4.

Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol yang terkait
(Operate main andauxiliary machineryand associatedcontrol systems)

1. A ship has a medium speed engine and a controllable pitch propeller propulsion
system. What would the propeller pitch normally have to be at to allow starting
of the engine?
A. Zero
B. 25 % ahead
C. 10 % ahead
D. 25 % astern

2. After water-washing the turbocharger exhaust side it starts to vibrate even though
it was operating normally prior to the washing procedure. What is the most likely
cause of this problem?
A. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not
properly cleaned
B. Water drain for washing system is blocked allowing water
to build up in the turbine casing.
C. The foundation bolts for the turbocharger are loose.
D. The turbocharger bearings are worn out.

3. Choose the option which most accurately completes the following statement. The
expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a
positive head on the system and also to……
A. Allow for changes in water volume due to temperature
variation (expansion)
B. Reduce the water temperature
C. Reduce the water turbulence
D. Provide an air cushion
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4. How is the effective delivery stroke of a helix type fuel pump for a diesel engine
controlled to increase or decrease the quantity of fuel delivered?
A. Rotation of the plunger by the fuel rack from the governor
signal.
B. The fuel rail pressure relief valve setting.
C. The fuel injector setting.
D. The fuel booster pump delivery pressure.

5. How is the temperature of the high temperature circuit of a central cooling

system normally controlled?
A. By mixing with water from the low temperature circuit.
B. By controlling the bypass of flow for the central coolers.
C. By increasing the flow rate through the main engine
cooling circuit
D. By controlling the flow through the fresh water evaporator
heating circuit.

6. In a diesel engine lubrication system the circulating pump normally takes suction
from the oil sump tank. Where would the oil normally pass to directly after the
pump?
A. Lube oil cooler.
B. Main thrust bearing.
C. The engine bearings.
D. The lub oil purifier.

7. The exhaust gas temperatures of all cylinders of a diesel engine are seen to be
high. Select, from the options given, the most likely cause of this.
A. Poor fuel oil quality.
B. High wear rate in one of the fuel injection pumps.
C. One of the fuel cams is worn.
D. Insufficient cooling of the main bearings.
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8. The level in a diesel engine lubricating oil sump has increased noticably during
operation without any new oil being added. What action would you take?
A. Stop the engine and check for a fuel or water leak.
B. Continue normal operation.
C. Drain some oil from the engine to reduce the level.
D. Reduce the engine load and check for a fuel or water leak.

9. The lubricating oil in the bearing housing at the turbine end of a turbocharger
gets very dirty after only a few hours in service. What is the most likely reason
for this happening?
A. Damaged rotor shaft sealing bushes allowing exhaust gas
to leak into the bearing housing.
B. The wrong type of lubricating oil has been used.
C. The lubricating oil filling connection screw cap is missing.
D. The turbine end bearing is badly worn.

10. The main engine turbocharger speed has increased during the night while
operating in UMS mode. From the options given, what is the most likely cause of
this?
A. The engine load has increased due to external factors such
as current and wind.
B. The engine is operating on a different grade of fuel.
C. The engine load has reduced due to external factors such
as current and wind.
D. The governor signal has been overridden by the bridge.

11. What could be the most likely reason for an increase in the viscosity of a diesel
engine lubricating oil during operation?
A. Fuel oil leakage into the lub oil system.
B. Worn bearing shells.
C. Water-leakage into the lub oil system.
D. Increased lub oil temperature.
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12. What could cause diesel engine lubricating oil to appear cloudy with a slightly
"milky" colour?
A. Water contamination of the
system.
B. Fuel contamination of the system.
C. High temperature of the oil.
D. Oxidation of the oil.

13. What is likely to be the cause of black smoke from a diesel engine exhaust seen
at the funnel?
A. Incomplete combustion of the fuel.
B. Too much combustion air.
C. Water in the fuel.
D. Engine is burning some lubricating oil.

14. What is the purpose of an oil mist detector, OMD, as fitted to a diesel engine?
A. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown of any
potentially explosive atmosphere in the crankcase.
B. To check the efficiency of the crankcase extractor fan.
C. To detect scavenge air leakages from the piston rod
stuffing box.
D. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown in the event of
a crankcase explosion.

15. What is the purpose of diesel engine cylinder head safety valve?
A. To indicate and relieve excessive high pressure in the
cylinder to protect the engine frombeing damaged.
B. To allow adjustment of the cylinder pressure to a safe
working pressure.
C. To shut down the engine in the event of an unsafe
operating condition.
D. To shut off the fuel to a the cylinder in the event of a high
pressure fuel pipe leak.
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16. What is the recommended range for the pH-value for the water in a diesel engine
cooling system engine cooling water be maintained?
A. Between 7 and 10.
B. Between 5 and 7.
C. Above 10
D. Below 5.

17. What would be the most probable cause of light, smoky exhaust from a diesel
engine?
A. Water carry over from charge air cooler to engine
cylinders.
B. Fouling of the charge air cooler.
C. Air in the fuel oil system.
D. The engine is overloaded.

18. What would be the most probable cause of the exhaust gas temperature from one
cylinder of a diesel engine being lower than normal?
A. The opening pressure for the injection valve for
the cylinder is set too high.
B. There is air in the fuel oil system.
C. The intake filter for turbo charger is partly fouled.
D. The camshaft chain is too slack.

19. When should adjustments to the fuel injection valve spring tension be made?
A. Only on the fuel injection valve test rig.
B. During engine operation when cylinder exhaust
temperatures need to be balanced.
C. During engine operation when cylinder maximum
pressures need to be balanced.
D. During engine operation when fuel timing to individual
cylinders needs to be adjusted.
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20. Which of the following options would be the cause of a low exhaust temperature
in one cylinder of a diesel engine?
A. Faulty fuel injection valve.
B. Faulty turbocharger.
C. Poor quality fuel.
D. Charge air cooler fouled on air side.

21. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?

A. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
B. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers.
C. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder
cover.
D. The piston always has a short skirt.

22. Which would be the most suitable point in the system to obtain a representative
of diesel engine lubricating oil for analysis?
A. From the lubricating system pipeline on the discharge side
of the circulating pump.
B. From the lubricating oil filter drain. C.
From the lubricating oil cooler drain. D.
From the lubricating oil purifier outlet.

23. Why are duplex filters usually employed in the lubricating oil system of an
auxiliary diesel engine?
A. Changing of the filter element can be carried out without
interrupting engine operation.
B. It gives better filtration of the oil.
C. The pressure drop is half that of a single filter unit.
D. Filter blockage will not occur.
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24. Why is it necessary to have routine testing of diesel engine cooling water
systems?
A. To ensure that the recommended levels of treatment
chemicals are maintained at all times.
B. To detect water leakage from the system.
C. It is not really necessary to test diesel engine cooling water
systems.
D. To check for oil contamination of the system.

25. With reference to diesel engine ancillary system operation, which one of the
given statements is true?
A. The normal jacket water temperature before the jacket
water cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C.
B. The normal scavenge air temperature after the charge air
cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C.
C. The normal temperature of the lubricating oil before the
lub oil cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C.
D. The normal temperature of heavy fuel oil after the fuel oil
heater is approximately 80 to 90 C.

26. With reference to non-VIT diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps that have helix
control, how is the timing of fuel injection normally adjusted?
A. By raising or lowering the pump plunger relative to the
pump barrel.
B. By rotating the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel.
C. By changing the governor output signal.
D. By changing the opening pressure setting for the fuel
injection valves.
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27. In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic circuit, which of the alternatives does
the following symbol indicate?
A. Double check valve.
B. Throttle valve.
C. Pressure relief valve.
D. Directional control valve.

28. A piston ring set for a trunk piston engine often includes a slotted ring tensioned
by an internal spring. What is the purpose of this type of piston ring?
A. It is an oil control ring.
B. It is the lowest compression ring.
C. It is a ring to seal the crankcase from the combustion
chamber.
D. It is the firing ring.

29. During the cycle of a four stroke diesel engine there is a load reversal on the
bottom end bearing when the load transfers from the upper part of the bearing to
the lower part. What is the main cause of this load reversal on a modern,
turbocharged, medium speed diesel engine?
A. The lack of gas load to oppose the inertial forces generated
during the exhaust stroke.
B. The suction effect on the piston during the air intake
(induction) stroke.
C. The inertial forces generated during the upward strokes of
the piston (compression and exhaust strokes).
D. The light alloy materials used for the piston skirt.
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30. During the normal operating cycle of a diesel engine there are side thrusts
generated by the piston as it moves up and down the cylinder due to the changing
angle of the connecting rod. How are these side thrusts accommodated in a trunk
piston engine?
A. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston skirt in way of the gudgeon pin.
B. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston rings.
C. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the
engine frame by the piston crown.
D. The side thrust is transmitted to the engine frame by the
crosshead bearing.

31. Many modern medium and high speed diesel engines operate at very high power
ratings resulting in relatively high bearing loads. In order to accommodate these
loads the bearings are required to have a high load carrying capacity. What kind
of bearings are normally used for main and bottom end purposes to achieve this?
A. Thin steel shells lined with aluminium tin alloys.
B. Thick white metal types with the white metal cast into the
keeps to give extra fatigue strength.
C. Thin steel shells with a thin white metal lining.
D. Thin steel shells with a copper lead lining and a running in
overlay.
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32. Some main propulsion medium speed engine installations operate with a
hydraulic oil type fluid coupling between the engine and the reduction gearbox
instead of a mechanical clutch. With this type of installation a separate flexible
coupling is not normally fitted. Why is a separate flexible coupling usually
omitted from this type of installation?
A. The hydraulic fluid in the coupling isolates the gearbox
from the engine vibrations.
B. There is insufficient room to fit a flexible coupling
between the engine and gearbox when a fluid coupling is
fitted.
C. There is natural slippage between the drive and driven
parts of the fluid coupling and a flexible coupling would
prevent this slippage.
D. There are no engine torque variations in the drive when a
fluid coupling is used so a flexible coupling is not
required.

33. The majority of medium speed main propulsion installations incorporate a

reduction gearbox between the engine and the propeller shaft. Why is this
arrangement usually required?
A. So that the propeller operates in a relatively efficient speed
range.
B. So that the engine can be more easily reversed.
C. So that the engine can be coupled to a controllable pitch
propeller.
D. So that the engine can also drive a shaft alternator.

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34. The peak pressure (maximum cylinder pressure) is often taken as an indicator of
medium speed engine performance along with other parameters. What would be
a typical peak pressure for a modern, highly rated, medium speed diesel engine?
A. 140 to 180 bar
B. 80 to 100 bar
C. 14 to 18 bar
D. 10 to 12 bar

35. The Total Base Number (TBN) is important as a measure of neutralizing ability
of a diesel engine lubricating oil against strong acids formed during combustion.
What action should be taken if the results from an oil analysis show that the TBN
of the lubricating oil has reduced slightly?
A. Freshen up the system by draining of some of the oil and
adding a quantity of fresh oil.
B. Purify the system oil in a centrifuge.
C. Take another lub oil sample and send it for analysis.
D. Pump the oil to a renovating tank and allow any
contaminants to settle out and refill the system with new
oil.

36. What is the reason for fitting 'Rotocaps' to the cylinder head valves of some 4-
stroke diesel engines?
A. To extend the service life of the valves by giving even heat
and wear distribution.
B. To rotate the inlet valves during operation to improve air
turbulence in the cylinder.
C. To help clear the cylinder of exhaust gas by spinning the
exhaust valves during opening.
D. To prevent seizure of the cylinder head valves by keeping
the valve spindles clean.

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37. When operating a propulsion installation consisting of medium speed diesel

engines driving a controllable pitch propeller it is possible to operate the
combination of engine speed and propeller pitch in a number of different ways.
What would be the main reason for operating with constant speed and variable
pitch?
A. To allow constant speed operation of a shaft generator
while the engine load changes with pitch variation.
B. To obtain maximum propeller efficiency over the load
range of the engine.
C. To allow the engine to be operated with a load sensing
governor instead of a speed sensing governor.
D. To allow rapid load change and thrust reversal when
manoeuvring.

38. Which of the given statements is true in relation to the features and operation of a
4 stroke diesel engine ?
A. The camshaft rotates with half the RPM of the crankshaft
in a 4 stroke engine.
B. A 4 stroke engine has an ignition towards the end of every
upward stroke of the piston.
C. A 4 stroke engine always has scavenge ports near the
bottom of the cylinder liner.
D. 4 stroke engines are not required to have crankcase relief
valves fitted.

39. Which symptoms would indicate piston blow-by when operating a 4 stroke trunk
piston type engine ?
A. Increased pressure in the crankcase and smoke at the
crankcase vent.
B. Increased pressure in the air inlet manifold.
C. Increased temperature in the inlet air manifold on the
engine.
D. Smoke and sparks from the scavenge manifold drains.

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40. A slow speed diesel engine is fitted with a slow turning facility. How would the
slow turning normally be set to operate?
A. It should automatically operate before the normal
start sequence following an engine stopped period
of more than 20 to 30 minutes when manoeuvring.
B. It should automatically operate before every normal
start sequence.
C. It should automatically operate every 20 minutes when the engine is stopped
during manoeuvring.
D. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an
engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes.

41. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an
engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes. In the event of a severe scavenge
fire, which of the following is most likely to be seriously damaged?
A. Piston rod and stuffing box.
B. Exhaust valve.
C. Piston crown.
D. Crosshead bearing.

42. Large slow speed diesel engines are usually of the crosshead type and have
various arrangements to deliver lubricating oil directly to the crosshead bearings
and guides to ensure adequate lubrication. Why are the crosshead bearings
considered differently to the other bearing in this type of engine in respect of
lubrication requirements?
A. The running surfaces oscillate relative to each other
during operation rather than rotate and therefore full
film hydrodynamic lubrication is not possible.
B. The lubricating oil has further to travel to the crosshead bearing and so a
separate arrangement is necessary
C. The crosshead bearing is more heavily loaded than other bearings in the
engine so requires more oil to keep it cool.

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 D. The crosshead bearing is closer to the engine cylinder and therefore runs
hotter.DPKP

43. Many large 2 stroke marine diesel engines are equipped with an auxiliary
scavenge air blower. What is the purpose of this equipment?
A. To provide combustion air at start up, during manouevring
and low load running when the turbocharger delivery is
insufficient.
B. To assist the main turbochargers in supplying combustion
air when on full load.
C. To allow full load running when the main turbocharger is
defective..
D. To help cool the engine after it has been stopped.

44. Many large slow speed diesel engines operating on heavy fuel oil have a fuel
injection system which features Variable Injection Timing. How does this affect
engine operation?
A. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically
maintaining the maximum cylinder pressure over
part of the load range.
B. VIT improves engine operation by automatically controlling the start of fuel
injection when it detects a poor quality fuel.
C. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the maximum
cylinder pressure over the entire load range.
D. VIT allows the ship's engineers to alter the injection timing for each load
setting with a simple single adjustment of the fuel rack.

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45. any modern large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion operate
with a so called constant pressure turbocharging system. What is meant by
constant pressure when used to describe such a turbocharging system?
A. Pressure variations at the turbocharger inlet are
damped out due to the large volume of the exhaust
receiver and the short lengths of pipe from
individual cylinders.
B. Pressure variations in the scavenge air supply are avoided by supplementing
the air supply with air from the auxiliary blowers so keeping a constant
pressure across the load and speed range.
C. The exhaust pipes from groups of three cylinders are joined together before
entry into the turbocharger so that the exhaust pulses from each cylinder
cancel each other giving a constant inlet pressure.
D. The exhaust gas pressure is maintained constant by using a bypass waste gate
to dump excess pressure at high engine loads.

46. Modern large slow speed diesel engines operate with very efficient
turbochargers. This has resulted in much later opening of the exhaust valve as
less energy is needed to drive the turbocharger giving exhaust timing which is
almost symmetrical about bottom dead centre. How has this affected the
reversing operation of the engines?
A. Only the fuel and starting air timing needs to be
changed to reverse the engine.
B. It has no effect and the reversing requirements of
the engine are still the same.
C. The engine can be reversed by simply repositioning the main camshaft.
D. Only the air start distributor has to be repositioned prior to reversing the
engine.

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47. Modern slow speed, two stroke diesel engines often have locating pins or pegs to
keep the piston rings in a fixed position. Why is this arrangement used?
A. It avoids the risk of the ends of the piston rings
being forced out by the gas pressure and catching
on the scavenge ports.
B. The piston rings are more difficult to lubricate
because of the slow operating speeds and will wear
more quickly if they are allowed to rotate.
C. The piston ring gaps can be kept in line to control the gas pressure on each of
the rings.
D. It ensures the rings cannot be mixed up and that they are fitted in the correct
order on the piston.

48. The majority of large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion
purposes are direct drive to a fixed pitch propeller? What is the main reason for
this arrangement?
A. A fixed pitch propeller can operate with reasonable
efficiency at the same sort of speed as the engine.
B. Controllable pitch propellers cannot be used with
large slow speed diesel engines which can be
reversed.
C. The amount of power that needs to be transmitted would overload a gearbox.
D. There is usually only one engine sin this arrangement and so clutches are not
required.

49. What is one of the main features of the cylinder lubricating oil used in large 2
stroke marine diesel engines which normally operate on heavy fuel oil?
A. It is strongly alkaline.
B. It is strongly acidic.
C. It is neutral with a pH value of 7.
D. It is a pure mineral oil without any special additives.

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50. What is the main reason for sometimes having a separate forced lubrication
system for the camshaft on large cross head engines?
A. To prevent any fuel leakage from the high pressure
fuel pumps contaminating the oil in the main
lubrication system.
B. Because the camshaft system uses a different grade
oil from that used in the main lubrication system.
C. To prevent the camshaft system being contaminated with any water leaking
into the main lubrication system from faulty cylinder liner seals.
D. Because the camshaft lubrication system has a lower pressure than the main
lubrication system.

51. Why is it important to check the timing of diesel engine cylinder oil lubricators?
A. To ensure cylinder lubricating oil enters the
cylinders when the piston is in the required position.
B. To ensure the correct amount of cylinder lubricating
oil is fed into the cylinders.
C. To avoid excess pressure in the cylinder lubrication system.
D. To ensure the piston is not covering the lubrication points and blocking the
flow of cylinder lubricating oil into the cylinder.

52. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be
50 ppm. What action should be taken if any?
A. No action is necessary.
B. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of
treatment chemicals.
D. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before
filling with fresh feed water.

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53. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double
shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve.
What is the main function of the non-return valve?
A. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from
discharging out through the feed line if the feed line
fractures or a joint in the line blows.
B. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is shut
and the boiler is steaming.
C. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump..
D. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.

54. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most
accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers.
A. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally
contain less water than fire tube boilers. They are
prone to major damage when run dry during
operation.
B. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam
pressure.
C. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water when
the burner is operating.
D. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater line.

55. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
A. Every day.
B. Every week.
C. Every hour.
D. Every hour.

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56. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm.
What action should be taken?
A. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for
leakage.
B. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals.
C. Increase feed water temperature.
D. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.

57. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most
beneficial?
A. When the boiler is firing on high rate.
B. When the boiler burner is off.
C. When the boiler is firing on low rate.
D. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.

58. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9?
A. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment
chemicals until the pH value is back within normal
range.
B. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good
feedwater.
C. No action is required.
D. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH is back
within normal range.

59. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the pH-value in
the boiler water is slightly over 11.5?
A. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of
boiler water treatment chemicals.
B. No action is required this is the normal level.
C. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of
boiler water treatment chemicals.

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 D. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute
the contents.DPKP

60. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler
water?
A. Conductivity test.
B. Alkalinity test.
C. Chloride test.
D. pH test

61. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam
boiler?
A. 9 - 11.
B. 4.5 - 7.
C. Below 4.5
D. 7 – 9

62. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
A. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces
with the risk of overheating.
B. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler.
C. It increases scale deposits in the boiler.
D. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator from
seeing the water level.

63. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
A. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from
the feed water.
B. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment.
C. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water.
D. To act as the primary feed heater.

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64. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam
boiler?
A. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater
when raising steam pressure or when the boiler is
not on-line.
B. To remove air from the superheater.
C. To remove water from the superheater.
D. To control the superheater pressure during operation.

65. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based
compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out?
A. It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the
boiler.
B. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in
the boiler.
C. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler.
D. No negative effects are likely.

66. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
A. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which
collect on the surface of the water in the boiler
steam drum.
B. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feed-
water
C. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may
collect in the bottom of the boiler water drum.
D. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.

67. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
A. To heat the feed-water
B. To desuperheat the steam
C. To heat the fuel oil
D. To heat the combustion air.

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68. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace?
A. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect
tubes and other fittings from overheating.
B. To give added strength to the furnace.
C. To support the steam drum.
D. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.

69. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit
of oil or gas fired steam boilers?
A. To check that the flame is present during start up or
normal operation of the burner; if not then fuel is
shut off automatically.
B. To check the colour of the flame.
C. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler.
D. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.

70. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water
tests?
A. At room temperature.
B. As hot as possible.
C. It makes no difference.
D. At less than room temperature.

71. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing
condensate to build up in the heat exchanger?
A. Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
B. An increase in fuel oil temperature.
C. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger.
D. Low water level in the boiler.

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72. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
A. From the boiler water space.
B. From the boiler steam space.
C. From the boiler feed system.
D. From the blowdown line.

73. Which part is the spindle house ?

A. Number 4
B. Number 1
C. Number 2
D. Number 3

74. Which part is the exhaust gas receiver ?

A. Number 8
B. Number 7
C. Number 6
D. Number 1

75. Which part is the exhaust valve ?

A. Number 1
B. Number 2
C. Number 4
D. Number 6

76. What is part number 3 ?

A. The air chamber
B. The combustion center
C. The piston glider
D. The combustion chamber

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77. What is part number 5 ?

A. The air cooler
B. The air filter
C. The air receiver
D. The scavenging air box

78. What is part number 8 called ?

A. The cooler inlet

B. The air filter
C. The air box
D. The air cooler

79. Which part is the turbine wheel ?

A. Number 4
B. Number 8
C. Number 7
D. Number 9

80. Which part is the auxiliary fan ?

A. Number 10
B. Number 7
C. Number 9
D. Number 6

81. That is part number 11 ?

A. The blower
B. The turbine outlet
C. The turbine wheel
D. The blower ring

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82. The turbine wheel number 9 is made to rotate by:

A. pressured air supplied by blower number 10
B. exhausts coming from the combustion chamber
C. any of the above
D. inlet air coming from the inlet filter

83. What liquid is used to clean the turbo charger of a large low speed main engine?
(high speed air side, half speed gas side)
A. Oil
B. A chemical mixture of oil and water
C. A chemical mixture of acid and water
D. Water

84. The force tending to twist the material such as the force on a shaft is called:
A. tensile stress.
B. torsional stress.
C. bending stress.
D. compressive stress.

85. What is the purpose of counterbore in a cylinder ?

A. To prevent the piston ring from wearing a shoulder in the cylinder
B. To facilitate piston overhaul
C. To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface
D. To have good an effective combustion

86. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing in a current of air which provides
clean air for the next compression stroke is called ……….
A. cycle.
B. scavenging.
C. expansion.
D. compression.

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87. The last stroke of two-stroke diesel engine is called the ………
A. air stroke.
B. compression stroke.
C. power stroke.
D. ignition stroke.

88. If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can
happen ?
A. Condensation of sulphuric acid
on the cylinder walls
B. The fuel pumps may be clogged
C. Condensation of lubricating oil
on the cylinder walls
D. The engine cannot be started again

89. If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can
happen ?
A. The blower will slow down
B. A less effective lubricating oil film is formed
on the cylinder walls
C. The expansion tank will be emptied
D. Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will
create black exhaust smoke

90. Which mode of automatic temperature control is used for this Jacket Cooling
Water system ?
A. Keeping outlet temperature constant by
regulating on the outlet
B. Keeping outlet temperature constant by
regulating on the inlet
C. Keeping inlet temperature constant by
regulating on the inlet
D. Keeping inlet temperature constant by regulating on the outlet

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91. What is item "J “ ?

A. The Piston Cooling Water Pump
B. The Sea Water Cooling Pump
C. A Water Strainer
D. The Jacket Cooling Water Pump

92. What kind of Jacket Cooling water system is shown here ?

A. A forced circuit
B. None of the above
C. A free closed circuit
D. An open circuit

93. What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic
pipes in this water flow system ?

A. The air cushion in the buffer tank

B. The construction of the buffer tank
C. The up and downward movement of the indicating flaps
D. The expansion tank

94. If the system pressure is 3.5 kglcm2, what will be the pressure in the buffer
vessels ?
A. Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2
B. Lower than 3.5 kg/cm2.
C. Exactly the same, 3.5kg/cm2
D. Higher than 3.5 kg/cm2.

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95. Why there an indicating flap 'IF" (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted
on the outlet of the piston water buffer tank ?
A. To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order.
B. To indicate if the pump mis-running
C. To indicate that the engine is running
D. To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.

96. What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or
stops ?
A. The level will at first decrease but increases again.
B. Nothing will happen
C. The level will increase
D. The level will decrease.

97. How are the crosshead bearings supplied with lubricating oil ?

A. Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod
B. Direct from the lub oil main line
C. Independently
D. From the camshaft lub oil line

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98. How is the gear train lubricated ?

A. Via the crankshaft

B. Via the camshaft system
C. Direct from the common lub oil circuit
D. By its own independent lub oil circuit

99. Flow is the thrust bearing lubricated ?

A. Via the camshaft

B. By its own independent supply system
C. Via the crankshaft
D. Direct via the main lub oil line

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100. Which of the following components is NOT directly lubricated by the lubricating
inlet supply line ?

A. The gear train

B. The trust bearing
C. The crosshead
D. The main bearings

101. What is the function of the value PR close to the lubrication oil pump ?

A. To keep the oil temperature constant

B. To absorb pump vibrations
C. To keep the oil pressure constant
D. To act as a high pressure safety valve

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102. What type of pump is the pump “P" ?

A. A vane pump
B. A gear or worm wheel pump
C. A piston pump
D. A centrifugal pump

103. What type of scavenge air system is applied to this diesel engine ?

A. Compounded scavenging
B. None of the above
C. Uniflow scavenging
D. Loop scavenging

104. When does the exhaust valve 'EV" open ?

A. None of the above

B. When the piston moves upward
C. At the end of the working stroke
D. When the piston is at bottom dead
point

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105. Which type of exhaust manifold feeds this turbocharger ?

A. Split type
B. Booster type
C. Impulse type
D. Constant pressure type

106. What is the function of drain valve “D" ?

A. To drain hydrocarbons and avoid explosion

B. To drain the oil from the manifold
C. To release the air when the engine is stopped
D. To drain the moisture from the manifold

107. Which thermometer always indicates the highest temperature in the

turbocharger?

A. TE6
B. TE
C. TE1
D. TEB

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108. What do you think would be a reasonable scavenge air pressure for this engine
running at full speed?
A. 7.0 kg/cm2
B. 25 kg/cm2
C. 1.25 kg/cm2
D. 0.25 kg/cm2

109. What might be a reasonable value for the scavenge air temperature of this diesel
running at full speed ?
A. 45 degrees C
B. 420 degrees C
C. 75 degrees C
D. 28 degrees C

110. Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the air entering the exhaust
gas turbocharger “EGT" ?

A. Under high pressure

B. Under a vacuum
C. Under atmospheric pressure
D. Under slight overpressure

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111. In what part shown on this scavenge air schematic diagram is heat converted into
mechanical power?

A. In the main engine

B. In part 2, the turboblower
C. In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine
D. In part 5, the scavenge air blower

112. The scavenge air compressed in the turboblower is cooled down in the scavenge
air cooler (item 3) under…….

A. constant pressure (Isobaric condition)

B. constant volume (Isochoric condition)
C. isothermic condition
D. adiabatic condition

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113. In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power
converted to thermal power ?

A. In the exhaust gas boiler

B. In the main engine
C. In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1)
D. In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5)

114. In an “impulse type" exhaust gas turbocharger, the exhaust gases of the main
engine ………?

A. are led to two or three sections of the exhaust gas manifold

B. are entering into a spacious exhaust gas manifold
C. are driving only one single turbocharger
D. are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger

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115. On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted ?

A. On the turbo blower

B. On the exhaust gas boiler
C. On the scavenge air manifold
D. On the scavenge air blower

116. Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be
lowered below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated
above this value ?

A. To avoid condensate and water entering the engine

B. To avoid misfiring and starting problems
C. To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner
D. To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel

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117. In a constant pressure type turbocharger the exhaust gas enters the turbo charger
via …………..?

A. a separate manifold for each turbocharger

B. the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold
C. the grids of two or more exhaust piping groups
D. nozzles on each individual exhaust pipe

118. For a turbo charger is running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump
temperature on the turbine side ?

A. 45 to 50 degrees C
B. 72 to 82 degrees C
C. 35 to 45 degrees C
D. 55 to 65 degrees C

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119. When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, for
example +4, this means that……

A. the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm

B. the main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other
C. the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre
D. the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm

120. What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection
readings ?

A. Condition of ballast tanks and temperature of engine

B. Bedplate alignment and condition of after peak
C. Ballast tank condition and bedplate alignment
D. bearing wear and bedplate alignment

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121. What are the steps to be taken, in what order, to stabilise the governor of a diesel
engine after overhaul ?
A. Set integrating to MAX. than adjust speed P and differential D
B. Adjust speed P, then integrate, next differentiating, from 0
C. Integrating and differentiating MAX, set speed from 0 upwards
D. Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MIN, adjust speed upward

122. What is the purpose of a safety valve fitted in the cylinder cover of a diesel
engine ?
A. To release gas from the cylinder by operating
turning gear
B. To open in port so the engine cannot be started
C. To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder
D. To drain off water and condensate from the
cylinder

123. What force makes a safety value of a diesel engine open ?

A. The exhaust gas pressure
B. The starting air pressure admitted in the cylinder
C. The fuel pressure to the cylinder head
D. The pressure inside the combustion space

124. At which moment exactly does the safety value of a diesel engine opens ?
A. When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the
spring pressure
B. When fuel was retained previously in the cylinder
C. When too much starting air is admitted
D. At top dead point of the cylinder by max firing
pressure

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125. In which stage of its working process is this two-stroke diesel engine ?
A. Gas expanding
B. Compressing
C. Scavenging
D. Firing

126. What type of engine is shown here ?

A. A two stroke diesel with piston underside scavenging
B. A two stroke diesel with spiral scavenging
C. A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging
D. A two stroke diesel with loop scavenging

127. If you are taking crankshaft deflections, for which position will you list the
reading which was last taken if the engine turns counterclockwise ? Right is PS,
left is SB.
A. Zero
B. S
C. P
D. TS

128. What is the structural lay-out of this diesel engine ?

A. Separate bedplate, columns, cylinder block for each cylinder
B. Foundation, one-piece motor block
C. Separate bedplate, one part crankcase and cylinder block
D. One unit foundation and bedplate, separate cylinder block

129. From which type of diesel engine is this running gear ?

A. A four stroke air cooled diesel engine
B. A two stroke crosshead type diesel engine
C. A four stroke oil cooled piston diesel engine
D. A two stroke trunk type diesel engine

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130. A piston of this type is composed of the following main parts:

A. piston body, piston flange, piston crown
B. piston crown, piston body, piston rings
C. piston crown, piston rod, piston skirt,
intermediate piece
D. piston, piston rings, telescopic piping

131. What would you call the assembly fitted on the piston rod, which fits into a
flange on top of the crankcase block opening through which the piston rod moues
in order to secure tightness ?
A. The piston rod stuffing box
B. The crankcase sealing assembly
C. The piston underside values
D. The scavenging air value box

132. During normal operation, the telescopic piping of this diesel engine's piston are
sliding up and down into ……..
A. compressed air vessels.
B. telescopic buffer vessels.
C. piston cooling water piping.
D. the crankcase cooling space.

133. What should you inspect and measure on the piston crown, when overhauling
this main engine piston ?
A. The scavenge and exhaust ports, the piston/ring
grooves
B. Cylinder liner wear, ring groove clearance,
piston rod ovality
C. The rubbing bands, the oil and the carbon,
stuffing box
D. Ovality, burning marks and pitting, piston ring/groove clearance

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134. What is the purpose of the starting value fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel
engine ?
A. To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder
directly
B. To block the fuel and air supply unless in “START"
position
C. To allow starting air of 25 kg/cm2 into the cylinder if
applicable
D. To activate the main air starting value fitted on the engine

135. At what moment will the cylinder head starting air valve, shown here, open and
allow 25 kg/cm2 to flow into the cylinder ?
A. When the control air on top is vented by the starting cam
B. When control air is supplied to the top connection
C. When the main starting air is opened from the bottle
D. When 25 kg/cm2 air is supplied on top by manoeuvring

136. How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (moved by control air pressure and
spring) ensured in starting air values of this type ?
A. Teflon seats are fitted
B. Labyrinth seals are fitted
C. O-ring seals are fitted
D. Piston rings are fitted

137. What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out on the main engine prior to
manoeuvering with regard to the starting air system ?
A. See that the cy starting valve is moving by air hose
connection
B. Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spann
C. Open up the main and cylinder head starting valve and
clean pistons
D. Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain
moisture

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138. How are starting air values made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel
engines?
A. They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed
B. A copper gasket is fitted
C. By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied.
D. Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted

139. What kind of scavenging is shown on the top left drawing ?

A. Cross scavenging
B. Transversal scavenging
C. Loop scavenging
D. Single valve uniflow

140. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top centre drawing ?

A. Cross scavenging
B. Four-way uniflow
C. Transversal
D. Loop scavenging

141. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top right drawing ?

A. Loop scavenging
B. Traverse scavenging
C. Uniflow scavenging
D. Cross scavenging

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142. What kind of scavenging system is shown on the bottom left drawing ?
A. Loop scavenging
B. Cross scavenging
C. Transverse scavenging
D. Uniflow scavenging

143. What kind of scavenge air system is shown on the right bottom drawing ?
A. Uniflow scavenging
B. Loop scavenging
C. Balanced scavenging
D. Cross scavenging

144. Loop scavenging, cross scavenging and traverse scavenging are called …………
scavenging, as opposed to UNIFLOW scavenging.
A. REVERSE FLOW
B. INVERSE FLOW
C. MULTIFLOW
D. DIVERSE FLOW

145. How is it ensured that the flow of the scavenge air is directed symmetrically
through the cylinder ?
A. By the uniflow system
B. By the reverse system
C. By the scavenge port shape
D. By the turbocharger

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146. What common name is given for this type of fuel pump ?
A. Bosh type fuel pump
B. Rotating plunger type fuel pump
C. Plunger type fuel pump
D. M.A.N. type fuel pump

147. What determines the amount of fuel pumped per stroke with this fuel pump ?
A. The setting of suction and overflow valve
B. The lifting height of the plunger
C. The setting of the overflow valve
D. The rotating angle of the plunger in the
barrel

148. How is the timing adjusted on this type fuel pump ?

A. By the fuel cam setting
B. By the plunger rotation
C. By the suction valve setting
D. By the delivery valve setting

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149. The fuel delivery pipe between fuel pump and injector, is shown here as a red
interrupted line. For "UMS " classed vessel, how is this pipe best described ?
A. It is manufactured of high tensile
steel and has to have thermal
insulation fitted
B. It needs to be a shielded pipe so
that in case of rupture the fuel
leakage can be contained and the
alarm sounded
C. It is manufactured from Austenit Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted
in the vicinity
D. It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts out
in case of rupture

150. What is the mechanism that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector
and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder ?
A. The balance pressure obtained
by the injector spring
B. The mechanical force of the fuel
cam
C. The hydraulic pressure in the
fuel line
D. The lifting pressure of the pump
plunger

151. If you want to obtain a higher lift-off pressure in the injector, you can…….
A. tension the fuel pump spring more.
B. tension the injector spring more.
C. adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.
D. adjust the fuel oil cam to retard.

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152. The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is ……..

A. a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller.

B. an auxiliary engine fuelled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator.
C. main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller.
D. an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.

153. The upward movement caused by the fuel cam is transferred to the plunger via
the ………… on the pump.
A. barrel
B. plunger spring
C. roller
D. cam lever

154. The injector seen in the drawing is best described as …. type injector.
A. forced circulation
B. a heavy fuel oil
C. a diesel oil
D. a water cooled

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155. The end of the pumping action of this fuel pump is determined by the position of
the………
A. fuel cam
B. suction valve
C. overflow valve
D. pipe plunger

156. As an engine runs the position of the crankshaft changes constantly with respect
to the engine bedplate. Distortions need to be measured and are called ……..

A. crankshaft distortion readings.

B. crankshaft misalignment calibrations.
C. crankshaft deflection measurements..
D. Any of these answers.

157. What is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head known as when the
piston is at bottom dead center ?
A. Any of these
B. The stroke
C. The compression clearance
D. The combustion clearance

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158. In an engine operation, what is the effect called that describes the unstable
operation of the governor that will not maintain a steady state condition ?
A. Stability
B. Sensitivity
C. Deadbeat
D. Hunting

159. In a diesel engine using a constant stroke fuel pump, to increase the firing
pressure or maximum pressure in the cylinder the fuel pump plunger is adjusted
by..
A. changing plungers.
B. lowering the plunger.
C. lifting the plunger.
D. cleaning and lubricating the plunger.

160. When a new cylinder liner is fitted to a 2-stroke engine, which of the following
steps should be taken ? I. Increase the cylinder oil flow. II. Reduce the cylinder
load. III. Reduce the oil flow.
A. I, II and lII
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III

161. When checking the tightness of nuts and bolts during a the quickest and most
effective method is……
A. checking the tightness using torque spanners.
B. checking the stress on the locking plates or split pins.
C. checking bold clearances with feeler gauges.
D. tapping the nuts and bolts with a hammer.

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162. If you get a heavy scavenging air fire, which of these parts is likely to take the
most serious damage?
A. The exhaust valve.
B. The piston.
C. The crosshead bearing.
D. The stuffing box.

163. In diesel engines, cylinder lubrication has the primary function of ….

A. cooling the piston which would otherwise overheat and ensure that the carbon
between the piston rings is cleared away.
B. ensuring that cylinder liner and piston are well oiled so that they will not
overheat.
C. flushing the carbon residue from the piston skirt and wash it down into the
scavenge space.
D. forming a film between liner and rings acting as a sealing barrier to prevent
the escape of combustion gases, at same time reduce friction of parts.

164. Broken piston rings on diesel engines, if not visibly broken, can be identified
because …….
A. the piston skirts show marks of burned oil.
B. the ring or groove clearances have worn in excess.
C. the piston crowns have developed hot spots and burning arks over the
surface.
D. they are darker in colour and lack elasticity when pushed towards the inside
of their grooves.

165. Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel engines may be caused by combustion
of carbon deposits accumulated over an extended period due to……..
A. locked stuffing box drain piping or worn stuffing box ear rings or sealing
rings.
B. slow combustion caused by poor injection.
C. excessive lubrication of the cylinder liner.
D. wrong grade fuel oils used for extended period in the engine.

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166. Diesel Engine crankcase oil mist detectors are designed to analyse….
A. the temperature of the bearings in the crankcase.
B. the temperature of the oil in the crankcase.
C. the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase.
D. fire risk in the crankcase.

167. The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine is always…….

A. from left to right.
B. from bottom to top.
C. from right to left.
D. from top to bottom.

168. Which part of a diesel engine keeps the engine speed constant regardless of the
engine load ?
A. The manoeuvring controller
B. The vibration damper
C. The flywheel
D. The governor

169. Automatic shutdown of the main diesel engine always acts on the…….
A. manoeuvring disc.
B. fuel supply.
C. control air supply.
D. governor.

170. Putting additives into diesel engines cooling water is primary designed to
prevent….
A. freezing.
B. leakages.
C. scaling.
D. overheating.

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171. In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air
coolers fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers ?

A. The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have by-pass valves fitted
B. For no particular reason
C. They need more cooling water
D. The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower

172. Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by:

A. a burnt piston top
B. a leaking exhaust valve
C. All of these.
D. a piston ring failure

173. Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by:

A. not using the auxiliary fan
B. a defective fuel valve
C. lubrication low pressure
D. a low air pressure

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174. Which part is the fresh water cooler ?

A. Number 6
B. Number 7
C. Number 1
D. Number 4

175. What is part number 5 ?

A. A double valve
B. A controllable thermostat
C. A thermostat
D. A three way valve

176. What part is the de-airating tank ?

A. Number 4
B. Number 7
C. Number 1
D. Number 6

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177. Pipe number 8 is connected to the salt water cooling system. Why ?
A. To back flush the cooling water system
B. For use in an emergency only
C. Any of the above
D. To operate the cooling system with salt
water during cleaning of the fresh water
generator

178. What is the purpose of part number 6 ?

A. To prevent accumulation of air in the
cooling system
B. To prevent an increase in water pressure
C. To measure difference of pressure before
and after the cooler
D. To be an extra expansion tank

179. What is the purpose of the expansion tank ?

A. To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is
dropping
B. To take up the difference of water volume
with changes of temperature
C. To store extra water
D. To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature

180. Which of the following is a record of the pressure existing in the cylinder at
vacuum positions of the piston throughout the engine cycle ?
A. An Indicator diagram
B. a Cycle diagram
C. A Timing diagram
D. A Temperature diagram

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181. To find the indicated power developed in the cylinder the indicator card is used
to determine the……..
A. mean effective pressure.
B. compression pressure.
C. mean height of the diagram.
D. bring pressure.

182. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ?
A. In tandem with the cylinders.
B. In series with the cylinders.
C. In parallel with the cylinders.
D. In line with the cylinders.

183. The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with
unmanned engine. This is be cause by ………
A. the wind and current holding the vessel back.
B. the wind and current being favourable.
C. poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves.
D. the viscosity of the fuel being high.

184. Which of the following is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head
when the piston is at bottom dead center ?
A. Compression clearance
B. Combustion clearance
C. Cylinder clearance
D. Any of these

185. An engine's fuel pump supplies fuel in excess of the fuel consumed and this
excess fuel is returned to the pump suction via the ….
A. non-return valve.
B. fuel rack.
C. pressure regulating valve.
D. plunger.

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186. Failed O-rings on a 2 stage air compressor cylinder liner have resulted in a water
leak. Where is the leaking water most likely to go when the compressor is
operating?
A. Into the crankcase and mix with the lube oil.
B. Into the LP cylinder.
C. Into the HP cylinder.
D. Into the intercooler.

187. For which duties are gear and screw pumps normally employed?
A. Fuel and lubricating oil services.
B. Jacket cooling water circulation for diesel engines.
C. Bilge pumping.
D. Main sea water circulation systems.

188. From the options given, select the conditions that you would expect to give best
separation results from a centrifuge operating as a purifier.
A. High temperature and low flow rate.
B. High flow rate and low temperature.
C. High flow rate and high temperature.
D. Low flow rate and low temperature.

189. How is the condenser cooling water flow regulating valve automatically
controlled in a vapour compression refrigeration system?
A. By the compressor discharge pressure.
B. By the temperature in the refrigerated room.
C. By the quantity of refrigerant in the system.
D. By the temperature of the refrigerant after the evaporator.

190. How is the condenser in a fresh water evaporator normally cooled?

A. With seawater
B. With distillate
C. With air
D. With brine

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191. How often should an oxygen analyser instrument for the inert gas system be
calibrated?
A. Prior to every plant start-up following a shut down
of 8 hours or more.
B. Every time the plant is shut-down
C. At regular intervals
D. On Chief Officers order

192. In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would be considered to be the maximum
allowable chloride level of the boiler water?
A. 300 PPM.
B. 600 PPM.
C. 1000 PPM.
D. 50 PPM.

193. In a low pressure, auxiliary boiler, water tests show that the p-alkalinity is 50
ppm CaCO3. What action should be taken?
A. Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment.
B. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage of boiler
water treatment.
C. No action is necessary because this is a normal reading..
D. Reduce dosage of boiler water treatment.

194. In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is the probable
cause of the processed oil containing water?
A. The gravity disc is too small and/or the flow rate is
too high
B. The gravity disc is too large
C. The throughput is too low
D. The back pressure at the clean oil outlet is too high

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195. The amp-load for an electric motor driving a centrifugal pump has gradually
reduced over a period of service. The pump is still supplying water but at a
reduced pressure and flow. Which of the alternatives given is the probable reason
for this?
A. The pump impeller and wear rings have worn.
B. The pump is running at a lower speed due to a short
circuit in the electric motor.
C. The pump has suction from a number of sources at the same time.
D. The suction strainer element has been removed so the pump is more efficient.

196. What action should be taken if a purifier starts to vibrate heavily during normal
operations?
A. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the machine
for fouling or mechanical damage. Donot restart
until cause is identified and fault rectified.
B. Stop the purifier and then restart it
C. Change the flow rate.
D. Leave the purifier running and check it again after its next scheduled sludge
cycle.

197. What action should be taken if the heat transfer capacity of a heat exchanger
operating as a lubricating oil cooler is reducing?
A. The heat transfer surfaces should be cleaned.
B. Increase the cooling water pressure.
C. Decrease the lubricating oil flowrate.
D. Increase the lubricating oil flowrate.

198. What cooling medium is normally used to cool the condenser of a fresh water
generator?
A. Seawater
B. Distillate (Freshwater)
C. Air
D. Brine

958
 DPKP

199. What effect does an increased oil feed flow rate have on the performance of a
centrifuge operating as a purifier?
A. Separating efficiency is reduced.
B. Separating efficiency is increased, more water is
removed.
C. Separating efficiency is unchanged.
D. Separating efficiency is increased, more solids are removed.

200. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a
centrifugal pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
B. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
C. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
D. By opening the pump recirculation line.

201. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion
valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure.
B. Vapour at high pressure.
C. Liquid at low pressure.
D. Vapour at low pressure.

202. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board
ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea
water.
B. It is a simple system with minimum control
requirements.
C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
D. It does not require any seawater.

959
 DPKP

203. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh
water in a central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
B. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the
turbochargers.
D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.

204. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than
normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.
B. High fuel oil temperature.
C. Broken water seal.
D. Drive clutch slipping.

205. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a
centrifugal pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.
B. Water hammer in the pump casing.
C. Fluid friction in the suction line.
D. Pump suction valve fully open.

206. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?

A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the
evaporator.
B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor.
C. To control the cargo hold temperature.
D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.

960
 DPKP

207. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration

compressor?
A. The same as the suction pressure.
B. The same as the discharge pressure.
C. The same as the atmospheric pressure.
D. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.

208. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor
discharge of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C
B. + 5 ° C
C. -10 ° C
D. + 40 ° C

209. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil
throughput rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to
discharge from the water outlet.
B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will
be lost.
C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil
outlet.
D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.

210. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a
centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius.
B. 85 - 88 Celsius
C. 75 - 78 Celsius.
D. 105 - 108 Celsius.

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 DPKP

211. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil
based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C.
B. 45 - 65 C.
C. 85 - 105 C.
D. < 45 C.

212. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar
B. - 0.5 bar
C. + 5.0 bar
D. + 10 bar

213. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low
pressure auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.
B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3.
C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3.
D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.

214. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the
discharge valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to
the bilge.
C. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.

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 DPKP

215. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling
water flow through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure
B. Reduced delivery pressure
C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
D. reduced suction pressure

216. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement,
what is the purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
B. To stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

217. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning
system evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure.
C. Low sea water temperature.
D. High sea water temperature..

218. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage
piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from
each stage is equal.

963
 DPKP

219. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat
exchanger during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for
both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid.
C. Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

220. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the
cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water
generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh
water generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any
cooling water system.

221. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase
when the compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the
crankcase.
D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.

222. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?
A. To prevent biological growth in the system.
B. To prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.

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 DPKP

223. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water
pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contamination of the central
cooling system in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat
exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.

224. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is
the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil,
whereas in a purifier both solids and water are
removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.

225. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a
centrifugal pump?
A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
B. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
C. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
D. By opening the pump recirculation line.

226. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion
valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
A. Liquid at high pressure.
B. Vapour at high pressure.
C. Liquid at low pressure.
D. Vapour at low pressure.

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 DPKP

227. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board
ship?
A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea
water.
B. It is a simple system with minimum control
requirements.
C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
D. It does not require any seawater.

228. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh
water in a central cooling system?
A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
B. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the
turbochargers.
D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.

229. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than
normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?
A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.
B. High fuel oil temperature.
C. Broken water seal.
D. Drive clutch slipping.

230. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a
centrifugal pump when it is running?
A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.
B. Water hammer in the pump casing.
C. Fluid friction in the suction line.
D. Pump suction valve fully open.

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 DPKP

231. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?

A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the
evaporator.
B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor.
C. To control the cargo hold temperature.
D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.

232. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration

compressor?
A. The same as the suction pressure.
B. The same as the discharge pressure.
C. The same as the atmospheric pressure.
D. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.

233. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor
discharge of an air conditioning system?
A. + 85 ° C
B. + 5 ° C
C. -10 ° C
D. + 40 ° C

234. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil
throughput rate is too great?
A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to
discharge from the water outlet.
B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will
be lost.
C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil
outlet.
D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.

967
 DPKP

235. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a
centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
A. 95 - 98 Celsius.
B. 85 - 88 Celsius
C. 75 - 78 Celsius.
D. 105 - 108 Celsius.

236. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil
based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
A. 65 -85 C.
B. 45 - 65 C.
C. 85 - 105 C.
D. < 45 C.

237. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
A. + 1.0 bar
B. - 0.5 bar
C. + 5.0 bar
D. + 10 bar

238. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low
pressure auxiliary boiler?
A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.
B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3.
C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3.
D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.

968
 DPKP

239. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the
discharge valve closed for an extended period of time?
A. The pump will eventually overheat.
B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to
the bilge.
C. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.

240. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling
water flow through the condenser?
A. Increased delivery pressure
B. Reduced delivery pressure
C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
D. reduced suction pressure

241. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement,
what is the purpose of the clarifier?
A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
B. To stabilise the feed temperature.
C. To increase the overall throughput rate.
D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

242. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning
system evaporator icing up?
A. Too low suction pressure.
B. Too high discharge pressure.
C. Low sea water temperature.
D. High sea water temperature..

969
 DPKP

243. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage
piston.
B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage.
D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from
each stage is equal.

244. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat
exchanger during operation?
A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for
both fluids.
B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid.
C. Pressure drop for cooling water.
D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

245. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the
cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator?
A. Chromates are poisonous.
B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh
water generators.
C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh
water generator.
D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any
cooling water system.

246. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase
when the compressor is stopped.
B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
C. To boil off any water from condensation in the
crankcase.

970
 D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.DPKP

247. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems?
A. To prevent biological growth in the system.
B. To prevent corrosion of the system
C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.

248. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water
pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central
cooling system in the event of seal failure.
B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat
exchanger.
D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.

249. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is
the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil,
whereas in a purifier both solids and water are
removed from the oil
B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.

250. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel
stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the
following is a feasible sequence of activities ?
A. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by diesel
runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored
B. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel
runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored
C. Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel
runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored

971
 D. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8DPKP

sec: the power is restored

251. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator
is by…..
A. starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any
leakages or deficiencies.
B. causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is
available in port.
C. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main
switch board.
D. switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.

252. In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ?

A. In the rotor
B. In the sliprings
C. In the stator
D. In the excitatory

253. How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ?

A. By the excitation current in the rotor
B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard
C. By the excitation current in the stator
D. By the alternator speed

254. The reason why two-stage starting air compressors are used in preference to
single stage compression is that .........
A. the temperature developed by single stage compression would be too high.
B. the starting air current of a single stage compressor would be too high.
C. the power absorption by single stage compression would be too high.
D. the friction in a single stage compressor would be too high.

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 DPKP

255. In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted ?

A. Main engine scavenge air manifold

B. Air compressors cylinder heads
C. Auxiliary diesel crankcase doors
D. Ventilation air ducts

256. Which kind of cooling water system is used with this compressor ?

A. Free flow fresh water cooling

B. Forced sea water cooling
C. Open free flow sea water cooling
D. Forced fresh water cooling

257. What is the indication of the inlet of the cooling water in position "I" of both
cylinders ?
A. Water inlet of cylinders
B. Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers
C. Water inlet of aftercoolers
D. Water inlet of Intercoolers

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 DPKP

258. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0 kg/cm2. What class
of compressor could this be ?
A. An instrument air compressor.
B. A service air compressor.
C. A starting air compressor.
D. A working air compressor.

259. What are the units marked "C" fitted on both cylinders ?
A. Aftercoolers
B. Cooling water vessels
C. Intercoolers
D. Cylinder blocks

260. When is manual by-pass valve of this compressor cooler ''CW" operated ?
A. During normal running to keep the temperature constant
B. In cold climates to avoid moisture
C. When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings
D. When the compressor is started to allow for temperature rise

261. This drawing indicates the timing of the unloader and drains of a compressor.
After how many seconds will the compressor pump at full capacity ?
A. Somewhere between
7 and 14 seconds
B. 12 seconds
C. 14 seconds
D. 7 seconds

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 DPKP

262. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated
before the drain valves closed ?
A. So the pumping action can
blow the drains through
B. To prevent the compressor
fromtripping
C. To avoid the safety valves blowing
D. To avoid air blowing in the bilges

263. Why is it necessary to start a compressor with the drains open ?

A. To get rid of all the dirt inside
B. To avoid overloading
C. To hear that it is delivering
pressure
D. To blow clear the inevitable
moisture of

264. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way ?
A. It keeps the suctions valves closed
B. it keeps the delivery valvesclosed
C. It keeps the suction valves open
D. It keeps the delivery valves open

265. What is the function of item "PC" ?

A. Pressure Container admitting air to
air bottle
B. Piston Controller activating
compressor piston movement
C. Pressure Controller activating 3-way
valve solenoid
D. Pressure Container activating
automatic pressure release valve

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 DPKP

266. What is item "U" how does it act on item "S" ?

A. Item "U" is the unloader lifting the
compressor suction valve
B. Item "U" is the upper pressure limit
valve activating the solenoid
C. Item "U" is the activator for the
safety release valve
D. Item "U" is the uplifter of the air
bottle's safety valve.

267. What would be the pressure in the air bottle which activates the "PC" and "S"
connecting the unloader line with c and a?
A. Between 6.5 and 8.5 kg/cm2
B. Between 8.5 and 9.35 kg/cm2
C. Between 0 and 8.5 kg/cm2
D. Between 8.5 and 10.0 kg/cm2

268. What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor
assembly ?
A. All of these.
B. To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping
piston
C. As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder
D. To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the
guide

269. In this oil-free compressor, of what material are the piston rings of the pumping
piston "P" made?
A. Ribbed alloy
B. Chromium
C. Slotted chromium
D. Carbon

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 DPKP

270. Which main compressor is normally used to top up the main air bottles ?

No. 17 - 26

A. Main air compressor No 1

B. Main air compressor No 1 or No 2
C. Main air compressor No 2
D. Main air compressor No 1 and No 2

271. During vessel manoeuvring, which Main Air Bottles are used ?
A. No 1 and No 2 Main Air Bottle
B. No 1 or No 2 Main Air Bottle
C. No 1 Main Air Bottle
D. No 2 Main Air Bottle

272. What are items "NR "fitted after the compressors.

A. Demisters
B. Oil separators
C. Check valves
D. safety valves

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 DPKP

273. What kind of filling valves are fitted on all the air bottles ?
A. High pressure butterfly valves
B. High pressure remote-control valves
C. High pressure gate valves
D. High pressure S.D. check valves

274. What is item "M" fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor
(I.A.C.) ?
A. A moisture separator
B. A drain valve
C. An oil separator
D. An automatic drain valve

275. What is the primary purpose of drain valves "D" fitted on all air bottles ?
A. To remove excessive oil from the bottle
B. To remove water and condensate from the bottle
C. To remove dirt from the bottle
D. To blow the bottles empty if required

276. Which of the appendages listed below is NOT usually fitted on a compressed air
bottle ?
A. A manometer
B. A drain valve
C. A thermometer
D. A safety valve

277. What is item "A.D." in the main air supply line from the Instrument Air Bottle ?
A. An air dryer
B. An air drain
C. An air safety discharge valve
D. An air pressure safety device

978
 DPKP

278. What are items "CP" fitted in the Working Air and Instrument Air supply lines ?
A. Pressure capacity vessels
B. Pressure relief units
C. Condensate pots
D. Constant pressure vessels

279. Suppose you find that the safety valve of the Working Air Bottle blows off at a
pressure in excess of 8.5 g/cm2. Which of the causes listed below is not a
possible cause for this lifting of the safety valve ?
A. Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers
B. Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position
C. Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck
D. Setting of cut-in / cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective

280. What is part No 3 of this valve ?

A. A suction/discharge plate disc

B. A valve flexible disc C.
A feather spring plate D.
A disc connecting plate

281. How do you to make valve air tight during overhaul?

A. By lapping and polishing valve disc

4 and seat plate 5
B. By fitting O-rings on seat plate 5

C. By fitting cupper gaskets to the

valve body
D. By machining the seat of valve disc
4 and seat plate 5

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 DPKP

282. What will happen if the seat plate 5 is grinded too much so that the distance of
the value disc 4 in open position increases ? Same applies for the suction as well
as for the delivery valve.

A. The thermodynamic efficiency decreases

B. The maximum output pressure decreases
C. All of these.
D. The compression ratio decreases

283. How is the value shown here made air tight in the cylinder head of the
compressor ?

A. Face to face polished in the cylinder head seat

B. An 0-ring of perbunan is fitted between valve and seat
C. A flat Teflon or Viton gasket is fitted
D. A copper gasket is fitted

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 DPKP

284. In which kind of compressor is this type of piston assemble fitted

A. Refrigeration compressor
B. Service air compressor
C. CO2 compressor
D. Oil-free instrument air compressor

285. How is this type valve kept in place in the cylinder head of an air compressor ?

A. It is pressed down on seating by a pressure bolt in the cylinder head

B. It is fitted in a valve housing which is bolted by a flange onto the cylinder
head
C. It is screwed into the value space of the cylinder head
D. It is kept in place by a collar flange, bolted on the cylinder head

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 DPKP

286. Why is a heavy flywheel (item number 7) required on this starting air compressor
?
A. To accelerate evenly when starting
B. To absorb the large torsional forces (2
cylinder)
C. To avoid stalling when drain and
unloaders close
D. To absorb the vibrations due to high speed
(900 - 720 RPM)

287. How are the cylinder liners and piston rings of main air compressors usually
lubricated ?
A. Ho lubrication is required
B. By splash lubrication
C. By an oil wick
D. By a small lubricator drop by drop via the
suction valve

288. In which machinery can you not add oil when

running?
A. Air compressors or refrigerant compressors
B. Hydraulic power packs
C. Main Engine or Auxiliary Diesels
D. Steering machinery or stern tube header tanks

289. When would the high sea suction values be used?

A. When the ship is in shallow water
B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea
C. When the ship is in ballast condition
D. When the ship is in polluted waters

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 DPKP

290. Can leaking stern tube seals be replaced when the vessel is afloat and if yes,
how?
A. Yes, ballast the ship until the stern tube is clear of the water
B. Yes, but only the forward seal can be replaced
C. No, they can only be replaced in dry-dock
D. Yes, with divers working under water whilst the forward seal is blanked

291. How is stern tube wear down measured when in dry-dock?

A. By blade feelers inserted in the after seal
B. By a poker gauge, inserted in the plugm above the stern boss tube
C. By measuring the lift on the shaft
D. By blade feelers inserted in the forward bush from the engine roo

292. What is the purpose of the 3-way cock sited in the lowest point of the stern tube
oil circuit?
A. To change from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit
B. To drain or sample the oil from the stern tube bearing
C. To remove air from the system
D. To fill oil in the system

293. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level?
A. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube
B. Ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal
C. Ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal
D. To prevent bilge water entering the stern tube

294. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lub oil system to remove metallic
particles?
A. A Metal edge strainer
B. A Fuller's earth strainer
C. A Magnetic basket strainer
D. A Simplex strainer

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 DPKP

295. What is the steering system oil tank within the steering pedestal?
A. Header tank for the auto pilot control system
B. Main hydraulic system header tank
C. Lubrication tank for the steering gear linkage
D. Reservoir for the telemotor system

296. What type of filling value is fitted on all air bottles?

A. High pressure S.D. check values
B. High pressure remote-control values
C. High pressure gate values
D. High pressure butterfly value

297. What regular maintenance is required on the burner?

A. Cleaning and resetting of the air register
B. Overhauling of the shut-off valves
C. Renewing of the electrodes
D. Cleaning of the burner tips

298. What is the first action when flashing up a boiler?

A. Start up the water feed pump
B. Clean the burner nozzle
C. Purge furnace with air
D. Power the oil pressure

299. What is the effect if the fuel oil temperature is too low?
A. Flame impingement and refractory damage
B. Blocking of fuel filters
C. Fuel delivery pump cutting out
D. Flame failure

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 DPKP

300. What is the most dangerous effect of water in fuel?

A. Damage to furnace refractory
B. Loss of boiler efficiency
C. Extinguishing of burner flame
D. Poor combustion

301. What purpose is the settling tank?

A. To settle out sludge
B. To settle out all impurities
C. To settle out water
D. To settle out suspended solids

302. What is the function of a Viscotherm?

A. Controlling fuel pressure and temperature
B. To control viscosity by altering temperature

C. To regulate the fuel pressure

D. To control the fuel temperature

303. What is the most damaging fuel contaminant?

A. Plater
B. Sludge
C. Bacterial growth
D. Suspended solids

304. What are gauze element filters designed to remove?

A. Fine non-metallic solids
B. Water and sludge
C. Metallic particles
D. Coarse solids

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305. What could be the purpose of checking the fuel pump spill position?
A. To check the position the fuel pump ceases delivery.
B. To check the tightness of the pump delivery value.
C. To check the amount of fuel the pump will deliver.°
D. To check the start point of injection

306. How does the fuel pump rack adjust the fuel delivery?
A. By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam
B. By increasing the delivery pressure
C. By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve
D. By altering the effective stroke of the plunger

307. What is the required temperature in the ship's fish room?

A. From -15 to -20 deg. C.
B. From -5 to -10 deg. C.
C. From 0 to -5 deg. C.
D. Below -25 deg. C.

308. How are boiler tubes secured in the end plates?

A. Screwed
B. Expanded
C. Screwed collar on the outside of the plate
D. Welded

309. What is the most damaging on riveted mountings?

A. Rusting of the rivet heads
B. Raising steam too quickly
C. Chloride levels too high
D. Leakage through the rivets

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310. What condition would necessitate blowing down the boiler?

A. Water level too high
B. PH reading below 7 ppm
C. Steam pressure too high
D. Chloride readings too high

311. Why are some boiler tubes not plain cylindrical?

A. To reduce scale formation.
B. To facilitate gas flow.
C. To glue a greater heating area.
D. For extra strength

312. What test is used in boilers to detect leaks after structural repairs?
A. A hydrostatic test
B. A penetrant dye crack test
C. An efficiencytest
D. Air pressure test

313. What is the term for the weakening of boiler steel, as the result of inner
crystalline cracking?
A. Caustic embrittlement.
B. Exposure stress.
C. Corrosion.
D. Alkaline stress.

314. What dailytest should be carried out on boiler water?

A. Chloride0
B. Sludge
C. Dissolved nitrogen^
D. Dissolved oxygen°

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315. What is the most dangerous effect of scale build up in the water space?
A. Flame impingement on the furnace walls
B. Overheating and deformation of furnace
C. Damage to feed water values
D. Loss of boiler efficiency

316. What is the test to determine the discharge capacity of boiler safety values?
A. Safety value adjustment test.
B. Steam stop test.
C. Pop test.
D. Accumulation test.

317. Why are cylindrical boiler end plates of dished shape?

A. Increased water capacity
B. Stronger than flat plates
C. Easier access to manhole doors
D. Better accommodates the furnace

318. What mountings must be tested daily on steaming boilers?

A. Water level indicators
B. Main feed water check values
C. Safety value easing gear
D. Boiler blow down values

319. What material is the boiler shell constructed from?

A. High tensile steel
B. Good quality low carbon steel^
C. High grade Molybdenum steel^
D. High carbon steel

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320. What is the usual pressure adjustment method on safety values?

A. Machine able adjustment rings
B. Removable shim packs
C. Different rate springs
D. Set bolt and locknut

321. What is the purpose of the scum values?

A. Draining the boiler water to the bilge
B. Removal of scum from boiler water surface
C. Removal of scum from feed tank water
D. Removal of scum from drains observation tank

322. What best describes the "easing gear"?

A. Manual lifting arrangement of safety valves
B. Feed control unit
C. Remote operation of stop valves
D. Reduction gearing to facilitate opening of main stop valves

323. What term is used to describe access holes to the boiler drum?
A. Manholes
B. Furnace inspection panels
C. Access spaces
D. Inspection holes

324. What mountings must be dismantled for inspection during survey?

A. Feed water check valves
B. Safety values
C. Gauge glass & value components
D. AIl boiler mountings

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325. What is "simmer" in a safety value?

A. A metallic hammering noise
B. A hissing sound indicating that a safety value is leaking
C. A failure of a safety value to re-seat
D. Initial leakage before the safety value opens

326. What is the purpose of air release valves on boiler shell?

A. To vent the boiler when shut down.0
B. To expel air when filling the boiler.
C. To expel air when raising steam.0
D. To check when steam is being produced.

327. How is "water hammer" best avoided in steam lines?

A. Leave main stops and line values open when shutting down the boiler
B. Ensure lines are drained and open valves slowly
C. Open line valves as quickly as possible
D. Fully open main stops and line valves when raising steam

328. What controls feed water delivery?

A. Water level control of feed water inlet value
B. Steam demand
C. Water level control of feed pump
D. Feed water tank level

329. What is the function of the Low Level alarm?

A. Sound low level alarm
B. Sound alarm and shut down boiler burner
C. Reduce the oil supply to the boiler burner
D. Increase the feed water supply

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330. If the gauge glass indicates no water level what is your first action?
A. Check the feed tank water level
B. Shut off all the burners
C. Blow down the gauge glass
D. Check the operation of the feed pump

331. What action would you take if Chloride readings are too high?
A. Add more chemical to the feed water
B. Drain and refill the feed water tank
C. Increase frequency of testing
D. Blow down the boiler regularly until readings are acceptable

332. What action should you take in the case of an uptake fire?
A. Shut off burners, shut down fans and close off air supply
B. Operate soot blowers to extinguish fire
C. Shut down burners but maintain fans to clear fire
D. Increase air supply to burn fire out

333. What percentage CO2 in the flue gases would indicate correct combustion?
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 7%
D. 13%

334. A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water to check for:

A. Sulphates
B. Nitrates
C. Phosphates
D. Excess oxygen

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335. What is the most likely source of Chloride contamination?

A. Fuel heater
B. Feed water tank
C. Accommodation heating
D. Trains cooler

336. What is the possible consequence of too high a water level in the boiler?
A. Insufficient steam generation
B. Feed pump cutting out
C. Boiler shutting down
D. Carry-over of the boiler water

337. When testing for chlorides what does the test indicate?
A. Total dissolved solids present in the water
B. Phosphate present in the water
C. Alkalinity level
D. Solids in the water from sea contamination

338. What damage could be caused by raising steam too quickly?

A. Overpressure of the shell
B. Lifting the safety values
C. Damage to refractory
D. Excess soot deposits

339. What term is used for unequal distribution of burner spray in the furnace?
A. Combustion air imbalance
B. Unequal firing
C. Furnace distortion
D. Flame impingement

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340. What would your first action be if the feed pump stopped?
A. Shut the main stop valves
B. Check the gauge glass readings
C. Change over to the auxiliary feed pump
D. Shut down the boiler burners

341. Is it possible to blow down a steaming boiler?

A. No, this should never be carried out
B. Yes but steam pressure should be maintained
C. Yes but never allow the level to disappear from the gauge glass
D. Only in an extreme emergency

342. How is temperature controlled in a steam oil heater?

A. Steam inlet value throttled
B. Oil flow increased
C. Steam supply pressure reduced
D. Steam outlet value throttled

343. Why is a by-pass fitted onto the cooling water of the charge air cooler?
A. To prevent overcooling of the charge air
B. To prevent the air temperature going too high
C. To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces
D. To maintain the jacket water temperature

344. What precaution must be observed when fitting new anodes?

A. PTFE tape applied to the plug threads to enable easy removal
B. Ensure the anode is as close as possible to the tube plate
C. Ensure no damage is caused to the exterior surface of the anode.
D. Ensure good, clean contact is made between anode and cooler body

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345. How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heat exchanger?

A. Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger
B. Regulating the sea water inlet value
C. Seawater bypassing the heat exchanger
D. Regulating the sea water outlet value

346. What could be the effect of excess steam or reduced oil flow in an oil heater ?
A. Carbon formation
B. Deformation
C. Corrosion
D. Fitting

347. What is the plate material used in sea- water, plate heat exchangers?
A. Stainless steel
B. Bronze
C. Cupro Nickel
D. Titanium

348. Why are anodes fitted to the seawater side of heat exchangers?
A. To afford corrosion protection to the heat exchanger
B. To prevent the formation of marine growth in the water spaces
C. To afford corrosion protection for the system pipes and values
D. To prevent scaling of the tubes and tube plates

349. What is the main advantage of plate heat exchangers?

A. Require less maintenance
B. Easier to clean
C. More efficient and take up less space
D. Cheaper to install

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350. How is the quality of the distilled water from a fresh water generator improved?
A. Decreasing the jacket water flow to the evaporator
B. Decreasing the seawater feed to the evaporator
C. Slowing down the output of the evaporator
D. Increasing the shell vacuum

351. What is the required salinity of the fresh water produced as drinking water
onboard?
A. Below 50 ppm
B. Below 7 ppm
C. Below 2 ppm
D. Below 20 ppm

352. What liquid is present in the collecting point at the bottom of the evaporator?
A. Brine
B. Fresh water
C. Sea water
D. Ejector water

353. What is the maximum salinity for water produced by a fresh water generator
when it is to be used in water ube medium pressure boilers?
A. 20 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 7 ppm
D. 2 ppm

354. How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator ?

A. By the condensing effect in the condenser
B. By the vapour ejector driven bythe ejector pump
C. By pumping or ejecting out the brine
D. By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water

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355. Why is a baffle plate fitted between evaporator and condenser?

A. To maintain vacuum inside the shell.
B. To prevent carry over of brine
C. To maintain the evaporator temperature
D. To cool the vapour

356. What is the main advantage of vacuum production of FW?

A. Low cost of distillation equipment
B. Utilizes waste heat from the main engine
C. Less possibility of contamination
D. Simpler to operate

357. What precaution is necessary before starting the distillate pump?

A. The vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum
B. The discharge valve of the pump is shut
C. The pump is primed via the priming line
D. Water is visible in the sight glass of the condenser

358. How far from the coast is it permitted to use Low-pressure evaporation to
produce drinking water?
A. 20 miles
B. 30 miles
C. 5 miles
D. 12 miles

359. Why is it necessaryto produce fresh water from seawater?

A. To save cost
B. To ensure purity
C. To make use of waste engine heat
D. Limited shipboard storage.

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360. What factors influence the vacuum inside the shell of a fresh water generator?
A. The temperature of the sea water cooling the condenser
B. The pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector
C. All of these.
D. The temperature of the fresh water heating the evaporator

361. In a single stage air compressor what is the maximum practical delivery
pressure?
A. 15 bar
B. 7 bar
C. 3 bar
D. 10 bar

362. What is the purpose of the automatic unloading value?

A. Unload the compressor at working air pressure
B. Avoid high starting current on the motor
C. Avoid the first stage relief values lifting when starting
D. Prevent damage to the values when starting

363. In the case of air-cooled compressors what form does the cooler take?
A. Horizontal box section pipes
B. Finned circular pipes
C. Honeycombed radiator
D. Vertical flattened pipes

364. What material are cylinder blocks and covers normally constructed from?
A. Fabricated steel
B. Cast steel
C. Cast iron
D. Gunmetal

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365. What type of values are normally found in air compressors?

A. Plate or disc values
B. Poppet values
C. Piston controlled ports
D. Slide values

366. Why is the presence of oil particularly dangerous in starting air lines?
A. It could affect the operation of the relief valves
B. The high oxygen content makes it very explosive
C. It may cause sticking of the air start values
D. It may carbon up and choke the lines

367. What shutdown device might be fitted on air compressors?

A. High air pressure
B. Low first stage pressure
C. High delivery temperature
D. Over speed

368. Which is the correct sequence after starting the compressor.

A. Drain value closes and then unloader deactivates
B. Drain closes and unloader deactivates together
C. Drain value only operates on shutdown
D. Unloader deactivates then drain value closes

369. What service is most suitable for the use of rotary compressors?
A. High pressure, tow volume
B. Low pressure, high volume
C. High pressure, high volume
D. Low pressure, low volume

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370. Where would you find a rotary compressor in the engine room?
A. Diesel engine charge air compressor
B. Starting air compressor
C. Control air compressor
D. Emergency air compressor

371. What slows the rudder movement when the requested position is reached?
A. The steering wheel transmitter B.
The rudder control receiver unit C.
The hunting gear feedback signal D.
The rudder telemotor control

372. In a conventional rudder system when will least power be required to move the
rudder ?
A. With vessel moving astern
B. Vessel full ahead at service speed
C. With the vessel stationary
D. With vessel moving slowly ahead

373. What happens if the rudder is moved in a heavy sea?

A. The tetemotor pump prevents movement by increasing the hydraulic pressure
B. The main pressure relief valves lift
C. The over pressure is absorbed by system accumulators
D. The hydraulic motor absorbs the shock

374. What is a telemotor system?

A. Hydraulic actuation of steering rams
B. Steering gear feedback system
C. Transfer of steering signals from wheel to steering gear
D. Hand actuation of steering gear

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375. In a hydraulic telemotor system what does wheel movement provide?

A. Movement of the transmitter electric motor
B. Movement of the transmitter pistons
C. Transmits electrical signal to the hydraulic actuator valves
D. Direct control of the main hydraulic pumps

376. What is the purpose of Hunting Gear?

A. Limits the speed of the rudder movement
B. To transmit hydraulic pressure
C. Provides feedback to the pump control
D. To control hydraulic motor swash plate movement

377. In an electrically controlled hydraulic system what do the electrical controls

replace?
A. Rudder feedback signal
B. Hydraulic control values
C. Hydraulic telemotor system
D. The hunting gear

378. What does the telemotor receiver unit control?

A. Hydraulic operating pressure
B. Speed of rudder movement
C. Hydraulic control valve
D. Main steering motor control voltage

379. What is meant by radial vane type steering system?

A. Telemotor is vane type operation
B. Hydraulic actuation is onto vanes mounted onto Budderstock
C. Steering is via rotating propulsion unit
D. Hydraulic pumps are vane type pumps

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380. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action?

A. As soon as the electric motor is started
B. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge
C. As soon as a signal is received from the telemotor receiver
D. As soon as the telemotor pump is started

381. Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is
given?
A. The degree of opening of the hydraulic bypass valve
B. On the distance the hydraulic control lever is moved by the floating link
C. On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection
D. On the hydraulic pressure setting of the relief valves

382. What is the function of the relief values fitted between main hydraulic cylinders?
A. To be opened to allow emergency steering
B. To act as automatic by-pass values when the steering gear is stopped
C. To act as safety values to absorb shock and avoid damage
D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump

383. When would both steering gear motors be run together?

A. When at anchor in a confined anchorage
B. In the tropics to overcome the lowering of the oil viscosity
C. When manoeuvring in confined areas
D. When on passage to minimise wear

384. In a single motor electrical steering system what supplies the main steering
motor?
A. Mains electrical supply
B. Electrical supplyfrom a local motor!generator
C. Hydraulic power delivered bythe main steering motors
D. Hydraulic power pack

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385. Mat does wheel movement control in an electric steering system?

A. Hydraulic transmitter
B. The electrical balance of the wheel and steering motor fheostats^
C. Current supplied directlyto the electric steering motor
D. Current to the steering gear motortgenerator

386. Which of the following is a system for controlling the steering electrically?
A. Graduated stepper motors
B. Ward Leonard System
C. Compass repeater motors
D. AC-DC rectification

387. In tankers an alternate hydraulic oil supply must be automatically connected

within what time?
A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 45 seconds

388. What provides power to hydraulic emergency steering system

A. Accumulators in the hydraulic system
B. Battery power to the entire steering system
C. Emergency generator running main hydraulic pumps
D. Manual operation of main pumps

389. What would be the most likely cause of high compressor discharge pressure?
A. Failure of the expansion value
B. Inadequate condenser cooling
C. Overcooling of the evaporator return
D. Ice formation on the evaporator coils

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390. Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants?

A. Freon 12
B. Ammonia
C. Freon 22
D. Carbon Dioxide

391. What could cause frost on the discharge side of the expansion value?
A. Insufficient condenser cooling
B. Chamber temperature too low
C. The expansion value being dirty or iced up
D. Air in the refrigerant system

392. Why should refrig. compressor oil be stored in small capacity drums?
A. Ease of stowage
B. Only small quantities are required
C. Refrigerator oil is hygroscopic and should not be stored in part full drums
D. Ease of handling

393. What would be fitted to relieve excess compressor pressure?

A. Pressure relief value to atmosphere.0
B. Pressure relief value to suction line.
C. Bursting disc to condenser inlet.
D. Bursting disc to compressor suction.^

394. How is an air conditioning compressor normally unloaded?

A. By throttling the discharge values
B. By throttling the suction values
C. By holding open the suction values
D. By holding open the discharge values

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395. What kind of metal must never be allowed to come in contact with freon liquid or
freon gas and why?
A. Copper, it has a harmful effect on the freon
B. Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the freon
C. Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with freon
D. Chromium, it will overheat

396. What is the function of the expansion valve?

A. To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
B. To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
C. To regulate flow and reduce the pressure of refrigerant to the evaporator
D. To allow the expansion of the high-pressure gas before the condenser

397. What is the function of the low-pressure cut-out fitted on the compressor suction
line.
A. Cut-out/cut-in device, no reset required
B. Low-pressure shutdown with manual reset
C. To prevent over pressure of the evaporator
D. Safety shutdown device with manual reset

398. What is the function of the HP cutout fitted on the compressor discharge line?
A. High-pressure shutdown with manual reset
B. High pressure cut out with auto cut-in
C. By-pass device cutting out the expansion value
D. High-pressure alarm device only

399. What is the function of the oil differential pressure switch?

A. To indicate oil is returning from the oil separator
B. As warningicut out due to oil foaming
C. High temperature alarm
D. As a low lub oil pressure shutdown

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400. What effect has the solenoid stop valve?

A. lectrically shuts down the compressor
B. Operates the stop value on the compressor discharge line
C. Stops the refrigerant from entering the evaporator
D. Shuts off the refrigerant on the compressor suction line

401. What is the correct S. G. for brine used as a secondary refrigerant?

A. 1.05
B. 1.5
C. 1.25
D. 1.1

402. What determines the brine S.G. required?

A. Capacity of refrigerant compressors
B. Type of primary refrigerant in use
C. Carrying temperature of the cargo
D. Amount of brine in circulation

403. What is the required temperature in the ship's vegetable room?

A. From +4 to +6 degree C
B. From +3 to -3 degree C
C. From 0 to +4 degree C
D. From +8 to +12 degree C

404. What is the most usual cause of a restriction at the expansion value?
A. Moisture in the system
B. Insufficient gas charge
C. Dirt in the system
D. Blockage in the filter/drier unit

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405. What does the sight glass indicate?

A. Operation of the expansion value
B. Adequate refrigerant charge
C. Condition of the filter drier unit
D. Condition of the condenser

406. Where is the fitter/drier unit fitted?

A. At the evaporator inlet
B. Between expansion value and evaporator
C. On the compressor discharge line
D. Between condenser and expansion value

407. What is the state of refrigerant leaving the evaporator?

A. Low-pressure liquid
B. High pressure gasiliquid mixture
C. Gas at high pressure
D. Gas at low pressure

408. What is the state of the refrigerant flowing from the condenser ?
A. High pressure liquid
B. High-pressure gas
C. Low pressure liquid
D. Gas liguid mixture at evaporator pressure

409. Where is the temperature of the refrigerant highest?

A. At the expansion value
B. At the compressor discharge
C. At the compressor suction
D. At the condenser outlet

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410. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated
before the drain values are closed?
A. To avoid the safety valves blowing
B. To avoid air blowing in the bilges
C. So the pumping action can blow the drains through
D. To prevent the compressor from tripping

411. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way?
A. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES open
B. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES open
C. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES closed
D. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES closed

412. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0bar.Which

compressor could this be?
A. A starting air compressor
B. An instrument air compressor
C. A service air compressor
D. A working air compressor

413. What is part number 3 called ?

A. The primary pump
B. The purifier
C. The clarifier pump
D. the secondary pump

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414. What is shown here ?

A. A common suction mesh strainer
B. A Fuel Oil pressure line filter
C. A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter
D. A centrifugal filter

415. What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the fitter body (3) ?
A. The clamp on top of the fitter cover
B. The fitter's gasket
C. The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp
D. The vacuum created in the filter

416. What type of filter is shown here ?

A. A magnetic fitter
B. A cartridge type pressure line fitter
C. A suction wire mesh fitter
D. A rotating fitter

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417. What is the correct parts description list of this pressurised filter ?
A. 1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing
B. I = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed cartridge, 3 = Filter body
C. I = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body
D. I = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body

418. How is pump '4" driven from the purifier ?

A. By being directly attached to the gears of the purifier crankcase

B. By electric motor
C. By replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase
D. By lf-belt

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419. What is item 'F’ ?

A. A fuel shut-off solenoid

B. A normal mesh filter/strainer
C. A fine filter
D. A flow meter

420. What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier
(Tin) ?

A. 70 degree C
B. 75 degree C
C. 95 degree C
D. 85 degree C

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421. When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since
the power from the electric motor is transferred by …………. to the purifier

A. a magnetic coupling
B. Friction pads
C. a rotating coupling
D. the bowl spindle

422. What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?

A. A plate battery heat exchanger

B. A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger
C. A finned bank block heat exchanger
D. A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger

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423. If the heated medium of this heater is oil and the heating medium is steam, excess
steam supply or sufficient oil flow could cause excessive …………... in the
heater.

A. deformation
B. corrosion
C. carbon formation
D. pitting

424. What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?

A. Marine diesel
B. Gas oil
C. Distillate diesel
D. Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1)

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425. What are items ‘F’ ?

A. Filters
B. Flow controllers
C. Flow meters
D. Fast shut-off values

426. What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ?

A. To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use

B. As supply source of the system oil
C. To collect the system oil in use
D. All of these.

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427. What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?

A. A heavy fuel oil system

B. A blend fuel oil system
C. A marine diesel oil system
D. A gas oil system

428. What is the component marked ‘BUC’ ?

A. The Blend Unit Caforifier

B. The Base Unit Calorifier
C. The Basic Unit Controller
D. The Blend Unit Controller

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429. Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend
fuel of the required viscosity?

A. The diesel oil and heavyfuel oil booster pumps

B. The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater
C. All of these.
D. The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender

430. Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?

A. In unit H
B. In units DP and FP
C. In unit BUC
D. In unit BU

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431. What are the components marked 'M’ ?

A. Manometers
B. Magnetic shut-off values
C. Flow meters
D. Microprocessors

432. What are the components marked ‘F’ ?

A. Fuel pumps
B. Flow meters
C. Fuel heaters
D. Fuel filters

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433. Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.

A. The blending unit controller BUC

B. The HFO daily tank
C. The blending unit BU
D. The unit H

434. What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?

A. To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

B. To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils
C. To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes
D. To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intend for
purification

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435. In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ?
A. In bilge piping
B. In fuel oil piping
C. In sea water piping
D. In starting air piping

436. If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it
takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change
the ……………….
A. friction pad linings.
B. gravity disc.
C. purifier ball bearings.
D. O-rings and seal set of the bowl.

437. The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is ………………

A. Sall bearings worn out.
B. the wrong gravity disc.
C. dirt between purifier plates.
D. water seal broken.

438. When the density of purified oil has increased, you should …………..
A. Increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
B. Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter.
C. Decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter.
D. Increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc diameter.

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439. During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the
required revolutions ?
A. The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the
starting current.
B. The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast
C. The purifier will make a humming noise
D. The vibrations on the purifier will increase

440. Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great
danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling,
assembling, inspection, maintenance. This is because ……………..
A. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger
is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated.
B. static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing
explosion within the purifier.
C. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor,
various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great.
D. purifier bowls revolve at very high speed causing great centrifugal forces to
act, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.

441. If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be
taken?
A. Order the specific bowl spare part
B. Have it repaired on board if it can be done
C. Sent it to a qualified workshop for repair
D. Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advise only

442. The starting/accelerating current of a purifier is ……………% of the normal

operating current.
A. 100
B. 150
C. 50
D. 250

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443. The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen
correctly, in general the more frequent the interval, the better, however intervals
too short give bad efficiency, intervals too long …………
A. will atso give bad efficiency.
B. may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt.
C. will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge.
D. may result in water seal depletion.

444. As a rule of the thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel oil
purifiers should be….. hours.
A. 4 to 5
B. 2 to 4
C. 6 to 8
D. 6 to 9

445. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 380 cSt
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………. hours.
A. 1 to 2
B. 6 to 8
C. 4 to 6
D. 2 to 4

446. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 180 cSt
heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………hours.
A. 3 to 5
B. 2 to 3
C. 4 to 6
D. 6 to 8

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 DPKP

447. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of
lubricating
oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be………hours.
A. 6
B. 8
C. 4
D. 3

448. As a rule of the thumb, time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating
oil purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set
at……….hours.
A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 6

449. The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a
purifier
are………..
A. the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific
gravity.
B. the bowl speed, the oil temperature and water content.
C. the specific gravity of the oil, the oil temperature and the feed rate.
D. the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.

450. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations.
The
purifying operation is………
A. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and
is called a two-phase operation.

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 B. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation.
C. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids
(water, oil, dirt).
D. the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from ater) and is called a two-phase
operation.

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