
the scissors torque links
c. Placing shims or spacers behind the bearing of
the out-of-tolerance wheel or wheels.
32. If the extended longitudinal axis of the main landing
gear wheel assemblies in intersects aft of the
aircraft, the wheels can be termed as having
a. Toe-out
b. Toe- in
c. Negative amber
33. An O-ring intended for use in a hydraulic
system using MIL-H5606 (mineral base) fluid
will be marked with
a. A blue striper or dot
b. one or more white dots.
c. A white and yellow stripe.
34. When an empty shock strut is filled with fluid,
care should be ta to extend and compress the strut
completely at least two times to
a. Thoroughly lubricate the piston rod
b. Force out any excess fluid
c. Ensure proper packing ring sealing and
removal of air bubbles.
35. When installing a chevron-type seal in an aircraft
hydraulic cylinder, the open side of the seal should
face
a. Opposite direction of fluid pressure
b. Up or forward when the unit is installed in a
horizontal position.
c. The direction of fluid pressure.
36. Internal leakage in a brake master cylinder unit can
cause
a. Fading brakes
b. Slow release of brakes
c. The pedal to slowly creep down while pedal
pressure is applied.
37. Why do most aircraft tire manufacturers
recommend that the tubes in newly installed tire
must be first inflated, fully deflated and the re-
inflated to the correct pressure?
a. To allow the tube to position itself correctly
inside the tire.
b. To eliminate all the air between the tube and the
inside of the tire
c. To test the entire assembly leaks
38. Exposure to and/or storage near which of the
following is considered harmful to the aircraft tires?
1. Humidity 5. Helium
2. Fuel 6. Electrical equipment
3. Oil 7. Hydraulic fluid
4. Ozone 8. Solvents
a. 2,3,4,5,6,7,8
b. 1,2,3,5,7,8
c. 2,3,4,6,7,8
39. What action of any, should be taken when there is a
difference of more than 5 pounds of air pressure in
tires mounted as duals?
a. Replace both tires
b. Correct the discrepancy and enter in the
aircraft records
c. Replace the tire with the lowest pressure
40. Excessive wear in the center of the tread of an
aircraft tire is an indication of
a. Incorrect camber
b. Excessive toe-out
c. Over inflation
41. How can it be determined that all air has been
purged from a master cylinder brake system?
 a. By operating a hydraulic unit and watching the
system pressure gauge for smooth, full- scale
deflection.
b. By noting whether the brake is firm or
spongy
c. By noting the amount of fluid return to the
master cylinder upon brake release.
42. After performing maintenance of an aircraft’s
landing gear system which may have affected the
system’s operation, it usually necessary to
a. Conduct a flight test.
b. Re-inspected the area after the first flight.
c. Make an operational check with the aircraft on
jacks
43. What is the purpose of compensating port or valve
in a brake master cylinder of an independent brake
system?
a. Permits the fluid flow toward or away from
the reservoir as temperature changes.
b. Assists in the master cylinder piston return.
c. Prevents fluid from flowing back to the
reservoir.
44. A filter incorporating specially treated cellulose
paper is identified as a
a. Sediment trap
b. Cuno filter
c. Micronic filter
45. A landing gear positon and warning system will
provide a warning in the cockpit when throttle is
a. Retarded and gear is not down and locked.
b. Advanced and gear is down and locked.
c. Retarded and gear is down and locked.
46. The hydraulic packing seal used in a landing
gear shock strut are
a. Generally designed to be compatible with more
than one type of fluid.
b. Keep from direct contact with fluid Teflon or
nylon back up rings.
c. Used only with a specific type of fluid.
47. The best safeguards against heat buildup in
aircraft tires are
a. Proper tire inflation, minimum braking, and
ground rolls into the wind
b. Short ground rolls, sloe taxi speeds, minimum
braking and proper tire inflation
c. Minimum braking, proper tire inflation, and
long ground rolls.
48. The removal, installation, and repair of landing
gear tires by the holder of a private pilot certificate
on an aircraft owned or operated is considered to be
a. A violation of the Federal Aviation Regulations
b. A minor repair
c. Preventive maintenance
49. What is the function of a cam incorporated in a
nose landing gear shock strut?
a. Provides an internal shimmy damper
b. Straightens the nose wheel
c. Provides steering of aircraft during ground
operation.
50. Why do tire and wheel manufacturers often
recommended that the tires on split rim wheels be
deflated before removing the wheel from the axle?
a. To relive the strain on the wheel retaining nut
and axle threads.
b. As a safety precaution in case the bolts that
hold the wheel halves together have been
damaged or weakened.
c. To remove the static load imposed upon the
wheel bearing by the inflated tire.
51. Nose gear centering cams are used in many
retractable landing gear systems. The primary
purpose of the centering device is to:
a. Align the nosewheel prior to touchdown.
b. Engage the nosewheel steering.
c. Center the nosewheel before it enters the
wheel well.
52. A sleeve, spacer, or bumper ring is incorporated in a
landing gear oleo shock strut to:
a. Limit the extension of the torque arm.
b. Limit the extension stroke.
c. Reduce the rebound effect.
53. A pilot reports the right brake on an aircraft is
spongy when the brake pedal is depressed in a
normal manner. The probable cause is:
a. The hydraulic master cylinder piston is sticking.
b. Air in the brake hydraulic system.
c. The hydraulic master cylinder piston return
spring is weak.
54. A special bolt in a landing gear attachment requires a
torque value of 440 inch-pounds. How many foot-
pounds are required?
a. 36.8
b. 38
c. 36.6
55. If a brake debooster is used in a hydraulic brake
system, its position in the system will be:
a. Between the pressure manifold of the main
hydraulic system and the power brake control
valve.
b. Between the brake control valve and the
brake actuating cylinder.
c. In the brake pressure line between the brake
pedal and the brake accumulator.
56. Which statement is true with respect to an aircraft
equipped with hydraulically operated multiple-disk
type brake assemblies?
a. There are no minimum or maximum disk
clearance checks required due to the use of self-
compensating cylinder assemblies.
b. Do not set parking brake when brakes are
hot.
c. No parking brake provisions are possible for this
type of brake assembly.
57. What is one effect a restricted compensator port of a
master cylinder will have on a brake system?
a. The brakes will operate normally.
b. The reservoir will be filled by revers flow.
c. The restriction will cause slow release of the
brakes.
58. On all aircraft equipped with retractable landing
gear, some means must be provided to:
a. Retract and extend the landing gear if the
normal operating mechanism fails.
b. Extend the landing gear if the normal
operating mechanism fails.
c. Prevent the throttle from being reduced below a
safe power setting while the landing gear is
retracted.
59. Overinflated aircraft tires may cause damage to the:
a. Brake linings.
 b. Wheel hub.
c. Wheel flange.
60. When servicing an air/oil shock strut with MIL-
5606 the strut should be:
a. Collapsed and fluid added at the filler
opening.
b. Fully extended and fluid added at the filler
opening.
c. Partially extended and fluid added at the filler
opening.
61. Aircraft tire pressure should be checked:
a. Using only a push on stick-type gauge having 1-
pound increments.
b. At least once a week or more often.
c. As soon as possible after each flight.
62. A pilot reports that the brake pedals have
excessive travel. A probable cause is:
a. Weak return springs.
b. Lack of fluid in the brake system.
c. Oil or some foreign matter on the brake rotors
and linings.
63. What should be checked when a shock strut
bottoms during a landing?
a. Air pressure.
b. Packing seals for correct installation.
c. Fluid level.
64. The primary purpose for balancing aircraft
wheel assemblies is to:
a. Prevent heavy spots and reduce vibration.
b. Distribute the aircraft weight properly.
c. Reduce excessive wear and turbulence.
65. A fully-charged hydraulic accumulator provides:
a. Air pressure to the various hydraulic
components.
b. A source for additional hydraulic power when
heavy demands are place on the system.
c. Positive fluid flow to the pump inlet.
66. The correct inflation pressure for an aircraft tire
can be obtained from:
a. Tire manufacturer’s specifications.
b. The aircraft service manual.
c. The information stamped on the aircraft wheel.
67. When a properly operating fusible plug has
allowed a tire to deflate, the tire should be:
a. Replaced.
b. Externally inspected for damage.
c. Removed from the wheel and inspected for
carcass and tread damage.
68. If it is determined that spongy brake action is not
caused by air in the brake system, what is the next
most likely cause?
a. Worn brake lining.
b. Internal leakage in the master cylinder.
c. Deteriorated flexible hoses.
69. If an aircraft shock strut (air/oil type) bottoms upon
initial landing contact, but functions correctly
during taxi, the most probable cause is:
a. Low fluid.
b. Low air charge.
c. A restricted metering pin orifice.
70. On most aircraft, the oil level of an air and oil
shock strut is check by:
a. Removing the oil filler plug and inserting a
gauge.
b. Measuring the length of the strut extension with
a certain air pressure in the strut.
c. Releasing the air and seeing that the oil is the
level of the filler plug.
71. The braking action of a Cleveland disk brake is
accomplished by compressing a rotating brake disk
between two opposite brake linings. How is equal
pressure on both sides of the rotating disk assured?
a. By allowing the brake rotor to float to
automatically equalize as pressure is applied to
the rotor.
b. By allowing the caliper to float to
automatically equalize as pressure is applied to
the rotor.
c. By allowing the brake linings to automatically
equalize as pressure is applied to the rotor.
72. If a shock strut bottoms after it has been properly
serviced, the
a. Strut should be disassembled and the metering
pin orifice plate replaced.
b. Air pressure should be increased.
c. Strut should be removed, disassembled, and
inspected.
73. Power boost brake systems are used on aircraft that
have:
a. High landing speeds.
b. Low normal hydraulic system pressure.
c. More than one brake assembly per axle.
74. The pressure source for power brakes is:
a. The main hydraulic system.
b. The power brake reservoir.
c. A master cylinder.
75. A high-speed aircraft tire with a sound cord body
and bead may be recapped
a. A maximum of three times.
b. Only by the tire manufacturer.
c. An indefinite number of times.
76. When an air/oil type of landing gear shock strut is
used, the initial shock of landing shock of landing is
cushioned by:
a. Compression of the air charge.
b. The fluid being forced through a metered
opening.
c. Compression of the fluid.
77. To prevent a very rapid extension of an oleo shock
strut after initial compression resulting from landing
impact,
a. Various types of valves or orifices are used
which restrict the reverse fluid flow.
b. The metering pin gradually reduces the size of
the orifice as the shock strut extends.
c. The air is forced through a restricted orifice in
the reverse direction.
78. The purpose of a sequence valve in a hydraulic
retractable landing gear system is to:
a. Prevent heavy landing gear from falling too
rapidly upon extension.
b. Provide a means of disconnecting the normal
source of hydraulic power and connection the
emergency source of power.
c. Ensure the operation of the landing gear and
gear doors in the proper order.
79. When bleeding aircraft brakes, one of the
indications that the air has been purged from the
system is:
a. Partial brake pedal travel.
b. Full brake pedal travel.
c. Firm brake pedals.
 78. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheels a. Water soluble oil
will: b. Water displacing oil
a. Indicate tire tread separation. c. Water only
b. Prevent over inflation. 9. What is indicated by a black ‘smoky’ residue
c. Melt at a specified elevated temperature. streaming back from some of the rivets on an
aircraft?
Sheetmetal & Non-Sheetmetalic Structure a. The rivets were excessively work hardened
during installation
1. (1) When performing a ring (coin tap) test on
b. Exfoliation corrosion is occurring inside the
composite structure, a change in sound may be due
structure
to damage or to transition to a different internal
c. Fretting corrosion is occurring between the
structure
rivets and the skin
(2) The extent of separation damage in composite
10. What type of bit should be used to drill holes in
structures is most accurately measured by a ring
Plexiglas?
(coin tap) test
a. A standard twist drill
Regarding the above statements,
b. A specially modified twist drill
a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
c. A dulled twist drill
b. Only No.1 is true
11. What precaution, if any, should be taken to prevent
c. Only No.2 is true
corrosion inside a repaired metal honeycomb
2. Clad aluminum alloys are used in aircraft because
structure?
they
a. Prime the repair with a corrosion inhibitor and
a. Can be heat treated much easier than the other
seal from the atmosphere
forms of aluminum
b. Paint the outside area with several coats of
b. Are less subject to corrosion than uncoated
exterior paint
aluminum alloys
c. None. Honeycomb is usually made from a man-
c. Are stronger than unclad aluminum alloys
made or fibrous material which is not
3. A well-designed rivet joint will subject the rivets to
susceptible to corrosion
a. Compressive loads
12. Mild steel rivets are used for riveting
b. Shear loads
a. Nickel-steel parts
c. Tension loads
b. Magnesium parts
4. If a streamline cover plate is to be hand formed using
c. Steel parts
a form block, a piece of dead soft aluminum should
13. A main difference between Lockbolt/Huckbolt
first be placed over the hollow portion of the mold
tension and shear fasteners (other than their
and securely fastened in place. The bumping
application) is in the
operation should be
a. Number of locking collar grooves
a. Distributed evenly over the face of the
b. Shape of the head
aluminum at all times rather than being started
c. Method of installation
at the edges or center.
14. What is the minimum spacing for a single row of
b. Started by tapping the aluminum lightly around
aircraft rivets?
the edges and gradually working down into the
a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
center
b. Three times the length of the rivet shank
c. Started by tapping the aluminum in the center
c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank
until it touches the bottom of the mold and then
15. The coefficient of expansion of most plastic
working out in all directions
enclosure materials is
5. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance
a. Greater than both steel and aluminum
problem and bend allowance tables are not available,
b. Greater than steel but less than aluminum
the neutral axis of the bend can be
c. Less than either steel or aluminum
a. Represented by the actual length of the required
16. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for
material for the bend
soft metals?
b. Found by adding approximately one-half of
a. 118°
the thickness to the bend radius
b. 90°
c. Found by subtracting the stock thickness from
c. 65°
the bend radius
17. Which part of the 2017-T36 aluminum alloy
6. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent
designation indicates the primary alloying agent used
in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked
in its manufacture?
a. One-half radius from either bend tangent line
a. 2
b. One radius from either bend tangent line
b. 17
c. One radius from the bend tangent line that is
c. 20
placed under the brake
18. Rivet gauge, or transverse pitch is the distance
7. On a sheet metal fitting layout with a single bend,
between the
allow for stretching by
a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows
a. Adding the setback to each leg
b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row
b. Subtracting the setback from one leg
c. Heads of rivets in the same row
c. Subtracting the setback from both legs
19. Which statement is true regarding a cantilever wing?
8. When necessary, what type of cutting fluid is usually
a. It has nonadjustable lift struts
acceptable for machining composite laminates?
b. No external bracing is needed
 c. It requires only one lift strut on each side
20. Fiberglass damage that extends completely through a
laminated sandwich structure
a. May be repaired
b. Must be filled with resin to eliminate dangerous
stress concentrations
c. May be filled with putty which is compatible
with resin
21. Threaded rivets (Rivnuts) are commonly used to
a. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where
shear strength is desired
b. Attach parts or components with screws to
sheet metal
c. Join two or more pieces of sheet metal where
bearing strength is desired
22. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for
hard metal?
a. 118°
b. 100°
c. 90°
23. When repairing a small hole on a metal stressed skin,
the major consideration in the design of the patch
should be
a. The shear strength of the riveted joint
b. To use rivet spacing similar to a seam in the skin
c. That the bond between the patch and the skin is
sufficient to prevent dissimilar metal corrosion
24. A factor which determines the minimum space
between rivets is the
a. Length of the rivets being used
b. Diameter of the rivets being used
c. Thickness of the material being riveted
25. What is the material layer used within the vacuum
bag pressure system to absorb excess resin during
curing called?
a. Bleeder
b. Breather
c. Release
26. If a new safety belt is to be installed in an aircraft,
the belt must conform to the strength requirements in
which documents?
a. STC 1282
b. 14 CFR Part 39
c. TSO C22
27. What is one of the determining factors which permit
machine countersinking when flush riveting?
a. Thickness of the material and rivet diameter are
the same
b. Thickness of the material is less than the
thickness of the rivet head
c. Thickness of the material is greater than the
thickness of the rivet head
28. When balsa wood is used to replace a damaged
honeycomb core, the plug should be cut so that
a. The grain is parallel to the skin
b. It is about 1/8 inch undersize to allow sufficient
bonding material to be applied
c. The grain is perpendicular to the skin
29. Under certain conditions, type a rivets are not used
because of their
a. Low strength characteristics
b. High alloy content
c. Tendency toward embrittlement when subjected
to vibration
30. Which rivet may be used as received without further
treatment?
a. 2024-T4
b. 2117-T3
c. 2017-T3
31. Cabin upholstery materials installed in current
standard category airplanes must
a. Be fireproof
b. Be at least flame resistant
c. Meet the requirements prescribed in Part 43
32. A rivet set used to drive MS20470 rivets should
a. Have the same radius as the rivet head
b. Have a slightly greater radius than the rivet head
c. Be nearly flat on the end, with a slight radius on
the edge to prevent damage to the sheet being
riveted
33. The general rule for finding the proper rivet dimeter
is
a. Three times the thickness of the materials to be
joined
b. Two times the rivet length
c. Three times the thickness of the thickest sheet
34. MS20426AD-6-5 indicates a countersunk rivet
which has
a. A shank length of 5/16 inch (excluding head)
b. A shank length 5/32 inch (excluding head)
c. An overall length of 5/16 inch
35. Superficial scars, scratches, surface abrasion, or rain
erosion on fiberglass laminates can generally be
repaired by applying
a. A piece of resin-impregnated glass fabric facing
b. One or more coats of suitable resin (room-
temperature catalyzed) to the surface
c. A sheet of polyethylene over the abraded surface
and one or more coats of resin cured with
infrared heat lamps
36. Fiberglass laminate damage that extends completely
through one facing and into the core
a. Cannot be repaired
b. Requires the replacement of the damaged core
and facing
c. Can be repaired by using a typical metal facing
patch
37. When straightening members made of 2024-T4, you
should
a. Straighten cold and reinforce
b. Straighten cold and anneal to remove stress
c. Apply heat to the inside of the bend
38. The classification for high tensile strength fiberglass
used in aircraft structure is
a. E-glass
b. S-glass
c. G-glass
39. Repairs o splices involving stringers on the lower
surface of stressed skin metal wings are usually
a. Not permitted
b. Permitted only if the damage does not exceed 6
inches in any direction
c. Permitted but are normally more critical in
reference to strength in tension than similar
repairs to the upper surface
40. Which is correct concerning the use of a file?
a. Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only,
except when filing very soft metals such as lead
or aluminum
 b. A smoother finish can be obtained by using a
double-cut file than by using a single-cut file
c. The terms ’double-cut’ and ‘second-cut’ have
the same meaning in reference to files
41. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud,
grommet, and receptacle. The stud diameter is
measured in
a. Tenths of an inch
b. Hundredths of an inch
c. Sixteenths of an inch
42. Heat-treated rivets in the D and DD series that are
not driven within the prescribed time after heat
treatment or removal from refrigeration
a. Must be reheat treated before use
b. Must be discarded
c. May be returned to refrigeration and used later
without reheat treatment
43. Parts fabricated from Alclad 2024-T3 aluminum
sheet stock must have all
a. Bends made with a small radius to develop
maximum strength
b. Bends 90° to the grain
c. Scratches, kinks, tool marks, nicks, etc., must be
held to a minimum
44. Metal fasteners used with carbon/graphite composite
structures
a. May be constructed of any of the metals
commonly used in aircraft fasteners
b. Must be constructed of material such as
titanium or corrosion resistant steel
c. Must be constructed of high strength aluminum-
lithium alloy
45. The part of a replacement honeycomb core that must
line up with the adjacent original is the
a. Cell side
b. Ribbon direction
c. Cell edge
46. Longitudinal (fore and aft) structural members of a
semi-monocoque fuselage are called
a. Spars and ribs
b. Longerons and stringers
c. Spars and stringers
47. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should
have an included angle of
a. 90° and turn at a low speed
b. 118° and turn at a high speed
c. 140° and turn at a low speed
48. What is the minimum edge distance for aircraft
rivets?
a. Two times the diameter of the rivet shank
b. Two times the diameter of the rivet head
c. Three times the diameter of the rivet shank
49. The identifying marks on the heads of aluminum
alloy rivets indicate the
a. Degree of dimensional and process control
observed during manufacture
b. Head shape, shank size, material used, and
specifications adhered to during manufacture
c. Specific alloy used in the manufacture of the
rivets
50. A piece of sheet metal is bent to a certain radius. The
curvature of the bend is referred to as the
a. Bend allowance
b. Neutral line
c. Bend radius
51. The installation of Cherrymax and Olympic-lok
rivets is accomplished by utilizing
a. Rivet gun, special rivet set, and bucking bar
b. A pulling tool
c. Ordinary hand tools
52. Which is an identifying characteristic of acrylic
plastics?
a. Zinc chloride will have no effect
b. Acrylic has a yellowish tint when viewed from
the edge
c. Acetone will soften plastic, but will change its
color
53. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of
metal without critically weakening the part is called
the
a. Bend allowance
b. Minimum radius of bend
c. Maximum radius of bend
54. What is the most common method of cementing
transparent plastics?
a. Heat method
b. Soak method
c. Bevel method
55. Which rivet is used for riveting nickel-steel alloys?
a. 2024-aluminum
b. Mild steel
c. Monel
56. If an aircraft’s transparent plastic enclosures exhibit
fine cracks which may extend in a network over or
under the surface or through the plastic, the plastic is
said to be
a. Hazing
b. Brinelling
c. Crazing
57. Which of the following drill bit types work best
when drilling an aramid fiber (Kevlar©) composite
laminate?
a. Tool steel with standard grind
b. Diamond dust coated
c. Carbide W-point
58. The purpose of a joggle is to
a. Allow clearance for a sheet an extrusion
b. Increase obstruction for a sheet or an extrusion
c. Decrease the weight of the part and still retain
the necessary strength
59. What is the purpose of refrigerating 2017 and 2024
aluminum alloy rivets after heat treatment?
a. To accelerate age hardening
b. To relieve internal stresses
c. To retard age hardening
60. Which fiber to resin (percent) ration for advanced
composite wet lay-ups is generally considered the
best for strength?
a. 40:60
b. 50:50
c. 60:40
61. Sandwich panels made of metal honeycomb
construction ae used on modern aircraft because this
type of construction
a. Has a high strength to weight ratio
b. May be repaired by gluing replacement skin to
the inner core material with thermoplastic resin
c. Is lighter than single sheet skin of the same
strength and is more corrosion resistant
62. Which statement is true regarding the inspection of a
stressed skin metal wing assembly known to have
been critically loaded?
a. If rivets show no visible distortion, further
investigation is unnecessary
b. If bearing failure has occurred, the rivet shanks
will be joggled
c. If genuine rivet tipping has occurred, groups of
consecutive rivet heads will be tipped in the
same direction
63. The Dzus turnlock fastener consists of a stud,
grommet, and receptacle. The stud length is
measured in
a. Hundredths of an inch
b. Tenths of an inch
c. Sixteenth of an inch
64. A piece of flat stock that is to be bent to a closed
angle of 15° must be bent through an angle of
a. 165°
b. 105°
c. 90°
65. What is the purpose of a gusset or gusset plate used
in the construction and repair of aircraft structures?
a. To hold structural members in position
temporarily until the permanent attachment has
been completed
b. To provide access for inspection of structural
attachments
c. To join and reinforce intersecting structural
members
66. A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces
of 0.0625-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet
holes are drilled for 1/8-inch rivets. The length of the
rivets to be used will be
a. 5/32 inch
b. 3/16 inch
c. 5/16 inch
67. When making repairs to fiberglass, cleaning of the
area to be repaired is essential for a good bond. The
final cleaning should be made using
a. MEK (methyl ethyl ketone)
b. Soap, water, and a scrub brush
c. A thixotropic agent
68. What type loads cause the most rivet failures?
a. Shear
b. Bearing
c. Head
69. Aircraft structural units, such as spars, engine
supports, etc., which have been built up from sheet
metal, are normally
a. Repairable, using approved methods
b. Repairable, except when subjected to
compressive loads
c. Not repairable, but must be replaced when
damaged or deteriorated
70. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets)
should not be used in composite structures primarily
because of the
a. Possibility of causing delamination
b. Increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the
fastener
c. Difficulty in forming a proper shop head
71. When comparing the machining techniques for
stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminum
alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice
to drill the stainless steel at a
a. Higher speed with less pressure applied to the
drill
b. Lower speed with more pressure applied to
the drill
c. Lower speed with less pressure applied to the
drill
72. How does acoustic emission testing detect defects in
composite materials?
a. By picking up the ‘noise’ of any deterioration
that may be present
b. By analyzing ultrasonic signals transmitted into
the parts being inspected
c. By creating sonogram pictures of the areas
being inspected
73. One of the best ways to assure that a properly
prepared batch of matrix resin has been achieved is
to
a. Perform a chemical composition analysis
b. Have mixed enough for a test sample
c. Test the viscosity of the resin immediately after
mixing
74. If no scratches are visible after transparent plastic
enclosure materials have been cleaned, their surfaces
should be
a. Polished with rubbing compound applied with a
damp cloth
b. Buffed with a clean, soft, dry cloth
c. Covered with a thin coat of wax
75. The length of time that a catalyzed resin will remain
in a workable state is called the
a. Pot life
b. Shelf life
c. Service life
76. Which is considered good practice concerning the
installation of acrylic plastics?
a. When nuts and bolts are used, the plastic should
be installed hot and tightened to a firm fit before
the plastic cools
b. When rivets are used, adequate spacer or other
satisfactory means to prevent excessive
tightening of the frame to the plastic should be
provided
c. When rivets or nuts and bolts are used, slotted
holes are not recommended
77. The primary alloying agent of 2024-T3 is indicated
by the number
a. 2
b. 20
c. 24
78. How many of the following are benefits of using
microballoons when making repairs to laminated
honeycomb panels?
1. Greater concentrations of resin in edges and
corners
2. Improved strength to weight ratio
3. Less density
4. Lower stress concentrations
a. 2,3, and 4
b. 1,2 and 4
c. All of the above
79. Alloy 2117 rivets are heat treated
a. By the manufacturer and do not require heat
treatment before being driven
 b. By the manufacturer but require reheat treatment
before being driven
c. To a temperature of 910 to 930°F and quenched
in cold water
80. One look of the main advantages of Hi-Lok type
fasteners over earlier generations is that
a. They can be removed and reused again
b. The squeezed can be installed with ordinary
hand tools
c. They can be installed with ordinary hand
tools
81. The most important Factors needed to make a flat
pattern layout are
a. Radius, thickness, and mold line
b. Radius, thickness, and degree of bend
c. The lengths of the legs (flat sections)
82. A potted compound repair on honeycomb can
usually be made on damages less than
a. 4 inches in diameter
b. 2 inches in diameter
c. 1 inch in diameter
83. Shallow scratches in sheet metal may be repaired by
a. Burnishing
b. Buffling
c. Stop drilling
84. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the
strength of
a. Longerons and formers
b. Skin or covering
c. Bulkheads and longerons
85. You can distinguish between aluminum and
aluminum alloy by
a. Filing the metal
b. Testing with an acetic solution.
c. Testing with a 10 percent solution of caustic
soda
86. When bending metal, the material on the outside of
the curve stretches while the material on the inside of
the curve compresses. That part of the material
which is not affected by either stress is the
a. Mold line
b. Bend tangent line
c. Neutral line
87. How many MS20470 AD-4-6 rivets will be required
to attach a 10 x 5 inch plate, using a single row of
rivets, minimum edge distance and 4D spacing?
a. 56
b. 54
c. 52
88. When installing transparent plastic enclosures which
are retained by bolts extending through the plastic
material and self-locking nuts, the nuts should be
a. Tightened to a firm fit, plus one full turn.
b. Tightened to a firm fit, then backed off one
full turn
c. Tightened to a firm
89. When repairing puncture-type damage of a metal
faced laminated honeycomb panel, the edges of the
doubler should be tapered to
a. Two times the thickness of the metal
b. 100 times the thickness of the metal
c. Whatever is desired for a neat, clean
Appearance
90. Fiberglass laminate damage out exceeding the first
layer or play can be repaired by
a. filling with a putty consisting of a compatible
resin and clean, short glass fibers.
b. Sanding the damaged area until aerodynamic
smoothness is obtained
c. Trimming the rough edges and sealing with
paint
91. Most rivets used in aircraft construction have
a. Dimples
b. Smooth heads without markings
c. A raised dot
92. Composite fabric material is considered to be the
strongest in what direction?
a. Fill
b. Warp
c. Bias
93. The markings on the head of a Dzus fastener identify
the
a. Body diameter, type of head, and length of
the fastener
b. Body type, head diameter, and type of material
c. Manufacturer and type of material
94. The strength and stiffness of a properly constructed
composite buildup depends primarily on
a. A 60 percent matrix to 40 percent fiber ratio
b. The orientation of the plies to the load
direction
c. The ability of the fibers to transfer stress to the
matrix
95. When riveting dissimilar metals together, what
precautions must be taken to prevent an electrolytic
action?
a. Treat the surfaces to be riveted together with a
process called anodic treatment
b. Place a protective separator between areas of
potential electrical difference
c. Avoid the use of dissimilar metals by
redesigning the unit according to the
recommendations outlined in AC 43.13-1A
96. A DD rivet is heat treated before use to
a. Harden and increase strength
b. Relieve internal stresses
c. Soften to facilitate riveting
97. When a piece of aluminum alloy is to be bent using
minimum radius for the type and thickness of
material
a. The piece should be bent slowly to eliminate
cracking
b. The layout should be made so that the bend will
be 90° to the grain of the sheet
c. Less pressure than usual should be applied with
the movable (upper) clamping bar
98. Which of the following are generally characteristic
of carbon/graphite fiber composites?
1. Flexibility
2. Stiffness
3. High compressive strength
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum
5. Ability to conduct electricity
a. 1 and 3
b. 2,3 and 4
c. 1,3 and 5
99. The classification for fiberglass reinforcement
material that has high resistivity and is the most
common is
a. E-glass
b. S-glass
 c. G-glass
100.When repairing large, flat surfaces with polyester
resins, warping of the surface is likely to occur. One
method of reducing the amount of warpage is to
a. Add an extra amount of catalyst to the resin
b. Use short strips of fiberglass in the bonded repair
c. Use less catalyst than normal so the repair will be
more flexible
101.Joggles in removed rivet shanks would indicate partial
a. Bearing failure
b. Torsion failure
c. Shear failure
102.The dimensions of an MS20430AD-4-8 rivet are
a. 1/8 inch in diameter and ¼ inch long
b. 1/8 inch in diameter and1/2 inch long
c. 4/16 inch in diameter and 8/32 inch long
103.When inspecting a composite panel using the ring
test/tapping method, a dull thud may indicate
a. Less than full strength curing of the matrix
b. Separation of the laminates
c. An area of too much matrix between fiber layers
104.Which of the following, when added to wet resins,
provide strength for the repair of damaged fastener
holes in composite panels?
1. Microballoons
2. Flox
3. Chapped fibers
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2, and 3
105.Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to
finish a drilled hole to the correct size?
a. Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when
enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to
remove from the hole
b. Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction
c. Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when
starting the cut and reduce the pressure when
finishing the cut
106.Which part (s) of a semi-monocoque fuselage
prevents (s) tension and compression from bending
the fuselage?
a. The fuselage covering
b. Longerons and stringers
c. Bulkhead and skin
107.What is generally the best procedure to use when
removing a solid shank rivet?
a. Drill through the manufactured head and shank
with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a
punch
b. Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head
with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank
and remove the rivet with a punch
c. Drill through the manufactured head and shank
with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and
remove the rivet with a punch
108.What is the minimum edge distance allowed for
aluminum alloy single lap sheet splices containing a
single row of rivets as compared to a joint with
multiple rows, all rivets being equal I diameter?
a. The minimum edge distance for the single row is
greater than that for the multiple row
b. The minimum edge distance for the single row is
less than that for the multiple row
c. The minimum edge distance for the single row is
equal to that for the multiple row
109.When an MS20470D rivet is installed, its full shear
strength is obtained
a. Only after a period of age hardening
b. By the cold working of the rivet metal in forming
a shop head
c. By heat treating just prior to being driven
110.A single-lap sheet splice is to be used to repair a
section of damaged aluminum skin. If a double row of
1/8-inch rivets is used, the minimum allowable
overlap will be
a. ½ inch
b. ¾ inch
c. 13/16 inch
111.The length of rivet to be chosen when making a
structural repair that involves the joining of 0.032-
sheet, drilled with a No. 30 drill, is
a. 7/16 inch
b. 5/16 inch
c. ¼ inch
112.A sheet metal repair is to be made using two pieces of
0.040-inch aluminum riveted together. All rivet holes
are drilled for 3/32-inch rivets. The length of the
rivets to be used will be
a. 1/8 inch
b. ¼ inch
c. 5/16 inch
113.Unless otherwise specified, the radius of a bend is the
a. Inside radius of the metal being formed
b. Inside radius plus one-half the thickness of the
metal being formed
c. Radius of the metal axis plus one-half the
thickness of the metal being formed
114.Which of the following need not be considered when
determining minimum rivet spacing?
a. Rivet diameter
b. Rivet length
c. Type of material being riveted
115.The preferred way to make permanent repairs on
composites is by
a. Bonding on metal or cured composite patches
b. Riveting on metal or cured composite patches
c. Laminating on new repair plies
116.Which of these methods may be used to inspect
fiberglass/ honeycomb structures for entrapped water?
1. Acoustic emission monitoring
2. X-ray
3. Backlighting
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
117.Which rivets should be selected to join two sheets of
.032-inch aluminum?
a. MS20425D-4-3
b. MS20470AD-4-4
c. MS20455DD-5-3
118.Select the alternative which best describes the
function of the flute section of a twist drill
a. Provides a method for cooling oil to be delivered
to the cutting surface
b. Forms the area where the drill bit attaches to the
drill motor
 c. Forms the cutting edges of the drill point a. Restored strength and flexibility
119.Which of the following are generally characteristic of b. Improved wear resistance to the structure
aramid fiber (Kevlar) composites? c. An unairworthy repair
1. High tensile strength 129.The aluminum alloys used in aircraft construction are
2. Flexibility usually hardened by which method?
3. Stiffness a. Cold-working
4. Corrosive effect in contact with aluminum b. Aging
5. Ability to conduct electricity c. Heat treatment
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 5 130.The shop head of a rivet should be
120.One method of inspecting a laminated fiberglass a. One and one-half times the diameter of the
structure that has been subjected to damage is to rivet shank
a. Strip the damaged area of all paint and shine a b. One-half times the diameter of the rivet shank
strong light through the structure c. One and one-half times the diameter of the
b. Use dye-penetrant inspection procedures, manufactured head of the rivet
exposing the entire damaged area to the
penetrant solution.
c. Use an eddy current probe on both sides of the Aircraft Fuel System
damaged are 1. To prevent vapor lock in fuel lines at high altitude,
121.The length of a rivet to be used to join a sheet of .032- some aircraft are equipped with:
inch and .064-inch aluminum alloy should be equal to a. Vapor separators
a. Two times the rivet diameter plus .064 inch b. Direct-injection type carburetors
b. One and one-half times the rivet diameter plus c. Booster pumps
.096 inch 2. (1) Gas-turbine engine fuel systems are very
c. Three times the rivet diameter plus .096 inch susceptible to the formation of ice in the fuel
122.Rivet pitch is the distance between the filters.
a. Centers of rivets in adjacent rows
b. Centers of adjacent rivets in the same row (2)A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to
c. Heads of rivets in the same row warm the fuel.
123.A category of plastic material that is capable of Regarding the above statements,
softening or flowing when reheated is described as a a. Only no.1 is true
a. Thermoplastic b. Only no.2 is true
b. Thermocure c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true
c. Thermoset 3. What minimum required markings must be placed on
124.Which rivet is used for riveting magnesium alloy or near each appropriate fuel filler cover on utility
structures? category aircraft?
a. Mild steel a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade,
b. 5056 aluminum and the total fuel tank capacity.
c. Monel b. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade
125.Proper pre-preg composite lay-up curing is generally or designation for the engines, and the usable fuel
accomplished by tank capacity.
1. Applying external heat c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
2. Room temperature exposure 4. A fuel system must be designed to prevent fuel-vapor
3. Adding a catalyst or curing agent to the resin ignition caused by:
4. Applying pressure a. over-heating
a. 2 and 3 b. back-fire
b. 1 and 4 c. lightning
c. 1, 2, and 4 5. What are the four general types of fuel quantity
126.The flat layout or blank length of a piece of metal gauges?
from which a simple L-shaped bracket 3 inches by 1 1. Sight glass
inch is to be bent depends upon the radius of the 2. Mechanical
desired bend. The bracket which will require the 3. Electrical
greatest amount of material is one which has a bend 4. Electronic
radius of 5. Bourdon tube
a. 1/8 inch 6. Vane-type transmitter
b. ½ inch 7. Litmus indicator
c. ¼ inch 8. Direct-reading static pressure type
127.What reference tool is used to determine how the fiber a. 1,2,3,4
is to be oriented for a particular ply of fabric? b. 1,3,6,8
a. Fill clock (or compass) c. 2,3,5,7
b. Bias clock (or compass) 6. Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral
c. Warp clock (or compass) stability when jettisoning fuel?
128.Repairing advanced composites using materials and a. Two separate independent systems
techniques traditionally used for fiberglass repairs is b. Crossfeed system
likely to result in c. Two interconnected systems
7. Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to:
 a. reduce pressure
b. prevent a negative pressure
c. act as check valves
8. A drip gauge may be used to measure:
a. the amount of fuel in the tank
b. system leakage with the system shutdown
c. fuel pump diaphragm leakage
9. The use of turbine fuels in aircraft has resulted in
some problems not normally associated with aviation
gasolines. One of these problem is
a. increasing viscosity of fuel as fuel temperature
lowers at altitude.
b. higher vapor pressure.
c. microbial contaminants.
10. Entrained water in aviation turbine fuel is a
hazard because of its susceptibility to freezing as
it passes through the filters. What are common
methods of preventing this hazard?
a. micromesh fuel strainers and fuel heater.
b. high-velocity fuel pumps and fuel heater.
c. anti-icing fuel additives and fuel heater.
11. Aircraft defueling should be accomplished
a. With the aircraft’s communication equipment on
and in contact with the tower in case of fire.
b. In a hangar where activities can be controlled.
c. In the open air for good ventilation.
12. A fuel temperature indicator is located in the fuel
tanks on some turbine-powered airplanes to tell when
the fuel may be:
a. Getting cold enough to form hard ice.
b. In danger of forming ice crystals.
c. About to form rime ice.
13. (1) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an
aircraft positive-displacement fuel pump.
(2) A fuel pressure relief valve is required on an
aircraft centrifugal fuel boost pump.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no.1 is true
b. Only no.2 is true
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true
14. The electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system
consists of a bridge circuit,
a. An amplifier, an indicator, and a tank unit.
b. A tank, an amplifier, and an indicator
c. A tank unit, a tank, and an amplifier
15. What precautions must be observed if a gravity-feed
fuel system is permitted to supply fuel to an engine
form more than one tank at a time?
a. The tank airspaces must be interconnected.
b. The fuel outlet ports of each tank must have
the same cross-sectional area.
c. Each tank must have a valve in its outlet that
automatically shuts off the line when the tank is empty.
16. What is the recommended practice for cleaning a fuel
tank before welding?
a. Purge the tank with air.
b. Flush the inside of the tank with clean water.
c. Steam clean the tank interior.
17. When installing a rigid fuel line, ½ inch in diameter, at
what intervals should the line supported?
a. 24 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 16 inches
18. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be
improved?
a. By adding a knock inhibitor.
b. By adding a knock enhancer.
c. By adding a fungicide agent.
19. What type of remote-reading fuel quantity indicating
system has several probes installed in each fuel
tank?
a. Electromechanical
b. Electronic
c. Direct reading
20. When moving the mixture control on a normally
operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine
RPM should
a. Slightly increase before the engine starts to die.
b. Slightly decrease and then drop rapidly.
c. Remain the same Until the cutoff is effected, then
drop rapidly.
21. Which of the following would be most useful to locate
and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel
system?
a. Aircraft structure repair manual.
b. Illustrated parts manual.
c. A fuel system schematic.
22. What is the purpose of flapper-type check valves in
integral fuel tanks?
a. To allow defueling of the tanks by section
b. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the
boost pumps.
c. To allow the engine-driven pumps to draw fuel
directly from the tank if the boost pump fails.
23. What flight safety-related advantage does a pressure
fueling system provide?
a. Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance
limitations.
b. Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.
c. Reduces the time required for fueling.
24. What type of fuel-booster pump requires a pressure
relief valve?
a. Concentric
b. Sliding vane
c. Centrifugal
25. A fuel totalizer is a component which indicates the:
a. Total amount of fuel being consumed by all engines.
b. Amount of fuel in any given tank.
c. Amount of fuel in all tanks.
26. As a general rule, which statement is true regarding
fuel leaks?
a. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards.
b. All fuel leaks regardless of location or severity
are considered a hazard to flight.
c. Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps (in addition to
running leaks) are considered flight hazards when
located in unvented areas of the aircraft.
27. The location of leaks and defects within the internal
portions of the fuel system can usually be
determined by:
a. Visual inspection for evidence of wet spots and
stains, and feeling for unusually warm components.
b. Performing a fuel flow check.
c. Observing the pressure gauge and operating the
selector valves.
28. Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are:
a. Usually constructed of nonmetallic material.
b. Readily removed from the aircraft.
c. Formed by the aircraft structure.
29. What is the dielectric (nonconducting material) in a
capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system?
a. Outer shell of the capacitor.
b. Fuel in the tank.
 c. Fuel and air in the tank.
30. A transducer in a fuel pressure system serves
what function?
a. Transmits an electrical signal to the transmitter
for fluid pressure.
b. Transmits electrical signal proportional to the
fluid pressure.
c. Converts fluid pressure directly through a
transmitter to the indicator.
31. Why are integral fuel tanks used in many large
aircraft?
a. To reduce fire hazards.
b. To facilitate servicing.
c. To reduce weight.
32. A capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system
measures fuel in:
a. Pounds
b. Pounds per hour
c. Gallons
33. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an
extended period of time, the inside of the tank should
be coated with a film of:
a. Engine oil
b. Linseed oil
c. Ethylene glycol
34. How many vents, arranged so that they are not likely to
become plugged at the same time, must be used in
multiengine fuel systems?
a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
35. A fuel pressure warning switch contacts close
and warning light is turned on when:
a. A measured quantity of fuel has passed through it.
b. The fuel flow stops.
c. The fuel pressure drops below specified limits.
36. Which of the following is necessary to effectively
troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system?
a. The manufacturer’s maintenance manuals.
b. AC 43.13-1B, Acceptable methods, techniques,
and practices—Aircraft inspection and Repair.
c. A set of Federal Aviation Regulations.
37. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted
fittings the line should:
a. Have at least one bend between such fittings.
b. Be straight length of tubing and clamped to
the aircraft structure.
c. Have a flexible line added between two metal
lines to allow for ease of installation.
38. When inspecting a fuel system, you should check
all valves located downstream of boost pumps with
the pumps:
a. At idle
b. Dormant
c. Operating
39. An electrical-type fuel quantity indicating system
consists of an indicator in the cockpit and a:
a. Float-operated transmitter installed in the tank.
b. Float resting on the surface of the tank.
c. Float-operated receiver installed in the tank.
40. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is:
a. Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive
gasoline.
b. Higher than the vapor pressure of automotive
gasoline.
c. Approximately 20PSI at 100F
41. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the
microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank?
a. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
b. Add CO(2) as a purgative.
c. Keep the fuel tank topped off.
42. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system?
a. To allow the feeding of engine from any tank.
b. To allow the feeding of fuel from one tank for
defueling.
c. To provide automatic refueling of a tank to any
desired level.
43. Fuel-boost pumps are operated:
a. To provide a positive flow of fuel to the engine.
b. Primarily for fuel transfer.
c. Automatically from fuel pressure.
44. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity
indicating systems is that:
a. The indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no
conversion is necessary.
b. Only one transmitter and one indicator are
needed regardless of the number of tanks.
c. Several fuel tank levels can be read on one
indicator.
45. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind
of fuel quantity indicating system?
a. Selsyn
b. Capacitor
c. Synchro
46. A fuel jettison system is required under certain
conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the
maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the
requirements of fuel jettisoning?
a. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91.
b. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25, and
CAM 4b.
c. Federal Aviation Regulation Part 21, 43 and CAM 8.
47. In an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system,
the tank sensing unit is a:
a. Capacitor
b. Variable resistor
c. Variable resistor
48. What should be used to remove flux from an aluminum
tank after welded repairs?
a. Soft brush and warm water.
b. 5 percent solution of nitric or sulfuric acid.
c. Mild solution of soap and warm water.
49. What is the purpose of a float-operated transmitter
installed in a fuel tank?
a. It sends an electric signal to the fuel quantity
indicator.
b. It senses the total amount of fuel density.
c. It senses the dielectric qualities of fuel and air in the
tank.
50. Fuel jettisoning past the limits prescribed by Federal
Aviation Regulations is usually prevented by:
a. Closely monitoring the fuel quantity and turning off
the fuel dump switch/es.
b. Dump limit valves or a low-level circuit.
c. Standpipes in the fuel tanks.
51. The type of fuel-boost pump that separates air and
vapor from the fuel before it enters the line to the
carburetor is the:
 a. Gear-type pump.
b. Centrifugal-type pump.
c. Sliding vane-type pump.
52. (1) If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines
may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel
flow.
(2) A measure of a gasoline’s tendency to vapor lock is
obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no. 2 is true
b. Both no. 1 and no.2 are true
c. Neither no. 1 nor no.2 is true
53. (1) On a large aircraft pressure refueling system, a
pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will
permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel
tanks of an aircraft.
(2) Because of the fuel tank area, there are more
advantages to a pressure fueling system in light
aircraft.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no.1 is true
b. Only no.2 is true
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true
54. The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle
would indicate:
a. Too much fuel pressure.
b. Excessive airflow across the venturi.
c. Clogged fuel nozzle.
55. (1) A fuel heater can use engine bleed air as a source
of heat.
(2) A fuel heater can use engine lubricating oil as a
source of heat.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only no.1 is true.
b. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true.
56. How does temperature affect fuel weight?
a. Cold fuel is heavier per gallon.
b. Warm fuel is heavier per gallon.
c. Temperature has no effect.
57. Which of the following may be used for the repair
of fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks?
a. Welding and resealing.
b. Brazing and resealing.
c. Riveting and resealing.
58. Why are centrifugal-type boost pumps used in fuel
systems of aircraft operating at high altitude?
a. Because they are positive displacement pumps.
b. To supply fuel under pressure to engine-driven
pumps.
c. To permit cooling air to circulate around the motor.
59. An aircraft’s integral fuel tank is:
a. Usually located in the bottom of the fuselage.
b. A part of the aircraft structure.
c. A self-sealing tank.
60. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel
quantity indicating systems is that the indicator:
a. Can be located an distance from the tank/s.
b. Has no movable devices.
c. Always measures volume instead of mass.
61. When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of
gallons, the measurement will be more accurate
because fuel volume:
a. Varies with temperature change.
b. Increases when temperature decreases.
c. Varies with changes in atmospheric pressure.
62. Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?
a. Helium or argon.
b. Carbon dioxide.
c. Carbon monoxide.
63. What must each fuel quantity indicator be calibrated to
read during level flight when the quantity of fuel
remaining is equal to the unusable fuel supply?
a. The total unusable fuel quantity.
b. Both the total unusable fuel quantity and the
unusable fuel quantity in each tank.
c. Zero.
64. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an
aircraft fuel?
a. 7 PSI
b. 5 PSI
c. 3 PSI
65. When inspecting a removable rigid fuel tank for leaks
what procedure should be followed?
a. Pressurize the tank with air and brush with
soapy water.
b. Fill the tank with water and pressurize with air and
brush with soapy water.
c. Pressurize the tank with air and submerge in water to
locate leaks.
66. Pressure fueling or aircraft is usually accomplished
through:
a. Pressure connections on individual fuel tanks.
b. At least one single point connection.
c. Individual fuel tank overwing and/or fuselage
access points.
67. How many engine drive fuel pumps per engine are
required for engines requiring fuel pump?
a. Two engines can share one fuel pump
b. One fuel pump for each engine.
c. Two fuel pumps for each engine.
68. According to Part 23, what minimum required
markings must be placed at or near each appropriate
fuel filler cove for reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes?
a. The word ‘Avgas’ and the minimum fuel grade.
b. The word ‘Fuel’ and usable fuel capacity.
c. The word ‘Avgas’ and the total fuel capacity.
69. The purpose of the baffle plate in a fuel tank is to:
a. Provide an expansion space for the fuel.
b. Resist fuel surging within the fuel tank.
c. Provide internal structural integrity.
70. The probe of a capacitance-type fuel level gauge is
essentially a:
a. Float-actuated variable capacitor.
b. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as one plate.
c. Capacitor with fuel and air acting as a dielectric.
71. What method is used on turbine-powered aircraft to
determine when the condition of the fuel is
approaching the danger of forming ice crystals?
a. Fuel pressure warning.
b. Fuel pressure gauge.
c. Fuel temperature indicator.
72. What unit would be adjusted to change the fuel
pressure warning limits?
a. Fuel flowmeter bypass valve.
b. Pressure-sensitive mechanism.
c. Fuel pressure relief valve.
73. (1) The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow
flight personnel to close the valve during any part of
the jettisoning operation.
 (2) During the fuel jettisoning operation, the fuel must
discharge clear of any part of the airplane.
Regarding the above statements,
a. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
b. Only no.2 is true.
c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true.
74. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest
point in the fuel system?
a. It traps any small amount of water that may be
present in the fuel system.
b. It provides a drain for residual fuel.
c. It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be
present in the fuel system.
75. Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks?
a. To ensure a positive head pressure for a
submerged boost pump.
b. To exhaust fuel vapors.
c. To limit pressure differential between the tank
and atmosphere.
76. Which of the following precautions is most important
during refueling operations?
a. All outside electrical sources must be
disconnected from the aircraft.
b. Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.
c. All electrical switches must be in OFF position.
77. A transmitter in a fuel pressure warning system
serves what function?
a. Transmits an electrical signal to fluid pressure.
b. Converts fluid pressure to an electrical signal.
c. Transmits fluid pressure directly to the indicator.
78. What should be used to inert an integral fuel tank
before attempting repairs?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water
c. Steam
79. A typical large transport aircraft fuel manifold
system allows how many of the following?
1. All tanks can be serviced through a
single connection.
2. Any engine can be fed from any tank
3. All engines can be fed from all tanks
simultaneously.
4. A damaged tank can be isolated from the rest of
the fuel system.
a. 1 and 2.
b. 1, 2, and 3.
c. 1, 2, 3, and 4.
80. Which statement concerning an electronic capacitance-
type fuel quantity indicating system is true?
a. It has no moving parts in the tank.
b. It has two tubes separated by an electronic field
in the tank.
c. It utilizes a variable capacitor to indicate the
fuel tank capacity.
81. The primary purpose of an aircraft’s fuel jettison
system is to quickly achieve a:
a. Lower landing weight.
b. Balanced fuel load.
c. Reduced fire hazard.
82. How is the outlet fuel pressure regulated on a
submerged, single-speed, centrifugal-type fuel pump?
a. By the engine-driven pump’s design and internal
clearance.
b. By the first check valve downstream from the pump.
c. By the pump’s design and internal clearances.
83. Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional
procedures are normally placarded on the:
a. Fuel control panel access door.
b. Lower wing surface adjacent to the access door.
c. Aircraft ground connection point.
84. What is one disadvantage of using aromatic aviation
fuels?
a. A fuel intercooler is required.
b. Deteriorates rubber parts.
c. Results in low fuel volatility.
85. Which aircraft fuel quantity indicating system
incorporates a signal amplifier?
a. Electronic
b. Sight glass
c. Electrical
86. Why are jet fuels more susceptible to water
contamination than aviation gasoline?
a. Jet fuel has a higher viscosity than gasoline.
b. Jet fuel is lighter than gasoline; therefore, water is
more easily suspended.
c. Condensation is greater because of the higher
volatility of jet fuels.
87. What is the minimum distance allowed between a fuel
tank and the fire wall separating the engine?
a. One-half inch
b. One inch
c. Two inches
88. Fuel baffles are installed in tanks to prevent
caused by changes in the attitude of the aircraft.
a. Vapors.
b. Surging.
c. Starvation.
89. Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine
aircraft
a. Calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct
lateral instability.
b. Reduces contamination and/or fire hazards
during fueling or defueling operations.
c. Provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel
load condition.
90. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide
a:
a. Positive system of maintaining the design minimum
fuel supply for safe operation.
b. Place where water and dirt accumulations in the
tank can collect and be drained.
c. Reserve supply of fuel to enable the aircraft to
land safely in the event of fuel exhaustion.
91. What method would be used to check for internal
leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve
from the aircraft?
a. Place the valve in OFF position, drain the strainer
bowl and with the boost pump on, watch to see if fuel
flows to the strainer bowl.
b. Remove fuel cap/s, turn boost pump/s on, and watch
for bubbling in the tanks.
c. Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side
of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the
valve.
92. Fuel system components must be bonded and
grounded in order to:
a. Drain off static charges.
b. Prevent stray currents.
c. Retard galvanic corrosion.
93. Fuel is moved overboard in most fuel jettison systems
by:
 a. Boost pumps.
b. Gravity.
c. Gravity and engine-driven fuel pumps.
94. In some aircraft with several fuel tanks, the possible
danger of allowing the fuel supply in one tank to
become exhausted before the selector valve is
switched to another tank is prevented by the
installation of:
a. A fuel pressure warning signal system.
b. A fuel pressure relief valve.
c. An engine fuel pump bypass valve.
95. Which of the following would give the first
positive indication that a change-over from one fuel
tank to another is needed?
a. Fuel pressure warning.
b. Fuel pressure gauge.
c. Fuel quantity indicator.
96. Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished:
a. Through a common manifold and outlet in each
wing.
b. By gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks
and overboard through a common outlet in each
wing.
c. Through individual outlets for each tank.
97. Where is fuel pressure taken for the pressure warning
signal on most aircraft engines?
a. Outlet side of the boost pump.
b. Fuel pressure line of the carburetor.
c. Between the fuel pump and the strainer.
98. (1) The function of a fuel heater is to protect the
engine fuel system from ice formation.
(2) An aircraft fuel heater cannot be used to thaw ice in
the fuel screen.
Regarding the statements above,
a. Only no.1 is true.
b. Only no.2 is true.
c. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
99. Microbial growth is produced by various forms of
microorganisms that live and multiply in the water
interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could
result if microbial growth exists in a jet fuel tank and is
not corrected?
1. Interference with fuel flow.
2. Interference with fuel quantity indicators.
3. Engine seizure.
4. Electrolytic corrosive action in a metal tank.
5. Lower grade rating of the fuel.
6. Electrolytic corrosive action in a rubber tank.
a. 1, 2, 4
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 1, 5, 6
100.What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure
warning system?
a. Fuel flowmeter.
b. Pressure-sensitive mechanism.
c. Fuel pressure gauge.
101.Fuel heaters are used with fuel systems for turbine
engines to prevent
In the fuel from clogging system filters.
a. Moisture.
b. Ice crystals.
c. Contamination.
102.If it is necessary to enter an aircraft’s fuel tank,
which procedure should be avoided?
a. Continue purging the tank during the entire
work period.
b. Station an assistant outside the fuel tank access to
perform rescue operations if required.
c. Conduct the defueling and tank purging
operation in an air-conditioned building.
103.What is used in may aircraft to prevent bubbles in the
fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric
pressure is lower than fuel vapor pressure?
a. Air-fuel separators.
b. Anti-foaming additives.
c. Boost pumps.
104.Which procedure must be followed when
defueling aircraft with sweptback wings?
a. Defuel all the tanks at one time.
b. Defuel the inboard wing tanks first.
c. Defuel the outboard wing tanks first.
105.If an aircraft is fueled from a truck or storage tank
which is known to be uncontaminated with dirt or
water, periodic checks of the aircraft’s fuel tank sumps
and system strainers:
a. Can be eliminated except for the strainer check
before the first flight of the day and the fuel tank sump
check during 100hour or annual inspections.
b. Are still necessary due to the possibility of
contamination from other sources.
c. Can be sharply reduced since contamination
from other sources is relatively unlikely and of little
consequence in modern aircraft fuel systems.
106.A digital fuel totalizer automatically indicates the
amount of fuel used, fuel remaining, current rate
of consumption, and fuel
a. Weight, aboard at takeoff.
b. Remaining at the 45-minute IFR fuel reserve.
c. Remaining, flight time at the current power setting.
107.(1) A fuel pressure gauge is a differential pressure
indicator.
(2) A fuel pressure gauge indicates the pressure of the
fuel entering the carburetor.
Regarding the statements above,
a. Only no.2 is true.
b. Both no.1 and no.2 are true.
c. Neither no.1 nor no.2 is true.
108. The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel pump
is to:
a. Equalize fuel pressure at all speeds.
b. Vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting.
c. Compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes.
109. Before fueling an aircraft by using the pressure fueling
method, what precaution should be observed?
a. The truck pump pressure must be correct for
that refueling system.
b. The truck pump pressure must be adjusted for
minimum filter pressure.
c. The aircraft’s electrical system must be on to
indicate quantity gauge readings.
110. Select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on
turbine-powered aircraft.
a. Engine bleed air to the fuel filter.
b. Engine bleed air to the fuel tank.
c. Engine bleed air to a heat exchanger.
111. Many fuel tanks incorporate valves to
prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pump
or tank outlet when the aircraft is in a high ‘G’
maneuver.
 a. Flapper b. Micrometer caliper
b. Check c. Dial indicator
c. Dump 9. In examining and evaluating a welded joint, a
112. Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating mechanic should be familiar with
system more accurate in measuring fuel level than a a. Likely ambient exposure conditions and
mechanical type? intended use of the part, along with type
a. Only one probe and one indicator are necessary of weld and original part material
for multiple tank configurations. composition
b. It measures in gallons and converts to pounds. b. The welding technique, filler material,
c. It measures by weight instead of volume. and temperature range used
113. What is one purpose of a fuel tank vent? c. The parts, proportions, and formation of
a. To maintain atmospheric pressure. a weld
b. To decrease fuel vapor pressure. 10. What nondestructive testing method requires
c. To decrease tank internal air pressure. little or no part preparation, is used to detect
surface or near-surface defects in most metals,
Materials and Processes and may also be used to separate metals or
alloys and their heat-treat conditions?
1. What two types of indicating mediums are available
a. Eddy current inspection
for magnetic particle inspection?
a. Iron and ferric oxides b. Ultrasonic inspection
c. Magnetic particle inspection
b. Wet and dry process materials
11. Which of the following is a main determinant of
c. High retentivity and low permeability material
the dwell time to use when conducting a dye r
2. What precision measuring tool is used for measuring
fluorescent penetrant inspection?
crankpin and main bearing journals for out-of-round
a. The size and shape of the discontinuities
wear?
being looked for
a. Dial gauge
b. The size and shape of the part being
b. Micrometer caliper
inspected
c. Depth gauge
c. The type and/or density of the part material
3. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is correct?
12. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to
a. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled
detect which defects?
bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, it is
a. Defects parallel to the long axis of the
permissible to overtighten the nut to permit
part
alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin
b. Defects perpendicular to the long axis of the
hole
part
b. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal the
c. Defects perpendicular to the concentric
material thickness
circles of magnetic force within the part
c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼ -inch diameter
13. If it is necessary to accurately measure the
should not be used in primary structure
diameter of a hole approximately ¼ inch in
4. How many of these factors are considered essential
diameter, the mechanic should use a
knowledge for x-ray exposure?
a. Telescoping gauge and determine the size
1. Processing of the film
of the hole by taking a micrometer reading
2. Material thickness and density
of the adjustable end of the telescoping
3. Exposure distance and angle
gauge
4. Film characteristics
b. 0 - to 1-inch inside micrometer and read the
a. One
measurement directly from the micrometer
b. Three
c. Small-hole gauge and determine the size of the
c. Four
hole by taking a micrometer reading of the ball
5. On a fillet weld, the penetration requirement
end of the gauge
includes what percentage(s) of the base metal
14. Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing
thickness?
a. 100 percent inspection method is true?
a. Subsurface discontinuities are made readily
b. 25 – 50 percent
apparent
c. 60 – 80 percent
b. It is used in practically all circular and
6. What is descriptive of the annealing process of steel
longitudinal magnetizing procedures
during after it has been annealed?
a. Rapid cooling; high strength c. It may be used with steels which have been
heat treated for stressed applications
b. Slow cooling; low strength
15. Which of the following defects are not acceptable for
c. Slow cooling; increased resistance to wear
metal lines?
1. Cracked flare
7. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a
2. Seams
a. Class 1 fit for the threads
3. Dents in the heel of a bend less than 20% of the
b. Class 2 fit for the threads
diameter
c. Class 3 fit for the threads
4. Scratches/nicks on the inside of a bend less than
8. Which tool can be used to determine piston pin
10% of wall thickness
out-of-round wear?
5. Dents in straight section that are 20% of tube
a. Telescopic gauge
diameter
 a. 1,2,3,4 and 5
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2,3 and 5
16. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp
and clear, the most cause is that part
a. Was not correctly degaussed before the
developer was applied
b. Has no appreciable damage
c. Was not thoroughly washed before the
developer was applied
17. Which heat-treating operation would be performed
when the surface of the metal is changed chemically
by introducing a high carbide or nitride content?
a. Tempering
b. Normalizing
c. Case hardening
18. (1) In nondestructive testing a discontinuity may be
defined as an interruption in the normal physical
structure or configuration of a part
(2) A discontinuity may or may not affect the
usefulness of a part
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only No.1 is true
b. Only No.2 is true
c. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
19. Unless otherwise specified, torque values for
tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to
a. Clean, dry threads
b. Clean, lightly oiled threads
c. Both dry and lightly oiled threads
20. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type locknut
obtained?
a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking
insert
b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base
of the load carrying section
c. By making the threads in the fiber insert slightly
smaller than those in the load carrying section
21. When the specific torque value for nuts is not given,
where can the recommended torque value be found?
a. AC 43. 13-1B
b. Technical Standard Order
c. AC43. 13-2A
22. Which of the following occurs when a mechanical
force is repeatedly applied to most metals at room
temperature, such as rolling, hammering, or
bending?
1. The metals become artificially aged.
2. The metals become stress corrosion cracked
3. The metals become cold worked, strain or work
hardened
a. 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 3.
23. In performing a dye penetrant inspection, the
developer
a. Seeps into a surface crack to indicate the
presence of a defect
b. Acts as a blotter to produce a visible
indication
c. Thoroughly cleans the surface prior to
inspection
24. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is
classified as an
a. NAS standard aircraft bolt
b. NAS close tolerance bolt
c. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
25. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a
hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough
core?
a. Case hardening
b. Annealing
c. Tempering
26. Alclad is a metal consisting of
a. Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure
aluminum core
b. Pure aluminum surface layers on an
aluminum alloy core
c. A homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum
and aluminum alloy
27. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft
bolts should be installed so that the bolthead is
a. Upward, or in rearward direction
b. Upward, or in a forward direction
c. Downward, or in a forward direction
28. The society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) and
the American Iron and Steel Institute use a
numerical index system to identify the
composition of various steels. In the number
‘4130’ designating chromium molybdenum
steel, the first digit indicates the
a. Percentage of the basic element in the alloy
b. Percentage of carbon in the alloy in
hundredths of a percent
c. Basic alloying element
29. Which of the following describe the effects of
annealing steel and aluminum alloys?
1. Decrease in internal stress
2. Softening of the metal
3. Improved corrosion resistance
a. 1,2
b. 1,3
c. 2,3
30. What method of magnetic particle inspection is
used most often to inspect aircraft parts for
invisible cracks and other defects?
a. Residual
b. Inductance
c. Continuous
31. (1) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by
subjecting it to a magnetizing force from
alternating current that is gradually reduced in
strength
(2) An aircraft part may be demagnetized by
subjecting it to a magnetizing force from direct
current that is alternately reversed in direction
and gradually reduced in strength
Regarding the above statements,
a. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true
b. Only No.2 is true
c. Only No.1 is true
32. What aluminum alloy designations indicate that
the metal has received no hardening or
tempering treatment
a. 3003-F
b. 5052-H36
c. 6061-O
33. What is steel tempered after being hardened
a. To increase its hardness and ductility
b. To increase its strength and decrease its
internal stresses
 c. To relieve its internal stresses and reduce its method is used to determine the soundness of
brittleness the repair after the repair has cured?
34. Identify the correct statement a. Eddy current test
a. An outside micrometer is limited to b. Metallic ring test
measuring diameters c. Ultrasonic test
b. Tools used on certificated aircraft must be 44. Which of the following materials may be
an approved type inspected using the magnetic particle inspection
c. Dividers do not provide a reading when method?
used as measuring device 1. Magnesium alloys
35. Which condition indicates a part has cooled too 2. Aluminum alloys
quickly after being welded? 3. Iron alloys
a. Cracking adjacent to the weld 4. Copper alloys
b. Discoloration of the base metal 5. Zinc alloys
c. Gas pockets, porosity, and slag inclusions a. 1,2,3
36. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type b. 1,2,3,4
locknut obtained? c. 3
a. By the use of an unthreaded fiber locking 45. Why is it considered good practice to normalize
insert a part after welding?
b. By a fiber insert held firmly in place at the a. To relieve internal stresses developed
base of the load carrying section within the base metal
c. By making the threads in the fiber insert b. To increase the hardness of the weld
slightly smaller than those in the load c. To remove the surface scale formed during
carrying section welding
37. Which number represents the Vernier scale 46. What is generally used in the construction of
graduation of a micrometer? aircraft engine firewalls?
a. .00001 a. Stainless steel
b. .001 b. Chrome-molybdenum alloy steel
c. .0001 c. Titanium nickel alloy
38. One characteristics of a good weld is that no 47. The aluminum code number 1100 identifies
oxide should be formed on the base metal at a what type of aluminum
distance from the weld of more than a. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent
a. ½ inch copper
b. 1 inch b. Aluminum alloy containing zinc
c. ¼ inch c. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum
39. Which material cannot be heat treated 48. What tool is generally used to set a divider to an
repeatedly without harmful effects? exact dimension?
a. Unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form a. Machinist scale
b. 6061-T9 b. Surface gauge
c. Clad aluminum alloy c. Dial indicator
40. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a 49. The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is
a. Class 1 fit for the threads a. Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the
b. Class 2 fit for the threads surface material is commercially pure
c. Class 3 fit for the threads aluminum
41. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be b. Commercially pure aluminum, and the
a. Equal to the thickness of the material which surface material is heat-treated aluminum
is fastened together, plus approximately one alloy
diameter c. Strain- hardened aluminum alloy, and the
b. Equal to the thickness of the material which surface material is commercially pure
is fastened together aluminum
c. One and one half times the thickness of the 50. The clearance between the piston rings and the
material which is fastened together ring lands is measured with a
42. Which statement regarding aircraft bolts is a. Micrometer caliper
correct? b. Thickness gauge
a. When tightening castellated nuts on drilled c. Depth gauge
bolts, if the cotter pin holes do not line up, 51. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant
it is permissible to overtighten the nut to inspection usually requires
permit alignment of the next slot with the a. That the developer be applied to a flat
cotter pin hole surface
b. In general, bolt grip lengths should equal b. A longer-than-normal penetrating time
the material thickness c. The surface to be highly polished
c. Alloy steel bolts smaller than ¼-inch 52. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to
diameter should not be used in primary detect
structure a. Distortion
43. A mechanic has completed a bonded b. Deep surface flaws
honeycomb repair using the potted compound c. Flaws on or near the surface
repair technique. What nondestructive testing
53. Aircraft bolts with a cross or asterisk marked on
the bolthead are
a. Made of aluminum alloy
b. Close tolerance bolts
c. Standard steel bolts
54. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld
a. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient
to ensure fusion of the filler rod
b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8
inch above the base metal
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the
base metal
55. What defects will be detected by magnetizing a
part using continuous longitudinal
magnetization with a cable?
a. Defects perpendicular to the axis of the part
b. Defects parallel to the long axis of the part
c. Defects parallel to the concentric circles of
magnetic force within the part
56. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane
a. For tension and shear load conditions
b. Where external tension loads are applied
c. Only for shear load applications
57. When checking an item with the magnetic
particle inspection method, circular and
longitudinal magnetization should be used to
a. Reveal all possible defects
b. Evenly magnetize the entire part
c. Ensure uniform current flow
58. One way a part may be demagnetized after
magnetic particle inspection is by
a. Subjecting the part to high voltage, low
amperage ac
b. Slowly moving the part out of an ac
magnetic field of sufficient strength
c. Slowly moving the part into an ac magnetic
field of sufficient strength
59. How is a clevis bolt used with a fork-end cable
terminal secured?
a. With a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but
with no strain imposed on the fork and safe
tied with a cotter pin
b. With a castle nut tightened until slight
binding occurs between the fork and the
fitting to which it is being attached
c. With a shear nut and cotter pin or thin self-
locking nut tightened enough to prevent
rotation of the bolt in the fork
60. A fiber-type, self-locking nut must never be
used on an aircraft if the bolt is
a. Under shear loading
b. Under tension loading
c. Subject to rotation
61. Why should an aircraft maintenance technician
be familiar with weld nomenclature?
a. So that accurate visual (pictorial)
comparisons can be made
b. In order to gain familiarity with the welding
technique, filler material and temperature
range used
c. In order to compare welds with written
(non-pictorial) description standards
62. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic
particle inspection using either circular or
longitudinal magnetization
a. 45*
b. Longitudinal
c. Transverse
63. A particular component is attached to the
aircraft structure by the use of an aircraft bolt
and a castle tension nut combination. If the
cotter pin hole does not align within the
recommended torque range, the acceptable
practice is to
a. Exceed the recommended torque range by
no more than 10 percent
b. Tighten below the torque range
c. Change washers and try again
64. In magnetic particle inspection, a flaw that is
perpendicular to the magnetic field flux lines
generally causes
a. A large disruption in the magnetic field
b. A minimal disruption in the magnetic field
c. No disruption in the magnetic field
65. Which of the following methods may be suitable
to use to detect cracks open to the surface in
aluminum forgings and castings?
1. Dye penetrant inspection
2. Magnetic particle inspection
3. Metallic ring (coin tap) inspection
4. Eddy current inspection
5. Ultrasonic inspection
6. Visual inspection
a. 1,4,5,6
b. 1,2,4,5,6
c. 1,2,3,4,5,6
66. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft
or other cylindrical work
a. Combination set
b. Dial indicator
c. Micrometer caliper
67. A part which is being prepared for dye penetrant
inspection should be clean with
a. A volatile petroleum-based solvent
b. The penetrant developer
c. Water-base solvents only
68. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is
classified as an
a. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
b. NAS standard aircraft bolt
c. NAS close tolerance bolt
69. Liquid penetrant inspection methods may be
used on which of the following?
1. Porous plastics
2. Ferrous metals
3. Nonferrous metals
4. Smooth primer-sealed wood
5. Nonporous plastics
a. 2,3,4
b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3,5
70. What tool is generally used to calibrate a
micrometer or check its accuracy?
a. Gauge block
b. Dial indicator
c. Machinist scale
71. In the four-digit aluminum index system number
2024, the first digit indicates
 a. The major alloying element 81. What metal has special short-time heat
b. The number of major alloying elements properties and is used in the construction of
used in the metal aircraft firewalls?
c. The percent of alloying metal added a. Stainless steel
72. Select a characteristics of a good gas weld b. Chrome molybdenum alloy steel
a. The depth of penetration shall be sufficient c. Titanium alloy
to ensure fusion off the filler rod 82. How can the dimensional inspection of a
b. The height of the weld bead should be 1/8 bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished?
inch above the base metal a. Depth gauge and micrometer
c. The weld should taper off smoothly into the b. Thickness gauge and push-fit arbor
base metal c. Telescopic gauge and micrometer
73. The twist of a connecting rod is checked by 83. The reheating of het treated metal, such as with
installing push-fit arbors in both ends, supported a welding torch
by parallel steel bars on a surface plate. a. Has little or no effect on a metal’s heat
Measurements are taken between the arbor and treated characteristics
the parallel bar with a b. Has a cumulative enhancement effect on the
a. Dial gauge original heat treatment
b. Height gauge c. Can significantly alter a metal’s
c. Thickness gauge properties in the reheated area
84. Holes and a few projecting globules are found in
74. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic a weld. What action should be taken?
particle build up forming a. Reweld the defective portions
a. A fernlike pattern b. Remove all the old weld, and Reweld the
b. A single line joint
c. Parallel lines c. Grind the rough surface smooth, inspect,
75. Which tool can be used to measure the and Reweld all gaps/holes
alignment of a rotor shaft or the plane of 85. Normalizing is a process of heat treating
rotation of a disk? a. Aluminum alloys only
a. Dial indicator b. Iron-base metal only
b. Shaft gauge c. Both aluminum alloys and iron-base metals
c. Protractor 86. The testing medium that is generally used in
76. What type of corrosion may attack the grain magnetic particle inspection utilizes a
boundaries of aluminum alloys when the heat ferromagnetic material that has
treatment process has been improperly a. High permeability and low retentivity
accomplished b. Low permeability and high retentivity
a. Concentration cell c. High permeability and high retentivity
b. Intergranular
c. Fretting
77. Which tool is used to measure the clearance MAINTENANCE FORMS AND RECORDS
between a surface plate and a relatively narrow 1. For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the
surface being checked for flatness? following records must be retained for at least one
a. Depth gauge year, or until the work is repeated or superseded?
b. Thickness gauge a. Records of time since overhaul of items
c. Dial indicator requiring overhaul on a time specified basis
78. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will b. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive
be identified as having a fatigue crack under maintenance, 100-hour, annual and progressive
which condition? inspections
a. The discontinuity pattern is straight c. Records of the current inspection status of the
b. The discontinuity is found in a nonstressed aircraft, including time since last required
area of the part inspections
c. The discontinuity is found in a highly 2. Which of the following may a certificated airframe
stressed area of the part and powerplant mechanic perform on aircraft and
79. What may be used to check the stem on a approve for return to service?
poppet-type valve for stretch? 1. A 100-hour inspection
a. Dial indicator 2. An annual inspection, under specified
b. Micrometer circumstances
c. Telescoping gauge 3. A progressive inspection, under specified
80. Which of these nondestructive testing methods circumstances
is suitable for the inspection of most metals, a. 1,2
plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface b. 1,3
defects? c. 1,2,3
a. Eddy current inspection 3. If work performed on an aircraft has been done
b. Magnetic particle inspection satisfactorily, the signature of an authorized person
c. Ultrasonic inspection on the maintenance records for maintenance or
alterations performed constitutes
a. Approval of the aircraft for return to service
 b. Approval for return to service only for the work
performed
c. Verification that the maintenance or alterations
were performed referencing approved
maintenance data
4. Which aircraft record entry is the best description of
the replacement of several damaged heli-coils in a
casting?
a. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coils were
replaced. The damaged inserts were extracted ,
the tapped holes gaged, then new inserts
installed, and tangs removed
b. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coils were
installed in place of damaged ones
c. Eight ¼--20 inch standard heli-coil inserts were
repaired by replacing the damaged inserts with a
lock-type insert, after the tapped holes were
checked for corrosions
5. What is the means by which the FAA notifies
aircraft owners and other interested persons of
unsafe conditions and prescribes the condition under
which the product may continue to be operated?
a. Airworthiness Directives
b. Aviation Maintenance Alerts
c. Aviation Safety Data
6. Which maintenance record entry best describes the
action taken for a .125-inch deep dent in a straight
section of 1/2 –inch aluminum alloy tubing?
a. Dented section removed and replaces with
identical new tubing flared to 45°
b. Dent within acceptable limits, repair not
necessary
c. Dented section removed and replaced with
identical new tubing flared to 37°
7. Which is an appliance major repair?
a. Overhaul of a hydraulic pressure pump
b. Repairs to a propeller governor or its control
c. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in
landing light circus
8. When approving for return to service after a
maintenance or alteration, the approving person must
enter in the maintenance record of the aircraft
a. The date the maintenance or alteration was
begun, description (or reference to acceptable
data) of work performed, the name of the person
performing the work (if someone else),
signature and certificate number
b. A description ( or reference of acceptable data)
of work performed, date of completion, the
name of the person performing the work (if
someone else), signature and certificate number
c. A description (or reference of acceptable data)
of work performed, date of completion, the
name of the person performing the work (if
someone else) , signature, certificate number and
kind of certificate held
9. Who is responsible for upkeep of the work required
maintenance record of an aircraft?
a. The maintaining repair station or authorized
inspector
b. The maintaining certified aircraft mechanic
c. The aircraft owner
10. Which is statement is true regarding the
requirements for maintenance record format?
a. Any format that provides record continuity and
includes the required information may be used
b. The format provided by the manufacturer of the
aircraft must be retained
c. Any desired change from manufacturer provided
format requires approval from the Federal
Aviation Administration
11. Where should you find this entry?
‘Removed right wing from aircraft and remove skin
from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches
and in figure 8 in the manufacturer’s structural repair
manual No. 28-1.’
a. Aircraft engine maintenance record
b. Aircraft minor repair and alteration
c. FAA Form 337
12. When a 100-hour inspection is completed, if separate
maintenance records for the airframe, powerplant(s),
and propeller(s) are maintained, where is the entry
for the inspection recorded?
a. In each record
b. In the airframe record only
c. In any one of the records
13. When work is performed on an aircraft that
necessitates the use of FAA Form 337, who should
prepare the form?
a. The person who performs or supervises the
work
b. The person who approves for return to service
c. The aircraft owner or operator
14. A certificated mechanic without an inspection
authorization who signs the appropriate block on
FAA Form 337 is doing what?
a. Certifying that he work was done in accordance
with the requirements of 14CFR Part 43
b. Approving the work for return to service
c. Certifying the maintenance information used as
FAA-approved data
15. For the aircraft operated under part 91, what
difference is there, if any, between the record entry
requirements for maintenance (e.g., repair or
alteration) and the record entry requirements for
inspections (beyond the description of the work
performed and the type and extent of inspection?
a. There is no difference
b. Aircraft total time is required to be included
only in the maintenance entry
c. Aircraft total time is required to be included
only in the inspection entry
16. What is the status of data used as a basis of
approving major repairs or alternations for returning
to service?
a. Data must be least FAA-acceptable when it is
used for that purpose.
b. Data must be FAA-approved prior to its use for
that purpose.
c. Data may be FAA-approved after its used for
that purpose.
17. Where is the record of compliance with
Airworthiness Directives or manufacturer’s service
bulletins normally indicated?
a. FAA form 337
b. Aircraft maintenance record
c. Flight manual
18. If more spaces is needed for a work description
entered o FAA Form 337, what information should
be included on the attached sheet (s), in addition to
the rest of the work description?
a. Make, model, and serial number of the aircraft
b. Aircraft nationality and registration mark, and
the date the work was accomplished
c. Name, date, and office designator of the FAA
inspector from the supervising district office
19. After making a certain repair to an aircraft engine
that is to be returned to service, an FAA Form 337 is
prepared. How many copies are required and what is
the disposition of the completed forms?
a. Two; one copy for the aircraft owner and one
copy for the FAA
b. Two; one coy for the FAA and one copy for the
permanent records of the repairing agency or
individuals
c. Three; one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy
for the FAA, and one copy for the permanent
records of the repairing agency or individual
20. An aircraft owner was provided a list of
discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved
for return to service after an annual inspection.
Which of the following statements is/are true
concerning who may correct the discrepancies?
1. Only a mechanic with an inspection
authorization
2. An appropriately rated mechanic
3. Any certified repair station
a. 2&3
b. 2
c. 1
21. Which aircraft record entry best describes repair of a
dent in a tubular steel structure dented at a cluster?
a. Removed and replaced the damaged member
b. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented
area
c. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal an
dressed to the original contour
22. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found
which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person
disapproving must
a. Void the aircraft’s airworthiness certificate
b. Submit a malfunction defect report
c. Provide a written notice of the defect to the
owner
23. When a discrepancy list is provided to an aircraft
owner or operator after an inspection, it says in
effect that
a. The item inspected is unairworthy
b. Except for these discrepancies, the item
inspected is airworthy
c. The item inspected may or may not be airworthy
depending on the discrepancies found
24. For aircraft operated under part 91, when is aircraft
total time is required to be recorded in aircraft
maintenance records?
a. After satisfactorily completing maintenance,
preventive maintenance, rebuilding and
alteration (excluding inspection)
b. After satisfactorily completing inspections
c. After satisfactorily completing airframe,
component, or propeller maintenance
25. For aircraft operated under part 91, which of the
following records must be retained and transferred
with the aircraft when it is sold?
a. Records of maintenance, alterations, preventive
maintenance, 100-hour, annual and progressive
inspections
b. Records of inspections performed in accordance
with 14 CFR part 43, Appendix D
c. Records of the current status of applicable AD’s,
and date and time when recurring AD’s are next
due
26. Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA
Form 337?
a. FAA Form 337 is unauthorized for use with
both U.S. and foreign registered aircraft
b. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with U.S.
registered aircraft, and foreign registered aircraft
when located in the United States
c. FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with
other U.S. registered aircraft
27. An FAA form 337 is used to record and document
a. Preventive and unscheduled maintenance and
special inspections.
b. Major and minor repairs, and major and minor
alterations.
c. Major repairs and major alterations.
28. What is /are the appropriate action (s) concerning
minor repairs performed on a certificated aircraft?
1. FAA form 337’s must be completed
2. Entries must be made in the aircraft
maintenance record.
3. The owner of the aircraft must submit a record
of all minor repairs to the FAA at least annualy.
a. 2.
b. 2 and 3.
c. 1 and 2.
29. A person installing a product , part, or appliance on a
type certificated product must make certain that the
item’s records document what type of statement?
a. The product, part, or materials meets FAA
airworthiness standards.
b. A product produced by an owner or operator
does not need a statement.
c. The product or material was not produced under
an FAA production approval.
30. After a mechanic holding an airframe an powerplant
rating completes a 100-hour inspection, what action
is required before the aircraft is returned to service?
a. Make the proper entries in the aircraft’s
maintenance record.
b. An operational check of all systems.
c. A mechanic with an inspection authorization
must approve the inspection.
31. Which maintenance action is an airframe major
repair?
a. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable
control surfaces which affect flutter and
vibration characteristics.
b. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical
accessory.
c. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making
additional seams.
32. Which maintenance record entry best describes the
action taken for a control cable showing
 approximately 20 percent wear on several of the c. may sometimes be accomplished with the engine
individual outer wires at a fairlead? installed, ordinarily using power tools.
a. Wear within acceptable limits, repair not
4. One function of the nozzle diaphragm in a turbine engine is
necessary.
to
b. Removed and replaced the control cable and
a. Decrease the velocity of exhaust gases.
rerigged the system.
b. Center the fuel spray in the combustion chamber.
c. Cable repositioned, worn area moved away from
fairlead. c. Direct the flow of gases to strike the turbine blades
33. Who is responsible for making the entry in the at the desired angle.
maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or 5. Some high-volume turboprop and turbojet engines are
progressive inspection? equipped with two-spool or split compressors. When these
a. The owner or operator of the aircraft. engines are operated at high altitudes, the
b. The person approving or disapproving for return a. low-pressure rotor will increase in speed as the
so service. compressor load decreases in the lower density air.
c. The designee or inspector representing the FAA b. throttle must be retarded to prevent overspeeding of
Administrator. the high-pressure rotor due to the lower density air.
34. An aircraft was not approved for return to service c. low-pressure rotor will decrease in speed as the
after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to compressor load decreases in the lower density air.
fly the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which 6. A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?
statement is correct? a. Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
a. The owner must obtain a special flight
b. Turbine, combustion, and stator.
permit.
c. Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
b. The aircraft may be flown without restriction up
to 10 hours to reach another maintenance base. 7. An exhaust cone placed aft of the turbine in a jet engine
c. The aircraft becomes a restricted category type will cause the pressure in the first part of the exhaust duct to
until it is approved for return to service. a. increase and the velocity to decrease.
35. In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft b. increase and the velocity to increase.
maintenance records, what is it necessary to c. decrease and the velocity to increase.
establish? 8. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a
a. Dates of all maintenance, preventive function of the
maintenance and alterations. a. number of compressor stages.
b. Dates and/ or times of all 100-hour, annual, or b. rotor diameter.
progressive inspections.
c. air inlet velocity.
c. Total time-in-service of the airframe.
36. Each person performing an annual or 100-hour 9. The compression ratio of an axial-flow compressor is a
inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least function of the
those items in the appendix of a. number of compressor stages.
a. 14CFR Part 43. b. rotor diameter.
b. 14CFR Part 65. c. air inlet velocity.
c. AC 43.13-3. 10. If a turbine engine is unable to reach takeoff EPR before
its EGT limit is reached, this is an indication that the
TURBINE ENGINES a. Fuel control must be replaced.
1. Turbine engine components exposed to high temperatures b. EGT controller is out of adjustment.
generally may NOT be marked with c. Compressor may be contaminated or damaged.
1. layout dye. 11. Which turbine engine compressor offers the greatest
2. commercial felt tip marker. advantages for both starting flexibility and improved high-
altitude performance?
3. wax or grease pencil.
a. Dual-stage, centrifugal-flow.
4. chalk.
b. Split-spool, axial-flow.
5. graphite lead pencil.
c. Single-spool, axial-flow.
a. 1,2, and 3.
12. Who establishes the recommended operating time
b. 3 and 5.
between overhauls (TBO) of a turbine engine used in general
c. 4and 5.
aviation?
2. Jet engine turbine blades removed for detailed inspection
a. The engine manufacturer.
must be reinstalled in
b. The operator (utilizing manufacturer data and trend
a. a specified slot 1800 away.
analysis) working in conjunction with the FAA.
b. a specified slot 900 away in the direction of
c. The FAA.
rotation.
13. Which statements are true regarding aircraft engine
c. the same slot.
propulsion?
3. The blending of blades and vanes in a turbine engine
1. An engine driven propeller imparts a relatively small
a. is usually accomplished only at engine overhaul. amount of
b. should be performed parallel to the length of the acceleration to a large mass of air.
blade using smooth contours to minimize stress
points.
 2. Tu.rbojet and turbofan engines impart a relatively large
amount
acceleration to a smaller mass of air.
3. In modern turboprop engines, nearly 50 percent of the
exhaust gas energy is extracted by turbines to drive the
propeller and compressor with the rest providing exhaust
thrust.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 1,2.
c. 1.3.
14. Continued and/or excessive heat and centrifugal force on
turbine engine rotor blades is likely to cause
a. Profile.
b. Creep.
c. Galling.
15. The procedure for removing the accumulation of dirt
deposits on compressor blades is called
a. the soak method.
b. field cleaning.
c. the purging process.
16. The stators in the turbine section of a gas turbine engine
a. increase the velocity of the gas flow.
b. decrease the velocity of the gas flow.
c. increase the pressure of the gas flow.
17. What is the first engine instrument indication of a
successful start of a turbine engine?
a. A rise in the engine fuel flow.
b. A rise in oil pressure.
c. A rise in the exhaust gas temperature.
18. In what section of a turbojet engine is the jet nozzle
located?
a. Combustion.
b. Turbine.
c. Exhaust.
19. The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne
particulates into a turbine engine can result in
a. foreign object damage to the compressor section.
b. the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of
the engine.
c. erosion damage to the compressor and turbine
sections.
20. What turbine engine section provides for proper mixing of
the fuel and air?
a. Combustion section.
b. Compressor section.
c. Diffuser section.
21. Which two elements make up the axial-tlow compressor
assembly?
a. Rotor and stator.
b. Compressor and manifold.
c. Stator and diffuser.
22. Three types of turbine blades are
a. reaction, converging, and diverging.
b. impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.
c. impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
23. The purpose of a bleed valve, located in the beginning
stages of the compressor, in an aircraft gas turbine engine is
to
a. vent some of the air overboard to prevent a
compressor stall.
b. control excessively high RPM to prevent a
of compressor stall.
c. vent high ram air pressure overboard to prevent a
compressor stall.
24. An advantage of the axial-flow compressor is its
a. low starting power requirements.
b. low weight.
c. high peak efficiency.
25. Who establishes mandatory replacement times for critical
components of turbine engines?
a. The FAA.
b. The operator working in conjunction with the FAA.
c. The engine manufacturer.
26. What type igniter plug is used in the low tension ignition
system of an aircraft turbofan engine?
a. Low voltage, high amperage glow plug.
b. Self-ionizing or shunted-gap type plug.
c. Recessed surface gap plug.
27. The velocity of subsonic air as it flows through a
convergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. remains constant.
28. When starting a turbine engine,
a. a hot start is indicated if the exhaust gas
temperature exceeds specified limits.
b. an excessively lean mixture is likely to cause a hot
start.
c. release the starter switch as soon as indication of
light-off occurs.
29. Hot section inspections for many modern turbine engines
are required
a. only at engine overhaul.
b. only when an overtemperature or overspeed has
occurred.
c. on a time or cycle basis.
30. What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal
compressor?
a. Turbine and compressor.
b. Bucket and expander.
c. Impeller and diffuser.
31. Hot spots in the combustion section of a turbojet engine
are possible indicators of
a. faulty igniter plugs.
b. dirty compressor blades.
c. malfunctioning fuel nozzles.
32. How does a dual axial-flow compressor improve the
efficiency of a turbojet engine?
a. More turbine wheels can be used.
b. Higher compression ratios can be obtained.
c. The velocity of the air entering the combustion
chamber is increased.
33. (1) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, each
consecutive pair of rotor and stator blades constitutes a
pressure stage.
(2) In a turbine engine axial-flow compressor, the number of
rows of stages is determined by the amount of air and total
pressure rise required.
Regarding the thove statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
 b. only No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
34. The basic gas turbine engine is divided into two main
sections: the cold section and the hot section.
(1) The cold section includes the engine inlet, compressor,
and turbine sections.
(2) The hot section includes the combustor, diffuser, and
exhaust sections.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 ¡s true.
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
35. If the RPM of an axial-flow compressor remains constant,
the angle of attack of the rotor blades can be changed by
a. changing the velocity of the airflow.
b. changing the compressor diameter.
c. increasing the pressure ratio.
36. Which of the following factors affect the thermal
efficiency of a turbine engine?
1. Turbine inlet temperature.
2. Compression ratio.
3. Ambient temperature.
4. Speed of the aircraft.
5. Turbine and compressor efficiency.
6. Altitude of the aircraft.
a. 3, 4, 6.
b. 1,2,5.
c. 1.2.6.
37. The velocity of supersonic air as it flows through a
divergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
38. Where do stress rupture cracks usually appear on turbine
blades?
a. Across the blade root, parallel to the fir tree.
b. Along the leading edge, parallel to the edge.
c. Across the leading or trailing edge at a right
angle to the edge length.
39. In a gas turbine engine, combustion occurs at a constant
a. volume.
b. pressure.
c. density.
40. What is meant by a double entry centrifugal compressor?
a. A compressor that has two intakes.
b. A two-stage compressor independently connected to
the main shaft.
c. A compressor with vanes on both sides of the
impeller.
41. The pressure of supersonic air as it flows through a
divergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. is inversely proportional to the temperature.
42. What is the proper starting sequence for a turbojet engine?
a. Ignition, starter, fuel.
b. Starter, ignition, fuel.
c. Starter, fuel, ignition.
43. Which of the following types of combustion sections are
used in aircraft turbine engines?
a. Annular, variable, and cascade vane.
b. Can, multiple-can, and variable.
c. Multiple-can, annular, and can-annular.
44. Generally, when starting a turbine engine, the starter
should be disengaged
a. after the engine has reached self-accelerating
speed.
b. only after the engine has reached full idle RPM.
c. when the ignition and fuel system are activated.
45. In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is
the case and liner removed and installed as one unit during
routine maintenance?
a. Can.
b. Can annular.
c. Annular.
46. What is the function of the stator vane assembly at the
discharge end of a typical axial-flow compressor?
a. To straighten airflow to eliminate turbulence.
b. To direct the flow of gases into the combustion
chambers.
c. To increase air swirling motion into the combustion
chambers.
47. Some engine manufacturers of twin spool gas turbine
engines identify turbine discharge pressure in their
maintenance manuals as
a. Pt7.
b. Pt2.
c. Tt7.
48. Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is
performed primarily in order to
a. prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent
engine bearing wear or damage.
b. facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and
compressor areas for defects or FOD.
c. prevent engine performance degradation, increased
fuel costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path
surfaces.
49. Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea
level temperature is
a. 59°F
b. 59°C.
c. 29°C.
50. Main bearing oil seals used with turbine engines are
usually what type(s)?
a. Labyrinth and/or carbon rubbing.
b. Teflon and synthetic rubber.
c. Labyrinth and/or silicone rubber.
51. Hot spots on the tail cone of a turbine engine are possible
indicators of a malfunctioning fuel nozzle or
a. a faulty combustion chamber.
b. a faulty igniter plug.
c. an improperly positioned tail cone.
52. What should be done initially if a turbine engine catches
fire when starting?
a. Turn off the fuel and continue engine rotation
with the starter.
b. Continue engine start rotation and discharge a fire
extinguisher into the intake.
c. Continue starting attempt in order to blow out the
fire.
53. What is the possible cause when a turbine engine indicates b. 1,2,3,4
no change in power setting parameters, but oil temperature is
c. 1,4.
high?
63. What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative
a. High scavenge pump oil flow.
deformation of the turbine blades of a turbojet engine?
b. Engine main bearing distress.
a. Stretch.
c. Turbine damage and/or loss of turbine efficiency.
b. Distortion.
54. The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor
c. Creep.
a. convert velocity energy into pressure energy.
64. What is the primary advantage of an axial-flow
b. convert pressure energy into velocity energy. compressor over a centrifugal compressor?
c. direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the a. High frontal area.
proper angle.
b. Less expensive.
55. Turbine nozzle diaphragms located on the upstream side
c. Greater pressure ratio.
of each turbine wheel are used in the gas turbine engine to
65. In a dual axial-flow compressor, the first stage turbine
a. decrease the velocity of the heated gases flowing
drives
past this point.
a. N(2) compressor.
b. direct the flow of gases parallel to the vertical line
b. N(1) compressor.
of the turbine blades.
c. low pressure compressor.
c. increase the velocity of the heated gases flowing
66. Between each row of rotating blades in a turbine engine
past this point.
compressor, there is a row of stationary blades which act to
56. A cool-off period prior to shutdown of a turbine engine is
diffuse the air. These stationary blades are called
accomplished in order to
a. buckets.
a. allow the turbine wheel to cool before the case
b. rotors.
contracts around it.
c. stators.
b. prevent vapor lock in the fuel control and/or fuel
lines. 67. The non-rotating axial-flow compressor airfoils in an
aircraft gas turbine engine, are called
c. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
a. pressurization vanes.
57. What is meant by a shrouded turbine?
b. stator vanes.
a. The turbine blades are shaped so that their ends form
a band or shroud. c. bleed vanes.
b. The turbine wheel is enclosed by a protective shroud
to contain the blades in case of failure. 68. Standard sea level pressure is
c. The turbine wheel has a shroud or duct which a. 29.00” Hg.
provides cooling air to the turbine blades. b. 29.29” Hg.
58. What is used in turbine engines to aid in stabilization of c. 29.92” Hg.
compressor airflow during low thrust engine operation? 69. Severe rubbing of turbine engine compressor blades will
a. Stator vanes and rotor vanes. usually cause
b. Variable guide vanes and/or compressor bleed a. bowing.
valves. b. cracking.
c. Pressurization and dump valves. c. galling.
59. In a turbine engine with a dual-spool compressor, the low 70. What is the function of the inlet guide vane assembly on
speed compressor an axial-flow compressor?
a. always turns at the same speed as the high speed a. Directs the air into the first stage rotor blades at the
compressor. proper angle.
b. is connected directly to the high speed compressor. b. Converts velocity energy into pressure energy.
c. seeks its own best operating speed. c. Converts pressure energy into velocity energy.
60. Where is the highest gas pressure in a turbojet engine? 71. Reduced blade vibration and improved airflow
a. At the outlet of the tailpipe section. characteristics in gas turbines are brought about by
b. At the entrance of the turbine section. a. fir-tree blade attachment.
c. In the entrance of the burner section. b. impulse type blades.
61. A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial- c. shrouded turbine rotor blades.
flow engine is to 72. Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly
a. reduce vibration. accomplished by
b. increase tip speed. a. electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide
c. reduce air entrance. vanes.
62. Which of the following can cause fan blade shingling in a b. engine bleed air ducted through the critical
turbofan engine? areas.
1. Engine overspeed. c. electrical heating elements located within the engine
2. Engine overtemperature. air inlet cowling.
3. Large, rapid throttle movements. 73. Dirt particles in the air being introduced into the
4. FOD. compressor of a turbine engine will form a coating on all but
which of the following?
a. 1,2
a. Turbine blades.
 b. Casings. b. Impulse.
c. Inlet guide vanes. c. Impulse-reaction.
74. A weak fuel to air mixture along with normal airflow 83. The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are
through a turbine engine may result in
a. single entry and double entry.
a. a rich flameout.
b. rotor and stator.
b. a lean die-out.
c. impeller and diffuser.
c. high EGT.
84. Newton’s First Law of Motion, generally termed the Law
75. Newton’s Law of Motion, generally termed the “Law of of Inertia, states:
Momentum,” states:
a. To every action there is an equal and opposite
a. Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a reaction.
mass. The greater the mass, the greater the amount of b. Force is proportional to the product of mass and
force needed. acceleration.
b. For every action there is an equal and opposite c. Everybody persists in its state of rest, or of motion
reaction. in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside
c. Every body persists in its state of rest, or of motion force.
in a straight line, unless acted upon by some outside
85. The turbine section of a jet engine
force.
a. increases air velocity to generate thrust forces.
b. utilizes heat energy to expand and accelerate the
76. In an axial-flow compressor, one purpose of the stator
incoming gas flow.
vanes at the discharge end of the compressor is to
c. drives the compressor section.
a. straighten the airflow and eliminate turbulence.
86. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor
b. increase the velocity and prevent swirling and
forward fan engine is the same as the
eddying.
a. low-pressure compressor.
c. decrease the velocity, prevent swirling, and
b. forward turbine wheel.
decrease pressure.
c. high-pressure compressor.
77. What is the primary factor which controls the pressure
87. The Brayton cycle is known as the constant
ratio of an axial-flow compressor?
a. Number of stages in compressor. a. pressure cycle.
b. Compressor inlet pressure. b. temperature cycle.
c. Compressor inlet temperature. c. mass cycle.
78. The function of the exhaust cone assembly of a turbine 88. What is the purpose of the dump valve used on aircraft
engine is to gas turbine engines?
a. The fuel is quickly cut off to the nozzles and the
a. collect the exhaust gases and act as a noise
manifolds are drained preventing fuel boiling off as a
suppressor.
result of residual engine heat.
b. swirl and collect the exhaust gases into a single
b. The valve controls compressor stall by dumping
exhaust jet.
compressor bleed air from the compressor discharge
c. straighten and collect the exhaust gases into a
port under certain conditions.
solid exhaust jet.
c. Maintains minimum fuel pressure to the engine fuel
79. What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade?
control unit inlet and dumps excessive fuel back to
a. The leading edge of the blade. the inlet of the engine-driven fuel pump.
b. A reduced blade tip thickness.
89. When starting a turbine engine, a hung start is indicated if
c. The curvature of the blade root. the engine
80. Which of the following variables affect the inlet air a. exhaust gas temperature exceeds specified limits.
density of a turbine engine? b. fails to reach idle RPM.
1. Speed of the aircraft.
c. RPM exceeds specified operating speed.
2. Compression ratio. 90. The abbreviation Pt7 used in turbine engine terminology
3. Turbine inlet temperature. means
4. Altitude of the aircraft. a. the total inlet pressure.
5. Ambient temperature. b. pressure and temperature at station No. 7.
6. Turbine and compressor efficiency. c. the total pressure at station No. 7.
a. 1,3,6. 91. When the leading edge of a first-stage turbine blade is
b. 1,4,5. found to have stress rupture cracks, which of the following
c. 4. 5. 6. should be suspected?
81. A turbine engine hot section is particularly susceptible to a. Faulty cooling shield.
which kind of damage? b. Overtemperature condition.
a. Scoring. c. Overspeed condition.
b. Cracking. 92. What are the two basic elements of the turbine section in
c. Galling. a turbine engine?
82. What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in a. Impeller and diffuser.
aircraft jet engines? b. Hot and cold.
a. Reaction. c. Stator and rotor.
93. The highest heat-to-metal contact in a jet engine is the
a. burner cans.
b. turbine inlet guide vanes.
c. turbine blades.
94. When aircraft turbine blades are subjected to excessive
heat stress, what type of failures would you expect?
a. Bending and torsion.
b. Torsion and tension.
c. Stress rupture.
95. The pressure of subsonic air as it flows through a
convergent nozzle
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. remains constant.
96. What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine
engine?
a. To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
b. To convert pressure to velocity.
c. To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
97. Which of the following is the ultimate limiting factor of
turbine engine operation?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
b. Turbine inlet temperature.
c. Burner-can pressure.
98. In the dual axial-flow or twin spoil compressor system, the
first stage turbine drives the
a. N(1) and N(2) compressors.
b. N(2) compressor.
c. N(1) compressor.
99. Which of the following engine variables is the most
critical during turbine engine operation?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
b. Compressor RPM.
c. Turbine inlet temperature.
100. (1) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating
airfoils does not require special equipment.
(2) Welding and straightening of turbine engine rotating
airfoils is commonly recommended by the manufacturer.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
101. What is the major function of the turbine assembly in a
turbojet engine?
a. Directs the gases in the proper direction to the
tailpipe.
b. Supplies the power to turn the compressor.
c. Increases the temperature of the exhaust gases.
102. Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to
operating damage than compressor blades because of
a. higher centrifugal loading.
b. exposure to high temperatures.
c. high pressure and high velocity gas flow.
103. If, during inspection at engine overhaul, ball or roller
bearings are found to have magnetism but otherwise have no
defects, they
a. cannot be used again.
b. are in an acceptable service condition.
c. must be degaussed before use.
104. Stator blades in the compressor section of an axial-flow
turbine engine
a. increase the air velocity and prevent swirling.
b. straighten the airflow and accelerate it.
c. decrease the air velocity and prevent swirling.
105. What must be done after the fuel control unit has been
replaced on an aircraft gas turbine engine?
a. Perform a full power engine run to check fuel flow.
b. Recalibrate the fuel nozzles.
c. Retrim the engine.
106. The air passing through the combustion chamber of a
turbine engine is
a. used to support combustion and to cool the
engine.
b. entirely combined with fuel and burned.
c. speeded up and heated by the action of the turbines.
107. During inspection, turbine engine components exposed
to high temperatures may only be marked with such materials
as allowed by the manufacturer. These materials generally
include
1. layout dye.
2. commercial felt tip marker.
3. wax or grease pencil.
4. chalk.
5. graphite lead pencil.
a. 1, 2, and 4.
b. 1, 3, and 4.
c. 2.4. and 5.
108. What is one purpose of the stator blades in the
compressor section of a turbine engine?
a. Stabilize the pressure of the airflow.
b. Control the direction of the airflow.
c. Increase the velocity of the airflow.
109. Why do some turbine engines have more than one
turbine wheel attached to a single shaft?
a. To facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
b. To help stabilize the pressure between the
compressor and the turbine.
c. To extract more power from the exhaust gases
than a single wheel can absorb.
110. Which of the following influences the operation of an
automatic fuel control unit on a turbojet engine?
a. Burner pressure.
b. Mixture control position.
c. Exhaust gas temperature.
111. (1) Accumulation of contaminates in the compressor of a
turbojet engine reduces aerodynamic efficiency of the blades.
(2) Two common methods for removing dirt deposits from
turbojet engine compressor blades are a fluid wash and an
abrasive grit blast.
Regarding the above statements
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
112. The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between
a. the burner section and the turbine section.
b. station No. 7 and station No. 8.
c. the compressor section and the burner section.
113. The compressor stators in a gas turbine engine act as c. Type numbers and have no relation to the
diffusers to fuel’s performance in the aircraft engine
a. decrease the velocity of the gas flow. 4. When stopping a nosewheel-type airplane after
b. increase the velocity of the gas flow. taxiing (or towing), the nosewheel should be left
c. increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of a. Unlocked and pointed straight ahead
the gas. b. Turned at a small angle towards uphill if the
114. Which statement is true regarding jet engines? parking area is not perfectly flat
a. At the lower engine speeds, thrust increases rapidly c. Pointed straight ahead
with small increases in RPM. 5. Weathervaning tendency is greatest when taxiing
a. Both nosewheel and tailwheel-type airplanes in
b. At the higher engine speeds, thrust increases
a quartering tailwind
rapidly with small increases in RPM.
b. A tailwheel-type airplane in a direct
c. The thrust delivered per pound of air consumed is
crosswind
less at high altitude than at low altitude.
c. A nosewheel-type airplane in a quartering
115. The exhaust section of a turbine engine is designed to headwind
a. impart a high exit velocity to the exhaust gases. 6. A hung start in a jet engine is often caused by
b. increase temperature, therefore increasing velocity. a. Malfunctions in the ignition system
c. decrease temperature, therefore decreasing pressure. b. The starter cutting off too soon
116. A turbine engine compressor which contains vanes on c. An excessively rich fuel/air mixture
both sides of the impeller is a 7. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can
a. double entry centrifugal compressor. cause
b. double entry axial-flow compressor. a. Vapor lock
b. Detonation
c. single entry axial-flow compressor.
c. Hard starting
117. condition known as ‘hot streaking’ in turbine engines is
caused by
8. When first starting to move an aircraft while taxiing,
a. a partially clogged fuel nozzle. it is important to
b. a misaligned combustion liner. a. Test the brakes
c. excessive fuel flow. b. Closely monitor the instruments
118. An advantage of the centrifugal-flow compressor is its c. Notify the control tower
high 9. Generally, when an induction fire occurs during
a. pressure rise per stage. starting of a reciprocating engine, the first course of
b. ram efficiency. action should be to
c. peak efficiency. a. Discharge carbon dioxide from a fire
extinguisher into the air intake of the engine
119. At what stage in a turbine engine are gas pressures the
b. Continue cranking and start the engine if
greatest?
possible
a. Compressor inlet.
c. Close the throttle
b. Turbine outlet. 10. The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed
c. Compressor outlet. engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control
120. At what point in an axial-flow turbojet engine will the lever in the
highest gas pressures occur? a. IDLE-CUTOFF position
a. At the turbine entrance. b. AUTO-RICH position
b. Within the burner section. c. FULL-RICH position
c. At the compressor outlet. 11. A person should approach or leave a helicopter in the
pilot’s field of vision whenever the engine is running
in order to avoid
GROUND OPERATIONS &SERVICING
a. The tail rotor
1. If a hot start occurs during starting of a turbine b. The main rotor
powerplant, what is the likely cause? c. Blowing dust or debris caused by rotor
a. The starting unit overheated downwash
b. The ambient air temperature was too high (over 12. When taxiing (or Towing) an aircraft, a flashing red
100 degrees F) light from the control tower means
c. The fuel/air mixture was excessively rich a. Stop and wait for a green light
2. Which of the following is the most satisfactory b. Move clear of the runway/taxiway
extinguishing agent for use on a carburetor or intake immediately
fire? c. Return to starting point
a. Dry chemical 13. The color of 100LL fuel is
b. A fine, water mist a. Blue
c. Carbon dioxide b. Colorless or straw
3. Jet fuel number identifiers are c. Red
a. Performance numbers to designate the volatility 14. Characteristics of aviation gasoline ae
of the fuel a. High heat value, high volatility
b. Performance numbers and are relative to the b. High heat value, low volatility
fuel’s performance in the aircraft engine c. Low heat value, low volatility
15. The most important condition to be monitored during
start after fuel flow begins in a turbine engine is the
a. EGT, TIT or ITT
b. RPM
c. Oil pressure
16. During starting of a turbine powerplant using a
compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select
the proper procedure
a. Advance power lever to increase RPM
b. Re-engage the starter
c. Shut the engine down
17. Characteristics of detonation are
a. Cylinder pressure remains the same, excessive
cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in
engine power
b. Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive
cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in
engine power
c. Rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head
temperature normal, and a decrease in engine
power
18. Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages
for use as turbine fuel. Which statement is true in
reference to the advantages of each?
a. Kerosene has a higher heat energy/ value per
unit weight than gasoline
b. Gasoline has a higher heat energy/ value per unit
volume than kerosene
c. Kerosene has a higher heat energy/ value per
unit volume than gasoline
19. When taxiing an airplane with a quartering tailwind,
the elevators and
a. Upwind aileron should be held in the up position
b. Upwind aileron should be held in the down
position
c. Both ailerons should be kept in the neutral
position
20. Why is ethylene dibromide added to aviation
gasoline?
a. To remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark
plugs
b. To scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder
combustion chambers
c. To increase the antiknock rating of the fuel
21. When approaching the front of an idling jet engine,
the hazard area extends forward of the engine
approximately
a. 10 feet
b. 15 feet
c. 25 feet
22. Which statement below reflects a typical
requirement when towing some aircraft?
a. Discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent
accidental operation of the nosewheel steering
mechanism
b. Tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards
c. If the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the
torque-link lock should be set to full swivel
23. What must accompany fuel vaporization?
a. An absorption of heat
b. A decrease in vapor pressure
c. A reduction in volume
24. When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet or
turbofan engine, the hazard area extends aft of the
engine approximately
a. 200 feet
b. 100 feet
c. 50 feet
25. How is a flooded engine, equipped with a float-type
carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel?
a. Crank the engine with the starter o by hand, with
the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off,
and the throttle fully open, until the fuel charge
has been cleared
b. Turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue
the starting attempt until the excess fuel has
cleared
c. Crank the engine with the starter or by hand,
with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition
switch on, and the throttle fully open, until the
excess fuel has cleared or until the engine starts
26. How are aviation fuels, which possess greater
antiknock qualities than 100 octanes, classified?
a. According to the milliliters of lead
b. By reference to normal heptane
c. By performance numbers
27. What effect, if any, will aviation gasoline mixed
with jet fuel have on a turbine engine?
a. No appreciable effect
b. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms
deposits on the turbine blades
c. The tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms
deposits on the compressor blades
28. When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, a flashing
white light from the control tower means
a. Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately
b. Ok to proceed but use extreme caution
c. Return to starting point
29. The main differences between grades 100 and 100
LL fuel are
a. Volatility and lead content
b. Volatility, lead content and color
c. Lead content and color
30. When taxiing (or towing) an aircraft, an alternating
red and green light from the control tower means
a. Move clear of the runway/taxiway immediately
b. OK to proceed but use extreme caution
c. Return to starting point
31. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause
a. Hard starting
b. Detonation
c. Vapor lock
32. When starting and ground operating an aircraft’s
engine, the aircraft should be positioned to head into
the wind primarily
a. To aid achieving and maintaining the proper air
flow into the engine induction system
b. For engine cooling purposes
c. To help cancel out engine torque effect
33. Tetraethyl lead is added to aviation gasoline to
a. Retard the formation of corrosives
b. Improve the gasoline’s performance in the
engine
c. Dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
34. When towing a large aircraft
a. A person should be in the cockpit to watch for
obstructions
b. Persons should be stationed at the nose, each
wingtip, and the empennage at all times
c. A person should be in the cockpit to operate the
brakes
 35. (1) Jet fuel is of higher viscosity than aviation
gasoline and therefore holds contaminations better,
(2) Viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel
Regarding the above statement,
a. Only no. 1 is true
b. Both No.1 and No.2 is true
c. Neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
36. Which of the following conditions has the most
potential for causing engine damage when starting os
attempting to start a turbine engine?
a. Hung start
b. Cold start
c. Hot start
37. Which statement (s) is/are true regarding tiedown of
small aircraft?
1. Manila (hemp) rope has a tendency to stretch
when it gets wet
2. Nylon or dacron rope is preferred to manila rope
3. The aircraft should be headed downwind in
order to eliminate or minimize wing lift
4. Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked
a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 2
38. If a radial engine has been shut down for more than
30 minutes, the propeller should be rotated through
at least two revolutions to
a. Check for hydraulic lock
b. Check for leaks
c. Prime the engine
CLEANING AND CORROSION CONTROL
1. (1) In the corrosion process, it is the cathodic area or
dissimilar cathodic material that corrodes
(2) In the Galvanic or Electro-Chemical Series for
metals, the most anodic metals are those that will
give up electrons most easily
Regarding the above statements
a. Only No.1 is true
b. Only No.2 is true
c. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
2. A non-electrolytic chemical treatment for aluminum
alloys to increase corrosion resistance and paint-
bonding qualities is called
a. Anodizing
b. Alodizing
c. Dichromating
3. When an anodized surface coating is damaged in
service, it can be partially restored by
a. Applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer
b. Chemical surface treatment
c. Use of a suitable mild cleaner
4. Caustic cleaning products used on aluminum
structures have the effect of producing
a. Passive oxidation
b. Improved corrosion resistance
c. Corrosion
5. The interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing
would be best protected against corrosion by which
of the following?
a. Charging the tubing with dry nitrogen prior to
sealing
b. Evacuating moisture from the tubing before
sealing
c. A coating of linseed oil
6. What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration
when oil or grease comes in contact with a tire?
a. Wipe the tire thoroughly with a dry cloth, and
then rinse with clean water
b. Wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a
wash down and rinse with soap and water
c. Wipe the tire with a cloth dampened with
aromatic naphtha and then wipe dry with a clean
cloth
7. One way of obtaining increased resistance to stress
corrosion cracking is by
a. Relieving compressive stresses (via heat
treatment) on the metal surface
b. Creating compressive stresses (via shot
peening) on the metal surface
c. Producing nonuniform deformation while cold
working during the manufacturing process
8. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of
a. Excessive anodization
b. Contact between two unlike metals
c. Excessive etching
9. How many magnesium engine parts be cleaned?
a. Soak in a 20 percent caustic soda solution
b. Spray with MEK ( methyl ethyl ketone)
c. Wash with a commercial solvent,
decarbonize, and scrape or grip blast
10. Why is it important not to rotate the crankshaft after
the corrosion preventive mixture has been put into
the cylinders on engines prepared for storage?
a. Fuel may be drawn into one or more cylinders
and dilute or wash off the corrosion preventive
mixture
b. The seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be
broken
c. Engine damage can occur from hydraulic lock
11. For which of the following reasons would a water
break test be conducted?
a. To make certain that a newly alodized
aluminum surface is sufficiently coated
b. To make certain that a bare metal surface is
thoroughly clean
c. To make certain that an anodizing coating has
been sufficiently removed before an electrical
bonding connection be made
12. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due
to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the
pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is
called
a. Brinelling
b. Granulation
c. Exfoliation
13. Which of the following are acceptable to use when
utilizing chemical cleaning agents on aircraft?
a. Synthetic fiber wiping cloths when using a
flammable agent
b. Cotton fiber wiping cloths when using
flammable agent
c. Atomizing spray equipment
a. 2 and 3
b. 1
c. 2
14. Fretting corrosion is most likely to occur
a. When two surfaces fit tightly together but can
move relative to one another
b. Only when two dissimilar metals are in contact
 c. When two surfaces fit loosely together and can c. Aromatic naphtha
move relative to one another 25. The rust or corrosion that occurs with most metals is
15. Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces the result of
which have been affected by electrolyte should be a. A tendency for them to return to their
neutralized with a solution natural state
a. Boric acid b. Blocking the flow of electrons in homogenous
b. Sodium bicarbonate metals, or between dissimilar metals
c. Potassium hydroxide c. Electron flow in or between metals from
16. Which of these materials is the most anodic? cathodic to anodic areas
a. Cadmium 26. A primary reason why ordinary or otherwise non-
b. 7075-T6 aluminum alloy approved cleaning compounds should not be used
c. Magnesium when washing aircraft is because their use can result
17. A primary cause of intergranular corrosion is in
a. Improper heat treatment a. Hydrogen embrittlement in metal structures
b. Dissimilar metal contact b. Hydrogen embrittlement in nonmetallic
c. Improper application of primer materials
18. Which of the following is an acceptable first step c. A general inability to remove compound
procedure to help prevent scratching when cleaning a residues
transparent plastic surface? 27. Which of the listed conditions in NOT one of the
a. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, dry, soft requirements for corrosion to occur?
cloth a. The presence of an electrolyte
b. Flush the surface with clean water b. Electrical contact between an anodic area and a
c. Gently wipe the surface with a clean, soft cloth cathodic area
moistened with de-mineralized or distilled water c. The presence of a passive oxide film
19. Select the solvent used to clean acrylics and rubber 28. Flayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning
a. Aliphatic naphtha because of the danger of
b. Methyl ethyl ketone a. Forming passive oxides
c. Aromatic naphtha b. Entrapping corrosive materials
20. Which of the following are the desired effects of c. Corrosion by imbedded iron oxide
using Alodine on aluminum alloy? 29. Intergranular corrosion in aluminum alloy parts
1. A slightly rough surface a. May be detected by surface pitting, and white,
2. Relived surface stresses powdery deposit formed on the surface of the
3. A smooth painting surface metal
4. Increased corrosion resistance b. Commonly appears ad threadlike filaments of
a. 3 and 4 corrosion products under a dense film of paint
b. 1,2 and 4 c. Cannot always be detected by surface
c. 1 and 4 indications
21. Spilled mercury on aluminum 30. What may be used to remove corrosion from highly
a. Greatly increases susceptibility to hydrogen stressed steel surfaces?
embrittlement a. Steel wire brushes
b. May cause impaired corrosion resistance if left b. Fine-grit aluminum oxide
in prolonged contact c. Medium-grit carborundum paper
c. Causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very 31. Which of these materials is the most cathodic?
difficult to control a. Zinc
22. Of the following, when and/or where is galvanic b. 2024 aluminum alloy
corrosion is most likely to occur? c. Stainless steel
a. When an electrolyte (water) covers the surface 32. Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and
of an aluminum skin, seeps into the cracks severe when
between lap joints, and oxygen is exclude from a. The surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller
the area than surface area of the anodic metal
b. At the interface of a steel fastener and aluminum b. The surface areas of the anodic and cathodic
alloy inspection plate in the presence of an metals are approximately the same
electrolyte c. The surface area of the anodic metal is smaller
c. In an area of unprotected metal exposed to an than the surface area of the cathodic metal
atmosphere containing battery fumes, exhaust 33. Which of the following ae acceptable to use in
gases, or industrial contaminants cleaning anodized surfaces?
23. Which of the following may not be detectable even 1. Steel wool
by careful visual inspection of the surface of 2. Brass wire brush
aluminum alloy parts or structures? 3. Aluminum wool
a. Filiform corrosion 4. Stainless steel wire brush
b. Intergranular corrosion 5. Fiber bristle brush
c. Uniform etch corrosion a. 1,3, & 5
24. Select the solvent recommended for wipe down of b. 2 & 4
cleaned surfaces just before painting c. 3 & 5
a. Aliphatic naphtha
b. Dry-cleaning solvent
 34. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts
with a
a. Stiff, nonmetallic brush
b. Silicon carbide brush
c. Carborundum abrasive
RECIPROCATING ENGINES
1. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in
conventional reciprocating engine?
a. When the piston has reached top dead
center of the intake stroke.
b. Shortly before the piston reaches the
top of the compression stroke.
c. When the piston reaches top dead center
on the compression stroke.
2. Direct mechanical push-pull carburetor heat control
linkages should normally be adjusted so that the stop
located on the diverter valve will be contacted
a. before the stop at the control lever is
reached in both HOT and COLD
positions.
b. before the stop at the control lever ¡s
reached in the HOT position and after the
stop at the control lever is reached in the
COLD position.
c. after the stoD at the control lever is
reached in both HOT and COLD
positions.
3. At what speed must a crankshaft turn if each cylinder
of a four-stroke cycle engine is to be fired 200 times
a minute?
a. 800 RPM.
b. 1,600 RPM.
c. 400 RPM.
4. Excessive valve clearance in a piston engine
a. increases valve overlap.
b. increases valve opening time.
c. decreases valve overlap.
5. On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally
operating engine will the greatest amount of wear
occur?
a. Near the center of the cylinder where piston
velocity is greatest.
b. Near the top of the cylinder.
c. Wear is normally evenly distributed.
6. During the inspection of an engine control system in
which push-pull control rods are used, the threaded
rod ends should
a. insure that the safety wire passes thru the hole
in shank of the rod-end.
b. Be checked for the thread engagement of at
least two threads but more than four threads.
c. Be checked for the amount of thread
engagement by means of the inspection holes.
7. Some aircraft engine manufactures equip their
product with choked or taper-ground cylinders in
order to
a. Provide a straight cylinder bore at operating
temperatures.
b. Flex the rings slightly during operation and
reduce the possibility of the rings sticking in the
grooves.
c. Increase the compression pressure for starting
purposes.
8. An unsupercharged aircraft reciprocating engine,
operated at full throttle from sea level, to 10,000
feet, provided the RPM is unchanged, will
a
a. Lose power due to the reduced volume of air
drawn into the cylinders.
b. Produce constant power due to the same volume
of air drawn into the cylinders.
c. Lose power due to the reduce density of the air
drawn into the cyclinders.
9. As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating
engine compression check using a differential
pressure tester, what would a movement of the
propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate?
a. The piston was on compression stroke.
b. The piston was on exhaust stroke.
c. The piston was positioned past top dead center.
10. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic
lifters, when the lifters are completely flatl, or
empty, should not exceed
a. 0.00 inch
b. a specified amount above zero.
c. a specified amount below zero.
11. What does valve overlap promote?
a. Lower intake manifold pressure and
temperatures.
b. A backflow of gases across the cylinder.
c. Better scavenging and cooling
characteristics.
12. During ground check an engine is found to be
rough-running, the magneto drop is normal, and the
manifold pressure is higher than normal for any
given RPM. The trouble may be caused by
a. Several spark plugs fouled on different
cylinders.
b. a leak in the intake manifold.
c. a dead cylinder.
13. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine ,
a deposit of small , bright , metallic particles which
do not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered
in the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter.
This condition
a. may be a result of abnormal plain type
bearing wear and is cause for further
investigation.
b. is probably a result of ring and cylinder
wall wear and is cause for engine removal
and/ or overhaul.
c. is normal in engines utilizing plain type
bearings and aluminum pistons and is not
cause for alarm.
14. Master rod bearings are generally what type?
a. Plain
b. Roller
c. Ball
15. A hissing sound from the exhaust stacks when the
propeller is being pulled through manually indicates
a. a cracked exhaust stack
b. exhaust valve blow-by
c. worn piston rings
16. If the exhaust valve of a four – stroke cycle engine is
closed and the intake valve is just closed , the
piston is on the
a. intake stroke
b. power stroke
c. compression stroke
17. When will small induction system air leaks have the
most noticeable effect on engine operation?
a. At high RPM.
b. At maximum continuous and takeoff power
settings.
c. At low RPM.
18. What special procedure must be followed when
adjusting the values of an engine equipped with a
floating cam ring?
a. Adjust valves when the engine is hot.
b. Adjust all exhaust valves before intake
valves.
c. Eliminate cam bearing clearance when
making valve adjustment.
19. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of
crankshaft travel
a. during which both valves are off their
seats.
b. between the closing of the intake valve and
the opening of the exhaust valve.
c. during which both valves ate on their seats.
20. Which of the following engine servicing operations
generally requires engine pre-oiling prior to starting
the engine?
a. Engine oil and filter change.
b. Engine installation.
c. Replacement of oil lines.
21. What is the best indication of worn valve guides?
a. High oil consumption.
b. Low compression
c. Low oil pressure.
22. How may it be determined that a reciprocating
engine with a dry sump is pre-oiled sufficiently?
a. The engine oil pressure gauge will indicate
normal oil pressure.
b. Oil will flow from engine return line or
indicator port.
c. When the quantity of oil specified by the
manufacturer has been pumped into the
engine.
23. If air is heard coming from the crankcase breather or
oil filler during a differential compression check,
What is this an indication of?
a. Exhaust valve leakage
b. Intake valve leakage
c. Piston ring leakage.
24. Excessive valve clearances will cause the duration of
valve opening to
a. increase for both intake and exhaust valves.
b. decrease for both intake and exhaust
valves.
c. decrease for intake valves and decrease for
exhaust valves.
25. Which statement is correct regarding a four- stroke
cycle aircraft engine?
a. The intake valve closes on the
compassion stroke.
b. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust
stroke.
c. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke.
26. A characteristic of dyna- focal engine mounts as
applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that the
a. shock mounts eliminate the torsional
flexing of the powerplant.
b. engine attaches to the shock mount at the
engine’s center of gravity.
c. shock mount point toward the engine’s
center of gravity.
27. Which statement pertaining to fuel/air ratios is true?
a. The mixture ratio which gives the best
power is richer than the mixture ratio
which gives maximum economy.
b. A rich mixture is faster burning than a
normal mixture.
c. The mixture ratio which gives maximum
economy may also be designated as best
power mixture.
28. One cause of afterfiring in an aircraft engine is
a. sticking intake valves.
b. an excessively lean mixture.
c. an excessively rich mixture.
29. The horsepower developed in the cylinders of a
reciprocating engine is known as the
a. shaft horsepower
b. indicated horsepower
c. brake horsepower
30. An increase in manifold pressure with a constant
RPM will cause the bearing load in an engine to
a. decrease
b. remain relatively constant
c. increase
31. Which of the following will decrease volumetric
efficiency in a reciprocating engine?
1. Full throttle operation.
2. Low cylinder head temperatures.
3. Improper valve timing.
4. Sharp bends in the induction system.
5. High carburetor air temperatures.
a. 2,4, and 5
b. 1,2,3, and 4
c. 3,4, and 5
32. A nine –cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches
and a stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston
displacement of
a. 740 cubic inches
b. 1,425 cubic inches
c. 1,283 cubic inches
33. The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing
and overlap is to
a. permit the best possible charge of fuel / air
mixture into the cylinders.
b. gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging.
c. obtain the best volumetric efficiency and
lower cylinder operating temperatures.
34. Engine crankshaft runout is usually checked
1. during engine overhaul.
2. during annual inspection.
3. after a “prop strike” or sudden engine stoppage.
4. during 100 – hour inspection.
a. 1,3 and 4
b. 1 and 3
 c. 1,2 and 3.
35. A condition that can occur in radial engines but is
unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is
a. oil- fouled spark plug
b. valve overlap.
c. hydraulic lock.
36. Which statement is true regarding bearings used in
high-powered reciprocating aircraft engines?
a. The outer race of a single-row,self –
aligning ball bearing will always have a
radius equal to the radius of the balls.
b. There is less rolling friction when ball
bearings are used than when roller bearings
are employed.
c. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the
ball-type due to their ability to withstand
extreme loads without overheating.
37. Excessive valve clearance results in the valves
opening
a. late and closing early.
b. early and closing late.
c. late and closing late.
38. What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps
happen to be aligned when performing a differential-
pressure compression check on a cylinder?
a. Little or no effect.
b. The rings will not be seated.
c. A worn or defective ring(s) indication.
39. Engine operating flexibility is the ability of the
engine to
a. deliver maximum horsepower at a specific
altitude.
b. meet exacting requirements of efficiency and
low weight per horsepower ratio.
c. run smoothly and give the desired
performance at all speeds.
40. An engine misses in both the right and left positions
of the magneto switch. The quickest method for
locating the trouble is to
a. check for one oi more cold cylinders.
b. perform a compression check.
c. check each spark plug.
41. After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been
serviced, in what position should they be reinstalled?
a. Next in firing order to the one from which they
were removed.
b. Swapped bottom to top.
c. Next in firing order to the one from which they
were removed and swapped bottom to top.
42. Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a
feather edge is likely to result in
a. normal operation and long life.
b. excessive valve clearance.
c. preignition and burned valves.
43. Which of these conditions will cause an engine to have an
increased tendency to detonate?
1. High manifold pressure.
2. High intake air temperature.
3. Engine overheated.
4. Late ignition timing.
a. 1,2,3.
b. 1,2,3,4.
c. 1,4
44. Standard aircraft cylinder oversizes usually range from
0.010 inch to 0.030 inch. Oversize on automobile engine
cylinders may range up to 0.100 inch.
This is because aircraft engine cylinders
a. have more limited cooling capacity.
b. have relatively thin walls and may be nitrided.
c. operate at high temperatures.
45. The purpose of two or more valve springs in aircraft
engines is to
a. equalize side pressure on the valve stems.
b. eliminate valve spring surge.
c. equalize valve face loading.
46. What could cause excessive pressure buildup in the
crankcase of a reciprocating engine?
a. Plugged crankcase breather.
b. Improper warmup operation.
c. An excessive quantity of oil.
47. By use of a differential pressure compression tester, it is
determined that the
No. 3 cylinder of a nine-cylinder radial engine will not hold
pressure after the crankshaft has been rotated 2600 from top
dead center compression stroke
No. 1 cylinder. How can this indication usually be
interpreted?
a. A normal indication.
b. Exhaust valve blow-by.
c. A damaged exhaust valve or insufficient exhaust
valve clearance.
48. One of the best indicators of reciprocating engine
combustion chamber
problems is
a. excessive engine vibration.
b. starting difficulties.
c. spark plug condition.
49. If the ignition switch is moved from BOTH to either
LEFT or RIGHT during a magneto check, a normal operation
is usually indicated by
a. no change in RPM.
b. momentary interruption of both ignition systems.
c. slight drop in RPM.
50. The primary concern in establishing the firing order for an
opposed engine is
to
a. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to the
greatest extent possible.
b. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as far
apart as possible in order to obtain the greatest
mechanical efficiency.
c. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders as
close as possible in order to obtain the greatest
mechanical efficiency.
51. Increased water vapor (higher relative humidity) in the
incoming air to a
reciprocating engine will normally result in which of the
following?
a. Decreased engine power at a constant RPM and
manifold pressure.
 b. Increased power output due to increased volumetric b. shot peening.
efficiency.
c. tempering.
c. A leaning effect on engines which use non-automatic
60. Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine
carburetors.
increase with a greater number of cylinders?
52. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when the
a. The power impulses are spaced closer together.
engine is cold, what
b. The power impulses are spaced farther apart.
will occur during operation of the engine?
c. The engine has larger counterbalance weights.
a. The valves will open early and close early.
61. Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust
b. The valves will open late and close early.
bearing used in most radial engines?
c. The valves will open early and close late.
a. Tapered roller.
53. Which fuel/air mixture will result in the highest engine
b. Double-row ball.
temperature (all
c. Deep-groove ball.
other factors remaining constant)?
62. Which condition would be the least likely to be caused by
a. A mixture leaner than a rich best-power mixture of
failed or failing engine bearings?
.085.
a. Excessive oil consumption.
b. A mixture richer than a full-rich mixture of .087.
b. High oil temperatures.
c. A mixture leaner than a manual lean mixture of
c. Low oil temperatures.
.060.
63. Valve clearance changes on opposed-type engines using
54. What is the principal advantage of using propeller
hydraulic lifters are accomplished by
reduction gears?
a. rocker arm adjustment.
a. To enable the propeller RPM to be increased without
b. rocker arm replacement.
an accompanying increase in engine RPM.
c. push rod replacement.
b. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an
accompanying increase in power and allow the 64. The floating control thermostat, used on some
propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient RPM. reciprocating engine
c. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with an installations, helps regulate oil temperature by
accompanying increase in propelter RPM. a. controlling oil flow through the oil cooler.
55. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball bearing? b. recirculating hot oil back through the sump.
a. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve engine). c. controlling air flow through the oil cooler.
b. Master rod bearing (radial engine). 65. Which of the following would most likely cause a
c. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine). reciprocating engine to
56. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke cycle backfire through the induction system at low RPM operation?
reciprocating a. Idle mixture too rich.
aircraft engine open? b. Clogged derichment valve.
a. Power and exhaust. c. Lean mixture.
b. Intake and compression. 66. What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating
c. Exhaust and intake. engine?
57. To reduce the power output of an engine equipped with a a. To check magneto drop.
constant-speed b. To determine satisfactory performance.
propeller and operating near maximum BMEP, the c. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate.
a. manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle control 67. To what altitude will a turbo charged engine maintain sea
before the RPM is reduced with the propeller level pressure?
control. a. Critical altitude.
b. manifold pressure is reduced with the propeller b. Service ceiling.
control before the RPM is reduced with the throttle c. Pressure altitude.
control. 68. Before attempting to start a radial engine that has been
c. RPM is reduced with the propeller control before the shut down for more
manifold pressure is reduced with the throttle than 30 minutes,
control. a. turn the propeller by hand three or four revolutions
58. Which of the following would indicate a general weak- in the opposite direction of normal rotation to check
engine condition when operated with a fixed-pitch propeller for liquid lock.
or test club? b. turn the ignition switch on before energizing the
starter.
a. Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle c. turn the propeller by hand three to four revolutions in
operation. the normal direction of rotation to check for liquid
b. Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at static lock.
RPM. 69. If the crankshaft runout readings on the dial indicator are
c. Lower than normal manifold pressure for any given plus .002 inch
RPM. and minus .003 inch, the runout is
59. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by a. .005 inch.
a. nitriding. b. pIus .001 inch.
c. minus .001 inch.

70. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow motion
between the pin and
a. the piston.
b. both the piston and the large end of the connecting
rod.
c. both the piston and the small end of the
connecting rod.
71. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine are
usually degreased
with some form of mineral spirits solvent rather than water-
mixed degreasers
primarily because
a. solvent degreasers are much more effective.
b. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine oil
contamination in the overhauled engine.
c. water-rn i xed deg rea sers cause corrosion.
72. When does valve overlap occur in the operation of an
aircraft reciprocating engine?
a. At the end of the exhaust stroke and the
beginning of the intake stroke.
b. At the end of the power stroke and the beginning of
the exhaust stroke.
c. At the end of the compression stroke and the
beginning of the power stroke.
73. Which statement is correct regarding engine crankshafts?
a. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the
dynamic vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating
engine.
b. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the
torsional vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating
engine.
c. Moveable counterweights are designed to resonate at
the natural frequency of the crankshaft.
74. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when the
piston îs at bottom
center. When the piston is at the top of the cylinder, the
volume equals 10 cubic inches. What is the compression
ratio?
a. 1 : 7
b. 7 : 10
c. 7 : 1
75. Which of the following is most likely to occur if an
overhead valve engine is operated with inadequate valve
clearances?
a. The valves will not seat positively during start and
engine warmup.
b. The further decrease in valve clearance that occurs
as engine temperatures increase will cause damage to
the valve-operating mechanism.
c. The valves will remain closed for longer periods
than specified by the engine manufacturer.
76. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an
inspection,
a. It is an indication of normal engine wear unless the
particles are nonferrous.
b. the cause should be identified and corrected
before the aircraft is released for flight.
c. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the
deposit exceeds a specified amount.
77. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order
of their occurrence are
a. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust.
b. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust.
c. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust.
78. Ignition occurs at 28° BTDC on a certain four-stroke
cycle engine, and the
intake valve opens at 15° BTDC. How many degrees of
crankshaft travel after
ignition does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder
only.)
a. 707°.
b. 373°.
c. 347°.
79. What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 Appendix D when
performing an annual/100-
hour inspection on a reciprocating engine aircraft?
a. Magneto timing check.
b. Cylinder compression check.
c. Valve clearance check.
80. Backfiring through the carburetor generally results from
the use of
a. an excessively lean mixture.
b. excessively atomized fuel.
c. an excessively rich mixture.
81. Reduced air density at high altitude has a decided effect
on carburetion,
resulting in a reduction of engine power by
a. excessively enriching the fuel/air mixture.
b. excessively leaning the fuel/air mixture.
c. reducing fuel vaporization.
82. Which of the following conditions would most likely lead
to detonation?
a. Late ignition timing.
b. Use of fuel with too high an octane rating.
c. Use of fuel with too low an octane rating.
83. How many of the following are factors in establishing the
maximum compression
ratio limitations of an aircraft engine?
1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used.
2. Design limitations of the engine.
3. Degree of supercharging.
4. Spark plug reach.
a. Four.
b. Two.
c. THREE
84. Cam-ground pistons are installed in some aircraft engines
to
a. provide a better fit at operating temperatures.
b. act as a compensating feature so that a compensated
magneto is not required.
c. equalize the wear on all pistons
85. What is an advantage of using metallic-sodium filled
exhaust valves in
aircraft reciprocating engines?
a. Increased strength and resistance to cracking.
b. Reduced valve operating temperatures.
c. Greater resistance to deterioration at high valve
temperatures.
86. The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial
engine as compared to
cold valve clearance is
a. greater.
b. less.
c. the same.
87. When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine parts, it
is inadvisable to soak
them in solutions containing soap because
a. some of the soap will become impregnated in the
surface of the material and subsequently cause
engine oil contamination and foaming.
b. the soap can chemically alter the metals causing
them to become more susceptible to corrosion.
c. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal
electrolytic action if they are placed together in the
solution for more than a few minutes.
89. Using the following information, determine how many
degrees the crankshaft
will rotate with both the intake and exhaust valves seated.
Intake opens 15°: BTDC.
Exhaust opens 700: BBDC.
Intake closes 45°: ABDC.
Exhaust closes 10°: ATDC.
a. 290°.
b. 245°.
c. 25°.
90. What tool is generally used to measure the crankshaft
rotation in degrees?
a. Dial indicator.
b. Timing disk.
c. Prop Protractor.
91. How îs proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings
assured during the
overhaul of an engine?
a. By accurately measuring and matching the outside
diameter of the rings with the inside diameter of the
cylinders.
b. By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer.
c. By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring
the end-gap with a feeler gauge.
92. An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic valve
lifters is observed to have no clearance in its valve-operating
mechanism after the minimum inlet
oil and cylinder head temperatures for takeoff have been
reached. When can
this condition be expected?
a. During normal operation.
b. When the lifters become deflated.
c. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming trapped in
the lifter and restricting its otion.
93. Compression ratio is the ratio between the
a. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the
intake stroke.
b. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion
stroke and on the exhaust stroke.
c. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead
center and at top dead center.
94. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timîng is correct, the
combustion
process should be completed
a. 20 to 300 before top center at the end of the
compression stroke.
b. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the
power stroke.
c. just after top center at the beginning of the power
stroke.
95. If an engine operates with a low oil pressure and a high oil
temperature, the
problem may be caused by a
a. leaking oil dilution valve.
b. sheared oil pump shaft.
c. clogged oil cooler annular jacket.
96. What is likely to occur if a reciprocating engine is
operated at high power
settings before it is properly warmed up?
a. Oil starvation of bearings and other parts.
b. Excessive thinning of the engine oil.
c. Accelerated oil breakdown and oxidation.
97. What is the basic operational sequence for reducing the
power output of an
engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
a. Reduce the RPM, then the manifold pressure.
b. Reduce the manifold pressure, then retard the throttle
to obtain the correct RPM.
c. Reduce the manifold pressure, then the RPM.
98. Which of the following will be caused by excessive valve
clearance of a
cylinder on a reciprocating aircraft engine?
a. Reduced valve overlap period.
b. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close
late.
c. A power increase by shortening the exhaust event.
99. If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of
operation of a four
stroke cycle engine, it may result in
a. im proper scavenging of exhaust gases.
b. engine kickback.
c. backfiring into the induction system.
100. (1) Preignition is caused by improper ignition timing.
(2) Detonation occurs when an area of the combustion
chamber becomes
incandescent and ignites the fuel/air mixture in advance of
normal timed
ignition.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
c. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
101. If an engine cylinder is to be removed, at what position
in the cylinder
should the piston be?
a. Bottom dead center.
b. Top dead center.
c. Halfway between top and bottom dead center.
102. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves are
checked for stretch
a. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
b. with a contour or radius gauge.
c. by placing the valve on a surface plate and
measuring its length with a vernier height gauge.
103. The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft
engine is called
a. friction horsepower.
b. brake horsepower.
c. indicated horsepower
104. If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at 2,000
RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder will be
a. at maximum velocity around TDC. 5.
b. constant during the entire 360° of crankshaft travel.
c. at maximum velocity 90° after TDC.
105. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide range
from zero to normal 6.
operating pressure, the most likely cause is
a. low oi supply.
b. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
c. air lock in the scavenge pump intake.
106. What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on 7.
some valve stems?
a. To hold the valve guide in position.
b. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in
position.
c. To prevent valves from falling into the
combustion chamber. 8.
107. If the oil pressure of a cold engine is higher than at
normal operating
temperatures, the
a. oil system relief valve should be readjusted.
b. engines lubrication system is probably operating
normally. 9.
c. oil dilution system should be turned on immediately.
108. (1) Cast iron piston rings may be used in chrome-plated
cylinders.
(2) Chrome-plated rings may be used in plain steel cylinders.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
10.
HYDRAULIC &PNEUMATIC POWER SYSTEM
1. A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic system having an
accumulator usually indicates
11.
a. Air in the fluid.
b. Too much preload in the accumulator.
c. To low or no preload in the accumulator.
2. (1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic system as
damage-preventing units.
(2) Check valves are used in both hydraulic and
12.
pneumatic systems. Regarding the above statements
a. both no.1 and no.2 are true.
b. neither no.1 and nor no.2 is true.
c. only no.1 is true.
3. The main system pressure relief valve in a simple
hydraulic system equipped with a power control valve
should be adjusted.
13.
a. With the power control valve held in the
Closed position.
b. While one or more actuating units are in
operation.
c. With the power control valve in the OPEN
position
4. Hydraulic accumulator is charge with an air preload of
1000 PSI. when a hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI
is developed, the pressure on the air side of the
accumulator will be
a. 1000psi
b. 3000psi
c. 4000psi
Which seals are with petroleum base hydraulic fluids?
a. Polyester
b. Butyl rubber
c. Buna-N
What is one advantage of piston type hydraulic motors
over electric motors?
a. They are considerably quieter in operation.
b. There is no fire hazard if the motor s is
stalled.
c. They are satisfactory over a wider temperature
range.
An emergency supply of fluid is often retained in the
main hydraulic system reservoir by the use of a
standpipe. The supply line is connected to the
a. Inlet the main hydraulic system.
b. Inlet of the emergency pump.
c. Outlet of the main system pump.
In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir pressurized
with turbine-engine compressor bleed air, which unit
reduces the air pressure between the engine and reservoir.
a. Relief valve.
b. Air bleed relief valve.
c. Air pressure regulator.
Quick – disconnect couplings in hydraulic systems
provide a means of
a. Easily replacing hydraulic lines in areas where
leaks are common.
b. Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic
lines and eliminate the possibility of
contaminates entering the system.
c. Quickly connecting and disconnecting hydraulic
lines without loss of fluid or entrance of air into
the system.
Components containing phosphate ester-base hydraulic
fluid may be cleaned with
a. Stoddard solvent.
b. Naphtha
c. Carbon tetrachloride
Characteristic of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid are
a. Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire
resistant uses butyl rubber seals.
b. Blue color, will burl, uses natural rubber seals.
c. Red color, petroleum base will burn uses
synthetic rubber seals
Some hydraulic system incorporate a device which is
designed to remain open to allow a normal fluid flow in
the line, but closed if the fluid flow increases above an
established rate. This device is generally referred to as a
a. Hydraulic fuse
b. Flow regulator
c. Metering check valve
A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can normally be
detected by
a. Hydraulic fluid flowing from the pump drain
line
b. Evidence of hydraulic fluid combined in the
engine oil.
c. The presence of hydraulic fluid around the
pump mounting pad.
14. (1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic system, use the
type fluid specified in the aircraft manufacturer’s
maintenance manual or on the instructions plate affixed
to the reservoir or unit.
(2)Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed as specific
color for each type of fluid regarding the statement
a. only No. 1 is true
b.only No. 2 is true
c.both No.1 and 2 are true
15. If two actuating cylinder which have the same cross-
sectional area but different lengths of stroke connected to
the same source of hydraulic pressure they will exert
a. Different amounts of force but will move at the
same rate of speed.
b. Equal amounts of force will move at different
rate speed
c. Equal amounts of force and will move at the
same rate of speed.
16. The internal resistance of fluid which tend to prevent it
from flowing is called
a. Volatility
b. Viscosity
c. Acidity
17. When hydraulic system pressure control and relief units
fail to function properly. How are most systems protected
against over pressure
a. A shear section on the main hydraulic pump
drive shaft
b. One or more hydraulic fuses installed in the
pressure and return lines
c. A shuttle valve interconnecting the main and
emergency systems
18. One of the distinguishing characteristic of an open-center
selector valve use in a hydraulic system is that.
a. Fluid flow through the valve in the OFF
position
b. Fluid flows in three directions on the ON
position
c. A limited amount of flows on one directions and
no fluid flows in the opposite directions.
19. Heat exchanger cooling units are required in some
aircraft hydraulic system because of
a. Fluid flammability
b. High pressure and high rates of fluid flow
c. The high heat generate from braking .
20. Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 psi has been built up
in a hydraulic system . the hand pump piston is 1 inch in
diameter . A ½-inch line connects the hand pump to an
actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter. What is the
pressure in the line between the hand pump and the
actuator?
a. 100 psi.
b. 150psi.
c. 200psi.
21. The air that is expended and no longer needed when an
actuating unit is operated in a pneumatic system is
a. Exhausted or dumped, usually overboard.
b. Returned to the compressor.
c. Charged or pressurized for use during the next
operating cycle.
22. Pressure is a term used to indicate the force per unit area.
Pressure is usually expressed in
a. Pounds per square inch.
b. Pounds per inch.
c. Pounds per cubic inch.
23. What function does the absolute pressure regulator
perform in the pneumatic power system?
a. Regulates the compressor outlet air pressure to
stabilize the system pressure.
b. Regulates the pneumatic system pressure to
protect the moisture separator from internal
explosion.
c. Regulates the compressor inlet air to provide a
stabilized source of air for the compressor.
24. Teflon hose that has developed a permanent set from
being exposed to high pressure or temperature should
a. Not be straightened or bent further.
b. Not be reinstalled once removed.
c. Be immediately replaced
25. An aircraft pneumatic system which incorporates an
engine-driven multistage reciprocating compressor, also
requires
a. An oil separator.
b. A surge chamber.
c. A moisture separator.
26. Select the valve used in a hydraulic system that directs
pressurized fluid to one end of an actuating cylinder and
simultaneously directs return fluid to the reservoir from
the other end.
a. Sequence.
b. Shuttle.
c. Selector.
27. Before removing the filler cap of a pressurized hydraulic
reservoir , in order to service the system, you must
a. Relieve the hydraulic system pressure.
b. Pressurized all hydraulic components in the
system.
c. Relieve the air pressure.
28. If hydraulic fluid is released when the air valve core of
the accumulator is depressed , it is evidence
a. Excessive accumulator air pressure.
b. A leaking check valve.
c. A ruptured diaphragm or leaking seals.
29. What is the purpose of using backup rings with o-rings in
hydraulic systems above 1500 psi?
a. Prevent and external leakage of all moving
parts within a hydraulic system.
b. Provide a seal between two parts of a unit which
move in relation to each other.
c. Prevent high pressure from extruding the seal
between the moving and stationary part.
30. Although dents in the heel of a bend are not permissible,
they are acceptable in the remainder of a hydraulic tube
providing they are less than what percent of the tube
damenter
a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
31. What types of selector valve is one f he most commonly
used in hydraulic system to providing for simultaneous
flow of fluid into and out of a connected actuating unit?
a. Four-port, closed-center valve
b. Three-port, four-way valve
c. Two-port, open-center valve
32. What is the main purpose of a pressurized reservoir in a
hydraulic system?
a. Prevent tank collapse a altitude
b. Prevent hydraulic pump cavitation
c. Prevent hydraulic fluid foaming
33. A unit which transform hydraulic pressure which linear
motions is called
a. An actuating cylinder
b. N accumulator
c. A hydraulic pump
34. (1) materials which are skydrol compatible or resistant
include most common aircraft metals and polyurethane
and epoxy paints.
(2) skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible with nylon and
natural fivers regarding the above statements
a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
b. Neither No.1 nor No.2 is true
c. Only No.1 is true
35. Characteristic of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic fluid are
a. Red, petroleum, will burn synthetics rubber
seals
b. Light purple color base phosphate ester base fire
resistant butyl rubber seals
c. Blue color, vegetable base, will burn, natural
rubber seals
36. After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic hand pump. It is
found that the handle cannot be moved in the pumping
directions (pressure stroke). The most likely cause is an
incorrectly installed
a. Hand pump inport check valve
b. Inport/outport orifice check valve
c. Hand pump outport check valve
37. Two types of hydraulic fluids currently being used in
civil aircraft are
a. Mineral base, and phosphate ester base
b. Mixed mineral base phosphate
c. Petroleum base mixed mineral base
38. Which seal/material is used with phosphate ester base
hydraulic fluids?
a. Silicone rubber
b. Butyl rubber
c. Neoprene rubber
39. How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator prevented
from entering the fluid system?
a. By forcing the oil/air ,mixture through a
centrifugal separating chamber that the
accumulator
b. By physically separating the air chamber from
the oil chamber with a flexible movable
separation
c. By including a valve hat automatically closes
when the fluid level lower to a preset amount
40. A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure to
a. Linear motion
b. Rotary motion
c. Angular motion
41. One of the main advance of skydrol is its
a. Wide operation temptation
b. High operation pressure
c. Inability to mix with water
42. If an aircraft’s constant-pressure hydraulic system and no
more frequently than detected the most probable cause is
a. A too high relief valve setting
b. Pump volume output too high
c. Low accumulator airpreload
43. Hydraulic fluid filtering elements constructed of pours
paper are normally.
a. Cleaned and reused
b. Discarded at regular intervals and replaced
with new filtering elements
c. Not approve for use in certification
44. Characteristic of MIL-H-8446 (skydrol 500 A & B
hydraulic fluids are
a. Blue color ,phosphate ester base, fire resistant,
butyl rubber seals
b. Light purple color, phosphate ester base, fire
resistant, butyl rubber seals
c. Light green color, phosphate ester base, fire
resistant, butyl rubber seals.
45. A hydraulic system operational check during ground
runup the wing flaps cannot be allowed using the main
hydraulic system, but can be lowered by using the
emergency likely cause
a. The flaps selector valve has a severe internal
leak
b. The pressure accumulator is not suppling
pressure to the system
c. The fluid level in the reservoir is low
46. A pilot reports that when the hydraulic ump is running,
the pressure is normal. However when pump is stopped
no hydraulic pressure is available. This is an indication of
a
a. Leaking selector
b. Low accumulator fluid preload
c. Leaking accumulator air valve
47. If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to reach its seat
before tightening, pulling it into place by tightening
a. Is acceptable.
b. May distort the flare.
c. May distort the cone.
48. Which of the following is adversely affected by
atmospheric humidity if left unprotected? 1. MILH-H-
5606 hydraulic fluid. 2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid. 3. None
of the above.
a. 1 and 2
b. 3
c. 2
49. How many of these seals are used with petroleum base
hydraulic fluids?
a. Natural rubber, ethylene-propylene.
b. Neoprene, Buna-N.
c. Natural rubber , butyl rubber.
50. Excluding lines, which components are required to make
up a simple hydraulic system?
a. Actuator, pressure reservoir, accumulator, and
selector valve.
b. Pump, reservoir, selector valve, and actuator.
c. Pump, reservoir, relief valve, and shuttle valve.
51. Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which color?
a. Purple
b. Blue
c. Red
52. What safety device is usually located between the diving
unit and hydraulic pump drive shaft?
a. Thermal relief valve.
b. Pump motor safety switch.
c. Pump drive coupling shear section.
53. A crossflow valve which is designed to bypass fluid from
one side of an actuating cylinder to the side, under certain
conditions, may be found in some aircraft installed in the
a. Flap overload system.
b. Engine cowl flap system.
c. Landing gear system.
54. If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene rubber packing
materials, the correct hydraulic fluid to service the
system is
 a. Mineral base oil. c. Units are independent of each other , and
b. Synthetic base oil. therefore , no particular sequence is necessary.
c. Phosphate ester base oil. 65. Most variable displacement aircraft hydraulic pumps in
55. The primary purpose of a hydraulic actuating unit is to use.
transform a. Must be driven at a nearly constant speed in
a. Fluid motion into mechanical pressure and back order to be practical for use.
again. b. Are not practical for use with a closed-center
b. Fluid pressure into useful work. hydraulic system.
c. Energy form one form to another c. Contain a built- in means of system pressure
56. Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes designed with a regulation.
standpipe in one of the outlet ports in order to assure 66. Which must be done before adjusting the relief valve of a
emergency supply of fluid. The outlet port with the main hydraulic system incorporating a pressure
standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the regulator?
a. Emergency pump when the fluid supply to the a. Eliminate the action of the unloading valve.
normal system has been depleted. b. Adjust all other system relief valves which have
b. Emergency pump at any time it is required. lower pressure setting.
c. Normal system power pump. c. Manually unseat all system check valves to
57. Unloading valves are used with many engine-driven allow unrestricted flow in both directions.
hydraulic pumps to 67. In a gear-type hydraulic pump, a mechanical safety
a. Dampen out pressure surges. device incorporated to protect the pump from overload is
b. Relieve the pump pressure. the
c. Relieve system pressure. a. Bypass valve.
58. Where can information be obtained about the b. Check valve.
compatibility of fire resistant hydraulic fluid with aircraft c. Shear pin.
materials? 68. To prevent external and internal leakage in aircraft
a. Fluid manufactures technical bulletins. hydraulic units, the most commonly used type of seal is
b. Aircraft manufacturers specifications. the
c. AC 43.13-1A a. O-ring seal.
59. Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is very susceptible to b. Gasket seal.
contamination from c. Chevron seal.
a. Teflon seal material. 69. Generally the first step in removing an accumulator from
b. Water in the atmosphere. an aircraft is to
c. Ethylene-propylene elastomers. a. Relieve system pressure.
b. Discharge the preload.
60. A common cause of slow actuation of hydraulic c. Drain the reservoir.
components is 70. Pneumatic systems utilize
a. Cold fluid. a. Return lines.
b. Restricted orifices. b. Relief valves.
c. Internal leakage in the actuating unit. c. Diluter valves.
61. Which allows free fluid flow in one direction and no fluid 71. The primary function of the flap over load valve is to
flow in the other direction? a. Prevent the flaps from being lowered at
a. Check valve. airspeeds which would impose excessive
b. Metering piston. structural loads.
c. Shutoff valve. b. Cause the flap segments located on opposite
62. What type of packings should be used in hydraulic side of the aircraft centerline to extend and
components to be installed in a system containing retract .
skydrol? c. Boost normal system pressure to the flaps in
a. An packing made of natural rubber. order to overcome the air loads acting on the
b. Packing materials made for ester base fluids. relatively large flap are.
c. An packing made of neoprene. 72. The hydraulic component that automatically directs fluid
63. Hydraulic system accumulating serve which of the from either the normal source or an emergency source to
following functions?1. dampen pressure surges. 2. an actuating cylinder is called a
Supplement the system pump when demand is beyond a. Bypass valve.
the pump’s capacity.3. store power for limited operation b. Shuttle valve.
of components if the pump is not operating. 4. Ensure a c. Crossflow valve.
continuous supply of fluid to the pump . 73. Chattering of the hydraulic pump during operation is an
a. 2,3 indication
b. 1,2,3,4 a. Of low accumulator preload.
c. 1,2,3 b. That the main system relief valve is sticking
64. If it is necessary to adjust several pressure regulating open.
valves in a hydraulic system , what particular sequence , c. That air is entering the pump.
if any, should be followed ? 74. Which valve installed in a hydraulic system will have the
a. Units most distant from the hydraulic pump highest pressure setting?
should be adjusted first. a. Pressure regulator valve.
b. Units with the highest pressure settings and b. Main relief valve.
adjusted first. c. Thermal relief valve.

75. The installation of a new metal hydraulic line should be
made with
a. A straight tube to withstand the shocks and
vibration to which it will be subjected.
b. A straight tube to permit proper alignment of the
fitting and thereby reduce fluid loss through
leakage.
c. Enough bends to allow the tube to expand and
contract with temperature changes and to absorb
vibration.
76. The purpose of the pressure regular in a hydraulic system
a. Maintain system operating pressure within a
pressure a predetermined range and to unload
the pump
b. Regulate the amount of fluid flow to the
actuating cylinders within the system
c. Prevent failure of components of hydraulic lines
under excessive pressure.
77. Which is true regarding the ground check of a flap
operating mechanism which has just been installed?
a. If the time required to operate the mechanism
increase with successive operations, it indicates
the air is being worked out of the system.
b. If the time required tp operate the mechanism
decrease with successive operations, itindicates
the air is being worked out of the system
c. All hydraulic lines and components should be
checked for leaks by applying soapy water to all
connections.
78. Relief valves are used in pneumatic system
a. For one direction flow control
b. To reduce rate of airflow
c. As damage-preventing units.
79. What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic system
permits fluid to flow freely in one direction, but restricts
the rate at which fluid is allowed to flow in the other
direction?
a. Check valve
b. Orifice restrictor
c. Orifice check valve
80. If an engine-drive hydraulic pump of the correct capacity
fails to maintain normal system pressure during the
operation of a cowl flap actuating unit, the probable
cause is
a. Mechanical interference to the movement of the
cowl flap
b. A partial restriction in the inport of the selector
valve
c. Restriction in the pimp outlet.
81. What happens to the output of a constant-displacement
hydraulic pump when the hydraulic system pressure
regulator diverts the fluid from the system to the
reservoir?
a. The output pressure remains the same, but the
volume reduces
b. The output pressure reduces, but the volume
remains the same
c. The output pressure and volume remain the
same
82. What is used to flush a system normally serviced with
MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid?
a. Methyl ethyl ketone or kerosene
b. Naphtha or varsol
c. Lacquer thinner or trichloroethylene
83. If the hydraulic system pressure is normal while the
engine driven pump is running, but there is no pressure
after the engine has been shut off, it indicates
a. The system relief valve setting is too high
b. No air pressure in the accumulator
c. The pressure regulator is set too high
84. The purpose of a hydraulic pressure regulator is to
a. Prevent the system pressure from rising above a
predetermined amount due to thermal expansion
b. Boost the pressure in portions of the system
c. Relieve the pump of its load when no
actuating units are being operated
85. Which is a characteristics of petroleum base hydraulic
fluid?
a. Flammable under normal conditions
b. Compatible to natural rubber seals and packings
c. Nonflammable under all conditions
86. A flexible sealing element subject to motion is a
a. Compound
b. Packing
c. Gasket
87. Which of the following list only desirable properties of a
good hydraulic fluid that has chemical stability?
a. High viscosity, low flash point, high fire point
b. High flash point, low viscosity, low fire point
c. Low viscosity, high flash point, high fire point
88. How would the air pressure charge in the accumulator be
determined if the engine is inoperative, but the system
still has hydraulic pressure?
a. Read it directly from the main system pressure
gauge with all actuators inoperative
b. Build up system pressure with the emergency
pump and then read the pressure on a gauge
attached to the air side of the accumulator
c. Operate a hydraulic unit slowly and note the
pressure at which a rapid pressure drop begins
as it goes toward zero
89. What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?
a. The increase in volume of a fluid due to
temperature change
b. The fluids ability to resist oxidation and
deterioration for long periods
c. The internal resistance of a fluid which tends to
prevent it from flowing
90. Extrusion of an O-ring seal is prevented in a high-
pressure system by the use of a
a. Backup ring in the side of the O-ring next to the
pressure
b. U-ring on the side of the O-ring away from the
pressure
c. Backup ring on the side of the O-ring away
from the pressure
91. Many hydraulic reservoir contain a small quantity of
fluid which is not available to the main system pump.
This fluid is retained to
a. Prime the main system.
b. Supply fluid the auxiliary pump.
c. Supply fluid to the pressure accumulator.
92. The component in the hydraulic system that is used to
direct the flow of fluid is the
a. Check valve.
b. Orifice check valve.
c. Selector valve.
93. The removal of air from an aircraft hydraulic system is
generally accomplished
 a. Through automatic bleed valves on individual
components during system operation.
b. By operating the various hydraulic
components through several cycles.
c. By allowing the system to remain inoperative
for several hours.
94. After a hydraulic accumulator has been installed and air
chamber charged, the main system hydraulic pressure
gauge will not show a hydraulic pressure reading until
a. At least one selector valve has been actuated to
allow fluid to flow into the fluid side of the
accumulator.
b. The air pressure has become equal to the fluid
pressure.
c. The fluid side of the accumulator has been
charged.
95. If an aircraft hydraulic system requires mineral base
hydraulic fluid, but phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid
is used, what will be the effect on the system?
a. No effect.
b. System will be contaminated, fluids will not
blend, and the seals will fail.
c. System will be contaminated, fluids will not
blend, but there will be no seal problem.
96. Which statement about fluids is correct?
a. Any fluid will completely fill its container.
b. All fluids are considered to be highly
compressible.
c. All fluids readily transmit pressure.
97. To check the air charge in a hydraulic accumulator,
a. Reduce all hydraulic pressure, then observe the
reading on the accumulator air gauge.
b. Observe the first reading on the hydraulic
system gauge while operating a component in
the system.
c. Read it directly from the auxiliary pressure
gauge.
98. Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are set to open at
a
a. Lower pressure than the system relief valve.
b. Higher pressure than the system relief valve.
c. Lower pressure than the system pressure
regulator.
99. Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic fluid are
identified by which color code?
a. Green dash.
b. Blue dot or stripe.
c. Yellow dot or stripe.
100.Chatter in a hydraulic system is caused by
a. Excessive system pressure.
b. Insufficient system pressure.
c. Air in the system.
101.If fluid is added to a reservoir in a constant pressure
hydraulic system while the system is pressurized, what
will result?
a. Fluid will spray violently out of the reservoir
when the filler neck cap is removed.
b. The fluid level will increase when system
pressure is reduced.
c. Air will be drawn into the system , when the
filler neck cap is removed.
102.What is commonly used to connect an emergency source
of power, and at the same time disconnect the normal
hydraulic source from critical parts of a landing gear or
wheel braking system for operation (usually when the
normal source system fails)?
a. Selector valve.
b. Shuttle valve.
c. Sequence valve.
103. The purpose of restrictors in the hydraulic system is to
a. Control the rate of movement of
hydraulically operated mechanism.
b. Allow the flow of fluid in one direction only.
c. Lower the operating pressure of selected
components.
104. In a typical high-pressure pneumatic system, if the
moisture separator does not vent accumulated water
when the compressor shuts down, a likely cause is a
a. Saturated chemical dryer,
b. Malfunctioning pressure transmitter.
c. Malfunctioning solenoid dump valve.
105. Which is a characteristics of synthetic base hydraulic
fluid?
a. Low moisture retention.
b. High flash point.
c. Low flash point.
106. Severe kickback of the emergency hydraulic hand pump
handle during the normal intake stroke will indicate
which of the following?
a. The hand pump inlet check valve is sticking
open.
b. The main system relief valve is set too high.
c. The hand pump outlet check valve is sticking
open.
107. A hydraulic pump is a constant-displacement type if it
a. Produces an unregulated constant pressure.
b. Produces a continuous positive pressure.
c. Delivers a uniform rate of fluid flow.
108. How can the proper hydraulic fluid to be used in an
airplane be determined?
a. Refer to the aircraft parts manual.
b. Consult the aircraft type certificate data sheet.
c. Consult the aircraft manufacture’s service
manual.
FUEL METERING SYSTEMS
1. If the main air bleed of a float-type carburetor becomes
clogged, the engine will run
a. lean at rated power.
b. rich at rated power.
c. rich at idling.
2. One of the best ways to increase engine power and control
detonation and preignition is to
a. enrich the fuel/air mixture.
b. use water injection.
c. lean the fuel/air mixture.
3. One purpose of an air bleed in a float-type carburetor is to
a. increase fuel flow at altitude.
b. meter air to adjust the mixture.
c. decrease fuel density and destroy surface
tension.
4. An excessively lean fuel/air mixture may cause
a. an increase in cylinder head temperature.
b. high oil pressure.
c. backfiring through the exhaust.
5. When checking the idle mixture on a carburetor, the engine
should be idling normally, then pull the mixture control
toward the IDLE CUTOFF position. A correct idling mixture
will be indicated by
a. an immediate decrease in RPM.
 b. a decrease of 20 to 30 RPM before quitting.
c. an increase of 10 to 50 RPM before decreasing.
6. Detonation occurs when the fuel/air mixture
a. burns too fast.
b. ignites before the time of normal ignition.
c. is too rich.
7. What component is used to ensure fuel delivery during
periods of rapid engine acceleration?
a. Acceleration pump.
b. Water injection pump.
c. Power enrichment unit.
8. In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the
fuel control, manufacturers generally recommend that all final
turbine engine trim adjustments be made in the
a. increase direction.
b. decrease direction.
c. decrease direction after over-adjustment.
9. If the idling jet becomes clogged in a float-type carburetor,
the
a. engine operation will not be affected at any RPM.
b. engine will not idle.
c. idle mixture becomes richer.
10. A carburetor is prevented from leaning out during quick
acceleration by the
a. enrichment system.
b. mixture control system.
c. accelerating system.
11. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control
unit trimmed?
a. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired.
b. To properly position the power levers.
c. To adjust the idle RPM.
12. What is the relationship between the pressure existing
within the throat of a venturi and the velocity of the air
passing through the venturi?
a. There is no direct relationship between the pressure
and the velocity.
b. The pressure is directly proportional to the velocity.
c. The pressure is inversely proportional to the
velocity.
13. The fuel metering force of a conventional float-type
carburetor in its normal operating range is the difference
between the pressure acting on the discharge nozzle located
within the venturi and the pressure
a. acting on the fuel in the float chamber.
b. of the fuel as it enters the carburetor.
c. of the air as it enters the venturi (impact pressure).
14. A major difference between the Teledyne-Continental and
RSA (Precision Airmotive or Bendix) continuous flow fuel
injection systems in fuel metering is that the
a. RSA system uses air pressure only as a metering
force.
b. Continental system utilizes airflow as a metering
force.
c. Continental system uses fuel pressure only as a
metering force.
15.(1) The mixture used at rated power in air cooled
reciprocating engines is richer than the mixture used through
the normal cruising range.
(2) The mixture used at idle in air cooled reciprocating
engines is richer than the mixture used at rated power.
Regarding the above statements,
a. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No.2istrue.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
16. Generally, the practice when trimming an engine is to
a. turn all accessory bleed air off.
b. turn all accessory bleed air on.
c. make adjustments (as necessary) for all engines on
the same aircraft with accessory bleed air settings
the same — either on or off.
17. The device that controls the volume of the fuel/air mixture
to the cylinders is called a
a. mixture control.
b. metering jet.
c. throttle valve.
18. During engine operation, if carburetor heat is applied, it
will
a. increase fuel/air ratio.
b. increase engine RPM.
c. decrease the air density to the carburetor.
19. Anine-cylinder radial engine, using a multiple-point
priming system with a central spider, will prime which
cylinders?
a. One, two, three, eight, and nine.
b. All cylinders.
c. One, three, five, and seven.
20. What effect does high atmospheric humidity have on the
operation of a jet engine?
a. Decreases engine pressure ratio.
b. Decreases compressor and turbine RPM.
c. Has little or no effect.
21. The throttle valve of float-type aircraft carburetors is
located
a. ahead of the venturi and main discharge nozzle.
b. after the main discharge nozzle and ahead of the
venturi.
c. between the venturi and the engine.
22. On a float-type carburetor, the purpose of the economizer
valve is to
a. provide extra fuel for sudden acceleration of the
engine.
b. maintain the leanest mixture possible during cruising
best power.
c. provide a richer mixture and cooling at maximum
power output.
23. In turbine engines that utilize a pressurization and dump
valve, the dump portion of the valve
a. cuts off fuel flow to the engine fuel manifold and
dumps the manifold fuel into the combustor to burn
just before the engine shuts down.
b. drains the engine manifold lines to prevent fuel
boiling and subsequent deposits in the lines as a
result of residual engine heat (at engine shutdown).
c. dumps extra fuel into the engine ¡n order to provide
for quick engine acceleration during rapid throttle
advancement.
24. If a float-type carburetor becomes flooded, the condition
is most likely caused by
a. a leaking needle valve and seat assembly.
b. the accelerating pump shaft being stuck.
c. a clogged back-suction line.
25. Which of the following is NOT an input parameter for a
turbine engine fuel control unit?
a. Compressor inlet pressure.
 b. Compressor inlet temperature.
c. Ambient humidity.
26. An aircraft should be facing into the wind when trimming
an engine. However, if the velocity of the wind blowing into
the intake is excessive, it is likely to cause a
a. false low exhaust gas temperature reading.
b. trim setting resulting in engine overspeed.
c. false high compression and turbine discharge
pressure, and a subsequent low trim.
27. When troubleshooting an engine for too rich a mixture to
allow the engine to idle, what would be a possible cause?
a. Economizer valve not operating correctly.
b. Mixture setting too rich.
c. Air leak in the intake manifold.
28. An aircraft engine equipped with a pressure-type
carburetor is started with the
a. primer while the mixture control is positioned at
IDLE CUTOFF.
b. mixture control in the FULL-RICH position.
c. primer while the mixture control is positioned at the
FULL-LEAN position.
29. The back-suction mixture control system operates by
a. varying the pressure within the venturi section.
b. varying the pressure acting on the fuel in the float
chamber.
c. changing the effective cross-sectional area of the
main metering orifice (jet).
30. On an engine equipped with a pressure-type carburetor,
fuel supply in the idling range is ensured by the inclusion in
the carburetor of
a. a spring in the unmetered fuel chamber to
supplement the action of normal metering forces.
b. an idle metering jet that bypasses the carburetor in
the idle range.
c. a separate boost venturi that is sensitive to the
reduced airflow at start and idle speeds.
31. What should be checked/changed to ensure the validity of
a turbine engine performance check if an alternate fuel is to
be used?
a. Fuel specific gravity setting.
b. Maximum RPM adjustment.
c. EPR gauge calibration.
32. The device that controls the ratio of the fuel/air mixture to
the cylinders is called a
a. throttle valve.
b. mixture control.
c. metering jet.
33. Select the statement which is correct relating to a fuel
level check of a float-type carburetor.
a. Use 5 pounds fuel pressure for the test if the
carburetor is to be used in a gravity fuel feed
system.
b. Block off the main and idle jets to prevent a
continuous flow of fuel through the jets.
c. Do not measure the level at the edge of the float
chamber.
34. If an aircraft engine is equipped with a carburetor that is
not compensated for altitude and temperature variations, the
fuel/air mixture will become
a. leaner as either the altitude or temperature
increases.
b. richer as the altitude increases and leaner as the
temperature increases.
c. richer as either the altitude or temperature
increases.
35. An aircraft engine continuous cylinder fuel injection
system normally discharges fuel during which stroke(s)?
a. Intake.
b. Intake and compression.
c. All (continuously).
36. What carburetor component actually limits the desired
maximum airflow to the engine at full throttle?
a. Throttle valve.
b. Venturi.
c. Manifold intake.
37. The desired engine idle speed and mixture setting
a. is adjusted with engine warmed up and
operating.
b. should give minimum RPM with maximum
manifold pressure.
c. is usually adjusted in the following sequence; speed
first, then mixture.
38. An indication that the optimum idle mixture has been
obtained occurs when the mixture control is moved to IDLE
CUTOFF and manifold pressure
a. decreases momentarily and RPM drops slightly
before the engine ceases to fire.
b. increases momentarily and RPM drops slightly
before the engine ceases to fire.
c. decreases and RPM increases momentarily
before the engine ceases to fire.
39. Which method is commonly used to adjust the level of a
float in a float-type carburetor?
a. Lengthening or shortening the float shaft.
b. Add or remove shims under the needle-valve seat.
c. Change the angle of the float arm pivot.
40. Under which of the following conditions will the
trimming of a turbine engine be most accurate?
a. High wind and high moisture.
b. High moisture and low wind.
c. No wind and low moisture.
41. What factor is not used in the operation of an aircraft gas
turbine engine fuel control unit?
a. Compressor inlet air temperature.
b. Mixture control position.
c. Power lever position.
42. Which statement is correct regarding a continuous-flow
fuel injection system used on many reciprocating engines?
a. Fuel is injected directly into each cylinder.
b. Fuel is injected at each cylinder intake port.
c. Two injector nozzles are used in the injector fuel
system for various speeds.
43. At what engine speed does the main metering jet actually
function as a metering jet in a float-type carburetor?
a. All RPM’s.
b. Cruising RPM only.
c. All RPM’s above idle range.
44. When a new carburetor is installed on an engine,
a. warm up the engine and adjust the float level.
b. do not adjust the idle mixture setting; this was
accomplished on the flow bench.
c. the engine is warmed up to normal temperatures,
adjust the idle mixture, then the idle speed.
45. What carburetor component measures the amount of air
delivered to the engine?
a. Economizer valve.
b. Automatic mixture control.
c. Venturi.
46. What is the relationship between the accelerating pump
and the enrichment valve in a pressure injection carburetor?
a. No relationship since they operate independently.
b. Unmetered fuel pressure affects both units.
c. The accelerating pump actuates the enrichment
valve.
47. Which of the following is NOT a function of the
carburetor venturi?
a. Proportions the fuel/air mixture.
b. Regulates the idle system.
c. Limits the airflow at full throttle.
48. A full-authority electronic engine control (EEC) is a
system that receives all the necessary data for engine
operation and
a. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit
to obtain the most effective engine operation.
b. develops the commands to various actuators to
control engine parameters.
c. controls engine operation according to ambient
temperature, pressure, and humidity
49. One of the things a metering orifice in a main air bleed
helps to accomplish (at a given altitude) in a carburetor is
a. pressure in the float chamber to increase as airflow
through the carburetor increases.
b. a progressively richer mixture as airflow through
the carburetor increases.
c. ‘better fuel vaporization and control of fuel
discharge, especially at lower engine speeds.
50. During the operation of an aircraft engine, the pressure
drop in the carburetor venturi depends primarily upon the
a. air temperature.
b. barometric pressure.
c. air velocity.
51. Which type of fuel control is used on most of today’s
turbine engines?
a. Electromechanical.
b. Mechanical.
c. Hydromechanical or electronic.
53. When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is
adjusted to
a. produce as much power as the engine is capable of
producing.
b. set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR.
c. allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without
regard to power output
54. On a carburetor without an automatic mixture control as
you ascend to altitude, the mixture will
a. be enriched.
b. be leaned.
c. not be affected.
55. What corrective action should be taken when a carburetor
is found to be leaking fuel from the discharge nozzle?
a. Replace the needle valve and seat.
b. Raise the float level.
c. Turn the fuel off each time the aircraft is parked.
56. In a supervisory EEC system, any fault in the EEC that
adversely affects engine operation
a. causes redundant or backup units to take over and
continue normal operation.
b. usually degrades performance to the extent that
continued operation can cause damage to the engine.
c. causes an immediate reversion to control by the
hydromechanical fuel control unit.
57. Which of the following is least likely to occur during
operation of an engine equipped with a direct cylinder fuel
injection system?
a. Afterfiring.
b. Kickback during start.
c. Backfiring.
58. If the volume of air passing through a carburetor venturi is
reduced, the pressure at the venturi throat will
a. decrease.
b. be equal to the pressure at the venturi outlet.
c. increase.
59. The purpose of the back-suction mixture control in a float-
type carburetor is to adjust the mixture by
a. regulating the pressure drop at the venturi.
b. regulating the pressure on the fuel in the float
chamber.
c. regulating the suction on the mixture from behind
the throttle valve.
60. The function of the altitude compensating, or aneroid
valve used with the Teledyne-Continental fuel injection
system on many turbocharged engines is to
a. prevent an overly rich mixture during sudden
acceleration
b. prevent detonation at high altitudes.
c. provide a means of enriching the mixture during
sudden acceleration.
61. How will the mixture of an engine be affected if the
bellows of the automatic mixture control (AMC) in a pressure
carburetor ruptures while the engine is operating at altitude?
a. It will become leaner.
b. No change will occur until the altitude changes.
c. It will become richer.
62. A supervisory electronic engine control (EEC) is a system
that receives engine operating information and
a. adjusts a standard hydromechanical fuel control unit
to obtain the most effective engine operation.
b. develops the commands to various actuators to
control engine parameters.
c. controls engine operation according to ambient
temperature, pressure, and humidity.
63. Where is the throttle valve located on a float-type
carburetor?
a. Between the venturi and the discharge nozzle.
b. After the main discharge nozzle and venturi.
c. After the venturi and just before the main discharge
nozzle.
64. The economizer system in a float-type carburetor
a. keeps the fuel/air ratio constant.
b. functions only at cruise and idle speeds.
c. increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings.
65. Under which of the following conditions would an engine
run lean even though there is a normal amount of fuel
present?
a. The use of too high an octane rating fuel.
b. Incomplete fuel vaporization.
 c. The carburetor air heater valve in the HOT position. b. observe the reading on the aircraft Outside Air
66. The active clearance control (ACC) portion of an EEC Temperature (OAT) gauge.
system aids turbine engine efficiency by c. hang a thermometer in the shade of the nose wheel-
a. adjusting stator vane position according to operating well until the temperature reading stabilizes.
conditions and power requirements. 75. What are the positions of the pressurization valve and the
b. ensuring turbine blade to engine case clearances are dump valve in a jet engine fuel system when the engine is
kept to a minimum by controlling case temperatures. shut down?
c. automatically adjusting engine speed to maintain a a. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve open.
desired EPR. b. Pressurization valve open, dump valve open.
67. What method is ordinarily used to make idle speed c. Pressurization valve closed, dump valve closed
adjustments on a float-type carburetor?
76. What is a function of the idling air bleed in a float-type
a. An adjustable throttle stop or linkage. carburetor?
b. An orifice and adjustable tapered needle. a. It provides a means for adjusting the mixture at idle
c. An adjustable needle in the drilled passageway speeds.
which connects the airspace of the float chamber b. It vaporizes the fuel at idling speeds.
and the carburetor venturi.
c. It aids in emulsifying/vaporizing the fuel at idle
68. Which of the following best describes the function of an speeds.
altitude mixture control?
77. If an engine is equipped with a float-type carburetor and
a. Regulates the richness of the fuel/air charge the engine runs excessively rich at full throttle, a possible
entering the engine. cause of the trouble is a clogged
b. Regulates the air pressure above the fuel in the float a. main air bleed.
chamber.
b. back-suction line.
c. Regulates the air pressure in the venturi.
c. atmospheric vent line.
69. What could cause a lean mixture and high cylinder head
78. A mixture ratio of 11:1 normally refers to
temperature at sea level or low altitudes?
a. a stoichiometric mixture.
a. Mixture control valve fully closed.
b. 1 part air to 11 parts fuel.
b. Defective accelerating system.
c. 1 part fuel to 11 parts air.
c. Automatic mixture control stuck in the extended
position. 79. What will occur if the vapor vent float in a pressure
carburetor loses its buoyancy?
70. A punctured float in a float-type carburetor will cause the
fuel level to a. The amount of fuel returning to the fuel tank
from the carburetor will be increased.
a. lower, and enrich the mixture.
b. The engine will continue to run after the mixture
b. rise, and enrich the mixture.
control is placed in IDLE CUTOFF.
c. rise, and lean the mixture.
c. A rich mixture will occur at all engine speeds.
71. Which of the following causes a single diaphragm
80. The metered fuel pressure (chamber C) in an injection-
accelerator pump to discharge fuel?
type carburetor
a. An increase in venturi suction when the throttle
a. is held constant throughout the entire engine
valve is open.
operating range.
b. An increase in manifold pressure that occurs
b. varies according to the position of the poppet valve
when the throttle valve is opened.
located between chamber D (unmetered fuel) and
c. A decrease in manifold pressure that occurs when chamber E (engine-driven fuel pump pressure).
the throttle valve is opened.
c. will be approximately equal to the pressure in
72. During idle mixture adjustments, which of the following chamber A (impact pressure).
is normally observed to determine when the correct mixture
81. Why must a float-type carburetor supply a rich mixture
has been achieved?
during idle?
a. Changes in fuel/air pressure ratio.
a. Engine operation at idle results in higher than normal
b. Fuel flowmeter. volumetric efficiency.
c. Changes in RPM or manifold pressure. b. Because at idling speeds the engine may not have
73. Idle cutoff is accomplished on a carburetor equipped with enough airflow around the cylinders to provide
a back-suction mixture control by proper cooling.
a. introducing low pressure (intake manifold) air into c. Because of reduced mechanical efficiency during
the float chamber. idle.
b. turning the fuel selector valve to OFF. 82. If a float-type carburetor leaks fuel when the engine is
c. the positive closing of a needle and seat. stopped, a likely cause is that the
74. The generally acceptable way to obtain accurate on-site a. float needle valve is worn or otherwise not seated
temperature prior to performing engine trimming is to properly.
a. call the control tower to obtain field temperature. b. float level is adjusted too low.
c. main air bleed is clogged.
83. A reciprocating engine automatic mixture control 93. An aircraft carburetor is equipped with a mixture control
responds to changes in air density caused by changes in in order to prevent the mixture from becoming too
a. altitude or humidity. a. lean at high altitudes.
b. altitude only. b. rich at high altitudes.
c. altitude or temperature. c. rich at high speeds.
84. When air passes through the venturi of a carburetor, what 94. To determine the float level in a float-type carburetor, a
three changes occur? measurement is usually made from the top of the fuel in the
a. Velocity increases, temperature increases, and float chamber to the
pressure decreases. a. parting surface of the carburetor.
b. Velocity decreases, temperature increases, and b. top of the float.
pressure increases.
c. centerline of the main discharge nozzle.
c. Velocity increases, temperature decreases, and
95. The economizer system of a float-type carburetor
pressure decreases.
performs which c following functions?
85. Float-type carburetors which are equipped with
a. It supplies and regulates the fuel required for all
economizers are normally set for
engine speeds.
a. their richest mixture delivery and leaned by means of
b. It supplies and regulates the additional fuel
the economizer system.
required for all engine speeds abovecruising.
b. the economizer system to supplement the main
c. It regulates the fuel required for all engine speeds
system supply at all engine speeds above idling.
and all altitudes.
c. their leanest practical mixture delivery at cruising
96. Fuel is discharged for idling speeds on a float-type
speeds and enriched by means of the economizer
carburetor
system at higher power settings.
a. from the idle discharge nozzle.
86. What is the possible cause of an engine running rich at
full throttle if it is equipped with a float-type carburetor? b. in the venturi.
a. Float level too low. c. through the idle discharge air bleed.
b. Clogged main air bleed. 97. The fuel level within the float chamber of a properly
adjusted float-type carburetor will be
c. Clogged atmospheric vent.
a. slightly higher than the discharge nozzle outlet.
87. The use of less than normal throttle opening during
starting will cause b. slightly lower than the discharge nozzle outlet.
a. a rich mixture. c. at the same level as the discharge nozzle outlet.
b. a lean mixture. 98. What is the purpose of the carburetor accelerating system?
c. backfire due to lean fuel/air ratio. a. Supply and regulate the fuel required for engine
speeds above idle.
88. The primary purpose of the air bleed openings used with
continuous flow fuel injector nozzles is to b. Temporarily enrich the mixture when the
throttle is suddenly opened.
a. provide for automatic mixture control.
c. Supply and regulate additional fuel required for
b. lean out the mixture.
engine speeds above cruising.
c. aid in proper fuel vaporization.
89. The density of air is very important when mixing fuel and
FLUID LINES & FITTINGS
air to obtain a correct fuel-to-air ratio. Which of the following
weighs the most? 1. Flexible lines must be installed with
a. 75 parts of dry air and 25 parts of water vapor. a. A slack of 5 to 8 percent of the length
b. 100 parts of dry air. b. A slack of at least 10 to 12 percent of the length
c. :50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor. c. Enough slack to allow maximum flexing during
operation
90. Reciprocating engine power will be decreased at all
2. Hydraulic tubing, which is damaged in a localized
altitudes if the
area to such an extent that repair is necessary, may
a. air density is increased. be repaired
b. humidity is increased. a. By cutting out the damaged area and utilizing a
c. manifold pressure is increased. swaged tube fitting to join the tube ends
b. Only by replacing the tubing section run
91. Select the correct statement concerning the idle system of
(connection to connection) using the same size
a conventional float-type carburetor.
and material as the original
a. The low-pressure area created in the throat of the c. By cutting out the damaged section and
venturi pulls the fuel from the idle passage. soldering in a replacement section of tubing
b. Climatic conditions have very little effect on idle 3. Rolling-type flaring Tools are used to flare X, X, and
mixture requirements. X tubing
c. The low pressure between the edges of the throttle a. Stainless steel, hard copper, mild steel
valve and the throttle body pulls the fuel from the b. Titanium, soft copper, corrosion resistant steel
idle passage. c. Soft copper, aluminum, brass
4. If a flared tube coupling nut is overtightened, where
is the tube most likely to be weakened/damaged?
 a. Along the entire length of the sleeve and tube
interface
b. At the edge of the sleeve and straight portion of
the tube
c. At the sleeve and flare junction
5. The maximum distance between end fittings to
which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is
50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a
connection should be
a. 54-1/2 inches
b. 51-1/2 inches
c. 52-1/2 inches
6. Which statement (s) about Military Standard (MS)
flareless fittings is/are correct?
1. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
normally tightened by turning the nut a specified
amount, rather than being torqued
2. New MS flareless tubing/fittings should be
assembled clean and dry without lubrication
3. During installation, MS flareless fittings are
normally tightened by applying a specified
torque to the nut
a. 1
b. 1 and 2
c. 3
7. Which statement is true regarding flattening of
tubing in bends?
a. Flattening by a maximum of 20 percent of the
original diameter is permissible
b. Flattening by not more than 25 percent of the
original diameter is permissible
c. The small diameter portion in the bend cannot
exceed more than 75 percent of the diameter of
straight tubing
8. From the following sequences of steps, indicate the
proper order you would use to make a single flare on
a piece of tubing
1. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the
flaring block
2. Project the end of the tube slightly from the top
of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime
3. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube
4. Strike the plunger several light blows with a
lightweight hammer or mallet and turn the
plunger one-half turn after each blow
5. Tightened the clamp bar securely to prevent
slippage
6. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube
a. 1,3,5,2,4,6
b. 3,1,6,2,5,4
c. 3,1,2,6,5,4
9. A gas or fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN is
a. A dual-purpose pneumatic and/or hydraulic line
for normal and emergency system use
b. Used to carry a hazardous substance
c. A pneumatic or hydraulic system drain or
discharge line
10. Which coupling nut should be selected for use with
½ -inch aluminum oil lines which are to be
assembled using flared tube ends and standard AN
nuts, sleeves, and fittings?
a. AN-818-5
b. AN-818-16
c. AN-818-8
11. Which statement concerning Bernoulli’s principle is
true?
a. The pressure of a fluid increases at points where
the velocity of the fluid increases
b. The pressure of a fluid decreases at points
where the velocity of the fluid increases
c. It applies only to gases and vaporized liquids
12. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two-piece tube
connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are used
when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type
connector eliminates
a. The flaring operation prior to assembly
b. The possibility of reducing the flare thickness by
wiping or ironing during the tightening process
c. Wrench damage to the tubing during the
tightening process
13. Which of the following hose materials are
compatible with phosphate-ester base hydraulic
fluids?
1. Butyl
2. Teflon
3. Buna-N
4. Neoprene
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
14. The primary purpose of providing suitable bends in
fluid and pneumatic metal tubing runs is to
a. Clear obstacle and make turns in aircraft
structures
b. Provides for access within aircraft structures
c. Prevent excessing stress on the tubing
15. What is the color of an AN steel flared-tube fitting
a. Black
b. Blue
c. Red
16. The material specifications for a certain aircraft
require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from
3/4 –inch 0.072 5052-0 aluminum alloy tubing. What
is the inside dimension of this tubing?
a. 0.606 inch
b. 0.688 inch
c. 0.750 inch
17. Which tubings have the characteristics (high
strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a
high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for
operation of landing gear and flaps?
a. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminum alloy
b. Corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4H
c. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2 H aluminum alloy
18. Metal tubing fluid lines are sized by wall thickness
and
a. Outside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
b. Inside diameter in 1/16 inch increments
c. Outside diameter in 1/32 inch increments
19. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when
installing metal tubing
(2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when
installing wiring
Regarding the above statements,
a. Only No.1 is true
b. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
c. Neither o.1 nor No.2 is true
20. What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum
tubing?
a. Ease of construction
 b. More resistant to damage when the joint is
tightened
c. Can be applied to any size and wall-thickness of
tubing
21. A 3/8 aircraft high pressure flexible hose as
compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used in the same
system will
a. Have higher flow capabilities
b. Have equivalent flow characteristics
c. Usually have interchangeable applications
22. When flaring aluminum tubing for use AN fittings,
the flare angle must be
a. 37°
b. 39°
c. 45°
23. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of
aluminum alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no
deeper than
a. 20 percent of the wall thickness
b. 1/32 inch or 20 percent of wall thickness,
whichever is less
c. 10 percent of the wall thickness
24. When installing bonded clamps to support metal
tubing
a. Paint removal from tube is not recommended as
it will inhibit corrosion
b. Paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to
prevent corrosion
c. Remove paint or anodizing from tube at
clamp location
25. Which of the following statements is true regarding
minimum allowable bend radii for 1.5 inches OD or
less aluminum alloy and steel tubing of the same
size?
a. The minimum radius for steel is greater than for
aluminum
b. The minimum radius for steel is less than for
aluminum
c. The minimum radius is the same both steel and
aluminum
26. Excessive stress on fluid or pneumatic metal tubing
caused by expansion and contraction due to
temperature changes can best be avoided by
a. Using short, straight sections of tubing between
fixed parts of the aircraft
b. Using tubing of the same material as the
majority of the adjoining structure
c. Providing bends in the tubing
27. Which statement is true regarding the variety of
symbols utilized on the identifying color-code bands
that are currently used on aircraft plumbing lines
a. symbols are composed of various single colors
according to line content
b. symbols are always black against a white
background regardless of line content
c. symbols are composed of one to three
contrasting colors according to line content
28. Which of the following statements is/are correct in
reference to flare fittings?
1. AN fittings have an identifying shoulder
between the end of the threads and the flare cone
2. AC and AN fittings are considered identical
except for material composition and identifying
colors
3. AN fittings are generally interchangeable with
AC fittings of compatible material composition
a. 1
b. 1 and 3
c. 1,2 and 3
29. The term ‘cold flow’ is generally associated with
a. The effects of low temperature gasses or liquids
flowing in hose or tubing
b. Impressions left in natural or synthetic
rubber hose material
c. Flexibility characteristics of various hose
materials at low ambient temperatures
30. When a Teflon hose has been in service for a time,
what condition may have occurred and/or what
precautions should be taken when it is temporarily
removed from the aircraft?
a. The hose interior must be kept wet with fluid
carried to prevent embrittlement/deterioration
b. The hose may become stiff and brittle if not
flexed or moved regularly
c. The hose may have developed a set, or have
been manufactured with a pre-set shape, and
must be supported to maintain its shape
31. A scratch or nick in aluminum tubing can be repaired
provided it does not
a. Appear in the heel of a bend
b. Appear on the inside of a bend
c. Exceed 10 percent of the tube OD on a straight
section
32. A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible
hose during installation because, when under
pressure, it
a. Expands in length and diameter
b. Expands in length and contracts in diameter
c. Contracts in length and expands in diameter
33. In a metal tubing installation,
a. Rigid straight line runs are preferable
b. Tension is undesirable because pressurization
will cause it to expand and shift
c. A tube may be pulled in line if the nut will start
on the threaded coupling
34. The best tool to use when cutting aluminum tubing,
or any tubing of moderately soft metal is a
a. Hand operated wheel-type cutter
b. Fine-tooth hacksaw
c. Circular-saw equipped with an abrasive cutting
wheel
35. Flexible hose used in aircraft systems is classified in
size according to the
a. Outside diameter
b. Wall thickness
c. Inside diameter
INDUCTION AND ENGINE AIRFLOW SYSTEM
1. The action of a carburetor air scoop is to supply air
to the carburetor, but it may also
a. cool the engine.
b. keep fuel lines cool and prevent vapor lock.
c. increase the pressure of the incoming air by ram
effect.
2. What are the three basic regulating components of a sea-
level boosted turbocharger system?
1. Exhaust bypass assembly.
2. Compressor assembly.
3. Pump and bearing casing.
 4. Density controller.
5. Differential pressure controller.
a. 2,3,4.
b. 1,4,5.
c. 1,2,3.
3. If carburetor or induction system icing is not present
when carburetor heat is applied with no change in the
throttle setting, the
a. mixture will become richer.
b. manifold pressure will increase.
c. engine RPM will increase.
4. Carburetor icing on an engine equipped with a
constant- speed propeller can be detected by
a. a decrease in power output with no change in
manifold pressure or RPM.
b. an increase in manifold pressure with a constant
RPM.
c. a decrease in manifold pressure with a constant
RPM.
5. The application of carburetor heat will have which of
the following effects?
a. The manifold pressure will be increased.
b. The mixture will become leaner.
The mixture will become richer.
6.Which of the following statements regarding
volumetric efficiency of an engine is true?
a. The volumetric efficiency of an engine will remain
the same regardless of the amount of throttle
opening.
b. It is impossible to exceed l00 percent volumetric
efficiency of any engine regardless of the type of
supercharger used.
c. It is possible to exceed 100 percent volumetric
efficiency of some engines by the use of
superchargers of the proper type.
6. When starting an engine equipped with a carburetor
air heater, in what position should the heater be
placed?
a. Hot.
b. Cold.
c. Neutral
8. What is used to drive a supercharger?
a. Exhaust gases.
b. Gear train from the crankshaft.
c. Belt drive through a pulley arrangement.
9. Where would a carburetor air heater be located in a fuel
injection system?
a. At the air intake entrance.
b. None is required.
c. Between the air intake and the venturi.
10. Into what part of a reciprocating engine induction
system is deicing alcohol normally injected?
a. The supercharger or impeller section.
b. The airstream ahead of the carburetor.
c. The low-pressure area ahead of the throttle valve.
11. As manifold pressure increases in a reciprocating
engine, the
a. volume of air in the cylinder increases.
b. weight of the fuel/air charge decreases.
c. density of air in the cylinder increases.
12. When an engine with a subsonic divergent type inlet
duct is running in place at high speed on the ground, the air
pressure within the inlet is
a. negative.
b. positive.
c. ambient.
13. What is the purpose of a turbocharger system for a small
reciprocating aircraft engine?
a. Compresses the air to hold the cabin pressure
constant after the aircraft has reached its
critical altitude.
b. Maintains constant air velocity in the intake
manifold.
c. Compresses air to maintain manifold pressure
constant from sea level to the critical altitude of
the engine.
14. On small aircraft engines, fuel vaporization may
be increased by
a. cooling the air before it enters the engine.
b. circulating the fuel and air mixture through
passages in the oil sump.
c. heating the fuel before it enters the carburetor.
15. If the turbocharger waste gate is completely closed.
a. none of the exhaust gases are directed through the
turbine.
b. the turbocharger is in the OFF position.
c. all the exhaust gases are directed through the turbine.
16. Bootstrapping of a turbocharged engine is indicated by
a. an overboost condition of the engine on takeoff.
b. a transient increase in engine power.
c. a maximum increase in manifold pressure.
17. If a fire starts in the induction system during the engine
starting procedure. what should the operator do?
a. Turn off the fuel switches to stop the fuel.
b. Continue cranking the engine.
c. Turn off all switches.
18. What method(s) is/are used to provide clean air to
the engines of helicopters and turboprop airplanes that
have particle (sand and ice) separators installed?
a. Positive and negative charged areas to attract
and/or repel
particulates out of the airflow.
b. Air/moisture separators, and washing the air clean
utilizing water
droplets.
c. Sharp airflow directional change to take advantage
of inertia and/or centrifugal force, and filters or
engine inlet screens.
19. Which of the following would be a factor in the failure
of an engine to develop full power at takeoff?
a. Improper adjustment o carburetor heat valve
control Linkage.
b. Excessively rich setting on the idle mixture
adjustment.
c. Failure of the economizer valve to remain closed
at takeoff throttle setting.
20. What part of an aircraft in flight will begin to
accumulate ice before any other?
a. Wing leading edge.
b. Propeller spinner or dome.
c. Carburetor.
21. In addition to causing accelerated wear, dust or
sand ingested by a reciprocating engine may also cause
a. silicon fouling of spark plugs.
b. sludge formation.
c. acid formation.
22. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of
the following methods?
a. Alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct.
b. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air.
c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.
23. Carburetor icing nay be eliminated by which of
the following methods?
a. Alcohol spray and electrically heated induction duct.
b. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air.
c. Alcohol spray and heated induction air.
24. The vortex dissipators installed on some turbine-
powered aircraft to prevent engine FOD utilize
a. variable inlet guide vanes (IGV) and/or variable
first stage fan
blades.
b. variable geometry inlet ducts.
c. a stream of engine bleed air blown toward the
ground ahead of the
engine.
25. The purpose of a bemouth compressor inlet is to
a. provide an increased ram air effect at low airspeeds.
b. maximize the aerodynamic efficiency of the inlet.
c. provide an increased pressure drop in the inlet.
26. An increase in manifold pressure when carburetor heat
is applied indicates
a. ice was forming in the carburetor.
 b. mixture was too lean. 38. In an airplane equipped with an alternate air system, if
c. overheating of cylinder heads. the main air duct air filter becomes blocked or clogged
27. The differential pressure controller in a a. the system will automatically allow warm,
turbocharger system unfiltered air to be drawn into the engine.
a. reduces bootstrapping during part-throttle b. flow of air into the engine will be slowed or cut off
operation. unless alternate air is selected.
b. positions the waste gate valve for maximum power. c. system will automatically allow warm, filtered
c. provides a constant fuel-to-air ratio. alternate air to be drawn into the engine.
28. Carburetor icing is most severe at 39. What indications nay shift when a turbofan engine anti-
a. air temperatures between 30 and 40°F. icing (bleed air) system is turned on?
b. high altitudes. 1. Tachometer.
c. low engine temperatures. 2. EGT.
29. When operating an engine, the application of 3. EPR.
carburetor heat will have what effect on the fuel air a. l and 2.
mixture? b. 2and 3.
a. Enriching the mixture because the AMC cannot c. 1, 2 and 3,
make a correctionfor increased temperature. 40.The application of carburetor heat during engine
b. Enriching the mixture until the AMC can make a operation will
compensation. a. decrease the weight of the fuel/air charge.
c. Leaning the mixture until the AMC can make a b. decrease the volume of air in the cylinder.
compensation. c. increase the density of air in the cylinder.
30. The purpose of an engine/inlet anti-ice system is primarily 41.A method commonly used to prevent carburetor icing is to
to a. preheat the intake air.
a. remove ice from engine and/or inlet areas. b. mix alcohol with the fuel.
b. prevent ice formation in engine and/or inlet areas. c. electrically heat the venturi and throttle valve.
c. remove ice from engine and/or inlet areas and 42.The purpose of a sonic venturi on a turbocharged engine is
prevent ice formationin engine and/or inlet areas. to
31.Boost manifold pressure is generally considered to be any a. limit the amount of air that can flow from the
manifold pressure above turbocharger into the cabin for pressurization.
a. 14.7 inches Hg. b. increase the amount of air that can flow from the
b. 50 inches Hg. turbocharger into the cabin for pressurization.
c. 30 inches Hg. c. increase the velocity of the fuel/air charge.
32. A carburetor air pre-heater is not generally used 43.Vortex dissipator systems are generally activated by
on takeoff unless absolutely necessary because of the a. a landing gear switch.
a. loss of power and possible detonation. b. a fuel pressure switch anytime an engine is
b. possibility of induction system overboost. operating.
c. inability of the engine to supply enough heat to make c. an engine inlet airflow sensor.
a significant difference.
33.During full power output of an unsupercharged
engine equipped with a float-type carburetor, in which of
the following areas will the highest pressure exist?
a. Venturi.
b. Intake manifold.
c. Carburetor air scoop.
34.What is the purpose of the density controller in
a turbocharger system?
a. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
produced at
other than full throttle conditions.
b. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
produced by the
turbocharger at full throttle.
c. Maintains constant air velocity at the carburetor
inlet.
35. What is the purpose of the rate-of-change controller in a
turbocharger system?
a. Limits the maximum manifold pressure that can be
produced by the turbocharger at full throttle
conditions.
b. Controls the rate at which the turbocharger discharge
pressure will increase.
c. Controls the position of the waste gate after the
aircraft has reached its critical altitude.
36. What directly regulates the speed of a turbocharger?
a. Turbine.
b. Waste gate.
c. Throttle.
37. The absolute pressure controller on some small engines
is designed to sense oil pressure which flows through the
waste gate actuator and then
through the controllers on the turbocharger system the
pressure between the turbocharger and the throttle valve is
called
a. turbocharger boost pressure.
b. induction manifold pressure.
c. upper deck pressure.