DPKP

4. Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol

yang terkait (Operate main andauxiliary machineryand
associatedcontrol systems)
1. A lubricating oil having a high viscosity index number would normally be used
in which of the following situations?
a. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range.
b. When the machinery operates over a wide temperature range.
c. When the machinery operates at a very high temperature.
d. When the machinery operates at a high load.
2. The Base Number of a lubricating oil is an indication of which of the
following?
a. The alkalinity of the oil.
b. The Flash Point of the oil.
c. Amount of contaminants in the lubricating oil.
d. The viscosity of the oil.
3. The diagram shows a the symbol for a component from a hydraulic circuit.
What component does it represent?
a. A directional control valve.
b. A throttle valve.
c. A pressure relief valve.
d. A check valve.
4. There are two basic types of turbocharging systems used for supplying
combustion air to marine diesel engines: constant pressure and pulse. What is
the main difference between these two types of system?
a. A constant pressure system has a larger volume exhaust gas receiver.
b. A constant pressure system has a smaller volume exhaust gas receiver.
c. A constant pressure system has the exhaust pipes from small groups of
cylinders brought together and led directly to a turbocharger.
d. A constant pressure system has a pressure controller fitted to the
exhaust gas receiver to maintain the exhaust pressure.

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5. What is meant by the term "two stage air compressor" ?

a. A compressor in which the compressed air from the first stage is further
compressed in the second stage before being delivered to the air
receiver.
b. A compressor in which the air is delivered to two separate air receivers
each at different pressures.
c. A two cylinder compressor in which half of the air is compressed in
one cylinder and half in the other.
d. A set of two compressors. The first compressor delivers low pressure
air to an air receiver. The second further compresses the air for delivery
to the working range.
6. What is the main effect on lubricating oil of operating for long periods at
excessively high temperature?
a. It will cause the oil to oxidise, increasing the viscosity.
b. It will cause the oil to oxidise, reducing the viscosity.
c. It will cause the oil to evaporate, increasing consumption.
d. It will change the flashpoint of the oil.
7. What is the main reson for keeping engine lubricating oil viscosity within
recommended limits?
a. To ensure the strength of the oil film is sufficient to keep lubricated
surfaces apart.
b. To reduce system pressure losses.
c. To neutralise any acids that may form.
d. It is not important
8. What would be the typical flash point of the lubricating oil in the main
lubricating system of a diesel engine?
a. 200-240 deg C
b. 140-180 deg C
c. Below 140 deg C
d. Above 240 deg C

9. When referring to onboard oil treatments using a centrifuge, what is meant by

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the term purification?

a. Separation of two insoluble liquids with different densities, and the
removal of solids in the same process.
b. Separation of solid contaminants from a liquid during the process.
c. Separation of one insoluble liquid from another.
d. It is a general term applied to a process for cleaning oil using a
centrifuge.
10. Which factor influences the pumping capacity (flow) of a centrifugal pump the
most?
a. Total pressure head
b. Liquid temperature
c. Suction pressure
d. Liquid density
11. Which of the following changes would occur when the temperature of
lubricating oil is reduced?
a. Viscosity would increase.
b. Flash point would increase.
c. Concentration of contaminants would increase.
d. Pour point would reduce.
12. Which of the following fluids usually has the lowest density at normal ambient
temperatures?
a. Lubricating oil.
b. Heavy fuel oil.
c. Sea water.
d. Marine diesel oil.
13. Which of the following is not a principle of heat transfer utilised in an oil fired
steam boiler?
a. Forced convection.
b. Natural convection.
c. Conduction.
d. Radiation.

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14. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?

a. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
b. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers.
c. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder cover.
d. The piston always has a short skirt.
15. Which term is used to refer to the quantity of heat required to raise the
temperature of one kilogram of any particular substance by one degree
Celsius?
a. Specific heat or specific heat capacity.
b. Latent heat
c. Coefficient of thermal expansion.
d. Adiabatic heat
16. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted to heat exchangers in seawater cooling
systems?
a. To prevent corrosion of the metals used in the system.
b. To prevent scale formation in the system.
c. To prevent fouling of the system.
d. To prevent marine growth in the system.
1. Failed O-rings on a 2 stage air compressor cylinder liner have resulted in a
water leak. Where is the leaking water most likely to go when the compressor
is operating?
a. Into the crankcase and mix with the lube oil.
b. Into the LP cylinder.
c. Into the HP cylinder.
d. Into the intercooler.
2. For which duties are gear and screw pumps normally employed?
a. Fuel and lubricating oil services.
b. Jacket cooling water circulation for diesel engines.
c. Bilge pumping.
d. Main sea water circulation systems.
3. From the options given, select the conditions that you would expect to give
best separation results from a centrifuge operating as a purifier.
a. High temperature and low flow rate.
b. High flow rate and low temperature.
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c. High flow rate and high temperature.

d. Low flow rate and low temperature.
4. How is the condenser cooling water flow regulating valve automatically
controlled in a vapour compression refrigeration system?
a. By the compressor discharge pressure.
b. By the temperature in the refrigerated room.
c. By the quantity of refrigerant in the system.
d. By the temperature of the refrigerant after the evaporator.
5. How is the condenser in a fresh water evaporator normally cooled?
a. With seawater
b. With distillate
c. With air
d. With brine

6. How often should an oxygen analyser instrument for the inert gas system be
calibrated?
a. Prior to every plant start-up following a shut down of 8 hours or more.
b. Every time the plant is shut-down
c. At regular intervals
d. On Chief Officers order
7. In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would be considered to be the
maximum allowable chloride level of the boiler water?
a. 300 PPM.
b. 600 PPM.
c. 1000 PPM.
d. 50 PPM.
8. In a low pressure, auxiliary boiler, water tests show that the p-alkalinity is 50
ppm CaCO3. What action should be taken?
a. Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment.
b. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage of boiler water treatment.
c. No action is necessary because this is a normal reading..
d. Reduce dosage of boiler water treatment.
9. In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is the

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probable cause of the processed oil containing water?

a. The gravity disc is too small and/or the flow rate is too high
b. The gravity disc is too large
c. The throughput is too low
d. The back pressure at the clean oil outlet is too high
10. The amp-load for an electric motor driving a centrifugal pump has gradually
reduced over a period of service. The pump is still supplying water but at a
reduced pressure and flow. Which of the alternatives given is the probable
reason for this?
a. The pump impeller and wear rings have worn.
b. The pump is running at a lower speed due to a short circuit in the
electric motor.
c. The pump has suction from a number of sources at the same time.
d. The suction strainer element has been removed so the pump is more
efficient.
11. What action should be taken if a purifier starts to vibrate heavily during normal
operations?
a. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the machine for fouling or
mechanical damage. Donot restart until cause is identified and fault
rectified.
b. Stop the purifier and then restart it
c. Change the flow rate.
d. Leave the purifier running and check it again after its next scheduled
sludge cycle.
12. What action should be taken if the heat transfer capacity of a heat exchanger
operating as a lubricating oil cooler is reducing?
a. The heat transfer surfaces should be cleaned.
b. Increase the cooling water pressure.
c. Decrease the lubricating oil flowrate.
d. Increase the lubricating oil flowrate.
13. What cooling medium is normally used to cool the condenser of a fresh water
generator?
a. Seawater
b. Distillate (Freshwater)
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c. Air
d. Brine
14. What effect does an increased oil feed flow rate have on the performance of a
centrifuge operating as a purifier?
a. Separating efficiency is reduced.
b. Separating efficiency is increased, more water is removed.
c. Separating efficiency is unchanged.
d. Separating efficiency is increased, more solids are removed.
15. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a
centrifugal pump?
a. By throttling of the pump discharge valve.
b. By throttling of the pump suction valve.
c. By adjusting the pump relief valve.
d. By opening the pump recirculation line.
16. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion
valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system?
a. Liquid at high pressure.
b. Vapour at high pressure.
c. Liquid at low pressure.
d. Vapour at low pressure.
17. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board
ship?
a. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using
only sea water.
b. It is a simple system with minimum control requirements.
c. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties.
d. It does not require any seawater.
18. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh
water in a central cooling system?
a. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers.
b. Insufficient cooling water treatment.
c. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the turbochargers.
d. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.
19. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than
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normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator?

a. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned.
b. High fuel oil temperature.
c. Broken water seal.
d. Drive clutch slipping.
20. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a
centrifugal pump when it is running?
a. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation.
b. Water hammer in the pump casing.
c. Fluid friction in the suction line.
d. Pump suction valve fully open.

21. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit?

a. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the evaporator.
b. To control the suction pressure at the compressor.
c. To control the cargo hold temperature.
d. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.
22. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression
refrigeration compressor?
a. The same as the suction pressure.
b. The same as the discharge pressure.
c. The same as the atmospheric pressure.
d. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.
23. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor
discharge of an air conditioning system?
a. + 85 ° C
b. + 5 ° C
c. -10 ° C
d. + 40 ° C
24. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty
oil throughput rate is too great?
a. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to discharge from the

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water outlet.
b. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will be lost.
c. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through
the oil outlet.
d. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.
25. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a
centrifuge in order to ensure good separation?
a. 95 - 98 Celsius.
b. 85 - 88 Celsius
c. 75 - 78 Celsius.
d. 105 - 108 Celsius.
26. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil
based lubricating oil in a centrifuge?
a. 65 -85 C.
b. 45 - 65 C.
c. 85 - 105 C.
d. < 45 C.
27. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a
refrigeration compressor?
a. + 1.0 bar
b. - 0.5 bar
c. + 5.0 bar
d. + 10 bar
28. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low
pressure auxiliary boiler?
a. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3.
b. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3.
c. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3.
d. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.
29. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the
discharge valve closed for an extended period of time?
a. The pump will eventually overheat.
b. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to the bilge.
c. The electric motor will eventually overheat.
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d. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.

30. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling
water flow through the condenser?
a. Increased delivery pressure
b. Reduced delivery pressure
c. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line.
d. reduced suction pressure
31. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier
arrangement, what is the purpose of the clarifier?
a. To improve the efficiency of solids removal.
b. To stabilise the feed temperature.
c. To increase the overall throughput rate.
d. To improve the efficiency of water removal.
32. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning
system evaporator icing up?
a. Too low suction pressure.
b. Too high discharge pressure.
c. Low sea water temperature.
d. High sea water temperature..
33. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air
compressors?
a. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
b. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston.
c. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second
stage.
d. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery
from each stage is equal.
34. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat
exchanger during operation?
a. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for both fluids.
b. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid.
c. Pressure drop for cooling water.
d. Outlet temperatures for both fluids
35. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the
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cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator?

a. Chromates are poisonous.
b. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water generators.
c. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh water generator.
d. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in
any cooling water system.
36. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors?
a. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase when the
compressor is stopped.
b. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil..
c. To boil off any water from condensation in the crankcase.
d. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.
37. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling
systems?
a. To prevent biological growth in the system.
b. To prevent corrosion of the system
c. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system.
d. To reduce sediment build up in the system.
38. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water
pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system?
a. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central cooling system in the
event of seal failure.
b. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side
c. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat exchanger.
d. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.
39. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is
the difference between a purifier and a clarifier.
a. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil, whereas in a purifier
both solids and water are removed from the oil
b. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force
c. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil.
d. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.
1. A ship has a medium speed engine and a controllable pitch propeller
propulsion system. What would the propeller pitch normally have to be at to
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allow starting of the engine?

a. Zero
b. 25 % ahead
c. 10 % ahead
d. 25 % astern
2. After water-washing the turbocharger exhaust side it starts to vibrate even
though it was operating normally prior to the washing procedure. What is the
most likely cause of this problem?
a. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned
b. Water drain for washing system is blocked allowing water to build up
in the turbine casing.
c. The foundation bolts for the turbocharger are loose.
d. The turbocharger bearings are worn out.
3. Choose the option which most accurately completes the following statement.
The expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a
positive head on the system and also to……
a. Allow for changes in water volume due to temperature variation
(expansion)
b. Reduce the water temperature
c. Reduce the water turbulence
d. Provide an air cushion
4. How is the effective delivery stroke of a helix type fuel pump for a diesel
engine controlled to increase or decrease the quantity of fuel delivered?
a. Rotation of the plunger by the fuel rack from the governor signal.
b. The fuel rail pressure relief valve setting.
c. The fuel injector setting.
d. The fuel booster pump delivery pressure.

5. How is the temperature of the high temperature circuit of a central cooling

system normally controlled?
a. By mixing with water from the low temperature circuit.
b. By controlling the bypass of flow for the central coolers.

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c. By increasing the flow rate through the main engine cooling circuit
d. By controlling the flow through the fresh water evaporator heating
circuit.
6. In a diesel engine lubrication system the circulating pump normally takes
suction from the oil sump tank. Where would the oil normally pass to directly
after the pump?
a. Lube oil cooler.
b. Main thrust bearing.
c. The engine bearings.
d. The lub oil purifier.
7. The exhaust gas temperatures of all cylinders of a diesel engine are seen to be
high. Select, from the options given, the most likely cause of this.
a. Poor fuel oil quality.
b. High wear rate in one of the fuel injection pumps.
c. One of the fuel cams is worn.
d. Insufficient cooling of the main bearings.
8. The level in a diesel engine lubricating oil sump has increased noticably during
operation without any new oil being added. What action would you take?
a. Stop the engine and check for a fuel or water leak.
b. Continue normal operation.
c. Drain some oil from the engine to reduce the level.
d. Reduce the engine load and check for a fuel or water leak.
9. The lubricating oil in the bearing housing at the turbine end of a turbocharger
gets very dirty after only a few hours in service. What is the most likely reason
for this happening?
a. Damaged rotor shaft sealing bushes allowing exhaust gas to leak into
the bearing housing.
b. The wrong type of lubricating oil has been used.
c. The lubricating oil filling connection screw cap is missing.
d. The turbine end bearing is badly worn.
10. The main engine turbocharger speed has increased during the night while
operating in UMS mode. From the options given, what is the most likely cause
of this?
a. The engine load has increased due to external factors such as current
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and wind.
b. The engine is operating on a different grade of fuel.
c. The engine load has reduced due to external factors such as current and
wind.
d. The governor signal has been overridden by the bridge.
11. What could be the most likely reason for an increase in the viscosity of a diesel
engine lubricating oil during operation?
a. Fuel oil leakage into the lub oil system.
b. Worn bearing shells.
c. Water-leakage into the lub oil system.
d. Increased lub oil temperature.
12. What could cause diesel engine lubricating oil to appear cloudy with a slightly
"milky" colour?
a. Water contamination of the system.
b. Fuel contamination of the system.
c. High temperature of the oil.
d. Oxidation of the oil.
13. What is likely to be the cause of black smoke from a diesel engine exhaust
seen at the funnel?
a. Incomplete combustion of the fuel.
b. Too much combustion air.
c. Water in the fuel.
d. Engine is burning some lubricating oil.
14. What is the purpose of an oil mist detector, OMD, as fitted to a diesel engine?
a. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown of any potentially explosive
atmosphere in the crankcase.
b. To check the efficiency of the crankcase extractor fan.
c. To detect scavenge air leakages from the piston rod stuffing box.
d. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown in the event of a crankcase
explosion.

15. What is the purpose of diesel engine cylinder head safety valve?
a. To indicate and relieve excessive high pressure in the cylinder to

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protect the engine frombeing damaged.

b. To allow adjustment of the cylinder pressure to a safe working
pressure.
c. To shut down the engine in the event of an unsafe operating condition.
d. To shut off the fuel to a the cylinder in the event of a high pressure fuel
pipe leak.
16. What is the recommended range for the pH-value for the water in a diesel
engine cooling system engine cooling water be maintained?
a. Between 7 and 10.
b. Between 5 and 7.
c. Above 10
d. Below 5.
17. What would be the most probable cause of light, smoky exhaust from a diesel
engine?
a. Water carry over from charge air cooler to engine cylinders.
b. Fouling of the charge air cooler.
c. Air in the fuel oil system.
d. The engine is overloaded.
18. What would be the most probable cause of the exhaust gas temperature from
one cylinder of a diesel engine being lower than normal?
a. The opening pressure for the injection valve for the cylinder is set too
high.
b. There is air in the fuel oil system.
c. The intake filter for turbo charger is partly fouled.
d. The camshaft chain is too slack.
19. When should adjustments to the fuel injection valve spring tension be made?
a. Only on the fuel injection valve test rig.
b. During engine operation when cylinder exhaust temperatures need to be
balanced.
c. During engine operation when cylinder maximum pressures need to be
balanced.
d. During engine operation when fuel timing to individual cylinders needs
to be adjusted.

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20. Which of the following options would be the cause of a low exhaust
temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine?
a. Faulty fuel injection valve.
b. Faulty turbocharger.
c. Poor quality fuel.
d. Charge air cooler fouled on air side.
21. Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ?
a. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution.
b. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers.
c. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder cover.
d. The piston always has a short skirt.
22. Which would be the most suitable point in the system to obtain a representative
of diesel engine lubricating oil for analysis?
a. From the lubricating system pipeline on the discharge side of the
circulating pump.
b. From the lubricating oil filter drain.
c. From the lubricating oil cooler drain.
d. From the lubricating oil purifier outlet.
23. Why are duplex filters usually employed in the lubricating oil system of an
auxiliary diesel engine?
a. Changing of the filter element can be carried out without interrupting
engine operation.
b. It gives better filtration of the oil.
c. The pressure drop is half that of a single filter unit.
d. Filter blockage will not occur.
24. Why is it necessary to have routine testing of diesel engine cooling water
systems?
a. To ensure that the recommended levels of treatment chemicals are
maintained at all times.
b. To detect water leakage from the system.
c. It is not really necessary to test diesel engine cooling water systems.

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d. To check for oil contamination of the system.

25. With reference to diesel engine ancillary system operation, which one of the
given statements is true?
a. The normal jacket water temperature before the jacket water cooler is
approximately 80 to 90 C.
b. The normal scavenge air temperature after the charge air cooler is
approximately 80 to 90 C.
c. The normal temperature of the lubricating oil before the lub oil cooler
is approximately 80 to 90 C.
d. The normal temperature of heavy fuel oil after the fuel oil heater is
approximately 80 to 90 C.
26. With reference to non-VIT diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps that have
helix control, how is the timing of fuel injection normally adjusted?
a. By raising or lowering the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel.
b. By rotating the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel.
c. By changing the governor output signal.
d. By changing the opening pressure setting for the fuel injection valves.
1. A rating on boiler watch notices water coming from the safety valve chest
drain while the boiler is in operation. What action should be taken by the
rating?
a. Contact the engineer officer of the watch and inform him immediately.
b. Put a bucket under the drain to prevent the deck becoming wet and
slippery.
c. Operate the safety valve using the release gear to try and get it to reseat
tightly.
d. Hit the safety valve with a hammer to try and get it to reseat tightly.
2. As part of the routine duties a rating on boiler watch is requested to assist with
the daily chemical treatment for the boiler and feed water systems. Where will
the rating find the information relating to the hazards associated with the
chemicals involved in this task?
a. The material safety data sheets supplied with the chemicals.
b. The Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seamen.
c. The engine room log book.
d. The Chief Engineer's standing orders.
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3. In the event of the water level disappearing out of the boiler water level gauge
glass; what should be the first action to be taken?
a. Secure all of the burners
b. Call the chief engineer
c. Close the feed-water stop valve
d. Close the main steam stop valve
4. One of the two water level gauge glasses on the high pressure boiler steam
drum has started leaking quite heavily. What action, from the options given,
should the boiler watch rating take?
a. Inform the Officer of the watch immediately so that arrangements can
be made to replace the leaking glass.
b. Place a bucket underneath the leak to catch the water to prevent the
area becoming slippery.
c. Try and stop the leak by tightening up the clamping bolts as much as
possible.
d. Shut the steam and water connections to the gauge glass to minimise
the loss of water and just use the other glass to check the water level.
5. Simple gauge glasses for indicating the boiler water level, such as the one
shown here, are often fitted to low pressure boilers. What would be a
reasonable schedule for blowing through the gauge glasses to make sure they
are reading correctly?
a. At least once a day
b. At least once a month
c. At least once an hour
d. At least once a week
6. Steam escaping from the area of the bottom water header handhole doors of a
high pressure boiler generating superheated steam is observed by the engine
rating on watch. What action should be taken?
a. Immediately inform the Officer of the Watch.
b. Use the hand to have a feel around the area to try and locate the exact
position of the leak.
c. Check the area where it is thought the leak may be using a cloth on the
end of a broom handle.
d. Pass the information that there is a leak to the relief at the end of the
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watch.
7. To minimise the risk of damage what type of tools should be used to clean
boiler burner tips?
a. Brass tools
b. Steel tools
c. Wooden tools
d. Any kind of tools that are available
8. What action should be taken before carrying out a bottom blowdown on a
steam boiler?
a. Raise the water level a few centimeters above normal working level.
b. Drop the water level a few centimeters below normal working level.
c. Shut off the burner.
d. Switch on the auxiliary feed pump.
9. What is the first action that should be taken by the rating on boiler watch in the
event of a flame failure on the boiler?
a. Call the engineer on watch
b. Call the chief engineer
c. Notify the bridge
d. Stop the feed water pump
10. What is the first thing that should be checked when taking over a boiler watch?
a. The boiler water level
b. The boiler room bilge level
c. The oil pressure to the burner
d. The boiler exhaust gas colour
11. What is the main purpose of an observation tank in a boiler feed system?
a. To check condensate returns for oil.
b. To allow dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals.
c. To allow the boiler water level to be monitored.
d. To provide a convenient point for boiler water test samples.
12. What is the main purpose of bottom-blowing a boiler?
a. To remove any accumulated sludge from the water drum.
b. To control the water level of the boiler during normal operation.
c. To check the operation of the water gauge glasses.
d. To allow boiler water samples to be collected for testing.
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13. What is the most likely cause of black smoke at the boiler exhaust during
normal operation of a steam boiler?
a. Insufficient combustion air.
b. Too much combustion air.
c. Water in the fuel.
d. Fuel oil temperature too high.
14. What is the most likely cause of the boiler exhaust gas being white in colour
leaving the funnel?
a. Too much combustion air.
b. Insufficient combustion air.
c. A faulty or dirty burner tip
d. Low water level in the boiler.

15. What is the term used to refer to the valve that prevents backflow of water
from the boiler to the feed water system?
a. Feed-check valve
b. Feed-stop valve
c. Bottom-blow valve
d. Safety valve
16. When cleaning boiler burner nozzles that have just been in service the watch
rating notices that the nozzle holes are partially blocked. Which one is the
preferred method to use in order to avoid damaging the nozzle holes?
a. Use cleaning wires starting with a small gauge and gradually work up
to the full size of the nozzle hole.
b. Use a standard drill bit in a hand drill to clear the blockage.
c. Poke the holes clear with a welding rod which has been ground down
to size.
d. Knock the nozzle repeatedly on the work bench to try and dislodge the
blockage.
17. When the boiler safety valves operate due to the boiler pressure being too high
the excess steam is discharged to _______
a. the atmosphere via the atmospheric line

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b. the main condenser

c. the auxiliary condenser
d. the engineroom bilges
18. Where would you normally expect to find the air vent cock on a steam boiler?
a. At the highest point of the steam drum.
b. At the superheater outlet
c. At the feed water inlet pipe connection.
d. On the highest point of the steam range.
19. Which of the following could cause a blowback from a steam boiler oil fired
furnace?
a. Trying to ignite burner from hot brickwork
b. Having the fuel oil pressure too high
c. Having the fuel oil temperature too high
d. Opening air registers too quickly
20. Which of the given options best completes the following statement? You
should never attempt to light a boiler until ______
a. the furnace purge sequence is completed.
b. the air register is fully open.
c. the feed water pump is running.
d. the gauge glass shows the water at normal working level.
21. While on boiler watch in the engine room a rating is requested to assist with
taking on stores. The task will take about half an hour. What should the rating
do?
a. Contact the engine officer on watch for permission to assist and to
arrange a relief for the duration of the store taking.
b. Raise the boiler water level above normal to make sure there is
sufficient water while he is busy with the stores.
c. Go and help with the stores but go back and check the boiler every 10
minutes.
d. Just ignore the request to assist with the stores.
22. While on boiler watch on an automatically controlled steam boiler the rating
notices that the burner has failed to light following a drop in steam pressure.
What action should be taken?
a. Call the duty engineer immediately using the engineers call alarm.
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b. Try and light the boiler burner manually.

c. Shut the steam stop valve to stop the steam pressure falling further.
d. Stop the feed water pump immediately in case the boiler overfills.
23. Why is it important that the combustion chamber of a boiler is properly
ventilated prior to ignition?
a. To avoid an explosion in case any oil vapours are present from oil
leakage into the furnace.
b. To ensure that there is sufficient air for proper combustion.
c. To cool the surfaces of the boiler furnace in case they give premature
ignition of the burner.
d. To remove any deposits from the furnace wall.

24. Why should boiler sootblowers normally only be operated in the correct
sequence?
a. To ensure soot is cleared progressively from the bottom tubes to the top
and toward the boiler uptakes.
b. To minimise loss of steam pressure.
c. So that the operator does not forget which sootblowers have been used.
d. To avoid excess stress in the boiler.
1. In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic circuit, which of the alternatives
does the following symbol indicate?
a. Double check valve.
b. Throttle valve.
c. Pressure relief valve.
d. Directional control valve.
1. A piston ring set for a trunk piston engine often includes a slotted ring
tensioned by an internal spring. What is the purpose of this type of piston ring?
a. It is an oil control ring.
b. It is the lowest compression ring.
c. It is a ring to seal the crankcase from the combustion chamber.
d. It is the firing ring.
2. During the cycle of a four stroke diesel engine there is a load reversal on the
bottom end bearing when the load transfers from the upper part of the bearing

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to the lower part. What is the main cause of this load reversal on a modern,
turbocharged, medium speed diesel engine?
a. The lack of gas load to oppose the inertial forces generated during the
exhaust stroke.
b. The suction effect on the piston during the air intake (induction) stroke.
c. The inertial forces generated during the upward strokes of the piston
(compression and exhaust strokes).
d. The light alloy materials used for the piston skirt.
3. During the normal operating cycle of a diesel engine there are side thrusts
generated by the piston as it moves up and down the cylinder due to the
changing angle of the connecting rod. How are these side thrusts
accommodated in a trunk piston engine?
a. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the engine frame
by the piston skirt in way of the gudgeon pin.
b. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the engine frame
by the piston rings.
c. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the engine frame
by the piston crown.
d. The side thrust is transmitted to the engine frame by the crosshead
bearing.

4. Many modern medium and high speed diesel engines operate at very high
power ratings resulting in relatively high bearing loads. In order to
accommodate these loads the bearings are required to have a high load
carrying capacity. What kind of bearings are normally used for main and
bottom end purposes to achieve this?
a. Thin steel shells lined with aluminium tin alloys.
b. Thick white metal types with the white metal cast into the keeps to give
extra fatigue strength.
c. Thin steel shells with a thin white metal lining.
d. Thin steel shells with a copper lead lining and a running in overlay.

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5. Some main propulsion medium speed engine installations operate with a

hydraulic oil type fluid coupling between the engine and the reduction gearbox
instead of a mechanical clutch. With this type of installation a separate
flexible coupling is not normally fitted. Why is a separate flexible coupling
usually omitted from this type of installation?
a. The hydraulic fluid in the coupling isolates the gearbox from the engine
vibrations.
b. There is insufficient room to fit a flexible coupling between the engine
and gearbox when a fluid coupling is fitted.
c. There is natural slippage between the drive and driven parts of the fluid
coupling and a flexible coupling would prevent this slippage.
d. There are no engine torque variations in the drive when a fluid coupling
is used so a flexible coupling is not required.
6. The majority of medium speed main propulsion installations incorporate a
reduction gearbox between the engine and the propeller shaft. Why is this
arrangement usually required?
a. So that the propeller operates in a relatively efficient speed range.
b. So that the engine can be more easily reversed.
c. So that the engine can be coupled to a controllable pitch propeller.
d. So that the engine can also drive a shaft alternator.

7. The peak pressure (maximum cylinder pressure) is often taken as an indicator

of medium speed engine performance along with other parameters. What
would be a typical peak pressure for a modern, highly rated, medium speed
diesel engine?
a. 140 to 180 bar
b. 80 to 100 bar
c. 14 to 18 bar
d. 10 to 12 bar
8. The Total Base Number (TBN) is important as a measure of neutralizing
ability of a diesel engine lubricating oil against strong acids formed during
combustion. What action should be taken if the results from an oil analysis

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show that the TBN of the lubricating oil has reduced slightly?
a. Freshen up the system by draining of some of the oil and adding a
quantity of fresh oil.
b. Purify the system oil in a centrifuge.
c. Take another lub oil sample and send it for analysis.
d. Pump the oil to a renovating tank and allow any contaminants to settle
out and refill the system with new oil.
9. What is the reason for fitting 'Rotocaps' to the cylinder head valves of some 4-
stroke diesel engines?
a. To extend the service life of the valves by giving even heat and wear
distribution.
b. To rotate the inlet valves during operation to improve air turbulence in
the cylinder.
c. To help clear the cylinder of exhaust gas by spinning the exhaust valves
during opening.
d. To prevent seizure of the cylinder head valves by keeping the valve
spindles clean.

10. When operating a propulsion installation consisting of medium speed diesel

engines driving a controllable pitch propeller it is possible to operate the
combination of engine speed and propeller pitch in a number of different ways.
What would be the main reason for operating with constant speed and variable
pitch?
a. To allow constant speed operation of a shaft generator while the engine
load changes with pitch variation.
b. To obtain maximum propeller efficiency over the load range of the
engine.
c. To allow the engine to be operated with a load sensing governor instead
of a speed sensing governor.

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d. To allow rapid load change and thrust reversal when manoeuvring.

11. Which of the given statements is true in relation to the features and operation
of a 4 stroke diesel engine ?
a. The camshaft rotates with half the RPM of the crankshaft in a 4 stroke
engine.
b. A 4 stroke engine has an ignition towards the end of every upward
stroke of the piston.
c. A 4 stroke engine always has scavenge ports near the bottom of the
cylinder liner.
d. 4 stroke engines are not required to have crankcase relief valves fitted.
12. Which symptoms would indicate piston blow-by when operating a 4 stroke
trunk piston type engine ?
a. Increased pressure in the crankcase and smoke at the crankcase vent.
b. Increased pressure in the air inlet manifold.
c. Increased temperature in the inlet air manifold on the engine.
d. Smoke and sparks from the scavenge manifold drains..
1. A slow speed diesel engine is fitted with a slow turning facility. How would
the slow turning normally be set to operate?
a. It should automatically operate before the normal start sequence
following an engine stopped period of more than 20 to 30 minutes
when manoeuvring.
b. It should automatically operate before every normal start sequence.
c. It should automatically operate every 20 minutes when the engine is
stopped during manoeuvring.
d. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence
following an engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes.
2. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an
engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes.
In the event of a severe scavenge fire, which of the following is most likely to
be seriously damaged?
a. Piston rod and stuffing box.
b. Exhaust valve.
c. Piston crown.
d. Crosshead bearing.
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3. Large slow speed diesel engines are usually of the crosshead type and have
various arrangements to deliver lubricating oil directly to the crosshead
bearings and guides to ensure adequate lubrication. Why are the crosshead
bearings considered differently to the other bearing in this type of engine in
respect of lubrication requirements?
a. The running surfaces oscillate relative to each other during operation
rather than rotate and therefore full film hydrodynamic lubrication is
not possible.
b. The lubricating oil has further to travel to the crosshead bearing and so
a separate arrangement is necessary
c. The crosshead bearing is more heavily loaded than other bearings in the
engine so requires more oil to keep it cool.
d. The crosshead bearing is closer to the engine cylinder and therefore
runs hotter.

4. Many large 2 stroke marine diesel engines are equipped with an auxiliary
scavenge air blower. What is the purpose of this equipment?
a. To provide combustion air at start up, during manouevring and low
load running when the turbocharger delivery is insufficient.
b. To assist the main turbochargers in supplying combustion air when on
full load.
c. To allow full load running when the main turbocharger is defective..
d. To help cool the engine after it has been stopped.
5. Many large slow speed diesel engines operating on heavy fuel oil have a fuel
injection system which features Variable Injection Timing. How does this
affect engine operation?
a. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the
maximum cylinder pressure over part of the load range.
b. VIT improves engine operation by automatically controlling the start of
fuel injection when it detects a poor quality fuel.
c. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the

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maximum cylinder pressure over the entire load range.

d. VIT allows the ship's engineers to alter the injection timing for each
load setting with a simple single adjustment of the fuel rack.
6. Many modern large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion
operate with a so called constant pressure turbocharging system. What is meant
by constant pressure when used to describe such a turbocharging system?
a. Pressure variations at the turbocharger inlet are damped out due to the
large volume of the exhaust receiver and the short lengths of pipe from
individual cylinders.
b. Pressure variations in the scavenge air supply are avoided by
supplementing the air supply with air from the auxiliary blowers so
keeping a constant pressure across the load and speed range.
c. The exhaust pipes from groups of three cylinders are joined together
before entry into the turbocharger so that the exhaust pulses from each
cylinder cancel each other giving a constant inlet pressure.
d. The exhaust gas pressure is maintained constant by using a bypass
waste gate to dump excess pressure at high engine loads.
7. Modern large slow speed diesel engines operate with very efficient
turbochargers. This has resulted in much later opening of the exhaust valve as
less energy is needed to drive the turbocharger giving exhaust timing which is
almost symmetrical about bottom dead centre. How has this affected the
reversing operation of the engines?
a. Only the fuel and starting air timing needs to be changed to reverse the
engine.
b. It has no effect and the reversing requirements of the engine are still the
same.
c. The engine can be reversed by simply repositioning the main camshaft.
d. Only the air start distributor has to be repositioned prior to reversing
the engine.
8. Modern slow speed, two stroke diesel engines often have locating pins or pegs
to keep the piston rings in a fixed position. Why is this arrangement used?
a. It avoids the risk of the ends of the piston rings being forced out by the
gas pressure and catching on the scavenge ports.
b. The piston rings are more difficult to lubricate because of the slow
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operating speeds and will wear more quickly if they are allowed to
rotate.
c. The piston ring gaps can be kept in line to control the gas pressure on
each of the rings.
d. It ensures the rings cannot be mixed up and that they are fitted in the
correct order on the piston.
9. The majority of large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion
purposes are direct drive to a fixed pitch propeller? What is the main reason for
this arrangement?
a. A fixed pitch propeller can operate with reasonable efficiency at the
same sort of speed as the engine.
b. Controllable pitch propellers cannot be used with large slow speed
diesel engines which can be reversed.
c. The amount of power that needs to be transmitted would overload a
gearbox.
d. There is usually only one engine sin this arrangement and so clutches
are not required.

10. What is one of the main features of the cylinder lubricating oil used in large 2
stroke marine diesel engines which normally operate on heavy fuel oil?
a. It is strongly alkaline.
b. It is strongly acidic.
c. It is neutral with a pH value of 7.
d. It is a pure mineral oil without any special additives.
11. What is the main reason for sometimes having a separate forced lubrication
system for the camshaft on large cross head engines?
a. To prevent any fuel leakage from the high pressure fuel pumps
contaminating the oil in the main lubrication system.
b. Because the camshaft system uses a different grade oil from that used
in the main lubrication system.
c. To prevent the camshaft system being contaminated with any water

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leaking into the main lubrication system from faulty cylinder liner
seals.
d. Because the camshaft lubrication system has a lower pressure than the
main lubrication system.
12. Why is it important to check the timing of diesel engine cylinder oil
lubricators?
a. To ensure cylinder lubricating oil enters the cylinders when the piston
is in the required position.
b. To ensure the correct amount of cylinder lubricating oil is fed into the
cylinders.
c. To avoid excess pressure in the cylinder lubrication system.
d. To ensure the piston is not covering the lubrication points and blocking
the flow of cylinder lubricating oil into the cylinder.
1. Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to
be 50 ppm. What action should be taken if any?
a. No action is necessary.
b. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals.
c. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of treatment chemicals.
d. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before filling with fresh
feed water.
2. Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double
shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve.
What is the main function of the non-return valve?
a. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out
through the feed line if the feed line fractures or a joint in the line
blows.
b. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is
shut and the boiler is steaming.
c. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump..
d. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.
3. From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most
accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers.
a. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain less water
than fire tube boilers. They are prone to major damage when run dry
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during operation.
b. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam
pressure.
c. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water
when the burner is operating.
d. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater
line.
4. How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler?
a. Every day.
b. Every week.
c. Every hour.
d. Every hour.

5. Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm.
What action should be taken?
a. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage.
b. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals.
c. Increase feed water temperature.
d. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.
6. Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most
beneficial?
a. When the boiler is firing on high rate.
b. When the boiler burner is off.
c. When the boiler is firing on low rate.
d. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.
7. What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9?
a. Increase the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH value
is back within normal range.
b. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good feedwater.
c. No action is required.
d. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH is
back within normal range.
8. What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the pH-value in

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the boiler water is slightly over 11.5?

a. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water treatment
chemicals.
b. No action is required this is the normal level.
c. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment
chemicals.
d. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute the contents.
9. What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler
water?
a. Conductivity test.
b. Alkalinity test.
c. Chloride test.
d. pH test

10. What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam
boiler?
a. 9 - 11.
b. 4.5 - 7.
c. Below 4.5
d. 7 – 9
11. What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system?
a. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of
overheating.
b. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler.
c. It increases scale deposits in the boiler.
d. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator
from seeing the water level.
12. What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system?
a. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water.
b. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment.
c. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water.
d. To act as the primary feed heater.
13. What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure

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steam boiler?
a. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam
pressure or when the boiler is not on-line.
b. To remove air from the superheater.
c. To remove water from the superheater.
d. To control the superheater pressure during operation.
14. What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based
compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried
out?
a. It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the boiler.
b. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in the boiler.
c. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler.
d. No negative effects are likely.

15. What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler?
a. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on the surface
of the water in the boiler steam drum.
b. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feed-water
c. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may collect in the bottom
of the boiler water drum.
d. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.
16. What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant?
a. To heat the feed-water
b. To desuperheat the steam
c. To heat the fuel oil
d. To heat the combustion air.
17. What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired stea boiler furnace?
a. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other
fittings from overheating.
b. To give added strength to the furnace.
c. To support the steam drum.

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d. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.

18. What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit
of oil or gas fired steam boilers?
a. To check that the flame is present during start up or normal operation
of the burner; if not then fuel is shut off automatically.
b. To check the colour of the flame.
c. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler.
d. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.
19. What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water
tests?
a. At room temperature.
b. As hot as possible.
c. It makes no difference.
d. At less than room temperature.
20. What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing
condensate to build up in the heat exchanger?
a. Reduced heating capacity of the heater.
b. An increase in fuel oil temperature.
c. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger.
d. Low water level in the boiler.
21. Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from?
a. From the boiler water space.
b. From the boiler steam space.
c. From the boiler feed system.
d. From the blowdown line.

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